Type:
Test Bank
Resource:
Fundamentals of Physics, Extended
Edition:
12th Edition
Author(s):
David Halliday Robert Resnick Jearl Walker
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 01 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 01
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows two length scales, one in Smoots and the other in Walkers. What is a length of 23 Smoots in the unit of Walkers?
a) 724 b) 129 c) 150 d) 531 e) 227 f) 167 g) 73 h) 410 i) 823 j) 207
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Express the length of an object in SI units Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.3 Change units by using chain-link conversions Section Reference 1: Section 1.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 02 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 02
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) Here is the position function for a particle moving along an x axis: x(t ) = −3.00 − 4.00t + t 2 in meters and seconds. Where is the particle (m) at t = 3 s? a) -7.82 b) 3.00 c) -0.124 d) 6.24 e) -0.56 f) -4.00 g) 2.22 h) -6.00 i) 1.22 j) 0
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.1
2) Here is the position function for a particle moving along an x axis: x(t ) = −3.00 − 4.00t + t 2 in meters and seconds. Where is the particle (m) when it changes its direction of travel? a) -7.00 b) -4.75 c) 0.55 d) -1.30 e) -5.00 f) -5.22 g) 1.30 h) -1.22 i) 2.61 j) 0 Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.2
3) A particle enters a region at velocity +600 m/s along an x axis and begins to accelerate at the constant rate of +4.00 103 m/s2. How much time (s) does it take to travel 16.00 m? a) 9.03 10−4 b) 8.56 10−3 c) 1.24 10−3 d) 5.43 10−1 e) 5.27 10−2 f) 1.15 10−4 g) 5.1110−4 h) 1.3110−2 i) 2.46 10−2 j) 3.2110−3 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.4
4) The figure shows a car and truck side by side at time t = 0. Just then car’s velocity is zero car’s constant acceleration is 5.00 m/s2 truck’s velocity is constant 45.0 m/s When the car and truck are again side by side, how far (m) down the road have they traveled?
a) 90.5 b) 265 c) 233 d) 452
e) 580 f) 360 g) 810 h) 540 i) 125 j) 100 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 5) In the figure, a beverage can is dropped (released) from a height of y0 = 80.0 m. How much time (s) does it take to fall from height y1 = 60.0 m to height y2 = 10.0 m? (In your calculation, hold 4 or 5 significant figures until the last step.)
a) 1.46 b) 1.76 c) 0.480 d) 1.17 e) 0.455 f) 0.538 g) 0.626 h) 0.305 i) 0.723 j) 1.99 Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.5
6) The first figure gives a (reality) picture of a toy car moving along an x axis, first leftward and then rightward. Which of the ten graphs best gives the car’s position x versus time t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 i) 9 j) 10 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.1
7) The first figure gives the position x versus time t for a particle moving along an x axis at constant acceleration. Which of the seven graphs best gives the velocity v versus time t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.2
8) Here is a position function (in meters and seconds) for a crazed squirrel running along an x axis:
x = 4 − 3t + 4t 2 . Which of the cartoons here best shows the squirrel’s motion, starting at t = 0?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
f) 6 Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.1
9) Here is a position function (in meters and seconds) for a crazed squirrel running along an x axis:
x = 4 − 3t + 4t 2 . Which of the graphs here best shows the squirrel’s motion, starting at t = 0?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.1
10) Moving in a straight line, a particle enters a region with an initial velocity of 200 m/s and begins to slow at a constant rate, stopping in 5.00 s. How far (m) did it move while slowing to a stop? a) 90 b) 500 c) 270 d) 184
e) 126 f) 450 g) 235 h) 282 i) 84 j) 750 Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.4
11) The figure shows a car and truck at time t = 0. At what coordinate (m) along the x axis are they sideby-side for a moment? Here are the initial data: Car: at x = 0, at rest, begins to accelerate at constant +3.00 m/s2. Truck: at xT0 = 20.0 m, is moving at a constant velocity of +30.0 m/s
a) 92 b) 500 c) 70 d) 144 e) 750 f) 360 g) 342 h) 180 i) 639 j) 66 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.4
12) Here is the position function of toy car moving along an x axis, with x in meters and t in seconds: x = 30 − 4.0t + 12t 2 − 2.0t 3 . What is the velocity (m/s) at t = 2.0 s? a) 26 b) 18 c) 16 d) -10 e) 8.0 f) -30 g) 32 h) -24 i) 20 j) -16 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.2
13) Here is a position function of toy car moving along an x axis, with x in meters and t in seconds: x = 30 − 4.0t + 12t 2 − 2.0t 3 . What is the x coordinate (m) of the particle when the acceleration is 0? a) 54 b) 39 c) 43 d) 33 e) 0 f) -12 g) 6.0 h) 15 i) -5.0 j) 12 Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.3
14) A beverage can is dropped from a height of 20.0 m above ground. What is its height (m) when there is 0.520 s left in the fall? a) 12.2 b) 5.70 c) 1.12 d) 2.32 e) 13.2 f) 8.97 g) 11.7 h) 5.44 i) 18.7 j) 6.94 Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.5
15) A beverage can is dropped from a height of 20.0 m above ground. What is its speed (m/s) when there is 0.520 s left in the fall? a) 4.40 b) 12.7 c) 8.77 d) 6.14 e) 14.7 f) 3.10 g) 18.0 h) 5.67 i) 9.15 j) 5.10
Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.5
16) The first figure here shows a taco that is thrown upward from the edge of a Taco Bell building; it barely misses the building on its way down. Which of the graphs here best gives the taco’s position y versus time t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 i) 9 j) 10 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.5
17) The first figure here shows a taco that is thrown upward from the edge of a Taco Bell building; it barely misses the building on its way down. Which of the graphs here best gives the taco’s velocity v versus time t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 i) 9 j) 10 Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.5
18) An electric vehicle starts from rest and accelerates at a constant rate of 3.0 m/s2 along an x axis until it reaches a speed of 30 m/s. The vehicle then slows at a constant rate of 2.0 m/s2 until it stops. How far (m) has it traveled? a) 135 b) 375 c) 350 d) 200 e) 280 f) 150 g) 400 h) 240 i) 600 j) 140 Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 2.4
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 03 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 03
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows two vectors that run along coordinate axes. What is the direction of the cross product A B ?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
2) In an overhead view, the figure shows two straight segments of the walk of an armadillo: d1 = 5.00 m, d2 = 12.0 m, = 60.0 (not drawn to scale). What is the magnitude (m) of the displacement vector that
points from start to finish?
a) 8.78 b) 11.2 c) 7.84 d) 10.4 e) 4.10 f) 5.05 g) 8.07 h) 6.21 i) 7.35 j) 9.58
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.1
ˆ B = −5iˆ + 3jˆ + 2k. ˆ What is A + B ? 3) Here are two vectors: A = 4iˆ + 3jˆ − 2k, a) 4iˆ − 4jˆ + 3kˆ b) ˆi + 0jˆ + 4kˆ c) −ˆi + 6jˆ + 0kˆ d) 4iˆ + 0jˆ − 2kˆ e) 4iˆ + 4jˆ + 3kˆ f) 9iˆ + 0jˆ − 4kˆ
g) 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ h) 4iˆ + 6jˆ + 2kˆ i) −ˆi − 6jˆ + 0kˆ j) 10iˆ − 4jˆ − 7kˆ
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.2
ˆ B = −5iˆ + 3jˆ + 2k. ˆ What is A − B ? 4) Here are two vectors: A = 4iˆ + 3jˆ − 2k, a) 4iˆ − 4jˆ + 3kˆ b) ˆi + 0jˆ + 4kˆ c) −ˆi + 6jˆ + 0kˆ d) 4iˆ + 0jˆ − 2kˆ e) 4iˆ + 4jˆ + 3kˆ f) 9iˆ + 0jˆ − 4kˆ g) 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ h) 4iˆ + 6jˆ + 2kˆ i) −ˆi − 6jˆ + 0kˆ j) 10iˆ − 4jˆ − 7kˆ Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.2
ˆ B = −5.0iˆ + 3.0jˆ + 2.0k. ˆ What is A B ? 5) Here are two vectors: A = 4.0iˆ + 3.0jˆ − 2.0k,
a) 0iˆ + 0jˆ + 6kˆ b) 4iˆ + 0jˆ + 2kˆ c) 0iˆ + 6jˆ + 6kˆ d) 12iˆ + 2jˆ + 27kˆ e) 8iˆ − 29jˆ + 28kˆ f) 0iˆ − 6jˆ − 6kˆ g) 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ h) 4iˆ + 6jˆ + 2kˆ i) 4iˆ − 6jˆ − 6kˆ j) 6iˆ + 12jˆ − 12kˆ Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
ˆ B = −5.0iˆ + 3.0jˆ + 2.0k. ˆ What is A B ? 6) Here are two vectors: A = 4.0iˆ + 3.0jˆ − 2.0k, a) 25 b) 0 c) -31 d) -52 e) 12 f) -12 g) -4 h) 16 i) -10 j) -15 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
ˆ B = −5.0iˆ + 3.0jˆ + 2.0k. ˆ What is 3𝐵⃗ ∙ (2𝐴 × 𝐵⃗)? 7) Here are two vectors: A = 4.0iˆ + 3.0jˆ − 2.0k, a) 15 b) 12 c) 19 d) -5 e) 0 f) 24 g) -14 h) 16 i) -36 j) 13 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
8) Here are five pairs of vectors. Which have a dot product of zero? (1) 3iˆ and 4jˆ (2) 3iˆ and 4iˆ
ˆ and 4jˆ (3) (3iˆ + 4j) ˆ and 3iˆ (4) (3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ and (4iˆ − 3j) ˆ (5) (3iˆ + 4j) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 (e) 1 and 5 (f) 2 and 3 (g) 2 and 4 (h) 2 and 5 (i) 4 and 5 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
9) Here are five pairs of vectors. Which have a cross product of zero? (1) 3iˆ and 4jˆ (2) 3iˆ and 4iˆ
ˆ and 4jˆ (3) (3iˆ + 4j) ˆ and 3iˆ (4) (3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ and (4iˆ − 3j) ˆ (5) (3iˆ + 4j) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 (e) 1 and 5 (f) 2 and 3 (g) 2 and 4 (h) 2 and 5 (i) 4 and 5 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 10) Vector a is in the positive z direction. Vector b is in the positive y direction. What is the direction of
a b ? a) +x b) –x c) +y d ) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
11) A skunk takes the two-part walk in the overhead view of this figure: d1 = 5.00 m, d2 = 8.00 m,1 = 60.0, 2 = 30.0 (not drawn to scale). What is her net displacement (m) in unit-vector notation?
a) −17.3iˆ − 2.65jˆ b) −9.74iˆ − 2.25jˆ c) −11.3iˆ − 1.50jˆ d) −6.16iˆ − 9.33jˆ e) −13.7iˆ − 0.55jˆ f) −11.6iˆ − 4.52jˆ g) −19.1iˆ − 2.00jˆ h) −3.91iˆ − 4.08jˆ i) −4.33iˆ − 7.50jˆ j) −13.0iˆ − 1.45jˆ Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.2
ˆ bˆ = 1.0iˆ − 4.0jˆ + 3.0k, ˆ what is a (a b )? 12) For these two vectors a = 2.0iˆ + 3.0j, a) 5 b) 8
c) 12 d) -8 e) 30 f) 0 g) -16 h) -24 i) 6 j) -22 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
13) What is the magnitude of this vector?
b = −2.00iˆ − 3.00jˆ − 1.00kˆ a) 1.74 b) 4.21 c) 3.74 d) 9.61 e) 10.3 f) 5.94 g) 7.11 h) 3.12 i) 5.48 j) 4.95 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.2
14) Here are two vectors:
a = −3iˆ − 4jˆ + 2kˆ b = −2iˆ − 3jˆ − kˆ What is a + b ?
a) −7iˆ − 3jˆ + 4kˆ b) −ˆi − ˆj + 3kˆ c) −2iˆ + 7ˆj − 3kˆ d) −5iˆ − 7ˆj + kˆ e) −6iˆ − 4jˆ + 4kˆ f) −ˆi − 9jˆ + 3kˆ g) −5iˆ + 7ˆj − 2kˆ h) −5iˆ + ˆj + kˆ i) −5iˆ − 6jˆ + 8kˆ j) −3iˆ − 7ˆj + 3kˆ Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.2
15) Here are two vectors:
a = −3iˆ − 4jˆ + 2kˆ b = −2iˆ − 3jˆ − kˆ What is a − b ? a) −7iˆ − 3jˆ + 4kˆ b) −ˆi − ˆj + 3kˆ c) −2iˆ + 7ˆj − 3kˆ d) −5iˆ − 7ˆj + kˆ e) −6iˆ − 4jˆ + 4kˆ f) −ˆi − 9jˆ + 3kˆ g) −5iˆ + 7ˆj − 2kˆ h) −5iˆ + ˆj + kˆ i) −5iˆ − 6jˆ + 8kˆ j) −3iˆ − 7ˆj + 3kˆ
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.2
16) Here are two vectors:
a = −3.0iˆ − 4.0jˆ + 2.0kˆ b = −2.0iˆ − 3.0jˆ − 1.0kˆ What is their dot product? a) +10 b) -6 c) +24 d) +5 e) +16 f) -10 g) +6 h) -24 i) -5 j) -16 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
17) Here are two vectors:
a = −3.00iˆ − 4.00jˆ + 2.00kˆ b = −2.00iˆ − 3.00jˆ − 1.00kˆ What is the angle (deg) between them? a) 37.4 b) 50.6 c) 72.7 d) 103 e) 123
f) 25.0 g) 3.09 h) 7.89 i) 162 j) 46.2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
18) Here are two vectors.
a = −3.0iˆ − 4.0jˆ + 2.0kˆ b = −2.0iˆ − 3.0jˆ − 1.0kˆ What is their cross product? a) −7iˆ − 3jˆ + 4kˆ b) −ˆi − ˆj + 3kˆ c) −2iˆ + 7ˆj − 3kˆ d) −5iˆ − 7ˆj + kˆ e) −6iˆ − 4jˆ + 4kˆ f) −ˆi − 9jˆ + 3kˆ g) −5iˆ + 7ˆj − 2kˆ h) −5iˆ + ˆj + kˆ i) 10iˆ − 7ˆj + kˆ j) −3iˆ − 7ˆj + 3kˆ Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
19) In this figure, which (if any) of the diagrams shows a proper way of combining vector components to form the vector?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 4 g) 1 and 4 h) 2 and 3 i) none j) all four Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.1
20) The figure shows two vectors that run along coordinate axes. What is the direction of the cross ⃗? product 𝐴 × 𝐵
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
21) We are going to take a cross product of two vectors of the same magnitude. We have three choices for the angle between their directions. Rank the choices according to the size of the cross-product result, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie choice 1: 10 choice 2: 40 choice 3: 90 a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3)
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.3
22) The figure shows an overhead view of two straight segments of a run by a mouse: d1 = 14.0 m, d2 = 9.00 m, = 60. The figure is not drawn to scale. What is the magnitude (m) of the displacement vector that points from start to finish?
a) 8.09 b) 4.53 c) 6.21 d) 7.35 e) 9.16 f) 5.70 g) 7.02 h) 7.67 i) 10.7 j) 1.94 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.1
23) The figure shows an overhead view of two straight segments of the run by a mouse: d1 = 14.0 m, d2 = 9.00 m, = 60.0. The figure is not drawn to scale. What is the angle (deg) of that displacement vector (relative to the +x direction).
a) 8.09 b) 4.53 c) 6.21 d) 7.35 e) 9.16 f) 5.70 g) 7.02 h) 7.67 i) 10.7 j) 1.94 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 3.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 04 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 04
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows the path of a projectile, with three points indicated. Rank the points according to the speed of the projectile, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
2) The figure shows the path of a projectile, with three points indicated. Rank the points according to the magnitude of the horizontal component vx of the projectile’s velocity, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
3) The figure shows the path of a projectile, with three points indicated. Rank the points according to the magnitude of the vertical component vy of the projectile’s velocity, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
4) The figure shows an overhead view of a crazed squirrel moving in uniform circular motion after listening to too much psychedelic music. Three points are indicated along the circular path. Rank the points according to the speed of the squirrel, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
5) The figure shows an overhead view of a crazed squirrel moving in uniform circular motion after listening to too much psychedelic music. Three points are indicated along the circular path. Rank the points according to the magnitude of the x component vx of the squirrel’s velocity, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
6) The figure shows an overhead view of a crazed squirrel moving in uniform circular motion after listening to too much psychedelic music. Three points are indicated along the circular path. Rank the points according to the magnitude of the y component ay of the squirrel’s acceleration, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 7) The position of a particle is given by r = 2.00t 2ˆi + 5.00t 2ˆj, in meters and seconds. What is the
magnitude (m/s) of the velocity at time t = 2.00 s? a) 12.8 b) 15.4 c) 16.4 d) 25.0 e) 21.5 f) 23.1 g) 17.0 h) 19.4 i) 18.6 j) 14.4 Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 8) The position of a particle is given by r = 2.00t 2ˆi + 5.00t 2ˆj, in meters and seconds. What is the angle (deg) of the velocity vector at t = 2.00 s, measured counterclockwise from the positive direction of
the x axis? a) 77.1 b) 225 c) 132 d) 192 e) 135 f) 33.7 g) 167 h) 68.2 i) 90.7 j) 33.7
Answer: h
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 9) The position of a particle is given by r = 2.0t 2ˆi + 5.0t 2ˆj, in meters and seconds. What is the acceleration (m/s2) of the particle at t = 2.00 s? a) 0 b) 4^i + 2j^ c) 5^i + 6j^ d) 12^i + 6j^ e) 4^i + 10j^ f) 4^j g) 2^i + ^j h) 6^i + 2j^ i) 12^i + 3j^ j) 12^i + 4j^ Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.3
10) In the figure, a projectile is launched at speed v0 = 20.0 m/s and angle θ0 = 30.0º over level ground at time t = 0. What is its maximum height (m)?
a) 28.4 b) 13.6
c) 12.0 d) 5.10 e) 18.9 f) 30.4 g) 41.0 h) 26.9 i) 24.3 j) 31.0 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4 11) In the figure, a projectile is launched at speed v0 = 20.0 m/s and angle θ0 = 30.0º over level ground at time t = 0. What is the speed (m/s) of the projectile when it reaches maximum height?
a) 14.2 b) 12.0 c) 12.5 d) 0 e) 5.4 f) 17.3 g) 3.9 h) 14.9 i) 23.0 j) 18.2 Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
12) In the figure, a projectile is launched at speed v0 = 20.0 m/s and angle θ0 = 30.0º over level ground at time t = 0. At what height (m) is the projectile at time t = 0.300 s?
a) 2.56 b) 5.34 c) 3.33 d) 12.4 e) 4.31 f) 6.59 g) 0.671 h) 4.51 i) 1.86 j) 2.02 Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
13) A Chihuahua dog moves in uniform circular motion in a horizontal xy plane. When the dog passes through the point at coordinates (3.00 m, -3.00 m), its velocity is −10.0jˆ m/s and its acceleration is
−20.0iˆ m/s2. What are the coordinates (m) of the center of the circle? a) (3, 2) b) (8, -3) c) (-2, -3) d) (3, -1) e) (3, 4) f) (6, -3) g) (-3, -3) h) (3, -10) i) (3, -8) j) (10, -3)
Answer: c
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
14) A Chihuahua dog moves in uniform circular motion in a horizontal xy plane. When the dog passes through the point at coordinates (3.00 m, -3.00 m), its velocity is −10.0jˆ m/s and its acceleration is
−20.0iˆ m/s2. What is the period (s) of the circular motion? a) 2.33 b) 1.21 c) 1.57 d) 0.677 e) 3.81 f) 4.71 g) 4.26 h) 4.98 i) 5.17 j) 3.14 Answer: j
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
15) The figure shows a ball that is kicked across a level field, toward a player who is distance D = 80.0 m from the kicking point. The launch speed is 25.0 m/s and the launch angle is 30.0º. How far (m) from the landing point is the player (how far does the player need to run to reach the landing point)?
a) 12.5
b) 13.7 c) 33.0 d) 47.6 e) 14.8 f) 18.6 g) 24.8 h) 27.5 i) 29.5 j) 37.8 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
16) Here are three velocities (m/s) at which you can launch a particle from level ground, with an x axis along the ground and the y axis upward: v1 = 4iˆ + 3jˆ v2 = 3iˆ + 4jˆ v3 = 4ˆj Rank the launch velocities according to the time of flight (time to return to the ground), greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
17) In uniform circular motion, which is true about the velocity v and the acceleration a ? a) a is always tangent to the path and v is always radially inward. b) a is always tangent to the path and v is always radially outward. c) v is always tangent to the path and a is always radially outward. d) v is always tangent to the path and a is always radially inward. e) a is always tangent to the path and v is always perpendicular to the path. Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
18) In projectile motion (such as with a thrown baseball), which is true about the velocity v and the acceleration a ? a) v is always downward and a is always horizontal. b) v is always perpendicular to the path and a is always horizontal. c) v is always perpendicular to the path and a is always downward. d) v is always tangent to the path and a is always horizontal. e) v is always tangent to the path and a is always downward. f) v is always downward and a is always tangent to the path. g) v is always downward and a is always perpendicular to the path. Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
19) In the figure, a golf ball is hit out over a valley. Rank the four numbered points according to the magnitude of the vertical component of the ball’s velocity, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,1,3,2 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,(1,3),2 f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,4,3 h) 3,4,1,2 i) 2,(1,4),3 j) 1,(2,3),4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
20) A particle goes through uniform circular motion. At one instant, it is at the xy coordinates (−2.0 m, 3.0 m), has velocity v = −4.0jˆ m/s, and has acceleration a = 2.0iˆ m/s2. What is the y coordinate (m) of the center of the circle? a) 8 b) -5 c) 0
d) 11 e) 6 f) 4 g) -2 h) 3 i) 5 j) -6
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
21) A particle goes through uniform circular motion. At one instant, it is at the xy coordinates
(−2.0 m, 3.0 m), has velocity v = −4.0jˆ m/s, and has acceleration a = 2.0iˆ m/s2. What is the x coordinate (m) of the center of the circle? a) 8 b) -5 c) 0 d) 11 e) 6 f) 4 g) -2 h) 3 i) 5 j) -6 Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.5
22) In the figure, a projectile is launched at 31.0 m/s, at 40.0 from the edge of cliff. What is the height (m) of the projectile when it has traveled a horizontal distance of 80.0 m? (It is still in flight.)
a) 31.9 b) 19.0 c) 28.0 d) 11.5 e) 23.5 f) 20.9 g) 30.1 h) 14.9 i) 25.8 j) 17.3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4 23) The position vector of a particle is given by r = (45.0t − 319t )iˆ + 6.00t ˆj in meters and seconds. 2
What is the y component of the acceleration (m/s2) at t = 3.00 s? a) 75 b) 89 c) 155 d) 108 e) 144 f) 117 g) 132 h) 150
3
i) 67 j) 82 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 24) The position vector of a particle is given by r = (45.0t 2 − 319t )iˆ + 6.00t 3ˆj in meters and seconds. What is the magnitude (m/s2) of the acceleration at t = 3.00 s? a) 807 b) 505 c) 213 d) 170 e) 341 f) 712 g) 623 h) 409 i) 467 j) 141 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.3
25) A particle is launched over level ground with a launch speed of 40.0 m/s and at a launch angle of 50.0º. What is its range (m)? a) 123 b) 99.2 c) 161 d) 86.3 e) 137 f) 77.4 g) 145
h) 65.4 i) 112 j) 91.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
26) A particle is launched over level ground with a launch speed of 40 m/s and at a launch angle of 50º. What is the time (s) of flight? a) 6.25 b) 7.11 c) 2.51 d) 5.05 e) 8.19 f) 0.581 g) 3.51 h) 4.04 i) 5.83 j) 3.11 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 4.4
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 05 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 05
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows three situations in which the same block moves across a frictionless floor as two forces act on it. The only difference is the angle of the 8.0 N force. Rank the situations according to the magnitude of the block’s acceleration, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) (1,2), 3 i) 1, (2,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
2) The figure shows a “train” of boxes being pulled over a frictionless floor by applied force Fa . Rank the cords according to their tension, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1
f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,3), 2 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
3) The figure shows a horizontal force of magnitude Fa = 300 N applied to the first of six blocks. The blocks move rightward across a frictionless floor. What is the magnitude (N) of the force F accelerating the last block?
a) 86 b) 17 c) 110 d) 94 e) 75 f) 48 g) 60 h) 82 i) 30 j) 52 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
4) The figure shows a block on a frictionless ramp; a cord attached to the block can pull on the block with a force parallel to the ramp. Here are three situations:
1. The block moves up the ramp with speed increasing at the rate of 2 m/s2. 2. The block moves down the ramp with speed decreasing at the rate of 2 m/s2. 3. The block moves down the ramp with speed increasing at the rate of 2 m/s2. Rank the three situations according to the tension in the cord, greatest first. () indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) (1,2), 3 i) 1, (2,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
5) The figure shows an overhead view of 4.00 kg puck that is being accelerated by two horizontal forces. Force 1 is indicated and has magnitude 20.0 N. The acceleration a is also indicated and has magnitude 12.0 m/s2, at angle = 60.0. What is the magnitude (N) of the second force?
a) 13.0 b) 21.0 c) 38.2 d) 66.1 e) 89.9
f) 11.0 g) 17.0 h) 26.0 i) 13.0 j) 22.3 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
6) The figure shows an overhead view of 4.00 kg puck that is being accelerated by two horizontal forces. Force 1 is indicated and has magnitude 20.0 N. The acceleration a is also indicated and has magnitude 12.0 m/s2, at angle = 60.0. What is the angle (degrees) of the second force, as measured from the positive direction of the x axis?
a) 130 b) -66.4 c) 154 d) 170 e) -105 f) -125 g) 170 h) 260 i) -68. j) -223 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
7) The figure shows two blocks that are connected by a cord running over a pulley. The ramp is frictionless. What is the magnitude (m/s2) of the acceleration of the blocks?
m1 = 8.00 kg, m2 = 10.0 kg, = 30.0
a) 1.46 b) 2.11 c) 2.85 d) 5.91 e) 4.04 f) 1.25 g) 1.69 h) 2.31 i) 3.27 j) 6.13 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
8) The figure shows a 150 kg elevator cab controlled by a single cable. It also gives a graph of the elevator’s vertical velocity v versus time t for 4.0 s. During that 4.0 s, what is the tension (kN) in the cable?
a) 1.2
b) 4.4 c) 1.3 d) 2.7 e) 1.4 f) 1.8 g) 0.96 h) 0.66 i) 0.87 j) 2.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
9) The figure shows two blocks connected by a cord that runs over a pulley. When the blocks are released, what is the magnitude (m/s2) of their acceleration? m1 = 4.00 kg, m2 = 8.00 kg
a) 0.891 b) 3.27 c) 1.34 d) 3.90 e) 7.42 f) 1.88 g) 2.60 h) 4.60 i) 5.70 j) 2.07 Answer: b Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
10) The figure shows two blocks connected by a cord that runs over a pulley. When the blocks are released, what is the tension (N) in the cord? m1 = 4.00 kg, m2 = 8.00 kg
a) 11.6 b) 44.5 c) 13.4 d) 52.3 e) 14.0 f) 15.4 g) 96.0 h) 66.0 i) 87.0 j) 107 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
11) The figure shows four boxes that are pushed along a frictionless floor the force F applied to the first box. The interfaces between adjacent boxes are where adjacent boxes push on each other. Rank the magnitudes of the forces at those interfaces, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
12) The figure shows graphs for three situations in which a puck slides across a frictionless ice rink, on an xy plane. In which situation is the net force on the puck zero?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
13) The figure shows graphs for three situations in which a puck slides across a frictionless ice rink, on an xy plane. In which situation is the net force on the puck along the x axis?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
14) The figure is an overhead view of a 4.00 kg puck on which three horizontal forces act:
F1 = 20.0 N F2 = 14.0 N F3 = 12.0 N = 25.0 What is the magnitude of the puck’s acceleration (m/s2)?
a) 0.54 b) 7.60 c) 24.7 d) 4.71 e) 8.70 f) 1.74 g) 5.33 h) 21.3
i) 12.4 j) 9.52 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
15) The figure is an overhead view of a 4.00 kg puck on which three horizontal forces act:
F1 = 20.0 N F2 = 14.0 N F3 = 12.0 N = 25.0 What is the angle (degrees) of the puck’s acceleration measured relative to the positive direction of the x axis? Use a minus sign for a clockwise angle.
a) -15.6 b) -39.5 c) 24.5 d) -24.5 e) 15.0 f) 112 g) 47.6 h) 81.2 i) 56.8 j) 70.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
16) The figure shows a train of six blocks that is pulled over a frictionless floor by a horizontal force of F = 81 N. What is the magnitude (N) of the tension T3 of the middle cord?
a) 21 b) 41 c) 60 d) 67 e) 51 f) 36 g) 18 h) 17 i) 48 j) 12 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
17) The figure shows a horizontal force F that is applied to a 6.70 kg block on a frictionless incline plane, which is angled at = 55.0. The block moves up the plane at a constant speed. What is the magnitude (N) of F?
a) 16.6 b) 93.8 c) 23.4 d) 46.9 e) 81.2 f) 34.5 g) 56.8 h) 104 i) 195 j) 28.7 Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
18) The figure is an overhead view of a box on a frictionless horizontal surface. Six horizontal forces pull on the box, but only five are shown. The indicated force magnitudes are in newtons. If the box is to be stationary, what must be the magnitude and direction of the sixth (undrawn) force?
a) 16 N, +x b) 16 N, -x c) 16 N, +y d) 16 N, -y e) 0, none f) 6.0 N, +x g) 6.0 N, -x h) 6.0 N, +y i) 6.0 N, -y Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
19) The figure is an overhead view of a 4.0 kg hockey puck that is being accelerated by two horizontal forces, but only one force is shown. The acceleration is also shown: magnitude a = 5.0 m/s2, = 25 .
What is the magnitude (N) of the second force?
a) 26 b) 40 c) 5.8 d) 30 e) 11 f) 13 g) 21 h) 65 i) 17 j) 57 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.1
20) The figure shows a horizontal force of magnitude FJ = 54 N applied to one of three blocks with these masses: mA = 2.0 kg, mB = 5.0 kg, and mC = 2.0 kg. The blocks move rightward across a frictionless floor. What is the magnitude (N) of the force on block B due to block A?
a) 18 b) 37 c) 14 d) 42 e) 5.2 f) 36 g) 11
h) 23 i) 28 j) 71 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
21) The figure shows two blocks connected by a cord over two pulleys with negligible friction and mass. The two ramps are frictionless. The masses are m1 = 42.0 kg and m2 = 60.0 kg. The block on the right accelerates down the ramp at 3.00 m/s2. What is the angle θ1 (degrees) on the left?
a) 37.8 b) 13.6 c) 10.2 d) 29.8 e) 34.7 f) 41.2 g) 20.5 h) 24.9 i) 31.2 j) 42.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 5.3
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 06 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 06
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a block on a ramp, held in place by a cord that runs up the ramp. If the block is stationary but on the verge of sliding up the ramp, is the friction static or kinetic and is its direction up or down the ramp?
a) static, up b) static, down c) kinetic, up d) kinetic, down Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
2) The figure shows a block on a ramp, with an attached cord that runs up the ramp. If the block is sliding down the plane, is the friction static or kinetic and is its direction up or down the ramp?
a) static, up b) static, down c) kinetic, up d) kinetic, down Answer: c
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 3) The figure shows a block on a ramp, held in place by a cord that runs up the ramp. If we increase , what happens to the magnitude of the normal force on the block?
a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 4) The figure shows a block on a ramp, held in place by a cord that runs up the ramp. If we increase , what happens to the component of the gravitational force along the ramp?
a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
5) The figure shows a 2.00 kg block on a floor. We apply a 10.0 N force F at an upward angle of = 30.0. What is the magnitude (N) of the frictional force on the block? (You need to determine if the block is sliding or not.) The coefficient of static friction is 0.800 and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.200.
a) 12.5 b) 5.88 c) 5.00 d) 2.01 e) 2.92 f) 8.66 g) 10.0 h) 11.7 i) 3.12 j) 6.93 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
6) The figure shows a block on a ramp, with a cord extending upward. The block is sliding down the ramp. angle θ = 35.0o tension in cord = 10.0 N coefficient of static friction = 0.670 block mass = 2.00 kg coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.250 What is the acceleration (m/s2) of the block? Here “ + ” means up the ramp and “ –” means down the ramp.
a) -6.12 b) 0.64
c) 3.22 d) 12.6 e) -2.63 f) 2.89 g) -1.25 h) -5.67 i) 6.41 j) 1.39 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
7) The figure shows a car heading toward us as it travels around a circular track of radius 24.0 m. The coefficient of static friction between the tires and the track is 0.600. What speed (m/s) puts the car on the verge of sliding out of the circle?
a) 5.00 b) 31.6 c) 10.6 d) 20.3 e) 13.7 f) 24.7 g) 22.7 h) 16.8 i) 11.9 j) 19.5 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
8) The figure shows a car heading toward us as it travels around a circular track of radius 24.0 m. The coefficient of static friction between the tires and the track is 0.600. What is the magnitude (m/s2) of the car’s centripetal acceleration when the car is on the verge of sliding out of the circle?
a) 9.0 b) 2.88 c) 1.76 d) 3.47 e) 8.72 f) 4.72 g) 4.15 h) 5.88 i) 16.0 j) 9.15 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
9) The figure shows a car with a weight of 800 N that moves at a constant speed first over a circular hill and then through a circular valley, with the same radius R. When the car is at the bottom of the valley, the normal force on it is 960 N. What is the magnitude (N) of the normal force when the car is at the top of the hill?
a) 680 b) 480 c) 640 d) 610 e) 580 f) 420 g) 380 h) 520 i) 220 j) 600 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
10) The figure shows a block sliding down a ramp where there is friction between the block and the plane. The angle θ of the ramp is 30º and a kinetic frictional force on the block has a magnitude of 15 N. If we repeat the experiment but with θ = 35º, what then is the magnitude of the friction force?
(a) less than 15 N (b) greater than 15 N (c) still 15 N Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
11) The figure shows a beverage can pressed against a wall by an applied force to prevent it from sliding down the wall. If the force magnitude is increased, what happens to the magnitude of the frictional force between the can and the wall?
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) stays the same Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
12) The figure shows a beverage can pressed against a wall by an applied force to prevent it from sliding down the wall. If the force magnitude is increased, what happens to the upper limit fs,max of the frictional force between the can and the wall?
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) stays the same Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
13) The figure shows a 3.00 kg block that is initially stationary on a floor. The coefficient of static friction between the block and floor is 0.700, and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.500. We begin to pull with force F, with magnitude 20.0 N and angle = 30.0 . What is the magnitude of the frictional force (N) acting on the block? (You need to figure out whether the block is still stationary or if it is now sliding.)
a) 10.0 b) 13.9 c) 14.7 d) 15.9 e) 19.4 f) 9.70 g) 5.61 h) 13.6 i) 7.76 j) 17.3 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
14) The figure shows a Ferris wheel. When a rider of 55.0 kg moves through the lowest point, the normal force on the rider is 684 N. What is the magnitude of the normal force (N) when the rider moves through the highest point?
a) 394 b) 102 c) 0 d) 154 e) 57
f) 135 g) 365 h) 197 i) 202 j) 294 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 15) The figure shows a block sliding over a slab because of the horizontal force F = 80.0 N we apply to the block. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the slab is 0.400. The mass of the block is 5.00 kg and the mass of the slab is 15.0 kg. The floor beneath the slab is frictionless. What is the acceleration (m/s2) of the block?
a) 14.5 b) 13.9 c) 12.1 d) 9.2 e) 6.1 f) 8.3 g) 11.2 h) 7.2 i) 10.4 j) 3.7 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 16) The figure shows a block sliding over a slab because of the horizontal force F = 80.0 N we apply to the block. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the slab is 0.400. The mass of the block is 5.00 kg and the mass of the slab is 15.0 kg. The floor beneath the slab is frictionless. What is the
acceleration (m/s2) of the slab?
a) 3.0 b) 4.1 c) 5.6 d) 0.67 e) 4.9 f) 2.1 g) 1.3 h) 4.7 i) 3.6 j) 0.24 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
17) The figure shows a 0.700 kg block on the floor. We apply a force F = 10.0 N force at a downward angle of = 30.0 . What is the magnitude (N) of the frictional force on the block? (You need to figure out if the block is sliding or not.) The coefficient of static friction = 0.600. The coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.400.
a) 9.20 b) 10.6 c) 8.66 d) 3.88 e) 4.74 f) 12.4 g) 9.50 h) 5.00 i) 7.12 j) 2.92 Answer: e Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
18) The figure shows a 12.0 kg block that is on the verge of sliding up the ramp because of a tension force T from the cord that is parallel to the ramp. The ramp’s angle is = 30.0 and the coefficient of static friction is 0.800. What is the magnitude (N) of the tension force?
a) 257 b) 419 c) 602 d) 529 e) 472 f) 98.6 g) 172 h) 140 i) 102 j) 333 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
19) The figure shows a train of two blocks being dragged across a floor where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.700. The masses are m1 = 2.00 kg and m2 = 4.00 kg, and the acceleration is 5.00 m/s2. What is the magnitude (N) of the horizontal applied force F causing the acceleration?
a) 119 b) 89 c) 154 d) 32 e) 131 f) 102 g) 215
h) 65 i) 41 j) 71 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
20) The figure shows a train of two blocks being dragged across a floor where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.700. The masses are m1 = 2.00 kg and m2 = 4.00 kg, and the acceleration is 5.00 m/s2. What is the tension (N) in the cord between the blocks?
a) 39 b) 131 c) 107 d) 79 e) 88 f) 19 g) 52 h) 117 i) 24 j) 141 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 6.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 07 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 07
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a block in three situations as it slides to the right across a frictionless floor. In each situation, a force (the same force magnitude) acts on the block. The only difference is in the direction of the force. Rank the situation according to the work done on the block by the force, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
2) The figure shows an xy coordinate system, with the x axis aligned along a floor. A block goes through displacement d = (5 m)iˆ . Here are three choices for a force (in newtons) that acts on the block during the displacement: (1) F = 4iˆ − 3jˆ (2) F = −2iˆ + 6jˆ (3) F = ˆi + 9jˆ
Rank the three choices according to the work done on the block by the force, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 3, 1, 2 b) (1,2), 3 c) 3, (1,2) d) 2, (1,3) e) (1,2,3) f) 1, 2, 3 g) 1, 3, 2 h) 2, 1, 3 i) 2, 3, 1 j) 3, 2, 1 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
3) A particle undergoes the displacement d = 2.00iˆ − 3.00jˆ + 4.00kˆ (in meters) while the force F = 1.00iˆ + 7.00jˆ − 2.00kˆ (in newtons) acts on the particle. The particle has an initial kinetic energy of 40.0 J. What is the kinetic energy (J) at the end of the displacement? a) 16 b) 91 c) 13 d) 72 e) 121 f) 73 g) 79 h) 104 i) 35 j) 58
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
4) The figure shows three graphs of a force that acts on a block as the block slides across a frictionless floor for the indicated distance. Rank the three graphs according to the work done on the block by the force, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 3, 1, 2 b) (1,2), 3 c) 3, (1,2) d) 2, (1,3) e) (1,2,3) f) 1, 2, 3 g) 1, 3, 2 h) 2, 1, 3 i) 2, 3, 1 j) 3, 2, 1 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
5) The figure shows two forces that act on a block as the block slides through displacement d = 3.0 m rightward along a frictionless floor. In that displacement, how much work (J) is done on
the block by the forces?
a) 17 b) 13 c) 56 d) 24 e) 29 f) 37 g) 5.9 h) 7.7 i) 50 j) 62 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
6) The figure shows a 4.00 kg block on a ramp. We pull on the block with force F = 50.0 N, directly up the ramp. The normal force on the block has magnitude FN = 13.407 N. The block starts from rest. The angle of the ramp is not given. What is the block’s speed (m/s) when we have pulled the block up the ramp through displacement d = 3.00 m?
a) 2.9 b) 4.4 c) 9.9 d) 5.9 e) 12.7 f) 1.2 g) 5.0 h) 8.3
i) 6.2 j) 7.9 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.3
7) The figure gives the force acting on a 4.00 kg particle as it moves along an x axis from x = 0 to x = 9.0 m. At x = 9.0 m, it has a kinetic energy of 86 J. What was its speed (m/s) at x = 0?
a) 8.5 b) 6.2 c) 5.3 d) 0.75 e) 3.3 f) 1.0 g) 7.2 h) 4.5 i) 2.0 j) 0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.5
8) The figure shows an xy coordinate system, with the x axis aligned along a floor. A block goes through ˆ Here are three choices for a force (in newtons) that acts on the block during the displacement d = (8 m)i. displacement. (1) F = 3iˆ − 2jˆ (2) F = 2iˆ − 5jˆ (3) F = −2iˆ − 13jˆ Rank the three choices according to the work done on the block by the force, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3)
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 9) A particle undergoes displacement d = −3.00iˆ − 4.00jˆ + 7.00kˆ (in meters) while force
F = −5.00iˆ + 5.00jˆ + 4.00kˆ (in newtons) acts on the particle. The particle has the initial kinetic energy of 35.0 J. What is the kinetic energy (J) at the end of the displacement? a) 73 b) 79 c) 104 d) 65 e) 58 f) 16 g) 91 h) 21 i) 72
j) 121
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
10) The figure shows a plot of the force on a 6.0 kg particle versus the position of the particle along an x axis. The particle moves rightward along the axis. At x = 0, the particle has a kinetic energy of 14 J. What is the particle’s speed (m/s) at x = 12 m?
a) 3.5 b) 16 c) 4.0 d) 4.6 e) 5.0 f) 8.8 g) 2.4 h) 9.0 i) 17 j) 2.8
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.5
11) The figure shows two forces that act on a 4.0 kg block as the block slides through a rightward displacement of d = 6 m: F2 = 12 N, = 60, F1 = 20 N. At the start of the displacement, the block has a kinetic energy of 22 J. What is the block’s speed (m/s) at the end of the displacement?
a) 3.3 b) 7.3 c) 4.9 d) 2.5 e) 9.4 f) 8.5 g) 4.2 h) 5.2 i) 6.3 j) 5.6
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.2
12) The figure gives the acceleration of a 7.00 kg particle as it moves along an x axis from x = 0 to x = 8.0 m. (Notice the word “acceleration.”) At x = 8.0 m, it has a kinetic energy of 42 J. What was its speed (m/s) at x = 0?
a) 1.3 b) 7.2 c) 4.5 d) 2.0
e) 0 f) 8.5 g) 6.4 h) 2.9 i) 0.75 j) 3.3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 7.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 08 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 08
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a plot of the potential energy of a particle versus its position along an x axis. Three regions are numbered. Rank those regions according to the magnitude of the force on the particle when it is in the regions, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 3, 1, 2 b) (1,2), 3 c) 3, (1,2) d) 2, (1,3) e) (1,2,3) f) 1, 2, 3 g) 1, 3, 2 h) 2, 1, 3 i) 2, 3, 1 j) 3, 2, 1 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
2) The figure shows a block on frictionless ramp. When we release the block at point A, it slides down the ramp and onto the floor, which has friction. It slides to a stop. If we repeat the experiment but with a smaller value of θ, what then is the stopping distance on the floor?
(a) smaller (b) greater
(c) the same Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.5
3) In the figure, we have placed a rock on a vertical spring, pressed downward on the spring to compress it, and then released the spring so that the rock flies vertically upward. At one instant, the rock is 2.50 m above its launch point (the release point) and has a speed of 5.00 m/s. The mass of the rock is 3.00 kg and the spring constant is 4000 N/m. How far (m) was the spring compressed just before the launch?
a) 0.039 b) 0.044 c) 0.178 d) 0.204 e) 0.167 f) 0.079 g) 0.095 h) 0.236 i) 0.356 j) 0.057 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 4) What is the change in the elastic potential energy (J) of a spring (k = 2000 N/m) if we increase its stretch from x = 0.020 m to x = 0.050 m? a) 8.6 b) 4.7
c) 2.1 d) 10.3 e) 0.56 f) 5.0 g) 7.1 h) 11.3 i) 4.2 j) 0.67 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.1
5) In the figure, a small 3.00 kg block slides down a ramp and into a circle (all frictionless) with radius R = 0.200 m. Its initial speed is not zero; rather, it is vi = 2.00 m/s. What is the magnitude (N) of the normal force on the block when it is at the top of the circle (as shown in dashed lines)?
a) 302 b) 99.0 c) 148 d) 184 e) 96.2 f) 521 g) 75.1 h) 60.5 i) 207 j) 88.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.2
6) The figure shows a block (mass unknown) that slides along a track that it frictionless until it slides through a region of friction (d = 6.00 m) on the last plateau, where the coefficient of friction is k = 0.400. At the left, the block has height 5.00 m and speed 8.00 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) at the far right, after it emerges from the friction region?
a) 7.23 b) 11.4 c) 2.56 d) 12.4 e) 8.70 f) 9.56 g) 5.88 h) 1.43 i) 14.3 j) 10.3 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.5
7) The figure gives a graph of the potential energy of a 2.0 kg particle as a function of its position along an x axis. The indicated potential energy values are in joules. Under the graph we see the particle moving along the axis, initially off to the right, with a speed of 4.0 m/s leftward. What is its speed (m/s) when it is
in the region of the 6.0 J “hill”?
a) 6.0 b) 6.5 c) 5.7 d) 8.0 e) 3.9 f) 5.1 g) 7.0 h) 6.8 i) 9.3 j) 4.2 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
8) The figure gives a graph of the potential energy of a 2.0 kg particle as a function of its position along an x axis. The indicated potential energy values are in joules. Under the graph we see the particle moving along the axis, initially off to the right, with a speed of 4.0 m/s leftward. As the particle travels leftward, which describes its motion?
a) It is stopped and turned around on the right side of the 7.0 J “hill.” b) It is stopped and turned around in the 4.0 J “valley.” c) It is stopped and turned around in the 6.5 J “valley.” d) It is stopped and turned around on the right side of the 22 J “hill.” e) It escapes off to the left side of the figure. Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
9) The figure gives a plot of potential energy versus position along an x axis. We release a particle at x = 8.0 m with a mechanical energy of 7.0 J. Which of the following best describes the particle’s motion?
a) It is trapped in the well at the right b) It can escape to the well at the left but will be trapped there c) It can escape to the well at the left and will then move back and forth between the two wells d) It can escape from the plot off to the left side of the plot e) It can escape from the plot off to the left side and also to the right side Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
10) The figure gives a plot of potential energy versus position along an x axis. We release a particle at x = 4.0 m with a kinetic energy of 2.0 J. Which of the following best describes the particle’s motion?
a) It is trapped in the well at the left b) It can escape to the well at the right but will be trapped there c) It can escape to the well at the right and will then move back and forth between the two wells d) It can escape from the plot off to the left side of the plot e) It can escape from the plot off to the left side and also to the right side Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
11) In the figure, a block with initial speed vi = 4.0 m/s and initial height H = 3.0 m slides along a track that is frictionless except in the two places on the horizontal surfaces. At the bottom, it slides a distance d in the friction until it stops. Find d (meters). The mass is not known.
a) 3.7 b) 2.8 c) 1.5 d) 0.32 e) 0.14 f) 0.50
g) 0.67 h) 9.7 i) 2.0 j) 5.5 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.5
12) The figure shows a potential well for a particle that can move along an x axis. Four regions of the graph are lettered. Rank those regions according to the magnitude of the force that would act on the particle if it is the region, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) B, C, A, D b) C, B, A, D c) D, A, C, B d) C, (A,D), B e) D, (B,C), A f) B, D, A, C g) A, B, D, C h) A, (B,D), C i) (B,D), A, C j) (A,B,C,D) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
13) The figure shows a potential well for a particle that can move along an x axis. Four regions of the graph are lettered. The particle has mass 7.00 kg. It is released at x = 8 m with a speed of 2.0 m/s. Can it escape?
a) no, it cannot escape to the left or to the right b) yes, it can escape on the left side but not on the right side c) yes, it can escape on either the left or right sides d) yes, it can escape on the right side but not on the left side Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.3
14) The figure shows a 2.0 kg block that is initially compressed by distance d onto a spring of spring constant 600 N/m. When released, the block is sent sliding across a frictionless ramp. However, farther to the right and on a lower level it passes through a region of length 3.0 m where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.60. It leaves that region with a speed of 5.0 m/s. What is d (m)?
a) 0.69 b) 0.46 c) 0.25 d) 0.19 e) 0.90
f) 0.11 g) 0.97 h) 1.03 i) 0.39 j) 0.85 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.5
15) The figure shows a ‘bob” on the end of a string of length L = 2.0 m. The bob swings down from rest, Tarzan style, and then the string catches on a peg such that the bob swings in a circle up and over the peg. What is the speed (m/s) of the bob when it passes above the peg?
a) 3.33 b) 7.00 c) 8.34 d) 3.96 e) 1.33 f) 4.84 g) 2.59 h) 6.71 i) 5.38 j) 2.80 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.2
16) The figure shows a block sliding along a track that is frictionless, with initial speed v0 = 5.0 m/s and initial height H = 3.0 m. At what height hstop (m) does the block stop on the endless ramp at the right?
a) 5.32 b) 8.00 c) 5.34 d) 3.92 e) 10.3 f) 6.27 g) 7.95 h) 5.70 i) 4.28 j) 2.21 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 8.2
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 09 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 09
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows four square plates of the same dimensions and same density. Each is centered on the origin of the coordinate system. In each a section (indicated by dashes) is to be cut out and removed; all these sections have the same area. Rank the final plates according to the x coordinate of their com, most positive x coordinate first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,1,3,2 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,(2,3),1 f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,4,3 h) 3,4,1,2 i) (1,2),3,4 j) 1,(2,3),4 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.1
2) In the figure, a block sliding to the right is to explode into two pieces. Here, for three experiments, are pairs of velocity values for those pieces: rear block front block experiment 1: +30 m/s +50 m/s experiment 2: +60 +65 experiment 3: +10 +40
Rank the experiments according to the relative speed between the two blocks, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
3) Three particles have the following momentum as a function of time t: particle 1: p = 3t + 4 particle 2: p = 16 particle 3: p = 5t – 7 Rank the particles according to the magnitude of the force acting on it, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.3
4) The figure shows a uniform plate after a section has been removed. What is the x coordinate (m) of the com of what is shown?
a) +0.17 b) +0.11 c) +0.19 d) +0.23 e) +0.25 f) +0.15 g) +0.20 h) +0.088 i) +0.28 j) +0.098 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.1
5) The figure shows a ball that bounces from a wall; the initial speed is 20.0 m/s and the final speed is 15.0 m/s. (Watch your signs.) The figure also shows a plot of the magnitude F of the force acting on the ball as a function of time t, for the duration of the collision. Fmax is 5000 N. What is the mass (kg) of the ball?
a) 0.555
b) 4.50 c) 0.214 d) 0.643 e) 1.50 f) 1.08 g) 2.20 h) 1.79 i) 2.89 j) 3.12 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.4
6) The figure shows the “before” and “after” states in an experiment where a block is sliding across a frictionless floor when an internal explosion separates it into three pieces with masses m1 = 5.00 kg, m2 = 12.0 kg, and m3 = 8.00 kg. The block is initially moving leftward at 2.00 m/s. Two of the final velocities are v2 = 4.00 m/s and v3 = 9.00 kg. By how much (J) does the explosion change the kinetic energy?
a) 5.06 103 b) 1.54 103 c) 8.29 103 d) 3.26 103 e) 1.10 104 f) 5.82 104 g) 2.33 104 h) 3.47 104 i) 7.60 104 j) 2.08 104 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0
Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
7) The figure shows block 1 (with velocity 10 m/s) sliding into a stationary block 2 (mass m2 = 6.0 kg), which ends up with a velocity of v2f = 5.0 m/s. The collision is elastic. What is the mass (kg) of block 1?
a) 3.2 b) 9.1 c) 8.4 d) 5.1 e) 1.3 f) 2.0 g) 4.0 h) 4.4 i) 3.7 j) 3.0 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.7
8) The figure shows block 1 (with velocity 10 m/s) sliding into a stationary block 2 (mass m2 = 6.0 kg), which ends up with a velocity of v2f = 5.0 m/s. The collision is elastic. What is the final velocity (m/s) of block 1?
a) 3.0 b) 0 c) -8.4 d) -5.0 e) 1.3 f) 2.1 g) -4.0 h) 4.4 i) -3.0 j) -1.8
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.7
9) In deep space, a rocket separates into two parts by an internal explosion. Its original speed is 500 m/s. After the separation, the relative speed between the front section (mass 2.00M) and rear section (7.00M) is 100 m/s. What is the speed (m/s) of the front section? a) 621 b) 915 c) 843 d) 578 e) 656 f) 812 g) 478 h) 947 i) 643 j) 707 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
10) The figure shows three graphs of the momentum p of an object versus time t. In each case, the momentum change is caused by a single force. Rank the forces according to their magnitude, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3
d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.3
11) An object is initially at rest on a frictionless floor when an internal explosion blows it into three pieces that then slide over the floor. The figure gives three possible results as seen from overhead. In each result, piece A slides in the negative direction of the x axis, and piece B slides in the negative direction of the y axis. Rank the three situations according to the x component pcx of piece C, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
12) The figure shows the initial motion of a container (blocks A and B) sliding over a frictionless floor. An internal explosion separates A and B. I show three possible outcomes, giving the velocity of A in each. Rank those possible outcomes as to the speed of block B, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
13) In deep space, an internal explosion separates the motor a rocket separates the motor (mass = 5mc) from the front cabin (mass = mc). Before the explosion, the speed is 800 m/s. After the explosion, the relative speed between motor and cabin is 420 m/s. What is the final velocity vm of the motor (m/s)? a) 580 b) 524 c) 600 d) 556 e) 1130 f) 632
g) 730 h) 1050 i) 650 j) 682 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
14) The figure shows what remains of a uniform square plate after portions have been removed. What is the x coordinate of the center of mass of what is left?
a) 0.254 b) 0.889 c) 1.201 d) 0.370 e) 0.412 f) 0.387 g) 0.442 h) 1.090 i) 0.567 j) 0.820 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.1
15) The figure shows a 4.00 kg ball that is initially moving leftward at speed vi = 0.700 m/s. It hits and bounces from a wall. A graph shows the acceleration of the ball during the collision. (Note the word
acceleration.) What is the final speed (m/s) of the ball?
a) 1.25 b) 1.40 c) 1.00 d) 0.35 e) 0.90 f) 0.40 g) 0.20 h) 1.80 i) 0.25 j) 0.80 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.4
16) The figure shows a plate from which a portion has been removed. The original plate was uniform and centered on the origin of the coordinate system. What is the x coordinate (m) of the center of mass of the remaining plate?
a) 0.2273 b) 0.4546 c) 0.6818 d) 0.9091 e) 1.1364 f) 1.3636 g) 1.5909 h) 1.8182
i) 2.0455 j) 2.2727 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.1
17) The figure shows a projectile that will collide with an initially stationary target on a frictionless floor. What is the final linear momentum (kg m/s) of the target if the initial linear momentum of the projectile is 8 kg ∙ m/s and the final linear momentum of the projectile is −5 kg ∙ m/s?
a) 17 b) 16 c) 15 d) 14 e) 13 f) 12 g) 11 h) 10 i) 9 j) 8 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.5
18) A projectile has undergone an elastic one-dimensional collision with an initially stationary target, along an x axis. Figure B is a graph of position versus time for the projectile and target, before and after the collision. (Two line segments are parallel to the time axis.) Which is true about the masses of the projectile and target?
a) the projectile’s mass is greater b) the target’s mass is greater c) the masses are equal Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.7
19) At time t = 0, a ball is struck at ground level and sent over level ground. The momentum p versus t during the flight is given in the figure, where p0 = 8.00 kg ∙ m/s and p1 = 6.00 kg ∙ m/s. What is the initial horizontal component (kg m/s) of the ball’s momentum (at launch)?
a) 5.55 b) 6.00 c) 6.55 d) 8.00 e) 12.0 f) 4.55 g) 4.00 h) 1.22 i) 5.29 j) 7.55 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.3
20) At time t = 0, a ball is struck at ground level and sent over level ground. The momentum p versus t during the flight is given in the figure, where p0 = 8.00 kg ∙ m/s and p1 = 6.00 kg ∙ m/s. What is the initial vertical component (kg ∙ m/s) of the ball’s momentum (at launch)?
a) 5.55 b) 6.00 c) 6.55 d) 8.00 e) 12.0 f) 4.55 g) 4.00 h) 1.22 i) 5.29 j) 7.55 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.3
21) In the figure, block 1 with mass m1 starts from rest at height h = 2.00 m on a frictionless ramp and then slides down and has an elastic collision with block 2 with mass m2. The masses are related by m1 = 2.00m2 . What is the speed (m/s) of block 2 just after the collision?
a) 2.34 b) 0.45 c) 1.23 d) 8.35 e) 14.7 f) 4.01 g) 5.63 h) 9.39 i) 11.2 j) 5.44
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 9.7
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 10 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 10
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows an overhead view of a disk rotating at constant angular velocity like a merry-goround around its center. Three particles on the disk are indicated. Rank the particles according to the magnitude of their angular speed, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
2) The figure shows an overhead view of a disk rotating at constant angular velocity like a merry-goround around its center. Three particles on the disk are indicated. Rank the particles according to the
magnitude of their linear speed, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.3
3) The figure shows an overhead view of a disk rotating at constant angular acceleration, like a merry-goround around its center. Three particles on the disk are indicated. Rank the particles according to the magnitude of their angular acceleration at a given moment, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3
d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
4) The figure shows an overhead view of a disk rotating at constant angular acceleration, like a merry-goround around its center. Three particles on the disk are indicated. Rank the particles according to the magnitude of their tangential acceleration at a given moment, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0
Section Reference 1: Section 10.3
5) The figure shows an overhead view of a disk rotating at constant angular acceleration, like a merry-goround around its center. Three particles on the disk are indicated. Rank the particles according to the magnitude of their centripetal acceleration at a given moment, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.3
6) The figure is an overhead view of a 4.0 kg meter stick that can rotate around a pivot located at the mark of “20 cm”. Four horizontal forces act on the stick (the forces maintain their orientations relative to the stick as the stick rotates). The stick begins from rest at time t = 0. What is its angular speed (rad/s) at time t = 6.0 s? Don’t round-off early. For a uniform stick rotating around its center of mass, the rotational inertial is given by ML2/12, where M is the mass and L is the length.
a) 5.3
b) 15 c) 6.6 d) 13 e) 14 f) 2.0 g) 12 h) 0.67 i) 1.9 j) 8.0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.7
7) A diver dives from a platform that is 12.0 m above the water, rotating through 3.50 revolutions. What is the average angular speed (rad/s) during the dive? a) 4.23 b) 7.70 c) 3.33 d) 5.15 e) 5.67 f) 3.85 g) 6.02 h) 14.1 i) 1.29 j) 4.01 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
8) A disk rotating like a merry-go-round has an initial velocity of 200 rad/s. It then slows at a constant rate, stopping in 5.00 s. How far (rad) did it move while slowing to a stop? a) 90.0 b) 500
c) 270 d) 950 e) 126 f) 450 g) 235 h) 282 i) 370 j) 150 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.2
9) Here, in radians and seconds, is an angular position function for a disk rotating like a merry-go-round: = 4.0t 3 − 12t 2 − 50t + 60 . What is the angular position (rad) when its acceleration is zero? a) +7.2 b) +2.0 c) +9.0 d) +16 e) +12 f) -5.2 g) -6.5 h) -24 i) -10 j) -8.0 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
10) The figure is an overhead view of a 20.0 kg disk rotating like a merry-go-round. An 8.00 kg cockroach (treat it as being a particle) rides on the rim. The linear speed of the cockroach is 5.00 m/s.
What is the kinetic energy (J) of the disk–cockroach system? (The disk radius is not known.)
a) 125 b) 300 c) 563 d) 430 e) 225 f) 95.0 g) 350 h) 200 i) 363 j) 185 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 11) The figure is a graph of angular position versus time t for a rotating merry-go-round. Rank the three indicated times according to the magnitude of the angular speed of the merry-go-round, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2)
i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
12) The figure gives angular position θ versus time t for a disk rotating like a merry-go-round. Which of the following best describes the motion for t ≥ 0?
a) always rotating clockwise b) always rotating counterclockwise c) first rotating counterclockwise and then clockwise d) first rotating clockwise and then counterclockwise Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
13) The figure is an overhead view of a uniform rectangular slab that will be rotated around an axis that runs into and out of the page. Three locations of the axis are indicated. Rank those locations according to the rotational inertia of the slab about the axis, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3
d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.5
14) A disk of radius 3.00 m rotates like a merry-go-round as given by the function = 2.00t 4 + 6.00t 2 , where θ is in radians and t is in seconds. What is the tangential acceleration (m/s2) of a point on the rim at time t = 2.00 s? a) 93.5 b) 111 c) 70.0 d) 113 e) 324 f) 64.8 g) 745 h) 81.9 i) 162 j) 202 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.3
15) A disk of radius 3.00 m rotates like a merry-go-round as given by the function = 2.00t 4 + 6.00t 2 , where θ is in radians and t is in seconds. What is the radial acceleration (m/s2) of a point on the rim t = 2.00 s? a) 5.45 104
b) 8.88 103 c) 6.05 103 d) 1.16 104 e) 6.67 103 f) 2.32 104 g) 2.99 103 h) 3.02 104 i) 9.54 103 j) 7.87 103 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.3 16) The figure gives the angular speed of a merry-go-round versus time t. What is the angular acceleration (rad/s2)?
a) -6 b) -3 c) 3 d) 6 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
17) The figure shows three rigid arrangements of thin rods and identical particles at the outer ends of the rods. The rods have the lengths indicated and are made of the same material and have the same widths.
Rank the arrangements according to the rotational inertia about the center point, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) 1, (2,3) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.5
18) The figure is an overhead view of a disk (mass M = 5.00 kg and radius R = 4.00 m) rotating like a merry-go-round. A particle (mass m = 3.00 kg) lies on the disk at radius r = 2.00 m. The angular speed is 6.00 rad/s. What is the kinetic energy (J) of the disk–particle system?
a) 936 b) 420 c) 818 d) 648 e) 1.08 103 f) 701 g) 592 h) 1.66 103 i) 279
j) 523 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.5
19) The figure shows an overhead view of a meter-long rod (length = 1.00 m and mass = 6.00 kg) that can rotate around the pivot. The rod begins at rest when the four forces are applied to it.
F1 = 50.0 N, F2 = 10.0 N, F3 = 20.0 N, F4 = 45.0 N As it rotates around the indicated pivot point, the forces maintain their orientations relative to the rod. (For example, 30º is maintained.) Through what angle (rad) does the rod rotate in the first 3.00 s?
I com = 121 ML2
a) 23.4 b) 21.0 c) 39.6 d) 30.1 e) 48.1 f) 12.9 g) 36.0 h) 100 i) 17.3 j) 39.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.7
20) The figure shows a book-like object rotating around a perpendicular rotation axis through the given point along the center line that is drawn in dashes. The mass is 2.00 kg. The dimensions are a = 0.010 m,
b = 0.020 m, and c = 0.0040 m. What is the rotational inertia (kg ∙ m2)? The rotational inertia about a perpendicular axis through the center of mass is given by I = 121 (a 2 + b2 ).
a) 8.6 10−4 b) 1.6 10−4 c) 3.9 10−4 d) 8.0 10−4 e) 7.9 10−4 f) 9.9 10−4 g) 2.9 10−4 h) 6.0 10−4 i) 1.2 10−4 j) 4.7 10−4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.5 21) The figure gives the angle of a merry-go-round versus time t. Which of the following best describes the angular acceleration?
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) first positive and then negative
e) first positive, then negative, and finally positive again f) first positive, then zero, and finally positive again Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.1
22) The angular position of a disk rotating like a merry-go-round is given by θ = 0.20t3. The radius is R = 1.60 m and the mass is m = 15 kg. What is the kinetic energy (J) at time t = 2.0 s? a) 85 b) 47 c) 41 d) 5.0 e) 55 f) 111 g) 18 h) 37 i) 23 j) 29 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.5
23) The angular position of a disk rotating like a merry-go-round is given by θ = 0.20t3. The radius is R = 1.60 m and the mass is m = 15 kg. What is magnitude of the (full) linear acceleration (m/s2) of a point on the rim at t = 2.0 s? a) 1.2 b) 3.8 c) 9.2 d) 6.7 e) 0.52 f) 7.0 g) 4.8 h) 8.1
i) 7.6 j) 10 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.3
24) The figure shows an overhead view of a meter stick with some of the length numbers marked above it and a pivot indicated. Five forces act on the stick. The mass is 4.00 kg. What is the angular acceleration (rad/s2) of the stick?
a) -2.9 b) -6.0 c) 8.0 d) -2.6 e) 4.1 f) -3.9 g) -4.5 h) -1.2 i) 5.7 j) 9.9 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 10.7
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 11 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 11
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a moving particle at a certain instant. The particle’s position and its velocity vector are indicated (in the negative x direction). At that instant, what is the direction of the particle’s angular momentum vector about the coordinate system origin?
a) +x b) -x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.5
2) The figure shows a particle and the force acting on the particle (in the negative z direction). What is the direction of the torque on the particle about the coordinate system origin?
a) +x b) -x c) +y
d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
3) The figure shows four snapshots of particles. All of them have the same mass, the same speed, and the same distance from the origin. Rank the snapshots according to the net angular momentum of the particles about the origin, most positive result first and most negative result last.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,1,3,2 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,(2,3),1 f) 2,4,1,3 g) 3, 2, (1,4) h) 3,4,1,2 i) 2,(1,4),3 j) 1,(2,3),4 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0
Section Reference 1: Section 11.5
4) The figure shows an overhead view of a narrow meter stick (length = 1 m) that rotates about its center at an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. A cockroach rides at one end. The cockroach then crawls to the center of the stick. What is the new angular speed (rad/s)? Stick mass = 2.00(cockroach mass). For a thin rod rotating around its center, I = 121 mL
2
a) 7.40 b) 7.00 c) 6.00 d) 5.90 e) 5.00 f) 11.0 g) 8.20 h) 6.60 i) 10.6 j) 9.20 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.8
5) The figure shows a 3.00 kg disk rolling smoothly along a ramp. Its initial speed is 5.00 m/s, and the heights are h1 = 7.00 m and h2 = 2.00 m. What is the normal force (N) acting on it when it passes over the hill, which is circular with a radius of 11.0 m?
a) 90.1 b) 15.4 c) 54.0 d) 26.8 e) 30.4 f) 18.8 g) 7.94
h) 20.3 i) 4.76 j) 34.6 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.2
6) The figure shows a rigid square consisting of four very thin metal rods, each with mass m = 2.0 kg and length L = 3.0 m. The square turns around the rotation axis (indicated with a dashed line) at 2.5 rad/s. What is the square’s angular momentum (kg ∙ m2/s).
a) 12 b) 30 c) 42 d) 54 e) 16 f) 25 g) 93 h) 39 i) 21 j) 38 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.8
ˆ N . When the particle has the position vector 7) The force on a particle is F = (−2.0iˆ − 4.0j)
ˆ m, what is the torque (N ∙ m) on the particle? r = (5.0iˆ + 2.0j) a) −32kˆ b) −76kˆ c) −15iˆ d) −24kˆ e) −7.5iˆ f) −50jˆ g) −70jˆ h) −66kˆ i) −49jˆ j) −16kˆ Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
ˆ m and velocity vector 8) At one instant, a 2.0 kg particle has position vector r = (4.0tˆi + 6.0j) ˆ m . Just then, what is the torque (N ∙ m) on the particle? v = (5.0tˆi − 2.0j) a) −32kˆ b) −76kˆ c) −15iˆ d) −24kˆ e) −7.5iˆ f) −50jˆ g) −70jˆ h) −56kˆ i) −49jˆ j) −16kˆ Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
9) In the figure, a ball (I = (2/5)mR2) is released from rest and allowed to roll smoothly down a ramp. Then a cylinder (I = (1/2)mR2 is released from rest at the same height and allowed to roll down. The ball and cylinder have the same mass and radius. Which is true at the bottom of the ramp?
a) The ball has more (total) kinetic energy. b) The cylinder has more (total) kinetic energy. c) The ball and cylinder have the same (total) kinetic energy. Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.2
10) In the figure, a ball (I = (2/5)mR2) is released from rest and allowed to roll smoothly down a ramp. Then a cylinder (I = (1/2)mR2 is released from rest at the same height and allowed to roll down. The ball and cylinder have the same mass and radius. Which is true at the bottom of the ramp?
a) The ball has more speed. b) The cylinder has more speed. c) The ball and cylinder have the same speed. Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.2
11) The position vector for a particle (meters) and the force (newtons) acting on it are given by
ˆ r = 2.0iˆ + 5.0jˆ − 7.0kˆ F = 5.0iˆ − 2.0jˆ − 2.0k. What is the z component (N m) of the torque on the particle? a) 14 b) −19 c) −12 d) 8.0 e) 27 f) −15 g) 7.0 h) 16 i) −29 j) 19 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
12) The figure shows a cylinder that has an initial speed of 8.00 m/s at an initial height of h = 9.00 m. What is its speed (m/s) when it reaches mid-height (level with the center) of the circular loop, which has a radius of 5.00 m? It rolls smoothly along the track.
a) 14.2 b) 12.5 c) 9.2 d) 10.8 e) 31.2 f) 5.05 g) 8.79 h) 16.4
i) 22.0 j) 11.9 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.2
13) The figure shows a cylinder that has an initial speed of 8.00 m/s at an initial height of h = 9.00 m. What is the normal force (N) acting on the cylinder when it reaches mid-height (level with the center) of the circular loop, which has a radius of 5.00 m? It rolls smoothly along the track. The cylinder’s mass is 6.00 kg.
a) 203 b) 59.5 c) 388 d) 140 e) 77.4 f) 855 g) 119 h) 187 i) 92.7 j) 550 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.2
14) The figure is a snapshot of a particle with a force acting on it in the positive x direction. At that instant, what is the direction of the torque on the particle measured about the origin?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
15) The figure shows three systems of two moving particles. The particles have the same mass m and the same speed v, and they are at the same distance r from point O. Rank the systems according to magnitude of their net angular momentum, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie (same value).
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,3), 2 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3)
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.5
16) The figure shows a snapshot of 2.00 kg particle at distance r = 3.00 m moving at v = 4.00 m/s in the xy plane. Angle θ = 30º. What is the magnitude (kg ∙ m2) of the particle’s angular momentum about the origin?
a) 14 b) 12 c) 9.5 d) 22 e) 17 f) 19 g) 6.0 h) 8.2 i) 5.6 j) 7.5 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.5
17) The figure shows a snapshot of 2.00 kg particle at distance r = 3.00 m moving at v = 4.00 m/s in the xy plane. Angle θ = 30º. What is the direction of the angular momentum vector about the origin?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.5
18) In the instant of the figure, a force of magnitude 15 N acts on a particle that is at distance r = 3.00 m and in the xy plane. The force is in the xy plane, and angle θ = 25º. What is the magnitude (N ∙ m) of the torque on the particle about the origin?
a) 4.5 b) 11 c) 21 d) 29 e) 19 f) 8.9 g) 43 h) 17
i) 37 j) 31 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
19) In the instant of the figure, a force of magnitude 15 N acts on a particle that is at distance r = 3.00 m and in the xy plane. The force is in the xy plane, and angle θ = 25º. What is the direction of the torque vector?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.4
20) A cockroach rides at the center of a uniform disk that rotates about its center like a merry-go-round. When it crawls outward to the rim of the disk, the angular speed is 5.00 rad/s. What was the initial angular speed (rad/s)? Cockroach mass = 0.250(disk mass) a) 9.00 b) 7.00 c) 13.0
d) 1.29 e) 5.42 f) 6.25 g) 8.92 h) 15.2 i) 7.50 j) 13.6 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.8
21) Over time, a neutron star shrinks. Its rotation rate was initially ωi and is now ωf =1.20ωi. Its initial radius was 20.0 km. What is its radius (km) now? The rotational inertia for a uniform ball rotating about a diameter is 0.400MR2, where M is the mass and R is the radius. a) 15.4 b) 15.0 c) 19.9 d) 18.3 e) 16.9 f) 17.5 g) 19.1 h) 19.3 i) 18.77 j) 16.2 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.8
22) Over time, a neutron star shrinks. Its rotation rate was initially ωi and is now ωf =1.20ωi. Its initial radius was 20.0 km. The rotational inertia for a uniform ball rotating about a diameter is 0.400MR2, where M is the mass and R is the radius.. What is the ratio Kf/Ki of the final kinetic energy to the initial kinetic energy? a) 2.39
b) 2.01 c) 2.82 d) 1.59 e) 1.39 f) 1.06 g) 1.20 h) 3.33 i) 3.91 j) 1.40 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.8
23) The figure shows four particles moving along straight lines. They each have a mass of 2.00 kg, and their speeds and travel directions are indicated. What is their total (or net) angular momentum (kg ∙ m2/s) about point P?
a) 39.6 b) -17.3 c) 15.6 d) -29.2 e) 27.5 f) 23.4 g) -12.1 h) 39.0 i) 14.5 j) 46.8 Answer: f Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 11.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 12 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 12
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) A guitar string of negligible mass is stretched horizontally between two supports that are 0.500 m apart. When an object of weight 900 N is hung from the center of the string, the string sags by 1.20 cm. What is the tension (N) in the string? a) 1.45 kN b) 9.39 kN c) 21.1 kN d) 6.54 kN e) 6.03 kN f) 4.92 kN g) 3.12 kN h) 2.85 kN i) 5.13 kN j) 3.89 kN Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 12.2
2) Three forces act on a particle, but it remains stationary. Two of the forces are F1 = 12.3iˆ − 6.50jˆ and F1 = −9.60iˆ + 8.70jˆ , both in newtons. What is the magnitude (N) of the third force? a) 6.77 b) 7.81 c) 8.89 d) 2.46 e) 3.48 f) 10.6 g) 11.8
h) 1.67 i) 4.87 j) 5.68 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 12.2
3) The figure shows a stationary arrangement of two blocks and three cords tied together with a knot. Block A has mass mA = 16.0 kg and is on a ramp at angle = 40.0 . Block B has mass mB = 9.00 kg. The cord attached to A is parallel to the ramp, which is frictionless. What is the tension (N) in the upper cord?
a) 267 b) 318 c) 412 d) 568 e) 118 f) 171 g) 56.8 h) 85.7 i) 385 j) 212 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 12.2
4) In the figure, a uniform beam with a length of 3.00 m is hinged at its lower end, and a horizontal force F of magnitude 45.0 N acts at its upper end. The beam is held vertical by a cable that makes an angle = 20.0 with the ground and is attached to the beam at height h = 1.50 m. What is the tension (N) in the cable?
a) 95.8 b) 113 c) 124 d) 77.8 e) 81.2 f) 117 g) 131 h) 67.7 i) 105 j) 131 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 12.2
5) A solid copper cube has edge lengths of 0.444 cm and a bulk modulus of 1.40 1011 N/m2. How much pressure (N/m2) must be applied to the cube to reduce the edge lengths to 0.440 cm? a) 7.83 109 b) 5.63 109 c) 3.75 109 d) 8.77 109
e) 1.67 1010 f) 2.13 1010 g) 1.12 1010 h) 9.13 109 i) 2.36 1010 j) 4.44 109 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 12.3
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 13 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 13
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The shows three particles with the masses m1 = 1.00 10−3 kg m2 = 2.00 10−3 kg m3 = 8.00 10−3 kg at distances r1 = 2.00 m r2 = 4.00 m and with = 30.0. What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on particle 3?
a) 1.77 10−16 b) 6.50 10−16 c) 1.08 10−15 d) 2.89 10−17 e) 3.75 10−16 f) 2.3110−16 g) 4.33 10−16 h) 8.66 10−16 i) 5.78 10−17 j) 8.66 10−17 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.2
2) The figure shows three particles with the masses m1 = 1.00 10−3 kg m2 = 2.00 10−3 kg m3 = 8.00 10−3 kg at distances r1 = 2.00 m r2 = 4.00 m and with = 30.0.
What is the angle (degrees) of the net force on particle 3 (relative to the positive direction of the x axis)?
a) 49 b) 193 c) 209 d) 56 e) 161 f) 133 g) 112 h) 144 i) 177 j) 108 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.2
3) The figure shows four particles. What is the magnitude (N) of the net gravitational force on particle 4 (m4 = 6.00 kg) at the origin due to the other three particles? m1 = 40.0 kg m2 = 18.0 kg m3 = 10.0 kg r1 = 4.00 m r2 = 3.00 m r3 = 2.00 m
a) 2.08 10−8 b) 4.00 10−10 c) 6.88 10−10
d) 7.9 10−9 e) 5.68 10−10 f) 6.13 10−9 g) 2.74 10−9 h) 3.52 10−9 i) 8.0110−10 j) 1.13 10−9 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.2
4) The figure shows four particles. What is the angle (deg) of the net gravitational force on particle 4 (m4 = 6.00 kg) at the origin due to the other three particles (relative to the positive direction of the x axis)? m1 = 40.0 kg m2 = 18.0 kg m3 = 10.0 kg r1 = 4.00 m r2 = 3.00 m r3 = 2.00
a) 90 b) 62 c) -71 d) 258 e) 189 f) 43 g) 12 h) -129 i) 231 j) 102 Answer: a Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.2
5) The figure shows three particles with the masses m1 = 1.00 10−3 kg m2 = 2.00 10−3 kg m3 = 6.00 10−3 kg at distances r1 = 2.00 m r2 = 4.00 m with angle = 30.0. What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on particle 3?
a) 1.46 10−16 b) 6.50 10−16 c) 1.08 10−15 d) 2.9110−16 e) 7.00 10−16 f) 5.93 10−16 g) 2.18 10−17 h) 8.66 10−16 i) 5.78 10−17 j) 8.66 10−17 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.2
6) The figure shows three particles with the masses m1 = 1.00 10−3 kg m2 = 2.00 10−3 kg m3 = 45.0 10−3 kg at distances r1 = 2.00 m r2 = 4.00 m with angle = 60.0.
What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on particle 3?
a) 2.3110−16 b) 4.33 10−16 c) 3.44 10−16 d) 5.78 10−17 e) 8.66 10−17 f) 1.73 10−16 g) 6.50 10−16 h) 7.08 10−17 i) 2.89 10−17 j) 1.16 10−16 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.2
7) What is the escape speed (m/s) from the surface of a planet with mass 4.0 1025 kg and radius 7.0 107 m? a) 1.0 104 b) 1.2 105 c) 4.8 103 d) 7.0 105 e) 2.9 104 f) 6.2 104 g) 2.1103 h) 5.9 105 i) 8.7 103 j) 7.5 104
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5
8) Two stars in a binary-star system have the same mass of 4.00 1030 kg and a separation of 3.00 1011 m, and they orbit around their center of mass. What is their period (s)? a) 1.13 108 b) 4.47 107 c) 9.03 106 d) 1.77 107 e) 6.12 107 f) 7.19 106 g) 5.11106 h) 2.45 108 i) 5.78 106 j) 8.78 107 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.6
9) At what height (m) above the Moon’s surface is the energy required to lift a satellite to that height equal to the kinetic energy required for the satellite to be in orbit at that height? Moon’s radius = 1.74 106 m. Moon’s mass = 7.36 1022 kg. a) 2.3 105 b) 4.9 105 c) 2.2 106 d) 4.3 105 e) 1.7 106 f) 3.1105
g) 3.2 106 h) 5.6 105 i) 5.3 106 j) 8.7 105 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.7
10) A solid sphere has a uniformly distributed mass of 4.00 104 kg and a radius of 4.00 m. What is the magnitude (N) of the gravitational force due to the sphere on a particle of mass 3.00 g when the particle is located 1.50 m from the center of the sphere? a) 1.88 10−10 b) 2.33 10−10 c) 6.67 10−11 d) 7.1110−11 e) 4.04 10−9 f) 5.08 10−9 g) 7.03 10−11 h) 5.1110−10 i) 3.98 10−11 j) 1.67 10−9 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.3
11) Two neutron stars are separated by a distance of 5.00 1010 m and each has a mass of 3.50 1030 kg. They are initially at rest with respect to each other. What is their speed (m/s) as measured in that rest frame when their separation has decreased to 3.00 1010 m? a) 7.76 104 b) 8.17 104
c) 9.11104 d) 1.67 104 e) 9.14 103 f) 8.78 103 g) 7.17 103 h) 5.58 104 i) 8.04 103 j) 9.15 103 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5 12) A satellite orbits a planet of unknown mass in a circle of radius 3.50 107 m. The magnitude of the gravitational force on the satellite from the planet is 120 N. What is the kinetic energy (J) of the satellite in its orbit? a) 1.86 1010 b) 9.67 109 c) 3.40 109 d) 2.10 109 e) 4.99 109 f) 7.08 109 g) 2.05 1010 h) 7.42 109 i) 6.17 109 j) 6.83 109 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5
13) In a binary-star system, each star has a mass of 6.00 1030 kg and they rotate around the system’s center of mass at radius 3.00 1011 m. If a meteoroid passes through that center of mass perpendicular to
the orbital plane, what minimum speed (m/s) must it have at the center of mass if it is to escape to “infinity” from the system? a) 6.76 104 b) 1.28 104 c) 7.30 104 d) 2.24 104 e) 8.18 104 f) 1.84 104 g) 6.12 104 h) 5.17 104 i) 9.33 104 j) 4.44 104 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.7
14) Consider a compact spherical star with a mass of 3.49 1030 kg, a radius of 14.0 km, and a rotational period of 5.18 10−2 s. By what percentage does the free-fall acceleration g differ from the gravitational acceleration ag at the equator? a) 1.73 10−2% b) 6.07 10−2% c) 8.52 10−2 % d) 8.02 10−2 % e) 9.83 10−2% f) 2.1110−2 % g) 6.87 10−2% h) 5.36 10−2% i) 2.90 10−2% j) 7.76 10−2% Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0
Section Reference 1: Section 13.3
15) An airless planet of mass 8.54 1024 kg and radius 1700 km gravitationally attracts a meteorite that is initially at rest relevant to the planet, at distance great enough to take as infinite. The meteorite falls toward the planet. What is the speed (m/s) of the meteorite when it reaches the planet’s surface? a) 5.99 104 b) 1.27 104 c) 3.33 104 d) 8.65 104 e) 9.28 104 f) 8.02 104 g) 2.59 104 h) 5.06 104 i) 4.49 104 j) 7.74 104 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5
16) Consider a planet that is a uniform sphere of radius R that has a narrow radial tunnel extending toward its center. Let Fg be the gravitational force on an object on the planet’s surface. How far down the tunnel should the object be lowered such that the gravitational force is then 0.800Fg? a) 0.750R b) 0.333R c) 0.451R d) 0.850R e) 0.200R f) 0.912R g) 0.400R h) 0.125R i) 0.200R j) 0.217R Answer: i Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.4
17) A satellite is in a circular orbit of period 3.00 h and radius 6.00 106 m around a planet with an unknown mass. The magnitude of the gravitational acceleration on the planet’s surface is 7.50 m/s2. What is the planet’s radius (m)? a) 2.43 106 b) 1.77 107 c) 2.89 107 d) 4.57 106 e) 3.67 107 f) 3.12 106 g) 2.43 106 h) 8.86 106 i) 5.52 107 j) 1.77 106 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.6
18) A satellite, moving in an elliptical orbit, is 400 km above Earth’s surface at its farthest point and 190 km above at its closet point. Earth’s radius is 6370 km. What is the eccentricity of the orbit? a) 2.99 10−2 b) 3.33 10−2 c) 3.98 10−2 d) 1.58 10−2 e) 4.5110−2 f) 9.18 10−2 g) 7.17 10−2 h) 8.94 10−2 i) 7.73 10−2 j) 5.16 10−2 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.6
19) A satellite has a circular orbit with a period of 2.00 h and a radius of 7.50 106 m around a planet. What is the planet’s mass (kg)? a) 5.14 1024 b) 6.89 1024 c) 4.82 1024 d) 9.32 1024 e) 7.94 1024 f) 1.27 1025 g) 5.49 1025 h) 3.711025 i) 2.111025 j) 3.03 1025 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.6
20) Four particles, each with mass 25.0 g, form a square, with a particle at each corner. The edge length is 0.500 m. If the edge length is reduced to 0.200 m, what is the change (J) in the gravitational potential energy of the four-particle system? a) −8.99 10−13 b) −5.45 10−13 c) −7.14 10−13 d) −9.14 10−13 e) −5.02 10−13 f) −4.55 10−13 g) −8.0110−13 h) −6.77 10−13 i) −1.22 10−13
j) −2.76 10−13 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5
21) A 15.0 kg rocket is to be launched vertically from the surface of a planet with mass 6.50 1023 kg, a radius of 3.50 106 m, and no atmosphere. If the rocket is launched with an initial energy of 7.20 107 J, what will be its kinetic energy (J) be when it is 4.50 106 m from the center of the planet? a) 3.07 107 b) 1.27 107 c) 8.67 106 d) 8.02 106 e) 2.44 106 f) 5.71106 g) 4.44 106 h) 5.03 106 i) 6.73 106 j) 7.89 106 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5
22) A 15.0 kg rocket is to be launched vertically from the surface of a planet with mass 6.50 1023 kg, a radius of 3.50 106 m, and no atmosphere. With what initial energy (J) should the rocket be launched for it to reach a maximum height of 7.50 106 m? a) 1.28 108 b) 8.33 108 c) 4.87 108 d) 3.76 108 e) 2.27 108
f) 9.91107 g) 3.12 108 h) 4.04 108 i) 5.15 108 j) 2.89 108 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 13.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 14 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 14
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) A solid ball of radius 0.0280 m sits at the bottom of a container of liquid with a density of 1.05 g/cm3. The normal force on the ball from the bottom of the container has magnitude 8.15 10−2 N. What is the mass (kg) of the ball? a) 0.213 b) 0.249 c) 0.122 d) 0.197 e) 0.167 f) 0.287 g) 0.105 h) 0.254 i) 0.231 j) 0.311 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 14.5
2) A liquid of density 800 kg/m3 flows through a horizontal pipe that has a cross-sectional area of 1.80 10−2 m2 in region A and a cross-sectional area of 0.190 m2 in region B. The pressure difference 3 between the two regions is 6.0 10 Pa. What is the volume flow rate (m3/s)? a) 6.76 10
−3
b) 2.33 10 c) 8.78 10 d) 1.13 10
−2
−2
e) 4.13 10 f) 5.8110
−3
−2
−2
g) 5.36 10
−3
h) 2.89 10
−2
i) 4.42 10
−3
j) 7.00 10−2 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 14.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 14.7
3) A hollow sphere of inner radius 10.0 cm and outer radius 11.0 cm floats half-submerged in a liquid of density 950 kg/m3. What is the mass (kg) of the sphere? a) 1.17 b) 1.89 c) 3.41 d) 2.65 e) 3.30 f) 2.97 g) 0.913 h) 0.421 i) 0.748 j) 0.636 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 14.5
4) An object hangs from a spring balance. The balance registers 40.0 N in air, 30.0 N when the object is immersed in water (density 1000 kg/m3), and 32.0 N when the object is immersed in another liquid of unknown density. What is the density (kg/m3) of that other liquid? a) 800 b) 600 c) 540 d) 705 e) 745 f) 859 g) 825 h) 785 i) 685
j) 645 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 14.5
5) A can has a volume of 1500 cm3 and a mass of 0.210 kg. How many kilograms of lead shot could it carry without sinking in water (density 1000 kg/m3)? a) 1.09 b) 0.389 c) 0.487 d) 0.0842 e) 0.278 f) 1.29 g) 0.106 h) 0.921 i) 0.0955 j) 0.0712 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 14.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 15 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 15
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows the acceleration a versus time t graph for a box in SHM along an x axis. Which of the points on the curve corresponds to the instant that the box is at x = -xm?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
2) The figure shows the velocity v versus time t graph for a box in SHM along an x axis. Where is the box at the instant indicated by the dot?
a) +xm b) -xm
c) 0 d) between 0 and +xm e) between 0 and -xm Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
3) The figure shows the velocity v versus time t graph for a box in SHM along an x axis. What is its direction of travel at the instant shown?
a) no direction because it is momentarily at rest b) negative direction of x (leftward) c) positive direction of x (rightward) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
4) The figure shows a block-spring system in SHM at the instant of t = 0. If this motion is described by the function x = xm cos(t + ), then which of the following gives ?
a) 0 b) /2 c) d) 3/2 e) between 0 and /2
f) between /2 and g) between and 3/2 h) between 3/2 and 2 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
5) An oscillating block-spring system has a mechanical energy of 2.00 J, an amplitude of 8.00 cm, and a maximum speed of 1.20 m/s. What is the spring constant (N/m)? a) 500 b) 700 c) 900 d) 420 e) 200 f) 1600 g) 625 h) 800 i) 960 j) 850 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
6) An oscillating block-spring system has a mechanical energy of 2.00 J, an amplitude of 8.00 cm, and a maximum speed of 1.20 m/s. What is the frequency (Hz) of oscillation? a) 90.9 b) 15.4 c) 5.79 d) 10.2 e) 7.14 f) 4.43 g) 2.39 h) 36.0
i) 3.82 j) 22.1 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
7) As shown in the figure, a block of mass M = 5.40 kg, at rest on a horizontal frictionless table, is attached to a rigid wall by a spring with spring constant k = 6000 N/m. A bullet of mass m = 9.50 E-3 kg and speed v strikes and is embedded in the block. After the bullet is embedded, the block and bullet undergo SHM with amplitude 1.50 E-2 m. What was the bullet speed v (m/s)?
a) 5.99 103 b) 47.4 c) 1.78 103 d) 152 e) 4.68 103 f) 569 g) 1.04 103 h) 94.8 i) 2.39 103 j) 285 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
8) A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a block of mass 2.00 kg attached to a spring of spring constant 100 N/m, and it oscillates according to x = xm cos(t + ). When t = 0.650 s, the position and velocity of the block are x = 0.129 m and v = 3.415 m/s. What is the phase constant (rad)? a) -2.02
b) -9.80 c) -2.72 d) -4.85 e) -6.26 f) -6.97 g) -7.67 h) -3.43 i) -5.91 j) -4.14 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
9) The figure shows a block oscillating in SHM at time t = 0. Which of the following gives the value of ? x = xm cos(ωt + )
a) 0 b) /2 c) d) 3/2 e) between 0 and /2 f) between /2 and g) between and 3/2 h) between 3/2 and 2 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
10) The first figure shows a block oscillating in SHM at time t = 0, with position given by x = xm cos(ωt + ). Which of the graphs best shows x versus t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
11) In three situations a block oscillates on the end of spring in SHM. The spring constant and block mass in the three situations are the following: Situation Spring constant Block mass 1 100 N/m 10 kg 2 800 20 3 800 40 Rank the three situations according to the frequency of the SHM, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1
e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
12) A 4.00 kg block oscillates on the end of a spring of spring constant 200 N/m according to x = xm cos(t + ). This SHM is on a frictionless surface. At a certain time, the block has a position of +0.500 m and a velocity of -8.00 m/s. What is the (displacement) amplitude (m) of the motion? a) 0.673 b) 0.680 c) 1.03 d) 0.392 e) 1.48 f) 0.172 g) 0.59 h) 0.943 i) 1.24 j) 0.321 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
13) In SHM given by x = xm cos(t + ), where is the magnitude of the acceleration greatest? a) at extreme point of +xm or -xm b) 0 c) between 0 and extreme point Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 14) In SHM given by x = xm cos(t + ), where is the speed greatest? a) at extreme point of +xm or -xm b) 0 c) between 0 and extreme point Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
15) If a spring-block oscillator has a spring constant of 2400 N/m and a mass of 2.00 kg, what is the angular frequency (rad/s)? a) 3.33 b) 18.9 c) 1.56 d) 8.92 E-2 e) 5.6 E-1 f) 0.416 g) 14.1 h) 2.30 i) 34.6 j) 27.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
16) A 2.00 kg box oscillates on a spring with spring constant 100 N/m along an x axis. Its displacement function is given by x = xm cos(t + ). At time t = 0.20 s, its displacement is x = 0.0500 m, and its velocity is v = +6.00 m/s. What is the value of in radians? a) -1.31 b) -9.80 c) -2.93 d) -1.51 e) -6.26 f) -6.97 g) -7.67 h) -3.43 i) -5.55 j) -4.14 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
17) If a spring-block oscillator has a spring constant of 1500 N/m and a mass of 4.00 kg, what is the angular frequency (rad/s)? a) 7.60 b) 12.9 c) 1.56 d) 8.9 E-2 e) 19.4 f) 5.41 g) 14.1 h) 2.30 i) 22.4 j) 3.3 E-1 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
18) The first figure shows a plot of x versus t for a block-spring system oscillating in SHM. The next four figures show the block during the oscillations Which of those figures best shows the block at time t = 0?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
19) An oscillating block-spring system has a mechanical energy of 10.0 J, an amplitude of 0.400 m, and a maximum speed of 2.50 m/s. What is the spring constant (N/m)? a) 500 b) 450 c) 1356 d) 125 e) 980 f) 333 g) 412 h) 309 i) 250
j) 820 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
20) An oscillating block-spring system has a mechanical energy of 10.0 J, an amplitude of 0.400 m, and a maximum speed of 2.50 m/s. What is the mass (kg) of the block? a) 5.70 b) 1.60 c) 12.5 d) 22.3 e) 6.67 f) 3.20 g) 2.80 h) 7.50 i) 19.6 j) 4.80 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
21) If = 0.8 for a block-spring oscillator moving along an x axis, where is the block at time t = 0? a) +xm b) -xm c) 0 d) between 0 and +xm, headed toward +xm e) between 0 and +xm, headed toward 0 f) between -xm and 0, headed toward -xm g) between -xm and 0, headed toward 0 Answer: f Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
22) In SHM along an x axis, where is the magnitude of the acceleration least? a) at extreme point of +xm or -xm b) 0 c) between 0 and extreme point Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
23) In SHM along an x axis, where is the magnitude of the velocity least? a) at extreme point of +xm or -xm b) 0 c) between 0 and extreme point Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
24) A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a block of mass 2.00 kg attached to a spring with spring constant 100 N/m. When t = 0.400 s, the position and velocity of the block are x = 0.129 m and v = 3.415 m/s. What is the phase constant (rad)? a) -6.97 b) -7.67 c) -3.43 d) -5.55 e) -4.14 f) -1.31 g) -9.80
h) -2.72 i) -1.00 j) -6.26 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
25) The figure shows a graph of acceleration a versus time t for a box of in SHM along an x axis. Which of the points on the curve correspond to the instant that the box is at x = +xm?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
26) The figure shows the velocity v versus time t graph for a box in SHM along an x axis. Where is the box at the instant indicated by the dot?
a) +xm b) -xm c) 0 d) between 0 and +xm e) between 0 and -xm Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
27) The figure shows the velocity v versus time t graph for a box in SHM along an x axis. What is its direction of travel at the instant shown?
a) positive direction of x (rightward) b) no direction because it is momentarily at rest c) negative direction of x (leftward) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
28) An oscillating block-spring system has a mechanical energy of 1.00 J, an amplitude of 10.0 cm, and a maximum speed of 1.20 m/s. What is the spring constant (N/m)?
a) 500 b) 700 c) 900 d) 420 e) 200 f) 600 g) 450 h) 800 i) 960 j) 850 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
29) An oscillating block-spring system has a mechanical energy of 1.00 J, an amplitude of 10.0 cm, and a maximum speed of 1.20 m/s. What is the frequency (Hz) of oscillation? a) 90.9 b) 15.4 c) 5.79 d) 10.2 e) 7.14 f) 4.43 g) 1.91 h) 36.0 i) 3.82 j) 22.1 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.2
30) A 30 kg block is put into SHM on the end of a spring with spring constant 3000 N/m. Its displacement has the form x = 0.20 m cos (ωt + π). What is its acceleration (m/s2) at time t = 0.50 s?
a) -10 b) 0 c) 6.9 d) 18 e) 13 f) -3.2 g) 25 h) -33 i) -11 j) 5.7 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
31) A simple harmonic oscillator moving along an x axis consists of a block of mass 2.00 kg attached to a spring with spring constant 100 N/m. When t = 0.800 s, the position and velocity of the block are x = 0.129 m and v = 3.415 m/s. What is the phase constant (rad)? a) -6.97 b) -7.67 c) -3.43 d) -15.5 e) -4.14 f) -2.02 g) -9.80 h) -2.72 i) -4.85 j) -5.26 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
32) In an experiment, the water level in a container oscillates vertically in SHM with a period of 8.00 hours. The level changes height by 2.40 m. How long (hours) does the level take to drop 2.00 m from the highest point?
a) 1.55 b) 1.67 c) 2.82 d) 0.52 e) 3.05 f) 2.93 g) 3.22 h) 2.58 i) 0.45 j) 0.89 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 15.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 16 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 16
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a standing wave on a string. The string’s tension is 6.50 10 , its mass is 0.600 kg, and its length is 0.300 m. At what frequency (Hz) does any string element (except at a node) oscillate? 3
a) 791 b) 250 c) 1.12 10
3
d) 2.50 10 e) 913 f) 50 g) 475 h) 112 i) 1.12 10 j) 417
3
4
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
2) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.025 m) sin(3.0x + 4.0t). What is the amplitude (m)? a) 1.50 b) 0.75 c) 8.0 d) 0.30 e) 0.018 f) 0.33 g) 0.21 h) 0.025 i) 0.50
j) 0.033 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
3) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.025 m) sin(3.0x + 4.0t). In what direction is the wave traveling? a) +x b) -x c) +y d) -y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
4) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.025 m) sin(3.0x + 4.0t). What is the wavelength (m)? a) 0.33 b) 0.21 c) 0.025 d) 0.50 e) 0.036 f) 1.50 g) 0.67 h) 8.0 i) 0.25 j) 1.00 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
5) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.025 m) sin(3.0x + 4.0t). What is the frequency (Hz)? a) 7.6 b) 4.0 c) 6.8 d) 2.0 e) 14.2 f) 3.5 g) 5.2 h) 1.25 i) 9.5 j) 12.0 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
6) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.025 m) sin(3.0x + 4.0t). What is the wave speed (m/s)? a) 1.5 b) 0.75 c) 8.0 d) 0.25 e) 0.018 f) 1.3 g) 0.21 h) 0.025 i) 0.50 j) 3.5
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
7) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.025 m) sin(3.0x + 4.0t). What is the transverse velocity (m/s) of the element at x = 1.00 m at time t = 2.00 s? a) -0.42 b) +0.47 c) -0.31 d) -0.55 e) +0.054 f) +0.73 g) +0.018 h) +0.85 i) -0.085 j) +0.12 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
8) The figure shows two strings with the same length and tension and oscillating at the same frequency. On which string do the waves have a longer wavelength?
(a) String A (b) String B (c) They are tied. Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
9) The figure shows two strings with the same length and tension and oscillating at the same frequency. On which string is the speed of the wave greater?
(a) String A (b) String B (c) They are tied. Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
10) The figure shows two strings with the same length and tension and oscillating at the same frequency. Which string has greater mass?
(a) String A (b) String B (c) They are tied. Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
11) The figure shows a standing wave on a string. The string’s tension is 2.40 E4 N, its mass is 0.600 kg, and its length is 0.300 m. At what frequency (Hz) does any string element (except at a node) oscillate?
a) 50.0 b) 475 c) 1.12 d) 1.12 10 e) 417 f) 791 g) 250
4
h) 1.12 10
3
i) 2.50 10 j) 913
3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
12) Here are three pairs of waves that we can send along a string. Rank the pairs according to the amplitude of the resultant wave that would result on the string, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. Hint: draw phasors. Pair 1: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.7) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.7) Pair 2 y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 0.2) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 1.2) Pair 3 y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t + 0.5) a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1
e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
13) The following two waves travel along the same string (x is in meters and t is in seconds): y1 = (5.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (5.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 0.800 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave?
a) 4.65 b) 3.49 c) 6.98 d) 5.85 e) 11.63 f) 8.14 g) 2.91 h) 9.21 i) 10.47 j) 2.33 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
14) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). What is the amplitude (m)? a) 0.33
b) 0.040 c) 0.025 d) 0.060 e) 0.036 f) 1.50 g) 0.75 h) 8.0 i) 0.25 j) 0.018 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
15) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). In what direction is the wave traveling? a) +x b) -x c) +y d) -y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
16) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). What is the wavelength (m)? a) 1.0 b) 0.75 c) 8.0 d) 0.25
e) 0.018 f) 0.33 g) 0.21 h) 0.025 i) 0.50 j) 0.036 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
17) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). What is the frequency (Hz)? a) 3.0 b) 5.2 c) 1.25 d) 9.5 e) 12 f) 7.6 g) 4.0 h) 6.8 i) 2.5 j) 1.0 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
18) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). What is the wave speed (m/s)? a) 0.33 b) 0.21 c) 0.025
d) 0.50 e) 0.036 f) 1.50 g) 0.75 h) 4.0 i) 0.25 j) 0.018 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
19) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). What is the maximum transverse speed (m/s) of any string element? a) 1.5 b) 0.25 c) 0.84 d) 2.3 e) 1.9 f) 0.33 g) 2.8 h) 0.50 i) 3.3 j) 0.75 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
20) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.060 m) sin(2.0x + 8.0t). What is the transverse acceleration (m/s2) of the element at x = 2.0 m at time t = 2.0 10 a) +0.61 b) -0.023
−2
s?
c) +0.20 d) +0.025 e) -0.82 f) -0.32 g) +5.17 h) -0.38 i) -18 j) -0.044 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
21) Here are three pairs of waves that we can send along a string. Rank the pairs according to the amplitude of the resultant wave that would result on the string, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. Pair 1: y1 = (3.0 mm) sin(3x – 7t) y2 = (3.0 mm) sin(3x – 7t + 1.5) Pair 2: y1 = (3.0 mm) sin(x – 6t + 0.7) y2 = (3.0 mm) sin(x – 6t + 0.7) Pair 3: y1 = (3.0 mm) sin(9x – 4t + 0.5) y2 = (3.0 mm) sin(9x – 4t + 1.5) a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0
Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
22) The following two waves travel along the same string (x is in meters and t is in seconds). y1 = (3.00 mm) sin(6.00 x – 4.00 t) y2 = (3.00 mm) sin(6.00 x – 4.00 t + 1.25 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 0.134 b) 1.27 c) 0.567 d) 11.7 e) 5.56 f) 4.87 g) 3.33 h) 4.02 i) 5.12 j) 7.88 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
23) Here are two waves traveling on the same string: y1 = (6.0 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (3.0 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 1.60 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 1.33 b) 3.33 c) 5.90 d) 3.93 e) 5.53 f) 5.09 g) 0.37 h) 6.63 i) 8.37 j) 4.51 Answer: h Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.6
24) Here are two waves traveling on the same string: y1 = (6.0 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (3.0 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 1.60 rad) What is the phase angle (rad) of the resultant wave? a) 0.357 b) 0.241 c) 1.23 d) 0.201 e) 0.667 f) 0.469 g) 0.260 h) 1.11 i) 1.54 j) 0.891 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.6
25) The figure shows two snapshots of a standing wave on a string oscillating at 1500 Hz. string length = 0.200 m What is the string tension (N)?
a) 3.20 10 b) 609 c) 240 d) 402
3
e) 1.10 10
3
f) 4.06 10
3
g) 1.69 10
3
h) 6.75 10
3
string mass = 1.50 10
−2
kg
i) 169 j) 4.2110
3
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
26) Here are three pairs of waves that we can send along a string. Rank the pairs according to the amplitude of the resultant wave that would result on the string, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. Pair 1: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t + 0.5) Pair 2: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 0.7) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 1.7) Pair 3: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.3) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.3) a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
27) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.036 m) sin(8.0x + 6.0t).
What is the amplitude (m)? a) 0.67 b) 0.75 c) 8.0 d) 0.025 e) 0.018 f) 0.33 g) 0.21 h) 0.125 i) 0.50 j) 0.036 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
28) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.036 m) sin(8.0x + 6.0t). In what direction is the wave traveling? a) +x b) -x c) +y d) -y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
29) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.036 m) sin(8.0x + 6.0t). What is the wavelength (m)? a) 0.67
b) 0.75 c) 0.70 d) 0.25 e) 0.018 f) 0.33 g) 0.21 h) 0.125 i) 0.50 j) 0.036 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
30) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.036 m) sin(8.0x + 6.0t). What is the frequency (Hz)? a) 7.6 b) 4.0 c) 6.8 d) 2.5 e) 14.2 f) 3.0 g) 5.2 h) 1.25 i) 9.5 j) 12.0 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
31) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.036 m) sin(8.0x + 6.0t). What is the wave speed (m/s)?
a) 2.0 b) 0.75 c) 0.80 d) 0.35 e) 0.18 f) 0.63 g) 0.91 h) 1.25 i) 0.62 j) 0.030 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
32) Here is the equation for a wave on a string under tension: y = (0.036 m) sin(8.0x + 6.0t). What is the transverse velocity (m/s) of the element at x = 1.0 m at time t = 2.0 s? a) -0.42 b) +0.036 c) +0.39 d) -0.55 e) +0.054 f) +0.68 g) +0.018 h) +0.85 i) -0.085 j) +0.12 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.1
33) The following two waves travel along the same string (x is in meters and t is in seconds): y1 = (15.0 mm) sin(4 x – 7 t) y2 = (15.0 mm) sin(4 x – 7 t + 1.90 rad).
What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 8.14 b) 2.16 c) 9.31 d) 10.4 e) 2.33 f) 4.65 g) 27.0 h) 6.98 i) 5.82 j) 17.5 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
34) Here are two waves traveling on the same string: y1 = (7.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (4.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 2.50 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 9.24 b) 3.68 c) 10.90 d) 5.33 e) 3.09 f) 4.49 g) 8.36 h) 6.46 i) 8.99 j) 9.76 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.6
35) Here are two waves traveling on the same string: y1 = (7.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (4.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 2.50 rad) What is the phase angle (rad) of their resultant wave? a) 0.244 b) 0.457 c) 0.667 d) 0.563 e) 0.109 f) 0.333 g) 0.290 h) 0.812 i) 0.129 j) 0.708 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.6
36) The figure shows two snapshots of a standing wave on a string oscillating at 1200 Hz. string tension = 400 N string mass = 25.0 E-3 kg What is the string length (m)?
a) 2.2 b) 5.7 c) 1.3 d) 0.92 e) 1.2 f) 4.6 g) 1.5 h) 3.6 E-2 i) 0.10 j) 3.2 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
37) Here are three pairs of waves that we can send along a string. Rank the pairs according to the amplitude of the resultant wave that would result on the string, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. Pair 1: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.4) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 1.4) Pair 2: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 0.3) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 0.3) Pair 3: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t + 0.5) a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
38) The following two waves travel along the same string (x is in meters and t is in seconds). y1 = (4.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (4.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 1.50 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 4.65 b) 3.49 c) 6.98 d) 5.85 e) 11.63 f) 8.14
g) 2.91 h) 9.21 i) 10.47 j) 2.33 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
39) Here are two waves traveling on the same string: y1 = (5.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (2.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 3.60 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 4.87 b) 2.53 c) 6.46 d) 2.93 e) 2.21 f) 6.15 g) 3.33 h) 1.04 i) 5.33 j) 3.09 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.6
40) The figure shows a standing wave on a string. The string’s tension is 5.00 10 N, its mass is 0.600 kg, and its length is 0.300 m. At what frequency (Hz) does any string element (except at a node) oscillate? 3
a) 50 b) 354 c) 112
d) 1.12 10 e) 417 f) 791 g) 250
4
h) 1.12 10
3
i) 2.50 10
3
j) 7.9110
3
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.7
41) Here are three pairs of waves that we can send along a string. Rank the pairs according to the amplitude of the resultant wave that would result on the string, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. 1: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.8) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(6x – 12t + 0.8) Pair 2: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 0.8) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(3x – 5t + 1.8) Pair 3: y1 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t) y2 = (4.0 mm) sin(2x – 4t + 0.5) a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0
Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
42) The following two waves travel along the same string (x is in meters and t is in seconds). y1 = (2.50 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (2.50 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 1.90 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 4.65 b) 3.49 c) 6.98 d) 5.82 e) 11.6 f) 8.14 g) 2.91 h) 9.31 i) 10.4 j) 2.33 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.5
43) Here are two waves traveling on the same string: y1 = (6.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t) y2 = (4.00 mm) sin(4.00 x – 7.00 t + 3.60 rad) What is the amplitude (mm) of their resultant wave? a) 4.87 b) 8.36 c) 6.46 d) 2.99 e) 9.76 f) 9.24 g) 3.85 h) 10.9 i) 5.33 j) 3.09 Answer: d Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 16.6
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 17 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 17
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows three pipes, of lengths L and 2L, in which the first harmonic has been set up. Rank them according to the frequency of the first harmonic, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
2) Resonance is set up in a tube. Here are some of the frequencies emitted by the tube in the range from 50 Hz through 1200 Hz: 400, 600, 800, 1000, 1200 Hz. Which of the following is a frequency (Hz) missing from the list? a) 500 b) 125 c) 100 d) 700 e) 250 f) 300 g) 200
h) 50 i) 900 j) 10 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
3) Resonance is set up in a tube. Here are some of the frequencies emitted by the tube in the range from 50 Hz through 1200 Hz: 400, 600, 800, 1000, 1200 Hz. How many open ends does the tube have? a) 1 b) 2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
4) The figure shows two sound rays that are initially parallel and in phase. Ray A undergoes several reflections but ends up traveling in its original direction. What is the third smallest value (m) of distance d that will put the two rays exactly out of phase? Wavelength = 14.0 m.
a) 9.14 b) 6.00 c) 5.00
d) 8.00 e) 3.50 f) 2.56 g) 2.40 h) 2.00 i) 4.00 j) 1.67 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
5) The figure shows two isotropic point sources that emit in phase at the same wavelength of 4.50 m. The sources are separated by d = 25.7 m. If we move a detector around a big circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, how many points do we encounter where the waves from the two sources are exactly out of phase?
a) 23 b) 25 c) 27 d) 29 e) 20 f) 22 g) 24 h) 26 i) 28 j) 30 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
6) A bat wants to catch an insect, which is flying directly away from the bat. Bat speed = 30.0 m/s. Insect speed = 20.0 m/s. Bat emits sound at frequency 3.00 104 Hz. What is the frequency (Hz) of the echo that bounces back to the bat? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. a) 4.42 104 b) 3.96 104 c) 4.11104 d) 3.82 104 e) 5.20 104 f) 2.89 104 g) 3.18 104 h) 2.92 104 i) 3.43 104 j) 2.76 104 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.7
7) You are initially at distance R from an isotropic point source of sound, where the intensity is I0. You then move to distance R/3 from the source. What is the intensity there? a) I0 b) 2I0 c) 3I0 d) 9I0 e) 27I0 f) I0/4 g) I0/2 h) I0/3 i) I0/9 j) I0/27 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.4 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4
8) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of sound waves that emit in phase and at the same wavelength. They are separated by distance d = 4.5 m. We move a sound detector along the x axis, starting at x = +. As we move it to the left along the axis, we encounter a region of zero signal, then a region of maximum signal, then another region of zero signal, then another region of maximum signal, and then another region of zero signal. At that last point, x = 6.00 m. What is the wavelength (m)?
a) 1.1 b) 2.5 c) 3.1 d) 2.3 e) 0.60 f) 0.31 g) 0.96 h) 10.5 i) 12.8 j) 0.49 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.3 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
9) Tube A has two open ends. Tube B has only one open end. The 5th harmonic frequency of A matches the 9th harmonic frequency of B. What is the ratio of the tube length of B to that of A? a) 0.90 b) 1.3 c) 1.9 d) 1.5 e) 2.1 f) 0.70 g) 1.7
h) 0.50 i) 1.1 j) 0.33 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.5 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
10) In the figure, sound waves A and B, both of wavelength 12.0 m, are initially in phase and traveling rightward. They each reflect several times but end up traveling in their original direction. What is the second smallest value (m) of d that puts A and B exactly out of phase with each other after the reflections?
a) 2.75 b) 3.25 c) 1.50 d) 1.71 e) 2.50 f) 9.00 g) 3.00 h) 3.75 i) 2.00 j) 2.40 Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.3 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
11) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of sound S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 4.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 19 m. If we move a sound detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive at the detector exactly in phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
12) The figure shows a circle and a square that emits sound at frequency 700 Hz. They move directly toward each other. The arrows show their direction of travel, and the speeds are v1 = 50.0 m/s and v2 = 100 m/s. What is the frequency (Hz) of the echo that is sent back to the square? The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s
a) 917 b) 545
c) 1.36 103 d) 2.99 103 e) 2.45 103 f) 1.73 103 g) 7.34 103 h) 2.18 103 i) 3.81104 j) 327 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.7
13) The figure shows two isotropic point sources that emit in phase at the same wavelength of 4.00 m. The sources are separated by d = 22.0 m. If we move detector along a big circle around the midpoint between the sources, how many points do we encounter where the waves from the two sources are exactly out of phase?
a) 22 b) 24 c) 26 d) 28 e) 30 f) 23 g) 25 h) 27 i) 29 j) 20 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
14) A pipe with one open end and length 6.0 m: What wavelength (m) is needed to set up the third harmonic? a) 2.0 b) 3.5 c) 6.0 d) 1.5 e) 0.50 f) 4.5 g) 8.0 h) 2.4 i) 4.0 j) 3.0 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
15) The figure shows two sound rays that are initially parallel and in phase. Ray A undergoes several reflections but ends up traveling in its original direction. What is the fourth smallest value (m) of distance d that will put the two rays exactly out of phase? Wavelength = 16.0 m.
a) 2.56 b) 2.40 c) 2.00 d) 4.00 e) 1.67 f) 9.14 g) 6.00 h) 5.00 i) 8.00 j) 3.50
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
16) A collection of small, identical sound sources each emit with the same intensity I1. Suddenly only 12 are left emitting sound, still at intensity I1. That sudden change results in a decrease of 32.0 decibels in the sound level. How many sources were initially producing sound? a) 8.17 103 b) 7.28 106 c) 4.40 103 d) 2.69 106 e) 3.60 103 f) 5.20 103 g) 3.31105 h) 1.90 104 i) 5.73 104 j) 2.47 105 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4
17) The figure shows two isotropic, point sources of sound that emit the same wavelength of 0.50 m and in phase. The sources are separated by d = 1.75 m. When we walk a big circle around them, how many points of fully constructive interference do we encounter?
a) 10 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16
e) 14 f) 18 g) 20 h) 24 i) 22 j) 26 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
18) We use sound waves to set up the third harmonic in a pipe with length 2.00 m and only one open end. The speed of sound is 343 m/s. What is the resonant frequency (Hz)? a) 606 b) 752 c) 214 d) 1.20 103 e) 858 f) 123 g) 143 h) 189 i) 513 j) 645 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
19) Initially 3500 small, identical sound sources emit the same intensity. Then 2000 of them stop. What is the resulting change (dB) in the sound level? a) -4.53 b) -0.755 c) -3.01 d) -11.3 e) 1.76
f) -2.02 g) -3.68 h) -2.54 i) -1.88 j) -0.568 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4
20) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of sound waves that emit in phase and at the same wavelength. Their separation is d = 4.50 m. We move a sound detector leftward along the x axis, starting at a great distance ( x ) where the waves have fully constructive interference. As we move it to the left along the axis, we encounter a region of zero signal, then a region of maximum signal, then another region of zero signal, then another region of maximum signal, and then another region of zero signal. At that last point, x = 3.00 m. What is the wavelength (m)?
a) 1.1 b) 2.5 c) 3.1 d) 2.3 e) 0.60 f) 0.31 g) 0.96 h) 10.5 i) 12.8 j) 0.49 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
21) A pipe with one open end and length 3.0 m: What wavelength (m) is needed to set up the third harmonic? a) 2.0 b) 3.5 c) 6.0 d) 1.5 e) 0.50 f) 4.5 g) 8.0 h) 2.4 i) 4.0 j) 3.0 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
22) A collection of small, identical sound sources each emit with the same intensity I1. Suddenly only 17 are left emitting sound, still at intensity I1. That sudden change results in a decrease of 52.0 decibels in the sound level. How many sources were initially producing sound? a) 8.17 103 b) 7.28 106 c) 4.40 103 d) 2.69 106 e) 3.60 103 f) 5.20 103 g) 3.31105 h) 1.90 104 i) 5.73 104 j) 2.47 105 Answer: d Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4
23) A gas fills a pipe that is 0.500 long. One end is closed. The third lowest harmonic frequency is 700 Hz. What is the speed (m/s) of sound in the enclosed gas? a) 346 b) 440 c) 280 d) 302 e) 326 f) 405 g) 312 h) 369 i) 397 j) 381 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.5
24) Two sound waves travel in the same direction through a long pipe. They each have an amplitude 15.0 nm and they differ in phase by 0.400 . What is the amplitude (nm) of the net wave? a) 24.3 b) 15.6 c) 6.99 d) 3.02 e) 12.4 f) 18.6 g) 11.0 h) 17.4 i) 19.8 j) 4.23 Answer: a Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.3
25) A small microphone with an area of 0.550 cm2 intercepts sound from a point source that emits 25.0 W of sound isotropically. The distance between source and microphone is 175 m. What is the power (W) intercepted by the microphone? a) 7.1110
−9
b) 1.13 10
−9
c) 6.1110
−8
d) 7.98 10 e) 7.97 10 f) 2.02 10
−8
−10
g) 4.20 10
−10
h) 3.57 10 i) 8.43 10
−8
−9
−10
j) 2.54 10
−8
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4
26) A person drops a rock into a well and then hears the splash 2.45 s later. At what depth (m) is the water surface? The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. a) 6.99 b) 17.4 c) 42.6 d) 55.2 e) 33.2 f) 21.9 g) 27.5 h) 42.8 i) 38.8 j) 36.4 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.1
27) A stationary listener hears frequency f1 from a source moving directly toward the listener with a speed of 20.0 m/s. When the listener then moves directly toward the source with a speed of 30.0 m/s, the detected frequency f2 differs from f1 by 33.0 Hz. What is the frequency (Hz) of the source? Take the speed of sound to be 340 m/s. a) 389 b) 484 c) 899 d) 1.14 10
3
e) 1.93 10 f) 568 g) 707 h) 812
3
i) 2.24 10 j) 352
3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.7
28) A detector at distance D from an isotropic point source of sound intercepts intensity I1. When it is moved 40.0 m closer to the source, the intensity is 2.20I1. What is the value (m) of D? a) 228 b) 313 c) 188 d) 246 e) 266 f) 402 g) 104 h) 165 i) 123
j) 144 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 29) A sound source moves at constant speed vs along an x axis, between detectors A and B. The wavelength detected at A is 0.400 times that detected at B. What is the ratio of vs to the speed of sound v? a) 0.810 b) 0.204 c) 0.520 d) 0.429 e) 0.288 f) 0.680 g) 0.848 h) 0.709 i) 0.118 j) 0.764 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.7
30) The sound level of a source is increased by 25.8 dB. By what multiple is its intensity increased? a) 489 b) 362 c) 204 d) 882 e) 804 f) 380 g) 419 h) 308 i) 422 j) 782 Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 17.4
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 18 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 18
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) We have a sample of ice at a temperature of -9.00ºC. How much energy (J) must be added to it as thermal energy to change the water to liquid at 14.0ºC? specific heat of ice = 2.22 103 J/kg·K specific heat of liquid water = 4.18 103 J/kg·K heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/kg
mass = 0.500 kg
a) 7.27 106 b) 4.54 105 c) 1.45 107 d) 2.06 105 e) 2.91107 f) 9.09 105 g) 1.82 106 h) 3.64 106 i) 5.82 107 j) 1.14 105 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
2) The figure shows the cross section of a two-layer wall. The temperatures for the left face, interface, and right face are T1 = 30C, T2 = 20C, and T3 = −10C. Layer 1 has thickness 0.20 m; layer 2 has thickness 0.60 m. What is the thermal conductivity of layer 2 in terms of that of layer 1? That is, what
goes in the blank here: k2 = ____k1 ?
a) 1.8 b) 1.5 c) 0.50 d) 0.40 e) 1.0 f) 1.2 g) 1.6 h) 0.75 i) 0.25 j) 1.4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 3) We start with 2.00 kg sample of ice at T = −25.0C. How much energy (J) is required to bring the sample to a temperature of T = 35.0C ? Specific heat of ice = 2.22 103 J/kg·K, specific heat of liquid water = 4.18 103 J/kg·K, heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/K. a) 8.92 105 b) 9.13 105 c) 2.04 106 d) 4.51106 e) 8.33 105 f) 7.91105 g) 1.07 106 h) 2.83 106 i) 1.67 106
j) 7.19 105 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
4) Here are two temperature scales: X Y water freezing point 223 87 water boiling point -23 -57 On which scale is a temperature change of 1.00 deg larger? (a) X (b) Y Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.2
5) We have three solid materials that we will heat. Here, as multiples of m1 and c1, are the masses and specific heats of the materials. material 1 m1 c1 material 2 0.5m1 2c1 material 3 2m1 0.5c1 Rank the three materials according to the change in temperature ∆T they undergo when we add 100 J to them as thermal energy, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3)
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
6) We have a sample of ice at a temperature of -23.0ºC. How much energy (J) must be added to it as thermal energy to change the water to liquid at 44.0ºC? specific heat of ice = 2.22 103 J/kg·K specific heat of liquid water = 4.18 103 J/kg·K heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/kg
mass = 0.200 kg
a) 7.27 106 b) 4.54 105 c) 1.45 107 d) 2.27 105 e) 2.91107 f) 9.09 105 g) 1.82 106 h) 3.64 106 i) 5.82 107 j) 1.14 105 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
7) A brass slug at initial temperature 240ºC is put into liquid water at initial temperature 0.000ºC. The water is isolated from the surroundings (no thermal energy is exchanged with the surrounds). What is the final temperature of the bass and water (ºC)? brass mass = 0.200 kg brass specific heat = 380 J/kg •K water mass = 0.030 kg water specific heat = 4.18 103 J/kg •K a) 59.6 b) 64.0 c) 44.4 d) 69.1
e) 27.6 f) 90.6 g) 49.5 h) 82.1 i) 36.9 j) 75.0 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
8) Two materials receive the same amount of energy Q. Material 1 has a greater specific heat than material 2. Which undergoes a greater temperature change? (There is no phase change.) a) 1 b) 2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
9) A sphere at 20 K radiates at a rate of P1. If we double the temperature to 40 K, what multiple of P1 gives the new rate of radiation? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 e) 10 f) 12 g) 16 h) 24 i) 30 j) 36 Answer: g Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6
10) The figure shows the cross section of a wall consisting of multiple layers, with the following parameters:
TH = 300C, TC = −10.0C, k2 = 2.00k1 , k3 = 2.50k1 , L2 = 0.500L1 , L3 = 0.250L1. The conduction through the wall is steady. In one hour, 500 J is conducted through layer 1. In two hours, how much energy (J) conducted through layer 3?
a) 250 b) 500 c) 750 d) 1.00 103 e) 1.25 103 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6
11) How much water (grams) remains unfrozen after 50.2 kJ is transferred as heat from 260 g of liquid water initially at its freezing point? Water specific heat = 4.18 103 J/kg·K and the heat of fusion is
3.33 105 J/kg. a) 33 b) 121 c) 109 d) 54 e) 89 f) 146 g) 159 h) 214 i) 183 j) 67
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
12) Consider the slab shown in cross section in the figure. Suppose that L = 25.0 cm, A = 90.0 cm2, and the material is copper with thermal conductivity of 401 W/m·K. If TH = 125º, TC = 10.0ºC, and a steady state is reached, find the conduction rate (J/s) through the slab.
a) 8.84 103 b) 1.15 103 c) 7.76 103 d) 1.66 103 e) 2.01103 f) 2.54 103 g) 9.16 103 h) 8.02 103 i) 6.67 103 j) 4.57 103 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6
13) A sphere of radius 0.500 m, temperature 27.0ºC, and emissivity 0.850 is located in an environment of temperature 77.0ºC. What is the sphere’s net rate (W) of energy exchange?
a) 561 b) 7.0 103 c) 4.5 103 d) 2.3 103 e) 9.5 104 f) 707 g) 8.1103 h) 891 i) 1.2 104 j) 1.0 103 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6
14) A solid cube has an emissivity of 0.850, an edge length of 0.200 m, and surface temperature of −40.0C. At what rate (W) does the cube radiate? Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.6704 10−8 W/m2 K 4 . a) 34.1 b) 160 c) 47.4 d) 126 e) 85.2 f) 180 g) 40.8 h) 142 i) 97.5 j) 111 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6
15) The figure shows a wall in cross section. It consists of six layers of different materials with the following parameters:
T1 = 30C, T5 = 21C T7 = −4.0C L2 = 2.0 cm, k2 = 5.0 W/m K, L5 = 5.0 cm, k5 = 1.0 W/m K, L6 = 1.0 cm, k6 = 7.0 W/m K If the rate of energy transfer through the second layer (second from the left) is 25 J/s, what is the rate of energy transfer through the fifth layer?
(a) more than 25 J/s (b) less than 25 J/s (c) equal to 25 J/s Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6
16) Ethyl alcohol has a boiling point of 78.0ºC, a freezing point of -114ºC, a heat of vaporization of 8.79 105 J/kg, a heat of fusion of 1.09 105 J/kg, and a specific heat of 2.43 103 J/kg K. How much energy (J) must be removed from 0.510 kg of ethyl alcohol that is initially a gas at 78.0ºC so that it becomes a solid at -114ºC? a) 9.71106 b) 4.02 106 c) 5.37 106 d) 7.99 106 e) 5.93 106 f) 2.22 106 g) 3.33 106
h) 7.42 105 i) 8.05 105 j) 1.01106 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
17) The figure shows four paths on a p-V diagram along which a gas can be taken from state i to state f. Rank the paths according to the change ∆E in the internal energy, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,3,2,1 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,(2,3),1 f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,3,4 h) 3,4,1,2 i) 2,(1,4),3 j) (1,2,3,4)
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.5
18) The figure shows four paths on a p-V diagram along which a gas can be taken from state i to state f. Now rank them according to the magnitude of the energy Q transferred as heat, greatest first. ( ) indicates
a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,3,2,1 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,(2,3),1 f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,3,4 h) 3,4,1,2 i) 2,(1,4),3 j) (1,2,3,4)
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.5
19) We have a sample of ice at a temperature of -15.0ºC. How much energy (J) must be added to it as thermal energy to change the water to liquid at 72.0ºC? specific heat of ice = 2.22 103 J/kg·K specific heat of liquid water = 4.18 103 J/kg·K heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/kg a) 7.27 106 b) 4.54 105 c) 1.45 107 d) 2.27 105 e) 2.91107 f) 9.09 105 g) 1.82 106 h) 3.64 106 i) 5.82 107
mass = 1.70 kg
j) 1.13 106 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
20) Gas within a chamber passes through the cycle shown in the figure. Determine the energy (J) transferred as heat during process CA (sign included) if the energy added as heat during process AB is 20.0 J, the energy lost as heat during process BC is 4.0 J, and the net work done during the cycle is 15.0 J.
a) +7.0 b) +2.0 c) +39 d) +1.0 e) +31 f) -7.0 g) -2.0 h) -39 i) -1.0 j) -31 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.5
21) A rectangular plate of glass initially has the dimensions 0.220 m by 0.345 m. The coefficient of linear −6
expansion for the glass is 9.20 10 / K. What is the change (m2) in the plate’s area if its temperature is increased by 28.0 K?
a) 3.78 10−5 b) 4.99 10−5 c) 7.07 10−6 d) 1.53 10−6 e) 3.86 10−6 f) 8.5110−5 g) 3.9110−5 h) 1.12 10−5 i) 5.13 10−6 j) 9.18 10−6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 22) A 3.40 kg aluminum bolt is heated to 65.0C and then put in 9.00 kg of water at 15.0C . Assume that the bolt–water system is isolated. When the system reaches thermal equilibrium, what is the temperature ( C )? Specific heat of aluminum = 900 J/kg K. Specific heat of water = 4186.8 J/kg K. a) 18.8 b) 53.7 c) 42.6 d) 29.4 e) 33.3 f) 48.4 g) 57.9 h) 50.6 i) 58.3 j) 62.0 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
23) A sphere of radius 0.740 m, temperature 35.0C , and emissivity 0.900 is suspended in an environment at temperature 82.0C. What is the sphere’s net rate (W) of energy exchange with the environment? Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.6704 10−8 W/m2 K 4 . a) 4.19 103 b) 3.92 103 c) 2.42 103 d) 8.84 103 e) 6.88 103 f) 9.15 103 g) 8.08 103 h) 7.79 103 i) 7.04 103 j) 9.96 103 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 24) In an insulated container, what mass (kg) of steam at 100C must be mixed with 180 g of ice at 0.00C to produce liquid water at 40.0C ? Heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/kg Heat of vaporization = 2.256 106 J/kg Specific heat = 4187 J/kg K a) 6.67 10−2 b) 8.89 10−2 c) 4.1110−3 d) 7.07 10−3 e) 7.12 10−2 f) 3.59 10−2 g) 9.32 10−3 h) 8.04 10−3
i) 5.15 10−2 j) 4.89 10−2 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
25) An ice lump of 90.0 g is dropped into 220 g of water in an isolated container. The initial temperature of the ice is −10.0C and that of the water is 30.0C . What is the equilibrium temperature ( C )? Heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/kg Specific heat = 4187 J/kg K a) 25.4 b) -2.30 c) 12.5 d) -8.89 e) 21.4 f) 14.8 g) 5.67 h) -5.89 i) 0 j) 19.4 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 18.4
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 19 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 19
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) An ideal gas is initially at pressure 1.01105 Pa, volume 5.00 10−2 m-3, and temperature 140C. The gas pressure is then changed to 3.03 105 Pa while the temperature is decreased to −50.0C. What now is the volume (m3)? a) 1.22 10−2 b) 1.52 10−2 c) 2.6110−3 d) 0.161 e) 1.66 10−3 f) 9.00 10−3 g) 7.52 10−3 h) 5.88 10−3 i) 4.08 10−3 j) 2.36 10−3 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2
2) A sample of oxygen gas initially has volume 1000 cm3 at 40.0ºC and 1.01105 Pa. It expands until its volume is 1500 cm3 and its pressure is 1.06 105 Pa. What is its temperature (degrees Celsius) then? a) 377 b) 305 c) 613 d) 481 e) 220 f) 451 g) 414 h) 501 i) 554
j) 516 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 3) A 1.00 L gas sample with = 1.30 is initially at 200 K and 1.20 atm. It is then compressed adiabatically to one fourth its initial volume. When then is its pressure (atm)? a) 6.67 b) 5.42 c) 1.90 d) 12.4 e) 7.99 f) 3.33 g) 7.28 h) 8.80 i) 4.56 j) 4.12 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.9 4) A 2.00 L gas sample with = 1.30 is initially at 200 K and 1.20 atm. It is then compressed adiabatically to one fourth its initial volume. When then is its temperature (K)? a) 254 b) 414 c) 367 d) 389 e) 212 f) 303 g) 114 h) 393 i) 157
j) 181 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.9
5) The temperature of 4.50 mol of an ideal diatomic gas is increased by 50.0 C without the gas pressure changing. The molecules rotate but do not oscillate. By how much (J) does the rotational kinetic energy of the gas increase? a) 5.1110
3
b) 8.67 10 c) 2.82 10
3
3
d) 9.44 10
3
e) 7.12 10
3
f) 6.14 10
3
g) 5.9110
3
h) 1.87 10
3
i) 3.33 10
3
j) 3.72 10
3
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
6) A sample of air initially occupies 0.280 m3 at a pressure of 202 kPa. It is next expanded isothermally to a pressure of 101 kPa and then cooled at constant pressure until it returns to its initial volume. How much work (J) has been done by the sample? a) 8.66 10 b) 1.05 10
3
4
c) 7.78 10
4
d) 7.08 10
3
e) 3.96 10 f) 4.40 10
4
g) 5.33 10 h) 8.1110 i) 9.24 10
4
4
4
4
j) 7.69 10
3
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2
7) An ideal monatomic gas is initially at 300 K and 5.40 atm. It undergoes an isothermal expansion from 600 cm3 to a volume of 1400 cm3. How much work (J) is done by the gas? a) 702 b) 667 c) 741 d) 336 e) 987 f) 414 g) 177 h) 387 i) 277 j) 453 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2
8) An ideal monatomic gas is initially at 300 K and 5.40 atm. It undergoes an adiabatic expansion from 600 cm3 to a volume of 1400 cm3. How much work (J) is done by the gas? a) 187 b) 505 c) 413
d) 212 e) 873 f) 612 g) 686 h) 514 i) 802 j) 714 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.9
9) An ideal gas, at initial temperature T1 and initial volume 1.80 m3, is expanded adiabatically to a volume of 4.20 m3, then expanded isothermally to a volume of 9.80 m3, and then compressed adiabatically back to T1. What is its final volume (m3)? a) 2.05 b) 5.67 c) 4.20 d) 3.33 e) 2.48 f) 5.98 g) 3.04 h) 1.98 i) 0.867 j) 4.96 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.9
10) The temperature of 2.50 mol of an ideal monatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. What is the work (J) done by the gas? a) 416 b) 1.28 103 c) 589
d) 628 e) 976 f) 1.14 103 g) 708 h) 754 i) 1.53 103 j) 513 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
11) The temperature of 2.50 mol of an ideal monatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. What is the energy (J) transferred as heat? a) 604 b) 639 c) 1.28 103 d) 916 e) 769 f) 815 g) 1.04 103 h) 714 i) 137 j) 975 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
12) The temperature of 2.50 mol of an ideal monatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. What is the change (J) in the internal energy of the gas? a) 598 b) 1.77 103 c) 218
d) 333 e) 623 f) 597 g) 733 h) 1.07 103 i) 418 j) 112 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
13) The temperature of 2.50 mol of an ideal monatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. What is the change (J) in the average kinetic energy per atom? a) 5.5110−23 b) 4.14 10−22 c) 8.86 10−23 d) 1.33 10−22 e) 4.89 10−23 f) 6.67 10−22 g) 7.55 10−23 h) 5.87 10−22 i) 6.82 10−23 j) 1.24 10−23 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
14) The temperature of 3.00 mol of an ideal diatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. The molecules rotate but do not oscillate. What is the energy (J) transferred as heat? a) 1.75 103
b) 4.98 103 c) 967 d) 732 e) 2.22 103 f) 1.05 103 g) 814 h) 2.84 103 i) 2.51103 j) 867 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.8
15) The temperature of 3.00 mol of an ideal diatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. The molecules rotate but do not oscillate. What is the change (J) in the internal energy of the gas? a) 1.97 103 b) 2.15 103 c) 916 d) 1.25 103 e) 864 f) 753 g) 512 h) 683 i) 989 j) 574 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.8
16) The temperature of 3.00 mol of an ideal diatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. The molecules rotate but do not oscillate. What is the work (J) done by the gas?
a) 667 b) 523 c) 714 d) 907 e) 602 f) 781 g) 499 h) 967 i) 1.32 103 j) 1.57 103 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.8
17) The temperature of 3.00 mol of an ideal diatomic gas is raised 20.0 K under constant pressure. The molecules rotate but do not oscillate. What is the change (J) in the total translational kinetic energy of the gas? a) 912 b) 748 c) 403 d) 667 e) 548 f) 309 g) 387 h) 476 i) 502 j) 187 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.8
18) An external agent does work to take a 2.50 mol sample of oxygen through an isothermal compression from a volume of 18.6 L at 0.00C and 1.00 atm to a volume of 14.5 L. How much work (J) is done by the agent? a) −3.32 103 b) −2.91103 c) −2.13 103 d) −5.42 103 e) −6.89 103 f) −4.32 103 g) −5.27 103 h) −3.67 103 i) −1.41103 j) −4.87 103 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2
19) An ideal gas is expanded at a constant pressure of 2.25 10 Pa, with a transfer of 250 J as heat. The gas consists of 2.00 mol of diatomic molecules that rotate but do not oscillate and which have a diameter of 2.50 10−12 m. What is the change (m) in the mean free path of the molecules? 5
a) 8.12 10−10 b) 1.15 10−10 c) 7.13 10−10 d) 5.86 10−10 e) 6.19 10−10 f) 2.18 10−10 g) 3.82 10−10 h) 4.33 10−10 i) 2.87 10−10 j) 9.49 10−10 Answer: j Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.5
20) What is the internal energy (J) of 2.40 mol of an ideal monatomic gas 324 K? a) 9.69 103 b) 8.77 103 c) 7.07 103 d) 1.97 104 e) 4.12 104 f) 3.39 104 g) 3.86 104 h) 5.72 104 i) 6.52 104 j) 7.54 104 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7 21) How much work (J) is done by 3.00 mol of an ideal gas during an isothermal compression at 15.0C from a volume of 5.00 m3 to a volume of 3.40 m3? a) −2.77 103 b) −3.14 103 c) −7.12 103 d) −4.18 103 e) −5.13 103 f) −1.34 103 g) −7.89 103 h) −5.53 103 i) −6.67 103 j) −7.02 103
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2
22) How much energy (J) is transferred as heat between the environment and an ideal gas of 3.00 mol during an isothermal compression at 15.0C from a volume of 5.00 m3 to a volume of 3.40 m3? a) −2.77 103 b) −3.14 103 c) −7.12 103 d) −4.18 103 e) −5.13 103 f) −1.34 103 g) −7.89 103 h) −5.53 103 i) −6.67 103 j) −7.02 103 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.2
23) The energy added as heat to an ideal gas is 35.6 J, which causes the volume to change from 60.0 cm3 to 120 cm3 while the pressure remains 1.20 atm. What is the change (J) in the internal energy of the gas? a) 58.8 b) 63.8 c) 77.9 d) 53.2 e) 27.1 f) 31.9 g) 14.0 h) 45.7 i) 48.9 j) 36.5
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
24) The energy added as heat to an ideal gas is 35.6 J, which causes the volume to change from 60.0 cm3 to 120 cm3 while the pressure remains 1.20 atm. What is the molar specific heat at constant pressure
(J/mol K)?
a) 38.7 b) 40.6 c) 25.5 d) 28.9 e) 37.2 f) 29.4 g) 34.9 h) 21.8 i) 23.4 j) 27.0 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
25) The energy added as heat to an ideal gas is 35.6 J, which causes the volume to change from 60.0 cm3 to 120 cm3 while the pressure remains 1.20 atm. What is the molar specific heat at constant volume
(J/mol K)?
a) 26.6 b) 27.8 c) 31.2 d) 34.6 e) 28.4 f) 25.1 g) 32.4 h) 38.9
i) 19.9 j) 22.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 19.7
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 20 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 20
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) A Carnot refrigerator extracts 40.0 kJ as heat during each cycle, operating with a coefficient of performance of 3.50. What is the energy (kJ) per cycle transferred as heat to the room per cycle? a) 51.4 b) 36.7 c) 18.6 d) 28.7 e) 65.4 f) 21.9 g) 17.4 h) 31.4 i) 27.3 j) 32.6 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.3
2) A Carnot refrigerator extracts 56.0 kJ as heat during each cycle, operating with a coefficient of performance of 5.20. What is the work (kJ) done per cycle? a) 53.2 b) 19.5.7 c) 18.3 d) 15.4 e) 9.46 f) 21.6 g) 10.8 h) 30.4 i) 17.2 j) 32.6 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.3
3) A 3.50 mol sample of an ideal gas undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion from volume V1 to volume V2 = 1.70V1 at temperature T = 400 K. What is the entropy change (J/K) of the gas? a) 13.6 b) 4.69 c) 6.99 d) 12.8 e) 9.65 f) 21.7 g) 12.0 h) 9.76 i) 15.4 j) 7.54 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 4) A 10.0 g ice cube at −10.0C is placed in a large body of water with a temperature of 8.00C. What is the entropy change (J/K) of cube–body system as the ice cube come to thermal equilibrium with the body of water? Retain at least four significant figures until the end. Specific heat of ice = 2220 J/kg K. Specific heat of water = 4190 J/kg K. Heat of fusion for water = 3.33 10 J/kg. 5
a) 4.6 b) 2.5 c) 2.0 d) 3.3 e) 11 f) 2.8 g) 0.10 h) 0.40 i) 6.7
j) 1.6 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 5) A Carnot engine with a low-temperature reservoir at 15.0C has an efficiency of 32.0%. By how much (K) should the high-temperature reservoir be increased to increase the efficiency to 40.0%? a) 66.7 b) 23.7 c) 56.5 d) 14.5 e) 39.4 f) 12.1 g) 48.3 h) 17.8 i) 5.50 j) 9.45 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 6) A Carnot air conditioner takes energy from the thermal energy of a room at 25.0C and transfers it as heat to the outdoors, which is at 35.0C. For each joule of electric energy required to operate the air conditioner, how many joules are removed from the room? a) 14.5 b) 11.6 c) 6.78 d) 8.11 e) 16.7 f) 21.0 g) 13.4 h) 5.88 i) 9.77
j) 29.8 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 7) A 450 W Carnot engine operates between constant-temperature reservoirs at 90.0C and 55.0C . At what rate (J/s) does the engine take in energy as heat? a) 3.77 103 b) 6.09 103 c) 9.14 103 d) 9.89 103 e) 1.85 104 f) 2.20 104 g) 1.15 104 h) 8.05 103 i) 4.67 103 j) 8.78 103 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 8) A 450 W Carnot engine operates between constant-temperature reservoirs at 90.0C and 55.0C . At what rate (J/s) does the engine exhaust energy as heat? a) 8.12 103 b) 4.22 103 c) 1.19 103 d) 3.75 103 e) 9.56 103 f) 2.12 103
g) 6.35 103 h) 1.97 103 i) 9.04 103 j) 2.77 103 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.2
9) A 180 W refrigerator motor operates between 270 K inside the freezer compartment and 290 K inside the room. Were the motor a Carnot refrigerator, what would be the maximum amount of energy (J) that it could remove from the freezer compartment in 5.00 min? a) 8.38 105 b) 9.23 105 c) 8.24 104 d) 9.56 104 e) 9.04 104 f) 8.79 104 g) 7.29 105 h) 5.16 105 i) 4.17 105 j) 3.33 105 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 10) A 0.500 kg sample of water is initially ice at −15.0C. What is the change (J/K) in its entropy if the temperature is increased to 45.0C? specific heat of ice = 2.22 103 J/kg·K specific heat of liquid water = 4.18 103 J/kg·K heat of fusion = 3.33 105 J/kg
a) 498 b) 907 c) 882 d) 518 e) 733 f) 577 g) 667 h) 443 i) 612 j) 993 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.1
11) A Carnot engine with a high-temperature reservoir is at 380 K has an efficiency of 25.0%. By how much (K) should the temperature of the low-temperature reservoir be changed to increase the efficiency to 35.0%? a) −33.0 b) −22.0 c) −28.0 d) −18.0 e) −38.0 f) +14.0 g) +25.0 h) +24.0 i) +30.0 j) +32.0 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.2
12) An ideal refrigerator does 110 J of work to remove 500 J as heat from its cold compartment. What is the refrigerator’s coefficient of performance?
a) 3.89 b) 4.54 c) 2.29 d) 2.87 e) 4.03 f) 1.27 g) 3.16 h) 1.78 i) 5.28 j) 1.86 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.3
13) An ideal refrigerator does 110 J of work to remove 500 J as heat from its cold compartment. How much heat (J) per cycle is exhausted to the kitchen? a) 207 b) 277 c) 328 d) 524 e) 577 f) 610 g) 785 h) 422 i) 487 j) 369 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 20.3
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 21 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 21
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) We have four identical conducting spheres that are separated by a distance much greater than their identical radii. They have the following initial charges: A, +16e; B, -14e; C, -15e; D, +23e. Sphere A is touched to sphere B and then pulled away. Sphere B is then touched to sphere C and then pulled away. Sphere C is then touched to sphere D and then pulled away. What is the final charge on sphere D? a) +8e b) -2e c) +6e d) -5e e) +12e f) -8e g) +2e h) -6e i) +5e j) -12e Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
2) The figure shows charged particles 1 and 2 that are fixed in placed. q1 = -5e, q2 = +3e, d = 0.200 m. At what coordinate should a third charged particle be placed (x = ? m) such that the net force on it is zero?
a) -0.333 b) 0.316 c) 0.687 d) -1.38 e) 0.100
f) -0.79 g) 0.154 h) 0.887 i) -0.550 j) 0.516 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
3) 1) We have four identical conducting spheres that are separated by a distance much greater than their identical radii. They have the following initial charges: A, +16e; B, -14e; C, -15e; D, +23e. Sphere A is touched to sphere B and then pulled away. Sphere B is then touched to sphere C and then pulled away. Sphere A is then touched to sphere D and then pulled away. What is the final charge on sphere D? a) +8e b) -2e c) +6e d) -5e e) +12e f) -8e g) +2e h) -6e i) +5e j) -12e Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
4) The figure shows charged particles 1 and 2 that are fixed in placed. q1 = -8e, q2 = +3e, d = 0.200 m. At what coordinate should a third charged particle be placed (x = ?? m) such that the net force on it is zero?
a) -0.333 b) 0.316 c) 0.687 d) -1.38 e) 0.100 f) -0.79 g) 0.154 h) 0.887 i) -0.550 j) 0.516 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
5) We have three identical conducting spheres. Their initial charges are A, +8e; B, +13e; C, -2e. We touch A and C and then move them apart. Then we touch B and C and then move them apart. What then is the final charge on B? a) 0 b) -2e c) -5e d) +8e e) +e f) -3e g) +5e h) +3e i) -8e j) -e Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
6) The figure shows two charged particles (q1 = +6e, q2 = -2e) that are fixed in place and separated by distance d = 3.00 m. At what x coordinate (m) can a third charged particle be placed such that the net force on the third particle is zero?
a) 1.13 b) 0.35 c) 0.49 d) 1.65 e) 4.20 f) -2.05 g) 3.55 h) -3.96 i) 7.10 j) -0.54 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
7) The figure shows three charged particles. what is the x component (N) of the net force on the particle at the origin? d1 = d2 = 2.00 m, q1 = 3e, q2 = -6e, q3 = -2e, θ = 30.0º.
a) −2.8110−28 b) +5.34 10−29 c) 0 d) −7.1110−28 e) +4.09 10−29 f) +6.10 10−28
g) −3.33 10−28 h) −9.22 10−29 i) −2.53 10−28 j) −5.00 10−28 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
8) The figure shows two charged particles (q1 = +6e, q2 = -2e) that are fixed in place and separated by distance d = 1.50 m. At what x coordinate (m) can a third charged particle be placed such that the net force on the third particle is zero?
a) 1.13 b) 0.35 c) 0.49 d) 1.65 e) 4.20 f) -2.05 g) 3.55 h) -3.96 i) 7.10 j) -0.54 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
9) The figure shows three charged particles. What is the x component (N) of the net force on the particle at the origin? d1 = d2 = 2.00 m, q1 = 3e, q2 = -6e, q3 = -2e, θ = 65.0º.
a) −2.8110−28 b) +5.34 10−29 c) 0 d) −7.1110−28 e) +4.09 10−29 f) +6.10 10−28 g) −3.33 10−28 h) −9.22 10−29 i) −2.53 10−28 j) −5.00 10−28 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
10) The figure shows three identical conducting spheres with these initial charges: A, -12Q, B, +8Q, C, 0. Here is the procedure for connecting and then disconnecting spheres with wire: (1) connect A and C and then disconnect (2) connect B and C and then disconnect, moving C far away (3) connect A and B and then disconnect A and B have a center-to-center separation r. What is the magnitude of the final force between those two spheres? Answer by choosing what goes in the blank in this equation: F = __ kQ 2 / r 2 .
a) 0.75 b) 6.25 c) 2.25 d) 2.67 e) 3.33 f) 5.40
g) 4.10 h) 3.80 i) 5.00 j) 1.50 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
11) The figure shows a particle of charge Q = -4e that is fixed at the origin and an electron that is moving along the x axis. At the instant when the separation is 2.00 m, what is the magnitude (m/s2) of the electron’s acceleration? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 1.89 102 b) 9.26 102 c) 5.61103 d) 7.37 103 e) 2.67 103 f) 3.16 102 g) 2.53 102 h) 4.43 102 i) 1.29 103 j) 4.05 103 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
12) The figure shows two charged particles 1 and 2 that are fixed in place. We can position charged particle 3 somewhere to the left of those two particles. We want a position where the net force on particle 3 is zero. Here are eight choices for the charges of particles 1 and 2. For which choices is there such a position where the net force on particle 3 is zero?
Choice q1 q2 1 5e -2e 2 5e 2e 3 -5e 2e 4 -5e -2e 5 2e -5e 6 2e 5e 7 -2e 5e 8 -2e -5e a) 5 and 7 b) 6 and 8 c) 5 and 6 d) 7 and 8 e) 6 and 7 f) 1 and 3 g) 2 and 4 h) 1 and 2 i) 3 and 4 j) 2 and 3 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
13) The figure shows three charged particles. What is the magnitude (N) of the net electric force on particle 3 due to the other two particles? q1 = -6e, q2 = +5e, q3 = +2e, d1 = 2.00 m, d2 = 3.00 m, θ = 25.0°
a) 3.10 10−27
b) 8.25 10−27 c) 6.79 10−27 d) 5.60 10−27 e) 2.08 10−27 f) 3.87 10−28 g) 8.32 10−28 h) 6.12 10−28 i) 5.12 10−28 j) 4.2110−28 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
14) The figure shows a particle of charge Q = -5e that is fixed at the origin and an electron that is moving along the x axis. At the instant when the separation is 2.00 m, what is the magnitude (m/s2) of the electron’s acceleration? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 1.89 102 b) 9.26 102 c) 5.61103 d) 7.37 103 e) 2.67 103 f) 3.16 102 g) 2.53 102 h) 4.43 102 i) 1.29 103 j) 4.05 103 Answer: f Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
15) The figure shows three charged particles. What is the magnitude (N) of the net electric force on particle 3 due to the other two particles? q1 = -6e, q2 = +5e, q3 = +5e, d1 = 2.00 m, d2 = 3.00 m, θ = 25.0°
a) 3.10 10−27 b) 8.25 10−27 c) 6.79 10−27 d) 5.60 10−27 e) 2.08 10−27 f) 3.87 10−28 g) 8.32 10−28 h) 6.12 10−28 i) 5.12 10−28 j) 4.2110−28 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
16) The figure shows two charged particles fixed (glued) in place. At what coordinate (x = ? m) on the x axis (other than at infinity) can I place a third charged particle such that the net force on that third particle is zero? q1 = +12e q2 = +6e d = 0.150 m
a) 3.4110−2 b) 1.16 10−2 c) 3.56 10−2
d) −2.72 10−2 e) 9.45 10−2 f) −5.56 10−2 g) 0.176 h) −5.86 10−2 i) 8.79 10−2 j) 6.20 10−2 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
17) The figure shows two charged particles fixed (glued) in place. At what coordinate (x = ? m) on the x axis (other than at infinity) can I place a third charged particle such that the net force on that third particle is zero? q1 = +12e q2 = +6e d = 0.300 m
a) 3.4110−2 b) 1.16 10−2 c) 3.56 10−2 d) −2.72 10−2 e) 9.45 10−2 f) −5.56 10−2 g) 0.176 h) −5.86 10−2 i) 8.79 10−2 j) 6.20 10−2 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
18) The figure shows a central particle at the origin and four other charged particles. What is the magnitude of the net force (N) acting on particle 5? q1 = +16e q2 = +16e q3 = +3e q4 = −2e q5 = −4e θ = 30.0° d1 = 5.00 m, d2 = 5.00 m, d3 =3.00 m, d4 = 2.00 m
a) 2.3 10−28 b) 3.5 10−29 c) 1.9 10−27 d) 5.5 10−27 e) 8.5 10−28 f) 7.110−28 g) 2.9 10−29 h) 5.0 10−27 i) 8.3 10−27 j) 4.110−28 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
19) The figure shows a central particle at the origin and four other charged particles. What is the angle (degrees, measured relative to the positive direction of the x axis) of the net force on particle 5 at the origin? q1 = +16e q2 = +16e q3 = +3e q4 = −2e q5 = −4e θ = 30.0° d1 = 5.00 m, d2 = 5.00 m, d3 =3.00 m, d4 = 2.00 m
a) -23
b) -29 c) 4.2 d) -58 e) 0.34 f) 12 g) 8.4 h) -16 i) -49 j) -2.9 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
20) The figure shows a particle of charge Q = -3e that is fixed at the origin and an electron that is moving along the x axis. At the instant when the separation is 2.00 m, what is the magnitude (m/s2) of the electron’s acceleration? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 1.90 102 b) 9.26 102 c) 5.61103 d) 7.37 103 e) 2.67 103 f) 3.16 102 g) 2.53 102 h) 4.42 102 i) 1.29 103 j) 4.05 103 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
21) The figure shows three charged particles. What is the magnitude (N) of the net electric force on particle 3 due to the other two particles? q1 = -6e, q2 = +5e, q3 = +2e, d1 = 2.00 m, d2 = 3.00 m, θ =25.0°
a) 3.10 10−27 b) 8.25 10−27 c) 6.79 10−27 d) 5.60 10−27 e) 2.08 10−27 f) 3.87 10−28 g) 8.32 10−28 h) 6.12 10−28 i) 5.12 10−28 j) 4.2110−28 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
22) The figure shows a particle of charge Q = -7e that is fixed at the origin and an electron that is moving along the x axis. At the instant when the separation is 2.00 m, what is the magnitude (m/s2) of the electron’s acceleration? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 1.89 102 b) 9.26 102 c) 5.61103 d) 7.37 103 e) 2.67 103
f) 3.16 102 g) 2.53 102 h) 4.42 102 i) 1.29 103 j) 4.05 103 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
23) The figure shows three charged particles. What is the magnitude (N) of the net electric force on particle 3 due to the other two particles? q1 = -6e, q2 = +5e, q3 = +5e, d1 = 2.00 m, d2 = 3.00 m, θ =25.0°
a) 3.10 10−27 b) 8.25 10−27 c) 6.79 10−27 d) 5.60 10−27 e) 2.08 10−27 f) 3.87 10−28 g) 8.32 10−28 h) 6.12 10−28 i) 5.12 10−28 j) 4.2110−28 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 21.2
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 22 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 22
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows three arrangements of identical circular arcs. Each consists of a quarter circle with uniform charge. The amounts and signs are shown. Rank the magnitudes of the electric field at the center of each circle, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 1, (2,3) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
2) Three charged particles are to be released in a uniform electric field. Here are the charge and mass of each particle: (1) -e m (2) +e 1800m (3) -2e 3600m Rank the particles according to the magnitudes of their acceleration once released, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2
g) (1,2), 3 h) 1, (2,3) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
3) The figure shows four charged particles: q1 = +5e, q2 = +5e, q3 = +5e, q4 = -5e, d = 0.200 m, θ = 30.0°. What is the net electric field (N/m) at the origin?
a) 9.1110−7 b) 1.12 10−7 c) 1.08 10−8 d) 6.54 10−7 e) 3.74 10−7 f) 2.16 10−7 g) 1.80 10−7 h) 9.3110−8 i) 3.1110−7 j) 7.19 10−7 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
4) The figure shows a uniformly charged rod of total charge Q and total length L. Point P lies on the perpendicular bisector at distance D. Which of the following expressions best gives the magnitude of the electric field at P?
kDQ L /2 dx 2 0 2L ( D + x 2 )3/2 kDQ L /2 x dx b) 2 2 L 0 ( D + x 2 )3/2 kDQ L /2 dx c) 2 0 L ( D + x 2 )1/2 2kDQ L /2 x dx d) 2 L 0 ( D + x 2 )3/2 2kDQ L /2 dx e) 2 0 L ( D + x 2 )3/2 kDQ L /2 x dx f) 2 L 0 ( D + x 2 )1/2 a)
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
5) In the figure, an electron is released (from rest) on line B, in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 50.0 N/C. The line spacings are d1 = 0.200 m and d2 = 0.400 m. The electron accelerates past either line A or C (you must decide which). What is its speed (m/s) when it passes that line? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 5.41105 b) 2.80 105 c) 9.59 104 d) 1.87 106 e) 2.02 104 f) 2.65 106 g) 7.66 106 h) 5.30 106 i) 7.14 107 j) 3.75 106 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
6) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 50.0 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 3e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the magnitude (N·m) of the torque on the dipole?
a) 3.07 10−29 b) 5.04 10−22 c) 3.00 10−25 d) 6.08 10−25 e) 1.05 10−24 f) 2.03 10−27 g) 6.5110−25
h) 8.05 10−24 i) 9.05 10−21 j) 2.1110−31 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
7) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 50.0 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 3e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the potential energy (J) of the dipole?
a) +3.23 10−25 b) +4.93 10−26 c) +1.82 10−27 d) +5.20 10−25 e) +9.3110−26 f) −3.23 10−25 g) −4.93 10−26 h) −1.82 10−27 i) −5.20 10−25 j) −9.3110−26 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
8) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 175 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 3e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the magnitude (N·m) of the torque on the dipole?
a) 3.07 10−29 b) 5.04 10−22 c) 3.00 10−25 d) 6.08 10−25 e) 1.05 10−24 f) 2.03 10−27 g) 6.5110−25 h) 8.05 10−24 i) 9.05 10−21 j) 2.1110−31 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
9) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 175 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 3e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the potential energy (J) of the dipole?
a) +3.23 10−25 b) +4.93 10−26 c) +1.82 10−24 d) +5.20 10−25 e) +9.3110−26 f) −3.23 10−25
g) −4.93 10−26 h) −1.82 10−24 i) −5.20 10−25 j) −9.3110−26 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
10) In the figure, an electron is released (from rest) on line B, in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 200.0 N/C. The line spacings are d1 = 0.200 m and d2 = 0.400 m. The electron accelerates past either line A or C (you must decide which). What is its speed (m/s) when it passes that line? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 5.41105 b) 2.80 105 c) 9.59 104 d) 1.87 106 e) 2.02 104 f) 2.65 106 g) 7.66 106 h) 5.30 106 i) 7.14 107 j) 3.75 106 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
11) The figure shows two charged particles fixed on an x axis. It also shows a plot of the net electric field for points between the two particles, complete with the algebraic sign of the field. Which of the following gives the signs of the charges?
q1 q2 a) + + b) + − c) − − Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
12) The figure shows an electron that is shot from plate A directly toward plate B, through a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 500 N/C. The electron’s initial speed is 1.00 106 m/s and its final speed is 5.00 105 m/s. How much time (s) does the trip take? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 1.24 10−9 b) 8.76 10−10 c) 1.98 10−10 d) 2.28 10−9 e) 4.5110−9 f) 5.69 10−9
g) 5.0110−10 h) 4.1110−10 i) 6.67 10−9 j) 8.1110−9 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
13) The figure shows an electron that is shot from plate A directly toward plate B, through a rightward uniform electric field of magnitude E = 500 N/C. The electron’s initial speed is 1.00 106 m/s and its final speed is 5.00 105 m/s. What is the direction of the electric field?
a) leftward b) rightward Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
14) A horizontal rod of length L = 0.80 m has a uniform charge of −Q = −5.00 10−15 C on the left half and a uniform charge of Q = +5.00 10−15 C on the right half. A length element dx has charge element dq. What number (C/m) goes in the blank in this statement? dq = ___dx a) 1.25 10−14 b) 4.60 10−15 c) 8.00 10−14
d) 7.78 10−15 e) 5.40 10−14 f) 2.50 10−14 g) 6.25 10−15 h) 2.00 10−14 i) 1.00 10−14 j) 2.90 10−15 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
15) In the figure, two particles, with the same magnitude of charge, are at equal distances d from the origin. Four points are shown. At which is the net electric field in the positive direction of the x axis?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 & 3 only f) 3 & 4 only g) 1 & 2 only h) 2 & 3 only i) 1 & 4 only j) none Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
16) In the figure, two particles, with the same magnitude of charge, are at equal distances d from the origin. Four points are shown. At which is the net electric field in the positive direction of the y axis?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 & 3 only f) 3 & 4 only g) 1 & 2 only h) 2 & 3 only i) 1 & 4 only j) none Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
17) The figure shows an electron that is shot from plate A directly toward plate B, through a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 500 N/C. The electron’s initial speed is 3.00 105 m/s and its speed as it reaches plate B is 5.00 105 m/s. How much time (s) does the trip take? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 1.24 10−9 b) 8.76 10−10 c) 1.98 10−10 d) 2.28 10−9 e) 4.5110−9 f) 5.69 10−9 g) 5.0110−10
h) 4.1110−10 i) 6.67 10−9 j) 8.1110−9 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
18) The figure shows an electron that is shot from plate A directly toward plate B, through a uniform electric field. The electron’s initial speed is 3.00 105 m/s and its speed as it reaches plate B is 5.00 105 m/s. What is the direction of the electric field?
a) left b) right Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
19) A horizontal rod of length L = 0.80 m has a uniform charge of −8.00 10−15 C on the left half and a uniform charge of +8.00 10−15 C on the right half. A length element dx has charge element dq. What number (C/m) goes in the blank in this statement? dq = ___dx a) 1.25 10−14 b) 4.60 10−15 c) 8.00 10−14 d) 7.78 10−15 e) 5.40 10−14
f) 2.50 10−14 g) 6.25 10−15 h) 2.00 10−14 i) 1.00 10−14 j) 2.90 10−15 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
20) The figure shows an electron and a proton that are moving rightward in the electric field between two plates. The electric field vector is leftward. Which particle is losing kinetic energy as it moves?
a) proton b) electron Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
21) The figure shows three charged particles with their charge signs indicated. Mentally determine their net electric field vector at the origin. Into which quadrant of the xy coordinate system does that net electric field vector point?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
22) The figure shows three charged particles with their charge signs indicated. Mentally determine their net electric field vector at the origin. If particle 1 is moved toward the origin, what happens to that net electric field vector at the origin?
a) unchanged b) rotates counterclockwise c) rotates clockwise Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
23) In the figure, an electron is accelerated from rest by a uniform electric field, from plate A to plate B. The field is perpendicular to the plates. With what speed (m/s) does it arrive at the plate at the right? The field magnitude is 415 N/C, and the plate separation is 0.0200 m.
a) 2.41104 b) 3.83 105 c) 1.71106 d) 8.68 104 e) 2.52 104 f) 2.55 106 g) 6.14 105 h) 1.26 106 i) 5.93 105 j) 8.00 106 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
24) What is the potential energy (J) of an electric dipole that has charge magnitude 5e at each end, separated by 4.00 10−8 m, and whose dipole moment is at 60.0 to an electric field of magnitude 20.0 N/C? a) −1.110−25 b) −2.2 10−27 c) +7.110−26 d) +6.6 10−28 e) −3.2 10−25 f) +9.110−25 g) +5.3 10−27 h) −5.9 10−26 i) −6.6 10−28 j) +4.8 10−25 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
25) The figure shows an electron and a proton that are moving rightward in the electric field between two plates. The electric field vector is leftward. Which particle is gaining kinetic energy as it moves?
a) proton b) electron Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
26) What is the potential energy (J) of an electric dipole that has charge magnitude 5e at each end, separated by 4.00 10−8 m, and whose dipole moment is at 80.0 to an electric field of magnitude 20.0 N/C? a) −1.110−25 b) −2.2 10−27 c) +7.110−26 d) +6.6 10−28 e) −3.2 10−25 f) +9.110−25 g) +5.3 10−27 h) −5.9 10−26 i) −6.6 10−28 j) +4.8 10−25 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
27) In the figure, an electron is accelerated from rest by a uniform electric field, from plate A to plate B. With what speed (m/s) does it arrive at the plate at the right? The field magnitude is 925 N/C, and the plate separation is 0.0200 m.
a) 2.41104 b) 3.83 105 c) 1.71106 d) 8.68 104 e) 2.52 104 f) 2.55 106 g) 6.14 105 h) 1.26 106 i) 5.93 105 j) 8.00 106 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
28) The figure shows six charged rods. Some have the same sign charge throughout and are uniformly charged. The rest have one sign on one half and the opposite sign on the other half, with each half uniformly charged. For each rod, a point P on a perpendicular bisector is indicated. In which situation is the net electric field at P in the positive direction of the y axis?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 5 d) 2 and 6 e) 3 and 5 f) 3 and 6 g) 4 and 5 h) 4 and 6 i) 1 and 4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
29) In the figure, two particles, with the same magnitude of charge, are at equal distances d from the origin. Four points are shown. At which is the net electric field in the positive direction of the y axis?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 3 only f) 3 and 4 only g) 1 and 2 only h) 2 and 3 only i) 1 and 4 only j) 2 and 4 only Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
30) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 75.0 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 5e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the magnitude (N·m) of the torque on the dipole?
a) 3.08 10−29 b) 5.00 10−22 c) 3.40 10−25 d) 6.05 10−25 e) 7.14 10−24 f) 7.50 10−25 g) 8.90 10−25 h) 1.47 10−24 i) 9.50 10−21 j) 2.19 10−31 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
31) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 75.0 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 5e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the potential energy (J) of the dipole?
a) +3.12 10−24 b) +2.55 10−24 c) +3.33 10−24 d) +5.25 10−24
e) +1.30 10−24 f) −3.12 10−24 g) −2.55 10−24 h) −3.33 10−24 i) −5.25 10−24 j) −1.30 10−24 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
32) The figure shows two charged particles. Distance d is 0.500 m. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at the origin? q1 = +5e q2 = -2e θ = 30.0º
a) 3.53 10−9 b) 5.47 10−8 c) 2.5110−8 d) 4.89 10−7 e) 1.75 10−9 f) 4.00 10−9 g) 1.12 10−8 h) 1.75 10−8 i) 1.57 10−9 j) 8.37 10−7 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
33) In the figure, an electron is shot with an initial speed of 1400 m/s from plate A to plate B, where it arrives with a speed of 700 m/s. The plate separation is d = 0.0500 m. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field between the two plates, which is perpendicular to the plates? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 7.29 10−6 b) 3.90 10−6 c) 1.23 10−5 d) 5.04 10−3 e) 8.37 10−5 f) 1.25 10−5 g) 8.12 10−4 h) 2.56 10−5 i) 6.9110−6 j) 7.67 10−5 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
34) In the figure, an electron is shot with an initial speed of 1400 m/s from plate A to plate B, where it arrives with a speed of 700 m/s. What is the direction of the field?
a) leftward b) rightward Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
35) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 105 N/C, with = 30.0. The ends have charge magnitude 7e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the magnitude (N·m) of the torque on the dipole?
a) 3.08 10−29 b) 5.00 10−22 c) 3.40 10−25 d) 6.05 10−25 e) 7.14 10−24 f) 7.5110−25 g) 8.90 10−25 h) 1.47 10−24 i) 9.50 10−21 j) 2.19 10−31 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
36) The figure shows an electric dipole in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 105 N/C, with = 30.0. . The ends have charge magnitude 7e and are separated by 2.50 10−8 m. What is the potential energy (J) of the dipole?
a) +3.12 10−24 b) +2.55 10−24 c) +3.33 10−24 d) +5.25 10−24 e) +1.30 10−24 f) −3.12 10−24 g) −2.55 10−24 h) −3.33 10−24 i) −5.25 10−24 j) −1.30 10−24 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
37) The figure shows two charged particles. Distance d is 2.00 m. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at the origin? q1 = +5e q2 = -2e θ = 30.0º
a) 3.53 10−9 b) 5.47 10−8 c) 2.5110−8 d) 4.89 10−7 e) 1.75 10−9 f) 4.00 10−9 g) 1.12 10−8 h) 1.75 10−8 i) 1.57 10−9 j) 8.37 10−7 Answer: i Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.2
38) In the figure, an electron is shot with an initial speed of 200 m/s directly plate A to plate B, where it arrives with a speed of 700 m/s. The field is perpendicular to the plates. The plate separation is d = 0.050 m. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field between the two plates? An electron has mass 9.1110−31 kg.
a) 7.29 10−6 b) 3.90 10−6 c) 1.23 10−5 d) 5.04 10−3 e) 8.37 10−5 f) 1.25 10−5 g) 8.12 10−4 h) 2.56 10−5 i) 6.9110−6 j) 7.67 10−5 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
39) In the figure, an electron is shot with an initial speed of 200 m/s directly plate A to plate B, where it arrives with a speed of 700 m/s. The field is perpendicular to the plates. What is the direction of the field?
a) leftward b) rightward Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
40) The figure shows two charged parallel plates. The electric field between them is uniform, with a magnitude of 3.0 N/C. A particle with charge +2e and mass 3.36 10−27 kg is released from rest at coordinate x = 0.050 m. What is its speed (m/s) just before it crashes into one of the plates? (You must decide which plate.)
a) 7.9 102 b) 9.3 103 c) 6.1102 d) 1.9 104 e) 8.1102 f) 5.3 103 g) 1.1104 h) 2.8 103 i) 4.4 103 j) 7.5 103 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
41) The figure shows three electric dipoles in an electric field, either parallel to the field, antiparallel to (opposite) the field, or perpendicular to the field. The dipoles have the same dipole moments. Rank the dipoles according to the magnitude of the torque on them, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
42) The figure shows three electric dipoles in an electric field, either parallel to the field, antiparallel to (opposite) the field, or perpendicular to the field. The dipoles have the same dipole moments. Rank the dipoles according to their potential energy, greatest (most positive) first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3)
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
43) The figure shows a thin rod that is uniformly charged with +Q in the top half and –Q in the bottom half. Which of the integrals best gives the magnitude of the net electric field at point P on the perpendicular bisector?
L
a)
2kQD dy
L( D + y ) 2
−L L
2 0.5
2kQy dy
b)
L( D + y )
c)
L( D + y )
2
−L
L
2kQD dy 2
0
L
2 0.5
2 0.5
2kQy dy
d)
L( D + y )
e)
L( D + y )
f)
L( D + y )
g)
2kQD 2 dy 0 L( D2 + y 2 )1.5
−L
2
L
2kQD dy 2
0
L
2 0.5
2 1.5
2kQy dy 2
0
2 1.5
L
2kQy 2 dy 0 L( D2 + y 2 )1.5 L kQD dy i) − L L( D 2 + y 2 ) 0.5 L
h)
Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
44) The figure shows a thin rod that is uniformly charged with +Q in the top half and –Q in the bottom half. What is the direction of net electric field at point P on the perpendicular bisector?
a) +x b) -x c) +y d) -y e) +z f) –z Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.4
45) The figure shows two charged parallel plates. The electric field between them is uniform, with a magnitude of 13.0 N/C. A particle with charge +2e and mass 3.36 10−27 kg is released from rest at coordinate x = 0.050 m. What is its speed (m/s) just before it crashes into one of the plates. (You must decide which plate.)
a) 7.9 102
b) 9.3 103 c) 6.1102 d) 1.9 104 e) 8.1102 f) 5.3 103 g) 1.1104 h) 2.8 103 i) 4.4 103 j) 7.5 103 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
46) In the figure, an electron is accelerated from rest by a uniform electric field, from plate A to plate B. With what speed (m/s) does it arrive at plate B? The field magnitude is 50.0 N/C, and the plate separation is 0.0200 m
a) 4.21104 b) 8.23 105 c) 7.70 106 d) 2.68 104 e) 4.52 104 f) 3.12 104 g) 6.14 105 h) 1.26 106 i) 5.93 105 j) 4.80 106 Answer: i Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
47) What is the potential energy (J) of an electric dipole that has charge magnitude 5e at each end, separated by 4.00 10−8 m, and whose dipole moment is at 40.0 to an electric field of magnitude 20.0 N/C? a) −1.110−25 b) −8.2 10−27 c) +6.7 10−26 d) +5.6 10−28 e) −4.9 10−25 f) +1.110−25 g) +8.2 10−27 h) −6.7 10−26 i) −5.6 10−28 j) +4.9 10−25
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.7
48) In the figure, an electron is accelerated from rest by a uniform electric field, from plate A to plate B. With what speed (m/s) does it arrive at plate B? The field magnitude is 225 N/C, and the plate separation is 0.0200 m
a) 4.21104 b) 8.23 105 c) 7.70 106 d) 2.68 104
e) 4.52 104 f) 3.12 104 g) 6.14 105 h) 1.26 106 i) 5.93 105 j) 4.80 106 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 22.6
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 23 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 23
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder perpendicular to an isolated metal slab and half embedded in that slab. Both ends of the cylinder have area A = 2.0 10-6 m2. The slab’s surface has a uniform surface charge density = 4.0 10-9 C/m2. What is the electric flux (N m2/C) through the lower (bottom) face of the cylinder?
a) 0.50 103 b) 2.0 10-3 c) 8.0 10-150 d) 8.0 10-15/0 e) 8.0 10-15 f) 1.2 10-14 g) 1.2 10-140 h) 1.2 10-14/0 i) 2.0 103 j) 0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
2) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder perpendicular to an isolated metal slab and half embedded in that slab. Both ends of the cylinder have area A = 2.0 10-6 m2. The slab’s surface has a uniform surface charge density = 4.0 10-9 C/m2. What is the electric flux (N m2/C) through the higher (top) face of the cylinder?
a) 0.50 103 b) 2.0 10-3 c) 8.0 10-150 d) 8.0 10-15/0 e) 8.0 10-15 f) 1.2 10-14 g) 1.2 10-140 h) 1.2 10-14/0 i) 2.0 103 j) 0 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
3) The figure shows a Gaussian cube. Here are three electric fields that we can set up in the region.
E1 = 5iˆ + 7kˆ
E2 = −4iˆ − 2ˆj + 7kˆ
E3 = 3iˆ + 5 zkˆ
Rank the fields according to the magnitude of the charge that would be enclosed in the cube, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3
h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
4) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.) What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at the point indicated? 1 = −2.00 C/m
a) 3.39 105 b) 2.26 105 c) 5.93 105 d) 8.29 104 e) 9.11104 f) 1.13 105 g) 1.19 106 h) 9.87 104 i) 6.75 105 j) 3.95 105 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
2
2 = +2.00 C/m2 3 = +2.00 C/m2
5) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field inside and outside a sphere with a uniformly distributed positive charge. What is the charge (C) on the sphere? Em = 1.10 108 N/C, R = 3.00 cm
a) 6.8110
−5
b) 4.03 10 c) 5.60 10
−5
d) 8.25 10 e) 3.33 10 f) 4.52 10
−5
−5
−5
−5
g) 6.09 10
−5
h) 2.12 10
−5
i) 1.10 10 j) 8.0110
−5
−7
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
6) The figure shows a Gaussian cube (edge length = 3.00 m) in the electric field E = 5.00 z kˆ N/C. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the cube? 2
a) 1.68 10
−10
b) 8.36 10 c) 5.77 10
−10
d) 2.39 10
−10
e) 5.02 10 f) 4.97 10
−9
−10
g) 7.18 10 h) 1.63 10 i) 1.40 10 j) 0
−9
−10
−9
−8
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
7) The figure shows (in cross section) a metal sphere with a hollow. A particle of charge -8.0Q is at the center of the sphere (at the center of the hollow). The metal of the sphere has a net charge of -12Q. What is the charge on the outside (external) surface of the sphere?
a) +4.0Q b) -18Q c) -4.0Q d) -20Q e) +20Q f) 0 g) -8.0Q h) +18Q i) -12Q j) +8.0Q Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
8) The figure shows a central rod (its linear charge density is uniform) that is surrounded by a concentric metal shell in the shape of cylinder and with interior radius R = 0.0900 m. Both shell and rod are very long. The magnitude of the electric field at a point at radius r = 0.0300 m from the rod is 225 N/C. How much charge (C) is on a length of 2.00 m of the rod?
−15
a) 2.9110
b) 6.92 10 c) 1.25 10
−11
−13
d) 5.26 10 e) 7.94 10 f) 1.84 10
−12
−13
g) 7.5110
−10
h) 1.17 10 i) 6.72 10 j) 9.10 10
−9
−9
−7
−11
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
9) The figure shows a central rod (its linear charge density is uniform) that is surrounded by a concentric metal shell in the shape of cylinder and with interior radius R = 0.0900 m. Both shell and rod are very long. The magnitude of the electric field at a point at radius r = 0.0300 m from the rod is 225 N/C. The electric field outside the shell is zero. What is the magnitude of the surface charge density (C/m 2) on the outside surface of the shell?
a) 3.1110
−8
b) 1.22 10
−8
c) 6.74 10
−8
d) 5.10 10 e) 9.36 10 f) 0
−8
−8
g) 8.25 10
−8
h) 7.52 10
−8
i) 4.67 10
−8
j) 2.00 10
−8
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
10) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder perpendicular to an isolated metal slab and half embedded in that slab. Both ends of the cylinder have area A = 3.0 10-6 m2. The slab’s surface has a uniform surface charge density = 4.0 10-9 C/m2. What is the electric flux (N m2/C) through the higher (top) face of the cylinder?
a) 0.50 103 b) 2.0 10-3 c) 8.0 10-150 d) 8.0 10-15/0
e) 8.0 10-15 f) 1.2 10-14 g) 1.2 10-140 h) 1.2 10-14/0 i) 2.0 103 j) 0 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
11) The figure shows a Gaussian cube. Here are three electric fields that we can set up in the region:
E1 = 5iˆ + 7kˆ
E2 = 3iˆ + 5 zkˆ
E = −4iˆ − 2jˆ + 7kˆ
Rank the fields according to the magnitude of the charge that would be enclosed in the cube, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
12) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.) What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at the point indicated? 1 = −3.50 C/m
2
2 = +3.50 C/m2 3 = +3.50 C/m2
a) 3.39 105 b) 2.26 105 c) 5.93 105 d) 8.29 104 e) 9.11104 f) 1.13 105 g) 1.19 106 h) 9.87 104 i) 6.75 105 j) 3.95 105 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
13) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field inside and outside a sphere with a uniformly distributed positive charge. What is the charge (C) on the sphere? Em = 8.00 106 N/C, R = 3.00 cm
a) 6.8110
−5
b) 4.03 10 c) 5.60 10
−5
d) 8.25 10 e) 3.33 10 f) 4.52 10
−5
−5
−5
−5
g) 6.09 10
−5
h) 2.12 10
−5
i) 1.10 10 j) 8.0110
−5
−7
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
14) The figure shows a Gaussian cube (edge length = 3.00 m) in the electric field E = 3.00 x ˆi . What is the charge (C) enclosed by the cube? 2
a) 1.68 10
−10
b) 8.36 10 c) 5.77 10
−10
d) 2.39 10
−10
e) 5.02 10 f) 4.97 10
−9
−10
g) 7.18 10 h) 1.63 10 i) 1.40 10 j) 0
−9
−10
−9
−8
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
15) The figure shows (in cross section) a metal sphere with a hollow. A particle of charge -8.0Q is at the center of the sphere (at the center of the hollow). The metal of the sphere has a net charge of -10Q. What is the charge on the outside (external) surface of the sphere?
a) +4.0Q b) -18Q c) -4.0Q d) -20Q e) +20Q f) 0 g) -8.0Q h) +18Q i) -12Q j) +8.0Q Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
16) The figure shows a central rod (its linear charge density is uniform) that is surrounded by a concentric metal shell in the shape of cylinder and with interior radius R = 0.0900 m. Both shell and rod are very long. The magnitude of the electric field at a point at radius r = 0.0300 m from the rod is 350 N/C. How much charge (C) is on a length of 2.00 m of the rod?
−15
a) 2.9110
b) 6.92 10 c) 1.25 10
−11
−13
d) 5.26 10 e) 7.94 10 f) 1.84 10
−12
−13
g) 7.5110
−10
h) 1.17 10 i) 6.72 10 j) 9.10 10
−9
−9
−7
−11
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
17) The figure shows a central rod (its linear charge density is uniform) that is surrounded by a concentric metal shell in the shape of cylinder and with interior radius R = 0.0900 m. Both shell and rod are very long. The magnitude of the electric field at a point at radius r = 0.0300 m from the rod is 350 N/C. The electric field outside the shell is zero. What is the magnitude of the surface charge density (C/m 2) on the outside surface of the shell?
a) 3.1110
−8
b) 1.22 10
−8
c) 6.74 10
−8
d) 5.10 10 e) 9.36 10 f) 0
−8
−8
g) 8.25 10
−8
h) 7.52 10
−8
i) 4.67 10
−8
j) 2.00 10
−8
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
18) The figure shows three situations in which the same charged particle is surrounded by a concentric Gaussian sphere, with the radii as drawn. Rank the three situations according to the magnitude of the electric flux through the surface of the Gaussian sphere, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
19) The figure shows three situations in which the same charged particle is surrounded by a concentric Gaussian sphere, with the radii as drawn. Rank them according to the magnitude of the electric field at points on the Gaussian sphere, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
20) The figure shows three situations for a uniform electric field (magnitudes are given) and a surface (same surface). Rank the three situations according to the magnitude of the electric flux through the surface, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3
h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
21) The figure shows, in cross section (edge view), four charged infinite nonconducting sheets. Each has the same magnitude σ = 4.00 µC/m2 of surface charge density and the signs are indicated in the figure. What is the direction of the net electric field at point P1?
(a) rightward (b) leftward Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
22) The figure shows, in cross section (edge view), four charged infinite nonconducting sheets. Each has the same magnitude σ = 4.00 µC/m2 of surface charge density and the signs are indicated in the figure. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at point P1?
a) 7.88 105
b) 6.89 105 c) 1.80 105 d) 6.78 105 e) 4.52 105 f) 3.33 105 g) 9.12 105 h) 6.03 105 i) 2.22 105 j) 1.23 105 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
23) In the figure, an electron is released at distance r = 20.0 cm from a large metal plate with surface charge density +2.00 10−15 C/m2. What is the magnitude (m/s2) of the electron’s acceleration?
a) 3.97 107 b) 6.99 107 c) 9.14 107 d) 5.02 107 e) 4.19 107 f) 6.17 107 g) 7.33 107 h) 8.88 × 107 i) 5.95 × 107 j) 1.19 107 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
24) In the figure, an electron is released at distance r = 20.0 cm from a large metal plate with surface charge density +2.00 10−15 C/m2. When the electron reaches a distance of r = 10.0 cm, which describes its acceleration?
a) greater than initial value b) smaller than initial value c) same as initial value Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
25) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q = +4e. The shell has a net charge of −6e. What is the charge on the external surface?
a) +9e b) -6e c) -4e d) -2e e) 0 f) +6e g) +e h) +4e i) +2e j) +10e Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
26) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q = +4e. The shell has a net charge of −6e. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field at point P, at distance r = 3.00 m from the center of the shell (P is outside the shell)?
a) 4.9 10−9 b) 1.8 10−7 c) 1.8 10−8 d) 3.2 10−10 e) 9.0 10−8 f) 6.3 10−11 g) 9.5 10−10 h) 1.4 10−9 i) 5.8 10−8 j) 7.0 10−8 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.3 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
ˆ What is the 27) The figure shows a Gaussian surface in an electric field given by E = 50.0iˆ + 6.00 zk. charge (C) enclosed by the surface?
a) 2.67 10−9 b) 2.03 10−10 c) 1.44 10−9 d) 6.77 10−11 e) 5.77 10−9 f) 1.59 10−9 g) 2.39 10−9 h) 7.8110−10 i) 8.08 10−10 j) 7.54 10−10 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
28) The figure shows a long wire running along the center of a long metal cylinder. The wire has a uniform linear charge density of +3.50 10−8 C/m, and the cylinder is neutral and has radii r1 = 0.100 m and r2 = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude of the electric field (N/C) at distance r = 0.150 m?
a) 0 b) 3.33 103 c) 6.68 103 d) 4.68 103 e) 7.79 103 f) 5.08 103 g) 8.11103 h) 7.02 103 i) 5.00 103 j) 2.52 103 Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.4 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
29) The figure shows a long wire running along the center of a long metal cylinder. The wire has a uniform linear charge density of +3.50 10−8 C/m, and the cylinder is neutral and has radii r1 = 0.100 m and r2 = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude of the electric field (N/C) at distance r = 0.250 m?
a) 0 b) 3.33 103 c) 6.68 103 d) 4.68 103 e) 7.79 103 f) 5.08 103 g) 8.11103 h) 7.02 103 i) 5.00 103 j) 2.52 103 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
30) The figure shows a long wire running along the center of a long metal cylinder. The wire has a uniform linear charge density of +3.50 10−8 C/m, and the cylinder is neutral and has radii r1 = 0.100 m and r2 = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude of the surface charge density (C/m2) on the inside wall of the cylinder?
a) 1.07 10−8 b) 9.22 10−9 c) 1.87 10−10 d) 9.02 10−10 e) 8.43 10−7 f) 6.67 10−7 g) 5.57 10−8 h) 1.03 10−7 i) 2.44 10−9 f) 6.67 10−10 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
31) The figure shows, in cross section (edge view), four charged infinite nonconducting sheets. Each has the same magnitude σ = 6.00 µC/m2 of surface charge density and the signs are indicated in the figure. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at point P1?
a) 7.88 105 b) 6.89 105 c) 1.80 105 d) 6.78 105 e) 4.52 105
f) 3.33 105 g) 9.12 105 h) 6.03 105 i) 2.22 105 j) 1.23 105 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
32) In the figure, an electron is released at distance r = 20.0 cm from a large metal plate with surface charge density +3.00 10−15 C/m2. What is the magnitude (m/s2) of the electron’s acceleration?
a) 3.97 107 b) 6.99 107 c) 9.14 107 d) 5.02 107 e) 4.19 107 f) 6.17 107 g) 7.33 107 h) 8.88 × 107 i) 5.95 × 107 j) 1.19 107 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
33) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q = +4e. The shell has a net charge of +5e. What is the charge on the external surface?
a) +9e b) -6e c) -4e d) -2e e) 0 f) +6e g) +e h) +4e i) +2e j) +10e Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
34) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q = +4e. The shell has a net charge of +5e. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field at point P, at distance r = 3.00 m from the center of the shell (P is outside the shell)?
a) 4.9 10−9 b) 1.8 10−7 c) 1.8 10−8 d) 3.2 10−10 e) 9.0 10−8 f) 6.3 10−11 g) 9.5 10−10 h) 1.4 10−9
i) 5.8 10−8 j) 7.0 10−8 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
ˆ 35) The figure shows a rectangular Gaussian surface in an electric field given by E = 50.0iˆ + 9.00 zk. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the surface?
a) 2.67 10−9 b) 2.03 10−10 c) 1.44 10−9 d) 6.77 10−11 e) 5.77 10−9 f) 1.59 10−9 g) 2.39 10−9 h) 7.8110−10 i) 8.08 10−10 j) 7.54 10−10 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
36) The figure shows a long wire running along the center of a long metal cylinder. The wire has a uniform linear charge density of 6.50 10−8 C/m, and the cylinder is neutral and has radii r1 = 0.100 m and r2 = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude of the electric field (N/C) at distance r = 0.150 m?
a) 0 b) 3.33 103 c) 6.68 103 d) 4.68 103 e) 7.79 103 f) 5.08 103 g) 8.11103 h) 7.02 103 i) 5.00 103 j) 2.52 103 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
37) The figure shows a long wire running along the center of a long metal cylinder. The wire has a uniform linear charge density of 6.50 10−8 C/m, and the cylinder is neutral and has radii r1 = 0.100 m and r2 = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude of the electric field (N/C) at distance r = 0.250 m?
a) 0 b) 3.33 103 c) 6.68 103 d) 4.68 103 e) 7.79 103
f) 5.08 103 g) 8.11103 h) 7.02 103 i) 5.00 103 j) 2.52 103 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
38) The figure shows a long wire running along the center of a long metal cylinder. The wire has a uniform linear charge density of 6.50 10−8 C/m, and the cylinder is neutral and has radii r1 = 0.100 m and r2 = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude of the surface charge density (C/m2) on the inside wall of the cylinder?
a) 1.07 10−8 b) 9.22 10−9 c) 1.87 10−10 d) 9.02 10−10 e) 8.43 10−7 f) 6.67 10−7 g) 5.57 10−8 h) 1.03 10−7 i) 2.44 10−9 f) 6.67 10−10 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
39) The figure shows a charged particle with three Gaussian spheres (imaginary surfaces in the shape of a sphere) that are centered on the particle. Rank the spheres according to the electric flux through them, greatest first. Hint: rank the flux, not something else. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,3), 2 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
ˆ m2. What is the flux of an electric field (N 40) A surface has the area vector A = (2.0iˆ − 5.0jˆ − 3.0k)
ˆ N/C? m2/C) through it if the field is E = (−4.0iˆ − 2.0jˆ − 1.0k) a) 1 b) 5 c) -20 d) -8 e) 7 f) -7 g) 3 h) -9 i) -10 j) -3
Answer: b Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
41) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder that extends through a charged plastic sheet with uniform −3
−9
charge density 3.00 10 C/m2. The cylinder is shown in cross section, has radius 5.00 10 m, and is perpendicular to the sheet. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the cylinder?
a) 8.80 10
−14
b) 3.17 10 c) 2.36 10
−13
d) 3.67 10 e) 4.82 10 f) 7.96 10
−15
−14
−14
−13
g) 2.23 10
−15
h) 5.50 10
−13
i) 9.13 10
−14
j) 7.93 10
−14
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
42) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = +4.00 C/m2
2 = +3.00 C/m2
3 = −5.00 C/m2
What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at point P?
a) 4.44 105 b) 6.78 105 c) 8.20 105 d) 8.19 104 e) 1.65 104 f) 7.73 105 g) 4.61104 h) 9.87 104 i) 1.69 105 j) 3.39 105 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
43) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = +4.00 C/m2
2 = +3.00 C/m2
3 = −5.00 C/m2
What is the direction of the net electric field at P?
a) leftward
b) rightward Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
44) The figure shows (in cross section) a spherical metal shell with a hollow. A particle of charge Q is placed at the center of the shell (at the center of the hollow). The metal of the shell has a net charge of
−6.00 10−6 C. The electric field at point P (which is 2.00 m from the center of the shell) has magnitude 4.00 103 N/C outward. What is charge Q of the particle in microcouloumbs?
a) +1.2 b) -3.5 c) -11 d) -2.4 e) -5.3 f) 0 g) -4.2 h) +9.6 i) +6.2 j) +7.8 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
45) The figure shows a Gaussian rectangular structure with sides parallel to the axes and in the electric field E = (4.00 x + 7.00)iˆ + 3.00jˆ − 7.00kˆ . What is the charge (C) enclosed by the structure?
a) 7.5110
−10
b) 1.92 10 c) 6.78 10
−9
−10
d) 4.46 10 e) 1.27 10
−9
−9
f) 6.90 10
−9
g) 3.33 10
−10
h) 2.23 10 i) 1.9110 j) 0
−9
−11
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
46) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field inside and outside a sphere with a uniformly distributed positive charge. Em = 4.00 10 N/C. R = 3.00 cm. What is the charge (C) on the sphere? 6
a) 3.92 10
−6
b) 4.00 10 c) 7.17 10
−7
−6
d) 4.95 10
−6
e) 6.70 10 f) 2.14 10
−6
−7
g) 2.1110
−6
h) 8.29 10
−6
i) 9.5110
−6
j) 5.1110
−7
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
ˆ ˆ m2. What is the flux of an electric field 47) A surface has the area vector A = (−3.00iˆ − 5.00j+2.00k) ˆ N/C? (N m2/C) through it if the field is E = (4.00iˆ + 2.00jˆ + 1.00k) a) 1 b) 5 c) -20 d) -8 e) 7 f) -7 g) 3 h) -9 i) -10 j) -3 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
48) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder that extends through a charged plastic sheet with uniform −9
charge density 7.00 10 C/m2. The cylinder is shown in cross section, has radius 2.00 10 perpendicular to the sheet. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the cylinder?
−3
m, and is
a) 8.80 10
−14
b) 3.17 10 c) 2.36 10
−13
d) 3.67 10 e) 4.82 10 f) 7.96 10
−15
−14
−14
−13
g) 2.23 10
−15
h) 5.50 10
−13
i) 9.13 10
−14
j) 7.93 10
−14
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
49) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = +4.00 C/m2
2 = +12.0 C/m2
3 = −5.00 C/m2
What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at point P?
a) 4.44 105 b) 6.78 105 c) 8.20 105 d) 8.19 104 e) 1.65 104 f) 7.73 105 g) 4.61104 h) 9.87 104 i) 1.69 105 j) 3.39 105 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
50) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = +4.00 C/m2
2 = +12.0 C/m2
3 = −5.00 C/m2
What is the direction of the net electric field at P?
a) leftward b) rightward Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
51) The figure shows (in cross section) a spherical metal shell with a hollow. A particle of charge Q is placed at the center of the shell (at the center of the hollow). The metal of the shell has a net charge of
−6.0 10−6 C. The electric field at point P (which is 2.0 m from the center of the shell) has magnitude 8.00 103 N/C outward. What is charge Q of the particle in microcouloumbs?
a) +1.2 b) -3.5 c) -11 d) -2.4 e) -5.3 f) 0 g) -4.2 h) +9.6 i) +6.2 j) +7.8 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
52) The figure shows a Gaussian rectangular structure with sides parallel to the axes and in the electric field E = (7.00 x + 8.00)iˆ − 6.00jˆ − 5.00kˆ N/C. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the structure?
a) 7.5110
−10
b) 1.92 10 c) 6.78 10
−9
−10
d) 4.46 10 e) 1.27 10
−9
−9
f) 6.90 10
−9
g) 3.33 10
−10 −9
h) 2.23 10 i) 1.9110 j) 0
−11
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
53) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field inside and outside a sphere with a uniformly distributed positive charge. Em = 9.50 107 N/C. R = 3.00 cm. What is the charge (C) on the sphere?
a) 3.92 10
−6
b) 4.00 10
−6
c) 7.17 10
d) 4.95 10 e) 6.70 10 f) 2.14 10
−7
−6
−6
−7
g) 2.1110
−6
h) 8.29 10
−6
i) 9.5110
−6
j) 5.1110
−7
Answer: i Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
54) The figure shows three situations in which the same charged particle is surrounded by a concentric Gaussian sphere. (1) sphere has radius R (2) sphere has radius 2R (3) sphere has radius 2R and also surrounds a neutral metal spherical shell Rank the three situations according to the magnitude of the electric flux through the surface of the Gaussian sphere, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
55) The figure shows three points at which an electron can be released near an infinite flat nonconducting sheet (shown in cross section) that has a uniform positive charge. Rank those points according to the acceleration magnitude that the electron will have due to the Coulomb force once it is released, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
56) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field E versus radial distance r from the center of a uniformly charged ball (a plasma ball). Em = 50.0 N/C. Two points have E = 25.0 N/C. What is the smaller value r1 (m)? The value of R is 0.200 m.
a) 0.080 b) 0.100 c) 0.073 d) 0.135 e) 0.182 f) 0.065
g) 0.050 h) 0.044 i) 0.154 j) 0.200 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
57) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The charge on the internal shell surface is +5e and on the external surface is -8e. What is q?
a) -9e b) -13e c) -4e d) -5e e) 0 f) +9e g) +13e h) +4e i) +5e j) +36e Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
58) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The charge on the internal shell surface is +5e and on the external surface is -8e. Point P is outside the shell. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field at point P, at distance r = 0.200 m from the center of the shell?
a) 3.96 10 b) 1.08 10 c) 1.85 10
−7
−7
−8 −7
d) 2.88 10 e) 9.03 10 f) 6.34 10
−8
−7
g) 9.50 10
−7
h) 2.52 10 i) 5.86 10
−7
−8
j) 7.70 10
−8
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
59) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The charge on the internal shell surface is +5e and on the external surface is -8e. Point P is outside the shell. What is the direction of the electric field at point P, at distance r = 0.200 m from the center of the shell?
a) toward shell b) away from shell Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
60) The figure shows a rectangular Gaussian structure that lies in an electric field given by
E = (3.00 + x)iˆ N/C. What is the net charge (C) enclosed by the structure?
a) 1.46 10
−9
b) 7.1110
−10
c) 8.64 10
−10 −9
d) 1.19 10 e) 5.53 × 10−10 f) 3.58 10
−10
g) 2.39 10 h) 3.98 10 i) 7.09 10 j) 9.03 10
−9
−10
−11
−11
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
61) The figure shows, in cross section (edge view), four charged infinite nonconducting sheets with these surface charge densities:
1 = +3.00 C/m2 , 2 = −2.00 C/m2 , 3 = +5.00 C/m2 , and 4 = −2.00 C/m2 . What is the magnitude of the net electric field (N/C) at point P?
a) 8.60 10
5
b) 4.52 10
5
c) 1.13 10
5
d) 2.25 10
5
e) 1.97 10
5
f) 9.8110
4
g) 1.73 10
4
h) 5.60 10 i) 4.92 10 j) 8.22 10
4
4
4
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
62) The figure shows a charged wire on the central axis of a cylindrical plastic shell with radius 0.015 m. −8
The electric field outside the shell is zero. The wire has linear charge density −5.0 10 C/m. What is the uniform surface charge density (C/m2) on the plastic shell?
a) 2.4 10
−9
b) 9.110
−8
c) 7.6 10
−4
d) 3.2 10 e) 5.3 10 f) 4.8 10
−7
−9
g) 8.9 10
−8
h) 4.3 10 i) 4.9 10 j) 1.2 10
−5
−4
−5
−7
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
−3
63) The figure shows a uniform electric field (30.0 N/C) piercing area 4.00 10 m2. The angle between the field vector and the area vector is θ = 35.0º. What is the flux (N m2/C) through A?
a) 2.46 10
−3
b) 9.83 10 c) 0.282 d) 0.324
−2
e) 5.35 10 f) 4.82 10
−3
−3
g) 7.15 10
−2
h) 4.39 10 i) 0.492 j) 4.4110
−4
−2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
64) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field E versus radial distance r from the center of a uniformly charged ball (a plasma ball). Em = 50.0 N/C. Two points have E = 25.0 N/C. What is the smaller value r1 (m)? The value of R is 0.400 m.
a) 0.080 b) 0.100 c) 0.073 d) 0.135 e) 0.182 f) 0.065 g) 0.050 h) 0.044 i) 0.154 j) 0.200 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
65) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The charge on the internal shell surface is -4e and on the external surface is +11e. What is q?
a) -9e b) -13e c) -4e d) -5e e) 0 f) +9e g) +13e h) +4e
i) +5e j) +36e Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
66) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The charge on the internal shell surface is -4e and on the external surface is +11e. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field at point P, which is outside the shell at distance r = 0.200 m from the center of the shell?
a) 3.96 10 b) 1.08 10 c) 1.85 10
−7
−7
−8 −7
d) 2.88 10 e) 9.03 10 f) 6.34 10
−8
−7
g) 9.50 10
−7
h) 2.52 10 i) 5.86 10
−7
−8
j) 7.70 10
−8
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
67) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The charge on the internal shell surface is -4e and on the external surface is +11e. What is the direction
of the electric field at point P, which is outside the shell at distance r = 0.200 m from the center of the shell?
a) toward shell b) away from shell Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
68) The figure shows a rectangular Gaussian structure that lies in an electric field given by
E = (5.00 + 3.00 x)iˆ N/C. What is the net charge (C) enclosed by the structure?
a) 1.46 10
−9
b) 7.1110
−10
c) 8.64 10
−10
d) 1.19 10
−9
e) 5,53 10−10 f) 3.58 10
−10
g) 2.39 10 h) 3.98 10 i) 7.09 10 j) 9.03 10 Answer: d Title:
−9
−10
−11
−11
Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
69) The figure shows, in cross section (edge view), four charged infinite nonconducting sheets with these surface charge densities:
1 = −3.00 C/m2 , 2 = +2.00 C/m2 , 3 = +5.00 C/m2 , and 4 = −2.00 C/m2 . What is the magnitude of the net electric field (N/C) at point P?
a) 8.60 10
5
b) 4.52 10
5
c) 1.13 10
5
d) 2.25 10
5
e) 1.97 10
5
f) 9.8110
4
g) 1.73 10
4
h) 5.60 10 i) 4.92 10 j) 8.22 10
4
4
4
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
−3
70) The figure shows a uniform electric field (50 N/C) piercing area A = 6.00 10 m2. The angle between the field vector and the area vector is θ = 20.0º. What is the flux (N m2/C) through A?
a) 2.46 10
−3
b) 9.83 10 c) 0.282 d) 0.324
−2
e) 5.35 10 f) 4.82 10
−3
−3
g) 7.15 10
−2
h) 4.39 10 i) 0.492 j) 4.4110
−4
−2
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
71) The figure shows, in cross section (edge view), four charged infinite nonconducting sheets. The uniform surface charge densities are 1 = +3.0 C/m2 , 2 = −3.0 C/m2 , 3 = +3.0 C/m2 , and
4 = −3.0 C/m2 . Three (empty) points are indicated. Rank them according to the magnitude of the net electric field there due to the sheets, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3
h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
72) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The shell has charge q1 = +4e on the interior surface and charge q2 = +9e on the exterior surface. What is the value of q (C)?
a) -9e b) -13e c) -4e d) -5e e) 0 f) +9e g) +13e h) +4e i) +5e j) +36e Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.
73) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The shell has charge q1 = +4e on the interior surface and charge q2 = +9e on the exterior surface. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field at point P, at distance r = 0.20 m from the center of the shell?
a) 4.9 10
−7
b) 1.8 10 c) 1.110
−7
−8
d) 3.2 10 e) 9.0 10 f) 7.2 10
−7
−8
−8
g) 9.5 10
−7
h) 6.3 10
−8
i) 5.8 10
−8
j) 4.0 10
−8
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
74) The figure shows a rectangular Gaussian structure that lies in an electric field given by
ˆ What is the net charge (C) enclosed by the structure? E = 3.0iˆ + 2.0 yˆj + 4.0k.
a) 0 b) 1.110
−9
c) 8.6 10
−10
d) 4.3 10 e) 5.3 10
−9
−10
f) 7.5 10
−9
g) 6.7 10
−11
h) 4.2 10
−10
i) 7.9 10 j) 9.3 10
−9
−9
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
75) The figure shows a thin central rod (with uniform linear charge density) that is surrounded by a thin concentric cylindrical metal shell and with interior radius R = 0.090 m. Both shell and rod are very long. The magnitude of the electric field at a point at radius r = 0.030 m from the rod is 225 N/C. How much charge (C) is on a length of 2.0 m of the rod?
a) 2.9 10
−15
b) 6.9 10 c) 1.2 10
−13
d) 5.2 10 e) 7.9 10 f) 1.8 10
−15
−12
−13
g) 7.5 10 h) 2.0 10 i) 6.7 10 j) 9.110
−11
−10
−9
−7
−11
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
76) A uniformly charged ball (a plasma ball) has a radius of 0.200 m. The electric field on its surface is outward and has a magnitude of 40.0 N/C. Two radial distances (two radii) have a field magnitude of 20.0 N/C. What is the smaller value r1 (m)? a) 0.065 b) 0.050 c) 0.044 d) 0.150 e) 0.119 f) 0.080 g) 0.100 h) 0.073 i) 0.135 j) 0.182 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
77) A uniformly charged ball (a plasma ball) has a radius of 0.200 m. The electric field on its surface is outward and has a magnitude of 40.0 N/C. Two radial distances (two radii) have a field magnitude of 20.0 N/C. What is the larger value r2 (m)? a) 0.667 b) 1.22 c) 0.781 d) 0.341 e) 0.367 f) 0.560 g) 0.283 h) 0.424 i) 0.382 j) 0.523 Answer: g Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
78) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The shell has charge q1 = −5e on the interior surface and charge q2 = −7e on the exterior surface. What is the value of q (C)?
a) -9e b) -13e c) -4e d) -5e e) 0 f) +9e g) +13e h) +4e i) +5e j) +36e Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
79) The figure shows, in cross section, a spherical conducting shell that surrounds a particle of charge q. The shell has charge q1 = −5e on the interior surface and charge q2 = −7e on the exterior surface. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the electric field at point P, at distance r = 0.40 m from the center of the shell?
a) 4.9 10 b) 1.8 10 c) 1.110
−7
−7
−8
d) 3.2 10 e) 9.0 10 f) 7.2 10
−7
−8
−8
g) 9.5 10
−7
h) 6.3 10
−8
i) 5.8 10
−8
j) 4.0 10
−8
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
80) The figure shows a thin central rod (with uniform linear charge density) that is surrounded by a thin concentric cylindrical metal shell with interior radius R = 0.090 m. Both shell and rod are very long. The magnitude of the electric field at a point at radius r = 0.030 m from the rod is 600 N/C. How much charge (C) is on a length of 2.0 m of the rod?
a) 2.9 10
−15
b) 6.9 10 c) 1.2 10
−13
d) 5.2 10 e) 7.9 10 f) 1.8 10
−15
−12
−13
g) 7.5 10 h) 2.0 10 i) 6.7 10 j) 9.110
−11
−10
−9
−7
−11
Answer: h
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.4
81) The figure shows a rectangular Gaussian structure that lies in an electric field given by
ˆ What is the net charge (C) enclosed by the structure? E = 3.00iˆ + 2.00jˆ + 4.00 zk.
a) 0 b) 1.110
−9
c) 8.6 10
−10
d) 4.3 10 e) 5.3 10
−9
−10
f) 7.5 10
−9
g) 6.7 10
−11
h) 4.2 10
−10
i) 7.9 10 j) 9.3 10
−9
−9
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
82) A uniformly charged ball (a plasma ball) has a radius of 0.300 m. The electric field on its surface is outward and has a magnitude of 60.0 N/C. Two radial distances (two radii) have a field magnitude of 30 N/C. What is the smaller value r1 (m)? a) 0.065
b) 0.050 c) 0.044 d) 0.150 e) 0.119 f) 0.080 g) 0.100 h) 0.073 i) 0.135 j) 0.182 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
83) A uniformly charged ball (a plasma ball) has a radius of 0.300 m. The electric field on its surface is outward and has a magnitude of 60.0 N/C. Two radial distances (two radii) have a field magnitude of 30 N/C. What is the larger value r2 (m)? a) 0.667 b) 1.22 c) 0.781 d) 0.341 e) 0.367 f) 0.560 g) 0.283 h) 0.424 i) 0.382 j) 0.523 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
ˆ m2. What is the flux of an electric field 84) A surface has the area vector A = (−3.00iˆ + 5.00jˆ + 2.00k) ˆ N/C? (N m2/C) through it if the field is E = (4.00iˆ + 2.00jˆ − 1.00k) a) 0
b) 1 c) -2 d) 3 e) 4 f) -1 g) 2 h) -3 i) -4 j) -6 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
85) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder that extends through a charged plastic sheet with uniform −9
−3
charge density 4.00 10 C/m2. The cylinder is shown in cross section, has radius 7.00 10 m, and is perpendicular to the sheet. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the cylinder?
a) 8.64 10
−14
b) 1.17 10
−15
c) 1.4110
−13
d) 3.33 10
−14
e) 4.02 10
−14
f) 6.16 10
−13
g) 2.98 10 h) 3.83 10 i) 5.03 10
−15
−13
−14
j) 6.99 10
−14
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
86) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = −4.00 C/m2
2 = +3.00 C/m2
3 = −5.00 C/m2
What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at point P?
a) 3.39 105 b) 9.35 105 c) 5.20 105 d) 8.29 104 e) 5.65 104 f) 1.13 105 g) 7.06 104 h) 9.11104 i) 2.26 105 j) 1.70 105 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
87) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = −4.00 C/m2
2 = +3.00 C/m2
3 = −5.00 C/m2
What is the direction of the net electric field at P?
a) leftward b) rightward Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
88) The figure shows (in cross section) a spherical metal shell with a hollow. A particle of charge Q is placed at the center of the shell (at the center of the hollow). The metal of the shell has a net charge of
−8.0 10−6 C. The electric field at point P (which is 2.0 m from the center of the shell) has magnitude 6.74 103 N/C outward. What is charge Q of the particle in microcouloumbs?
a) +4.0 b) -2.0 c) -14 d) -25 e) -8.0 f) 0 g) -5.0 h) +12 i) +11 j) +8.0 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
89) The figure shows a Gaussian rectangular structure with sides parallel to the axes and in the electric field E = (3.00 x + 2.00)iˆ + 4.00jˆ + 14.0kˆ N/C. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the structure?
a) 8.50 10
−10
b) 3.72 10 c) 4.78 10
−10
d) 2.23 10 e) 1.59 10 f) 6.37 10
−9
−9
−9
−10
g) 9.56 10
−10
h) 2.66 10 i) 7.9110 j) 0
−9
−11
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
90) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field inside and outside a sphere with a uniformly distributed positive charge. Em = 3.00 107 N/C. R =3.00 cm. What is the charge (C) on the sphere?
a) 3.33 10 b) 7.2110
−6
−6
c) 6.67 10
−6
d) 5.50 10 e) 3.00 10 f) 2.54 10
−6
−6
−6
g) 2.09 10 h) 8.09 10 i) 8.5110
−6
−6
−6
j) 5.02 10
−6
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
ˆ m2. What is the flux of an electric field (N m2/C) 91) A surface has the area vector A = (3iˆ − 5jˆ + 2k)
ˆ N/C? through it if the field is E = (4iˆ + 2jˆ + k) a) 0 b) 1 c) -2 d) 3 e) 4 f) -1 g) 2 h) -3 i) -4 j) -6 Answer: e Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.1
92) The figure shows a Gaussian cylinder that extends through a charged plastic sheet with uniform −9
charge density 5.00 10 C/m2. The cylinder is shown in cross section, has radius 3.00 mm, and is perpendicular to the sheet. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the cylinder?
a) 8.64 10
−14
b) 1.17 10
−15
c) 1.4110
−13
d) 3.33 10
−14
e) 4.02 10
−14
f) 6.16 10
−13
g) 2.98 10 h) 3.83 10 i) 5.03 10
−15
−13
−14
j) 6.99 10
−14
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
93) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = +6.00 C/m2
2 = −2.00 C/m2
3 = +5.00 C/m2
What is the magnitude (N/C) of the net electric field at point P?
a) 3.39 105 b) 9.35 105 c) 5.20 105 d) 8.29 104 e) 5.65 104 f) 1.13 105 g) 7.06 104 h) 9.11104 i) 2.26 105 j) 1.70 105 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
94) The figure shows three parallel, infinite, nonconducting sheets of charge and their surface charge densities. (You see the cross section of the sheets.)
1 = +6.00 C/m2
2 = −2.00 C/m2
What is the direction of the net electric field at P?
a) leftward b) rightward
3 = +5.00 C/m2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.5
95) The figure shows (in cross section) a spherical metal shell with a hollow. A particle of charge Q is placed at the center of the shell (at the center of the hollow). The metal of the shell has a net charge of
+5.00 10−6 C. The electric field at point P (which is 2.0 m from the center of the shell) has magnitude 6.74 103 N/C outward. What is charge Q of the particle in microcouloumbs?
a) +4.0 b) -2.0 c) -14 d) -25 e) -8.0 f) 0 g) -5.0 h) +12 i) +11 j) +8.0 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.3
96) The figure shows a Gaussian rectangular structure with sides parallel to the axes and in the electric field E = (5.00 x − 7.00)iˆ + 5.00jˆ − 21.0kˆ N/C. What is the charge (C) enclosed by the structure?
a) 8.50 10
−10
b) 3.72 10 c) 4.78 10
−10
d) 2.23 10 e) 1.59 10 f) 6.37 10
−9
−9
−9
−10
g) 9.56 10
−10
h) 2.66 10 i) 7.9110 j) 0
−9
−11
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.2
97) The figure gives the magnitude of the electric field inside and outside a sphere with a uniformly distributed positive charge. Em = 8.50 107 N/C. R = 3.00 cm. What is the charge (C) on the sphere?
a) 3.33 10 b) 7.2110
−6
−6
c) 6.67 10
−6
d) 5.50 10
−6
e) 3.00 10 f) 2.54 10
−6
−6
g) 2.09 10 h) 8.09 10 i) 8.5110
−6
−6
−6
j) 5.02 10
−6
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 23.6
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 24 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 24
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a proton that is shot with a certain speed v0 from the left plate to the right plate. The plates are parallel. Here are three choices for the electric potentials on the left and right plates. Rank the choices according to the speed the proton will have as it reaches the right plate, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. left plate right plate (1) 100 0 (2) -125 -225 (3) 60 -20
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.1
2) The figure shows two points. Here are three choices for the electric field that we can set up in this region. Rank the choices according to the potential difference V2 – V1 that would result between the two points, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie. (1) E = 1 N/C, positive direction of x (2) E = 2 N/C, positive direction of x (3) E = 2 N/C, negative direction of x
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.2
3) The figure shows a triangle with charged particles at the corners. Here are three choices of the particles. Rank the choices according to the electric potential energy of the three-particle system, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie. q1 q2 q3 (1) +e +2e +e (2) -e +2e +e (3) -2e +2e +e
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.7
4) The figure shows two charged particles fixed in place. How much work (J) must we do to bring in a third charged particle (Q = +3e) to the point P indicated, starting from an infinite distance? d1 = 2.00 m, d2. = 5.00 m, q1 = +6e, q2 = -8e
a) 4.22 10−28 b) 4.67 10−28 c) 9.67 10−28 d) 7.08 10−28 e) 3.46 10−27 f) 6.90 10−28 g) 2.90 10−27 h) 8.54 10−28 i) 5.67 10−27 j) 1.28 10−28 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
5) The figure shows two parallel plates. The graph indicates the potential at points between the two plates, with V2 = 20 V at x2 = 0.40 m and V1 = 15 V at x1 = 0.30 m. An electron is released from rest at x1, and that release point and the plate locations are aligned with the graph. What is the magnitude of the electric force (N) on the electron?
a) 8.0 10−18 b) 1.3 10−18 c) 2.7 10−18 d) 7.4 10−18 e) 9.8 10−18 f) 4.5 10−18 g) 9.2 10−18 h) 5.2 10−18 i) 2.4 10−17 j) 3.3 10−18 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
6) The figure shows two parallel plates. The graph indicates the potential at points (x1 = 0.300 m and x2 = 0.400 m) between the two plates, with V2 = 20 V and V1 = 15 V. An electron is released from rest at x1, and that release point and the plate locations are aligned with the graph. What is the electron’s speed (m/s) just as it runs into a plate? (You must decide which plate it hits.)
a) 3.98 106 b) 8.76 106 c) 2.30 106 d) 8.21106 e) 9.43 106 f) 6.28 106 g) 4.19 106 h) 5.75 106 i) 1.33 106 j) 2.30 106 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6 7) The electric potential along an x axis is given by V = 3.0x2. What is the electric field magnitude (N/C or V/m) at x = 4.0 m on the axis? a) 0 b) 18 c) 36 d) 44 e) 2.0 f) 12 g) 16 h) 24 i) 8.0 j) 38 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6 8) The figure shows two charged particles fixed in place: q1 = −5e, q2 = +2e, L = 0.500 m. At which of these coordinates (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential equal to zero?
a) 0.390 b) 0.357 c) 0.115 d) 0.313 e) 0.432 f) -0.110 g) -0.473 h) -0.239 i) -0.184 j) -0.349 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
9) The figure shows a rectangular array of charged particles: d = 3.00 cm and D = 4.00 cm. What is the net electric potential (V) at the center of the rectangle? q1 = -16e, q2 = -4e, q3 = +9e, q4 = +12e, q5 = +6e, q6 = -9e, q7 = -4e, q8 = +16e.
a) 1.24 10−7 b) 5.75 10−7 c) 7.19 10−7 d) 1.40 10−7 e) 3.33 10−7 f) 6.09 10−7 g) 1.89 10−7 h) 4.5110−7
i) 6.67 10−7 j) 8.03 10−7 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
10) The figure shows two charged particles fixed in place. How much work (J) must we do to bring in a third charged particle (Q = +9e) to the point P indicated, starting from an infinite distance? d1 = 2.00 m, d2. = 5.00 m, q1 = +6e, q2 = -8e
a) 4.22 10−28 b) 4.67 10−28 c) 9.67 10−28 d) 7.08 10−28 e) 3.46 10−27 f) 6.90 10−28 g) 2.90 10−27 h) 8.54 10−28 i) 5.67 10−27 j) 1.28 10−28 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
11) The figure shows two parallel plates. The graph indicates the potential at points between the two plates, with V2 = 60 V at x2 = 0.40 m and V1 = 45 V at x1 = 0.30 m. An electron is released from rest x1, and that release point and the plate locations are aligned with the graph. What is the magnitude of the electric force (N) on the electron?
a) 8.0 10−18 b) 1.3 10−18 c) 2.7 10−18 d) 7.4 10−18 e) 9.8 10−18 f) 4.5 10−18 g) 9.2 10−18 h) 5.2 10−18 i) 2.4 10−17 j) 3.3 10−18 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
12) The figure shows two parallel plates. The graph indicates the potential at points (x1 = 0.300 m and x2 = 0.400 m) between the two plates with V2 = 60.0 V and V1 = 45.0 V. An electron is released from rest at x1, and that release point and the plate locations are aligned with the graph. What is its speed (m/s) just as it runs into a plate? (You must decide which plate it hits.)
a) 3.98 106 b) 8.76 106 c) 2.30 106 d) 8.21106 e) 9.43 106 f) 6.28 106 g) 4.19 106 h) 5.75 106 i) 1.33 106 j) 2.30 106 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.1 13) The electric potential along an x axis is given by V = 5.5x2. What is the electric field magnitude (N/C or V/m) at x = 4.0 m on the axis? a) 0 b) 18 c) 36 d) 44 e) 2.0 f) 12 g) 16 h) 24 i) 8.0 j) 38 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6 14) The figure shows two charged particles fixed in place: q1 = −5e, q2 = +3e, L = 0.500 m. At which of these coordinates (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential equal to zero?
a) 0.390 b) 0.357 c) 0.115 d) 0.313 e) 0.432 f) -0.110 g) -0.473 h) -0.239 i) -0.184 j) -0.349 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
15) The figure shows a rectangular array of charged particles: d = 3.00 cm and D = 8.00 cm. What is the net electric potential (V) at the center of the rectangle? q1 = -16e, q2 = -4e, q3 = +9e, q4 = +12e, q5 = +6e, q6 = -9e, q7 = -4e, q8 = +16e
a) 1.24 10−7 b) 5.75 10−7 c) 7.19 10−7 d) 1.40 10−7 e) 3.33 10−7 f) 6.09 10−7 g) 1.89 10−7 h) 4.5110−7
i) 6.67 10−7 j) 8.03 10−7 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
16) The figure shows three graphs of how a potential varies along an x axis. V1 = -200 V, x1 = 0.20 m V2 = 400 V, x2 = 0.40 m V3 = 300 V, x3 = 0.10 m Rank the situations according to the magnitude of the electric field along the axis, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,2), 3 j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
17) The figure shows an electron between two parallel plates that are at different potentials. Here, for three situations, are the potentials on the two plates Situation Left Plate Right Plate 1 700 V 500 V 2 100 V -100 V 3 0 200 V Rank the situations according to the magnitude of the electric force on the electron, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,2), 3 j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
18) The figure shows an electron coming in from the left along the x axis, toward a particle with charge q1 = +5e that is fixed in place at x1 = 0.500 m. The electron began at rest at x = -3.00 m. What is the electron’s speed (m/s) when it passes the origin of the coordinate system?
a) 65.8 b) 64.9 c) 20.2 d) 58.0 e) 71.1 f) 40.1 g) 17.8 h) 50.3 i) 33.9 j) 23.0 Answer: a Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
19) The figure shows three concentric circular arcs. Two are half circles; the other is a full circle. The charges and radii of the arcs are these: q1 = +4.0 E-15 C and r1 = 2.0 E-2 m q2 = -6.0 E-15 C and r2 = 3.0 E-2 m q3 = -20.0 E-15 C and r3 = 4.0 E-2 m What is the net electric potential (mV) at the common center of curvature?
a) -2.50 b) -4.50 c) -7.02 d) -1.35 e) +8.09 f) 7.29 g) +2.81 h) +4.95 i) +4.27 j) +3.67 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.5
20) The figure shows a rectangular arrangement of eight charged particles, with lengths D = 4.00 m and d = 2.00 m. What is the net electric potential (nV) at the center? q1 = -5e, q2 = -3e, q3 = -3e, q4 = -6e, q5 = +6e, q6 = +3e, q7 = -5e, q8 = +5e.
a) +82.3 b) -3.84 c) -6.87 d) +3.33 e) -3.33 f) -1.28 g) +4.61 h) -2.88 i) -45.2 j) -4.21 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
21) The figure shows two charged particles that are fixed in place: q1 = -2e q2 = +5e L = 2.00 m. At which coordinate (m) on the x axis is their net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) +1.60 b) +0.0750 c) +0.422 d) +0.150 e) +0.192 f) +1.30 g) +0.125 h) +0.190 i) +1.50 j) +0.571
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
22) The figure shows two charged particles that are fixed in place: q1 = -2e q2 = +5e L = 2.00 m. At which coordinate (m) on the x axis is their net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) +0.350 b) +0.400 c) +0.205 d) -0.135 e) -0.200 f) +0.440 g) +3.00 h) -1.33 i) -0.420 j) -0.260 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
23) The figure shows three charged particles that are fixed in place. How much work (J) was done to construct this assembly by bringing the particles in from an infinite distance? q1 = -2e q2 = -6e q3 = +e d1 = 2.00 m d2 = 3.00 m d3 = 4.00 m
a) +4.12 10−28 b) −2.67 10−27 c) +9.33 10−29
d) +7.98 10−29 e) −5.87 10−27 f) +8.06 10−28 g) −1.50 10−27 h) −4.59 10−29 i) +3.99 10−28 j) +9.16 10−27 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.7
24) The figure shows three graphs of how a potential varies along an x axis. V1 = -200 V, x1 = 0.20 m V2 = 400 V, x2 = 0.40 m V3 = 300 V, x3 = 0.30 m Rank the situations according to the magnitude of the electric field along the axis, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (2,3), 1 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,2), 3 j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
25) The figure shows an electron coming in from the left along the x axis, toward a particle with charge q1 = +5e that is fixed in place at x1 = 0.500 m. The electron began at rest at x = -1.00 m. What is the electron’s speed (m/s) when it passes the origin of the coordinate system?
a) 65.8 b) 64.9 c) 20.2 d) 58.0 e) 71.1 f) 40.1 g) 17.8 h) 50.3 i) 33.9 j) 23.0 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
26) The figure shows three concentric circular arcs. Two are half circles; the other is a full circle. The charges and radii of the arcs are these: q1 = +4.0 E-15 C and r1 = 2.0 E-2 m q2 = -6.0 E-15 C and r2 = 3.0 E-2 m q3 = -6.00 E-15 C and r3 = 4.0 E-2 m What is the net electric potential (mV) at the common center of curvature?
a) -2.50 b) -4.50 c) -7.02 d) -1.35 e) +8.09 f) 7.29 g) +2.81 h) +4.95 i) +4.27
j) +3.67 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.5
27) The figure shows a rectangular arrangement of eight charged particles, with lengths D = 9.00 m and d = 2.00 m. What is the net electric potential (nV) at the center? q1 = -5e, q2 = -3e, q3 = -3e, q4 = -6e, q5 = +6e, q6 = +3e, q7 = -5e, q8 = +5e.
a) +82.3 b) -3.84 c) -6.87 d) +3.33 e) -3.33 f) -1.28 g) +4.61 h) -2.88 i) -45.2 j) -4.21 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
28) The figure shows two charged particles that are fixed in place: q1 = -6e q2 = +2e L = 2.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is their net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) +1.60 b) +0.075 c) +0.422 d) +0.150 e) +0.192 f) +1.30 g) +0.125 h) +0.190 i) +1.50 j) +0.571 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
29) The figure shows two charged particles that are fixed in place: q1 = -6e q2 = +2e L = 2.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is their net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) +0.350 b) +0.400 c) +0.205 d) -0.135 e) -0.200 f) +0.440 g) +3.00 h) -1.33 i) -0.420 j) -0.260 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
30) The figure shows three charged particles that are fixed in place. How much work (J) was done to construct this assembly by bringing the particles in from an infinite distance? q1 = -2e q2 = -6e q3 = +5e d1 = 2.00 m d2 = 3.00 m d3 = 4.00 m
a) +4.12 10−28 b) −2.67 10−27 c) +9.33 10−29 d) +7.98 10−29 e) −5.87 10−27 f) +8.06 10−28 g) −1.50 10−27 h) −4.59 10−29 i) +3.99 10−28 j) +9.16 10−27 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.7
31) In the figure, an electron is shot from an infinite distance through the origin and past the two charged particles with charge q = +6e that are fixed in place on the axes at distance d = 2.00 m. The electron has an initial speed of 20.0 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) when it passes through the origin?
a) 49.2 b) 51.3 c) 58.6 d) 68.1 e) 132 f) 37.8
g) 107 h) 16.7 i) 74.5 j) 182 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
32) The figure shows three pairs of charged parallel plates, with separations as noted. Rank the pairs according to the magnitude of the electric field between the plates, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
33) The figure shows three pairs of charged parallel plates. In which is the electric field between the plates leftward?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
34) The figure gives the electric potential V versus position along an x axis. Rank the three regions according to the magnitude of the electric field in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0
Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
35) The figure gives the electric potential V versus position along an x axis. In which region is the electric field in the negative direction of the x axis?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
36) The figure shows an arrangement of three charged particles: q1 = +2e, q2 = +e, q3 = -2e. We are going to interchange particles 2 and 3 (particle 2 goes to the location of particle 3, and particle 3 goes to the location of particle 2). What happens to the electric potential energy of the system?
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.7
37) The figure shows a rod with a uniform charged density . Which of the integrals best gives the net electric potential at point P?
(a)
(b)
k dx
L
0
(D + x )
L
2k dx
2 0.5
2
−D
(D + x )
2 0.5
2
k dx
(c)
D +x
(d)
D +x
(e)
D+x
(f)
(g)
L
2
0
2k dx
L
−D
(i)
(j)
2
2
k dx
L
(h)
2
0
k dx −D D + x L k dx L
0
(D + x )
L
k dx
2 1.5
2
−D
(D + x )
L
2k dx
0
(D + x )
L
2k dx
−D
2
2 1.5
2 1.5
2
(D + x ) 2
2 1.5
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.5
38) The figure shows three concentric circular arcs. Two are half circles; the other is a full circle. The charges and radii of the arcs are these: q1 = +4.0 E-15 C and r1 = 2.0 E-2 m q2 = -6.0 E-15 C and r2 = 3.0 E-2 m q3 = -12.0 E-15 C and r3 = 4.0 E-2 m What is the net electric potential (V) at the common center of curvature?
a) −2.70 10−3 b) −4.50 10−3 c) −7.02 10−3 d) −5.05 10−2 e) −8.80 10−2 f) 6.29 10−3 g) 7.8110−3 h) 9.50 10−3 i) 4.67 10−3 j) 3.55 10−3 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.5
39) The figure shows a square array of five charged particles. The charges of the four corner particles are q1 = -6e¸ q2 = +3e, q3 = +4e, and q4 = -e. The charge of the fifth particle is Q = +3e. The lengths are given by d = 0.0200 m. What is the net electric potential (V) at the center point?
a) 7.9110−6 b) 1.1110−6 c) 6.93 10−6 d) 2.16 10−7 e) 8.33 10−7 f) 6.47 10−7 g) 5.70 10−7 h) 1.72 10−6 i) 1.49 10−7
j) 8.99 10−7 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
40) The figure shows two charged particles that are fixed in place: q1 = +12e and q2 = -6e, with separation L = 2.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axix is the net electric potential zero? There are two answers but only one is listed here.
a) 1.82 b) 0.781 c) 1.64 d) 1.92 e) 1.33 f) 1.50 g) 1.41 h) 2.33 i) 3.02 j) 2.88 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
41) In the figure, an electron is shot from an infinite distance through the origin and past the two charged particles that are fixed in place on the axes: q = +6e and d = 2.00 m. The electron has an initial speed of 40.0 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) when it passes through the origin?
a) 49.2
b) 51.3 c) 58.6 d) 68.1 e) 132 f) 37.8 g) 107 h) 16.7 i) 74.5 j) 182 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
42) The figure shows a square array of five charged particles. The charges of the four corner particles are q1 = -6e¸ q2 = +3e, q3 = +4e, and q4 = -e. The charge of the fifth particle is Q = +9e. The lengths are given by d = 0.0200 m. What is the net electric potential (V) at the center point?
a) 7.9110−6 b) 1.1110−6 c) 6.93 10−6 d) 2.16 10−7 e) 8.33 10−7 f) 6.47 10−7 g) 5.70 10−7 h) 1.72 10−6 i) 1.49 10−7 j) 8.99 10−7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 a Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
43) The figure shows two charged particles that are fixed in place: q1 = +18e and q2 = -6e, with separation L = 2.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential zero? There are two answers but only one is listed here.
a) 1.82 b) 0.781 c) 1.64 d) 1.92 e) 1.33 f) 1.50 g) 1.41 h) 2.33 i) 3.02 j) 2.88 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
44) In the figure, an electron is shot from an infinite distance along the y axis and through the origin. Three other charged particles are fixed in place on the axes. The electron has an initial speed of v0 = 15.0 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) when it passes through the origin? q1 = +6e (left and right sides) q2 = −5e d = 2.00 m
a) 58.0 b) 51.3 c) 72.9 d) 84.2 e) 44.6 f) 81.7 g) 49.6 h) 50.2 i) 79.3 j) 62.0
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.1
45) The figure shows three situations in which either an electron or a proton is moved through a potential difference. Rank the situations according to the work done on the particle, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.1
46) The figure shows three arrangements of circular arcs, all with the same radius. The charges are indicated. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the electric potential set up at the center of curvature, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.5
47) The figure shows seven charged particles (five charges are given) on a circle with radius 3.00 m. What is the net electric potential (V) at the circle’s center? The last charges are q1 = +6e and q2 = +4e.
a) 5.35 10−8 b) 2.17 10−9 c) −5.68 10−9 d) −5.14 10−10 e) 7.12 10−9 f) 9.59 10−9 g) −2.02 10−10 h) −3.84 10−9 i) 9.34 10−8 j) −1.77 10−9 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
48) The figure is a graph of the potential V (in volts V) along an x axis. The potential is constant at the left (V1 = 28.0 V for x 0 ) and right (V = 0 V for x x2 = 7.00 m ). We release an electron from rest at x1 = 3.00 m where the potential is V0 = 16.0 V. You need to decide which way the electron goes (left or right). What is the speed (m/s) of the electron when it reaches a constant-potential region?
a) 2.37 106 b) 3.33 107 c) 4.02 106 d) 2.05 106 e) 6.72 106 f) 1.09 107 g) 4.59 107 h) 7.67 106 i) 1.88 107 j) 5.81106 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 49) The figure shows two charged particles (q1 = +10e and q2 = −6e) that are fixed in place with a separation of L = 2.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) 0.50 b) 0.75 c) 0.90 d) 1.25 e) -1.67 f) 1.65 g) 2.50 h) 0.22
i) 1.00 j) -1.92 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 50) The figure shows two charged particles (q1 = +10e and q2 = −6e) that are fixed in place with a separation of L = 2.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) 2.50 b) 4.20 c) 5.00 d) 10.0 e) -0.220 f) 3.00 g) 6.00 h) -0.300 i) -0.450 j) -0.250 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 51) The electric field on an x axis is given by E = −30.0 x 2ˆi, with the field in N/C or V/m and x in meters. What is the potential difference V2 − V1 between x2 = 6.00 m and x1 = 5.00 m? Answer in volts. a) 56 b) 110 c) 820 d) 250 e) 910 f) 72
g) 90 h) 290 i) 190 j) 460 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
52) In the figure, an electron is shot from an infinite distance along the y axis and through the origin. Three other charged particles are fixed in place on the axes. The electron has an initial speed of v0 = 40 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) when it passes through the origin? q1 = +6e (left and right sides) q2 = −5e d = 2.0 m
a) 58.0 b) 51.3 c) 72.9 d) 84.2 e) 44.6 f) 81.7 g) 49.6 h) 50.2 i) 79.3 j) 62.0 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
53) The figure shows seven charged particles (five charges are given) on a circle with radius 6.50 m. What is the net electric potential (V) at the circle’s center? The last charges are: q1 = +6e and q2 = +4e.
a) 5.35 10−8 b) 2.17 10−9 c) −5.68 10−9 d) −5.14 10−10 e) 7.12 10−9 f) 9.59 10−9 g) −2.02 10−10 h) −3.84 10−9 i) 9.34 10−8 j) −1.77 10−9 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 54) The figure shows two charged particles (q1 = +10e and q2 = −6e) that are fixed in place with a separation of L = 4.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) 0.50 b) 0.75 c) 0.90 d) 1.25 e) -1.67 f) 1.65 g) 2.50 h) 0.22 i) 1.00 j) -1.92 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 55) The figure shows two charged particles (q1 = +10e and q2 = −6e) that are fixed in place with a separation of L = 4.00 m. At what coordinate (m) on the x axis is the net electric potential zero? There are two answers. One of them is contained in the array here.
a) 2.50 b) 4.20 c) 5.00 d) 10.0 e) -0.220 f) 3.00 g) 6.00 h) -0.300 i) -0.450 j) -0.250 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 56) The electric field on an x axis is given by E = −30.0 x 2ˆi, with the field in N/C or V/m and x in meters. What is the potential difference V2 − V1 between x2 = 3.00 m and x1 = 2.00 m? Answer in volts. a) 56 b) 110 c) 820 d) 250 e) 910 f) 72 g) 90 h) 290 i) 190 j) 460 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
57) The figure shows three arrangements of charged particles, each 1.00 m from the origin. Rank the arrangements according to the net electric potential at the origin, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
58) The figure shows three arrangements of parallel plates in which the plate separation is 2.0 m. The electric potential of each plate is given. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the electric field between the plates, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2
c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
59) The figure shows three arrangements of charged arcs forming a circle or part of a circle. The radii are identical. Rank the arrangements according to the net electric potential at the center of curvature, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.5
60) The figure gives the electric potential V versus position along an x axis. Rank the three regions according to the magnitude of the electric field in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.6
61) In the figure, an electron is shot from an infinite distance through the origin and past the two charged particles (q = +6e) that are fixed in place on the axes at distance d = 2.00 m from the origin. The electron has an initial speed of 30.0 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) when it passes through the origin?
a) 83.3 b) 91.5 c) 107 d) 46.2 e) 145 f) 23.1 g) 62.7 h) 74.4 i) 122 j) 132 Answer: g Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
62) The figure shows an array of charged particles on two concentric circles. The smaller circle has radius 0.20 m; the larger one has radius 0.40 m. The charges are given in terms of the elementary charge e. What is the net electric potential (volts) at the center?
a) 3.0 10−7 b) 8.2 10−7 c) 2.110−6 d) 8.6 10−8 e) 2.9 10−8 f) 9.110−8 g) 1.9 10−8 h) 9.2 10−7 i) 5.2 10−6 j) 5.8 10−8 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 63) The figure shows two charged particles fixed in place: q1 = −5e q2 = +2e L = 0.500 m There are two points on the x axis at which the net potential is zero. Which of the following gives the x coordinate (m) of one of those points?
a) 0.390 b) 0.357
c) 0.115 d) 1.43 e) 0.432 f) -0.110 g) -0.473 h) -0.239 i) -0.184 j) -0.349 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
64) In the figure, an electron is shot from an infinite distance through the origin and past the two charged particles (q = +6e) that are fixed in place on the axes at distance d = 2.00 m from the origin. The electron has an initial speed of 50.0 m/s. What is its speed (m/s) when it passes through the origin?
a) 83.3 b) 91.5 c) 107 d) 46.2 e) 145 f) 23.1 g) 62.7 h) 74.4 i) 122 j) 132 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 65) The figure shows two charged particles fixed in place: q1 = −5e q2 = +2e L = 2.00 m There are two points on the x axis at which the net potential is zero. Which of the following gives the x coordinate (m) of one of those points?
a) 0.390 b) 0.357 c) 0.115 d) 1.43 e) 0.432 f) -0.110 g) -0.473 h) -0.239 i) -0.184 j) -0.349 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
66) The figure shows an array of charged particles on two concentric circles. The smaller circle has radius 0.30 m; the larger one has radius 0.40 m. The charges are given in terms of the elementary charge e. What is the net electric potential (volts) at the center?
a) 3.0 10−7 b) 8.2 10−7 c) 2.110−6 d) 8.6 10−8 e) 2.9 10−8 f) 9.110−8 g) 1.9 10−8 h) 9.2 10−7 i) 5.2 10−6 j) 5.8 10−8
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 24.3
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 25 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 25
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) In the figure, the initial circuit is shown first. Then capacitor 2 is included. Because of that inclusion, what happens to the charge on capacitor 1?
a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
2) In the figure, the initial circuit is shown first. Then capacitor 2 is included. Because of that inclusion, what happens to the charge on capacitor 1?
a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
3) The figure gives the charge q versus applied potential V for three capacitors. Rank the capacitors according to their capacitance, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.2
4) In the three circuits shown, the capacitors are identical and the batteries are identical. Rank the circuits according to the charge on capacitor 1, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
5) The figure shows a battery (30.0 V) and four capacitors (each with capacitance 6.00 µF). How much charge (µC) does the battery store in the circuit?
a) 80 b) 120 c) 200 d) 110 e) 90 f) 130 g) 55 h) 72 i) 240 j) 35 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
6) The figure shows a battery (30.0 V) and four capacitors (each with capacitance 6.00 µF). What is the charge (µC) on C2?
a) 36 b) 24 c) 60 d) 75 e) 100 f) 18 g) 45 h) 82 i) 52 j) 15 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
7) The figure shows a battery (30.0 V) and three (uncharged capacitors): C1 = 12.0 F, C2 = 4.00 F, C3 = 6.00 F. The switch is first thrown to the left to charge C1. Then the switch is thrown to the right to transfer charge to C2 and C3. When equilibrium is reached, what is the energy (J) stored in C1?
a) 9.60 10−3 b) 3.75 10−3 c) 3.47 10−4 d) 7.23 10−3
e) 6.60 10−2 f) 1.12 10−4 g) 4.80 10−3 h) 1.04 10−2 i) 1.75 10−3 j) 2.89 10−2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.4 8) In the figure, the capacitors are initially uncharged: C1 and C2 are not known and C3 = 2.00 F. When the switch is closed, a total charge of 10.0 μC passes through point a and a total charge of 6.00 μC passes through point b. What is the capacitance (µF) of C2?
a) 0.502 b) 4.50 c) 5.00 d) 5.21 e) 1.56 f) 2.54 g) 3.00 h) 6.90 i) 0.750 j) 1.33 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
9) The figure shows a battery (50.0 V) and four capacitors (each with capacitance 6.00 µF). How much charge (µC) does the battery store in the circuit?
a) 80 b) 120 c) 200 d) 110 e) 90 f) 130 g) 55 h) 72 i) 240 j) 35 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
10) The figure shows a battery (50.0 V) and four capacitors (each with capacitance 6.00 µF). What is the charge (µC) on C2?
a) 36 b) 24 c) 60 d) 75 e) 100 f) 18 g) 45
h) 82 i) 52 j) 15 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
11) The figure shows a battery (50.0 V) and three (uncharged capacitors):
C1 = 12.0 F, C2 = 4.00 F, C3 = 6.00 F.
The switch is first thrown to the left to charge C1. Then the switch is thrown to the right to transfer charge to C2 and C3. When equilibrium is reached, what is the energy (J) stored in C1?
a) 9.60 10−3 b) 3.75 10−3 c) 3.47 10−4 d) 7.23 10−3 e) 6.60 10−2 f) 1.12 10−4 g) 4.80 10−3 h) 1.04 10−2 i) 1.75 10−3 j) 2.89 10−2 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 12) In the figure, the capacitors are initially uncharged: C1 and C2 are not known and C3 = 2.00 F. When the switch is closed, a total charge of 15.0 μC passes through point a and a total charge of 6.00 μC
passes through point b. What is the capacitance (µF) of C2?
a) 0.502 b) 4.50 c) 5.00 d) 5.21 e) 1.56 f) 2.54 g) 3.00 h) 6.90 i) 0.750 j) 1.33 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
13) In the circuit shown, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1, and then at time t = 0 it is thrown rightward. Which of the graphed lines best shows the potential on capacitor 1 from t = 0 to when equilibrium is established at t1?
a) Line 1 b) Line 2 c) Line 3 d) Line 4 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
14) In the figure, what is the charge (µC) on capacitor 3? C1 = C2 = C3 = 8.00 µF, V = 27.0 V
a) 50 b) 72 c) 3 d) 66 e) 84 f) 12 g) 54 h) 152 i) 92 j) 108 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
15) In the figure, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1 and then it is thrown rightward. What is the final (equilibrium) potential (V) across capacitor 2? V = 12.0 V, C1 = 6.00 µF, C2 = 4.00 µF
a) 1.29 b) 10.8 c) 12.2 d) 3.15 e) 3.91 f) 4.86 g) 6.05 h) 7.20 i) 8.07 j) 1.78
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
16) In the figure, we have V = 9.0 V, C2 = 3.0 μF, and C4 = 4.0 μF, and all the capacitors are initially uncharged. When the switch is closed, a total charge of 12 μC passes through point a and a total charge of 8.0 μC passes through point b. What is capacitance C3 (μF)?
a) 2.0 b) 10 c) 12 d) 3.0 e) 11 f) 4.0 g) 6.0 h) 7.0 i) 8.0 j) 17 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
17) The figure shows a “cap-monster.” Each capacitor has capacitance 5.00 𝜇F. What is the charge (μC) on C1?
a) 2.0 10 b) 40 c) 15 d) 30 e) 20 2 f) 3.0 10 2 g) 1.2 10 h) 60 2 i) 1.0 10 2 j) 1.8 10
2
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
18) In this circuit, what is the charge (µC) on capacitor 3? C1 = C2 = C3 = 12.0 µF, V = 27.0 V
a) 50 b) 72 c) 3 d) 66 e) 84 f) 12 g) 54
h) 152 i) 92 j) 108 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
19) In the figure, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1 and then thrown rightward. What is the final (equilibrium) potential (V) across capacitor 2? V = 18.0 V, C1 = 6.00 µF, C2 = 4.00 µF
a) 1.29 b) 10.8 c) 12.2 d) 3.15 e) 3.91 f) 4.86 g) 6.05 h) 7.20 i) 8.07 j) 1.78 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 20) In the figure, we have V = 9.0 V, C2 = 3.0 μF, and C4 = 4.0 μF, and all the capacitors are initially uncharged. When switch S is closed, a total charge of 20 μC passes through point a and a total charge of
8.0 μC passes through point b. What is capacitance C3 (μF)?
a) 2.0 b) 10 c) 12 d) 3.0 e) 11 f) 4.0 g) 6.0 h) 7.0 i) 8.0 j) 17 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 21) The figure shows a “cap-monster.” Each capacitor has capacitance 10.0 𝜇F. What is the charge (μC) on C1?
a) 2.0 10 b) 40 c) 15 d) 30 e) 20 2 f) 3.0 10 2 g) 1.2 10 h) 60
2
i) 1.0 10 2 j) 1.8 10
2
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
22) The figure shows a battery and three capacitors. Which of the following are in series?
a) C1 and C2 b) C1 and C3 c) C2 and C3 d) C1 and C23 e) C2 and C13 f) C3 and C12 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
23) The figure shows a battery and three capacitors. Which of the following are in parallel?
a) C1 and C2 b) C1 and C3 c) C2 and C3 d) C1 and C23 e) C2 and C13 f) C3 and C12
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
24) If the plate area of a parallel plate capacitor is decreased, what happens to the capacitance? a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.2
25) If the plate separation of a parallel plate capacitor is decreased, what happens to the capacitance? a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.2
26) If the dielectric constant in the space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is increased, what happens to the capacitance? a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged Answer: a Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.5
27) The figure shows a 6.00 V battery and four capacitors: C1 = 10.0 µF and C2 = 20.0 µF. How much charge (µC) does the battery store in the circuit?
a) 80 b) 120 c) 135 d) 110 e) 90 f) 130 g) 55 h) 68 i) 240 j) 35 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
28) The figure shows a 6.00 V battery and four capacitors: C1 = 10.0 µF and C2 = 20.0 µF. What is the potential (V) across C1?
a) 2.5 b) 2.0 c) 6.0 d) 0.75 e) 3.0 f) 9.0 g) 4.5 h) 5.0 i) 5.2 j) 1.5 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
29) The figure shows a 60.0 V battery and two (uncharged capacitors). The switch is first thrown to the left to charge capacitor 1 with C1 = 20.0 μF. Then the switch is thrown to the right to transfer charge to capacitor 2 with C2 = 5.00 μF. When equilibrium is reached, what is the charge (µC) on C1?
a) 960 b) 300 c) 340 3 d) 2.40 10 e) 660
f) 1.12 10 g) 400 h) 150 i) 175 j) 240
3
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 30) In the figure, the capacitors are initially uncharged, the battery has 9.0 V potential, and two of the capacitances are C2 = 4.0 µF and C4 = 4.0 µF. When the switch is closed, a total charge of 12 μC passes through point a and a total charge of 8.0 μC passes through point b. What is the capacitance (µF) of C3?
a) 3.5 b) 2.0 c) 6.0 d) 0.75 e) 1.0 f) 0.50 g) 4.5 h) 5.0 i) 5.2 j) 1.5 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 31) A 10 V battery is connected to a 5.00 μF capacitor. How much energy (μJ) does the battery store in the capacitor? a) 25 b) 90 c) 100 d) 120
e) 300 f) 600 g) 250 h) 200 i) 40 j) 540 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.4
32) The figure shows a 9.00 V battery and four capacitors: C1 = 10.0 µF and C2 = 20.0 µF. How much charge (µC) does the battery store in the circuit?
a) 80 b) 120 c) 135 d) 110 e) 90 f) 130 g) 55 h) 68 i) 240 j) 35 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
33) The figure shows a 9.00 V battery and four capacitors: C1 = 10.0 µF and C2 = 20.0 µF. What is the potential (V) across either of the C1 capacitors?
a) 2.5 b) 2.0 c) 6.0 d) 0.75 e) 3.0 f) 9.0 g) 4.5 h) 5.0 i) 5.2 j) 1.5 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 34) A 4.00 V battery is connected to a 5.00 μF capacitor. How much energy (μJ) does the battery store in the capacitor? a) 25 b) 90 c) 100 d) 120 e) 300 f) 600 g) 250 h) 200 i) 40 j) 540 Answer: i Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.4
35) The figure shows a 60.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors. The switch is first thrown to the left to charge up capacitor 1 with C1 = 20.0 μF. Then the switch is thrown to the right to transfer charge to capacitor 2 with C2 = 40.0 μF. When equilibrium is reached, what is the charge (µC) on C1?
a) 960 b) 300 c) 340 3 d) 2.40 10 e) 660 3 f) 1.12 10 g) 400 h) 150 i) 175 j) 240 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
36) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged, the battery has a 9.0 V potential, and two of the capacitances are C2 = 4.0 µF and C4 = 4.0 µF.. When the switch is closed, a total charge of 15 μC passes through point a and a total charge of 8.0 μC passes through point b. What is the capacitance (µF) of C3?
a) 3.5 b) 2.0 c) 6.0 d) 0.75
e) 1.0 f) 0.50 g) 4.5 h) 5.0 i) 5.2 j) 1.5 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
37) In your electronics equipment, you have three capacitors: C1 = 5.0 μF C2 = 15 μF C3 = 10 μF You need a capacitance of 6.0 μF in a circuit you are building. Which capacitors should you use and how? a) 1 and 2 in series b) 1 and 3 in series c) 2 and 3 in series d) all three in series e) 1 and 2 in parallel f) 2 and 3 in parallel g) 1 and 3 in parallel h) all three in parallel Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
38) The figure shows a 12 V battery and two capacitors. What is the arrangement of the capacitors?
a) series b) parallel c) in neither arrangement
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
39) The figure shows a battery and three capacitors. The potential differences across them are V1 = 3 V V2 = 4 V V3 = 5 V. Rank the capacitors according to their capacitance, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
40) The figure shows a battery and three capacitors. The charges on them are: q1 = 3 µC q2 = 4 µC q3 = 5 µC. Rank the capacitors according to their capacitance, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2
c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
41) The figure shows a 12 V battery and three capacitors (C1 = 2.0 µF, C2 = 6.0 µF, C3 = 8.0 µF). What is the sign of the charge on the top plate of capacitor 3?
a) positive b) negative Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
42) The figure shows a 12 V battery and three capacitors (C1 = 2.0 µF, C2 = 6.0 µF, C3 = 8.0 µF). What is the sign of the charge on the left plate of capacitor 1?
a) positive b) negative Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
43) The figure shows a 12 V battery and three capacitors (C1 = 2.0 µF, C2 = 6.0 µF, C3 = 8.0 µF). What is the charge (µC) on capacitor 1?
a) 43 b) 40 c) 24 d) 12 e) 20 f) 38 g) 2.4 h) 18 i) 6.6 j) 8.2 Answer: d Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
44) The figure shows a 12.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors (C1 = 2.00 µF, C2 = 5.00 µF). When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. How much energy (J) does the battery supply?
a) 5.04 10−4 b) 3.89 10−4 c) 1.30 10−3 d) 6.67 10−3 e) 2.50 10−3 f) 9.82 10−4 g) 4.2110−4 h) 6.48 10−4 i) 1.22 10−4 j) 5.67 10−4 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.4
45) The figure shows a 12.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors (C1 = 2.00 µF, C2 = 5.00 µF). When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. In capacitor 1, the plates are separated by 3.00 mm, with the gap filled with air. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the (uniform) electric field between the plates?
a) 1.9 104 b) 2.7 104 c) 890 d) 1.2 103
e) 5.9 105 f) 8.3 103 g) 4.0 103 h) 7.1105 i) 2.1105 j) 5.3 104 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
46) The figure shows a 12.0 V battery and three initially uncharged capacitors (C1 = 6.00 µF, C2 = 12.0 µF, C3 = 18.0 µF). The switch is first thrown to the left to charge capacitor 1. Then it is thrown to the right to transfer some of the charge to capacitors 2 and 3. When equilibrium is reached, what is the charge (µC) on capacitor 2?
a) 35.5 b) 16.2 c) 7.54 d) 51.2 e) 17.2 f) 9.80 g) 27.6 h) 36.0 i) 60.2 j) 24.0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
47) The figure shows a 20 V battery and three capacitors (C1 = 4.0 µF, C2 = 6.0 µF, C3 = 10 µF). What is the charge (µC) on capacitor 1?
a) 43 b) 40 c) 24 d) 12 e) 20 f) 38 g) 2.4 h) 18 i) 6.6 j) 8.2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
48) The figure shows a 12.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors (C1 = 3.00 µF, C2 = 6.00 µF). When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. How much energy (J) does the battery supply?
a) 5.04 10−4 b) 3.89 10−4 c) 1.30 10−3 d) 6.67 10−3 e) 2.50 10−3 f) 9.82 10−4 g) 4.2110−4 h) 6.48 10−4 i) 1.22 10−4
j) 5.67 10−4 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.4
49) The figure shows a 12.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors (C1 = 3.00 µF, C2 = 6.00 µF). When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. In capacitor 1, the plates are separated by 10.0 mm, with the gap filled with air. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the (uniform) electric field between the plates?
a) 1.9 104 b) 2.7 104 c) 890 d) 1.2 103 e) 5.9 105 f) 8.3 103 g) 4.0 103 h) 7.1105 i) 2.1105 j) 5.3 104 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
50) The figure shows a 18.0 V battery and three initially uncharged capacitors (C1 = 6.00 µF, C2 = 12.0 µF, C3 = 18.0 µF). The switch is first thrown to the left to charge capacitor 1. Then the switch us thrown to the right to transfer some of the charge to capacitors 2 and 3. When equilibrium is reached, what is the
charge (µC) on capacitor 2?
a) 35.5 b) 16.2 c) 7.54 d) 51.2 e) 17.2 f) 9.8 g) 27.6 h) 36.0 i) 60.2 j) 24.0 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 51) The figure shows a “cap-monster,” with a 12 V battery and where all the capacitors have a capacitance of 4.0 μF. What is the charge (μC) on capacitor C1?
a) 21
b) 3.0 c) 38 d) 40 e) 18 f) 12 g) 36 h) 30 i) 44 j) 48 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
52) In the figure, the battery has a potential of 12.0 V and the missing capacitance values are C6 = 30.0 F and C2 = 20.0 F . What is the charge (μC) on C6?
a) 667 b) 341 c) 360 d) 540 e) 210 f) 301 g) 137 h) 478 i) 226 j) 333 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
53) In the figure, the battery has a potential of 12.0 V and the missing capacitance values are C6 = 30.0 F and C2 = 20.0 F . What is the charge (μC) on C2?
a) 77.2 b) 13.4 c) 68.2 d) 45.0 e) 104 f) 89.1 g) 25.9 h) 57.8 i) 92.8 j) 33.7 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
54) You have two capacitors C1 and C2 , with the second larger in capacitance. If you wire them in series, which is true about the effective (or equivalent) capacitance? a) greater than C2 b) between C1 and C2 c) less than C1 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 55) The figure shows a 12.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors: C1 = 2.00 F C2 = 5.00 F . When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. How much energy (J) does the battery
supply?
a) 9.82 10−4 b) 4.2110−4 c) 4.22 10−3 d) 1.22 10−4 e) 5.67 10−4 f) 5.04 10−4 g) 3.89 10−4 h) 1.13 10−3 i) 6.67 10−3 j) 2.50 10−3 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.4
56) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward and then thrown rightward. V = 8.00 V C1 = 6.00 F C2 = 12.0 F C3 = 18.0 F How much charge (μC) ends up on C1?
a) 21.8 b) 26.2 c) 58.9 d) 49.1 e) 17.9 f) 12.7 g) 10.9 h) 17.8 i) 37.8 j) 34.5
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
57) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward and then thrown rightward. V = 8.00 V C1 = 6.00 F C2 = 12.0 F C3 = 18.0 F How much charge (μC) ends up on the top plate of capacitor 2?
a) 21.8 b) 26.2 c) 58.9 d) 49.1 e) 17.9 f) 12.7 g) 10.9 h) 17.8 i) 37.8 j) 34.5 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
58) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward and then thrown rightward. V = 8.00 V C1 = 6.00 F C2 = 12.0 F C3 = 18.0 F
How much charge (μC) ends up on the top plate of capacitor 3?
a) 21.8 b) 26.2 c) 58.9 d) 49.1 e) 17.9 f) 12.7 g) 10.9 h) 17.8 i) 37.8 j) 34.5 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
59) You have two capacitors C1 and C2 , with the second larger in capacitance. If you wire them in parallel, which is true about the effective (or equivalent) capacitance? a) greater than C2 b) between C1 and C2 c) less than C1 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
60) In the circuit, the battery has a potential of 7.00 V and the missing capacitance values are C6 = 30.0 F and C2 = 20.0 F . What is the charge (μC) on C6?
a) 667 b) 341 c) 360 d) 540 e) 210 f) 301 g) 137 h) 478 i) 226 j) 333 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
61) In the circuit, the battery has a potential of 7.00 V and the missing capacitance values are C6 = 30.0 F and C2 = 20.0 F . What is the charge (μC) on C2?
a) 77.2 b) 13.4 c) 68.2 d) 45.0 e) 104 f) 89.1 g) 25.9 h) 57.8 i) 92.8 j) 33.7 Answer: j
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 62) The figure shows a “cap-monster,” with a 7.0 V battery and where all the capacitors have a capacitance of 3.0 μF. What is the charge (μC) on capacitor C1?
a) 21 b) 3.0 c) 38 d) 40 e) 18 f) 12 g) 36 h) 30 i) 44 j) 48 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
63) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1 and then it is thrown rightward.
V = 18.0 V C1 = 6.00 F
C2 = 12.0 F C3 = 18.0 F
How much charge (μC) ends up on C1?
a) 21.8 b) 26.2 c) 58.9 d) 49.1 e) 17.9 f) 12.7 g) 10.9 h) 17.8 i) 37.8 j) 34.5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
64) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1 and then it is thrown rightward.
V = 18.0 V C1 = 6.00 F
C2 = 12.0 F C3 = 18.0 F
How much charge (μC) ends up on the top plate of capacitor 2?
a) 21.8 b) 26.2 c) 58.9 d) 49.1 e) 17.9 f) 12.7
g) 10.9 h) 17.8 i) 37.8 j) 34.5 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
65) In the circuit, the capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1 and then it is thrown rightward. How much charge (μC) ends up on the top plate of capacitor 3?
V = 18.0 V C1 = 6.00 F
C2 = 12.0 F C3 = 18.0 F
a) 21.8 b) 26.2 c) 58.9 d) 49.1 e) 17.9 f) 12.7 g) 10.9 h) 17.8 i) 37.8 j) 34.5 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 66) The figure shows an 18.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors: C1 = 2.00 F C2 = 5.00 F . When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. How much energy (J) does the battery
supply?
a) 9.82 10−4 b) 4.2110−4 c) 4.22 10−3 d) 1.22 10−4 e) 5.67 10−4 f) 5.04 10−4 g) 3.89 10−4 h) 1.13 10−3 i) 6.67 10−3 j) 2.50 10−3 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 67) The figure shows an 18.0 V battery and two uncharged capacitors: C1 = 2.00 F C2 = 5.00 F . When the switch is closed, the battery charges the capacitors. In capacitor 1, the plates are separated by 1.9 mm, with the gap filled with air. What is the magnitude (N/C) of the (uniform) electric field between the plates?
a) 8.3 103 b) 4.0 103 c) 7.1105 d) 9.5 103 e) 5.3 104 f) 1.9 104 g) 2.7 104 h) 8.9 102 i) 1.6 103
j) 5.9 105 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 68) In the circuit, the battery’s voltage is 10.0 V and the capacitances are C1 = 45.0 µF, C2 = 45.0 µF, C3 = 10.0 µF, C4 = 15.0 µF, and C5 = 20.0 µF. What is the charge (μC) on C3?
a) 77.2 b) 13.4 c) 66.7 d) 45.0 e) 104 f) 89.1 g) 33.3 h) 57.8 i) 92.8 j) 5.78 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 69) In the circuit, the battery’s voltage is 20.0 V and the capacitances are C1 = 45.0 µF, C2 = 45.0 µF, C3 = 10.0 µF, C4 = 15.0 µF, and C5 = 20.0 µF. What is the charge (μC) on C3?
a) 77.2 b) 13.4
c) 66.7 d) 45.0 e) 104 f) 89.1 g) 33.3 h) 57.8 i) 92.8 j) 5.78
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 70) In the circuit, the battery has voltage 20.0 V, and the capacitors (C1 = 6.00 µF, C2 = 12.0 µF, and C3 = 18.0 µF) are initially uncharged. The switch is first thrown leftward to charge capacitor 1 and then it is thrown rightward. How much charge (μC) ends up on capacitor 1?
a) 12.7 b) 10.9 c) 17.8 d) 37.8 e) 34.5 f) 21.8 g) 26.2 h) 7.20 i) 54.5 j) 17.9
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 25.3
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 26 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 26
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) What is the current (amps) in a wire between radial distances 3.00 mm and 4.00 mm if the current density is given by J = (2.00 10
10
)r 3 in (proper) units of amps/m2 and m?
a) 2.0 10−2 b) 1.4 10−2 c) 4.5 10−2 d) 8.0 10−2 e) 5.110−2 f) 6.7 10−2 g) 7.2 10−2 h) 9.5 10−2 i) 3.9 10−2 j) 8.8 10−2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
2) How long (minutes) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 0.350 m. There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 25.6 A. The cross-sectional area is 1.50 10−5 m2. a) 0.67 b) 9.4 c) 8.8 d) 5.1 e) 1.8 f) 18.7 g) 10.0 h) 46.4 i) 7.9 j) 38.1 Answer: h
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
3) What is the current (amps) in a wire between radial distances 3.00 mm and 5.00 mm if the current density is given by J = (2.00 10
10
)r 3 in (proper) units of amps/m2 and m?
a) 2.0 10−2 b) 1.4 10−2 c) 4.5 10−2 d) 8.0 10−2 e) 5.110−2 f) 6.7 10−2 g) 7.2 10−2 h) 9.5 10−2 i) 3.9 10−2 j) 8.8 10−2 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 4) How long (hours) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 9.40 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 30.0 A. The cross-sectional area is 2.50 10−5 m2. a) 67.9 b) 9.49 c) 8.87 d) 51.5 e) 29.6 f) 107 g) 161 h) 4.32 i) 79.8 j) 12.3 Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 5) How long (hours) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 9.40 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 5.50 A. The cross-sectional area is 2.50 10−5 m2. a) 67.9 b) 9.49 c) 8.87 d) 51.5 e) 29.6 f) 107 g) 161 h) 4.32 i) 79.8 j) 12.3 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 6) How long (minutes) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 0.350 m. There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 31.2 A. The cross-sectional area is 1.50 10−5 m2. a) 0.67 b) 9.4 c) 8.8 d) 5.1 e) 1.8 f) 18.7 g) 10.0 h) 46.4 i) 7.9 j) 38.1 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0
Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
7) The figure shows plots of the current i through a certain cross section of a wire over three different time periods. Rank the periods according to the net charge that passes through the cross section, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,3), 2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.1
8) The figure shows a wire with the three different thicknesses but the same material. Rank the three regions with respect to the magnitude of the electric field in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3
h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.3
9) The figure shows a wire that changes in width, with radii r2 = 2.00r1. The drift speed in region 1 at the left is 8.00 10−9 m/s. The resistivity is 1.69 10−8 ohm-m. The density of conduction electrons is 8.49 1028 m-3. On the right, length L is 3.00 cm. What is the potential change ∆V (volts) along that length?
a) 4.02 10−7 b) 1.38 10−8 c) 7.82 10−9 d) 3.45 10−8 e) 3.17 10−8 f) 6.1110−7 g) 2.86 10−9 h) 2.20 10−7 i) 6.06 10−8 j) 9.02 10−9 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 10) The current density in a wire is given by J = 3.00r3, where J is in amps/m2 and r (the distance from the center) is in meters. How much current (A) is conducted between the radii values 0.500 mm and 1.00 mm (which is less than the wire’s radius)?
a) 9.52 10−15 b) 4.56 10−15 c) 2.22 10−15 d) 3.65 10−15 e) 8.2110−15 f) 5.8110−16 g) 7.54 10−15 h) 5.44 10−15 i) 1.20 10−15 j) 4.88 10−15 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 11) The current density in a wire is given by J = 6.00r3, where J is in amps/m2 and r (the distance from the center) is in meters. How much current (A) is conducted between the radii values 0.100 mm and 1.00 mm (which is less than the wire’s radius)? a) 9.52 10−15 b) 4.56 10−15 c) 2.22 10−15 d) 3.65 10−15 e) 8.2110−15 f) 5.8110−16 g) 7.54 10−15 h) 5.44 10−15 i) 1.20 10−15 j) 4.88 10−15 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
12) How long (minutes) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 2.35 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter The current is 15.0 A and uniformly distributed across the cross-sectional area of 2.50 10−5 m2. a) 671 b) 949 c) 887 d) 511 e) 185 f) 187 g) 380 h) 432 i) 790 j) 123 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
13) What is the current (amps) in a wire between radial distances 3.00 mm and 4.00 mm if the current density is given by J = (2.50 10
10
a) 2.5 10−2 b) 1.4 10−2 c) 4.5 10−2 d) 8.0 10−2 e) 5.0 10−2 f) 6.7 10−2 g) 7.7 10−2 h) 9.5 10−2 i) 3.9 10−2 j) 8.8 10−2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
)r 3 in (proper) units of amps/m2 and m?
14) How long (minutes) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 2.35 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter The current is 35.0 A and uniformly distributed across the cross-sectional area of 2.50 10−5 m2. a) 671 b) 949 c) 887 d) 511 e) 185 f) 187 g) 380 h) 432 i) 790 j) 123 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
15) What is the current (amps) in a wire between radial distances 3.00 mm and 4.50 mm if the current density is given by J = (2.50 10
10
a) 2.5 10−2 b) 1.4 10−2 c) 4.5 10−2 d) 8.0 10−2 e) 5.0 10−2 f) 6.7 10−2 g) 7.7 10−2 h) 9.5 10−2 i) 3.9 10−2 j) 8.8 10−2 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
)r 3 in (proper) units of amps/m2 and m?
16) The figure gives the drift speed vd of conduction electrons in a copper wire versus position x along the wire. The wire consists of three sections that differ in radius. Rank the three sections according to the radius, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) A, B, C b) A, C, B c) B, A, C d) B, C, A e) C, B, A f) C, A, B g) (A,B), C h) C, (A,B) i) B, (A,C) j) (A,C), B Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
17) The figure gives the drift speed vd of conduction electrons in a copper wire versus position x along the wire. The wire consists of three sections that differ in radius. Rank the three sections according to the magnitude of the electric field, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) A, B, C b) A, C, B c) B, A, C d) B, C, A e) C, B, A f) C, A, B g) (A,B), C h) C, (A,B) i) B, (A,C) j) (A,C), B Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 18) How long (hours) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 12.0 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 15 A and uniform. The cross-sectional area is 4.00 10−5 m2. a) 73.4 b) 26.4 c) 207 d) 51.1 e) 185 f) 187 g) 170 h) 34.2 i) 59.4 j) 121 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 19) The current density in a wire is given by J = (3.0 10-6)r3, where J is in amps/m2 and r (the distance from the center) is in meters. How much current (A) is conducted between the radii values 0.500 mm and 1.00 mm (which is less than the wire’s radius)? a) 4.08 10−21 b) 8.55 10−22 c) 5.44 10−22 d) 1.82 10−22 e) 4.88 10−22 f) 2.86 10−20 g) 7.56 10−21 h) 3.07 10−22 i) 3.65 10−21 j) 8.2110−20 Answer: i
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
20) The figure shows a wire that changes in width, with radii r2 = 2.00r1. The drift speed in region 1 at the left is 2.00 10−8 m/s. The resistivity is 1.69 10−8 ohm-m. The density of conduction electrons is 8.49 1028 m-3. On the right, length L is 3.00 cm. What is the potential change ∆V (volts) along that length?
a) 6.1110−7 b) 5.17 10−9 c) 2.20 10−7 d) 6.06 10−8 e) 9.02 10−9 f) 5.5110−7 g) 1.38 10−8 h) 7.82 10−9 i) 3.44 10−8 j) 8.27 10−8 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 21) How long (hours) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 7.00 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 15.0 A and uniform. The cross-sectional area is 1.50 10−5 m2. a) 73.4 b) 26.4 c) 207 d) 51.1 e) 185 f) 187
g) 170 h) 34.2 i) 59.4 j) 121 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
22) The figure shows a wire that changes in width, with radii r2 = 2.00r1. The drift speed in region 1 at the left is 3.00 10−9 m/s. The resistivity is 1.69 10−8 ohm-m. The density of conduction electrons is 8.49 1028 m-3. On the right, length L is 0.030 m. What is the potential change ∆V (volts) along that length?
a) 6.1110−7 b) 5.17 10−9 c) 2.20 10−7 d) 6.06 10−8 e) 9.02 10−9 f) 5.5110−7 g) 1.38 10−8 h) 7.82 10−9 i) 3.44 10−8 j) 8.27 10−8 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 23) The current density in a wire is given by J = (3.0 10-6)r3, where J is in amps/m2 and r (the distance from the center) is in meters. How much current (A) is conducted between the radii values 0.500 mm and 1.50 mm (which is less than the wire’s radius)?
a) 4.08 10−21 b) 8.55 10−22 c) 5.44 10−22 d) 1.82 10−22 e) 4.88 10−22 f) 2.86 10−20 g) 7.56 10−21 h) 3.07 10−22 i) 3.65 10−21 j) 8.2110−20 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 24) How long (hours) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 12.5 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 15.0 A. The cross-sectional area is 2.50 10−5 m2. a) 18.7 b) 10.0 c) 43.2 d) 79.0 e) 12.3 f) 67.1 g) 94.9 h) 78.6 i) 14.8 j) 18.5 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
25) The figure shows, for three situations, the electric potential along a wire carrying current, from one end to the other end. Rank the situations according to the current density in the wire, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) A, B, C b) A, C, B c) B, A, C d) B, C, A e) C, B, A f) C, A, B g) (A,B), C h) C, (A,B) i) B, (A,C) j) (A,C), B Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
26) The figure shows three situations in which positive and negative charges move horizontally and gives the rate at which each charge moves. Rank the situations according to the effective current through the regions, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
27) If the current density in a certain wire is given by J = Jor/R, where r is the radial distance, R is the wire’s radius 2.00 mm, and J0 is 16.0 A/m2, then how much current (A) is between r = 0.200R and r = 0.300R? a) 1.57 10−6 b) 1.99 10−7 c) 4.89 10−5 d) 9.18 10−6 e) 8.08 10−6 f) 4.2110−5 g) 6.76 10−5 h) 5.16 10−6 i) 7.1110−5 j) 2.55 10−6 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 28) The figure shows a wire that changes in width. However, we don’t know if the wire narrows as in the first drawing or widens as in the second drawing. The drift speed in region 1 at the left is 8.00 10−9 m/s. The resistivity is 1.69 10−8 ohm-m. The density of conduction electrons is 8.49 1028 m-3. In both sections, the current is uniformly distributed over the cross section. In region 2 on the right, in length L = 3.00 cm, the potential change ∆V = 9.20 10−8 V. What is the ratio of radii r1/r2?
a) 0.50 b) 0.27 c) 0.33 d) 0.67 e) 0.80 f) 1.3 g) 1.7 h) 2.4
i) 2.9 j) 3.1 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 29) How long (hours) do electrons take to move through a cable of length 6.00 m? There are 8.49 1028 conduction electrons per cubic meter. The current is 8.00 A. The cross-sectional area is 2.50 10−5 m2. a) 7.11 b) 9.56 c) 887 d) 65.1 e) 8.53 f) 8.17 g) 4.40 h) 47.2 i) 70.8 j) 14.8 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2
30) If the current density in a certain wire is given by J = Jor/R, where r is the radial distance, R is the wire’s radius 2.00 mm, and J0 is 16.0 A/m2, then how much current (A) is between r = 0.200R and r = 0.800R? a) 1.57 10−6 b) 1.99 10−7 c) 4.89 10−5 d) 9.18 10−6 e) 8.08 10−6 f) 4.2110−5 g) 6.76 10−5 h) 5.16 10−6 i) 7.1110−5
j) 2.55 10−6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 31) The figure shows a wire that changes in width. However, we don’t know if the wire narrows as in the first drawing or widens as in the second drawing. The drift speed in region 1 at the left is 8.00 10−9 m/s. The resistivity is 1.69 10−8 ohm-m. The density of conduction electrons is 8.49 1028 m-3. In both sections, the current is uniformly distributed over the cross section. In region 2 on the right, in length L = 1.00 cm, the potential change ∆V = 1.80 10−7 V. What is the ratio of radii r1/r2?
a) 0.50 b) 0.27 c) 0.33 d) 0.67 e) 0.80 f) 1.3 g) 1.7 h) 2.4 i) 2.9 j) 3.1 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 26.3
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 27 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 27
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows two real batteries and a resistor R = 8.00 Ω. Battery 1 has emf = 10.0 V and internal resistance r1 = 0.300 Ω. Battery 2 has emf = 24.0 V and internal resistance r2 = 0.200 Ω. What is the direction of the current (A) in the circuit?
a) clockwise b) counterclockwise Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1 2) The figure shows two real batteries and a resistor R = 8.00 Ω. Battery 1 has emf = 10.0 V and internal resistance r1 = 0.300 Ω. Battery 2 has emf = 24.0 V and internal resistance r2 = 0.200 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit?
a) 1.33 b) 1.65 c) 0.458 d) 0.926 e) 2.02 f) 1.92 g) 0.148 h) 2.29 i) 2.11 j) 0.841
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1 3) The figure shows two real batteries and a resistor R = 10.0 Ω. Battery 1 has emf = 10.0 V and internal resistance r1 = 0.300 Ω. Battery 2 has emf = 20.0 V and internal resistance r2 = 0.500 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit?
a) 1.33 b) 1.65 c) 0.458 d) 0.926 e) 2.02 f) 1.92 g) 0.148 h) 2.29 i) 2.11 j) 0.841 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
4) In the figure, the initial circuit is shown first. Then resistor 2 is included. Because of that inclusion, what happens to the current in resistor 1?
a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same?
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
5) In the figure, the initial circuit is shown first. Then resistor 2 is included. Because of that inclusion, what happens to the current in resistor 1?
a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
6) The figure shows an ideal battery (its emf is not given) and three identical resistors. Rank the resistors according to the potential across them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 1, 2 f) 3, 2, 1 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2
j) 2, (1,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
7) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the current through the resistor equal to 0.500 A? V = 24.0 V, R = 2.00 , C = 35.0 10−6 F
a) 5.47 10−4 b) 6.56 10−4 c) 2.22 10−4 d) 9.19 10−4 e) 3.33 10−4 f) 9.09 10−4 g) 5.8110−3 h) 4.38 10−4 i) 7.07 10−4 j) 1.25 10−4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
8) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries. What is the current (A) in resistor 2?
V1 = 12.0 V, V2 = 18.0 V, V3 = 10.0 V R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 8.00 Ω, R3 = 4.00 Ω, R4 = 6.00 Ω
a) 3.50 up b) 1.34 up c) 2.10 up d) 1.00 up e) 3.00 up f) 3.50 down g) 1.34 down h) 2.10 down i) 1.00 down j) 3.00 down Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
9) The figure shows an ideal 12.0 battery. What is the current (A) through resistor 2? R1 = 1.40 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 6.00 Ω, R4 = 2.00 Ω,
a) 3.2 b) 6.8 c) 4.3 d) 6.4 e) 7.0 f) 0.25 g) 2.1 h) 5.6 i) 4.8 j) 8.5
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
10) The figure shows six identical real batteries with emf = 8.00 V and resistance r = 0.200 Ω. What is the power (W) dissipated in the external resistor R = 0.500 ?
a) 89 b) 25 c) 56 d) 29 e) 230 f) 150 g) 450 h) 240 i) 125 j) 341 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
11) In the figure, what is the current (A) in the resistor indicated? Each battery is ideal and has emf = 6.0 V. Each resistor has resistance = 2.0 ohms.
a) 3.0 b) 2.0 c) 1.0 d) 1.5 e) 6.0 f) 9.5 g) 10 h) 0.50 i) 7.0 j) 9.0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
12) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with ideal batteries and a grounded point. What is the potential (V) at point P?
V1 = 8.00 V, V2 = 6.00 V, V3 = 12.0 V R1 = 6.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 4.00 Ω, R4 = 8.00 Ω
a) 27.4 b) 4.09 c) 22.8 d) 15.0 e) 13.8 f) 8.05 g) 16.3 h) 10.0 i) 12.0 j) 6.69 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
13) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries. What is the current (A) in resistor 2?
V1 = 8.00 V, V2 = 18.0 V, V3 = 10.0 V R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 8.00 Ω, R3 = 4.00 Ω, R4 = 6.00 Ω
a) 3.50 up b) 1.34 up c) 2.10 up d) 1.00 up e) 3.00 up f) 3.50 down g) 1.34 down
h) 2.10 down i) 1.00 down j) 3.00 down Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
14) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the current through the resistor equal to 2.00 A? V = 24.0 V, R = 2.00 , C = 35.0 10−6 F
a) 5.47 10−4 b) 6.56 10−4 c) 2.22 10−4 d) 9.19 10−4 e) 3.33 10−4 f) 9.09 10−4 g) 5.8110−3 h) 4.38 10−4 i) 7.07 10−4 j) 1.25 10−4 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
15) The figure shows six identical real batteries with emf = 8.00 V and resistance r = 0.200 Ω. What is the power (W) dissipated in the external resistor R = 1.00 ?
a) 89 b) 25 c) 56 d) 29 e) 230 f) 150 g) 450 h) 240 i) 125 j) 341 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
16) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with ideal batteries and a grounded point. What is the potential (V) at point P?
V1 = 4.00 V, V2 = 6.00 V, V3 = 12.0 V R1 = 6.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 4.00 Ω, R4 = 8.00 Ω
a) 27.4 b) 4.09 c) 22.8 d) 15.0 e) 13.8 f) 8.05 g) 16.3 h) 10.0
i) 12.0 j) 6.69 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
17) In the figure, what is the current (A) in the resistor indicated? Each battery is ideal and has emf = 6.0 V. Each resistor has resistance = 9.0 ohms.
a) 3.0 b) 2.0 c) 1.0 d) 1.5 e) 6.0 f) 9.5 g) 10 h) 0.50 i) 7.0 j) 9.0
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
18) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. The capacitor is initially uncharged. What is the voltage (V) across the resistor at t = 4.00 s? V = 12.0 V, C = 3.00 10−6 F, R = 20.0 106
a) 1.60 b) 1.77 c) 11.2 d) 6.16 e) 9.73 f) 8.92 g) 5.70 h) 3.54 i) 7.23 j) 10.4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
19) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. The capacitor is initially uncharged. What is the voltage (V) across the resistor at t = 40.0 s? V = 12.0 V, C = 3.00 10−6 F, R = 20.0 106
a) 1.60 b) 1.77 c) 11.2 d) 6.16 e) 9.73 f) 8.92 g) 5.70 h) 3.54 i) 7.23 j) 10.4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
20) In the figure, the three circuits have identical ideal batteries and identical resistances. Rank them according to the current through the battery, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
21) In which of the three circuits in the figure are the two resistors in parallel?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
22) In the figure, the ideal battery has an emf of 14.0 V. What is the current (A) in R3? R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 12.0 Ω, R4 = 4.00 Ω
a) 0.200 b) 1.00 c) 0.235 d) 0.667 e) 0.750 f) 0.250 g) 0.100 h) 0.500
i) 1.23 j) 0.820 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
23) In the figure, the capacitance is 6.00 10−6 F, the battery’s voltage is V = 12.0 V, and the resistance is 600 . At time t = 0, the capacitor has no charge and the switch is closed. At what time (s) is the voltage across the capacitor equal to 2.00 volts?
a) 5.47 10−4 b) 6.56 10−4 c) 1.20 10−5 d) 9.19 10−4 e) 3.33 10−4 f) 9.89 10−5 g) 5.8110−4 h) 4.38 10−4 i) 7.66 10−5 j) 2.50 10−4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
24) The figure shows an array of identical real batteries, each with emf 0.050 V and internal resistance 0.20 ohm. There are 400 branches, each with 200 batteries. What is the current (A) through the external resistor, which has resistance R = 0.40 Ω?
a) 38 b) 2.5 c) 4.5 d) 5.6 e) 6.2 f) 4.0 g) 16 h) 20 i) 12 j) 18 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
25) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 30.0 V battery, two resistors (one is R2 = 6.00 Ω), and a grounded corner (V = 0). The current is 2.00 A. What is the voltage (“absolute voltage,” V) at point P?
a) -4.0 b) 12 c) 24 d) 26 e) 18 f) 3.0 g) -2.0 h) 38 i) 14
j) -12 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
26) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 30.0 V battery, two resistors (one is R2 = 6.00 Ω), and a grounded corner (V = 0). The current is 2.00 A. What is resistance R1 (ohms)?
a) 10 b) 2.5 c) 6.0 d) 4.5 e) 4.0 f) 12 g) 1.6 h) 8.0 i) 9.0 j) 1.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
27) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 30.0 V battery, two resistors (one is R2 = 6.00 Ω), and a grounded corner (V = 0). The current is 2.00 A. At what rate (W) is energy dissipated in R2?
a) 60 b) 50 c) 30 d) 15 e) 19 f) 110 g) 24 h) 40 i) 54 j) 28 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
28) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries. What is the current (A) in R2? V1 = 15.0 V, V2 = 20.0 V, V3 = 30.0 V
R1 = 6.00 . R2 = 12.0 . R3 = 8.00 R4 = 4.00 .
a) 2.52 b) 0.800 c) 12.0 d) 1.88 e) 2.33 f) 4.02 g) 3.52 h) 4.72 i) 2.08 j) 1.25
Answer: j Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
29) In the figure, the capacitance is 7.00 10−7 F, the ideal battery has an emf of 12.0 V, and the resistance is 600 . At time t = 0, the capacitor has no charge and the switch is closed. At what time (s) is the voltage across the capacitor equal to 2.00 V?
a) 5.47 10−4 b) 6.56 10−4 c) 1.20 10−5 d) 9.19 10−4 e) 3.33 10−4 f) 9.89 10−5 g) 5.8110−4 h) 4.38 10−4 i) 7.66 10−5 j) 2.50 10−4 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
30) In the figure, the ideal battery has an emf of 21.0 V. What is the current (A) in R3? R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 12.0 Ω, R4 = 4.00 Ω
a) 0.250 b) 0.100 c) 0.500 d) 1.23 e) 0.820 f) 0.200 g) 1.00 h) 0.235 i) 0.667 j) 0.750 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
31) The figure shows an array of identical real batteries, each with emf 0.050 V and internal resistance 0.20 ohm. There are 400 branches, each with 200 batteries. What is the current (A) through the external resistor, which has resistance R = 2.40 Ω?
a) 38 b) 2.5 c) 4.5 d) 5.6 e) 6.2 f) 4.0 g) 16 h) 20 i) 12 j) 18 Answer: f Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2 32) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 30.0 V battery, two resistors (one is R2 = 6.00 Ω), and a grounded corner (V = 0). The current is 3.00 A. What is the voltage (“absolute voltage,” V) at point P?
a) 3.0 b) -2.0 c) 38 d) 14 e) -12 f) -4.0 g) 12 h) 24 i) 26 j) 18 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
33) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 30.0 V battery, two resistors (one is R2 = 6.00 Ω), and a grounded corner (V = 0). The current is 3.00 A. What is resistance R1 (ohms)?
a) 12 b) 1.6 c) 8.0 d) 9.0 e) 1.0
f) 10 g) 2.5 h) 6.0 i) 4.5 j) 4.0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
34) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 30.0 V battery, two resistors (one is R2 = 6.00 Ω), and a grounded corner (V = 0). The current is 3.00 A. At what rate (W) is energy dissipated in R2?
a) 110 b) 24 c) 40 d) 54 e) 28 f) 60 g) 50 h) 30 i) 15 j) 19 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
35) The figure shows an ideal 12 V battery and three resistors: R1 = 6.0 Ω, R2 = 5.0 Ω, R3 = 3.0 Ω. At what rate (W) is energy dissipated in resistor 1?
a) 28 b) 48 c) 10 d) 42 e) 12 f) 24 g) 22 h) 16 i) 30 j) 22 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
36) The figure shows an ideal 12.0 V battery and three resistors: R1 = 6.0 Ω, R2 = 5.0 Ω, R3 = 3.0 Ω. At what rate (W) is energy produced by the battery?
a) 28 b) 48 c) 10 d) 42 e) 12 f) 24 g) 22 h) 16 i) 30 j) 22 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
37) The figure shows three real batteries and gives the currents (magnitude and direction) through them. The emf and internal resistor of each are given. Rank the terminal-to-terminal potential of them, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
38) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with ideal batteries and a grounded point. What is the potential (V) at point P? R1 = 6.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 8.00 Ω, V1 = 12.0 V, V2 = 4.00 V
a) 10.5 b) 14.0 c) 24.0 d) 13.5 e) 16.0 f) 4.5 g) 3.8 h) 7.0 i) 9.0 j) 18.5 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
39) The figure shows an ideal 12.0 V battery and three resistors: R1 = 9.0 Ω, R2 = 10.0 Ω, R3 = 14.0 Ω. At what rate (W) is energy dissipated in resistor 1?
a) 28 b) 48 c) 10 d) 42 e) 12 f) 24 g) 2 h) 16 i) 30 j) 24 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0
Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
40) The figure shows an ideal 12.0 V battery and three resistors: R1 = 9.0 Ω, R2 = 10.0 Ω, R3 = 14.0 Ω At what rate (W) is energy produced by the battery?
a) 28 b) 48 c) 10 d) 42 e) 12 f) 24 g) 22 h) 16 i) 30 j) 24 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
41) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with ideal batteries and a grounded point. What is the potential (V) at point P? R1 = 6.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 24.0 Ω, V1 = 12.0 V, V2 = 4.00 V
a) 10.5 b) 14.0 c) 24.0 d) 13.5
e) 16.0 f) 4.5 g) 3.8 h) 7.0 i) 9.0 j) 18.5 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
42) A capacitor with C = 5.0 μF is to be charged by a battery with emf = 12 V through a resistance R. The graph shows the charge q on the capacitor versus time t for three choices of R. Rank the three curves according to the value of R, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4 43) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0 on a capacitor with capacitance C = 5.00 µF. The resistors are R1 = 2.00 Ω and R2 = 4.00 Ω and the circuit has a 50.0 V ideal battery. At what time (s) is the charge on the capacitor equal to 0.250 of the final (equilibrium) charge?
a) 5.47 10−5 b) 6.56 10−6 c) 2.59 10−5 d) 8.63 10−6 e) 3.33 10−5 f) 9.89 10−6 g) 5.8110−6 h) 4.38 10−6 i) 7.07 10−6 j) 1.99 10−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
44) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries. What is the current (A) in R3? R1 = 4.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 8.00 Ω, R4 = 10.0 Ω, R5 = 6.00 Ω V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 10.0 V, V3 = 12.0 V
a) 3.50 up b) 2.25 up c) 4.15 up d) 1.43 up e) 3.00 up f) 3.50 down g) 2.25 down h) 4.15 down
i) 1.43 down j) 3.00 down Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
45) The figure shows an ideal 20 V battery and several resistors, each with resistance 2.00 Ω. What is the current (A) in R1?
a) 10.0 b) 6.20 c) 5.00 d) 0.800 e) 7.10 f) 3.50 g) 4.95 h) 3.33 i) 1.85 j) 2.00 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
46) The figure shows an ideal 20.0 V battery and several resistors, each with resistance 2.00 Ω. What is the current (A) in R2?
a) 10.0 b) 6.20 c) 5.00 d) 0.80 e) 7.10 f) 3.50 g) 4.95 h) 3.33 i) 1.85 j) 2.00 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
47) The figure shows an external resistor R = 2.50 Ω and two branches containing identical real batteries with emf = 5.00 V and internal resistance r = 0.600 Ω. What is the current (A) in each branch?
a) 8.92 b) 6.25 c) 5.00 d) 2.19 e) 2.67 f) 1.50 g) 4.50 h) 3.40 i) 10.0 j) 3.13
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
48) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0 on a capacitor with capacitance C = 15.0 µF. The resistors are R1 = 2.00 Ω and R2 = 4.00 Ω, and there is an ideal 50.0 V battery. At what time (s) is the charge on the capacitor equal to 0.250 of the final (equilibrium) charge?
a) 5.47 10−5 b) 6.56 10−6 c) 2.59 10−5 d) 8.63 10−6 e) 3.33 10−5 f) 9.89 10−6 g) 5.8110−6 h) 4.38 10−6 i) 7.07 10−6 j) 1.99 10−5 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
49) The figure shows an external resistor R = 2.50 Ω and two branches containing identical real batteries with emf = 8.00 V and internal resistance r = 0.600 Ω. What is the current (A) in each branch?
a) 8.92 b) 6.25 c) 5.00 d) 2.19 e) 2.67 f) 1.50 g) 4.50 h) 3.40 i) 10.0 j) 3.13 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
50) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries. What is the current (A) in R3? R1 = 4.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, R3 = 8.00 Ω, R4 = 10.0 Ω, R5 = 6.00 Ω V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 10.0 V, V3 = 12.0 V
a) 3.50 up b) 2.25 up c) 4.15 up d) 1.43 up e) 3.00 up f) 3.50 down g) 2.25 down h) 4.15 down i) 1.43 down j) 3.00 down Answer: i Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
51) The figure shows an ideal 20.0 V battery and several resistors, with R1 = 4.00 Ω and the rest with resistance 2.00 Ω. What is the current (A) in R1?
a) 10.0 b) 6.20 c) 5.00 d) 0.800 e) 7.10 f) 3.50 g) 4.95 h) 3.33 i) 1.85 j) 2.00 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2 52) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 50 V battery and three resistors: R1 = 5.00 , R2 = 20.0 , and R3 = 5.00 . If R3 is removed, by how much (A) does the current through R1 change?
a) 3.56 b) 1.75 c) 2.00
d) 1.90 e) 4.25 f) 1.02 g) 0.55 h) 2.40 i) 2.80 j) 0.20 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
53) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 32.0 V battery and four identical resistors, each of 2.00 Ω. A grounded point is also shown (V = 0). What is the (absolute) voltage (volts) at point A?
a) -35 b) -21 c) +12 d) +24 e) +28.5 f) +35 g) +21 h) -12 i) -24 j) -28.5 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
54) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. The capacitor is initially uncharged. What is the final charge (μC) on the capacitor? V = 12 V, R = 20 10 , C = 3.0 10−6 F. 6
a) 12 b) 24 c) 5.2 d) 17 e) 9.6 f) 48 g) 14 h) 21 i) 51 j) 36 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
55) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. The capacitor is initially uncharged. V = 12 V,
R = 20 106 , C = 3.0 10−6 F. What is the charge (μC) on the capacitor at t = 4.00 s?
a) 1.9 b) 8.5 c) 9.4 d) 12 e) 17 f) 2.3 g) 0.49 h) 6.2 i) 3.1 E-2 j) 3.8
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
56) The figure shows an array of identical real batteries, with emf = 5.0 V and internal resistance r = 0.20 ohm. The external resistance is R = 15 . What is the current (A) through each battery?
a) 12 b) 15 c) 14 d) 4.0 e) 20 f) 30 g) 10 h) 8.0 i) 7.1 j) 5.0 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2 57) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 50.0 V battery and three resistors: R1 = 10.0 , R2 = 20.0 , and R3 = 5.00 . If R3 is removed, by how much (A) does the current through R1 change?
a) 3.57 b) 1.75 c) 2.00 d) 1.90 e) 4.25 f) 1.02 g) 0.55 h) 2.40 i) 2.80 j) 0.20 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
58) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 38.0 V battery and four identical resistors, each of 4.00 Ω. A grounded point is also shown (V = 0). What is the (absolute) voltage (volts) at point A?
a) -35 b) -21 c) +12 d) +24 e) +28.5 f) +35 g) +21 h) -12 i) -24 j) -28.5 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
59) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries (V1 = 15.0 V, V2 = 20.0 V, V3 = 40.0 V). What is the current (A) in R2? R1 = 6.00 Ω, R2 = 12.0 Ω, R3 = 8.00 Ω, R4 = 4.00 Ω
a) 3.52 b) 6.46 c) 1.04 d) 1.88 e) 2.33 f) 4.02 g) 2.15 h) 5.42 i) 1.25 j) 0.25 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
60) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. The capacitor is initially uncharged. What is the final charge (μC) on the capacitor? V = 24 V, R = 20 10 , C = 2.0 10−6 F. 6
a) 12 b) 24 c) 5.2 d) 17 e) 9.6 f) 48 g) 14
h) 21 i) 51 j) 36 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
61) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. The capacitor is initially uncharged. V = 24 V,
R = 20 106 , C = 2.0 10−6 F. What is the charge (μC) on the capacitor at t = 12.0 s?
a) 1.9 b) 8.5 c) 9.4 d) 12 e) 17 f) 2.3 g) 0.49 h) 6.2 i) 3.1 E-2 j) 3.8 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
62) The figure shows an array of identical real batteries, with emf = 5.0 V and internal resistance r = 0.20 ohm. The external resistance is R = 25 . What is the current (A) through each battery?
a) 12 b) 15 c) 14 d) 4.0 e) 20 f) 30 g) 10 h) 8.0 i) 7.1 j) 5.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
63) The figure shows three ideal batteries and three resistors: V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 7.00 V, V3 = 9.00 V R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 4.00 Ω, R3 = 5.00 Ω. What is the current (A) through resistor 3?
a) 0.258 b) 0.421 c) 3.33 d) 1.86 e) 0.931 f) 0.531 g) 1.98 h) 1.12 i) 0.129 j) 0.851
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
64) The figure shows three ideal batteries and three resistors: V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 7.00 V, V3 = 9.00 V R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 4.00 Ω, R3 = 9.00 Ω. What is the current (A) through resistor 3?
a) 0.258 b) 0.421 c) 3.33 d) 1.86 e) 0.931 f) 0.531 g) 1.98 h) 1.12 i) 0.129 j) 0.851 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2 65) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with a resistor R = 10 and two real batteries: ℰ1 = 15.0 V, 𝑟1 = 2.00 𝛺 and ℰ2 = 24.0 V, 𝑟2 = 5.00 𝛺. What is the current (A)?
a) 1.40 b) 0.155 c) 7.03 d) 0.529 e) 1.21 f) 0.964 g) 0.289 h) 0.727 i) 0.333 j) 3.89 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
66) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal battery (ℰ = 40 V) and two resistors: R2 = 6.0 and unknown R1. One corner is grounded (V = 0). The current is 5.0 A counterclockwise. What is the “absolute voltage” (V) at point P?
a) -7.0 b) 10 c) 24 d) 8.5 e) 18 f) 6.0 g) -2.0 h) 45 i) 23
j) -14 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
67) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal battery (ℰ = 40 V) and two resistors: R2 = 6.0 and unknown R1. One corner is grounded (V = 0). The current is 5.0 A counterclockwise. What is resistance R1 (ohms)?
a) 16 b) 2.0 c) 19 d) 4.5 e) 14 f) 12 g) 24 h) 8.0 i) 9.0 j) 10 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
68) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal battery (ℰ = 40.0 V) and two resistors R2 = 6.00 and unknown R1. One corner is grounded (V = 0). The current is 5.00 A counterclockwise. At what rate (W) is energy dissipated in R2?
a) 60 b) 119 c) 49 d) 225 e) 109 f) 150 g) 23 h) 75 i) 170 j) 68 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
69) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal battery (ℰ = 60 V) and two resistors R2 = 3.0 and unknown R1. One corner is grounded (V = 0). The current is 5.0 A counterclockwise. What is the “absolute voltage” (V) at point P?
a) -7.0 b) 10 c) 24 d) 8.5 e) 18 f) 6.0 g) -2.0 h) 45 i) 23 Answer: h
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
70) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal battery (ℰ = 60 V) and two resistors R2 = 3.0 and unknown R1. One corner is grounded (V = 0). The current is 5.0 A counterclockwise. What is resistance R1 (ohms)?
a) 16 b) 2.0 c) 19 d) 4.5 e) 14 f) 12 g) 24 h) 8.0 i) 9.0 j) 10 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
71) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal battery (ℰ = 60.0 V) and two resistors R2 = 3.00 and unknown R1. One corner is grounded (V = 0). The current is 5.00 A counterclockwise. At what rate (W) is energy dissipated in R2?
a) 60 b) 119 c) 49 d) 225 e) 109 f) 150 g) 23 h) 75 i) 170 j) 68 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1 72) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with a resistor R = 15.0 and two real batteries: ℰ1 = 8.00 V, 𝑟1 = 2.00 𝛺 and ℰ2 = 24.0 V, 𝑟2 = 5.00 𝛺. What is the current (A)?
a) 1.40 b) 0.155 c) 7.03 d) 0.529 e) 1.21 f) 0.964 g) 0.289 h) 0.727 i) 0.333 j) 3.89 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
73) The figure shows three circuits in which a charged capacitor is discharged when the switch is closed. The resistors are identical; the capacitors are identical. The graph shows how the charge q on the capacitor decays with time t. Which plot corresponds to which circuit?
a) A1, B2, C3 b) A1, B3, C2 c) A2, B1, C3 d) A2, B3, C1 e) A3, B1, C2 f) A3, B2, C1 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
74) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the voltage across the capacitor equal to 2.00 volts?
a) 5.47 10−4 b) 6.56 10−4 c) 1.46 10−3 d) 9.73 10−4 e) 3.33 10−4 f) 9.89 10−4 g) 5.8110−4 h) 4.38 10−4
V = 12.0 V, R1 = 400 , R2 = 200 , C = 6.00 10-6 F.
i) 7.07 10−4 j) 2.50 10−4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
75) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 35 V battery and seven identical resistors, each of 2.0 Ω. A grounded point is also shown (V = 0). What is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 6.0 b) 2.1 c) 12 d) 7.0 e) 4.5 f) 5.0 g) 9.0 h) 4.0 i) 6.5 j) 3.3 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
76) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 35 V battery and seven identical resistors, each of 2.0 Ω. A grounded point is also shown (V = 0). What is the (absolute) voltage (volts) at point A?
a) -35 b) -21 c) +12 d) -27 e) +67 f) +58 g) -29 h) +49 i) -12 j) +23 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
77) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries and four resistors: R1 = 6.00 , R2 = 12.0 , R3 = 8.00 , R4 = 4.00 . V1 = 15.0 V, V2 = 20.0 V, V3 = 30.0 V What is the power (W) dissipated in R1?
a) 35.2 b) 8.32 c) 12.0 d) 17.4 e) 66.7 f) 40.2 g) 21.5 h) 41.7
i) 20.0 j) 12.5 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
78) In the circuit, each resistor is 9.0 ohms and each battery is ideal and has emf = 18 V. What is the current (A) through the resistor indicated?
a) 5.0 b) 10 c) 3.0 d) 4.0 e) 8.0 f) 6.0 g) 7.0 h) 9.0 i) 2.0 j) 12 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
79) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 45 V battery and seven identical resistors, each of 2.0 Ω. A grounded point is also shown (V = 0). What is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 6.0 b) 2.1 c) 12 d) 7.0 e) 4.5 f) 5.0 g) 9.0 h) 4.0 i) 6.5 j) 3.3 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
80) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 45 V battery and seven identical resistors, each of 2.0 Ω. A grounded point is also shown (V = 0). What is the (absolute) voltage (volts) at point A?
a) -35 b) -21 c) +12 d) -27 e) +67 f) +58 g) -29 h) +49
i) -12 j) +23 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
81) In the figure, the switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the voltage across the capacitor equal to 4.00 volts? V =12.0 V, R1 = 400 , R2 = 200 , C = 6.00 10-6 F.
a) 5.47 10−4 b) 6.56 10−4 c) 1.46 10−3 d) 9.73 10−4 e) 3.33 10−4 f) 9.89 10−4 g) 5.8110−4 h) 4.38 10−4 i) 7.07 10−4 j) 2.50 10−4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
82) In the circuit, each resistor is 4.0 ohms and each battery is ideal and has emf = 12 V. What is the current (A) through the resistor indicated?
a) 5.0 b) 10 c) 3.0 d) 4.0 e) 8.0 f) 6.0 g) 7.0 h) 9.0 i) 2.0 j) 12 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
83) The figure shows a circuit with three ideal batteries and four resistors: R1 = 6.00 , R2 = 12.0 , R3 = 8.00 , R4 = 4.00 . V1 = 15.0 V, V2 = 20.0 V, V3 = 30.0 V What is the power (W) dissipated in R4?
a) 35.2 b) 8.32 c) 12.0 d) 17.4
e) 66.7 f) 40.2 g) 21.5 h) 41.7 i) 20.0 j) 12.5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
84) The figure shows six identical real batteries with emf = 10.0 V and resistance r = 2.0 Ω. The external resistance is R = 2.0 . What is the current (A) through each battery?
a) 0.15 b) 1.8 c) 0.24 d) 1.5 e) 3.0 f) 6.0 g) 2.5 h) 0.56 i) 2.9 j) 2.3 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
85) The figure shows three real batteries that are connected to a larger circuit. For each battery, we see (explicitly) the associated ideal battery and internal resistance. We also see the direction of the current
through the battery. Rank the batteries according to the potential difference across the battery (terminal to terminal), greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. i1 = 2.0 A, ℰ1 = 6.0 V, 𝑟1 = 0.20 𝛺 i2 = 2.0 A, ℰ2 = 6.0 V, 𝑟2 = 0.20 𝛺 i3 = 2.0 A, ℰ3 = 6.4 V, 𝑟3 = 0.40 𝛺
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
86) The figure shows three real batteries that are connected to a larger circuit. For each battery, we see (explicitly) the associated ideal battery and internal resistance. We also see the direction of the current through the battery. Rank the batteries according to the rate at which energy is dissipated as thermal energy, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. i1 = 2.0 A, ℰ1 = 6.0 V, 𝑟1 = 0.20 𝛺 i2 = 2.0 A, ℰ2 = 6.0 V, 𝑟2 = 0.20 𝛺 i3 = 2.0 A, ℰ3 = 6.4 V, 𝑟3 = 0.40 𝛺
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1
e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
87) The figure shows three real batteries that are connected to a larger circuit. For each battery, we see (explicitly) the associated ideal battery and internal resistance. We also see the direction of the current through the battery. i1 = 2.0 A, ℰ1 = 6.0 V, 𝑟1 = 0.20 𝛺 i2 = 2.0 A, ℰ2 = 6.0 V, 𝑟2 = 0.20 𝛺 i3 = 2.0 A, ℰ3 = 6.4 V, 𝑟3 = 0.40 𝛺 In which situation is a battery being charged?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) all three h) none Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
88) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with two ideal batteries, two resistors, and a grounded point. What is the voltage (V) at point A? V1 = 12 V, V2 = 9.0 V, R1 = 2.0 Ω, R2 = 4.0 Ω
a) -11 b) +15 c) +12 d) +10 e) +14 f) -18 g) -13 h) -12 i) -20 j) -4.0 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
89) The figure shows a single-loop circuit with two ideal batteries, two resistors, and a grounded point. What is the voltage (V) at point A? V1 = 12 V, V2 = 36 V, R1 = 2.0 Ω, R2 = 4.0 Ω
a) -11 b) +15 c) +12 d) +10 e) +14
f) -18 g) -13 h) -12 i) -20 j) -4.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
90) The figure shows an ideal 12 V battery, four identical resistors, and a grounded point. Rank points A, B, and C according to the potential there, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) A, B, C b) A, C, B c) B, A, C d) B, C, A e) C, B, A f) C, A, B g) (A,B), C h) C, (A,B) i) B, (A,C) j) (A,C), B Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
91) The figure shows an ideal battery and four resistors. What is the current (A) through the battery? V = 42 V, R1 = 10 Ω, R2 = 8.0 Ω, R3 = 6.0 Ω, R4 = 2.0 Ω
a) 12 b) 9.0 c) 3.0 d) 4.0 e) 5.4 f) 1.5 g) 18 h) 2.0 i) 6.0 j) 6.2 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
92) The figure shows an ideal battery and four resistors. V = 42 V, R1 = 10 Ω, R2 = 8.0 Ω, R3 = 6.0 Ω, R4 = 2.0 Ω What is the potential V3 (volts) across resistor 3?
a) 12 b) 9.0 c) 3.0 d) 4.5 e) 5.4 f) 1.5 g) 18 h) 2.0 i) 6.0 j) 6.2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
93) The figure shows three ideal batteries and three resistors. What is the current (A) through resistor 3? V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 7.00 V, V3 = 9.00 V, R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 4.00 Ω, R3 = 5.00 Ω
a) 5.40 b) 2.12 c) 3.33 d) 3.86 e) 0.67 f) 4.21 g) 1.68 h) 1.12 i) 2.81 j) 0.80 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
94) The figure shows three ideal batteries and three resistors. V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 7.00 V, V3 = 9.00 V, R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 4.00 Ω, R3 = 5.00 Ω What is the power (W) of energy dissipation in resistor 2?
a) 49.0 b) 12.4 c) 98.9 d) 7.80 e) 14.4 f) 19.6 g) 18.7 h) 16.5 i) 10.3 j) 33.3 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
95) The figure shows six identical real batteries with emf = 10.0 V and resistance r = 2.0 Ω. The external resistance is R = 7.0 Ω. What is the current (A) through each battery?
a) 0.15 b) 1.8 c) 0.24 d) 1.5 e) 3.0 f) 9.0 g) 4.5 h) 0.56 i) 2.9 j) 2.3 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
96) The figure shows an ideal battery (V = 12.0 V), two resistors (each R = 8.00 Ω), and an uncharged capacitor (C = 6.00 µF). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the potential (V) across the capacitor at t = 36.0 μs?
a) 5.12 b) 8.11 c) 5.80 d) 4.71 e) 3.75 f) 6.33 g) 7.50 h) 12.7 i) 9.32 j) 18.6 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
97) The figure shows an ideal battery and four resistors. What is the current (A) through the battery? V = 56 V, R1 = 10 Ω, R2 = 8.0 Ω, R3 = 6.0 Ω, R4 = 2.0 Ω
a) 12 b) 9.0 c) 3.0 d) 4.0 e) 5.4 f) 1.5 g) 18 h) 2.0 i) 6.0 j) 6.2 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
98) The figure shows an ideal battery and four resistors. V = 56 V, R1 = 10 Ω, R2 = 8.0 Ω, R3 = 6.0 Ω, R4 = 2.0 Ω What is the potential V3 (volts) across resistor 3?
a) 12 b) 9.0 c) 3.0 d) 4.5 e) 5.4 f) 1.5 g) 18 h) 2.0 i) 6.0 j) 6.2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0
Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
99) The figure shows three ideal batteries and three resistors. What is the current (A) through resistor 3? V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 7.00 V, V3 = 9.00 V, R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 4.00 Ω, R3 = 12.0 Ω
a) 5.40 b) 2.12 c) 3.33 d) 3.86 e) 0.67 f) 4.21 g) 1.68 h) 1.12 i) 2.81 j) 0.80 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
100) The figure shows three ideal batteries and three resistors. V1 = 6.00 V, V2 = 7.00 V, V3 = 9.00 V, R1 = 2.00 Ω, R2 = 4.00 Ω, R3 = 12.0 Ω What is the power (W) of energy dissipation in resistor 2?
a) 49.0 b) 12.4 c) 98.9 d) 7.80 e) 14.4
f) 19.6 g) 18.7 h) 16.5 i) 10.3 j) 33.3 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.1
101) The figure shows six identical real batteries with emf = 30.0 V and resistance r = 2.0 Ω. The external resistance is R = 7.0 Ω. What is the current (A) through each battery?
a) 0.15 b) 1.8 c) 0.24 d) 1.5 e) 3.0 f) 9.0 g) 4.5 h) 0.56 i) 2.9 j) 2.3 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.2
102) The figure shows an ideal battery (V = 24.0 V), two resistors (each R = 8.00 Ω), and an uncharged capacitor (C = 6.00 µF). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the potential (V) across the capacitor at t = 36.0 μs?
a) 5.12 b) 8.11 c) 5.80 d) 4.71 e) 3.75 f) 6.33 g) 7.50 h) 12.7 i) 9.32 j) 18.6 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 27.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 27.4
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 28 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 28
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows two charged particles circling in a magnetic field due to a magnetic force. (The encircled dot indicates a field directly out of the figure.) The particles have the same speed and magnitude of charge q. Which particle has the greater mass?
a) Particle 1 b) Particle 2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
2) The figure shows two charged particles circling in a magnetic field due to a magnetic force. (The encircled dot indicates a field directly out of the figure.) The particles have the same speed and magnitude of charge q. Which particle is negatively charged?
a) Particle 1 b) Particle 2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
3) The figure shows three current-carrying coils, with the same current i, the same area A per turn, and the same number of turns N. They are oriented in a uniform magnetic field as shown. Rank them according to their potential energy, most positive first, most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.8
4) The figure shows a square region of uniform magnetic field and the paths taken by three particles entering (and then leaving) the field. Those three particles are included in the following list, which gives the mass, charge, and speed of six particles. Which particle made path 2? Particle Mass Charge Speed A 4m +2q v/2 B m +q/2 v C 2m +q/2 v D 3m -2q 2v E m/2 -q/2 2v F m -q/2 3v
a) A b) B c) C
d) D e) E f) F Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4 5) A particle circles in a uniform magnetic field with kinetic energy K = 4.8 10−22 J, experiencing a magnetic force of magnitude F = 1.2 10−17 N. What is the radius (m) of the circle? a) 8.0 10−5 b) 4.0 10−5 c) 5.6 10−5 d) 8.7 10−6 e) 2.8 10−6 f) 3.2 10−5 g) 7.5 10−5 h) 9.2 10−6 i) 2.3 10−6 j) 4.6 10−6 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
6) The figure shows a solid metal rectangular object moving in the positive direction of a z axis, through a uniform magnetic field in the positive direction of the y axis. Which face has become negatively charged because of the motion?
a) front
b) right side c) hidden left side d) top e) hidden bottom side f) hidden back side Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
7) The figure shows a solid metal rectangular object moving at velocity v in the positive direction of the z axis, through a uniform magnetic field B in the positive direction of the y axis. What is the potential difference (V) that is set up across the object due to the motion? B = 2.00 10−2 T, v = 2.00 103 m/s, d1 = 4.00 10−3 m, d2 = 3.00 10−3 m, d3 = 2.00 10−3 m
a) 0.240 b) 0.400 c) 1.00 d) 0.120 e) 0.060 f) 0.310 g) 0.750 h) 0.160 i) 0.500 j) 0.080 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
8) An alpha particle (q = +2e, m = 6.644 10−27 kg) travels in a circular path of radius 4.50 cm in a uniform magnetic field with B = 1.20 T. Through what potential difference (volts) was it accelerated (from rest) to have the kinetic energy required for this path? a) 8.3 104 b) 2.8 105 c) 3.9 104 d) 7.0 104 e) 6.7 105 f) 5.2 104 g) 9.3 104 h) 2.0 105 i) 3.1105 j) 1.9 104 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
9) The figure gives three situations in which we see a snapshot (photo) of a charged particle moving through crossed electric and magnetic fields. In which is there the chance that, with the proper choice of speed for the particle, the particle could move in a straight line? (The encircled dot indicates a field directly out of the figure. An encircled x indicates a field directly into the figure.)
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: h Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.2 10) A particle circles in a uniform magnetic field with kinetic energy K = 1.2 10−22 J, experiencing a magnetic force of magnitude F = 5.2 10−17 N. What is the radius (m) of the circle? a) 8.0 10−5 b) 4.0 10−5 c) 5.6 10−5 d) 8.7 10−6 e) 2.8 10−6 f) 3.2 10−5 g) 7.5 10−5 h) 9.2 10−6 i) 2.3 10−6 j) 4.6 10−6 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
11) The figure shows a solid metal rectangular object moving in the positive direction of an x axis, through a uniform magnetic field in the positive direction of the y axis. What potential difference (V) is set up across the object due to the motion? B = 5.00 10−2 T, v = 5.00 103 m/s in positive x direction d1 = 4.00 10−3 m, d2 = 3.00 10−3 m, d3 = 2.00 10−3 m
a) 0.240 b) 0.400 c) 1.00 d) 0.120 e) 0.060 f) 0.310
g) 0.750 h) 0.160 i) 0.500 j) 0.080 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3 12) An alpha particle (q = +2e, m = 6.644 10−27 kg) travels in a circular path of radius 9.00 cm in a uniform magnetic field with B = 1.20 T. Through what potential difference (volts) was it accelerated (from rest) to have the kinetic energy required for this path? a) 8.3 104 b) 2.8 105 c) 3.9 104 d) 7.0 104 e) 6.7 105 f) 5.2 104 g) 9.3 104 h) 2.0 105 i) 3.1105 j) 1.9 104 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
13) The figure shows a negatively charged particle moving through a uniform magnetic field. The velocity vector is shown. The magnetic force on the particle is in the +z direction. In what direction is the magnetic field?
a) +x
b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.1 14) The figure shows a current carrying coil in an external magnetic field. Let θ be the angle between that magnetic field and the coil’s magnetic moment vector. For what value of θ (degrees) is the magnitude of the torque maximum?
a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.6 15) The figure shows a current carrying coil in an external magnetic field. Let θ be the angle between that magnetic field and the coil’s magnetic moment vector. For what value of θ (degrees) is the potential energy minimum?
a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.8 16) The figure shows a current carrying coil in an external magnetic field. Let θ be the angle between that magnetic field and the coil’s magnetic moment vector. For what value of θ (degrees) is the potential energy maximum?
a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.8
17) The figure shows a current carried by electrons flowing rightward through a wire that is in a uniform magnetic field. Owing to the Hall effect, which side of the wire becomes positively charged?
a) bottom b) top Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
18) The figure shows a solid metal object moving through a uniform magnetic field that is in the +x direction. The motion creates a potential difference of 2.40 10−3 V across the object, with the (unseen) back face negatively charged. What is the speed (m/s) of the object? B = 2.00 10−2 T, d1 = 5.00 10−2 m, d2 = 3.00 10−2 m, d3 = 2.00 10−2 m
a) 6.00 b) 1.85 c) 14.2 d) 6.94 e) 4.00 f) 0.500 g) 2.40 h) 8.50 i) 21.3 j) 7.50 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
19) The figure shows a solid metal object moving through a uniform magnetic field that is in the +x direction. The motion creates a potential difference of 2.40 10−3 V across the object, with the (unseen) back face negatively charged. In which direction is the object moving?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
20) The figure shows four snapshots (photos) in different situations in which a charged particle travels through a uniform magnetic (B = 4.0 T) and a uniform electric field (E = 200 V/m). In which will the particle veer to our left just after the snapshot? (The encircled dot indicates a field directly out of the figure. An encircled x indicates a field directly into the figure.) v1 = 40 m/s, v2 = 60 m/s, v3 = 30 m/s, v4 = 45 m/s,
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 4 g) 1 and 4 h) 1 and 3 i) none j) 2 and 4 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.2
22) The figure shows the path of an electron: It is accelerated from rest through a uniform electric field with potential difference ∆V and then, after it leaves that field, it moves through a half circle in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 3.00 10−3 T, with radius r = 2.00 10−2 m. What is the value (volts) of ∆V?
a) 8.88 102 b) 0.190 c) 0.841 d) 4.04 e) 1.25 f) 5.15 102 g) 3.16 102 h) 8.18 103 i) 1.26 103 j) 6.67 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
23) The figure shows the path of an electron: It is accelerated from rest through a uniform electric field with potential difference ∆V and then, after it leaves that field, it moves through a half circle in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude. What is direction of the magnetic field?
a) into the figure b) out of the figure Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
24) The figure shows a negatively charged particle moving through a uniform magnetic field. The velocity vector is shown. The magnetic force on the particle is in the +x direction. In what direction is the magnetic field?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.1
25) The figure shows a solid metal object moving through a uniform magnetic field that is in the +x direction. The motion creates a potential difference of 8.50 10−3 V across the object, with the (unseen) bottom face negatively charged. What is the speed (m/s) of the object? B = 2.00 10−2 T, d1 = 5.00 10−2 m, d2 = 3.00 10−2 m, d3 = 2.00 10−2 m
a) 6.00 b) 1.85 c) 14.2 d) 6.94 e) 4.00 f) 0.500 g) 2.40 h) 8.50 i) 21.3 j) 7.50 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
26) The figure shows the path of an electron: It is accelerated from rest through a uniform electric field with potential difference ∆V and then, after it leaves that field, it moves through a half circle in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 4.00 10−3 T, with radius r = 3.00 10−2 m. What is the value (volts) of ∆V?
a) 8.88 102 b) 0.190 c) 0.841 d) 4.04 e) 1.25 f) 5.15 102 g) 3.16 102 h) 8.18 103 i) 1.26 103 j) 6.67 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4 27) A negatively charged particle moves in the −z direction through a uniform magnetic field. The magnetic force on the particle is in the +y direction. In what direction is the magnetic field? a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.1
28) The figure shows the path an electron that goes through two half circles in regions of uniform magnetic field. The half circles are drawn to scale. Which is the greater field magnitude?
a) B1 b) B2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
29) The figure shows the path an electron that goes through two half circles in regions of uniform magnetic field. The half circles are drawn to scale. Which field is into the figure?
a) B1 b) B2 c) both B1 and B2 d) neither B1 nor B2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
30) The figure shows a solid metal object moving through a uniform magnetic field given by ˆ The motion creates a potential difference of 1.30 10−3 V across the object, with B = (2.00 10−2 T)k. the (unseen) left face negatively charged. What is the speed (m/s) of the object? B = 2.00 10−2 T, d1 = 5.00 10−2 m, d2 = 3.00 10−2 m, d3 = 2.00 10−2 m
a) 6.00 b) 1.30 c) 0.371 d) 0.619 e) 4.00 f) 0.929 g) 2.40 h) 8.50 i) 2.17 j) 3.25 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
31) The figure shows a solid metal object moving through a uniform magnetic field given by ˆ The motion creates a potential difference of 1.30 10−3 V across the object, with B = (2.00 10−2 T)k. the (unseen) left face negatively charged. In which direction is the object moving?
a) +x b) –x c) +y d) –y e) +z f) –z Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
32) The figure shows four snapshots (photos) in different situations in which a charged particle travels through a uniform magnetic (B = 4.0 T) and a uniform electric field (E = 200 V/m). In which will the particle veer upward (in the plane of the figure) just after the snapshot? (The encircled dot indicates a field directly out of the figure. An encircled x indicates a field directly into the figure.) v1 = 40 m/s, v2 = 30 m/s, v3 = 60 m/s, v4 = 45 m/s
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 4 g) 1 and 4 h) 1 and 3 i) none j) 2 and 4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.2
33) The figure shows the path of an electron: It is accelerated from rest through a uniform electric field with potential difference ∆V = 800 V and then, after it leaves that field, it moves through a half circle in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 2.00 10−4 T. What is the radius (m) of that half circle?
a) 8.88 10−2 b) 0.790 c) 0.921 d) 0.477 e) 1.25 10−3 f) 5.15 10−2 g) 6.82 10−2
h) 8.18 10−3 i) 1.26 10−3 j) 7.67 10−2 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
34) The figure shows a solid metal object moving through a uniform magnetic field given by ˆ The motion creates a potential difference of 1.30 10−3 V across the object, with B = (7.00 10−2 T)k. the (unseen) bottom face negatively charged. What is the speed (m/s) of the object? d1 = 5.00 10−2 m, d2 = 3.00 10−2 m, d3 = 2.00 10−2 m
a) 6.00 b) 1.30 c) 0.371 d) 0.619 e) 4.00 f) 0.929 g) 2.40 h) 8.50 i) 2.17 j) 3.25 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.3
35) The figure shows four snapshots (photos) in different situations in which a charged particle travels through a uniform magnetic (B = 4.0 T) and a uniform electric field (E = 200 V/m). In which will the particle veer downward (in the plane of the figure) just after the snapshot? (The encircled dot indicates a field directly out of the figure. An encircled x indicates a field directly into the figure.)
v1 = 40 m/s, v2 = 60 m/s, v3 = 30 m/s, v4 = 45 m/s
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 4 g) 1 and 4 h) 1 and 3 i) none j) 2 and 4 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 28.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.2
36) The figure shows the path of an electron: It is accelerated from rest through a uniform electric field with potential difference ∆V = 200 V and then, after it leaves that field, it moves through a half circle in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 7.00 10−4 T. What is the radius (m) of that half circle?
a) 8.88 10−2 b) 0.790 c) 0.921 d) 0.477 e) 1.25 10−3 f) 5.15 10−2 g) 6.82 10−2 h) 8.18 10−3 i) 1.26 10−3 j) 7.67 10−2 Answer: g Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 28.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 28.4
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 29 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 29
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure at the corners of identical squares. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net magnetic field at the center of the square, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
2) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel, equally spaced wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net force on the central wire due to the currents in the other wires, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3
d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
3) The figure shows three currents (up or down the figure as drawn) and three Amperian paths encircling them. Rank the paths according to the value of most negative last. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
B ds taken in the directions shown, most positive first,
i1 = 2 A, i2 = 3 A, i3 = 4 A
4) The figure shows three infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated. What is the magnitude of the net magnetic field (T) at the origin? i1 = 5.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 3.00 A, and d = 2.00 m.
a) 7.15 10−6 b) 1.03 10−6 c) 8.55 10
−6
d) 3.66 10
−7
e) 7.07 10 f) 9.44 10
−7
g) 3.13 10
−6
h) 5.60 10 i) 9.05 10 j) 1.85 10
−7
−6
−7
−7
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
5) The figure shows three infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated. i1 = 5.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 3.00 A, and d = 2.00 m. What is the angle (degrees) of the net magnetic field at the origin, measured from the positive direction of the x axis?
a) 48
b) -127 c) 45 d) 29 e) -114 f) -144 g) 36 h) 169 i) -13 j) -156 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
6) The figure gives the magnitude of the magnetic field inside and outside a wire with a uniformly distributed current: Bmax = 3.00 10−6 T. What is the current (mA)?
a) 43.3 b) 75.0 c) 67.0 d) 55.0 e) 30.0 f) 17.3 g) 20.9 h) 10.0 i) 85.1 j) 50.2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
7) The figure shows an infinitely long straight wire carrying current i1 = 12.0 A and a rectangular loop of wire carrying current i2 = 18.0 A, with lengths d1 = 1.00 cm, d2 = 5.00 cm, and L = 2.00 m. What is the magnitude (N) of the net magnetic force on the rectangular loop?
a) 1.50 10−4 b) 8.20 10−4 c) 5.13 10
−4
d) 9.02 10 e) 4.02 10 f) 7.68 10
−3
h) 6.9110 j) 1.1110
−5
−4
g) 1.15 10 i) 1.04 10
−5
−4
−2
−5
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
8) The figure shows three wires that carry currents. i1 = 2.00 A, i2 = 5.00 A, i3 = 4.00 A What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on the middle wire? You can treat these wires as being long. They are long compared to the distances between them: d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 12.0 cm, L = 2.50 m.
a) 1.90 10
−4
b) 8.20 10
−4
c) 2.08 10
−4
d) 9.02 10−5 e) 4.02 10−5 f) 1.46 10−4 g) 2.92 10−4 h) 2.08 10−5 i) 5.13 10
−4
j) 1.1110−5 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
9) The first figure shows a closed loop with current i. The loop consists of a half-circle of radius r and a half circle of radius R = 2r. The second figure shows the same half-circles but the small one has been flipped over. The net magnetic field at the common center of the circular sections is B1 for the first figure and B2 for the second figure. What is the magnitude of the ratio B2 / B1 ?
a) 0.50 b) 0.25 c) 0.75 d) 0.33 e) 0.67 f) 2.0 g) 4.0 h) 3.0 i) 2.5 j) 1.5 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
10) The figure shows three infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the origin? i1 = 5.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 7.00 A, and d = 2.00 m.
a) 7.15 10 b) 1.03 10
−6
−6
c) 8.55 10
−6
d) 3.66 10
−7
e) 7.07 10 f) 9.44 10
−7
g) 3.13 10
−6
h) 5.60 10 i) 9.05 10 j) 1.85 10
−7
−6
−7
−7
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
11) The figure three infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the plane of the figure, as indicated. i1 = 5.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 7.00 A, and d = 2.00 m. What is the angle (degrees) of the net magnetic field at the origin, measured from the positive direction of the x axis?
a) 48 b) -127 c) 45 d) 29 e) -114 f) -144 g) 36 h) 169 i) -13 j) -156 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
12) The figure gives the magnitude of the magnetic field inside and outside a wire with a uniformly distributed current: Bmax = 4.00 E-7 T. What is the current (mA)?
a) 43.3 b) 75.0 c) 67.0 d) 55.0 e) 30.0 f) 17.3 g) 20.9 h) 10.0 i) 85.1 j) 50.2 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0
Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
13) The figure shows an infinitely long straight wire carrying current i1 = 4.00 A and a rectangular loop of wire carrying current i2 = 6.00 A, with lengths d1 = 1.00 cm, d2 = 5.00 cm, and L = 2.00 m. What is the magnitude (N) of the net magnetic force on the rectangular loop?
a) 1.50 10
−4 −4
b) 8.20 10 c) 5.13 10
−4
d) 9.02 10 e) 4.02 10 f) 7.68 10
−3
h) 6.9110 j) 1.1110
−5
−4
g) 1.15 10 i) 1.04 10
−5
−4
−2
−5
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
14) The figure shows three wires that carry currents. i1 = 8.00 A, i2 = 5.00 A, i3 = 2.00 A What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on the middle wire? You can treat these wires as being long. They are long compared to the distances between them: d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 12.0 cm, L = 2.50 m.
a) 1.90 10
−4
b) 8.20 10−4 c) 2.08 10−4 d) 9.02 10−5 e) 4.02 10−5 f) 1.46 10−4 g) 2.92 10
−4
h) 2.08 10−5 i) 5.13 10−4 j) 1.1110−5 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
15) The first figure shows a closed loop with current i. The loop consists of a half-circle of radius r and a half circle of radius R = 3r. The second figure shows the same half-circles but the small one has been flipped over. The net magnetic field at the common center of the circular sections is B1 for the first figure and B2 for the second figure. What is the magnitude of the ratio B1 / B2 ?
a) 0.50 b) 0.25 c) 0.75 d) 0.33 e) 0.67 f) 2.0 g) 4.0 h) 3.0 i) 2.5 j) 1.5 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
16) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure at the corners of identical squares. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net magnetic field at the center of the square, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
17) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel, equally spaced wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net force on the central wire due to the currents in the other wires, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3
h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
18) The figure shows four identical currents i and three Amperian paths encircling them. Rank the paths according to the value of
B ds taken in the directions shown, most positive first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
19) The figure shows a closed loop with current i = 4.00 A. The loop consists of a half-circle of radius 5.00 m, two quarter-circles each of radius 2.00 m, and three radial straight wires. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the common center of the circular sections?
a) 1.08 10−5 b) 8.80 10−7 c) 3.77 10
−7
d) 9.77 10
−7
e) 5.65 10
−7
f) 4.67 10
−5
g) 2.5110
−7
h) 2.19 10 i) 1.98 10
−7
−6
j) 2.02 10
−5
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
20) The figure shows four infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated: i1 = 3.00 A, i2 = i3 = 9.00 A, i4 = 5.00 A, d = 1.00 cm. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the origin?
a) 7.15 10
−5
b) 1.02 10
−5
c) 8.55 10
−5
d) 3.66 10
−5
e) 6.67 10
−5
f) 9.44 10−5 g) 3.13 10−5 h) 5.60 10−5 i) 9.05 10−5 j) 1.85 10−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
21) The figure shows four infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated. i1 = 3.00 A, i2 = i3 = 9.00 A, i4 = 5.00 A, d = 10.0 cm. What is the angle (degrees) of the net magnetic field at the origin, measured from the positive direction of the x axis?
a) 48 b) -127 c) 42 d) -138 e) -114 f) -144 g) 36 h) 169 i) -132 j) -156 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
22) The figure shows an infinitely long straight wire carrying a current of 5.00 A and a rectangular loop of wire carrying a current of 12.0 A. What is the magnitude (N) of the net magnetic force on the rectangular loop? L = 0.500 m, d1 = 4.00 cm, d2 = 8.00 cm.
a) 1.50 10−4 b) 8.20 10−4 c) 5.13 10
−4
d) 9.02 10 e) 4.02 10 f) 2.25 10
−5
−5
−4
g) 9.1110
−4
h) 7.50 10 i) 2.33 10 j) 1.1110
−5
−5
−5
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
23) The figure shows a closed loop with current i = 9.00 A. The loop consists of a half-circle of radius 5.00 m, two quarter-circle each of radius 2.00 m, and three radial straight wires. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the common center of the circular sections?
a) 1.08 10
−5
b) 8.80 10
−7
−7
c) 3.77 10
d) 9.77 10−7 e) 5.65 10−7 f) 4.67 10−5 g) 2.5110−7 h) 2.19 10−7 i) 1.98 10
−6
j) 2.02 10−5 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
24) The figure shows four infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated: i1 = 9.00 A, i2 = i3 = 9.00 A, i4 = 5.00 A, d = 1.00 cm. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the origin?
a) 7.15 10
−5
b) 1.02 10
−5
c) 8.55 10
−5
d) 3.66 10 e) 6.67 10 f) 9.44 10
−5
−5
g) 3.13 10
−5
h) 5.60 10 i) 9.05 10 j) 1.85 10 Answer: h
−5
−5
−5
−5
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1 25) The figure shows four infinitely long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated: i1 = 9.00 A, i2 = i3 = 9.00 A, i4 = 5.00 A, d = 10.0 cm. What is the angle (degrees) of the net magnetic field at the origin, measured from the positive direction of the x axis?
a) 48 b) -127 c) 42 d) -138 e) -114 f) -144 g) 36 h) 169 i) -132 j) -156 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1 26) The figure shows a closed loop with current i = 2.00 A. The loop consists of two circular arcs (of radii 4.00 cm and 2.00 cm) and two radial straight sections. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the common center of the circular sections? Don’t round off until the last step.
a) 1.08 10−5 b) 8.80 10−5 c) 3.77 10−5 d) 1.40 10−5 e) 5.24 10−6 f) 4.7110−5 g) 2.5110−5 h) 5.50 10−5 i) 1.54 10−6 j) 2.02 10−5 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
27) The figure shows four identical currents i and three Amperian paths encircling them. Rank the paths according to the value of indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1
B ds taken in the directions shown, most positive first, most negative last. ( )
f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3), 2 j) (1,2,3) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
28) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure at the corners of identical squares. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net magnetic field at the center of the square, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
29) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel, equally spaced wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net force on the central wire due to the currents in the other wires, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
30) The figure shows three wires that carry currents: i1 = 2.00 A, i2 = 5.00 A, i3 = 7.00 A. What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on the middle wire? You can treat these wires as being long. They are long compared to the distances between them: L = 2.50 m, d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 12.0 cm.
a) 1.50 10−4 b) 8.20 10−4 c) 5.13 10−4 d) 3.96 10−4 e) 4.02 10−5 f) 2.08 10−4 g) 9.1110−4 h) 8.33 10−5 i) 2.33 10−5
j) 1.1110−5 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
31) The figure shows three very long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated: i1 = 1.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 1.50 A. The distances are also given, with d = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the origin?
a) 7.05 10 b) 1.00 10
−6
−6
c) 7.95 10
−6
d) 3.66 10 e) 6.67 10 f) 8.44 10
−6
−6
g) 4.99 10 h) 1.48 10
−6
−6
−6
i) 9.05 10
−6
j) 3.33 10
−6
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
32) The figure shows a closed loop with current i = 2.00 A. The loop consists of two circular arcs (of radii 3.00 cm and 2.00 cm) and two radial straight sections. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the common center of the circular sections? Don’t round off until the last step.
a) 1.08 10−5 b) 8.80 10−5 c) 3.77 10−5 d) 1.40 10−5 e) 5.24 10−6 f) 4.7110−5 g) 2.5110−5 h) 5.50 10−5 i) 1.54 10−6 j) 2.02 10−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
33) The figure shows three wires that carry currents: i1 = 2.00 A, i2 = 9.50 A, i3 = 7.00 A. What is the magnitude (N) of the net force on the middle wire due to the other two currents? You can treat these wires as being long. They are long compared to the distances between them: L = 2.50 m, d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 12.0 cm
a) 1.50 10−4 b) 8.20 10−4
c) 5.13 10−4 d) 3.96 10−4 e) 4.02 10−5 f) 2.08 10−4 g) 9.1110−4 h) 8.33 10−5 i) 2.33 10−5 j) 1.1110−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
34) The figure shows three very long wires that carry currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure, as indicated: i1 = 1.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 4.50 A. The distances are also given, with d = 0.200 m. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field at the origin
a) 7.05 10 b) 1.00 10
−6
−6
c) 7.95 10
−6
d) 3.66 10 e) 6.67 10 f) 8.44 10
−6
−6
g) 4.99 10 h) 1.48 10
−6
−6
−6
i) 9.05 10
−6
j) 3.00 10
−6
Answer: j Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
35) The figure shows three arrangements in which long, parallel, equally spaced wires carry equal currents directly into or out of the plane of the figure. Rank the arrangements according to the magnitude of the net force on the central wire due to the currents in the other wires, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,3), 2 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
36) The figure shows the cross section of a wire. An Amperian loop is shown, centered on the wire and with radius r = 6.00 mm. The magnetic field has a magnitude of B along that loop. As a multiple of B, what is the value of
a) (5.00 10−2 )B b) (2.00 10−2 )B c) (9.20 10−2 )B d) (8.50 10−2 )B
B ds around the loop?
e) (3.6110−2 )B f) (2.40 10−2 )B g) (8.17 10−2 )B h) (4.50 10−2 )B i) (3.77 10−2 )B j) (1.42 10−1 )B Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
37) In the figure, the loop consists of a pair of quarter-circles, a single half-circle, and three radial sections. The radii are R, 1.50R, and 2.00R. What is the magnitude (T) of the net magnetic field produced by the current at the common center of curvature? Answer by indicating what goes in the blank in this equation: B = ___
0 i 4 R
a) 0.50 b) 2.02 c) 0.333 d) 0.667 e) 1.0 E-3 f) 3.08 g) 1.05 h) 2.47 i) 1.2 E-5 j) 4.19 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
38) The figure shows, in cross section, three long straight wires that carry current into or out of the plane of the figure as indicated:
i1 = 4.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 3.00 A, d = 2.00 10−3 m . The three wires are each 1.00 m long. What is the net magnetic force (N) on wire 2 due to the other two currents?
a) 9.58 E-4 b) 8.90 E-4 c) 2.67 E-4 d) 5.60 E-5 e) 8.89 E-5 f) 3.11 E-4 g) 3.67 E-4 h) 9.74 E-3 i) 4.00 E-3 j) 1.00 E-3 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
39) In the figure, four straight wires, each of length 0.500 m, carry current either in or out of the sketch as indicated. i1 = 4.00 A and i2 = i3 = i4 =2.00 A. Equal spacing d = 3.00 10−3 m. What is the net magnetic force (N) on wire 3 due to the other currents?
a) 0 b) 1.33 E-4 c) 9.00 E-4 d) 3.05 E-5 e) 5.33 E-5 f) 4.00 E-4 g) 7.11 E-4
h) 1.60 E-4 i) 2.09 E-5 j) 6.12 E-4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
40) The figure shows the cross section of a wire. An Amperian loop is shown, centered on the wire and with radius r = 0.0130 m. The magnetic field has a magnitude of B along that loop. As a multiple of B, what is the value of
B ds around the loop?
a) (5.00 10−2 )B b) (2.00 10−2 )B c) (9.20 10−2 )B d) (8.50 10−2 )B e) (3.6110−2 )B f) (2.40 10−2 )B g) (8.17 10−2 )B h) (4.50 10−2 )B i) (3.77 10−2 )B j) (1.42 10−1 )B Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.3
41) The figure shows, in cross section, three long straight wires that carry current into or out of the plane of the figure as indicated:
i1 = 4.00 A, i2 = 2.00 A, i3 = 3.00 A, d = 7.50 10−3 m The three wires are each 1.00 m long. What is the net magnetic force (N) on wire 2 due to the other two currents?
a) 9.58 10−4 b) 8.90 10−4 c) 2.67 10−4 d) 5.60 10−5 e) 8.89 10−5 f) 3.1110−4 g) 3.67 10−4 h) 9.74 10−3 i) 4.00 10−3 j) 1.00 10−3 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
42) In the figure, four straight wires, each of length 0.500 m, carry current out of the sketch as indicated: i1 = 4.00 A and i2 = i3 = i4 =2.00 A. Equal spacing d = 7.50 mm. What is the net magnetic force (N) on wire 3 due to the other currents?
a) 0 b) 1.33 E-4 c) 9.00 E-4 d) 3.05 E-5 e) 5.33 E-5 f) 4.00 E-4 g) 7.11 E-4 h) 1.60 E-4
i) 2.09 E-5 j) 6.12 E-4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.2
43) The figure shows two long straight wires carrying currents in opposite directions: i1 = 3.00 A and i2 = 2.00 A. Three points P are indicated. Rank the points according to the magnitude of the net magnetic field there, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
44) The figure shows two long straight wires carrying currents in opposite directions: i1 = 3.00 A and i2 = 2.00 A. Three points P are indicated. Distance d = 2.00 cm. What is the magnitude (µT) of the net magnetic field at point P2?
a) 10 b) 50 c) 33 d) 6.7 e) 124 f) 3.5 g) 42 h) 81 i) 25 j) 70 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
45) The figure shows a long straight wire that carries a 7.00 A current downward. The figure also shows a differential length ds and a point P. According to the Biot-Savart law, what multiple of ds gives the magnitude (µT) of the magnetic field at P due to the current in ds? That is, dB = ? ds.
a) 2.77 b) 177 c) 15.4 d) 5.60 e) 18.3 f) 430 g) 7.71 h) 106 i) 257 j) 9.67
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
46) The figure shows two long straight wires. One is in the plane of the figure, carrying i1 = 4.00 A rightward. The other is perpendicular to the plane, carrying i2 = 5.00 A outward. What is the magnitude (µT) of the net magnetic field at point P?
a) 4.33 b) 103 c) 46.7 d) 9.51 e) 113 f) 6.67 g) 86.7 h) 73.3 i) 18.0 j) 52.1 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
47) The figure shows a circuit consisting of three concentric circular arcs (one is a half circle) and several radial sections. the current is 5.00 A and the radii are R1 = 2.00 m, R2 = 1.60 m, and R3 = 1.00 m. What is the magnitude (µT) of the net magnetic field at the center point?
a) 5.82 b) 1.24 c) 0.327 d) 3.21 e) 2.77 f) 8.31 g) 0.549 h) 0.707 i) 0.982 j) 3.73 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
48) The figure shows a long straight wire that carries a 17.0 A current downward, a differential length ds, and a point P. What multiple of ds gives the magnitude (µT) of the magnetic field at P due to the current in ds? That is, dB = ? ds. Use the Biot-Savart law.
a) 2.77 b) 177 c) 15.4 d) 5.60 e) 18.3 f) 430 g) 7.71 h) 106 i) 257 j) 9.67 Answer: i Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
49) The figure shows two long straight wires carrying currents in opposite directions: i1 = 3.00 A and i2 = 2.00 A. Three points P are indicated. Distance d = 3.00 cm. What is the magnitude (µT) of the net magnetic field at point P2?
a) 10 b) 50 c) 33 d) 6.7 e) 124 f) 3.5 g) 42 h) 81 i) 25 j) 70 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
50) The figure shows two long straight wires. One is in the plane of the figure, carrying i1 = 8.00 A rightward. The other is perpendicular to the plane, carrying i2 = 5.00 A outward. What is the magnitude (µT) of the net magnetic field at point P?
a) 4.33 b) 103 c) 46.7 d) 9.51
e) 113 f) 6.67 g) 86.7 h) 73.3 i) 18.0 j) 52.1 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
51) The figure shows a circuit consisting of three concentric circular arcs (one is a half circle) and several radial sections. the current is 15.0 A and the radii are R1 = 2.00 m, R2 = 1.60 m, and R3 = 1.00 m. What is the magnitude (µT) of the net magnetic field at the center point?
a) 5.82 b) 1.24 c) 0.327 d) 3.21 e) 2.77 f) 8.31 g) 0.549 h) 0.707 i) 0.982 j) 3.73 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 29.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 29.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 30 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 30
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a wire loop with a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop and upward. The graph gives the magnitude of the field for three time intervals. Rank the intervals according to the magnitude of the induced emf during the interval, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
2) The figure shows a wire loop with a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop and upward. The graph gives the magnitude of the field for three time intervals. In which interval is the induced emf clockwise?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
3) The figure shows the direction of the current through three inductors. Here are the currents as a function of time t: i1 = 5t i2 = 5t i3 = 5/t. In which inductor is the induced emf upward in the figure?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) all three h) none Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
4) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and t in seconds, the fields are B1 = t , B2 = 4t , B3 = 17. The dimensions are L = 3.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 8.0 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 50 b) 38 c) 16 d) 20 e) 26 f) 36 g) 15 h) 18 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
5) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The magnetic field is given by 3.00 y 2t 4 , with B in teslas, y in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.300 m, x2 = 0.600 m, y1 = 0.500 m, and y2 = 0.700 m. What is the induced emf (V) at time t = 4.00 s?
a) 34.5 b) 23.0 c) 59.2 d) 8.43 e) 11.9
f) 16.7 g) 63.1 h) 27.9 i) 15.1 j) 17.9 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
6) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The magnetic field is given by 3.00 y 2t 4 , with B in teslas, y in meters, and t in seconds. What is the direction of the induced emf?
a) clockwise b) counterclockwise Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
7) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is one-fourth of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
5.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 6.67 10
−3
b) 8.94 10
−5
c) 7.2110
−5
d) 2.5110
−4
e) 6.96 10
−4
f) 6.06 10
−5
g) 1.57 10
−4
h) 3.99 10 i) 3.57 10 j) 9.2110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
8) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is one-fourth of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
5.00 10−3 T/s. In the perspective of the figure, is the induced emf clockwise or counterclockwise?
a) clockwise b) counterclockwise Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
9) The figure shows a conducting bar sliding at speed v along a wire in the shape of “U” through a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire and bar: speed = 3.00 m/s, left-right width L = 5.00 m, induced emf = 140 V counterclockwise. What is the magnitude (T) of the magnetic field?
a) 5.13 b) 74.8 c) 1.53 d) 8.09 e) 11.2 f) 29.9 g) 9.33 h) 2.35 i) 24.0 j) 16.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
10) The figure shows a conducting bar sliding at speed v along a wire in the shape of “U” through a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire and bar. The induced emf is counterclockwise. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
a) into figure b) out of figure Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
−6
11) An inductor has an inductance of 50.0 10 H. The current through it is given by i = 6.00t 2 , with i in amps and t in seconds. What is the magnitude of the emf (V) induced in the inductor at t = 3.00 s? a) 6.94 10
−2
b) 9.35 10 c) 7.53 10 d) 8.2110 e) 1.12 10 f) 4.5110
−2
−4
−3
−2
−3
g) 2.40 10
−3
h) 4.09 10 i) 1.80 10
−4
−3
j) 3.58 10
−2
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
12) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and t in seconds, the fields are B1 = 5t , B2 = 2t , B3 = 17. The dimensions are L = 3.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 8.0 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 50
b) 38 c) 16 d) 20 e) 26 f) 36 g) 15 h) 18 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
13) The figure shows rectangular wire loop. The magnetic field is given by 5.00 y 2t 4 , with B in teslas, y in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.300 m, x2 = 0.600 m, y1 = 0.500 m, and y2 = 0.700 m. What is the induced emf (V) at time t = 4.00 s?
a) 34.5 b) 23.0 c) 59.2 d) 8.43 e) 11.9 f) 16.7 g) 63.1 h) 27.9 i) 15.1 j) 17.9 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
14) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is one-fourth of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
8.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 6.67 10
−3
b) 8.94 10
−5
c) 7.2110
−5
d) 2.5110
−4
e) 6.96 10
−4
f) 6.06 10
−5
g) 1.57 10
−4
h) 3.99 10 i) 3.57 10 j) 9.2110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
15) The figure shows a conducting bar sliding at speed along a wire in the shape of “U” through a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire and bar: speed = 3.0 m/s, left-right width L = 5.0 m, induced emf = 360 V counterclockwise. What is the magnitude (T) of the magnetic field?
a) 5.13
b) 74.8 c) 1.53 d) 8.09 e) 11.2 f) 29.9 g) 9.33 h) 2.35 i) 24.0 j) 16.8 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
−6
16) An inductor has an inductance of 50.0 10 H. The current through it is given by i = 8.00t 2 , with i in amps and t in seconds. What is the magnitude of the emf (V) induced in the inductance at t = 3.00 s? a) 6.94 10
−2
b) 9.35 10 c) 7.53 10 d) 8.2110 e) 1.12 10 f) 4.5110
−2
−4
−3
−2
−3
g) 2.40 10
−3
h) 4.09 10 i) 1.80 10
−4
−3
j) 3.58 10
−2
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
17) The figure shows three square wire loops of identical size, each lying in one of the planes of the ˆ Rank the loops coordinate system. The loops are in the same uniform magnetic field B = 5iˆ + 7tˆj + 14k. according to the magnitude of the emf induced in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
18) In the figure, a long straight wire with current i = 3t (in amps and seconds) passes (without touching) three circular wire loops. You can tell the relative sizes of the loops. Rank the loops according to the size of the current induced in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2
g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
19) The figure shows a wire loop with a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The graph gives the magnitude of the field for three time intervals. Rank the intervals according to the magnitude of the induced emf during the interval, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
20) The figure shows two situations in which current through an inductor is changing (either increasing or decreasing). In which is the induced emf leftward?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both d) neither Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
21) The figure shows two circular wire loops in uniform magnetic fields. In each case, the field is changing. In which is the induced current clockwise?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both d) neither Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
22) The figure shows three circuits in which a conducting bar slides along a U-shaped wire and through a uniform magnetic field (the field direction is indicated). The direction of travel is indicated. In which circuit is the induced current clockwise?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
23) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and time in seconds, the fields are B1 = 3, B2 = 4t , B3 = 6. The dimensions are L = 2.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 24 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 20 b) 6 c) 0 d) 8 e) 12 f) 28
g) 14 h) 4 i) 24 j) 40 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
24) The figure shows a rectangular circuit in a magnetic field that is out of the plane of the figure and given by B = 2.00x3t5, with B in teslas, x in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.600 m, x2 = 0.800 m, and y1 = 0.500 m. The resistor has resistance 5.00 10 Ω and the wire has negligible resistance. What is the current (A) through the circuit at t = 3.00 s? 3
a) 6.15 10
−5
b) 5.5110
−5
c) 8.92 10
−4
d) 5.67 10 e) 6.89 10 f) 9.03 10
−4
−4
g) 1.1110
−4
h) 2.53 10 i) 1.19 10
−3
−3
−5
j) 7.10 10
−3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
25) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field of 5.00 T that is into the figure. The width is L = 0.800 m. A counterclockwise emf of 8.00 V is induced in the circuit. What is the speed of the rod (m/s)?
a) 4.5 b) 5.0 c) 3.7 d) 7.0 e) 9.5 f) 2.0 g) 3.5 h) 8.9 i) 1.2 j) 2.7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
26) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field into the figure. A counterclockwise emf is induced in the circuit. What is the direction of the rod’s motion?
(a) upward (b) downward Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
27) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and time in seconds, the fields are B1 = 3, B2 = 4t , B3 = 6. The dimensions are L = 2.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 12 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 20 b) 6 c) 0 d) 8 e) 12 f) 28 g) 14 h) 4 i) 24 j) 40 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
28) The figure shows three square wire loops of identical size, each lying in one of the planes of the ˆ coordinate system. The loops are in the same uniform magnetic field B = 2tˆi + 3tˆj + 7k. Rank the loops according to the magnitude of the emf induced in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) 1, (2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
29) The figure shows three circuits in which a conducting bar slides along a U-shaped wire and through a uniform magnetic field (the field direction is indicated). The direction of travel is indicated. In which is the induced current clockwise?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
30) The figure shows two regions of uniform magnetic field. On the left of the dashed line, B1 = 4.00t2 in teslas and seconds, and on the right, B2 = 60.0 T. The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m and L2 = 3.00 m. The circuit includes an ideal 60.0 V battery, and the total resistance is 5.00 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 3.00 s?
a) 2.02 b) 6.53 c) 5.60 d) 8.92 e) 9.83 f) 1.91 g) 16.8 h) 4.83 i) 2.42 j) 4.41 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
31) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.350 T directly into the figure. Length L is 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 18.0 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.54 10
−3
b) 5.06 10 c) 3.70 10
−2
−2
d) 7.10 10 e) 9.5110 f) 1.07 10
−4
−2
g) 3.5110 h) 8.9110 i) 1.25 10
−4
−3
−3
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
32) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with a speed v in a uniform magnetic field directly into the figure. What is the direction of that induced current?
(a) clockwise (b) counterclockwise Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
33) The figure shows a rectangular circuit in a magnetic field that is out of the plane of the figure and given by B = 2.00x3t5, with B in teslas, x in meters, and t in seconds. the coordinates are x1 = 0.500 m, y1 =
0.600 m, and y2 = 0.800 m. The circuit has resistance 5000 Ω. What is the current (A) through the circuit at t = 3.00 s?
a) 6.15 10 b) 5.5110
−5
−2
c) 5.06 10
−4
−3
d) 5.67 10 e) 6.89 10 f) 9.03 10
−4
−4
g) 1.1110
−4
h) 2.53 10 i) 1.0110
−3
−2
j) 7.10 10
−3
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
34) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.700 T directly out of the figure. Length L is 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 9.00 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.54 10
−3
b) 5.06 10 c) 3.70 10
−2
−2
d) 7.10 10 e) 9.5110
−4
−4
f) 1.07 10
−2
g) 3.5110 h) 8.9110 i) 1.25 10
−3
−3
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
35) The figure shows two regions of uniform magnetic field. On the left of the dashed line, B1 = 4.00t2 in teslas and seconds, and on the right, B2 = 60.0 T. The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m and L2 = 3.00 m. The circuit includes an ideal 60 V battery, and the total resistance is 15.0 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 3.00 s?
a) 2.02 b) 6.53 c) 5.60 d) 8.92 e) 9.83 f) 1.91 g) 16.8 h) 4.83 i) 2.42 j) 4.41 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
36) The figure shows a rectangular circuit in a magnetic field that is out of the plane of the figure and given by B = 2.00x3t5, with B in teslas, x in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.500 m, y1 = 0.600 m, and y2 = 0.800 m. The circuit has resistance 250 Ω. What is the current (A) through the circuit at t = 3.00 s?
a) 6.15 10 b) 5.5110
−5
−2
c) 5.06 10
−4
d) 5.67 10 e) 6.89 10 f) 9.03 10
−4
−4
g) 1.1110
−4
h) 2.53 10 i) 1.0110
−3
−3
−2
j) 7.10 10
−3
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
37) The figure shows three circular circuits with identical batteries. The first two have the same area. Circuit 3 has twice the area. In each a magnetic field is perpendicular to the area and is growing at the rate of 3.0 μT/s. The directions of the fields are indicated. Rank the circuits according to the emf in them, greatest current first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3
d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) 1, (2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
38) The figure shows a graph of the magnetic field of a magnet that is turning off. A coil lies in the field with its plane perpendicular to the field (with the area vector parallel to the field vector). Rank the four time intervals shown according to the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,1,3,2 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,2,(1,3) f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,4,3 h) 3,4,1,2 i) 2,(1,4),3 j) 1,(2,3),4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
39) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop lying in three magnetic fields given by these functions (in teslas and seconds): B1 = 3.00t
B2 = 50.0
B3 = 4.00t 2 + 5.00. The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m, L2
= 3.00 m, L3 = 1.00 m, and L4 = 2.00 m. The directions of the fields are indicated. The resistance is 0.500 ohm. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.12 b) 4.25 c) 0.44 d) 0.25 e) 1.30 f) 0.36 g) 1.20 h) 4.00 i) 0.80 j) 1.25 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
40) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The entire region has a magnetic field given by the function B = 2.00 y 2t 4 . The loop has resistance 8.00 Ω. The coordinates are x1 = 5.00 m and y1 = 3.00 m. What is the current (A) in the loop at t = 0.200 s?
a) 1.00 b) 0.250 c) 2.30 d) 2.80 e) 0.50
f) 0.889 g) 0.360 h) 4.00 i) 1.40 j) 1.80 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
41) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is a quadrant of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
7.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 1.2 10
−2
b) 8.9 10 c) 7.2 10
−5
−5
d) 2.2 10 e) 6.6 10 f) 2.9 10 g) 1.4 10
−4
−4
−5
−5
h) 4.0 10 i) 3.5 10 j) 9.110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
42) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field of 5.0 T into the figure. The width is L = 0.80 m. A counterclockwise emf of 12.0 V is induced in the circuit. What is the speed (m/s) of the rod?
a) 4.5 b) 5.0 c) 3.7 d) 7.0 e) 9.5 f) 2.0 g) 3.0 h) 8.9 i) 1.2 j) 2.7 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
43) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field into the figure. A counterclockwise emf is induced in the circuit. What is the direction of the rod’s velocity in the figure?
a) up b) down Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
44) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop lying in three magnetic fields given by these functions (in teslas and seconds): B1 = 3.00t
B2 = 50.0
B3 = 4.00t 2 + 5.00. T The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m,
L2 = 3.00 m, L3 = 1.00 m, and L4 = 2.00 m. The directions of the fields are indicated. The resistance is 5.50 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.12 b) 4.25 c) 0.44 d) 0.25 e) 1.30 f) 0.36 g) 1.20 h) 4.0 i) 0.80 j) 1.25 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
45) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The entire region has a magnetic field given by the function B = 2.00 y 2t 4 . The loop has resistance 1.25 Ω. The coordinates are x1 = 5.00 m and y1 = 3.00 m. What is the current (A) in the loop at t = 0.200 s?
a) 1.00 b) 0.250 c) 2.30 d) 2.80 e) 0.50 f) 0.889 g) 0.360 h) 4.00 i) 1.40 j) 1.80 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
46) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.850 m. Each segment is a quadrant of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
7.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 1.2 10
−2
b) 8.9 10 c) 7.2 10
−5
−5
d) 2.2 10 e) 6.6 10 f) 2.9 10 g) 1.4 10
−4
−4
−5
−5
h) 4.0 10 i) 3.5 10 j) 9.110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
47) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.350 T. Length L = 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 18.0 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.52 10 b) 5.0110
−5
−6 −2
c) 3.70 10
d) 7.50 10 e) 9.58 10 f) 1.66 10
−4
−4
−3
g) 3.56 10
−8
h) 8.94 10
−3
i) 1.25 10
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
48) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The left side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B1 = 3.00t2, with B in teslas and t in seconds. The right side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B2 = 4.00t. A 0.500 V ideal battery lies in the circuit. The dimensions are L1 = 0.300 m, L2 = 0.200 m, and L3 = 0.400 m. What is the net emf (V) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.16 b) 4.00 c) 4.72 d) 5.00 e) 1.16 f) 1.50 g) 3.50 h) 0.86 i) 0.46 j) 0.70 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
49) The figure shows rectangular wire loop in a magnetic field whose magnitude is given by B = 3.00 y 2t 2 , in teslas, meters, and seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.200 m and y1 = 0.600 m. The loop has a resistance of 5.00 . What is the rate (W) at which energy is dissipated in the circuit at time t = 14.0 s?
a) 91.2 b) 7.40 c) 1.55 d) 19.0 e) 94.2
f) 0.113 g) 12.8 h) 0.293 i) 56.7 j) 77.2 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
50) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.350 T. Length L = 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 29.0 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.52 10 b) 5.0110
−5
−6 −2
c) 3.70 10
d) 7.50 10 e) 9.58 10 f) 1.66 10
−4
−4
−3
g) 3.56 10
−8
h) 8.94 10
−3
i) 1.25 10
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
51) The figure shows rectangular wire loop in a magnetic field whose magnitude is given by B = 3.00 y 2t 2 , in teslas, meters, and seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.200 m and y1 = 0.600 m. The loop has a resistance of 13.0 . What is the rate (W) at which energy is dissipated in the circuit at time t = 14.0 s?
a) 91.2 b) 7.40 c) 1.55 d) 19.0 e) 94.2 f) 0.113 g) 12.8 h) 0.293 i) 56.7 j) 77.2 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
52) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The left side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B1 = 3.00t2, with B in teslas and t in seconds. The right side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B2 = 4.00t. The dimensions are L1 = 0.300 m, L2 = 0.200 m, and L3 = 0.400 m. A 0.200 V ideal battery lies in the circuit. What is the net emf (V) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.16 b) 4.00 c) 4.72 d) 5.00 e) 1.16
f) 1.50 g) 3.50 h) 0.86 i) 0.46 j) 0.70 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
53) The figure shows graphs of current versus time for two RL circuits as they turn on. The plots approach the same asymptote, and the two circuits have identical values of R. Which circuit has the larger value of L?
a) Circuit 1 b) Circuit 2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
54) The figure shows a graph of current i versus time t for two RL circuits as they turn on. The plots approach different asymptotes, and the two circuits have identical values of emf. Which circuit has the larger value of R?
a) Circuit 1 b) Circuit 2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
55) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: V = 12.0 V, R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 . . Immediately after the switch is closed at t = 0, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 0.303 b) 0.486 c) 0.202 d) 0.982 e) 1.29 f) 0.764 g) 0.553 h) 1.59 i) 0.857 j) 0.0341 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
56) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: V = 12.0 V, R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 . Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.50 b) 4.40 c) 3.05 d) 1.33 e) 1.15 f) 2.12 g) 1.85 h) 0.940 i) 1.84 j) 2.00 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
57) In the circuit, the switch is closed at t = 0. At what time (s) is the potential across the resistor 15.0% of its final potential? Ideal battery V = 12.0 V. Resistance R = 4.00 . Inductance L = 50.0 mH.
a) 5.6110
−3
b) 9.13 10
−3
c) 8.40 10
−4
d) 9.8110
−3
e) 4.7110 f) 2.03 10
−3
−3
g) 4.06 10
−4
h) 5.15 10
−4
i) 6.67 10
−4
j) 7.00 10
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
58) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: Immediately after the switch is closed at t = 0, what is the current (A) through the battery? Ideal battery V = 18.0 V,
R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 .
a) 0.303 b) 0.486 c) 0.202 d) 0.982 e) 1.29 f) 0.764 g) 0.553 h) 1.59 i) 0.857 j) 0.0341 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
59) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: V = 18.0 V, R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 . Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.50 b) 4.40 c) 3.05 d) 1.33 e) 1.15 f) 2.12 g) 1.85 h) 0.940 i) 1.84 j) 2.00 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
60) In the circuit, the switch is closed at t = 0. At what time (second) is the potential across the resistor 15.0% of its final potential? Ideal battery V = 12.0 V. Resistance R = 20.0 . Inductance L = 50.0 mH.
a) 5.6110
−3
b) 9.13 10
−3
c) 8.40 10
−4
d) 9.8110
−3
e) 4.7110
−3
f) 2.03 10
−3
g) 4.06 10 h) 5.15 10
−4
−4
i) 6.67 10
−4
j) 7.00 10 Answer: g
−3
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
61) The first figure shows an LR circuit. A second resistor is added in series. With that addition, what has happened to the time the circuit needs to reach, say, 63% of its final value of current?
a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
62) The current in an RL circuit builds up to 15.0% of its steady-state value in 7.00 s. What is the inductive time constant (s)? a) 66.7 b) 91.2 c) 15.4 d) 19.6 e) 22.7 f) 33.3
g) 5.67 h) 8.99 i) 29.8 j) 43.1 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
63) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 12.0 V battery, three resistors (each 4.0 Ω), and an inductor. When the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through R2 just then?
a) 0.50 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 e) 2.5 f) 3.0 g) 3.5 h) 4.0 i) 4.5 j) 5.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
64) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 12.0 V battery, three resistors (each 4.0 Ω), and an inductor. The switch is kept closed a long time. When it is reopened, what is the magnitude of the current (A) through R2 just then?
a) 0.50 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 e) 2.5 f) 3.0 g) 3.5 h) 4.0 i) 4.5 j) 5.0 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
65) The current in an RL circuit builds up to 30.0% of its steady-state value in 7.00 s. What is the inductive time constant (s) ? a) 66.7 b) 91.2 c) 15.4 d) 19.6 e) 22.7 f) 33.3 g) 5.67 h) 8.99 i) 29.8 j) 43.1 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
66) The figure shows three circuits with identical resistors, (ideal) batteries, and inductors. The switches have been open a long time. They are closed at time t = 0. Just then, rank the circuits according to the current through the inductor, greatest current first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
67) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor. The switches are closed at time t = 0. What is the current (mA) through the circuit at time t = 20.0 ms? L = 3.00 H, R = 400 , V = 12.0 V.
a) 73.6 b) 29.2 c) 57.9
d) 8.09 e) 0.677 f) 17.1 g) 33.3 h) 27.9 i) 30.0 j) 14.6 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
68) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor. The switches are closed at time t = 0. L = 3.00 H, R = 400 , V = 12.0 V. At what time t (ms) is the current i = 9.00 mA?
a) 12.3 b) 33.9 c) 2.68 d) 5.97 e) 3.33 f) 9.59 g) 16.4 h) 3.58 i) 4.14 j) 17.4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
69) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the current (A) through the battery just after the switch is closed? V = 14.0 V R1 = 3.00 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω
a) 2.00 b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
70) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. V = 14.0 V R1 = 3.00 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω. Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.00
b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
71) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor. The switches are closed at time t = 0. What is the current (mA) through the circuit at time t = 200 ms? L = 3.00 H, R = 400 , V = 12.0 V.
a) 73.6 b) 29.2 c) 57.9 d) 8.09 e) 0.677 f) 17.1 g) 33.3 h) 27.9 i) 30.0 j) 14.6 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
72) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the current (A) through the battery just after the switch is closed? V = 28.0 V R1 = 13.0 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω
a) 2.00 b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
73) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. V = 28.0 V R1 = 13.0 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω. Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.00 b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
74) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor (L = 15.0 mH). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At t = 82.0 s, the current is 5.40% of its final (equilibrium) value. What is the resistance () of the resistor?
a) 10.2 b) 35.2 c) 55.0 d) 3.33 10 e) 60.0 f) 4.57 g) 240 h) 2.05 i) 670 j) 22.0
3
Answer: a Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
75) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor (L = 52.0 mH). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At t = 82.0 s, the current is 5.40% of its final (equilibrium) value. What is the resistance () of the resistor?
a) 10.2 b) 35.2 c) 55.0 d) 3.33 10 e) 60.0 f) 4.57 g) 240 h) 2.05 i) 670 j) 22.0
3
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5 76) The figure shows an ideal battery (V = 12.0 V), a resistor ( R = 200 ), and an inductor
( L = 3.00 H). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the current (milliamps) through the circuit at time t = 3.00 10
−2
s?
a) 1.56 b) 33.3 c) 40.4 d) 0.202 e) 1.22 f) 2.57 g) 29.2 h) 51.9 i) 0.809 j) 0.677 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
77) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot on the graph in the second figure best shows the voltage VR across the resistor versus time t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
78) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot in the second figure best shows the rate at which electrical energy is being converted to thermal energy?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
79) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot in the second figure best shows the induced emf % L of the inductor?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
80) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot best shows the energy UB in the magnetic field of the inductor?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
81) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 12 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. Just after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
82) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 12 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. A long time later, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
83) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor (6.00 10−2 H), a resistor (5.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (16.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the power being dissipated in the resistor equal to 0.800 W?
a) 6.90 10
−3
b) 4.04 10 c) 9.5110
−2
−5
d) 1.60 10
−3
e) 8.20 10
−3
f) 7.76 10
−4
g) 3.65 10
−5
h) 6.16 10 i) 2.40 10 j) 5.22 10
−6
−5
−2
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
−4
84) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor ( 3.0 10 H), two resistors (R1 = 2.00 Ω and R2 = 6.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (V = 32.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the rate (A/s) at which the current is changing when the voltage across resistor 1 is 5.0 V?
a) 1.6 10
3
b) 8.4 10
4
c) 7.5 10
3
d) 1.9 10
4
e) 4.0 10 f) 2.0 10
4
4
g) 6.9 10
3
h) 5.8 10
3
i) 1.6 10
5
j) 7.110
5
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
85) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 36 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. Just after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
86) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 36 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. A long time later, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
87) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor (1.00 mH), a resistor (5.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (12.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the power being dissipated in the resistor equal to 0.800 W?
a) 6.90 10
−3
b) 4.04 10 c) 9.5110
−2
−5
d) 1.60 10
−3
e) 8.20 10
−3
f) 7.76 10
−4
g) 3.65 10
−5
h) 6.16 10 i) 2.40 10 j) 5.22 10 Answer: g
−6
−5
−2
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
88) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor (6.00 10−4 H) , two resistors (R1 = 2.00 Ω and R2 = 6.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (V = 32.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the rate (A/s) at which the current is changing when the voltage across the resistor 1 is 5.0 V?
a) 1.6 10
3
b) 8.4 10
4
c) 7.5 10
3
d) 1.9 10
4
e) 4.0 10 f) 2.0 10
4
4
g) 6.9 10
3
h) 5.8 10
3
i) 1.6 10
5
j) 7.110
5
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 30 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 30
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows a wire loop with a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop and upward. The graph gives the magnitude of the field for three time intervals. Rank the intervals according to the magnitude of the induced emf during the interval, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
2) The figure shows a wire loop with a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop and upward. The graph gives the magnitude of the field for three time intervals. In which interval is the induced emf clockwise?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
3) The figure shows the direction of the current through three inductors. Here are the currents as a function of time t: i1 = 5t i2 = 5t i3 = 5/t. In which inductor is the induced emf upward in the figure?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) all three h) none Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
4) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and t in seconds, the fields are B1 = t , B2 = 4t , B3 = 17. The dimensions are L = 3.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 8.0 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 50 b) 38 c) 16 d) 20 e) 26 f) 36 g) 15 h) 18 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
5) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The magnetic field is given by 3.00 y 2t 4 , with B in teslas, y in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.300 m, x2 = 0.600 m, y1 = 0.500 m, and y2 = 0.700 m. What is the induced emf (V) at time t = 4.00 s?
a) 34.5 b) 23.0 c) 59.2 d) 8.43 e) 11.9
f) 16.7 g) 63.1 h) 27.9 i) 15.1 j) 17.9 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
6) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The magnetic field is given by 3.00 y 2t 4 , with B in teslas, y in meters, and t in seconds. What is the direction of the induced emf?
a) clockwise b) counterclockwise Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
7) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is one-fourth of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
5.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 6.67 10
−3
b) 8.94 10
−5
c) 7.2110
−5
d) 2.5110
−4
e) 6.96 10
−4
f) 6.06 10
−5
g) 1.57 10
−4
h) 3.99 10 i) 3.57 10 j) 9.2110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
8) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is one-fourth of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
5.00 10−3 T/s. In the perspective of the figure, is the induced emf clockwise or counterclockwise?
a) clockwise b) counterclockwise Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
9) The figure shows a conducting bar sliding at speed v along a wire in the shape of “U” through a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire and bar: speed = 3.00 m/s, left-right width L = 5.00 m, induced emf = 140 V counterclockwise. What is the magnitude (T) of the magnetic field?
a) 5.13 b) 74.8 c) 1.53 d) 8.09 e) 11.2 f) 29.9 g) 9.33 h) 2.35 i) 24.0 j) 16.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
10) The figure shows a conducting bar sliding at speed v along a wire in the shape of “U” through a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire and bar. The induced emf is counterclockwise. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
a) into figure b) out of figure Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
−6
11) An inductor has an inductance of 50.0 10 H. The current through it is given by i = 6.00t 2 , with i in amps and t in seconds. What is the magnitude of the emf (V) induced in the inductor at t = 3.00 s? a) 6.94 10
−2
b) 9.35 10 c) 7.53 10 d) 8.2110 e) 1.12 10 f) 4.5110
−2
−4
−3
−2
−3
g) 2.40 10
−3
h) 4.09 10 i) 1.80 10
−4
−3
j) 3.58 10
−2
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
12) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and t in seconds, the fields are B1 = 5t , B2 = 2t , B3 = 17. The dimensions are L = 3.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 8.0 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 50
b) 38 c) 16 d) 20 e) 26 f) 36 g) 15 h) 18 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
13) The figure shows rectangular wire loop. The magnetic field is given by 5.00 y 2t 4 , with B in teslas, y in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.300 m, x2 = 0.600 m, y1 = 0.500 m, and y2 = 0.700 m. What is the induced emf (V) at time t = 4.00 s?
a) 34.5 b) 23.0 c) 59.2 d) 8.43 e) 11.9 f) 16.7 g) 63.1 h) 27.9 i) 15.1 j) 17.9 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
14) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is one-fourth of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
8.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 6.67 10
−3
b) 8.94 10
−5
c) 7.2110
−5
d) 2.5110
−4
e) 6.96 10
−4
f) 6.06 10
−5
g) 1.57 10
−4
h) 3.99 10 i) 3.57 10 j) 9.2110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
15) The figure shows a conducting bar sliding at speed along a wire in the shape of “U” through a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the wire and bar: speed = 3.0 m/s, left-right width L = 5.0 m, induced emf = 360 V counterclockwise. What is the magnitude (T) of the magnetic field?
a) 5.13
b) 74.8 c) 1.53 d) 8.09 e) 11.2 f) 29.9 g) 9.33 h) 2.35 i) 24.0 j) 16.8 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
−6
16) An inductor has an inductance of 50.0 10 H. The current through it is given by i = 8.00t 2 , with i in amps and t in seconds. What is the magnitude of the emf (V) induced in the inductance at t = 3.00 s? a) 6.94 10
−2
b) 9.35 10 c) 7.53 10 d) 8.2110 e) 1.12 10 f) 4.5110
−2
−4
−3
−2
−3
g) 2.40 10
−3
h) 4.09 10 i) 1.80 10
−4
−3
j) 3.58 10
−2
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
17) The figure shows three square wire loops of identical size, each lying in one of the planes of the ˆ Rank the loops coordinate system. The loops are in the same uniform magnetic field B = 5iˆ + 7tˆj + 14k. according to the magnitude of the emf induced in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
18) In the figure, a long straight wire with current i = 3t (in amps and seconds) passes (without touching) three circular wire loops. You can tell the relative sizes of the loops. Rank the loops according to the size of the current induced in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2
g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
19) The figure shows a wire loop with a uniform magnetic field that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The graph gives the magnitude of the field for three time intervals. Rank the intervals according to the magnitude of the induced emf during the interval, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
20) The figure shows two situations in which current through an inductor is changing (either increasing or decreasing). In which is the induced emf leftward?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both d) neither Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
21) The figure shows two circular wire loops in uniform magnetic fields. In each case, the field is changing. In which is the induced current clockwise?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both d) neither Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
22) The figure shows three circuits in which a conducting bar slides along a U-shaped wire and through a uniform magnetic field (the field direction is indicated). The direction of travel is indicated. In which circuit is the induced current clockwise?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
23) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and time in seconds, the fields are B1 = 3, B2 = 4t , B3 = 6. The dimensions are L = 2.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 24 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 20 b) 6 c) 0 d) 8 e) 12 f) 28
g) 14 h) 4 i) 24 j) 40 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
24) The figure shows a rectangular circuit in a magnetic field that is out of the plane of the figure and given by B = 2.00x3t5, with B in teslas, x in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.600 m, x2 = 0.800 m, and y1 = 0.500 m. The resistor has resistance 5.00 10 Ω and the wire has negligible resistance. What is the current (A) through the circuit at t = 3.00 s? 3
a) 6.15 10
−5
b) 5.5110
−5
c) 8.92 10
−4
d) 5.67 10 e) 6.89 10 f) 9.03 10
−4
−4
g) 1.1110
−4
h) 2.53 10 i) 1.19 10
−3
−3
−5
j) 7.10 10
−3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
25) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field of 5.00 T that is into the figure. The width is L = 0.800 m. A counterclockwise emf of 8.00 V is induced in the circuit. What is the speed of the rod (m/s)?
a) 4.5 b) 5.0 c) 3.7 d) 7.0 e) 9.5 f) 2.0 g) 3.5 h) 8.9 i) 1.2 j) 2.7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
26) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field into the figure. A counterclockwise emf is induced in the circuit. What is the direction of the rod’s motion?
(a) upward (b) downward Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
27) The figure shows a rectangular loop of wire that straddles three regions of uniform magnetic field. With B in teslas and time in seconds, the fields are B1 = 3, B2 = 4t , B3 = 6. The dimensions are L = 2.0 m and d = 2.0 m. The circuit includes an ideal battery of 12 V. What is the magnitude of the net emf (V) in the loop?
a) 20 b) 6 c) 0 d) 8 e) 12 f) 28 g) 14 h) 4 i) 24 j) 40 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
28) The figure shows three square wire loops of identical size, each lying in one of the planes of the ˆ coordinate system. The loops are in the same uniform magnetic field B = 2tˆi + 3tˆj + 7k. Rank the loops according to the magnitude of the emf induced in them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) 1, (2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
29) The figure shows three circuits in which a conducting bar slides along a U-shaped wire and through a uniform magnetic field (the field direction is indicated). The direction of travel is indicated. In which is the induced current clockwise?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
30) The figure shows two regions of uniform magnetic field. On the left of the dashed line, B1 = 4.00t2 in teslas and seconds, and on the right, B2 = 60.0 T. The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m and L2 = 3.00 m. The circuit includes an ideal 60.0 V battery, and the total resistance is 5.00 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 3.00 s?
a) 2.02 b) 6.53 c) 5.60 d) 8.92 e) 9.83 f) 1.91 g) 16.8 h) 4.83 i) 2.42 j) 4.41 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
31) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.350 T directly into the figure. Length L is 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 18.0 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.54 10
−3
b) 5.06 10 c) 3.70 10
−2
−2
d) 7.10 10 e) 9.5110 f) 1.07 10
−4
−2
g) 3.5110 h) 8.9110 i) 1.25 10
−4
−3
−3
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
32) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with a speed v in a uniform magnetic field directly into the figure. What is the direction of that induced current?
(a) clockwise (b) counterclockwise Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
33) The figure shows a rectangular circuit in a magnetic field that is out of the plane of the figure and given by B = 2.00x3t5, with B in teslas, x in meters, and t in seconds. the coordinates are x1 = 0.500 m, y1 =
0.600 m, and y2 = 0.800 m. The circuit has resistance 5000 Ω. What is the current (A) through the circuit at t = 3.00 s?
a) 6.15 10 b) 5.5110
−5
−2
c) 5.06 10
−4
−3
d) 5.67 10 e) 6.89 10 f) 9.03 10
−4
−4
g) 1.1110
−4
h) 2.53 10 i) 1.0110
−3
−2
j) 7.10 10
−3
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
34) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.700 T directly out of the figure. Length L is 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 9.00 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.54 10
−3
b) 5.06 10 c) 3.70 10
−2
−2
d) 7.10 10 e) 9.5110
−4
−4
f) 1.07 10
−2
g) 3.5110 h) 8.9110 i) 1.25 10
−3
−3
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
35) The figure shows two regions of uniform magnetic field. On the left of the dashed line, B1 = 4.00t2 in teslas and seconds, and on the right, B2 = 60.0 T. The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m and L2 = 3.00 m. The circuit includes an ideal 60 V battery, and the total resistance is 15.0 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 3.00 s?
a) 2.02 b) 6.53 c) 5.60 d) 8.92 e) 9.83 f) 1.91 g) 16.8 h) 4.83 i) 2.42 j) 4.41 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
36) The figure shows a rectangular circuit in a magnetic field that is out of the plane of the figure and given by B = 2.00x3t5, with B in teslas, x in meters, and t in seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.500 m, y1 = 0.600 m, and y2 = 0.800 m. The circuit has resistance 250 Ω. What is the current (A) through the circuit at t = 3.00 s?
a) 6.15 10 b) 5.5110
−5
−2
c) 5.06 10
−4
d) 5.67 10 e) 6.89 10 f) 9.03 10
−4
−4
g) 1.1110
−4
h) 2.53 10 i) 1.0110
−3
−3
−2
j) 7.10 10
−3
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
37) The figure shows three circular circuits with identical batteries. The first two have the same area. Circuit 3 has twice the area. In each a magnetic field is perpendicular to the area and is growing at the rate of 3.0 μT/s. The directions of the fields are indicated. Rank the circuits according to the emf in them, greatest current first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3
d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) 1, (2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
38) The figure shows a graph of the magnetic field of a magnet that is turning off. A coil lies in the field with its plane perpendicular to the field (with the area vector parallel to the field vector). Rank the four time intervals shown according to the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil, greatest magnitude first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,1,3,2 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,2,(1,3) f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,4,3 h) 3,4,1,2 i) 2,(1,4),3 j) 1,(2,3),4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
39) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop lying in three magnetic fields given by these functions (in teslas and seconds): B1 = 3.00t
B2 = 50.0
B3 = 4.00t 2 + 5.00. The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m, L2
= 3.00 m, L3 = 1.00 m, and L4 = 2.00 m. The directions of the fields are indicated. The resistance is 0.500 ohm. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.12 b) 4.25 c) 0.44 d) 0.25 e) 1.30 f) 0.36 g) 1.20 h) 4.00 i) 0.80 j) 1.25 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
40) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The entire region has a magnetic field given by the function B = 2.00 y 2t 4 . The loop has resistance 8.00 Ω. The coordinates are x1 = 5.00 m and y1 = 3.00 m. What is the current (A) in the loop at t = 0.200 s?
a) 1.00 b) 0.250 c) 2.30 d) 2.80 e) 0.50
f) 0.889 g) 0.360 h) 4.00 i) 1.40 j) 1.80 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
41) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.200 m. Each segment is a quadrant of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
7.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 1.2 10
−2
b) 8.9 10 c) 7.2 10
−5
−5
d) 2.2 10 e) 6.6 10 f) 2.9 10 g) 1.4 10
−4
−4
−5
−5
h) 4.0 10 i) 3.5 10 j) 9.110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
42) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field of 5.0 T into the figure. The width is L = 0.80 m. A counterclockwise emf of 12.0 V is induced in the circuit. What is the speed (m/s) of the rod?
a) 4.5 b) 5.0 c) 3.7 d) 7.0 e) 9.5 f) 2.0 g) 3.0 h) 8.9 i) 1.2 j) 2.7 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
43) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire in a uniform magnetic field into the figure. A counterclockwise emf is induced in the circuit. What is the direction of the rod’s velocity in the figure?
a) up b) down Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
44) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop lying in three magnetic fields given by these functions (in teslas and seconds): B1 = 3.00t
B2 = 50.0
B3 = 4.00t 2 + 5.00. T The dimensions are L1 = 2.00 m,
L2 = 3.00 m, L3 = 1.00 m, and L4 = 2.00 m. The directions of the fields are indicated. The resistance is 5.50 Ω. What is the current (A) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.12 b) 4.25 c) 0.44 d) 0.25 e) 1.30 f) 0.36 g) 1.20 h) 4.0 i) 0.80 j) 1.25 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
45) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The entire region has a magnetic field given by the function B = 2.00 y 2t 4 . The loop has resistance 1.25 Ω. The coordinates are x1 = 5.00 m and y1 = 3.00 m. What is the current (A) in the loop at t = 0.200 s?
a) 1.00 b) 0.250 c) 2.30 d) 2.80 e) 0.50 f) 0.889 g) 0.360 h) 4.00 i) 1.40 j) 1.80 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
46) The figure shows a wire bent into three circular segments, each of radius 0.850 m. Each segment is a quadrant of a circle. One quadrant lies in the yz plane, another in the xz plane, and the third in the xy plane. A uniform magnetic field points in the positive direction of y and grows in magnitude at the rate
7.00 10−3 T/s. What is the emf (V) induced in the wire?
a) 1.2 10
−2
b) 8.9 10 c) 7.2 10
−5
−5
d) 2.2 10 e) 6.6 10 f) 2.9 10 g) 1.4 10
−4
−4
−5
−5
h) 4.0 10 i) 3.5 10 j) 9.110
−3
−4
−3
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
47) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.350 T. Length L = 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 18.0 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.52 10 b) 5.0110
−5
−6 −2
c) 3.70 10
d) 7.50 10 e) 9.58 10 f) 1.66 10
−4
−4
−3
g) 3.56 10
−8
h) 8.94 10
−3
i) 1.25 10
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
48) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The left side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B1 = 3.00t2, with B in teslas and t in seconds. The right side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B2 = 4.00t. A 0.500 V ideal battery lies in the circuit. The dimensions are L1 = 0.300 m, L2 = 0.200 m, and L3 = 0.400 m. What is the net emf (V) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.16 b) 4.00 c) 4.72 d) 5.00 e) 1.16 f) 1.50 g) 3.50 h) 0.86 i) 0.46 j) 0.70 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
49) The figure shows rectangular wire loop in a magnetic field whose magnitude is given by B = 3.00 y 2t 2 , in teslas, meters, and seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.200 m and y1 = 0.600 m. The loop has a resistance of 5.00 . What is the rate (W) at which energy is dissipated in the circuit at time t = 14.0 s?
a) 91.2 b) 7.40 c) 1.55 d) 19.0 e) 94.2
f) 0.113 g) 12.8 h) 0.293 i) 56.7 j) 77.2 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
50) The figure shows an overhead view of a conducting rod sliding along a wire with speed v = 0.550 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.350 T. Length L = 0.250 m. The rod has a resistance of 29.0 Ω and the wire’s resistance is negligible. What is the induced current (A)?
a) 4.52 10 b) 5.0110
−5
−6 −2
c) 3.70 10
d) 7.50 10 e) 9.58 10 f) 1.66 10
−4
−4
−3
g) 3.56 10
−8
h) 8.94 10
−3
i) 1.25 10
−4
j) 2.67 10
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
51) The figure shows rectangular wire loop in a magnetic field whose magnitude is given by B = 3.00 y 2t 2 , in teslas, meters, and seconds. The coordinates are x1 = 0.200 m and y1 = 0.600 m. The loop has a resistance of 13.0 . What is the rate (W) at which energy is dissipated in the circuit at time t = 14.0 s?
a) 91.2 b) 7.40 c) 1.55 d) 19.0 e) 94.2 f) 0.113 g) 12.8 h) 0.293 i) 56.7 j) 77.2 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
52) The figure shows a rectangular wire loop. The left side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B1 = 3.00t2, with B in teslas and t in seconds. The right side lies in a uniform magnetic field whose magnitude changes as B2 = 4.00t. The dimensions are L1 = 0.300 m, L2 = 0.200 m, and L3 = 0.400 m. A 0.200 V ideal battery lies in the circuit. What is the net emf (V) in the circuit at time t = 0.500 s?
a) 0.16 b) 4.00 c) 4.72 d) 5.00 e) 1.16
f) 1.50 g) 3.50 h) 0.86 i) 0.46 j) 0.70 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.1
53) The figure shows graphs of current versus time for two RL circuits as they turn on. The plots approach the same asymptote, and the two circuits have identical values of R. Which circuit has the larger value of L?
a) Circuit 1 b) Circuit 2 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
54) The figure shows a graph of current i versus time t for two RL circuits as they turn on. The plots approach different asymptotes, and the two circuits have identical values of emf. Which circuit has the larger value of R?
a) Circuit 1 b) Circuit 2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
55) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: V = 12.0 V, R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 . . Immediately after the switch is closed at t = 0, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 0.303 b) 0.486 c) 0.202 d) 0.982 e) 1.29 f) 0.764 g) 0.553 h) 1.59 i) 0.857 j) 0.0341 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
56) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: V = 12.0 V, R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 . Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.50 b) 4.40 c) 3.05 d) 1.33 e) 1.15 f) 2.12 g) 1.85 h) 0.940 i) 1.84 j) 2.00 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
57) In the circuit, the switch is closed at t = 0. At what time (s) is the potential across the resistor 15.0% of its final potential? Ideal battery V = 12.0 V. Resistance R = 4.00 . Inductance L = 50.0 mH.
a) 5.6110
−3
b) 9.13 10
−3
c) 8.40 10
−4
d) 9.8110
−3
e) 4.7110 f) 2.03 10
−3
−3
g) 4.06 10
−4
h) 5.15 10
−4
i) 6.67 10
−4
j) 7.00 10
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
58) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: Immediately after the switch is closed at t = 0, what is the current (A) through the battery? Ideal battery V = 18.0 V,
R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 .
a) 0.303 b) 0.486 c) 0.202 d) 0.982 e) 1.29 f) 0.764 g) 0.553 h) 1.59 i) 0.857 j) 0.0341 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
59) The figure shows a circuit with five resistors and two inductors: V = 18.0 V, R1 = 4.00 , R2 = 6.00 . Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.50 b) 4.40 c) 3.05 d) 1.33 e) 1.15 f) 2.12 g) 1.85 h) 0.940 i) 1.84 j) 2.00 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
60) In the circuit, the switch is closed at t = 0. At what time (second) is the potential across the resistor 15.0% of its final potential? Ideal battery V = 12.0 V. Resistance R = 20.0 . Inductance L = 50.0 mH.
a) 5.6110
−3
b) 9.13 10
−3
c) 8.40 10
−4
d) 9.8110
−3
e) 4.7110
−3
f) 2.03 10
−3
g) 4.06 10 h) 5.15 10
−4
−4
i) 6.67 10
−4
j) 7.00 10 Answer: g
−3
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
61) The first figure shows an LR circuit. A second resistor is added in series. With that addition, what has happened to the time the circuit needs to reach, say, 63% of its final value of current?
a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
62) The current in an RL circuit builds up to 15.0% of its steady-state value in 7.00 s. What is the inductive time constant (s)? a) 66.7 b) 91.2 c) 15.4 d) 19.6 e) 22.7 f) 33.3
g) 5.67 h) 8.99 i) 29.8 j) 43.1 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
63) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 12.0 V battery, three resistors (each 4.0 Ω), and an inductor. When the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through R2 just then?
a) 0.50 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 e) 2.5 f) 3.0 g) 3.5 h) 4.0 i) 4.5 j) 5.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
64) The figure shows a circuit with an ideal 12.0 V battery, three resistors (each 4.0 Ω), and an inductor. The switch is kept closed a long time. When it is reopened, what is the magnitude of the current (A) through R2 just then?
a) 0.50 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 e) 2.5 f) 3.0 g) 3.5 h) 4.0 i) 4.5 j) 5.0 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
65) The current in an RL circuit builds up to 30.0% of its steady-state value in 7.00 s. What is the inductive time constant (s) ? a) 66.7 b) 91.2 c) 15.4 d) 19.6 e) 22.7 f) 33.3 g) 5.67 h) 8.99 i) 29.8 j) 43.1 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
66) The figure shows three circuits with identical resistors, (ideal) batteries, and inductors. The switches have been open a long time. They are closed at time t = 0. Just then, rank the circuits according to the current through the inductor, greatest current first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
67) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor. The switches are closed at time t = 0. What is the current (mA) through the circuit at time t = 20.0 ms? L = 3.00 H, R = 400 , V = 12.0 V.
a) 73.6 b) 29.2 c) 57.9
d) 8.09 e) 0.677 f) 17.1 g) 33.3 h) 27.9 i) 30.0 j) 14.6 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
68) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor. The switches are closed at time t = 0. L = 3.00 H, R = 400 , V = 12.0 V. At what time t (ms) is the current i = 9.00 mA?
a) 12.3 b) 33.9 c) 2.68 d) 5.97 e) 3.33 f) 9.59 g) 16.4 h) 3.58 i) 4.14 j) 17.4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
69) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the current (A) through the battery just after the switch is closed? V = 14.0 V R1 = 3.00 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω
a) 2.00 b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
70) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. V = 14.0 V R1 = 3.00 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω. Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.00
b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
71) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor. The switches are closed at time t = 0. What is the current (mA) through the circuit at time t = 200 ms? L = 3.00 H, R = 400 , V = 12.0 V.
a) 73.6 b) 29.2 c) 57.9 d) 8.09 e) 0.677 f) 17.1 g) 33.3 h) 27.9 i) 30.0 j) 14.6 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.6
72) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the current (A) through the battery just after the switch is closed? V = 28.0 V R1 = 13.0 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω
a) 2.00 b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
73) The figure shows an ideal battery and a network of inductors and resistors. The switch is closed at time t = 0. V = 28.0 V R1 = 13.0 Ω R2 = 33.0 Ω. Long after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through the battery?
a) 2.00 b) 1.00 c) 8.09 10 d) 0.200
−2
e) 5.00 10 f) 0.505 g) 0.402 h) 0.350 i) 0.250 j) 1.17
−2
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
74) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor (L = 15.0 mH). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At t = 82.0 s, the current is 5.40% of its final (equilibrium) value. What is the resistance () of the resistor?
a) 10.2 b) 35.2 c) 55.0 d) 3.33 10 e) 60.0 f) 4.57 g) 240 h) 2.05 i) 670 j) 22.0
3
Answer: a Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
75) The figure shows an ideal battery, a resistor, and an inductor (L = 52.0 mH). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At t = 82.0 s, the current is 5.40% of its final (equilibrium) value. What is the resistance () of the resistor?
a) 10.2 b) 35.2 c) 55.0 d) 3.33 10 e) 60.0 f) 4.57 g) 240 h) 2.05 i) 670 j) 22.0
3
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5 76) The figure shows an ideal battery (V = 12.0 V), a resistor ( R = 200 ), and an inductor
( L = 3.00 H). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the current (milliamps) through the circuit at time t = 3.00 10
−2
s?
a) 1.56 b) 33.3 c) 40.4 d) 0.202 e) 1.22 f) 2.57 g) 29.2 h) 51.9 i) 0.809 j) 0.677 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
77) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot on the graph in the second figure best shows the voltage VR across the resistor versus time t?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
78) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot in the second figure best shows the rate at which electrical energy is being converted to thermal energy?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
79) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot in the second figure best shows the induced emf % L of the inductor?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
80) The first figure shows an RL circuit with an ideal battery. When the switch is closed at time t = 0, which plot best shows the energy UB in the magnetic field of the inductor?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
81) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 12 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. Just after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
82) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 12 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. A long time later, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
83) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor (6.00 10−2 H), a resistor (5.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (16.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the power being dissipated in the resistor equal to 0.800 W?
a) 6.90 10
−3
b) 4.04 10 c) 9.5110
−2
−5
d) 1.60 10
−3
e) 8.20 10
−3
f) 7.76 10
−4
g) 3.65 10
−5
h) 6.16 10 i) 2.40 10 j) 5.22 10
−6
−5
−2
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
−4
84) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor ( 3.0 10 H), two resistors (R1 = 2.00 Ω and R2 = 6.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (V = 32.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the rate (A/s) at which the current is changing when the voltage across resistor 1 is 5.0 V?
a) 1.6 10
3
b) 8.4 10
4
c) 7.5 10
3
d) 1.9 10
4
e) 4.0 10 f) 2.0 10
4
4
g) 6.9 10
3
h) 5.8 10
3
i) 1.6 10
5
j) 7.110
5
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
85) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 36 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. Just after the switch is closed, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
86) The figure shows a circuit with two inductors, five resistors, and an ideal 36 V battery. Resistor R1 = 9.0 Ω. A long time later, what is the current (A) through that resistor?
a) 6.0 b) 0.33 c) 0.67 d) 1.0 e) 0.40 f) 0.50 g) 0.25 h) 0.80 i) 2.0 j) 3.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
87) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor (1.00 mH), a resistor (5.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (12.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. At what time (s) is the power being dissipated in the resistor equal to 0.800 W?
a) 6.90 10
−3
b) 4.04 10 c) 9.5110
−2
−5
d) 1.60 10
−3
e) 8.20 10
−3
f) 7.76 10
−4
g) 3.65 10
−5
h) 6.16 10 i) 2.40 10 j) 5.22 10 Answer: g
−6
−5
−2
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
88) The figure shows a circuit with an inductor (6.00 10−4 H) , two resistors (R1 = 2.00 Ω and R2 = 6.00 Ω), and an ideal battery (V = 32.0 V). The switch is closed at time t = 0. What is the rate (A/s) at which the current is changing when the voltage across the resistor 1 is 5.0 V?
a) 1.6 10
3
b) 8.4 10
4
c) 7.5 10
3
d) 1.9 10
4
e) 4.0 10 f) 2.0 10
4
4
g) 6.9 10
3
h) 5.8 10
3
i) 1.6 10
5
j) 7.110
5
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 30.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 30.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 31 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 31
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) In the figure, the capacitor has been charged to a potential of 30.0 V. The switch is then closed. During the resulting oscillations, what is the maximum energy (J) in the magnetic field of the inductor?
C = 5.00 F, L = 60.0 mH.
a) 6.67 10
−4
b) 9.83 10
−3
c) 2.25 10
−3
d) 6.25 10 e) 5.40 10
−3
−2
f) 7.07 10
−4
g) 8.1110
−4
h) 1.2110 i) 1.89 10
−2
−2
j) 7.12 10
−4
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
2) In the figure, the capacitor has been charged to a potential of 50.0 V. The switch is then closed. During the resulting oscillations, what is the maximum energy (J) in the magnetic field of the inductor?
C = 5.00 F, L = 60.0 mH.
−4
a) 6.67 10 b) 9.83 10
−3
c) 2.25 10
−3
d) 6.25 10 e) 5.40 10
−3
−2
f) 7.07 10
−4
g) 8.1110
−4
h) 1.2110 i) 1.89 10
−2
−2
j) 7.12 10
−4
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
3) In the figure, the capacitor has been charged to a potential of 50.0 V. The switch is then closed. What is the frequency (Hz) of the resulting oscillations? C = 5.00 F, L = 60.0 mH.
a) 2.9110
2
b) 1.82 10
3
c) 6.89 10
3
d) 3.98 10 e) 4.09 10
3
3
f) 3.47 10
3
g) 5.06 10
2
h) 4.59 10 i) 7.09 10 j) 6.1110 Answer: a Title:
2
2
2
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
4) The first figure shows an LC oscillator. In the second figure, a second capacitor has been added in parallel to the first capacitor. With that addition, what has happened to the oscillation frequency?
a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
5) The figure shows q(t) for the charge on a capacitor in an LC oscillator. If we fit the basic function q = Q cos(ωt + ϕ) to the plot, what is the value of ϕ?
a) 0 b) π/4 c) π/2 d) π e) 3π/2 f) 3π/4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
6) In the figure, R = 14.0 ohms, C = 6.20 µF, and L = 54.0 mH, and V = 34.0 V (ideal battery). The switch is kept at a for a long time and then thrown to position b. What is the current amplitude (A) of the resulting oscillations?
a) 1.25 b) 3.78 c) 0.621 d) 0.854 e) 1.62 f) 5.10 g) 0.364 h) 1.79 i) 0.128 j) 0.105 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
7) In the figure, R = 14.0 ohms, C = 6.20 µF, and L = 54.0 mH, and V = 58.0 V (ideal battery). The switch is kept at a for a long time and then thrown to position b. What is the current amplitude (A) of the resulting oscillations?
a) 1.25 b) 3.78 c) 0.621 d) 0.854 e) 1.62
f) 5.10 g) 0.364 h) 1.79 i) 0.128 j) 0.105 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1 8) An LC oscillator has L = 8.00 µH and C = 6.00 mF. At t = 0, i = 0 and q = 5.00 C. What is the magnitude ( C) of the charge on the capacitor at t = 4.62 s? a) 6.93 10 b) 4.06 c) 0.833
−3
d) 1.64 10 e) 0.743 f) 4.66 g) 0.561 h) 6.50
−2
i) 9.2110 j) 2.91
−2
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
9) The figure shows three LC oscillators with identical inductors and capacitors. Rank the circuits according to the oscillation frequency, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1 10) An LC oscillator has L = 8.00 µH and C = 6.00 mF. At t = 0, i = 0 and q = 8.00 C. What is the magnitude ( C) of the charge on the capacitor at t = 4.62 s? a) 6.93 10 b) 4.06 c) 0.833
−3
d) 1.64 10 e) 0.743 f) 4.66 g) 0.561 h) 6.50
−2
i) 9.2110 j) 2.91
−2
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
11) In an oscillating LC circuit, L = 3.00 mH and C = 8.00 μF. At t = 0 the charge on the capacitor is zero and the current is 8.00 A. What is the greatest rate (W) at which energy is stored in the capacitor?
a) 155 b) 277 c) 1.78 10 d) 718 e) 620
3
f) 3.45 10 g) 342 h) 2.42 i) 897 j) 944
3
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
12) In an oscillating LC circuit, L = 3.00 mH and C = 8.00 μF. At t = 0 the charge on the capacitor is zero and the current is 0.500 A. What is the greatest rate (W) at which energy is stored in the capacitor? a) 155 b) 277 c) 1.78 10 d) 718 e) 620
3
f) 3.45 10 g) 342 h) 2.42 i) 897 j) 944
3
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
13) An LC oscillator has L = 8.00 µH and C = 6.00 mF. At t = 0, i = I = 5.00 mA and q = 0. What is the magnitude of the charge (C) in the capacitor at t = 0.462 ms?
a) 4.15 10
−7
b) 9.4110
−7
c) 6.13 10
−8
d) 7.4110
−6
e) 2.19 10 f) 6.90 10
−6
g) 5.93 10
−8
h) 9.54 10 i) 1.07 10 j) 5.6110
−7
−8
−6
−7
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
14) An LC oscillator has L = 8.00 µH and C = 6.00 mF. At t = 0, i = I = 5.00 mA and q = 0. What is the magnitude of the charge (C) in the capacitor at t = 0.300 ms? a) 4.15 10
−7
b) 9.4110
−7
c) 6.13 10
−8
d) 7.4110
−6
e) 2.19 10 f) 6.90 10
−6
g) 5.93 10
−8
h) 9.54 10 i) 1.07 10 j) 5.6110
−7
−8
−6
−7
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
15) An LC oscillator has L = 5.00 µH and C = 3.00 mF. At t = 0, i = I = 5.00 mA and q = 0. What is the energy (J) stored in the capacitor at t = 0.462 ms? a) 6.9 10
−11
b) 5.9 10 c) 9.5 10 d) 1.6 10
−11
−11
e) 8.0 10 f) 4.110
−11
−11
−11
g) 9.7 10 h) 6.110 i) 7.2 10
−11
−11
−11
j) 2.2 10
−11
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 31.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 31.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 32 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 32
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The induced magnetic field at radial distance 7.00 mm from the central axis of a circular parallel-plate capacitor is 3.00 10−7 T. The plates have radius 3.00 mm. At what rate dE / dt (in V/m s ) is the electric field between the plates charging? a) 3.20 1014 b) 1.89 1013 c) 4.20 1013 d) 3.14 1013 e) 9.15 1012 f) 8.77 1012 g) 1.18 1014 h) 2.311014 i) 7.78 1012 j) 5.68 1013 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 32.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.2
2) A parallel-plate capacitor with circular plates of radius 30.0 mm is being discharged by a current of 8.00 A. The magnetic field is at the radius of the plates. What is magnitude (T) of the maximum induced magnetic field? a) 6.64 10−5 b) 2.2110−5 c) 8.99 10−4 d) 7.75 10−4 e) 4.12 10−4 f) 8.89 10−5 g) 5.33 10−5
h) 1.19 10−6 i) 2.7110−6 j) 3.33 10−6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 32.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.2
3) At what rate (V/s) must the potential difference between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor with a 1.20 µF capacitance be changed to produce a displacement current of 2.40 A? a) 3.10 106 b) 2.00 106 c) 3.87 106 d) 4.23 106 e) 4.92 106 f) 5.67 106 g) 6.15 106 h) 7.12 106 i) 8.14 106 j) 9.37 106 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 32.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.3
4) A parallel-plate capacitor with circular plates of radius 0.150 m is being discharged. A circular loop of radius 0.240 m is concentric with the capacitor and halfway between the plates. The displacement current through the loop is 3.50 A. At what rate (V/m s) is the electric field between the plates changing? a) 7.84 1013 b) 6.16 1013 c) 3.75 1013
d) 2.29 1013 e) 1.29 1013 f) 9.76 1012 g) 7.14 1012 h) 8.08 1012 i) 5.59 1012 j) 4.22 1012 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 32.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.3
5) What is the energy difference (J) between parallel and antiparallel alignment of the z component of an electron’s spin magnetic dipole moment with an external magnetic field of magnitude 0.120 T, directed parallel to the z axis? a) 5.56 10−24 b) 4.19 10−24 c) 2.23 10−24 d) 6.15 10−24 e) 7.73 10−24 f) 8.88 10−24 g) 9.57 10−24 h) 1.87 10−23 i) 3.19 10−23 j) 4.47 10−23 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 32.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.5
6) An electron is placed in a magnetic field B that is directed along a z axis. The energy difference between parallel and antiparallel alignments of the z component of the electron’s spin magnetic moment with B is 2.00 10−25 J. What is the magnitude (T) of B ? a) 8.83 10−2 b) 7.48 10−2 c) 6.93 10−2 d) 5.12 10−2 e) 4.67 10−2 f) 4.04 10−2 g) 3.15 10−2 h) 2.89 10−2 i) 2.34 10−2 j) 1.08 10−2 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 32.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.5
7) A magnet in the form of a cylindrical rod has a length of 4.90 cm and a diameter of 0.920 cm. It has a uniform magnetization of 4.40 103 A/m. What is the magnetic dipole moment (J/T)? a) 4.32 10−3 b) 5.24 10−3 c) 6.14 10−3 d) 7.67 10−3 e) 8.18 10−3 f) 9.2110−3 g) 1.43 10−2 h) 3.07 10−2 i) 4.12 10−2 j) 5.1110−2 Answer: g Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 32.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.7
8) The magnitude of the dipole moment associated with an iron atom in an iron bar is 2.110−23 J/T. Assume the bar is 4.00 cm long and has a cross-sectional area of 0.800 cm2. Iron has a density of 7.9 g/cm3 and a molar mass of 55.847 g/mol. If all the atoms in the bar were to have their dipole moments aligned, what would the dipole moment (J/T) of the bar be? a) 5.7 b) 4.2 c) 3.7 d) 6.7 e) 1.3 f) 9.6 g) 8.8 h) 7.4 i) 10 j)2.6 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 32.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.8
9) A magnetic rod with length 5.00 cm, radius 2.00 mm, and uniform magnetization 2.70 103 A/m can turn about its center like a compass needle. It is placed in a uniform field of magnitude 25.0 mT, with its dipole moment at an angle of 55.0° to the field direction. What is the magnitude (N ∙ m) of the torque on the rod? a) 7.74 10−5 b) 6.3110−5 c) 5.5110−5 d) 4.19 10−5 e) 3.47 10−5 f) 8.84 10−6 g) 9.17 10−6 h) 1.89 10−6 i) 4.23 10−6 j) 5.12 10−6
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 32.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.8
10) What is the measured component of the orbital magnetic dipole moment of an electron with
m = −2? a) 1.85 10−23 b) 2.05 10−23 c) 3.13 10−23 d) 4.40 10−23 e) 5.16 10−23 f) −1.85 10−23 g) −2.05 10−23 h) −3.13 10−23 i) −4.40 10−23 j) −5.16 10−23 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 32.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 32.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 33 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 33
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 3.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 600 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 3.44 10−4 b) 1.05 10−4 c) 5.98 10−4 d) 4.13 10−3 e) 7.86 10−3 f) 7.9110−3 g) 2.84 10−3 h) 3.19 10−3 i) 4.24 10−4 j) 4.09 10−4 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
2) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 3.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 600 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank angular wave number (m-1)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 4.97 107 b) 6.18 107 c) 8.12 107 d) 9.85 108 e) 9.02 108
f) 3.77 107 g) 1.05 107 h) 2.09 107 i) 4.24 108 j) 1.20 108 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
3) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what sign goes in the third underscored blank? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) plus b) minus Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.1
4) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 3.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 600 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency (s-1)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 6.95 1014 b) 1.74 1014 c) 9.04 1016 d) 6.28 1015 e) 7.211016 f) 1.12 1016 g) 3.14 1015
h) 2.28 1015 i) 9.42 1015 j) 5.86 1016 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
5) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. When an electric field vector points in the positive direction of the x axis, in what direction does the corresponding magnetic field vector point? a) +x b) -x c) +y d) -y e) +z f) -z Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.1
6) The figure shows a small, totally-absorbing square target (edge length 0.200 mm) that faces an isotropic point source of light radiating at power 300 W. The distance between the source and the square is R = 4.00 m. What is the magnitude (N) of the force of the light on the square?
a) 2.33 10−18 b) 1.22 10−19 c) 1.99 10−16 d) 3.03 10−19 e) 6.12 10−19
f) 4.97 10−17 g) 7.07 10−18 h) 2.1110−17 i) 5.97 10−18 j) 4.04 10−19 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.3
7) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 7.40 10−5 V/m and the wavelength is 300 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 3.44 10−4 b) 1.05 10−4 c) 5.98 10−4 d) 4.13 10−3 e) 7.86 10−3 f) 7.9110−3 g) 2.84 10−3 h) 3.19 10−3 i) 4.24 10−4 j) 4.09 10−4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
8) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 7.40 10−5 V/m and the wavelength is 300
nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank for the angular wave number (m-1)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 4.97 107 b) 6.18 107 c) 8.12 107 d) 9.85 108 e) 9.02 108 f) 3.77 107 g) 1.05 107 h) 2.09 107 i) 4.24 108 j) 1.20 108 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
9) An electromagnetic wave travels in the positive direction of a z axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 7.40 10−5 V/m and the wavelength is 300 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency (s-1)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 6.95 1014 b) 1.74 1014 c) 9.04 1016 d) 6.28 1015 e) 7.211016 f) 1.12 1016 g) 3.14 1015 h) 2.28 1015 i) 9.42 1015 j) 5.86 1016 Answer: d Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
10) The figure shows a small, totally-absorbing square (edge length 0.200 mm) that faces an isotropic point source of light radiating at power 300 W. The distance between the source and the square is R = 8.00 m. What is the magnitude (N) of the force of the light on the square?
a) 2.33 10−18 b) 1.22 10−19 c) 1.99 10−16 d) 3.03 10−19 e) 6.12 10−19 f) 4.97 10−17 g) 7.07 10−18 h) 2.1110−17 i) 5.97 10−18 j) 4.04 10−19 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.3
11) The figure shows the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave at a certain instant. In what direction is the wave traveling?
a) into plane of the figure (away from you) b) out of the plane of the figure (toward you) Answer: a Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.1
12) A light wave has an intensity of 2.00 103 W/m2. What is the amplitude (V/m) of the electric field component? a) 7.88 103 b) 1.23 103 c) 5.99 103 d) 4.23 104 e) 1.99 104 f) 3.02 104 g) 6.99 104 h) 2.13 103 i) 5.99 104 j) 8.88 103 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
13) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 8.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 200 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 5.44 10−4 b) 7.07 10−4 c) 5.98 10−4 d) 1.13 10−3 e) 5.96 10−3 f) 6.89 10−3 g) 3.33 10−4 h) 3.19 10−3
i) 7.24 10−4 j) 4.1110−4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
14) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 8.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 200 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank for the angular wave number (m-1)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 4.51107 b) 2.38 107 c) 5.12 107 d) 8.88 108 e) 5.02 108 f) 3.14 107 g) 1.26 107 h) 9.09 107 i) 1.24 108 j) 4.51107 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
15) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what sign goes in the third underscored blank for the sign? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) plus b) minus
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.1
16) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 8.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 200 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency (s-1)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 7.95 1014 b) 1.80 1014 c) 9.04 1014 d) 8.48 1015 e) 1.211016 f) 1.90 1016 g) 3.911014 h) 2.28 1015 i) 9.42 1015 j) 5.06 1016 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
17) A light wave has an intensity of 6.00 103 W/m2. What is the amplitude (V/m) of the electric field component? a) 7.88 103 b) 1.23 103 c) 5.99 103 d) 4.23 104 e) 1.99 104
f) 3.02 104 g) 6.99 104 h) 2.13 103 i) 5.99 104 j) 8.88 103 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
18) The figure shows an isotropic light source that emits at a power of 400 W. A perfect reflector (total reflection) lies at distance R from it and is a circular disk that faces the source. The radius of that disk is 6.00 mm. The light pushes on the disk with a force of 2.40 10−11 N. What is R (m)?
a) 1.41 b) 12.3 c) 9.67 d) 14.2 e) 2.00 f) 15.7 g) 1.00 h) 21.3 i) 8.50 j) 20.9 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.3
19) The figure shows an isotropic light source that emits at a power of 400 W. A perfect reflector (total reflection) lies at distance R from it and is a circular disk that faces the source. The radius of that disk is 12.0 mm. The light pushes on the disk with a force of 2.40 10−11 N. What is R (m)?
a) 1.41 b) 12.3 c) 9.67 d) 14.2 e) 2.00 f) 15.7 g) 1.00 h) 21.3 i) 8.50 j) 20.9 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.3
20) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 13.0 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 500 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 5.44 10−4 b) 7.07 10−4 c) 5.98 10−4 d) 1.13 10−3 e) 5.96 10−3 f) 6.89 10−3 g) 1.84 10−3 h) 3.19 10−3 i) 7.24 10−4 j) 4.1110−4 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
21) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 13.0 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 500 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank for the angular wave number (m-1)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 4.51107 b) 2.38 107 c) 5.12 107 d) 8.88 108 e) 5.02 108 f) 3.14 107 g) 1.26 107 h) 9.09 107 i) 1.24 108 j) 9.11108 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
22) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 13.0 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 500 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency (s-1)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 7.95 1014 b) 1.80 1014 c) 9.04 1016 d) 8.48 1015 e) 1.211016 f) 1.90 1016 g) 3.77 1015 h) 2.28 1015
i) 9.42 1015 j) 5.06 1016 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
23) The figure shows four disks, two totally absorbing (drawn with dark interiors) and two totally reflecting. The larger ones have the same radius R and the smaller ones have the same radius r. We’ll shine a beam of light directly on the disks (perpendicular to the disks and with the same intensity). Rank the disks according to the radiation pressure on them, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 2,3,1,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 4,1,3,2 d) 3,(1,4),2 e) 4,(2,3),1 f) 2,4,1,3 g) 1,2,4,3 h) 3,4,1,2 i) (2,4),(1,3) j) (1, 2,3,4) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.3
24) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 4.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 500 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t )
a) 5.44 10−4 b) 7.07 10−4 c) 5.66 10−4 d) 1.27 10−3 e) 5.96 10−3 f) 6.89 10−3 g) 3.33 10−4 h) 3.19 10−3 i) 7.24 10−4 j) 4.1110−4 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
25) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 9.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 800 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 5.44 10−4 b) 7.07 10−4 c) 5.66 10−4 d) 1.27 10−3 e) 5.96 10−3 f) 6.89 10−3 g) 3.33 10−4 h) 3.19 10−3 i) 7.24 10−4 j) 4.1110−4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0
Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
26) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 9.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 800 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank (m-1) for the angular wave number? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 4.51107 b) 2.38 107 c) 5.12 107 d) 7.85 106 e) 5.02 108 f) 3.14 107 g) 1.26 107 h) 9.09 106 i) 1.24 108 j) 9.11106 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
27) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of an x axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the y axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 9.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 800 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency (s-1)? E y = _ sin(_ x _ _ t ) a) 7.95 1014 b) 1.80 1014 c) 9.04 1016 d) 8.48 1015 e) 1.211016 f) 1.90 1016 g) 3.77 1015 h) 2.36 1015 ) 9.42 1015
j) 5.06 1016 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
28) The figure shows three situations in which a light ray is incident on a surface between two materials; the index of refraction of each material is given. In which situation is there the possibility of total reflection (that is, if we choose the incident angle properly)?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
29) The figure shows three situations for the refraction of light across a boundary (or interface); the indexes of refraction are indicated. The dashed line shows the straight-through (no deflection) direction. In which is the refracted ray shown physically possible?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
30) The figure shows three situations in which a white light ray (W) undergoes dispersion at an interface (only the blue and red components are drawn). The dashed line shows the straight-through (no deflection) direction. In which are the refracted rays physically possible?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
31) A light ray travels in the positive direction of a z axis and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. The light intensity is 125 W/m2 and the wavelength is 800 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 5.53 102 b) 2.72 103 c) 1.04 102 d) 6.91102 e) 3.07 102 f) 5.81102 g) 4.95 102 h) 3.43 103 i) 1.19 102 j) 8.25 102 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
32) A light ray travels in the positive direction of a z axis and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. The light intensity is 125 W/m2 and the wavelength is 800 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank for the angular wave number (m-1)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 2.1107 b) 8.3 107 c) 9.5 106 d) 7.9 106 e) 4.8 107 f) 1.0 107 g) 6.8 107 h) 6.9 106 i) 1.8 107 j) 3.2 107 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
33) A light ray travels in the positive direction of a z axis and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. The light intensity is 125 W/m2 and the wavelength is 800 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what number (s-1) goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 6.8 1015 b) 7.0 1015 c) 3.11015 d) 3.3 1014 e) 8.0 1015 f) 5.4 1015 g) 2.4 1015 h) 4.5 1014 i) 6.9 1014 j) 1.11015 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
34) The figure shows a light ray that ends up at the critical angle at the interface between materials 2 and 3. The initial angle is 1 = 40.0. The first two indexes are n1 = 1.00 and n2 = 1.60. What is the index of refraction n3 of material 3?
a) 1.85 b) 1.16
c) 1.52 d) 1.68 e) 1.20 f) 1.32 g) 1.92 h) 1.26 i) 1.47 j) 1.78 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
35) In the figure, light (initially unpolarized) travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. Angle θ1 = 30.0º and angle 2 = 20.0. Choose angle 3 to maximize the final intensity. What percentage of the original intensity emerges from the three-sheet system?
a) 60.1 b) 7.15 c) 9.00 d) 17.8 e) 29.3 f) 0.43 g) 12.4 h) 37.5 i) 20.0 j) 50.0 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0
Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
36) In the figure, an isotropic light source emits at a power of 1500 W. A perfect reflector (total reflection) lies at distance R from it and is a circular disk that faces the source. The radius of that disk is 6.00 mm. The light pushes on the disk with a force of 2.40 10−11 N. What is R (m)?
a) 15.7 b) 1.00 c) 21.3 d) 8.50 e) 20.9 f) 1.37 g) 12.3 h) 9.67 i) 1.94 j) 0.707 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.3
37) A light ray travels in the positive direction of a z axis and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. The light intensity is 325 W/m2 and the wavelength is 600 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 5.53 102 b) 2.72 103 c) 1.04 102 d) 6.91102 e) 3.07 102 f) 5.81102 g) 4.95 102 h) 3.43 103 i) 1.19 102 j) 8.25 102
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
38) A light ray travels in the positive direction of a z axis and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. The light intensity is 325 W/m2 and the wavelength is 600 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank for the angular wave number (m-1)? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 2.1107 b) 8.3 107 c) 9.5 106 d) 7.9 106 e) 4.8 107 f) 1.0 107 g) 6.8 107 h) 6.9 106 i) 1.8 107 j) 3.2 107 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
39) A light ray travels in the positive direction of a z axis and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. The light intensity is 325 W/m2 and the wavelength is 600 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what number (s-1) goes in the fourth underscored blank for the angular frequency? Ex = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 6.8 1015 b) 7.0 1015 c) 3.11015
d) 3.3 1014 e) 8.0 1015 f) 5.4 1015 g) 2.4 1015 h) 4.5 1014 i) 6.9 1014 j) 1.11015 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
40) In the figure, light (initially unpolarized) travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. Angle θ1 = 30.0º and angle 𝜃2 = 30.0°. Choose angle 3 to maximize the final intensity. What percentage of the original intensity emerges from the three-sheet system?
a) 60.1 b) 7.15 c) 9.00 d) 17.8 e) 29.3 f) 0.43 g) 12.4 h) 37.5 i) 20.0 j) 50.0 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0
Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
41) A light ray travels in the negative direction of a z axis. The electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. In the following equation for the magnetic component of the wave, what subscript goes in the first underscored blank to indicate the directions of the magnetic field vectors? B_ = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) x b) y c) z Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
42) A light ray travels in the negative direction of a z axis. The light intensity is 35.0 W/m2, the wavelength is 350 nm, and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. In the following equation for the magnetic component of the wave, what goes in the second underscored blank for the amplitude (T)? B_ = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 5.82 10−8 b) 7.52 10−7 c) 5.4110−7 d) 1.10 10−7 e) 8.28 10−8 f) 1.06 10−6 g) 2.74 10−8 h) 3.20 10−8 i) 7.66 10−7 j) 3.83 10−7 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
43) A light ray travels in the negative direction of a z axis. The light intensity is 35.0 W/m2, the wavelength is 350 nm, and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. In the following equation for the magnetic component of the wave, what goes in the third underscored blank for the angular wave number (m-1)? B_ = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 2.1108 b) 8.3 107 c) 7.5 108 d) 5.3 108 e) 4.8 107 f) 5.9 107 g) 6.8 107 h) 6.9 108 i) 1.8 107 j) 3.1107 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
44) A light ray travels in the negative direction of a z axis. The light intensity is 35.0 W/m2, the wavelength is 350 nm, and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. In the following equation for the magnetic component of the wave, what goes in the fifth underscored blank for the angular frequency (s-1)? B_ = _ sin(_ z _ _ t ) a) 5.4 1015 b) 2.0 1016 c) 4.5 1014 d) 6.9 1014 e) 9.4 1015 f) 6.8 1015 g) 7.0 1016 h) 4.11015 i) 3.3 1014 j) 8.0 1016
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
45) A light ray travels in the negative direction of a z axis. The light intensity is 135 W/m2, the wavelength is 200 nm, and the electric field vectors oscillate parallel to the x axis. In the following equation for the magnetic component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (T)? 𝐵𝑦 = _ 𝑠𝑖𝑛( _ 𝑧 _ _𝑡) a) 5.82 10−8 b) 7.52 10−7 c) 5.4110−7 d) 1.10 10−7 e) 8.28 10−8 f) 1.06 10−6 g) 2.74 10−8 h) 3.20 10−8 i) 7.66 10−7 j) 3.83 10−7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
46) The figure shows three situations in which a white light ray (W) undergoes dispersion at an interface (only the blue and red components are drawn). The indexes of refraction of the materials on the two sides of the interface are indicated. The straight-through (no deflection) directions are also indicated. Which of the chromatic dispersions are physically possible?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
47) The figure shows three situations in which a ray encounters an interface. In which is there the possibility of total reflection (if the incident angle is chosen properly)?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
48) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of a y axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 5.00 10−4 V/m and the
wavelength is 500 nm. In the following equation for the electric component of the wave, what goes in the first underscored blank for the amplitude (units are either V/m or N/C)? Ex = _ sin(_ y _ _ t ) a) 5.44 10−4 b) 7.07 10−4 c) 5.98 10−3 d) 1.13 10−3 e) 5.96 10−5 f) 6.89 10−5 g) 3.33 10−4 h) 3.19 10−3 i) 7.24 10−4 j) 4.1110−4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
49) An electromagnetic wave travels in the negative direction of a y axis, with the electric fields oscillating parallel to the x axis. The rms value of the electric fields is 5.00 10−4 V/m and the wavelength is 500 nm. What is the intensity (W/m2) of the light? a) 4.5110−11 b) 7.80 10−10 c) 5.44 10−10 d) 3.33 10−10 e) 4.1110−9 f) 2.33 10−9 g) 7.07 10−9 h) 6.63 10−10 i) 1.70 10−9 j) 5.96 10−11 Answer: h Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.2
50) In the figure, initially unpolarized light travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. What percentage of the original intensity emerges? θ1 = 20.0º, θ2 = 45.0º, θ3 = 30.0º
a) 5.62 b) 7.11 c) 0.98 d) 17.8 e) 24.8 f) 0.43 g) 12.4 h) 8.33 i) 20.0 j) 38.3 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
51) The figure shows a light ray entering a block of transparent material and then entering a second block of transparent material. The angles are not drawn properly and all the reflected rays and refracted rays are not shown. The indexes are n1 = 1.20, n2 = 1.40, and n3 = 1.70. If θ1 = 30.0º, what is the final angle θf as the light emerges into the material with index of refraction n3?
a) 73.1º b) 25.4º c) 48.1º d) 64.6º e) 35.6º f) 20.6º g) 50.3º h) 81.2º i) 30.0º j) 40.0º Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
52) In the figure, initially unpolarized light travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. What percentage of the original intensity emerges? θ1 = 10.0º, θ2 = 55.0º, θ3 = 30.0º
a) 5.62 b) 7.11 c) 0.98 d) 17.8 e) 24.8 f) 0.43 g) 12.4 h) 8.33 i) 20.0
j) 38.3 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
53) In the figure, the incident light ray (in a transparent material with index 1.40) is unpolarized and reflects from a material with index 1.60. For what incident angle (deg) is the reflected light completely polarized?
a) 21.0 b) 51.9 c) 54.2 d) 66.7 e) 39.6 f) 29.5 g) 48.8 h) 33.8 i) 23.7 j) 14.3 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.7
54) In the figure, initially unpolarized light travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. The indicated angles are 1 = 30.0, 2 = 20.0, and 3 variable. Choose a value for θ3 that maximizes the final intensity. What percentage of the initial intensity emerges from the three-sheet system?
a) 5.61 b) 7.13 c) 9.05 d) 17.8 e) 29.3 f) 0.43 g) 12.4 h) 44.2 i) 20.0 j) 50.0 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
55) The figure shows a light ray entering a block of transparent material, reflecting from the top interface and then incident at the bottom interface at the critical angle. The indexes are n1 = 1.70, n2 = 1.60, and n3 = 1.50. What is angle 1 (deg)? (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
a) 69.9º b) 25.4º c) 46.2º d) 27.5º e) 35.6º f) 19.1º g) 50.3º h) 81.2º
i) 30.0º j) 56.4º Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
56) The figure shows a point source of light at depth D = 2.00 cm in a pool of benzene (n = 1.50). Light can escape from the liquid into the air through a circular “window” on the benzene surface. What is the radius (m) of that window?
a) 7.5110−3 b) 5.99 10−2 c) 0.639 d) 0.107 e) 4.09 10−2 f) 2.02 10−2 g) 1.79 10−2 h) 5.33 10−3 i) 0.994 j) 3.07 10−2 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
57) In the figure, the incident light ray (in a transparent material with index 1.30) is unpolarized and reflects from a material with index 1.80. For what incident angle (deg) is the reflected light completely polarized?
a) 21.0 b) 51.9 c) 54.2 d) 66.7 e) 39.6 f) 29.5 g) 48.8 h) 33.8 i) 23.7 j) 14.3 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.7
58) In the figure, light travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. The indicated angles are 1 = 30.0, 2 = 40.0, and 3 variable. Choose θ3 to maximize the final intensity. What percentage of the initial intensity emerges from the three-sheet system?
a) 5.61 b) 7.13 c) 9.05 d) 17.8 e) 29.3 f) 0.43 g) 12.4 h) 44.2 i) 20.0 j) 50.0
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
59) The figure shows a point source of light at depth D = 0.120 m in a pool of benzene (n = 1.50). Light can escape from the liquid into the air through a circular “window” on the benzene surface. What is the radius (m) of that window?
a) 7.5110−3 b) 5.99 10−2 c) 0.639 d) 0.107 e) 4.09 10−2 f) 2.02 10−2 g) 1.79 10−2 h) 5.33 10−3 i) 0.994 j) 3.07 10−2 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
60) The figure shows a light ray entering a block of transparent material, reflecting from the top interface and then incident at the bottom interface at the critical angle. The indexes are n1 = 1.30, n2 = 1.60, and n3 = 1.50. What is angle 1 (deg)? (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
a) 69.9º b) 25.4º c) 46.2º d) 27.5º e) 35.6º f) 19.1º g) 50.3º h) 81.2º i) 30.0º j) 56.4º Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
61) The figure shows three situations for the refraction of monochromatic light (single color) across a boundary (or interface); the indexes of refraction are indicated. In each situation, the dashed line shows the “straight-through” (no deflection) direction. In which is the refracted ray shown physically possible?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
62) The figure shows three situations in which a light ray is incident on a surface between two materials; the index of refraction of each material is given. In which situation is there the possibility of total reflection (that is, if the incident angle is chosen properly)?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
63) A bright light source lies on the flat bottom of a swimming pool, emitting light in an upward hemisphere. As you look at the surface from pool side, you see that the light emerging from the water forms a bright circle on the water surface, with a radius of 5.90 m. How deep (m) is the pool? The index of water is 1.33. a) 4.4 b) 7.8 c) 1.4 d) 6.9 e) 5.2 f) 2.5 g) 3.3
h) 1.9 i) 6.4 j) 1.6 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
64) The figure shows three situations in which a white light ray (W) undergoes dispersion at an interface (only the blue and red components are drawn). The dashed line indicates the straight-through (no deflection) direction. Which drawing indicates something physically possible?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
65) Figure F shows a light ray traveling through several materials. At point A the light is incident at the critical angle. What is the value of at point B? (Keep at least four significant figures to the end to avoid any round-off errors.) n1 = 1.400, n2 =1.800, n3 = 1.600, n4 = 1.000 (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
a) 39 b) 28 c) 73 d) 64 e) 52 f) 15 g) 57 h) 51 i) 29 j) 42 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
66) In the figure, initially unpolarized light is sent into a system of three polarizing sheets. What percentage of the initial intensity emerges from the system? θ1 = 30.0º, θ2 = 50.0º, θ3 = 20.0º
a) 20.0 b) 22.0 c) 0 d) 1.46 e) 4.82 f) 6.75 g) 11.0 h) 7.15
i) 25.9 j) 31.6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
67) A bright light source lies on the flat bottom of a swimming pool, emitting light in an upward hemisphere. As you look at the surface from pool side, you see that the light emerging from the water forms a bright circle on the water surface, with a radius of 8.90 m. How deep (m) is the pool? The index of water is 1.33. a) 4.4 b) 7.8 c) 1.4 d) 6.9 e) 5.2 f) 2.5 g) 3.3 h) 1.9 i) 6.4 j) 1.6 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
68) The figure shows a light ray traveling through several materials. At point A the light is incident at the critical angle. What is the value of at point B? (Keep at least four significant figures to the end to avoid any round-off errors.) n1 = 1.500, n2 =1.800, n3 = 1.600, n4 = 1.000 (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
a) 39 b) 28 c) 73 d) 64 e) 52 f) 15 g) 57 h) 51 i) 29 j) 42 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
69) In the figure, initially unpolarized light is sent into a system of three polarizing sheets. What percentage of the initial intensity emerges from the system? θ1 = 30.0º, θ2 = 40.0º, θ3 = 30.0º
a) 20.0 b) 22.0 c) 0 d) 1.46 e) 4.82 f) 6.75 g) 11.0 h) 7.15
i) 25.9 j) 31.6 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
70) The figure shows three situations in which a white light ray (W) undergoes dispersion at an interface (only the blue and red components are drawn). The indexes of refraction are indicated and so is the straight-through (no deflection) direction. In which drawing are the refracted rays physically possible?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.5
71) Sunlight reflects to you from a calm lake. What incident angle causes the reflected light to be fully polarized? The index of water is 1.33. a) 36.9 b) 29.9 c) 41.9
d) 67.1 e) 53.1 f) 25.9 g) 17.6 h) 61.4 i) 39.5 j) 49.2 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.7
72) Sunlight reflects to you from a calm lake as you stand on the shore. If the light is incident at the angle such that the reflected light is fully polarized, what describes that reflected light? a) electric fields oscillate left and right b) electric fields oscillate up and down Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.7
73) In the figure, initially unpolarized light is sent into a system of three polarizing sheets. What percentage of the initial intensity emerges from the system?
1 = 20.0 2 = 70.0 3 = 15.0
a) 0.45 b) 32.0
c) 0 d) 1.94 e) 3.71 f) 39.6 g) 26.4 h) 14.7 i) 35.9 j) 19.7 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
74) The figure shows a light ray traveling upward through several materials. At point A the light is incident at the critical angle. What is the value of 1 (deg) at point B? (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
n1 = 1.33 n2 = 1.50 n3 = 1.40 n4 = 1.33
a) 30.9 b) 21.9 c) 3.19 d) 34.1 e) 42.2 f) 19.2 g) 50.1 h) 15.2 i) 9.50 j) 14.9 Answer: f Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
75) The figure shows a light ray traveling upward through several materials. At point A the light is incident at the critical angle. What is the value of 1 (deg) at point B? (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
n1 = 1.70 n2 = 1.50 n3 = 1.40 n4 = 1.33
a) 30.9 b) 21.9 c) 3.19 d) 34.1 e) 42.2 f) 19.2 g) 50.1 h) 15.2 i) 9.50 j) 14.9 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
76) In the figure, initially unpolarized light is sent into a system of three polarizing sheets. What percentage of the initial intensity emerges from the system?
1 = 20.0 2 = 70.0 3 = 25.0
a) 0.45 b) 32.0 c) 0 d) 1.94 e) 3.71 f) 39.6 g) 26.4 h) 14.7 i) 35.9 j) 19.7 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
77) In the figure, initially unpolarized light travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. θ1 = 20.0º θ2 = 70.0º θ3 = 40.0º What percentage of the original intensity emerges?
a) 20.0 b) 22.0 c) 0 d) 0.68 e) 4.83 f) 6.71 g) 11.2
h) 7.34 i) 25.9 j) 31.6 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
78) The figure shows a ray that passes from the material at the top to the material at the bottom. At the last interface, the ray is incident at the critical angle. The indexes of refraction are n1 = 1.90 n2 = 1.70 n3 = 1.50 n4 = 1.40 . What is the angle θ (deg) indicated at the top? (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
a) 37 b) 16 c) 85 d) 77 e) 43 f) 28 g) 49 h) 73 i) 64 j) 58 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
79) The figure shows four long horizontal layers A through D of different materials, with air above and below them. Here is the index of refraction of each material: n1 = 1.3, n2 = 1.5, n3 = 1.4, n4 = 1.3. Rays
of light are sent into the left end of each layer as shown. In which layer is there the possibility of totally trapping the light in that layer so that, after many reflections, all the light reaches the right end of the layer?
a) Layer 1 b) Layer 2 c) Layer 3 d) Layer 4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
80) In the figure, initially unpolarized light travels along the z axis and through three polarizing sheets. θ1 = 20.0º θ2 = 70.0º θ3 = 50.0º What percentage of the original intensity emerges?
a) 20.0 b) 3.43 c) 0 d) 0.68 e) 4.83 f) 6.72 g) 11.2 h) 7.34 i) 25.9 j) 31.6
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.4
81) The figure shows a ray that passes from the material at the top to the material at the bottom. At the last interface, the ray is incident at the critical angle. The indexes of refraction are n1 = 1.80 n2 = 1.70 n3 = 1.50 n4 = 1.40 . What is the angle θ (deg) indicated at the top? (The tilts of the ray are not drawn to scale.)
a) 37 b) 16 c) 85 d) 77 e) 43 f) 28 g) 49 h) 73 i) 64 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 33.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 33.6
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Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 34 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 34
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) Which type of mirror can give an image on the same side as the object? a) only convex b) only concave c) both concave and convex Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
2) Which type of mirror can give an inverted image? a) only convex b) only concave c) both concave and convex Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
3) Which type of mirror can give a non-inverted image? a) only convex b) only concave c) both concave and convex
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Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
4) Which type of mirror can give an image on the far side from the object? a) only convex b) only concave c) both concave and convex Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
5) Which type of lens can give an image on the same side as the object? a) only diverging b) only converging c) both converging and diverging Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
6) Which type of lens can give an inverted image? a) only diverging
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b) only converging c) both converging and diverging Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
7) In the figure, an object is in front of an optical device (spherical mirror or thin lens, you need to decide): d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 4.00 cm. What is the magnitude (cm) of the focal distance?
a) 4.08 b) 3.33 c) 5.05 d) 4.80 e) 1.88 f) 1.87 g) 2.67 h) 5.67 i) 6.67 j) 8.99 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
8) In the figure, an object is in front of an optical device (spherical mirror or thin lens, you need to decide): d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 4.00 cm. What is the device?
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a) concave mirror b) convex mirror c) converging lens d) diverging lens Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
9) In the figure, an object is in front of an optical device (spherical mirror or thin lens, you need to decide): d1 = 8.00 cm, d2 = 4.00 cm. What type of image is there?
a) real b) virtual Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
10) The figure shows object O sitting to the left of a three-lens system: d1 = 20.0 cm, d2 = 16.0 cm, d3 = 30.0 cm. Lens 1: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
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Lens 2: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 10.0 cm Lens 3: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 12.0 cm How far (cm) from lens 3 is the image produced by lens 3?
a) 8.88 b) 6.88 c) 3.33 d) 2.25 e) 5.45 f) 9.90 g) 12.3 h) 4.87 i) 9.03 j) 10.1 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
11) The figure shows object O sitting to the left of a three-lens system: d1 = 20.0 cm, d2 = 16.0 cm, d3 = 30.0 cm. Lens 1: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 10.0 cm Lens 3: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 12.0 cm What type of image produced by lens 3?
a) real b) virtual Answer: b
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Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
12) The figure shows object O sitting to the left of a three-lens system: d1 = 20.0 cm, d2 = 16.0 cm, d3 = 30.0 cm. Lens 1: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 10.0 cm Lens 3: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 12.0 cm On which side of lens 3 is the image produced by lens 3?
a) left b) right Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
13) The figure shows object O sitting to the left of a three-lens system: d1 = 20.0 cm, d2 = 16.0 cm, d3 = 30.0 cm. Lens 1: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 10.0 cm Lens 3: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 12.0 cm What is the orientation of the image produced by lens 3?
a) inverted
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b) non-inverted Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
14) In the figure, object O is 12 cm in front a concave mirror with a focal distance of 8.0 cm. It then moves to a new location that is 4.0 cm in front of the mirror. Through what distance (cm) does its image move?
a) 62 b) 43 c) 32 d) 54 e) 58 f) 29 g) 38 h) 14 i) 15 j) 18 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
15) In the figure, an object is in front of an optical device (spherical mirror or thin lens, you need to decide): d1 = 12.0 cm, d2 = 8.00 cm. What is the magnitude (cm) of the focal distance?
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a) 4.08 b) 3.33 c) 5.05 d) 4.80 e) 1.88 f) 1.87 g) 2.67 h) 5.67 i) 6.67 j) 8.99 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
16) The figure shows object O sitting to the left of a three-lens system: d1 = 20.0 cm, d2 = 16.0 cm, d3 = 30.0 cm. Lens 1: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 10.0 cm Lens 3: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 22.0 cm How far (cm) from lens 3 is the image produced by lens 3?
a) 8.88 b) 6.88 c) 3.33 d) 2.25 e) 5.45 f) 9.90
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g) 12.3 h) 4.87 i) 9.03 j) 10.1 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
17) In the figure, object O is 14 cm in front a concave mirror with a focal distance of 8.0 cm. It then moves to a new location that is 6.0 cm in front of the mirror. Through what distance (cm) does its image move?
a) 62 b) 43 c) 32 d) 54 e) 58 f) 29 g) 38 h) 14 i) 15 j) 18 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
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18) An object is placed against the center of a spherical mirror and then moved away from it along the central axis as the image distance i is measured. Which of the six graphs in the figure best shows i versus object distance p if the mirror is concave?
a) Graph 1 b) Graph 2 c) Graph 3 d) Graph 4 e) Graph 5 f) Graph 6 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
19) An object is placed against the center of a spherical mirror and then moved away from it along the central axis as the image distance i is measured. Which of the six graphs in the figure best shows i versus object distance p if the mirror is convex?
a) Graph 1 b) Graph 2 c) Graph 3 d) Graph 4 e) Graph 5 f) Graph 6 Answer: c Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
20) In the figure, stick figure O stands in front of a spherical mirror that is mounted within the boxed region; the central axis through the mirror is shown. The four stick figures I1 to I4 suggest general locations and orientations for the images that might be produced by the mirror. (The figures are only sketches.) Which of the stick figures could not possibly represent images?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 4 g) 1 and 4 h) 2 and 3 i) 1 and 3 j) 2 and 4 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
21) In the figure, stick figure O stands in front of a thin lens that is mounted within the boxed region; the central axis through the mirror is shown. The four stick figures I1 to I4 suggest general locations and orientations for the images that might be produced by the mirror. (The figures are only sketches.) Which of the stick figures could not possibly represent images?
a) 1 only
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b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 4 g) 1 and 4 h) 2 and 3 i) 1 and 3 j) 2 and 4 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
22) In the figure, an object sits to the left of lens 1. How far (m) from lens 3 is the image produced by that lens? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 12.5 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) 7.50 b) 2.02 c) 1.25 d) 6.25 e) 6.60 f) 4.12 g) 0.50 h) 5.43 i) 7.17 j) 9.32 Answer: a
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Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
23) An object sits in front of a mirror that has a focal distance of absolute magnitude 50.0 cm. The lateral magnification is +0.400. What is the distance (cm) between the object and the mirror? a) 32 b) 35 c) 40 d) 20 e) 36 f) 60 g) 80 h) 75 i) 44 j) 120 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
24) An object is placed in front of a diverging lens, first at position 1 at distance 5.00 m from the lens and then at position 2 at distance 10.0 m from the lens. The distance between the lens and its focal point is 2.00 m. What is the change (m) in image distance i1 – i2 because of the object’s displacement? a) 0.12 b) 0.503 c) 0.364 d) 0.181 e) 0.321 f) 0.654 g) 0.145 h) 0.150
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i) 0.276 j) 0.238 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
25) An object is placed in front of a diverging lens, first at position 1 at distance 5.00 m from the lens and then at position 2 at distance 10.0 m from the lens. The distance between the lens and its focal point is 2.00 m. What is the change in the magnification m1 – m2? a) 0.486 b) 0.803 c) 0.62 d) 0.514 e) 0.361 f) 0.136 g) 0.119 h) 0.52 i) 0.075 j) 0.969 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
26) In the figure, an object is to the left of lens 1. How far (m) from lens 3 is the image produced by that lens? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 12.5 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 4.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 4.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 4.00 cm
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a) 7.50 b) 2.02 c) 1.25 d) 6.25 e) 6.60 f) 4.12 g) 0.50 h) 5.43 i) 7.17 j) 9.32 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
27) An object sits in front of a mirror that has a focal distance of absolute magnitude 60.0 cm. The lateral magnification is +0.500. What is the distance (cm) between the object and the mirror? a) 32 b) 35 c) 40 d) 20 e) 36 f) 60 g) 80 h) 75 i) 44 j) 120 Answer: f Title: Question ID:
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Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2 28) An object is placed in front of a diverging lens, first at position 1 at distance 8.00 m from the lens and then at position 2 at distance 14.0 m from the lens. The distance between the lens and its focal point is 2.00 m. What is the change (m) in image distance i1 – i2 because of the object’s displacement? a) 0.120 b) 0.503 c) 0.364 d) 0.181 e) 0.321 f) 0.654 g) 0.145 h) 0.150 i) 0.276 j) 0.238 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
29) An object is placed in front of a diverging lens, first at position 1 at distance 8.00 m from the lens and then at position 2 at distance 14.0 m from the lens. The distance between the lens and its focal point is 2.00 m. What is the change in the magnification m1 – m2? a) 0.486 b) 0.803 c) 0.62 d) 0.514 e) 0.361 f) 0.136 g) 0.119 h) 0.52 i) 0.075 j) 0.969
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Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
30) In the figure, an object is to the left of a region marked with dashes, which contains an optical device. The focal point of the device is marked as point F. If the device is a concave mirror, in which of the four general regions (1, 2, 3, or 4) is the image produced? Pick the best answer.
a) Region 1 b) Region 2 c) Region 3 d) Region 4 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
31) In the figure, an object is to the left of a region marked with dashes, which contains an optical device. The focal point of the device is marked as point F. If the device is a concave mirror, what type of image is produced?
(a) real (b) virtual? Answer: a
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Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
32) In the figure, an object is to the left of a region marked with dashes, which contains an optical device. The focal point of the device is marked as point F. If the device is a converging lens, in which of the four general regions (1, 2, 3, or 4) is the image produced? Pick the best answer.
a) Region 1 b) Region 2 c) Region 3 d) Region 4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
33) In the figure, an object is to the left of a region marked with dashes, which contains an optical device. The focal point of the device is marked as point F. If the device is a converging lens, what type of image is produced?
(a) real (b) virtual Answer: a Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
34) In the figure, an object is to the left of a region marked with dashes, which contains an optical device. The focal point of the device is marked as point F. If the device is a diverging lens, what type of image is produced?
a) real b) virtual Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
35) Symmetric diverging lens: The distance between the lens and focal point is 133 cm. What is the distance (cm) between an object (on the central axis) and the lens if the image is 50.0 cm from the lens? a) 7.90 b) 21.7 c) 36.3 d) 40.0 e) 5.45 f) 50.0 g) 66.7 h) 80.1 i) 167 j) 91.0 Answer: h Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
36) The figure shows a two lens system, with an object 60.0 cm to the left of lens 1. lens 1: diverging. Distance between lens and focal point is 30.0 cm. lens 2: converging. Distance between lens and focal point is 30.0 cm. The lens separation is d = 40.0 cm. What is the overall (or net) magnification of the system, sign included?
a) -2.40 b) +1.25 c) -1.00 d) +2.20 e) -4.90 f) +1.98 g) -0.33 h) +6.70 i) -0.167 j) +0.88 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
37) The figure shows a two lens system, with an object 60.0 cm to the left of lens 1 lens 1: diverging. Distance between lens and focal point is 30.0 cm. lens 2: converging. Distance between lens and focal point is 20.0 cm. The lens separation is d = 40.0 cm. What is the overall (or net) magnification of the system, sign included?
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a) -2.40 b) +1.25 c) -1.00 d) +2.20 e) -4.90 f) +1.98 g) -0.33 h) +6.70 i) -0.167 j) +0.88 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
38) Symmetric diverging lens: The distance between the lens and focal point is 200 cm. What is the distance (cm) between an object (on the central axis) and the lens if the image is 50.0 cm from the lens? a) 7.90 b) 21.7 c) 36.3 d) 40.0 e) 5.45 f) 50.0 g) 66.7 h) 80.1 i) 167 j) 91.0 Answer: g Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
39) We first mount a diverging lens which has glass with an index of refraction of 1.5. We then gradually increase the index of the material surrounding the lens, starting with n = 1.0 for air. As the surrounding index increases toward the value of 1.5, what happens to the focal point of the lens? a) moves toward the lens b) moves away from the lens c) remains stationary Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
40) The figure shows four glass lenses, each surrounding by a transparent material that is not simply air. The indexes of refraction are indicated. Light is incident from the left. Which lenses act as a converging lens?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) 2 and 4 h) 1 and 4 i) 1 and 2
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Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
41) An object is placed 7.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +14.0. What is the magnitude of the focal distance (cm)? a) 12.0 b) 18.6 c) 21.5 d) 33.4 e) 7.54 f) 17.1 g) 16.3 h) 10.5 i) 14.5 j) 13.0 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
42) An object is placed 7.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +14.0. What type of mirror is it? a) concave b) convex Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
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Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
43) An object is placed 7.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +14.0. On what side of the mirror is the image? a) opposite side b) same side Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
44) An object is placed 7.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +14.0. What type of image is produced? a) real b) virtual Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
45) An object is placed 7.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +14.0. What is the orientation of the image? a) inverted from object b) same as object Answer: b Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
46) An object is placed in front of a lens whose focal distance has the magnitude 12.0 cm. The resulting magnification is m = +0.100. What is the object distance (cm)? a) 5.91 b) 14.5 c) 7.00 d) 1.50 e) 17.3 f) 20.8 g) 4.82 h) 216 i) 1.33 j) 108 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
47) An object is placed in front of a lens whose focal distance has the magnitude 12.0 cm. The resulting magnification is m = +0.100. What type of lens is it? a) converging b) diverging Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
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48) The figure shows an object in front of an optical device and also the image that is created. The distances are d1 = 8.00 cm and d2 = 6.00 cm. What is the focal distance (cm) of the device, sign included?
a) +5.67 b) +6.67 c) +1.22 d) +4.00 e) +3.43 f) -5.67 g) -6.67 h) -1.22 i) -4.00 j) -3.43 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
49) The figure shows an object in front of an optical device and also the image that is created. The distances are d1 = 8.00 cm and d2 = 6.00 cm. What is the device?
a) concave mirror b) convex mirror c) converging lens d) diverging lens
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Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
50) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses, distance p1 = 10.0 cm. What is the distance (cm) between the third (last) lens and the image that it produces? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) 8.15 b) 4.12 c) 7.07 d) 13.3 e) 7.71 f) 10.0 g) 6.72 h) 15.4 i) 8.02 j) 21.0 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
51) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses, distance p1 = 10.0 cm. Where is the image produced by the third (last) lens? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm.
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Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) left side of lens 3 b) right side of lens 3 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
52) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses. Where is the orientation of the image produced by the third (last) lens? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) inverted from object b) same as object Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
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53) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses. What type of image is produced by the third (last) lens? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) real b) virtual Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
54) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses. What is the magnitude of the overall (or net) magnification? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) 0.33 b) 2.1 c) 0.15 d) 0.27 e) 0.094 f) 0.50 g) 0.83 h) 2.5
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i) 3.4 j) 6.9 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
55) An object is placed 7.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +3.00. What is the magnitude of the focal distance (cm)? a) 12.0 b) 18.6 c) 21.5 d) 33.4 e) 7.54 f) 17.1 g) 16.3 h) 10.5 i) 14.5 j) 13.0 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
56) An object is placed in front of a lens whose focal distance has the magnitude 24.0 cm. The resulting magnification is m = +0.100. What is the object distance (cm)? a) 5.91 b) 14.5 c) 7.00 d) 1.50 e) 17.3
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f) 20.8 g) 4.82 h) 216 i) 1.33 j) 108 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
57) The figure shows an object in front of an optical device and also the image that is created. The distances are d1 = 12.0 cm and d2 = 6.00 cm. What is the focal distance (cm) of the device, sign included?
a) +5.67 b) +6.67 c) +1.22 d) +4.00 e) +3.43 f) -5.67 g) -6.67 h) -1.22 i) -4.00 j) -3.43 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
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58) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses. What is the distance (cm) between the third (last) lens and the image that it produces? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 7.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) 8.15 b) 4.12 c) 7.07 d) 13.3 e) 7.71 f) 10.0 g) 6.72 h) 15.4 i) 8.02 j) 21.0 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
59) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses. What is the magnitude of the overall (or net) magnification? d1 = 10.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 7.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
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a) 0.33 b) 2.1 c) 0.15 d) 0.27 e) 0.094 f) 0.50 g) 0.83 h) 2.5 i) 3.4 j) 6.9 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
60) The figure shows an object O in front of an optical device (distance d1 = 8.00 cm) and also the image I that is created (distance d2 = 10.0 cm). What is the focal distance (cm) of the device, sign included?
a) +5.67 b) +6.67 c) +1.22 d) +4.44 e) +3.43 f) -5.67 g) -6.67 h) -1.22 i) -4.44 j) -3.43 Answer: d Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
61) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses at distance p1 = 30.0 cm. What is the distance (cm) between the third (last) lens and the image that it produces? d1 = 30.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
a) 8.15 b) 4.12 c) 7.07 d) 13.3 e) 7.71 f) 11.7 g) 6.72 h) 15.4 i) 9.67 j) 21.0 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
62) The figure shows an object in front of a series of lenses at distance. What is the magnitude of the overall (or net) magnification? d1 = 30.0 cm, d2 = 15.0 cm, d3 = 5.50 cm. Lens 1: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 2: diverging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm Lens 3: converging, magnitude of focal distance = 5.00 cm
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a) 0.33 b) 2.1 c) 9.6 E-2 d) 0.27 e) 0.94 f) 0.65 g) 0.83 h) 2.5 i) 3.4 j) 6.9 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
63) An object is placed at distance 9.00 cm in front of a spherical mirror. The resulting magnification is m = +14.0. What is the magnitude of the focal distance (cm)? a) 12.0 b) 18.6 c) 21.5 d) 33.4 e) 7.54 f) 17.1 g) 16.3 h) 9.69 i) 14.5 j) 13.0 Answer: h Title: Question ID:
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Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.2
64) An object is placed in front of a lens whose focal distance has the magnitude 20.0 cm. The resulting magnification is m = +0.100. What is the object distance (cm)? a) 5.91 b) 14.5 c) 7.00 d) 150 e) 17.3 f) 20.8 g) 4.82 h) 1.69 i) 180 j) 108 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
65) In the figure, an object is to the left of lens 1 at distance d1 = 6.00 m. The absolute magnitude of the focal distance for each lens is 2.00 m. Lenses 1 and 2 are separated by d2 = 9.00 m, and lenses 2 and 3 are separated by d3 = 4.50 m. The first and third lenses are converging. The middle lens is diverging. What is the magnitude of the net (or overall) magnification of the system of three lenses?
a) 4.12 b) 0.112 c) 0.782 d) 7.17 10−2 e) 9.32 10−3
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f) 7.0110−3 g) 5.00 10−2 h) 1.25 i) 6.25 10−2 j) 6.71 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
66) In the figure, an object is to the left of lens 1 at distance d1 = 6.00 m. The absolute magnitude of the focal distance for each lens is 2.00 m. Lenses 1 and 2 are separated by d2 = 9.00 m, and lenses 2 and 3 are separated by d3 = 5.50 m. The first and third lenses are converging. The middle lens is diverging. What is the magnitude of the net (or overall) magnification of the system of three lenses?
a) 4.12 b) 0.112 c) 0.782 d) 7.17 10−2 e) 9.32 10−3 f) 7.0110−3 g) 5.00 10−2 h) 1.25 i) 6.25 10−2 j) 6.71 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 34.4.0
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Section Reference 1: Section 34.4
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Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 35 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 35
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of light that emit in phase and at the same wavelength of = 2.0 m. Starting at point A, we move leftward along the perpendicular bisector. Distance d = 3.0 m. Which of the following best describes the interference at our location as we move?
a) always a maximum b) always a minimum c) alternates between maximum, minimum, and intermediate interference Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
2) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of light that emit in phase and at the same wavelength of = 2.0 m. Starting at point B, we move upward toward the nearer source. Distance d = 3.0 m. Which of the following best describes the interference at our location as we move?
a) always a maximum b) always a minimum
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c) alternates between maximum, minimum, and intermediate interference Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
3) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of light that emit at the same wavelength. The path length from source S1 to P is greater than the path length from source S2 to P by 0.70 wavelength. The sources do not emit in phase. Here are three choices for the difference in their emissions: choice 1: S1 emits ahead by 0.70 wavelength choice 2: S1 emits ahead by 0.30 wavelength choice 3: S1 emits ahead by 0.10 wavelength Rank the choices according to the intensity of the light at P, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 1, (2,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
4) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 5.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 33 m. If we move a detector along a large
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circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive at the detector exactly in phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
5) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 5.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 33 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive exactly out of phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: f
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Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
6) The figure is for two-slit interference: Light of wavelength 450 nm is sent through the slits in a two-slit interference experiment, where the distance between the slits is 25.0 µm. What is the angle θ (deg) to the 4th dark fringe (band, minimum) to either side of the center of the pattern?
a) 2.49 b) 8.39 c) 12.2 d) 1.42 e) 4.72 f) 2.89 g) 5.11 h) 3.61 i) 6.12 j) 7.80 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
7) In the figure waves A and B, both of wavelength 600 nm, are initially in phase and traveling rightward. Wave A is reflected from eight surfaces but ends up traveling in its original direction. Wave B reflects from four surfaces and also ends up traveling its original direction. What is the third smallest value of L (nm) that puts A and B exactly out of phase with each other after the reflections?
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a) 380 b) 400 c) 775 d) 200 e) 500 f) 215 g) 375 h) 555 i) 725 j) 250 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
8) The figure shows a thin film (in the middle) with different materials on either side: n1 = 1.50, n2 = 1.60, n3 = 1.70. We send in a ray of light that is perpendicular to the two parallel surfaces. In air, that light has a wavelength of 600 nm. For some values of thickness L, the reflections to the left undergo fully destructive interference. What is the second smallest value of L that gives that result? Answer in nanometers.
a) 800
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b) 350 c) 281 d) 188 e) 50.0 f) 567 g) 711 h) 400 i) 667 j) 120 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
9) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 6.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 31 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive at the detector exactly in phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
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10) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 6.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 31 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive exactly out of phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
11) The figure shows two-slit interference: Light of wavelength 500 nm is sent through the slits in a twoslit interference experiment, where the distance between the slits is 12.0 µm. What is the angle θ (deg) to the 4th dark fringe (band, minimum) to either side of the center of the pattern?
a) 2.49 b) 8.39 c) 12.2 d) 1.42 e) 4.72
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f) 2.89 g) 5.11 h) 3.61 i) 6.12 j) 7.80 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
12) The figure shows a thin film (in the middle) with different materials on either side: n1 = 1.40, n2 = 1.60, n3 = 1.40. We send in a ray of light that is perpendicular to the two parallel surfaces. In air, that light has a wavelength of 400 nm. For some values of thickness L, the reflections to the left undergo fully constructive interference. What is the second smallest value of L that gives that result? Answer in nanometers.
a) 800 b) 350 c) 281 d) 188 e) 50 f) 567 g) 711 h) 400 i) 667 j) 120 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
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13) In the figure, waves A and B, both of wavelength 400 nm, are initially in phase and traveling rightward. Wave A is reflected from eight surfaces but ends up traveling in its original direction. Wave B reflects from four surfaces and also ends up traveling its original direction. What is the third smallest value of L (nm) that puts A and B exactly out of phase with each other after the reflections?
a) 380 b) 400 c) 775 d) 200 e) 500 f) 215 g) 375 h) 555 i) 725 j) 250 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
14) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 4.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 17 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive at the detector exactly in phase?
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a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
15) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 4.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 17 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive exactly out of phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
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16) In the figure, waves A and B, both of wavelength 6.00 m, are initially in phase and traveling rightward. Wave A is reflected from six surfaces but ends up traveling in its original direction. What is the second smallest value of L that puts A and B exactly out of phase with each other after the reflections?
a) 3.50 b) 3.00 c) 3.75 d) 2.00 e) 0.50 f) 2.25 g) 3.25 h) 1.50 i) 0.75 j) 2.50 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
17) The figure shows three light paths along which pulses travel, traveling through various pieces of plastic, each of the same length L. The indexes of refraction are indicated for each piece. Rank the pulses according to their travel time through the full length 3L, greatest time first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2
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c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 1, (2,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
18) Two-slit interference: Light of wavelength 400 nm is sent through the slits in a two-slit interference experiment, where the distance between the slits is 3.00 µm. What is the angle θ to the 6th dark fringe (band, minimum) to either side of the center of the pattern? Answer in degrees. a) 24.9 b) 50.0 c) 22.7 d) 14.2 e) 47.2 f) 18.9 g) 53.1 h) 32.2 i) 62.1 j) 27.8 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
19) The figure shows a thin film (in the middle) with different materials on either side: n1 = 1.40, n2 = 1.50, and n3 = 1.60. We send in a ray of light that is perpendicular to the two parallel surfaces. In air, that light has a wavelength of 600 nm. For some values of thickness L, the reflections to the left undergo fully destructive interference. What is the second smallest value of L that gives that result? Answer in nanometers.
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a) 800 b) 300 c) 200 d) 180 e) 75 f) 533 g) 700 h) 400 i) 600 j) 1200 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
20) The figure shows two isotropic point sources separated by distance d. The sources emit in phase and at wavelength 500 nm. We start very far to the right on the x axis and walk along the axis toward S1. When we get to the third point of fully destructive interference, we are at x = 0.975 m. What is d in meters?
a) 5.5 10−6 b) 8.4 10−5 c) 3.8 10−6 d) 2.0 10−6 e) 4.9 10−6 f) 9.3 10−7 g) 8.110−5 h) 4.0 10−5 i) 9.0 10−6
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j) 3.3 10−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
21) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 4.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 25 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive at the detector exactly in phase?
a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
22) The figure shows two isotropic point sources of radio waves S1 and S2. The sources emit waves in phase at wavelength 4.0 m; they are separated by distance d = 25 m. If we move a detector along a large circle centered at the midpoint between the sources, at how many points do waves arrive exactly out of phase?
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a) 30 b) 18 c) 16 d) 24 e) 34 f) 28 g) 32 h) 22 i) 20 j) 26 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
23) In the figure, waves A and B, both of wavelength 9.00 m, are initially in phase and traveling rightward. Wave A is reflected from six surfaces but ends up traveling in its original direction. What is the second smallest value of L that puts A and B exactly out of phase with each other after the reflections?
a) 3.50 b) 3.00 c) 3.75 d) 2.00 e) 0.50 f) 2.25 g) 3.25 h) 1.50 i) 0.75 j) 2.50 Answer: f Title:
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Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
24) Two-slit interference: Light of wavelength 400 nm is sent through the slits in a two-slit interference experiment, where the distance between the slits is 3.00 µm. What is the angle θ to the 4th dark fringe (band, minimum) to either side of the center of the pattern? Answer in degrees. a) 24.9 b) 50.0 c) 22.7 d) 14.2 e) 47.2 f) 18.9 g) 53.1 h) 32.2 i) 62.1 j) 27.8 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
25) The figure shows a thin film (in the middle) with different materials on either side: n1 = 1.40, n2 = 1.50, and n3 = 1.60. We send in a ray of light that is perpendicular to the two parallel surfaces. In air, that light has a wavelength of 800 nm. For some values of thickness L, the reflections to the left undergo fully destructive interference. What is the second smallest value of L that gives that result? Answer in nanometers.
a) 800 b) 300 c) 200 d) 180 e) 75 f) 533
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g) 700 h) 400 i) 600 j) 1200 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
26) The figure shows two isotropic point sources S1 and S2 that emit in phase at the same (radio) wavelength of 0.400 m. Their separation is d = 3.80 m. If we walk a big circle around their midpoint, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
a) 40 b) 39 c) 38 d) 37 e) 36 f) 35 g) 34 h) 33 i) 32 j) 30 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
27) The figure shows two isotropic point sources separated by d = 2.00 10−6 m. The sources emit in phase and at wavelength 500 nm. We start very far to the right on the x axis and walk toward S1. When we get to the third point of fully destructive interference, what is our distance (m) from S1?
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a) 2.1110−4 b) 9.99 10−4 c) 1.58 10−7 d) 3.02 10−5 e) 8.02 10−6 f) 7.9110−4 g) 9.75 10−7 h) 2.98 10−6 i) 4.5110−7 j) 5.03 10−5 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
28) The figure shows a Young’s two-slit interference experiment, using wavelength 500 nm and slit separation d = 2.00 µm. Part of the interference pattern is indicated. What is the angular difference (degrees) between point 1 (center of a dark band) and point 2 (center of the adjacent bright band)?
a) 25.7 b) 9.91 c) 4.40 d) 0.33 e) 1.82 f) 13.08
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g) 3.99 h) 1.55 i) 1.02 j) 0.67 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
29) The figure shows a beam of light shining perpendicularly on a thin film of water (index = 1.33) lying on glass (index = 1.50). Which of the following film thicknesses (nm) results in the film being totally dark to an observer looking directly down on the film? The wavelength in air is 600 nm?
a) 143 b) 602 c) 429 d) 401 e) 338 f) 282 g) 534 h) 677 i) 214 j) 750 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
30) The figure shows a beam of light shining perpendicularly on a thin film of water (index = 1.33) lying on glass (index = 1.50). Which of the following film thicknesses (nm) results in the film being totally dark to an observer looking directly down on the film? The wavelength in air is 500 nm?
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a) 143 b) 602 c) 429 d) 401 e) 338 f) 282 g) 534 h) 677 i) 214 j) 750 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
31) The figure shows two isotropic point sources S1 and S2 that emit in phase at the same (radio) wavelength of 0.500 m. Their separation is d = 3.80 m. If we walk a big circle around their midpoint, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
a) 40 b) 39 c) 38 d) 37 e) 36 f) 35 g) 34 h) 33 i) 32 j) 30 Answer: j Title: Question ID:
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Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
32) The figure shows two isotropic point sources separated by d = 3.00 µm. The sources emit in phase and at wavelength 500 nm. We start very far to the right on the x axis and walk toward S1. When we get to the third point of fully destructive interference, what is our distance (m) from S1?
a) 2.1110−4 b) 9.99 10−4 c) 1.58 10−7 d) 3.02 10−5 e) 8.02 10−6 f) 7.9110−4 g) 9.75 10−7 h) 2.98 10−6 i) 4.5110−7 j) 5.03 10−5 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
33) The figure shows three pulses of light that are to travel through various plastic layers. The total length of the layers is 3d for each pulse. Rank the pulses according to the time required to travel through the length 3d, greatest time first. ( ) indicates a tie.
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a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
34) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.20 m. They are separated by d = 8.00 m. If we walk a big walk around them, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
a) 14 b) 16 c) 22 d) 10 e) 19 f) 12 g) 20 h) 18 i) 21 j) 15 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
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35) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.20 m. They are separated by d = 8.00 m. If we walk a big walk around them, how many points of fully destructive interference do we find?
a) 14 b) 16 c) 22 d) 10 e) 19 f) 12 g) 20 h) 18 i) 21 j) 15 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
36) Two-slit interference: What is the path length difference between the two rays that form the third dark fringe as we count upward from the central bright fringe? Answer by indicating what goes in this statement: path length difference = ____ λ a) 0 b) 1.5 c) 2.5 d) 3.0 e) 5.5 f) 0.5 g) 1.0 h) 2.0 i) 3.5 j) 5.0 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
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Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
37) Two-slit interference: If the slit separation is 20 μm and the wavelength is 500 nm, what is the angle (degrees, measured from the central axis) for the third maximum above the central maximum? a) 6.4 b) 1.7 c) 2.9 d) 2.1 e) 3.4 f) 5.6 g) 4.3 h) 0.45 i) 1.2 j) 3.6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
38) In the figure, a light ray of 600 nm wavelength (in air) is incident perpendicularly on a thin film of thickness L. The indexes of refraction of the film and the material to each side are n1 = 1.30, n2 = 1.40, and n3 = 1.50. What is the third least thickness (nm) of the film that results in a dark film being seen by someone off to the left of the film?
a) 643 b) 214 c) 357 d) 429 e) 536 f) 501 g) 118 h) 440 i) 321 j) 923
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Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
39) In the figure, the two waves are initially in phase and both have wavelength 600 nm. What third smallest value of distance d (nm) results in the waves ending up exactly out of phase?
a) 139 b) 92.3 c) 400 d) 115 e) 300 f) 600 g) 500 h) 76.9 i) 333 j) 200 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
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40) The figure shows two isotropic point sources separated by d = 2.00 μm. The sources emit in phase and at wavelength = 500 nm. We start very far to the right on the x axis and move toward S1. When we get to the third point of fully destructive interference, what is the distance (m) from S1?
a) 2.1110−4 b) 9.99 10−4 c) 5.83 10−7 d) 3.02 10−5 e) 8.02 10−6 f) 7.9110−4 g) 9.75 10−7 h) 2.77 10−6 i) 4.5110−7 j) 5.03 10−5 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
41) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.20 m. They are separated by d = 6.00 m. If we walk a big walk around them, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
a) 14 b) 16 c) 22 d) 10 e) 19 f) 12 g) 20 h) 18
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i) 21 j) 15 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
42) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.20 m. They are separated by d = 6.00 m. If we walk a big walk around them, how many points of fully destructive interference do we find?
a) 14 b) 16 c) 22 d) 10 e) 19 f) 12 g) 20 h) 18 i) 21 j) 15 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
43) Two-slit interference: What is the path length difference between the two rays that form the second dark fringe as we count upward from the central bright fringe? Answer by indicating what goes in this statement: path length difference = ____ λ a) 0 b) 1.5 c) 2.5 d) 3.0 e) 5.5
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f) 0.5 g) 1.0 h) 2.0 i) 3.5 j) 5.0 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
44) Two-slit interference: If the slit separation is 20 μm and the wavelength is 400 nm, what is the angle (degrees, measured from the central axis) for the third maximum above the central maximum? a) 6.4 b) 1.7 c) 2.9 d) 2.1 e) 3.4 f) 5.6 g) 4.3 h) 0.45 i) 1.2 j) 3.6 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
45) In the figure, a light ray of 400 nm wavelength (in air) is incident perpendicularly on a thin film of thickness L. The indexes of refraction of the film and the material to each side are n1 = 1.30, n2 = 1.40, and n3 = 1.50. What is the third least thickness (nm) of the film that results in a dark film being seen by someone off to the left of the film?
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a) 643 b) 214 c) 357 d) 429 e) 536 f) 501 g) 118 h) 440 i) 321 j) 923 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
46) In the figure, the two waves are initially in phase and both have wavelength 400 nm. What third smallest value of distance d (nm) results in the waves ending up exactly out of phase?
a) 139 b) 92.3 c) 400 d) 115 e) 300 f) 600 g) 500 h) 76.9
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i) 333 j) 200 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
47) The figure shows two isotropic point sources separated by d = 2.00 μm. The sources emit in phase and at wavelength = 600 nm. We start very far to the right on the x axis and move toward S1. When we get to the third point of fully destructive interference, what is the distance (m) from S1?
a) 2.1110−4 b) 9.99 10−4 c) 5.83 10−7 d) 3.02 10−5 e) 8.02 10−6 f) 7.9110−4 g) 9.75 10−7 h) 2.77 10−6 i) 4.5110−7 j) 5.03 10−5 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
48) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.00 m. They are separated by d = 13.2 m. If we walk a big circle around them, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
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a) 34 b) 26 c) 24 d) 30 e) 21 f) 32 g) 20 h) 28 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
49) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.00 m. They are separated by d = 13.2 m. If we walk a big circular walk around them, how many points of fully destructive interference do we find?
a) 34 b) 26 c) 24 d) 30 e) 21 f) 32 g) 20 h) 28 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
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Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
50) In the figure, a light ray of 600 nm wavelength (in air) is incident perpendicularly on a thin film of thickness L: n1 = 1.50, n2 = 1.70, n3 = 1.90. The indexes of refraction of the film and the material to each side are given. What is the fourth least thickness (nm) of the film that results in a dark film being seen by someone off to the left of the film?
a) 618 b) 1021 c) 1732 d) 1497 e) 536 f) 501 g) 118 h) 440 i) 412 j) 923 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
51) In the figure, the two waves are initially in phase and both have wavelength 400 nm. What third smallest value of distance L (nm) results in the waves ending up exactly out of phase?
a) 45 b) 200
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c) 400 d) 120 e) 80 f) 363 g) 725 h) 604 i) 500 j) 333 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
52) In the figure, a light ray of 400 nm wavelength (in air) is incident perpendicularly on a thin film of thickness L: n1 = 1.50, n2 = 1.70, n3 = 1.90. The indexes of refraction of the film and the material to each side are given. What is the fourth least thickness (nm) of the film that results in a dark film being seen by someone off to the left of the film?
a) 618 b) 1021 c) 1732 d) 1497 e) 536 f) 501 g) 118 h) 440 i) 412 j) 923 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
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53) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.00 m. They are separated by d = 5.40 m. If we walk a big circle around them, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
a) 34 b) 26 c) 24 d) 30 e) 21 f) 32 g) 20 h) 28 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
54) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 2.00 m. They are separated by d = 5.40 m. If we walk a big circle around them, how many points of fully destructive interference do we find?
a) 34 b) 26 c) 24 d) 30 e) 21 f) 32 g) 20 h) 28 i) 10 j) 12 Answer: j
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Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
55) In the figure, the two waves are initially in phase and both have wavelength 725 nm. What third smallest value of distance L (nm) results in the waves ending up exactly out of phase?
a) 45 b) 200 c) 400 d) 120 e) 80 f) 363 g) 725 h) 604 i) 500 j) 333 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
56) In the figure, a light ray of 600 nm wavelength (in air) is incident perpendicularly on a thin film of thickness L. The indexes of refraction are n1 = 1.3, n2 = 1.4, and n3 = 1.5. What is the third least thickness (nm) of the film that results in a dark film being seen by someone off to the left of the film?
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a) 643 b) 214 c) 357 d) 1267 e) 536 f) 501 g) 118 h) 429 i) 321 j) 923 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
57) In the figure, two isotropic point sources of light (S1 and S2) are separated by distance 2.70 μm along a y axis and emit in phase at wavelength 700 nm and at the same amplitude. A light detector is located at point P at coordinate xP on the x axis. What is the greatest value (microns) of xP at which the detected light is minimum due to destructive interference?
a) 3.45 b) 9.10 c) 2.83 d) 10.2 e) 5.00 f) 7.96 g) 8.03 h) 14.5 i) 6.67 j) 3.03 Answer: d Title: Question ID:
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Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
58) In the figure, sources S1 and S2 emit radio waves of wavelength 200 m, with the phase of the emission from S1 ahead of that from source S2 by 144º. The distance from S1 to a detector at point P is greater than the corresponding distance from S2 by 100 m. What is the phase difference (radians) of the waves at P?
a) 2.158 b) 0.428 c) 0.500 d) 0.6283 e) 2.031 f) 1.257 g) 0.333 h) 0.982 i) 1.442 j) 1.885 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
59) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources S1 and S2 that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 1.80 m. They are separated by d = 12.0 m. If we walk a big circle around them, how many points of fully constructive interference do we find?
a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18 e) 20
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f) 22 g) 24 h) 26 i) 28 j) 30 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
60) The figure shows two isotropic radio (light) sources S1 and S2 that emit in phase and at the same wavelength 1.80 m. They are separated by d = 12.0 m. If we walk a big circle around them, how many points of fully destructive interference do we find?
a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18 e) 20 f) 22 g) 24 h) 26 i) 28 j) 30 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
61) Two-slit interference: What is the path length difference between the two rays that form the fourth dark fringe as we count upward from the central bright fringe? Answer by indicating what goes in this statement: path length difference = ____ λ a) 0
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b) 1.5 c) 2.5 d) 3.0 e) 5.5 f) 0.5 g) 1.0 h) 2.0 i) 3.5 j) 5.0 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
62) Two-slit interference: If the slit separation is 20 μm and the wavelength is 750 nm, what is the angle (degrees, measured from the central axis) for the third maximum above the central maximum? a) 6.5 b) 8.2 c) 2.8 d) 2.1 e) 5.4 f) 5.9 g) 4.3 h) 3.2 i) 1.2 j) 3.6 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.2
63) In the figure, the two waves are initially in phase and both have wavelength 400 nm but wave A reflects from several mirrors. What third smallest value of distance L (nm) results in the waves ending up exactly out of phase?
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Chap 35
a) 40.0 b) 220 c) 450 d) 120 e) 80.0 f) 60.0 g) 702 h) 167 i) 320 j) 100 Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
64) In the figure, a light ray of 400 nm wavelength (in air) is incident perpendicularly on a thin film of thickness L. The indexes of refraction are n1 = 1.30, n2 = 1.40, and n3 = 1.50. What is the third least thickness (nm) of the film that results in a dark film being seen by someone off to the left of the film?
a) 643 b) 214 c) 357 d) 1267 e) 536 f) 501 g) 118 h) 429 i) 321 j) 923
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Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.4
65) In the figure, two isotropic point sources of light (S1 and S2) are separated by distance 2.70 μm along a y axis and emit in phase at wavelength 500 nm and at the same amplitude. A light detector is located at point P at coordinate xP on the x axis. What is the greatest value (microns) of xP at which the detected light is minimum due to destructive interference?
a) 3.45 b) 9.10 c) 2.83 d) 10.2 e) 5.00 f) 7.96 g) 8.03 h) 14.5 i) 6.67 j) 3.03 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
66) In the figure, sources S1 and S2 emit radio waves of wavelength 200.0 m, with the phase of the emission from S1 ahead of that from source S2 by 108.0º. The distance from S1 to a detector at point P is greater than the corresponding distance from S2 by 100.0 m. What is the phase difference (radians) of the waves at P?
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a) 2.158 b) 0.428 c) 0.500 d) 0.6283 e) 2.031 f) 1.257 g) 0.333 h) 0.982 i) 1.442 j) 1.885 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 35.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 35.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 36 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 36
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) Single slit diffraction experiment: Light with wavelength 633 nm is sent through a slit with width a. The angle between the center of the diffraction pattern and the first minimum to either side is 0.60°. What is the width (m) of the slit? a) 1.5 10−4 b) 2.2 10−6 c) 5.0 10−5 d) 8.9 10−4 e) 6.0 10−5 f) 2.9 10−5 g) 8.0 10−5 h) 1.6 10−5 i) 1.9 10−4 j) 8.4 10−4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 36.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.1
2) The two headlights of an approaching car are 1.40 m apart. At what maximum distance (km) will the eye resolve them? Assume that the pupil diameter is 5.0 mm and use a wavelength of 550 nm for the light. Also assume that diffraction effects alone limit the resolution so that Rayleigh’s criterion can be applied. a) 20.4 b) 3.4 c) 8.4 d) 10.4 e) 9.4
f) 4.4 g) 6.4 h) 1.4 i) 7.4 j) 12.4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 36.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.3
3) Single slit diffraction experiment: Light with wavelength 420 nm is sent through a slit with width a. The angle between the center of the diffraction pattern and the second minimum to either side is 0.60°. What is the width (m) of the slit? a) 1.5 10−4 b) 2.2 10−6 c) 5.0 10−5 d) 8.9 10−4 e) 6.0 10−5 f) 2.9 10−5 g) 8.0 10−5 h) 1.6 10−5 i) 1.9 10−4 j) 8.4 10−4 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 36.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.1
4) The radar system of a navy cruiser transmits at a wavelength of 2.5 cm, from a circular antenna with a diameter of 3.9 m. At a range of 6.2 km, what is the smallest distance (m) that
two speedboats can be from each other and still be resolved as two separate objects by the radar system? a) 23.6 b) 12.9 c) 56.7 d) 48.5 e) 33.7 f) 67.8 g) 55.4 h) 77.1 i) 81.2 j) 60.4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 36.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.3
5) If first-order reflection occurs in a crystal at Bragg angle 5.20°, at what Bragg angle (deg) does second-order reflection occur from the same family of reflecting planes? a) 10.4 b) 9.87 c) 9.10 d) 8.87 e) 8.13 f) 7.78 g) 6.89 h) 5.63 i) 11.2 j) 12.4 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 36.7.0
Section Reference 1: Section 36.7
6) How many rulings must a diffraction grating have to resolve the wavelengths 460.057 nm and 460.190 in third order? a) 2289 b) 1153 c) 1894 d) 1433 e) 1871 f) 2782 g) 2569 h) 3068 i) 3333 j) 4021 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 36.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.6
7) A diffraction grating 25.00 mm wide has 5000 rulings. Light of wavelength 420.0 nm is incident perpendicularly on the grating. What is the third largest angle (deg) at which maxima appear on a distant viewing screen? a) 13.12 b) 12.56 c) 15.77 d) 18.33 e) 17.45 f) 16.67 g) 14.60 h) 7.76 i) 9.13 j) 8.87 Answer: g
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 36.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.5
8) In a double-slit experiment, what ratio of d/a causes diffraction to eliminate the fifth bright side fringe? a) 4.50 b) 5.00 c) 4.25 d) 3.75 e) 2.00 f) 10.0 g) 8.00 h) 6.00 i) 4.00 j) 5.50 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 36.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.4
9) Single-slit diffraction: What must be the ratio of the slit width to the wavelength to have the third diffraction minimum at 30.0 ? a) 4.23 b) 5.04 c) 4.67 d) 3.67 e) 6.00 f) 1.28 g) 1.84 h) 2.22 i) 2.87 j) 3.67
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 36.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 36.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 37 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 37
Question type: Multiple-Choice 1) Someone in the usual moving S frame (see the figure) carries a horizontal rod of proper length L0 past us in the S system. As we consider greater and greater relative speeds for that system, which is true?
a) Our measure of the length increases toward an infinite value. b) Our measure of the length decreases toward a zero value. Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2 2) Someone in the usual moving S frame (see the figure) carries a clock past us in the S system. As we consider greater and greater relative speeds for that system, which is true?
a) Our measure of the S hour increases toward an infinite value. b) Our measure of S hour decreases toward a zero value. Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 37.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.1
3) The figure shows the space-time coordinates for events A, B, and C. Event A occurs first. Which is true?
a) A could cause B but not C. b) A could cause C but not B. c) A could cause both B and C. d) A could not cause B and C. Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.1 4) In the figure, a meter stick in frame S makes an angle of = 20.0º with the x axis. If that frame moves parallel to the x axis of frame S with speed 0.900c relative to frame S, what is the length (m) of the stick as measured from S?
a) 0.724 b) 0.534 c) 0.402 d) 0.112 e) 0.333 f) 0.667 g) 0.810 h) 0.609 i) 0.913
j) 0.799 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
5) We travel in a straight line outward from Earth for 20.0 y (our time) at speed parameter = 0.999 10. How far (m) do we travel as measured in the galaxy frame? a) 1.03 1019 b) 3.33 1017 c) 6.12 1017 d) 4.46 1018 e) 6.69 1018 f) 5.08 1019 g) 4.19 1017 h) 5.59 1019 i) 8.33 1019 j) 1.82 1017 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
6) In the figure, galaxy A moves toward us with speed 0.650c and galaxy B moves away from us with speed 0.800c. What multiple of c gives the speed of B relative to A?
a) 0.455
b) 0.702 c) 0.114 d) 0.878 e) 0.238 f) 0.833 g) 1.33 h) 0.506 i) 0.954 j) 0.402 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.4 7) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 50c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: Gee 6000 m 2.00 µs Whiz 450 m 7.00 µs How much time (s) do we measure between the two events?
a) 8.99 10−4 b) 9.10 10−3 c) 7.1110−3 d) 1.05 10−4 e) 5.67 10−4 f) 8.0110−6 g) 2.59 10−4 h) 4.27 10−4 i) 3.16 10−6 j) 7.02 10−4 Answer: h
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 8) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 50c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: Gee 6000 m 2.00 µs Whiz 450 m 7.00 µs According to us, which event occurs first?
a) Gee b) Whiz Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
9) A certain galaxy moves directly away from us with a speed parameter of 0.152. What is the ratio of the detected wavelength to the proper wavelength of any of its emissions? a) 1.92 b) 1.84 c) 2.31 d) 2.05 e) 1.17 f) 1.44 g) 1.97 h) 1.66 i) 1.32
j) 2.12 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
10) A certain elementary particle has a mass that is 207 times that of an electron. That type of particle has a proper lifetime of 2.20 10−6 s. What is the particle’s kinetic energy (MeV) if we measure its lifetime as 8.17 10−6 s? The electron’s rest energy is 0.511 MeV. a) 7.82 102 b) 1.99 102 c) 6.33 102 d) 1.24 103 e) 5.68 102 f) 1.98 102 g) 4.76 102 h) 5.02 102 i) 3.09 102 j) 2.87 102 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6 11) In the figure, a meter stick in frame S makes an angle of = 40.0º with the x axis. If that frame moves parallel to the x axis of frame S with speed 0.900c relative to frame S, what is the length (m) of the stick as measured from S?
a) 0.724 b) 0.534 c) 0.402 d) 0.112 e) 0.333 f) 0.667 g) 0.810 h) 0.609 i) 0.913 j) 0.799 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
12) We travel in a straight line outward from Earth for 30.0 y (our time) at speed parameter = 0.999 10. How far (m) do we travel as measured in the galaxy frame? a) 1.03 1019 b) 3.33 1017 c) 6.12 1017 d) 4.46 1018 e) 6.69 1018 f) 5.08 1019 g) 4.19 1017 h) 5.59 1019 i) 8.33 1019 j) 1.82 1017 Answer: e Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
13) In the figure, galaxy A moves toward us with speed 0.650c and galaxy B moves away from us with speed 0.400c. What multiple of c gives the speed of B relative to A?
a) 0.455 b) 0.702 c) 0.114 d) 0.878 e) 0.238 f) 0.833 g) 1.33 h) 0.506 i) 0.954 j) 0.402 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.4
14) A certain elementary particle has a mass that is 207 times that of an electron. That type of particle has a proper lifetime of 2.20 10−6 s. What is the particle’s kinetic energy (MeV) if we measure its lifetime as 12.110−6 s? The electron’s rest energy is 0.511 MeV. a) 7.82 102 b) 1.99 102 c) 6.33 102 d) 1.24 103 e) 5.68 102
f) 1.98 102 g) 4.76 102 h) 5.02 102 i) 3.09 102 j) 2.87 102 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6 15) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 50c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements made by someone in that system: Gee 6000 m 2.00 µs Whiz 5500 m 7.00 µs How much time (s) do we measure between the two events?
a) 8.99 10−4 b) 9.10 10−3 c) 7.1110−3 d) 1.05 10−4 e) 5.67 10−4 f) 8.0110−6 g) 2.59 10−4 h) 4.27 10−4 i) 3.16 10−6 j) 7.02 10−4 Answer: d Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 16) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 50c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements made by someone in that system: Gee 6000 m 2.00 µs Whiz 5500 m 7.00 µs According to us, which event occurs first?
a) Gee b) Whiz Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
17) A certain galaxy moves directly away from us with a speed parameter of 0.350. What is the ratio of the detected wavelength to the proper wavelength of any of its emissions? a) 1.92 b) 1.84 c) 2.31 d) 2.05 e) 1.17 f) 1.44 g) 1.97 h) 1.66 i) 1.32 j) 2.12 Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
18) The rest energy of a proton is 938 MeV and that of an electron is 0.511 MeV. Consider the amount of work needed to take each from rest to a speed of 0.500c. Which is true? a) The work for the proton is greater. b) The work for the electron is greater. c) The work is the same. Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
19) At maximum energy, protons in the Large Hadron Collider have a Lorentz factor of 7.50 103 . A proton at rest has a charge distribution that is spherical with a radius of 0.900 fm = 0.900 10−15 m. What is the horizontal width (m) of the protons at full energy in the LHC, as measured from the LHC frame? a) 3.3 10−10 b) 6.8 10−12 c) 8.9 10−17 d) 6.4 10−18 e) 1.6 10−18 f) 5.2 10−11 g) 9.3 10−16 h) 2.4 10−19 i) 8.8 10−21 j) 2.4 10−20 Answer: h
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
20) At maximum energy, protons in the Large Hadron Collider have a Lorentz factor of 7.50 103 . In our measure, each proton requires 90.0 µs to complete the path around the LHC. In the proton’s frame, how much time (s) is required? (Hint: consider the path to be stretched out along a hallway.) a) 1.2 10−8 b) 0.68 c) 9.5 10−7 d) 1.4 10−7 e) 8.110−6 f) 5.3 10−9 g) 8.8 10−12 h) 4.6 10−9 i) 9.0 10−3 j) 1.0 10−9 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
21) At maximum energy, protons in the Large Hadron Collider have a Lorentz factor of 7.50 103 . In our measure, the radius of the circular path is 27.0 km. In the proton’s frame, what is the circumference (m) of the path? a) 14.5 b) 701 c) 13.5 d) 859 e) 1.27 103 f) 22.6
g) 4.51 h) 612 i) 912 j) 88.3 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
22) At maximum energy, protons in the Large Hadron Collider have a Lorentz factor of 7.50 103 . In our measure, what is the momentum (MeV/c) of each proton? The proton rest energy is 938 MeV. a) 1.23 104 b) 5.01106 c) 7.04 106 d) 8.90 107 e) 1.25 105 f) 5.05 108 g) 2.02 107 h) 4.40 105 i) 9.11109 j) 4.52 103 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
23) At maximum energy, protons in the Large Hadron Collider have a Lorentz factor of 7.50 103 . In our measure, how much work (MeV) is needed to increase the Lorentz factor from 3.50 103 to 7.50 103 ? The proton rest energy is 938 MeV.
a) 1.11105 b) 6.77 107 c) 5.32 106 d) 9.02 108 e) 3.75 106 f) 8.99 107 g) 9.55 103 h) 7.08 107 i) 3.33 107 j) 5.00 108 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6 24) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 90c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: event rock 2700 m 2.00 µs event roll 1300 m 3.00 µs How much time (s) do we measure between the two events?
a) 8.99 10−4 b) 9.10 10−3 c) 7.1110−3 d) 1.22 10−5 e) 5.67 10−4 f) 8.0110−6 g) 2.59 10−4 h) 4.1110−2
i) 8.1110−6 j) 7.02 10−4 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 25) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 90c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: event rock 2700 m 2.00 µs event roll 1300 m 3.00 µs To us, which event occurs first?
a) event rock b) event roll Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
26) How fast would you have to go through a red light (wavelength 630 nm) to have it appear it appear green (540 nm)? a) 0.340c b) 0.600c c) 0.153c d) 0.405c e) 0.251c
f) 0.109c g) 0.052c h) 0.333c i) 0.667c j) 0.500c Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
27) In the time dilation equation, t0 t = , 1 − (v / c ) 2 which is true about the denominator for any nonzero value of speed v of the moving system? a) always greater than unity b) always less than unity Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.1 28) If two events are simultaneous in S and have separation x = 1 m, can they be simultaneous in S?
a) yes b) no
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
29) How does the kinetic energy Ke of a 1 GeV electron compare with the kinetic energy Kp of a 1 GeV proton? a) Ke = Kp b) Ke Kp c) Ke Kp Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
30) How does the total energy Ee of a 1 GeV electron compare with the total energy Ep of a 1 GeV proton? a) Ee = Ep b) Ee Ep c) Ee Ep Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
31) A ship with a proper length of 300.0 m moves past us at speed 0.9500c. What is our measure of its length (m)? a) 203 b) 98.6 c) 15.4 d) 93.7 e) 307 f) 147 g) 114 h) 203 i) 56.4 j) 79.6 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2 32) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.9970c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: event: space coordinate: temporal coordinate: zippy 4000 m 3.00 μs do 2000 m 8.00 μs What is the spatial separation (m) of the events as measured from the S system?
a) 9.81105 b) 3.36 103 c) 1.04 104 d) 2.56 103 e) 9.83 103 f) 2.44 104 g) 7.09 103
h) 6.52 103 i) 1.78 103 j) 3.36 104 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 33) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.9970c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: event: space coordinate: temporal coordinate: zippy 4000 m 3.00 μs do 2000 m 8.00 μs What is the temporal separation (s) of the events as measured in the S system?
a) 6.50 10−4 b) 8.0110−5 c) 7.07 10−5 d) 2.99 10−5 e) 2.13 10−5 f) 3.16 10−5 g) 7.29 10−6 h) 7.2110−4 i) 1.12 10−4 j) 8.30 10−6 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 34) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.9970c. Here are the space-time coordinates of two events according to measurements by someone in that system: event: space coordinate: temporal coordinate: zippy 4000 m 3.00 μs do 2000 m 8.00 μs To us, which occurred first?
a) event zippy b) event do Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
35) The figure shows two particles moving in the negative direction of an x axis past an observer. Relative to the observer, particle A moves at speed 0.950c and particle B moves at speed 0.900c. What speed will A measure for B?
a) 0.289c b) 0.345c c) 0.981c d) 0.993c e) 0.576c f) 0.418c g) 0.477c
h) 0.603c i) 0.715c j) 0.525c Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.4
36) The figure shows the total energy E of a particle versus its speed parameter β. When β = 0.9900, what is the particle’s total energy (MeV)?
a) 9.6 b) 10.1 c) 10.4 d) 11.3 e) 11.6 f) 12.0 g) 12.9 h) 16.5 i) 13.4 j) 14.2 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
37) The figure shows the total energy E of a particle versus its speed parameter β. When β = 0.9900, what is the particle’s kinetic energy (MeV)?
a) 10.0 b) 10.2 c) 10.9 d) 11.4 e) 12.2 f) 7.6 g) 8.1 h) 8.4 i) 9.3 j) 9.6 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
38) The figure shows the total energy E of a particle versus its speed parameter β. When β = 0.9900, what is the particle’s momentum (MeV/c)?
a) 12.7 b) 14.0 c) 66.4 d) 44.6 e) 50.8 f) 73.2 g) 8.51 h) 54.3 i) 101 j) 39.3
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
39) A light source moves along a radial line that extends outward from us. The detected wavelength is 3.00 times the proper wavelength. What is the speed parameter β for the source? a) 0.925 b) 0.940 c) 0.800 d) 0.999 e) 0.917 f) 0.967 g) 0.971 h) 0.980 i) 0.991 j) 0.882 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
40) In the figure, a particle is created at the point on the left and travels parallel to the lab floor for 2.70 m before it transforms into another type of particle. The lifetime of the particle as measured in its own rest frame is 5.00 ns. What is the particle’s speed (m/s)?
a) 1.02 107 b) 1.97 107 c) 2.03 108
d) 1.99 108 e) 2.62 108 f) 1.53 107 g) 1.69 107 h) 9.43 107 i) 8.40 107 j) 8.05 107 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 41) Frame S passes us in the usual way (as shown in the figure) and at relative velocity 0.9780c. Two events occur. Here are the spacetime measurements from the S : event: space coordinate: temporal coordinate: zippy 4000 m 3.00 μs do 2000 m 8.00 μs What is the spatial separation (m) of the events as measured from the S system?
a) 9.81105 b) 3.36 103 c) 1.04 104 d) 2.56 103 e) 9.83 103 f) 2.44 104 g) 7.09 103 h) 6.52 103 i) 1.78 103 j) 3.36 104 Answer: d
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 42) Frame S passes us in the usual way (as shown in the figure) and at relative velocity 0.9780c. Two events occur. Here are the spacetime measurements from the S : event: space coordinate: temporal coordinate: zippy 4000 m 3.00 μs do 2000 m 8.00 μs What is the temporal separation (s) as measured from the S system?
a) 6.50 10−4 b) 8.0110−5 c) 7.07 10−5 d) 2.99 10−5 e) 2.13 10−5 f) 3.16 10−5 g) 7.29 10−6 h) 7.2110−4 i) 1.12 10−4 j) 8.30 10−6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
43) A ship with a proper length of 400.0 m moves past us at speed 0.9800c. What is our measure of its length (m)? a) 203
b) 98.6 c) 15.4 d) 93.7 e) 307 f) 147 g) 114 h) 203 i) 56.4 j) 79.6 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.2
44) The figure shows the total energy E of a particle versus its speed parameter β. When β = 0.9880, what is the particle’s total energy (MeV)?
a) 9.6 b) 10.1 c) 10.4 d) 11.3 e) 11.6 f) 12.0 g) 12.9 h) 16.5 i) 13.4 j) 14.2 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0
Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
45) The figure shows the total energy E of a particle versus its speed parameter β. When β = 0.9880, what is the particle’s kinetic energy (MeV)?
a) 10.0 b) 10.2 c) 10.9 d) 11.4 e) 12.2 f) 7.6 g) 8.1 h) 8.4 i) 9.3 j) 9.6 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
46) The figure shows the total energy E of a particle versus its speed parameter β. When β = 0.9880, what is the particle’s momentum (MeV/c)?
a) 12.7 b) 14.0 c) 66.4 d) 44.6 e) 50.8
f) 73.2 g) 8.51 h) 54.3 i) 101 j) 39.3 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
47) A light source moves along a radial line that extends outward from us. The detected wavelength is 4.00 times the proper wavelength. What is the speed parameter β for the source? a) 0.925 b) 0.940 c) 0.800 d) 0.999 e) 0.917 f) 0.967 g) 0.971 h) 0.980 i) 0.991 j) 0.882 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
48) Which is true about speed v of a reference frame passing us? a) As v goes from 0 to infinity, Lorentz factor γ goes from 0 to infinity. b) As v goes from 0 to infinity, Lorentz factor γ goes from 0 to 1. c) As v goes from 0 to infinity, Lorentz factor γ goes from 1 to infinity.
d) As v goes from 0 to c, Lorentz factor γ goes from 0 to infinity. e) As v goes from 0 to c, Lorentz factor γ goes from 1 to infinity. f) As v goes from 0 to c, Lorentz factor γ goes from 0 to 1. Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.1
49) Here are the spatial and temporal separations of two events for three experiments. In which (if any) could one event be the cause of the other event? experiment 1 ∆x = 200 m ∆t = 0.200 µs experiment 2 ∆x = 400 m ∆t = 0.600 µs experiment 3 ∆x = 300 m ∆t = 9.00 µs a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 f) 2 and 3 g) none h) all three Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
50) We increase the speed of an electron (stage 1) from 0.50c to 0.60c, then (stage 2) from 0.60c to 0.70c, and then (stage 3) from 0.70c to 0.80c. Rank the three stages according to the work we do, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2
) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
51) A particle travels in a straight line through a lab for 7.500 m before it transforms into another type of particle, taking 3.000 10−8 s. Both are lab measures. What is the lifetime (s) of the particle as measured in its reference frame? a) 8.16 10−6 b) 2.50 10−8 c) 1.66 10−8 d) 9.14 10−9 e) 6.23 10−8 f) 7.08 10−8 g) 1.26 10−8 h) 9.85 10−8 i) 5.44 10−8 j) 2.17 10−9 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
52) If the momentum of an electron is 2.00 MeV/c, what is the electron’s kinetic energy (MeV)? Electron’s rest energy = 0.511 MeV. a) 1.32 b) 0.67 c) 2.51 d) 2.34 e) 2.00 f) 1.90 g) 3.52 h) 1.09 i) 1.86 j) 1.55 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6
53) An S ′ system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with relative speed of 0.999 00c. Someone in that system measures the space-time coordinates of two events: event “CLE” 1900 m 2.00 µs event “Cavs” 400 m 3.00 µs What is the temporal (time) separation between the two events according to us?
a) 5.67 10−2 b) 7.1110−6 c) 3.54 10−4 d) 8.94 10−5 e) 2.00 10−3 f) 8.04 10−4 g) 1.83 10−4 h) 1.55 10−6 i) 2.67 10−4
j) 4.56 10−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 54) An S system passes us in the usual way (see the figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 00c. Someone in that system measures the space-time coordinates of two events: event “CLE” 1900 m 2.00 µs event “Cavs” 400 m 3.00 µs Which event occurs first according to us?
a) “CLE” b) “Cavs” Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
55) The figure shows two spaceships moving directly away from us. Ship A (in front) emits a light signal at wavelength 500 nm (as measured by the ship occupants). Ship B (in pursuit) detects that signal at wavelength 600 nm. Ship B is moving at speed 0.200c relative to us. What is the wavelength (nm) of the signal as we detect it?
a) 879
b) 475 c) 834 d) 1100 e) 610 f) 321 g) 437 h) 682 i) 537 j) 735 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
56) A particle travels in a straight line through a lab for 7.500 m before it transforms into another type of particle, taking 2.800 10−8 s. Both are lab measures. What is the lifetime (s) of the particle as measured in its reference frame? a) 8.16 10−6 b) 2.50 10−8 c) 1.66 10−8 d) 9.14 10−9 e) 6.23 10−8 f) 7.08 10−8 g) 1.26 10−8 h) 9.85 10−8 i) 5.44 10−8 j) 2.17 10−9 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
57) If the momentum of an electron is 4.00 MeV/c, what is the electron’s kinetic energy (MeV)? Electron’s rest energy = 0.511 MeV. a) 1.32 b) 0.67 c) 2.51 d) 2.34 e) 2.00 f) 1.90 g) 3.52 h) 1.09 i) 1.86 j) 1.55 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.6 58) An S system passes us in the usual way (see figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 90c. Someone in that system measures the space-time coordinates of two events: event “CLE” 1900 m 20.0 µs event “Cavs” 400 m 30.0 µs What is the temporal (time) separation between the two events according to us?
a) 5.67 10−2 b) 7.1110−6 c) 3.54 10−4 d) 8.94 10−5 e) 2.00 10−3 f) 8.04 10−4 g) 1.83 10−4 h) 1.55 10−6
i) 2.67 10−4 j) 4.56 10−5 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3 59) An S system passes us in the usual way (see figure) with a relative speed of 0.999 90c. Someone in that system measures the space-time coordinates of two events: event “CLE” 1900 m 20.0 µs event “Cavs” 400 m 30.0 µs Which event occurs first according to us?
a) “CLE” b) “Cavs” Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 37.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.3
60) The figure shows two spaceships moving directly away from us. Ship A (in front) emits a light signal at wavelength 300 nm (as measured by the ship occupants). Ship B (in pursuit) detects that signal at wavelength 600 nm. Ship B is moving at speed 0.200c relative to us. What is the wavelength (nm) of the signal as we detect it?
a) 879 b) 475 c) 834 d) 1100 e) 610 f) 321 g) 437 h) 682 i) 537 j) 735 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 37.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 37.5
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 38 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 38
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The transmission coefficient in a certain barrier-tunneling experiment is 2.40 10−3 . Which of the following is an equivalent statement? a) 24 out of 100,000 get through b) 24 out of 10,000 get through c) 24 out of 1,000 get through d) 24 out of 100 get through Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
2) If we increase the speed of an electron, what happens to its de Broglie wavelength? a) increases b) decreases c) stays the same Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
3) An electron with a total energy of 500 eV passes through three regions. Here are the potential energies in the regions. region 1: U = 200 eV region 2: U = 300 eV region 3: U = 400 eV Rank the regions according to the angular wave number of the electron, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3,2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.8
4) A stream of electrons, each with a kinetic energy of 450 eV, is sent through a potential-free region toward a potential barrier of “height” 500 eV and thickness 0.300 nm. The stream consists of 11015 electrons. How many should tunnel through the barrier? Pick the closest answer. The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 4 107 b) 3 103 c) 8 109 d) 7 104 e) 6 104 f) 9 105 g) 1106 h) 7 106 i) 8 107 j) 4 105 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
5) Electrons with a speed of 0.99900c are sent into a two-slit interference arrangement, with a slit separation of 2.00 10−6 m. What is the angle (degrees) of the fifth interference maximum (the 5th one above or below the central maximum)? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 2.40 10−6 b) 3.92 10−6 c) 5.35 10−5 d) 7.78 10−6 e) 1.98 10−6 f) 1.56 10−5 g) 9.74 10−5 h) 7.04 10−5 i) 4.7110−6 j) 2.10 10−5 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
6) If an electron has a de Broglie wavelength of 2.40 pm (that is, 2.40 10−12 ), what is its kinetic energy (J)? This is a relativistic situation. Electron rest energy = 0.511 MeV. a) 2.46 10−13 b) 9.60 10−11 c) 6.77 10−13 d) 1.90 10−11 e) 7.33 10−15 f) 5.77 10−12 g) 1.03 10−13 h) 4.94 10−13 i) 5.2110−12 j) 3.46 10−14 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0
Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
7) A 250 W lamp radiates at a wavelength of 400 nm uniformly in all directions. At what rate (photons/s) are photons emitted by the lamp? a) 9.02 1021 b) 8.08 1021 c) 5.14 1021 d) 5.03 1020 e) 6.67 1022 f) 1.53 1021 g) 7.55 1020 h) 7.07 1022 i) 8.111022 j) 9.40 1022 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
8) If the work function for a certain metal is 1.80 eV, what is the stopping potential (V) for electrons ejected from the metal when light of wavelength 300 nm shines on the metal? a) 2.33 b) 1.74 c) 3.31 d) 3.82 e) 0.844 f) 4.11 g) 1.01 h) 0.743 i) 4.67 j) 0.581 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0
Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
9) Electrons with a speed of 0.99900c are sent into a two-slit interference arrangement, with a slit separation of 4.00 10−6 m. What is the angle (degrees) of the fifth interference maximum (the 5th one above or below the central maximum)? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 2.40 10−6 b) 3.92 10−6 c) 5.35 10−5 d) 7.78 10−6 e) 1.98 10−6 f) 1.56 10−5 g) 9.74 10−5 h) 7.04 10−5 i) 4.7110−6 j) 2.10 10−5 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
10) A 250 W lamp radiates at a wavelength of 600 nm uniformly in all directions. At what rate (photons/s) are photons emitted by the lamp? a) 9.02 1021 b) 8.08 1021 c) 5.14 1021 d) 5.03 1020 e) 6.67 1022 f) 1.53 1021 g) 7.55 1020 h) 7.07 1022 i) 8.111022 j) 9.40 1022 Answer: g Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
11) If the work function for a certain metal is 1.80 eV, what is the stopping potential (V) for electrons ejected from the metal when light of wavelength 350 nm shines on the metal? a) 2.33 b) 1.74 c) 3.31 d) 3.82 e) 0.844 f) 4.11 g) 1.01 h) 0.743 i) 4.67 j) 0.581 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
12) Compton scattering of an X-ray photon from a free electron: What is the wavelength (m) of the scattered photon if the incident photon wavelength is 6.00 10−12 m and the photon is scattered at angle 60.0º? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 1.33 10−12 b) 1.97 10−11 c) 5.09 10−11 d) 4.57 10−11 e) 6.14 10−11 f) 7.2110−12 g) 4.2110−12 h) 5.2110−12 i) 2.99 10−11 j) 9.90 10−10 Answer: f
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
13) We have an isotropic point source of light that emits with a certain power P. It can emit either a wavelength in the red range or a wavelength in the blue range. Which is true? a) More photons per second are emitted with the blue choice. b) More photons per second are emitted with the red choice. c) The same number of photons per second are emitted with the two-color choices. Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
14) Which is true? a) A red photon has more momentum than a blue photon. b) A blue photon has more momentum than a red photon. c) A red photon and a blue photon have the same momentum. Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 * Section Reference 1: Section 38.1 15) Photoelectric effect: If we initially use light at the cutoff wavelength 0 and then switch to a longer wavelength, which is true? a) We still have ejection of electrons. b) We no longer have ejection of electrons. Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
16) We set up a two-slit interference experiment for electrons. The experiment is first done with electrons at a certain kinetic energy. Then it is done again with twice the kinetic energy. What happens to the interference pattern as a result? a) It does not change. b) It expands away from the center. c) It shrinks toward the center. Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
17) A certain photon has the same momentum as an electron moving at speed 5.00 106 m/s. (This is slow enough that you do not need to use relativity.) What is the wavelength (nanometers) of the light associated with that photon? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 0.145 b) 1.40 c) 3.14 d) 12.1 e) 14.9 f) 0.590 g) 0.333 h) 5.82 i) 9.90 j) 20.7 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
18) An isotropic, point source emits light at wavelength 500 nm and at power 700 W. What is the rate (photons per second) at which photons are being emitted? a) 1.03 1020 b) 8.02 1020 c) 3.29 1022 d) 8.18 1021 e) 7.77 1022 f) 5.00 1020 g) 7.13 1020 h) 6.09 1022 i) 1.76 1021 j) 5.33 1022 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
19) Light of wavelength 250 nm shines on a metal with a work function of 3.00 eV. What is the stopping voltage (V)? a) 0.590 b) 1.33 c) 5.82 d) 0.990 e) 2.07 f) 0.145 g) 1.96 h) 3.14 i) 1.21 j) 1.49 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
20) The figure gives the wavelength shift ∆ versus photon scattering angle for Compton scattering of X rays off a stationary, free particle (which is not an electron). What is the mass (kg) of the particle?
180 = 2.346 10−14 m
a) 4.42 10−27 b) 7.89 10−30 c) 1.22 10−30 d) 5.49 10−30 e) 9.24 10−30 f) 6.99 10−27 g) 2.45 10−30 h) 7.1110−29 i) 9.42 10−29 j) 1.88 10−28 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
21) The figure shows a potential barrier of height 11.0 eV. A beam of electrons hits the barrier from the left with a current of 800 A. The transmission probability through the barrier is 5.00 10−5 . What is the current (A) on the right side of the barrier?
a) 300 b) 8.00 c) 190 d) 4.00 10−2 e) 8.00 10−5 f) 5.00 10−6
g) 0.80 h) 24.5 i) 5.60 10−3 j) 2.00 10−4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
22) The figure shows a potential barrier of height 11.0 eV. A beam of 15.0 eV electrons hits the barrier from the left. What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of the electrons within the barrier? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg.
a) 4.20 10−10 b) 6.02 10−9 c) 1.92 10−9 d) 2.90 10−10 e) 3.33 10−10 f) 6.13 10−10 g) 3.15 10−9 h) 2.05 10−9 i) 4.82 10−9 j) 1.90 10−10 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
23) A beam of electrons is directed toward a potential barrier of height 9.00 eV and length (or width) 0.0300 nm. The electrons each have a de Broglie wavelength of 0.520 nm. Out of 1000 electrons reaching the barrier, how many do we expect to tunnel through it? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 346 b) 195 c) 156 d) 566 e) 121 f) 29 g) 237 h) 18 i) 92 j) 7 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
24) The figure is a plot of stopping voltage Vstop versus light frequency f in a photoelectric experiment with a certain metal with a work function . Which of the following gives the slope?
a) h b) h/c c) c/h d) he e) h/e f) e/h g) Φ/e h) Φ/h i) h/ Φ j) Φe Answer: e Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
25) The figure is a plot of stopping voltage Vstop versus light frequency f in a photoelectric experiment with a certain metal. What happens to the plotted line if we switch to a metal with a smaller work function?
a) plot shifts leftward, with no change in slope b) plot shifts rightward, with no change in slope c) plot’s slope decreases, but horizontal intercept remains the same d) plot’s slope increases, but horizontal intercept remains the same e) plot shifts leftward and slope increases f) plot shifts leftward and slope decreases g) plot shifts rightward and slope increases h) plot shifts rightward and slope decreases i) there is no change in the plot Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2 26) What is the maximum possible wavelength shift ∆ (m) for the Compton scattering of X rays off a stationary, free proton? The proton mass is 1.67 10−27 kg. a) 2.65 10−15 b) 7.1110−15 c) 1.84 10−14 d) 4.33 10−15 e) 8.12 10−16 f) 5.82 10−14 g) 6.67 10−14 h) 9.02 10−16
i) 1.18 10−14 j) 4.03 10−16 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
27) Photoelectric effect: When light of wavelength 200 nm shines on a certain metal, the stopping voltage is 3.41 V. What is the work function (eV) of the metal? a) 3.41 b) 7.91 c) 1.18 d) 4.07 e) 5.09 f) 0.752 g) 2.79 h) 3.70 i) 1.89 j) 2.05 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
28) A stream of 400 eV electrons in a potential-free region are sent toward a region with a potential step of “height” 325 eV. What percent pass into that region? a) 15.7% b) 11.1% c) 22.8% d) 14.7% e) 92.7% f) 88.9% g) 84.4% h) 67.8% i) 73.6%
j) 77.2% Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.8
29) Protons with a speed of 0.99900c are sent into a two-slit interference arrangement, with a slit separation of 3.50 10−7 m. What is the angle (degrees) of the 30th interference maximum (the 30th one above or below the central maximum)? Proton mass = 1.673 10−27 kg. a) 2.90 10−7 b) 3.9110−6 c) 5.33 10−5 d) 8.60 10−6 e) 1.85 10−7 f) 1.64 10−5 g) 9.74 10−5 h) 7.02 10−5 i) 4.7110−6 j) 2.1110−7 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
30) The figure shows a potential barrier of height 11.0 eV. A beam of electrons hits the barrier from the −5
left with a current of 600 A. The transmission probability through the barrier is 5.00 10 . What is the current (A) on the right side of the barrier?
a) 300 b) 8.00 c) 190
d) 3.00 10−2 e) 8.00 10−5 f) 3.50 10−2 g) 0.80 h) 24.5 i) 5.60 10−3 j) 2.00 10−4 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9 31) The figure shows a potential barrier of height 11.0 eV. A beam of 17.0 eV electrons hits the barrier from the left. What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of the electrons within the barrier? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg.
a) 4.20 10−10 b) 5.0110−10 c) 1.92 10−9 d) 2.74 10−10 e) 3.33 10−10 f) 6.13 10−10 g) 3.15 10−9 h) 2.05 10−9 i) 4.82 10−9 j) 1.90 10−10 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
32) What is the maximum possible wavelength shift ∆ (m) for the Compton scattering of X rays off a stationary, free pion (an elementary particle)? The pion mass is 2.40 10−28 kg. a) 2.65 10−15 b) 7.1110−15 c) 1.84 10−14 d) 4.33 10−15 e) 8.12 10−16 f) 5.82 10−14 g) 6.67 10−14 h) 9.02 10−16 i) 1.18 10−14 j) 4.03 10−16 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
33) Photoelectric effect: When light of wavelength 200 nm shines on a certain metal, the stopping voltage is 2.50 V. What is the work function (eV) of the metal? a) 3.41 b) 7.91 c) 1.18 d) 4.07 e) 5.09 f) 0.752 g) 2.79 h) 3.70 i) 1.89 j) 2.05 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
34) A stream of 400 eV electrons in a potential-free region are sent toward a region with a potential step of “height” 350 eV. What percent pass into that region? a) 15.7% b) 11.1% c) 22.8% d) 14.7% e) 92.7% f) 88.9% g) 84.4% h) 67.8% i) 73.6% j) 77.2%
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.8.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.8
35) Protons with a speed of 0.99900c are sent into a two-slit interference arrangement, with a slit separation of 5.50 10−7 m. What is the angle (degrees) of the 30th interference maximum (the 30th one above or below the central maximum)? Proton mass = 1.673 10−27 kg. a) 2.90 10−7 b) 3.9110−6 c) 5.33 10−5 d) 8.60 10−6 e) 1.85 10−7 f) 1.64 10−5 g) 9.74 10−5 h) 7.02 10−5 i) 4.7110−6 j) 2.1110−7 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.5
36) The figure shows a potential barrier of height 11.0 eV. A beam of electrons hits the barrier from the left with a current of 700 A. The transmission probability through the barrier is 5.00 10−5 . What is the current (A) on the right side of the barrier?
a) 300 b) 8.00 c) 190 d) 3.00 10−2 e) 8.00 10−5 f) 3.50 10−2 g) 0.80 h) 24.5 i) 5.60 10−3 j) 2.00 10−4 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9 37) The figure shows a potential barrier of height 11.0 eV. A beam of 31.0 eV electrons hits the barrier from the left. What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of the electrons within the barrier? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg.
a) 4.20 10−10 b) 5.0110−10 c) 1.92 10−9 d) 2.74 10−10 e) 3.33 10−10 f) 6.13 10−10 g) 3.15 10−9 h) 2.05 10−9
i) 4.82 10−9 j) 1.90 10−10 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.9.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.9
38) On a graph of maximum kinetic energy K versus light frequency f for the photoelectric effect, which is equal to the slope? h = Planck’s constant e = magnitude of the elementary charge a) eh b) e/ h c) h/ e d) 1/eh e) h Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
39) Photoelectric effect: Suppose that we make a graph of maximum kinetic energy K versus light frequency f for a particular metal and then switch to a second metal with a greater work function. Which is true about the graph? a) It does not change. b) The slope is unchanged but the intercept on the f axis shifts rightward. c) The slope is unchanged but the intercept on the f axis shifts leftward. d) The intercept on the f axis is unchanged but the slope is greater. e) The intercept on the f axis is unchanged but the slope is less. Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2
40) A star at a distance of 6.00 ly from us goes supernova. (At that distance, the star is an isotropic point source of light.) A telescope with a lens radius of 1.20 m detects photons from the supernova at the rate of 4.50 1020 photons/s. The efficiency of the telescope and its detection equipment is 80.0%. Let’s make the (wild) approximation that the light is entirely at the visible wavelength of 500 nm. Determine the emission power of the supernova as a multiple of the Sun’s emission power ( 3.90 1026 W): supernova power = ______Sun’s power a) 7.4 105 b) 6.2 103 c) 5.5 106 d) 3.4 102 e) 2.11010 f) 3.2 107 g) 5.1109 h) 1.2 108 i) 8.1104 j) 9.6 106 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
41) The first figure gives the wavelength shift ∆ versus photon scattering angle for Compton scattering of X rays off a stationary, free particle (which is not an electron). (The generic arrangement is shown in the second figure.) What is the mass (kg) of the particle? Δλ180 = 2.00 × 10-14 m.
a) 4.42 10−27 b) 7.89 10−30 c) 1.22 10−30 d) 5.49 10−30 e) 9.24 10−30 f) 6.99 10−27
g) 2.45 10−30 h) 7.1110−29 i) 9.42 10−29 j) 2.2110−28 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3 42) The figure is a generic arrangement in which X-ray photons with a certain associated wavelength undergo Compton scattering off a free stationary electron. The data collected spans the entire possible range of scattering angles . The greatest kinetic energy K of the electrons turns out to be 4.00 keV. What is (picometers)? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg.
a) 30.2 b) 29.4 c) 17.0 d) 18.9 e) 14.3 f) 23.1 g) 25.1 h) 36.4 i) 15.2 j) 22.8 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
43) A certain photon has the same momentum as an electron moving at speed 3.00 106 m/s. (This is slow that you do not need to use relativity.) What is the wavelength (nanometers) of the light associated with that photon? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 0.590 b) 0.333 c) 5.82 d) 9.90 e) 0.243 f) 0.145 g) 1.40 h) 3.14 i) 12.1 j) 14.9 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
44) A star at a distance of 12.0 ly from us goes supernova. (At that distance, the star is an isotropic point source of light.) A telescope with a lens radius of 1.20 m detects photons from the supernova at the rate of 4.50 1020 photons/s. The efficiency of the telescope and its detection equipment is 80.0%. Let’s make the (wild) approximation that the light is entirely at the visible wavelength of 500 nm. Determine the emission power of the supernova as a multiple of the Sun’s emission power ( 3.90 1026 W): supernova power = ______Sun’s power a) 7.4 105 b) 6.2 103 c) 5.5 106 d) 3.4 102 e) 2.11010 f) 3.2 107 g) 5.1109 h) 1.2 108 i) 8.1104 j) 9.6 106 Answer: e Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
45) Light of wavelength 100 nm shines on a metal with a work function of 3.00 eV. What is the stopping voltage (V)? a) 0.590 b) 1.33 c) 5.82 d) 9.40 e) 2.07 f) 0.145 g) 1.96 h) 3.14 i) 6.02 j) 7.15 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.2 46) The first figure gives the wavelength shift ∆ versus photon scattering angle for Compton scattering of X rays off a stationary, free particle (which is not an electron). (The generic arrangement is shown in the second figure.) What is the mass (kg) of the particle? Δλ180 = 6.00 × 10-14 m.
a) 4.42 10−27 b) 7.89 10−30 c) 1.22 10−30 d) 5.49 10−30 e) 9.24 10−30 f) 7.37 10−29 g) 2.45 10−30
h) 7.1110−29 i) 9.42 10−29 j) 1.88 10−28 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3 47) The figure is a generic arrangement in which X-ray photons with a certain associated wavelength undergo Compton scattering off a free stationary electron. The data collected spans the entire possible range of scattering angles . The greatest kinetic energy K of the electrons turns out to be 8.00 keV. What is (picometers)?
a) 30.2 b) 29.4 c) 17.0 d) 18.9 e) 14.3 f) 23.1 g) 25.1 h) 36.4 i) 15.2 j) 22.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
48) In Compton scattering of photons off electrons, how does the magnitude of the electron’s momentum change as we consider smaller scattering angles for the photons?
a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
49) A certain photon has the same momentum as a proton moving at speed 3.00 105 m/s. (This is slow enough that you do not need relativity for the proton.) The proton mass is 1.67 10−27 kg. What is the energy (MeV) of the light associated with that photon? a) 0.590 b) 0.364 c) 5.82 d) 0.937 e) 15.6 f) 0.145 g) 1.40 h) 3.14 i) 12.1 j) 14.9 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
50) A star that is 6.00 ly from us goes supernova. (It is an isotropic point source of light.) The emission power is 2.00 1036 W (about 6 billion times the emission power of our Sun). What is the intensity (W/m2) of the emission reaching us? a) 7.33 103 b) 49.4 c) 917 d) 333 e) 5.21103
f) 692 g) 1.21 h) 8.71103 i) 604 j) 1.79 103 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
51) A star that is 6.00 ly from us goes supernova. (It is an isotropic point source of light.) The emission power is 2.00 1036 W (about 6 billion times the emission power of our Sun). The light will be detected by a telescope with a lens radius of 1.20 m and with a detector with an efficiency of 80.0%. Use 500 nm as the wavelength. At what rate (photons per second) are photons detected? a) 2.511021 b) 5.93 1020 c) 9.09 1020 d) 9.111021 e) 4.09 1019 f) 6.58 1022 g) 5.02 1022 h) 8.22 1020 i) 7.38 1020 j) 4.50 1020 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
52) Compton scattering of an X-ray photon from a free electron: What is the Lorentz factor (“gamma”) of the scattered electron if the incident photon wavelength is 3.00 10−12 m and the photon is scattered at angle 60.0º? Electron rest energy is 0.511 MeV. a) 8.44
b) 10.7 c) 17.6 d) 23.0 e) 1.23 f) 73.1 g) 9.13 h) 5.60 i) 6.88 j) 15.4 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.3
53) A certain photon has the same momentum as a proton moving at speed 5.00 106 m/s. (This is slow enough that you do not need relativity for the proton.) The proton mass is 1.67 10−27 kg. What is the energy (MeV) of the light associated with that photon? a) 0.590 b) 0.364 c) 5.82 d) 0.937 e) 15.6 f) 0.145 g) 1.40 h) 3.14 i) 12.1 j) 14.9 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 38.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 38.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 39 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 39
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) One-dimensional infinite potential wells: Here are the widths (lengths) L of three wells, each containing an electron. Rank them according to the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the third excited state, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. L1 = 100 pm L2 = 200 pm L3 = 300 pm a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
2) One-dimensional infinite potential wells: Here are the widths (lengths) L of three wells, each containing an electron. Rank the wells according to the wavelength of the light that the electron would emit in jumping from the third excited state to the first excited state, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. L1 = 100 pm L2 = 200 pm L3 = 300 pm a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3)
j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
3) Here are three transitions in which a hydrogen atom emits light: 1: the atom jumps to the n = 2 state in the first Balmer transition 2: it jumps to the n = 2 state in the second Balmer transition 3: it jumps to the n = 2 state in the series limit of the Balmer transitions Rank these three jumps according to the magnitude of the momentum that the atom has as a result of the light emission, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,3), 2 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
4) An electron is in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width (length) L = 3.5 pm. The electron is in the third excited state (count carefully here). We center a detector of width 0.200 pm at position (coordinate) x = 3.00 pm. What is the probability of detecting the electron? Instead of directly integrating, use the shortcut approximation for the situation of a relatively narrow detector. a) 4.60 10−3 b) 1.23 10−2
c) 2.50 10−2 d) 5.20 10−2 e) 9.00 10−3 f) 7.95 10−3 g) 0.109 h) 0.190 i) 6.75 10−2 j) 6.44 10−3
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
5) An electron is in the fourth excited state (count carefully) in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 2.00 nm. What is the longest wavelength (m) of light that it can emit? The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 5.07 10−6 b) 3.77 10−6 c) 5.50 10−7 d) 9.90 10−6 e) 1.47 10−6 f) 4.2110−7 g) 1.20 10−6 h) 6.67 10−7 i) 2.72 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
6) An electron is in the fourth excited state (count carefully) in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 2.00 nm. What is the shortest wavelength (m) of light that it can emit? The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 5.07 10−6 b) 3.77 10−6 c) 5.50 10−7 d) 9.90 10−6 e) 1.47 10−6 f) 4.2110−7 g) 1.20 10−6 h) 6.67 10−7 i) 2.72 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
7) An electron is in the fourth excited state (count carefully) in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 2.00 nm. What is the longest wavelength (m) of light that it can absorb? The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 5.07 10−6 b) 3.77 10−6 c) 5.50 10−7 d) 9.90 10−6 e) 1.47 10−6 f) 4.2110−7 g) 1.20 10−6 h) 6.67 10−7 i) 2.72 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: g Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
8) Ground-state hydrogen: What is the probability of detecting the electron within the (very narrow) radial range r = 5.00 pm at the radial distance r = 400 pm? The ground-state wave function is
=
1 e− r / a . a 0.5 1.5
a) 5.17 10−11 b) 4.65 10−7 c) 5.85 10−6 d) 1.12 10−2 e) 3.98 10−10 f) 5.70 10−7 g) 1.23 10−4 h) 1.25 10−7 i) 6.74 10−15 j) 4.70 10−6 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
9) Hydrogen atom: the electron is in the second excited state when it absorbs a 2.000 eV photon. What then is its speed (m/s)? (There is no need for special relativity here.) The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 9.2 103 b) 1.7 103 c) 8.4 104 d) 7.9 103 e) 3.9 104 f) 6.5 104 g) 217 h) 4.1105
i) 148 j) 9.4 105 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
10) An electron is in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width (length) L = 3.50 pm. The electron is in the third excited state (count carefully here). We center a detector of width 0.350 pm at position (coordinate) x = 3.00 pm. What is the probability of detecting the electron? Instead of directly integrating, use the shortcut approximation for the situation of a relatively narrow detector.
a) 4.60 10−3 b) 1.23 10−2 c) 2.50 10−2 d) 5.20 10−2 e) 9.00 10−3 f) 7.95 10−3 g) 0.109 h) 0.190 i) 6.75 10−2 j) 6.44 10−3 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
11) An electron is in the fourth excited state (count carefully) in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 3.50 nm. What is the longest wavelength (m) of light that it can emit? The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 4.49 10−6 b) 1.68 10−6
c) 3.67 10−6 d) 9.90 10−6 e) 1.47 10−6 f) 4.2110−7 g) 1.20 10−6 h) 6.67 10−7 i) 2.72 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
12) An electron is in the fourth excited state (count carefully) in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 3.50 nm. What is the shortest wavelength (m) of light that it can emit? The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 4.49 10−6 b) 1.68 10−6 c) 3.67 10−6 d) 9.90 10−6 e) 1.47 10−6 f) 4.2110−7 g) 1.20 10−6 h) 6.67 10−7 i) 2.72 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
13) An electron is in the fourth excited state (count carefully) in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 3.50 nm. What is the longest wavelength (m) of light that it can absorb? The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 4.49 10−6 b) 1.68 10−6 c) 3.67 10−6 d) 9.90 10−6 e) 1.47 10−6 f) 4.2110−7 g) 1.20 10−6 h) 6.67 10−7 i) 2.72 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
14) Bohr model of the hydrogen atom: the electron is in the second excited state when it absorbs a 3.000 eV photon. What then is its speed (m/s)? (There is no need for relativity here.) The electron mass is
9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 9.2 103 b) 1.7 103 c) 8.4 104 d) 7.9 103 e) 3.9 104 f) 6.5 104 g) 217 h) 7.2 105 i) 148 j) 9.4 105 Answer: h Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
15) In a Bohr-model hydrogen atom, an electron absorbs a photon (but does not leave the atom). What happens to the total energy of the electron? a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
16) In a Bohr-model hydrogen atom, an electron absorbs a photon (but does not leave the atom). What happens to the orbital radius? a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
17) In a Bohr-model hydrogen atom, an electron absorbs a photon (but does not leave the atom). What happens to the potential energy? a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: a
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
18) In a Bohr-model hydrogen atom, an electron absorbs a photon (but does not leave the atom). What happens to the electron’s speed? a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
19) An electron is in a 1D infinite potential well with width 300 pm. Initially it is in the 4th excited state. What is the longest wavelength (nanometers) it can emit? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 14.7 b) 33.0 c) 22.0 d) 12.4 e) 8.89 f) 58.6 g) 25.2 h) 105 i) 67.7 j) 5.50 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
20) An electron is in a 1D infinite potential well with width 300 pm. Initially it is in the 4th excited state. What is the shortest wavelength (nanometers) it can emit? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 14.7 b) 33.0 c) 22.0 d) 12.4 e) 8.89 f) 58.6 g) 25.2 h) 105 i) 67.7 j) 5.50 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
21) What is the probability of detection of an electron in the third excited state in a 1D infinite potential well of width L if the probe has width L/30.0 (that is relatively small) and is centered at 0.300 L from the left “wall”? Express the answer as a percentage. a) 0.197% b) 9.71% c) 1.93% d) 3.05% e) 2.30% f) 1.73% g) 0.751% h) 8.11% i) 0.50% j) 0.095% Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
22) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the third excited state, what is the greatest value of have?
it can
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) -5 i) -4 j) -3 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
23) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the third excited state, what is the greatest positive value of m it can have? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) 7 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5 24) A hydrogen atom (mass = 1.672 10−27 kg) quantum jumps from the third excited state to the first excited state by emitting a photon. What is the kinetic energy (J) of the recoiling atom?
a) 6.05 10−28 b) 2.52 10−28 c) 9.1110−28 d) 3.56 10−28 e) 6.97 10−28 f) 4.3110−28 g) 1.14 10−28 h) 3.17 10−28 i) 5.56 10−28 j) 4.8110−27 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
25) Ground-state hydrogen: What is the probability of detecting the electron within the (very narrow) radial range r = 0.700 pm at the radial distance r = 4.00a? The ground-state wave function is
=
1 e− r / a . a 0.5 1.5
a) 2.84 10−4 b) 5.92 10−7 c) 4.19 10−5 d) 1.18 10−3 e) 3.88 10−3 f) 5.70 10−5 g) 1.23 10−4 h) 1.25 10−7 i) 6.74 10−4 j) 4.70 10−6 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0
Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
26) For the red emission (or absorption) in the Balmer series of hydrogen, what is the wavelength (m)? Pick the closest answer. a) 6.56 10−7 b) 6.28 10−7 c) 6.9110−7 d) 7.02 10
−7
e) 4.02 10−7 f) 2.88 10
−7
g) 8.08 10
−7
h) 5.93 10
−7
i) 2.02 10 j) 7.54 10
−6
−7
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
27) An electron is in a 1D infinite potential well with width 400 pm. Initially it is in the 4th excited state. What is the longest wavelength (nanometers) it can emit? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 14.7 b) 33.0 c) 22.0 d) 12.4 e) 8.89 f) 58.6 g) 25.2 h) 105 i) 67.7 j) 5.50 Answer: f Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
28) An electron is in a 1D infinite potential well with width 400 pm. Initially it is in the 4th excited state. What is the shortest wavelength (nanometers) it can emit? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 14.7 b) 33.0 c) 22.0 d) 12.4 e) 8.89 f) 58.6 g) 25.2 h) 105 i) 67.7 j) 5.50 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
29) What is the probability of detection of an electron in the third excited state in a 1D infinite potential well of width L if the probe has width L/40.0 (that is relatively small) and is centered at 0.300L from the left “wall”? Express the answer as a percentage. a) 0.197% b) 9.71% c) 1.93% d) 3.05% e) 2.30% f) 1.73% g) 0.751% h) 8.11% i) 0.50% j) 0.095% Answer: f Title: Question ID:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
30) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the fifth excited state, what is the greatest value of have?
it can
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) -5 i) -4 j) -3 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
31) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the fifth excited state, what is the greatest positive value of m it can have? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) 7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
32) Ground-state hydrogen: What is the probability of detecting the electron within the (very narrow) radial range r = 0.700 pm at the radial distance r = 3.00a? The ground-state wave function is
=
1 e− r / a . a 0.5 1.5
a) 2.84 10−4 b) 5.92 10−7 c) 4.19 10−5 d) 1.18 10−3 e) 3.88 10−3 f) 5.70 10−5 g) 1.23 10−4 h) 1.25 10−7 i) 6.74 10−4 j) 4.70 10−6 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
33) A hydrogen atom (mass = 1.672 10−27 kg) quantum jumps from the fourth excited state to the first excited state by emitting a photon. What is the kinetic energy (J) of the recoiling atom? a) 6.05 10−28 b) 2.52 10−28 c) 9.1110−28 d) 3.56 10−28 e) 6.97 10−28 f) 4.3110−28 g) 1.14 10−28 h) 3.17 10−28 i) 5.56 10−28 j) 4.8110−27 Answer: e
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
34) An electron is in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width L (see the figure). If the probability of detecting it between x = 0 and x = L/3 is a, then what is the probability of detecting it between x = L/3 and x = 2L/3?
a) a b) a/3 c) 2a/3 d) a2 e) a3 f) 1 – a g) 1 – a/3 h) 1 – 2a/3 i) 1 – 2a j) 1 – 3a Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
35) The figure shows a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width (length) L = 3.50 pm. The electron in the trap is in the third excited state (count carefully here). We center a detector of width 0.200 pm at position (coordinate) x = 2.50 pm. What is the probability of detecting the electron? Instead directly integrating, use the shortcut approximation for the situation of a relatively narrow detector.
a) 4.60 10−3 b) 1.23 10−2 c) 2.15 10−2 d) 5.20 10 e) 9.02 10 f) 7.95 10 g) 0.109
−3
−3
h) 4.93 10 i) 6.77 10 j) 6.44 10
−2
−3
−2
−3
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
36) An electron is in the fourth excited state in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 3.00 nm. What is the longest wavelength (m) of light that it can emit? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 5.07 10
−6
b) 3.29 10 c) 5.50 10
−7
d) 9.90 10 e) 1.47 10 f) 4.2110
−6
−6
−6
−7
g) 1.20 10
−6
h) 6.67 10
−7
i) 2.72 10
−6
j) 9.32 10
−7
Answer: b
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
37) An electron is in the fourth excited state in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 3.00 nm. What is the shortest wavelength (m) of light that it can emit? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 5.07 10−6 b) 3.29 10 c) 5.50 10
−7
d) 9.90 10 e) 1.47 10 f) 4.2110
−6
−6
−6
−7
g) 1.24 10
−6
h) 6.67 10
−7
i) 2.72 10
−6
j) 9.32 10
−7
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
38) An electron is in the fourth excited state in a one-dimensional infinite electron trap of width 3.00 nm. What is the longest wavelength (m) of light that it can absorb? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg. a) 5.07 10
−6
b) 3.29 10 c) 5.50 10
−7
d) 9.90 10 e) 1.47 10 f) 4.2110
−6
−6
−6
−7
g) 1.20 10
−6
h) 6.67 10
−7
i) 2.70 10−6 j) 9.32 10−7 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
39) The figure shows the energy levels of a one-dimensional finite potential well. The electron in it is in the second excited state. It absorbs a 600 eV photon. What then is its angular wave number (m-1)?
a) 6.7110
11
b) 2.10 10
10
c) 4.10 10
9
d) 3.80 10
11
e) 1.40 10
9
f) 7.06 10
10
g) 4.86 10
10
h) 1.20 10
9
i) 5.00 10
12
j) 1.60 10
11
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.3.0
Section Reference 1: Section 39.3
40) The visible spectrum is blue, green, yellow, and red (in that order). Suppose that a one-dimensional infinite potential trap holding an electron happens to absorb in the yellow for the transition from ground state to first excited state. You want that transition to absorb, instead, in the green. Which action should you take? a) stretch the trap (increase L) b) squeeze the trap (decrease L) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
41) The figure shows the energy levels of a one-dimensional, finite well containing an electron. The electron is in the first excited state. If it absorbs a photon with an associated wavelength of 2.1392 10 m, what then is its speed (m/s)? Use more than 3 significant figures in your calculations.
a) 5.88 10 b) 431 5 c) 1.99 10
5
d) 7.48 10 e) 9.55 10
5
f) 7.07 10
6
g) 1.84 10
6
h) 8.19 10 i) 4.84 10 j) 2.84 10 Answer: g
4
5
4
3
−9
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.3
42) Three-dimensional, infinite-potential trap. The lengths are Lx = 2.00L, Ly = L, Lz = L. What multiple of h2/8mL2 gives the energy of the electron’s third excited state? Hint: You need to consider only quantum numbers 1 through 4. a) 2.25 b) 1.25 c) 2.75 d) 4.25 e) 5.00 f) 3.00 g) 8.25 h) 6.75 i) 5.25 j) 6.00 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.4
43) The figure shows a square corral with infinite “walls” that contains an electron. A probe is centered at (x, y) coordinates (0.050L, 0.080L) and the probe is much smaller than L. For which of the following quantum states (nx, ny) is the probability of detection zero?
a) 2, 15 b) 4, 20 c) 25, 15 d) 10, 12 e) 10, 20
f) 1, 10 g) 6, 15 h) 30, 20 i) 15, 25 j) 5, 10 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 39.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.4
44) The figure shows the absorption spectra of three 1D infinite traps with an electron initially in ground state. The scales on the three lines (axes) are identical and aligned. Rank the traps according to the width L, greatest first. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 2, 1 c) (1,2,3) Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 39.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.1
45) The figure shows the energy levels of a one-dimensional finite potential well. The electron in it is in the second excited state. It absorbs a 500 eV photon. What then is its angular wave number (m-1)?
a) 6.711011 b) 2.10 10
10
c) 4.10 10
9
d) 3.80 10
11
e) 1.40 10
9
f) 9.03 10
11
g) 4.85 10
10
h) 1.20 10
9
i) 5.00 10
12
j) 1.60 10
11
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.3
46) An electron is in a particular state in a rectangular quantum corral with infinite walls. We probe for it along the dashed lines shown in the figure, which bisect the edges. Along the dashed line parallel to x, the points of maximum probability of detection are separated by ∆x = 2.00 pm. Along the dashed line parallel to y, the points of maximum probability are separated by ∆y = 3.00 pm. We do not know the edge lengths of the corral or the quantum numbers (symbolize them if you like). What is the energy (J) of the electron? The electron mass is 9.10938 10−31 kg.
a) 8.13 10
−14
b) 6.88 10−14 c) 5.82 10−14 d) 9.1110−14 e) 1.80 10−14 f) 2.18 10−14 g) 5.02 10
−14
h) 7.33 10−14 i) 6.14 10−14 j) 1.37 10−14 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 39.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.4
47) A free, initially stationary hydrogen atom de-excites from n = 5 to n = 4. What is the resulting speed −27 (m/s) of the atom? Atom’s mass = 1.67 10 kg. a) 0.11 b) 1.2 c) 0.033 d) 0.61 −3 e) 1.7 10 f) 0.50 g) 0.098 h) 3.4 i) 0.38 j) 2.7 10
−3
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 39.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.5
48) A proton is in a particular state in a rectangular quantum corral with infinite walls. We probe for it along the dashed lines shown in the figure. Along the dashed line that bisects the edge length along y and that is parallel to x, the points of maximum probability of detection are separated by ∆x = 5.00 pm. Along the dashed line that bisects the edge length along x and that is parallel to y, the points of maximum probability are separated by ∆y = 8.00 pm. We do not know the edge lengths of the corral or the quantum numbers (symbolize them if you like). What is the energy (J) of the proton? The proton mass is
1.673 10−27 kg.
a) 8.13 10
−18
b) 6.88 10 c) 5.82 10 d) 9.1110 e) 1.83 10 f) 2.18 10
−17
−17
−18
−18
g) 5.02 10 h) 7.33 10 i) 6.14 10 j) 1.37 10
−18
−18
−17
−17
−17
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 39.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 39.2
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 40 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 40
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) Which is the high-energy state of an electron in a magnetic field? a) spin up b) spin down Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
2) Which is the high-energy state of a proton in a magnetic field? a) spin up b) spin down Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.e
3) What is the magnitude of the electron’s spin component along any given measurement axis? a) 2.20 b) 3.46 c) 2.50 d) 3.00 e) 1.50 f) 0.50 g) 0.75 h) 4.47
i) 2.75 j) 4.00 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
4) For an electron in the n = 5 state of a hydrogen atom, what is the largest possible magnitude of the orbital angular momentum L ? a) 2.20 b) 3.46 c) 2.50 d) 3.00 e) 1.50 f) 0.50 g) 0.75 h) 4.47 i) 2.75 j) 5.47 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
5) Three electrons are trapped in a two-dimensional infinite potential well with lengths Lx = 2.00L and Ly = 3.00L. What multiple of h2/8mL2 gives the energy of the first excited state? (Assume that the electrons do not interact with one another, and do not neglect spin.) a) 2.41 b) 3.39 c) 1.75 d) 4.11 e) 3.09 f) 1.31 g) 2.11
h) 2.85 i) 1.94 j) 2.03 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.4
6) A certain excited atom can emit two close wavelengths, 610.50 nm and 608.20 nm, when de-exciting to ground state (see the figure). The energy difference between the two excited states is due to an electron’s spin magnetic moment being either parallel or antiparallel to the internal magnetic field associated the electron’s orbital motion. What is the magnitude (T) of that internal field?
a) 66.3 b) 43.9 c) 30.4 d) 89.1 e) 95.0 f) 78.2 g) 82.4 h) 50.2 i) 33.3 j) 98.9 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
7) A hydrogen atom in its ground state moves horizontally by distance L = 50.0 cm through and perpendicular to a vertical magnetic field that has a field gradient dB / dz = 280 T/m. The atom’s mass is
1.674 10−27 kg, its speed is 2.00 105 m/s, and its magnetic moment is that of its electron (1 Bohr magneton). What is the magnitude (microns) of its vertical displacement in that distance L? a) 12.3 b) 18.6 c) 124 d) 16.5 e) 25.7 f) 30.3 g) 76.9 h) 4.85 i) 48.1 j) 66.7 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.2
8) The figure shows the energy levels of a material that is to be used in a laser. Which of the following wavelengths (nm) is one of the better ones at which to produce the lasing (better in the sense that the lasing is easier to produce because the lower level of the lasing pair is approximately empty)? There are several lasing schemes possible here, but only one of them has the corresponding wavelength listed in the answer array.
a) 479 b) 333 c) 289
d) 841 e) 355 f) 607 g) 423 h) 56.4 i) 712 j) 937 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.7
9) A certain target is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K and L levels for that target have the energies 72.5 keV and 15.6 keV, respectively. What is the minimum value of the accelerating potential (kV) that will permit the production of the characteristic K line of the target? a) 15.6 b) 82.4 c) 105 d) 67.4 e) 72.5 f) 124 g) 33.3 h) 50.1 i) 84.9 j) 96.7 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
10) A certain target is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K and L levels for that target have the energies 72.5 keV and 15.6 keV, respectively. Find the minimum value of the accelerating potential (kV) that will permit the production of the characteristic K line of the target. For that acceleration potential, what is the min (pm)?
a) 19.4 b) 72.3 c) 39.5 d) 44.7 e) 50.2 f) 66.7 g) 17.1 h) 14.6 i) 20.9 j) 21.8 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
11) A certain target is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K and L levels for that target have the energies 72.5 keV and 15.6 keV, respectively. Find the minimum value of the accelerating potential (kV) that will permit the production of the characteristic K line of the target. What is the K wavelength (pm)? a) 19.4 b) 72.3 c) 39.5 d) 44.7 e) 50.2 f) 66.7 g) 17.1 h) 14.6 i) 20.9 j) 21.8 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
12) A hydrogen atom in its ground state moves horizontally by distance L = 125 cm through and perpendicular to a vertical magnetic field that has a field gradient dB / dz = 280 T/m. The atom’s mass is
1.674 10−27 kg, its speed is 2.00 105 m/s, and its magnetic moment is that of its electron (1 Bohr magneton). What is the magnitude (microns) of its vertical displacement in that distance L? a) 12.3 b) 18.6 c) 124 d) 16.5 e) 25.7 f) 30.3 g) 76.9 h) 4.85 i) 48.1 j) 66.7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.2
13) Three electrons are trapped in a 2-dimensional infinite potential well with lengths Lx = 2.00L and Ly = 4.00L. What multiple of h2/8mL2 gives the energy of the first excited state? (Assume that the electrons do not interact with one another, and do not neglect spin.) a) 2.41 b) 3.39 c) 1.75 d) 4.11 e) 3.09 f) 1.31 g) 2.11 h) 2.85 i) 1.94 j) 2.03 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.4
14) A certain excited atom can emit two close wavelengths, 510.50 nm and 508.20 nm, when de-exciting to ground state (see the figure). The energy difference between the two excited states is due to an electron’s spin magnetic moment being either parallel or antiparallel to the internal magnetic field associated the electron’s orbital motion. What is the magnitude (T) of that internal field?
a) 66.3 b) 43.9 c) 30.4 d) 89.1 e) 95.0 f) 78.2 g) 82.4 h) 50.2 i) 33.3 j) 98.9 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
15) A certain target is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K and L levels for that target have the energies 84.9 keV and 25.6 keV, respectively. What is the minimum value of the accelerating potential (kV) that will permit the production of the characteristic K line of the target? a) 15.6 b) 82.4 c) 105 d) 67.4 e) 72.5 f) 124 g) 33.3 h) 50.1
i) 84.9 j) 96.7 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
16) A certain target is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K and L levels for that target have the energies 84.9 keV and 25.6 keV, respectively. Find the minimum value of the accelerating potential (kV) that will permit the production of the characteristic K line of the target. For that acceleration potential, what is the min (pm)? a) 19.4 b) 72.3 c) 39.5 d) 44.7 e) 50.2 f) 66.7 g) 17.1 h) 14.6 i) 20.9 j) 21.8 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
17) A certain target is bombarded by electrons in an x-ray tube. The K and L levels for that target have the energies 84.9 keV and 25.6 keV, respectively. Find the minimum value of the accelerating potential (kV) that will permit the production of the characteristic K line of the target. What is the K wavelength (pm)? a) 19.4 b) 72.3 c) 39.5
d) 44.7 e) 50.2 f) 66.7 g) 17.1 h) 14.6 i) 20.9 j) 21.8 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
18) Which is the low energy state of an electron in a magnetic field? a) spin up b) spin down Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
19) Which is the low energy state of a proton in a magnetic field? a) spin up b) spin down Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
20) For an electron in the n = 4 state of a hydrogen atom, what is the largest possible magnitude of the orbital angular momentum L ?
a) 2.20 b) 3.46 c) 2.50 d) 3.00 e) 1.50 f) 0.50 g) 0.75 h) 4.47 i) 2.75 j) 4.00 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
21) For an electron in the n = 4 state of a hydrogen atom, what is the largest magnitude of the z component Lz? a) 2.20 b) 3.46 c) 2.50 d) 3.00 e) 1.50 f) 0.50 g) 0.75 h) 4.47 i) 2.75 j) 4.00 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
22) An electron is in a magnetic field of magnitude 0.0200 T. What frequency (Hz) of electromagnetic radiation is needed to spin flip the electron?
a) 3.33 108 b) 4.50 109 c) 2.00 109 d) 7.67 108 e) 7.50 109 f) 5.60 10
8
g) 9.00 109 h) 4.00 109 i) 1.12 109 j) 1.50 10
10
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
23) Seven electrons are put into a one-dimensional box of length L = 3.00 nm. If the system of 7 electrons jumps to its first excited state by absorbing a photon, what is the wavelength (m) of the light? a) 4.24 10
−6
b) 3.57 10 c) 6.82 10
−6
−6
d) 9.16 10 e) 7.07 10
−6
−5
f) 3.03 10
−5
g) 1.70 10
−5
h) 2.13 10 i) 5.19 10 j) 1.16 10
−6
−5
−6
Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.4
24) Einstein-de Haas effect: A spherical iron asteroid of radius 5.00 cm is initially unmagnetized and not spinning. It then becomes trapped in orbit around a neutron star, where the magnetic field is so strong and the space is so cold that approximately all of the valence electrons (one per atom) become aligned with the field. The magnetic moment of each aligned electron is the intrinsic spin magnetic moment s . What is the period (s) of the resulting rotation of the sphere about a diameter? A sphere has rotational inertia I = 0.4mR2 about a diameter; its angular momentum = I. Molar mass of iron is 55.847 g/mol. ω= 2π/T a) 2.10 106 b) 9.40 10 c) 6.85 10
6
7
d) 8.84 10
5
e) 4.27 10
5
f) 7.78 10
6
g) 3.92 10 h) 1.10 10
7
7
i) 1.62 10
5
j) 9.1110
6
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
25) X-ray experiment: The projectile electron is accelerated from rest through 1000 V. We have three choices for the target (each a pure element), and the Z values are target 1, Z = 35 target 2, Z = 40 target 3, Z = 45 Rank the targets according to the minimum wavelength in the x ray spectrum that will be produced, smallest wavelength first. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2
g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
26) X-ray experiment: The projectile electron is accelerated from rest through 1000 V. We have three choices for the target (each a pure element), and the Z values are target 1, Z = 35 target 2, Z = 40 target 3, Z = 45 Rank them according to the wavelength of the K emission, smallest wavelength first. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3)
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
27) Seven electrons are put into a one-dimensional box of length L = 6.00 nm. If the system of 7 electrons jumps to its first excited state by absorbing a photon, what is the wavelength (m) of the light? a) 4.24 10
−6
b) 3.57 10
−6
c) 6.82 10−6 d) 9.16 10−6 e) 7.07 10−5 f) 3.03 10−5 g) 1.70 10−5 h) 2.13 10
−6
i) 5.19 10−5 j) 1.16 10−6 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.4
28) An electron is in a magnetic field of magnitude 0.0400 T. What frequency (Hz) of electromagnetic radiation is needed to spin flip the electron? a) 3.33 10
8
b) 4.50 10
9
c) 2.00 10
9
d) 7.67 10
8
e) 7.50 10
9
f) 5.60 10
8
g) 9.00 10
9
h) 4.00 10
9
i) 1.12 10
9
j) 1.50 10
10
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
29) In three experiments, protons in biological samples are spin flipped. In each experiment, the local magnetic field was aligned with the external (applied) magnetic field. The three (parallel) plots in the figure give the frequency at which spin flipping occurred versus the magnitude Bext of the external magnetic field. Rank the three experiments according to the magnitude of the local magnetic field, greatest first.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
30) In three experiments, protons in biological samples are spin flipped. In each experiment, the local magnetic field was aligned with the external (applied) magnetic field. The three (parallel) plots in the figure give the frequency at which spin flipping occurred versus the magnitude Bext of the external magnetic field. Rank the experiments according to the effective magnitude of the magnetic moment of the protons undergoing spin flipping.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2
c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
31) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the third excited state, what is the greatest value of have?
it can
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) -5 i) −4 j) −3 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
32) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the third excited state, what is the greatest positive value of m it can have? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2
d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) 7 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
33) In an atom, how many values of m are allowed for
= 3?
a) 18 b) 12 c) 16 d) 10 e) 14 f) 9 g) 6 h) 8 i) 15 j) 7 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
34) Five electrons are put into a one-dimensional box of length L = 3.00 nm. If the system of 5 electrons jumps to its first excited state by absorbing a photon, what is the wavelength (m) of the light? a) 4.00 10
−6
b) 3.57 10 c) 6.82 10
−6
d) 9.16 10 e) 7.07 10
−6
−5
−6
f) 3.03 10
−6
g) 1.65 10−5 h) 2.13 10−5 i) 5.94 10−6 j) 4.77 10−5 Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.4
35) Einstein-de Haas effect: A magnetic field is applied to an iron sphere with radius R = 3.00 mm and an unknown mass. The sphere initially had no net magnetic moment, but the field aligns a certain fraction −5
frac of the atoms, causing the sphere to rotate with angular speed 2.13 10 rad/s. The magnetic moment of those aligned atoms (due to the single outer-most electron in each atom) is the intrinsic magnetic moment s . What is the value of frac expressed as a percent? A sphere has rotational inertia I = 0.4mR2 about a diameter, its angular momentum = I, and iron has a molar mass of 55.847 g/mol. a) 6.21% b) 4.85% c) 7.38% d) 1.23% e) 3.03% f) 10.4% g) 11.2% h) 12.0% i) 13.5% j) 14.9% Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
36) If a proton spin flips in a magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.350 T by emitting light, what is the wavelength (m) of that light? Assume that the component z = 1.41 E-26 J/T.
a) 10.6 b) 102 c) 312 d) 0.231 e) 3.02 f) 41.4 g) 20.1 h) 5.42 i) 458 j) 4.5110−2 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
37) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the fourth excited state, what is the greatest value of it can have? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) -5 i) −4 j) −3 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
38) If the electron in a hydrogen atom is in the fourth excited state, what is the greatest positive value of m it can have? a) 0
b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 f) 5 g) 6 h) 7 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
39) In an atom, how many values of m are allowed for = 4? a) 18 b) 12 c) 16 d) 10 e) 14 f) 9 g) 6 h) 8 i) 15 j) 7 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
40) An electron is placed in a uniform magnetic field, with the magnetic field vector in the direction of a z axis. Which is its low energy state, spin up or spin down? A proton is then placed in the magnetic field. Which is its low energy state, spin up or spin down? a) electron: up proton: down b) electron: down proton: up c) electron: up proton: up d) electron: down proton: down
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
41) Five electrons are put into a one-dimensional box of length L = 8.50 nm. If the system of 5 electrons jumps to its first excited state by absorbing a photon, what is the wavelength (m) of the light? a) 4.00 10
−6
b) 3.57 10 c) 6.82 10
−6
d) 9.16 10 e) 7.07 10
−6
−5
−6
f) 3.03 10
−6
g) 1.65 10
−5
h) 2.13 10
−5
i) 5.94 10
−6
j) 4.77 10
−5
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.4
42) Einstein-de Haas effect: A magnetic field is applied to an iron sphere with radius R = 1.80 mm and an unknown mass. The sphere initially had no net magnetic moment, but the field aligns a certain fraction frac of the atoms, causing the sphere to rotate with angular speed 2.13 10−5 rad/s. The magnetic moment of those aligned atoms (due to the single outer-most electron in each atom) is the intrinsic magnetic moment s . What is the value of frac expressed as a percent? A sphere has rotational inertia I = 0.4mR2 about a diameter, its angular momentum = I, and iron has a molar mass of 55.847 g/mol. a) 6.21% b) 4.85% c) 7.38%
d) 1.23% e) 3.03% f) 10.4% g) 11.2% h) 12.0% i) 13.5% j) 14.9% Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.1
43) If a proton spin flips in a magnetic field of magnitude B = 0.170 T by emitting light, what is the wavelength (m) of that light? Assume that the component z = 1.41 E-26 J/T. a) 10.6 b) 102 c) 312 d) 0.231 e) 3.02 f) 41.4 g) 20.1 h) 5.42 i) 458 −2 j) 4.5110 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.3
44) Stern-Gerlach effect. A silver atom (molar mass 107.870 g/mol, magnetic moment = µB) moves 0.600 m through and perpendicular to a vertical magnetic field that has a magnetic field gradient dB/dz. The −7
horizontal speed of the atom is 1.80 10 m/s, and the vertical displacement is 5.50 10 m. What is the value (T/m) of dB/dz? 5
a) 1.68 10
2
b) 2.59 10
3
c) 9.12 103 d) 1.91103 e) 8.80 102 f) 4.05 103 g) 8.11103 h) 9.74 10
2
i) 5.54 102 j) 6.05 103 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.2 45) X-ray emission with min = 0.150 nm. Through what voltage (V) was the electron accelerated before it entered the target? a) 6.9 10
4
b) 2.7 10
4
c) 5.0 10
3
d) 7.110 e) 7.110 f) 5.9 10
2
4
4
g) 8.9 10
4
h) 4.110
3
i) 8.3 10
3
j) 1.2 10
4
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
46) The figure shows the energy levels for the holes in a target atom in an x-ray experiment. What is the wavelength (pm) of the K-beta emission?
a) 13.3 b) 45.3 c) 87.3 d) 16.1 e) 117 f) 234 g) 179 h) 121 i) 19.8 j) 18.1 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
47) The lasing portion of a certain solid-state laser is a cylindrical rod with length 2.00 mm and radius 3.00 mm and containing material with a density of 6.00 10 kg/m3 and a molar mass of 25 10 3
−3 −4
kg/mole. The actual lasing comes from an impurity in the rod: the number of impurity atoms is 2.3 10 of the number of “matrix” atoms in the rod. If 50% of the impurity atoms de-excite by stimulated emission during a lasing pulse lasting 2.20 µs and if each de-excitation produces a 2.10 eV photon, what is the average power (W) of the pulse? Assume that all the stimulated photons emerge in the pulse. a) 1.4 10
5
b) 3.6 10
5
c) 8.9 10
5
d) 5.4 10
5
e) 4.5 10
6
f) 6.2 10
5
g) 1.9 10
6
h) 7.2 10
5
i) 7.1106 j) 2.9 105 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.7
48) Stern-Gerlach effect. A silver atom (molar mass 107.870 g/mol, magnetic moment = µB) moves 0.600 m through and perpendicular to a vertical magnetic field that has a magnetic field gradient dB/dz. The −7
horizontal speed of the atom is 3.20 10 m/s, and the vertical displacement is 5.50 10 m. What is the value (T/m) of dB/dz? 5
a) 1.68 10
2
b) 2.59 10 c) 9.12 10
3
3
d) 1.9110
3
e) 8.80 10 f) 4.05 10
2
3
g) 8.1110
3
h) 9.74 10
2
i) 5.54 10
2
j) 6.05 10
3
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.2 49) X-ray emission with min = 0.300 nm. Through what voltage (V) was the electron accelerated before it entered the target? a) 6.9 10
4
b) 2.7 10
4
c) 5.0 10
3
d) 7.1102 e) 7.1104 f) 5.9 104 g) 8.9 104 h) 4.1103 i) 8.3 10
3
j) 1.2 104 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 40.6
50) The lasing portion of a certain solid-state laser is a cylindrical rod with length 5.00 mm and radius 3.00 mm and containing material with a density of 6.00 10 kg/m3 and a molar mass of 25 10 3
−3 −4
kg/mole. The actual lasing comes from an impurity in the rod: the number of impurity atoms is 2.3 10 of the number of “matrix” atoms in the rod. If 50% of the impurity atoms de-excite by stimulated emission during a lasing pulse lasting 2.20 µs and if each de-excitation produces a 2.10 eV photon, what is the average power (W) of the pulse? Assume that all the stimulated photons emerge in the pulse. a) 1.4 10
5
b) 3.6 10
5
c) 8.9 10
5
d) 5.4 10
5
e) 4.5 10
6
f) 6.2 10
5
g) 1.9 10
6
h) 7.2 10
5
i) 7.110
6
j) 2.9 10
5
Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 40.7.0
Section Reference 1: Section 40.7
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 41 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 41
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure shows three levels in the conduction band of gallium arsenide. From each an electron is to jump to the top of the valence band by emitting light. Rank the levels according to the wavelength of the emitted light, greatest wavelength first.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,3), 2 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 41.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.3
2) Pure germanium at room temperature has an electron number density of 2.0 10 m-3 in the 18
conduction band and an equal density of holes in the valence band. Suppose that one of every 1.0 10 germanium atoms is replaced by an arsenide atom, each of which contributes a conduction electron. What is the ratio of the charge carrier number density (electrons and holes) in the doped germanium to that in pure germanium? germanium density 5.32 g/cm3 molar mass 72.6 g/mole 8
a) 1.110
2
b) 5.0 104 c) 4.0 102 d) 1.0 104 e) 8.0 103 f) 5.0 103 g) 1.110
3
h) 5.0 103 i) 2.0 104 j) 8.0 104 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.2
−4
3) A sample of a certain metal has a volume of 1.4 10 m3. The metal has a density of 12.0 g/cm3 and a molar mass of 60 g/mole. The atoms are bivalent. How many conduction electrons (or valence electrons) are in the sample? Be careful with your units. a) 7.2 10
24
b) 3.6 10 c) 2.0 10
24
d) 3.4 10 e) 1.7 10 f) 5.2 10
25
25
24
g) 9.5 10
24
h) 5.2 10 i) 9.6 10
24
25
25
j) 7.2 10
25
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
4) A certain metal has a Fermi energy of 6.00 10−19 J. A certain sample of that metal has a volume of
9.000 10−8 m3 and a temperature of 300.0 K. How many occupied states are in the energy range of 2.000 10−21 J that is centered on the energy 6.300 10−19 ? Avoid rounding off any of the numbers until the last step. a) 1.11013 b) 1.11014 c) 1.11015 d) 1.11016 e) 1.11017 f) 1.11018 g) 1.11019 h) 1.110 i) 1.110 j) 1.110
20
21
22
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
−4
5) A sample of a certain metal has a volume of 3.0 10 m3. The metal has a density of 12.0 g/cm3 and a molar mass of 60 g/mole. The atoms are bivalent. How many conduction electrons (or valence electrons) are in the sample? Be careful with your units. a) 7.2 10
24
b) 3.6 10 c) 2.0 10
24
d) 3.4 10 e) 1.7 10 f) 5.2 10
25
25
24
g) 9.5 10
24
h) 5.2 10 i) 9.6 10
24
25
25
j) 7.2 10
25
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
6) Pure germanium at room temperature has an electron number density of 2.0 1018 m-3 in the conduction band and an equal density of holes in the valence band. Suppose that one of every 1.0 10 germanium atoms is replaced by an arsenide atom, each of which contributes a conduction electron. What is the ratio of the charge carrier number density (electrons and holes) in the doped germanium to that in pure germanium? germanium density 5.32 g/cm3 molar mass 72.6 g/mole 7
a) 1.110
2
b) 5.0 10
4
c) 4.0 102 d) 1.0 10
4
e) 8.0 10
3
f) 5.0 10
3
g) 1.110
3
h) 5.0 10
3
i) 2.0 10 j) 8.0 10
4
4
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
7) Consider three energy levels in the top energy band of a metal: (1) 0.02 eV below the Fermi level (2) 0.02 eV above the Fermi level (3) 0.04 eV above the Fermi level Rank the three levels according to the “double density” N(E), greatest first.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 1, (2,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
8) Consider three energy levels in the top energy band of a metal: (1) 0.02 eV below the Fermi level (2) 0.02 eV above the Fermi level (3) 0.04 eV above the Fermi level Rank them according to the occupied double density No(E), greatest first. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 1, (2,3) j) (1,2,3) Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
−5
9) A sample of a certain metal has a volume of 7.0 10 m3. The metal has a density of 12.0 g/cm3 and a molar mass of 60 g/mole. The atoms are bivalent. How many conduction electrons (or valence electrons) are in the sample? Be careful with your units. a) 7.2 10
24
b) 3.6 10
24
c) 2.0 1024 d) 3.4 1025 e) 1.7 1025 f) 5.2 1024 g) 9.5 10
24
h) 5.2 10 i) 9.6 10
25
25
j) 7.2 10
25
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
10) What is the number of states per cubic meter in an energy range of 0.80 meV that is centered at a “height” of 2.000 eV in a metallic band? a) 5.6 10
24
b) 7.7 10 c) 1.9 10
24
d) 8.4 10 e) 3.3 10 f) 1.0 10
24
24
25
g) 2.5 10
25
h) 2.6 10 i) 7.2 10 j) 8.6 10 Answer: b Title:
24
25
25
25
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
11) What is the number of states per cubic meter in an energy range of 0.40 meV that is centered at a “height” of 2.000 eV in a metallic band? a) 5.6 1024 b) 7.7 1024 c) 1.9 1024 d) 8.4 10 e) 3.9 10 f) 1.0 10
24
24
25
g) 2.5 10
25
h) 2.6 10 i) 7.2 10 j) 8.6 10
25
25
25
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.1
12) In Figure A, which arrangement best shows a forward biased pn junction diode?
a) 1 b) 2 Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 41.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.3
13) When a pn junction diode is forward biased, which is true? a) electrons flow toward the junction (where the two materials touch) and holes flow away from the junction b) both electrons and holes flow toward the junction c) electrons away from the junction (where the two materials touch) and holes flow toward the junction Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 41.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.3
14) The energy gaps Eg for the pure semiconductors silicon and germanium are, respectively 1.12 and 0.67 eV. Which of the following is true at room temperature? a) The silicon has a greater number density of conduction electrons. b) The silicon has a smaller number density of conduction electrons. c) The two materials have the same number density of conduction electrons. Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 41.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.2
15) For a pure semiconductor at room temperature, which is true? a) The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of holes. b) The number of valence electrons is less than the number of holes. c) The number of valence electrons and the number of holes are equal. Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 41.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.2
16) Pure silicon at room temperature has an electron number density of 5.0 10 m-3 in the conduction 15
band and an equal density of holes in the valence band. Suppose that one of every 2.0 109 silicon atoms is replaced by a phosphorus atom, each of which contributes a conduction electron. What is the ratio of the charge carrier number density (electrons and holes) in the doped silicon to that in pure silicon? silicon density 2.33 g/cm3 molar mass 28.086 g/mole a) 1.0 102 b) 5.6 10
2
c) 4.0 104 d) 1.0 10
3
e) 8.0 10
4
f) 2.0 10
3
g) 2.5 104 h) 5.0 10
3
i) 2.5 10
3
j) 8.0 10
2
Answer: i Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.2
17) Pure silicon at room temperature has an electron number density of 5.0 10 m-3 in the conduction 15
band and an equal density of holes in the valence band. Suppose that one of every 9.0 10 silicon atoms is replaced by a phosphorus atom, each of which contributes a conduction electron. What is the ratio of the charge carrier number density (electrons and holes) in the doped silicon to that in pure silicon? silicon density 2.33 g/cm3 molar mass 28.086 g/mole 9
a) 1.0 10
2
b) 5.6 10
2
c) 4.0 10
4
d) 1.0 10
3
e) 8.0 10 f) 2.0 10
4
3
g) 2.5 104 h) 5.0 103 i) 2.5 103 j) 8.0 102 Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 41.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 41.2
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 42 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 42
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) The figure is a rough sketch of the known isotopes on a Z versus N graph. Along which edge are isotopes unstable because they have too many protons?
a) upper edge b) lower edge Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
2) The figure shows the curve for the binding energy per nucleon Eben versus mass number A. Three isotopes are indicated. Rank them according to the energy required to remove a nucleon from the isotope, greatest first? ( ) indicates a tie.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2, 1 f) 3, 1, 2 g) (1,2), 3 h) 3, (1,2) i) 2, (1,3) j) (1,3), 2
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
3) What is the binding energy per nucleon (in MeV/nucleon) of 110 47 Ag ? The mass of the atom is 109.906 1111 u. The mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.007 825 u. The mass of a neutron is 1.008 665 u. a) 10.4 b) 6.0 c) 7.4 d) 8.5 e) 8.0 f) 6.5 g) 6.9 h) 6.7 i) 9.2 j) 7.0 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
4) A 73 Li nucleus with a kinetic energy of 3.00 MeV is sent toward a 23290Th nucleus, head on. What is the least center-to-center separation (m) between the two nuclei, assuming the (more massive) Th nucleus does not move? a) 5.5 10
−15
b) 2.5 10 c) 4.9 10 d) 1.3 10
−16
−13
−13
e) 7.110
−14
f) 2.8 10
−15
−16
g) 1.0 10
h) 5.0 10 i) 6.4 10 j) 5.5 10
−16
−13
−14
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
5) A 73 Li nucleus with a kinetic energy of 7.00 MeV is sent toward a 23290Th nucleus, head on. What is the least center-to-center separation (m) between the two nuclei, assuming the (more massive) Th nucleus does not move? a) 5.5 10
−15
b) 2.5 10 c) 4.9 10 d) 1.3 10
−16
−13
−13
e) 7.110
−14
f) 2.8 10
−15
g) 1.0 10
−16
h) 5.0 10 i) 6.4 10 j) 5.5 10
−16
−13
−14
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1 6) Which of the transitions shown in the figure best represents an decay?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 i) 9 j) 10
Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.4
7) Which of the transitions shown in the figure best represents a β-minus decay?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 i) 9 j) 10 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.5.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.5
8) The figure gives the activities of three radioactive samples versus time. Rank the samples according to their disintegration constant, greatest first. You might use the edge of a sheet of paper as a straight edge. ( ) indicates a tie.
a) A, B, C b) A, C, B c) (A,C), B d) B, (A,C) e) C, B, A f) C, A, B g) (A,B), C h) C, (A,B) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.3.0
Section Reference 1: Section 42.3
9) Radioactive element AA can decay to either element BB or element CC. The ratio of the resulting number of BB atoms to the resulting number of CC atoms is always 2/1. The decay has a half-life of
3.00 104 y. We start with a sample of pure AA. How long (y) must we wait until the ratio of the number of CC atoms to the number of (remaining) AA atoms is 2/3? a) 1.29 10
4
b) 4.3110
5
c) 2.58 10
5
d) 8.99 10 e) 4.75 10 f) 8.1110
5
4
4
g) 1.20 10
5
h) 5.70 10 i) 7.54 10
5
4
j) 2.54 10
4
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.3
10) A man’s chest, with mass 30 kg, absorbs a burst of slow neutrons, with a dose equivalent of 900 μSv and an RBE of 5.0. How much energy (J) did the chest absorb? a) 0.34 b) 0.76 c) 4.2 d) 5.4 10 e) 12.7 f) 1.2 10
−2
g) 2.3 10 h) 9.6 i) 8.3 10 j) 19.1 Answer: d
−3
−3
−3
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.7
11) Radioactive element AA can decay to either element BB or element CC. The ratio of the resulting number of BB atoms to the resulting number of CC atoms is always 2/1. The decay has a half-life of
7.60 104 y. We start with a sample of pure AA. How long (y) must we wait until the ratio of the number of CC atoms to the number of (remaining) AA atoms is 2/3? a) 1.29 10
4
b) 4.3110
5
c) 2.58 10
5
d) 8.99 10 e) 4.75 10 f) 8.1110
5
4
4
g) 1.20 10
5
h) 5.70 10 i) 7.54 10
5
4
j) 2.54 10
4
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.3
12) A man’s chest, with mass 25.0 kg, absorbs a burst of slow neutrons, with a dose equivalent of 450 μSv and an RBE of 5.00. How much energy (J) did the chest absorb? a) 0.34 b) 0.76 c) 4.2 d) 5.4 10 e) 12.7 f) 1.2 10
−3
−2
g) 2.3 10
−3
h) 9.6 i) 8.3 10 j) 19.1
−3
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.7
13) In a certain rock, the ratio of daughter atoms to parent atoms is 0.200. Assume that a parent decays directly to a daughter with a half-life of 2000 y and that the rock had no daughters when it formed. How old (y) is the rock? Pick the closest answer. a) 1.0 10
3
b) 2.7 10
2
c) 3.0 10
3
d) 9.2 10
2
e) 1.6 10
3
f) 2.8 10
3
g) 1.2 10
2
h) 8.8 10
2
i) 9.7 10
3
j) 5.3 10
2
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.6
−6
14) Initially, a ball of pure 60Co has a mass of 15.0 10 kg. That isotope of cobalt has a half-life of 5.27 y. What is the activity in curies 279 years after the initial point? a) 9.02 10
−14
b) 9.55 10 c) 5.92 10
−15
−16
d) 7.89 10 e) 4.5110 f) 6.42 10
−16
−14
−16
g) 8.04 10
−14
h) 8.99 10
−15
i) 5.0110
−14
j) 1.96 10
−15
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.3
15) In a certain rock, the ratio of daughter atoms to parent atoms is 0.450. Assume that a parent decays directly to a daughter with a half-life of 3000 y and that the rock had no daughters when it formed. How old (y) is the rock? Pick the closest answer. a) 1.0 10
3
b) 2.7 10
2
c) 3.0 10
3
d) 9.2 10
2
e) 1.6 10
3
f) 2.8 10
3
g) 1.0 10
3
h) 1.0 10
3
i) 1.0 10
3
j) 1.0 10
3
Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.6.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.6
16) Suppose the particle in a Rutherford scattering experiment is replaced with a proton of the same initial kinetic energy and also headed directly toward the nucleus of the gold atom. How will the stopping distance of the proton compare to that of the particle? a) proton stopping distance is greater b) proton stopping distance is less c) the proton stopping distance is the same Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
17) Suppose that in a Rutherford scattering experiment, we first send in an alpha particle with a certain energy directly toward a target nucleus. Then we switch the target to a nucleus with a larger Z. What happens to the stopping distance of the particle? a) It is then greater. b) It is then less. c) It is still the same. Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
18) A lithium 53 Li nucleus is sent toward a platinum 192 78 Pt nucleus, head on. What initial kinetic energy (MeV) is needed so that the “surface” of the Li nucleus touches the “surface” of the Pt nucleus, where “surface” refers to the assumption that the nuclei are spheres whose radii we can calculate? Assume that the (more massive) Pt nucleus does not move. a) 2.11 b) 48.8 c) 35.1 d) 37.5 e) 43.7 f) 48.0 g) 27.5
h) 22.7 i) 18.2 j) 28.1 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
19) What is the binding energy per nucleon (in MeV/nucleon) of einsteinium 252 99 Es ? The mass of the atom is 252.082 944 u. The mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.007 825 u. The mass of a neutron is 1.008 665 u. a) 10.4 b) 6.89 c) 7.46 d) 6.75 e) 8.41 f) 6.35 g) 6.59 h) 6.71 i) 9.20 j) 7.06 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
20) A lithium 53 Li nucleus is sent toward a berkelium 247 97 Bk nucleus, head on. What initial kinetic energy (MeV) is needed so that the “surface” of the Li nucleus touches the “surface” of the Bk nucleus, where “surface” refers to the assumption that the nuclei are spheres whose radii we can calculate? Assume that the (more massive) Bk nucleus does not move. a) 2.11 b) 48.8 c) 35.1 d) 37.5
e) 43.7 f) 48.0 g) 27.5 h) 22.7 i) 18.2 j) 28.1 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
21) What is the binding energy per nucleon (in MeV/nucleon) of cesium 133 55 Cs ? The mass of the atom is 132.905 447 u. The mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.007 825 u. The mass of a neutron is 1.008 665 u. a) 10.4 b) 6.89 c) 7.46 d) 6.75 e) 8.41 f) 6.35 g) 6.59 h) 6.71 i) 9.20 j) 7.06 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
65 22) What is the binding energy per nucleon (in MeV/nucleon) of 29 Cu?
The mass of the atom is 64.927 792 9 u. The mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.007 825 u. The mass of a neutron is 1.008 665 u. a) 10.41
b) 6.0911 c) 7.497 d) 8.757 e) 8.023 f) 6.534 g) 6.914 h) 6.705 i) 9.202 j) 7.906 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
23) A 73 Li nucleus with a kinetic energy of 3.00 MeV is sent toward a
244 94 Pu nucleus, head on. What is
the least center-to-center separation (m) between the two nuclei, assuming that the (more massive) Pu nucleus does not move? a) 5.5110
−15
b) 2.57 10 c) 4.96 10
−16
−13
d) 1.35 10
−13
e) 9.78 10
−14
f) 2.83 10
−15
g) 1.04 10
−16
h) 5.04 10 i) 6.4110
−16
−13
j) 4.59 10
−14
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
24) What is the binding energy per nucleon (in MeV/nucleon) of 199 80 Hg? The mass of the atom is 198.968 254 u. The mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.007 825 u. The mass of a neutron is 1.008 665 u. a) 10.41 b) 6.0911 c) 7.497 d) 8.757 e) 8.023 f) 6.534 g) 6.914 h) 6.705 i) 9.202 j) 7.906 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
25) A 73 Li nucleus with a kinetic energy of 3.00 MeV is sent toward a 167 68 Er nucleus, head on. What is the least center-to-center separation (m) between the two nuclei, assuming that the (more massive) Er nucleus does not move? a) 5.5110
−15
b) 2.57 10 c) 4.96 10
−16
−13
d) 1.35 10
−13
e) 9.78 10
−14
f) 2.83 10
−15
g) 1.04 10
−16
h) 5.04 10 i) 6.4110
−13
j) 4.59 10 Answer: e Title:
−16
−14
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.1
26) The figure is a rough sketch of the known isotopes on a Z versus N graph. Along which edge are isotopes unstable because they have too many neutrons?
a) the upper edge b) the lower edge Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 42.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.2
27) Radioactive element AA can decay to either element BB or element CC. The ratio of the resulting number of BB atoms to the resulting number of CC atoms is always 3/1. The decay has a half-life of
7.00 104 y. We start with a sample of pure AA. How long (y) must we wait until the ratio of the number of (remaining) AA atoms to the number of CC atoms is 4/5? a) 8.1110
6
b) 1.8110
5
c) 5.70 10
5
d) 7.54 10
5
e) 2.54 10 f) 1.29 10
6
6
g) 4.3110
6
h) 2.58 10 i) 8.99 10
5
j) 3.62 10 Answer: b
5
5
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.3
28) Radioactive element AA can decay to either element BB or element CC. The ratio of the resulting number of BB atoms to the resulting number of CC atoms is always 3/1. The decay has a half-life of
1.400 105 y. We start with a sample of pure AA. How long (y) must we wait until the ratio of the number of (remaining) AA atoms to the number of CC atoms is 4/5? a) 8.1110
6
b) 1.8110
5
c) 5.70 10
5
d) 7.54 10
5
e) 2.54 10 f) 1.29 10
6
6
g) 4.3110
6
h) 2.58 10 i) 8.99 10
5
5
j) 3.62 10
5
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.3
29) A man’s chest, with mass 30.0 kg, absorbs a burst of slow neutrons, with a dose equivalent of 1800 μSv and an RBE of 5.00. How much energy (J) did the chest absorb? a) 0.34 b) 0.76 c) 4.2 d) 5.4 10 e) 12.7 f) 1.110
−3
−2
g) 2.3 10 h) 9.6
−3
i) 8.3 10 j) 19.1
−3
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 42.7.0 Section Reference 1: Section 42.7
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 43 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 43
Question type: Multiple-Choice
132 1) In the fission process 235 92 U + n → 50 Sn +
+3n, what number goes in the elevated box (the
superscript)? a) 105 b) 102 c) 98 d) 100 e) 103 f) 106 g) 97 h) 101 i) 99 j) 104 Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
132 2) In the fission process 235 92 U + n → 50 Sn +
subscript)? a) 38 b) 39 c) 40 d) 41 e) 42 f) 43 g) 44 h) 45 i) 46 j) 47 Answer: e
+3n, what number goes in the descended box (the
Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
3) If we split a nucleus into two smaller nuclei, with a release of energy, what happens to the average binding energy per nucleon? a) increases b) decreases Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
4) If a fusion process requires an absorption of energy, what happens to the average binding energy per nucleon? a) increases b) decreases Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
5) In the fusion reaction 209 F + 209 F → 40 18 Ar, how much energy (MeV) is released? Here are some masses: 20 9
F 19.999 982 u
a) 182.3 b) 14.70 c) 12.72 d) 194.7 e) 170.5 f) 213.4
40 18
Ar 39.962 384 u
g) 27.76 h) 16.54 i) 213.0 j) 35.00 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.4
6) In a nuclear reaction AA → BB + CC, if the sum of the masses of the products is greater than the mass of AA, can the reaction occur spontaneously? a) yes b) no Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
27 54 7) In the fusion reaction, 27 12 Mg + 12 Mg → 24 Cr, how much energy (MeV) is released? Here are some
masses: a) 182.3 b) 14.70 c) 12.72 d) 194.7 e) 170.5 f) 213.4 g) 27.76 h) 16.54 i) 213.0 j) 35.00 Answer: g Title:
27 12
Mg
26.984 341 u
54 24
Cr
53.938 883 u
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.4
8) What is the Q value (MeV) of this reaction? 7 1 Li 7.016 004 0 u H 1.007 825 032 u
Li + 1H → 4He + 4He He 4.002 603 249 7 u 7
4
a) 21.2 b) 15.8 c) 10.6 d) 12.1 e) 14.6 f) 19.5 g) 22.3 h) 8.56 i) 9.11 j) 17.3 Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.4
9) In the neutron capture by plutonium 142 240 95 n + 239 94 Pu → 94 Pu → 40 Zr + 54 Xe + 3n, assume that the captured neutron is initially stationary. How much energy (MeV) is put into the oscillations of the intermediate nucleus 240 94 Pu ? Here is the neutron mass and some atomic masses: 1.008 665 u
239 94
Zr 94.908 043 u
142 54
n 95 40
a) 8.87 b) 1.17 c) 6.53 d) 4.67 e) 7.14 f) 9.15 g) 15.4 h) 1.59 i) 3.89
Pu 239.052 156 u
Xe 141.929 710 u
240 94
Pu 240.053 808 u
j) 3.03 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
10) In an atomic-bomb explosion test, the yield was 10 megaton TNT. Assume that 4.00% of the uranium underwent fissioning, with an average energy release of 200 MeV per fission. What was the total mass (kg) of uranium 235U in the device? The explosive energy of 1.0 megaton TNT is equivalent to 4.2 1015 J. a) 2.7 b) 49 c) 1.3 10
2
d) 5.3 10
3
e) 7.9 10 f) 6.7 g) 79 h) 9.110
4
2
i) 6.9 10
3
j) 1.3 10
4
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
11) Assume that protons in a hot ball of protons each have a kinetic energy equal to kT, where k is −23
Boltzman’s constant ( 1.38 10 J/K) and T is the absolute temperature. If T = 110 K, what (approximately) is the least separation (m) any two protons can have? a) 10
−6
b) 10 c) 10
−7
−8
d) 10
−9
7
e) 10 f) 10
−10
−11
g) 10 h) 10 i) 10 j) 10
−12
−13
−14
−15
Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.4
12) In an atomic bomb test explosion, the yield was 10 megaton TNT. Assume that 9.50% of the uranium underwent fissioning, with an average energy release of 200 MeV per fission. What was the total mass (kg) of uranium 235U in the device? The explosive energy of 1.0 megaton TNT is equivalent to 4.2 1015 J. a) 2.7 b) 49 c) 1.3 10
2
d) 5.3 10
3
e) 7.9 10 f) 6.7 g) 79 h) 9.110
4
2
i) 6.9 10
3
j) 1.3 10
4
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 43.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 43.1
Package Title: Test Bank Questions Chapter 44 Course Title: Halliday 12e Chapter Number: Chapter 44
Question type: Multiple-Choice
1) Here is a proton-antiproton annihilation that may or may not actually occur.
p + p → 0 + e+ + e− Does the interaction conserve electric charge? a) no b) yes Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
2) Here is a proton-antiproton annihilation that may or may not actually occur.
p + p → 0 + e+ + e− Does the interaction conserve baryon number? a) no b) yes Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
3) Here is a proton-antiproton annihilation that may or may not actually occur.
p + p → 0 + e+ + e− Does the interaction conserve electron lepton number? a) no
b) yes Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
4) Here is a proton-antiproton annihilation that may or may not actually occur.
p + p → 0 + e+ + e− Does the interaction conserve spin? a) no b) yes Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
5) Here is a proton-antiproton annihilation that may or may not actually occur.
p + p → 0 + e+ + e− Does the interaction conserve strangeness? a) no b) yes Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
6) In the lab, one of the lines of sodium is emitted at a wavelength of 590.0 nm. In the light from a particular galaxy, this line is seen at a wavelength of 680.0 nm. What is the distance (ly) to the galaxy?
a) 5.88 10
8
b) 7.07 10
8
c) 1.03 10
7
d) 8.1110
7
e) 5.03 10
9
f) 1.94 10
9
g) 4.57 10
9
h) 7.88 10 i) 6.63 10
9
7
j) 9.23 10
8
Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.4
7) An electron and a positron undergo pair annihilation. If they each had a kinetic energy of 1.00 MeV before the annihilation, what is the wavelength (m) of each gamma ray produced by the annihilation? The mass of each particle is 0.511 MeV/c2. a) 6.7 10
−14
b) 6.8 10
−13
c) 9.9 10
−14
d) 4.7 10 e) 5.7 10 f) 2.3 10
−12
−9
g) 2.5 10 h) 8.2 10 i) 7.5 10 j) 1.2 10
−15
−19
−13
−12
−11
Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0
Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
8) A 220 MeV − (sigma-minus) decays to (pi-minus) and n (neutron). Calculate the total kinetic −
energy (MeV) of those decay products. Here are the masses in MeV/c2: − , 1197.3 939.6
− , 139.6
a) 207 b) 918 c) 338 d) 413 e) 559 f) 614 g) 293 h) 503 i) 170 j) 471 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
9) What is the quark formation that makes up the xi-minus particle. It has these quantum numbers: baryon number = +1, charge = -1, strangeness = -2, bottomness = 0, charm = 0. a) uud b) sss c) dud d) ddd e) ddu f) sud g) ssd h) scb i) usc j) usb Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy
n,
Learning Objective 1: LO 44.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.3
10) What is the quark formation of the antiparticle anti-xi-minus? The xi-minus has these quantum numbers: baryon number = +1, charge = -1, strangeness = -2, bottomness = 0, charm = 0. a) uud b) anti-u, anti-u, anti-d c) ss d) anti-s, anti-s e) suu f) anti-s, anti-s, anti-u g) ssd h) anti-s, anti-s, anti-d i) sud j) anti-s, anti-u, anti-d Answer: h Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.3
11) An electron and positron head toward each other, each with the same kinetic energy. Their annihilation produces two gamma rays, each with energy 3.00 MeV. What was the Lorentz factor 𝛾 of the particles before the annihilation? a) 4.51 b) 9.04 c) 9.78 d) 1.71 e) 1.32 f) 7.81 g) 5.87 h) 1.42 i) 8.12 j) 0.53 Answer: g Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
12) One of the emission lines of sodium has wavelength 590.0 nm. In the light from a particular galaxy, that line is seen at wavelength 702.0 nm. What is the distance (ly) to that galaxy? a) 4.50 10
8
b) 2.43 10 c) 7.45 10
7
7
d) 2.37 10
9
e) 1.1110
9
f) 5.50 10
8
g) 6.67 10
8
h) 8.86 10
9
i) 3.33 10
9
j) 5.02 10
9
Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44
13) An electron jumps from n = 4 to n = 2 in a hydrogen atom in a distant galaxy. Since then, the universe has expanded by the multiplication factor of 4.57 10 . What wavelength (mm) do we detect? 3
a) 8.89 b) 7.23 c) 12.2 d) 0.144 e) 2.22 f) 15.3 g) 0.718 h) 6.67 i) 9.11 j) 14.3 Answer: e Title:
Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.4.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.4
14) Here is a neutron-antineutron annihilation that may or may not actually occur. (The last symbol is for the electron neutrino.)
n + n → K + + K − + e+ + e Does the interaction conserve electric charge? a) no b) yes Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
15) Here is a neutron-antineutron annihilation that may or may not actually occur. (The last symbol is for the electron neutrino.)
n + n → K + + K − + e+ + e Does the interaction conserve baryon number? a) no b) yes Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
16) Here is a neutron-antineutron annihilation that may or may not actually occur. (The last symbol is for the electron neutrino.)
n + n → K + + K − + e+ + e Does the interaction conserve electron lepton number?
a) no b) yes Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
17) Here is a neutron-antineutron annihilation that may or may not actually occur. (The last symbol is for the electron neutrino.)
n + n → K + + K − + e+ + e Does the interaction conserve spin? a) no b) yes Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
18) Here is a neutron-antineutron annihilation that may or may not actually occur. (The last symbol is for the electron neutrino.)
n + n → K + + K − + e+ + e Does the interaction conserve strangeness? The K + has strangeness of +1 and the K − has strangeness of 1. a) no b) yes Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
19) If a particle has a spin of s = 3/2, how many different values of Sz can it have? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6 g) 7 h) 8 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
20) The figure shows circular tracks left in cloud chamber by an electron and a proton moving at different speeds. The larger circle has twice the radius of the smaller circle. There is a uniform magnetic field into the figure. The direction of motion is indicated on each circle. Which track is made by the electron?
a) larger circle b) smaller circle Answer: a Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
21) The figure shows circular tracks left in cloud chamber by an electron and a proton moving at different speeds. The larger circle has twice the radius of the smaller circle. There is a uniform magnetic field into the figure. The direction of motion is indicated on each circle. Which particle is moving slower?
a) electron b) proton Answer: b Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
22) What particle is the uus grouping of quarks? a) p b) n c) 0 d) + e) anti + f) g) 0 h) 0 i) Kj) Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.3.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.3
23) An electron and a positron undergo pair annihilation. If they each had a kinetic energy of 0.700 MeV before the annihilation, what is the wavelength (m) of each gamma ray produced by the annihilation? a) 6.7 10
−14
b) 6.8 10
−13
c) 9.9 10
−14
d) 4.7 10
−15
e) 5.7 10 f) 2.3 10
−12
−9
g) 2.5 10 h) 8.2 10 i) 7.5 10 j) 1.0 10
−19
−13
−12
−12
Answer: j Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
24) A particle has a spin quantum number s = 3/2. What is the magnitude of spin angular momentum S ? a) 2.34 b) 1.50 c) 2.16 d) 1.34 e) 1.94 Answer: e Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
25) A (mass = 135 MeV/c2) at rest decays into two gamma rays. What is the momentum (MeV/c) for each gamma ray? 0
a) 15.2 b) 45.7 c) 551 d) 303 e) 405 f) 67.5 g) 124 h) 33.3
i) 26.4 j) 421 Answer: f Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.2
26) What is the “disintegration energy” (energy released) for the reaction? K − + p → 0 + 0 ? The initial particles are approximately at rest. Answer in MeV. Here are the masses in MeV/c2:
K − , 493.7
p, 938.3
0 , 1115.6 0 , 135.0
a) 93.1 b) 103 c) 115 d) 181 e) 59.3 f) 17.0 g) 133 h) 40.2 i) 167 j) 153 Answer: d Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.2.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44,2
27) An electron and positron head toward each other, each with the same kinetic energy. Their annihilation produces two gamma rays, each with energy 5.00 MeV. What was the Lorentz factor of the particles before the annihilation? The mass of each particle is 0.511 MeV/c2. a) 4.51 b) 9.04 c) 9.78 d) 1.71 e) 1.32 f) 7.81
g) 5.87 h) 1.42 i) 8.12 j) 0.53 Answer: c Title: Question ID: Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective 1: LO 44.1.0 Section Reference 1: Section 44.1
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 1 Measurement Reading Quiz Questions
1.1.1. According to the text, on what are science and engineering based? a) knowledge and intuition b) meter sticks and accurate time pieces c) measurements and comparison
d) hypotheses and theories e) vision and perseverance
1.1.1. According to the text, on what are science and engineering based? a) knowledge and intuition b) meter sticks and accurate time pieces c) measurements and comparison
d) hypotheses and theories e) vision and perseverance
1.2.1. Complete the following statement: The standard meter is defined in terms of the speed of light because a) all scientists have access to sunlight. b) no agreement could be reached on a standard meter stick.
c) the yard is defined in terms of the speed of sound in air. d) the normal meter is defined with respect to the circumference of the earth. e) it is a universal constant.
1.2.1. Complete the following statement: The standard meter is defined in terms of the speed of light because a) all scientists have access to sunlight. b) no agreement could be reached on a standard meter stick.
c) the yard is defined in terms of the speed of sound in air. d) the normal meter is defined with respect to the circumference of the earth. e) it is a universal constant.
1.3.1. The text uses SI units, such as the meter or the kilogram. Which one of the following phrases is the best translation for the French phrase for which “SI” is the abbreviation? a) International System of Units b) Institute of Science Standards c) Institute for Systems Integration d) Systematic Information e) Science and Engineering Standards
1.3.1. The text uses SI units, such as the meter or the kilogram. Which one of the following phrases is the best translation for the French phrase for which “SI” is the abbreviation? a) International System of Units b) Institute of Science Standards c) Institute for Systems Integration d) Systematic Information e) Science and Engineering Standards
1.3.2. Which of the following units is not an SI base unit?
a) second b) meter c) kilogram d) slug
1.3.2. Which of the following units is not an SI base unit?
a) second b) meter c) kilogram d) slug
1.3.3. In the International System of Units, mass is measured using which of the following units? a) grams b) kilograms
c) pounds d) newtons
e) slugs
1.3.3. In the International System of Units, mass is measured using which of the following units? a) grams b) kilograms
c) pounds d) newtons
e) slugs
1.3.4. In the International System of Units, length is measured using which of the following units? a) inches b) feet
c) meters d) centimeters
e) kilometers
1.3.4. In the International System of Units, length is measured using which of the following units? a) inches b) feet
c) meters d) centimeters
e) kilometers
1.3.5. Express 0.00592 in scientific notation.
a) 5.92 × 103 b) 5.92 × 10−3 c) 5.92 × 10−2 d) 5.92 × 10−5 e) 5.92 × 105
1.3.5. Express 0.00592 in scientific notation.
a) 5.92 × 103 b) 5.92 × 10−3 c) 5.92 × 10−2 d) 5.92 × 10−5 e) 5.92 × 105
millimeter 1.3.6. The ratio one equals one kilometer
a) 10+3 b) 10−3 c) 10−6 d) 10+6 e) 100
millimeter 1.3.6. The ratio one equals one kilometer
a) 10+3 b) 10−3 c) 10−6 d) 10+6 e) 100
1.4.1. The energy content of food is reported in Calories, where 1 Calorie = 1000 kilocalories and 1 kilocalorie = 4186 J. How many joules are in a drink that contains 140 Calories? a) 33 joules b) 590 joules c) 5.9 × 108 joules d) 4.2 × 106 joules e) 1.4 × 105 joules
1.4.1. The energy content of food is reported in Calories, where 1 Calorie = 1000 kilocalories and 1 kilocalorie = 4186 J. How many joules are in a drink that contains 140 Calories? a) 33 joules b) 590 joules c) 5.9 × 108 joules d) 4.2 × 106 joules e) 1.4 × 105 joules
1.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning unit conversion is false? a) Units can be treated as algebraic quantities. b) Units have no numerical significance, so 1.00 kilogram = 1.00 slug. c) Unit conversion factors are given inside the front cover of the text. d) The fact that multiplying an equation by a factor of 1 does not change an equation is important in unit conversion. e) Only quantities with the same units can be added or subtracted.
1.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning unit conversion is false? a) Units can be treated as algebraic quantities. b) Units have no numerical significance, so 1.00 kilogram = 1.00 slug. c) Unit conversion factors are given inside the front cover of the text. d) The fact that multiplying an equation by a factor of 1 does not change an equation is important in unit conversion. e) Only quantities with the same units can be added or subtracted.
1.4.3. Which one of the following pairs of units may not be added together, even after the appropriate unit conversions have been made? a) feet and centimeters b) seconds and slugs c) meters and miles d) grams and kilograms e) hours and years
1.4.3. Which one of the following pairs of units may not be added together, even after the appropriate unit conversions have been made? a) feet and centimeters b) seconds and slugs c) meters and miles d) grams and kilograms e) hours and years
1.4.4. How many meters are there in 12.5 kilometers?
a) 1.25 b) 125 c) 1250 d) 12 500 e) 125 000
1.4.4. How many meters are there in 12.5 kilometers?
a) 1.25 b) 125 c) 1250 d) 12 500 e) 125 000
1.4.5 Express the quantity 12.5 meters in kilometers?
a) 0.0125 km b) 0.125 km c) 1.25 km d) 12.5 km e) 125 km
1.4.5 Express the quantity 12.5 meters in kilometers?
a) 0.0125 km b) 0.125 km c) 1.25 km d) 12.5 km e) 125 km
1.4.6 If one inch is equal to 2.54 cm, express 9.68 inches in meters. a) 0.262 m b) 0.0381 m c) 0.0508 m
d) 0.114 m e) 0.246 m
1.4.6 If one inch is equal to 2.54 cm, express 9.68 inches in meters. a) 0.262 m b) 0.0381 m c) 0.0508 m
d) 0.114 m e) 0.246 m
1.5.1. By international agreement, the standard meter is currently defined by which of the following methods.
a) The standard meter is one-ten millionth of the distance between the Equator and the North Pole. b) The standard meter is the length of the path traveled by light in a vacuum during a specific time interval. c) The standard meter is the distance between two fine parallel lines on a platinum bar stored under vacuum near Paris, France. d) The standard meter is defined in terms of a specific number of wavelengths of light emitted by a specific isotope of an inert gas. e) The standard meter is defined in terms of the length of the tibia bone of a 17th century king.
1.5.1. By international agreement, the standard meter is currently defined by which of the following methods.
a) The standard meter is one-ten millionth of the distance between the Equator and the North Pole. b) The standard meter is the length of the path traveled by light in a vacuum during a specific time interval. c) The standard meter is the distance between two fine parallel lines on a platinum bar stored under vacuum near Paris, France. d) The standard meter is defined in terms of a specific number of wavelengths of light emitted by a specific isotope of an inert gas. e) The standard meter is defined in terms of the length of the tibia bone of a 17th century king.
1.5.2. The textbook discusses order-of-magnitude estimates that scientists and engineers often use. Consider the distance between New York, NY and Los Angeles, CA. What is the order of magnitude of this distance? a) 1
b) 2 c) 3
d) 5 e) 10
1.5.2. The textbook discusses order-of-magnitude estimates that scientists and engineers often use. Consider the distance between New York, NY and Los Angeles, CA. What is the order of magnitude of this distance? a) 1
b) 2 c) 3
d) 5 e) 10
1.5.3. In 1983, the current definition of the standard meter was adopted at the 17th General Conference on Weights and Measures. In addition to the length standard adopted, what other significant action was taken? a) Atomic clocks became the standard for time measurement. b) The British system of units, which includes the foot and the mile, was outlawed. c) A new unit was adopted for the measurement of sound waves called the “phone.”
d) The speed of light was defined to be exactly 299 792 458 m/s. e) The United States officially adopted the metric system of units and measures.
1.5.3. In 1983, the current definition of the standard meter was adopted at the 17th General Conference on Weights and Measures. In addition to the length standard adopted, what other significant action was taken? a) Atomic clocks became the standard for time measurement. b) The British system of units, which includes the foot and the mile, was outlawed. c) A new unit was adopted for the measurement of sound waves called the “phone.”
d) The speed of light was defined to be exactly 299 792 458 m/s. e) The United States officially adopted the metric system of units and measures.
1.6.1. How is the standard unit of time, the “second,” defined in the International System of Units? a) using the frequency of the light emitted from the ideal gas krypton b) using a standard pendulum that has a length of exactly one standard meter c) using a portion of the time for a single rotation of the Earth d) using a high precision telescope to measure the light coming from the most distant objects in the Universe e) using a high precision cesium (atomic) clock
1.6.1. How is the standard unit of time, the “second,” defined in the International System of Units? a) using the frequency of the light emitted from the ideal gas krypton b) using a standard pendulum that has a length of exactly one standard meter c) using a portion of the time for a single rotation of the Earth d) using a high precision telescope to measure the light coming from the most distant objects in the Universe e) using a high precision cesium (atomic) clock
1.6.2. The period of rotation of the Earth is one day. The time of one day was compared with that measured by a cesium clock. How much variation was observed in the period of rotation of the Earth during the four year interval shown in the text? a) The variation was within about two milliseconds.
b) The variation was within about two nanoseconds. c) The variation was within about one second.
d) The variation was within about one minute. e) The variation was too small to detect.
1.6.2. The period of rotation of the Earth is one day. The time of one day was compared with that measured by a cesium clock. How much variation was observed in the period of rotation of the Earth during the four year interval shown in the text? a) The variation was within about two milliseconds.
b) The variation was within about two nanoseconds. c) The variation was within about one second.
d) The variation was within about one minute. e) The variation was too small to detect.
1.7.1. The international standard kilogram is a cylinder that is housed under special conditions near Paris, France. The cylinder is made from what kind of material? a) gold b) rose quartz c) platinum-iridium alloy d) stainless steel e) silver-gold-copper alloy
1.7.1. The international standard kilogram is a cylinder that is housed under special conditions near Paris, France. The cylinder is made from what kind of material? a) gold b) rose quartz c) platinum-iridium alloy d) stainless steel e) silver-gold-copper alloy
1.7.2. The second mass standard is that of the carbon-12 atom. What is the unit associated with this second mass standard? a) atomic mass unit (u) b) atomic number (Z)
c) isotope ratio (I) d) nanogram (ng)
e) fermi (fm)
1.7.2. The second mass standard is that of the carbon-12 atom. What is the unit associated with this second mass standard? a) atomic mass unit (u) b) atomic number (Z)
c) isotope ratio (I) d) nanogram (ng)
e) fermi (fm)
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 2 Motion Along a Straight Line Reading Quiz Questions
2.2.1. Which one of the following situations is not one of the restrictions placed on the general properties of motion as described in the text?
a) The motion may be in a straight line. b) A car that is traveling at 21 m/s due west is a good example of a particle that can be described by the equations given in Chapter 2 of the text. c) Forces may cause motion or change the motion. d) A tumbleweed is a good example of a particle that can be described by the equations given in Chapter 2 of the text. e) A moving object is either a particle or something that moves like a particle.
2.2.1. Which one of the following situations is not one of the restrictions placed on the general properties of motion as described in the text?
a) The motion may be in a straight line. b) A car that is traveling at 21 m/s due west is a good example of a particle that can be described by the equations given in Chapter 2 of the text. c) Forces may cause motion or change the motion. d) A tumbleweed is a good example of a particle that can be described by the equations given in Chapter 2 of the text. e) A moving object is either a particle or something that moves like a particle.
2.3.1. Complete the following statement: Displacement is a) a scalar that indicates the distance between two points. b) a vector indicating the distance and direction from one point to another.
c) a measure of volume. d) the same as the distance traveled between two points.
e) a vector drawn perpendicular to the line connecting two points.
2.3.1. Complete the following statement: Displacement is a) a scalar that indicates the distance between two points. b) a vector indicating the distance and direction from one point to another.
c) a measure of volume. d) the same as the distance traveled between two points.
e) a vector drawn perpendicular to the line connecting two points.
2.3.2. A particle travels along a curved path between two points A and B as shown. Complete the following statement: The displacement of the particle does not depend on
a) the location of A. b) the location of B. c) the direction of A from B.
d) the distance traveled from A to B. e) the shortest distance between A and B.
2.3.2. A particle travels along a curved path between two points A and B as shown. Complete the following statement: The displacement of the particle does not depend on
a) the location of A. b) the location of B. c) the direction of A from B.
d) the distance traveled from A to B. e) the shortest distance between A and B.
2.3.3. For which one of the following situations will the path length equal the magnitude of the displacement? a) An Olympic athlete is running around an oval track. b) A roller coaster car travels up and down two hills.
c) A truck travels 4 miles west; and then, it stops and travels 2 miles west. d) A ball rises and falls after being thrown straight up from the earth's surface. e) A ball on the end of a string is moving in a vertical circle.
2.3.3. For which one of the following situations will the path length equal the magnitude of the displacement? a) An Olympic athlete is running around an oval track. b) A roller coaster car travels up and down two hills.
c) A truck travels 4 miles west; and then, it stops and travels 2 miles west. d) A ball rises and falls after being thrown straight up from the earth's surface. e) A ball on the end of a string is moving in a vertical circle.
2.3.4. Complete the following statement: A displacement vector a) is directed from an object’s final position toward its initial position. b) is always directed along a tangent to the object’s path. c) has a magnitude that always equals the distance the object traveled from its initial position to its final position. d) has SI units of meter per second.
e) is directed from an object’s initial position toward its final position.
2.3.4. Complete the following statement: A displacement vector a) is directed from an object’s final position toward its initial position. b) is always directed along a tangent to the object’s path. c) has a magnitude that always equals the distance the object traveled from its initial position to its final position. d) has SI units of meter per second.
e) is directed from an object’s initial position toward its final position.
2.4.1. Complete the following statement: The difference between speed and velocity is a) speed is an average value, but velocity is always an instantaneous measurement. b) velocity is an average, but speed is always an instantaneous measurement. c) speed has a direction, but velocity does not.
d) velocity has a direction, but speed does not. e) There is no difference between speed and velocity.
2.4.1. Complete the following statement: The difference between speed and velocity is a) speed is an average value, but velocity is always an instantaneous measurement. b) velocity is an average, but speed is always an instantaneous measurement. c) speed has a direction, but velocity does not.
d) velocity has a direction, but speed does not. e) There is no difference between speed and velocity.
2.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning speed is true? a) Speed is always a positive number. b) Speed can be a positive or negative number. c) Speed is always a negative number. d) The direction of the speed is directed from the starting point of motion to the ending point.
e) The average speed is always the same as the instantaneous speed.
2.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning speed is true? a) Speed is always a positive number. b) Speed can be a positive or negative number. c) Speed is always a negative number. d) The direction of the speed is directed from the starting point of motion to the ending point.
e) The average speed is always the same as the instantaneous speed.
2.4.3. On which one of the following does the average speed depend? a) the direction of motion b) the total distance traveled c) the displacement
d) the instantaneous speed at the starting point e) the instantaneous velocity
2.4.3. On which one of the following does the average speed depend? a) the direction of motion b) the total distance traveled c) the displacement
d) the instantaneous speed at the starting point e) the instantaneous velocity
2.4.4. A motorcycle travels due south covering a total distance of 80.0 kilometers in 60.0 minutes. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is necessarily true? a) The velocity of the motorcycle is constant. b) The acceleration of the motorcycle must be non-zero. c) The motorcycle traveled 40.0 kilometers during the first 30.0 minutes. d) The speed of the motorcycle must be 80.0 kilometers per hour throughout the entire trip. e) The average velocity of the motorcycle is 80.0 kilometers per hour, due south.
2.4.4. A motorcycle travels due south covering a total distance of 80.0 kilometers in 60.0 minutes. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is necessarily true? a) The velocity of the motorcycle is constant. b) The acceleration of the motorcycle must be non-zero. c) The motorcycle traveled 40.0 kilometers during the first 30.0 minutes. d) The speed of the motorcycle must be 80.0 kilometers per hour throughout the entire trip. e) The average velocity of the motorcycle is 80.0 kilometers per hour, due south.
2.4.5. Which one of the following quantities is defined as an object’s displacement divided by the elapsed time for the displacement? a) average speed b) average velocity
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.4.5. Which one of the following quantities is defined as an object’s displacement divided by the elapsed time for the displacement? a) average speed b) average velocity
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.4.6. Which one of the following quantities is defined as the distance traveled divided by the elapsed time for the travel? a) average speed b) average velocity
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.4.6. Which one of the following quantities is defined as the distance traveled divided by the elapsed time for the travel? a) average speed b) average velocity
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.4.7. The speedometer on a car’s dashboard measures which of the following quantities? a) average speed b) average velocity
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.4.7. The speedometer on a car’s dashboard measures which of the following quantities? a) average speed b) average velocity
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.5.1. Which one of the following position versus time graphs depicts an object moving with a negative constant velocity?
2.5.1. Which one of the following position versus time graphs depicts an object moving with a negative constant velocity?
2.5.2. Which one of the following quantities can be determined from the slope of a position versus time graph for an object in motion? a) position b) velocity
c) acceleration d) distance traveled
e) displacement
2.5.2. Which one of the following quantities can be determined from the slope of a position versus time graph for an object in motion? a) position b) velocity
c) acceleration d) distance traveled
e) displacement
2.5.3. Complete the following statement: For an object moving at constant velocity, the distance traveled a) increases for each second that the object moves. b) is the same regardless of the time that the object moves.
c) is the same for each second that the object moves. d) cannot be determined, even if the elapsed time is known.
e) decreases for each second that the object moves.
2.5.3. Complete the following statement: For an object moving at constant velocity, the distance traveled a) increases for each second that the object moves. b) is the same regardless of the time that the object moves.
c) is the same for each second that the object moves. d) cannot be determined, even if the elapsed time is known.
e) decreases for each second that the object moves.
2.5.4. dog is walking along a street. As the dog moves, a graph is made of its position on the vertical axis with the elapsed time on the horizontal axis. The slope of the curve is determined at some point on the graph. The slope of this curve is a measurement of which of the following parameters? a) the dog’s instantaneous velocity b) the dog’s acceleration c) the dog’s speed d) the dog’s average velocity e) the elapsed time for the dog’s walk
2.5.4. dog is walking along a street. As the dog moves, a graph is made of its position on the vertical axis with the elapsed time on the horizontal axis. The slope of the curve is determined at some point on the graph. The slope of this curve is a measurement of which of the following parameters? a) the dog’s instantaneous velocity b) the dog’s acceleration c) the dog’s speed d) the dog’s average velocity e) the elapsed time for the dog’s walk
2.5.5. Starting from rest, a particle that is confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s2. Which one of the following statements concerning the slope of the position versus time graph for this particle is true? a) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s.
b) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s2. c) The slope is both constant and negative.
d) The slope is not constant and increases with increasing time. e) The slope is not constant and decreases with increasing time.
2.5.5. Starting from rest, a particle that is confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s2. Which one of the following statements concerning the slope of the position versus time graph for this particle is true? a) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s.
b) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s2. c) The slope is both constant and negative.
d) The slope is not constant and increases with increasing time. e) The slope is not constant and decreases with increasing time.
2.6.1. Which one of the following quantities can be determined from the slope of a velocity versus time graph for an object in motion? a) position b) velocity
c) acceleration d) distance traveled
e) displacement
2.6.1. Which one of the following quantities can be determined from the slope of a velocity versus time graph for an object in motion? a) position b) velocity
c) acceleration d) distance traveled
e) displacement
2.6.2. Which of the following parameters can you determine by finding the slope of a velocity versus time graph at a given time for a moving object? a) instantaneous acceleration b) instantaneous velocity c) position d) distance traveled e) average velocity
2.6.2. Which of the following parameters can you determine by finding the slope of a velocity versus time graph at a given time for a moving object? a) instantaneous acceleration b) instantaneous velocity c) position d) distance traveled e) average velocity
2.6.3. Which one of the following equations is the correct expression for average acceleration? v t dv a = b) dt s c) a = t
a) a =
v d) a = t
e) a = 12 vt
2
2.6.3. Which one of the following equations is the correct expression for average acceleration? v t dv a = b) dt s c) a = t
a) a =
v d) a = t
e) a = 12 vt
2
2.6.4. Which one of the following concepts does not involve the passage of time? a) average velocity b) position
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.6.4. Which one of the following concepts does not involve the passage of time? a) average velocity b) position
c) average acceleration d) instantaneous velocity
e) instantaneous acceleration
2.6.5. Which one of the following situations does the object have no acceleration? a) A ball at the end of a string is whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant speed. b) Seeing a red traffic light ahead, the driver of a minivan steps on the brake. As a result, the minivan slows from 15 m/s to stop before reaching the light. c) A boulder starts from rest and rolls down a mountain. d) An elevator in a tall skyscraper moves upward at a constant speed of 3 m/s. e) A ball is thrown upward from the surface of the earth, slows to a temporary stop at a height of 4 m, and begins to fall back toward the ground.
2.6.5. Which one of the following situations does the object have no acceleration? a) A ball at the end of a string is whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant speed. b) Seeing a red traffic light ahead, the driver of a minivan steps on the brake. As a result, the minivan slows from 15 m/s to stop before reaching the light. c) A boulder starts from rest and rolls down a mountain. d) An elevator in a tall skyscraper moves upward at a constant speed of 3 m/s. e) A ball is thrown upward from the surface of the earth, slows to a temporary stop at a height of 4 m, and begins to fall back toward the ground.
2.6.6. In which one of the following situations does the car have an acceleration that is directed due north? a) A car travels northward with a constant speed of 24 m/s. b) A car is traveling southward as its speed increases from 24 m/s to 33 m/s. c) A car is traveling southward as its speed decreases from 24 m/s to 18 m/s.
d) A car is traveling northward as its speed decreases from 24 m/s to 18 m/s. e) A car travels southward with a constant speed of 24 m/s.
2.6.6. In which one of the following situations does the car have an acceleration that is directed due north? a) A car travels northward with a constant speed of 24 m/s. b) A car is traveling southward as its speed increases from 24 m/s to 33 m/s. c) A car is traveling southward as its speed decreases from 24 m/s to 18 m/s.
d) A car is traveling northward as its speed decreases from 24 m/s to 18 m/s. e) A car travels southward with a constant speed of 24 m/s.
2.6.7. A postal truck driver driving due east gently steps on her brake as she approaches an intersection to reduce the speed of the truck. What is the direction of the truck’s acceleration, if any? a) There is no acceleration in this situation. b) due north c) due east d) due south e) due west
2.6.7. A postal truck driver driving due east gently steps on her brake as she approaches an intersection to reduce the speed of the truck. What is the direction of the truck’s acceleration, if any? a) There is no acceleration in this situation. b) due north c) due east d) due south e) due west
2.6.8. A sports car starts from rest. After 10.0 s, the speed of the car is 25.0 m/s. What is the magnitude of the car’s acceleration? a) 2.50 m/s2 b) 5.00 m/s2
c) 10.0 m/s2 d) 25.0 m/s2
e) 250 m/s2
2.6.8. A sports car starts from rest. After 10.0 s, the speed of the car is 25.0 m/s. What is the magnitude of the car’s acceleration? a) 2.50 m/s2 b) 5.00 m/s2
c) 10.0 m/s2 d) 25.0 m/s2
e) 250 m/s2
2.6.9. Which one of the following situations is possible at a given time t? a) An object has an instantaneous velocity of 0 m/s and an acceleration of 0 m/s2. b) An object has an instantaneous velocity of 0 m/s and an acceleration with a magnitude greater than 0 m/s2. c) An object has an instantaneous velocity with a magnitude greater than 0 m/s and an acceleration of 0 m/s2. d) Choices a, b, and c are all possible situations. e) Choices a, b, and c are not possible situations.
2.6.9. Which one of the following situations is possible at a given time t? a) An object has an instantaneous velocity of 0 m/s and an acceleration of 0 m/s2. b) An object has an instantaneous velocity of 0 m/s and an acceleration with a magnitude greater than 0 m/s2. c) An object has an instantaneous velocity with a magnitude greater than 0 m/s and an acceleration of 0 m/s2. d) Choices a, b, and c are all possible situations. e) Choices a, b, and c are not possible situations.
2.7.1. Consider the position versus time and velocity versus time graphs for an object in motion. Which one of the following phrases best describes the motion of the object?
a) constant position b) constant speed c) constant velocity d) constant acceleration
e) none of the above
2.7.1. Consider the position versus time and velocity versus time graphs for an object in motion. Which one of the following phrases best describes the motion of the object?
a) constant position b) constant speed c) constant velocity d) constant acceleration
e) none of the above
2.7.2. Complete the following statement: In dimensional analysis, the dimensions for velocity are
L a) T b) L T2 L2 c) 2 T
L2 d) T e) LT
2.7.2. Complete the following statement: In dimensional analysis, the dimensions for velocity are
L a) T b) L T2 L2 c) 2 T
L2 d) T e) LT
2.7.3. The average velocity can be defined by subtracting the initial velocity from the final velocity and dividing that result by the time interval. In which one of the following situations would it be incorrect to apply the above definition to determine the average velocity? a) A state police patrol car is parked on the median of the interstate highway.
b) A mallard duck is flying due south at 17 m/s. c) JoEllen rolled the bowling ball straight down the lane. d) The hot air balloon drifted upward at a constant speed of 2.0 m/s. e) A plane is rolling with a constant acceleration due east on a runway.
2.7.3. The average velocity can be defined by subtracting the initial velocity from the final velocity and dividing that result by the time interval. In which one of the following situations would it be incorrect to apply the above definition to determine the average velocity? a) A state police patrol car is parked on the median of the interstate highway.
b) A mallard duck is flying due south at 17 m/s. c) JoEllen rolled the bowling ball straight down the lane. d) The hot air balloon drifted upward at a constant speed of 2.0 m/s. e) A plane is rolling with a constant acceleration due east on a runway.
2.7.4. A fishing boat starts from rest and has a constant acceleration. In a certain time interval, its displacement doubles. In the same time interval, by what factor does its velocity increase? a) 0.500 b) 0.707 c) 1.41 d) 2.00 e) 4.00
2.7.4. A fishing boat starts from rest and has a constant acceleration. In a certain time interval, its displacement doubles. In the same time interval, by what factor does its velocity increase? a) 0.500 b) 0.707 c) 1.41 d) 2.00 e) 4.00
2.7.5. In the four equations of kinematics for constant acceleration given in the text, there are five variables. What is the minimum number of variables you must know in order to determine all five variables by using the equations? a) 1
b) 2 c) 3
d) 4
2.7.5. In the four equations of kinematics for constant acceleration given in the text, there are five variables. What is the minimum number of variables you must know in order to determine all five variables by using the equations? a) 1
b) 2 c) 3
d) 4
2.7.6. Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 2 m/s2. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the motion of this particle? a) The particle travels 2 m during each second. b) The particle travels 2 m only during the first second. c) The speed of the particle increases by 2 m/s during each second. d) The acceleration of the particle increases by 2 m/s2 during each second. e) The final speed of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.
2.7.6. Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 2 m/s2. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the motion of this particle? a) The particle travels 2 m during each second. b) The particle travels 2 m only during the first second. c) The speed of the particle increases by 2 m/s during each second. d) The acceleration of the particle increases by 2 m/s2 during each second. e) The final speed of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.
2.7.7. Which one of the following statements must be true if the expression x − x0 = (½)(v − v0)t is to be used? a) x is constant. b) t is constant.
c) v is constant. d) a is constant.
e) Both v0 and t are constant.
2.7.7. Which one of the following statements must be true if the expression x − x0 = (½)(v − v0)t is to be used? a) x is constant. b) t is constant.
c) v is constant. d) a is constant.
e) Both v0 and t are constant.
2.8.1. According to the text, there are two equations from which the five equations may be derived by taking the integral or antiderivative. Consider the following equations and choose the two equations to which the book is referring.
dv dt a) A and B A. x =
b) A and C c) B and C d) C and D e) B and D
B. v =
dx dt
C. a =
dv dt
D.
x − x0 = 12 ( v + v0 )t
2.8.1. According to the text, there are two equations from which the five equations may be derived by taking the integral or antiderivative. Consider the following equations and choose the two equations to which the book is referring.
dv dt a) A and B A. x =
b) A and C c) B and C d) C and D e) B and D
B. v =
dx dt
C. a =
dv dt
D.
x − x0 = 12 ( v + v0 )t
2.9.1. A heavy lead ball is dropped from rest from the top of a very tell tower. Neglecting the effect due to air resistance, which one of the following statements is false? a) The magnitude of the velocity of the ball increases by 9.8 m/s for each second that the ball falls.
b) At time t = 2.0 s, the position of the ball is 19.6 m below its initial position. c) At time t = 1.0 s, the instantaneous speed of the ball is 4.9 m/s. d) The ball falls 4.9 m during the first second that it falls. e) The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball is constant.
2.9.1. A heavy lead ball is dropped from rest from the top of a very tell tower. Neglecting the effect due to air resistance, which one of the following statements is false? a) The magnitude of the velocity of the ball increases by 9.8 m/s for each second that the ball falls.
b) At time t = 2.0 s, the position of the ball is 19.6 m below its initial position. c) At time t = 1.0 s, the instantaneous speed of the ball is 4.9 m/s. d) The ball falls 4.9 m during the first second that it falls. e) The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball is constant.
2.9.2. A child throws a ball vertically upward at the school playground. Which one of the following quantities is (are) equal to zero at the highest point of the ball’s trajectory? Assume that at the time of release t = 0, the ball is at y = 0 m. a) instantaneous velocity
b) displacement c) instantaneous acceleration
d) average acceleration e) both instantaneous velocity and instantaneous acceleration
2.9.2. A child throws a ball vertically upward at the school playground. Which one of the following quantities is (are) equal to zero at the highest point of the ball’s trajectory? Assume that at the time of release t = 0, the ball is at y = 0 m. a) instantaneous velocity
b) displacement c) instantaneous acceleration
d) average acceleration e) both instantaneous velocity and instantaneous acceleration
2.9.3. A rock is released from rest from a hot air balloon that is at rest with respect to the ground a few meters below. If we ignore air resistance as the rock falls, which one of the following statements is true? a) The rock will take longer than one second to reach the ground.
b) The instantaneous speed of the rock just before it reaches the ground will be 9.8 m/s. c) The rock is considered a freely falling body after it is released. d) As the rock falls, its acceleration is 9.8 m/s2, directed upward. e) After the ball is released it falls at a constant speed of 9.8 m/s.
2.9.3. A rock is released from rest from a hot air balloon that is at rest with respect to the ground a few meters below. If we ignore air resistance as the rock falls, which one of the following statements is true? a) The rock will take longer than one second to reach the ground.
b) The instantaneous speed of the rock just before it reaches the ground will be 9.8 m/s. c) The rock is considered a freely falling body after it is released. d) As the rock falls, its acceleration is 9.8 m/s2, directed upward. e) After the ball is released it falls at a constant speed of 9.8 m/s.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 3 Vectors Reading Quiz Questions
3.2.1. Which of the following parameters, if any, is not a vector? a) acceleration b) displacement c) average velocity d) all are vectors e) none are vectors
3.2.1. Which of the following parameters, if any, is not a vector? a) acceleration b) displacement c) average velocity d) all are vectors e) none are vectors
3.2.2. Which of the following parameters, if any, is not a scalar quantity? a) temperature b) distance
c) average speed d) instantaneous velocity
e) all are scalars
3.2.2. Which of the following parameters, if any, is not a scalar quantity? a) temperature b) distance
c) average speed d) instantaneous velocity
e) all are scalars
3.2.3. Which one of the following statements is true concerning scalar quantities? a) Scalar quantities have both magnitude and direction. b) Scalar quantities must be represented by base units.
c) Scalar quantities can be added to vector quantities using rules of trigonometry. d) Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of trigonometry. e) Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of ordinary addition.
3.2.3. Which one of the following statements is true concerning scalar quantities? a) Scalar quantities have both magnitude and direction. b) Scalar quantities must be represented by base units.
c) Scalar quantities can be added to vector quantities using rules of trigonometry. d) Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of trigonometry. e) Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of ordinary addition.
3.2.4. Which one of the following quantities is a vector quantity? a) the age of the pyramids in Egypt b) the mass of a watermelon c) the sun's pull on the earth d) the number of people on board an airplane e) the temperature of molten lava
3.2.4. Which one of the following quantities is a vector quantity? a) the age of the pyramids in Egypt b) the mass of a watermelon c) the sun's pull on the earth d) the number of people on board an airplane e) the temperature of molten lava
3.2.5. Which one of the following situations involves a vector quantity? a) The velocity of the rocket was 325 m/s, due east. b) The overnight low temperature in Toronto was −4.0 C.
c) The volume of the soft drink can is 0.360 liters. d) The mass of the Martian soil probe was 250 kg.
e) The light took approximately 500 s to travel from the sun to the earth.
3.2.5. Which one of the following situations involves a vector quantity? a) The velocity of the rocket was 325 m/s, due east. b) The overnight low temperature in Toronto was −4.0 C.
c) The volume of the soft drink can is 0.360 liters. d) The mass of the Martian soil probe was 250 kg.
e) The light took approximately 500 s to travel from the sun to the earth.
3.2.6. A vector is represented by an arrow. What is the significance of the length of the arrow? a) Long arrows represent velocities and short arrows represent forces. b) The length of the arrow is proportional to the magnitude of the vector. c) Short arrows represent accelerations and long arrows represent velocities.
d) The length of the arrow indicates its direction. e) There is no significance to the length of the arrow.
3.2.6. A vector is represented by an arrow. What is the significance of the length of the arrow? a) Long arrows represent velocities and short arrows represent forces. b) The length of the arrow is proportional to the magnitude of the vector. c) Short arrows represent accelerations and long arrows represent velocities.
d) The length of the arrow indicates its direction. e) There is no significance to the length of the arrow.
3.3.1. Consider the two vectors represented in the drawing. Which of the following options is the correct way to add graphically vectors a and b ?
3.3.1. Consider the two vectors represented in the drawing. Which of the following options is the correct way to add graphically vectors a and b ?
3.3.2. Consider the two vectors represented in the drawing. Which of the following options is the correct way to subtract graphically vectors a and b ?
3.3.2. Consider the two vectors represented in the drawing. Which of the following options is the correct way to subtract graphically vectors a and b ?
3.3.3. The horizontal and vertical components of vector v are v xand v y , respectively. Which one of the following statements concerning the sum of the magnitudes of the two component vectors is true? a) vx + vx = 0 b) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is greater than the magnitude of v . c) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is less than the magnitude of v.
d) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is equal to the magnitude of v. e) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is less than or equal to magnitude of v.
3.3.3. The horizontal and vertical components of vector v are v xand v y , respectively. Which one of the following statements concerning the sum of the magnitudes of the two component vectors is true? a) vx + vx = 0 b) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is greater than the magnitude of v . c) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is less than the magnitude of v.
d) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is equal to the magnitude of v. e) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is less than or equal to magnitude of v.
3.3.4. The horizontal and vertical components of vector v are v x and v y , respectively. Which one of the following statements concerning the vector sum of the two component vectors is true? a) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is greater than the magnitude of v . b) The vector sum of the two components is greater than the magnitude of v. c) The vector sum of the two components is less than the magnitude of v. d) The vector sum of the two components is equal to the magnitude of v.
e) The vector sum of the two components is less than or equal to the magnitude of v.
3.3.4. The horizontal and vertical components of vector v are v x and v y , respectively. Which one of the following statements concerning the vector sum of the two component vectors is true? a) The sum of the magnitudes of the two components is greater than the magnitude of v . b) The vector sum of the two components is greater than the magnitude of v. c) The vector sum of the two components is less than the magnitude of v. d) The vector sum of the two components is equal to the magnitude of v.
e) The vector sum of the two components is less than or equal to the magnitude of v.
3.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning vectors and scalars is false? a) In calculations, the vector components of a vector may be used in place of the vector itself. b) It is possible to use vector components that are not perpendicular. c) A scalar component may be either positive or negative. d) A vector that is zero may have components other than zero. e) Two vectors are equal only if they have the same magnitude and direction.
3.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning vectors and scalars is false? a) In calculations, the vector components of a vector may be used in place of the vector itself. b) It is possible to use vector components that are not perpendicular. c) A scalar component may be either positive or negative. d) A vector that is zero may have components other than zero. e) Two vectors are equal only if they have the same magnitude and direction.
3.4.2. A , B, and, C are three vectors. Vectors B and C when added together equal the vector A . In mathematical form, A = B + C . Which one of the following statements concerning the components of vectors B and C must be true if Ay = 0? a) The y components of vectors B and C are both equal to zero.
b) The y components of vectors B and C when added together equal zero. c) By − Cy = 0 or Cy − By = 0 d) Either answer (a) or answer (b) is correct, but never both. e) Either answer (a) or answer (b) is correct. It is also possible that both are correct.
3.4.2. A , B, and, C are three vectors. Vectors B and C when added together equal the vector A . In mathematical form, A = B + C . Which one of the following statements concerning the components of vectors B and C must be true if Ay = 0? a) The y components of vectors B and C are both equal to zero.
b) The y components of vectors B and C when added together equal zero. c) By − Cy = 0 or Cy − By = 0 d) Either answer (a) or answer (b) is correct, but never both. e) Either answer (a) or answer (b) is correct. It is also possible that both are correct.
3.4.3. Vector r has a magnitude of 88 km/h and is directed at 25 relative to the x axis. Which of the following choices indicates the horizontal and vertical components of vector r ? rx ry a) +22 km/h +66 km/h
b) +39 km/h +79 km/h c) +79 km/h +39 km/h
d) +66 km/h +22 km/h e) +72 km/h +48 km/h
3.4.3. Vector r has a magnitude of 88 km/h and is directed at 25 relative to the x axis. Which of the following choices indicates the horizontal and vertical components of vector r ? rx ry a) +22 km/h +66 km/h
b) +39 km/h +79 km/h c) +79 km/h +39 km/h
d) +66 km/h +22 km/h e) +72 km/h +48 km/h
3.4.4. Vector a has components ax = 15.0 and ay = 9.0. What is the approximate magnitude of vector a ? a) 12.0 b) 24.0
c) 10.9 d) 6.87
e) 17.5
3.4.4. Vector a has components ax = 15.0 and ay = 9.0. What is the approximate magnitude of vector a ? a) 12.0 b) 24.0
c) 10.9 d) 6.87
e) 17.5
3.4.5. Vector a has a horizontal component ax = 15.0 m and makes an angle = 38.0 with respect to the positive x direction. What is the magnitude of ay, the vertical component of vector a ? a) 4.46 m b) 4.65 m c) 5.02 m d) 7.97 m e) 14.3 m
3.4.5. Vector a has a horizontal component ax = 15.0 m and makes an angle = 38.0 with respect to the positive x direction. What is the magnitude of ay, the vertical component of vector a ? a) 4.46 m b) 4.65 m c) 5.02 m d) 7.97 m e) 14.3 m
3.5.1. Which one of the following statements concerning unit vectors is true? a) The magnitude of a unit vector is always equal to 1. b) A unit vector always points in the direction of motion.
c) The magnitude of a unit vector sometimes equals zero. d) A unit vector depends on the units of measurement used and is a method for tracking the units throughout a calculation. e) Unit vectors are predominantly used in mathematics, but seldom used in physics.
3.5.1. Which one of the following statements concerning unit vectors is true? a) The magnitude of a unit vector is always equal to 1. b) A unit vector always points in the direction of motion.
c) The magnitude of a unit vector sometimes equals zero. d) A unit vector depends on the units of measurement used and is a method for tracking the units throughout a calculation. e) Unit vectors are predominantly used in mathematics, but seldom used in physics.
3.5.2. A delivery truck leaves a warehouse and travels 2.60 km north. The truck makes a right turn and travels 1.33 km east before making another right turn and then travels 1.45 km south to arrive at its destination. Express the displacement of the truck from the warehouse using unit vectors, where north is the +jˆ direction and east is the + î direction. a) d = 1.33iˆ + 1.45jˆ
b) d = 1.15iˆ + 1.33jˆ c) d = 1.33iˆ + 1.15jˆ d) d = 1.33iˆ + 2.60jˆ e) d = 2.60iˆ + 1.45jˆ
3.5.2. A delivery truck leaves a warehouse and travels 2.60 km north. The truck makes a right turn and travels 1.33 km east before making another right turn and then travels 1.45 km south to arrive at its destination. Express the displacement of the truck from the warehouse using unit vectors, where north is the +jˆ direction and east is the + î direction. a) d = 1.33iˆ + 1.45jˆ
b) d = 1.15iˆ + 1.33jˆ c) d = 1.33iˆ + 1.15jˆ d) d = 1.33iˆ + 2.60jˆ e) d = 2.60iˆ + 1.45jˆ
3.6.1. Vector A has scalar components Ax = 35 m/s and Ay = 15 m/s. Vector B has scalar components Bx = −22 m/s and By = 18 m/s. Determine the scalar components of vector C = A − B . Cx a) 13 m/s
Cy −3 m/s
b) 57 m/s
33 m/s
c) 13 m/s
33 m/s
d) 57 m/s
−3 m/s
e) −57 m/s
3 m/s
3.6.1. Vector A has scalar components Ax = 35 m/s and Ay = 15 m/s. Vector B has scalar components Bx = −22 m/s and By = 18 m/s. Determine the scalar components of vector C = A − B . Cx a) 13 m/s
Cy −3 m/s
b) 57 m/s
33 m/s
c) 13 m/s
33 m/s
d) 57 m/s
−3 m/s
e) −57 m/s
3 m/s
3.6.2. Vector A = 3iˆ + 5jˆ and vector B = 2iˆ − 4ˆj. Determine the vector that results from the operation A − B . a) ˆi + ˆj b) 5iˆ − 9jˆ
c) ˆi − ˆj d) ˆi + 9jˆ
e) 5iˆ + ˆj
3.6.2. Vector A = 3iˆ + 5jˆ and vector B = 2iˆ − 4ˆj. Determine the vector that results from the operation A − B . a) ˆi + ˆj b) 5iˆ − 9jˆ
c) ˆi − ˆj d) ˆi + 9jˆ
e) 5iˆ + ˆj
3.7.1. How are the unit vectors chosen for a given coordinate system? a) The unit vectors are always chosen using the six common directions of north, east, south, west, upward, and downward. b) The unit vectors are always chosen to represent the directions with respect to a printed page with the directions, left, right, upward, downward, into the page, and out of the page. c) The unit vectors are chosen in any convenient manner because the relations of vectors are not dependent on the choice of the origin or the orientation of the axes, which are perpendicular to one another. d) The unit vectors are chosen in any convenient manner, regardless of the orientation of the unit vectors with respect to one another.
3.7.1. How are the unit vectors chosen for a given coordinate system? a) The unit vectors are always chosen using the six common directions of north, east, south, west, upward, and downward. b) The unit vectors are always chosen to represent the directions with respect to a printed page with the directions, left, right, upward, downward, into the page, and out of the page. c) The unit vectors are chosen in any convenient manner because the relations of vectors are not dependent on the choice of the origin or the orientation of the axes, which are perpendicular to one another. d) The unit vectors are chosen in any convenient manner, regardless of the orientation of the unit vectors with respect to one another.
3.8.1. Which of the following statements concerning the multiplication of a vector by a scalar is true?
a) A vector cannot be mathematically multiplied by a scalar. b) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a scalar product.
c) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a vector product. d) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a vector that is perpendicular to the original vector.
e) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a vector that is parallel to the original vector.
3.8.1. Which of the following statements concerning the multiplication of a vector by a scalar is true?
a) A vector cannot be mathematically multiplied by a scalar. b) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a scalar product.
c) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a vector product. d) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a vector that is perpendicular to the original vector.
e) When a vector is multiplied by a scalar, the result is a vector that is parallel to the original vector.
3.8.2. Which of the following statements concerning the multiplication of a vector by a number n < −1 is true?
a) A vector cannot be mathematically multiplied by a scalar. b) The result is a vector that is larger than the original vector and oppositely directed. c) The result is a vector that is smaller than the original vector and oppositely directed. d) The result is a vector that is larger than the original vector and rotated by 90 counterclockwise. e) The result is a vector that is smaller than the original vector and rotated by 90 counterclockwise.
3.8.2. Which of the following statements concerning the multiplication of a vector by a number n < −1 is true?
a) A vector cannot be mathematically multiplied by a scalar. b) The result is a vector that is larger than the original vector and oppositely directed. c) The result is a vector that is smaller than the original vector and oppositely directed. d) The result is a vector that is larger than the original vector and rotated by 90 counterclockwise. e) The result is a vector that is smaller than the original vector and rotated by 90 counterclockwise.
3.8.3. In which of the following situations does the scalar product of two vectors have the largest value? a) The vectors are perpendicular to each other. b) The angle between the two vectors is forty five degrees.
c) The angle between the two vectors is sixty degrees. d) The angle between the two vectors is zero degrees.
e) The angle between the two vectors is ninety degrees.
3.8.3. In which of the following situations does the scalar product of two vectors have the largest value? a) The vectors are perpendicular to each other. b) The angle between the two vectors is forty five degrees.
c) The angle between the two vectors is sixty degrees. d) The angle between the two vectors is zero degrees.
e) The angle between the two vectors is ninety degrees.
3.8.5. In which of the following situations does the magnitude of the vector product of two vectors have the largest value? a) The vectors are parallel with each other. b) The angle between the two vectors is forty five degrees.
c) The angle between the two vectors is sixty degrees. d) The angle between the two vectors is zero degrees.
e) The angle between the two vectors is ninety degrees.
3.8.5. In which of the following situations does the magnitude of the vector product of two vectors have the largest value? a) The vectors are parallel with each other. b) The angle between the two vectors is forty five degrees.
c) The angle between the two vectors is sixty degrees. d) The angle between the two vectors is zero degrees.
e) The angle between the two vectors is ninety degrees.
3.8.6. r1 and r2 are vectors. Vector r1 is directed due west and vector r2 is directed due north. Which of the following choices correctly indicates the directions of vectors − r1 and − r2 ? a) − r1 is directed due west and − r2 is directed due north b) − r1 is directed due west and − r2 is directed due south c) − r1 is directed due east and − r2 is directed due south d) − r1 is directed due east and − r2 is directed due north e) − r1 is directed due north and − r2 is directed due west
3.8.6. r1 and r2 are vectors. Vector r1 is directed due west and vector r2 is directed due north. Which of the following choices correctly indicates the directions of vectors − r1 and − r2 ? a) − r1 is directed due west and − r2 is directed due north b) − r1 is directed due west and − r2 is directed due south c) − r1 is directed due east and − r2 is directed due south d) − r1 is directed due east and − r2 is directed due north e) − r1 is directed due north and − r2 is directed due west
3.8.7. Vectors a and b have different magnitudes and directions. Which of the following vector operations does not result in a vector? a) a b b) a − b c) a b d) ca db e) a + b
3.8.7. Vectors a and b have different magnitudes and directions. Which of the following vector operations does not result in a vector? a) a b b) a − b c) a b d) ca db e) a + b
3.8.8. Vector A is directed due north. Vector B is directed due east. Determine the direction of the vector product, A B . a) due south b) due west
c) vertically downward d) vertically upward
e) 45 north of east
3.8.8. Vector A is directed due north. Vector B is directed due east. Determine the direction of the vector product, A B . a) due south b) due west
c) vertically downward d) vertically upward
e) 45 north of east
3.8.9. Under what conditions does A B = AB ? a) This situation never occurs. b) This occurs when the two vectors have the same magnitude. c) This occurs when the two vectors are perpendicular to one another. d) This occurs when the two vectors are parallel to one another. e) This always occurs, regardless of the particular vectors involved.
3.8.9. Under what conditions does A B = AB ? a) This situation never occurs. b) This occurs when the two vectors have the same magnitude. c) This occurs when the two vectors are perpendicular to one another. d) This occurs when the two vectors are parallel to one another. e) This always occurs, regardless of the particular vectors involved.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 4 Motion in Two and Three Dimensions Reading Quiz Questions
4.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the displacement of an object is false?
a) Displacement is a vector quantity that points from the initial position of an object to its final position. b) The magnitude of an object’s displacement is always equal to the distance it traveled from its initial position to its final position. c) The magnitude of an object’s displacement is the shortest distance from its initial position to its final position.
d) The direction of an object’s displacement is indicated by an arrow that begins on the initial position of the object and ends on its final position. e) The length of the arrow representing an object’s displacement is proportional to its magnitude.
4.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the displacement of an object is false?
a) Displacement is a vector quantity that points from the initial position of an object to its final position. b) The magnitude of an object’s displacement is always equal to the distance it traveled from its initial position to its final position. c) The magnitude of an object’s displacement is the shortest distance from its initial position to its final position.
d) The direction of an object’s displacement is indicated by an arrow that begins on the initial position of the object and ends on its final position. e) The length of the arrow representing an object’s displacement is proportional to its magnitude.
4.2.2. At time t1 = 0 s, the position vector of a sailboat is r1. Later, at time t2, the sailboat has a position vector r2. Which of the following expressions correctly indicates the displacement of the sailboat during the time interval, t2 − t1? a) r2
b) r1 c) r2 + r1
d) r2 - r1 e) r1 - r2
4.2.2. At time t1 = 0 s, the position vector of a sailboat is r1. Later, at time t2, the sailboat has a position vector r2. Which of the following expressions correctly indicates the displacement of the sailboat during the time interval, t2 − t1? a) r2
b) r1 c) r2 + r1
d) r2 - r1 e) r1 - r2
4.2.3. A delivery truck leaves a warehouse and travels 3.20 km east. The truck makes a right turn and travels 2.45 km south to arrive at its destination. What is the magnitude and direction of the truck’s displacement from the warehouse? a) 4.03 km, 37.4 south of east
b) 2.30 km, 52.5 south of east c) 0.75 km, 37.8 south of east
d) 2.40 km, 45.0 south of east e) 5.65 km, 52.5 south of east
4.2.3. A delivery truck leaves a warehouse and travels 3.20 km east. The truck makes a right turn and travels 2.45 km south to arrive at its destination. What is the magnitude and direction of the truck’s displacement from the warehouse? a) 4.03 km, 37.4 south of east
b) 2.30 km, 52.5 south of east c) 0.75 km, 37.8 south of east
d) 2.40 km, 45.0 south of east e) 5.65 km, 52.5 south of east
4.3.1. Which one of the following quantities is an object’s displacement divided by the elapsed time of the displacement? a) average velocity b) instantaneous velocity
c) average displacement d) average acceleration
e) instantaneous acceleration
4.3.1. Which one of the following quantities is an object’s displacement divided by the elapsed time of the displacement? a) average velocity b) instantaneous velocity
c) average displacement d) average acceleration
e) instantaneous acceleration
4.3.2. While on a one-hour trip, a small boat travels 32 km north and then travels 45 km east. What is the magnitude of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip? a) 39 km/h b) 55 km/h c) 77 km/h d) 89 km/h e) 96 km/h
4.3.2. While on a one-hour trip, a small boat travels 32 km north and then travels 45 km east. What is the magnitude of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip? a) 39 km/h b) 55 km/h c) 77 km/h d) 89 km/h e) 96 km/h
4.3.3. While on a one-hour trip, a small boat travels 32 km north and then travels 45 km east. What is the direction of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip? a) 45 north of east b) 54 north of east c) 35 north of east d) 27 north of east e) due east
4.3.3. While on a one-hour trip, a small boat travels 32 km north and then travels 45 km east. What is the direction of the boat's average velocity for the one-hour trip? a) 45 north of east b) 54 north of east c) 35 north of east d) 27 north of east e) due east
4.3.4. Complete the following statement: The direction of the instantaneous velocity of a particle is a) tangent to the path of the particle. b) the same as the direction of the average velocity vector.
c) perpendicular to the path of the particle. d) the same as the direction of the acceleration of the particle.
e) perpendicular to the direction of the acceleration of the particle.
4.3.4. Complete the following statement: The direction of the instantaneous velocity of a particle is a) tangent to the path of the particle. b) the same as the direction of the average velocity vector.
c) perpendicular to the path of the particle. d) the same as the direction of the acceleration of the particle.
e) perpendicular to the direction of the acceleration of the particle.
4.3.5. A truck drives due south for 1.8 km in 2.0 minutes. Then, the truck turns and drives due west for 1.8 km in 2.0 minutes. Which one of the following statements is correct? a) The average speed for the two segments is the same. The average velocity for the two segments is the same.
b) The average speed for the two segments is not the same. The average velocity for the two segments is the same. c) The average speed for the two segments is the same. The average velocity for the two segments is not the same. d) The average speed for the two segments is not the same. The average velocity for the two segments is not the same.
4.3.5. A truck drives due south for 1.8 km in 2.0 minutes. Then, the truck turns and drives due west for 1.8 km in 2.0 minutes. Which one of the following statements is correct? a) The average speed for the two segments is the same. The average velocity for the two segments is the same.
b) The average speed for the two segments is not the same. The average velocity for the two segments is the same. c) The average speed for the two segments is the same. The average velocity for the two segments is not the same. d) The average speed for the two segments is not the same. The average velocity for the two segments is not the same.
4.4.1. Which of the following is not a vector?
a) position b) displacement c) average velocity d) centripetal acceleration e) range
4.4.1. Which of the following is not a vector?
a) position b) displacement c) average velocity d) centripetal acceleration e) range
4.4.2. Which one of the following quantities is the change in object’s velocity divided by the elapsed time as the elapsed time becomes very small? a) average velocity b) instantaneous velocity c) average displacement d) average acceleration e) instantaneous acceleration
4.4.2. Which one of the following quantities is the change in object’s velocity divided by the elapsed time as the elapsed time becomes very small? a) average velocity b) instantaneous velocity c) average displacement d) average acceleration e) instantaneous acceleration
4.4.3. How is the direction of the average acceleration determined? a) The direction of the average acceleration is the same as that of the displacement vector. b) The direction of the average acceleration is the same as that of the instantaneous velocity vector. c) The direction of the average acceleration is that of the vector subtraction of the initial velocity from the final velocity. d) The direction of the average acceleration is the same as that of the average velocity vector. e) The direction of the average acceleration is that of the vector addition of the initial velocity from the final velocity.
4.4.3. How is the direction of the average acceleration determined? a) The direction of the average acceleration is the same as that of the displacement vector. b) The direction of the average acceleration is the same as that of the instantaneous velocity vector. c) The direction of the average acceleration is that of the vector subtraction of the initial velocity from the final velocity. d) The direction of the average acceleration is the same as that of the average velocity vector. e) The direction of the average acceleration is that of the vector addition of the initial velocity from the final velocity.
4.5.1. A football is kicked at an angle 25 with respect to the horizontal. Which one of the following statements best describes the acceleration of the football during this event if air resistance is neglected? a) The acceleration is zero m/s2 at all times. b) The acceleration is zero m/s2 when the football has reached the highest point in its trajectory. c) The acceleration is positive as the football rises, and it is negative as the football falls. d) The acceleration starts at 9.8 m/s2 and drops to some constant lower value as the ball approaches the ground. e) The acceleration is 9.8 m/s2 at all times.
4.5.1. A football is kicked at an angle 25 with respect to the horizontal. Which one of the following statements best describes the acceleration of the football during this event if air resistance is neglected? a) The acceleration is zero m/s2 at all times. b) The acceleration is zero m/s2 when the football has reached the highest point in its trajectory. c) The acceleration is positive as the football rises, and it is negative as the football falls. d) The acceleration starts at 9.8 m/s2 and drops to some constant lower value as the ball approaches the ground. e) The acceleration is 9.8 m/s2 at all times.
4.5.2. A baseball is hit upward and travels along a parabolic arc before it strikes the ground. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
a) The velocity of the ball is a maximum when the ball is at the highest point in the arc. b) The x-component of the velocity of the ball is the same throughout the ball's flight. c) The acceleration of the ball decreases as the ball moves upward. d) The velocity of the ball is zero m/s when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.
e) The acceleration of the ball is zero m/s2 when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.
4.5.2. A baseball is hit upward and travels along a parabolic arc before it strikes the ground. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
a) The velocity of the ball is a maximum when the ball is at the highest point in the arc. b) The x-component of the velocity of the ball is the same throughout the ball's flight. c) The acceleration of the ball decreases as the ball moves upward. d) The velocity of the ball is zero m/s when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.
e) The acceleration of the ball is zero m/s2 when the ball is at the highest point in the arc.
4.5.3. Two cannons are mounted on a high cliff. Cannon A fires balls with twice the initial velocity of cannon B. Both cannons are aimed horizontally and fired. How does the horizontal range of cannon A compare to that of cannon B? a) The range for both balls will be the same
b) The range of the cannon ball B is about 0.7 that of cannon ball A. c) The range of the cannon ball B is about 1.4 times that of cannon ball A. d) The range of the cannon ball B is about 2 times that of cannon ball A. e) The range of the cannon ball B is about 0.5 that of cannon ball A.
4.5.3. Two cannons are mounted on a high cliff. Cannon A fires balls with twice the initial velocity of cannon B. Both cannons are aimed horizontally and fired. How does the horizontal range of cannon A compare to that of cannon B? a) The range for both balls will be the same
b) The range of the cannon ball B is about 0.7 that of cannon ball A. c) The range of the cannon ball B is about 1.4 times that of cannon ball A. d) The range of the cannon ball B is about 2 times that of cannon ball A. e) The range of the cannon ball B is about 0.5 that of cannon ball A.
4.5.4. Which one of the following statements concerning the range of a football is true if the football is kicked at an angle with an initial speed v0? a) The range is independent of initial speed v0. b) The range is only dependent on the initial speed v0. c) The range is independent of the angle. d) The range is only dependent on the angle. e) The range is dependent on both the initial speed v0 and the angle.
4.5.4. Which one of the following statements concerning the range of a football is true if the football is kicked at an angle with an initial speed v0? a) The range is independent of initial speed v0. b) The range is only dependent on the initial speed v0. c) The range is independent of the angle. d) The range is only dependent on the angle. e) The range is dependent on both the initial speed v0 and the angle.
4.5.5. Complete the following statement: In projectile motion, a) the horizontal motion depends on the vertical motion. b) the vertical motion depends on the horizontal motion. c) the horizontal acceleration depends on the vertical acceleration. d) the horizontal motion and the vertical motion are independent of each other.
e) the vertical acceleration depends on the horizontal acceleration.
4.5.5. Complete the following statement: In projectile motion, a) the horizontal motion depends on the vertical motion. b) the vertical motion depends on the horizontal motion. c) the horizontal acceleration depends on the vertical acceleration. d) the horizontal motion and the vertical motion are independent of each other.
e) the vertical acceleration depends on the horizontal acceleration.
4.5.6. An airplane is flying horizontally at a constant velocity when a package is dropped from its cargo bay. Assuming no air resistance, which one of the following statements is correct? a) The package follows a curved path that lags behind the airplane. b) The package follows a straight line path that lags behind the airplane. c) The package follows a straight line path, but it is always vertically below the airplane. d) The package follows a curved path, but it is always vertically below the airplane. e) The package follows a curved path, but its horizontal position varies depending on the velocity of the airplane.
4.5.6. An airplane is flying horizontally at a constant velocity when a package is dropped from its cargo bay. Assuming no air resistance, which one of the following statements is correct? a) The package follows a curved path that lags behind the airplane. b) The package follows a straight line path that lags behind the airplane. c) The package follows a straight line path, but it is always vertically below the airplane. d) The package follows a curved path, but it is always vertically below the airplane. e) The package follows a curved path, but its horizontal position varies depending on the velocity of the airplane.
4.6.1. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the acceleration at point A? a) b) c) d) e) The acceleration at point A is zero m/s2.
4.6.1. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the acceleration at point A? a) b) c) d) e) The acceleration at point A is zero m/s2.
4.6.2. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the acceleration at point B? a) b) c) d) e) The velocity at point B is zero m/s.
4.6.2. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the acceleration at point B? a) b) c) d) e) The velocity at point B is zero m/s.
4.6.3. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the velocity at point C? a) b) c) d) e) The velocity at point C is zero m/s.
4.6.3. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the velocity at point C? a) b) c) d) e) The velocity at point C is zero m/s.
4.6.4. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the acceleration at point B? a) b) c) d) e) The acceleration at point B is zero m/s2.
4.6.4. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following arrows best represents the direction of the acceleration at point B? a) b) c) d) e) The acceleration at point B is zero m/s2.
4.6.5. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following graphs best represents the horizontal position, x, of the ball versus elapsed time?
4.6.5. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following graphs best represents the horizontal position, x, of the ball versus elapsed time?
4.6.6. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following graphs best represents the vertical position, y, of the ball versus elapsed time?
4.6.6. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following graphs best represents the vertical position, y, of the ball versus elapsed time?
4.6.7. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following graphs best represents the y component of the velocity of the ball versus elapsed time?
4.6.7. A ball is launched with an initial velocity v0 as shown. Which one of the following graphs best represents the y component of the velocity of the ball versus elapsed time?
4.6.8. A professional golfer’s club strikes a ball on a tee and launches the ball at an angle of 40. Which one of the following statements concerning the acceleration of the ball is true, if the effects of air resistance are ignored? a) While the ball is in the air, its acceleration is zero m/s2.
b) At the highest point of the ball’s flight, its acceleration is instantaneously equal to zero m/s2. c) As it is rising, its acceleration decreases from 9.8 m/s2 to zero m/s2 at its highest point. d) The acceleration is equal to (9.8 m/s2)(sin 40) = 6.3 m/s2. e) While the ball is in the air, its acceleration is 9.8 m/s2.
4.6.8. A professional golfer’s club strikes a ball on a tee and launches the ball at an angle of 40. Which one of the following statements concerning the acceleration of the ball is true, if the effects of air resistance are ignored? a) While the ball is in the air, its acceleration is zero m/s2.
b) At the highest point of the ball’s flight, its acceleration is instantaneously equal to zero m/s2. c) As it is rising, its acceleration decreases from 9.8 m/s2 to zero m/s2 at its highest point. d) The acceleration is equal to (9.8 m/s2)(sin 40) = 6.3 m/s2. e) While the ball is in the air, its acceleration is 9.8 m/s2.
4.7.1. A steel ball is tied to the end of a string and swung in a vertical circle at constant speed. Complete the following statement: The direction of the acceleration of the ball is always a) perpendicular to the circle. b) toward the center of the circle. c) tangent to the circle. d) radially outward from the circle. e) vertically downward.
4.7.1. A steel ball is tied to the end of a string and swung in a vertical circle at constant speed. Complete the following statement: The direction of the acceleration of the ball is always a) perpendicular to the circle. b) toward the center of the circle. c) tangent to the circle. d) radially outward from the circle. e) vertically downward.
4.7.2. A steel ball is tied to the end of a string and swung in a vertical circle at constant speed. Complete the following statement: The direction of the instantaneous velocity of the ball is always a) perpendicular to the circle. b) toward the center of the circle. c) tangent to the circle. d) radially outward from the circle. e) vertically downward.
4.7.2. A steel ball is tied to the end of a string and swung in a vertical circle at constant speed. Complete the following statement: The direction of the instantaneous velocity of the ball is always a) perpendicular to the circle. b) toward the center of the circle. c) tangent to the circle. d) radially outward from the circle. e) vertically downward.
4.7.3. A bicycle racer is traveling at constant speed v around a circular track. The centripetal acceleration of the bicycle is ac. What happens to the centripetal acceleration of the bicycle if the speed is doubled to 2v? a) The centripetal acceleration increases to 4ac.
b) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.25 ac. c) The centripetal acceleration increases to 2ac.
d) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.5ac. e) The centripetal acceleration does not change.
4.7.3. A bicycle racer is traveling at constant speed v around a circular track. The centripetal acceleration of the bicycle is ac. What happens to the centripetal acceleration of the bicycle if the speed is doubled to 2v? a) The centripetal acceleration increases to 4ac.
b) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.25 ac. c) The centripetal acceleration increases to 2ac.
d) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.5ac. e) The centripetal acceleration does not change.
4.7.4. A satellite orbits the Earth in uniform circular motion. What is the direction of centripetal acceleration of the satellite?
a) The centripetal acceleration is a scalar quantity and it doesn’t have a direction. b) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially outward from the Earth. c) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially inward toward the Earth. d) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction of the satellite’s velocity. e) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction opposite that of the satellite’s velocity.
4.7.4. A satellite orbits the Earth in uniform circular motion. What is the direction of centripetal acceleration of the satellite?
a) The centripetal acceleration is a scalar quantity and it doesn’t have a direction. b) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially outward from the Earth. c) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially inward toward the Earth. d) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction of the satellite’s velocity. e) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction opposite that of the satellite’s velocity.
4.7.5. A motorcycle travels at a constant speed around a circular track. Which one of the following statements about this motorcycle is true? a) The car has a velocity vector that points along the radius of the circle.
b) The car is characterized by constant velocity. c) The car is characterized by constant acceleration.
d) The velocity of the car is changing. e) The car has an acceleration vector that is tangent to the circle at all times.
4.7.5. A motorcycle travels at a constant speed around a circular track. Which one of the following statements about this motorcycle is true? a) The car has a velocity vector that points along the radius of the circle.
b) The car is characterized by constant velocity. c) The car is characterized by constant acceleration.
d) The velocity of the car is changing. e) The car has an acceleration vector that is tangent to the circle at all times.
4.7.6. A truck is traveling with a constant speed of 15 m/s. When the truck follows a curve in the road, its centripetal acceleration is 4.0 m/s2. What is the radius of the curve? a) 3.8 m b) 14 m c) 56 m d) 120 m e) 210 m
4.7.6. A truck is traveling with a constant speed of 15 m/s. When the truck follows a curve in the road, its centripetal acceleration is 4.0 m/s2. What is the radius of the curve? a) 3.8 m b) 14 m c) 56 m d) 120 m e) 210 m
4.7.7. If an object is moving in uniform circular motion, its period is given by which one of the following quantities? a) the speed of the object b) the centripetal acceleration of the object
c) the number of revolutions the object makes each second d) the time interval for the object to make one revolution
e) the displacement of the object
4.7.7. If an object is moving in uniform circular motion, its period is given by which one of the following quantities? a) the speed of the object b) the centripetal acceleration of the object
c) the number of revolutions the object makes each second d) the time interval for the object to make one revolution
e) the displacement of the object
4.7.8. When using the term “uniform circular motion,” what do we mean by the term “uniform?” a) The direction of the object’s velocity is constant. b) The net force on the moving object is zero newtons.
c) The forces acting on the object are uniformly applied from all directions. d) The motion occurs without the influence of the gravitational force. e) The motion of the object is at a constant speed.
4.7.8. When using the term “uniform circular motion,” what do we mean by the term “uniform?” a) The direction of the object’s velocity is constant. b) The net force on the moving object is zero newtons.
c) The forces acting on the object are uniformly applied from all directions. d) The motion occurs without the influence of the gravitational force. e) The motion of the object is at a constant speed.
4.7.9. For an object in uniform circular motion, which of the following statements is false ? a) The velocity of the object is constant. b) The magnitude of the acceleration of the object is constant.
c) The acceleration is directed radially inward. d) The magnitude of the velocity is constant.
e) The velocity is directed in a direction that is tangent to the circular path.
4.7.9. For an object in uniform circular motion, which of the following statements is false ? a) The velocity of the object is constant. b) The magnitude of the acceleration of the object is constant.
c) The acceleration is directed radially inward. d) The magnitude of the velocity is constant.
e) The velocity is directed in a direction that is tangent to the circular path.
4.8.1. At one point during the Tour de France bicycle race, three racers are riding along a straight, level section of road. The velocity of racer A relative to racer B is vAB; the velocity of A relative to C is vAC ; and the velocity of C relative to B is vCB . If vAB = +6.0 m/s, and vAC = +2.0 m/s, what is vCB ? a) +2.0 m/s b) +4.0 m/s c) +8.0 m/s d) −4.0 m/s e) −2.0 m/s
4.8.1. At one point during the Tour de France bicycle race, three racers are riding along a straight, level section of road. The velocity of racer A relative to racer B is vAB; the velocity of A relative to C is vAC ; and the velocity of C relative to B is vCB . If vAB = +6.0 m/s, and vAC = +2.0 m/s, what is vCB ? a) +2.0 m/s b) +4.0 m/s c) +8.0 m/s d) −4.0 m/s e) −2.0 m/s
4.8.2. Reference frame A is in motion with respect to reference frame B. Complete the following statement: The speed of an object with respect to reference frame A a) must be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. b) must be less the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. c) must be greater than the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. d) may or may not be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. e) cannot be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B.
4.8.2. Reference frame A is in motion with respect to reference frame B. Complete the following statement: The speed of an object with respect to reference frame A a) must be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. b) must be less the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. c) must be greater than the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. d) may or may not be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. e) cannot be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B.
4.8.3. Reference frame A is in motion with respect to reference frame B. Complete the following statement: The velocity of an object with respect to reference frame A a) must be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. b) must be less the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. c) must be greater than the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. d) may or may not be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. e) cannot be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B.
4.8.3. Reference frame A is in motion with respect to reference frame B. Complete the following statement: The velocity of an object with respect to reference frame A a) must be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. b) must be less the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. c) must be greater than the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. d) may or may not be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B. e) cannot be equal to the speed of the object with respect to reference frame B.
4.9.1. Two private airplanes are taxiing at a small airport. Jim is in plane A rolling due south with respect to the ground. Samantha is in plane B rolling due west with respect to the ground. Samantha is in front of Jim and to his left. In what direction(s), relative to himself, does Jim see Samantha’s plane moving? a) due east b) due west c) due south d) to the south and to the east e) to the north and to the west
4.9.1. Two private airplanes are taxiing at a small airport. Jim is in plane A rolling due south with respect to the ground. Samantha is in plane B rolling due west with respect to the ground. Samantha is in front of Jim and to his left. In what direction(s), relative to himself, does Jim see Samantha’s plane moving? a) due east b) due west c) due south d) to the south and to the east e) to the north and to the west
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 5 Force and Motion Reading Quiz Questions
5.2.1. Which of the following phrases best describes the main subject of this chapter? a) the unification of the forces of nature b) the relationship between a force and acceleration
c) the life of Isaac Newton d) the laws of physics
e) the best method for solving physics problems
5.2.1. Which of the following phrases best describes the main subject of this chapter? a) the unification of the forces of nature b) the relationship between a force and acceleration
c) the life of Isaac Newton d) the laws of physics
e) the best method for solving physics problems
5.2.2. Which one of the following statements concerning Newtonian mechanics is false?
a) Newtonian mechanics was developed by Isaac Newton. b) Newtonian mechanics can be considered a special case of either Special Relativity or Quantum Mechanics, which are more comprehensive theories. c) Newtonian mechanics can be used to describe the motion of galaxies. d) Newtonian mechanics provides an understanding of the relationship between forces and accelerations. e) Newtonian mechanics applies to all objects, regardless of their speed or acceleration.
5.2.2. Which one of the following statements concerning Newtonian mechanics is false?
a) Newtonian mechanics was developed by Isaac Newton. b) Newtonian mechanics can be considered a special case of either Special Relativity or Quantum Mechanics, which are more comprehensive theories. c) Newtonian mechanics can be used to describe the motion of galaxies. d) Newtonian mechanics provides an understanding of the relationship between forces and accelerations. e) Newtonian mechanics applies to all objects, regardless of their speed or acceleration.
5.3.1. Which of the following statements is true according to Newton’s first law of motion? a) A net force is required to maintain an object at rest. b) A net force is required to maintain an object’s constant velocity. c) A net force is required to change an object’s velocity.
5.3.1. Which of the following statements is true according to Newton’s first law of motion? a) A net force is required to maintain an object at rest. b) A net force is required to maintain an object’s constant velocity. c) A net force is required to change an object’s velocity.
5.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning Newton’s first law of motion is false? a) If no force acts on an object, the object's velocity cannot change. b) If no net force acts on an object, the object cannot accelerate.
c) All objects in motion have forces acting on them. d) All of the answers above are false.
5.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning Newton’s first law of motion is false? a) If no force acts on an object, the object's velocity cannot change. b) If no net force acts on an object, the object cannot accelerate.
c) All objects in motion have forces acting on them. d) All of the answers above are false.
5.4.1. What unit is defined by a 1-m/s2 acceleration of a 1-kg object? a) Lorenz b) Newton c) Dawson
d) Einstein e) Nelson
5.4.1. What unit is defined by a 1-m/s2 acceleration of a 1-kg object? a) Lorenz b) Newton c) Dawson
d) Einstein e) Nelson
5.4.2. Complete the following statement: The net force that results when two or more forces act on an object is a) determined by adding the magnitudes of the individual forces. The direction of the net force is the same as the direction of motion. b) the largest force acting on the object. c) determined using vector addition of the individual forces acting on the object.
d) the magnitude of the largest force acting on the object. The direction of the net force is the same as the direction of motion.
5.4.2. Complete the following statement: The net force that results when two or more forces act on an object is a) determined by adding the magnitudes of the individual forces. The direction of the net force is the same as the direction of motion. b) the largest force acting on the object. c) determined using vector addition of the individual forces acting on the object.
d) the magnitude of the largest force acting on the object. The direction of the net force is the same as the direction of motion.
5.4.3. Complete the following statement: The term net force most accurately describes a) the inertia of an object. b) the quantity that causes displacement. c) the quantity that keeps an object moving.
d) the mass of an object. e) the quantity that changes the velocity of an object.
5.4.3. Complete the following statement: The term net force most accurately describes a) the inertia of an object. b) the quantity that causes displacement. c) the quantity that keeps an object moving.
d) the mass of an object. e) the quantity that changes the velocity of an object.
5.4.4. Complete the following statement: An inertial reference frame is one in which a) the frame is accelerating. b) Newton’s laws of motion are valid.
c) the acceleration due to gravity is greater than zero m/s2. d) Newton’s third law of motion is not valid.
e) the coordinate axes are rotating.
5.4.4. Complete the following statement: An inertial reference frame is one in which a) the frame is accelerating. b) Newton’s laws of motion are valid.
c) the acceleration due to gravity is greater than zero m/s2. d) Newton’s third law of motion is not valid.
e) the coordinate axes are rotating.
5.5.1. With one exception, each of the following units can be used to express mass. What is the exception? a) newton b) kilogram
c) gram d) N•s2/m
5.5.1. With one exception, each of the following units can be used to express mass. What is the exception? a) newton b) kilogram
c) gram d) N•s2/m
5.6.1. A net force F is required to give an object with mass m an acceleration a . If a net force 6 F is applied to an object with mass 2m, what is the acceleration on this object? a) a b) 2 a c) 3 a d) 4 a e) 6 a
5.6.1. A net force F is required to give an object with mass m an acceleration a . If a net force 6 F is applied to an object with mass 2m, what is the acceleration on this object? a) a b) 2 a c) 3 a d) 4 a e) 6 a
5.6.2. Two forces act on a hockey puck. For which orientation of the forces will the puck acquire an acceleration with the largest magnitude?
5.6.2. Two forces act on a hockey puck. For which orientation of the forces will the puck acquire an acceleration with the largest magnitude?
5.6.3. Which one of the following tools is useful in representing the forces acting on an object and simplifies problem solving? a) free-body diagram b) scalar drawing
c) vector analyzer d) Newton’s ladder
e) force monitor
5.6.3. Which one of the following tools is useful in representing the forces acting on an object and simplifies problem solving? a) free-body diagram b) scalar drawing
c) vector analyzer d) Newton’s ladder
e) force monitor
5.6.4. An object moves in the eastward direction at constant speed. A net force directed northward acts on the object for 5.0 s. At the end of the 5.0-second period, the net force drops to zero newtons. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true? a) The final velocity of the object will be directed north of east. b) The object will be moving eastward when the force drops to zero newtons. c) The direction of the object's acceleration depends on how fast the object was initially moving. d) The change in the velocity of the object will be directed north of west. e) The magnitude of the object's acceleration depends on how fast the object was initially moving.
5.6.4. An object moves in the eastward direction at constant speed. A net force directed northward acts on the object for 5.0 s. At the end of the 5.0-second period, the net force drops to zero newtons. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true? a) The final velocity of the object will be directed north of east. b) The object will be moving eastward when the force drops to zero newtons. c) The direction of the object's acceleration depends on how fast the object was initially moving. d) The change in the velocity of the object will be directed north of west. e) The magnitude of the object's acceleration depends on how fast the object was initially moving.
5.6.5. Which one of the following equations is associated with Newton's second law? k 2 a) a = x m
b) p = mv
c) F = ma m1m2 d) F = G 2 r
e) F1 = − F2
5.6.5. Which one of the following equations is associated with Newton's second law? k 2 a) a = x m
b) p = mv
c) F = ma m1m2 d) F = G 2 r
e) F1 = − F2
5.6.6. While working on a project in very-low gravity on the orbiting space station, an engineer finds that when a force F is applied to a 2.0-kg book, it accelerates at 0.50 m/s2. If the same force is then applied to a 6.0-kg instruction manual, what would the manual’s acceleration be? a) 0.17 m/s2 b) 0.25 m/s2 c) 0.33 m/s2 d) 0.50 m/s2 e) 1.50 m/s2
5.6.6. While working on a project in very-low gravity on the orbiting space station, an engineer finds that when a force F is applied to a 2.0-kg book, it accelerates at 0.50 m/s2. If the same force is then applied to a 6.0-kg instruction manual, what would the manual’s acceleration be? a) 0.17 m/s2 b) 0.25 m/s2 c) 0.33 m/s2 d) 0.50 m/s2 e) 1.50 m/s2
5.6.7. Under what condition(s) will an object be in equilibrium? a) only if it is at rest b) only if it is moving with constant velocity c) only if it is moving with constant acceleration d) if it is either at rest or moving with constant velocity e) if it is either moving with constant velocity or with constant acceleration
5.6.7. Under what condition(s) will an object be in equilibrium? a) only if it is at rest b) only if it is moving with constant velocity c) only if it is moving with constant acceleration d) if it is either at rest or moving with constant velocity e) if it is either moving with constant velocity or with constant acceleration
5.7.1. Complete the following statement: Near the surface of the earth, the weight of an object a) is the same as the mass of the object. b) is the gravitational force of the earth on the object.
c) has the same value regardless of the altitude above the surface of the earth. d) has the same value regardless of the mass of the object.
5.7.1. Complete the following statement: Near the surface of the earth, the weight of an object a) is the same as the mass of the object. b) is the gravitational force of the earth on the object.
c) has the same value regardless of the altitude above the surface of the earth. d) has the same value regardless of the mass of the object.
5.7.2. During gym class, a boy climbs a vertical rope and temporarily stops half way between the floor below and the ceiling above. Consider the following forces: (1) gravity, (2) normal force, (3) friction, and (4) tension. At that moment, ignoring any effects due to the surrounding air, which of these forces are acting on the boy? a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 b) 1, 2, and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only e) 1 and 4 only
5.7.2. During gym class, a boy climbs a vertical rope and temporarily stops half way between the floor below and the ceiling above. Consider the following forces: (1) gravity, (2) normal force, (3) friction, and (4) tension. At that moment, ignoring any effects due to the surrounding air, which of these forces are acting on the boy? a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 b) 1, 2, and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only e) 1 and 4 only
5.7.3. What is the meaning of the word “normal” in the term “normal force?” a) that it is in magnitude and opposite in direction to the weight of the object b) that it is one that is encountered in everyday life c) that it is directed perpendicular to a surface d) that it is measurable e) that it has a magnitude of 1 unit
5.7.3. What is the meaning of the word “normal” in the term “normal force?” a) that it is in magnitude and opposite in direction to the weight of the object b) that it is one that is encountered in everyday life c) that it is directed perpendicular to a surface d) that it is measurable e) that it has a magnitude of 1 unit
5.7.4. A brick is resting on the surface of a flat board. As one end of the board is slowly raised, what change, if any, is there in the normal force exerted on the brick? a) The normal force increases. b) The normal force decreases. c) The normal force remains constant. d) Only the direction of the normal force changes.
5.7.4. A brick is resting on the surface of a flat board. As one end of the board is slowly raised, what change, if any, is there in the normal force exerted on the brick? a) The normal force increases. b) The normal force decreases. c) The normal force remains constant. d) Only the direction of the normal force changes.
5.7.5. A smooth wooden block is sitting at rest on a flat wood board that makes an angle with respect to the horizontal plane. To which of the following parameters is the normal force on the block proportional? a) cos
b) sin c) tan
5.7.5. A smooth wooden block is sitting at rest on a flat wood board that makes an angle with respect to the horizontal plane. To which of the following parameters is the normal force on the block proportional? a) cos
b) sin c) tan
5.8.1. Which one of the following statements is true according to Newton’s third law of motion?
a) The vector sum of all forces acting on an object is zero. b) A force on an object produces an equal in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on another object. c) A force on an object produces another equal in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on the object. d) A force on an object produces another differing in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on the object. e) A force on an object produces another differing in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on another object.
5.8.1. Which one of the following statements is true according to Newton’s third law of motion?
a) The vector sum of all forces acting on an object is zero. b) A force on an object produces an equal in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on another object. c) A force on an object produces another equal in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on the object. d) A force on an object produces another differing in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on the object. e) A force on an object produces another differing in magnitude, but oppositely directed force on another object.
5.8.2. A cell phone is sitting on a desk. Which one of the following is the reaction force to the cell phone’s weight on the desk? a) the gravitational force on the cell phone b) the gravitational force on the table
c) the normal force of the Earth on the table d) the normal force of the cell phone on the table
e) the normal force of the table on the cell phone
5.8.2. A cell phone is sitting on a desk. Which one of the following is the reaction force to the cell phone’s weight on the desk? a) the gravitational force on the cell phone b) the gravitational force on the table
c) the normal force of the Earth on the table d) the normal force of the cell phone on the table
e) the normal force of the table on the cell phone
5.8.3. Ryan walked to a cliff and dropped a stone. Neglecting any effects due to the air as it falls vertically, which one of the following is the reaction force to the Earth’s gravity on the stone? a) the normal force of the ground below b) the normal force of Ryan’s hand on the stone c) the gravitational force of the stone on the Earth d) No reaction force appears in this situation since the stone is not exerting any forces on anything else.
5.8.3. Ryan walked to a cliff and dropped a stone. Neglecting any effects due to the air as it falls vertically, which one of the following is the reaction force to the Earth’s gravity on the stone? a) the normal force of the ground below b) the normal force of Ryan’s hand on the stone c) the gravitational force of the stone on the Earth d) No reaction force appears in this situation since the stone is not exerting any forces on anything else.
5.9.1. Note the following situations: In which case will the magnitude of the normal force on the block be equal to (Mg + F sin )?
a) case 1 only b) case 2 only
c) both cases 1 and 2 d) both cases 2 and 3 e) cases 1, 2, and 3
5.9.1. Note the following situations: In which case will the magnitude of the normal force on the block be equal to (Mg + F sin )?
a) case 1 only b) case 2 only
c) both cases 1 and 2 d) both cases 2 and 3 e) cases 1, 2, and 3
5.9.2. A rock is suspended from a string and moves downward at constant speed. Which statement is true concerning the tension in the string if air resistance is ignored? a) The tension is less than the weight of the rock. b) The tension is equal to the weight of the rock. c) The tension is greater than the weight of the rock. d) The tension points downward. e) The tension is zero newtons.
5.9.2. A rock is suspended from a string and moves downward at constant speed. Which statement is true concerning the tension in the string if air resistance is ignored? a) The tension is less than the weight of the rock. b) The tension is equal to the weight of the rock. c) The tension is greater than the weight of the rock. d) The tension points downward. e) The tension is zero newtons.
5.9.3. A water skier is pulled by a boat traveling with a constant velocity. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation? a) The water skier is in equilibrium. b) The net acceleration of the skier is zero m/s2. c) The net force on the skier is zero newtons. d) There is a net horizontal force on the skier in the direction the boat’s velocity. e) The net vertical force on the skier is zero newtons.
5.9.3. A water skier is pulled by a boat traveling with a constant velocity. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation? a) The water skier is in equilibrium. b) The net acceleration of the skier is zero m/s2. c) The net force on the skier is zero newtons. d) There is a net horizontal force on the skier in the direction the boat’s velocity. e) The net vertical force on the skier is zero newtons.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 6 Force and Motion II Reading Quiz Questions
6.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the static and kinetic frictional forces is correct?
a) When an object is stationary, both static and kinetic frictional forces are acting on it. b) When an object is stationary, only the kinetic frictional force acts on it. c) When an object is sliding, only the static frictional force acts on it. d) The static frictional force acts on an object when it is stationary and the kinetic frictional force acts on it when it is sliding. e) Static and kinetic frictional forces act in the same direction as the normal force.
6.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the static and kinetic frictional forces is correct?
a) When an object is stationary, both static and kinetic frictional forces are acting on it. b) When an object is stationary, only the kinetic frictional force acts on it. c) When an object is sliding, only the static frictional force acts on it. d) The static frictional force acts on an object when it is stationary and the kinetic frictional force acts on it when it is sliding. e) Static and kinetic frictional forces act in the same direction as the normal force.
6.2.2. Which of the following is not one of the properties of the friction force?
a) There is no upper limit to the magnitude of a static friction force. b) The friction force on a moving object is smaller than the friction force on a stationary object. c) If an object is at rest while a force is applied to the object parallel to the surface on which it’s resting, then the friction force on the object is equal in magnitude to the applied force, but oppositely directed.
d) The friction force on an object depends on the normal force acting on it. e) If an object is sliding along a surface, the friction force acts in the direction opposite to the object’s velocity.
6.2.2. Which of the following is not one of the properties of the friction force?
a) There is no upper limit to the magnitude of a static friction force. b) The friction force on a moving object is smaller than the friction force on a stationary object. c) If an object is at rest while a force is applied to the object parallel to the surface on which it’s resting, then the friction force on the object is equal in magnitude to the applied force, but oppositely directed.
d) The friction force on an object depends on the normal force acting on it. e) If an object is sliding along a surface, the friction force acts in the direction opposite to the object’s velocity.
6.2.3. What is the underlying physical reason for the difference between the static and kinetic coefficients of friction of ordinary surfaces? a) The static friction coefficient is due to the presence of cold welds. b) There are fewer cold welds in the case of sliding. c) In the static case, nearly 100 % of the surfaces are in contact at the atomic level.
d) When the two surfaces are stationary relative to each other, there are fewer cold welds.
6.2.3. What is the underlying physical reason for the difference between the static and kinetic coefficients of friction of ordinary surfaces? a) The static friction coefficient is due to the presence of cold welds. b) There are fewer cold welds in the case of sliding. c) In the static case, nearly 100 % of the surfaces are in contact at the atomic level.
d) When the two surfaces are stationary relative to each other, there are fewer cold welds.
6.3.1. Two identical blocks are pulled along a rough surface as suggested in the figure. Which one of the following statements is false?
a) The coefficient of kinetic friction is the same in each case. b) A force of the same magnitude is needed to keep each block moving.
c) The normal force exerted on the blocks by the surface is the same for both blocks. d) The magnitude of the force of kinetic friction is greater for the block on the right. e) A force of the same magnitude was required to start each block moving.
6.3.1. Two identical blocks are pulled along a rough surface as suggested in the figure. Which one of the following statements is false?
a) The coefficient of kinetic friction is the same in each case. b) A force of the same magnitude is needed to keep each block moving.
c) The normal force exerted on the blocks by the surface is the same for both blocks. d) The magnitude of the force of kinetic friction is greater for the block on the right. e) A force of the same magnitude was required to start each block moving.
6.3.2. A block is pulled at constant speed along a rough level surface by a rope that makes an angle with respect to the horizontal. The applied force along the rope is F. The force of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is f . Which one of the following actions will increase the frictional force on the block? a) increasing the angle made by the rope b) decreasing the speed of the block c) decreasing the contact surface area d) increasing the contact surface area e) increasing the weight of the block
6.3.2. A block is pulled at constant speed along a rough level surface by a rope that makes an angle with respect to the horizontal. The applied force along the rope is F. The force of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is f . Which one of the following actions will increase the frictional force on the block? a) increasing the angle made by the rope b) decreasing the speed of the block c) decreasing the contact surface area d) increasing the contact surface area e) increasing the weight of the block
6.3.3. A brick is resting on the surface of a flat board. As one end of the board is slowly raised, what changes, if any, are there in the normal force and in frictional forces exerted on the brick? a) The normal force increases as the frictional force increases. b) The normal force decreases as the frictional force increases. c) The normal force remains constant as the frictional force increases. d) Only the direction of the normal force changes as the direction of the frictional force changes. e) The normal force decreases; and the frictional force remains constant.
6.3.3. A brick is resting on the surface of a flat board. As one end of the board is slowly raised, what changes, if any, are there in the normal force and in frictional forces exerted on the brick? a) The normal force increases as the frictional force increases. b) The normal force decreases as the frictional force increases. c) The normal force remains constant as the frictional force increases. d) Only the direction of the normal force changes as the direction of the frictional force changes. e) The normal force decreases; and the frictional force remains constant.
6.3.4. A brick is resting on the surface of a flat board. One end of the board is slowly raised. The brick begins sliding down the board when it makes an angle with respect to the horizontal plane. Which of the following give the correct expression of the coefficient of friction in this situation? a) mg sin b) mg cos c) sin d) cos e) tan
6.3.4. A brick is resting on the surface of a flat board. One end of the board is slowly raised. The brick begins sliding down the board when it makes an angle with respect to the horizontal plane. Which of the following give the correct expression of the coefficient of friction in this situation? a) mg sin b) mg cos c) sin d) cos e) tan
6.4.1. The drag force is not dependent on which of the following parameters? a) air density b) the drag coefficient
c) the speed of the object relative to the fluid in which it’s moving d) the terminal velocity
e) cross-sectional area
6.4.1. The drag force is not dependent on which of the following parameters? a) air density b) the drag coefficient
c) the speed of the object relative to the fluid in which it’s moving d) the terminal velocity
e) cross-sectional area
6.4.2. Which one of the following has the largest terminal velocity? a) raindrop b) tennis ball c) ping pong ball
d) parachutist with an open chute e) a shot put ball
6.4.2. Which one of the following has the largest terminal velocity? a) raindrop b) tennis ball c) ping pong ball
d) parachutist with an open chute e) a shot put ball
6.4.3. The terminal velocity is not dependent on which one of the following properties? a) the force of gravity b) air density c) the falling time
d) cross-sectional area e) the drag coefficient
6.4.3. The terminal velocity is not dependent on which one of the following properties? a) the force of gravity b) air density c) the falling time
d) cross-sectional area e) the drag coefficient
6.5.1. When using the term “uniform circular motion,” what do we mean by the term “uniform?” a) The direction of the object’s velocity is constant. b) The net force on the moving object is zero newtons.
c) The forces acting on the object are uniformly applied from all directions. d) The motion occurs without the influence of the gravitational force. e) The motion of the object is at a constant speed.
6.5.1. When using the term “uniform circular motion,” what do we mean by the term “uniform?” a) The direction of the object’s velocity is constant. b) The net force on the moving object is zero newtons.
c) The forces acting on the object are uniformly applied from all directions. d) The motion occurs without the influence of the gravitational force. e) The motion of the object is at a constant speed.
6.5.2. If an object is moving in uniform circular motion, its period is given by which one of the following quantities? a) the speed of the object b) the centripetal acceleration of the object c) the number of revolutions the object makes each second
d) the time interval for the object to make one revolution e) the displacement of the object
6.5.2. If an object is moving in uniform circular motion, its period is given by which one of the following quantities? a) the speed of the object b) the centripetal acceleration of the object c) the number of revolutions the object makes each second
d) the time interval for the object to make one revolution e) the displacement of the object
6.5.3. A bicycle racer is traveling at constant speed v around a circular track. The centripetal acceleration of the bicycle is ac. What happens to the centripetal acceleration of the bicycle if the speed is doubled to 2v? a) The centripetal acceleration increases to 4ac.
b) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.25ac. c) The centripetal acceleration increases to 2ac.
d) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.5ac. e) The centripetal acceleration does not change.
6.5.3. A bicycle racer is traveling at constant speed v around a circular track. The centripetal acceleration of the bicycle is ac. What happens to the centripetal acceleration of the bicycle if the speed is doubled to 2v? a) The centripetal acceleration increases to 4ac.
b) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.25ac. c) The centripetal acceleration increases to 2ac.
d) The centripetal acceleration decreases to 0.5ac. e) The centripetal acceleration does not change.
6.5.4. A satellite orbits the Earth in uniform circular motion. What is the direction of centripetal acceleration of the satellite?
a) The centripetal acceleration is a scalar quantity and it doesn’t have a direction. b) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially outward from the Earth. c) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially inward toward the Earth.
d) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction of the satellite’s velocity. e) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction opposite that of the satellite’s velocity.
6.5.4. A satellite orbits the Earth in uniform circular motion. What is the direction of centripetal acceleration of the satellite?
a) The centripetal acceleration is a scalar quantity and it doesn’t have a direction. b) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially outward from the Earth. c) The centripetal acceleration vector points radially inward toward the Earth.
d) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction of the satellite’s velocity. e) The centripetal acceleration vector points in the direction opposite that of the satellite’s velocity.
6.5.5. A motorcycle travels at a constant speed around a circular track. Which one of the following statements about this motorcycle is true? a) The car has a velocity vector that points along the radius of the circle.
b) The car is characterized by constant velocity. c) The car is characterized by constant acceleration.
d) The velocity of the car is changing. e) The car has an acceleration vector that is tangent to the circle at all times.
6.5.5. A motorcycle travels at a constant speed around a circular track. Which one of the following statements about this motorcycle is true? a) The car has a velocity vector that points along the radius of the circle.
b) The car is characterized by constant velocity. c) The car is characterized by constant acceleration.
d) The velocity of the car is changing. e) The car has an acceleration vector that is tangent to the circle at all times.
6.5.6. The centripetal force is best explained by which of the following statements? a) The centripetal force is the force on an object that is directed radially outward from the center of its orbit. b) The centripetal force is the force on an orbiting object that is directed along a line that is tangent to the circle. c) The centripetal force is the net force acting on an orbiting object that maintains it in uniform circular motion. d) The centripetal force is a fundamental force of nature.
6.5.6. The centripetal force is best explained by which of the following statements? a) The centripetal force is the force on an object that is directed radially outward from the center of its orbit. b) The centripetal force is the force on an orbiting object that is directed along a line that is tangent to the circle. c) The centripetal force is the net force acting on an orbiting object that maintains it in uniform circular motion. d) The centripetal force is a fundamental force of nature.
6.5.7. Which one of the following forces holds a car on a frictionless banked curve? a) the horizontal component of the normal force b) the vertical component of the car's weight
c) the vertical component of the normal force d) the horizontal component of the car's weight
e) the reaction force to the car's weight
6.5.7. Which one of the following forces holds a car on a frictionless banked curve? a) the horizontal component of the normal force b) the vertical component of the car's weight
c) the vertical component of the normal force d) the horizontal component of the car's weight
e) the reaction force to the car's weight
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 7 Kinetic Energy and Work Reading Quiz Questions
7.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of the conservation of energy is true?
a) Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but its total amount remains constant. b) If more people use less energy, the Earth’s resources would last longer. c) Energy may be created as needed and transformed into various forms. d) There have only been a few situations that have been discovered in which the principle of the conservation of energy is violated. e) The energy that moving objects have is destroyed by frictional forces as they slow down.
7.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of the conservation of energy is true?
a) Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but its total amount remains constant. b) If more people use less energy, the Earth’s resources would last longer. c) Energy may be created as needed and transformed into various forms. d) There have only been a few situations that have been discovered in which the principle of the conservation of energy is violated. e) The energy that moving objects have is destroyed by frictional forces as they slow down.
7.2.2. According to the text, what is the technical definition of energy? This was described in the section entitled, “What is energy?” a) Energy is a vector quantity, similar to time, that flows in only one direction. b) Energy is a way of quantifying the motion of an object. c) Energy is that which propels objects into motion. d) Energy is a scalar quantity associated with the state (or condition) of one or more objects. e) Energy is a universal element that is contained within all objects and may be transformed into either objects or motion.
7.2.2. According to the text, what is the technical definition of energy? This was described in the section entitled, “What is energy?” a) Energy is a vector quantity, similar to time, that flows in only one direction. b) Energy is a way of quantifying the motion of an object. c) Energy is that which propels objects into motion. d) Energy is a scalar quantity associated with the state (or condition) of one or more objects. e) Energy is a universal element that is contained within all objects and may be transformed into either objects or motion.
7.3.1. Which one of the following statements concerning kinetic energy is true? a) The kinetic energy of an object is directly proportional to its speed. b) The kinetic energy of an object is expressed in watts.
c) The kinetic energy of an object is a quantitative measure of its inertia. d) The kinetic energy of an object always has a positive value. e) The kinetic energy of an object is always equal to the object’s total energy.
7.3.1. Which one of the following statements concerning kinetic energy is true? a) The kinetic energy of an object is directly proportional to its speed. b) The kinetic energy of an object is expressed in watts.
c) The kinetic energy of an object is a quantitative measure of its inertia. d) The kinetic energy of an object always has a positive value. e) The kinetic energy of an object is always equal to the object’s total energy.
7.3.2. Which one of the following is an example of an object with a non-zero kinetic energy? a) a train is parked in a train station b) a car rests at the top of a hill c) the pendulum of a grandfather clock is still
d) a boulder rests at the bottom of a cliff e) the international space station is orbiting the Earth
7.3.2. Which one of the following is an example of an object with a non-zero kinetic energy? a) a train is parked in a train station b) a car rests at the top of a hill c) the pendulum of a grandfather clock is still
d) a boulder rests at the bottom of a cliff e) the international space station is orbiting the Earth
7.3.3. In which one of the following situations will there be an increase in kinetic energy? a) A kicked football approaches its maximum height as it passes through the goal posts. b) The planet Venus moves in its nearly circular orbit around the Sun. c) A fan is switched from “low speed” to “high speed.” d) A filing cabinet is pushed across a rough floor at constant speed. e) A train is pulled up a mountain at a constant speed by a motor.
7.3.3. In which one of the following situations will there be an increase in kinetic energy? a) A kicked football approaches its maximum height as it passes through the goal posts. b) The planet Venus moves in its nearly circular orbit around the Sun. c) A fan is switched from “low speed” to “high speed.” d) A filing cabinet is pushed across a rough floor at constant speed. e) A train is pulled up a mountain at a constant speed by a motor.
7.3.4. Which one of the following expressions is equal to the kinetic energy of an object? a) mvt2 b) 12 mv
2
c) Fd cos d) ma
e) mgh
7.3.4. Which one of the following expressions is equal to the kinetic energy of an object? a) mvt2 b) 12 mv
2
c) Fd cos d) ma
e) mgh
7.3.5. Which one of the following combinations of units is equal to the joule? a) kg m2/s b) kg m
c) kg m/s d) kg m2/s2
e) kg s
7.3.5. Which one of the following combinations of units is equal to the joule? a) kg m2/s b) kg m
c) kg m/s d) kg m2/s2
e) kg s
7.3.6. The graph below shows the velocity of an object as a function of time. Which of the graph of kinetic energy versus time matches the velocity data?
7.3.6. The graph below shows the velocity of an object as a function of time. Which of the graph of kinetic energy versus time matches the velocity data?
7.4.1. Which one of the following statements is the correct description of the term work as described in the text? a) Work is energy exerted over time to increase or decrease the motion of an object. b) Work is the power required to increase or decrease the motion of an object. c) Work is the force that produces energy.
d) Work is the force that transfers energy to or from an object. e) Work is energy transferred to or from an object by means of a force acting on the object.
7.4.1. Which one of the following statements is the correct description of the term work as described in the text? a) Work is energy exerted over time to increase or decrease the motion of an object. b) Work is the power required to increase or decrease the motion of an object. c) Work is the force that produces energy.
d) Work is the force that transfers energy to or from an object. e) Work is energy transferred to or from an object by means of a force acting on the object.
7.5.1. In which one of the following situations is zero net work done? a) A bunch of bananas is placed on a spring scale in a supermarket. b) A sky diver falls from an airplane and considers when to open her parachute.
c) A horse pulls a wagon at a constant velocity. d) A snowball rolls down a hill.
e) A skateboarder steps on a skateboard, which begins to roll.
7.5.1. In which one of the following situations is zero net work done? a) A bunch of bananas is placed on a spring scale in a supermarket. b) A sky diver falls from an airplane and considers when to open her parachute.
c) A horse pulls a wagon at a constant velocity. d) A snowball rolls down a hill.
e) A skateboarder steps on a skateboard, which begins to roll.
7.5.2. A 5.0-kg ball on the end of a chain is whirled at a constant speed of 1.0 m/s in a horizontal circle of radius 3.0 m. What is the work done by the centripetal force during one revolution? a) 2.5 J b) 1.7 J c) 1.2 J d) 0.56 J e) zero J
7.5.2. A 5.0-kg ball on the end of a chain is whirled at a constant speed of 1.0 m/s in a horizontal circle of radius 3.0 m. What is the work done by the centripetal force during one revolution? a) 2.5 J b) 1.7 J c) 1.2 J d) 0.56 J e) zero J
7.5.3. In which of the following circumstances does the force do positive work on the object?
a) The direction of the force is perpendicular to the object’s displacement. b) The direction of the force is in the opposite direction to the object’s displacement. c) No matter the direction of the force, positive work will be done if there is a displacement of the object. d) The direction of the force is in the same direction as the object’s displacement. e) The object’s displacement is zero meters as the force is applied.
7.5.3. In which of the following circumstances does the force do positive work on the object?
a) The direction of the force is perpendicular to the object’s displacement. b) The direction of the force is in the opposite direction to the object’s displacement. c) No matter the direction of the force, positive work will be done if there is a displacement of the object. d) The direction of the force is in the same direction as the object’s displacement. e) The object’s displacement is zero meters as the force is applied.
7.5.4. Complete the following statement: If positive work is done on a moving object, a) the velocity of the object will increase. b) the velocity of the object will decrease.
c) the kinetic energy of the object will decrease. d) the velocity of the object will not change.
e) the direction of the acceleration of the object will be opposite to its displacement.
7.5.4. Complete the following statement: If positive work is done on a moving object, a) the velocity of the object will increase. b) the velocity of the object will decrease.
c) the kinetic energy of the object will decrease. d) the velocity of the object will not change.
e) the direction of the acceleration of the object will be opposite to its displacement.
7.5.5. Which one of the following expressions results in the same units as those for work? In the following m represents mass, x represents distance, a represents acceleration, v represents speed, and t represents time. a) mvt
b) xvt c) xat
d) mx/t e) mat
7.5.5. Which one of the following expressions results in the same units as those for work? In the following m represents mass, x represents distance, a represents acceleration, v represents speed, and t represents time. a) mvt
b) xvt c) xat
d) mx/t e) mat
7.6.1. An object is initially at height y1. After a time interval t, the object is located at height y2. The work done by the gravitational force on the object is dependent on which of the following quantities? a) y1 − y2
b) the path taken from y1 to y2 c) the time interval t taken to move from y1 to y2
d) choices a and b e) choices a and c
7.6.1. An object is initially at height y1. After a time interval t, the object is located at height y2. The work done by the gravitational force on the object is dependent on which of the following quantities? a) y1 − y2
b) the path taken from y1 to y2 c) the time interval t taken to move from y1 to y2
d) choices a and b e) choices a and c
7.6.2. A man lifts a 100-N table to a height of 0.4 m above the floor. Suddenly, he loses grip and the table drops down to the floor. What is the total work done on the table? a) zero joules b) 20 J c) 40 J d) 80 J e) 100 J
7.6.2. A man lifts a 100-N table to a height of 0.4 m above the floor. Suddenly, he loses grip and the table drops down to the floor. What is the total work done on the table? a) zero joules b) 20 J c) 40 J d) 80 J e) 100 J
7.6.3. Alice and Bill, who happen to have the same mass, both want to climb to the top of a mountain. Bill wants to take the steep path straight up, but Alice wants to take the path that gently winds around the mountain, even though it is 8 times longer than the steep path. They both eventually reach the top of the mountain, but Alice reaches the top in 1/3 the time that Bill takes using the steep route. How does the work that Alice did in climbing the mountain compare with the amount that Bill did?
a) Alice did 1/8 the amount of work that Bill did. b) Alice did 1/3 the amount of work that Bill did. c) Alice and Bill did the same amount of work. d) Alice did twice the amount of work that Bill did. e) Alice did three times the amount of work that Bill did.
7.6.3. Alice and Bill, who happen to have the same mass, both want to climb to the top of a mountain. Bill wants to take the steep path straight up, but Alice wants to take the path that gently winds around the mountain, even though it is 8 times longer than the steep path. They both eventually reach the top of the mountain, but Alice reaches the top in 1/3 the time that Bill takes using the steep route. How does the work that Alice did in climbing the mountain compare with the amount that Bill did?
a) Alice did 1/8 the amount of work that Bill did. b) Alice did 1/3 the amount of work that Bill did. c) Alice and Bill did the same amount of work. d) Alice did twice the amount of work that Bill did. e) Alice did three times the amount of work that Bill did.
7.6.4. Sara carries a heavy box of books down a flight of stairs from the third floor to the first floor. Which one of the following statements best describes the work done on the box by Sara? a) Sara doesn’t do any work on the heavy box of books. b) Sara does a small amount of negative work on the heavy box of books. c) Sara does a small amount of positive work on the heavy box of books. d) Sara does a large amount of negative work on the heavy box of books.
e) Sara does a large amount of positive work on the heavy box of books.
7.6.4. Sara carries a heavy box of books down a flight of stairs from the third floor to the first floor. Which one of the following statements best describes the work done on the box by Sara? a) Sara doesn’t do any work on the heavy box of books. b) Sara does a small amount of negative work on the heavy box of books. c) Sara does a small amount of positive work on the heavy box of books. d) Sara does a large amount of negative work on the heavy box of books.
e) Sara does a large amount of positive work on the heavy box of books.
7.6.5. Sara carries a heavy box of books down a flight of stairs from the third floor to the first floor. Which one of the following statements best describes the work done on the box by the Earth’s gravity? a) Gravity doesn’t do any work on the heavy box of books. b) Gravity does a small amount of negative work on the heavy box of books. c) Gravity does a small amount of positive work on the heavy box of books. d) Gravity does a large amount of negative work on the heavy box of books.
e) Gravity does a large amount of positive work on the heavy box of books.
7.6.5. Sara carries a heavy box of books down a flight of stairs from the third floor to the first floor. Which one of the following statements best describes the work done on the box by the Earth’s gravity? a) Gravity doesn’t do any work on the heavy box of books. b) Gravity does a small amount of negative work on the heavy box of books. c) Gravity does a small amount of positive work on the heavy box of books. d) Gravity does a large amount of negative work on the heavy box of books.
e) Gravity does a large amount of positive work on the heavy box of books.
7.7.1. An object that obeys Hooke’s law is displaced a distance x by a net force Which one of the following statements correctly describes the resulting acceleration of the object? a) The magnitude of the acceleration is constant. b) The acceleration increases as x increases and it decreases as x decreases. c) The acceleration is always in the positive x direction.
d) The acceleration is only dependent on the mass of the object. e) The acceleration increases as x decreases and decreases as x increases.
7.7.1. An object that obeys Hooke’s law is displaced a distance x by a net force Which one of the following statements correctly describes the resulting acceleration of the object? a) The magnitude of the acceleration is constant. b) The acceleration increases as x increases and it decreases as x decreases. c) The acceleration is always in the positive x direction.
d) The acceleration is only dependent on the mass of the object. e) The acceleration increases as x decreases and decreases as x increases.
7.7.2. A block is hung vertically at the end of a spring. When the block is displaced and released, it moves in simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the block? a) The maximum acceleration of the block occurs when its velocity is zero. b) The velocity of the block is never zero m/s. c) If the velocity of the block is zero m/s, it acceleration is zero m/s2. d) The maximum velocity occurs when the maximum acceleration occurs.
7.7.2. A block is hung vertically at the end of a spring. When the block is displaced and released, it moves in simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the block? a) The maximum acceleration of the block occurs when its velocity is zero. b) The velocity of the block is never zero m/s. c) If the velocity of the block is zero m/s, it acceleration is zero m/s2. d) The maximum velocity occurs when the maximum acceleration occurs.
7.7.3. What is the work done in stretching a spring by a distance of 0.5 m if the restoring force is 24 N? a) 3 J b) 6 J c) 9 J
d) 12 J e) 24 J
7.7.3. What is the work done in stretching a spring by a distance of 0.5 m if the restoring force is 24 N? a) 3 J b) 6 J c) 9 J
d) 12 J e) 24 J
7.7.4. What is the value of the spring constant of a spring that is stretched a distance of 0.5 m if the restoring force is 24 N? a) 6 N/m b) 12 N/m c) 18 N/m d) 24 N/m e) 48 N/m
7.7.4. What is the value of the spring constant of a spring that is stretched a distance of 0.5 m if the restoring force is 24 N? a) 6 N/m b) 12 N/m c) 18 N/m d) 24 N/m e) 48 N/m
7.7.5. A spring is attached to a block. Complete the following statement: The work done by the spring on the block a) depends on the mass of the block. b) is positive when the spring is compressed.
c) is positive when the spring is stretched. d) is always negative.
e) depends on the distance the spring is stretched from its relaxed position.
7.7.5. A spring is attached to a block. Complete the following statement: The work done by the spring on the block a) depends on the mass of the block. b) is positive when the spring is compressed.
c) is positive when the spring is stretched. d) is always negative.
e) depends on the distance the spring is stretched from its relaxed position.
7.8.1. The work done by a force that varies in magnitude can be obtained from which of the following choices? a) by calculating the average force and multiplying by the displacement b) by finding the area under a force versus velocity graph c) by integrating Fdx d) by finding the area under a force versus displacement graph e) by either choice (c) or choice (d)
7.8.1. The work done by a force that varies in magnitude can be obtained from which of the following choices? a) by calculating the average force and multiplying by the displacement b) by finding the area under a force versus velocity graph c) by integrating Fdx d) by finding the area under a force versus displacement graph e) by either choice (c) or choice (d)
7.9.1. Which one of the following choices is not a unit of power? a) kg m2/s b) ft lb/s c) horsepower
d) J/s e) W
7.9.1. Which one of the following choices is not a unit of power? a) kg m2/s b) ft lb/s c) horsepower
d) J/s e) W
7.9.2. The power due to a force depends on which of the following parameters? a) the magnitude of the force and the displacement of the object b) the magnitude of the force and the velocity of the object
c) the mass of the object and the velocity of the object d) the work done on the object and its displacement
e) the mass of the object and the displacement of the object
7.9.2. The power due to a force depends on which of the following parameters? a) the magnitude of the force and the displacement of the object b) the magnitude of the force and the velocity of the object
c) the mass of the object and the velocity of the object d) the work done on the object and its displacement
e) the mass of the object and the displacement of the object
7.9.3. The position of a crate sliding across a frictionless surface is plotted as a function of time in the graph below. Which of the force versus distance graphs shown corresponds to this situation?
7.9.3. The position of a crate sliding across a frictionless surface is plotted as a function of time in the graph below. Which of the force versus distance graphs shown corresponds to this situation?
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 8 Potential Energy and Conservation of Energy Reading Quiz Questions
8.1.1. Which one of the following choices is not a kind of potential energy? a) elastic
b) gravitational c) kinetic d) all of these are potential energies
8.1.1. Which one of the following choices is not a kind of potential energy? a) elastic
b) gravitational c) kinetic d) all of these are potential energies
8.2.1. What is the relationship between the gravitational potential energy of an object and the work done on the object by the gravitational force?
a) The work is equal to the gravitational potential energy. b) The negative of the work is equal to the change in the gravitational potential energy. c) The negative of the work is equal to the square of the gravitational potential energy. d) The work is equal to the square of the gravitational potential energy. e) The work is equal to one-half of the gravitational potential energy.
8.2.1. What is the relationship between the gravitational potential energy of an object and the work done on the object by the gravitational force?
a) The work is equal to the gravitational potential energy. b) The negative of the work is equal to the change in the gravitational potential energy. c) The negative of the work is equal to the square of the gravitational potential energy. d) The work is equal to the square of the gravitational potential energy. e) The work is equal to one-half of the gravitational potential energy.
8.2.2. Complete the following statement: A force that acts on an object is said to be conservative if a) the work it does on the object is equal to the increase in the object's kinetic energy b) the work it does on the object is independent of the path of the motion. c) it always acts in the direction of motion of the object.
d) it results in a change in the object's kinetic energy. e) it obeys Newton's laws of motion.
8.2.2. Complete the following statement: A force that acts on an object is said to be conservative if a) the work it does on the object is equal to the increase in the object's kinetic energy b) the work it does on the object is independent of the path of the motion. c) it always acts in the direction of motion of the object.
d) it results in a change in the object's kinetic energy. e) it obeys Newton's laws of motion.
8.2.3. Which one of the following situations is an example of a conservative force acting? a) A boat motor produces a propulsion force that moves the boat across a lake. b) The tension force in the rope increased as the piano was lifted off the ground. c) A child jumping on a trampoline is pushed upward by an elastic spring force. d) A normal force pushes upward on a book as it sits on a table. e) The static frictional force between the tires of a car and the road.
8.2.3. Which one of the following situations is an example of a conservative force acting? a) A boat motor produces a propulsion force that moves the boat across a lake. b) The tension force in the rope increased as the piano was lifted off the ground. c) A child jumping on a trampoline is pushed upward by an elastic spring force. d) A normal force pushes upward on a book as it sits on a table. e) The static frictional force between the tires of a car and the road.
8.2.4. Which one of the following choices is an example of a nonconservative force? a) elastic spring force b) gravitational force
c) kinetic frictional force d) electrical force
e) tension
8.2.4. Which one of the following choices is an example of a nonconservative force? a) elastic spring force b) gravitational force
c) kinetic frictional force d) electrical force
e) tension
8.2.5. Complete the following statement: In situations involving nonconservative external forces, the work done by these forces a) is always negative. b) is always equal to zero.
c) is always positive. d) can be either positive or negative.
e) usually cannot be determined.
8.2.5. Complete the following statement: In situations involving nonconservative external forces, the work done by these forces a) is always negative. b) is always equal to zero.
c) is always positive. d) can be either positive or negative.
e) usually cannot be determined.
8.3.1. Complete the following statement: The net work done by a conservative force acting on an object a) depends only on the time that the force is exerted. b) depends only on the velocity of the object.
c) depends only on the starting and ending points. d) is always equal to zero joules.
e) is always greater than zero joules.
8.3.1. Complete the following statement: The net work done by a conservative force acting on an object a) depends only on the time that the force is exerted. b) depends only on the velocity of the object.
c) depends only on the starting and ending points. d) is always equal to zero joules.
e) is always greater than zero joules.
8.3.2. A ball is constrained to follow a circular path by a conservative force. During a time interval t, the ball makes exactly one revolution. Which one of the following statements concerning the net work done on the ball during time t is true? a) The net work depends only on the time t.
b) The net work depends only on the velocity of the ball. c) The net work depends only on the radius of the circle.
d) The net work is equal to zero joules. e) The net work is greater than zero joules.
8.3.2. A ball is constrained to follow a circular path by a conservative force. During a time interval t, the ball makes exactly one revolution. Which one of the following statements concerning the net work done on the ball during time t is true? a) The net work depends only on the time t.
b) The net work depends only on the velocity of the ball. c) The net work depends only on the radius of the circle.
d) The net work is equal to zero joules. e) The net work is greater than zero joules.
8.4.1. In which one of the following situations is there a decrease in gravitational potential energy? a) A large boulder rests at the bottom of a steep hill. b) A helicopter takes off from the roof of a hospital and flies due west.
c) A child accidentally releases a helium-filled balloon and it flies upward into the clouds. d) A girl jumps down from a bed and lands on her feet. e) A truck drives at an average velocity of 25 m/s, due north along a level, country road.
8.4.1. In which one of the following situations is there a decrease in gravitational potential energy? a) A large boulder rests at the bottom of a steep hill. b) A helicopter takes off from the roof of a hospital and flies due west.
c) A child accidentally releases a helium-filled balloon and it flies upward into the clouds. d) A girl jumps down from a bed and lands on her feet. e) A truck drives at an average velocity of 25 m/s, due north along a level, country road.
8.4.2. A man carries a 12-kg chair up one flight of stairs to the second floor of his house. If the second floor is 3.3 m above the first floor, what is the change in the gravitational potential energy of the chair? a) −180 J
b) +390 J c) +180 J
d) −390 J e) +240 J
8.4.2. A man carries a 12-kg chair up one flight of stairs to the second floor of his house. If the second floor is 3.3 m above the first floor, what is the change in the gravitational potential energy of the chair? a) −180 J
b) +390 J c) +180 J
d) −390 J e) +240 J
8.4.3. An object is initially at height y1. After a time interval t, the object is located at height y2. The work done by the gravitational force on the object is dependent on which of the following quantities? a) y1 − y2
b) the path taken from y1 to y2 c) the time interval t taken to move from y1 to y2
d) choices a and b e) choices a and c
8.4.3. An object is initially at height y1. After a time interval t, the object is located at height y2. The work done by the gravitational force on the object is dependent on which of the following quantities? a) y1 − y2
b) the path taken from y1 to y2 c) the time interval t taken to move from y1 to y2
d) choices a and b e) choices a and c
8.4.4. Which one of the following statements concerning the elastic potential energy of a ball attached to a vertical spring is false when the ball is moving up and down in a periodic motion? The position y = 0 corresponds to the unstretched, equilibrium position of the spring. a) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the spring is in its equilibrium position.
b) The elastic potential energy is smaller when the ball is at −y than when it is at +y. c) The elastic potential energy can be expressed in units of watts. d) The elastic potential energy is at its maximum when the velocity of the ball is a maximum. e) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the acceleration of the ball is a maximum.
8.4.4. Which one of the following statements concerning the elastic potential energy of a ball attached to a vertical spring is false when the ball is moving up and down in a periodic motion? The position y = 0 corresponds to the unstretched, equilibrium position of the spring. a) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the spring is in its equilibrium position.
b) The elastic potential energy is smaller when the ball is at −y than when it is at +y. c) The elastic potential energy can be expressed in units of watts. d) The elastic potential energy is at its maximum when the velocity of the ball is a maximum. e) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the acceleration of the ball is a maximum.
8.4.5. A ball is attached to a vertical spring. The ball is initially supported at a height y so that the spring is neither stretched nor compressed. The ball is then released from rest and it falls to a height y − h before moving upward. Consider the following quantities: translational kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy. When the ball was at a height y − (h/2), which of the listed quantities has (have) values other than zero joules? a) translational kinetic energy only b) gravitational potential energy only c) elastic potential energy only
d) translational and elastic potential energies only e) translational kinetic, gravitational potential, and elastic potential energies
8.4.5. A ball is attached to a vertical spring. The ball is initially supported at a height y so that the spring is neither stretched nor compressed. The ball is then released from rest and it falls to a height y − h before moving upward. Consider the following quantities: translational kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy. When the ball was at a height y − (h/2), which of the listed quantities has (have) values other than zero joules? a) translational kinetic energy only b) gravitational potential energy only c) elastic potential energy only
d) translational and elastic potential energies only e) translational kinetic, gravitational potential, and elastic potential energies
8.4.6. A block is attached to the end of a spring. The block is then displaced from its equilibrium position and released. Subsequently, the block moves back and forth on a frictionless surface without any losses due to friction. Which one of the following statements concerning the total mechanical energy of the blockspring system this situation is true? a) The total mechanical energy is dependent on the maximum displacement during the motion. b) The total mechanical energy is at its maximum when the block is at its equilibrium position. c) The total mechanical energy is constant as the block moves back and forth. d) The total mechanical energy is only dependent on the spring constant and the mass of the block.
8.4.6. A block is attached to the end of a spring. The block is then displaced from its equilibrium position and released. Subsequently, the block moves back and forth on a frictionless surface without any losses due to friction. Which one of the following statements concerning the total mechanical energy of the blockspring system this situation is true? a) The total mechanical energy is dependent on the maximum displacement during the motion. b) The total mechanical energy is at its maximum when the block is at its equilibrium position. c) The total mechanical energy is constant as the block moves back and forth. d) The total mechanical energy is only dependent on the spring constant and the mass of the block.
8.5.1. An arrow is launched straight up from the surface of the Earth. Which one of the following statements describes the energy transformation of the arrow as it rises? Neglect air resistance. a) The kinetic energy of the arrow increases and its potential energy decreases.
b) Both the potential energy of the arrow and its total energy increase. c) The kinetic energy of the arrow decreases as the potential energy increases.
d) Both the kinetic energy of the arrow and its potential energy remain constant. e) The total energy of the arrow increases.
8.5.1. An arrow is launched straight up from the surface of the Earth. Which one of the following statements describes the energy transformation of the arrow as it rises? Neglect air resistance. a) The kinetic energy of the arrow increases and its potential energy decreases.
b) Both the potential energy of the arrow and its total energy increase. c) The kinetic energy of the arrow decreases as the potential energy increases.
d) Both the kinetic energy of the arrow and its potential energy remain constant. e) The total energy of the arrow increases.
8.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of the conservation of mechanical energy is true?
a) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the kinetic energy is constant. b) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the gravitational potential energy is constant. c) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where external nonconservative forces do no work. d) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where external conservative forces do no work. e) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the gravitational potential energy is zero joules.
8.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of the conservation of mechanical energy is true?
a) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the kinetic energy is constant. b) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the gravitational potential energy is constant. c) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where external nonconservative forces do no work. d) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where external conservative forces do no work. e) Mechanical energy is always conserved in situations where the gravitational potential energy is zero joules.
8.5.3. Complete the following statement: In an isolated system, the total mechanical energy remains constant if a) all exerted forces are conservative. b) all exerted forces are nonconservative.
c) the work done by nonconservative forces is positive. d) the work done by nonconservative forces is negative.
e) an object returns to its starting position.
8.5.3. Complete the following statement: In an isolated system, the total mechanical energy remains constant if a) all exerted forces are conservative. b) all exerted forces are nonconservative.
c) the work done by nonconservative forces is positive. d) the work done by nonconservative forces is negative.
e) an object returns to its starting position.
8.5.4. Complete the following statement: The total mechanical energy of a system remains unchanged if a) the external forces acting on the system are nonconservative. b) the external forces acting on the system are conservative.
c) the kinetic energy is constant. d) the potential energy is constant.
e) there are no external forces acting on the system.
8.5.4. Complete the following statement: The total mechanical energy of a system remains unchanged if a) the external forces acting on the system are nonconservative. b) the external forces acting on the system are conservative.
c) the kinetic energy is constant. d) the potential energy is constant.
e) there are no external forces acting on the system.
8.5.5. A ball is thrown vertically upward in the air. Which one of the following quantities is necessarily equal to zero at the highest point of the ball’s trajectory? a) acceleration b) net force c) potential energy d) kinetic energy e) total mechanical energy
8.5.5. A ball is thrown vertically upward in the air. Which one of the following quantities is necessarily equal to zero at the highest point of the ball’s trajectory? a) acceleration b) net force c) potential energy d) kinetic energy e) total mechanical energy
8.5.6. A pendulum is swinging back and forth with no non-conservative forces acting on it. At the highest points of its trajectory, the kinetic energy of the pendulum bob is instantaneously equal to zero joules. At the lowest point of its trajectory, the potential energy is instantaneously equal to zero joules. Which one of the following expressions describes the kinetic and potential energies at the point mid-way between to the highest and lowest points? a) K = 0, U = Umax b) K = U
c) K > U d) K < U e) U = 0, K = Kmax
8.5.6. A pendulum is swinging back and forth with no non-conservative forces acting on it. At the highest points of its trajectory, the kinetic energy of the pendulum bob is instantaneously equal to zero joules. At the lowest point of its trajectory, the potential energy is instantaneously equal to zero joules. Which one of the following expressions describes the kinetic and potential energies at the point mid-way between to the highest and lowest points? a) K = 0, U = Umax b) K = U
c) K > U d) K < U e) U = 0, K = Kmax
8.6.1. Which one of the following situations is an example of neutral equilibrium? a) a marble is sitting on a flat tabletop b) a pendulum is swinging
c) a ball is rolling down a hill d) a block is bobbing up and down on a vertical spring
e) a horse is jumping over a fence with all four hooves above the ground
8.6.1. Which one of the following situations is an example of neutral equilibrium? a) a marble is sitting on a flat tabletop b) a pendulum is swinging
c) a ball is rolling down a hill d) a block is bobbing up and down on a vertical spring
e) a horse is jumping over a fence with all four hooves above the ground
8.6.2. Which one of the following phrases describes what occurs at a turning point? a) The net force acting an object is zero newtons. b) The kinetic energy of the object is equal to zero joules.
c) The object is at an unstable equilibrium point. d) The potential energy of the object is equal to zero joules.
e) The potential energy of the object is at its maximum value.
8.6.2. Which one of the following phrases describes what occurs at a turning point? a) The net force acting an object is zero newtons. b) The kinetic energy of the object is equal to zero joules.
c) The object is at an unstable equilibrium point. d) The potential energy of the object is equal to zero joules.
e) The potential energy of the object is at its maximum value.
8.6.3. Which one of the following statements correctly describes a stationary object at an unstable equilibrium point? a) The object experiences a net force equal to zero newtons. b) The object will start to move after some period of time.
c) The object will move directly to a stationary equilibrium point if it is displaced. d) The object will oscillate about an equilibrium point if it is displaced. e) The object will move to a position with higher potential energy if it is displaced.
8.6.3. Which one of the following statements correctly describes a stationary object at an unstable equilibrium point? a) The object experiences a net force equal to zero newtons. b) The object will start to move after some period of time.
c) The object will move directly to a stationary equilibrium point if it is displaced. d) The object will oscillate about an equilibrium point if it is displaced. e) The object will move to a position with higher potential energy if it is displaced.
8.6.4. The graph shows the potential energy as a function of distance for an object moving along the x axis. At which of the labeled points does the force acting on the object have the largest magnitude? a) A b) B
c) C d) D e) E
8.6.4. The graph shows the potential energy as a function of distance for an object moving along the x axis. At which of the labeled points does the force acting on the object have the largest magnitude? a) A b) B
c) C d) D e) E
8.6.5. The graph shows the potential energy as a function of distance for an object moving along the x axis. At which of the labeled points does the force acting on the object have the least magnitude?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) The force is the same at each of the four points.
8.6.5. The graph shows the potential energy as a function of distance for an object moving along the x axis. At which of the labeled points does the force acting on the object have the least magnitude?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) The force is the same at each of the four points.
8.6.6. The graph shows the potential energy as a function of distance for an object moving along the x axis. At which of the labeled points does the object have greatest speed?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
8.6.6. The graph shows the potential energy as a function of distance for an object moving along the x axis. At which of the labeled points does the object have greatest speed?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
8.8.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of conservation of energy is false?
a) The total energy in the universe has a constant value. b) Kinetic energy may be converted into gravitational potential energy and heat. c) Thermal energy may be converted into kinetic energy and kinetic energy may be converted into thermal energy. d) Chemical energy may be converted into thermal energy and gravitational potential energy. e) The net work done on an object must be zero joules since energy is neither created nor destroyed in the process.
8.8.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the principle of conservation of energy is false?
a) The total energy in the universe has a constant value. b) Kinetic energy may be converted into gravitational potential energy and heat. c) Thermal energy may be converted into kinetic energy and kinetic energy may be converted into thermal energy. d) Chemical energy may be converted into thermal energy and gravitational potential energy. e) The net work done on an object must be zero joules since energy is neither created nor destroyed in the process.
8.8.2. Complete the following statement: The total energy of a system can only change a) if the forces acting in the system are nonconservative. b) if there are no external forces acting on the system.
c) if the forces acting in the system are conservative. d) by transferring amounts of energy to or from the system.
e) if there is more than one force acting on the system.
8.8.2. Complete the following statement: The total energy of a system can only change a) if the forces acting in the system are nonconservative. b) if there are no external forces acting on the system.
c) if the forces acting in the system are conservative. d) by transferring amounts of energy to or from the system.
e) if there is more than one force acting on the system.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 9 Center of Mass and Linear Momentum Reading Quiz Questions
9.2.1. Complete the following statement: The center of mass is a) the region of an object where the density has the largest value. b) the region of an object where most of the mass is located. c) the point within an object that moves as if all of the object’s mass where located there. d) the point at the geometrical center of an object.
e) the only point on an object at which the gravitational force acts.
9.2.1. Complete the following statement: The center of mass is a) the region of an object where the density has the largest value. b) the region of an object where most of the mass is located. c) the point within an object that moves as if all of the object’s mass where located there. d) the point at the geometrical center of an object.
e) the only point on an object at which the gravitational force acts.
9.2.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the center of mass of an object is true? a) The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is constant when the sum of the external forces acting on the system is zero. b) The center of mass of a system of objects cannot change even if there are forces acting on the objects. c) All of an object’s mass is located at its center of mass.
d) The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is greatly affected by a collision of objects within the system. e) The center of mass of an object must be located within the object.
9.2.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the center of mass of an object is true? a) The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is constant when the sum of the external forces acting on the system is zero. b) The center of mass of a system of objects cannot change even if there are forces acting on the objects. c) All of an object’s mass is located at its center of mass.
d) The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is greatly affected by a collision of objects within the system. e) The center of mass of an object must be located within the object.
9.2.3. Three objects are located in the x-y plane as shown in the figure. Determine the x coordinate of the center of mass for this system of three objects. Note the masses of the objects: mA = 6.0 kg, mB = 2.0 kg, and mC = 4.0 kg. a) 5.6 b) 6.3
c) 7.6 d) 8.3 e) 8.9
9.2.3. Three objects are located in the x-y plane as shown in the figure. Determine the x coordinate of the center of mass for this system of three objects. Note the masses of the objects: mA = 6.0 kg, mB = 2.0 kg, and mC = 4.0 kg. a) 5.6 b) 6.3
c) 7.6 d) 8.3 e) 8.9
9.2.4. Complete the following statement: the center of mass of a system of particles has a constant velocity if a) the velocity of the center of mass is initially zero. b) the particles are distributed symmetrically around the center of mass. c) the forces exerted by the particles on each other sum to zero. d) the center of mass is at the geometric center of the system. e) the external forces acting on particles of the system sum to zero.
9.2.4. Complete the following statement: the center of mass of a system of particles has a constant velocity if a) the velocity of the center of mass is initially zero. b) the particles are distributed symmetrically around the center of mass. c) the forces exerted by the particles on each other sum to zero. d) the center of mass is at the geometric center of the system. e) the external forces acting on particles of the system sum to zero.
9.3.1. Complete the following statement: The change in momentum with respect to time for an object a) is always positive. b) is always equal to zero.
c) has a constant value if the force acting on the object is conservative. d) is equal in magnitude to the net force acting on the object, but opposite in direction. e) is a scalar quantity that may be negative, zero, or positive.
9.3.1. Complete the following statement: The change in momentum with respect to time for an object a) is always positive. b) is always equal to zero.
c) has a constant value if the force acting on the object is conservative. d) is equal in magnitude to the net force acting on the object, but opposite in direction. e) is a scalar quantity that may be negative, zero, or positive.
9.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the momentum of a system when the net force acting on the system is equal to zero newtons is true? a) The momentum of the system is increasing. b) The momentum of the system is decreasing. c) The momentum of the system is equal to zero kgm/s. d) The momentum of the system has a constant value. e) The momentum of the system has a negative value.
9.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the momentum of a system when the net force acting on the system is equal to zero newtons is true? a) The momentum of the system is increasing. b) The momentum of the system is decreasing. c) The momentum of the system is equal to zero kgm/s. d) The momentum of the system has a constant value. e) The momentum of the system has a negative value.
9.3.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the momentum of a system when the net force acting on the system has a positive value is true? a) The momentum of the system is increasing. b) The momentum of the system is decreasing. c) The momentum of the system is equal to zero kgm/s. d) The momentum of the system has a constant value. e) The momentum of the system has a negative value.
9.3.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the momentum of a system when the net force acting on the system has a positive value is true? a) The momentum of the system is increasing. b) The momentum of the system is decreasing. c) The momentum of the system is equal to zero kgm/s. d) The momentum of the system has a constant value. e) The momentum of the system has a negative value.
9.4.1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning momentum? a) Momentum is a force. b) Momentum is a velocity.
c) Momentum is a scalar quantity. d) The momentum of an object is always positive.
e) Momentum is measured in kg m/s.
9.4.1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning momentum? a) Momentum is a force. b) Momentum is a velocity.
c) Momentum is a scalar quantity. d) The momentum of an object is always positive.
e) Momentum is measured in kg m/s.
9.4.2. Momentum may be expressed using which of the following units? a) N / s b) kg / m
c) kg m/s d) kg / (m s)
e) N kg / s
9.4.2. Momentum may be expressed using which of the following units? a) N / s b) kg / m
c) kg m/s d) kg / (m s)
e) N kg / s
9.4.3. The momentum of an object is not dependent on which one of the following quantities? a) acceleration b) inertia
c) mass d) speed
e) velocity
9.4.3. The momentum of an object is not dependent on which one of the following quantities? a) acceleration b) inertia
c) mass d) speed
e) velocity
9.6.1. As the name implies, the linear momentum-impulse theorem provides a relationship between impulse and momentum. Which one of the following statements correctly describes that relationship? a) An impulse is equal to the work done on an object when a net force acts on an object and it has a displacement. b) An impulse is equal to the change in an object’s momentum that occurs when a net force acts on it. c) An impulse is equal to one-half of the object’s momentum squared. d) An impulse is equal to the product of the net force acting on the object and its momentum. e) An impulse is equal to the object’s momentum divided by the product of the net force and the time interval during which the force acts.
9.6.1. As the name implies, the linear momentum-impulse theorem provides a relationship between impulse and momentum. Which one of the following statements correctly describes that relationship? a) An impulse is equal to the work done on an object when a net force acts on an object and it has a displacement. b) An impulse is equal to the change in an object’s momentum that occurs when a net force acts on it. c) An impulse is equal to one-half of the object’s momentum squared. d) An impulse is equal to the product of the net force acting on the object and its momentum. e) An impulse is equal to the object’s momentum divided by the product of the net force and the time interval during which the force acts.
9.6.2. Which of the following units are used for an impulse? a) kg m/s b) kg / m c) N / s d) kg / (m s) e) N kg / s
9.6.2. Which of the following units are used for an impulse? a) kg m/s b) kg / m c) N / s d) kg / (m s) e) N kg / s
9.6.3. Which one of the following quantities is equal to the change in momentum of an object during a collision? a) impulse b) net force
c) work d) change in kinetic energy
e) maximum force
9.6.3. Which one of the following quantities is equal to the change in momentum of an object during a collision? a) impulse b) net force
c) work d) change in kinetic energy
e) maximum force
9.7.1. In which one of the following situations is linear momentum not conserved? a) A golf ball is struck by a putter. b) A bowling ball collides with ten pins.
c) A tree limb is struck by lightning and falls to the ground. d) A bomb suspended by a string explodes into one hundred fragments. e) An astronaut floating in space throws a hammer away and subsequently moves in the opposite direction.
9.7.1. In which one of the following situations is linear momentum not conserved? a) A golf ball is struck by a putter. b) A bowling ball collides with ten pins.
c) A tree limb is struck by lightning and falls to the ground. d) A bomb suspended by a string explodes into one hundred fragments. e) An astronaut floating in space throws a hammer away and subsequently moves in the opposite direction.
9.7.2. A rocket is propelled forward as very high speed gases are ejected out of its back. Which one of the following is the best explanation as to why the rocket is propelled forward? a) The rocket is propelled forward due to the conservation of energy. b) The rocket is propelled forward due to the conservation of momentum. c) Because the gases are pushing against the air, the air propels the rocket forward. d) The rocket is propelled forward because both energy and momentum must be conserved. e) The high speed gases push on the rocket as they are ejected and propel it forward.
9.7.2. A rocket is propelled forward as very high speed gases are ejected out of its back. Which one of the following is the best explanation as to why the rocket is propelled forward? a) The rocket is propelled forward due to the conservation of energy. b) The rocket is propelled forward due to the conservation of momentum. c) Because the gases are pushing against the air, the air propels the rocket forward. d) The rocket is propelled forward because both energy and momentum must be conserved. e) The high speed gases push on the rocket as they are ejected and propel it forward.
9.7.3. During a certain process, the linear momentum of a system is conserved. Which one of the following statements concerning this system is correct?
a) The vector sum of the momentum of the objects that make up the system is equal to zero kg m/s. b) The vector sum of any internal forces within the system results in an acceleration of one or more objects within the system. c) The principle of the conservation of mechanical energy automatically applies to the system. d) The vector sum of the average external forces acting on the system is equal to zero newtons. e) No internal or external forces are acting on the objects within the system.
9.7.3. During a certain process, the linear momentum of a system is conserved. Which one of the following statements concerning this system is correct?
a) The vector sum of the momentum of the objects that make up the system is equal to zero kg m/s. b) The vector sum of any internal forces within the system results in an acceleration of one or more objects within the system. c) The principle of the conservation of mechanical energy automatically applies to the system. d) The vector sum of the average external forces acting on the system is equal to zero newtons. e) No internal or external forces are acting on the objects within the system.
9.7.4. A rifle of mass M is initially at rest. A bullet of mass m is fired from the rifle with a velocity v relative to the ground. Which one of the following expressions gives the velocity of the rifle relative to the ground after the bullet is fired. a) −mv
b) mv c) Mv/m
d) mv/M e) −mv/M
9.7.4. A rifle of mass M is initially at rest. A bullet of mass m is fired from the rifle with a velocity v relative to the ground. Which one of the following expressions gives the velocity of the rifle relative to the ground after the bullet is fired. a) −mv
b) mv c) Mv/m
d) mv/M e) −mv/M
9.8.1. A collision between two objects is elastic. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The total kinetic energy of the objects is the same before and after the collision. b) The total momentum of the objects is zero kgm/s after the collision. c) The objects stick together and move as one object after the collision. d) The kinetic energy of the objects is zero joules after the collision.
e) The vector sum of the velocities of the two objects is equal to zero m/s after the collision.
9.8.1. A collision between two objects is elastic. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The total kinetic energy of the objects is the same before and after the collision. b) The total momentum of the objects is zero kgm/s after the collision. c) The objects stick together and move as one object after the collision. d) The kinetic energy of the objects is zero joules after the collision.
e) The vector sum of the velocities of the two objects is equal to zero m/s after the collision.
9.8.2. Which one of the following provides a basis to distinguish different types of collisions? a) conservation of linear momentum b) conservation of mechanical energy
c) conservation of kinetic energy d) conservation of impulse
e) conservation of mass
9.8.2. Which one of the following provides a basis to distinguish different types of collisions? a) conservation of linear momentum b) conservation of mechanical energy
c) conservation of kinetic energy d) conservation of impulse
e) conservation of mass
9.8.3. A collision between two objects is inelastic. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) The vector sum of the velocities of the two objects is equal to zero m/s after the collision. b) The total momentum of the objects after the collision is less than it was before the collision. c) The objects bounce away from each other after the collision.
d) The kinetic energy of the objects is zero joules after the collision. e) The total kinetic energy of the objects after the collision is less than it was before the collision.
9.8.3. A collision between two objects is inelastic. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) The vector sum of the velocities of the two objects is equal to zero m/s after the collision. b) The total momentum of the objects after the collision is less than it was before the collision. c) The objects bounce away from each other after the collision.
d) The kinetic energy of the objects is zero joules after the collision. e) The total kinetic energy of the objects after the collision is less than it was before the collision.
9.8.4. A boy of mass m runs with a speed v and jumps onto a sled on an icy pond. The sled was at rest before the boy jumped onto it. After the jump, the sled and boy move at a speed v/2. What is the mass of the sled? a) m/2
b) m c) 2m
d) 3m e) 4m
9.8.4. A boy of mass m runs with a speed v and jumps onto a sled on an icy pond. The sled was at rest before the boy jumped onto it. After the jump, the sled and boy move at a speed v/2. What is the mass of the sled? a) m/2
b) m c) 2m
d) 3m e) 4m
9.8.5. Two objects are involved in an elastic collision. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The total momentum is conserved. b) The magnitude of the force exerted by each object on the other object is equal. c) The kinetic energy of each object is the same before and after the collision.
d) The total kinetic energy before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy after the collision. e) The total kinetic energy is conserved.
9.8.5. Two objects are involved in an elastic collision. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The total momentum is conserved. b) The magnitude of the force exerted by each object on the other object is equal. c) The kinetic energy of each object is the same before and after the collision.
d) The total kinetic energy before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy after the collision. e) The total kinetic energy is conserved.
9.8.6. During a maneuver in space, a space craft separates into two pieces, each of mass m. Before the separation, the spacecraft was moving with a speed v. If one of the pieces is at rest after the separation, which one of the following statements concerning this maneuver is true? a) This maneuver conserves kinetic energy.
b) The maneuver does not conserve total energy. c) This maneuver does not conserve momentum. d) If one piece is at rest, the other is moving with a speed 2v. e) One piece cannot be at rest. The must both be moving with a speed v/2.
9.8.6. During a maneuver in space, a space craft separates into two pieces, each of mass m. Before the separation, the spacecraft was moving with a speed v. If one of the pieces is at rest after the separation, which one of the following statements concerning this maneuver is true? a) This maneuver conserves kinetic energy.
b) The maneuver does not conserve total energy. c) This maneuver does not conserve momentum. d) If one piece is at rest, the other is moving with a speed 2v. e) One piece cannot be at rest. The must both be moving with a speed v/2.
9.8.7. Which one of the following quantities is conserved during an elastic collision, but not conserved during an inelastic collision? a) momentum b) kinetic energy
c) total energy d) impulse
e) net force
9.8.7. Which one of the following quantities is conserved during an elastic collision, but not conserved during an inelastic collision? a) momentum b) kinetic energy
c) total energy d) impulse
e) net force
9.8.8. A ball strikes a spring mounted on a wall. As the spring is compressed the ball comes to a stop and then rebounds back in the direction it came. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the momentum of the system? a) The momentum of the system is larger after the collision with the spring.
b) The momentum of the system is smaller after the collision with the spring. c) The momentum of the system is conserved before and after the collision with the spring, but not during the collision. d) The momentum of the system is conserved before, during, and after the collision with the spring.
9.8.8. A ball strikes a spring mounted on a wall. As the spring is compressed the ball comes to a stop and then rebounds back in the direction it came. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the momentum of the system? a) The momentum of the system is larger after the collision with the spring.
b) The momentum of the system is smaller after the collision with the spring. c) The momentum of the system is conserved before and after the collision with the spring, but not during the collision. d) The momentum of the system is conserved before, during, and after the collision with the spring.
9.9.1. Bird A, with a mass of 2.2 kg, is stationary while Bird B, with a mass of 1.7 kg, is moving due north from Bird A at 3 m/s. What is the velocity of the center of mass for this system of two birds? a) 1.4 m/s, due north b) 0.77 m/s, due north c) 1.7 m/s, due north d) 0.77 m/s, due south e) 1.4 m/s, due south
9.9.1. Bird A, with a mass of 2.2 kg, is stationary while Bird B, with a mass of 1.7 kg, is moving due north from Bird A at 3 m/s. What is the velocity of the center of mass for this system of two birds? a) 1.4 m/s, due north b) 0.77 m/s, due north c) 1.7 m/s, due north d) 0.77 m/s, due south e) 1.4 m/s, due south
9.9.2. Car A with a mass 2m is traveling due west at 20 m/s when it collides with car B traveling due west at 30 m/s. The mass of car B is m. If the collision occurred on an icy road, so that the surface is essentially frictionless, what is the final velocity of the cars, which became locked together during the collision? a) The cars are stationary. b) 10 m/s, due east c) 10 m/s, due west d) 20 m/s, due west e) None of the above answers is correct.
9.9.2. Car A with a mass 2m is traveling due west at 20 m/s when it collides with car B traveling due west at 30 m/s. The mass of car B is m. If the collision occurred on an icy road, so that the surface is essentially frictionless, what is the final velocity of the cars, which became locked together during the collision? a) The cars are stationary. b) 10 m/s, due east c) 10 m/s, due west d) 20 m/s, due west e) None of the above answers is correct.
9.11.1. Two pucks on an air hockey table collide elastically. Complete the following statement: when such a collision occurs in two dimensions, the before and after velocities are best determined by a) using the fact that momentum is conserved and that the initial speeds of the objects must equal the final speeds of the objects.
b) remembering that momentum is a vector quantity that is conserved in each direction. c) applying Newton’s second law of motion and setting the net force equal to zero newtons. d) making use of the work-energy theorem. e) using the fact that the total energy is conserved.
9.11.1. Two pucks on an air hockey table collide elastically. Complete the following statement: when such a collision occurs in two dimensions, the before and after velocities are best determined by a) using the fact that momentum is conserved and that the initial speeds of the objects must equal the final speeds of the objects.
b) remembering that momentum is a vector quantity that is conserved in each direction. c) applying Newton’s second law of motion and setting the net force equal to zero newtons. d) making use of the work-energy theorem. e) using the fact that the total energy is conserved.
9.12.1. A rocket of mass M is launched vertically upward from the surface of the Earth. The rocket accelerates upward with a constant acceleration a. Which one of the following expressions gives the rate at which fuel is being consumed by the rocket? a) R = 2Mvrel2/a
b) R = Ma c) R = vrel2/2Ma
d) R = Ma vrel
2Ma R= e) vrel 2
9.12.1. A rocket of mass M is launched vertically upward from the surface of the Earth. The rocket accelerates upward with a constant acceleration a. Which one of the following expressions gives the rate at which fuel is being consumed by the rocket? a) R = 2Mvrel2/a
b) R = Ma c) R = vrel2/2Ma
d) R = Ma vrel
2Ma R= e) vrel 2
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 10 Rotation Reading Quiz Questions
10.2.1. Angles are often measured in radians. How many degrees are there in one radian? a) 0.0175 b) 1.57
c) 3.14 d) 16.3
e) 57.3
10.2.1. Angles are often measured in radians. How many degrees are there in one radian? a) 0.0175 b) 1.57
c) 3.14 d) 16.3
e) 57.3
10.2.2. The SI unit for angular displacement is the radian. In calculations, what is the effect of using the radian?
a) Any angular quantities involving the radian must first be converted to degrees. b) Since the radian is a unitless quantity, there is no effect on other units when multiplying of dividing by the radian. c) Since the radian is a unitless quantity, any units multiplied or divided by the radian will be equal to one.
d) Since the radian is a unitless quantity, the number of radians of angular displacement plays no role in the calculation. e) The result of the calculation will always have the radian among the units.
10.2.2. The SI unit for angular displacement is the radian. In calculations, what is the effect of using the radian?
a) Any angular quantities involving the radian must first be converted to degrees. b) Since the radian is a unitless quantity, there is no effect on other units when multiplying of dividing by the radian. c) Since the radian is a unitless quantity, any units multiplied or divided by the radian will be equal to one.
d) Since the radian is a unitless quantity, the number of radians of angular displacement plays no role in the calculation. e) The result of the calculation will always have the radian among the units.
10.2.3. For a given circle, the radian is defined as which one of the following expressions? a) the arc length divided by the radius of the circle b) (3.141592...) times twice the radius of the circle
c) two times ninety degrees divided by (3.141592...) d) the arc length divided by the circumference of the circle
e) the arc length divided by the diameter of the circle
10.2.3. For a given circle, the radian is defined as which one of the following expressions? a) the arc length divided by the radius of the circle b) (3.141592...) times twice the radius of the circle
c) two times ninety degrees divided by (3.141592...) d) the arc length divided by the circumference of the circle
e) the arc length divided by the diameter of the circle
10.2.4. The hand on a certain stopwatch makes one complete revolution every three seconds. Express the magnitude of the angular velocity of this hand in radians per second. a) 0.33 rad/s b) 0.66 rad/s c) 2.1 rad/s d) 6.0 rad/s e) 19 rad/s
10.2.4. The hand on a certain stopwatch makes one complete revolution every three seconds. Express the magnitude of the angular velocity of this hand in radians per second. a) 0.33 rad/s b) 0.66 rad/s c) 2.1 rad/s d) 6.0 rad/s e) 19 rad/s
10.2.5. A drill bit in a hand drill is turning at 1200 revolutions per minute (1200 rpm). Express this angular speed in radians per second (rad/s). a) 2.1 rad/s b) 19 rad/s c) 125 rad/s d) 39 rad/s e) 0.67 rad/s
10.2.5. A drill bit in a hand drill is turning at 1200 revolutions per minute (1200 rpm). Express this angular speed in radians per second (rad/s). a) 2.1 rad/s b) 19 rad/s c) 125 rad/s d) 39 rad/s e) 0.67 rad/s
10.2.6. Which one of the following choices is the SI unit for angular velocity? a) revolutions per minute (rpm) b) meters per second (m/s)
c) degrees per minute (/min) d) radians per second (rad/s)
e) tychos per second (ty/s)
10.2.6. Which one of the following choices is the SI unit for angular velocity? a) revolutions per minute (rpm) b) meters per second (m/s)
c) degrees per minute (/min) d) radians per second (rad/s)
e) tychos per second (ty/s)
10.2.7. The jet engine has angular acceleration of −2.5 rad/s2. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this situation? a) The direction of the angular acceleration is counterclockwise. b) The direction of the angular velocity must be clockwise. c) The angular velocity must be decreasing as time passes. d) If the angular velocity is clockwise, then its magnitude must increase as time passes. e) If the angular velocity is counterclockwise, then its magnitude must increase as time passes.
10.2.7. The jet engine has angular acceleration of −2.5 rad/s2. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this situation? a) The direction of the angular acceleration is counterclockwise. b) The direction of the angular velocity must be clockwise. c) The angular velocity must be decreasing as time passes. d) If the angular velocity is clockwise, then its magnitude must increase as time passes. e) If the angular velocity is counterclockwise, then its magnitude must increase as time passes.
10.3.1. The wheels of a bicycle roll without slipping on a horizontal road. The bicycle is moving due east at a constant velocity. What is the direction of the angular velocity of the wheels? a) down b) west c) east d) north e) south
10.3.1. The wheels of a bicycle roll without slipping on a horizontal road. The bicycle is moving due east at a constant velocity. What is the direction of the angular velocity of the wheels? a) down b) west c) east d) north e) south
10.3.2. While putting in a new ceiling, Jake uses a drill to put screws into the drywall. The screws rotate clockwise as they go into the ceiling. What is the direction of the angular velocity of the screw as the drill drives it into the ceiling? Express the direction relative to Jake, who is looking upward at the screw. a) down b) up c) left d) right e) forward
10.3.2. While putting in a new ceiling, Jake uses a drill to put screws into the drywall. The screws rotate clockwise as they go into the ceiling. What is the direction of the angular velocity of the screw as the drill drives it into the ceiling? Express the direction relative to Jake, who is looking upward at the screw. a) down b) up c) left d) right e) forward
10.4.1. Which one of the following equations is only valid when the angular measure is expressed in radians? a) 2 = 02 + 2 b) = 12 t 2 + 0t v r d) = t e) = t
c) = T
10.4.1. Which one of the following equations is only valid when the angular measure is expressed in radians? a) 2 = 02 + 2 b) = 12 t 2 + 0t v r d) = t e) = t
c) = T
10.4.2. Consider the following situation: one of the wheels of a motor cycle is initially rotating at 39 rad/s. The driver then accelerates uniformly at 7.0 rad/s2 until the wheels are rotating at 78 rad/s. Which one of the following expressions can be used to find the angular displacement of a wheel during the time its angular speed is increasing? a) = 0 + t b) = 0t + 12 t 2 c) = 12 (0 + )t
d) 2 = 02 + 2 e) = 1 − 0 2
10.4.2. Consider the following situation: one of the wheels of a motor cycle is initially rotating at 39 rad/s. The driver then accelerates uniformly at 7.0 rad/s2 until the wheels are rotating at 78 rad/s. Which one of the following expressions can be used to find the angular displacement of a wheel during the time its angular speed is increasing? a) = 0 + t b) = 0t + 12 t 2 c) = 12 (0 + )t
d) 2 = 02 + 2 e) = 1 − 0 2
10.5.1. A deep space probe is rotating about a fixed axis with a constant angular acceleration. Which one of the following statements concerning the tangential acceleration component of any point on the probe is true? a) The probe’s tangential acceleration component is constant in both magnitude and direction. b) The magnitude of the probe’s tangential acceleration component is zero m/s2. c) The tangential acceleration component depends on the angular velocity of the probe. d) The tangential acceleration component is to equal the radial acceleration of the probe. e) The tangential acceleration component depends on the change in the probe’s angular velocity.
10.5.1. A deep space probe is rotating about a fixed axis with a constant angular acceleration. Which one of the following statements concerning the tangential acceleration component of any point on the probe is true? a) The probe’s tangential acceleration component is constant in both magnitude and direction. b) The magnitude of the probe’s tangential acceleration component is zero m/s2. c) The tangential acceleration component depends on the angular velocity of the probe. d) The tangential acceleration component is to equal the radial acceleration of the probe. e) The tangential acceleration component depends on the change in the probe’s angular velocity.
10.5.2. Two points are located on a rigid wheel that is rotating with a decreasing angular velocity about a fixed axis. Point A is located on the rim of the wheel and point B is halfway between the rim and the axis. Which one of the following statements is true concerning this situation? a) Both points have the same radial acceleration component. b) Both points have the same instantaneous angular velocity. c) Both points have the same tangential acceleration component. d) Each second, point A turns through a greater angle than point B. e) The angular velocity at point A is greater than that of point B.
10.5.2. Two points are located on a rigid wheel that is rotating with a decreasing angular velocity about a fixed axis. Point A is located on the rim of the wheel and point B is halfway between the rim and the axis. Which one of the following statements is true concerning this situation? a) Both points have the same radial acceleration component. b) Both points have the same instantaneous angular velocity. c) Both points have the same tangential acceleration component. d) Each second, point A turns through a greater angle than point B. e) The angular velocity at point A is greater than that of point B.
10.5.3. As an object rotates, its angular speed increases with time. Complete the following statement: The total acceleration of the object is given by a) the vector sum of the angular velocity and the tangential acceleration component divided by the elapsed time.
b) the vector sum of the radial acceleration component and the tangential acceleration component. c) the angular acceleration. d) the radial acceleration component. e) the tangential acceleration component.
10.5.3. As an object rotates, its angular speed increases with time. Complete the following statement: The total acceleration of the object is given by a) the vector sum of the angular velocity and the tangential acceleration component divided by the elapsed time.
b) the vector sum of the radial acceleration component and the tangential acceleration component. c) the angular acceleration. d) the radial acceleration component. e) the tangential acceleration component.
10.5.4. Which one of the following statements correctly relates the radial acceleration component and the angular velocity?
a) The radial acceleration component is the product of the radius and the square of the angular velocity. b) The radial acceleration component is the square of the angular velocity divided by the radius. c) The radial acceleration component is the product of the radius and the angular velocity. d) The radial acceleration component is the angular velocity divided by the radius. e) The radial acceleration component is independent of the angular velocity.
10.5.4. Which one of the following statements correctly relates the radial acceleration component and the angular velocity?
a) The radial acceleration component is the product of the radius and the square of the angular velocity. b) The radial acceleration component is the square of the angular velocity divided by the radius. c) The radial acceleration component is the product of the radius and the angular velocity. d) The radial acceleration component is the angular velocity divided by the radius. e) The radial acceleration component is independent of the angular velocity.
10.6.1. An object is rolling, so its motion involves both rotation and translation. Which one of the following statements must be true concerning this situation? a) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational kinetic energy and the gravitational potential energy of the object.
b) The translational kinetic energy may be equal to zero joules. c) The gravitational potential energy must be changing as the object rolls. d) The rotational kinetic energy must be constant as the object rolls. e) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies and the gravitational potential energy of the object.
10.6.1. An object is rolling, so its motion involves both rotation and translation. Which one of the following statements must be true concerning this situation? a) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational kinetic energy and the gravitational potential energy of the object.
b) The translational kinetic energy may be equal to zero joules. c) The gravitational potential energy must be changing as the object rolls. d) The rotational kinetic energy must be constant as the object rolls. e) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies and the gravitational potential energy of the object.
10.6.2. Which one of the following statements provides the best definition of rotational inertia? a) Rotational inertia is the momentum of a rotating object. b) Rotational inertia is the same as the mass of a rotating object.
c) Rotational inertia is the resistance of an object to a change in its angular velocity. d) Rotational inertia is the resistance of an object to a change in its linear velocity. e) Rotational inertia is the resistance of an object to a change in its angular acceleration.
10.6.2. Which one of the following statements provides the best definition of rotational inertia? a) Rotational inertia is the momentum of a rotating object. b) Rotational inertia is the same as the mass of a rotating object.
c) Rotational inertia is the resistance of an object to a change in its angular velocity. d) Rotational inertia is the resistance of an object to a change in its linear velocity. e) Rotational inertia is the resistance of an object to a change in its angular acceleration.
10.7.1. A flat disk, a solid sphere, and a hollow sphere each have the same mass m and radius r. The three objects are arranged so that an axis of rotation passes through the center of each object. The rotation axis is perpendicular to the plane of the flat disk. Which of the three objects has the largest rotational inertia? a) The solid sphere and hollow sphere have the same rotational inertia and it is the largest.
b) The hollow sphere has the largest rotational inertia. c) The solid sphere has the largest rotational inertia. d) The flat disk has the largest rotational inertia. e) The flat disk and hollow sphere have the same rotational inertia and it is the largest.
10.7.1. A flat disk, a solid sphere, and a hollow sphere each have the same mass m and radius r. The three objects are arranged so that an axis of rotation passes through the center of each object. The rotation axis is perpendicular to the plane of the flat disk. Which of the three objects has the largest rotational inertia? a) The solid sphere and hollow sphere have the same rotational inertia and it is the largest.
b) The hollow sphere has the largest rotational inertia. c) The solid sphere has the largest rotational inertia. d) The flat disk has the largest rotational inertia. e) The flat disk and hollow sphere have the same rotational inertia and it is the largest.
10.7.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the rotational inertia is false?
a) The rotational inertia depends on the angular acceleration of the object as it rotates. b) The rotational inertia may be expressed in units of kg • m2. c) The rotational inertia depends on the orientation of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object. d) Of the particles that make up an object, the particle with the smallest mass may contribute the greatest amount to the rotational inertia. e) The rotational inertia depends on the location of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object.
10.7.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the rotational inertia is false?
a) The rotational inertia depends on the angular acceleration of the object as it rotates. b) The rotational inertia may be expressed in units of kg • m2. c) The rotational inertia depends on the orientation of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object. d) Of the particles that make up an object, the particle with the smallest mass may contribute the greatest amount to the rotational inertia. e) The rotational inertia depends on the location of the rotation axis relative to the particles that make up the object.
10.7.3. Two solid spheres have the same mass, but one is made from lead and the other from pine wood. How do the rotational inertias of the two spheres compare? a) The rotational inertia of the lead sphere is greater than that of the one made of wood.
b) The rotational inertia of the wood sphere is greater than that of the one made of lead. c) The rotational inertia of the wood sphere is the same as that of the one made of lead. d) There is no way to compare the spheres without knowing their radii.
10.7.3. Two solid spheres have the same mass, but one is made from lead and the other from pine wood. How do the rotational inertias of the two spheres compare? a) The rotational inertia of the lead sphere is greater than that of the one made of wood.
b) The rotational inertia of the wood sphere is greater than that of the one made of lead. c) The rotational inertia of the wood sphere is the same as that of the one made of lead. d) There is no way to compare the spheres without knowing their radii.
10.7.4. The parallel-axis theorem is used in the calculation of which of the following parameters? a) angular acceleration b) torque
c) angular velocity d) rotational inertia
e) radial acceleration
10.7.4. The parallel-axis theorem is used in the calculation of which of the following parameters? a) angular acceleration b) torque
c) angular velocity d) rotational inertia
e) radial acceleration
10.8.1. An object, which is considered a rigid body, is not in equilibrium. Which one of the following expressions must be true concerning the angular acceleration and translational acceleration a of the object? a) = 0 rad/s2 and a = 0 m/s2
b) > 0 rad/s2 and a = 0 m/s2 c) a > 0 m/s2 and = 0 rad/s2
d) > 0 rad/s2 and a > 0 m/s2 e) Either > 0 rad/s2 or a > 0 m/s2.
10.8.1. An object, which is considered a rigid body, is not in equilibrium. Which one of the following expressions must be true concerning the angular acceleration and translational acceleration a of the object? a) = 0 rad/s2 and a = 0 m/s2
b) > 0 rad/s2 and a = 0 m/s2 c) a > 0 m/s2 and = 0 rad/s2
d) > 0 rad/s2 and a > 0 m/s2 e) Either > 0 rad/s2 or a > 0 m/s2.
10.8.2. The units of torque are which of the following?
a) newtons (N) b) N m c) kg/s2 d) kg m2 e) angular newtons
10.8.2. The units of torque are which of the following?
a) newtons (N) b) N m c) kg/s2 d) kg m2 e) angular newtons
10.9.1. Complete the following statement: When determining the net torque on a rigid body, only the torques due to a) internal forces are considered. b) external forces are considered.
c) forces that are either parallel or perpendicular to the lever arms are considered. d) forces that form action-reaction pairs, as in applying Newton’s third law of motion, are considered. e) internal and external forces are considered.
10.9.1. Complete the following statement: When determining the net torque on a rigid body, only the torques due to a) internal forces are considered. b) external forces are considered.
c) forces that are either parallel or perpendicular to the lever arms are considered. d) forces that form action-reaction pairs, as in applying Newton’s third law of motion, are considered. e) internal and external forces are considered.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 11 Rolling, Torque, and Angular Momentum Reading Quiz Questions
11.2.1. A wheel is rolling without slipping along a straight, level road. Which one of the following statements concerning the speed of the center of the wheel is true?
a) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that is equal to the speed at the center of the wheel. b) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that is one-half the speed at the center of the wheel. c) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that is two times the speed at the center of the wheel. d) A point on the rim moves at a speed that is not related to the speed at the center of the wheel. e) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that varies as the wheel rotates, but the speed at the center of the wheel is constant.
11.2.1. A wheel is rolling without slipping along a straight, level road. Which one of the following statements concerning the speed of the center of the wheel is true?
a) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that is equal to the speed at the center of the wheel. b) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that is one-half the speed at the center of the wheel. c) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that is two times the speed at the center of the wheel. d) A point on the rim moves at a speed that is not related to the speed at the center of the wheel. e) A point on the rim is moving at a tangential speed that varies as the wheel rotates, but the speed at the center of the wheel is constant.
11.2.2. The wheels of a NASCAR racer roll without slipping as the car moves in a circular path at constant speed. Which one of the following quantities has a non-zero value and has a constant value in this situation? a) linear velocity
b) centripetal acceleration c) angular velocity
d) angular acceleration e) total acceleration
11.2.2. The wheels of a NASCAR racer roll without slipping as the car moves in a circular path at constant speed. Which one of the following quantities has a non-zero value and has a constant value in this situation? a) linear velocity
b) centripetal acceleration c) angular velocity
d) angular acceleration e) total acceleration
11.2.3. At the post office, a customer has dropped a coin. The coin is rolling on its side across the floor. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) The tangential velocity is the same for all points on the side of the coin.
b) There is no slipping at the point where the coin touches the floor. c) The angular acceleration of the coin must be zero m/s2.
d) The tangential velocity is the same for all points on the coin. e) The linear velocity for all points on the coin is non-zero.
11.2.3. At the post office, a customer has dropped a coin. The coin is rolling on its side across the floor. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) The tangential velocity is the same for all points on the side of the coin.
b) There is no slipping at the point where the coin touches the floor. c) The angular acceleration of the coin must be zero m/s2.
d) The tangential velocity is the same for all points on the coin. e) The linear velocity for all points on the coin is non-zero.
11.3.1. Consider the following kinds of energy: (1) translational, (2) rotational, (3) elastic potential energy, and (4) gravitational potential energy. Which of these kinds of energy are involved when a wheel rolls without slipping along a flat, horizontal surface? a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 b) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 only e) 2 only
11.3.1. Consider the following kinds of energy: (1) translational, (2) rotational, (3) elastic potential energy, and (4) gravitational potential energy. Which of these kinds of energy are involved when a wheel rolls without slipping along a flat, horizontal surface? a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 b) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 only e) 2 only
11.3.2. An object is rolling, so its motion involves both rotation and translation. Which one of the following statements must be true concerning this situation? a) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies and the gravitational potential energy of the object. b) The translational kinetic energy may be equal to zero joules. c) The gravitational potential energy must be changing as the object rolls.
d) The rotational kinetic energy must be constant as the object rolls. e) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational kinetic energy and the gravitational potential energy of the object.
11.3.2. An object is rolling, so its motion involves both rotation and translation. Which one of the following statements must be true concerning this situation? a) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies and the gravitational potential energy of the object. b) The translational kinetic energy may be equal to zero joules. c) The gravitational potential energy must be changing as the object rolls.
d) The rotational kinetic energy must be constant as the object rolls. e) The total mechanical energy is equal to the sum of the translational kinetic energy and the gravitational potential energy of the object.
11.3.3. Consider the drawing of a wheel that is rolling toward to the right and in constant contact with the ground below. When considering the kinetic energy of rolling, the rolling is about an axis that passes through which of the points indicated? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
11.3.3. Consider the drawing of a wheel that is rolling toward to the right and in constant contact with the ground below. When considering the kinetic energy of rolling, the rolling is about an axis that passes through which of the points indicated? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
11.3.4. Consider the drawing of a wheel that is rolling toward to the right and in constant contact with the ground below. At which of the points indicated is the magnitude of the linear velocity the greatest?
a) A b) B
c) C d) D
e) E
11.3.4. Consider the drawing of a wheel that is rolling toward to the right and in constant contact with the ground below. At which of the points indicated is the magnitude of the linear velocity the greatest?
a) A b) B
c) C d) D
e) E
11.3.5. A solid cylinder is rolling along a flat, horizontal plane. The center of mass of the cylinder is moving toward the south at constant velocity. Which one of the following statements concerning the translational and rotational kinetic energies of the cylinder is true? a) The translational kinetic energy is greater than the rotational kinetic energy. b) The translational kinetic energy is less than the rotational kinetic energy. c) The translational kinetic energy is equal to the rotational kinetic energy. d) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies equals the gravitational potential energy of the cylinder. e) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies equals zero joules.
11.3.5. A solid cylinder is rolling along a flat, horizontal plane. The center of mass of the cylinder is moving toward the south at constant velocity. Which one of the following statements concerning the translational and rotational kinetic energies of the cylinder is true? a) The translational kinetic energy is greater than the rotational kinetic energy. b) The translational kinetic energy is less than the rotational kinetic energy. c) The translational kinetic energy is equal to the rotational kinetic energy. d) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies equals the gravitational potential energy of the cylinder. e) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies equals zero joules.
11.4.1. Cylinders A and B are identical. Cylinder A is allowed to roll down a ramp without slipping. Cylinder B is allowed to slide down a similar ramp that has the same incline angle, but it is frictionless. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation, assuming the cylinders begin from rest at the same height, is true? a) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of cylinder A is smaller than the translational kinetic energy of cylinder B. b) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of cylinder A is equal to the translational kinetic energy of cylinder B.
c) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of cylinder A is larger than the translational kinetic energy of cylinder B.
11.4.1. Cylinders A and B are identical. Cylinder A is allowed to roll down a ramp without slipping. Cylinder B is allowed to slide down a similar ramp that has the same incline angle, but it is frictionless. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation, assuming the cylinders begin from rest at the same height, is true? a) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of cylinder A is smaller than the translational kinetic energy of cylinder B. b) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of cylinder A is equal to the translational kinetic energy of cylinder B.
c) The sum of the translational and rotational kinetic energies of cylinder A is larger than the translational kinetic energy of cylinder B.
11.4.2. A solid cylinder is freely rolling down an inclined plane. What is the direction of the friction force acting on the cylinder and at what point does the friction force act? a) The friction force acts at the center of mass of the cylinder and is directed up the plane. b) The friction force acts at the center of mass of the cylinder and is directed down the plane. c) The friction force acts at the point of contact between the cylinder and the plane and is directed up the plane.
d) The friction force acts at the point of contact between the cylinder and the plane and is directed down the plane. e) The friction force acts at the point of contact between the cylinder and the plane and is directed perpendicular to the plane, in the direction opposite to the normal force.
11.4.2. A solid cylinder is freely rolling down an inclined plane. What is the direction of the friction force acting on the cylinder and at what point does the friction force act? a) The friction force acts at the center of mass of the cylinder and is directed up the plane. b) The friction force acts at the center of mass of the cylinder and is directed down the plane. c) The friction force acts at the point of contact between the cylinder and the plane and is directed up the plane.
d) The friction force acts at the point of contact between the cylinder and the plane and is directed down the plane. e) The friction force acts at the point of contact between the cylinder and the plane and is directed perpendicular to the plane, in the direction opposite to the normal force.
11.5.1. The text uses which of the following physical situations, or analogies, to find the equation of acceleration for the center of mass of the yo-yo? a) an object rolling down an inclined plane b) a spinning top c) a car drive around a banked curve d) a satellite orbiting the earth e) the blades of a fan rotating at low speed
11.5.1. The text uses which of the following physical situations, or analogies, to find the equation of acceleration for the center of mass of the yo-yo? a) an object rolling down an inclined plane b) a spinning top c) a car drive around a banked curve d) a satellite orbiting the earth e) the blades of a fan rotating at low speed
11.6.1. The entrance door to a video store is pivoted about the hinges on the left side of the door. When you begin to push on the right side of the door to enter the store, what is the direction of the torque on the door? a) into the store
b) out of the store c) upward
d) clockwise e) counterclockwise
11.6.1. The entrance door to a video store is pivoted about the hinges on the left side of the door. When you begin to push on the right side of the door to enter the store, what is the direction of the torque on the door? a) into the store
b) out of the store c) upward
d) clockwise e) counterclockwise
11.6.2. An L-shaped bracket with sides of length 2L and L has two forces acting on it, as shown in the drawing. One of the forces has a magnitude F and the other has a magnitude 2F. The bracket is free to rotate about the point P shown. What is the magnitude and direction of the net torque acting on this bracket? a) 1.29LF, into the page/screen b) 0.59LF, into the page/screen
c) 1.29LF, out of the page/screen d) 0.59LF, out of the page/screen e) zero
11.6.2. An L-shaped bracket with sides of length 2L and L has two forces acting on it, as shown in the drawing. One of the forces has a magnitude F and the other has a magnitude 2F. The bracket is free to rotate about the point P shown. What is the magnitude and direction of the net torque acting on this bracket? a) 1.29LF, into the page/screen b) 0.59LF, into the page/screen
c) 1.29LF, out of the page/screen d) 0.59LF, out of the page/screen e) zero
11.7.1. Which one of the following choices represents the SI units for angular momentum? a) kg m/s2 b) kg m2/s
c) kg m2/s d) kg m rad/s
e) kg rad/s2
11.7.1. Which one of the following choices represents the SI units for angular momentum? a) kg m/s2 b) kg m2/s
c) kg m2/s d) kg m rad/s
e) kg rad/s2
11.7.2. A hoop rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface and it moves due east at a constant linear speed. What is the direction of its angular momentum? a) north b) east c) south d) west e) downward
11.7.2. A hoop rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface and it moves due east at a constant linear speed. What is the direction of its angular momentum? a) north b) east c) south d) west e) downward
11.7.3. There is a restaurant on top of a tall, circular building that is designed to rotate about its center at a constant angular speed. Which one of the following quantities is non-zero and constant for one of the restaurant’s customers seated near a window? a) linear velocity
b) centripetal acceleration c) angular momentum
d) angular acceleration
11.7.3. There is a restaurant on top of a tall, circular building that is designed to rotate about its center at a constant angular speed. Which one of the following quantities is non-zero and constant for one of the restaurant’s customers seated near a window? a) linear velocity
b) centripetal acceleration c) angular momentum
d) angular acceleration
11.7.4. Three objects, a solid sphere, a hollow ring, and a solid disk, have the same radius R. A string is wrapped around each object and the same tangential force is applied to each object at R and time t = 0 s. Which one of the following statements concerning the angular momentum of these objects after a short time t has elapsed, assuming the tangential force was continually applied? a) The angular momentum of the solid disk is larger than that of the other two objects. b) The angular momentum of the solid sphere is larger than that of the other two objects. c) The angular momentum of the hollow ring is larger than that of the other two objects. d) The angular momentum of all of the objects has the same value. e) The angular momentum of the solid disk and hollow ring are equal, but that of the solid sphere is smaller.
11.7.4. Three objects, a solid sphere, a hollow ring, and a solid disk, have the same radius R. A string is wrapped around each object and the same tangential force is applied to each object at R and time t = 0 s. Which one of the following statements concerning the angular momentum of these objects after a short time t has elapsed, assuming the tangential force was continually applied? a) The angular momentum of the solid disk is larger than that of the other two objects. b) The angular momentum of the solid sphere is larger than that of the other two objects. c) The angular momentum of the hollow ring is larger than that of the other two objects. d) The angular momentum of all of the objects has the same value. e) The angular momentum of the solid disk and hollow ring are equal, but that of the solid sphere is smaller.
11.7.5. Three objects, a solid sphere, a hollow ring, and a solid disk, have the same radius R. A string is wrapped around each object and the same tangential force is applied to each object at R and time t = 0 s. Which one of the following statements concerning the angular velocity of these objects after a short time t has elapsed, assuming the tangential force was continually applied? a) The angular velocity of the solid disk is larger than that of the other two objects.
b) The angular velocity of the solid sphere is larger than that of the other two objects. c) The angular velocity of the hollow ring is larger than that of the other two objects.
d) The angular velocity of all of the objects has the same value. e) The angular velocity of the solid disk and hollow ring are equal, but that of the solid sphere is smaller.
11.7.5. Three objects, a solid sphere, a hollow ring, and a solid disk, have the same radius R. A string is wrapped around each object and the same tangential force is applied to each object at R and time t = 0 s. Which one of the following statements concerning the angular velocity of these objects after a short time t has elapsed, assuming the tangential force was continually applied? a) The angular velocity of the solid disk is larger than that of the other two objects.
b) The angular velocity of the solid sphere is larger than that of the other two objects. c) The angular velocity of the hollow ring is larger than that of the other two objects.
d) The angular velocity of all of the objects has the same value. e) The angular velocity of the solid disk and hollow ring are equal, but that of the solid sphere is smaller.
11.8.1. The vector sum of all of the torques acting on a particle is equal to the time rate of change of which on of the following quantities? a) angular momentum b) angular acceleration c) net force d) moment of inertia e) rotational kinetic energy
11.8.1. The vector sum of all of the torques acting on a particle is equal to the time rate of change of which on of the following quantities? a) angular momentum b) angular acceleration c) net force d) moment of inertia e) rotational kinetic energy
11.9.1. Consider a system of particles. Which one of the following statements concerning the choice of the origin for this system is true?
a) The origin may be chosen to be anywhere in the universe. b) The origin must be located at the center of mass of one of the particles that compose the system. c) The origin must always be located at the center of mass of the particle system. d) The origin must be at the center of mass of the system of particles if the center of mass is accelerating. e) The origin must be at the center of mass of the system of particles if the center of mass is moving at constant velocity.
11.9.1. Consider a system of particles. Which one of the following statements concerning the choice of the origin for this system is true?
a) The origin may be chosen to be anywhere in the universe. b) The origin must be located at the center of mass of one of the particles that compose the system. c) The origin must always be located at the center of mass of the particle system. d) The origin must be at the center of mass of the system of particles if the center of mass is accelerating. e) The origin must be at the center of mass of the system of particles if the center of mass is moving at constant velocity.
11.10.1. Which one of the following expressions allows one to calculate the angular momentum for a rigid body about a fixed axis? a) (1/2) I2 b) (1/2) MR2 c) 2I d) I e) (1/2) MRv2
11.10.1. Which one of the following expressions allows one to calculate the angular momentum for a rigid body about a fixed axis? a) (1/2) I2 b) (1/2) MR2 c) 2I d) I e) (1/2) MRv2
11.11.1. A child standing on the edge of a freely spinning merry-go-round moves quickly to the center. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true concerning this event and why? a) The angular speed of the system decreases because the moment of inertia of the system has decreased. b) The angular speed of the system increases because the moment of inertia of the system has decreased. c) The angular speed of the system increases because the moment of inertia of the system has increased.
d) The angular speed of the system decreases because the moment of inertia of the system has increased. e) The angular speed of the system remains the same because the net torque on the merry-go-round is zero N m.
11.11.1. A child standing on the edge of a freely spinning merry-go-round moves quickly to the center. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true concerning this event and why? a) The angular speed of the system decreases because the moment of inertia of the system has decreased. b) The angular speed of the system increases because the moment of inertia of the system has decreased. c) The angular speed of the system increases because the moment of inertia of the system has increased.
d) The angular speed of the system decreases because the moment of inertia of the system has increased. e) The angular speed of the system remains the same because the net torque on the merry-go-round is zero N m.
11.11.2. What happens when a spinning ice skater draws in her outstretched arms? a) Her moment of inertia decreases causing her to slow down. b) Her angular momentum decreases.
c) The torque that she exerts increases her moment of inertia. d) Her angular momentum increases.
e) Her moment of inertia decreases causing her to speed up.
11.11.2. What happens when a spinning ice skater draws in her outstretched arms? a) Her moment of inertia decreases causing her to slow down. b) Her angular momentum decreases.
c) The torque that she exerts increases her moment of inertia. d) Her angular momentum increases.
e) Her moment of inertia decreases causing her to speed up.
11.11.3. A ball moves in a circular path on a horizontal, frictionless surface as shown. It is attached to a light string that passes through a hole in the center of the table. If the string is pulled down, thereby reducing the radius of the path of the ball, the speed of the ball is observed to increase. Which one of the following statements provides an explanation for this increase? a) When the string is pulled downward, the angular momentum must increase.
b) The total mechanical energy of the ball must remain constant because energy is conserved. c) The angular momentum of the ball is conserved in this process.
d) The linear momentum of the ball is conserved in this process. e) This follows from applying Newton’s third law of motion.
11.11.3. A ball moves in a circular path on a horizontal, frictionless surface as shown. It is attached to a light string that passes through a hole in the center of the table. If the string is pulled down, thereby reducing the radius of the path of the ball, the speed of the ball is observed to increase. Which one of the following statements provides an explanation for this increase? a) When the string is pulled downward, the angular momentum must increase.
b) The total mechanical energy of the ball must remain constant because energy is conserved. c) The angular momentum of the ball is conserved in this process.
d) The linear momentum of the ball is conserved in this process. e) This follows from applying Newton’s third law of motion.
11.11.4. At the carnival, a child is riding on a carousel. She has chosen to ride one of the animals near the outer rim, a Siberian tiger, even though it does move up and down. As the carousel is turning her bracelet falls from her wrist, even though her hand was firmly gripping a handle near the tiger’s ear. Which of the following quantities for the bracelet is conserved as it falls?
a) angular momentum only b) rotational kinetic energy only c) total mechanical energy only d) angular momentum and mechanical energy e) None of the above choices are correct.
11.11.4. At the carnival, a child is riding on a carousel. She has chosen to ride one of the animals near the outer rim, a Siberian tiger, even though it does move up and down. As the carousel is turning her bracelet falls from her wrist, even though her hand was firmly gripping a handle near the tiger’s ear. Which of the following quantities for the bracelet is conserved as it falls?
a) angular momentum only b) rotational kinetic energy only c) total mechanical energy only d) angular momentum and mechanical energy e) None of the above choices are correct.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 12 Static Equilibrium and Elasticity Reading Quiz Questions
12.2.1. A water skier is pulled by a boat traveling with a constant velocity. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation? a) The water skier is in equilibrium. b) The net acceleration of the skier is zero m/s2. c) The net force on the skier is zero newtons. d) There is a net horizontal force on the skier in the direction the boat’s velocity. e) The net vertical force on the skier is zero newtons.
12.2.1. A water skier is pulled by a boat traveling with a constant velocity. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation? a) The water skier is in equilibrium. b) The net acceleration of the skier is zero m/s2. c) The net force on the skier is zero newtons. d) There is a net horizontal force on the skier in the direction the boat’s velocity. e) The net vertical force on the skier is zero newtons.
12.2.2. Which one of the following descriptions indicates that the object is in translational equilibrium?
a) Translational equilibrium occurs only if the object is at rest. b) Translational equilibrium occurs only if the object is moving with constant acceleration. c) Translational equilibrium occurs only if the object is at moving with constant velocity. d) Translational equilibrium occurs if the object is moving with constant velocity or with constant acceleration. e) Translational equilibrium occurs if the object is at rest or moving with constant velocity.
12.2.2. Which one of the following descriptions indicates that the object is in translational equilibrium?
a) Translational equilibrium occurs only if the object is at rest. b) Translational equilibrium occurs only if the object is moving with constant acceleration. c) Translational equilibrium occurs only if the object is at moving with constant velocity. d) Translational equilibrium occurs if the object is moving with constant velocity or with constant acceleration. e) Translational equilibrium occurs if the object is at rest or moving with constant velocity.
12.2.3. Which of the following actions will take place if an object in unstable equilibrium is slightly displaced? a) The object will move in the direction opposite that of the displacement. b) The object will stop moving as soon as it reaches a place of stable equilibrium. c) The kinetic energy will decrease.
d) The potential energy will decrease.
12.2.3. Which of the following actions will take place if an object in unstable equilibrium is slightly displaced? a) The object will move in the direction opposite that of the displacement. b) The object will stop moving as soon as it reaches a place of stable equilibrium. c) The kinetic energy will decrease.
d) The potential energy will decrease.
12.3.1. Complete the following statement: When determining the net torque on a rigid body, only the torques due to a) internal forces are considered. b) external forces are considered.
c) forces that are either parallel or perpendicular to the lever arms are considered. d) forces that form action-reaction pairs as in applying Newton’s third law of motion are considered. e) internal and external forces are considered.
12.3.1. Complete the following statement: When determining the net torque on a rigid body, only the torques due to a) internal forces are considered. b) external forces are considered.
c) forces that are either parallel or perpendicular to the lever arms are considered. d) forces that form action-reaction pairs as in applying Newton’s third law of motion are considered. e) internal and external forces are considered.
12.3.2. An object, which is considered a rigid body, is in equilibrium. Which one of the following statements is false when determining the forces and torques acting on the object? a) The linear acceleration or the angular acceleration of the object may not be equal to zero. b) The location of the rotational axis is arbitrary. Therefore, it can be placed at any point on the object that is convenient. c) In placing an x-y coordinate system on the object, the +x direction is arbitrary and it can be directed toward any direction that is convenient.
d) A free body diagram of the external forces acting on the object is useful in analyzing this situation. e) The sum of the torques due to external forces must equal zero Nm.
12.3.2. An object, which is considered a rigid body, is in equilibrium. Which one of the following statements is false when determining the forces and torques acting on the object? a) The linear acceleration or the angular acceleration of the object may not be equal to zero. b) The location of the rotational axis is arbitrary. Therefore, it can be placed at any point on the object that is convenient. c) In placing an x-y coordinate system on the object, the +x direction is arbitrary and it can be directed toward any direction that is convenient.
d) A free body diagram of the external forces acting on the object is useful in analyzing this situation. e) The sum of the torques due to external forces must equal zero Nm.
12.3.3. Which of the following is not a requirement of static equilibrium? a) The angular momentum of the object must be zero. b) The vector sum of all the external forces that act on the body must be zero. c) The linear momentum of the object must be zero. d) The vector sum of all the external torques acting on the body must be zero. e) All of the above are requirements of static equilibrium.
12.3.3. Which of the following is not a requirement of static equilibrium? a) The angular momentum of the object must be zero. b) The vector sum of all the external forces that act on the body must be zero. c) The linear momentum of the object must be zero. d) The vector sum of all the external torques acting on the body must be zero. e) All of the above are requirements of static equilibrium.
12.4.1. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the center of gravity of an object? a) It is the point where gravity acts on the object. b) It is the point on the object where all the weight is concentrated.
c) It is the point from which the torque produced by the weight of the object can be calculated. d) It must be experimentally determined for all objects. e) It is the point where all the mass is concentrated.
12.4.1. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the center of gravity of an object? a) It is the point where gravity acts on the object. b) It is the point on the object where all the weight is concentrated.
c) It is the point from which the torque produced by the weight of the object can be calculated. d) It must be experimentally determined for all objects. e) It is the point where all the mass is concentrated.
12.5.1. Consider the drawing. A small disk with a radius r shares an axis with a wheel of radius 4r. An object of mass M1 hangs from a rope that is attached and wrapped around the wheel as shown. Another object of mass M2 hangs from a rope that is attached and wrapped around the disk as shown. Which one of the following conditions must be true if this system is in equilibrium?
a) M1 = M2 b) M1 < M2 c) M1 > M2
12.5.1. Consider the drawing. A small disk with a radius r shares an axis with a wheel of radius 4r. An object of mass M1 hangs from a rope that is attached and wrapped around the wheel as shown. Another object of mass M2 hangs from a rope that is attached and wrapped around the disk as shown. Which one of the following conditions must be true if this system is in equilibrium?
a) M1 = M2 b) M1 < M2 c) M1 > M2
12.5.2. A block is sliding down a ramp at a constant velocity. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) The block is not in equilibrium because the net forces on the block are not equal to zero newtons. b) The block is in static equilibrium.
c) The block is not in equilibrium because the net torque on the block is not equal to zero N m. d) The block is in equilibrium, but it is not in static equilibrium.
e) The block is not in equilibrium because the linear momentum of the block is not equal to zero kg m/s.
12.5.2. A block is sliding down a ramp at a constant velocity. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) The block is not in equilibrium because the net forces on the block are not equal to zero newtons. b) The block is in static equilibrium.
c) The block is not in equilibrium because the net torque on the block is not equal to zero N m. d) The block is in equilibrium, but it is not in static equilibrium.
e) The block is not in equilibrium because the linear momentum of the block is not equal to zero kg m/s.
12.5.3. Consider the four situations shown below. A cube-shaped object is on a plank that is supported by one or more fulcrums, represented as triangles. An upward force, represented by the arrow, is applied at the locations shown. In which of these situations is the cube-shaped object most likely to be in static equilibrium?
12.5.3. Consider the four situations shown below. A cube-shaped object is on a plank that is supported by one or more fulcrums, represented as triangles. An upward force, represented by the arrow, is applied at the locations shown. In which of these situations is the cube-shaped object most likely to be in static equilibrium?
12.5.4. Consider the four situations shown below. One or two cube-shaped objects are sitting on a plank that is supported by one or more fulcrums, represented as triangles. An upward force, represented by the arrow, is applied at the locations shown. In which of these situations is the cube-shaped object most likely to be in static equilibrium?
12.5.4. Consider the four situations shown below. One or two cube-shaped objects are sitting on a plank that is supported by one or more fulcrums, represented as triangles. An upward force, represented by the arrow, is applied at the locations shown. In which of these situations is the cube-shaped object most likely to be in static equilibrium?
12.6.1. Which one of the following choices does not represent an example of an indeterminate structure? a) an elephant standing on the ground b) a three legged stool
c) a four legged coffee table d) an unevenly loaded car
e) all of the above are indeterminate structures
12.6.1. Which one of the following choices does not represent an example of an indeterminate structure? a) an elephant standing on the ground b) a three legged stool
c) a four legged coffee table d) an unevenly loaded car
e) all of the above are indeterminate structures
12.7.1. What are the SI units of the shear modulus? a) N/m2 b) N • m2 c) N/m d) N • m e) N/m3
12.7.1. What are the SI units of the shear modulus? a) N/m2 b) N • m2 c) N/m d) N • m e) N/m3
12.7.2. Complete the following statement: Young's modulus cannot be applied to a) a bending beam. b) a compressed liquid.
c) a stretched wire. d) a compressed rod.
e) a stretched rubber band.
12.7.2. Complete the following statement: Young's modulus cannot be applied to a) a bending beam. b) a compressed liquid.
c) a stretched wire. d) a compressed rod.
e) a stretched rubber band.
12.7.3. A box that is submerged below the surface of a liquid is observed to have a volume V2, which is smaller than the initial volume V1 when the box was in air above the surface. If we wish to determine the “stress” on the box, what additional information is needed? a) bulk modulus of the material from which the box is made b) mass of the box c) bulk modulus of the liquid d) shear modulus of the material from which the box is made e) Young's modulus of the material from which the box is made
12.7.3. A box that is submerged below the surface of a liquid is observed to have a volume V2, which is smaller than the initial volume V1 when the box was in air above the surface. If we wish to determine the “stress” on the box, what additional information is needed? a) bulk modulus of the material from which the box is made b) mass of the box c) bulk modulus of the liquid d) shear modulus of the material from which the box is made e) Young's modulus of the material from which the box is made
12.7.4. Complete the following statement: In general, the term stress refers to a) a change in length. b) a change in volume.
c) a fractional change in length. d) a force per unit length.
e) a force per unit area.
12.7.4. Complete the following statement: In general, the term stress refers to a) a change in length. b) a change in volume.
c) a fractional change in length. d) a force per unit length.
e) a force per unit area.
12.7.5. Stress is the product of which two factors? a) modulus and strain b) force and strain c) torque and elasticity d) mass and acceleration e) momentum and modulus
12.7.5. Stress is the product of which two factors? a) modulus and strain b) force and strain c) torque and elasticity d) mass and acceleration e) momentum and modulus
12.7.6. Complete the following statement: The shear modulus for a fluid is a) usually larger than the shear modulus for a solid. b) larger than Young’s modulus for a fluid.
c) zero. d) dependent on the fluid pressure.
e) dependent on the fluid density.
12.7.6. Complete the following statement: The shear modulus for a fluid is a) usually larger than the shear modulus for a solid. b) larger than Young’s modulus for a fluid.
c) zero. d) dependent on the fluid pressure.
e) dependent on the fluid density.
12.7.7. Complete the following statement: The difference between strain and stress is that
a) stress deals with tensile and compressive forces while strain deals with shearing forces. b) stress relates to the amount of deformation and strain is the deforming force per unit area. c) stress is the deforming force per unit area and strain is the shearing force per unit area.
d) strain measures the amount of deformation and stress is related to force applied to an area of the object. e) there is no difference.
12.7.7. Complete the following statement: The difference between strain and stress is that
a) stress deals with tensile and compressive forces while strain deals with shearing forces. b) stress relates to the amount of deformation and strain is the deforming force per unit area. c) stress is the deforming force per unit area and strain is the shearing force per unit area.
d) strain measures the amount of deformation and stress is related to force applied to an area of the object. e) there is no difference.
12.7.8. Which pair of quantities listed below have the same units? a) yield strength and strain b) shear modulus and stress c) strain and stress d) tension and yield strength e) All of the above pairs have the same units.
12.7.8. Which pair of quantities listed below have the same units? a) yield strength and strain b) shear modulus and stress c) strain and stress d) tension and yield strength e) All of the above pairs have the same units.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 13 Gravitation Reading Quiz Questions
13.2.1. Complete the following statement: Near the surface of the earth, the weight of an object a) is the same as the mass of the object. b) is the gravitational force of the earth on the object.
c) has the same value regardless of the altitude above the surface of the earth. d) has the same value regardless of the mass of the object.
13.2.1. Complete the following statement: Near the surface of the earth, the weight of an object a) is the same as the mass of the object. b) is the gravitational force of the earth on the object.
c) has the same value regardless of the altitude above the surface of the earth. d) has the same value regardless of the mass of the object.
13.2.2. A rock is thrown straight up from the earth's surface. Which one of the following statements concerning the net force acting on the rock at the top of its path is true? a) It is instantaneously equal to zero newtons. b) It is greater than the weight of the rock. c) It is less than the weight of the rock, but greater than zero newtons. d) Its direction changes from up to down. e) It is equal to the weight of the rock.
13.2.2. A rock is thrown straight up from the earth's surface. Which one of the following statements concerning the net force acting on the rock at the top of its path is true? a) It is instantaneously equal to zero newtons. b) It is greater than the weight of the rock. c) It is less than the weight of the rock, but greater than zero newtons. d) Its direction changes from up to down. e) It is equal to the weight of the rock.
13.2.3. Two objects with masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the distance between the objects is increased to 4d, how does the gravitational force between them change? a) The force will be one-half as great. b) The force will be one-forth as great. c) The force will be one-sixteenth as great. d) The force will be four times as great. e) The force will be sixteen times as great.
13.2.3. Two objects with masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the distance between the objects is increased to 4d, how does the gravitational force between them change? a) The force will be one-half as great. b) The force will be one-forth as great. c) The force will be one-sixteenth as great. d) The force will be four times as great. e) The force will be sixteen times as great.
13.2.4. Two objects with masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the separation d remains fixed and the masses of the objects are increased to the values 3m and 3M respectively, how does the gravitational force between them change? a) The force will be nine times as great.
b) The force will be three times as great. c) The force will be one-third as great.
d) The force will be one-ninth as great. e) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.
13.2.4. Two objects with masses m and M are separated by a distance d. If the separation d remains fixed and the masses of the objects are increased to the values 3m and 3M respectively, how does the gravitational force between them change? a) The force will be nine times as great.
b) The force will be three times as great. c) The force will be one-third as great.
d) The force will be one-ninth as great. e) It is impossible to determine without knowing the numerical values of m, M, and d.
13.2.5. Which one of the following statements concerning the two "gravitational constants" G, the universal gravitational constant, and g the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity is true? a) The values of g and G depend on location. b) The values of g and G do not depend on location. c) The value of g is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of G is not. d) The values of g and G are equal on the surface of any planet, but in general, vary with location in the universe. e) The value of G is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of g is not.
13.2.5. Which one of the following statements concerning the two "gravitational constants" G, the universal gravitational constant, and g the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity is true? a) The values of g and G depend on location. b) The values of g and G do not depend on location. c) The value of g is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of G is not. d) The values of g and G are equal on the surface of any planet, but in general, vary with location in the universe. e) The value of G is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of g is not.
13.2.6. Which one of the following statements best explains why the weight of an object of mass m is different on Mars than it is on the Earth? a) The mass of Mars is different from that of Earth. b) The mass m is further from the Earth's center when it is on Mars. c) The mass and radius of Mars are both less than those of Earth. d) The mass m will be different on Mars. e) The constant G is different on Mars.
13.2.6. Which one of the following statements best explains why the weight of an object of mass m is different on Mars than it is on the Earth? a) The mass of Mars is different from that of Earth. b) The mass m is further from the Earth's center when it is on Mars. c) The mass and radius of Mars are both less than those of Earth. d) The mass m will be different on Mars. e) The constant G is different on Mars.
13.2.7. The magnitude of the gravitational force is related to the distance between two objects. Which of the following choices gives the correct relationship between the distance r and the gravitational force? a) r
b) r2 c) 1/r
d) 1/r2 e) r−1/2
13.2.7. The magnitude of the gravitational force is related to the distance between two objects. Which of the following choices gives the correct relationship between the distance r and the gravitational force? a) r
b) r2 c) 1/r
d) 1/r2 e) r−1/2
13.2.8. Consider the objects of various masses indicated below. The objects are each separated from another object by the distance indicated. In which of these situations is the gravitational force exerted on the two objects the largest? a) #1
b) #2 c) #3
d) #2 and #3 e) #1, #2, and #3
13.2.8. Consider the objects of various masses indicated below. The objects are each separated from another object by the distance indicated. In which of these situations is the gravitational force exerted on the two objects the largest? a) #1
b) #2 c) #3
d) #2 and #3 e) #1, #2, and #3
13.3.1. Given a collection of particles, through what process would one determine the net gravitational force on one of the particles due to the others?
a) If the number of particles is odd, then the net force on the particle will be zero since every other particle is paired with another particle. b) The gravitational force of the particle nearest the particle will exert the greatest force and the others are negligible. c) Calculate the gravitational force of each particle on the given particle and add them together as vectors to find the net force. d) Calculate the gravitational force of each particle on the given particle and use the vector cross product to find the net force. e) Multiply the mass of the particle by 9.8 m/s2.
13.3.1. Given a collection of particles, through what process would one determine the net gravitational force on one of the particles due to the others?
a) If the number of particles is odd, then the net force on the particle will be zero since every other particle is paired with another particle. b) The gravitational force of the particle nearest the particle will exert the greatest force and the others are negligible. c) Calculate the gravitational force of each particle on the given particle and add them together as vectors to find the net force. d) Calculate the gravitational force of each particle on the given particle and use the vector cross product to find the net force. e) Multiply the mass of the particle by 9.8 m/s2.
13.3.2. Consider a system of particles, each of mass m. In which one of the following configurations is the net gravitational force on Particle A the largest? The horizontal or vertical spacing between particles is the same in each case. a) 1
b) 2 c) 3
d) 4 e) 3 and 4 are equally large
13.3.2. Consider a system of particles, each of mass m. In which one of the following configurations is the net gravitational force on Particle A the largest? The horizontal or vertical spacing between particles is the same in each case. a) 1
b) 2 c) 3
d) 4 e) 3 and 4 are equally large
13.4.1. Which one of the following choices is not a reason why the acceleration due to gravity g does not have the same value, 9.8 m/s2, everywhere on the surface of the Earth? a) The Earth is rotating about its axis. b) The value of g depends on where the moon is in its orbit. c) The Earth is not spherical. d) The material from which the Earth is composed is not uniformly distributed and is not of uniform density.
13.4.1. Which one of the following choices is not a reason why the acceleration due to gravity g does not have the same value, 9.8 m/s2, everywhere on the surface of the Earth? a) The Earth is rotating about its axis. b) The value of g depends on where the moon is in its orbit. c) The Earth is not spherical. d) The material from which the Earth is composed is not uniformly distributed and is not of uniform density.
13.4.2. Consider an astronaut aboard the International Space Station in orbit around the Earth. Which one of the following statements concerning the gravitational force on the astronaut is true? a) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force that is equal to zero newtons. b) The net gravitational force on the astronaut due to the Earth and the moon is equal to zero newtons. c) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force and a centripetal force of equal magnitude, but in opposite directions, so the net force on the astronaut is zero newtons.
d) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force that is less than at the surface of the Earth, but it is greater than zero newtons. e) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force that is the same at that at the surface of the Earth.
13.4.2. Consider an astronaut aboard the International Space Station in orbit around the Earth. Which one of the following statements concerning the gravitational force on the astronaut is true? a) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force that is equal to zero newtons. b) The net gravitational force on the astronaut due to the Earth and the moon is equal to zero newtons. c) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force and a centripetal force of equal magnitude, but in opposite directions, so the net force on the astronaut is zero newtons.
d) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force that is less than at the surface of the Earth, but it is greater than zero newtons. e) The astronaut experiences a gravitational force that is the same at that at the surface of the Earth.
13.5.1. Hypothetically speaking, if an object were located at the center of the Earth, the gravitational force on that object of due to the surrounding Earth, assuming matter is uniformly distributed, would have which of the following values? a) The force would be approximately the same value as if the object were on the surface of the Earth. b) The force would be much greater than the value if the object were on the surface of the Earth. c) The force would be somewhat less than the value if the object was on the surface of the Earth, but it would be greater than zero newtons. d) The force would be zero newtons.
13.5.1. Hypothetically speaking, if an object were located at the center of the Earth, the gravitational force on that object of due to the surrounding Earth, assuming matter is uniformly distributed, would have which of the following values? a) The force would be approximately the same value as if the object were on the surface of the Earth. b) The force would be much greater than the value if the object were on the surface of the Earth. c) The force would be somewhat less than the value if the object was on the surface of the Earth, but it would be greater than zero newtons. d) The force would be zero newtons.
13.5.2. Consider the Earth with its mass non-uniformly distributed. Now imagine the hypothetical situation in which a shaft was constructed deep into the Earth’s interior. Which of the following observations concerning the gravitational force on a particle descending the shaft would be true? a) The net gravitational force on the particle would continually decrease as the particle descends the shaft. b) The net gravitational force on the particle would continually increase as the particle descends the shaft. c) The net gravitational force on the particle would initially increase as the particle descends the shaft, but then decrease as it continues its descent.
d) The net gravitational force on the particle would initially decrease as the particle descends the shaft, but then increase as it continues its descent. e) At any point below the surface of the Earth, the net gravitational force on the particle would be equal to zero newtons.
13.5.2. Consider the Earth with its mass non-uniformly distributed. Now imagine the hypothetical situation in which a shaft was constructed deep into the Earth’s interior. Which of the following observations concerning the gravitational force on a particle descending the shaft would be true? a) The net gravitational force on the particle would continually decrease as the particle descends the shaft. b) The net gravitational force on the particle would continually increase as the particle descends the shaft. c) The net gravitational force on the particle would initially increase as the particle descends the shaft, but then decrease as it continues its descent.
d) The net gravitational force on the particle would initially decrease as the particle descends the shaft, but then increase as it continues its descent. e) At any point below the surface of the Earth, the net gravitational force on the particle would be equal to zero newtons.
13.6.1. The magnitude of the gravitational potential energy is related to the distance from an object of mass M. Which of the following choices gives the correct relationship between the distance r and the gravitational potential energy? a) r
b) r2 c) 1/r
d) 1/r2 e) r−1/2
13.6.1. The magnitude of the gravitational potential energy is related to the distance from an object of mass M. Which of the following choices gives the correct relationship between the distance r and the gravitational potential energy? a) r
b) r2 c) 1/r
d) 1/r2 e) r−1/2
13.6.2. Consider the objects of various masses indicated below. The objects are each separated from another object by the distance indicated. In which of these situations is the gravitational potential energy of the two objects the smallest? a) #1
b) #2 c) #3
d) #2 and #3 e) #1, #2, and #3
13.6.2. Consider the objects of various masses indicated below. The objects are each separated from another object by the distance indicated. In which of these situations is the gravitational potential energy of the two objects the smallest? a) #1
b) #2 c) #3
d) #2 and #3 e) #1, #2, and #3
13.7.1. Which one of the following statements concerning Kepler’s Law of Orbits is true? a) All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the Sun at one focus. b) All planets move in circular orbits, with the Sun at the center.
c) All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the planet at one focus. d) All planets move in circular orbits around the center of mass of the solar system. e) All planets move in helical orbits, with the Sun at one end of the helix.
13.7.1. Which one of the following statements concerning Kepler’s Law of Orbits is true? a) All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the Sun at one focus. b) All planets move in circular orbits, with the Sun at the center.
c) All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the planet at one focus. d) All planets move in circular orbits around the center of mass of the solar system. e) All planets move in helical orbits, with the Sun at one end of the helix.
13.7.2. Which one of the following statements represents the Law of Areas? a) In their orbits about the Sun, every planet sweeps out the same equal area in the same equal amount of time. b) A line that connects a planet to the Sun sweeps out equal areas in the plane of the planet’s orbit in equal time intervals.
c) The surface area of a planet is directly proportional to the square of its orbit about the Sun. d) Every planet sweeps out the same area in a one Earth year period, making one complete orbit about the Sun. e) The area swept by the orbit of the Sun is equal to the sum of the areas swept by the planets during one Earth year period.
13.7.2. Which one of the following statements represents the Law of Areas? a) In their orbits about the Sun, every planet sweeps out the same equal area in the same equal amount of time. b) A line that connects a planet to the Sun sweeps out equal areas in the plane of the planet’s orbit in equal time intervals.
c) The surface area of a planet is directly proportional to the square of its orbit about the Sun. d) Every planet sweeps out the same area in a one Earth year period, making one complete orbit about the Sun. e) The area swept by the orbit of the Sun is equal to the sum of the areas swept by the planets during one Earth year period.
13.7.3. Which one of the following statements represents the Law of Periods? a) The orbital period of a satellite in orbit of a planet is inversely proportional to its mass. b) The period of a planet in its orbit about the Sun is directly proportional to the radius of its orbit.
c) The rotational period of the Sun equals the sum of the rotational periods of the planets. d) Every planet sweeps out the same area in a one Earth year period, making one complete orbit about the Sun. e) The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
13.7.3. Which one of the following statements represents the Law of Periods? a) The orbital period of a satellite in orbit of a planet is inversely proportional to its mass. b) The period of a planet in its orbit about the Sun is directly proportional to the radius of its orbit.
c) The rotational period of the Sun equals the sum of the rotational periods of the planets. d) Every planet sweeps out the same area in a one Earth year period, making one complete orbit about the Sun. e) The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
13.8.1. Consider the orbits shown in the drawing. Each of the orbits has the same length semimajor axis, but differs in the eccentricities, which are given. In which of these orbits would an object have the greatest total mechanical energy, if any? a) All of the orbits have the same total energy.
b) e = 0 c) e = 0.5
d) e = 0.8 e) e = 0.9
13.8.1. Consider the orbits shown in the drawing. Each of the orbits has the same length semimajor axis, but differs in the eccentricities, which are given. In which of these orbits would an object have the greatest total mechanical energy, if any? a) All of the orbits have the same total energy.
b) e = 0 c) e = 0.5
d) e = 0.8 e) e = 0.9
13.9.1. Which one of the following statements describes the Principle of Equivalence? a) Objects in two different reference frames are equivalent. b) The square of the period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the planet’s semi-major axis. c) All motion is relative. d) All planets move in equivalent elliptical orbits. e) Acceleration and gravitation are equivalent.
13.9.1. Which one of the following statements describes the Principle of Equivalence? a) Objects in two different reference frames are equivalent. b) The square of the period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the planet’s semi-major axis. c) All motion is relative. d) All planets move in equivalent elliptical orbits. e) Acceleration and gravitation are equivalent.
13.9.2. To which one of the following is gravity equivalent, according to the Principle of Equivalence? a) velocity b) free-fall
c) net force d) acceleration
e) energy
13.9.2. To which one of the following is gravity equivalent, according to the Principle of Equivalence? a) velocity b) free-fall
c) net force d) acceleration
e) energy
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 14 Fluids Reading Quiz Questions
14.2.1. Which one of the following statements best describes fluids? a) Fluids are liquids. b) Fluids are gases. c) Fluids are transparent. d) Fluids are gases or liquids. e) Fluids are opaque.
14.2.1. Which one of the following statements best describes fluids? a) Fluids are liquids. b) Fluids are gases. c) Fluids are transparent. d) Fluids are gases or liquids. e) Fluids are opaque.
14.2.2. Which one of the following substances is not a fluid? a) mercury b) air c) water d) liquid nitrogen e) all of the above are fluids
14.2.2. Which one of the following substances is not a fluid? a) mercury b) air c) water d) liquid nitrogen e) all of the above are fluids
14.3.1. The density of mercury is 1.36 × 104 kg/m3. What is the mass of a 4.00 × 10–4-m3 sample of mercury? a) 6.29 kg b) 5.44 kg
c) 2.94 kg d) 0.0343 kg
e) 0.002 94 kg
14.3.1. The density of mercury is 1.36 × 104 kg/m3. What is the mass of a 4.00 × 10–4-m3 sample of mercury? a) 6.29 kg b) 5.44 kg
c) 2.94 kg d) 0.0343 kg
e) 0.002 94 kg
14.3.2. A cube of a certain metal has 0.040-m sides and its mass is 0.48 kg. What is the mass density of the cube? a) 12 kg/m3 b) 300 kg/m3
c) 1800 kg/m3 d) 7500 kg/m3
e) 8700 kg/m3
14.3.2. A cube of a certain metal has 0.040-m sides and its mass is 0.48 kg. What is the mass density of the cube? a) 12 kg/m3 b) 300 kg/m3
c) 1800 kg/m3 d) 7500 kg/m3
e) 8700 kg/m3
14.3.3. Which of the following choices is equivalent to the SI unit of pressure, the pascal? a) N/m b) N/ms2
c) kg/ms2 d) N/s
e) kgm/s2
14.3.3. Which of the following choices is equivalent to the SI unit of pressure, the pascal? a) N/m b) N/ms2
c) kg/ms2 d) N/s
e) kgm/s2
14.3.4. Complete the following statement: Pressure is a measure of a) the force exerted by a fluid. b) the force per unit area that a fluid exerts. c) the force per unit time that a fluid exerts. d) the impulse of a fluid. e) the energy in a fluid.
14.3.4. Complete the following statement: Pressure is a measure of a) the force exerted by a fluid. b) the force per unit area that a fluid exerts. c) the force per unit time that a fluid exerts. d) the impulse of a fluid. e) the energy in a fluid.
14.3.5. Which one of the following is equal to the pressure of the earth’s atmospheric pressure at sea level? a) 1.60 × 104 Pa b) 1.01 × 105 Pa
c) 1.09 × 106 Pa d) 1.31 × 107 Pa
e) 2.70 × 107 Pa
14.3.5. Which one of the following is equal to the pressure of the earth’s atmospheric pressure at sea level? a) 1.60 × 104 Pa b) 1.01 × 105 Pa
c) 1.09 × 106 Pa d) 1.31 × 107 Pa
e) 2.70 × 107 Pa
14.3.6. In which one of the following cases is the pressure exerted on the ground by the man the largest? a) A man stands with both feet flat on the ground. b) A man stands with one foot flat on the ground.
c) A man lies with his back flat on the ground. d) A man kneels with both knees on the ground.
e) A man stands with the toes of one foot on the ground.
14.3.6. In which one of the following cases is the pressure exerted on the ground by the man the largest? a) A man stands with both feet flat on the ground. b) A man stands with one foot flat on the ground.
c) A man lies with his back flat on the ground. d) A man kneels with both knees on the ground.
e) A man stands with the toes of one foot on the ground.
14.3.7. Which one of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between pressure and force? a) P = F/A b) P = FA
c) P = F d) P = A/F
e) There is no relationship between pressure and force.
14.3.7. Which one of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between pressure and force? a) P = F/A b) P = FA
c) P = F d) P = A/F
e) There is no relationship between pressure and force.
14.4.1. The pressure at a point in a fluid in static equilibrium depends on which of the following? a) the total depth of the fluid b) the depth of the given point
c) the total volume of fluid d) both choices a) and b)
e) both choices a) and c)
14.4.1. The pressure at a point in a fluid in static equilibrium depends on which of the following? a) the total depth of the fluid b) the depth of the given point
c) the total volume of fluid d) both choices a) and b)
e) both choices a) and c)
14.4.2. Which one of the following statements best describes the pressure in a static, homogeneous liquid? a) The pressure is the same at all points in the fluid. b) The pressure is not dependent on the atmospheric pressure exerted at the surface of the liquid. c) At a given depth in the liquid, the pressure is the same at all points at that depth.
d) The pressure depends on the type of liquid. The denser the liquid is, the smaller the pressure will be. e) The pressure decreases as the depth increases.
14.4.2. Which one of the following statements best describes the pressure in a static, homogeneous liquid? a) The pressure is the same at all points in the fluid. b) The pressure is not dependent on the atmospheric pressure exerted at the surface of the liquid. c) At a given depth in the liquid, the pressure is the same at all points at that depth.
d) The pressure depends on the type of liquid. The denser the liquid is, the smaller the pressure will be. e) The pressure decreases as the depth increases.
14.4.3. Which one of the following statements best explains why the pressure in a static fluid increases as the depth increases? a) The density of the fluid increases with depth. b) As the depth increases, the weight of the water above a particular level increases. c) As the depth increases, the density of the fluid decreases. d) As depth increases, the gravitational force of the earth on the water increases. e) The temperature of the water decreases with depth.
14.4.3. Which one of the following statements best explains why the pressure in a static fluid increases as the depth increases? a) The density of the fluid increases with depth. b) As the depth increases, the weight of the water above a particular level increases. c) As the depth increases, the density of the fluid decreases. d) As depth increases, the gravitational force of the earth on the water increases. e) The temperature of the water decreases with depth.
14.4.4. Consider the drawing of the liquid within the U-shaped tube that has both sides open at the top. Is this fluid in equilibrium?
a) Yes, the fluid must be in equilibrium. b) No, side A should be lower than side B. c) No, side B should be lower than side A d) No, both sides should be at the same height. e) The answer may be yes or no, depending on the density of the fluid.
14.4.4. Consider the drawing of the liquid within the U-shaped tube that has both sides open at the top. Is this fluid in equilibrium?
a) Yes, the fluid must be in equilibrium. b) No, side A should be lower than side B. c) No, side B should be lower than side A d) No, both sides should be at the same height. e) The answer may be yes or no, depending on the density of the fluid.
14.4.5. Consider the drawing of the liquid within the U-shaped tube that has one side sealed. Is this fluid in equilibrium?
a) Yes, the fluid can be in equilibrium. b) No, side A should be lower than side B. c) No, side B should be lower than side A d) No, both sides should be at the same height. e) The answer may be yes or no, depending on the density of the fluid.
14.4.5. Consider the drawing of the liquid within the U-shaped tube that has one side sealed. Is this fluid in equilibrium?
a) Yes, the fluid can be in equilibrium. b) No, side A should be lower than side B. c) No, side B should be lower than side A d) No, both sides should be at the same height. e) The answer may be yes or no, depending on the density of the fluid.
14.5.1. Which of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure? a) manometer b) barometer
c) goniometer d) pascalometer
e) dynamometer
14.5.1. Which of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure? a) manometer b) barometer
c) goniometer d) pascalometer
e) dynamometer
14.5.2. Which of the following devices is used to measure gauge pressure? a) manometer b) barometer
c) goniometer d) pascalometer
e) dynamometer
14.5.2. Which of the following devices is used to measure gauge pressure? a) manometer b) barometer
c) goniometer d) pascalometer
e) dynamometer
14.6.1. Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of a) Archimedes’ principle. b) Bernoulli's principle.
c) Pascal's principle. d) the continuity equation.
e) irrotational flow.
14.6.1. Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of a) Archimedes’ principle. b) Bernoulli's principle.
c) Pascal's principle. d) the continuity equation.
e) irrotational flow.
14.6.2. A U-shaped tube is connected to a flexible tube that has a membranecovered funnel on the opposite end as shown in the drawing. Jason finds that no matter which way he orients to membrane, the height of the liquid in the U-shaped tube does not change. Which one of the following choices best describes this behavior? a) Archimedes’ principle b) Bernoulli's principle c) irrotational flow
d) the continuity equation e) Pascal's principle
14.6.2. A U-shaped tube is connected to a flexible tube that has a membranecovered funnel on the opposite end as shown in the drawing. Jason finds that no matter which way he orients to membrane, the height of the liquid in the U-shaped tube does not change. Which one of the following choices best describes this behavior? a) Archimedes’ principle b) Bernoulli's principle c) irrotational flow
d) the continuity equation e) Pascal's principle
14.6.3. Which one of the following statements concerning a completely enclosed fluid is true?
a) Any change in applied pressure produces an equal change in pressure at all points within the fluid. b) An increase in pressure in one part of the fluid results in an equal decrease in pressure in another part. c) The pressure at all points within the fluid is independent of any pressure applied to it.
d) Any change in the applied pressure of the fluid produces a change in pressure that depends on direction. e) The pressure in the fluid is the same at all points within the fluid.
14.6.3. Which one of the following statements concerning a completely enclosed fluid is true?
a) Any change in applied pressure produces an equal change in pressure at all points within the fluid. b) An increase in pressure in one part of the fluid results in an equal decrease in pressure in another part. c) The pressure at all points within the fluid is independent of any pressure applied to it.
d) Any change in the applied pressure of the fluid produces a change in pressure that depends on direction. e) The pressure in the fluid is the same at all points within the fluid.
14.6.4. While using a hydraulic lever, a force F is applied over a distance d. Which of the following is a likely result of this applied force? a) a larger force is attained over the same distance d b) a larger force is attained over a distance greater than d c) a larger force is attained over a distance smaller than d d) a same force F is attained over a distance smaller than d e) a smaller force than F is attained over a distance smaller than d
14.6.4. While using a hydraulic lever, a force F is applied over a distance d. Which of the following is a likely result of this applied force? a) a larger force is attained over the same distance d b) a larger force is attained over a distance greater than d c) a larger force is attained over a distance smaller than d d) a same force F is attained over a distance smaller than d e) a smaller force than F is attained over a distance smaller than d
14.7.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the buoyant force on an object submerged in a liquid is true? a) The buoyant force will increase with depth if the liquid is incompressible. b) The buoyant force depends on the volume of the liquid displaced. c) The buoyant force depends on the weight of the object. d) The buoyant force depends on the mass of the object. e) The buoyant force is independent of the density of the liquid.
14.7.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the buoyant force on an object submerged in a liquid is true? a) The buoyant force will increase with depth if the liquid is incompressible. b) The buoyant force depends on the volume of the liquid displaced. c) The buoyant force depends on the weight of the object. d) The buoyant force depends on the mass of the object. e) The buoyant force is independent of the density of the liquid.
14.7.2. Under what circumstances will an object that is solid throughout float on water?
a) A totally solid object can never float on water because it needs to have air in it. b) If the shape of the object is like that of a boat, it will float. c) A totally solid object can float on water if its volume is greater than the volume of water it displaces. d) A totally solid object can float on water if its density is less than the density of water. e) A totally solid object can float on water if its density is greater than the density of water.
14.7.2. Under what circumstances will an object that is solid throughout float on water?
a) A totally solid object can never float on water because it needs to have air in it. b) If the shape of the object is like that of a boat, it will float. c) A totally solid object can float on water if its volume is greater than the volume of water it displaces. d) A totally solid object can float on water if its density is less than the density of water. e) A totally solid object can float on water if its density is greater than the density of water.
14.7.3. Complete the following statement: When an object is placed in a fluid, a buoyant force is exerted on it that is directed upward with a magnitude a) that is greater than the force of gravity on the object. b) that is greater than the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. c) that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. d) that is less than the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. e) that is equal to the force of gravity on the object.
14.7.3. Complete the following statement: When an object is placed in a fluid, a buoyant force is exerted on it that is directed upward with a magnitude a) that is greater than the force of gravity on the object. b) that is greater than the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. c) that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. d) that is less than the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. e) that is equal to the force of gravity on the object.
14.8.1. Which one of the following statements does not describe a property of fluids in motion? a) The fluid flow can be steady or unsteady. b) The fluid flow can be compressible or incompressible.
c) The fluid flow can be steadfast or unreliable. d) The fluid flow can be viscous or nonviscous.
e) The fluid flow can be turbulent or streamline.
14.8.1. Which one of the following statements does not describe a property of fluids in motion? a) The fluid flow can be steady or unsteady. b) The fluid flow can be compressible or incompressible.
c) The fluid flow can be steadfast or unreliable. d) The fluid flow can be viscous or nonviscous.
e) The fluid flow can be turbulent or streamline.
14.8.2. Which one of the following statements best describes laminar flow in fluids. a) At a given point in the moving fluid, the fluid velocity is constant. b) At all points in the moving fluid, the fluid velocity is constant.
c) Fluid particles only move along streamlines within the fluid. Particles not on a streamline do not move. d) All particles within the fluid follow straight lines called streamlines and their velocity is constant. e) At a given point on a streamline, the fluid velocity is varying, but the average velocity along the streamline is constant.
14.8.2. Which one of the following statements best describes laminar flow in fluids. a) At a given point in the moving fluid, the fluid velocity is constant. b) At all points in the moving fluid, the fluid velocity is constant.
c) Fluid particles only move along streamlines within the fluid. Particles not on a streamline do not move. d) All particles within the fluid follow straight lines called streamlines and their velocity is constant. e) At a given point on a streamline, the fluid velocity is varying, but the average velocity along the streamline is constant.
14.8.3. Which one of the following statements concerning steady flow is true? a) Steady flow is described by Pascal's principle. b) Steady flow is described by Archimedes’ principle.
c) The velocity vectors are the same for all particles in the fluid. d) At any given point in the fluid, the velocity is constant in time.
e) Steady flow occurs when there are sharp obstacles in the path of a fast-moving fluid.
14.8.3. Which one of the following statements concerning steady flow is true? a) Steady flow is described by Pascal's principle. b) Steady flow is described by Archimedes’ principle.
c) The velocity vectors are the same for all particles in the fluid. d) At any given point in the fluid, the velocity is constant in time.
e) Steady flow occurs when there are sharp obstacles in the path of a fast-moving fluid.
14.8.4. Which one of the following statements concerning an ideal fluid is false? a) When an ideal fluid flows, the flow is non-laminar. b) When an ideal fluid flows, the fluid does not experience viscous drag. c) An ideal fluid is incompressible. d) When an ideal fluid flows at a steady rate, the velocity at a given point does not change with time. e) An ideal fluid undergoes irrotational flow.
14.8.4. Which one of the following statements concerning an ideal fluid is false? a) When an ideal fluid flows, the flow is non-laminar. b) When an ideal fluid flows, the fluid does not experience viscous drag. c) An ideal fluid is incompressible. d) When an ideal fluid flows at a steady rate, the velocity at a given point does not change with time. e) An ideal fluid undergoes irrotational flow.
14.9.1. Which law, principle, or equation specifies that the mass flow rate of a fluid at two positions along a tube must be constant? a) Archimedes' principle b) Pascal's principle
c) Poiseuille's law d) equation of continuity
e) Bernoulli's equation
14.9.1. Which law, principle, or equation specifies that the mass flow rate of a fluid at two positions along a tube must be constant? a) Archimedes' principle b) Pascal's principle
c) Poiseuille's law d) equation of continuity
e) Bernoulli's equation
14.9.2. Oil is flowing through a tube that has two different crosssectional areas as shown in the drawing. At position A where the radius of the tube is 7.0 cm, the mass flow rate of the oil is 0.025 kg/s. What is the mass flow rate at position B where the radius of the tube is 3.5 cm? a) 0.013 kg/s b) 0.025 kg/s c) 0.038 kg/s d) 0.050 kg/s e) 0.10 kg/s
14.9.2. Oil is flowing through a tube that has two different crosssectional areas as shown in the drawing. At position A where the radius of the tube is 7.0 cm, the mass flow rate of the oil is 0.025 kg/s. What is the mass flow rate at position B where the radius of the tube is 3.5 cm? a) 0.013 kg/s b) 0.025 kg/s c) 0.038 kg/s d) 0.050 kg/s e) 0.10 kg/s
14.10.1. Complete the following statement: Bernoulli's principle is a statement of a) momentum conservation in dynamic fluids. b) energy conservation in dynamic fluids.
c) mechanical equilibrium in fluids. d) thermal equilibrium in fluids.
e) hydrostatic equilibrium.
14.10.1. Complete the following statement: Bernoulli's principle is a statement of a) momentum conservation in dynamic fluids. b) energy conservation in dynamic fluids.
c) mechanical equilibrium in fluids. d) thermal equilibrium in fluids.
e) hydrostatic equilibrium.
14.10.2. Which one of the following statements is false concerning the derivation or usage of Bernoulli’s equation? a) Streamline flow is assumed. b) The fluid must be incompressible.
c) The fluid must be non-viscous. d) The work-energy theorem is used to derive Bernoulli’s equation.
e) Vertical distances are always measured relative to the lowest point within the fluid.
14.10.2. Which one of the following statements is false concerning the derivation or usage of Bernoulli’s equation? a) Streamline flow is assumed. b) The fluid must be incompressible.
c) The fluid must be non-viscous. d) The work-energy theorem is used to derive Bernoulli’s equation.
e) Vertical distances are always measured relative to the lowest point within the fluid.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 15 Oscillations Reading Quiz Questions
15.2.1. Which one of the following units is used for frequency? a) oersted b) second c) farad d) hertz e) gauss
15.2.1. Which one of the following units is used for frequency? a) oersted b) second c) farad d) hertz e) gauss
15.2.2. What is the difference between periodic motion and simple harmonic motion?
a) Periodic motion only happens for short periods of time and simple harmonic motion happens continually. b) In periodic motion, the frequency of the motion is continually changing, but in simple harmonic motion, the frequency is constant. c) In periodic motion, the period of the motion is continually changing, but in simple harmonic motion, the period is constant.
d) In periodic motion, the amplitude varies with time, but in simple harmonic motion, the position of the object varies with time. e) Periodic and simple harmonic motion refer to the same type of motion.
15.2.2. What is the difference between periodic motion and simple harmonic motion?
a) Periodic motion only happens for short periods of time and simple harmonic motion happens continually. b) In periodic motion, the frequency of the motion is continually changing, but in simple harmonic motion, the frequency is constant. c) In periodic motion, the period of the motion is continually changing, but in simple harmonic motion, the period is constant.
d) In periodic motion, the amplitude varies with time, but in simple harmonic motion, the position of the object varies with time. e) Periodic and simple harmonic motion refer to the same type of motion.
15.2.3. A block is hung vertically at the end of a spring. When the block is displaced and released, it moves in simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the block? a) The maximum acceleration of the block occurs when its velocity is zero. b) The velocity of the block is never zero m/s. c) If the velocity of the block is zero m/s, it acceleration is zero m/s2. d) The maximum velocity occurs when the maximum acceleration occurs.
15.2.3. A block is hung vertically at the end of a spring. When the block is displaced and released, it moves in simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the block? a) The maximum acceleration of the block occurs when its velocity is zero. b) The velocity of the block is never zero m/s. c) If the velocity of the block is zero m/s, it acceleration is zero m/s2. d) The maximum velocity occurs when the maximum acceleration occurs.
15.2.4. Consider the graph shown for the position of a ball attached to a spring as it oscillates in simple harmonic motion. At which of the following times does the ball have its greatest speed? a) 1 s b) 2 s c) 4 s d) 6 s e) both 2 s and 6 s
15.2.4. Consider the graph shown for the position of a ball attached to a spring as it oscillates in simple harmonic motion. At which of the following times does the ball have its greatest speed? a) 1 s b) 2 s c) 4 s d) 6 s e) both 2 s and 6 s
15.2.5. Consider the graph shown for the position of a ball attached to a spring as it oscillates in simple harmonic motion. At which of the following times does the ball have its greatest acceleration? a) 1 s b) 2 s c) 4 s d) 6 s e) both 2 s and 6 s
15.2.5. Consider the graph shown for the position of a ball attached to a spring as it oscillates in simple harmonic motion. At which of the following times does the ball have its greatest acceleration? a) 1 s b) 2 s c) 4 s d) 6 s e) both 2 s and 6 s
15.2.6. An object is in simple harmonic motion. The rate at which the object oscillates may be described using the period T, the frequency f, and the angular frequency . If the angular frequency decreases, what is the effect on the period and the frequency? a) The frequency would decrease, but the period would remain the same.
b) The period would increase, but the frequency would remain the same. c) Both the period and the frequency would decrease. d) Both the period and the frequency would increase. e) The period would increase, but the frequency would decrease.
15.2.6. An object is in simple harmonic motion. The rate at which the object oscillates may be described using the period T, the frequency f, and the angular frequency . If the angular frequency decreases, what is the effect on the period and the frequency? a) The frequency would decrease, but the period would remain the same.
b) The period would increase, but the frequency would remain the same. c) Both the period and the frequency would decrease. d) Both the period and the frequency would increase. e) The period would increase, but the frequency would decrease.
15.2.7. An object in simple harmonic motion is observed to move between a maximum position and a minimum position. The minimum time that elapses between the object being at its maximum position and when it returns to that maximum position is equal to which of the following parameters? a) frequency b) angular frequency c) period d) amplitude e) wavelength
15.2.7. An object in simple harmonic motion is observed to move between a maximum position and a minimum position. The minimum time that elapses between the object being at its maximum position and when it returns to that maximum position is equal to which of the following parameters? a) frequency b) angular frequency c) period d) amplitude e) wavelength
15.3.1. Which one of the following statements concerning simple harmonic motion is false?
a) The displacement versus time graph for an object in simple harmonic motion resembles the sine or cosine function. b) A restoring force acts on an object in simple harmonic motion that is directed in the same direction as the object’s displacement. c) The amplitude of the object in simple harmonic motion is the maximum distance the object moves from its equilibrium position. d) During simple harmonic motion, the net force on the object is zero newtons when it is at its equilibrium position. e) A restoring force acts on the object that is proportional to the object’s displacement from its equilibrium position.
15.3.1. Which one of the following statements concerning simple harmonic motion is false?
a) The displacement versus time graph for an object in simple harmonic motion resembles the sine or cosine function. b) A restoring force acts on an object in simple harmonic motion that is directed in the same direction as the object’s displacement. c) The amplitude of the object in simple harmonic motion is the maximum distance the object moves from its equilibrium position. d) During simple harmonic motion, the net force on the object is zero newtons when it is at its equilibrium position. e) A restoring force acts on the object that is proportional to the object’s displacement from its equilibrium position.
15.3.2. Consider the graph shown for the position of a ball attached to a spring as it oscillates in simple harmonic motion. At which of the following times is the ball at its equilibrium position? a) 0 s only b) 2 s only c) 4 s only d) at 0 s and 8 s e) at 0 s, 4 s, and 8 s
15.3.2. Consider the graph shown for the position of a ball attached to a spring as it oscillates in simple harmonic motion. At which of the following times is the ball at its equilibrium position? a) 0 s only b) 2 s only c) 4 s only d) at 0 s and 8 s e) at 0 s, 4 s, and 8 s
15.3.3. An object that obeys Hooke’s law is displaced a distance x by a net force F. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the resulting acceleration of the object? a) The magnitude of the acceleration is constant. b) The acceleration increases as x increases and it decreases as x decreases. c) The acceleration is always in the positive x direction.
d) The acceleration is only dependent on the mass of the object.
15.3.3. An object that obeys Hooke’s law is displaced a distance x by a net force F. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the resulting acceleration of the object? a) The magnitude of the acceleration is constant. b) The acceleration increases as x increases and it decreases as x decreases. c) The acceleration is always in the positive x direction.
d) The acceleration is only dependent on the mass of the object.
15.3.4. A ball of mass m is attached to the end of a spring with a spring constant k. When the ball is displaced from its equilibrium position and released, it moves in simple harmonic motion. Consider the relationship between the angular frequency, the mass, and the spring constant given in the text. Which one of the following statements concerning that relationship is true? a) Increasing the spring constant causes the angular frequency to increase.
b) Increasing the mass of the ball causes the angular frequency to increase. c) Increasing the initial displacement before releasing the ball causes the angular frequency to increase.
d) Increasing the period of the ball’s motion causes the angular frequency to increase.
15.3.4. A ball of mass m is attached to the end of a spring with a spring constant k. When the ball is displaced from its equilibrium position and released, it moves in simple harmonic motion. Consider the relationship between the angular frequency, the mass, and the spring constant given in the text. Which one of the following statements concerning that relationship is true? a) Increasing the spring constant causes the angular frequency to increase.
b) Increasing the mass of the ball causes the angular frequency to increase. c) Increasing the initial displacement before releasing the ball causes the angular frequency to increase.
d) Increasing the period of the ball’s motion causes the angular frequency to increase.
15.3.5. A block of mass M is attached to one end of a spring that has a spring constant k. The other end of the spring is attached to a wall. The block is free to slide on a frictionless floor. The block is displaced from the position where the spring is neither stretched nor compressed and released. It is observed to oscillate with a frequency f. Which one of the following actions would increase the frequency of the motion?
a) Decrease the mass of the block. b) Increase the length of the spring. c) Reduce the spring constant. d) Reduce the distance that the spring is initially stretched. e) Increase the distance that the spring is initially stretched.
15.3.5. A block of mass M is attached to one end of a spring that has a spring constant k. The other end of the spring is attached to a wall. The block is free to slide on a frictionless floor. The block is displaced from the position where the spring is neither stretched nor compressed and released. It is observed to oscillate with a frequency f. Which one of the following actions would increase the frequency of the motion?
a) Decrease the mass of the block. b) Increase the length of the spring. c) Reduce the spring constant. d) Reduce the distance that the spring is initially stretched. e) Increase the distance that the spring is initially stretched.
15.3.6. A block of mass M is attached to one end of a spring that has a spring constant k. The other end of the spring is attached to a wall. The block is free to slide on a frictionless floor. The block is displaced from the position where the spring is neither stretched nor compressed and released. It is observed to oscillate with a frequency f. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the motion of the block? a) The block’s acceleration is constant.
b) The period of its motion depends on its amplitude. c) The block’s acceleration is greatest when the spring returns to its equilibrium position. d) The block’s velocity is greatest when it reaches its maximum displacement. e) The block’s acceleration is greatest when the mass has reached its maximum displacement.
15.3.6. A block of mass M is attached to one end of a spring that has a spring constant k. The other end of the spring is attached to a wall. The block is free to slide on a frictionless floor. The block is displaced from the position where the spring is neither stretched nor compressed and released. It is observed to oscillate with a frequency f. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the motion of the block? a) The block’s acceleration is constant.
b) The period of its motion depends on its amplitude. c) The block’s acceleration is greatest when the spring returns to its equilibrium position. d) The block’s velocity is greatest when it reaches its maximum displacement. e) The block’s acceleration is greatest when the mass has reached its maximum displacement.
15.4.1. A block is attached to the end of a spring. The block is then displaced from its equilibrium position and released. Subsequently, the block moves in simple harmonic motion without any losses due to friction. Which one of the following statements concerning the total mechanical energy of the block-spring system this situation is true? a) The total mechanical energy is dependent on the amplitude of the motion.
b) The total mechanical energy is at its maximum when the block is at its equilibrium position. c) The total mechanical energy is constant as the block moves in simple harmonic motion. d) The total mechanical energy is only dependent on the spring constant and the mass of the block.
15.4.1. A block is attached to the end of a spring. The block is then displaced from its equilibrium position and released. Subsequently, the block moves in simple harmonic motion without any losses due to friction. Which one of the following statements concerning the total mechanical energy of the block-spring system this situation is true? a) The total mechanical energy is dependent on the amplitude of the motion.
b) The total mechanical energy is at its maximum when the block is at its equilibrium position. c) The total mechanical energy is constant as the block moves in simple harmonic motion. d) The total mechanical energy is only dependent on the spring constant and the mass of the block.
15.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the elastic potential energy of a ball attached to a spring is false when the ball is moving in simple harmonic motion? a) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the spring is in its equilibrium position. b) The elastic potential energy is smaller when the ball is at −x than when it is at +x. c) The elastic potential energy can be expressed in units of watts. d) The elastic potential energy is at its maximum when the velocity of the ball is a maximum. e) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the acceleration of the ball is a maximum.
15.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the elastic potential energy of a ball attached to a spring is false when the ball is moving in simple harmonic motion? a) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the spring is in its equilibrium position. b) The elastic potential energy is smaller when the ball is at −x than when it is at +x. c) The elastic potential energy can be expressed in units of watts. d) The elastic potential energy is at its maximum when the velocity of the ball is a maximum. e) The elastic potential energy is at its minimum when the acceleration of the ball is a maximum.
15.4.3. A ball is attached to a vertical spring. The ball is initially supported at a height y so that the spring is neither stretched nor compressed. The ball is then released from rest and it falls to a height y − h before moving upward. Consider the following quantities: translational kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy. When the ball was at a height y − (h/2), which of the listed quantities has values other than zero joules? a) translational kinetic energy only b) gravitational potential energy only c) elastic potential energy only
d) translational and elastic potential energies only e) translational kinetic, gravitational potential, and elastic potential energies
15.4.3. A ball is attached to a vertical spring. The ball is initially supported at a height y so that the spring is neither stretched nor compressed. The ball is then released from rest and it falls to a height y − h before moving upward. Consider the following quantities: translational kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy. When the ball was at a height y − (h/2), which of the listed quantities has values other than zero joules? a) translational kinetic energy only b) gravitational potential energy only c) elastic potential energy only
d) translational and elastic potential energies only e) translational kinetic, gravitational potential, and elastic potential energies
15.4.4. Which one of the following statements concerning the mechanical energy of a harmonic oscillator at a particular point in its motion is true? a) The mechanical energy depends on the acceleration at that point. b) The mechanical energy depends on the velocity at that point. c) The mechanical energy depends on the position of that point. d) The mechanical energy does not vary during the motion. e) The mechanical energy is equal to zero joules if the point is the equilibrium point.
15.4.4. Which one of the following statements concerning the mechanical energy of a harmonic oscillator at a particular point in its motion is true? a) The mechanical energy depends on the acceleration at that point. b) The mechanical energy depends on the velocity at that point. c) The mechanical energy depends on the position of that point. d) The mechanical energy does not vary during the motion. e) The mechanical energy is equal to zero joules if the point is the equilibrium point.
15.6.1. A simple pendulum consists of a ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling using a string of length L. The ball is displaced from its equilibrium position by an angle and released. What is the magnitude of the restoring force that moves the ball toward its equilibrium position and produces simple harmonic motion? a) kx b) mg c) mg (cos ) d) mg (sin ) e) mgL (sin )
15.6.1. A simple pendulum consists of a ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling using a string of length L. The ball is displaced from its equilibrium position by an angle and released. What is the magnitude of the restoring force that moves the ball toward its equilibrium position and produces simple harmonic motion? a) kx b) mg c) mg (cos ) d) mg (sin ) e) mgL (sin )
15.6.2. A simple pendulum consists of a ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling using a string of length L. The ball is displaced from its equilibrium position by a small angle and released. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is correct? a) If the mass were increased, the period of the pendulum would increase. b) The frequency of the pendulum does not depend on the acceleration due to gravity. c) If the length of the pendulum were increased, the angular frequency of the pendulum would decrease.
d) The period of the pendulum does not depend on the length of the pendulum. e) The angular frequency would double if the angle were doubled.
15.6.2. A simple pendulum consists of a ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling using a string of length L. The ball is displaced from its equilibrium position by a small angle and released. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is correct? a) If the mass were increased, the period of the pendulum would increase. b) The frequency of the pendulum does not depend on the acceleration due to gravity. c) If the length of the pendulum were increased, the angular frequency of the pendulum would decrease.
d) The period of the pendulum does not depend on the length of the pendulum. e) The angular frequency would double if the angle were doubled.
15.6.3. What is the period of a simple pendulum consisting of a ball suspended from a 2.0-m string? a) 2.0 s b) 2.8 s
c) 3.6 s d) 4.4 s
e) 5.2 s
15.6.3. What is the period of a simple pendulum consisting of a ball suspended from a 2.0-m string? a) 2.0 s b) 2.8 s
c) 3.6 s d) 4.4 s
e) 5.2 s
15.6.4. Under which one of the following conditions does the motion of a simple pendulum approximate simple harmonic motion? a) when the pendulum swings rapidly b) when the pendulum swings slowly
c) when the pendulum swings through a small angle d) when the pendulum swings through a large angle
e) when the length of the pendulum is more than twice the diameter of the bob
15.6.4. Under which one of the following conditions does the motion of a simple pendulum approximate simple harmonic motion? a) when the pendulum swings rapidly b) when the pendulum swings slowly
c) when the pendulum swings through a small angle d) when the pendulum swings through a large angle
e) when the length of the pendulum is more than twice the diameter of the bob
15.6.5. A simple pendulum that swings through a very large angle is not in simple harmonic motion because of which of the following reasons? a) The restoring force depends on the sine of the angle. b) The component of the gravitational force that acts as the restoring force is only linear if the maximum angle is small. c) The angular acceleration does not vary linearly with the angle.
d) All of the above reasons are valid explanations.
15.6.5. A simple pendulum that swings through a very large angle is not in simple harmonic motion because of which of the following reasons? a) The restoring force depends on the sine of the angle. b) The component of the gravitational force that acts as the restoring force is only linear if the maximum angle is small. c) The angular acceleration does not vary linearly with the angle.
d) All of the above reasons are valid explanations.
15.8.1. What type of motion is represented by the graph shown?
a) simple harmonic motion b) damped harmonic motion
c) special harmonic motion d) squeezed harmonic motion e) depleted harmonic motion
15.8.1. What type of motion is represented by the graph shown?
a) simple harmonic motion b) damped harmonic motion
c) special harmonic motion d) squeezed harmonic motion e) depleted harmonic motion
15.9.1. Complete the following sentence: In harmonic motion, resonance occurs when a) the energy in the system is proportional to the square of the motion's amplitude. b) the driving frequency is the same as the natural frequency of the system. c) the energy in the system is a minimum.
d) the system is damped. e) the driving frequency is varying.
15.9.1. Complete the following sentence: In harmonic motion, resonance occurs when a) the energy in the system is proportional to the square of the motion's amplitude. b) the driving frequency is the same as the natural frequency of the system. c) the energy in the system is a minimum.
d) the system is damped. e) the driving frequency is varying.
15.9.2. What is the term used to describe the situation in which an external driving force is applied to a system with a frequency that equals the natural frequency of the system? a) symbiosis b) synergy c) resonance d) somnoluminescence e) bonnechance
15.9.2. What is the term used to describe the situation in which an external driving force is applied to a system with a frequency that equals the natural frequency of the system? a) symbiosis b) synergy c) resonance d) somnoluminescence e) bonnechance
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 16 Waves I Reading Quiz Questions
16.2.1. According to the text, waves are of three main types. Which of the following choices correctly lists these three main types? a) mechanical, sound, and light waves b) mechanical, electromagnetic, and matter waves
c) transverse, sound, and matter waves d) longitudinal, electromagnetic, and sound waves
e) simple harmonic, light, and matter waves
16.2.1. According to the text, waves are of three main types. Which of the following choices correctly lists these three main types? a) mechanical, sound, and light waves b) mechanical, electromagnetic, and matter waves
c) transverse, sound, and matter waves d) longitudinal, electromagnetic, and sound waves
e) simple harmonic, light, and matter waves
16.2.2. What type of waves are composed of electrons, protons, and other fundamental particles? a) electromagnetic b) longitudinal
c) nuclear resonant d) matter
e) nanotrophic
16.2.2. What type of waves are composed of electrons, protons, and other fundamental particles? a) electromagnetic b) longitudinal
c) nuclear resonant d) matter
e) nanotrophic
16.3.1. Which one of the following types of waves is purely longitudinal? a) light traveling through vacuum b) waves on a plucked guitar string
c) radio waves traveling through air d) sound waves emitted from a speaker
e) surface waves on the surface of a shallow pond
16.3.1. Which one of the following types of waves is purely longitudinal? a) light traveling through vacuum b) waves on a plucked guitar string
c) radio waves traveling through air d) sound waves emitted from a speaker
e) surface waves on the surface of a shallow pond
16.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning transverse waves is true? a) The direction of the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel. b) The direction of the disturbance is perpendicular to the direction of travel. c) A sound wave is an example of a transverse wave. d) Transverse waves are not periodic waves. e) Transverse waves always travel at the speed of light.
16.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning transverse waves is true? a) The direction of the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel. b) The direction of the disturbance is perpendicular to the direction of travel. c) A sound wave is an example of a transverse wave. d) Transverse waves are not periodic waves. e) Transverse waves always travel at the speed of light.
16.3.3. A sound wave is an example of what type of wave? a) longitudinal wave b) electromagnetic wave c) matter wave d) transverse wave e) seismic wave
16.3.3. A sound wave is an example of what type of wave? a) longitudinal wave b) electromagnetic wave c) matter wave d) transverse wave e) seismic wave
16.4.1. Which one of the following expressions determines the angular wave number? a) k = n
b) k = 2 c) k =
2
d) k = n
k= e) n
16.4.1. Which one of the following expressions determines the angular wave number? a) k = n
b) k = 2 c) k =
2
d) k = n
k= e) n
16.4.2. The graph shows the vertical displacement as a function of time at one location in a medium through which a wave is traveling. What is the amplitude of the wave? a) 1 m b) 2 m c) 4 m d) 6 m e) 8 m
16.4.2. The graph shows the vertical displacement as a function of time at one location in a medium through which a wave is traveling. What is the amplitude of the wave? a) 1 m b) 2 m c) 4 m d) 6 m e) 8 m
16.4.3. The graph shows the vertical displacement as a function of time at one location in a medium through which a wave is traveling. What is the period of the wave? a) 0.5 s b) 1.0 s c) 1.5 s d) 2.0 s e) 4.0 s
16.4.3. The graph shows the vertical displacement as a function of time at one location in a medium through which a wave is traveling. What is the period of the wave? a) 0.5 s b) 1.0 s c) 1.5 s d) 2.0 s e) 4.0 s
16.5.1. Which one of the following factors is important in determining the speed of waves on a string? a) amplitude b) frequency
c) length of the string d) mass per unit length
e) speed of the particles that compose the string
16.5.1. Which one of the following factors is important in determining the speed of waves on a string? a) amplitude b) frequency
c) length of the string d) mass per unit length
e) speed of the particles that compose the string
16.5.2. Consider the three waves described by the equations below. Which wave(s) is moving in the negative x direction?
a) A only b) B only c) C only d) A and B e) B and C
16.5.2. Consider the three waves described by the equations below. Which wave(s) is moving in the negative x direction?
a) A only b) B only c) C only d) A and B e) B and C
16.5.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the equations used to describe waves is false? a) The equation assumes that y = 0 m and x = 0 m at time t = 0 s. b) When a calculator is used to calculate the sine function, it must be set in radian mode. c) The wave equations may be used to describe both longitudinal and transverse waves.
d) The equation includes the amplitude, frequency, and wavelength of the waves. e) The term (kx − t) is called the group velocity of the wave.
16.5.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the equations used to describe waves is false? a) The equation assumes that y = 0 m and x = 0 m at time t = 0 s. b) When a calculator is used to calculate the sine function, it must be set in radian mode. c) The wave equations may be used to describe both longitudinal and transverse waves.
d) The equation includes the amplitude, frequency, and wavelength of the waves. e) The term (kx − t) is called the group velocity of the wave.
16.6.1. A wave moves at a constant speed along a string. Which one of the following statements is false concerning the motion of particles in the string? a) The particle speed is constant. b) The particle speed depends on the amplitude of the periodic motion of the source. c) The particle speed is independent of the tension and linear density of the string.
d) The particle speed is not the same as the wave speed. e) The particle speed depends on the frequency of the periodic motion of the source.
16.6.1. A wave moves at a constant speed along a string. Which one of the following statements is false concerning the motion of particles in the string? a) The particle speed is constant. b) The particle speed depends on the amplitude of the periodic motion of the source. c) The particle speed is independent of the tension and linear density of the string.
d) The particle speed is not the same as the wave speed. e) The particle speed depends on the frequency of the periodic motion of the source.
16.6.2. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false? a) A wave carries energy from one place to another. b) A wave is a disturbance that travels from one place to another.
c) The disturbance of particles of a medium may be in a direction that is perpendicular to the direction the wave is traveling. d) Sound waves are purely longitudinal waves. e) A wave carries particles of its medium from one place to another.
16.6.2. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false? a) A wave carries energy from one place to another. b) A wave is a disturbance that travels from one place to another.
c) The disturbance of particles of a medium may be in a direction that is perpendicular to the direction the wave is traveling. d) Sound waves are purely longitudinal waves. e) A wave carries particles of its medium from one place to another.
16.6.3. Which of the following properties of a wave on a string do not change when the tension of a string is increased? a) frequency b) average transmitted power
c) speed of the wave d) first harmonic frequency
e) all of the above will change
16.6.3. Which of the following properties of a wave on a string do not change when the tension of a string is increased? a) frequency b) average transmitted power
c) speed of the wave d) first harmonic frequency
e) all of the above will change
16.6.4. A piano is tuned by tightening or loosing the piano wires. When the wires are tightened, how is speed of the waves on the wire affected, if at all? a) The speed is increased. b) The speed is reduced. c) The speed remains the same.
16.6.4. A piano is tuned by tightening or loosing the piano wires. When the wires are tightened, how is speed of the waves on the wire affected, if at all? a) The speed is increased. b) The speed is reduced. c) The speed remains the same.
16.6.5. A piano is tuned by tightening or loosing the piano wires. When the wires are tightened, how is frequency of the waves on the wire affected, if at all? a) The frequency is increased. b) The frequency is reduced. c) The frequency remains the same.
16.6.5. A piano is tuned by tightening or loosing the piano wires. When the wires are tightened, how is frequency of the waves on the wire affected, if at all? a) The frequency is increased. b) The frequency is reduced. c) The frequency remains the same.
16.9.1. When two or more waves are present simultaneously at the same place, the resultant disturbance is the sum of the disturbances from the individual waves. What principle or law makes this statement? a) Principle of Phase Construction
b) Principle of Linear Superposition c) Law of Cosines
d) Huygens’ Principle e) Law of Overlapping Waves
16.9.1. When two or more waves are present simultaneously at the same place, the resultant disturbance is the sum of the disturbances from the individual waves. What principle or law makes this statement? a) Principle of Phase Construction
b) Principle of Linear Superposition c) Law of Cosines
d) Huygens’ Principle e) Law of Overlapping Waves
16.9.2. Complete the following sentence: The Principle of Linear Superposition may a) not be applied to longitudinal waves. b) not be applied to transverse waves.
c) not be applied to electromagnetic waves. d) be applied to all types waves.
e) be applied only when a wave reflects from a surface.
16.9.2. Complete the following sentence: The Principle of Linear Superposition may a) not be applied to longitudinal waves. b) not be applied to transverse waves.
c) not be applied to electromagnetic waves. d) be applied to all types waves.
e) be applied only when a wave reflects from a surface.
16.9.3. According to the Principle of Superposition, how are two waves combined to produce a resultant wave? a) The velocity vectors are added together. b) The amplitudes of the two waves are added algebraically.
c) The amplitudes of the two waves are multiplied together. d) Waves are always independent of each other and cannot be combined.
16.9.3. According to the Principle of Superposition, how are two waves combined to produce a resultant wave? a) The velocity vectors are added together. b) The amplitudes of the two waves are added algebraically.
c) The amplitudes of the two waves are multiplied together. d) Waves are always independent of each other and cannot be combined.
16.9.4. Two waves traveling in the same direction produce a resultant wave traveling in the same direction if which of the following conditions are met? a) The amplitudes of the two waves are identical. b) The wavelengths of the two waves are identical. c) The velocities of the two waves are identical. d) Both the amplitudes and wavelengths for the two waves are identical. e) Both waves can be described as sine waves.
16.9.4. Two waves traveling in the same direction produce a resultant wave traveling in the same direction if which of the following conditions are met? a) The amplitudes of the two waves are identical. b) The wavelengths of the two waves are identical. c) The velocities of the two waves are identical. d) Both the amplitudes and wavelengths for the two waves are identical. e) Both waves can be described as sine waves.
16.10.1. Wave A has an amplitude of 0.5 m and wave B has an amplitude of 0.6 m. When waves A and B travel toward each other, the observed wave amplitude at a certain location and particular time is 0.9 m. Which of the following statements concerning this observation is true? a) This was an observation in error, since the superposition of these two waves cannot result in an amplitude larger than 0.6 m. b) This was an observation in error, since the superposition of two these two waves will always result in an amplitude of 1.1 m. c) This is an example of the superposition of two waves resulting in exactly in phase interference.
d) This is an example of the superposition of two waves resulting in destructive interference. e) This is an example of the superposition of two waves resulting in constructive interference.
16.10.1. Wave A has an amplitude of 0.5 m and wave B has an amplitude of 0.6 m. When waves A and B travel toward each other, the observed wave amplitude at a certain location and particular time is 0.9 m. Which of the following statements concerning this observation is true? a) This was an observation in error, since the superposition of these two waves cannot result in an amplitude larger than 0.6 m. b) This was an observation in error, since the superposition of two these two waves will always result in an amplitude of 1.1 m. c) This is an example of the superposition of two waves resulting in exactly in phase interference.
d) This is an example of the superposition of two waves resulting in destructive interference. e) This is an example of the superposition of two waves resulting in constructive interference.
16.11.1. Complete the following sentence: Phasors are used to combine waves that have differing a) amplitudes b) wave number
c) wavelength d) frequency
e) nodes
16.11.1. Complete the following sentence: Phasors are used to combine waves that have differing a) amplitudes b) wave number
c) wavelength d) frequency
e) nodes
16.11.2. What will occur in the superposition of two identical sine waves if they are shifted by (5/2) relative to one another? a) The waves will interfere with each other destructively. b) The waves will interfere with each other constructively.
c) The waves will travel in opposite directions. d) One wave will travel faster than the other, but in the same direction. e) Since the waves are out of phase, they do not interfere with each other.
16.11.2. What will occur in the superposition of two identical sine waves if they are shifted by (5/2) relative to one another? a) The waves will interfere with each other destructively. b) The waves will interfere with each other constructively.
c) The waves will travel in opposite directions. d) One wave will travel faster than the other, but in the same direction. e) Since the waves are out of phase, they do not interfere with each other.
16.12.1. A string has one end attached to a wall and the other end attached to a motor that moves the end up and down in simple harmonic motion. The frequency of the motor is varied until a transverse standing wave is produced on the string that has four nodes. Which of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) This standing wave has three antinodes.
b) This standing wave is produced by linear superposition of identical waves traveling in opposite directions. c) This standing wave represents the third overtone.
d) This standing wave represents the third harmonic. e) This standing wave occurs at a frequency that is 1.5 times greater than the frequency where a standing wave with three nodes is observed.
16.12.1. A string has one end attached to a wall and the other end attached to a motor that moves the end up and down in simple harmonic motion. The frequency of the motor is varied until a transverse standing wave is produced on the string that has four nodes. Which of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) This standing wave has three antinodes.
b) This standing wave is produced by linear superposition of identical waves traveling in opposite directions. c) This standing wave represents the third overtone.
d) This standing wave represents the third harmonic. e) This standing wave occurs at a frequency that is 1.5 times greater than the frequency where a standing wave with three nodes is observed.
16.12.2. What is the distance between two successive antinodes of a standing wave? a) one-forth wavelength b) one-half wavelength
c) one wavelength d) two wavelengths
e) four wavelengths
16.12.2. What is the distance between two successive antinodes of a standing wave? a) one-forth wavelength b) one-half wavelength
c) one wavelength d) two wavelengths
e) four wavelengths
16.12.3. What occurs when a wave traveling along a taut string reaches a fixed end where it has been tied to a wall? a) The wave reflects back with the same amplitude, but with opposite sign. b) The wave reflects back with the same amplitude and sign. c) The wave is absorbed by the wall. d) The wave reflects back with smaller amplitude and same sign. e) The wave reflects back with larger amplitude, but with opposite sign.
16.12.3. What occurs when a wave traveling along a taut string reaches a fixed end where it has been tied to a wall? a) The wave reflects back with the same amplitude, but with opposite sign. b) The wave reflects back with the same amplitude and sign. c) The wave is absorbed by the wall. d) The wave reflects back with smaller amplitude and same sign. e) The wave reflects back with larger amplitude, but with opposite sign.
16.12.4. A standing wave is set up on a taut string. Which of the following are not observed to move along the string? a) nodes b) antinodes
c) nodes and antinodes d) Both nodes and antinodes can be observed moving along the string.
e) Nodes and antinodes can be observed switching positions at the natural frequency of the string.
16.12.4. A standing wave is set up on a taut string. Which of the following are not observed to move along the string? a) nodes b) antinodes
c) nodes and antinodes d) Both nodes and antinodes can be observed moving along the string.
e) Nodes and antinodes can be observed switching positions at the natural frequency of the string.
16.13.1. Which one of the following quantities is not a factor in determining the natural frequency of a string fixed at its two ends? a) length b) mass
c) tension d) acceleration due to gravity
16.13.1. Which one of the following quantities is not a factor in determining the natural frequency of a string fixed at its two ends? a) length b) mass
c) tension d) acceleration due to gravity
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 17 Waves II Reading Quiz Questions
17.2.1. What is the term used to describe the surfaces over which the oscillations due to a sound wave have the same value? a) rays b) wave packets
c) beats d) phasors
e) wave fronts
17.2.1. What is the term used to describe the surfaces over which the oscillations due to a sound wave have the same value? a) rays b) wave packets
c) beats d) phasors
e) wave fronts
17.2.2. What is the term used to describe the directed lines that are perpendicular to wavefronts and indicate their direction of travel? a) rays b) wave packets
c) beats d) phasors
e) phonons
17.2.2. What is the term used to describe the directed lines that are perpendicular to wavefronts and indicate their direction of travel? a) rays b) wave packets
c) beats d) phasors
e) phonons
17.3.1. Which one of the following expressions correctly gives the relationship between the speed of sound v in a medium and the properties of that medium? elastic property v inertial property a)
b) v inertial property elastic property
c) v (elastic property)(inertial property) d) The speed is only proportional to the inertial property. e) The speed is only proportional to the elastic property.
17.3.1. Which one of the following expressions correctly gives the relationship between the speed of sound v in a medium and the properties of that medium? elastic property v inertial property a)
b) v inertial property elastic property
c) v (elastic property)(inertial property) d) The speed is only proportional to the inertial property. e) The speed is only proportional to the elastic property.
17.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the speed of sound in a medium is true?
a) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have larger densities than it is for materials that have smaller densities and all other properties equal. b) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have smaller densities than it is for materials that have larger densities and all other properties equal. c) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have larger mass than it is for materials that have smaller mass and all other properties equal. d) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have smaller bulk modulus than it is for materials that have s larger bulk modulus and all other properties equal.
17.3.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the speed of sound in a medium is true?
a) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have larger densities than it is for materials that have smaller densities and all other properties equal. b) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have smaller densities than it is for materials that have larger densities and all other properties equal. c) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have larger mass than it is for materials that have smaller mass and all other properties equal. d) The speed of sound is greater for materials that have smaller bulk modulus than it is for materials that have s larger bulk modulus and all other properties equal.
17.3.3. A girl is playing a trumpet. The sound waves produced are traveling through air to your ear. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation? a) A high-frequency sound that the trumpet produces is interpreted as a highpitched sound.
b) Air molecules between the trumpet and your ear vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction the waves are traveling. c) The loudness of the sound wave involves the size of the oscillations in air pressure. d) The sounds from the trumpet are longitudinal waves. e) The sound travels at the speed of light to your ear.
17.3.3. A girl is playing a trumpet. The sound waves produced are traveling through air to your ear. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation? a) A high-frequency sound that the trumpet produces is interpreted as a highpitched sound.
b) Air molecules between the trumpet and your ear vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction the waves are traveling. c) The loudness of the sound wave involves the size of the oscillations in air pressure. d) The sounds from the trumpet are longitudinal waves. e) The sound travels at the speed of light to your ear.
17.3.4. For which one of the following choices does the speed of sound have the largest value? a) vacuum b) air
c) copper d) alcohol
e) helium
17.3.4. For which one of the following choices does the speed of sound have the largest value? a) vacuum b) air
c) copper d) alcohol
e) helium
17.3.5. In determining the speed of sound in a solid bar, such as one made of steel, which of the following choices is not needed? a) density of the bar b) bulk modulus
c) Boltzmann’s constant
17.3.5. In determining the speed of sound in a solid bar, such as one made of steel, which of the following choices is not needed? a) density of the bar b) bulk modulus
c) Boltzmann’s constant
17.3.6. A guitar string is plucked and set into vibration. The vibrating string disturbs the surrounding air, resulting in a sound wave. Which entry in the table below is correct?
17.3.6. A guitar string is plucked and set into vibration. The vibrating string disturbs the surrounding air, resulting in a sound wave. Which entry in the table below is correct?
17.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning traveling sound waves in air is false? a) Traveling sound waves are longitudinal waves. b) Traveling sound waves consist of alternating regions of compressed and expanded air. c) A typical speed of sound in air is 680 m/s. d) The displacement amplitude of a traveling sound wave may be described by a sinusoidal function. e) The pressure amplitude is 90 out of phase relative to the displacement amplitude of a traveling sound wave.
17.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning traveling sound waves in air is false? a) Traveling sound waves are longitudinal waves. b) Traveling sound waves consist of alternating regions of compressed and expanded air. c) A typical speed of sound in air is 680 m/s. d) The displacement amplitude of a traveling sound wave may be described by a sinusoidal function. e) The pressure amplitude is 90 out of phase relative to the displacement amplitude of a traveling sound wave.
17.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the pressure amplitude of a traveling sound wave in air is false?
a) The pressure amplitude is inversely proportional to the displacement amplitude. b) The pressure amplitude is 90 out of phase relative to the displacement amplitude. c) A negative value of the pressure amplitude corresponds to an expansion of the air.
d) The pressure amplitude depends on the air density. e) When the displacement amplitude is at its maximum value, the pressure amplitude is zero Pa.
17.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the pressure amplitude of a traveling sound wave in air is false?
a) The pressure amplitude is inversely proportional to the displacement amplitude. b) The pressure amplitude is 90 out of phase relative to the displacement amplitude. c) A negative value of the pressure amplitude corresponds to an expansion of the air.
d) The pressure amplitude depends on the air density. e) When the displacement amplitude is at its maximum value, the pressure amplitude is zero Pa.
17.5.1. The drawing shows two sets of sound waves, created by two sources labeled "A" and "B." The black half-circles represent wave crests from A, and the grey half-circles represent wave crests from B. Suppose that individual wave crests from either source A or source B alone are at +5 µm relative to the undisturbed air molecule positions. What is the displacement of the air molecules at the point marked "x" that is at the mid-point between to crests on each wave? a) +10 µm b) +5 µm c) 0
d) −5 µm e) −10 µm
17.5.1. The drawing shows two sets of sound waves, created by two sources labeled "A" and "B." The black half-circles represent wave crests from A, and the grey half-circles represent wave crests from B. Suppose that individual wave crests from either source A or source B alone are at +5 µm relative to the undisturbed air molecule positions. What is the displacement of the air molecules at the point marked "x" that is at the mid-point between to crests on each wave? a) +10 µm b) +5 µm c) 0
d) −5 µm e) −10 µm
17.5.2. Two pulses of identical shape travel toward each other in opposite directions on a string, as shown in the figure. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The pulses will pass through each other and produce beats. b) As the pulses pass through each other, they will interfere destructively. c) The pulses will interfere to produce a standing wave. d) The pulses will reflect from each other. e) The pulses will diffract from each other.
17.5.2. Two pulses of identical shape travel toward each other in opposite directions on a string, as shown in the figure. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The pulses will pass through each other and produce beats. b) As the pulses pass through each other, they will interfere destructively. c) The pulses will interfere to produce a standing wave. d) The pulses will reflect from each other. e) The pulses will diffract from each other.
17.5.3. Sound waves are emitted from two speakers. Which one of the following statements about sound wave interference is false? a) In a region where both destructive and constructive interference occur, energy is not conserved. b) Destructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly out of phase when they meet. c) Interference redistributes the energy carried by the individual waves. d) Constructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly in phase when they meet. e) Sound waves undergo diffraction as they exit each speaker.
17.5.3. Sound waves are emitted from two speakers. Which one of the following statements about sound wave interference is false? a) In a region where both destructive and constructive interference occur, energy is not conserved. b) Destructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly out of phase when they meet. c) Interference redistributes the energy carried by the individual waves. d) Constructive interference occurs when two waves are exactly in phase when they meet. e) Sound waves undergo diffraction as they exit each speaker.
17.6.1. Which of the following expressions correctly relates the amplitude sm of a sound wave to its intensity? a) I sm
1 b) I sm c) I sm2
1 d) I 2 sm e) I
sm
17.6.1. Which of the following expressions correctly relates the amplitude sm of a sound wave to its intensity? a) I sm
1 b) I sm c) I sm2
1 d) I 2 sm e) I
sm
17.6.2. Complete the following statement: The intensity of sound that is emitted isotropically a) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. b) is proportional to the square of the distance from the source. c) is inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. d) is proportional to the distance from the source. e) is inversely proportional to the distance from the source.
17.6.2. Complete the following statement: The intensity of sound that is emitted isotropically a) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. b) is proportional to the square of the distance from the source. c) is inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. d) is proportional to the distance from the source. e) is inversely proportional to the distance from the source.
17.6.3. Complete the following statement: The power of a sound wave that is emitted isotropically a) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. b) is proportional to the square of the distance from the source. c) is inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. d) is inversely proportional to the distance from the source. e) None of the above statements are true.
17.6.3. Complete the following statement: The power of a sound wave that is emitted isotropically a) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. b) is proportional to the square of the distance from the source. c) is inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. d) is inversely proportional to the distance from the source. e) None of the above statements are true.
17.6.4. Which one of the following statements best describes the concept of sound intensity? a) Sound intensity is the amount of energy the sound waves carries at a particular location. b) Sound intensity is the sound power that passes perpendicularly through a surface divided by the amplitude of the wave. c) Sound intensity is the amplitude of the wave. d) Sound intensity is the constant power per unit area of a sound wave as it travels from one location to another. e) Sound intensity is the sound power that passes perpendicularly through a surface divided by the area of that surface.
17.6.4. Which one of the following statements best describes the concept of sound intensity? a) Sound intensity is the amount of energy the sound waves carries at a particular location. b) Sound intensity is the sound power that passes perpendicularly through a surface divided by the amplitude of the wave. c) Sound intensity is the amplitude of the wave. d) Sound intensity is the constant power per unit area of a sound wave as it travels from one location to another. e) Sound intensity is the sound power that passes perpendicularly through a surface divided by the area of that surface.
17.6.5. The threshold of hearing is the smallest sound intensity that a human ear can hear. What intensity corresponds to the threshold of hearing? a) 10−12 W/m2 b) 10−10 W/m2 c) 10−8 W/m2 d) 10−6 W/m2 e) 10−4 W/m2
17.6.5. The threshold of hearing is the smallest sound intensity that a human ear can hear. What intensity corresponds to the threshold of hearing? a) 10−12 W/m2 b) 10−10 W/m2 c) 10−8 W/m2 d) 10−6 W/m2 e) 10−4 W/m2
17.6.6. The sound intensity level is reported in decibels. If one doubles the intensity of sound, by what factor does the perceived loudness, in decibels, change? a) 10 dB b) 20 dB c) 3 dB d) 2 dB e) 5 dB
17.6.6. The sound intensity level is reported in decibels. If one doubles the intensity of sound, by what factor does the perceived loudness, in decibels, change? a) 10 dB b) 20 dB c) 3 dB d) 2 dB e) 5 dB
17.6.7. The sound intensity level is reported in decibels. If the sound intensity is at the threshold for hearing, what is the sound intensity level in decibels? a) zero dB b) 1 dB c) 12 dB d) 10 dB e) 3 dB
17.6.7. The sound intensity level is reported in decibels. If the sound intensity is at the threshold for hearing, what is the sound intensity level in decibels? a) zero dB b) 1 dB c) 12 dB d) 10 dB e) 3 dB
17.7.1. A wire of mass m and length L carries a transverse wave. If the tension applied to the wire is T, which one of the following statements concerning the wave is true? a) The wavelength of the wave depends only on L. b) The wavelength of the wave depends on L, m, and T. c) The speed of the wave depends on L, m, and T. d) The speed of the wave depends only on m and L. e) Statements (a) and (d) are both true.
17.7.1. A wire of mass m and length L carries a transverse wave. If the tension applied to the wire is T, which one of the following statements concerning the wave is true? a) The wavelength of the wave depends only on L. b) The wavelength of the wave depends on L, m, and T. c) The speed of the wave depends on L, m, and T. d) The speed of the wave depends only on m and L. e) Statements (a) and (d) are both true.
17.7.2. The drawings show standing waves of sound in six organ pipes of the same length. Each pipe has one end open and the other end closed. Some of the drawings show situations that are not possible. Which one(s) is(are) not possible? a) 4 only
b) 1 and 4 c) 5 and 6
d) 2 and 3 e) 4 and 5
17.7.2. The drawings show standing waves of sound in six organ pipes of the same length. Each pipe has one end open and the other end closed. Some of the drawings show situations that are not possible. Which one(s) is(are) not possible? a) 4 only
b) 1 and 4 c) 5 and 6
d) 2 and 3 e) 4 and 5
17.7.3. The drawings show standing waves of sound in six organ pipes of the same length. Each pipe has one end open and the other end closed. Some of the drawings show situations that are not possible. Which one of these tubes emits a sound with the lowest frequency? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 6
17.7.3. The drawings show standing waves of sound in six organ pipes of the same length. Each pipe has one end open and the other end closed. Some of the drawings show situations that are not possible. Which one of these tubes emits a sound with the lowest frequency? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 6
17.8.1. Under what conditions can you hear beats of sound waves? a) when the wave is a standing wave b) when the wave is refracted c) when the wave is diffracted d) when two waves of slightly different frequency combine e) when two waves of slightly different amplitude combine
17.8.1. Under what conditions can you hear beats of sound waves? a) when the wave is a standing wave b) when the wave is refracted c) when the wave is diffracted d) when two waves of slightly different frequency combine e) when two waves of slightly different amplitude combine
17.8.2. Which one of the following superpositions will result in beats? a) the superposition of waves that are identical except for slightly different amplitudes b) the superposition of waves that are identical except for slightly different frequencies c) the superposition of identical waves that travel in the same direction
d) the superposition of identical waves that travel in opposite directions e) the superposition of waves that travel with different speeds
17.8.2. Which one of the following superpositions will result in beats? a) the superposition of waves that are identical except for slightly different amplitudes b) the superposition of waves that are identical except for slightly different frequencies c) the superposition of identical waves that travel in the same direction
d) the superposition of identical waves that travel in opposite directions e) the superposition of waves that travel with different speeds
17.8.3. A guitar string produces 4 beats/s when sounded with a 250 Hz tuning fork and 9 beats per second when sounded with a 255 Hz tuning fork. What is the vibrational frequency of the string? a) 246 Hz b) 240 Hz c) 259 Hz d) 254 Hz e) 263 Hz
17.8.3. A guitar string produces 4 beats/s when sounded with a 250 Hz tuning fork and 9 beats per second when sounded with a 255 Hz tuning fork. What is the vibrational frequency of the string? a) 246 Hz b) 240 Hz c) 259 Hz d) 254 Hz e) 263 Hz
17.9.1. On a warm spring day, you are waiting at a red traffic light listening to your favorite radio station with the windows down. The driver in a car passing you in the left turn lane at a constant speed happens to be listening to the same radio station. What do you notice as the car approaches and passes you? a) The sound from the passing car seems to be at a lower frequency when approaching and at a higher frequency when moving away compared to the sound from your radio. b) The sound from the passing car seems to be at a higher frequency when approaching and at a lower frequency when moving away compared to the sound from your radio. c) As the car approaches, the shift to higher frequencies increases as the distance decreases between the two cars. d) As the car approaches, the shift to lower frequencies increases as the distance decreases between the two cars. e) As the car approaches, the shift to lower frequencies decreases as the distance decreases between the two cars.
17.9.1. On a warm spring day, you are waiting at a red traffic light listening to your favorite radio station with the windows down. The driver in a car passing you in the left turn lane at a constant speed happens to be listening to the same radio station. What do you notice as the car approaches and passes you? a) The sound from the passing car seems to be at a lower frequency when approaching and at a higher frequency when moving away compared to the sound from your radio. b) The sound from the passing car seems to be at a higher frequency when approaching and at a lower frequency when moving away compared to the sound from your radio. c) As the car approaches, the shift to higher frequencies increases as the distance decreases between the two cars. d) As the car approaches, the shift to lower frequencies increases as the distance decreases between the two cars. e) As the car approaches, the shift to lower frequencies decreases as the distance decreases between the two cars.
17.9.2. Which of the following occurs when the Doppler effect is produced by a moving source of sound? a) interference b) superposition
c) sound intensity changes d) frequency changes
e) beats
17.9.2. Which of the following occurs when the Doppler effect is produced by a moving source of sound? a) interference b) superposition
c) sound intensity changes d) frequency changes
e) beats
17.9.3. Astronomers can determine the velocity of a galaxy relative to the Earth by observing the light waves emitted by certain elements. If the light frequency from hydrogen atoms is shifted toward a lower frequency as compared to the light emitted from hydrogen atoms on Earth, which one of the following statements correctly describes the velocity of the galaxy? a) The galaxy is moving away from the Earth.
b) The galaxy is moving toward the Earth. c) The galaxy is moving along a direction that is perpendicular to the line connecting the Earth and the galaxy.
d) The galaxy is not moving relative to the Earth. e) There is too little information given to determine the direction of the velocity of the galaxy.
17.9.3. Astronomers can determine the velocity of a galaxy relative to the Earth by observing the light waves emitted by certain elements. If the light frequency from hydrogen atoms is shifted toward a lower frequency as compared to the light emitted from hydrogen atoms on Earth, which one of the following statements correctly describes the velocity of the galaxy? a) The galaxy is moving away from the Earth.
b) The galaxy is moving toward the Earth. c) The galaxy is moving along a direction that is perpendicular to the line connecting the Earth and the galaxy.
d) The galaxy is not moving relative to the Earth. e) There is too little information given to determine the direction of the velocity of the galaxy.
17.9.4. You are riding a bicycle along the side of a road when an ambulance comes up behind you with its siren on. As the ambulance passes, you notice that the sound of the siren changes. How does it change as it passes? a) The frequency decreases and then increases.
b) The frequency increases and then decreases. c) The frequency continually increases.
d) The frequency continually decreases. e) The frequency decreases to a lower frequency.
17.9.4. You are riding a bicycle along the side of a road when an ambulance comes up behind you with its siren on. As the ambulance passes, you notice that the sound of the siren changes. How does it change as it passes? a) The frequency decreases and then increases.
b) The frequency increases and then decreases. c) The frequency continually increases.
d) The frequency continually decreases. e) The frequency decreases to a lower frequency.
17.9.5. In the formulas for calculating the frequency an observer hears during the Doppler effect, what is the term vS? a) speed of the observer b) speed of sound
c) speed of the source d) speed of light
e) wind speed
17.9.5. In the formulas for calculating the frequency an observer hears during the Doppler effect, what is the term vS? a) speed of the observer b) speed of sound
c) speed of the source d) speed of light
e) wind speed
17.10.1. Under which of the following conditions does a shock wave occur? a) when two waves of differing frequencies superpose b) when the temperature of air is greater than the temperature of the source of the sound c) when the pressure amplitude exceeds the maximum pressure amplitude that the human ear can tolerate
d) when the source of a sound wave exceeds the speed of sound e) when the sound intensity level exceeds 130 dB
17.10.1. Under which of the following conditions does a shock wave occur? a) when two waves of differing frequencies superpose b) when the temperature of air is greater than the temperature of the source of the sound c) when the pressure amplitude exceeds the maximum pressure amplitude that the human ear can tolerate
d) when the source of a sound wave exceeds the speed of sound e) when the sound intensity level exceeds 130 dB
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 18 Temperature, Heat, and the First Law of Thermodynamics Reading Quiz Questions
18.1.1. What is the branch of physics called that involves the study and application of the thermal energy of systems? a) adiabatics b) thermodynamics
c) theronucleonics d) isentropics
e) kelvinomics
18.1.1. What is the branch of physics called that involves the study and application of the thermal energy of systems? a) adiabatics b) thermodynamics
c) theronucleonics d) isentropics
e) kelvinomics
18.2.1. What is unique about the Kelvin temperature scale? a) It is the most widely used temperature scale around the world. b) It is divided into temperature units called degrees. c) It is based on the fact that there is a lower limit to temperature called absolute zero. d) It is named after a person.
e) It is based on multiples of 10.
18.2.1. What is unique about the Kelvin temperature scale? a) It is the most widely used temperature scale around the world. b) It is divided into temperature units called degrees. c) It is based on the fact that there is a lower limit to temperature called absolute zero. d) It is named after a person.
e) It is based on multiples of 10.
18.2.2. According to the text, what was the temperature at the beginning of the Universe? a) zero K b) 3 K
c) 290 K d) 1011 K
e) 1039 K
18.2.2. According to the text, what was the temperature at the beginning of the Universe? a) zero K b) 3 K
c) 290 K d) 1011 K
e) 1039 K
18.3.1. What does the zeroth law of thermodynamics concern? a) the rate of energy flow from one system to another b) the process by which an object achieves thermal equilibrium c) the amount of work done on or by a system d) the circumstances under which objects are in thermal equilibrium e) the definition of the Kelvin temperature scale
18.3.1. What does the zeroth law of thermodynamics concern? a) the rate of energy flow from one system to another b) the process by which an object achieves thermal equilibrium c) the amount of work done on or by a system d) the circumstances under which objects are in thermal equilibrium e) the definition of the Kelvin temperature scale
18.3.2. Which one of the following variables is the best indicator of thermal equilibrium between to systems in thermal contact? a) pressure b) volume
c) temperature d) mass
e) time
18.3.2. Which one of the following variables is the best indicator of thermal equilibrium between to systems in thermal contact? a) pressure b) volume
c) temperature d) mass
e) time
18.3.3. The zeroth law of thermodynamics provides a basis for the use of which one of the following devices? a) thermometer b) barometer
c) steam engine d) refrigerator
e) furnace
18.3.3. The zeroth law of thermodynamics provides a basis for the use of which one of the following devices? a) thermometer b) barometer
c) steam engine d) refrigerator
e) furnace
18.4.1. Which one of the following could not be used as a thermometric property in the construction of a thermometer? a) the change in length of a metal rod b) the change in volume of a liquid
c) the change in pressure of a gas at constant volume d) the change in mass of a solid
e) the change in electrical resistance of a wire
18.4.1. Which one of the following could not be used as a thermometric property in the construction of a thermometer? a) the change in length of a metal rod b) the change in volume of a liquid
c) the change in pressure of a gas at constant volume d) the change in mass of a solid
e) the change in electrical resistance of a wire
18.4.2. What is the term used to describe the temperature at which liquid water, ice, and water vapor are all in thermal equilibrium? a) miscibility gap b) fusion point
c) meniscus temperature d) parity temperature
e) triple point
18.4.2. What is the term used to describe the temperature at which liquid water, ice, and water vapor are all in thermal equilibrium? a) miscibility gap b) fusion point
c) meniscus temperature d) parity temperature
e) triple point
18.4.3. What is the phase of a substance that is at its triple point temperature? a) solid b) liquid
c) gas d) all of the above
e) none of the above
18.4.3. What is the phase of a substance that is at its triple point temperature? a) solid b) liquid
c) gas d) all of the above
e) none of the above
18.5.1. Which one of the following temperatures is approximately equal to "room temperature?" a) 0 K b) 0 C
c) 100 C d) 212 F
e) 295 K
18.5.1. Which one of the following temperatures is approximately equal to "room temperature?" a) 0 K b) 0 C
c) 100 C d) 212 F
e) 295 K
18.5.2. Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 C° is equal to a temperature decrease of a) 30 F°. b) 30 K.
c) 17 F°. d) 26 F°.
e) 303 K.
18.5.2. Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 C° is equal to a temperature decrease of a) 30 F°. b) 30 K.
c) 17 F°. d) 26 F°.
e) 303 K.
18.5.3. Three thermometers are in the same water bath. After thermal equilibrium is established, it is found that the Celsius thermometer reads 100 °C, the Fahrenheit thermometer reads 212 °F, and the Kelvin thermometer reads 273 K. Which one of the following statements is the most reasonable conclusion? a) The Kelvin thermometer is incorrect. b) The Celsius thermometer is incorrect. c) The Fahrenheit thermometer is incorrect. d) All three thermometers are incorrect. e) The three thermometers are at different temperatures.
18.5.3. Three thermometers are in the same water bath. After thermal equilibrium is established, it is found that the Celsius thermometer reads 100 °C, the Fahrenheit thermometer reads 212 °F, and the Kelvin thermometer reads 273 K. Which one of the following statements is the most reasonable conclusion? a) The Kelvin thermometer is incorrect. b) The Celsius thermometer is incorrect. c) The Fahrenheit thermometer is incorrect. d) All three thermometers are incorrect. e) The three thermometers are at different temperatures.
18.5.4. Which of the following temperatures is equivalent to zero degrees on the Celsius temperature scale? a) 0 K b) 100 K
c) 32 K d) 273 K
e) 469 K
18.5.4. Which of the following temperatures is equivalent to zero degrees on the Celsius temperature scale? a) 0 K b) 100 K
c) 32 K d) 273 K
e) 469 K
18.6.1. A rod with an initial length 3.000 cm is heated so that its temperature increases by 89 C. When the length is measured again, the length has increased by 0.006 cm. This behavior is an example of which one of the following material properties? a) specific heat capacity
b) thermal stress c) thermal expansion
d) thermometry e) thermal diffusion
18.6.1. A rod with an initial length 3.000 cm is heated so that its temperature increases by 89 C. When the length is measured again, the length has increased by 0.006 cm. This behavior is an example of which one of the following material properties? a) specific heat capacity
b) thermal stress c) thermal expansion
d) thermometry e) thermal diffusion
18.6.2. Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electric appliances consist of metallic strips that must have different a) thermal expansion coefficients. b) specific heat capacities. c) lengths. d) volumes. e) mass.
18.6.2. Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electric appliances consist of metallic strips that must have different a) thermal expansion coefficients. b) specific heat capacities. c) lengths. d) volumes. e) mass.
18.6.3. A square plate made of lead has an oval-shaped hole. The oval may be described by the lengths a and b as shown in the drawing. Which of the following correctly describes the plate after its temperature is increased by two hundred Celsius degrees? a) The size of the plate will increase, but a and b will both decrease.
b) The size of the plate will remain unchanged, but a and b will both increase. c) The size of the plate will increase, and a and b will both increase. d) The size of the plate will remain unchanged, but a and b will both decrease. e) The size of the plate will increase, but only a will increase.
18.6.3. A square plate made of lead has an oval-shaped hole. The oval may be described by the lengths a and b as shown in the drawing. Which of the following correctly describes the plate after its temperature is increased by two hundred Celsius degrees? a) The size of the plate will increase, but a and b will both decrease.
b) The size of the plate will remain unchanged, but a and b will both increase. c) The size of the plate will increase, and a and b will both increase. d) The size of the plate will remain unchanged, but a and b will both decrease. e) The size of the plate will increase, but only a will increase.
18.6.4. A circular hole is drilled through a penny. Complete the following statement: When the penny is heated,
a) the hole decreases in diameter. b) the metal part of the penny expands outward, but the size of the hole does not change. c) the area of the hole increases by the same amount as a similar area of the metal does. d) linear expansion causes the shape of the hole to become slightly ovalshaped. e) the area of the hole increases more than a similar area of the metal does
18.6.4. A circular hole is drilled through a penny. Complete the following statement: When the penny is heated,
a) the hole decreases in diameter. b) the metal part of the penny expands outward, but the size of the hole does not change. c) the area of the hole increases by the same amount as a similar area of the metal does. d) linear expansion causes the shape of the hole to become slightly ovalshaped. e) the area of the hole increases more than a similar area of the metal does
18.6.5. Which one of the following statements explains why it is difficult to measure the coefficient of volume expansion for a liquid? a) Liquids are more compact than gases. b) The liquid will lose heat to the containing vessel. c) Liquids tend to expand more slowly than solids. d) Liquids are more compact than solids. e) The volume of the containing vessel will also increase.
18.6.5. Which one of the following statements explains why it is difficult to measure the coefficient of volume expansion for a liquid? a) Liquids are more compact than gases. b) The liquid will lose heat to the containing vessel. c) Liquids tend to expand more slowly than solids. d) Liquids are more compact than solids. e) The volume of the containing vessel will also increase.
18.6.6. On one very cold winter evening, iron pipes containing water burst open. What caused this catastrophe? a) In the cold, the iron pipe contracted more than the water. b) The outside of the pipe contracted more than the inside because the outside temperature was less than the inside temperature. c) When water freezes, it expands. This expansion of the water could not be stopped by the iron pipe. d) The iron pipe became brittle and broke under the weight of the water. e) When water freezes, it chemically reacts with the iron and weakens it.
18.6.6. On one very cold winter evening, iron pipes containing water burst open. What caused this catastrophe? a) In the cold, the iron pipe contracted more than the water. b) The outside of the pipe contracted more than the inside because the outside temperature was less than the inside temperature. c) When water freezes, it expands. This expansion of the water could not be stopped by the iron pipe. d) The iron pipe became brittle and broke under the weight of the water. e) When water freezes, it chemically reacts with the iron and weakens it.
18.7.1. Complete the following statement: The term heat most accurately describes a) the flow of energy due to a temperature difference. b) the molecular motion inside of an object.
c) the internal energy of an object. d) a measure of how hot an object is.
e) the absolute temperature of an object.
18.7.1. Complete the following statement: The term heat most accurately describes a) the flow of energy due to a temperature difference. b) the molecular motion inside of an object.
c) the internal energy of an object. d) a measure of how hot an object is.
e) the absolute temperature of an object.
18.7.2. Heat is expressed in the same units as which one of the following quantities? a) temperature b) power
c) force/time d) specific heat capacity
e) work
18.7.2. Heat is expressed in the same units as which one of the following quantities? a) temperature b) power
c) force/time d) specific heat capacity
e) work
18.8.1. Two balls, one made of copper and one made of gold, have the same mass and temperature. The same amount of heat is added to each sphere, but the final temperature of the two spheres is different. Which one of the following statements best explains the reason for these temperature differences? a) The specific heat capacity of the two spheres is different. b) The density of the two spheres is different. c) The volumes of the two spheres are different. d) The coefficient of volume expansion of the two spheres is different. e) The latent heat of vaporization of the two spheres is different.
18.8.1. Two balls, one made of copper and one made of gold, have the same mass and temperature. The same amount of heat is added to each sphere, but the final temperature of the two spheres is different. Which one of the following statements best explains the reason for these temperature differences? a) The specific heat capacity of the two spheres is different. b) The density of the two spheres is different. c) The volumes of the two spheres are different. d) The coefficient of volume expansion of the two spheres is different. e) The latent heat of vaporization of the two spheres is different.
18.8.2. During a certain thermal process a solid object’s temperature changes. Which of the following quantities is not related to the amount of the temperature change? a) mass b) the amount of heat added or removed c) volume d) the material of which the object is composed e) the specific heat capacity
18.8.2. During a certain thermal process a solid object’s temperature changes. Which of the following quantities is not related to the amount of the temperature change? a) mass b) the amount of heat added or removed c) volume d) the material of which the object is composed e) the specific heat capacity
18.8.3. Which one of the following statements is the definition of the specific heat capacity of an object?
a) The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy per unit mass to raise the temperature of the object from its freezing point to its boiling point. b) The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy per unit mass to raise the temperature of the object by 1 C. c) The specific heat capacity is the temperature of the object divided by its density. d) Given one gram of the material, the specific heat capacity is the amount of energy to change the material from solid to liquid. e) Given one gram of the material, the specific heat capacity is the amount of energy to change the material from a solid to a gas.
18.8.3. Which one of the following statements is the definition of the specific heat capacity of an object?
a) The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy per unit mass to raise the temperature of the object from its freezing point to its boiling point. b) The specific heat capacity is the amount of energy per unit mass to raise the temperature of the object by 1 C. c) The specific heat capacity is the temperature of the object divided by its density. d) Given one gram of the material, the specific heat capacity is the amount of energy to change the material from solid to liquid. e) Given one gram of the material, the specific heat capacity is the amount of energy to change the material from a solid to a gas.
18.8.4. At the steel factory, the hot steel began to show signs of fusion. Which one of the following statements is another way of expressing what the steel did? a) The hot steel began to sublime as it cooled. b) The hot steel began to vaporize as it was heated further. c) The hot steel began to condense as it was cooled. d) The hot steel began to freeze as it cooled. e) The hot steel began to melt as it was heated further.
18.8.4. At the steel factory, the hot steel began to show signs of fusion. Which one of the following statements is another way of expressing what the steel did? a) The hot steel began to sublime as it cooled. b) The hot steel began to vaporize as it was heated further. c) The hot steel began to condense as it was cooled. d) The hot steel began to freeze as it cooled. e) The hot steel began to melt as it was heated further.
18.8.5. The fresh seafood was shipped in dry ice. By the time the package arrived at its destination, half of the dry ice had sublimed. Which one of the following statements is another way of expressing what the dry ice did? a) The dry ice had gone from a solid to a liquid state.
b) The dry ice had gone from a solid to a gaseous state. c) The dry ice had condensed.
d) The dry ice had gone from a liquid into a gaseous state. e) The dry ice had chemically reacted with the seafood and was absorbed by it.
18.8.5. The fresh seafood was shipped in dry ice. By the time the package arrived at its destination, half of the dry ice had sublimed. Which one of the following statements is another way of expressing what the dry ice did? a) The dry ice had gone from a solid to a liquid state.
b) The dry ice had gone from a solid to a gaseous state. c) The dry ice had condensed.
d) The dry ice had gone from a liquid into a gaseous state. e) The dry ice had chemically reacted with the seafood and was absorbed by it.
18.8.6. What does the heat capacity of an object measure? a) the amount of energy required to change the temperature of an object b) the total amount of energy an object can store
c) the thermal potential energy of the object d) the amount of work done by the object
e) the amount of energy required to melt a solid object
18.8.6. What does the heat capacity of an object measure? a) the amount of energy required to change the temperature of an object b) the total amount of energy an object can store
c) the thermal potential energy of the object d) the amount of work done by the object
e) the amount of energy required to melt a solid object
18.10.1. Complete the following statement: The first law of thermodynamics states that a) the entropy of the universe is increasing. b) entropy is a function of the state of a system.
c) heat is a form of energy. d) the change in the internal energy of a system is given by Q − W.
e) two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third system are in equilibrium with each other.
18.10.1. Complete the following statement: The first law of thermodynamics states that a) the entropy of the universe is increasing. b) entropy is a function of the state of a system.
c) heat is a form of energy. d) the change in the internal energy of a system is given by Q − W.
e) two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third system are in equilibrium with each other.
18.10.2. When applying the first law of thermodynamics to a system, when is heat a positive quantity? a) when the system does work b) when the system has work done on it
c) when the system absorbs heat d) when the system loses heat
e) when no work is done either on the system or by the system
18.10.2. When applying the first law of thermodynamics to a system, when is heat a positive quantity? a) when the system does work b) when the system has work done on it
c) when the system absorbs heat d) when the system loses heat
e) when no work is done either on the system or by the system
18.11.1. Which one of the following phrases correctly describes an adiabatic process? a) no loss of energy occurs b) no transfer of energy as heat
c) no change in temperature occurs d) no change in system volume occurs
e) no change in system pressure occurs
18.11.1. Which one of the following phrases correctly describes an adiabatic process? a) no loss of energy occurs b) no transfer of energy as heat
c) no change in temperature occurs d) no change in system volume occurs
e) no change in system pressure occurs
18.11.2. The product of the pressure and volume of a system PV has the same SI units as which one of the following choices? a) force b) work
c) acceleration d) momentum
e) impulse
18.11.2. The product of the pressure and volume of a system PV has the same SI units as which one of the following choices? a) force b) work
c) acceleration d) momentum
e) impulse
18.11.3. In a certain isothermal process, the pressure and volume vary as shown on the graph. The shaded area under the isotherm curve is equal to which of the following choices? a) work b) force c) kinetic energy d) momentum e) temperature
18.11.3. In a certain isothermal process, the pressure and volume vary as shown on the graph. The shaded area under the isotherm curve is equal to which of the following choices? a) work b) force c) kinetic energy d) momentum e) temperature
18.12.1. Which one of the following statements concerning thermal conductors is true? a) A good thermal conductor often exhibits a very low thermal expansion coefficient. b) A good thermal conductor is often a poor electrical conductor. c) A good thermal conductor is often more likely to be a gas rather than a solid.
d) A good thermal conductor often exhibits a very low specific heat capacity. e) A good thermal conductor is often also a good electrical conductor.
18.12.1. Which one of the following statements concerning thermal conductors is true? a) A good thermal conductor often exhibits a very low thermal expansion coefficient. b) A good thermal conductor is often a poor electrical conductor. c) A good thermal conductor is often more likely to be a gas rather than a solid.
d) A good thermal conductor often exhibits a very low specific heat capacity. e) A good thermal conductor is often also a good electrical conductor.
18.12.2. Under which one of the following circumstances is heat transferred via convection?
a) A steel disc is heated to 800 C within an evacuated furnace chamber. b) Ice cubes dropped into a glass of water at room temperature begin to melt. c) An electrically heated rod is plugged into a metal plate used for cooking. The temperature of the metal plate then increases. d) As a jogger runs, heat generated in her body passes through fat cells under her skin before passing through her skin. e) The temperature of a black cast iron frying pan increases as sunlight shines on it.
18.12.2. Under which one of the following circumstances is heat transferred via convection?
a) A steel disc is heated to 800 C within an evacuated furnace chamber. b) Ice cubes dropped into a glass of water at room temperature begin to melt. c) An electrically heated rod is plugged into a metal plate used for cooking. The temperature of the metal plate then increases. d) As a jogger runs, heat generated in her body passes through fat cells under her skin before passing through her skin. e) The temperature of a black cast iron frying pan increases as sunlight shines on it.
18.12.3. Under which one of the following circumstances will heat transfer occur via convection? a) Convection occurs within metal objects. b) Convection only occurs in non-metallic solids.
c) Convection occurs only within a vacuum. d) Convection occurs in the presence of a liquid or a gas.
e) Convection can occur whether matter is present or not.
18.12.3. Under which one of the following circumstances will heat transfer occur via convection? a) Convection occurs within metal objects. b) Convection only occurs in non-metallic solids.
c) Convection occurs only within a vacuum. d) Convection occurs in the presence of a liquid or a gas.
e) Convection can occur whether matter is present or not.
18.12.4. Which one of the following is not an example of convection? a) An eagle soars on an updraft of wind. b) Spaghetti is cooked in water. c) Smoke rises above a fire. d) An electric heater warms a room. e) A person gets a suntan on a beach.
18.12.4. Which one of the following is not an example of convection? a) An eagle soars on an updraft of wind. b) Spaghetti is cooked in water. c) Smoke rises above a fire. d) An electric heater warms a room. e) A person gets a suntan on a beach.
18.12.5. The rate of heat flow through the wall of a house does not depend on which one of the following quantities? a) The dimensions of the wall. b) The thickness of the wall.
c) The specific heat capacity of the wall. d) The temperatures outside and inside the house.
e) The thermal conductivity of the wall.
18.12.5. The rate of heat flow through the wall of a house does not depend on which one of the following quantities? a) The dimensions of the wall. b) The thickness of the wall.
c) The specific heat capacity of the wall. d) The temperatures outside and inside the house.
e) The thermal conductivity of the wall.
18.12.6. Suppose you are sitting next to a fireplace in which there is a fire burning. One end of a metal poker has been left in the fire. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) Heat escapes through the chimney primarily through conduction.
b) The other end of the poker is warmed through convection. c) You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of conduction.
d) The other end of the poker is warmed through conduction. e) You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of convection.
18.12.6. Suppose you are sitting next to a fireplace in which there is a fire burning. One end of a metal poker has been left in the fire. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) Heat escapes through the chimney primarily through conduction.
b) The other end of the poker is warmed through convection. c) You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of conduction.
d) The other end of the poker is warmed through conduction. e) You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of convection.
18.12.7. One end of an aluminum rod is maintained at 0 C in an ice water bath. The other end of the rod is maintained at 100 C in a boiling water bath. The amount of heat the flows through the rod via conduction during a time interval t is not dependent on which one of the following parameters? a) the mass of the rod b) the length of the time interval c) the length of the rod d) the temperatures at the ends of the rod e) the thermal conductivity of aluminum
18.12.7. One end of an aluminum rod is maintained at 0 C in an ice water bath. The other end of the rod is maintained at 100 C in a boiling water bath. The amount of heat the flows through the rod via conduction during a time interval t is not dependent on which one of the following parameters? a) the mass of the rod b) the length of the time interval c) the length of the rod d) the temperatures at the ends of the rod e) the thermal conductivity of aluminum
18.12.8. You are looking for a material that is a very good conductor of heat. Select from the following choices the best material for this purpose. a) concrete b) lead c) copper d) air e) steel
18.12.8. You are looking for a material that is a very good conductor of heat. Select from the following choices the best material for this purpose. a) concrete b) lead c) copper d) air e) steel
18.12.9. Which one of the following objects will be most efficient in losing heat? Assume that all of the objects are at the same temperature initially. a) a graphite cube with a black, rough surface surrounded by air b) a polished silver cube in an evacuated chamber c) a polished silver cube surrounded by air d) a graphite cube with a black, rough surface in an evacuated chamber e) a polished graphite cube surrounded by air
18.12.9. Which one of the following objects will be most efficient in losing heat? Assume that all of the objects are at the same temperature initially. a) a graphite cube with a black, rough surface surrounded by air b) a polished silver cube in an evacuated chamber c) a polished silver cube surrounded by air d) a graphite cube with a black, rough surface in an evacuated chamber e) a polished graphite cube surrounded by air
18.12.10. Which of the following describes the energy radiated from an object at Kelvin temperature T? a) Planck distribution b) Stefan-Boltzmann law
c) Maxwell blackbody law d) Bose-Einstein equation
e) Klein-Gordon equation
18.12.10. Which of the following describes the energy radiated from an object at Kelvin temperature T? a) Planck distribution b) Stefan-Boltzmann law
c) Maxwell blackbody law d) Bose-Einstein equation
e) Klein-Gordon equation
18.12.11. Which one of the following statements concerning emissivity is false? a) Emissivity depends on the condition of the surface. b) Emissivity is a dimensionless quantity.
c) Emissivity depends on the surface area of the object. d) The emissivity is 1.0 for a perfect absorber.
e) The emissivity is 1.0 for a perfect radiator.
18.12.11. Which one of the following statements concerning emissivity is false? a) Emissivity depends on the condition of the surface. b) Emissivity is a dimensionless quantity.
c) Emissivity depends on the surface area of the object. d) The emissivity is 1.0 for a perfect absorber.
e) The emissivity is 1.0 for a perfect radiator.
18.12.12. Which one of the following statements concerning the Stefan-Boltzmann equation is true? a) The equation can be used to calculate the power absorbed by any surface. b) The equation applies only to perfect absorbers. c) The equation applies only to perfect radiators. d) The equation is valid with any temperature units. e) The equation describes the transport of thermal energy by conduction.
18.12.12. Which one of the following statements concerning the Stefan-Boltzmann equation is true? a) The equation can be used to calculate the power absorbed by any surface. b) The equation applies only to perfect absorbers. c) The equation applies only to perfect radiators. d) The equation is valid with any temperature units. e) The equation describes the transport of thermal energy by conduction.
18.12.13. The three objects shown have machined out of a block of brass. The cube and pyramid have sides of length L. The sphere has a radius equal to L. The three objects are all maintained at the same temperature T that is much hotter than that of the surroundings and they are sitting on a thermally insulating slab. Which object(s) exhibit(s) the greatest rate of radiative heat transfer? a) cube only
b) pyramid only c) sphere only d) cube and sphere e) cube and pyramid
18.12.13. The three objects shown have machined out of a block of brass. The cube and pyramid have sides of length L. The sphere has a radius equal to L. The three objects are all maintained at the same temperature T that is much hotter than that of the surroundings and they are sitting on a thermally insulating slab. Which object(s) exhibit(s) the greatest rate of radiative heat transfer? a) cube only
b) pyramid only c) sphere only d) cube and sphere e) cube and pyramid
18.12.14. The space between the inner walls of a thermos bottle (sometimes called a Dewar flask) is evacuated to remove the air that would otherwise be there. Why is this evacuation done? a) This is done to minimize heat transfer by radiation. b) This is done to protect the wall of the bottle that is silvered. c) This is done to minimize heat transfer by conduction and radiation. d) This is done to increase the specific heat capacity of the bottle. e) This is done to minimize heat transfer by conduction and convection.
18.12.14. The space between the inner walls of a thermos bottle (sometimes called a Dewar flask) is evacuated to remove the air that would otherwise be there. Why is this evacuation done? a) This is done to minimize heat transfer by radiation. b) This is done to protect the wall of the bottle that is silvered. c) This is done to minimize heat transfer by conduction and radiation. d) This is done to increase the specific heat capacity of the bottle. e) This is done to minimize heat transfer by conduction and convection.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 19 The Kinetic Theory of Gases Reading Quiz Questions
19.1.1. Consider the following variables: (1) mass, (2) temperature, (3) time, (4) length, (5) pressure, (6) volume, and (7) density. Which three variables does the book state are “all a consequence of the motion of the atoms” within a gas? a) 2, 4, and 7
b) 1, 5, and 6 c) 1, 3, and 4
d) 5, 6, and 7 e) 2, 5, and 6
19.1.1. Consider the following variables: (1) mass, (2) temperature, (3) time, (4) length, (5) pressure, (6) volume, and (7) density. Which three variables does the book state are “all a consequence of the motion of the atoms” within a gas? a) 2, 4, and 7
b) 1, 5, and 6 c) 1, 3, and 4
d) 5, 6, and 7 e) 2, 5, and 6
19.2.1. Which one of the following numbers is Avogadro’s number? a) 1.602 1019 mol−1 b) 6.022 1023 mol−1 c) 4.186 1021 mol−1
d) 9.111 1031 mol−1 e) 1.6605 1027 mol−1
19.2.1. Which one of the following numbers is Avogadro’s number? a) 1.602 1019 mol−1 b) 6.022 1023 mol−1 c) 4.186 1021 mol−1
d) 9.111 1031 mol−1 e) 1.6605 1027 mol−1
19.2.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the mole is false? a) The mole is related to Avogadro's number. b) The mole is defined in terms of the carbon-12 isotope.
c) The mole is the SI base unit for expressing the “amount” of a substance. d) One mole of a substance has the same mass as one mole of any other substance. e) One mole of a substance contains the same number of particles as one mole of any other substance.
19.2.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the mole is false? a) The mole is related to Avogadro's number. b) The mole is defined in terms of the carbon-12 isotope.
c) The mole is the SI base unit for expressing the “amount” of a substance. d) One mole of a substance has the same mass as one mole of any other substance. e) One mole of a substance contains the same number of particles as one mole of any other substance.
19.2.3. Which of the following gives the correct order of magnitude of the number of particles in a mole? a) 1018 b) 1020
c) 1021 d) 1023
e) 1026
19.2.3. Which of the following gives the correct order of magnitude of the number of particles in a mole? a) 1018 b) 1020
c) 1021 d) 1023
e) 1026
19.3.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the volume of gases is true? a) Gas volume depends on temperature and pressure. b) Gases have comparatively low densities.
c) Gas volume depends on the type of gas. d) Gas volume is negligible.
e) Gas volume is difficult to measure.
19.3.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the volume of gases is true? a) Gas volume depends on temperature and pressure. b) Gases have comparatively low densities.
c) Gas volume depends on the type of gas. d) Gas volume is negligible.
e) Gas volume is difficult to measure.
19.3.2. The volume of a carbon dioxide bubble rising in a glass of beer is observed to nearly double as the bubble rises from the bottom to the top of the glass. Why does the volume nearly double? a) The fluid pressure of the beer is greater at the bottom of the glass than at the top.
b) The shape of the glass determines the net force exerted on the bubble. c) The pressure inside the bubble decreases as it rises. d) The temperature at the bottom is cooler than it is at the top. e) The amount of carbon dioxide in the bubble increases.
19.3.2. The volume of a carbon dioxide bubble rising in a glass of beer is observed to nearly double as the bubble rises from the bottom to the top of the glass. Why does the volume nearly double? a) The fluid pressure of the beer is greater at the bottom of the glass than at the top.
b) The shape of the glass determines the net force exerted on the bubble. c) The pressure inside the bubble decreases as it rises. d) The temperature at the bottom is cooler than it is at the top. e) The amount of carbon dioxide in the bubble increases.
19.3.3. There are n moles of an ideal gas contained in a sealed chamber at pressure P. The volume of the container is then reduced to one half of its initial value. In this particular process, the temperature of the gas and n do not change. Which one of the following statements concerning the final pressure in the container is true? a) The final pressure will be 2P. b) The final pressure will be 0.5P. c) The final pressure will be 4P.
d) The final pressure will be 0.25P. e) The pressure cannot be determined without knowing the values of n, P, T, and the initial volume.
19.3.3. There are n moles of an ideal gas contained in a sealed chamber at pressure P. The volume of the container is then reduced to one half of its initial value. In this particular process, the temperature of the gas and n do not change. Which one of the following statements concerning the final pressure in the container is true? a) The final pressure will be 2P. b) The final pressure will be 0.5P. c) The final pressure will be 4P.
d) The final pressure will be 0.25P. e) The pressure cannot be determined without knowing the values of n, P, T, and the initial volume.
19.3.4. There are five sealed containers, each containing the same number of moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes for the five containers are: (1) 2 105 Pa and 0.25 m3, (2) 4 105 Pa and 1.0 m3, (3) 1 105 Pa and 2.0 m3, (4) 6 105 Pa and 0.25 m3, and (5) 4 105 Pa and 0.50 m3, respectively. Which container is at the highest temperature?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
19.3.4. There are five sealed containers, each containing the same number of moles of an ideal gas. The pressures and volumes for the five containers are: (1) 2 105 Pa and 0.25 m3, (2) 4 105 Pa and 1.0 m3, (3) 1 105 Pa and 2.0 m3, (4) 6 105 Pa and 0.25 m3, and (5) 4 105 Pa and 0.50 m3, respectively. Which container is at the highest temperature?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
19.3.5. A girl uses a pump to put air into her bicycle tire at constant temperature. A pressure gauge on the pump indicates the pressure inside the tire is increasing each time she pumps. What is the cause of this pressure increase? a) The air molecules repel each other more as more molecules are added and push outward. b) The volume of the tire is constant. c) The pressure increases to keep the temperature constant.
d) The pressure increasing because more air molecules are striking the walls of the tire. e) The pressure increases because the air molecules are traveling faster.
19.3.5. A girl uses a pump to put air into her bicycle tire at constant temperature. A pressure gauge on the pump indicates the pressure inside the tire is increasing each time she pumps. What is the cause of this pressure increase? a) The air molecules repel each other more as more molecules are added and push outward. b) The volume of the tire is constant. c) The pressure increases to keep the temperature constant.
d) The pressure increasing because more air molecules are striking the walls of the tire. e) The pressure increases because the air molecules are traveling faster.
19.3.6. A closed system contains one mole of an ideal gas. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true if heat is added to the system? a) The gas must do work. b) The gas must expand, so the volume will increase, if it can. c) The gas must change phase, either from gas to liquid or from gas to solid.
d) The temperature of the gas must increase. e) The conditions of the gas when the heat is added will determine the type of change that occurs.
19.3.6. A closed system contains one mole of an ideal gas. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true if heat is added to the system? a) The gas must do work. b) The gas must expand, so the volume will increase, if it can. c) The gas must change phase, either from gas to liquid or from gas to solid.
d) The temperature of the gas must increase. e) The conditions of the gas when the heat is added will determine the type of change that occurs.
19.3.7. Complete the following statement: In a constant volume process, the work done is a) equal to zero joules. b) proportional to the pressure.
c) proportional to the temperature. d) proportional to the volume.
e) proportional to the energy transferred.
19.3.7. Complete the following statement: In a constant volume process, the work done is a) equal to zero joules. b) proportional to the pressure.
c) proportional to the temperature. d) proportional to the volume.
e) proportional to the energy transferred.
19.3.8. Complete the following statement: The area enclosed on a PV diagram for a given system is a) a constant value. b) equal to the heat flow into or out of the system.
c) equal to the temperature change of the system. d) always equal to zero joules.
e) equal to the amount of work done on or by the system.
19.3.8. Complete the following statement: The area enclosed on a PV diagram for a given system is a) a constant value. b) equal to the heat flow into or out of the system.
c) equal to the temperature change of the system. d) always equal to zero joules.
e) equal to the amount of work done on or by the system.
19.3.9. Consider the following conditions: (1) low temperature, (2) low density, (3) temperature near the freezing temperature, (4) temperature above the condensation temperature, and (5) high density. Under which of these conditions does a real gas behave as an ideal gas? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 5 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only e) A real gas can never behave as an ideal gas.
19.3.9. Consider the following conditions: (1) low temperature, (2) low density, (3) temperature near the freezing temperature, (4) temperature above the condensation temperature, and (5) high density. Under which of these conditions does a real gas behave as an ideal gas? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 5 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only e) A real gas can never behave as an ideal gas.
19.3.10. Why does the temperature of an ideal gas increase when the volume of the gas decreases?
a) Compressing the volume does work on the gas, so its temperature must increase. b) Compressing the volume forces heat into the gas, so its temperature must increase. c) The temperature cannot change under this circumstance. d) The pressure must increase to compensate for the decreased volume. e) Since the number of moles contained within the system is constant, there will be a greater number of collisions as the volume decreases.
19.3.10. Why does the temperature of an ideal gas increase when the volume of the gas decreases?
a) Compressing the volume does work on the gas, so its temperature must increase. b) Compressing the volume forces heat into the gas, so its temperature must increase. c) The temperature cannot change under this circumstance. d) The pressure must increase to compensate for the decreased volume. e) Since the number of moles contained within the system is constant, there will be a greater number of collisions as the volume decreases.
19.4.1. Which one of the following factors is directly responsible for the pressure exerted by a confined gas? a) collisions of gas molecules with the sides of the containing vessel b) atomic mass of the gas
c) density of the gas d) temperature of the gas
e) average translational kinetic energy of the molecules
19.4.1. Which one of the following factors is directly responsible for the pressure exerted by a confined gas? a) collisions of gas molecules with the sides of the containing vessel b) atomic mass of the gas
c) density of the gas d) temperature of the gas
e) average translational kinetic energy of the molecules
19.4.2. What is the meaning of the acronym rms? a) the gas constant R, the mass m, and the speed s b) root-mean-square c) rigid-massless-system d) the names of the discovers of the law: Richards, Maxwell, and Simpson
e) It is derived from the Latin terms for constant pressure and volume.
19.4.2. What is the meaning of the acronym rms? a) the gas constant R, the mass m, and the speed s b) root-mean-square c) rigid-massless-system d) the names of the discovers of the law: Richards, Maxwell, and Simpson
e) It is derived from the Latin terms for constant pressure and volume.
19.5.1. The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to which one of the following quantities? a) the number of molecules in the sample b) the average translational kinetic energy of the gas
c) the relative increase in volume of the gas for a temperature increase of 1 C° d) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the gas by 1 C° e) the average momentum of a molecule of the gas
19.5.1. The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to which one of the following quantities? a) the number of molecules in the sample b) the average translational kinetic energy of the gas
c) the relative increase in volume of the gas for a temperature increase of 1 C° d) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the gas by 1 C° e) the average momentum of a molecule of the gas
19.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning a collection of gas molecules at a certain temperature is true? a) All molecules possess the same momentum. b) All molecules move with the same velocity.
c) If the temperature is increased, the average molecular speed decreases. d) The molecules have a range of kinetic energies. e) Most of the molecules have the same kinetic energy.
19.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning a collection of gas molecules at a certain temperature is true? a) All molecules possess the same momentum. b) All molecules move with the same velocity.
c) If the temperature is increased, the average molecular speed decreases. d) The molecules have a range of kinetic energies. e) Most of the molecules have the same kinetic energy.
19.6.1. Which of the following statements provides the best definition for the term mean free path? a) The mean free path is the average distance between collisions. b) The mean free path is the average distance a molecule travels within a given time interval. c) The mean free path is the path a molecule follows within a gas. d) The mean free path is the trajectory a molecule follows after a collision. e) The mean free path is the average molecular speed within an ideal gas.
19.6.1. Which of the following statements provides the best definition for the term mean free path? a) The mean free path is the average distance between collisions. b) The mean free path is the average distance a molecule travels within a given time interval. c) The mean free path is the path a molecule follows within a gas. d) The mean free path is the trajectory a molecule follows after a collision. e) The mean free path is the average molecular speed within an ideal gas.
19.7.1. A container is filled with a large number of gas molecules at a constant temperature. The distribution (or range) of the speeds of those molecules was determined by which one of the following scientists? a) Charles
b) Boyle c) Avogadro
d) Maxwell e) Einstein
19.7.1. A container is filled with a large number of gas molecules at a constant temperature. The distribution (or range) of the speeds of those molecules was determined by which one of the following scientists? a) Charles
b) Boyle c) Avogadro
d) Maxwell e) Einstein
19.8.1. Complete the following statement: The internal energy of an ideal monatomic gas is a) dependent on both the pressure and the temperature of the gas. b) independent of the number of moles of the gas.
c) proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas. d) a constant that is independent of pressure, volume or temperature.
e) proportional to the pressure and inversely proportional to the volume of the gas.
19.8.1. Complete the following statement: The internal energy of an ideal monatomic gas is a) dependent on both the pressure and the temperature of the gas. b) independent of the number of moles of the gas.
c) proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas. d) a constant that is independent of pressure, volume or temperature.
e) proportional to the pressure and inversely proportional to the volume of the gas.
19.8.2. An ideal gas slowly expands isothermally. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The internal energy of the gas is equal to the amount of heat absorbed by the system. b) The work done by the gas is equal to the amount of heat absorbed by the system. c) The work done on the gas is equal to the amount of heat absorbed by the system. d) The internal energy of the gas increases by the amount of heat absorbed by the system. e) The work done on the gas is equal to the increase in the internal energy of the system.
19.8.2. An ideal gas slowly expands isothermally. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The internal energy of the gas is equal to the amount of heat absorbed by the system. b) The work done by the gas is equal to the amount of heat absorbed by the system. c) The work done on the gas is equal to the amount of heat absorbed by the system. d) The internal energy of the gas increases by the amount of heat absorbed by the system. e) The work done on the gas is equal to the increase in the internal energy of the system.
19.8.3. The specific heat capacity at constant volume of an ideal gas depends on which of the following parameters? a) volume b) temperature
c) pressure d) number of moles of gas
e) mass of the molecules
19.8.3. The specific heat capacity at constant volume of an ideal gas depends on which of the following parameters? a) volume b) temperature
c) pressure d) number of moles of gas
e) mass of the molecules
19.8.4. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the ratio of the molar heat capacities CP/CV for an ideal gas? a) The ratio is sometimes less than or equal to 1. b) The ratio is sometimes greater than 1.
c) The ratio is always equal to 1. d) The ratio is always less that 1.
e) The ratio is always greater than 1.
19.8.4. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the ratio of the molar heat capacities CP/CV for an ideal gas? a) The ratio is sometimes less than or equal to 1. b) The ratio is sometimes greater than 1.
c) The ratio is always equal to 1. d) The ratio is always less that 1.
e) The ratio is always greater than 1.
19.8.5. Which of the following choices gives the molar specific heat at constant volume CV for an ideal monatomic gas in terms of the universal gas constant R? a) 5R/3 b) 5R/2 c) 3R/5 d) 3R/2 e) 7R/3
19.8.5. Which of the following choices gives the molar specific heat at constant volume CV for an ideal monatomic gas in terms of the universal gas constant R? a) 5R/3 b) 5R/2 c) 3R/5 d) 3R/2 e) 7R/3
19.8.6. Which of the following choices gives the molar specific heat at constant pressure CP for an ideal monatomic gas in terms of the universal gas constant R? a) 5R/3 b) 5R/2 c) 3R/5 d) 3R/2 e) 7R/3
19.8.6. Which of the following choices gives the molar specific heat at constant pressure CP for an ideal monatomic gas in terms of the universal gas constant R? a) 5R/3 b) 5R/2 c) 3R/5 d) 3R/2 e) 7R/3
19.8.7. On which of the following parameters does the heat contained within an ideal gas depend? a) temperature b) mean free path
c) pressure d) volume
e) Gases do not have heat.
19.8.7. On which of the following parameters does the heat contained within an ideal gas depend? a) temperature b) mean free path
c) pressure d) volume
e) Gases do not have heat.
19.8.8. On which of the following parameters does the internal energy within an ideal gas depend? a) temperature b) mean free path
c) pressure d) volume
e) Gases do not have heat.
19.8.8. On which of the following parameters does the internal energy within an ideal gas depend? a) temperature b) mean free path
c) pressure d) volume
e) Gases do not have heat.
19.9.1. Complete the following statement: On average, a molecule can store an energy of per molecule for each a) atom in the molecule. b) degree of freedom.
c) collision that occurs per unit time. d) mole contained within the system.
e) free electron in the system.
19.9.1. Complete the following statement: On average, a molecule can store an energy of per molecule for each a) atom in the molecule. b) degree of freedom.
c) collision that occurs per unit time. d) mole contained within the system.
e) free electron in the system.
19.11.1. An ideal gas slowly expands adiabatically. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) Work is done on the gas. b) The temperature of the system remains constant.
c) The pressure of the system remains constant. d) Heat is neither added nor removed from the system.
e) The density of the gas remains constant.
19.11.1. An ideal gas slowly expands adiabatically. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) Work is done on the gas. b) The temperature of the system remains constant.
c) The pressure of the system remains constant. d) Heat is neither added nor removed from the system.
e) The density of the gas remains constant.
19.11.2. Which of the following processes requires the largest amount of work to be done on a system containing an ideal gas if the volume of the system is reduced to one-half of its initial value? a) constant pressure b) isothermal c) adiabatic d) isothermal and constant pressure require the same amount of work e) isothermal and adiabatic require the same amount of work
19.11.2. Which of the following processes requires the largest amount of work to be done on a system containing an ideal gas if the volume of the system is reduced to one-half of its initial value? a) constant pressure b) isothermal c) adiabatic d) isothermal and constant pressure require the same amount of work e) isothermal and adiabatic require the same amount of work
19.11.3. Complete the following statement: During an adiabatic process involving an ideal gas, a) no work is done by the gas. b) no heat flow occurs.
c) no volume change occurs. d) no pressure change occurs.
e) no temperature change occurs.
19.11.3. Complete the following statement: During an adiabatic process involving an ideal gas, a) no work is done by the gas. b) no heat flow occurs.
c) no volume change occurs. d) no pressure change occurs.
e) no temperature change occurs.
19.11.4. An isochoric process occurs when which of the following parameters is constant during the process? a) volume b) pressure
c) temperature d) work
e) heat
19.11.4. An isochoric process occurs when which of the following parameters is constant during the process? a) volume b) pressure
c) temperature d) work
e) heat
19.11.5. An isobaric process occurs when which of the following parameters is constant during the process? a) volume b) pressure
c) temperature d) work
e) heat
19.11.5. An isobaric process occurs when which of the following parameters is constant during the process? a) volume b) pressure
c) temperature d) work
e) heat
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 20 Entropy and the Second Law of Thermodynamics Reading Quiz Questions
20.1.1. Which of the following situations is considered to be a reversible process? a) A raw egg is thrown from a second story window to the ground below. b) The pizza is put into the 425 F oven and baked for 15 minutes. c) After the party, Joe damages his car by striking a traffic light. d) The tornado levels an entire neighborhood. e) None of these are reversible processes.
20.1.1. Which of the following situations is considered to be a reversible process? a) A raw egg is thrown from a second story window to the ground below. b) The pizza is put into the 425 F oven and baked for 15 minutes. c) After the party, Joe damages his car by striking a traffic light. d) The tornado levels an entire neighborhood. e) None of these are reversible processes.
20.2.1. Which one of the following statements best describes a reversible process? a) All heat input into the system is converted into work during the process. b) The overall entropy of the system does not increase during the process. c) The initial and final temperatures for the process are the same.
d) The entropy of the system decreases during the process. e) Statements (b) and (c) both describe a reversible process.
20.2.1. Which one of the following statements best describes a reversible process? a) All heat input into the system is converted into work during the process. b) The overall entropy of the system does not increase during the process. c) The initial and final temperatures for the process are the same.
d) The entropy of the system decreases during the process. e) Statements (b) and (c) both describe a reversible process.
20.2.2. In which of the following systems does an increase in the entropy occur during an irreversible process in the system? a) a closed system b) an ideal gas system
c) an open system d) a allotropic system
e) a cladistic system
20.2.2. In which of the following systems does an increase in the entropy occur during an irreversible process in the system? a) a closed system b) an ideal gas system
c) an open system d) a allotropic system
e) a cladistic system
20.2.3. According to the text, how does entropy differ from energy? a) Entropy does not obey a conservation law. b) Entropy may be spelled differently, but otherwise it is a form of energy.
c) Entropy always remains constant. d) Entropy relates to the transfer of energy.
e) Energy can only decrease, but entropy can only increase.
20.2.3. According to the text, how does entropy differ from energy? a) Entropy does not obey a conservation law. b) Entropy may be spelled differently, but otherwise it is a form of energy.
c) Entropy always remains constant. d) Entropy relates to the transfer of energy.
e) Energy can only decrease, but entropy can only increase.
20.3.1. In which one of the following processes will there be no net change in the entropy of the system described? a) gasoline is combusted in the engine of a truck b) a block of paraffin is melted in a pan on top of a stove
c) a crystal is grown as a rod is pulled from a container of molten silicon d) in a closed vessel, benzene is first evaporated and then allowed to condense e) the cells of a fertilized egg double in number as it grows
20.3.1. In which one of the following processes will there be no net change in the entropy of the system described? a) gasoline is combusted in the engine of a truck b) a block of paraffin is melted in a pan on top of a stove
c) a crystal is grown as a rod is pulled from a container of molten silicon d) in a closed vessel, benzene is first evaporated and then allowed to condense e) the cells of a fertilized egg double in number as it grows
20.3.2. Which of the following choices exhibits the lowest degree of entropy? a) a diamond crystal b) liquid oxygen
c) ammonia vapor d) water in a pond
e) a block of paraffin
20.3.2. Which of the following choices exhibits the lowest degree of entropy? a) a diamond crystal b) liquid oxygen
c) ammonia vapor d) water in a pond
e) a block of paraffin
20.3.3. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term state property? a) A state property gives a complete description of the system. b) A state property describes any system property that is conserved.
c) A state property indicates which microstate the system is in. d) A state property is a property that does not depend on the history of the system. e) A state property describes the amount of heat added to or removed from a system.
20.3.3. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term state property? a) A state property gives a complete description of the system. b) A state property describes any system property that is conserved.
c) A state property indicates which microstate the system is in. d) A state property is a property that does not depend on the history of the system. e) A state property describes the amount of heat added to or removed from a system.
20.4.1. Which one of the following statements is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics? a) The temperature of an ice cube can sometimes be lowered as it spontaneously gives heat to the surroundings. b) Heat flows spontaneously from a hot object to a cooler object. c) The internal energy of a system is determined by the flow of heat into or out of the system and the amount of work done.
d) The specific heat capacity at constant volume of a monatomic gas is different than that of a diatomic gas. e) A refrigerator can cool the room it is in if the door is left open.
20.4.1. Which one of the following statements is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics? a) The temperature of an ice cube can sometimes be lowered as it spontaneously gives heat to the surroundings. b) Heat flows spontaneously from a hot object to a cooler object. c) The internal energy of a system is determined by the flow of heat into or out of the system and the amount of work done.
d) The specific heat capacity at constant volume of a monatomic gas is different than that of a diatomic gas. e) A refrigerator can cool the room it is in if the door is left open.
20.4.2. A block that slides on a rough surface slows down and eventually stops. The reverse process never occurs. That is, a block at rest never begins to move and accelerate on a rough surface without the action of an external agent. The second situation is forbidden because it would violate which of the following choices. a) second law of thermodynamics b) first law of thermodynamics c) both the first and second laws of thermodynamics d) conservation of momentum e) conservation of total energy
20.4.2. A block that slides on a rough surface slows down and eventually stops. The reverse process never occurs. That is, a block at rest never begins to move and accelerate on a rough surface without the action of an external agent. The second situation is forbidden because it would violate which of the following choices. a) second law of thermodynamics b) first law of thermodynamics c) both the first and second laws of thermodynamics d) conservation of momentum e) conservation of total energy
20.4.3. What, if anything, occurs within a closed system with regard to its entropy, according to the second law of thermodynamics? a) The entropy of the closed system can only increase. b) The entropy of the closed system can only decrease.
c) The entropy of the closed system can only remain constant. d) The entropy of the closed system can either remain constant or increase. e) The entropy of the closed system can either remain constant or decrease.
20.4.3. What, if anything, occurs within a closed system with regard to its entropy, according to the second law of thermodynamics? a) The entropy of the closed system can only increase. b) The entropy of the closed system can only decrease.
c) The entropy of the closed system can only remain constant. d) The entropy of the closed system can either remain constant or increase. e) The entropy of the closed system can either remain constant or decrease.
20.5.1. Which one of the following statements best describes the operation of a heat engine?
a) A heat engine transfers heat from a higher temperature reservoir to a lower temperature reservoir through work performed on the system. b) A heat engine transfers heat from a lower temperature reservoir to a higher temperature reservoir through work performed on the system. c) A heat engine performs work and generates an equal amount of heat in a cyclic process. d) A heat engine decreases the entropy of the universe by generating an equal amount of heat and work. e) A heat engine uses input heat to perform work and rejects excess heat to a lower temperature reservoir.
20.5.1. Which one of the following statements best describes the operation of a heat engine?
a) A heat engine transfers heat from a higher temperature reservoir to a lower temperature reservoir through work performed on the system. b) A heat engine transfers heat from a lower temperature reservoir to a higher temperature reservoir through work performed on the system. c) A heat engine performs work and generates an equal amount of heat in a cyclic process. d) A heat engine decreases the entropy of the universe by generating an equal amount of heat and work. e) A heat engine uses input heat to perform work and rejects excess heat to a lower temperature reservoir.
20.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning heat engines is false? a) A heat engine receives heat from a hot reservoir. b) A heat engine is a device that uses heat to do work.
c) Heat engines generally operate near one hundred percent efficiency. d) Part of the heat input to the engine is used to do work by the working substance within the engine. e) Part of the input heat is rejected to a cold reservoir.
20.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning heat engines is false? a) A heat engine receives heat from a hot reservoir. b) A heat engine is a device that uses heat to do work.
c) Heat engines generally operate near one hundred percent efficiency. d) Part of the heat input to the engine is used to do work by the working substance within the engine. e) Part of the input heat is rejected to a cold reservoir.
20.5.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the efficiency of a Carnot heat engine is true?
a) The efficiency of an irreversible engine is typically greater than that of a reversible engine operating under the same circumstances. b) The efficiency is dependent on whether an ideal or a non-ideal gas is used.
c) One hundred percent efficiency would be possible if the engine can be operated in reverse.. d) The efficiency is not dependent on the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs. e) One hundred percent efficiency would be possible if heat could be rejected into a cold reservoir at zero kelvin.
20.5.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the efficiency of a Carnot heat engine is true?
a) The efficiency of an irreversible engine is typically greater than that of a reversible engine operating under the same circumstances. b) The efficiency is dependent on whether an ideal or a non-ideal gas is used.
c) One hundred percent efficiency would be possible if the engine can be operated in reverse.. d) The efficiency is not dependent on the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs. e) One hundred percent efficiency would be possible if heat could be rejected into a cold reservoir at zero kelvin.
20.5.4. Heat engines are often used to do work for humans. The rejected heat that goes to the cold reservoir is a source of what that may be environmentally harmful? a) air pollution b) thermal pollution c) water pollution d) ozone depletion e) friction
20.5.4. Heat engines are often used to do work for humans. The rejected heat that goes to the cold reservoir is a source of what that may be environmentally harmful? a) air pollution b) thermal pollution c) water pollution d) ozone depletion e) friction
20.5.5. Consider the following types of processes: (1) adiabatic, (2) isobaric, (3) isothermal, and (4) isochoric. Which of these processes occurs during a Carnot cycle? a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 only e) 1, 3, and 4 only
20.5.5. Consider the following types of processes: (1) adiabatic, (2) isobaric, (3) isothermal, and (4) isochoric. Which of these processes occurs during a Carnot cycle? a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 only e) 1, 3, and 4 only
20.5.6. The amount of work that can be done when heat transfers between two objects depends on the amount of heat and which of the following properties? a) pressure within the system b) mass of the two objects c) heat capacities of the two objects d) volume of the two objects e) temperatures of the objects
20.5.6. The amount of work that can be done when heat transfers between two objects depends on the amount of heat and which of the following properties? a) pressure within the system b) mass of the two objects c) heat capacities of the two objects d) volume of the two objects e) temperatures of the objects
20.5.7. Which one of the following statements concerning an ideal engine is true? a) The entropy of the system decreases with time. b) No heat transfer occurs between the system and its surroundings.
c) All system processes are reversible. d) The temperature of the system is usually constant.
e) The system cannot be used to perform work.
20.5.7. Which one of the following statements concerning an ideal engine is true? a) The entropy of the system decreases with time. b) No heat transfer occurs between the system and its surroundings.
c) All system processes are reversible. d) The temperature of the system is usually constant.
e) The system cannot be used to perform work.
20.6.1. Which one of the following statements best describes a refrigeration process?
a) Work is done on a system that extracts heat from a cold reservoir and rejects it into a hot reservoir. b) Work is done on a system that extracts heat from a hot reservoir and rejects it into a cold reservoir. c) Work is done by a system that extracts heat from a cold reservoir and rejects it into a hot reservoir. d) Work is done by a system that extracts heat from a hot reservoir and rejects it into a cold reservoir. e) Heat is extracted from a cold reservoir and rejected to a hot reservoir and the system does work on the surroundings.
20.6.1. Which one of the following statements best describes a refrigeration process?
a) Work is done on a system that extracts heat from a cold reservoir and rejects it into a hot reservoir. b) Work is done on a system that extracts heat from a hot reservoir and rejects it into a cold reservoir. c) Work is done by a system that extracts heat from a cold reservoir and rejects it into a hot reservoir. d) Work is done by a system that extracts heat from a hot reservoir and rejects it into a cold reservoir. e) Heat is extracted from a cold reservoir and rejected to a hot reservoir and the system does work on the surroundings.
20.6.2. The quality of a refrigeration process is expressed by which of the following parameters? a) coefficient of thermal expansion b) efficiency
c) Carnot parameter d) thermal factor
e) coefficient of performance
20.6.2. The quality of a refrigeration process is expressed by which of the following parameters? a) coefficient of thermal expansion b) efficiency
c) Carnot parameter d) thermal factor
e) coefficient of performance
20.6.3. Which one of the following statements concerning an ideal refrigerator is true? a) The coefficient of performance is equal to one. b) No heat transfer occurs between the system and its surroundings.
c) All system processes are reversible. d) The entropy of the system is usually constant.
e) The system cannot be used to perform work.
20.6.3. Which one of the following statements concerning an ideal refrigerator is true? a) The coefficient of performance is equal to one. b) No heat transfer occurs between the system and its surroundings.
c) All system processes are reversible. d) The entropy of the system is usually constant.
e) The system cannot be used to perform work.
20.7.1. Which one of the following statements concerning real engines is true? a) Real engines are superior to Carnot engines. b) Real engines are allowed to violate the second law of thermodynamics. c) Real engines have processes that are reversible and occur without energy losses. d) The efficiency of a real engine is always less than or equal to that of a Carnot engine. e) All real engines are based on the Stirling engine rather than the Carnot engine.
20.7.1. Which one of the following statements concerning real engines is true? a) Real engines are superior to Carnot engines. b) Real engines are allowed to violate the second law of thermodynamics. c) Real engines have processes that are reversible and occur without energy losses. d) The efficiency of a real engine is always less than or equal to that of a Carnot engine. e) All real engines are based on the Stirling engine rather than the Carnot engine.
20.8.1. Which one of the following is a basic assumption of statistical mechanics? a) All microstates are improbable. b) All microstates are equally probable.
c) The entropy of a system cannot decrease. d) Energy is conserved in all thermodynamic processes.
e) Momentum is conserved in all thermodynamic processes.
20.8.1. Which one of the following is a basic assumption of statistical mechanics? a) All microstates are improbable. b) All microstates are equally probable.
c) The entropy of a system cannot decrease. d) Energy is conserved in all thermodynamic processes.
e) Momentum is conserved in all thermodynamic processes.
20.8.2. There are one hundred indistinguishable particles in a box. The particles may occupy one of two microstates, labeled A and B. How does the probability of there being 50 particles in each microstate compare with the probability of finding 100 particles in one of the two states? a) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is equal to the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate. b) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is slightly less than the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate. c) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is slightly greater than the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate.
d) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is much less than the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate. e) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is much greater the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate.
20.8.2. There are one hundred indistinguishable particles in a box. The particles may occupy one of two microstates, labeled A and B. How does the probability of there being 50 particles in each microstate compare with the probability of finding 100 particles in one of the two states? a) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is equal to the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate. b) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is slightly less than the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate. c) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is slightly greater than the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate.
d) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is much less than the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate. e) The probability of finding 100 particles in one microstate is much greater the probability of finding 50 particles in each microstate.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 21 Electric Charge Reading Quiz Questions
21.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric force is true? a) Two charged objects with identical charges will exert an attractive force on one another. b) It is possible for a small negatively-charged particle to float above a negatively charged surface. c) A positively-charged object is attracted toward another positivelycharged object. d) The electric force cannot alter the motion of an object. e) Newton’s third law of motion does not apply to the electrostatic force.
21.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric force is true? a) Two charged objects with identical charges will exert an attractive force on one another. b) It is possible for a small negatively-charged particle to float above a negatively charged surface. c) A positively-charged object is attracted toward another positivelycharged object. d) The electric force cannot alter the motion of an object. e) Newton’s third law of motion does not apply to the electrostatic force.
21.2.2. Which one of the following scientists is credited with assigning the “−” and “+” signs used to describe the two kinds of charge? a) Lord Kelvin b) Isaac Newton
c) James Watt d) Leonardo Da Vinci
e) Benjamin Franklin
21.2.2. Which one of the following scientists is credited with assigning the “−” and “+” signs used to describe the two kinds of charge? a) Lord Kelvin b) Isaac Newton
c) James Watt d) Leonardo Da Vinci
e) Benjamin Franklin
21.3.1. Complete the following sentence: When wool is rubbed along a copper rod, a) the copper becomes positively charged and the wool becomes negatively charged. b) the copper and the wool become positively charged. c) the copper becomes negatively charged and the wool becomes positively charged.
d) the copper and the wool become negatively charged. e) the copper becomes negatively charged and the wool remains electrically neutral.
21.3.1. Complete the following sentence: When wool is rubbed along a copper rod, a) the copper becomes positively charged and the wool becomes negatively charged. b) the copper and the wool become positively charged. c) the copper becomes negatively charged and the wool becomes positively charged.
d) the copper and the wool become negatively charged. e) the copper becomes negatively charged and the wool remains electrically neutral.
21.3.2. Complete the following sentence: an electric insulator has a) the ability to easily conduct electricity, but does not easily conduct heat. b) few electrons available to conduct electricity.
c) the ability to easily conduct electricity and heat. d) no ability to conduct electricity.
e) many free electrons available to conduct electricity.
21.3.2. Complete the following sentence: an electric insulator has a) the ability to easily conduct electricity, but does not easily conduct heat. b) few electrons available to conduct electricity.
c) the ability to easily conduct electricity and heat. d) no ability to conduct electricity.
e) many free electrons available to conduct electricity.
21.3.3. Which one of the following statements concerning electrical conductors is false? a) Rubber is an excellent electrical conductor. b) A material that is a good electrical conductor has many free electrons that can easily move around inside the material. c) When a positively-charged object is moved into contact with an electrical conductor, electrons move toward the object.
d) Materials that are good thermal conductors are often good electrical conductors. e) Most metals are very good electrical conductors.
21.3.3. Which one of the following statements concerning electrical conductors is false? a) Rubber is an excellent electrical conductor. b) A material that is a good electrical conductor has many free electrons that can easily move around inside the material. c) When a positively-charged object is moved into contact with an electrical conductor, electrons move toward the object.
d) Materials that are good thermal conductors are often good electrical conductors. e) Most metals are very good electrical conductors.
21.3.4. Which of the following terms is used to describe a material that does not allow electrons to easily move through it? a) conductor b) resistor
c) insulator d) transformer
e) inductor
21.3.4. Which of the following terms is used to describe a material that does not allow electrons to easily move through it? a) conductor b) resistor
c) insulator d) transformer
e) inductor
21.3.5. Which of the following statements describes an object as having an induced charge?
a) A glass rod is rubbed with silk. b) A negatively-charged object is brought into contact with an initially uncharged conductor. When they are separated, both objects are negatively charged. c) A rubber rod is rubbed with animal fur. d) A positively-charged object is brought near with an initially uncharged insulator. The surface of the insulator becomes slightly negatively charged. e) As you grab a door knob in the winter time, you feel a slight electric spark.
21.3.5. Which of the following statements describes an object as having an induced charge?
a) A glass rod is rubbed with silk. b) A negatively-charged object is brought into contact with an initially uncharged conductor. When they are separated, both objects are negatively charged. c) A rubber rod is rubbed with animal fur. d) A positively-charged object is brought near with an initially uncharged insulator. The surface of the insulator becomes slightly negatively charged. e) As you grab a door knob in the winter time, you feel a slight electric spark.
21.3.6. A conductor that is initially electrically neutral is touched by a rod that has a net positive charge. Which of the following statements describing the conductor after the rod is removed is true? a) The conductor will have a net positive charge.
b) The conductor will electrically neutral. c) The conductor will have a net negative charge.
21.3.6. A conductor that is initially electrically neutral is touched by a rod that has a net positive charge. Which of the following statements describing the conductor after the rod is removed is true? a) The conductor will have a net positive charge.
b) The conductor will electrically neutral. c) The conductor will have a net negative charge.
21.3.7. Silicon is an example of what type of material? a) metal b) insulator c) semiconductor d) superconductor e) perfect conductor
21.3.7. Silicon is an example of what type of material? a) metal b) insulator c) semiconductor d) superconductor e) perfect conductor
21.4.1. Two positively charged particles are separated by a distance r. The force on particle 1 is F due to particle 2. The force on particle 2 is 2F due to particle 1. Is the previous sentence true or false? Explain why this is the case. a) The sentence is true, if the net charge of particle 1 is twice that of particle 2. b) The sentence is false because the forces on each of the two objects are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. c) The sentence is true since the particles are separated by a distance r. d) The sentence is false because two positively charged particles cannot exert a force on each other.
21.4.1. Two positively charged particles are separated by a distance r. The force on particle 1 is F due to particle 2. The force on particle 2 is 2F due to particle 1. Is the previous sentence true or false? Explain why this is the case. a) The sentence is true, if the net charge of particle 1 is twice that of particle 2. b) The sentence is false because the forces on each of the two objects are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. c) The sentence is true since the particles are separated by a distance r. d) The sentence is false because two positively charged particles cannot exert a force on each other.
21.4.2. Two positively charged particles are separated by a distance r. Which of the following statements concerning the electrostatic force between acting on each particle due to the presence of the other is true? a) The electrostatic force may be calculated using Faraday’s law.
b) The electrostatic force depends on the masses of the two particles. c) The electrostatic force depends on r2.
d) The electrostatic force increases as r is increased. e) The electrostatic force is on each particle is directed toward the other particle.
21.4.2. Two positively charged particles are separated by a distance r. Which of the following statements concerning the electrostatic force between acting on each particle due to the presence of the other is true? a) The electrostatic force may be calculated using Faraday’s law.
b) The electrostatic force depends on the masses of the two particles. c) The electrostatic force depends on r2.
d) The electrostatic force increases as r is increased. e) The electrostatic force is on each particle is directed toward the other particle.
21.4.3. Coulomb’s law is similar to Newton’s law of gravitation in several ways. Which one of the statements is not a similarity between these two laws?
a) In both laws, the force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between two particles. b) In both laws, the force decreases with increasing distance between the two particles. c) In both laws, the force is proportional to the product of an intrinsic property of each of the two particles. d) In both laws, the force is always one of attraction between the two particles. e) In both laws, there is a proportionality constant that appears.
21.4.3. Coulomb’s law is similar to Newton’s law of gravitation in several ways. Which one of the statements is not a similarity between these two laws?
a) In both laws, the force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between two particles. b) In both laws, the force decreases with increasing distance between the two particles. c) In both laws, the force is proportional to the product of an intrinsic property of each of the two particles. d) In both laws, the force is always one of attraction between the two particles. e) In both laws, there is a proportionality constant that appears.
21.4.4. A charged particle, labeled A, is located at the midpoint between two other charged particles, labeled B and C, as shown. The sign of the charges on all three particles is the same. When particle A is released, it starts drifting toward B. What can be determined from this behavior?
a) The charge on A is larger than the charge on B. b) The charge on A is larger than the charge on C.
c) The charge on C is larger than the charge on B. d) The charge on B is larger than the charge on A. e) The charge on B is larger than the charge on C.
21.4.4. A charged particle, labeled A, is located at the midpoint between two other charged particles, labeled B and C, as shown. The sign of the charges on all three particles is the same. When particle A is released, it starts drifting toward B. What can be determined from this behavior?
a) The charge on A is larger than the charge on B. b) The charge on A is larger than the charge on C.
c) The charge on C is larger than the charge on B. d) The charge on B is larger than the charge on A. e) The charge on B is larger than the charge on C.
21.4.5. As shown in the drawing, a positively charged particle remains stationary between particles A and B. The positively charged particle is one-quarter the distance between the two other particles, as shown. What can be concluded from the situation?
a) Nothing can be concluded without more information. b) A and B are positively charged.
c) A and B are negatively charged. d) A is positively charged and B is negatively charged. e) B is positively charged and A is negatively charged.
21.4.5. As shown in the drawing, a positively charged particle remains stationary between particles A and B. The positively charged particle is one-quarter the distance between the two other particles, as shown. What can be concluded from the situation?
a) Nothing can be concluded without more information. b) A and B are positively charged.
c) A and B are negatively charged. d) A is positively charged and B is negatively charged. e) B is positively charged and A is negatively charged.
21.4.6. The unit of electrical current is the ampere (A). Which one of the combinations of units is equivalent to the ampere? a) C s b) C/s
c) N m/s d) J s
e) kg m2/s
21.4.6. The unit of electrical current is the ampere (A). Which one of the combinations of units is equivalent to the ampere? a) C s b) C/s
c) N m/s d) J s
e) kg m2/s
21.5.1. Which one of the following values is the smallest possible amount of free charge that has been discovered? a) 5.34 10−20 coulombs b) 1.60 10−19 coulombs
c) 1.38 10−23 coulombs d) 6.63 10−34 coulombs
e) 8.85 10−12 coulombs
21.5.1. Which one of the following values is the smallest possible amount of free charge that has been discovered? a) 5.34 10−20 coulombs b) 1.60 10−19 coulombs
c) 1.38 10−23 coulombs d) 6.63 10−34 coulombs
e) 8.85 10−12 coulombs
21.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the net electric charge on an object is true? a) An object with a net negative charge has an excess number of protons. b) The net charge can have any value greater than 1.60 10−19 coulombs. c) The net charge on an object is always a negative number.
d) Since protons are larger, a proton can carry more charge than an electron. e) The net charge is quantized.
21.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the net electric charge on an object is true? a) An object with a net negative charge has an excess number of protons. b) The net charge can have any value greater than 1.60 10−19 coulombs. c) The net charge on an object is always a negative number.
d) Since protons are larger, a proton can carry more charge than an electron. e) The net charge is quantized.
21.5.3. Which one of the following rules, laws, or principles describes how the net electric charge of an isolated system undergoing any process remains constant? a) Coulomb’s principle b) rule of seventy-two c) principle of electric induction d) law of the conservation of electric charge e) law of triboelectric synthesis
21.5.3. Which one of the following rules, laws, or principles describes how the net electric charge of an isolated system undergoing any process remains constant? a) Coulomb’s principle b) rule of seventy-two c) principle of electric induction d) law of the conservation of electric charge e) law of triboelectric synthesis
21.5.4. Which one of the following statements is false? a) The total number of positive and negative charges within a system may change. b) Electric charge is quantized.
c) Electric charge is conserved. d) A system may have a charge that is equal to two-thirds of the charge on an electron. e) The convention is to consider the electron as having a negative charge.
21.5.4. Which one of the following statements is false? a) The total number of positive and negative charges within a system may change. b) Electric charge is quantized.
c) Electric charge is conserved. d) A system may have a charge that is equal to two-thirds of the charge on an electron. e) The convention is to consider the electron as having a negative charge.
21.6.1. Which one of the following statements is a consequence of charge being conserved? a) The difference between the number of positive and negative charges does not change for a given system. b) If you examine a system at different times, the total number of charges will change. c) Energy within the system is also conserved. d) The positive and negative charges within a system must be quantized. e) The numbers of electrons and protons for a given system cannot change.
21.6.1. Which one of the following statements is a consequence of charge being conserved? a) The difference between the number of positive and negative charges does not change for a given system. b) If you examine a system at different times, the total number of charges will change. c) Energy within the system is also conserved. d) The positive and negative charges within a system must be quantized. e) The numbers of electrons and protons for a given system cannot change.
21.6.2. When an electron (charge −1.60 × 10−19 C) and a positron (charge +1.60 × 10−19 C) come together, they annihilate one another. Two particles of light (photons) are emitted from the annihilation. This is an example of what type of physical phenomena? a) charge quantization b) charge separation c) Coulomb force d) charge density wave e) charge conservation
21.6.2. When an electron (charge −1.60 × 10−19 C) and a positron (charge +1.60 × 10−19 C) come together, they annihilate one another. Two particles of light (photons) are emitted from the annihilation. This is an example of what type of physical phenomena? a) charge quantization b) charge separation c) Coulomb force d) charge density wave e) charge conservation
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 22 Electric Fields Reading Quiz Questions
22.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric field is false?
a) The SI unit of the electric field is the newton per meter (N/m) b) The electric field is a vector quantity.
c) At a given point, a charged particle will experience a force, if an electric field is present at that location. d) If a positively-charged particle is placed at a location where the electric field is directed due north, it will be accelerated due north. e) The magnitude of the electric field at a particular location due to a particular charged particle is inversely proportional to the distance of the particle from that location.
22.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric field is false?
a) The SI unit of the electric field is the newton per meter (N/m) b) The electric field is a vector quantity.
c) At a given point, a charged particle will experience a force, if an electric field is present at that location. d) If a positively-charged particle is placed at a location where the electric field is directed due north, it will be accelerated due north. e) The magnitude of the electric field at a particular location due to a particular charged particle is inversely proportional to the distance of the particle from that location.
22.2.2. Which of the following combination of units are those for the strength of the electric field? 2 kg m a) C s2
b) N m C c) kg m Cs
N d) C e)
Cm s
22.2.2. Which of the following combination of units are those for the strength of the electric field? 2 kg m a) C s2
b) N m C c) kg m Cs
N d) C e)
Cm s
22.2.3. Which one of the following statements best describes the concept of the electric field?
a) The electric field is a vector quantity that is the reaction force of electrons. b) The electric field at each point is the potential energy of a test charge divided by the amount of the test charge.
c) The electric field is a distribution of vectors at points due to the presence of one or more charged objects. d) The electric field is a scalar quantity related to the total amount of charge on one or more charged objects. e) The electric field is a scalar field, which has a magnitude at each given point, similar to the temperature or pressure field.
22.2.3. Which one of the following statements best describes the concept of the electric field?
a) The electric field is a vector quantity that is the reaction force of electrons. b) The electric field at each point is the potential energy of a test charge divided by the amount of the test charge.
c) The electric field is a distribution of vectors at points due to the presence of one or more charged objects. d) The electric field is a scalar quantity related to the total amount of charge on one or more charged objects. e) The electric field is a scalar field, which has a magnitude at each given point, similar to the temperature or pressure field.
22.3.1. Which of the following statements concerning electric field lines is false?
a) Electric field lines between two charged particles are often curved. b) Electric field lines are a method proposed by Michael Faraday to map the electric field at various locations. c) Electric field lines can be used to indicate the local magnitude of the electric field. d) Electric field lines are always directed radially away from a positivelycharged particle. e) An electric field line indicates the direction of the force on an electron placed on the line.
22.3.1. Which of the following statements concerning electric field lines is false?
a) Electric field lines between two charged particles are often curved. b) Electric field lines are a method proposed by Michael Faraday to map the electric field at various locations. c) Electric field lines can be used to indicate the local magnitude of the electric field. d) Electric field lines are always directed radially away from a positivelycharged particle. e) An electric field line indicates the direction of the force on an electron placed on the line.
22.3.2. Consider the following observations: (1) electric field lines are drawn connecting two point charges labeled A and B, (2) charge A is due north of charge B, and (3) a proton placed at the mid-point on a line connecting the two point charges travels due south. Which one of the following statements correctly indicates the signs of the two charges?
a) Charge A is positive and charge B is negative. b) Charge A is positive and charge B is positive.
c) Charge A is negative and charge B is positive. d) Charge A is negative and charge B is negative.
22.3.2. Consider the following observations: (1) electric field lines are drawn connecting two point charges labeled A and B, (2) charge A is due north of charge B, and (3) a proton placed at the mid-point on a line connecting the two point charges travels due south. Which one of the following statements correctly indicates the signs of the two charges?
a) Charge A is positive and charge B is negative. b) Charge A is positive and charge B is positive.
c) Charge A is negative and charge B is positive. d) Charge A is negative and charge B is negative.
22.3.3. The direction of the electric field is the same as which of the following properties related to a test charge? a) velocity of the test charge b) force on a positive test charge
c) acceleration of a negative test charge d) displacement of a moving test charge
e) None of the above choices are related to the direction of the electric field.
22.3.3. The direction of the electric field is the same as which of the following properties related to a test charge? a) velocity of the test charge b) force on a positive test charge
c) acceleration of a negative test charge d) displacement of a moving test charge
e) None of the above choices are related to the direction of the electric field.
22.3.4. Complete the following statement: Electric field lines depend on a) the direction of the electric field. b) the strength of the electric field.
c) the force exerted on a test charge. d) All of the above choices correctly complete the statement.
e) None of the choices correctly complete the statement.
22.3.4. Complete the following statement: Electric field lines depend on a) the direction of the electric field. b) the strength of the electric field.
c) the force exerted on a test charge. d) All of the above choices correctly complete the statement.
e) None of the choices correctly complete the statement.
22.4.1. Which one of the following statements best describes the electric field at a distance r from the electron?
a) The electric field is directed toward the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r2. b) The electric field is directed away from the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r2.
c) The electric field is directed toward the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r. d) The electric field is directed away from the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r.
e) The electric field is directed toward the electron and has a magnitude of ke2/r.
22.4.1. Which one of the following statements best describes the electric field at a distance r from the electron?
a) The electric field is directed toward the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r2. b) The electric field is directed away from the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r2.
c) The electric field is directed toward the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r. d) The electric field is directed away from the electron and has a magnitude of ke/r.
e) The electric field is directed toward the electron and has a magnitude of ke2/r.
22.4.2. Consider the field lines shown in the drawing. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) These field lines are those for a positively charged particle. b) These field lines are those for a negatively charged particle. c) These field lines are those for a positively charged particle and a negatively charged particle.
d) These field lines are those for two positively charged particles. e) These field lines are those for two negatively charged particles.
22.4.2. Consider the field lines shown in the drawing. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) These field lines are those for a positively charged particle. b) These field lines are those for a negatively charged particle. c) These field lines are those for a positively charged particle and a negatively charged particle.
d) These field lines are those for two positively charged particles. e) These field lines are those for two negatively charged particles.
22.4.3. Consider the field lines shown in the drawing. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) A is a positively charged particle and B is negatively charged. b) B is a positively charged particle and A is negatively charged. c) A and B are both positively charged. d) A and B are both negatively charged.
22.4.3. Consider the field lines shown in the drawing. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true? a) A is a positively charged particle and B is negatively charged. b) B is a positively charged particle and A is negatively charged. c) A and B are both positively charged. d) A and B are both negatively charged.
22.5.1. Which one of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between the electric field strength E and the distance r from an electric dipole?
1 a) E r
1 r2 1 c) E 3 r d) E r b) E
2 E r e)
22.5.1. Which one of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between the electric field strength E and the distance r from an electric dipole?
1 a) E r
1 r2 1 c) E 3 r d) E r b) E
2 E r e)
22.5.2. Why does the electric field due to a dipole decrease more rapidly with increasing distance than that for a single charge? a) The two charges in the dipole are separated by some distance. b) Because there are two charges in the dipole, the electric field has one-half the field strength of a single charge. c) Any given point is closer to one of the charges of the dipole than to the other.
d) The total charge of the dipole is neutral (zero). e) Dipoles do not produce a significant electric field.
22.5.2. Why does the electric field due to a dipole decrease more rapidly with increasing distance than that for a single charge? a) The two charges in the dipole are separated by some distance. b) Because there are two charges in the dipole, the electric field has one-half the field strength of a single charge. c) Any given point is closer to one of the charges of the dipole than to the other.
d) The total charge of the dipole is neutral (zero). e) Dipoles do not produce a significant electric field.
22.5.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric dipole moment is false?
a) The dipole moment is a scalar quantity. b) The dipole moment has units of Cm.
c) The dipole moment combines two intrinsic properties of an electric dipole, the distance between the charges and the amount of charge on each object. d) The dipole moment is directed from the negative charge toward the positive charge of the dipole. e) The direction of the dipole moment is used to specify the orientation of the dipole.
22.5.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric dipole moment is false?
a) The dipole moment is a scalar quantity. b) The dipole moment has units of Cm.
c) The dipole moment combines two intrinsic properties of an electric dipole, the distance between the charges and the amount of charge on each object. d) The dipole moment is directed from the negative charge toward the positive charge of the dipole. e) The direction of the dipole moment is used to specify the orientation of the dipole.
22.6.1. Consider the following hypothetical situation: An infinitely long line of charge is located along the central axis of an infinitely long hollow cylinder of charge. Which of the following statements concerning the force on the line of charge is true? a) The force on the line of charge is infinite.
b) The force on the line of charge is zero newtons. c) The force depends on the radius of the cylinder. It will be larger if the cylinder radius is large. d) The force depends on the radius of the cylinder. It will be smaller if the cylinder radius is large.
22.6.1. Consider the following hypothetical situation: An infinitely long line of charge is located along the central axis of an infinitely long hollow cylinder of charge. Which of the following statements concerning the force on the line of charge is true? a) The force on the line of charge is infinite.
b) The force on the line of charge is zero newtons. c) The force depends on the radius of the cylinder. It will be larger if the cylinder radius is large. d) The force depends on the radius of the cylinder. It will be smaller if the cylinder radius is large.
22.6.2. Which one of the following statements concerning charge distributions is false?
a) Charge distributions consist of a very large number of closely spaced charges. b) Charge distributions may be uniform arrangements of charges along a line, over a surface, or throughout a volume. c) Calculus provides important tools for determining electric fields due to charge distributions.
d) Charge distributions are treated as being composed of discrete charges. e) In dealing with charge distributions, it is often more useful to speak in terms of a charge density rather than the total charge.
22.6.2. Which one of the following statements concerning charge distributions is false?
a) Charge distributions consist of a very large number of closely spaced charges. b) Charge distributions may be uniform arrangements of charges along a line, over a surface, or throughout a volume. c) Calculus provides important tools for determining electric fields due to charge distributions.
d) Charge distributions are treated as being composed of discrete charges. e) In dealing with charge distributions, it is often more useful to speak in terms of a charge density rather than the total charge.
22.6.3. Consider the drawing which shows a uniform ring of charge of radius R. Which of the following expressions gives the correct dependence of the electric field at point P located on the z axis, where z >> R?
1 a) E z
1 b) E 2 z c) E
1 z3
d) E z e) E z 2
22.6.3. Consider the drawing which shows a uniform ring of charge of radius R. Which of the following expressions gives the correct dependence of the electric field at point P located on the z axis, where z >> R?
1 a) E z
1 b) E 2 z c) E
1 z3
d) E z e) E z 2
22.7.1. Which of the following expressions gives the electric field due to an infinite sheet of charge with a uniform charge density ? a) E = b) E =
2r
2r 2
c) E =
2 0r 3
d) E =
2 0
e) E =
2 r 0
22.7.1. Which of the following expressions gives the electric field due to an infinite sheet of charge with a uniform charge density ? a) E = b) E =
2r
2r 2
c) E =
2 0r 3
d) E =
2 0
e) E =
2 r 0
22.8.1. Two positively charged particles are in fixed locations on the x axis. A test charge that is free to move about the x-y plane is placed at the mid-point between the two positively charged particles. If the test charge is held stationary at the mid-point and then released, it remains stationary. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior? a) The test charge is at a point of stable equilibrium for both the x and y directions. b) The test charge is at a point of stable equilibrium for the x direction, but not for the y direction. c) The test charge is at a point of stable equilibrium for the y direction, but not for the x direction.
d) The test charge is at a point of unstable equilibrium for both the x direction and the y direction. e) No forces are acting on the test charge.
22.8.1. Two positively charged particles are in fixed locations on the x axis. A test charge that is free to move about the x-y plane is placed at the mid-point between the two positively charged particles. If the test charge is held stationary at the mid-point and then released, it remains stationary. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior? a) The test charge is at a point of stable equilibrium for both the x and y directions. b) The test charge is at a point of stable equilibrium for the x direction, but not for the y direction. c) The test charge is at a point of stable equilibrium for the y direction, but not for the x direction.
d) The test charge is at a point of unstable equilibrium for both the x direction and the y direction. e) No forces are acting on the test charge.
22.9.1. A dipole is located within a uniform electric field and aligned perpendicular to the field. Why is the electrostatic potential energy is equal to zero joules in this situation? a) There is no force acting on the dipole. Only a torque is acting on it. b) There is no torque acting on the dipole when the dipole is parallel or antiparallel to the field, so when the dipole is perpendicular, the potential energy must be zero joules.
c) Because the zero potential energy position is arbitrary, you may choose it to be anything. d) If the dipole is parallel or antiparallel to the electric field it must have correspondingly opposite signs, therefore when it is perpendicular to the field, the energy must be zero joules. e) Dipoles have no interaction with electric fields since their net charge is zero coulombs, so the potential energy is always zero joules.
22.9.1. A dipole is located within a uniform electric field and aligned perpendicular to the field. Why is the electrostatic potential energy is equal to zero joules in this situation? a) There is no force acting on the dipole. Only a torque is acting on it. b) There is no torque acting on the dipole when the dipole is parallel or antiparallel to the field, so when the dipole is perpendicular, the potential energy must be zero joules.
c) Because the zero potential energy position is arbitrary, you may choose it to be anything. d) If the dipole is parallel or antiparallel to the electric field it must have correspondingly opposite signs, therefore when it is perpendicular to the field, the energy must be zero joules. e) Dipoles have no interaction with electric fields since their net charge is zero coulombs, so the potential energy is always zero joules.
22.9.2. Consider the dipole shown in a uniform electric field. Which of the following occurs as the dipole aligns itself with the electric field?
a) The electric field breaks the dipole into two separate charges. b) The total energy of the dipole and electric field decreases. c) The potential energy of the electric field and the dipole does not change. d) The potential energy of the electric field and the dipole increases. e) The potential energy of the electric field and the dipole decreases.
22.9.2. Consider the dipole shown in a uniform electric field. Which of the following occurs as the dipole aligns itself with the electric field?
a) The electric field breaks the dipole into two separate charges. b) The total energy of the dipole and electric field decreases. c) The potential energy of the electric field and the dipole does not change. d) The potential energy of the electric field and the dipole increases. e) The potential energy of the electric field and the dipole decreases.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 23 Gauss’ Law Reading Quiz Questions
23.2.1. At one point during a rain storm, the rain is falling at a constant rate of n drops per square meter at an angle of 60 with respect to the horizontal direction. Unfortunately Ted has left three windows open: (1) the sunroof on his car that measures 0.6 m by 0.3 m, (2) his bathroom window that measures 0.6 m by 0.2 m; and (3) his bedroom window that measures 0.6 m by 0.3 m. The bedroom and bathroom windows are perpendicular to the ground and the sunroof is parallel to the ground. Which of the window openings has the greatest flux? a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 1 and 3 have the same flux e) 2 and 3 have the same flux
23.2.1. At one point during a rain storm, the rain is falling at a constant rate of n drops per square meter at an angle of 60 with respect to the horizontal direction. Unfortunately Ted has left three windows open: (1) the sunroof on his car that measures 0.6 m by 0.3 m, (2) his bathroom window that measures 0.6 m by 0.2 m; and (3) his bedroom window that measures 0.6 m by 0.3 m. The bedroom and bathroom windows are perpendicular to the ground and the sunroof is parallel to the ground. Which of the window openings has the greatest flux? a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 1 and 3 have the same flux e) 2 and 3 have the same flux
23.3.1. In each of the four cases below a Gaussian circle is represented by the dashed line circle and the arrows represent electric field lines. In which of the four cases is the flux through the Gaussian circle not equal to zero?
a) A and B only b) C and D only
c) A only d) D only e) A, B, C, and D
23.3.1. In each of the four cases below a Gaussian circle is represented by the dashed line circle and the arrows represent electric field lines. In which of the four cases is the flux through the Gaussian circle not equal to zero?
a) A and B only b) C and D only
c) A only d) D only e) A, B, C, and D
23.3.2. Imagine a closed Gaussian surface and a particle that has a net charge q. Consider the following two statements: (1) “If the particle is enclosed by the surface the net electric flux through the surface cannot be equal to zero N/C.” and (2) “If the particle is near the closed Gaussian surface, but outside of it, the net electric flux through the surface must be equal to zero N/C.” Which of these two statements is true, if either? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 d) Neither statement is true.
23.3.2. Imagine a closed Gaussian surface and a particle that has a net charge q. Consider the following two statements: (1) “If the particle is enclosed by the surface the net electric flux through the surface cannot be equal to zero N/C.” and (2) “If the particle is near the closed Gaussian surface, but outside of it, the net electric flux through the surface must be equal to zero N/C.” Which of these two statements is true, if either? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 d) Neither statement is true.
23.4.1. Which of the following laws, principles, or definitions describes the electric flux through a surface that encloses a charge? a) Amonton’s law b) Gauss’ law
c) Carnot’s principle d) definition of a fluxon
e) electric flux principle
23.4.1. Which of the following laws, principles, or definitions describes the electric flux through a surface that encloses a charge? a) Amonton’s law b) Gauss’ law
c) Carnot’s principle d) definition of a fluxon
e) electric flux principle
23.4.2. A conducting sphere (shown in grey in the drawing) of radius R has a charge q distributed uniformly over its surface. A spherically-shaped Gaussian surface with a radius r < R is represented in the drawing by the dashed circle. Applying Gauss’ law, what is the magnitude of the electric field inside the Gaussian sphere? a)
b)
q 40r q
40r 2 c) zero N/C d)
q r
e) 4 r 2 0
q
23.4.2. A conducting sphere (shown in grey in the drawing) of radius R has a charge q distributed uniformly over its surface. A spherically-shaped Gaussian surface with a radius r < R is represented in the drawing by the dashed circle. Applying Gauss’ law, what is the magnitude of the electric field inside the Gaussian sphere? a)
b)
q 40r q
40r 2 c) zero N/C d)
q r
e) 4 r 2 0
q
23.4.3. To what does Gauss’ law relate the electric field at points on a Gaussian surface? a) charges near the surface b) electric field flux leaving the volume enclosed by the surface
c) electric field flux entering the volume enclosed by the surface d) net charge enclosed by the surface
e) velocity of charges entering or leaving the surface
23.4.3. To what does Gauss’ law relate the electric field at points on a Gaussian surface? a) charges near the surface b) electric field flux leaving the volume enclosed by the surface
c) electric field flux entering the volume enclosed by the surface d) net charge enclosed by the surface
e) velocity of charges entering or leaving the surface
23.4.4. Consider the three charges shown in drawings A and B. The values of the charges are q1 = +4 × 10−7 C; q2 = +2 × 10−7 C; q3 = −2 × 10−7 C. In drawing A, a Gaussian surface surrounds charge q1; and in drawing B, the Gaussian surface surrounds all three charges. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric flux through the two Gaussian surfaces is true? a) The flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing A is greater than the flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing B. b) The flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing A is the same as the flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing B. c) The flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing A is less than the flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing B.
23.4.4. Consider the three charges shown in drawings A and B. The values of the charges are q1 = +4 × 10−7 C; q2 = +2 × 10−7 C; q3 = −2 × 10−7 C. In drawing A, a Gaussian surface surrounds charge q1; and in drawing B, the Gaussian surface surrounds all three charges. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric flux through the two Gaussian surfaces is true? a) The flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing A is greater than the flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing B. b) The flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing A is the same as the flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing B. c) The flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing A is less than the flux through the Gaussian surface in drawing B.
23.5.1. Which of the following laws or principles can be derived from Gauss’ law? a) Amonton’s law b) Coulomb’s law
c) Carnot’s principle d) definition of a fluxon
e) electric flux principle
23.5.1. Which of the following laws or principles can be derived from Gauss’ law? a) Amonton’s law b) Coulomb’s law
c) Carnot’s principle d) definition of a fluxon
e) electric flux principle
23.6.1. Which of the following statements concerning the electric field inside a conductor is true? a) The electric field inside a conductor is never zero N/C. b) The electric field inside a conductor is always zero N/C.
c) The electric field inside a conductor can only be non-zero if charges inside the conductor are moving. d) The electric field inside a conductor is always zero N/C, unless there are excess charges inside the conductor. e) Two or more of the above answers are correct.
23.6.1. Which of the following statements concerning the electric field inside a conductor is true? a) The electric field inside a conductor is never zero N/C. b) The electric field inside a conductor is always zero N/C.
c) The electric field inside a conductor can only be non-zero if charges inside the conductor are moving. d) The electric field inside a conductor is always zero N/C, unless there are excess charges inside the conductor. e) Two or more of the above answers are correct.
23.6.2. Gauss’ law can be used to prove that all excess charge in a conductor distributes itself on the surface of the conductor. Which one of the following choices is a consequence of this proof? a) There would be a non-zero electric field if any net charge was not on the surface.
b) Charges can never be inside the conductor. c) A Gaussian surface around the whole conductor encloses all of the charge. d) The flux through a Gaussian surface inside the sphere is zero. e) The electric field inside a conductor is always equal to zero N/C.
23.6.2. Gauss’ law can be used to prove that all excess charge in a conductor distributes itself on the surface of the conductor. Which one of the following choices is a consequence of this proof? a) There would be a non-zero electric field if any net charge was not on the surface.
b) Charges can never be inside the conductor. c) A Gaussian surface around the whole conductor encloses all of the charge. d) The flux through a Gaussian surface inside the sphere is zero. e) The electric field inside a conductor is always equal to zero N/C.
23.6.3. Why must the electric field at the surface of a conductor be perpendicular to the surface? a) Excess charge in a conductor always moves to the surface of the conductor. b) Flux is always perpendicular to the surface. c) If it was not perpendicular, then charges on the surface would be moving.
d) The electric field lines from a single charge extend radially outward or inward. e) None of the above choices are correct.
23.6.3. Why must the electric field at the surface of a conductor be perpendicular to the surface? a) Excess charge in a conductor always moves to the surface of the conductor. b) Flux is always perpendicular to the surface. c) If it was not perpendicular, then charges on the surface would be moving.
d) The electric field lines from a single charge extend radially outward or inward. e) None of the above choices are correct.
23.6.4. A positively charged particle is located inside a thin conducting shell that has a radius R. As shown, the charge Q is located at a distance R/2 from the center of the spherical shell. Which of the following is the electric field at a distance 3R from the particle? a)
E=
b) E =
1
Q 4 0 9 R 2 1
Q
4 0 ( 5 R )2 2
c) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 5 R )2 2
d) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 7 R )2 2
e)
E=
1
Q
4 0 ( 9 R )2 2
23.6.4. A positively charged particle is located inside a thin conducting shell that has a radius R. As shown, the charge Q is located at a distance R/2 from the center of the spherical shell. Which of the following is the electric field at a distance 3R from the particle? a)
E=
b) E =
1
Q 4 0 9 R 2 1
Q
4 0 ( 5 R )2 2
c) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 5 R )2 2
d) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 7 R )2 2
e)
E=
1
Q
4 0 ( 9 R )2 2
23.6.5. A spherical conductor has a radius R and a tiny spherical cavity at its center that has a radius R/10. The conductor is otherwise solid. Inside the cavity is a positive charge Q. What is the electric field at a distance R/2 from the center? a) zero N/C 1
b) E =
Q 4 0 R 2
c) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 2
d) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 10
e) E =
1
Q 4 0 ( 12 R )
23.6.5. A spherical conductor has a radius R and a tiny spherical cavity at its center that has a radius R/10. The conductor is otherwise solid. Inside the cavity is a positive charge Q. What is the electric field at a distance R/2 from the center? a) zero N/C 1
b) E =
Q 4 0 R 2
c) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 2
d) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 10
e) E =
1
Q 4 0 ( 12 R )
23.7.1. What is the best choice for the shape of a Gaussian surface? a) spherical b) cylindrical c) cubic d) It should be one that encloses the smallest volume. e) It should be one that matches the symmetry of the charge distribution.
23.7.1. What is the best choice for the shape of a Gaussian surface? a) spherical b) cylindrical c) cubic d) It should be one that encloses the smallest volume. e) It should be one that matches the symmetry of the charge distribution.
23.7.2. The image shown is taken from the text. Why was this woman in danger according to the text?
a) The electric field could have broken down and her hair would have caught fire. b) The electric field was about to cause a breakdown in the air surrounding her and she would have suffocated. c) The electric field surrounding her would soon attract a downward lightning bolt from a passing cloud. d) The electric field was about to cause a breakdown in the surrounding air and an upward streamer would have resulted.
23.7.2. The image shown is taken from the text. Why was this woman in danger according to the text?
a) The electric field could have broken down and her hair would have caught fire. b) The electric field was about to cause a breakdown in the air surrounding her and she would have suffocated. c) The electric field surrounding her would soon attract a downward lightning bolt from a passing cloud. d) The electric field was about to cause a breakdown in the surrounding air and an upward streamer would have resulted.
23.8.1. Consider the situation shown to the left below. There are two parallel non-conducting plates. The plate on the left is positively charged with (3/2) the surface charge density to that of the right plate, which is negatively charged. Which one of the drawings shows the correct net electric field that results from this situation? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these drawings is correct.
23.8.1. Consider the situation shown to the left below. There are two parallel non-conducting plates. The plate on the left is positively charged with (3/2) the surface charge density to that of the right plate, which is negatively charged. Which one of the drawings shows the correct net electric field that results from this situation? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these drawings is correct.
23.9.1. A spherical conductor has a radius R and a tiny spherical cavity at its center that has a radius R/10. The conductor is otherwise solid. Inside the cavity is a positive charge Q. What is the electric field at a distance 2R from the center? a) zero N/C
1
b) E =
Q 4 0 R 2
c) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 2
d) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 10
e) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 2 R )2
23.9.1. A spherical conductor has a radius R and a tiny spherical cavity at its center that has a radius R/10. The conductor is otherwise solid. Inside the cavity is a positive charge Q. What is the electric field at a distance 2R from the center? a) zero N/C
1
b) E =
Q 4 0 R 2
c) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 2
d) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 1 R )2 10
e) E =
1
Q
4 0 ( 2 R )2
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 24 Electric Potential Reading Quiz Questions
24.2.1. Electric potential energy is defined in a similar manner to the gravitational potential energy. Complete the following statement: These two potential energies are analogous to each other because a) both electric and gravitational forces are always attractive forces. b) both the electric and gravitational forces are fundamental forces of nature. c) both the electric and gravitational forces are conservative forces. d) both the electric and gravitational forces can be either attractive or repulsive forces. e) both the electric and gravitational forces are dependent on the mass of particles.
24.2.1. Electric potential energy is defined in a similar manner to the gravitational potential energy. Complete the following statement: These two potential energies are analogous to each other because a) both electric and gravitational forces are always attractive forces. b) both the electric and gravitational forces are fundamental forces of nature. c) both the electric and gravitational forces are conservative forces. d) both the electric and gravitational forces can be either attractive or repulsive forces. e) both the electric and gravitational forces are dependent on the mass of particles.
24.2.2. A positively-charged particle is held at point A between two parallel metal plates. The plate on the left has a net positive charge +q and the plate on the right has a net negative charge −q. The particle is then moved to point B. How does the electric potential energy at point A compare with that at point B? a) UA > UB b) UA = UB c) UA < UB d) UA > UB or UA < UB depending on the actual distances from the points to the plates.
24.2.2. A positively-charged particle is held at point A between two parallel metal plates. The plate on the left has a net positive charge +q and the plate on the right has a net negative charge −q. The particle is then moved to point B. How does the electric potential energy at point A compare with that at point B? a) UA > UB b) UA = UB c) UA < UB d) UA > UB or UA < UB depending on the actual distances from the points to the plates.
24.2.3. An electron, which has a charge of 1.60 × 10−19 C, is released at rest in a uniform electric field of magnitude 120 N/C. What is the potential energy of the electron just before it is released from rest? a) 1.93 × 10−17 J
b) 1.33 × 10−18 J c) 2.13 × 10−20 J
d) 3.11 × 10−21 J e) Too little information is given to determine an answer.
24.2.3. An electron, which has a charge of 1.60 × 10−19 C, is released at rest in a uniform electric field of magnitude 120 N/C. What is the potential energy of the electron just before it is released from rest? a) 1.93 × 10−17 J
b) 1.33 × 10−18 J c) 2.13 × 10−20 J
d) 3.11 × 10−21 J e) Too little information is given to determine an answer.
24.3.1. Which of the following choices represents the quantity that is equal to the electric potential? a) kq r b) UA − UB c) q U d) U q
e) kq r2
24.3.1. Which of the following choices represents the quantity that is equal to the electric potential? a) kq r b) UA − UB c) q U d) U q
e) kq r2
24.3.2. Which of the following units are the SI units for the electric potential? a) ampere (A) b) newton/coulomb (N/C)
c) joule (J) d) gauss (G)
e) volt (V)
24.3.2. Which of the following units are the SI units for the electric potential? a) ampere (A) b) newton/coulomb (N/C)
c) joule (J) d) gauss (G)
e) volt (V)
24.3.3. Points A, B, and C lie along a line from left to right, respectively. Point B is at a lower electric potential than point A. Point C is at a lower electric potential than point B. Which one of the following statements best describes the subsequent motion, if any, of a positively-charged particle released from rest at point B? a) The particle will move at constant velocity in the direction of point A. b) The particle will move at constant velocity in the direction of point C. c) The particle will remain at rest. d) The particle will accelerate in the direction of point A. e) The particle will accelerate in the direction of point C.
24.3.3. Points A, B, and C lie along a line from left to right, respectively. Point B is at a lower electric potential than point A. Point C is at a lower electric potential than point B. Which one of the following statements best describes the subsequent motion, if any, of a positively-charged particle released from rest at point B? a) The particle will move at constant velocity in the direction of point A. b) The particle will move at constant velocity in the direction of point C. c) The particle will remain at rest. d) The particle will accelerate in the direction of point A. e) The particle will accelerate in the direction of point C.
24.3.4. What is the name of unit of energy that is the amount by which the electric potential energy of an electron when it moves through a potential difference of one volt? a) volt (V) b) electron volt (eV) c) joule (J) d) watt (W) e) becquerel (Bq)
24.3.4. What is the name of unit of energy that is the amount by which the electric potential energy of an electron when it moves through a potential difference of one volt? a) volt (V) b) electron volt (eV) c) joule (J) d) watt (W) e) becquerel (Bq)
24.3.5. A conducting sphere is connected via a wire to the ground. For a very short time, electrons move from the ground to the sphere. Then, no more electrons move to the sphere. Complete the following sentence: Before the wire was connected, the sphere’s electric potential had a a) positive value. b) negative value. c) value that could have been either positive or negative. d) value equal to zero volts.
24.3.5. A conducting sphere is connected via a wire to the ground. For a very short time, electrons move from the ground to the sphere. Then, no more electrons move to the sphere. Complete the following sentence: Before the wire was connected, the sphere’s electric potential had a a) positive value. b) negative value. c) value that could have been either positive or negative. d) value equal to zero volts.
24.3.6. Which one of the following phrases best describes the electric potential of a charged particle? a) the total force exerted on or by the charged particle b) the force per unit charge
c) the potential energy of the particle relative to infinity d) the potential energy per unit charge
e) the potential energy per unit force on the particle
24.3.6. Which one of the following phrases best describes the electric potential of a charged particle? a) the total force exerted on or by the charged particle b) the force per unit charge
c) the potential energy of the particle relative to infinity d) the potential energy per unit charge
e) the potential energy per unit force on the particle
24.3.7. A force is exerted on a positively-charged particle that moves the particle in the direction opposite to that of an electric field. Which one of the following statements concerning the work performed in this movement is true? a) The work done on the particle has a positive sign.
b) No work is done on such a charged particle, if it is moved in a direction that is parallel or anti-parallel to an electric field. c) The work done on the particle has a negative sign. d) One cannot answer this question without knowing the kind of particle involved.
24.3.7. A force is exerted on a positively-charged particle that moves the particle in the direction opposite to that of an electric field. Which one of the following statements concerning the work performed in this movement is true? a) The work done on the particle has a positive sign.
b) No work is done on such a charged particle, if it is moved in a direction that is parallel or anti-parallel to an electric field. c) The work done on the particle has a negative sign. d) One cannot answer this question without knowing the kind of particle involved.
24.3.8. A uniform electric field is directed parallel to the +y axis. If a positive test charge begins at the origin and moves upward along the y axis, how does the electric potential vary, if at all? a) The electric potential will decrease with increasing y. b) The electric potential will increase with increasing y. c) The electric potential will remain constant with increasing y. d) Too little information is given to answer this question.
24.3.8. A uniform electric field is directed parallel to the +y axis. If a positive test charge begins at the origin and moves upward along the y axis, how does the electric potential vary, if at all? a) The electric potential will decrease with increasing y. b) The electric potential will increase with increasing y. c) The electric potential will remain constant with increasing y. d) Too little information is given to answer this question.
24.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning equipotential surfaces is true?
a) The electric field lines are directed parallel to the equipotential surface. b) Equipotential surfaces are a three dimensional representation of electric field lines. c) The electric potential at points on each equipotential surface is equal to that of all other equipotential surfaces. d) The net work done by electric forces that move a charge from one equipotential surface to another is equal to zero joules. e) The net work done by electric forces that move a charge along an equipotential surface is equal to zero joules.
24.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning equipotential surfaces is true?
a) The electric field lines are directed parallel to the equipotential surface. b) Equipotential surfaces are a three dimensional representation of electric field lines. c) The electric potential at points on each equipotential surface is equal to that of all other equipotential surfaces. d) The net work done by electric forces that move a charge from one equipotential surface to another is equal to zero joules. e) The net work done by electric forces that move a charge along an equipotential surface is equal to zero joules.
24.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning equipotential surfaces is false?
a) All points on an equipotential surface have the same electric potential. b) No work is done by the net electric force as a charge moves from one equipotential surface to another. c) The electric field created by one or more charges is everywhere perpendicular to the associated equipotential surfaces. d) The electric field created by one or more charges points in the direction of decreasing potential. e) There is a quantitative relationship between the electric field and the associated equipotential surfaces that surround one or more charges.
24.4.2. Which one of the following statements concerning equipotential surfaces is false?
a) All points on an equipotential surface have the same electric potential. b) No work is done by the net electric force as a charge moves from one equipotential surface to another. c) The electric field created by one or more charges is everywhere perpendicular to the associated equipotential surfaces. d) The electric field created by one or more charges points in the direction of decreasing potential. e) There is a quantitative relationship between the electric field and the associated equipotential surfaces that surround one or more charges.
24.4.3. Complete the following statement: Along an equipotential surface, a) the magnitude of the electric field is constant. b) the electric field lines are parallel to the surface.
c) the direction of the magnetic field is constant. d) the electric field lines are perpendicular to the surface.
e) both the magnitude and direction of the electric field is constant.
24.4.3. Complete the following statement: Along an equipotential surface, a) the magnitude of the electric field is constant. b) the electric field lines are parallel to the surface.
c) the direction of the magnetic field is constant. d) the electric field lines are perpendicular to the surface.
e) both the magnitude and direction of the electric field is constant.
24.4.4. The potential difference between an initial point and a final point can f be calculated using V f − Vi = − E ds. Under what circumstances is the i potential difference equal to zero volts? a) The electric field is perpendicular to the path at all points between the initial and final points.
b) The electric field has the same magnitude at the initial and final points. c) The electric field has the same magnitude and direction at the initial and final points.
d) The electric field strength is the same along the path between the initial and final points. e) The path between the initial and final points is a straight line.
24.4.4. The potential difference between an initial point and a final point can f be calculated using V f − Vi = − E ds. Under what circumstances is the i potential difference equal to zero volts? a) The electric field is perpendicular to the path at all points between the initial and final points.
b) The electric field has the same magnitude at the initial and final points. c) The electric field has the same magnitude and direction at the initial and final points.
d) The electric field strength is the same along the path between the initial and final points. e) The path between the initial and final points is a straight line.
24.5.1. A sphere has a radius R and a total charge Q uniformly distributed throughout its volume. Where is the electric potential of the sphere a minimum? a) at infinity b) at the surface of the sphere, r = R c) R/2 < r < R d) 0 < r < R/2 e) at the center of the sphere, r = 0
24.5.1. A sphere has a radius R and a total charge Q uniformly distributed throughout its volume. Where is the electric potential of the sphere a minimum? a) at infinity b) at the surface of the sphere, r = R c) R/2 < r < R d) 0 < r < R/2 e) at the center of the sphere, r = 0
24.5.2. Points P and Q are separated by a distance of 0.10 m in a uniform electric field. The potential difference between points P and Q is 55 V. What is the magnitude of the electric field? a) 0.55 V/m b) 5.5 V/m c) 55 V/m d) 550 V/m e) 5500 V/m
24.5.2. Points P and Q are separated by a distance of 0.10 m in a uniform electric field. The potential difference between points P and Q is 55 V. What is the magnitude of the electric field? a) 0.55 V/m b) 5.5 V/m c) 55 V/m d) 550 V/m e) 5500 V/m
24.6.1. Four point charges are individually brought from infinity and placed at the corners of a square as shown in the figure. Each charge has the identical value +Q. The length of the diagonal of the square is 2a. What is the electric potential at the center of the square? a) kQ/a b) 4kQ/a c) 2kQ/a d) kQ/4a e) zero volts
24.6.1. Four point charges are individually brought from infinity and placed at the corners of a square as shown in the figure. Each charge has the identical value +Q. The length of the diagonal of the square is 2a. What is the electric potential at the center of the square? a) kQ/a b) 4kQ/a c) 2kQ/a d) kQ/4a e) zero volts
24.7.1. Point charge A is located at point A and point charge B is at point B. Points A and B are separated by a distance r. To determine the electric potential at the mid-point along a line between points A and B, which of the following mathematical approaches is correct? a) The electric potential due to each charge is determined at a distance r/2 from each of the charges and an average is taken of the two values.
b) The vector sum of the two electric potentials determines the total electric potential at a distance r/2 from each of the charges. c) The algebraic sum of the two electric potentials is determined at a distance r/2 from each of the charges, making sure to include the signs of the charges. d) The difference in the absolute value (the sign of the charges does not enter into the calculation) of the two electric potentials is determined at a distance r/2 from each of the charges.
24.7.1. Point charge A is located at point A and point charge B is at point B. Points A and B are separated by a distance r. To determine the electric potential at the mid-point along a line between points A and B, which of the following mathematical approaches is correct? a) The electric potential due to each charge is determined at a distance r/2 from each of the charges and an average is taken of the two values.
b) The vector sum of the two electric potentials determines the total electric potential at a distance r/2 from each of the charges. c) The algebraic sum of the two electric potentials is determined at a distance r/2 from each of the charges, making sure to include the signs of the charges. d) The difference in the absolute value (the sign of the charges does not enter into the calculation) of the two electric potentials is determined at a distance r/2 from each of the charges.
24.7.2. Consider the two charged particles. One charge located on the y axis has a value −2q and is located at a distance r from the origin, point O. The other charge has a value −q and is located at a distance 2r from the origin along the x axis. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric potential at the origin is true? a) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to −5kq/2r. b) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to zero volts. c) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to −2kq/r.
d) The total electric potential at the origin cannot be calculated since the charges are on different axes. e) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to −3kq/2r.
24.7.2. Consider the two charged particles. One charge located on the y axis has a value −2q and is located at a distance r from the origin, point O. The other charge has a value −q and is located at a distance 2r from the origin along the x axis. Which one of the following statements concerning the electric potential at the origin is true? a) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to −5kq/2r. b) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to zero volts. c) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to −2kq/r.
d) The total electric potential at the origin cannot be calculated since the charges are on different axes. e) The total electric potential at the origin is equal to −3kq/2r.
24.8.1. An electric dipole is situated on the y axis as shown. The two charges of opposite sign are of equal magnitude Q = 2.0 C. Determine the magnitude of the electric potential at point P. a) 1.1 × 109 V b) 2.2 × 109 V c) 4.5 × 109 V d) 9.0 × 109 V e) zero volts
24.8.1. An electric dipole is situated on the y axis as shown. The two charges of opposite sign are of equal magnitude Q = 2.0 C. Determine the magnitude of the electric potential at point P. a) 1.1 × 109 V b) 2.2 × 109 V c) 4.5 × 109 V d) 9.0 × 109 V e) zero volts
24.9.1. When you calculate the potential at some point P due to a continuous charge distribution, the sign for the potential can be troublesome. If the charge distribution is negative, should the quantities dq and represent negative quanities? a) The sign on dq should be negative and the sign on should be positive. b) The sign on dq should be positive and the sign on should be negative. c) The signs can be ignored; and at the end of the calculation inserted. The potential is negative if the charge distribution is negative. d) The signs can be ignored; and at the end of the calculation inserted. The potential is positive if the charge distribution is negative. e) The signs can be ignored. The potential should have a positive sign, regardless of the sign of the charge distribution.
24.9.1. When you calculate the potential at some point P due to a continuous charge distribution, the sign for the potential can be troublesome. If the charge distribution is negative, should the quantities dq and represent negative quanities? a) The sign on dq should be negative and the sign on should be positive. b) The sign on dq should be positive and the sign on should be negative. c) The signs can be ignored; and at the end of the calculation inserted. The potential is negative if the charge distribution is negative. d) The signs can be ignored; and at the end of the calculation inserted. The potential is positive if the charge distribution is negative. e) The signs can be ignored. The potential should have a positive sign, regardless of the sign of the charge distribution.
24.11.1. The electric potential at the surface of a conducting, spherical shell of radius R is V relative to Earth ground. What is the electric potential at the center of the shell? a) zero volts b) V/R c) V/(4R)2 d) V/2 e) V
24.11.1. The electric potential at the surface of a conducting, spherical shell of radius R is V relative to Earth ground. What is the electric potential at the center of the shell? a) zero volts b) V/R c) V/(4R)2 d) V/2 e) V
24.12.1. Consider two isolated conductive metal spheres. Each carries the same amount of excess charge Q, but one has a radius that is five times greater than the other. How does the electrostatic potential of the two spheres compare? a) The electrostatic potential of the larger sphere is at a higher potential than the smaller sphere. b) The electrostatic potential of the larger sphere is at a lower potential than the smaller sphere.
c) The electrostatic potential of the larger sphere is at the same potential than the smaller sphere.
24.12.1. Consider two isolated conductive metal spheres. Each carries the same amount of excess charge Q, but one has a radius that is five times greater than the other. How does the electrostatic potential of the two spheres compare? a) The electrostatic potential of the larger sphere is at a higher potential than the smaller sphere. b) The electrostatic potential of the larger sphere is at a lower potential than the smaller sphere.
c) The electrostatic potential of the larger sphere is at the same potential than the smaller sphere.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 25 Capacitance Reading Quiz Questions
25.2.1. The unit of capacitance is the farad (F). Which of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the farad? a) N/C b) V/C
c) C/V d) J/C
e) (Nm)/(Cs)
25.2.1. The unit of capacitance is the farad (F). Which of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the farad? a) N/C b) V/C
c) C/V d) J/C
e) (Nm)/(Cs)
25.2.2. Which one of the following choices is the unit for capacitance? a) sievert b) farad c) apgar d) garnet e) plethron
25.2.2. Which one of the following choices is the unit for capacitance? a) sievert b) farad c) apgar d) garnet e) plethron
25.2.3. What is capacitance? a) the amount of charge on a capacitor b) the amount of current flowing into or out of a capacitor c) the maximum amount of charge a capacitor can hold d) the amount of charge needed to produce a certain potential difference across a capacitor
e) the amount of potential difference across a capacitor
25.2.3. What is capacitance? a) the amount of charge on a capacitor b) the amount of current flowing into or out of a capacitor c) the maximum amount of charge a capacitor can hold d) the amount of charge needed to produce a certain potential difference across a capacitor
e) the amount of potential difference across a capacitor
25.3.1. Which one of the following is a primary consideration in determining the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor? a) the size and separation of the plates b) the potential difference across the plates
c) the shape of the plates d) the particular materials used to fabricate the plates
25.3.1. Which one of the following is a primary consideration in determining the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor? a) the size and separation of the plates b) the potential difference across the plates
c) the shape of the plates d) the particular materials used to fabricate the plates
25.3.2. When the distance between charged parallel plates of a capacitor is d, the potential difference is V. If the distance is decreased to d/2, how will the potential difference change, if at all? a) The new potential difference would be one-fourth of the previous value.
b) The new potential difference would be one-half of the previous value. c) The new potential difference would be the same as the previous value. d) The new potential difference would be twice the previous value. e) The new potential difference would be four times the previous value.
25.3.2. When the distance between charged parallel plates of a capacitor is d, the potential difference is V. If the distance is decreased to d/2, how will the potential difference change, if at all? a) The new potential difference would be one-fourth of the previous value.
b) The new potential difference would be one-half of the previous value. c) The new potential difference would be the same as the previous value. d) The new potential difference would be twice the previous value. e) The new potential difference would be four times the previous value.
25.3.3. When the distance between charged parallel plates of a capacitor is d, the capacitance is C. If the distance is increased to 2d, how will the capacitance change, if at all? a) The new capacitance would be one-fourth of the previous value. b) The new capacitance would be one-half of the previous value. c) The new capacitance would be the same as the previous value. d) The new capacitance would be twice the previous value. e) The new capacitance would be four times the previous value.
25.3.3. When the distance between charged parallel plates of a capacitor is d, the capacitance is C. If the distance is increased to 2d, how will the capacitance change, if at all? a) The new capacitance would be one-fourth of the previous value. b) The new capacitance would be one-half of the previous value. c) The new capacitance would be the same as the previous value. d) The new capacitance would be twice the previous value. e) The new capacitance would be four times the previous value.
25.3.4. For a cylindrical capacitor, the capacitance does not depend on which of the following values? a) the permittivity constant b) the radius of the inner conductor
c) the amount of charge on the conductors d) the radius of the outer conductor
e) the length of the cylinder
25.3.4. For a cylindrical capacitor, the capacitance does not depend on which of the following values? a) the permittivity constant b) the radius of the inner conductor
c) the amount of charge on the conductors d) the radius of the outer conductor
e) the length of the cylinder
25.4.1. Three capacitors are connected in parallel to a battery. How is the equivalent capacitance for this circuit determined?
a) The equivalent capacitance is the sum of the three capacitances. b) The equivalent capacitance is the sum of the three capacitances divided by three. In other words, the equivalent capacitance is the average capacitance in the circuit. c) The potential drop across each capacitor is measured and multiplied by each capacitance before adding them together. d) A resistor is used to replace one capacitor at a time. Then, the current through the resistor is measured and used to determine the charge on each capacitor. The sum of the charges is then divided by the emf of the battery to find the equivalent capacitance. e) Unlike resistors, an equivalent capacitance cannot be found by any simple means.
25.4.1. Three capacitors are connected in parallel to a battery. How is the equivalent capacitance for this circuit determined?
a) The equivalent capacitance is the sum of the three capacitances. b) The equivalent capacitance is the sum of the three capacitances divided by three. In other words, the equivalent capacitance is the average capacitance in the circuit. c) The potential drop across each capacitor is measured and multiplied by each capacitance before adding them together. d) A resistor is used to replace one capacitor at a time. Then, the current through the resistor is measured and used to determine the charge on each capacitor. The sum of the charges is then divided by the emf of the battery to find the equivalent capacitance. e) Unlike resistors, an equivalent capacitance cannot be found by any simple means.
25.4.2. Three capacitors are connected in series to a battery. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The amount of charge on each capacitor depends on its capacitance. If the capacitors have different capacitances, they will have differing amounts of charge on their plates. b) The equivalent capacitance is less than the sum of the individual capacitances. c) The battery must move more charge when the capacitors are connected in series than when connected in parallel.
d) An equivalent capacitance can be found for capacitors connected in series, but not when they are connected in parallel. e) The equivalent capacitance is equal to the sum of the individual capacitances.
25.4.2. Three capacitors are connected in series to a battery. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?
a) The amount of charge on each capacitor depends on its capacitance. If the capacitors have different capacitances, they will have differing amounts of charge on their plates. b) The equivalent capacitance is less than the sum of the individual capacitances. c) The battery must move more charge when the capacitors are connected in series than when connected in parallel.
d) An equivalent capacitance can be found for capacitors connected in series, but not when they are connected in parallel. e) The equivalent capacitance is equal to the sum of the individual capacitances.
25.4.3. How does the capacitance of two identical capacitors connected in series compare to that of one of the capacitors? a) The two capacitors connected in series have a larger capacitance. b) The two capacitors connected in series have the same capacitance.
c) The two capacitors connected in series have a smaller capacitance.
25.4.3. How does the capacitance of two identical capacitors connected in series compare to that of one of the capacitors? a) The two capacitors connected in series have a larger capacitance. b) The two capacitors connected in series have the same capacitance.
c) The two capacitors connected in series have a smaller capacitance.
25.4.4. How does the capacitance of two identical capacitors connected in parallel compare to that of one of the capacitors? a) The two capacitors connected in series have a larger capacitance. b) The two capacitors connected in series have the same capacitance.
c) The two capacitors connected in series have a smaller capacitance.
25.4.4. How does the capacitance of two identical capacitors connected in parallel compare to that of one of the capacitors? a) The two capacitors connected in series have a larger capacitance. b) The two capacitors connected in series have the same capacitance.
c) The two capacitors connected in series have a smaller capacitance.
25.5.1. A battery charges capacitor A until the potential difference between the two conductors of the capacitor is V. A second, identical capacitor, labeled B, is charged by another battery until the potential difference of capacitor B is 2V. How does the stored energy of capacitor B compare to that of capacitor A? a) The stored energy in both capacitors is the same since the capacitance of both is the same. b) The stored energy of capacitor B is one-fourth that of capacitor A. c) The stored energy of capacitor B is one-half that of capacitor A. d) The stored energy of capacitor B is twice that of capacitor A. e) The stored energy of capacitor B is four times that of capacitor A.
25.5.1. A battery charges capacitor A until the potential difference between the two conductors of the capacitor is V. A second, identical capacitor, labeled B, is charged by another battery until the potential difference of capacitor B is 2V. How does the stored energy of capacitor B compare to that of capacitor A? a) The stored energy in both capacitors is the same since the capacitance of both is the same. b) The stored energy of capacitor B is one-fourth that of capacitor A. c) The stored energy of capacitor B is one-half that of capacitor A. d) The stored energy of capacitor B is twice that of capacitor A. e) The stored energy of capacitor B is four times that of capacitor A.
25.5.2. Which of the following changes would result in an increase in the energy stored in a parallel-plate capacitor, assuming all other variables remain constant? a) insert an insulator between the plates b) increase the distance between the plates c) decrease the distance between the plates d) increase the area of the plates e) None of the changes listed above will change the energy stored in the capacitor.
25.5.2. Which of the following changes would result in an increase in the energy stored in a parallel-plate capacitor, assuming all other variables remain constant? a) insert an insulator between the plates b) increase the distance between the plates c) decrease the distance between the plates d) increase the area of the plates e) None of the changes listed above will change the energy stored in the capacitor.
25.5.3. Which of the following expressions gives the energy density between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor?
a)
1 V 2 0
d
2 V b) 12 0 d
c)
1 V 2d 2 0
2 V d) 12 0 2 d
2 d e) 12 0 2 V
25.5.3. Which of the following expressions gives the energy density between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor?
a)
1 V 2 0
d
2 V b) 12 0 d
c)
1 V 2d 2 0
2 V d) 12 0 2 d
2 d e) 12 0 2 V
25.6.1. What happens to a capacitor when an insulator is inserted between the two conductors of the capacitor? a) The capacitance of the capacitor increases. b) Electrons from the negative plate travel to the positive plate.
c) The electric field inside the capacitor increases. d) There is no change to the capacitor. The insulator just keeps the two conductors separated. e) The insulator reduces the electric field between
25.6.1. What happens to a capacitor when an insulator is inserted between the two conductors of the capacitor? a) The capacitance of the capacitor increases. b) Electrons from the negative plate travel to the positive plate.
c) The electric field inside the capacitor increases. d) There is no change to the capacitor. The insulator just keeps the two conductors separated. e) The insulator reduces the electric field between
25.6.2. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are fully charged by connecting it to a battery. An insulator with a dielectric constant = 1.0 is then inserted between the plates. What is the effect on the charge on the plates of the insertion of the insulator? a) The charge on the plates increases.
b) The charge on the plates remains unchanged. c) The charge on the plates decreases.
25.6.2. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are fully charged by connecting it to a battery. An insulator with a dielectric constant = 1.0 is then inserted between the plates. What is the effect on the charge on the plates of the insertion of the insulator? a) The charge on the plates increases.
b) The charge on the plates remains unchanged. c) The charge on the plates decreases.
25.7.1. How does the direction of the electric field within a dielectric inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor compare to the direction of the electric field due to the charged plates? a) The direction within the dielectric is opposite to that due to the plates.
b) The direction within the dielectric is parallel to that due to the plates. c) The direction within the dielectric is perpendicular to that due to the plates. d) There is no electric field inside the dielectric.
25.7.1. How does the direction of the electric field within a dielectric inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor compare to the direction of the electric field due to the charged plates? a) The direction within the dielectric is opposite to that due to the plates.
b) The direction within the dielectric is parallel to that due to the plates. c) The direction within the dielectric is perpendicular to that due to the plates. d) There is no electric field inside the dielectric.
25.8.1. When applying Gauss’ law for a capacitor containing a dielectric, which of the following statements is false? a) The electric field vector is multiplied by , the dielectric constant. b) The charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface includes both the free charge and the induced surface charges. c) Gauss’ law for a dielectric includes the ability to account for varying dielectric constant over the Gaussian surface. d) Gauss’ law for a dielectric is the most general form of Gauss’ law. e) Gauss’ law for a dielectric can be applied to many types of capacitors.
25.8.1. When applying Gauss’ law for a capacitor containing a dielectric, which of the following statements is false? a) The electric field vector is multiplied by , the dielectric constant. b) The charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface includes both the free charge and the induced surface charges. c) Gauss’ law for a dielectric includes the ability to account for varying dielectric constant over the Gaussian surface. d) Gauss’ law for a dielectric is the most general form of Gauss’ law. e) Gauss’ law for a dielectric can be applied to many types of capacitors.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 26 Current and Resistance Reading Quiz Questions
26.2.1. Which of the following corresponds to the units for current? a) N/s b) m/s c) C ∙ m/s d) C/s e) Two or more of the above answers are correct.
26.2.1. Which of the following corresponds to the units for current? a) N/s b) m/s c) C ∙ m/s d) C/s e) Two or more of the above answers are correct.
26.2.2. Through a certain cross-sectional area of a wire, one coulomb of electrons pass each second. In this case, the current through the wire is equal to which one of the following choices? a) one electron volt b) one volt c) one ampere d) one watt e) one joule per second
26.2.2. Through a certain cross-sectional area of a wire, one coulomb of electrons pass each second. In this case, the current through the wire is equal to which one of the following choices? a) one electron volt b) one volt c) one ampere d) one watt e) one joule per second
26.2.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the conventional direction of current is true?
a) The conventional direction of current is the hypothetical direction of movement of positive charges through the wires of an electric circuit. b) The conventional direction of current is the direction of movement of electrons through the wires of an electric circuit. c) The conventional direction of current is equal to the electromotive force of the battery in an electric circuit. d) The conventional direction of current is always a clockwise movement around a circuit. e) The conventional current is the one that moves in a dc circuit and an unconventional current is one that moves in an ac circuit.
26.2.3. Which one of the following statements concerning the conventional direction of current is true?
a) The conventional direction of current is the hypothetical direction of movement of positive charges through the wires of an electric circuit. b) The conventional direction of current is the direction of movement of electrons through the wires of an electric circuit. c) The conventional direction of current is equal to the electromotive force of the battery in an electric circuit. d) The conventional direction of current is always a clockwise movement around a circuit. e) The conventional current is the one that moves in a dc circuit and an unconventional current is one that moves in an ac circuit.
26.2.4. How is the direction of current flow defined in a conductor? a) It is in the direction of the force on a charged particle. b) It is in the direction that the atoms move. c) It is in the direction that positively-charged particles would move. d) It is in the direction that negatively-charged particles would move. e) It is up to the person doing a given problem to decide the direction.
26.2.4. How is the direction of current flow defined in a conductor? a) It is in the direction of the force on a charged particle. b) It is in the direction that the atoms move. c) It is in the direction that positively-charged particles would move. d) It is in the direction that negatively-charged particles would move. e) It is up to the person doing a given problem to decide the direction.
26.3.1. Complete the following statement: Current density is a measure of a) the number of charges in a volume at a given time. b) the amount of current flowing through a volume.
c) the amount of charges in a cross-sectional area at a given time. d) the amount of current flowing through a cross-sectional area.
e) the total mass of the charges through a cross-sectional area.
26.3.1. Complete the following statement: Current density is a measure of a) the number of charges in a volume at a given time. b) the amount of current flowing through a volume.
c) the amount of charges in a cross-sectional area at a given time. d) the amount of current flowing through a cross-sectional area.
e) the total mass of the charges through a cross-sectional area.
26.3.2. What is the term used to describe the net motion of electrons when an electric field is applied to a conductor and a current is established? a) drift speed b) random walk c) chaotic velocity d) Brownian acceleration e) Einstein condensation
26.3.2. What is the term used to describe the net motion of electrons when an electric field is applied to a conductor and a current is established? a) drift speed b) random walk c) chaotic velocity d) Brownian acceleration e) Einstein condensation
26.4.1. Which pair of terms correctly fills the blanks in the following sentence? ________ is a property of an object while ________ is a property of a material. a) resistivity, conductivity b) current, current density c) current, resistance d) resistance, current e) resistance, resistivity
26.4.1. Which pair of terms correctly fills the blanks in the following sentence? ________ is a property of an object while ________ is a property of a material. a) resistivity, conductivity b) current, current density c) current, resistance d) resistance, current e) resistance, resistivity
26.4.2. In the fabrication of an electrical extension cord, the manufacturer wants to reduce the overall resistance of the wires in the extension cord. Which of the following changes would result in the lowest resistance? a) decrease the diameter of the wires
b) increase the diameter of the wires c) choose a metal wire with a larger value of resistivity
d) increase the length of the extension cord e) choose a metal with a larger value for the temperature coefficient of resistivity
26.4.2. In the fabrication of an electrical extension cord, the manufacturer wants to reduce the overall resistance of the wires in the extension cord. Which of the following changes would result in the lowest resistance? a) decrease the diameter of the wires
b) increase the diameter of the wires c) choose a metal wire with a larger value of resistivity
d) increase the length of the extension cord e) choose a metal with a larger value for the temperature coefficient of resistivity
26.4.3. Two identical resistors are connected in series across the terminals of a battery with a voltage V and a current I flows through the circuit. If one of the resistors is removed from the circuit and the remaining one connected across the terminals of the battery, how much current would flow through the circuit? a) 4I b) 2I c) I d) I/2 e) I/4
26.4.3. Two identical resistors are connected in series across the terminals of a battery with a voltage V and a current I flows through the circuit. If one of the resistors is removed from the circuit and the remaining one connected across the terminals of the battery, how much current would flow through the circuit? a) 4I b) 2I c) I d) I/2 e) I/4
26.5.1. Which one of the following statements concerning Ohm’s law is true? a) Ohm’s law is true for all electronic devices. b) Ohm’s law is true when the resistivity of a material is independent of the applied electric field. c) Ohm’s law is true when the resistance varies linearly with the magnitude of the applied electric field.
d) Ohm’s law is true for all conductors. e) Ohm’s law is true for all materials.
26.5.1. Which one of the following statements concerning Ohm’s law is true? a) Ohm’s law is true for all electronic devices. b) Ohm’s law is true when the resistivity of a material is independent of the applied electric field. c) Ohm’s law is true when the resistance varies linearly with the magnitude of the applied electric field.
d) Ohm’s law is true for all conductors. e) Ohm’s law is true for all materials.
26.5.2. By which of the following methods could the current in a given circuit be doubled? a) Either double the resistance or double the voltage. b) Reduce either the voltage or the resistance to half of the initial value. c) Either double the voltage or reduce the resistance to half of its initial value.
d) Either double the resistance or reduce the voltage to half of its initial value. e) None of the above answers are correct.
26.5.2. By which of the following methods could the current in a given circuit be doubled? a) Either double the resistance or double the voltage. b) Reduce either the voltage or the resistance to half of the initial value. c) Either double the voltage or reduce the resistance to half of its initial value.
d) Either double the resistance or reduce the voltage to half of its initial value. e) None of the above answers are correct.
26.5.3. Which one of the following statements related to Ohm’s law is false? a) The ratio of the voltage applied across a wire to the current flowing through it is constant. b) Resistance is expressed in ohms. c) Georg Simon Ohm discovered the law named after him. d) The resistance of all materials falls within a narrow range of values between 1 and 100 . e) One ohm is equal to one volt divided by one ampere.
26.5.3. Which one of the following statements related to Ohm’s law is false? a) The ratio of the voltage applied across a wire to the current flowing through it is constant. b) Resistance is expressed in ohms. c) Georg Simon Ohm discovered the law named after him. d) The resistance of all materials falls within a narrow range of values between 1 and 100 . e) One ohm is equal to one volt divided by one ampere.
26.5.4. In most cases, Ohm’s law is valid when which of the following conditions is satisfied?
a) when, for a given piece of material, the ratio V/I is the same for a wide range of voltages and currents b) when there is a direct current passing through a given piece of material c) when the voltage across a piece of material is constant for a wide range of currents d) when the current through a piece of material is constant for a wide range of voltages e) when the voltage decreases with increasing current through a piece of material
26.5.4. In most cases, Ohm’s law is valid when which of the following conditions is satisfied?
a) when, for a given piece of material, the ratio V/I is the same for a wide range of voltages and currents b) when there is a direct current passing through a given piece of material c) when the voltage across a piece of material is constant for a wide range of currents d) when the current through a piece of material is constant for a wide range of voltages e) when the voltage decreases with increasing current through a piece of material
26.6.1. What is the name of the microscopic model that may be used to understand why some materials obey Ohm’s law? a) plum pudding model b) Maxwell-Boltzmann model
c) standard model d) Anderson model
e) free-electron model
26.6.1. What is the name of the microscopic model that may be used to understand why some materials obey Ohm’s law? a) plum pudding model b) Maxwell-Boltzmann model
c) standard model d) Anderson model
e) free-electron model
26.7.1. The SI unit of power is the watt. Which of the following units are equivalent to the watt? a) V∙A b) J/C
c) C/s d) V/s
e) A/s
26.7.1. The SI unit of power is the watt. Which of the following units are equivalent to the watt? a) V∙A b) J/C
c) C/s d) V/s
e) A/s
26.7.2. In the equation, P = i2R, what is the meaning of the variable P? a) It refers to total power dissipated by the circuit. b) It refers to the transformation of electric potential energy into thermal energy.
c) It refers to the transformation of electric potential energy into mechanical energy. d) It refers to the power of a resistor. e) It refers to the probability that Ohm’s law will be obeyed by the resistor in a circuit.
26.7.2. In the equation, P = i2R, what is the meaning of the variable P? a) It refers to total power dissipated by the circuit. b) It refers to the transformation of electric potential energy into thermal energy.
c) It refers to the transformation of electric potential energy into mechanical energy. d) It refers to the power of a resistor. e) It refers to the probability that Ohm’s law will be obeyed by the resistor in a circuit.
26.7.3. Complete the following sentence: The SI unit for electric power is a) kilowatt-hour. b) light-year.
c) watt. d) joule.
e) farad.
26.7.3. Complete the following sentence: The SI unit for electric power is a) kilowatt-hour. b) light-year.
c) watt. d) joule.
e) farad.
26.7.4. Which one of the following equations is not a valid expression for electric power P? Note: I is the current in a circuit as a result of a voltage V and R is the electrical resistance of the circuit. a) P = I2R
I 2R b) P = V c) P = IV
V2 d) P = R
26.7.4. Which one of the following equations is not a valid expression for electric power P? Note: I is the current in a circuit as a result of a voltage V and R is the electrical resistance of the circuit. a) P = I2R
I 2R b) P = V c) P = IV
V2 d) P = R
26.8.1. Complete the following sentence: the electrical resistivity of most metal wires is a) constant, even when the temperature of the metals varies greatly. b) independent of the length of the wire.
c) expressed in ohms. d) much smaller than the values for most semiconductors.
e) inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire.
26.8.1. Complete the following sentence: the electrical resistivity of most metal wires is a) constant, even when the temperature of the metals varies greatly. b) independent of the length of the wire.
c) expressed in ohms. d) much smaller than the values for most semiconductors.
e) inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire.
26.8.2. Which one of the following types of materials exhibits the largest values of resistivity? a) insulators b) semiconductors
c) superconductors d) metals
26.8.2. Which one of the following types of materials exhibits the largest values of resistivity? a) insulators b) semiconductors
c) superconductors d) metals
26.8.3. To make silicon useful for electronic circuits, impurity atoms must be added. What is the name of this process? a) implementation b) superposition
c) doping d) seeding
e) sintering
26.8.3. To make silicon useful for electronic circuits, impurity atoms must be added. What is the name of this process? a) implementation b) superposition
c) doping d) seeding
e) sintering
26.9.1. What kind of materials exhibit zero resistivity when the temperature is reduced below a critical temperature for that material? a) semiconductors b) piezoelectrics c) ferroelectrics d) perovskites e) superconductors
26.9.1. What kind of materials exhibit zero resistivity when the temperature is reduced below a critical temperature for that material? a) semiconductors b) piezoelectrics c) ferroelectrics d) perovskites e) superconductors
26.9.2. What happened in the field of superconductivity in 1986? a) A material that is superconducting at room temperature was discovered. b) Ceramic materials were found that are superconducting at much higher temperatures than metals or alloys. c) High efficiency cooling methods were found that substantially reduced the costs of cooling materials to the superconducting state.
d) Superconductivity was observed for the first time in organic materials. e) The first superconducting magnet was invented.
26.9.2. What happened in the field of superconductivity in 1986? a) A material that is superconducting at room temperature was discovered. b) Ceramic materials were found that are superconducting at much higher temperatures than metals or alloys. c) High efficiency cooling methods were found that substantially reduced the costs of cooling materials to the superconducting state.
d) Superconductivity was observed for the first time in organic materials. e) The first superconducting magnet was invented.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 27 Circuits Reading Quiz Questions
27.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning emf is true? a) Emf is the work done in moving the current from one terminal to the other of an emf device. b) Emf is the work done in moving a single charge from one terminal to the other of an emf device. c) Emf is the force exerted on a single charge to move it from one terminal to the other of an emf device. d) Emf is the total charge moving from one terminal to the other of an emf device. e) Emf is the electromagnetic force that is exerted between the terminals of an emf device.
27.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning emf is true? a) Emf is the work done in moving the current from one terminal to the other of an emf device. b) Emf is the work done in moving a single charge from one terminal to the other of an emf device. c) Emf is the force exerted on a single charge to move it from one terminal to the other of an emf device. d) Emf is the total charge moving from one terminal to the other of an emf device. e) Emf is the electromagnetic force that is exerted between the terminals of an emf device.
27.3.1. What is the primary difference between an ideal emf device and a real emf device?
a) The electric potential of a real emf device is limited. b) The resistance of a real emf device is finite, but the resistance of an ideal emf device is assumed to be infinite. c) A real emf device can carry an electric current, but an ideal emf device does not. d) A real emf device has an internal resistance, but an ideal emf device does not. e) A real emf device has a potential difference across its terminals, but an ideal emf device does not.
27.3.1. What is the primary difference between an ideal emf device and a real emf device?
a) The electric potential of a real emf device is limited. b) The resistance of a real emf device is finite, but the resistance of an ideal emf device is assumed to be infinite. c) A real emf device can carry an electric current, but an ideal emf device does not. d) A real emf device has an internal resistance, but an ideal emf device does not. e) A real emf device has a potential difference across its terminals, but an ideal emf device does not.
27.3.2. Which one of the following units is the correct SI unit for the electromotive force (emf)? a) newtons (N) b) coulombs (C)
c) joules (J). d) amperes (A)
e) volts (V)
27.3.2. Which one of the following units is the correct SI unit for the electromotive force (emf)? a) newtons (N) b) coulombs (C)
c) joules (J). d) amperes (A)
e) volts (V)
27.3.3. The positive terminal of a battery in a minivan has an electric potential that is a maximum of 12 V higher than the negative terminal. Complete the following sentence: When wires are connected to the battery from the various electrical circuits within the minivan, the potential difference between the two terminals is a) equal to 12 V. b) less than 12 V. c) greater than 12 V. d) equal to zero V.
27.3.3. The positive terminal of a battery in a minivan has an electric potential that is a maximum of 12 V higher than the negative terminal. Complete the following sentence: When wires are connected to the battery from the various electrical circuits within the minivan, the potential difference between the two terminals is a) equal to 12 V. b) less than 12 V. c) greater than 12 V. d) equal to zero V.
27.3.4. Which one of the following terms describes the resistance that a battery (or other emf device) has in a circuit? a) super resistance b) critical resistance
c) internal resistance d) terminal resistance
e) electroresistance
27.3.4. Which one of the following terms describes the resistance that a battery (or other emf device) has in a circuit? a) super resistance b) critical resistance
c) internal resistance d) terminal resistance
e) electroresistance
27.4.1. In analyzing electric circuits containing a battery and at least one resistor, what is the change in potential across a resistor as one moves through it in the direction of the current? a) +i2R b) −i2R c) +iR d) −iR e) zero
27.4.1. In analyzing electric circuits containing a battery and at least one resistor, what is the change in potential across a resistor as one moves through it in the direction of the current? a) +i2R b) −i2R c) +iR d) −iR e) zero
27.4.2. In analyzing electric circuits containing an ideal emf device that has an emf and at least one resistor, what is the change in potential across the emf device as one moves through it in the direction of the emf arrow? a) +
b) − c) + / R
d) − / R e) zero
27.4.2. In analyzing electric circuits containing an ideal emf device that has an emf and at least one resistor, what is the change in potential across the emf device as one moves through it in the direction of the emf arrow? a) +
b) − c) + / R
d) − / R e) zero
27.4.3. Complete the following statement: Around any closed-circuit loop, the sum of the potential drops a) dramatically with the addition of each resistor. b) in each loop is the same.
c) equals the sum of the potential rises. d) equals the emf of the battery.
e) increases with the addition of each resistor.
27.4.3. Complete the following statement: Around any closed-circuit loop, the sum of the potential drops a) dramatically with the addition of each resistor. b) in each loop is the same.
c) equals the sum of the potential rises. d) equals the emf of the battery.
e) increases with the addition of each resistor.
27.5.1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning resistors connected in series within an electric circuit? a) The potential difference across each of the resistors is the same. b) The current through each of the resistors is the same.
c) The energy dissipated by each of the resistors is the same. d) The resistance of each of the resistors is the same.
e) The resistivity of each of the resistors is the same.
27.5.1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning resistors connected in series within an electric circuit? a) The potential difference across each of the resistors is the same. b) The current through each of the resistors is the same.
c) The energy dissipated by each of the resistors is the same. d) The resistance of each of the resistors is the same.
e) The resistivity of each of the resistors is the same.
27.5.2. Two identical resistors are connected in series across the terminals of a battery with a voltage V and a current i flows through the circuit. If one of the resistors is removed from the circuit and the remaining one connected across the terminals of the battery, how much current would flow through the circuit? a) 4i b) 2i c) i d) i/2 e) i/4
27.5.2. Two identical resistors are connected in series across the terminals of a battery with a voltage V and a current i flows through the circuit. If one of the resistors is removed from the circuit and the remaining one connected across the terminals of the battery, how much current would flow through the circuit? a) 4i b) 2i c) i d) i/2 e) i/4
27.5.3. One end of resistor A is connected to the positive terminal of a battery and the other end is connected to resistor B. The opposite end of resistor B is connected to the negative terminal of the battery. If resistor A has resistance R and B has a resistance 2R, what is the equivalent resistance of this circuit? a) R b) 3R/2 c) 2R d) 2R/3 e) 3R
27.5.3. One end of resistor A is connected to the positive terminal of a battery and the other end is connected to resistor B. The opposite end of resistor B is connected to the negative terminal of the battery. If resistor A has resistance R and B has a resistance 2R, what is the equivalent resistance of this circuit? a) R b) 3R/2 c) 2R d) 2R/3 e) 3R
27.6.1. Which of the following occurs when part of an electric circuit is connected to ground? a) The ground acts like a battery, so the current in the circuit increases. b) Any current in the circuit flows to the ground. c) The electric potential at the connection point is equal to zero volts. d) The electric potential difference across the terminals of any batteries in the circuit is equal to zero volts. e) The ground provides a source for more electrons to flow into the circuit.
27.6.1. Which of the following occurs when part of an electric circuit is connected to ground? a) The ground acts like a battery, so the current in the circuit increases. b) Any current in the circuit flows to the ground. c) The electric potential at the connection point is equal to zero volts. d) The electric potential difference across the terminals of any batteries in the circuit is equal to zero volts. e) The ground provides a source for more electrons to flow into the circuit.
27.7.1. While analyzing the currents within a circuit containing multiple components (such as batteries, resistors, etc.), which of the following statements concerning currents flowing into a single junction must be true? a) The sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the total current through the battery. b) The sum of the currents entering the junction must equal zero. c) The sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the sum of the currents exiting the junction. d) The currents entering the junction must follow only one of the possible exit paths. e) The currents entering the junction may exit back along the path from which they entered.
27.7.1. While analyzing the currents within a circuit containing multiple components (such as batteries, resistors, etc.), which of the following statements concerning currents flowing into a single junction must be true? a) The sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the total current through the battery. b) The sum of the currents entering the junction must equal zero. c) The sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the sum of the currents exiting the junction. d) The currents entering the junction must follow only one of the possible exit paths. e) The currents entering the junction may exit back along the path from which they entered.
27.7.2. The fact that the sum of the currents entering any junction in an electric circuit must be equal to the sum of the currents leaving the junction is an expression of what principle? a) conservation of energy b) Heisenberg uncertainty principle c) conservation of momentum d) Archimedes' Principle e) conservation of charge
27.7.2. The fact that the sum of the currents entering any junction in an electric circuit must be equal to the sum of the currents leaving the junction is an expression of what principle? a) conservation of energy b) Heisenberg uncertainty principle c) conservation of momentum d) Archimedes' Principle e) conservation of charge
27.7.3. Which one of the following statements is true concerning resistors connected in parallel within an electric circuit? a) The potential difference across each of the resistors is the same. b) The current through each of the resistors is the same.
c) The energy dissipated by each of the resistors is the same. d) The resistance of each of the resistors is the same.
e) The resistivity of each of the resistors is the same.
27.7.3. Which one of the following statements is true concerning resistors connected in parallel within an electric circuit? a) The potential difference across each of the resistors is the same. b) The current through each of the resistors is the same.
c) The energy dissipated by each of the resistors is the same. d) The resistance of each of the resistors is the same.
e) The resistivity of each of the resistors is the same.
27.7.4. Which of the following statements concerning resistors that are wired in parallel is true? a) The current through each resistor is necessarily the same. b) The equivalent resistance for the resistors in the circuit is the sum of the individual resistances. c) The voltage across each resistor is necessarily the same. d) The equivalent resistance for the resistors in the circuit is the product of the individual resistances. e) The equivalent resistance for the resistors in the circuit is the average of the individual resistances.
27.7.4. Which of the following statements concerning resistors that are wired in parallel is true? a) The current through each resistor is necessarily the same. b) The equivalent resistance for the resistors in the circuit is the sum of the individual resistances. c) The voltage across each resistor is necessarily the same. d) The equivalent resistance for the resistors in the circuit is the product of the individual resistances. e) The equivalent resistance for the resistors in the circuit is the average of the individual resistances.
27.7.5. Two resistors can be either connected to a battery in series or in parallel. In which case, if either, is the equivalent resistance the smallest? a) When the two resistors are wired in parallel, the equivalent resistance is less than if they are wired in series.
b) When the two resistors are wired in series, the equivalent resistance is less than if they are wired in parallel. c) Both series and parallel wiring will result in the same equivalent resistance. d) It is not possible to know which method of wiring will result in the lowest equivalent resistance without knowing the values of the two resistances.
27.7.5. Two resistors can be either connected to a battery in series or in parallel. In which case, if either, is the equivalent resistance the smallest? a) When the two resistors are wired in parallel, the equivalent resistance is less than if they are wired in series.
b) When the two resistors are wired in series, the equivalent resistance is less than if they are wired in parallel. c) Both series and parallel wiring will result in the same equivalent resistance. d) It is not possible to know which method of wiring will result in the lowest equivalent resistance without knowing the values of the two resistances.
27.7.6. In analyzing circuits in which resistors are wired partially in series and partially in parallel, which one of the following statements describes the preferred approach to take to determine the equivalent resistance in the circuit? a) Find the sum of all the resistors. This is the equivalent resistance for the circuit. b) Break the circuit into smaller parts and find an equivalent resistance for each part. Then continue this process until all of the parts are added together correctly either in series or parallel until a single equivalent resistance is found. c) All together all of the resistors in series, ignoring any wired in parallel as they do not significantly add to the equivalent resistance of the circuit. The sum of the resistors in series is the equivalent resistance. d) All together all of the resistors in parallel, ignoring any wired in series as they do not significantly add to the equivalent resistance of the circuit. The sum of the resistors in parallel is the equivalent resistance.
27.7.6. In analyzing circuits in which resistors are wired partially in series and partially in parallel, which one of the following statements describes the preferred approach to take to determine the equivalent resistance in the circuit? a) Find the sum of all the resistors. This is the equivalent resistance for the circuit. b) Break the circuit into smaller parts and find an equivalent resistance for each part. Then continue this process until all of the parts are added together correctly either in series or parallel until a single equivalent resistance is found. c) All together all of the resistors in series, ignoring any wired in parallel as they do not significantly add to the equivalent resistance of the circuit. The sum of the resistors in series is the equivalent resistance. d) All together all of the resistors in parallel, ignoring any wired in series as they do not significantly add to the equivalent resistance of the circuit. The sum of the resistors in parallel is the equivalent resistance.
27.7.7. Which one of the following choices is not one of Kirchoff’s rules? a) junction rule b) emf rule
c) loop rule d) slide rule
e) resistance rule
27.7.7. Which one of the following choices is not one of Kirchoff’s rules? a) junction rule b) emf rule
c) loop rule d) slide rule
e) resistance rule
27.7.8. Complete the following statement: The sum of the magnitudes of the currents directed into a junction a) equals the sum of the magnitudes of the currents directed out of the junction. b) is less than the total current directed out of the junction. c) equals the current that is directed along one of the lines out of the junction.
d) is divided equally among the number of lines directed out of the junction. e) is greater than the total current directed out of the junction.
27.7.8. Complete the following statement: The sum of the magnitudes of the currents directed into a junction a) equals the sum of the magnitudes of the currents directed out of the junction. b) is less than the total current directed out of the junction. c) equals the current that is directed along one of the lines out of the junction.
d) is divided equally among the number of lines directed out of the junction. e) is greater than the total current directed out of the junction.
27.8.1. Which of the following devices is placed into a circuit to measure the current that passes through it? a) ammeter b) gaussmeter
c) voltmeter d) diffractometer
e) flowmeter
27.8.1. Which of the following devices is placed into a circuit to measure the current that passes through it? a) ammeter b) gaussmeter
c) voltmeter d) diffractometer
e) flowmeter
27.8.2. Which one of the following statements is not a characteristic of a voltmeter? a) The voltmeter measures the voltage between two points in a circuit. b) The voltmeter is designed to measure nearly the same voltage that is present when the meter is not connected. c) The voltmeter is not placed directly into a circuit. d) The voltmeter is designed to draw very little current from the circuit being measured. e) An ideal voltmeter has almost no resistance.
27.8.2. Which one of the following statements is not a characteristic of a voltmeter? a) The voltmeter measures the voltage between two points in a circuit. b) The voltmeter is designed to measure nearly the same voltage that is present when the meter is not connected. c) The voltmeter is not placed directly into a circuit. d) The voltmeter is designed to draw very little current from the circuit being measured. e) An ideal voltmeter has almost no resistance.
27.9.1. When does a charging capacitor stop charging? a) when the amount of charge on the two plates is equal b) when the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is equal to zero volts
c) when the amount of charge on the two plates is infinitely large d) when the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is equal to the emf of the battery e) when all of the charge available in the circuit has been forced to collect on the plates of the capacitor
27.9.1. When does a charging capacitor stop charging? a) when the amount of charge on the two plates is equal b) when the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is equal to zero volts
c) when the amount of charge on the two plates is infinitely large d) when the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor is equal to the emf of the battery e) when all of the charge available in the circuit has been forced to collect on the plates of the capacitor
27.9.2. What effect, if any, does increasing the resistance in an RC circuit have on the charging of the capacitor?
a) The resistance has no effect on the charging of the capacitor, which is determined by the emf of the battery and the capacitance of the capacitor. b) Increasing the resistance causes the charging time to increase since the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor increases. c) The charging time will decrease as the resistance is increased because the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor decreases. d) Increasing the resistance increases the charging time since the emf of the battery will be reduced. e) Increasing the resistance decreases the charging time since the emf of the battery will be reduced.
27.9.2. What effect, if any, does increasing the resistance in an RC circuit have on the charging of the capacitor?
a) The resistance has no effect on the charging of the capacitor, which is determined by the emf of the battery and the capacitance of the capacitor. b) Increasing the resistance causes the charging time to increase since the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor increases. c) The charging time will decrease as the resistance is increased because the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor decreases. d) Increasing the resistance increases the charging time since the emf of the battery will be reduced. e) Increasing the resistance decreases the charging time since the emf of the battery will be reduced.
27.9.3. What effect, if any, does increasing the capacitance in an RC circuit have on the charging of the capacitor?
a) The capacitance has no effect on the charging of the capacitor, which is determined by the emf of the battery and the circuit resistance. b) Increasing the capacitance causes the charging time to increase since the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor increases. c) The charging time will decrease as the capacitance is increased because the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor decreases. d) Increasing the capacitance increases the charging time since the capacitor can hold more charge. e) Increasing the capacitance decreases the charging time since the emf of the battery will be reduced.
27.9.3. What effect, if any, does increasing the capacitance in an RC circuit have on the charging of the capacitor?
a) The capacitance has no effect on the charging of the capacitor, which is determined by the emf of the battery and the circuit resistance. b) Increasing the capacitance causes the charging time to increase since the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor increases. c) The charging time will decrease as the capacitance is increased because the rate at which charges are moving to the capacitor decreases. d) Increasing the capacitance increases the charging time since the capacitor can hold more charge. e) Increasing the capacitance decreases the charging time since the emf of the battery will be reduced.
27.9.4. Which of the following quantities is equal to the time constant for a charging capacitor? a) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 33 % of its maximum charge b) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 50 % of its maximum charge
c) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 66 % of its maximum charge d) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 75 % of its maximum charge
e) the time it takes a capacitor to reach its maximum charge
27.9.4. Which of the following quantities is equal to the time constant for a charging capacitor? a) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 33 % of its maximum charge b) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 50 % of its maximum charge
c) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 66 % of its maximum charge d) the time it takes a capacitor to reach 75 % of its maximum charge
e) the time it takes a capacitor to reach its maximum charge
27.9.5. Consider each of the graphs shown. Which of these graphs represents the charge on a capacitor as it is being charged in a circuit containing a resistor and a capacitor in series shortly after they are connected to a battery? a) A
b) B c) C
d) D e) E
27.9.5. Consider each of the graphs shown. Which of these graphs represents the charge on a capacitor as it is being charged in a circuit containing a resistor and a capacitor in series shortly after they are connected to a battery? a) A
b) B c) C
d) D e) E
27.9.6. A circuit contains a capacitor with a capacitance C and a resistor with a resistance R connected in series with a battery. Which one of the following mathematical expressions correctly represents the time constant for this circuit? a) = 1 RC 2 2
R b) = C c) = RC d) = 12 RC
C e) = R
27.9.6. A circuit contains a capacitor with a capacitance C and a resistor with a resistance R connected in series with a battery. Which one of the following mathematical expressions correctly represents the time constant for this circuit? a) = 1 RC 2 2
R b) = C c) = RC d) = 12 RC
C e) = R
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 28 Magnetic Fields Reading Quiz Questions
28.2.1. Which one of the following choices is not a possible way to produce a magnetic field? a) Set up a current in a long, straight wire. b) Uniformly distribute charges over the surface of a conductor.
c) Make an object out of materials that have an intrinsic magnetic field. d) Pass a current through a coil of wire.
28.2.1. Which one of the following choices is not a possible way to produce a magnetic field? a) Set up a current in a long, straight wire. b) Uniformly distribute charges over the surface of a conductor.
c) Make an object out of materials that have an intrinsic magnetic field. d) Pass a current through a coil of wire.
28.3.1. Consider the following quantities: (1) mass, (2) velocity, (3) charge, and (4) magnetic field strength. Upon which of these quantities is the force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field dependent? a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 2, 3, and 4 only e) 1, 2, and 3 only
28.3.1. Consider the following quantities: (1) mass, (2) velocity, (3) charge, and (4) magnetic field strength. Upon which of these quantities is the force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field dependent? a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 2, 3, and 4 only e) 1, 2, and 3 only
28.3.2. A charged particle is moving in a magnetic field. What is the direction of the force on the particle due to the magnetic field? a) in the direction of the magnetic field b) in the direction opposite to which the particle is moving
c) in the direction that is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the velocity d) in the same plane as the magnetic field and the velocity, but not in either of those two directions e) in the direction of motion
28.3.2. A charged particle is moving in a magnetic field. What is the direction of the force on the particle due to the magnetic field? a) in the direction of the magnetic field b) in the direction opposite to which the particle is moving
c) in the direction that is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the velocity d) in the same plane as the magnetic field and the velocity, but not in either of those two directions e) in the direction of motion
28.3.3. Which of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the tesla? a) N/(Am) b) NA/m
c) (Js)/(Am) d) J/(Cs)
e) C/(Js)
28.3.3. Which of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the tesla? a) N/(Am) b) NA/m
c) (Js)/(Am) d) J/(Cs)
e) C/(Js)
28.3.4. Complete the following sentence: When a positively-charged particle is released from rest in a region that has a magnetic field directed due east, the particle will a) remain at rest. b) be accelerated due east. c) be accelerated due north. d) be accelerated upward. e) be accelerated downward.
28.3.4. Complete the following sentence: When a positively-charged particle is released from rest in a region that has a magnetic field directed due east, the particle will a) remain at rest. b) be accelerated due east. c) be accelerated due north. d) be accelerated upward. e) be accelerated downward.
28.3.5. Which one of the following conditions is not a requirement for a particle to experience a magnetic force when placed in a magnetic field? a) The particle must be moving. b) The particle must be charged. c) The particle must not be under the influence of any other forces. d) The velocity of the particle must have a component that is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.
28.3.5. Which one of the following conditions is not a requirement for a particle to experience a magnetic force when placed in a magnetic field? a) The particle must be moving. b) The particle must be charged. c) The particle must not be under the influence of any other forces. d) The velocity of the particle must have a component that is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.
38.3.6. Which one of the following is the SI unit for the magnetic field? a) monopole (MP) b) tesla (T)
c) fermi (Fm) d) gross (G)
e) Oersted (oe)
38.3.6. Which one of the following is the SI unit for the magnetic field? a) monopole (MP) b) tesla (T)
c) fermi (Fm) d) gross (G)
e) Oersted (oe)
28.3.7. What is the use of a bubble chamber? a) to accelerate charged particles before they move into a magnetic field b) to allow the trajectory of charged particles moving in a magnetic field to be observed and measured c) to make a magnetic field within a region of space uniform d) to increase the mass of charged particles so that their trajectories are more easily observed e) to charge a neutral particle or the increase the charge on a particle before it enters a magnetic field
28.3.7. What is the use of a bubble chamber? a) to accelerate charged particles before they move into a magnetic field b) to allow the trajectory of charged particles moving in a magnetic field to be observed and measured c) to make a magnetic field within a region of space uniform d) to increase the mass of charged particles so that their trajectories are more easily observed e) to charge a neutral particle or the increase the charge on a particle before it enters a magnetic field
28.3.8. What is Right-Hand Rule used to determine? a) Given the directions of the magnetic field and the velocity of a charged particle, it is used to find the direction of the magnetic force on the particle. b) Given the directions of the magnetic field and magnetic force on a charged particle, it is used to determine the magnitude and sign of charge on the particle. c) Given the magnitude and sign of the charge on a particle and the direction of the magnetic force, it is used to determine the net force on the particle. d) It is used to determine the direction of the “reaction force” when applying Newton’s third law of motion to the particle.
28.3.8. What is Right-Hand Rule used to determine? a) Given the directions of the magnetic field and the velocity of a charged particle, it is used to find the direction of the magnetic force on the particle. b) Given the directions of the magnetic field and magnetic force on a charged particle, it is used to determine the magnitude and sign of charge on the particle. c) Given the magnitude and sign of the charge on a particle and the direction of the magnetic force, it is used to determine the net force on the particle. d) It is used to determine the direction of the “reaction force” when applying Newton’s third law of motion to the particle.
28.4.1. J.J. Thompson discovered which of the following with his crossed fields experiment? a) magnetic field b) electrons
c) magnetic monopoles d) protons
e) neutrons
28.4.1. J.J. Thompson discovered which of the following with his crossed fields experiment? a) magnetic field b) electrons
c) magnetic monopoles d) protons
e) neutrons
28.4.2. Which of the following scientists is credited with the discovery of the electron? a) Planck b) Curie
c) Maxwell d) Thompson
e) Fermi
28.4.2. Which of the following scientists is credited with the discovery of the electron? a) Planck b) Curie
c) Maxwell d) Thompson
e) Fermi
28.5.1. Which one of the following quantities can be measured by performing a Hall effect measurement? a) magnetic monopole strength b) charge of the electron
c) number density of charge carriers d) acceleration of an electron
e) work function
28.5.1. Which one of the following quantities can be measured by performing a Hall effect measurement? a) magnetic monopole strength b) charge of the electron
c) number density of charge carriers d) acceleration of an electron
e) work function
28.6.1. A negatively-charged particle is slowly moving as it enters a region that has a constant magnetic field. If the velocity of the particle is initially perpendicular to the magnetic field, what will be the subsequent motion of the particle? a) It will follow a helical path around the magnetic field lines.
b) It will follow a circular path in the plane perpendicular to the magnetic field lines. c) It will follow a straight line path in the same direction as it was initially traveling. d) It will follow a circular path in a plane parallel to the magnetic field lines. e) It is impossible to predict the path the particle will follow.
28.6.1. A negatively-charged particle is slowly moving as it enters a region that has a constant magnetic field. If the velocity of the particle is initially perpendicular to the magnetic field, what will be the subsequent motion of the particle? a) It will follow a helical path around the magnetic field lines.
b) It will follow a circular path in the plane perpendicular to the magnetic field lines. c) It will follow a straight line path in the same direction as it was initially traveling. d) It will follow a circular path in a plane parallel to the magnetic field lines. e) It is impossible to predict the path the particle will follow.
28.6.2. A negatively-charged particle is slowly moving as it enters a region that has a constant magnetic field. If the velocity of the particle is initially parallel to the magnetic field, what will be the subsequent motion of the particle? a) It will follow a helical path around the magnetic field lines.
b) It will follow a circular path in the plane perpendicular to the magnetic field lines. c) It will follow a straight line path in the same direction as it was initially traveling. d) It will follow a circular path in a plane parallel to the magnetic field lines. e) It is impossible to predict the path the particle will follow.
28.6.2. A negatively-charged particle is slowly moving as it enters a region that has a constant magnetic field. If the velocity of the particle is initially parallel to the magnetic field, what will be the subsequent motion of the particle? a) It will follow a helical path around the magnetic field lines.
b) It will follow a circular path in the plane perpendicular to the magnetic field lines. c) It will follow a straight line path in the same direction as it was initially traveling. d) It will follow a circular path in a plane parallel to the magnetic field lines. e) It is impossible to predict the path the particle will follow.
28.6.3. What must the initial state of motion of a charged particle be if it will follow a helical path in a magnetic field? a) It must be moving at an angle that is neither parallel to nor perpendicular to the magnetic field. b) It must be moving parallel to the magnetic field. c) It must be moving perpendicular to the magnetic field. d) It must be moving in the direction opposite to the magnetic field. e) It must be initially at rest when it is placed in the magnetic field.
28.6.3. What must the initial state of motion of a charged particle be if it will follow a helical path in a magnetic field? a) It must be moving at an angle that is neither parallel to nor perpendicular to the magnetic field. b) It must be moving parallel to the magnetic field. c) It must be moving perpendicular to the magnetic field. d) It must be moving in the direction opposite to the magnetic field. e) It must be initially at rest when it is placed in the magnetic field.
28.6.4. An electron is traveling due south when it enters a uniform magnetic field directed due west. Which of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The subsequent motion of the electron will be the same as if there were an electric field directed due west and no magnetic field present.
b) The electron will follow a curved path. c) The direction of the magnetic force on the electron will vary with time. d) The magnitude of the magnetic force will be constant with time. e) The direction of the magnetic field and the direction of the magnetic force on the electron are perpendicular to one another.
28.6.4. An electron is traveling due south when it enters a uniform magnetic field directed due west. Which of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The subsequent motion of the electron will be the same as if there were an electric field directed due west and no magnetic field present.
b) The electron will follow a curved path. c) The direction of the magnetic force on the electron will vary with time. d) The magnitude of the magnetic force will be constant with time. e) The direction of the magnetic field and the direction of the magnetic force on the electron are perpendicular to one another.
28.7.1. Which of the following instruments is used in the field of high energy physics to accelerate protons to very high energies along circular paths? a) magnetron b) synchrotron c) ignitron d) betatron e) quartertron
28.7.1. Which of the following instruments is used in the field of high energy physics to accelerate protons to very high energies along circular paths? a) magnetron b) synchrotron c) ignitron d) betatron e) quartertron
28.8.1. A long wire carries a current toward the north in a magnetic field that is directed vertically downward. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the wire? a) west b) north c) east d) vertically upward e) vertically downward
28.8.1. A long wire carries a current toward the north in a magnetic field that is directed vertically downward. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the wire? a) west b) north c) east d) vertically upward e) vertically downward
28.8.2. A long wire carries a current toward the east in a magnetic field that is directed due south. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the wire? a) west b) north c) east d) vertically upward e) vertically downward
28.8.2. A long wire carries a current toward the east in a magnetic field that is directed due south. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the wire? a) west b) north c) east d) vertically upward e) vertically downward
28.8.3. Which one of the following parameters is not used to determine the magnetic force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field? a) length of the wire b) radius of the wire c) direction of the magnetic field with respect to the direction of the current
d) the strength of the magnetic field e) the magnitude of the electric current
28.8.3. Which one of the following parameters is not used to determine the magnetic force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field? a) length of the wire b) radius of the wire c) direction of the magnetic field with respect to the direction of the current
d) the strength of the magnetic field e) the magnitude of the electric current
28.10.1. Consider the following quantities: (1) current, (2) resistance, (3) coil area, (4) wire cross-sectional area, and (5) magnetic field. Upon which of the quantities is the magnetic dipole moment of a current carrying coil dependent? a) 1 and 5 only
b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3, 4, and 5 e) 1 and 3 only
28.10.1. Consider the following quantities: (1) current, (2) resistance, (3) coil area, (4) wire cross-sectional area, and (5) magnetic field. Upon which of the quantities is the magnetic dipole moment of a current carrying coil dependent? a) 1 and 5 only
b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3, 4, and 5 e) 1 and 3 only
28.10.2. A magnetic dipole has two stable orientations in a magnetic field. At what two angles relative to the magnetic field direction are these orientations? a) 0 and 90 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 45 and 135 e) 45 and 90
28.10.2. A magnetic dipole has two stable orientations in a magnetic field. At what two angles relative to the magnetic field direction are these orientations? a) 0 and 90 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 45 and 135 e) 45 and 90
28.10.3. At what orientation angle relative to the magnetic field direction does the magnetic potential energy of a magnetic dipole have its largest value? a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180
28.10.3. At what orientation angle relative to the magnetic field direction does the magnetic potential energy of a magnetic dipole have its largest value? a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180
28.10.4. At what orientation angle relative to the magnetic field direction does the torque of a magnetic dipole have its largest value? a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180
28.10.4. At what orientation angle relative to the magnetic field direction does the torque of a magnetic dipole have its largest value? a) 0 b) 45 c) 90 d) 135 e) 180
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 29 Magnetic Fields Due to Currents Reading Quiz Questions
29.2.1. Which of the following choices correctly indicates the relationship between the magnetic field due to a current carrying, long straight wire at a distance R from the wire? a) B
1 R2
b) B
1 R
c) B
1 R3
d) B R 2 e) B R
29.2.1. Which of the following choices correctly indicates the relationship between the magnetic field due to a current carrying, long straight wire at a distance R from the wire? a) B
1 R2
b) B
1 R
c) B
1 R3
d) B R 2 e) B R
29.2.2. At a distance R from a current carrying wire, what is the direction of the magnetic field relative to the wire? a) radially toward the wire b) radially away from the wire
c) parallel to the wire d) in the direction opposite to that of the current
e) in the direction that is perpendicular to both the wire and to the radial direction
29.2.2. At a distance R from a current carrying wire, what is the direction of the magnetic field relative to the wire? a) radially toward the wire b) radially away from the wire
c) parallel to the wire d) in the direction opposite to that of the current
e) in the direction that is perpendicular to both the wire and to the radial direction
29.2.3. A magnetic field is generated by a current-carrying wire. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The magnitude of this magnetic field decreases with increasing distance away from the wire.
b) A right-hand rule is useful for determining the direction of the magnetic field at a particular location. c) The magnitude of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the magnitude of the current. d) The magnetic field is parallel to the direction of the current in the wire.
29.2.3. A magnetic field is generated by a current-carrying wire. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The magnitude of this magnetic field decreases with increasing distance away from the wire.
b) A right-hand rule is useful for determining the direction of the magnetic field at a particular location. c) The magnitude of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the magnitude of the current. d) The magnetic field is parallel to the direction of the current in the wire.
29.2.4. Two circular loops carry identical currents, but the radius of one loop is twice that of the other. How do the magnetic fields at the centers of the loops compare? a) In both cases, the magnetic field at the center would be zero tesla. b) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is twice that at the center of the smaller loop. c) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is the same as that at the center of the smaller loop. d) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is one-half that at the center of the smaller loop. e) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is one-fourth that at the center of the smaller loop.
29.2.4. Two circular loops carry identical currents, but the radius of one loop is twice that of the other. How do the magnetic fields at the centers of the loops compare? a) In both cases, the magnetic field at the center would be zero tesla. b) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is twice that at the center of the smaller loop. c) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is the same as that at the center of the smaller loop. d) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is one-half that at the center of the smaller loop. e) The magnetic field at the center of the larger loop is one-fourth that at the center of the smaller loop.
29.3.1. Consider two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction. Which one of the following statements to true concerning this situation?
a) The two wires will attract each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. b) The two wires will repel each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. c) The two wires will attract each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. d) The two wires will repel each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. e) The wires will be neither attracted nor repelled from each other when no external magnetic field is applied to the wires.
29.3.1. Consider two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction. Which one of the following statements to true concerning this situation?
a) The two wires will attract each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. b) The two wires will repel each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. c) The two wires will attract each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. d) The two wires will repel each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. e) The wires will be neither attracted nor repelled from each other when no external magnetic field is applied to the wires.
29.3.2. Consider two parallel wires carrying current in opposite directions. Which one of the following statements to true concerning this situation?
a) The two wires will attract each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. b) The two wires will repel each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. c) The two wires will attract each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. d) The two wires will repel each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. e) The wires will be neither attracted nor repelled from each other when no external magnetic field is applied to the wires.
29.3.2. Consider two parallel wires carrying current in opposite directions. Which one of the following statements to true concerning this situation?
a) The two wires will attract each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. b) The two wires will repel each other, even if no external magnetic field is applied to the wires. c) The two wires will attract each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. d) The two wires will repel each other, only if an external magnetic field is applied to the wires. e) The wires will be neither attracted nor repelled from each other when no external magnetic field is applied to the wires.
29.3.3. Which one of the following parameters is not used to determine the magnetic force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field? a) length of the wire b) radius of the wire c) direction of the magnetic field with respect to the direction of the current
d) the strength of the magnetic field e) the magnitude of the electric current
29.3.3. Which one of the following parameters is not used to determine the magnetic force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field? a) length of the wire b) radius of the wire c) direction of the magnetic field with respect to the direction of the current
d) the strength of the magnetic field e) the magnitude of the electric current
29.3.4. Two long wires are parallel to each other. One wire carries a current directed due east and the other carries a current of the same magnitude, but directed due west. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The magnetic field in the plane of the wires at the midpoint between the two wires is equal to zero tesla.
b) The magnetic forces due to the currents carried by the wires causes the wires to move apart. c) If you are looking toward the west along the wire carrying the current toward the west, the magnetic field lines are directed clockwise around the wire. d) The magnetic field produced by each wire has its greatest magnitude outside, but near the surface of the wire.
29.3.4. Two long wires are parallel to each other. One wire carries a current directed due east and the other carries a current of the same magnitude, but directed due west. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The magnetic field in the plane of the wires at the midpoint between the two wires is equal to zero tesla.
b) The magnetic forces due to the currents carried by the wires causes the wires to move apart. c) If you are looking toward the west along the wire carrying the current toward the west, the magnetic field lines are directed clockwise around the wire. d) The magnetic field produced by each wire has its greatest magnitude outside, but near the surface of the wire.
29.4.1. Which of the following may be determined using Ampere’s law? a) electric fields due to current carrying wires b) magnetic forces between two current carrying wires
c) magnetic fields due to current carrying wires d) magnetic forces acting on charged particles
e) magnetic fields due to permanent magnets
29.4.1. Which of the following may be determined using Ampere’s law? a) electric fields due to current carrying wires b) magnetic forces between two current carrying wires
c) magnetic fields due to current carrying wires d) magnetic forces acting on charged particles
e) magnetic fields due to permanent magnets
29.4.2. Under which of the following conditions is Ampere’s law most easily applied? a) the currents are all in the same direction b) the magnetic fields are spherically symmetrical
c) no currents are present within the system d) the magnetic fields are cylindrically symmetric
e) no charged particles are present in the system
29.4.2. Under which of the following conditions is Ampere’s law most easily applied? a) the currents are all in the same direction b) the magnetic fields are spherically symmetrical
c) no currents are present within the system d) the magnetic fields are cylindrically symmetric
e) no charged particles are present in the system
29.4.3. Which one of the following statement concerning Ampere’s law for static magnetic fields is false?
a) The strength of the magnetic field produced by the current is not dependent on the distance from the current geometry that produces the magnetic field. b) A closed path of arbitrary shape is constructed around the current. c) This law may be applied to any current geometry that produces a magnetic field that does not change with time.
d) The component of the magnetic field that is parallel to the closed path is used in Ampere’s law. e) The permeability of free space is a constant that appears in Ampere’s law.
29.4.3. Which one of the following statement concerning Ampere’s law for static magnetic fields is false?
a) The strength of the magnetic field produced by the current is not dependent on the distance from the current geometry that produces the magnetic field. b) A closed path of arbitrary shape is constructed around the current. c) This law may be applied to any current geometry that produces a magnetic field that does not change with time.
d) The component of the magnetic field that is parallel to the closed path is used in Ampere’s law. e) The permeability of free space is a constant that appears in Ampere’s law.
29.4.4. Ampere’s law may be written as B ds = 0ienc . Consider the circular closed loop located near a current carrying wire as shown. What does the left side of the above equal for the closed loop if the current is directed to the right and has a magnitude of 2.0 A? The center of the loop, which has a radius of 2.5 cm, is located 4.0 cm from the wire.
a) zero b) 3.1 Tm c) 4.8 Tm d) 7.2 Tm e) This cannot be determined with only the information given.
29.4.4. Ampere’s law may be written as B ds = 0ienc . Consider the circular closed loop located near a current carrying wire as shown. What does the left side of the above equal for the closed loop if the current is directed to the right and has a magnitude of 2.0 A? The center of the loop, which has a radius of 2.5 cm, is located 4.0 cm from the wire.
a) zero b) 3.1 Tm c) 4.8 Tm d) 7.2 Tm e) This cannot be determined with only the information given.
29.5.1. What is a solenoid? a) a single loop of wire in the shape of a circle b) a radio antenna c) a long coil of wire in the shape of a helix d) a scanning mechanism inside of a television e) a magnet that is inserted into a coil of wire
29.5.1. What is a solenoid? a) a single loop of wire in the shape of a circle b) a radio antenna c) a long coil of wire in the shape of a helix d) a scanning mechanism inside of a television e) a magnet that is inserted into a coil of wire
29.5.2. What is the name given to the wire object shown in the drawing? a) D-ring b) toroid
c) armature d) solenoid
e) wiggler
29.5.2. What is the name given to the wire object shown in the drawing? a) D-ring b) toroid
c) armature d) solenoid
e) wiggler
29.5.3. The coils of a solenoid are stretched so that the length of the solenoid is twice its original length. Assuming the same current is passed though the solenoid before and after it is stretched, how does the magnetic field inside the solenoid change, if at all, as a result of the stretching? a) The magnetic field after the stretching is one-fourth the value it was before stretching.
b) The magnetic field after the stretching is one-half the value it was before stretching. c) The magnetic field after the stretching is the same as the value it was before stretching. d) The magnetic field after the stretching is twice the value it was before stretching. e) The magnetic field after the stretching is four times the value it was before stretching.
29.5.3. The coils of a solenoid are stretched so that the length of the solenoid is twice its original length. Assuming the same current is passed though the solenoid before and after it is stretched, how does the magnetic field inside the solenoid change, if at all, as a result of the stretching? a) The magnetic field after the stretching is one-fourth the value it was before stretching.
b) The magnetic field after the stretching is one-half the value it was before stretching. c) The magnetic field after the stretching is the same as the value it was before stretching. d) The magnetic field after the stretching is twice the value it was before stretching. e) The magnetic field after the stretching is four times the value it was before stretching.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 30 Induction Reading Quiz Questions
30.2.1. Complete the following sentence: The phenomenon of producing an induced emf with the aid of a magnetic field is a) called electromotive production. b) almost never observed.
c) a scientific curiosity with no practical application. d) only produced by changing the magnetic field in the presence of a coil of wire. e) called electromagnetic induction.
30.2.1. Complete the following sentence: The phenomenon of producing an induced emf with the aid of a magnetic field is a) called electromotive production. b) almost never observed.
c) a scientific curiosity with no practical application. d) only produced by changing the magnetic field in the presence of a coil of wire. e) called electromagnetic induction.
30.3.1. Which of the following phrases best describe the term magnetic flux? a) the direction of the magnetic field relative to a surface b) the amount of magnetic field that passes through a surface
c) the number of magnetic dipoles moving through a wire d) the flow of magnetons in space
e) Choice (a) and (b) are both correct.
30.3.1. Which of the following phrases best describe the term magnetic flux? a) the direction of the magnetic field relative to a surface b) the amount of magnetic field that passes through a surface
c) the number of magnetic dipoles moving through a wire d) the flow of magnetons in space
e) Choice (a) and (b) are both correct.
30.3.2. The plane of a conducting loop is oriented parallel to the x-y plane. A magnetic field is directed in the −z direction. Which one of the following actions will not change the magnetic flux through the loop? a) Decrease the area of the loop.
b) Decrease the strength of the magnetic field. c) Increase the strength of the magnetic field. d) Rotate the loop about an axis that is directed in the z direction and that passes through the center of the loop. e) Rotate the loop about an axis that is directed in the y direction and that passes through the center of the loop.
30.3.2. The plane of a conducting loop is oriented parallel to the x-y plane. A magnetic field is directed in the −z direction. Which one of the following actions will not change the magnetic flux through the loop? a) Decrease the area of the loop.
b) Decrease the strength of the magnetic field. c) Increase the strength of the magnetic field. d) Rotate the loop about an axis that is directed in the z direction and that passes through the center of the loop. e) Rotate the loop about an axis that is directed in the y direction and that passes through the center of the loop.
30.3.3. A conducting bar slides with a velocity v to the right on some conducting rails as shown. A uniform magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the bar. Answer the following two questions: (1) Will the light bulb “turn on” in this case? and (2) How is the magnetic flux through the conducting loop changing, if at all, as the bar slides to the right?
a) no, the magnetic flux remains constant b) yes, the magnetic flux decreases c) no, the magnetic flux increases d) yes, the magnetic flux increases e) yes, the magnetic flux remains constant
30.3.3. A conducting bar slides with a velocity v to the right on some conducting rails as shown. A uniform magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the bar. Answer the following two questions: (1) Will the light bulb “turn on” in this case? and (2) How is the magnetic flux through the conducting loop changing, if at all, as the bar slides to the right?
a) no, the magnetic flux remains constant b) yes, the magnetic flux decreases c) no, the magnetic flux increases d) yes, the magnetic flux increases e) yes, the magnetic flux remains constant
30.3.4. Which of the following choices is the SI unit for magnetic flux? a) gauss (G) b) tesla (T)
c) weber (Wb) d) Lumen (L)
e) Fluxon (Fl)
30.3.4. Which of the following choices is the SI unit for magnetic flux? a) gauss (G) b) tesla (T)
c) weber (Wb) d) Lumen (L)
e) Fluxon (Fl)
30.3.5. Which of the flowing expressions equals the magnetic flux? a) BA cos
B cos2 b) A c) BA sin2 d) B A e) 0IBA
30.3.5. Which of the flowing expressions equals the magnetic flux? a) BA cos
B cos2 b) A c) BA sin2 d) B A e) 0IBA
30.3.6. A coil of wire with N turns and area A is placed into a magnetic field of magnitude B. The angle of the normal to the plane of the coil is at an angle with respect to the magnetic field. According the Faraday’s law, which of the following changes will produce an emf in a coil of wire? a) B is decreased b) A is increased c) is decreased d) any of the above choices e) none of the above choices
30.3.6. A coil of wire with N turns and area A is placed into a magnetic field of magnitude B. The angle of the normal to the plane of the coil is at an angle with respect to the magnetic field. According the Faraday’s law, which of the following changes will produce an emf in a coil of wire? a) B is decreased b) A is increased c) is decreased d) any of the above choices e) none of the above choices
30.4.1. Complete the following statement: Lenz’s law indicates that induced currents form to oppose a) a change in the magnetic field direction. b) a change in the magnetic field.
c) the magnetic flux. d) a change in the electric flux.
e) a change in the magnetic flux.
30.4.1. Complete the following statement: Lenz’s law indicates that induced currents form to oppose a) a change in the magnetic field direction. b) a change in the magnetic field.
c) the magnetic flux. d) a change in the electric flux.
e) a change in the magnetic flux.
30.4.2. Which one of the following actions will not result in an induced current? a) Drop a magnet through a closed metal ring. b) Move a metal loop away from a current carrying wire.
c) Drop an iron sheet through a region with a constant magnetic field. d) Hold a copper loop next to a current carrying wire.
e) All of the above choices result in an induced current.
30.4.2. Which one of the following actions will not result in an induced current? a) Drop a magnet through a closed metal ring. b) Move a metal loop away from a current carrying wire.
c) Drop an iron sheet through a region with a constant magnetic field. d) Hold a copper loop next to a current carrying wire.
e) All of the above choices result in an induced current.
30.4.3. An ammeter is connected to a coil of wire. A magnet is sitting motionless next to the wire such that its south end is near the coil and perpendicular to the plane of the coil as shown. The meter indicates that a current is flowing through the wire from the left toward the right. What, if anything, is wrong with this picture? a) The current should be flowing from the right toward the left. b) The needle should be slanted toward the right. c) The needle should indicate that there is no current flowing. d) There is nothing wrong with the picture.
30.4.3. An ammeter is connected to a coil of wire. A magnet is sitting motionless next to the wire such that its south end is near the coil and perpendicular to the plane of the coil as shown. The meter indicates that a current is flowing through the wire from the left toward the right. What, if anything, is wrong with this picture? a) The current should be flowing from the right toward the left. b) The needle should be slanted toward the right. c) The needle should indicate that there is no current flowing. d) There is nothing wrong with the picture.
30.4.4. Complete the following sentence: In a coil of wire, the direction of the induced current caused by an increasing magnetic flux is a) directed in the direction of the original magnetic field. b) directed opposite to the original magnetic field. c) such that the induced magnetic field decreases the magnetic flux. d) such that the net magnetic flux is equal to zero webers. e) such that the induced magnetic field increases the magnetic flux.
30.4.4. Complete the following sentence: In a coil of wire, the direction of the induced current caused by an increasing magnetic flux is a) directed in the direction of the original magnetic field. b) directed opposite to the original magnetic field. c) such that the induced magnetic field decreases the magnetic flux. d) such that the net magnetic flux is equal to zero webers. e) such that the induced magnetic field increases the magnetic flux.
30.4.5. Which one of the following principle’s or laws allows one to determine the direction of an induced current in a conducting loop of wire due to a changing magnetic flux? a) Lenz’s law b) Gauss’ law c) equivalence principle d) Faraday’s law e) principle of induced magnetic flux
30.4.5. Which one of the following principle’s or laws allows one to determine the direction of an induced current in a conducting loop of wire due to a changing magnetic flux? a) Lenz’s law b) Gauss’ law c) equivalence principle d) Faraday’s law e) principle of induced magnetic flux
30.4.6. According to the text, which prominent guitarist was known to have rewrapped the wire in the pick up coils in his electric guitar? a) Eric Clapton b) James Burton
c) Jimi Hendrix d) Paul McCartney
e) Ace Frehley
30.4.6. According to the text, which prominent guitarist was known to have rewrapped the wire in the pick up coils in his electric guitar? a) Eric Clapton b) James Burton
c) Jimi Hendrix d) Paul McCartney
e) Ace Frehley
30.5.1. Lenz’s law is a consequence of what other physical law? a) Newton’s first law b) conservation of energy c) Newton’s third law d) conservation of momentum e) Gauss’ law
30.5.1. Lenz’s law is a consequence of what other physical law? a) Newton’s first law b) conservation of energy c) Newton’s third law d) conservation of momentum e) Gauss’ law
30.5.2. Consider the drawing in which someone is pulling a rectangular conducting loop out of a region containing a magnetic field at a constant velocity. Which one of the following is an expression of the rate of work, the power, the person is doing?
a) P = i2R b) P = iv c) P = Fv d) P = iBLv e) P = FiB/L
30.5.2. Consider the drawing in which someone is pulling a rectangular conducting loop out of a region containing a magnetic field at a constant velocity. Which one of the following is an expression of the rate of work, the power, the person is doing?
a) P = i2R b) P = iv c) P = Fv d) P = iBLv e) P = FiB/L
30.5.3. When a metal sheet is pulled from a region containing a magnetic field, currents are induced in the metal sheet. What is the name given to these currents? a) andy currents b) betty currents c) curie currents d) drew currents e) eddy currents
30.5.3. When a metal sheet is pulled from a region containing a magnetic field, currents are induced in the metal sheet. What is the name given to these currents? a) andy currents b) betty currents c) curie currents d) drew currents e) eddy currents
30.6.1. Complete the following statement: Faraday’s law indicates that a changing magnetic field produces a) an electric field. b) an induced magnetic field.
c) a force field. d) light.
e) global warming.
30.6.1. Complete the following statement: Faraday’s law indicates that a changing magnetic field produces a) an electric field. b) an induced magnetic field.
c) a force field. d) light.
e) global warming.
30.7.1. What unit is used for inductance? a) weber (Wb) b) henry (H) c) ampere (A) d) morgan (M) e) volt (V)
30.7.1. What unit is used for inductance? a) weber (Wb) b) henry (H) c) ampere (A) d) morgan (M) e) volt (V)
30.9.1. When a battery, a resistor, a switch, and an inductor form a circuit and the switch is closed, the inductor acts to oppose the change in the current. How is the time constant of the inductor affected by doubling its inductance? a) The time constant would increase to four times its original value.
b) The time constant would increase to twice its original value. c) The time constant would remain the same.
d) The time constant would decrease to one-half its original value. e) The time constant would decrease to one-fourth its original value.
30.9.1. When a battery, a resistor, a switch, and an inductor form a circuit and the switch is closed, the inductor acts to oppose the change in the current. How is the time constant of the inductor affected by doubling its inductance? a) The time constant would increase to four times its original value.
b) The time constant would increase to twice its original value. c) The time constant would remain the same.
d) The time constant would decrease to one-half its original value. e) The time constant would decrease to one-fourth its original value.
30.9.2. When a battery, a resistor, a switch, and an inductor form a circuit and the switch is closed, the inductor acts to oppose the change in the current. How is the time constant of the inductor affected by doubling the resistance in the circuit? a) The time constant would increase to four times its original value.
b) The time constant would increase to twice its original value. c) The time constant would remain the same.
d) The time constant would decrease to one-half its original value. e) The time constant would decrease to one-fourth its original value.
30.9.2. When a battery, a resistor, a switch, and an inductor form a circuit and the switch is closed, the inductor acts to oppose the change in the current. How is the time constant of the inductor affected by doubling the resistance in the circuit? a) The time constant would increase to four times its original value.
b) The time constant would increase to twice its original value. c) The time constant would remain the same.
d) The time constant would decrease to one-half its original value. e) The time constant would decrease to one-fourth its original value.
30.10.1. In a circuit containing an emf, a resistor, and an inductor, where is the magnetic potential energy stored? a) in the inductance of the inductor b) in the resistor
c) in the magnetic field d) in the magnetic flux
e) in the current
30.10.1. In a circuit containing an emf, a resistor, and an inductor, where is the magnetic potential energy stored? a) in the inductance of the inductor b) in the resistor
c) in the magnetic field d) in the magnetic flux
e) in the current
30.12.1. Which one of the following terms is used for the effect in which a changing current in one circuit induces an emf in another circuit? a) self-induction b) coherence c) interference d) Lenz effect e) mutual induction
30.12.1. Which one of the following terms is used for the effect in which a changing current in one circuit induces an emf in another circuit? a) self-induction b) coherence c) interference d) Lenz effect e) mutual induction
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 31 Electromagnetic Oscillations and AC Current Reading Quiz Questions
31.2.1. Which one of the following quantities remains constant for a given LC circuit? a) the energy stored in the capacitor b) the energy stored in the inductor
c) the energy stored in the current flowing in the circuit d) the sum of the energy stored in the capacitor and that in the inductor e) the energy dissipated in the circuit
31.2.1. Which one of the following quantities remains constant for a given LC circuit? a) the energy stored in the capacitor b) the energy stored in the inductor
c) the energy stored in the current flowing in the circuit d) the sum of the energy stored in the capacitor and that in the inductor e) the energy dissipated in the circuit
31.3.1. The text makes a comparison between an LC circuit and a block-spring system. In this analogy, the inductance corresponds to which of the following parameters for the block-spring system? a) mass b) spring constant c) velocity d) position e) spring potential energy
31.3.1. The text makes a comparison between an LC circuit and a block-spring system. In this analogy, the inductance corresponds to which of the following parameters for the block-spring system? a) mass b) spring constant c) velocity d) position e) spring potential energy
31.3.2. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the angular frequency of oscillation for an LC circuit? a) = LC b) =
LC
1 c) = LC d) =
1 LC
2 e) = LC
31.3.2. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the angular frequency of oscillation for an LC circuit? a) = LC b) =
LC
1 c) = LC d) =
1 LC
2 e) = LC
31.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the electrical and magnetic energies stored in an LC circuit is false? Assume for the following that = 0. a) The maximum values of both the electric and magnetic energies is Q2/2C. b) The electric energy is at its minimum when the magnetic energy is zero joules. c) At a time t, the sum of the electric and magnetic energies is a constant equal to Q2/2C. d) The electric energy varies in time with the factor, cos2 t. e) The magnetic energy is at its maximum when the electric energy is zero joules.
31.4.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the electrical and magnetic energies stored in an LC circuit is false? Assume for the following that = 0. a) The maximum values of both the electric and magnetic energies is Q2/2C. b) The electric energy is at its minimum when the magnetic energy is zero joules. c) At a time t, the sum of the electric and magnetic energies is a constant equal to Q2/2C. d) The electric energy varies in time with the factor, cos2 t. e) The magnetic energy is at its maximum when the electric energy is zero joules.
31.6.1. Which of the following choices best gives the benefit(s) of using AC over using DC? a) The length of wires is less relevant. b) Power may be transferred over long distances using higher voltage and low current. c) The potential difference may be varied using transformers. d) Any potential loss in resistive elements is negligible. e) All of the above answers are benefits of AC over DC.
31.6.1. Which of the following choices best gives the benefit(s) of using AC over using DC? a) The length of wires is less relevant. b) Power may be transferred over long distances using higher voltage and low current. c) The potential difference may be varied using transformers. d) Any potential loss in resistive elements is negligible. e) All of the above answers are benefits of AC over DC.
31.6.2. In an AC circuit, electrons are moving back and forth at a frequency . The signal that the electrons receive to change direction comes from the generating station. What is the speed of that signal? a) v = xT, where x is the distance to a given electron and T is the period of oscillation. b) very close to the speed of light c) faster than the speed of light d) the drift velocity of the electrons e) the speed of sound in the metal wire
31.6.2. In an AC circuit, electrons are moving back and forth at a frequency . The signal that the electrons receive to change direction comes from the generating station. What is the speed of that signal? a) v = xT, where x is the distance to a given electron and T is the period of oscillation. b) very close to the speed of light c) faster than the speed of light d) the drift velocity of the electrons e) the speed of sound in the metal wire
31.7.1. Which of the following best describes the term forced oscillations? a) oscillations requiring an applied force b) oscillations that occur at a frequency other than the natural frequency of the circuit c) oscillations that occur in the windings of the inductor within an LRC circuit
d) oscillations that occur at the natural frequency of the circuit e) oscillations that occur within the battery of an LRC circuit
31.7.1. Which of the following best describes the term forced oscillations? a) oscillations requiring an applied force b) oscillations that occur at a frequency other than the natural frequency of the circuit c) oscillations that occur in the windings of the inductor within an LRC circuit
d) oscillations that occur at the natural frequency of the circuit e) oscillations that occur within the battery of an LRC circuit
31.8.1. An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit. For which of the following circuit elements are the current and voltage in phase? a) inductor only b) resistor only c) capacitor only d) resistor and capacitor only e) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
31.8.1. An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit. For which of the following circuit elements are the current and voltage in phase? a) inductor only b) resistor only c) capacitor only d) resistor and capacitor only e) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
31.8.2. An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit. For which of the following circuit elements does the current lead the voltage by 90? a) inductor only b) resistor only c) capacitor only d) resistor and capacitor only e) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
31.8.2. An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit. For which of the following circuit elements does the current lead the voltage by 90? a) inductor only b) resistor only c) capacitor only d) resistor and capacitor only e) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
31.8.3. An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit. For which of the following circuit elements does the voltage lead the current by 90? a) inductor only b) resistor only c) capacitor only d) resistor and capacitor only e) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
31.8.3. An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit. For which of the following circuit elements does the voltage lead the current by 90? a) inductor only b) resistor only c) capacitor only d) resistor and capacitor only e) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
31.8.4. What is the SI unit for capacitive reactance? a) farad b) mho c) ohm d) cordel e) reyn
31.8.4. What is the SI unit for capacitive reactance? a) farad b) mho c) ohm d) cordel e) reyn
31.8.5. Which one of the following choices is not a property of a phasor? a) angular speed b) emf
c) length d) projection
e) rotation angle
31.8.5. Which one of the following choices is not a property of a phasor? a) angular speed b) emf
c) length d) projection
e) rotation angle
31.8.6. When a capacitor is used in an alternating current circuit, the current in the capacitor is related to the voltage across the capacitor by its capacitive reactance, which depends on the capacitance of the capacitor and the frequency of the generator. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the capacitive reactance and the frequency? a) The capacitive reactance is directly proportional to the frequency.
b) The capacitive reactance is directly proportional to the square of the frequency. c) The capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency. d) The capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the square of the frequency. e) The capacitive reactance is directly proportional to the square root of the frequency.
31.8.6. When a capacitor is used in an alternating current circuit, the current in the capacitor is related to the voltage across the capacitor by its capacitive reactance, which depends on the capacitance of the capacitor and the frequency of the generator. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the capacitive reactance and the frequency? a) The capacitive reactance is directly proportional to the frequency.
b) The capacitive reactance is directly proportional to the square of the frequency. c) The capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency. d) The capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the square of the frequency. e) The capacitive reactance is directly proportional to the square root of the frequency.
31.8.7. When an inductor is used in an alternating current circuit, the current in the inductor is related to the voltage across the inductor by its inductive reactance, which depends on the inductance of the inductor and the frequency of the generator. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the inductive reactance and the frequency? a) The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the frequency.
b) The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the square of the frequency. c) The inductive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency. d) The inductive reactance is inversely proportional to the square of the frequency. e) The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the square root of the frequency.
31.8.7. When an inductor is used in an alternating current circuit, the current in the inductor is related to the voltage across the inductor by its inductive reactance, which depends on the inductance of the inductor and the frequency of the generator. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the inductive reactance and the frequency? a) The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the frequency.
b) The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the square of the frequency. c) The inductive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency. d) The inductive reactance is inversely proportional to the square of the frequency. e) The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the square root of the frequency.
31.9.1. Which of the following phrases best describes the term impedance? a) the resistance to the movement of charge carriers b) the resistance of a capacitor
c) the resistance of an inductor d) the internal resistance of a battery within an LRC circuit
e) the generalized expression that combines all resistances within a circuit
31.9.1. Which of the following phrases best describes the term impedance? a) the resistance to the movement of charge carriers b) the resistance of a capacitor
c) the resistance of an inductor d) the internal resistance of a battery within an LRC circuit
e) the generalized expression that combines all resistances within a circuit
31.9.2. For an RLC circuit in the limit of very high frequency, what is the effective behavior of the capacitor and the inductor in the circuit? a) The inductor acts like a very small resistance and the capacitor acts like a very large resistance.
b) The inductor acts like a very large resistance and the capacitor acts like a very small resistance. c) The inductor acts like a very large resistance and the capacitor acts like a very large resistance. d) The inductor acts like a very small resistance and the capacitor acts like a very small resistance.
31.9.2. For an RLC circuit in the limit of very high frequency, what is the effective behavior of the capacitor and the inductor in the circuit? a) The inductor acts like a very small resistance and the capacitor acts like a very large resistance.
b) The inductor acts like a very large resistance and the capacitor acts like a very small resistance. c) The inductor acts like a very large resistance and the capacitor acts like a very large resistance. d) The inductor acts like a very small resistance and the capacitor acts like a very small resistance.
31.9.3. What effect does the resistor in an RLC circuit have on the circuit’s resonant frequency? a) The resonant frequency is determined by the inductance and the capacitance, but not the resistance. b) Increasing the resistance increases the resonant frequency. c) Decreasing the resistance increases the resonant frequency. d) Increasing the resistance decreases the resonant frequency. e) Decreasing the resistance decreases the resonant frequency.
31.9.3. What effect does the resistor in an RLC circuit have on the circuit’s resonant frequency? a) The resonant frequency is determined by the inductance and the capacitance, but not the resistance. b) Increasing the resistance increases the resonant frequency. c) Decreasing the resistance increases the resonant frequency. d) Increasing the resistance decreases the resonant frequency. e) Decreasing the resistance decreases the resonant frequency.
31.9.4. Which of the following statements concerning resonance in an RLC circuit is true? a) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a minimum and the rms impedance is at a maximum. b) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a maximum and the rms impedance is at a minimum. c) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a maximum and the rms impedance is at a maximum. d) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a minimum and the rms impedance is at a minimum.
31.9.4. Which of the following statements concerning resonance in an RLC circuit is true? a) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a minimum and the rms impedance is at a maximum. b) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a maximum and the rms impedance is at a minimum. c) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a maximum and the rms impedance is at a maximum. d) At the resonant frequency, the rms current is at a minimum and the rms impedance is at a minimum.
31.10.1. Which of the following choices gives the amount of power used by a capacitor in an ac circuit? a) IrmsXC b) IrmsXC2
c) VrmsIrms2 d) VrmsXC
e) The power used by the capacitor is equal to zero watts.
31.10.1. Which of the following choices gives the amount of power used by a capacitor in an ac circuit? a) IrmsXC b) IrmsXC2
c) VrmsIrms2 d) VrmsXC
e) The power used by the capacitor is equal to zero watts.
31.10.2. In a series RLC circuit, the average power is given by P = I rmsVrms cos . What is the name given to the term cos ? a) phase factor b) force term
c) power factor d) energy determinator
e) rms term
31.10.2. In a series RLC circuit, the average power is given by P = I rmsVrms cos . What is the name given to the term cos ? a) phase factor b) force term
c) power factor d) energy determinator
e) rms term
31.11.1. Which of the following is the primary benefit of impedance matching? a) maximum transfer of energy b) maximum resistive load
c) same time constant
31.11.1. Which of the following is the primary benefit of impedance matching? a) maximum transfer of energy b) maximum resistive load
c) same time constant
31.11.2. In a well-designed transformer with an iron core, the secondary coil has twice as many turns as the primary coil. Which one of the following statements concerning this transformer is true? a) The flux that passes through each turn of the primary coil is twice the flux that passes through the secondary coil. b) The effect of the iron core is to reduce the magnetic field passing through the coils. c) The induced emf generated in the secondary coil is twice as large as that generated in the primary coil.
d) This is a step down transformer because the current in the secondary coil is less than that in the primary coil. e) This kind of transformer is typically used between a power transmission line and a residence.
31.11.2. In a well-designed transformer with an iron core, the secondary coil has twice as many turns as the primary coil. Which one of the following statements concerning this transformer is true? a) The flux that passes through each turn of the primary coil is twice the flux that passes through the secondary coil. b) The effect of the iron core is to reduce the magnetic field passing through the coils. c) The induced emf generated in the secondary coil is twice as large as that generated in the primary coil.
d) This is a step down transformer because the current in the secondary coil is less than that in the primary coil. e) This kind of transformer is typically used between a power transmission line and a residence.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 32 Maxwell’s Equations: Magnetism of Matter Reading Quiz Questions
32.2.1. Complete the following statement: According to today’s scientists, magnetic monopoles a) have no mass. b) have no charge.
c) are found in abundance in the most distant parts of the universe. d) do not exist anywhere in the universe.
e) are the antiparticles for magnetic dipoles.
32.2.1. Complete the following statement: According to today’s scientists, magnetic monopoles a) have no mass. b) have no charge.
c) are found in abundance in the most distant parts of the universe. d) do not exist anywhere in the universe.
e) are the antiparticles for magnetic dipoles.
32.2.2. What would you get if you took a bar magnet and cut it in half? a) two pieces, one a north pole and one a south pole b) two shorter magnets, each with a north pole and a south pole c) two pieces, both non-magnetic d) a molten mess from the energy released from within the magnet upon cutting
e) an electric shock
32.2.2. What would you get if you took a bar magnet and cut it in half? a) two pieces, one a north pole and one a south pole b) two shorter magnets, each with a north pole and a south pole c) two pieces, both non-magnetic d) a molten mess from the energy released from within the magnet upon cutting
e) an electric shock
32.2.3. Which of the following choices concerning the net magnetic flux through any enclosed surface is true according to Gauss’ law for magnetic fields? a) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a vector quantity equal to the enclosed magnetic field.
b) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a vector quantity equal to the number of magnetic monopoles passing through the surface per unit time. c) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a positive scalar quantity. d) The net magnetic flux in this case would be equal to zero. e) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a negative scalar quantity.
32.2.3. Which of the following choices concerning the net magnetic flux through any enclosed surface is true according to Gauss’ law for magnetic fields? a) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a vector quantity equal to the enclosed magnetic field.
b) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a vector quantity equal to the number of magnetic monopoles passing through the surface per unit time. c) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a positive scalar quantity. d) The net magnetic flux in this case would be equal to zero. e) The net magnetic flux in this case would be a negative scalar quantity.
32.3.1. What is produced from a changing electric field? a) an electric field directed perpendicularly to the changing field b) a magnetic flux c) a magnetic field directed perpendicularly to the changing field d) lightning e) an electric field directed parallel to the changing field
32.3.1. What is produced from a changing electric field? a) an electric field directed perpendicularly to the changing field b) a magnetic flux c) a magnetic field directed perpendicularly to the changing field d) lightning e) an electric field directed parallel to the changing field
32.3.2. A parallel plate capacitor is being charged by a constant current i. During the charging, the electric field within the plates is increasing with time. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic field between the plates is true? a) The magnetic field within a parallel plate capacitor is always equal to zero tesla. b) The induced magnetic field is directed antiparallel to the increasing electric field. c) The induced magnetic field strength has its largest value at the center of the plates and decreases linearly toward the edges of the plates. d) The induced magnetic field strength has the same magnitude within the plates of the capacitor, except near the edges, at a given time. e) The induced magnetic field strength is zero tesla near the center of the plates and increases as r increases toward the edges of the plates.
32.3.2. A parallel plate capacitor is being charged by a constant current i. During the charging, the electric field within the plates is increasing with time. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic field between the plates is true? a) The magnetic field within a parallel plate capacitor is always equal to zero tesla. b) The induced magnetic field is directed antiparallel to the increasing electric field. c) The induced magnetic field strength has its largest value at the center of the plates and decreases linearly toward the edges of the plates. d) The induced magnetic field strength has the same magnitude within the plates of the capacitor, except near the edges, at a given time. e) The induced magnetic field strength is zero tesla near the center of the plates and increases as r increases toward the edges of the plates.
32.4.1. What is a displacement current? a) a fictitious current across the plates of a capacitor b) charged particles moving in a changing magnetic field c) charged particle moving in a changing electric field d) the movement of the positive nuclei within atoms in response to a changing electric field
e) the movement of the positive nuclei within atoms in response to a changing magnetic field
32.4.1. What is a displacement current? a) a fictitious current across the plates of a capacitor b) charged particles moving in a changing magnetic field c) charged particle moving in a changing electric field d) the movement of the positive nuclei within atoms in response to a changing electric field
e) the movement of the positive nuclei within atoms in response to a changing magnetic field
32.4.2. By making use of the concept of displacement current, we can find the induced magnetic field strength within a charging capacitor. Consider a parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius R. Which of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between the induced magnetic field strength B at radius r from the center?
Br 1 b) B r a)
c) B = constant d) B r 2 e) B
1 r2
32.4.2. By making use of the concept of displacement current, we can find the induced magnetic field strength within a charging capacitor. Consider a parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius R. Which of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between the induced magnetic field strength B at radius r from the center?
Br 1 b) B r a)
c) B = constant d) B r 2 e) B
1 r2
32.5.1. Which one of the following is not one of Maxwell’s fundamental equations of electromagnetism? a) Gauss’ law for electricity b) Coulomb’s law
c) Faraday’s law d) Ampere-Maxwell law
e) Gauss’ law for magnetism
32.5.1. Which one of the following is not one of Maxwell’s fundamental equations of electromagnetism? a) Gauss’ law for electricity b) Coulomb’s law
c) Faraday’s law d) Ampere-Maxwell law
e) Gauss’ law for magnetism
32.6.1. Which one of the following choices is the generally accepted reason for the changing of the Earth’s magnetic field over time? a) The field has changed because the Hubble constant has changed. b) The field has changed as the Earth has gone through numerous global warming and cooling cycles. c) The field has changed as the Earth’s rotation has slowed down over time.
d) The field has changed as a result of numerous asteroid collisions with the Earth over time. e) The reason for the changing field has yet to be determined.
32.6.1. Which one of the following choices is the generally accepted reason for the changing of the Earth’s magnetic field over time? a) The field has changed because the Hubble constant has changed. b) The field has changed as the Earth has gone through numerous global warming and cooling cycles. c) The field has changed as the Earth’s rotation has slowed down over time.
d) The field has changed as a result of numerous asteroid collisions with the Earth over time. e) The reason for the changing field has yet to be determined.
32.6.2. The direction of the magnetic field at any location of the Earth’s surface is commonly specified in terms of two field angles. What are the names given to these two angles? a) latitude and longitude b) oblique and obtuse c) dihedral and euclidean d) squine and novile e) declination and inclination
32.6.2. The direction of the magnetic field at any location of the Earth’s surface is commonly specified in terms of two field angles. What are the names given to these two angles? a) latitude and longitude b) oblique and obtuse c) dihedral and euclidean d) squine and novile e) declination and inclination
32.6.3. What are the stones called that were initially discovered by the ancient Greek and Chinese peoples that are naturally occurring magnetic materials? a) pyrite b) lodestones c) compass stones d) sorcerer stone e) hematite
32.6.3. What are the stones called that were initially discovered by the ancient Greek and Chinese peoples that are naturally occurring magnetic materials? a) pyrite b) lodestones c) compass stones d) sorcerer stone e) hematite
32.7.1. Which of the following is most responsible for the magnetic behavior of materials? a) neutrons b) protons
c) photons d) electrons
e) phonons
32.7.1. Which of the following is most responsible for the magnetic behavior of materials? a) neutrons b) protons
c) photons d) electrons
e) phonons
32.7.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the measured values of the spin angular momentum is true?
a) The measured component of the spin angular momentum can only have one of two possible values that differ only in the sign. b) The spin angular momentum can be oriented only in the direction an electron is moving. c) The spin angular momentum can be easily measured in today’s laboratories. d) The spin angular momentum is the same thing as angular momentum, except that it is the angular momentum of an electron. e) The spin angular momentum does not contribute to the magnetic properties of materials.
32.7.2. Which one of the following statements concerning the measured values of the spin angular momentum is true?
a) The measured component of the spin angular momentum can only have one of two possible values that differ only in the sign. b) The spin angular momentum can be oriented only in the direction an electron is moving. c) The spin angular momentum can be easily measured in today’s laboratories. d) The spin angular momentum is the same thing as angular momentum, except that it is the angular momentum of an electron. e) The spin angular momentum does not contribute to the magnetic properties of materials.
32.8.1. Which one of the following statements is true for paramagnetic materials?
a) The atoms have no permanent magnetic dipole moments under any condition. b) The atoms have permanent magnetic dipole moments that are mostly aligned with each other. c) The atoms have permanent magnetic dipole moments that are randomly oriented. d) The atoms have permanent magnetic dipole moments that are aligned either parallel or antiparallel with each other. e) The atoms have dipole moments that align in opposition to an applied magnetic field, but otherwise have no permanent dipole moments.
32.8.1. Which one of the following statements is true for paramagnetic materials?
a) The atoms have no permanent magnetic dipole moments under any condition. b) The atoms have permanent magnetic dipole moments that are mostly aligned with each other. c) The atoms have permanent magnetic dipole moments that are randomly oriented. d) The atoms have permanent magnetic dipole moments that are aligned either parallel or antiparallel with each other. e) The atoms have dipole moments that align in opposition to an applied magnetic field, but otherwise have no permanent dipole moments.
32.8.2. Which of the following terms is used to describe materials that have regions in which strong magnetic dipole moments are aligned with each other? a) diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) ferrimagnetic e) gaussetic
32.8.2. Which of the following terms is used to describe materials that have regions in which strong magnetic dipole moments are aligned with each other? a) diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) ferrimagnetic e) gaussetic
32.8.3. What produces the magnetism of an individual atom? a) the nuclear force that holds protons within the atomic nucleus b) the orbital and spin motions of electrons c) the motion of the atom itself d) the electric interaction between electrons and protons e) neutrons are naturally magnetic
32.8.3. What produces the magnetism of an individual atom? a) the nuclear force that holds protons within the atomic nucleus b) the orbital and spin motions of electrons c) the motion of the atom itself d) the electric interaction between electrons and protons e) neutrons are naturally magnetic
32.9.1. Which of the following terms is used to describe materials that have weak induced magnetic dipole moments that are directed in the opposite direction to an applied external magnetic field? a) diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) ferrimagnetic e) gaussetic
32.9.1. Which of the following terms is used to describe materials that have weak induced magnetic dipole moments that are directed in the opposite direction to an applied external magnetic field? a) diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) ferrimagnetic e) gaussetic
32.11.1. What is the name given to the quantum mechanical effect that gives rise to ferromagnetism in materials, such as iron, cobalt, and nickel? a) parity b) nuclear magnetic resonance c) cooper pairing d) quantization e) exchange coupling
32.11.1. What is the name given to the quantum mechanical effect that gives rise to ferromagnetism in materials, such as iron, cobalt, and nickel? a) parity b) nuclear magnetic resonance c) cooper pairing d) quantization e) exchange coupling
32.11.2. Which one of the following materials is not ferromagnetic? a) cobalt b) nickel c) gadolinium d) iron e) aluminum
32.11.2. Which one of the following materials is not ferromagnetic? a) cobalt b) nickel c) gadolinium d) iron e) aluminum
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 33 Electromagnetic Waves Reading Quiz Questions
33.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false? a) One form of electromagnetic radiation is visible light. b) All electromagnetic waves travel through a vacuum region at the speed of light. c) All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves. d) All electromagnetic waves have the same frequency. e) Electromagnetic waves can travel through solids, liquids, gases, and vacuum regions.
33.2.1. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false? a) One form of electromagnetic radiation is visible light. b) All electromagnetic waves travel through a vacuum region at the speed of light. c) All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves. d) All electromagnetic waves have the same frequency. e) Electromagnetic waves can travel through solids, liquids, gases, and vacuum regions.
33.2.2. Which scientist is credited with showing that electric and magnetic fields can fluctuate together to form a propagating electromagnetic wave? a) Maxwell b) Bose c) Huygens d) Crick e) Watson
33.2.2. Which scientist is credited with showing that electric and magnetic fields can fluctuate together to form a propagating electromagnetic wave? a) Maxwell b) Bose c) Huygens d) Crick e) Watson
33.2.3. Which of the following types of waves is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum? a) microwaves b) gamma rays
c) ultraviolet radiation d) radio waves
e) sound waves
33.2.3. Which of the following types of waves is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum? a) microwaves b) gamma rays
c) ultraviolet radiation d) radio waves
e) sound waves
33.3.1. One type of antenna can be made that is composed of two straight wires connected to an ac generator. Which one of the following statements concerning this type of antenna and electromagnetic waves is false? a) As the potential difference at the terminals varies sinusoidally, electrons move between the ends of the wires. b) When one of the wires has a net positive charge, the other wire has a net negative charge. c) The generator continually injects electrons into the wires. d) The electric field and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic waves generated are perpendicular to each other when they are far from the antenna. e) At each position far from the antenna, the amplitude of the electric and magnetic fields is the same.
33.3.1. One type of antenna can be made that is composed of two straight wires connected to an ac generator. Which one of the following statements concerning this type of antenna and electromagnetic waves is false? a) As the potential difference at the terminals varies sinusoidally, electrons move between the ends of the wires. b) When one of the wires has a net positive charge, the other wire has a net negative charge. c) The generator continually injects electrons into the wires. d) The electric field and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic waves generated are perpendicular to each other when they are far from the antenna. e) At each position far from the antenna, the amplitude of the electric and magnetic fields is the same.
33.3.2. What is the speed of light in a vacuum? a) 300 000 000 m/s b) 299 792 458 m/s c) 274 584 211 m/s d) 268 078 972 m/s e) 219 424 557 m/s
33.3.2. What is the speed of light in a vacuum? a) 300 000 000 m/s b) 299 792 458 m/s c) 274 584 211 m/s d) 268 078 972 m/s e) 219 424 557 m/s
33.3.3. Complete the following statement: The speed of light in a vacuum is a) larger for short wavelength electromagnetic waves. b) larger for higher energy electromagnetic waves.
c) smaller for higher energy electromagnetic waves. d) a constant value everywhere in the universe.
e) larger for higher frequency electromagnetic waves.
33.3.3. Complete the following statement: The speed of light in a vacuum is a) larger for short wavelength electromagnetic waves. b) larger for higher energy electromagnetic waves.
c) smaller for higher energy electromagnetic waves. d) a constant value everywhere in the universe.
e) larger for higher frequency electromagnetic waves.
33.5.1. Complete the following statement: The energy carried by an electromagnetic wave is a) carried only by the electric field. b) carried only by the magnetic field.
c) too small to have any practical application. d) carried by both the electric and magnetic fields.
e) larger for infrared radiation than it is for gamma radiation.
33.5.1. Complete the following statement: The energy carried by an electromagnetic wave is a) carried only by the electric field. b) carried only by the magnetic field.
c) too small to have any practical application. d) carried by both the electric and magnetic fields.
e) larger for infrared radiation than it is for gamma radiation.
33.5.2. Which one of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave? a) E = B b) B = cE c) E = cB d) B2 = 0E e) E = 0B
33.5.2. Which one of the following expressions gives the correct relationship between the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave? a) E = B b) B = cE c) E = cB d) B2 = 0E e) E = 0B
33.5.3. What are the units of light intensity? a) watts/meter2 (W/m2) b) joules/meter2 (J/m2) c) newtons/coulomb (N/C) d) tesla/meter3 (T/m3) e) joules/meter3 (J/m3)
33.5.3. What are the units of light intensity? a) watts/meter2 (W/m2) b) joules/meter2 (J/m2) c) newtons/coulomb (N/C) d) tesla/meter3 (T/m3) e) joules/meter3 (J/m3)
33.5.4. What does the Poynting vector at a given point describe? a) the direction of the electric field b) the direction of the magnetic field c) the direction the wave is traveling d) the direction in which energy is transported e) Both (c) and (d) are correct.
33.5.4. What does the Poynting vector at a given point describe? a) the direction of the electric field b) the direction of the magnetic field c) the direction the wave is traveling d) the direction in which energy is transported e) Both (c) and (d) are correct.
33.5.5. What units are associated with the Poynting vector? a) J/m b) J/s c) N/m2 d) W/m2 e) W/s
33.5.5. What units are associated with the Poynting vector? a) J/m b) J/s c) N/m2 d) W/m2 e) W/s
33.6.1. Electromagnetic waves have linear momentum as well as energy. What does this imply about electromagnetic waves? a) Electromagnetic waves must have mass. b) Electromagnetic waves can interact with each other.
c) Electromagnetic waves can exert pressure on an object. d) Electromagnetic waves have inertia.
e) Electromagnetic waves are the same as sound waves.
33.6.1. Electromagnetic waves have linear momentum as well as energy. What does this imply about electromagnetic waves? a) Electromagnetic waves must have mass. b) Electromagnetic waves can interact with each other.
c) Electromagnetic waves can exert pressure on an object. d) Electromagnetic waves have inertia.
e) Electromagnetic waves are the same as sound waves.
33.6.2. In which one of the following cases does the radiation pressure have the largest value? a) Electromagnetic waves are directed toward a transparent object and transmitted through it. b) All of the electromagnetic waves directed toward an object are absorbed by it. c) All of the electromagnetic waves directed toward an object are reflected by it. d) One half of the electromagnetic waves directed toward an object are absorbed by it and the other half are reflected by it.
33.6.2. In which one of the following cases does the radiation pressure have the largest value? a) Electromagnetic waves are directed toward a transparent object and transmitted through it. b) All of the electromagnetic waves directed toward an object are absorbed by it. c) All of the electromagnetic waves directed toward an object are reflected by it. d) One half of the electromagnetic waves directed toward an object are absorbed by it and the other half are reflected by it.
33.7.1. Complete the following statement: The polarization direction of an electromagnetic wave is determined by a) the direction the wave is traveling. b) the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation.
c) the direction of the magnetic field component. d) the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation.
e) the direction of the electric field component.
33.7.1. Complete the following statement: The polarization direction of an electromagnetic wave is determined by a) the direction the wave is traveling. b) the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation.
c) the direction of the magnetic field component. d) the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation.
e) the direction of the electric field component.
33.7.2. When unpolarized light is incident on a sheet of polarizing material with a transmission axis oriented vertically, what percentage of the light is transmitted through the material? a) ten percent b) twenty-five percent c) fifty percent d) seventy-five percent e) zero percent
33.7.2. When unpolarized light is incident on a sheet of polarizing material with a transmission axis oriented vertically, what percentage of the light is transmitted through the material? a) ten percent b) twenty-five percent c) fifty percent d) seventy-five percent e) zero percent
33.7.3. When vertically polarized light is incident on a sheet of polarizing material with a transmission axis oriented vertically, what percentage of the light is transmitted through the material? a) ten percent b) twenty-five percent c) fifty percent d) seventy-five percent e) one hundred percent
33.7.3. When vertically polarized light is incident on a sheet of polarizing material with a transmission axis oriented vertically, what percentage of the light is transmitted through the material? a) ten percent b) twenty-five percent c) fifty percent d) seventy-five percent e) one hundred percent
33.7.4. When horizontally polarized light is incident on a sheet of polarizing material with a transmission axis oriented vertically, what percentage of the light is transmitted through the material? a) ten percent b) twenty-five percent c) fifty percent d) seventy-five percent e) zero percent
33.7.4. When horizontally polarized light is incident on a sheet of polarizing material with a transmission axis oriented vertically, what percentage of the light is transmitted through the material? a) ten percent b) twenty-five percent c) fifty percent d) seventy-five percent e) zero percent
33.7.5. What is the name for the principle or law that allows one to determine the average intensity of polarized light that will be transmitted through a sheet of polarizing material? a) Lenz’s law b) Feynmann’s principle c) Morley principle d) cosine-squared rule e) law of polarization
33.7.5. What is the name for the principle or law that allows one to determine the average intensity of polarized light that will be transmitted through a sheet of polarizing material? a) Lenz’s law b) Feynmann’s principle c) Morley principle d) cosine-squared rule e) law of polarization
33.8.1. Which one of the following statements relating to index of refraction n is false? a) Values of n are always greater than or equal to one. b) The speed of light in gases is only slightly less than that in a vacuum. c) The index of refraction tends to be larger for solids than for gases. d) Values of n for solids and liquids indicate that the speed of light in these substances is greater than that in gases. e) The index of refraction is an important parameter in Snell’s law of refraction.
33.8.1. Which one of the following statements relating to index of refraction n is false? a) Values of n are always greater than or equal to one. b) The speed of light in gases is only slightly less than that in a vacuum. c) The index of refraction tends to be larger for solids than for gases. d) Values of n for solids and liquids indicate that the speed of light in these substances is greater than that in gases. e) The index of refraction is an important parameter in Snell’s law of refraction.
33.8.2. A ray of light travels through air toward a glass block with an index of refraction n = 1.5 at an angle 1 as shown. Which of the rays shown is the most likely for the refracted ray? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
33.8.2. A ray of light travels through air toward a glass block with an index of refraction n = 1.5 at an angle 1 as shown. Which of the rays shown is the most likely for the refracted ray? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
33.8.3. Which one of the following statements concerning Snell’s law of refraction is false?
a) Incident and refracted rays obey the principle of reversibility. b) When light travel from a medium of higher index of refraction into a medium of lower index, the ray bends away from the normal. c) Dutch mathematician Willebrord Snell discovered the law of refraction by doing experiments. d) When using Snell’s law, the subscript “1” applies to the medium of the incident ray. e) The angle of refraction equals the sum of the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection.
33.8.3. Which one of the following statements concerning Snell’s law of refraction is false?
a) Incident and refracted rays obey the principle of reversibility. b) When light travel from a medium of higher index of refraction into a medium of lower index, the ray bends away from the normal. c) Dutch mathematician Willebrord Snell discovered the law of refraction by doing experiments. d) When using Snell’s law, the subscript “1” applies to the medium of the incident ray. e) The angle of refraction equals the sum of the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection.
33.8.4. A ray of monochromatic light traveling through the air is incident on the surface of a crown glass block at an angle of 45. Assuming the monochromatic light is one of the colors below, which one would have the smallest angle of refraction? a) red
b) orange c) yellow
d) green e) violet
33.8.4. A ray of monochromatic light traveling through the air is incident on the surface of a crown glass block at an angle of 45. Assuming the monochromatic light is one of the colors below, which one would have the smallest angle of refraction? a) red
b) orange c) yellow
d) green e) violet
33.8.5. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of a rainbow is true?
a) An observer can see a rainbow if the sun is on the opposite side of water droplets in the atmosphere. b) A rainbow may be observed when the sky is completely overcast and the sun is not directly visible. c) Since violet light is bent most in a water drop, violet appears at the top of the rainbow.
d) Only seven colors are visible in a rainbow. e) The different colors seen in a rainbow originate from water droplets at different angles of elevation.
33.8.5. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of a rainbow is true?
a) An observer can see a rainbow if the sun is on the opposite side of water droplets in the atmosphere. b) A rainbow may be observed when the sky is completely overcast and the sun is not directly visible. c) Since violet light is bent most in a water drop, violet appears at the top of the rainbow.
d) Only seven colors are visible in a rainbow. e) The different colors seen in a rainbow originate from water droplets at different angles of elevation.
33.8.6. When does dispersion occur? a) the index of refraction varies with the wavelength of light b) the incident angle is equal to the Brewster angle c) total internal reflection occurs at the surface d) the principal of reversibility is violated e) when the incident ray is polarized
33.8.6. When does dispersion occur? a) the index of refraction varies with the wavelength of light b) the incident angle is equal to the Brewster angle c) total internal reflection occurs at the surface d) the principal of reversibility is violated e) when the incident ray is polarized
33.8.7. Which one of the following sentences best describes the term refraction? a) Light is reflected at the interface between two transparent media. b) The angle of incidence does not equal the angle of reflection at the interface between two materials. c) Light is divided along two paths at an interface between two materials.
d) The direction of light is along a straight line as it passes from one material into another, regardless of the angle of incidence. e) Light travels through the boundary of two different materials.
33.8.7. Which one of the following sentences best describes the term refraction? a) Light is reflected at the interface between two transparent media. b) The angle of incidence does not equal the angle of reflection at the interface between two materials. c) Light is divided along two paths at an interface between two materials.
d) The direction of light is along a straight line as it passes from one material into another, regardless of the angle of incidence. e) Light travels through the boundary of two different materials.
33.9.1. What is the angle of refraction when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle? a) zero degrees b) thirty degrees
c) forty-five degrees d) ninety degrees
e) It depends on the index of refraction.
33.9.1. What is the angle of refraction when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle? a) zero degrees b) thirty degrees
c) forty-five degrees d) ninety degrees
e) It depends on the index of refraction.
33.9.2. In which one of the following cases will total internal reflection occur? a) Light is traveling in a material that has a smaller index of refraction than material surrounding it. b) Light is traveling in a material that has a larger index of refraction than material surrounding it. c) Light is traveling from a material that has a larger index of refraction into a material that has a smaller index of refraction. d) Light is traveling through a material with a high degree of chromatic dispersion.
33.9.2. In which one of the following cases will total internal reflection occur? a) Light is traveling in a material that has a smaller index of refraction than material surrounding it. b) Light is traveling in a material that has a larger index of refraction than material surrounding it. c) Light is traveling from a material that has a larger index of refraction into a material that has a smaller index of refraction. d) Light is traveling through a material with a high degree of chromatic dispersion.
33.10.1. What name is given to the angle of incidence of unpolarized light at which reflected light is completely polarized parallel to the surface and the refracted ray is partially polarized? a) Critical angle b) Snell’s angle c) Brewster angle d) angle of polarization e) Newton angle
33.10.1. What name is given to the angle of incidence of unpolarized light at which reflected light is completely polarized parallel to the surface and the refracted ray is partially polarized? a) Critical angle b) Snell’s angle c) Brewster angle d) angle of polarization e) Newton angle
33.10.2. Which one of the following expressions is Brewster’s law? n1 a) sin B = n2 n2 b) tan B = n1
c) cos B = n1n2 d) tan B = n1n2 1 cos = e) B n2
33.10.2. Which one of the following expressions is Brewster’s law? n1 a) sin B = n2 n2 b) tan B = n1
c) cos B = n1n2 d) tan B = n1n2 1 cos = e) B n2
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 34 Images Reading Quiz Questions
34.2.1. What are the two types of images? a) real and imaginary b) reflected and refracted c) real and virtual d) concave and convex e) superior and sublime
34.2.1. What are the two types of images? a) real and imaginary b) reflected and refracted c) real and virtual d) concave and convex e) superior and sublime
34.2.2. What type of image does an observer see when the light rays entering his/her eye do not actually emanate from the image? a) intangible b) real
c) diffuse d) virtual
e) incongruent
34.2.2. What type of image does an observer see when the light rays entering his/her eye do not actually emanate from the image? a) intangible b) real
c) diffuse d) virtual
e) incongruent
34.3.1. Which one of the following statements is not a characteristic of a plane mirror? a) The image is the same size as the object. b) The image is always upright.
c) The image is real. d) The image is reversed left to right compared to the object.
e) The image is the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
34.3.1. Which one of the following statements is not a characteristic of a plane mirror? a) The image is the same size as the object. b) The image is always upright.
c) The image is real. d) The image is reversed left to right compared to the object.
e) The image is the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
34.4.1. What term is used for the line that passes through the center of curvature of a spherical mirror and the mid-point of the mirror? a) capitol axis b) complimentary axis
c) demarcation line d) reflection line
e) central axis
34.4.1. What term is used for the line that passes through the center of curvature of a spherical mirror and the mid-point of the mirror? a) capitol axis b) complimentary axis
c) demarcation line d) reflection line
e) central axis
34.4.2. Which of the following expressions applies to a spherical mirror of radius R? a) f = 12 R b) f = 43 R
c) f = R d) f = 23 R
e) f = 2R
34.4.2. Which of the following expressions applies to a spherical mirror of radius R? a) f = 12 R b) f = 43 R
c) f = R d) f = 23 R
e) f = 2R
34.4.3. Complete the following sentence: The normal to the surface of a spherical mirror is a) always parallel to the central axis. b) a line drawn from the center of curvature to the surface of the mirror. c) parallel to the surface of the mirror. d) undefined for a spherical mirror. e) always perpendicular to the central axis.
34.4.3. Complete the following sentence: The normal to the surface of a spherical mirror is a) always parallel to the central axis. b) a line drawn from the center of curvature to the surface of the mirror. c) parallel to the surface of the mirror. d) undefined for a spherical mirror. e) always perpendicular to the central axis.
34.4.4. Which one of the following statements is true for a curved mirror? a) A mirror that is more curved has a larger focal length than that for a less curved mirror. b) A mirror that is more curved has the same focal length than that for a less curved mirror. c) A mirror that is more curved has a smaller focal length than that for a less curved mirror.
34.4.4. Which one of the following statements is true for a curved mirror? a) A mirror that is more curved has a larger focal length than that for a less curved mirror. b) A mirror that is more curved has the same focal length than that for a less curved mirror. c) A mirror that is more curved has a smaller focal length than that for a less curved mirror.
34.4.5. Which one of the following statements is true concerning a mirror that has a negative focal length? a) Such a mirror is non-existent. b) The mirror is convex.
c) The images produced by the mirror are all real images. d) The mirror is concave.
e) The mirror is somewhat more curved than one with a positive focal length.
34.4.5. Which one of the following statements is true concerning a mirror that has a negative focal length? a) Such a mirror is non-existent. b) The mirror is convex.
c) The images produced by the mirror are all real images. d) The mirror is concave.
e) The mirror is somewhat more curved than one with a positive focal length.
34.5.1. An object is placed in front of a concave spherical mirror. Consider the following rays that leave the top of the object and approach the mirror: (A) a ray that passes through the center of curvature (B) a ray that passes through the middle of the mirror where the principal axis intersects (C) a ray that is directed parallel to the principal axis (D) a ray that passes through the focal point Which one of these rays, if any, is not used in locating images by drawing rays as described in the text?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) All four rays are used.
34.5.1. An object is placed in front of a concave spherical mirror. Consider the following rays that leave the top of the object and approach the mirror: (A) a ray that passes through the center of curvature (B) a ray that passes through the middle of the mirror where the principal axis intersects (C) a ray that is directed parallel to the principal axis (D) a ray that passes through the focal point Which one of these rays, if any, is not used in locating images by drawing rays as described in the text?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) All four rays are used.
34.5.2. Which of the following parameters is not needed to use the mirror equation to solve for an unknown parameter? a) the image distance b) focal length of the mirror
c) the shape of the mirror d) the height of the object
e) the object distance
34.5.2. Which of the following parameters is not needed to use the mirror equation to solve for an unknown parameter? a) the image distance b) focal length of the mirror
c) the shape of the mirror d) the height of the object
e) the object distance
34.5.3. In which of the following cases is the image virtual? a) It is on the same side of the mirror as the object. b) The image is virtual if you can only see it when projected onto a surface.
c) The lateral magnification is negative. d) The distance from the mirror to the image is greater than the distance from the mirror to the object. e) None of the cases above produce a virtual image.
34.5.3. In which of the following cases is the image virtual? a) It is on the same side of the mirror as the object. b) The image is virtual if you can only see it when projected onto a surface.
c) The lateral magnification is negative. d) The distance from the mirror to the image is greater than the distance from the mirror to the object. e) None of the cases above produce a virtual image.
34.5.4. In which of the following cases is the image real? a) It is on the opposite side of the mirror from the object. b) The image is real if you can project it onto a surface. c) The lateral magnification is positive. d) The image is upright (not inverted relative to the object). e) None of the cases above produce a real image.
34.5.4. In which of the following cases is the image real? a) It is on the opposite side of the mirror from the object. b) The image is real if you can project it onto a surface. c) The lateral magnification is positive. d) The image is upright (not inverted relative to the object). e) None of the cases above produce a real image.
34.5.5. For a certain situation involving an object and a spherical mirror, the resulting lateral magnification is negative. Which of the following properties necessarily may be attributed to the image? a) real
b) virtual c) oriented in the same direction as the object
d) oriented in the opposite direction as the object e) No image can be produced when the lateral magnification is negative.
34.5.5. For a certain situation involving an object and a spherical mirror, the resulting lateral magnification is negative. Which of the following properties necessarily may be attributed to the image? a) real
b) virtual c) oriented in the same direction as the object
d) oriented in the opposite direction as the object e) No image can be produced when the lateral magnification is negative.
34.6.1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the radius of curvature of a concave lens? a) The radius of curvature for such a lens is positive. b) The radius of curvature for such a lens is infinite.
c) The radius of curvature for such a lens is zero. d) The radius of curvature for such a lens is impossible to determine.
e) The radius of curvature for such a lens is negative.
34.6.1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the radius of curvature of a concave lens? a) The radius of curvature for such a lens is positive. b) The radius of curvature for such a lens is infinite.
c) The radius of curvature for such a lens is zero. d) The radius of curvature for such a lens is impossible to determine.
e) The radius of curvature for such a lens is negative.
34.7.1. A ray of light leaves an object and passes through the focal point on the same side of a converging lens. The ray is then incident on the lens. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the subsequent path of the light after it leaves the lens? a) The ray passes through the focal point on the opposite side of the lens.
b) The ray travels parallel to the central axis. c) The ray travels along the central axis. d) The ray passes through the lens undeflected as if the lens were not present. e) The ray is reflected back on itself through the same focal point.
34.7.1. A ray of light leaves an object and passes through the focal point on the same side of a converging lens. The ray is then incident on the lens. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the subsequent path of the light after it leaves the lens? a) The ray passes through the focal point on the opposite side of the lens.
b) The ray travels parallel to the central axis. c) The ray travels along the central axis. d) The ray passes through the lens undeflected as if the lens were not present. e) The ray is reflected back on itself through the same focal point.
34.7.2. Light rays parallel to the central axis approach a converging lens. Where do the rays converge? a) at the center of the lens b) at infinity
c) at the focal point d) at a point located two focal lengths from the lens
34.7.2. Light rays parallel to the central axis approach a converging lens. Where do the rays converge? a) at the center of the lens b) at infinity
c) at the focal point d) at a point located two focal lengths from the lens
34.7.3. Which one of the following statements concerning diverging lenses is true? a) The image formed by a diverging lens is larger than the object. b) The image formed by a diverging lens is inverted relative the object. c) A diverging lens can be used as a magnifying glass. d) A diverging lens always forms a virtual image of a real object. e) Diverging lenses are used in cameras.
34.7.3. Which one of the following statements concerning diverging lenses is true? a) The image formed by a diverging lens is larger than the object. b) The image formed by a diverging lens is inverted relative the object. c) A diverging lens can be used as a magnifying glass. d) A diverging lens always forms a virtual image of a real object. e) Diverging lenses are used in cameras.
34.7.4. Which one of the following statements concerning converging lenses is false?
a) A ray that passes through the center of the lens will not be significantly deflected by the lens. b) An object cannot be placed in front of the lens such that a virtual image results. c) An object can be placed in front of the lens such that a real image results. d) A paraxial ray that is parallel to the principal axis as it approaches the converging lens will pass through the focal point on the opposite side of the lens. e) A converging lens is used in a slide or film projector.
34.7.4. Which one of the following statements concerning converging lenses is false?
a) A ray that passes through the center of the lens will not be significantly deflected by the lens. b) An object cannot be placed in front of the lens such that a virtual image results. c) An object can be placed in front of the lens such that a real image results. d) A paraxial ray that is parallel to the principal axis as it approaches the converging lens will pass through the focal point on the opposite side of the lens. e) A converging lens is used in a slide or film projector.
34.7.5. A lens produces a virtual image that is upright relative to the object. What can one infer about this situation? a) The magnification is greater than one. b) The magnification is less than one.
c) The lens must be a converging lens. d) The lens must be a diverging lens.
e) The magnification has a positive value.
34.7.5. A lens produces a virtual image that is upright relative to the object. What can one infer about this situation? a) The magnification is greater than one. b) The magnification is less than one.
c) The lens must be a converging lens. d) The lens must be a diverging lens.
e) The magnification has a positive value.
34.7.6. Which one of the following is not a parameter used in either the thin-lens equation or the magnification equation? a) index of refraction of the lens material b) shape of the lens
c) lens focal length d) object distance
e) image distance
34.7.6. Which one of the following is not a parameter used in either the thin-lens equation or the magnification equation? a) index of refraction of the lens material b) shape of the lens
c) lens focal length d) object distance
e) image distance
34.7.7. Complete the following statement: When using two lenses in combination, a) the lenses must both be identical. b) as in a microscope, the lens closest to the eye is the objective.
c) the image of the first lens becomes the object for the second lens. d) both lenses must be converging lenses.
34.7.7. Complete the following statement: When using two lenses in combination, a) the lenses must both be identical. b) as in a microscope, the lens closest to the eye is the objective.
c) the image of the first lens becomes the object for the second lens. d) both lenses must be converging lenses.
34.7.8. In which one of the following cases is a lens considered thin? a) The thickest part of the lens is small compared to the object distance. b) The thickest part of the lens is small compared to the image distance. c) The thickest part of the lens is small compared to the radii of curvature.
d) Choices (a) and (c) are correct, but not choice (c). e) Choices (a), (b), and (c) are all correct.
34.7.8. In which one of the following cases is a lens considered thin? a) The thickest part of the lens is small compared to the object distance. b) The thickest part of the lens is small compared to the image distance. c) The thickest part of the lens is small compared to the radii of curvature.
d) Choices (a) and (c) are correct, but not choice (c). e) Choices (a), (b), and (c) are all correct.
34.8.1. Which one of the following statements concerning a compound microscope is false? a) The distance between the lenses must be greater than the sum of the focal lengths of the lenses. b) The objective lens is closest to the object being examined under the microscope. c) The compound microscope utilizes two converging lenses.
d) The final image is large and very close to the eyepiece. e) The angular magnification is greatest when the focal lengths are as small as possible.
34.8.1. Which one of the following statements concerning a compound microscope is false? a) The distance between the lenses must be greater than the sum of the focal lengths of the lenses. b) The objective lens is closest to the object being examined under the microscope. c) The compound microscope utilizes two converging lenses.
d) The final image is large and very close to the eyepiece. e) The angular magnification is greatest when the focal lengths are as small as possible.
34.8.2. Which one of the following statements concerning an astronomical telescope is false? a) The eyepiece is also known as the viewfinder. b) The image produced by the first lens is real and inverted.
c) The eyepiece acts like a magnifying lens. d) For large angular magnifications, the objective lens should have a long focal length and the eyepiece should have a relatively short focal length. e) Light entering the telescope from a distant object comes in as nearly parallel rays.
34.8.2. Which one of the following statements concerning an astronomical telescope is false? a) The eyepiece is also known as the viewfinder. b) The image produced by the first lens is real and inverted.
c) The eyepiece acts like a magnifying lens. d) For large angular magnifications, the objective lens should have a long focal length and the eyepiece should have a relatively short focal length. e) Light entering the telescope from a distant object comes in as nearly parallel rays.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 35 Interference Reading Quiz Questions
35.2.1. Which of the following scientists is credited with stating the following principle: Every point on a wave front acts as a source of tiny wavelets that move forward with the same speed as the wave; the wave front at a later instant is the surface that is tangent to the wavelets? a) Michelson b) von Fraunhofer c) Young d) Rayleigh e) Huygens
35.2.1. Which of the following scientists is credited with stating the following principle: Every point on a wave front acts as a source of tiny wavelets that move forward with the same speed as the wave; the wave front at a later instant is the surface that is tangent to the wavelets? a) Michelson b) von Fraunhofer c) Young d) Rayleigh e) Huygens
35.2.2. Which of the following is a statement of Huygens Principle? a) All points on a wavefront serve as point sources for secondary wavelets. b) Light refracts when it enters a different medium.
c) Optical interference occurs when coherent light undergoes a phase shift. d) The shortest distance between two points is a straight line. e) The ability of an optical instrument to distinguish between two closely spaced objects is limited.
35.2.2. Which of the following is a statement of Huygens Principle? a) All points on a wavefront serve as point sources for secondary wavelets. b) Light refracts when it enters a different medium.
c) Optical interference occurs when coherent light undergoes a phase shift. d) The shortest distance between two points is a straight line. e) The ability of an optical instrument to distinguish between two closely spaced objects is limited.
35.3.1. Which one of the following terms is used to describe the bending of waves and subsequent spreading around obstacles or the edges of an opening? a) refraction b) diffraction c) interference d) coherence e) sonoluminescence
35.3.1. Which one of the following terms is used to describe the bending of waves and subsequent spreading around obstacles or the edges of an opening? a) refraction b) diffraction c) interference d) coherence e) sonoluminescence
35.3.2. Water waves of wavelength are approaching an opening of width W. For which of the following parameter choices will the greatest diffraction of the waves occur? a) large wavelength, large width b) small wavelength, large width c) large wavelength, small width d) small wavelength, small width
35.3.2. Water waves of wavelength are approaching an opening of width W. For which of the following parameter choices will the greatest diffraction of the waves occur? a) large wavelength, large width b) small wavelength, large width c) large wavelength, small width d) small wavelength, small width
35.4.1. Which one of the following experiments demonstrates the wave nature of light? a) Young’s experiment b) Michelson-Morley experiment
c) Stern –Gerlach experiment d) Rutherford experiment
e) Stefan-Boltzmann experiment
35.4.1. Which one of the following experiments demonstrates the wave nature of light? a) Young’s experiment b) Michelson-Morley experiment
c) Stern –Gerlach experiment d) Rutherford experiment
e) Stefan-Boltzmann experiment
35.4.2. What must the path difference between two light sources of wavelength be for interference to occur at a point where the two waves meet resulting in a dark fringe? a) n , where n is an even integer 2
b) n , where n is an odd integer 2
c) n, where n is an even integer d) n, where n is an odd integer e) n, where n is any integer or zero
35.4.2. What must the path difference between two light sources of wavelength be for interference to occur at a point where the two waves meet resulting in a dark fringe? a) n , where n is an even integer 2
b) n , where n is an odd integer 2
c) n, where n is an even integer d) n, where n is an odd integer e) n, where n is any integer or zero
35.4.4. In a double-slit experiment, light and dark regions are observed on a screen. Which of the following terms is used for these regions? a) Balmer lines b) Langmuir-Blodgett patterns c) fringes d) troughs e) stripes
35.4.4. In a double-slit experiment, light and dark regions are observed on a screen. Which of the following terms is used for these regions? a) Balmer lines b) Langmuir-Blodgett patterns c) fringes d) troughs e) stripes
35.4.5. In a double-slit experiment, light and dark regions are observed on a screen. What causes a dark region to be observed between two brighter regions? a) It is the shadow cast from the material in which the two slits have been made.
b) Light from the two slits undergoes constructive interference. c) The two slits act like polarizing material and some of the light is blocked by the double-slits. d) Light from the two slits undergoes destructive interference. e) The screen is inhomogeneous and absorbs light non-uniformly.
35.4.5. In a double-slit experiment, light and dark regions are observed on a screen. What causes a dark region to be observed between two brighter regions? a) It is the shadow cast from the material in which the two slits have been made.
b) Light from the two slits undergoes constructive interference. c) The two slits act like polarizing material and some of the light is blocked by the double-slits. d) Light from the two slits undergoes destructive interference. e) The screen is inhomogeneous and absorbs light non-uniformly.
35.4.6. What are supernumeraries? a) stars that emit visible light b) side bands observed during single slit diffraction c) dim, colored arcs within a rainbow d) astronomers that count the stars within sectors of the sky e) faint secondary bands within a double slit diffraction pattern
35.4.6. What are supernumeraries? a) stars that emit visible light b) side bands observed during single slit diffraction c) dim, colored arcs within a rainbow d) astronomers that count the stars within sectors of the sky e) faint secondary bands within a double slit diffraction pattern
35.5.1. Complete the following sentence: The term coherent relates to a) the amplitude of two waves. b) the frequency of two waves. c) the diffraction of two waves. d) the phase relationship between two waves. e) the polarization state of two waves.
35.5.1. Complete the following sentence: The term coherent relates to a) the amplitude of two waves. b) the frequency of two waves. c) the diffraction of two waves. d) the phase relationship between two waves. e) the polarization state of two waves.
35.5.2. Complete the following sentence: In order for light to be considered completely coherent, a) the phase difference of light at any two points must be constant. b) it must originate from the same source.
c) its intensity at every point must be constant. d) it must follow the same path.
e) it must be traveling at its vacuum speed.
35.5.2. Complete the following sentence: In order for light to be considered completely coherent, a) the phase difference of light at any two points must be constant. b) it must originate from the same source.
c) its intensity at every point must be constant. d) it must follow the same path.
e) it must be traveling at its vacuum speed.
35.5.3. Why is no interference pattern observed when light from two sources of differing wavelength interfere? a) The intensities of the two waves will be necessarily different. b) The light from the two different sources is not likely to be coherent. c) If the two light sources are close enough to each other, they will produce an interference pattern.
35.5.3. Why is no interference pattern observed when light from two sources of differing wavelength interfere? a) The intensities of the two waves will be necessarily different. b) The light from the two different sources is not likely to be coherent. c) If the two light sources are close enough to each other, they will produce an interference pattern.
35.6.1. An electromagnetic wave has an amplitude E0. The intensity of the wave is proportional to which of the following? a) E0 b) E02
c) E0-2 d) E0-1
e) The intensity is not related to the wave amplitude.
35.6.1. An electromagnetic wave has an amplitude E0. The intensity of the wave is proportional to which of the following? a) E0 b) E02
c) E0-2 d) E0-1
e) The intensity is not related to the wave amplitude.
35.6.2. Which of the following would be most useful in calculating the phase difference for light originating from two slits? a) the total distance traveled by the two waves from the slits to the observation screen b) the path length difference that the two waves travel c) the width of the slits d) the distance from the light source to the slits e) the area of the slits
35.6.2. Which of the following would be most useful in calculating the phase difference for light originating from two slits? a) the total distance traveled by the two waves from the slits to the observation screen b) the path length difference that the two waves travel c) the width of the slits d) the distance from the light source to the slits e) the area of the slits
35.7.1. A thin layer of gasoline is floating on a thin layer of water in a parking lot. You notice that there are multicolored bands on the surface of the gasoline. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The wavelength that is important for thin-film interference is the wavelength within the film, not the wavelength in a vacuum. b) The wavelength within a film is determined by multiplying the index of refraction and the vacuum wavelength. c) The fact that the bands are multicolored indicates that the film has non-uniform thickness. d) When light travels through a material with a smaller refractive index toward a material with a larger refractive index, reflection at the boundary occurs along with a phase change that is equivalent to one-half of a wavelength in the film. e) When light travels from a larger toward a smaller refractive index, there is no phase change upon reflection at the boundary.
35.7.1. A thin layer of gasoline is floating on a thin layer of water in a parking lot. You notice that there are multicolored bands on the surface of the gasoline. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is false? a) The wavelength that is important for thin-film interference is the wavelength within the film, not the wavelength in a vacuum. b) The wavelength within a film is determined by multiplying the index of refraction and the vacuum wavelength. c) The fact that the bands are multicolored indicates that the film has non-uniform thickness. d) When light travels through a material with a smaller refractive index toward a material with a larger refractive index, reflection at the boundary occurs along with a phase change that is equivalent to one-half of a wavelength in the film. e) When light travels from a larger toward a smaller refractive index, there is no phase change upon reflection at the boundary.
35.7.2. Which of the following statements concerning reflected light is true? a) The reflected light will experience a phase change only if the light is traveling from a material of smaller refractive index to one of larger refractive index.
b) Reflected light will always interfere constructively with incident light. c) Reflected light will always interfere destructively with incident light. d) The reflected light will experience a phase change only if the light is traveling from a material of larger refractive index to one of smaller refractive index. e) Reflected light will not experience interference with incident light.
35.7.2. Which of the following statements concerning reflected light is true? a) The reflected light will experience a phase change only if the light is traveling from a material of smaller refractive index to one of larger refractive index.
b) Reflected light will always interfere constructively with incident light. c) Reflected light will always interfere destructively with incident light. d) The reflected light will experience a phase change only if the light is traveling from a material of larger refractive index to one of smaller refractive index. e) Reflected light will not experience interference with incident light.
35.7.3. By what amount does the phase of a light wave change when it reflects from the interface of a medium that has a higher index of refraction? a) zero b) 0.25 wavelength c) 0.50 wavelength d) 1.00 wavelength e) None of the above answers are correct.
35.7.3. By what amount does the phase of a light wave change when it reflects from the interface of a medium that has a higher index of refraction? a) zero b) 0.25 wavelength c) 0.50 wavelength d) 1.00 wavelength e) None of the above answers are correct.
35.7.4. Interference involving thin films does not depend on which of the following parameters? a) intensity of light b) film thickness
c) index of refraction of the film d) incident angle of the light
e) wavelength on the light
35.7.4. Interference involving thin films does not depend on which of the following parameters? a) intensity of light b) film thickness
c) index of refraction of the film d) incident angle of the light
e) wavelength on the light
35.8.1. Which one of the following devices can be used to measure the wavelength of laser light? a) meter stick b) diffractometer
c) interferometer d) caliper
e) sphygmomanometer
35.8.1. Which one of the following devices can be used to measure the wavelength of laser light? a) meter stick b) diffractometer
c) interferometer d) caliper
e) sphygmomanometer
35.8.2. What is a beam splitter? a) a partially silvered glass plate that allows part of a light beam to be transmitted and part reflected b) a monochromatic light source is focused perpendicularly onto a razor blade edge to split it into two equal parts c) a periodic array of metal atoms that partially transmits a light beam and partially reflects it
d) a Young double slit e) a diffraction grating
35.8.2. What is a beam splitter? a) a partially silvered glass plate that allows part of a light beam to be transmitted and part reflected b) a monochromatic light source is focused perpendicularly onto a razor blade edge to split it into two equal parts c) a periodic array of metal atoms that partially transmits a light beam and partially reflects it
d) a Young double slit e) a diffraction grating
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 36 Diffraction Reading Quiz Questions
36.2.1. When does a Fresnel bright spot occur? a) when light interferes destructively b) when light is focused through a Fresnel lens c) when light waves diffract around a disk, creating a bright spot in the shadow d) when light passes through a circular opening and constructively interfere e) when there is intense magnetic activity on the surface of the Sun
36.2.1. When does a Fresnel bright spot occur? a) when light interferes destructively b) when light is focused through a Fresnel lens c) when light waves diffract around a disk, creating a bright spot in the shadow d) when light passes through a circular opening and constructively interfere e) when there is intense magnetic activity on the surface of the Sun
36.2.2. Which one of the following scientists was a supporter of the particle theory of light? a) Huygens b) Fresnel
c) Young d) Newton
36.2.2. Which one of the following scientists was a supporter of the particle theory of light? a) Huygens b) Fresnel
c) Young d) Newton
36.3.1. By what path difference must two waves passing through a single slit differ to produce a dark fringe? a) zero wavelengths b) one-quarter wavelength
c) one-half wavelength d) one wavelength
e) two wavelengths
36.3.1. By what path difference must two waves passing through a single slit differ to produce a dark fringe? a) zero wavelengths b) one-quarter wavelength
c) one-half wavelength d) one wavelength
e) two wavelengths
36.4.1. For what calculation would one use phasors in single slit diffraction? a) the size of the slit b) the amplitude of the electric field at the screen
c) the location of the secondary maxima or minima d) the intensity of the light at a point on the screen
e) the number of interference bands in the diffraction pattern
36.4.1. For what calculation would one use phasors in single slit diffraction? a) the size of the slit b) the amplitude of the electric field at the screen
c) the location of the secondary maxima or minima d) the intensity of the light at a point on the screen
e) the number of interference bands in the diffraction pattern
36.6.1. A telescope was used to photograph two distant stars, but the photograph only shows what appears to be one star. What term is used to describe the ability of an optical instrument to distinguish between two closely spaced objects? a) diffraction limit
b) critical factor c) separation angle
d) resolvability e) Huygens’ criterion
36.6.1. A telescope was used to photograph two distant stars, but the photograph only shows what appears to be one star. What term is used to describe the ability of an optical instrument to distinguish between two closely spaced objects? a) diffraction limit
b) critical factor c) separation angle
d) resolvability e) Huygens’ criterion
36.6.2. Which one of the following scientists is credited with the following: Two point objects are just resolved when the first dark fringe in the diffraction pattern of one fails directly on the central bright fringe in the diffraction pattern of the other? a) Huygens
b) Rayleigh c) Young
d) Snell e) Michelson
36.6.2. Which one of the following scientists is credited with the following: Two point objects are just resolved when the first dark fringe in the diffraction pattern of one fails directly on the central bright fringe in the diffraction pattern of the other? a) Huygens
b) Rayleigh c) Young
d) Snell e) Michelson
36.6.3. Consider the following equation that approximates the smallest angle that two point objects can subtend at an aperture of diameter d for a given wavelength :
R = ____
d
Which of the following numbers belongs in the blank in the equation? a) 1.22 b) 0.138 c) 2.18 d) 1.49 e) 4
36.6.3. Consider the following equation that approximates the smallest angle that two point objects can subtend at an aperture of diameter d for a given wavelength :
R = ____
d
Which of the following numbers belongs in the blank in the equation? a) 1.22 b) 0.138 c) 2.18 d) 1.49 e) 4
36.6.4. How will diffraction rings from a circular aperture be affected by reducing the diameter of the aperture? a) The rings will spread further apart. b) The rings will be spaced closer together.
c) The rings will increase in number. d) The ring pattern will remain unchanged.
36.6.4. How will diffraction rings from a circular aperture be affected by reducing the diameter of the aperture? a) The rings will spread further apart. b) The rings will be spaced closer together.
c) The rings will increase in number. d) The ring pattern will remain unchanged.
36.6.5. How will diffraction rings from a circular aperture be affected by reducing the wavelength of the light? a) The rings will spread further apart. b) The rings will be spaced closer together.
c) The rings will increase in number. d) The ring pattern will remain unchanged.
36.6.5. How will diffraction rings from a circular aperture be affected by reducing the wavelength of the light? a) The rings will spread further apart. b) The rings will be spaced closer together.
c) The rings will increase in number. d) The ring pattern will remain unchanged.
36.6.6. Complete the following sentence: Rayleigh’s criterion refers to a) the parameter that determines the location of the central maximum. b) the minimum angular separation of two objects that they may be resolved.
c) the maximum diameter of a circular aperture that yields a diffraction pattern. d) the critical angle for light approaching an aperture for diffraction to occur. e) the minimum wavelength of light for diffraction to occur for a given aperture.
36.6.6. Complete the following sentence: Rayleigh’s criterion refers to a) the parameter that determines the location of the central maximum. b) the minimum angular separation of two objects that they may be resolved.
c) the maximum diameter of a circular aperture that yields a diffraction pattern. d) the critical angle for light approaching an aperture for diffraction to occur. e) the minimum wavelength of light for diffraction to occur for a given aperture.
36.8.1. What happens when sunlight falls on a diffraction grating? a) A rainbow of colors is produced with one color at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is white. b) Equally bright white fringes are produced at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is a rainbow of colors. c) Bright white fringes of varying intensity are produced at each principal maximum.
d) A rainbow of colors is produced at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is white. e) A solid, rainbow band of equally bright colors is produced.
36.8.1. What happens when sunlight falls on a diffraction grating? a) A rainbow of colors is produced with one color at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is white. b) Equally bright white fringes are produced at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is a rainbow of colors. c) Bright white fringes of varying intensity are produced at each principal maximum.
d) A rainbow of colors is produced at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is white. e) A solid, rainbow band of equally bright colors is produced.
36.8.2. Monochromatic light passes through a diffraction grating. Which of the following statements concerning the light that falls on a distant viewing screen is true? a) Bright principal fringes and less bright secondary fringes are observed.
b) Only bright principal fringes are observed. c) A broad, bright band of light is observed.
d) A rainbow of colors is produced at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is white. e) A very faint band of light is observed.
36.8.2. Monochromatic light passes through a diffraction grating. Which of the following statements concerning the light that falls on a distant viewing screen is true? a) Bright principal fringes and less bright secondary fringes are observed.
b) Only bright principal fringes are observed. c) A broad, bright band of light is observed.
d) A rainbow of colors is produced at each principal maximum, but the central maximum is white. e) A very faint band of light is observed.
36.9.1. On which of the following does the resolving power of a diffraction grating depend? a) the distance between the rulings and the wavelength of light b) the number of rulings on the grating and the diffraction order
c) the area of the grating and the distance between the rulings d) the angular separation of two light sources and the difference in their wavelengths e) Scientists have not yet explained the physical origin of the resolving power of a diffraction grating.
36.9.1. On which of the following does the resolving power of a diffraction grating depend? a) the distance between the rulings and the wavelength of light b) the number of rulings on the grating and the diffraction order
c) the area of the grating and the distance between the rulings d) the angular separation of two light sources and the difference in their wavelengths e) Scientists have not yet explained the physical origin of the resolving power of a diffraction grating.
36.9.2. Complete the following sentence: The larger the resolving power of a diffraction grating, a) the more two different wavelengths are spread apart. b) the narrower the line shape.
c) the wider the line shape. d) the less two different wavelengths are spread apart.
e) the greater the dispersion of the grating.
36.9.2. Complete the following sentence: The larger the resolving power of a diffraction grating, a) the more two different wavelengths are spread apart. b) the narrower the line shape.
c) the wider the line shape. d) the less two different wavelengths are spread apart.
e) the greater the dispersion of the grating.
36.9.3. Complete the following sentence: The larger the dispersion of a diffraction grating, a) the more two different wavelengths are spread apart. b) the narrower the line shape.
c) the wider the line shape. d) the less two different wavelengths are spread apart.
e) the greater the resolving power of the grating.
36.9.3. Complete the following sentence: The larger the dispersion of a diffraction grating, a) the more two different wavelengths are spread apart. b) the narrower the line shape.
c) the wider the line shape. d) the less two different wavelengths are spread apart.
e) the greater the resolving power of the grating.
36.9.4. What does the dispersion of a diffraction grating indicate? a) the resolvability of the grating b) the variation in the intensity of light diffracted from the grating c) the spreading that occurs depending on the wavelength of light d) the number of lines per millimeter the grating has e) the degree of polarization of light exiting the grating
36.9.4. What does the dispersion of a diffraction grating indicate? a) the resolvability of the grating b) the variation in the intensity of light diffracted from the grating c) the spreading that occurs depending on the wavelength of light d) the number of lines per millimeter the grating has e) the degree of polarization of light exiting the grating
36.10.1. Which one of the following methods can be used to determine the crystalline structure of a material? a) infrared diffraction b) x-ray diffraction
c) diffraction grating photography d) electron lithography
e) Raman spectroscopy
36.10.1. Which one of the following methods can be used to determine the crystalline structure of a material? a) infrared diffraction b) x-ray diffraction
c) diffraction grating photography d) electron lithography
e) Raman spectroscopy
36.10.2. Who is credited for the formula for determining the maxima for x-ray diffraction from an ordered, periodic arrangement of atoms in a crystalline material? a) Amontons b) Dirac c) Curie d) Pauli e) Bragg
36.10.2. Who is credited for the formula for determining the maxima for x-ray diffraction from an ordered, periodic arrangement of atoms in a crystalline material? a) Amontons b) Dirac c) Curie d) Pauli e) Bragg
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 37 Relativity Reading Quiz Questions
37.1.1. What is an inertial reference frame? a) a frame in which Newton’s laws of motion are valid b) a frame of motion that contains a large quantity of material c) any frame that serves as a reference to measure the motion of objects d) a frame that is rotating with a constant rotational speed
e) a two-dimensional representation that represents an event according to the special theory of relativity
37.1.1. What is an inertial reference frame? a) a frame in which Newton’s laws of motion are valid b) a frame of motion that contains a large quantity of material c) any frame that serves as a reference to measure the motion of objects d) a frame that is rotating with a constant rotational speed
e) a two-dimensional representation that represents an event according to the special theory of relativity
37.1.2. Which one of the following situations does not involve an inertial reference frame? a) A ship is traveling toward Mars at 1200 m/s. b) A railroad car is heading west out of Denver at 50 mph.
c) A merry-go-round is rotating at 4 revolutions per minute. d) A helicopter hovers over a lake during a rescue attempt.
e) A ship is being lowered at a constant rate in a river lock.
37.1.2. Which one of the following situations does not involve an inertial reference frame? a) A ship is traveling toward Mars at 1200 m/s. b) A railroad car is heading west out of Denver at 50 mph.
c) A merry-go-round is rotating at 4 revolutions per minute. d) A helicopter hovers over a lake during a rescue attempt.
e) A ship is being lowered at a constant rate in a river lock.
37.2.1. How many postulates are included in the special theory of relativity? a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
e) 4
37.2.1. How many postulates are included in the special theory of relativity? a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
e) 4
37.2.2. Which one of the following statements is the Relativity Postulate? a) The laws of physics are the same in all reference frames. b) All velocities are measured relative to the speed of light.
c) The laws of physics are relative to the methods used to derive them. d) The laws of physics are valid only on earth. e) The laws of physics are the same in every inertial reference frame.
37.2.2. Which one of the following statements is the Relativity Postulate? a) The laws of physics are the same in all reference frames. b) All velocities are measured relative to the speed of light.
c) The laws of physics are relative to the methods used to derive them. d) The laws of physics are valid only on earth. e) The laws of physics are the same in every inertial reference frame.
37.2.3. An observer on the earth sees a light pulse within a space ship moving at a constant speed of one-half the speed of light (0.5c). The earth-bound observer measures the speed of the light pulse as it travels from one end of the ship to the other. What speed does the observer measure for the light pulse? a) 0.25c b) 0.5c c) c d) 0.71c e) 1.4c
37.2.3. An observer on the earth sees a light pulse within a space ship moving at a constant speed of one-half the speed of light (0.5c). The earth-bound observer measures the speed of the light pulse as it travels from one end of the ship to the other. What speed does the observer measure for the light pulse? a) 0.25c b) 0.5c c) c d) 0.71c e) 1.4c
37.2.4. What does the speed of light postulate state? a) The speed of light in a vacuum is constant unless the viewer is moving toward or away from the light source. b) The speed of light depends on the relative velocity of the light source relative to the observer. c) The speed of light in a vacuum has the same value in all directions and in all inertial reference frames.
d) The speed of light in a vacuum varies with the wavelength, but is a constant for each wavelength in all reference frames. e) Nothing can travel faster than the speed of light.
37.2.4. What does the speed of light postulate state? a) The speed of light in a vacuum is constant unless the viewer is moving toward or away from the light source. b) The speed of light depends on the relative velocity of the light source relative to the observer. c) The speed of light in a vacuum has the same value in all directions and in all inertial reference frames.
d) The speed of light in a vacuum varies with the wavelength, but is a constant for each wavelength in all reference frames. e) Nothing can travel faster than the speed of light.
37.3.1. Complete the following sentence: In the theory of special relativity, an event is a physical happening a) that is observed by two observers, one moving and one at rest. b) that occurs at a certain place and time.
c) that occurs in an inertial reference frame. d) that occurs in an accelerating reference frame.
e) that involves the emission or absorption of light.
37.3.1. Complete the following sentence: In the theory of special relativity, an event is a physical happening a) that is observed by two observers, one moving and one at rest. b) that occurs at a certain place and time.
c) that occurs in an inertial reference frame. d) that occurs in an accelerating reference frame.
e) that involves the emission or absorption of light.
37.3.2. Complete the following sentence: An event is something that happens and can be assigned a) to an inertial reference frame. b) a time interval.
c) a position. d) to a general reference frame.
e) a time coordinate and three space coordinates.
37.3.2. Complete the following sentence: An event is something that happens and can be assigned a) to an inertial reference frame. b) a time interval.
c) a position. d) to a general reference frame.
e) a time coordinate and three space coordinates.
37.4.1. On what does simultaneity depend? a) the type of events b) the type of clocks used c) the motion of the observer d) the scale of the event
37.4.1. On what does simultaneity depend? a) the type of events b) the type of clocks used c) the motion of the observer d) the scale of the event
37.5.1. Which of the following statements concerning time dilation is false? a) Time is dilated relative to the proper time. b) For two observers, one moving and one at rest, in an inertial reference frame, time passes more slowly for the observer at rest. c) For two observers, one moving and one at rest, in an inertial reference frame, the proper time is measured by the observer at rest with respect to the event and observes the event at the same location. d) An astronaut that travels away from the earth at 0.5c and returns at the same speed. The ships clock may indicate that one year has passed, but earthbound clocks will indicate that much more time has passed. e) One confirmation of time dilation came from experiments performed by Hafele and Keating.
37.5.1. Which of the following statements concerning time dilation is false? a) Time is dilated relative to the proper time. b) For two observers, one moving and one at rest, in an inertial reference frame, time passes more slowly for the observer at rest. c) For two observers, one moving and one at rest, in an inertial reference frame, the proper time is measured by the observer at rest with respect to the event and observes the event at the same location. d) An astronaut that travels away from the earth at 0.5c and returns at the same speed. The ships clock may indicate that one year has passed, but earthbound clocks will indicate that much more time has passed. e) One confirmation of time dilation came from experiments performed by Hafele and Keating.
37.5.2. While traveling at 2.5 108 m/s on a space ship in a distant galaxy, the ship’s science officer turns on a laser that sends out pulses at regular intervals the follow a long path before returning to a detector next to the laser. The equipment is used to measure the speed of light by measuring the time for the light pulses to travel from the laser to the detector. Meanwhile, an observer at rest on a nearby planet monitors the experiment. What is the term used to describe the time interval measured by the science officer on the ship?
a) special time interval b) situational time interval c) relative time interval d) relative time interval e) proper time interval
37.5.2. While traveling at 2.5 108 m/s on a space ship in a distant galaxy, the ship’s science officer turns on a laser that sends out pulses at regular intervals the follow a long path before returning to a detector next to the laser. The equipment is used to measure the speed of light by measuring the time for the light pulses to travel from the laser to the detector. Meanwhile, an observer at rest on a nearby planet monitors the experiment. What is the term used to describe the time interval measured by the science officer on the ship?
a) special time interval b) situational time interval c) relative time interval d) relative time interval e) proper time interval
37.5.3. On what does the time interval between two events depend? a) the lapse in time between the two events b) the spatial distance between the two events c) the types of clocks used to make time measurements d) both temporal and spatial distances between the events
37.5.3. On what does the time interval between two events depend? a) the lapse in time between the two events b) the spatial distance between the two events c) the types of clocks used to make time measurements d) both temporal and spatial distances between the events
37.6.1. A space ship leaves the earth and travels to Alpha Centauri at a speed close to the speed of light. Passengers aboard the ship measure the distance from the earth to Alpha Centauri and the distance is also measure by scientists on earth. Which observers measure the proper length and which observer measures the shortest length? a) The passengers measure the proper length and the passengers measure the shorter length.
b) The passengers measure the proper length and the scientists measure the shorter length. c) The scientists measure the proper length and the passengers measure the shorter length. d) The scientists measure the proper length and the scientists measure the shorter length. e) The passengers measure the proper length and all observers measure the same length.
37.6.1. A space ship leaves the earth and travels to Alpha Centauri at a speed close to the speed of light. Passengers aboard the ship measure the distance from the earth to Alpha Centauri and the distance is also measure by scientists on earth. Which observers measure the proper length and which observer measures the shortest length? a) The passengers measure the proper length and the passengers measure the shorter length.
b) The passengers measure the proper length and the scientists measure the shorter length. c) The scientists measure the proper length and the passengers measure the shorter length. d) The scientists measure the proper length and the scientists measure the shorter length. e) The passengers measure the proper length and all observers measure the same length.
37.6.2. What is the meaning of the word “proper” in the terms proper length and proper time?
a) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one that is at rest with respect to the events or distance measurements being made. b) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one in the preferred reference frame. c) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one that is moving at large velocities with respect to an inertial reference frame. d) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one located at the origin of an inertial reference frame. e) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one with the most accurate measurement equipment.
37.6.2. What is the meaning of the word “proper” in the terms proper length and proper time?
a) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one that is at rest with respect to the events or distance measurements being made. b) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one in the preferred reference frame. c) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one that is moving at large velocities with respect to an inertial reference frame. d) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one located at the origin of an inertial reference frame. e) The observer measuring the proper length or proper time is the one with the most accurate measurement equipment.
37.6.3. Which of the following statements concerning the proper length is true? a) The proper length is always the same as that measured in any other reference frame. b) The proper length is always longer than that measured in any other reference frame. c) The proper length is always shorter than that measured in any other reference frame. d) The proper length has no relationship to the length measured in any other reference frame.
37.6.3. Which of the following statements concerning the proper length is true? a) The proper length is always the same as that measured in any other reference frame. b) The proper length is always longer than that measured in any other reference frame. c) The proper length is always shorter than that measured in any other reference frame. d) The proper length has no relationship to the length measured in any other reference frame.
37.7.1. Which one of the following statements is not a consequence of the Lorentz equations? a) Moving clocks run faster than when they are not moving. b) Moving objects appear shorter than when they are not moving.
c) Events that are simultaneous in one frame will not be simultaneous in another. d) All of the above choices are consequences of the Lorentz equations.
37.7.1. Which one of the following statements is not a consequence of the Lorentz equations? a) Moving clocks run faster than when they are not moving. b) Moving objects appear shorter than when they are not moving.
c) Events that are simultaneous in one frame will not be simultaneous in another. d) All of the above choices are consequences of the Lorentz equations.
37.7.2. Consider these equations: (1) x = x − vt and (2) t = t. What is the name given to these equations? a) Einstein transformation equations b) Galilean transformation equations
c) Poincare transformation equations d) Lorentz transformation equations
37.7.2. Consider these equations: (1) x = x − vt and (2) t = t. What is the name given to these equations? a) Einstein transformation equations b) Galilean transformation equations
c) Poincare transformation equations d) Lorentz transformation equations
37.9.1. A space ship is traveling at 0.7c when a laser beam is turned on that is directed in the direction the ship is traveling. What is the speed of the laser light? a) 1.0c b) 1.7c c) 0.7c d) 1.4c e) 0.3c
37.9.1. A space ship is traveling at 0.7c when a laser beam is turned on that is directed in the direction the ship is traveling. What is the speed of the laser light? a) 1.0c b) 1.7c c) 0.7c d) 1.4c e) 0.3c
37.10.1. In the discussion of the Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves, this effect differs from that of sound waves in which of the following ways?
a) The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves requires that both the observer and the source be moving with respect to a medium. b) The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves requires that the speed of light be measured with respect to a stationary reference frame. c) The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves is dependent on the relative speed of the source and observer. d) The frequency of the electromagnetic waves is unaffected by the relative motion of an observer and a source. e) The Doppler effect is not present when the light is passing through a vacuum.
37.10.1. In the discussion of the Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves, this effect differs from that of sound waves in which of the following ways?
a) The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves requires that both the observer and the source be moving with respect to a medium. b) The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves requires that the speed of light be measured with respect to a stationary reference frame. c) The Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves is dependent on the relative speed of the source and observer. d) The frequency of the electromagnetic waves is unaffected by the relative motion of an observer and a source. e) The Doppler effect is not present when the light is passing through a vacuum.
37.11.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the relativistic momentum of an electron moving at a speed very close to the speed of light is false? a) The relativistic momentum has a greater magnitude than the electron’s classical momentum. b) As the electron’s speed approaches the speed of light, the relativistic momentum approaches infinity. c) The mass of the electron is a factor in the calculation of relativistic momentum.
d) The relativistic momentum is equal to the classical momentum for velocities up to 0.8c. e) Relativistic momentum effects can be observed in collisions.
37.11.1. Which one of the following statements concerning the relativistic momentum of an electron moving at a speed very close to the speed of light is false? a) The relativistic momentum has a greater magnitude than the electron’s classical momentum. b) As the electron’s speed approaches the speed of light, the relativistic momentum approaches infinity. c) The mass of the electron is a factor in the calculation of relativistic momentum.
d) The relativistic momentum is equal to the classical momentum for velocities up to 0.8c. e) Relativistic momentum effects can be observed in collisions.
37.12.1. Which of the following expressions givens the total energy of an object? a) E = mc2 v2
b) E = mc 2 1 − 2 c mc 2
c) E =
1−
v2 c2
d) E = m0c2 e) E = 1 mc2 2
37.12.1. Which of the following expressions givens the total energy of an object? a) E = mc2 v2
b) E = mc 2 1 − 2 c mc 2
c) E =
1−
v2 c2
d) E = m0c2 e) E = 1 mc2 2
37.12.2. What is the meaning of Einstein’s famous equation E0 = mc2? a) This represents the total energy of an object of mass m. b) This represents the energy equivalent of the mass of an object at rest.
c) This represents the relativistic kinetic energy of an object of mass m. d) This represents the energy equivalent of the mass of an object traveling at the speed of light. e) This represents the maximum energy an object can have.
37.12.2. What is the meaning of Einstein’s famous equation E0 = mc2? a) This represents the total energy of an object of mass m. b) This represents the energy equivalent of the mass of an object at rest.
c) This represents the relativistic kinetic energy of an object of mass m. d) This represents the energy equivalent of the mass of an object traveling at the speed of light. e) This represents the maximum energy an object can have.
37.12.3. In the equation, E0 = mc2, what is E0? a) the relativistic kinetic energy of an object b) the total energy of an object c) the total potential energy of an object d) the initial energy of an object e) rest energy of an object
37.12.3. In the equation, E0 = mc2, what is E0? a) the relativistic kinetic energy of an object b) the total energy of an object c) the total potential energy of an object d) the initial energy of an object e) rest energy of an object
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 38 Photon and Matter Waves Reading Quiz Questions
38.2.1. What is the name given to the particle-like entities that compose electromagnetic waves? a) phonons b) photons
c) mesons d) leptons
e) electromagnons
38.2.1. What is the name given to the particle-like entities that compose electromagnetic waves? a) phonons b) photons
c) mesons d) leptons
e) electromagnons
38.2.2. Which of the following expressions gives the energy E of a photon? a) E = mc2 b) E = 1 mv2 2
c) E = hc d) E = hf
e) E =
mc
38.2.2. Which of the following expressions gives the energy E of a photon? a) E = mc2 b) E = 1 mv2 2
c) E = hc d) E = hf
e) E =
mc
38.2.3. On what does the energy of a photon depend? a) the speed of the photon b) the mass of the photon c) the size of the photon d) the frequency of the photon
38.2.3. On what does the energy of a photon depend? a) the speed of the photon b) the mass of the photon c) the size of the photon d) the frequency of the photon
38.2.4. How does the energy of a “red”photon compare with that of a “blue” photon? a) It is less. b) It is the same.
c) It is more.
38.2.4. How does the energy of a “red”photon compare with that of a “blue” photon? a) It is less. b) It is the same.
c) It is more.
38.2.5. How does the energy of light with a shorter wavelength compare with that of light with a longer wavelength? a) It has less energy. b) It has the same energy.
c) It has more energy.
38.2.5. How does the energy of light with a shorter wavelength compare with that of light with a longer wavelength? a) It has less energy. b) It has the same energy.
c) It has more energy.
38.3.1. Which one of the following experiments provides evidence that light consists of particle-like entities? a) Young’s double slit b) photoelectric effect
c) blackbody radiation d) Rutherford scattering
e) crossed polarizers
38.3.1. Which one of the following experiments provides evidence that light consists of particle-like entities? a) Young’s double slit b) photoelectric effect
c) blackbody radiation d) Rutherford scattering
e) crossed polarizers
38.3.2. What is the term used for the minimum work needed to eject an electron from a metal surface? a) photoelectric function b) photon energy
c) work function d) Fermi energy
e) Coulomb potential
38.3.2. What is the term used for the minimum work needed to eject an electron from a metal surface? a) photoelectric function b) photon energy
c) work function d) Fermi energy
e) Coulomb potential
38.3.3. What did the photoelectric effect experiment demonstrate? a) Nothing, it was a complete failure. b) Photons have mass. c) The speed of light is the “speed limit” of the Universe. d) Light can behave like particles. e) Electrons can behave like waves.
38.3.3. What did the photoelectric effect experiment demonstrate? a) Nothing, it was a complete failure. b) Photons have mass. c) The speed of light is the “speed limit” of the Universe. d) Light can behave like particles. e) Electrons can behave like waves.
38.4.1. For which of the following physical discoveries is Arthur Compton credited?
a) The circumference of an electron’s orbit in an atom is an integer multiple of the electron’s wavelength. b) The positive charge within an atom is concentrated within a very small volume within an atom. c) A low pressure monatomic gas can be made to emit electromagnetic waves viewed as a series of specific bright fringes. d) The scattering of x-rays by electrons in graphite further demonstrates that light can exhibit particle-like characteristics. e) The more precisely the position of an electron is determined, the less precisely the momentum of the electron is known at a given time.
38.4.1. For which of the following physical discoveries is Arthur Compton credited?
a) The circumference of an electron’s orbit in an atom is an integer multiple of the electron’s wavelength. b) The positive charge within an atom is concentrated within a very small volume within an atom. c) A low pressure monatomic gas can be made to emit electromagnetic waves viewed as a series of specific bright fringes. d) The scattering of x-rays by electrons in graphite further demonstrates that light can exhibit particle-like characteristics. e) The more precisely the position of an electron is determined, the less precisely the momentum of the electron is known at a given time.
38.4.2. Complete the following statement: When an x-ray photon collides with an electron at rest, a) the electron turns into a photon. b) the magnitude of the scattered photon is the same as the magnitude of the incident x-ray photon, but the direction of the momentum is altered. c) the frequency of the scattered photon is less than the frequency of the incident x-ray photon. d) the electron absorbs the photon and becomes a proton. e) the energy of the x-ray photon is completely absorbed by the electron.
38.4.2. Complete the following statement: When an x-ray photon collides with an electron at rest, a) the electron turns into a photon. b) the magnitude of the scattered photon is the same as the magnitude of the incident x-ray photon, but the direction of the momentum is altered. c) the frequency of the scattered photon is less than the frequency of the incident x-ray photon. d) the electron absorbs the photon and becomes a proton. e) the energy of the x-ray photon is completely absorbed by the electron.
38.4.3. When the Compton shift was measured, what was demonstrated? a) Photons have momentum. b) Photons have energy.
c) Photons behave like waves. d) Photons have no mass.
e) Electrons have no mass.
38.4.3. When the Compton shift was measured, what was demonstrated? a) Photons have momentum. b) Photons have energy.
c) Photons behave like waves. d) Photons have no mass.
e) Electrons have no mass.
38.5.1. What would one observe on an observation screen if a single photon was allowed to pass through one of the slits in a double slit experiment? a) You would see a faint diffraction pattern. b) You would see a single bright point. c) You would see a central band, but no other bands. d) You would see two bright bands. e) You would see a faint interference pattern.
38.5.1. What would one observe on an observation screen if a single photon was allowed to pass through one of the slits in a double slit experiment? a) You would see a faint diffraction pattern. b) You would see a single bright point. c) You would see a central band, but no other bands. d) You would see two bright bands. e) You would see a faint interference pattern.
38.6.1. When a beam of electrons is directed at a suitably narrow pair of slits, what is observed at a screen behind the double slit? a) an image of the double slit b) two bright regions with extended, fuzzy edges
c) one bright region with intensity decreasing exponentially on each side d) one sharp bright region e) alternating bright and dark regions
38.6.1. When a beam of electrons is directed at a suitably narrow pair of slits, what is observed at a screen behind the double slit? a) an image of the double slit b) two bright regions with extended, fuzzy edges
c) one bright region with intensity decreasing exponentially on each side d) one sharp bright region e) alternating bright and dark regions
38.6.2. Which one of the following statements best explains what is meant by the “dual nature” of the electron?
a) An electron may act with either particle-like or wave-like characteristics. b) An electron may be either in a quasi-free state as in a metal or in a tightlybound state deep within an atom.
c) An electron can be transmitted in a beam as in a television or through a wire. d) An electron plays a role in the production of both magnetic and electric fields.
e) An electron can travel at very small velocities or be at rest. It’s motion adequately described by Newton’s laws of motion. The electron can also travel at speeds close to the speed of light; and its motion is described by relativistic laws of motion.
38.6.2. Which one of the following statements best explains what is meant by the “dual nature” of the electron?
a) An electron may act with either particle-like or wave-like characteristics. b) An electron may be either in a quasi-free state as in a metal or in a tightlybound state deep within an atom.
c) An electron can be transmitted in a beam as in a television or through a wire. d) An electron plays a role in the production of both magnetic and electric fields.
e) An electron can travel at very small velocities or be at rest. It’s motion adequately described by Newton’s laws of motion. The electron can also travel at speeds close to the speed of light; and its motion is described by relativistic laws of motion.
38.6.3. Which one of the following scientists made the suggestion that since light waves can exhibit particle-like properties, that particles should exhibit wave-like properties? a) de Broglie b) Planck c) Heisenberg d) Compton e) Einstein
38.6.3. Which one of the following scientists made the suggestion that since light waves can exhibit particle-like properties, that particles should exhibit wave-like properties? a) de Broglie b) Planck c) Heisenberg d) Compton e) Einstein
38.7.1. The square of what parameter indicates the probability of locating a particle within a region of space? a) momentum b) wave function
c) wavelength d) energy
e) spin
38.7.1. The square of what parameter indicates the probability of locating a particle within a region of space? a) momentum b) wave function
c) wavelength d) energy
e) spin
38.7.2. What does the Schrödinger equation describe? a) string waves b) matter waves c) light waves d) electromagnetic forces e) the gravitational force
38.7.2. What does the Schrödinger equation describe? a) string waves b) matter waves c) light waves d) electromagnetic forces e) the gravitational force
38.8.1. Which branch of physics emerged from the work of Schrödinger and Heisenberg? a) plasma physics b) nuclear physics
c) quantum electrodynamics d) astrophysics
e) quantum mechanics
38.8.1. Which branch of physics emerged from the work of Schrödinger and Heisenberg? a) plasma physics b) nuclear physics
c) quantum electrodynamics d) astrophysics
e) quantum mechanics
38.8.2. Complete the following statement: The shorter the lifetime of a particle in a given energy state, a) the more precise is the measurement of the energy of the particle. b) the greater the energy of that state.
c) the greater is the uncertainty in the energy of that state. d) the more precise is the measurement of the lifetime.
e) the more likely the particle will gain energy.
38.8.2. Complete the following statement: The shorter the lifetime of a particle in a given energy state, a) the more precise is the measurement of the energy of the particle. b) the greater the energy of that state.
c) the greater is the uncertainty in the energy of that state. d) the more precise is the measurement of the lifetime.
e) the more likely the particle will gain energy.
38.8.3. Which one of the following statements is true according to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle? a) Two electrons within an atom cannot have the same quantum numbers. b) You can never measure the location of a particle. c) Quantum mechanics is only a theory. d) It is impossible to know both the position and momentum of a particle at the same time. e) You can never make a measurement that is more precise than h/2.
38.8.3. Which one of the following statements is true according to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle? a) Two electrons within an atom cannot have the same quantum numbers. b) You can never measure the location of a particle. c) Quantum mechanics is only a theory. d) It is impossible to know both the position and momentum of a particle at the same time. e) You can never make a measurement that is more precise than h/2.
38.9.1. What is barrier tunneling? a) This occurs when photons pass through a solid barrier. b) This occurs when particles make a hole through a solid barrier. c) This occurs when photons make a hole through a energy barrier. d) This occurs when particles pass through an energy barrier. e) This occurs when photons refract at a surface.
38.9.1. What is barrier tunneling? a) This occurs when photons pass through a solid barrier. b) This occurs when particles make a hole through a solid barrier. c) This occurs when photons make a hole through a energy barrier. d) This occurs when particles pass through an energy barrier. e) This occurs when photons refract at a surface.
38.9.2. Which of the following does not affect the probability that a particle will penetrate an energy barrier? a) the potential energy of the barrier b) the kinetic energy of the particle
c) the potential energy of the particle d) the total energy of the particle
e) All of the above choices affect the probability.
38.9.2. Which of the following does not affect the probability that a particle will penetrate an energy barrier? a) the potential energy of the barrier b) the kinetic energy of the particle
c) the potential energy of the particle d) the total energy of the particle
e) All of the above choices affect the probability.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 39 More about Matter Waves Reading Quiz Questions
39.2.1. What does the confinement principle state? a) Confinement leads to quantization. b) It is very unlikely that a particle in a potential well can tunnel through the energy barrier.
c) The smaller the volume of space a particle occupies, the faster it must move. d) A particle can only be confined in an infinitely deep potential well. e) It is impossible to confine a particle in an infinitely small region.
39.2.1. What does the confinement principle state? a) Confinement leads to quantization. b) It is very unlikely that a particle in a potential well can tunnel through the energy barrier.
c) The smaller the volume of space a particle occupies, the faster it must move. d) A particle can only be confined in an infinitely deep potential well. e) It is impossible to confine a particle in an infinitely small region.
39.2.2. What is the term used to describe the least tightly bound electrons of an atom? a) core electron b) free electron
c) positron d) valence electron
e) Cooper electron
39.2.2. What is the term used to describe the least tightly bound electrons of an atom? a) core electron b) free electron
c) positron d) valence electron
e) Cooper electron
39.3.1. For an infinitely deep potential well, what does the quantum number n signify? a) the total number of electrons involved b) the number of possible location(s) of the atom(s)
c) the energy level an electron is in d) the probability density
e) the nutation of the atom
39.3.1. For an infinitely deep potential well, what does the quantum number n signify? a) the total number of electrons involved b) the number of possible location(s) of the atom(s)
c) the energy level an electron is in d) the probability density
e) the nutation of the atom
39.3.2. Consider an electron trapped in a one-dimensional trap. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the lowest energy level according to the text? a) The lowest energy such an electron can have is always negative. b) The lowest energy such an electron can have is always positive. c) The lowest energy such an electron can have is zero. d) The lowest energy such an electron can have may be positive, negative, or zero. e) The lowest energy such an electron can have cannot be calculated.
39.3.2. Consider an electron trapped in a one-dimensional trap. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the lowest energy level according to the text? a) The lowest energy such an electron can have is always negative. b) The lowest energy such an electron can have is always positive. c) The lowest energy such an electron can have is zero. d) The lowest energy such an electron can have may be positive, negative, or zero. e) The lowest energy such an electron can have cannot be calculated.
39.3.3. What is a quantum jump? a) when an electron tunnels through a potential barrier b) when a particle moves from one well to another c) when an electron changes energy levels d) when an electron changes from exhibiting wave-like properties to particle-like properties
e) when a particle’s speed changes in quantized amounts
39.3.3. What is a quantum jump? a) when an electron tunnels through a potential barrier b) when a particle moves from one well to another c) when an electron changes energy levels d) when an electron changes from exhibiting wave-like properties to particle-like properties
e) when a particle’s speed changes in quantized amounts
39.3.4. Photons are directed at an electron within a confined system. Which of the following correctly describes the requirement for the energy of a photon if it is to cause the electron to move from a lower state to a higher state within the system? a) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to or larger than the zero point energy.
b) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to the energy of the lower state. c) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to the energy of the higher state. d) The energy of the photon must be must be smaller than the energy difference between the initial and final states. e) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to the energy difference between the initial and final states.
39.3.4. Photons are directed at an electron within a confined system. Which of the following correctly describes the requirement for the energy of a photon if it is to cause the electron to move from a lower state to a higher state within the system? a) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to or larger than the zero point energy.
b) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to the energy of the lower state. c) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to the energy of the higher state. d) The energy of the photon must be must be smaller than the energy difference between the initial and final states. e) The energy of the photon must be must be equal to the energy difference between the initial and final states.
39.3.5. What is the term used for the lowest energy level of an atom? a) ionization energy b) nucleation energy c) fermi level d) ground state e) work function
39.3.5. What is the term used for the lowest energy level of an atom? a) ionization energy b) nucleation energy c) fermi level d) ground state e) work function
39.4.1. What does the correspondence principle state? a) For every action, there is a corresponding force. b) When quantum numbers become very large, classical and quantum physics merge.
c) Matter waves and electromagnetic waves correspond to each other at the level of very small quantum numbers. d) A particle trapped inside an infinitely deep potential well will have quantized energy states. e) In quantum mechanics, matter and energy are indistinguishable.
39.4.1. What does the correspondence principle state? a) For every action, there is a corresponding force. b) When quantum numbers become very large, classical and quantum physics merge.
c) Matter waves and electromagnetic waves correspond to each other at the level of very small quantum numbers. d) A particle trapped inside an infinitely deep potential well will have quantized energy states. e) In quantum mechanics, matter and energy are indistinguishable.
39.4.2. Consider an electron trapped in a one-dimensional, infinitely deep potential energy well. Which of the following statements concerning the value of the wavefunction of the electron at the walls of the well must be true? a) The value must be negative.
b) The value must be positive. c) The value must be complex.
d) The value must be zero. e) The value will vary depending on the quantum number n.
39.4.2. Consider an electron trapped in a one-dimensional, infinitely deep potential energy well. Which of the following statements concerning the value of the wavefunction of the electron at the walls of the well must be true? a) The value must be negative.
b) The value must be positive. c) The value must be complex.
d) The value must be zero. e) The value will vary depending on the quantum number n.
39.4.3. Which of the following statements concerning an electron at its lowest energy state within a one-dimensional, infinitely deep potential well is true? a) The electron is least likely to be near the walls of the well. b) The electron is least likely to be at the center of the well. c) The electron is least likely to be found between the center and a wall.
d) The electron is equally likely to be found anywhere in the well. e) The electron is least likely to be found anywhere in the well.
39.4.3. Which of the following statements concerning an electron at its lowest energy state within a one-dimensional, infinitely deep potential well is true? a) The electron is least likely to be near the walls of the well. b) The electron is least likely to be at the center of the well. c) The electron is least likely to be found between the center and a wall.
d) The electron is equally likely to be found anywhere in the well. e) The electron is least likely to be found anywhere in the well.
39.4.4. What is the zero-point energy? a) The smallest amount of energy that any particle can have in the Universe is called the zero-point energy. b) The smallest energy that an electron confined within an atom is zero joules, which is the zero point energy. c) The energy that an electron has at the walls of a potential barrier is called the zero-point energy. d) Particles in confined systems have a minimum amount of energy that is not equal to zero, which is called the zero-point energy. e) The energy that an electron has at the center of a potential well is called the zero-point energy.
39.4.4. What is the zero-point energy? a) The smallest amount of energy that any particle can have in the Universe is called the zero-point energy. b) The smallest energy that an electron confined within an atom is zero joules, which is the zero point energy. c) The energy that an electron has at the walls of a potential barrier is called the zero-point energy. d) Particles in confined systems have a minimum amount of energy that is not equal to zero, which is called the zero-point energy. e) The energy that an electron has at the center of a potential well is called the zero-point energy.
39.4.5. What is the purpose of normalizing a wave function? a) so all wave functions can be compared with each other b) so the probability density is not a complex number c) so the wave function is never negative d) so the probability of finding the particle is one hundred percent e) so the wave function is positive and never equal to zero
39.4.5. What is the purpose of normalizing a wave function? a) so all wave functions can be compared with each other b) so the probability density is not a complex number c) so the wave function is never negative d) so the probability of finding the particle is one hundred percent e) so the wave function is positive and never equal to zero
39.4.6. The square of what parameter indicates the probability of locating a particle within a region of space? a) momentum b) wave function
c) wavelength d) energy
e) spin
39.4.6. The square of what parameter indicates the probability of locating a particle within a region of space? a) momentum b) wave function
c) wavelength d) energy
e) spin
39.5.1. Which of the following statements concerning an electron in the n = 2 state within a one-dimensional, finite potential well is true? a) The electron is least likely to be near the walls of the well. b) The electron is least likely to be at the center of the well. c) The electron is least likely to be found between the center and a wall.
d) The electron is equally likely to be found anywhere in the well. e) The electron is least likely to be found anywhere in the well.
39.5.1. Which of the following statements concerning an electron in the n = 2 state within a one-dimensional, finite potential well is true? a) The electron is least likely to be near the walls of the well. b) The electron is least likely to be at the center of the well. c) The electron is least likely to be found between the center and a wall.
d) The electron is equally likely to be found anywhere in the well. e) The electron is least likely to be found anywhere in the well.
39.6.1. Several artificial electron traps are described in the text. Which one of the following choices is not discussed in the text? a) quantum dot b) quantum corral
c) superlattice d) nanocrystallite
39.6.1. Several artificial electron traps are described in the text. Which one of the following choices is not discussed in the text? a) quantum dot b) quantum corral
c) superlattice d) nanocrystallite
39.8.1. Which one of the following choice is an assumption Bohr made in formulating his atomic model? a) Electron energies are quantized. b) The linear momentum of the electron is quantized.
c) The angular momentum of the electron is quantized. d) The ground state energy of the hydrogen atom is −13.60 eV.
e) Electrons may be found anywhere in the atom.
39.8.1. Which one of the following choice is an assumption Bohr made in formulating his atomic model? a) Electron energies are quantized. b) The linear momentum of the electron is quantized.
c) The angular momentum of the electron is quantized. d) The ground state energy of the hydrogen atom is −13.60 eV.
e) Electrons may be found anywhere in the atom.
39.8.2. The Bohr model successfully predicted which one of the following parameters? a) The values of the energy levels of the hydrogen atom. b) The radius of the nucleus of the hydrogen atom.
c) The size of an electron. d) The electric potential of an electron.
e) The number of neutrons in a given atom.
39.8.2. The Bohr model successfully predicted which one of the following parameters? a) The values of the energy levels of the hydrogen atom. b) The radius of the nucleus of the hydrogen atom.
c) The size of an electron. d) The electric potential of an electron.
e) The number of neutrons in a given atom.
39.8.3. What was the contribution of Johann Balmer in the study of atomic spectra?
a) He discovered new lines for the hydrogen spectrum located in the ultraviolet region. b) He found a relationship between an empirical formula for hydrogen’s atomic spectra to Bohr’s model of the atom. c) He found an empirical equation that gave the values of the observed visible wavelengths of the hydrogen spectrum. d) By studying the solar absorption spectrum, he discovered the element hydrogen. e) By studying atomic spectra, he discovered that every element has a unique spectrum.
39.8.3. What was the contribution of Johann Balmer in the study of atomic spectra?
a) He discovered new lines for the hydrogen spectrum located in the ultraviolet region. b) He found a relationship between an empirical formula for hydrogen’s atomic spectra to Bohr’s model of the atom. c) He found an empirical equation that gave the values of the observed visible wavelengths of the hydrogen spectrum. d) By studying the solar absorption spectrum, he discovered the element hydrogen. e) By studying atomic spectra, he discovered that every element has a unique spectrum.
39.8.4. Which one of the following statements is not part of the Bohr model of the atom?
a) Electrons emit electromagnetic radiation as they orbit in stationary states. b) The structure of the atom is that there is a very small, positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons. c) The radii for Bohr orbits depends on the number of protons in the nucleus. d) Electrons move in circular orbits. e) A photon is emitted when an electron drops from a higher energy orbit to a lower energy orbit.
39.8.4. Which one of the following statements is not part of the Bohr model of the atom?
a) Electrons emit electromagnetic radiation as they orbit in stationary states. b) The structure of the atom is that there is a very small, positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons. c) The radii for Bohr orbits depends on the number of protons in the nucleus. d) Electrons move in circular orbits. e) A photon is emitted when an electron drops from a higher energy orbit to a lower energy orbit.
39.8.5. How many quantum numbers did Bohr use in his model to identify the various electron orbits? a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
e) 4
39.8.5. How many quantum numbers did Bohr use in his model to identify the various electron orbits? a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
e) 4
39.9.1. What causes the potential well of a hydrogen atom? a) the zero-point energy of the atom b) the quantization of the electron’s angular momentum c) the electrostatic attraction of the electron and proton d) the confinement of the electron to the atomic orbitals e) the magnetic interaction between the spin angular momentum of the proton and the electron
39.9.1. What causes the potential well of a hydrogen atom? a) the zero-point energy of the atom b) the quantization of the electron’s angular momentum c) the electrostatic attraction of the electron and proton d) the confinement of the electron to the atomic orbitals e) the magnetic interaction between the spin angular momentum of the proton and the electron
39.9.2. Which one of the following choices is not a quantum number? a) orbital magnetic quantum number b) principal quantum number c) shell quantum number d) orbital quantum number
39.9.2. Which one of the following choices is not a quantum number? a) orbital magnetic quantum number b) principal quantum number c) shell quantum number d) orbital quantum number
39.9.3. Which one of the following quantum numbers determines the total energy of an atom? a) spin quantum number b) magnetic quantum number
c) orbital quantum number d) principal quantum number
39.9.3. Which one of the following quantum numbers determines the total energy of an atom? a) spin quantum number b) magnetic quantum number
c) orbital quantum number d) principal quantum number
39.9.4. Which series of lines in the hydrogen line spectrum involves electrons making a transition from higher energy levels down to the lowest energy level? a) Balmer series b) Lyman series c) Paschen series d) Brackett series e) Pfund series
39.9.4. Which series of lines in the hydrogen line spectrum involves electrons making a transition from higher energy levels down to the lowest energy level? a) Balmer series b) Lyman series c) Paschen series d) Brackett series e) Pfund series
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 40 All about Atoms Reading Quiz Questions
40.2.1. Which of the following is not a property of atoms? a) Atoms are put together systematically. b) Atoms combine with each other. c) Atoms emit and absorb light. d) Atoms are stable. e) All of the above are properties of atoms.
40.2.1. Which of the following is not a property of atoms? a) Atoms are put together systematically. b) Atoms combine with each other. c) Atoms emit and absorb light. d) Atoms are stable. e) All of the above are properties of atoms.
40.3.1. Which one of the following is not a quantum number? a) optical quantum number b) principal quantum number c) orbital quantum number d) spin magnetic quantum number e) spin quantum number
40.3.1. Which one of the following is not a quantum number? a) optical quantum number b) principal quantum number c) orbital quantum number d) spin magnetic quantum number e) spin quantum number
40.3.2. What are the possible values of the spin magnetic quantum number? 1 a) −1, − 1 , 0, + 2 , and +1 2 b) 0 and + 1 only 2
c) −1, 0, and +1 only d) 0, 1, 2, 3, …
e) − 12 and + 12 only
40.3.2. What are the possible values of the spin magnetic quantum number? 1 a) −1, − 1 , 0, + 2 , and +1 2 b) 0 and + 1 only 2
c) −1, 0, and +1 only d) 0, 1, 2, 3, …
e) − 12 and + 12 only
40.4.1. If the orbital quantum number is l = 2, what is the orbital angular momentum? a)
6
b)
3
c)
2
d) 2
e) 6
40.4.1. If the orbital quantum number is l = 2, what is the orbital angular momentum? a)
6
b)
3
c)
2
d) 2
e) 6
40.4.2. Which of the following statements concerning the orbital angular momentum of an electron in an atom is true? a) The orbital angular momentum is a classical parameter. b) We know of no means to measure the orbital angular momentum.
c) The z component of the orbital angular momentum has no physical meaning. d) The orbital angular momentum is not related to the orbital magnetic dipole moment.
40.4.2. Which of the following statements concerning the orbital angular momentum of an electron in an atom is true? a) The orbital angular momentum is a classical parameter. b) We know of no means to measure the orbital angular momentum.
c) The z component of the orbital angular momentum has no physical meaning. d) The orbital angular momentum is not related to the orbital magnetic dipole moment.
40.5.1. What was learned in the Stern-Gerlach experiment? a) Electron spin is quantized. b) Energy levels within atoms are quantized. c) Photon energies are quantized. d) The magnetic dipole moment of an atom is quantized. e) Energy levels within atoms can be split into two or more levels by applying a magnetic field.
40.5.1. What was learned in the Stern-Gerlach experiment? a) Electron spin is quantized. b) Energy levels within atoms are quantized. c) Photon energies are quantized. d) The magnetic dipole moment of an atom is quantized. e) Energy levels within atoms can be split into two or more levels by applying a magnetic field.
40.5.2. In the Stern-Gerlach experiment, a magnet played an important role. What is that role? a) Ionized silver atoms followed circular paths around the magnetic field lines in the experiment. b) The steady magnetic field provided a magnetic deflecting force on the moving silver atoms. c) The gradient of the magnetic field deflected the neutral silver atoms. d) In the steady magnetic field, the silver atoms were attracted to either the north or the south pole of the magnet, depending on the atomic dipole moment.
40.5.2. In the Stern-Gerlach experiment, a magnet played an important role. What is that role? a) Ionized silver atoms followed circular paths around the magnetic field lines in the experiment. b) The steady magnetic field provided a magnetic deflecting force on the moving silver atoms. c) The gradient of the magnetic field deflected the neutral silver atoms. d) In the steady magnetic field, the silver atoms were attracted to either the north or the south pole of the magnet, depending on the atomic dipole moment.
40.6.1. How is the nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectrum measured? a) by observing the removal of protons from atoms b) by observing the flipping of the spins of protons
c) by observing the ionization of atoms d) by observing the flipping of the spins of electrons
e) by observing the alignment of magnetic moments of the atoms within a solid
40.6.1. How is the nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectrum measured? a) by observing the removal of protons from atoms b) by observing the flipping of the spins of protons
c) by observing the ionization of atoms d) by observing the flipping of the spins of electrons
e) by observing the alignment of magnetic moments of the atoms within a solid
40.6.2. In magnetic resonance, protons absorb photons in what part of the spectrum? a) x-ray b) radio
c) gamma ray d) visible
e) infrared
40.6.2. In magnetic resonance, protons absorb photons in what part of the spectrum? a) x-ray b) radio
c) gamma ray d) visible
e) infrared
40.7.1. What does the Pauli exclusion principle require? a) No two electrons within an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers. b) No two atoms can have the same set of quantum numbers.
c) No particle can have a non-zero probability density inside a confined system. d) Atoms that have an odd number of protons cannot combine with atoms that have an even number of protons. e) Electrons are excluded from the nucleus of an atom.
40.7.1. What does the Pauli exclusion principle require? a) No two electrons within an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers. b) No two atoms can have the same set of quantum numbers.
c) No particle can have a non-zero probability density inside a confined system. d) Atoms that have an odd number of protons cannot combine with atoms that have an even number of protons. e) Electrons are excluded from the nucleus of an atom.
40.7.2. Which one of the following scientists is credited with the statement that “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of values for the four quantum numbers?” a) Heisenberg b) Schrodinger c) Pauli d) Zeeman e) Einstein
40.7.2. Which one of the following scientists is credited with the statement that “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of values for the four quantum numbers?” a) Heisenberg b) Schrodinger c) Pauli d) Zeeman e) Einstein
40.8.1. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the lowest energy subshell of an atom? a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
e) 8
40.8.1. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the lowest energy subshell of an atom? a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
e) 8
40.9.1. The subshells of atoms are labeled using letters. Which one of the following choices is the correct sequence of filling these subshells? a) a, b, c, d, e b) h, k, l, m, n c) e, g, b, d, f d) s, p, d, f, g, h e) m, t, w, r, f
40.9.1. The subshells of atoms are labeled using letters. Which one of the following choices is the correct sequence of filling these subshells? a) a, b, c, d, e b) h, k, l, m, n c) e, g, b, d, f d) s, p, d, f, g, h e) m, t, w, r, f
40.9.2. In the following notation, 2p4, what is the principal quantum number? a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
e) 6
40.9.2. In the following notation, 2p4, what is the principal quantum number? a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
e) 6
40.9.3. Atomic states that have the same value for which of the following parameters form a shell? a) n b) l
c) J d) s
e) Z
40.9.3. Atomic states that have the same value for which of the following parameters form a shell? a) n b) l
c) J d) s
e) Z
40.10.1. When a molybdenum metal target is bombarded with electrons, two characteristic wavelengths are prominent in the x-ray spectrum that is produced. These wavelengths are labeled K and K. What does the letter “K” indicate in this notation? a) The characteristic lines involve the n = 1 shell of the molybdenum atoms. b) The K stands for “klystron,” which is the radiation generator. c) The characteristic lines involve the electrons at the highest energy levels within the molybdenum atoms. d) The characteristic lines are at the long wavelength-end of the x-ray spectrum. e) The characteristic lines for molybdenum were first observed by Rudolph Karl.
40.10.1. When a molybdenum metal target is bombarded with electrons, two characteristic wavelengths are prominent in the x-ray spectrum that is produced. These wavelengths are labeled K and K. What does the letter “K” indicate in this notation? a) The characteristic lines involve the n = 1 shell of the molybdenum atoms. b) The K stands for “klystron,” which is the radiation generator. c) The characteristic lines involve the electrons at the highest energy levels within the molybdenum atoms. d) The characteristic lines are at the long wavelength-end of the x-ray spectrum. e) The characteristic lines for molybdenum were first observed by Rudolph Karl.
40.10.2. What did H. G. J. Mosley find to be the factor that determines the location of an element in the periodic table? a) atomic radius b) atomic mass
c) number of protons d) number of neutrons
e) number of electrons
40.10.2. What did H. G. J. Mosley find to be the factor that determines the location of an element in the periodic table? a) atomic radius b) atomic mass
c) number of protons d) number of neutrons
e) number of electrons
40.11.1. Which of the following terms inconsistent with the term laser? a) highly directional b) sharply focusable
c) highly coherent d) highly incandescent
e) highly monochromatic
40.11.1. Which of the following terms inconsistent with the term laser? a) highly directional b) sharply focusable
c) highly coherent d) highly incandescent
e) highly monochromatic
40.12.1. Which one of the following processes is necessary for the operation of a laser? a) bremsstrahlung b) beta decay
c) stimulated emission d) ionization
e) luminescence
40.12.1. Which one of the following processes is necessary for the operation of a laser? a) bremsstrahlung b) beta decay
c) stimulated emission d) ionization
e) luminescence
40.12.2. What is population inversion? a) Impurity atoms are added to the gas inside a laser to increase the number of electrons in higher energy levels than are in lower energy levels. b) Energy is added to the atoms in a laser such that more electrons occupy a metastable higher energy state than are in a lower energy state. c) This occurs inside a laser when there are more higher energy photons than lower energy photons. d) This is the photon-electron process within an atom that leads to spontaneous emission.
40.12.2. What is population inversion? a) Impurity atoms are added to the gas inside a laser to increase the number of electrons in higher energy levels than are in lower energy levels. b) Energy is added to the atoms in a laser such that more electrons occupy a metastable higher energy state than are in a lower energy state. c) This occurs inside a laser when there are more higher energy photons than lower energy photons. d) This is the photon-electron process within an atom that leads to spontaneous emission.
40.12.3. Which one of the following must be achieved for a laser to operate? a) More atoms must be in the excited state than in the ground state. b) All of the atoms must be in the same energy state within the system. c) The atoms within the system must be ionized (missing one or more electrons).
d) The atoms must be under the influence of a magnetic field. e) The magnetic moments of all of the atoms within the system must be aligned.
40.12.3. Which one of the following must be achieved for a laser to operate? a) More atoms must be in the excited state than in the ground state. b) All of the atoms must be in the same energy state within the system. c) The atoms within the system must be ionized (missing one or more electrons).
d) The atoms must be under the influence of a magnetic field. e) The magnetic moments of all of the atoms within the system must be aligned.
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 41 Conduction of Electricity in Solids Reading Quiz Questions
41.2.1. How are atoms in a crystalline solid arranged? a) in a manner that results in the solid being transparent b) in a pattern that results in the lowest energy state c) in a repetitive three-dimensional structure d) on a lattice in which all of the magnetic spins are aligned e) randomly
41.2.1. How are atoms in a crystalline solid arranged? a) in a manner that results in the solid being transparent b) in a pattern that results in the lowest energy state c) in a repetitive three-dimensional structure d) on a lattice in which all of the magnetic spins are aligned e) randomly
41.2.2. Which of the following basic properties is not used to classify solids electrically? a) temperature coefficient of resistivity b) coefficient of restitution
c) resistivity d) number density of charge carriers
e) All of the above properties are used to classify solids electrically.
41.2.2. Which of the following basic properties is not used to classify solids electrically? a) temperature coefficient of resistivity b) coefficient of restitution
c) resistivity d) number density of charge carriers
e) All of the above properties are used to classify solids electrically.
41.2.3. Which of the following best describes the arrangement of atoms in a copper crystal? a) spherical b) cubic
c) disordered d) one-dimensional
e) Copper is a metal. It is not a crystal.
41.2.3. Which of the following best describes the arrangement of atoms in a copper crystal? a) spherical b) cubic
c) disordered d) one-dimensional
e) Copper is a metal. It is not a crystal.
41.3.1. In the discussion of the electrical properties of solid materials, what is a band? a) a collection of closely-spaced energy levels b) a linear defect in the lattice of the solid
c) the paths electrons follow when moving in the solid d) lines of atoms in the lattice of the solid
e) the class of electrical materials the solid falls into, such as metal, semiconductor, etc.
41.3.1. In the discussion of the electrical properties of solid materials, what is a band? a) a collection of closely-spaced energy levels b) a linear defect in the lattice of the solid
c) the paths electrons follow when moving in the solid d) lines of atoms in the lattice of the solid
e) the class of electrical materials the solid falls into, such as metal, semiconductor, etc.
41.3.2. Two nickel atoms, each containing 28 electrons, are brought close enough together to form a two-atom system. How many quantum states are available to electrons in this system? a) 40 b) 28 c) 14 d) 56 e) 2
41.3.2. Two nickel atoms, each containing 28 electrons, are brought close enough together to form a two-atom system. How many quantum states are available to electrons in this system? a) 40 b) 28 c) 14 d) 56 e) 2
41.3.3. In crystalline solids, there are bands of energy in which there are available states for electrons to occupy. What do we call the range of energies in between these bands for which there are no available states? a) illegal states
b) breaches c) skips
d) pauses e) gaps
41.3.3. In crystalline solids, there are bands of energy in which there are available states for electrons to occupy. What do we call the range of energies in between these bands for which there are no available states? a) illegal states
b) breaches c) skips
d) pauses e) gaps
41.4.1. Complete the following sentence: an electric insulator has a) the ability to easily conduct electricity, but does not easily conduct heat. b) few electrons available to conduct electricity.
c) the ability to easily conduct electricity and heat. d) no ability to conduct electricity.
e) many free electrons available to conduct electricity.
41.4.1. Complete the following sentence: an electric insulator has a) the ability to easily conduct electricity, but does not easily conduct heat. b) few electrons available to conduct electricity.
c) the ability to easily conduct electricity and heat. d) no ability to conduct electricity.
e) many free electrons available to conduct electricity.
41.4.2. Which of the following terms is used to describe a material that does not allow electrons to easily move through it? a) conductor b) resistor
c) insulator d) transformer
e) inductor
41.4.2. Which of the following terms is used to describe a material that does not allow electrons to easily move through it? a) conductor b) resistor
c) insulator d) transformer
e) inductor
41.5.1. What is the Fermi energy? a) −13.1 eV b) the width of the largest band in the solid c) the energy needed to initiate a current in a metal d) the average total energy of the electrons within the solid e) the highest occupied energy level of a solid when its at absolute zero
41.5.1. What is the Fermi energy? a) −13.1 eV b) the width of the largest band in the solid c) the energy needed to initiate a current in a metal d) the average total energy of the electrons within the solid e) the highest occupied energy level of a solid when its at absolute zero
41.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning electrical conductors is false? a) Rubber is an excellent electrical conductor. b) A material that is a good electrical conductor has many free electrons that can easily move around inside the material. c) When a positively-charged object is moved into contact with an electrical conductor, electrons move toward the object.
d) Materials that are good thermal conductors are often good electrical conductors. e) Most metals are very good electrical conductors.
41.5.2. Which one of the following statements concerning electrical conductors is false? a) Rubber is an excellent electrical conductor. b) A material that is a good electrical conductor has many free electrons that can easily move around inside the material. c) When a positively-charged object is moved into contact with an electrical conductor, electrons move toward the object.
d) Materials that are good thermal conductors are often good electrical conductors. e) Most metals are very good electrical conductors.
41.5.3. What is the name of the microscopic model that may be used to understand why some materials are metals? a) comprehensive model b) Maxwell-Boltzmann model
c) standard model d) Anderson model
e) free-electron model
41.5.3. What is the name of the microscopic model that may be used to understand why some materials are metals? a) comprehensive model b) Maxwell-Boltzmann model
c) standard model d) Anderson model
e) free-electron model
41.5.4. To determine how many states in a given volume have energies between E and E + dE, we calculate N(E) dE. What is the name given to N(E)? a) energy density b) system quantifier c) density of states d) electron density function e) Maxwell-Boltzmann function
41.5.4. To determine how many states in a given volume have energies between E and E + dE, we calculate N(E) dE. What is the name given to N(E)? a) energy density b) system quantifier c) density of states d) electron density function e) Maxwell-Boltzmann function
41.5.5. If we wish to calculate the occupancy probability for electrons in metals, what type of statistics would we use? a) Bose - Einstein b) Fermi - Dirac
c) Stern - Gerlach d) Gell-Mann - Feynman
e) Abrikosov
41.5.5. If we wish to calculate the occupancy probability for electrons in metals, what type of statistics would we use? a) Bose - Einstein b) Fermi - Dirac
c) Stern - Gerlach d) Gell-Mann - Feynman
e) Abrikosov
41.5.6. At absolute zero, electrons occupy energy levels up to a certain energy. Which famous physicist is this energy named after? a) Feynman b) Bohr
c) Maxwell d) Einstein
e) Fermi
41.5.6. At absolute zero, electrons occupy energy levels up to a certain energy. Which famous physicist is this energy named after? a) Feynman b) Bohr
c) Maxwell d) Einstein
e) Fermi
41.6.1. The band structure of a semiconductor most closely resembles that of which of the following choices? a) superconductor b) insulator
c) Einstein solid d) quantum dot
e) metal
41.6.1. The band structure of a semiconductor most closely resembles that of which of the following choices? a) superconductor b) insulator
c) Einstein solid d) quantum dot
e) metal
41.6.2. Of the many parameters we come across in physics, resistivity is one which shows one of the largest variations, depending on the materials. The text indicates that the resistivity of copper is a very large factor smaller than that for silicon. What is that factor? a) 108
b) 1011 c) 1015
d) 1020 e) 1027
41.6.2. Of the many parameters we come across in physics, resistivity is one which shows one of the largest variations, depending on the materials. The text indicates that the resistivity of copper is a very large factor smaller than that for silicon. What is that factor? a) 108
b) 1011 c) 1015
d) 1020 e) 1027
41.7.1. Which of the following statements best describes an n-type semiconductor?
a) An n-type semiconductor is one in its natural, undoped state. b) An n-type semiconductor has more holes in the conduction band than in its valence band. c) An n-type semiconductor has more electrons in the conduction band than holes in its valence band. d) An n-type semiconductor has more electrons in the valence band than in its conduction band. e) An n-type semiconductor has more holes in the valence band than electrons in its conduction band.
41.7.1. Which of the following statements best describes an n-type semiconductor?
a) An n-type semiconductor is one in its natural, undoped state. b) An n-type semiconductor has more holes in the conduction band than in its valence band. c) An n-type semiconductor has more electrons in the conduction band than holes in its valence band. d) An n-type semiconductor has more electrons in the valence band than in its conduction band. e) An n-type semiconductor has more holes in the valence band than electrons in its conduction band.
41.7.2. Which of the following statements best describes a p-type semiconductor?
a) A p-type semiconductor is one in its pure, undoped state. b) A p-type semiconductor has more holes in the conduction band than in its valence band. c) A p-type semiconductor has more electrons in the conduction band than holes in its valence band. d) A p-type semiconductor has more electrons in the valence band than in its conduction band. e) A p-type semiconductor has more holes in the valence band than electrons in its conduction band.
41.7.2. Which of the following statements best describes a p-type semiconductor?
a) A p-type semiconductor is one in its pure, undoped state. b) A p-type semiconductor has more holes in the conduction band than in its valence band. c) A p-type semiconductor has more electrons in the conduction band than holes in its valence band. d) A p-type semiconductor has more electrons in the valence band than in its conduction band. e) A p-type semiconductor has more holes in the valence band than electrons in its conduction band.
41.7.3. What is the process of adding impurity atoms to a semiconducting material called? a) flopping b) charging
c) doping d) whipping
e) amplifying
41.7.3. What is the process of adding impurity atoms to a semiconducting material called? a) flopping b) charging
c) doping d) whipping
e) amplifying
41.7.4. What type of semiconductor is made by adding impurity atoms that contribute mobile electrons? a) a-type b) f-type
c) m-type d) n-type
e) p-type
41.7.4. What type of semiconductor is made by adding impurity atoms that contribute mobile electrons? a) a-type b) f-type
c) m-type d) n-type
e) p-type
41.7.5. What type of semiconductor is made by adding impurity atoms that contribute mobile positive holes? a) a-type b) f-type
c) m-type d) n-type
e) p-type
41.7.5. What type of semiconductor is made by adding impurity atoms that contribute mobile positive holes? a) a-type b) f-type
c) m-type d) n-type
e) p-type
41.8.1. What is the name given to the part of a pn-junction that is relatively free of mobile charge carriers? a) space charge region b) depletion zone
c) diffusion locality d) singularity
e) neutral zone
41.8.1. What is the name given to the part of a pn-junction that is relatively free of mobile charge carriers? a) space charge region b) depletion zone
c) diffusion locality d) singularity
e) neutral zone
41.9.1. Consider a pn-junction that is forward biased. What effect, if any, does the forward bias have on the potential barrier between the two sides of the junction? a) The barrier increases. b) The barrier decreases, but is still present. c) The barrier remains unchanged. d) The barrier disappears. e) The barrier causes the side that was n-type to become p-type and the side that was p-type to become n-type, effectively reversing the polarity of the junction.
41.9.1. Consider a pn-junction that is forward biased. What effect, if any, does the forward bias have on the potential barrier between the two sides of the junction? a) The barrier increases. b) The barrier decreases, but is still present. c) The barrier remains unchanged. d) The barrier disappears. e) The barrier causes the side that was n-type to become p-type and the side that was p-type to become n-type, effectively reversing the polarity of the junction.
41.9.2. Which of the following terms is used to describe a pn-junction in which the p-side becomes more negative and the n-side becomes more positive? a) forward-biased b) doped c) rectified d) back-biased e) rarefied
41.9.2. Which of the following terms is used to describe a pn-junction in which the p-side becomes more negative and the n-side becomes more positive? a) forward-biased b) doped c) rectified d) back-biased e) rarefied
41.9.3. Consider a pn-junction that is back biased. What effect, if any, does the back bias have on the potential barrier between the two sides of the junction? a) The barrier increases. b) The barrier decreases, but is still present. c) The barrier remains unchanged. d) The barrier disappears. e) The barrier causes the side that was n-type to become p-type and the side that was p-type to become n-type, effectively reversing the polarity of the junction.
41.9.3. Consider a pn-junction that is back biased. What effect, if any, does the back bias have on the potential barrier between the two sides of the junction? a) The barrier increases. b) The barrier decreases, but is still present. c) The barrier remains unchanged. d) The barrier disappears. e) The barrier causes the side that was n-type to become p-type and the side that was p-type to become n-type, effectively reversing the polarity of the junction.
41.9.4. Which one of the following devices converts an ac voltage signal into a dc voltage? a) solar cell b) transistor
c) rectifier circuit d) generator
e) heterodyne detector
41.9.4. Which one of the following devices converts an ac voltage signal into a dc voltage? a) solar cell b) transistor
c) rectifier circuit d) generator
e) heterodyne detector
41.10.1. Many familiar electronic devices have LEDs. What is an LED? a) lossless electron device b) leading edge director
c) light electron dosimeter d) light emitting diode
e) long electronic disruptor
41.10.1. Many familiar electronic devices have LEDs. What is an LED? a) lossless electron device b) leading edge director
c) light electron dosimeter d) light emitting diode
e) long electronic disruptor
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 42 Nuclear Physics Reading Quiz Questions
42.2.1. Rutherford directed alpha particles at a very thin gold foil. What did his subsequent observations prove? a) that the nuclear model of the atom is correct b) that the plum pudding model of the atom is correct
c) that some of the gold atoms turned into lead atoms d) that de Broglie’s hypothesis is correct
e) that Heisenberg’s principle is correct
42.2.1. Rutherford directed alpha particles at a very thin gold foil. What did his subsequent observations prove? a) that the nuclear model of the atom is correct b) that the plum pudding model of the atom is correct
c) that some of the gold atoms turned into lead atoms d) that de Broglie’s hypothesis is correct
e) that Heisenberg’s principle is correct
42.2.2. The ground-breaking experiment by Geiger and Marsden resulted in the discovery of what? a) the nucleus b) the atom
c) radioactivity d) quantum electrodynamics
e) the weak nuclear force
42.2.2. The ground-breaking experiment by Geiger and Marsden resulted in the discovery of what? a) the nucleus b) the atom
c) radioactivity d) quantum electrodynamics
e) the weak nuclear force
42.3.1. Consider this notation for a krypton nucleus: 92Kr. How many neutrons does this nucleus contain? a) 36 b) 56
c) 92 d) 128
42.3.1. Consider this notation for a krypton nucleus: 92Kr. How many neutrons does this nucleus contain? a) 36 b) 56
c) 92 d) 128
42.3.2. Which one of the following forces holds a nucleus together? a) electrostatic force b) gravitational force c) frictional force d) strong nuclear force e) electroweak force
42.3.2. Which one of the following forces holds a nucleus together? a) electrostatic force b) gravitational force c) frictional force d) strong nuclear force e) electroweak force
42.3.3. What term is used to describe the amount of energy required to break an atom apart? a) binding energy b) mass defect
c) ionization energy d) work function
e) radiation pressure
42.3.3. What term is used to describe the amount of energy required to break an atom apart? a) binding energy b) mass defect
c) ionization energy d) work function
e) radiation pressure
42.3.4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the plot of binding energy per nucleon versus the nucleon number? a) The binding energy per nucleon increases linearly with increasing nucleon number. b) The binding energy per nucleon decreases exponentially with increasing nucleon number. c) The binding energy per nucleon decreases linearly with increasing nucleon number. d) The binding energy per nucleon increases sharply with increasing nucleon number for lower values, reaches a maximum, and then gradually decreases with increasing nucleon number.
e) The binding energy per nucleon decreases sharply with increasing nucleon number for lower values, reaches a minimum, and then increases exponentially with increasing nucleon number.
42.3.4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the plot of binding energy per nucleon versus the nucleon number? a) The binding energy per nucleon increases linearly with increasing nucleon number. b) The binding energy per nucleon decreases exponentially with increasing nucleon number. c) The binding energy per nucleon decreases linearly with increasing nucleon number. d) The binding energy per nucleon increases sharply with increasing nucleon number for lower values, reaches a maximum, and then gradually decreases with increasing nucleon number.
e) The binding energy per nucleon decreases sharply with increasing nucleon number for lower values, reaches a minimum, and then increases exponentially with increasing nucleon number.
42.3.5. How is the atomic mass unit defined? a) in terms of the mass of the hydrogen atom b) in terms of the mass of a proton c) as 1/12 the mass of a carbon atom d) as 1/97 the mass of a gold atom e) as 1/4 the mass of a helium atom
42.3.5. How is the atomic mass unit defined? a) in terms of the mass of the hydrogen atom b) in terms of the mass of a proton c) as 1/12 the mass of a carbon atom d) as 1/97 the mass of a gold atom e) as 1/4 the mass of a helium atom
42.4.1. What term is used to describe the spontaneous disintegration of nuclei? a) metastability b) spontaneous emission
c) radioactivity d) nuclear breakdown
e) criticality
42.4.1. What term is used to describe the spontaneous disintegration of nuclei? a) metastability b) spontaneous emission
c) radioactivity d) nuclear breakdown
e) criticality
42.4.2. Which one of the following terms is used to describe the number of disintegrations per second that occur for a given radioactive sample? a) radiation b) activity c) dose d) decay constant e) half-life
42.4.2. Which one of the following terms is used to describe the number of disintegrations per second that occur for a given radioactive sample? a) radiation b) activity c) dose d) decay constant e) half-life
42.4.3. What is the SI unit for activity of a radioactive sample? a) gray b) henry c) roentgen d) gilbert e) becquerel
42.4.3. What is the SI unit for activity of a radioactive sample? a) gray b) henry c) roentgen d) gilbert e) becquerel
42.4.4. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term half-life? a) Half-life is the time it takes for an isotope to lose half of its weight. b) Half-life is the time it takes for one-half of a sample to radioactively decay. c) Half-life is the time it takes for a sample to stop undergoing radioactive decay. d) Half-life is the time it takes for a sample to begin undergoing radioactive decay. e) Half-life is the time it takes for ln 2 of the sample to have undergone radioactive decay.
42.4.4. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term half-life? a) Half-life is the time it takes for an isotope to lose half of its weight. b) Half-life is the time it takes for one-half of a sample to radioactively decay. c) Half-life is the time it takes for a sample to stop undergoing radioactive decay. d) Half-life is the time it takes for a sample to begin undergoing radioactive decay. e) Half-life is the time it takes for ln 2 of the sample to have undergone radioactive decay.
42.5.1. What type of particle is emitted in alpha decay? a) a photon b) an electron c) a helium nucleus d) a neutron e) a quark
42.5.1. What type of particle is emitted in alpha decay? a) a photon b) an electron c) a helium nucleus d) a neutron e) a quark
42.6.1. What type of particle may be emitted in a beta decay? a) a photon b) an electron c) a helium nucleus d) a neutron e) a quark
42.6.1. What type of particle may be emitted in a beta decay? a) a photon b) an electron c) a helium nucleus d) a neutron e) a quark
42.6.2. Which one of the following scientists proposed the existence of the neutrino to account for the energy released in a beta decay process? a) Heisenberg b) de Broglie c) Fermi d) Pauli e) Dirac
42.6.2. Which one of the following scientists proposed the existence of the neutrino to account for the energy released in a beta decay process? a) Heisenberg b) de Broglie c) Fermi d) Pauli e) Dirac
42.6.3. Which one of the following statements concerning neutrinos is false? a) Neutrinos have no charge. b) Neutrino interact weakly with matter.
c) Neutrinos are released in beta decay processes along with positrons. d) The emission of neutrinos in beta decay processes involves the weak nuclear force. e) Neutrinos, like photons, have no mass and travel at the speed of light.
42.6.3. Which one of the following statements concerning neutrinos is false? a) Neutrinos have no charge. b) Neutrino interact weakly with matter.
c) Neutrinos are released in beta decay processes along with positrons. d) The emission of neutrinos in beta decay processes involves the weak nuclear force. e) Neutrinos, like photons, have no mass and travel at the speed of light.
42.7.1. Which one of the following isotopes plays an important role in radioactive dating of organic samples? a) 13N b) 3He
c) 14C d) 86Sr
e) 15O
42.7.1. Which one of the following isotopes plays an important role in radioactive dating of organic samples? a) 13N b) 3He
c) 14C d) 86Sr
e) 15O
42.7.2. Which one of the following processes is involved in determining the age of a prehistoric object? a) alpha decay b) beta decay
c) X-ray absorption d) proton absorption
e) gamma decay
42.7.2. Which one of the following processes is involved in determining the age of a prehistoric object? a) alpha decay b) beta decay
c) X-ray absorption d) proton absorption
e) gamma decay
42.7.3. Which one of the following isotopes plays an important role in radioactive dating of inorganic samples? a) 13N b) 40K
c) 14C d) 86Sr
e) 15O
42.7.3. Which one of the following isotopes plays an important role in radioactive dating of inorganic samples? a) 13N b) 40K
c) 14C d) 86Sr
e) 15O
42.8.1. Which one of the following terms is used to quantify the amount of biological damage produced by ionizing radiation? a) exposure b) activity
c) relative biological effectiveness d) radiation factor
e) roentgen biological equivalent
42.8.1. Which one of the following terms is used to quantify the amount of biological damage produced by ionizing radiation? a) exposure b) activity
c) relative biological effectiveness d) radiation factor
e) roentgen biological equivalent
42.9.1. Which of the following is assumed in the independent particle model? a) The nucleons move around at random, bumping into one another. b) Positive charge is evenly spread throughout the nucleus.
c) The nucleons behave like electrons and positrons. d) Each nucleon is in a well-defined quantum state. Nucleons do not bump into one another. e) The entire nucleus is in a well-defined quantum state. The collection of nucleons behave like a single particle.
42.9.1. Which of the following is assumed in the independent particle model? a) The nucleons move around at random, bumping into one another. b) Positive charge is evenly spread throughout the nucleus.
c) The nucleons behave like electrons and positrons. d) Each nucleon is in a well-defined quantum state. Nucleons do not bump into one another. e) The entire nucleus is in a well-defined quantum state. The collection of nucleons behave like a single particle.
42.9.2. In the combined model, what two models are combined? a) collective model and independent particle model b) Bohr model and independent particle model c) strong nuclear model and collective model d) strong nuclear model and weak nuclear model e) strong nuclear model and independent particle model
42.9.2. In the combined model, what two models are combined? a) collective model and independent particle model b) Bohr model and independent particle model c) strong nuclear model and collective model d) strong nuclear model and weak nuclear model e) strong nuclear model and independent particle model
Halliday/Resnick/Walker Fundamentals of Physics Classroom Response System Questions Chapter 43 Energy from the Nucleus Reading Quiz Questions
43.2.1. What kind of neutrons are thermal neutrons? a) vibrating neutrons within the nuclei of atoms b) neutrons that are released when a substance is burned c) free neutrons with very large kinetic energies that are absorbed by a material, the temperature of which subsequently increases d) free neutrons with a kinetic energy that is similar to that of molecules at room temperature e) free neutrons that are observed to glow red
43.2.1. What kind of neutrons are thermal neutrons? a) vibrating neutrons within the nuclei of atoms b) neutrons that are released when a substance is burned c) free neutrons with very large kinetic energies that are absorbed by a material, the temperature of which subsequently increases d) free neutrons with a kinetic energy that is similar to that of molecules at room temperature e) free neutrons that are observed to glow red
43.2.2. What type of nuclear process has occurred when a uranium nucleus absorbs a neutron and splits into two fragments? a) spontaneous transmutation b) fission
c) standard model d) fusion
e) exposure
43.2.2. What type of nuclear process has occurred when a uranium nucleus absorbs a neutron and splits into two fragments? a) spontaneous transmutation b) fission
c) standard model d) fusion
e) exposure
43.2.3. What is the importance of thermal neutrons in nuclear processes? a) Thermal neutron capture results in uranium fission. b) Thermal neutrons are released in radioactive decay.
c) Thermal neutrons are necessary in the fusion of deuterium. d) Thermal neutrons are commonly released in fusion reactions.
e) Thermal neutrons are sources of gamma rays.
43.2.3. What is the importance of thermal neutrons in nuclear processes? a) Thermal neutron capture results in uranium fission. b) Thermal neutrons are released in radioactive decay.
c) Thermal neutrons are necessary in the fusion of deuterium. d) Thermal neutrons are commonly released in fusion reactions.
e) Thermal neutrons are sources of gamma rays.
43.2.4. Which one of the following energy values would be characteristic of a thermal neutron? a) 0.4 eV b) 3 eV
c) 0.04 eV d) 100 eV
e) 0.03 MeV
43.2.4. Which one of the following energy values would be characteristic of a thermal neutron? a) 0.4 eV b) 3 eV
c) 0.04 eV d) 100 eV
e) 0.03 MeV
43.2.5. Which one of the following processes causes the explosion of a nuclear bomb? a) beta decay b) alpha decay
c) moderation d) photon absorption
e) chain reaction
43.2.5. Which one of the following processes causes the explosion of a nuclear bomb? a) beta decay b) alpha decay
c) moderation d) photon absorption
e) chain reaction
43.2.3. Which of the following best characterizes a nuclear fission process? a) Two particles combine, resulting in a third kind of particle. b) Explosives are used to split a nucleus in half.
c) A particle decays into at least two other particles. d) A sample of radioactive isotopes is used that transforms into other isotopes. e) Energy is released during a reaction.
43.2.3. Which of the following best characterizes a nuclear fission process? a) Two particles combine, resulting in a third kind of particle. b) Explosives are used to split a nucleus in half.
c) A particle decays into at least two other particles. d) A sample of radioactive isotopes is used that transforms into other isotopes. e) Energy is released during a reaction.
43.4.1. What are the atomic mass numbers of the two most abundant isotopes of uranium? a) 232, 235 b) 232, 236
c) 235, 238 d) 237, 239
e) 234, 240
43.4.1. What are the atomic mass numbers of the two most abundant isotopes of uranium? a) 232, 235 b) 232, 236
c) 235, 238 d) 237, 239
e) 234, 240
43.4.2. How is the energy produced by nuclear fission used to produce electricity at a nuclear power plant?
a) The heat from hot water from inside the reaction chamber is transferred to a heat exchanger that produces stream that drives a turbine connected to an electric generator. b) Light from the reactions is directed onto solar cells that generate an electric current. c) The heat from hot water from inside the reaction chamber is transferred to a heat exchanger where a thermoelectric array transforms the heat into electricity.
d) Neutrons released during the fission reactions strike semiconducting materials that release electrons, creating an electric current. e) Electrons are directly generated in a beta decay process and collected to create an electric current.
43.4.2. How is the energy produced by nuclear fission used to produce electricity at a nuclear power plant?
a) The heat from hot water from inside the reaction chamber is transferred to a heat exchanger that produces stream that drives a turbine connected to an electric generator. b) Light from the reactions is directed onto solar cells that generate an electric current. c) The heat from hot water from inside the reaction chamber is transferred to a heat exchanger where a thermoelectric array transforms the heat into electricity.
d) Neutrons released during the fission reactions strike semiconducting materials that release electrons, creating an electric current. e) Electrons are directly generated in a beta decay process and collected to create an electric current.
43.4.3. Which of the following terms describes the process where a neutron produced by fission goes on to trigger another fission in a sustainable manner? a) moderation b) neutron leakage c) neutron thermalization d) chain reaction e) control
43.4.3. Which of the following terms describes the process where a neutron produced by fission goes on to trigger another fission in a sustainable manner? a) moderation b) neutron leakage c) neutron thermalization d) chain reaction e) control
43.4.4. Which of the following statements best describes a chain reaction? a) A series of fission events occurs as each neutron produced in fission results in the triggering of another fission process. b) A series of fission events occurs as each proton produced in fission results in the triggering of another fission process. c) A particle undergoes a series of fission events until it is broken down into stable nuclei. d) A series of fission events occurs such that the initial energy released is sufficient to cause other nuclei to undergo fission.
43.4.4. Which of the following statements best describes a chain reaction? a) A series of fission events occurs as each neutron produced in fission results in the triggering of another fission process. b) A series of fission events occurs as each proton produced in fission results in the triggering of another fission process. c) A particle undergoes a series of fission events until it is broken down into stable nuclei. d) A series of fission events occurs such that the initial energy released is sufficient to cause other nuclei to undergo fission.
43.4.5. What is the purpose of a moderator in a nuclear reactor? a) The moderator emits low energy protons. b) The moderator determines which nuclei will undergo fission. c) The moderator is used to slow high energy neutrons. d) The moderator absorbs high energy photons. e) The moderator prevents an uncontrolled chain reaction.
43.4.5. What is the purpose of a moderator in a nuclear reactor? a) The moderator emits low energy protons. b) The moderator determines which nuclei will undergo fission. c) The moderator is used to slow high energy neutrons. d) The moderator absorbs high energy photons. e) The moderator prevents an uncontrolled chain reaction.
43.6.1. Which of the following best characterizes a nuclear fusion process? a) Two particles combine, resulting in a third kind of particle. b) Explosives are used to split a nucleus in half.
c) A particle decays into at least two other particles. d) A sample of radioactive isotopes is used that transforms into other isotopes. e) Energy is released during a reaction.
43.6.1. Which of the following best characterizes a nuclear fusion process? a) Two particles combine, resulting in a third kind of particle. b) Explosives are used to split a nucleus in half.
c) A particle decays into at least two other particles. d) A sample of radioactive isotopes is used that transforms into other isotopes. e) Energy is released during a reaction.
43.7.1. What kind of nuclear reactions typically occur in stars? a) spontaneous transmutation b) fission c) standard model d) fusion e) neutron capture
43.7.1. What kind of nuclear reactions typically occur in stars? a) spontaneous transmutation b) fission c) standard model d) fusion e) neutron capture
43.7.2. Which elements are most likely to participate in nuclear reactions in the Sun? a) oxygen and carbon b) hydrogen and helium
c) hydrogen and carbon d) uranium and plutonium
e) tritium and lithium
43.7.2. Which elements are most likely to participate in nuclear reactions in the Sun? a) oxygen and carbon b) hydrogen and helium
c) hydrogen and carbon d) uranium and plutonium
e) tritium and lithium
43.7.3. Nuclear fusion is the predominant process occurring in stars. What contributes the energy to initiate fusion in stars? a) radioactive decay b) gravitational compression
c) supernova explosions d) high energy cosmic rays
e) nuclear fission
43.7.3. Nuclear fusion is the predominant process occurring in stars. What contributes the energy to initiate fusion in stars? a) radioactive decay b) gravitational compression
c) supernova explosions d) high energy cosmic rays
e) nuclear fission
43.8.1. Which of the following statements best describes Lawson’s criterion? a) A choice must be made between confining many particles for a short time or a few particles for a long time. b) Nuclear fusion will occur when the particle density is sufficiently high.
c) Nuclear fusion will occur when the plasma temperature is sufficiently high. d) A choice must be made between using hydrogen, deuterium, or tritium.
e) A plasma may be contained if the magnetic field reaches a critical value.
43.8.1. Which of the following statements best describes Lawson’s criterion? a) A choice must be made between confining many particles for a short time or a few particles for a long time. b) Nuclear fusion will occur when the particle density is sufficiently high.
c) Nuclear fusion will occur when the plasma temperature is sufficiently high. d) A choice must be made between using hydrogen, deuterium, or tritium.
e) A plasma may be contained if the magnetic field reaches a critical value.
43.8.2. What type of controlled nuclear fusion involves using lasers to heat tiny fuel pellets from all sides to initiate fusion? a) magnetic confinement b) inertial confinement
c) tokamak d) quantum confinement
e) Lawson’s method
43.8.2. What type of controlled nuclear fusion involves using lasers to heat tiny fuel pellets from all sides to initiate fusion? a) magnetic confinement b) inertial confinement
c) tokamak d) quantum confinement
e) Lawson’s method
43.8.3. Which one of the following statements is the best explanation as to why nuclear fusion is not at present used to generate electric power? a) Fusion produces too much radiation. b) Fusion requires isotopes that are scarce. c) Fusion processes can result in nuclear explosions. d) Fusion results in large amounts of radioactive waste. e) Fusion requires very high temperatures that are difficult to contain.
43.8.3. Which one of the following statements is the best explanation as to why nuclear fusion is not at present used to generate electric power? a) Fusion produces too much radiation. b) Fusion requires isotopes that are scarce. c) Fusion processes can result in nuclear explosions. d) Fusion results in large amounts of radioactive waste. e) Fusion requires very high temperatures that are difficult to contain.