Environment, 8th Edition Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Environment

Edition:

8th Edition

Author(s):

Peter H. Raven Linda R. Berg David M. Hassenzahl

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 1

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1. The sun’s energy provides earth with: a) fossil fuels b) energy-rich carbon compounds c) patterns of temperature and precipitation d) liquid water e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.2 Briefly describe the role of Earth systems in environmental science.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

2. As the 21st century began, the global human population reached __________ billion. a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8 e) 11 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment 3. The interdisciplinary study of humanity’s relationship with other organisms and the non-living physical environment is termed:

a) ecology b) sociology c) political science d) risk analysis e) environmental science Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.2 Briefly describe the role of Earth systems in environmental science.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

4. Highly developed countries are characterized by: a) high rates of population growth b) high per capita incomes c) simple agricultural bases d) 50% of the world’s population e) Thailand, Mexico and South Africa Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment 5. The ability to meet humanity’s current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs is termed: a) ecology. b) environmental sustainability. c) natural balance. d) synergism. e) environmental science.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.1 Define sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability

6. In solving environmental problems, a risk analysis is usually performed: a) to provide public awareness and endorsement b) to monitor the initial assessment and modeling of the problem c) to solicit public opinion about how evidence should be interpreted when selecting a course of action d) to analyze the potential effect of an intervention or doing nothing e) a risk analysis is not necessary in resolving environmental problems Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.1 Briefly describe the five stages in addressing environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

7. Examples of non-sustainable human activities or behaviors include: a) recycling b) attempts to limit human population growth c) using technology to improve car mileage d) use of nonrenewable resources as if they were present in unlimited quantities e) conservation practices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.1 Define sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability

8. The difference(s) between highly developed countries and less developed countries include a) income levels b) industrialization levels c) fertility rates

d) infant mortality e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

9. In 1950, the largest city in the world, with 12.3 million inhabitants, was __(1)___. By 2010 city (1) was surpassed by ______(2)_____ as the largest city in the world with 35.2 million inhabitants. a) (1) Bombay, India; (2) Mexico City, Mexico b) (1) Madrid, Spain; (2) Calcutta, India c) (1) New York City, United States; (2) Tokyo, Japan d) (1) Shanghai, P.R. China; (2) Bombay, India e) (1) London, England; (2) New York City, United States Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

10. Poverty is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a) low life expectancy b) illiteracy c) inadequate access to health services d) balanced nutrition e) unsafe drinking water Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.1 Define poverty.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

11. What activity/activities contribute(s) to making the human species the most significant agent of environmental change on Earth? a) continued population growth b) consuming non-renewable resources c) eradicating unique species d) ignoring the environment e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

12. The one central problem of environmental science that links all other problems together is that: a) we are using up our supplies of fossil fuels b) we are polluting the environment c) we are using too much fresh water d) we are continually increasing the number of humans e) we are depleting needed resources Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Reference: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

13. If we could immediately stop all use of fossil fuels, what would be the result? a) The earth’s climate would begin to cool immediately b) The earth’s climate would continue to warm for the next several decades c) Current patterns of climate change would continue d) The earth’s climate would begin to cool after 100 years

e) The earth’s climate would begin to cool after one year Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

14. I = P x A x T model can be used to calculate which of the following? a) urbanization b) people overpopulation c) industrialization d) international fertility rates e) human impact on the environment Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

15. A warmer atmosphere is likely to cause: a) increased melting of Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets b) a greater amount of sunlight absorbed by land. c) negative feedback between melting of ice sheets and atmospheric temperature. d) all of these e) increased melting of Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets.and a greater amount of sunlight absorbed by land.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

16. Which of the following stages comes LAST in addressing environmental problems? a) risk analysis b) political action

c) evaluation d) scientific assessment e) public education and involvement Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.1 Briefly describe the five stages in addressing environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

17. In the scientific method, a hypothesis a) is a statement of fact b) makes a prediction that can be tested c) is usually proven to be correct d) can only be tested once e) All of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

18. Theories: a) cannot be tested. b) are the same as hypotheses. c) can be used to predict the existence of as-yet unobserved things or phenomena. d) are the same as facts. e) are rarely shown to be true.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

19. An integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses is known as a: a) fact. b) law. c) control. d) theory. e) guess.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

20. The discovery of the extent of the pollution problem in Lake Washington was based on: a) the presence of certain types of fish. b) the absence of certain types of fish. c) the presence of certain species of worms. d) the presence of certain type of bacteria. e) satellite imaging of the lake.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

21. Pollution in Lake Washington resulted from: a) excessive treated sewage input from the surrounding municipal development. b) a population explosion of resident freshwater fishes. c) excessive boat traffic. d) large bird populations inhabiting the waters of the lake. e) an oil tanker spill of home heating oil.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

22. Which of the following was not a consequence of the pollution of Lake Washington? a) increase in phosphorus concentrations b) rapid growth of cyanobacterial populations c) increase in fish populations d) decomposition of dead cyanobacteria e) drop in dissolved oxygen concentration Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

23. Which of the following statements about nutrients is false? a) Nutrient chemistry is the same in both freshwater and marine systems. b) Low levels of nutrients are desirable in freshwater lakes. c) Both nitrogen and phosphorous are nutrients present in treated sewage. d) Nutrients from sewage will have less impact on a larger body of water. e) Nutrients affect growth of photosynthetic bacteria and algae in Puget Sound less than in Lake Washington.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

24. Which of the following was critical to the successful reversal of pollution trends in Lake Washington? a) construction of a sewer to divert treated sewage from the lake b) approval of a bill transferring responsibility for sewage to a regional government agency c) increase in taxes to construct sewage facilities d) environmental monitoring e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

25. "The Tragedy of the Commons" refers to: a) an environmental theory promoting public ownership of lands and resources. b) an economic theory promoting private ownership of lands and resources. c) an analogy describing the conflict between individual interest and management of shared resources. d) events impacting the common people, particularly farmers, of developing countries. e) environmental problems generated by farming practices.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.2 Relate Garrett Hardin’s description of the tragedy of the commons in medieval Europe to common-pool resources today.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability

26. Which of the following is a true statement regarding ecological footprints?

1) The ecological footprint of a single individual in the U.S. is greater than that of ten individuals in India 2) The ecological footprint of a single individual in the U.S. is 1.5 times that of an individual in France 3) India’s total global footprint is greater than that of the France

4) If all people on earth had the same lifestyle as those in the U.S., we would need 3 more earth’s to meet the demand for resources a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1 and 3 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.2 Define ecological footprint.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

27. In order for a country to progress from a less developed country (LDC) to a moderately developed country (MDC), the country would have to: a) increase rate of population growth b) move from an industrial to agricultural economy base c) raise the per-capita income d) maintain limited crop dependence e) All of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

28. Non-renewable resource IS TO renewable resource AS: a) living is to non-living b) limited supply is to sustainable supply c) tree is to coal d) wind energy is to fossil fuel energy e) conservation is to overexploitation Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.3 Describe the three most important factors that determine human impact on the environment.

Reference: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

29. In order to estimate human impact on the environment we can: a) multiply the number of people times affluence per person times resources needed and wastes produced: I=P x A x T b) multiply resource depletion times number of years divided by number of people: I = R xY÷P c) multiply birth rate times consumption patterns divided by available resources: I= B x C ÷R d) Divide number of people by resources needed and wastes produced: I = P ÷ T e) None of these choices; the human impact cannot be measured Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

30. In addressing environmental problems, several stages can be followed. For example, when it was discovered that the rat population on the island of Pumehana was out of control, scientists assessed the problem and formulated a model that suggested if a rat predator is introduced, then the rat population will be significantly decreased. The next step in addressing this environmental problem might be: a) action. Scientists sprinkle rat poison throughout the island. Several residents die. b) public education and involvement. Hold town meetings to inform island residents the costs of rat predator introduction, a rat sterilization program, rat bounty program, or no intervention. c) political action. A rat-infested island does not lure tourists so something MUST be done. d) a risk analysis. If a mongoose is introduced to control the rat, what are the possible effects of this intervention? e) evaluation. After the release of the initial mongoose population, it is discovered that the mongoose is NOT a rat predator.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.1 Briefly describe the five stages in addressing environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

31. The Ehrlich/Holdren model assesses human impact on the environment based on all of the following factors EXCEPT: a) the number of people. b) the affluence per person. c) the amount of resources used per person. d) urbanization. e) the environmental effects of the technologies used to obtain and consume the resources.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

32. What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?

I. State the problem II. Analyze and interpret the data III. Develop a hypothesis IV. Share the results with other scientists V. Design and perform an experiment to test the hypothesis a) I- II – III – IV - V b) III – I – V – II - IV c) I – III – V – II - IV d) V – IV- III – II - I e) V – II – I – III - IV Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

33. You are given a set of magnets and a variety of metal objects (nail, paperclip, iron filings, copper ring). You test the magnet with all objects and make observations. At the conclusion of your specific observations, you determine the general properties of magnetism. What is your thinking process? a) deductive reasoning b) inductive reasoning c) data intensive reasoning d) assessment logic e) hypothesis formation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

34. In a positive feedback mechanism: a) a change in some condition triggers a response that counteracts the changing condition b) a change in some condition triggers a response that neutralizes the changing condition c) a change in some condition triggers a response that intensifies the changing condition d) all of these e) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.2 Briefly describe the role of Earth systems in environmental science.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

35. To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and control groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best explains the dual experiments? a) In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the control group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.

b) In the control group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the experimental group that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made. c) In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other variables are altered. In the control group, the chosen variable is altered however all other variables are held constant. d) In the experimental and control groups two different variables are altered. e) Experimental and control group experiments are identical and run in parallel to get repeatable results.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

36. Which of the following represents an idea associated with environmental sustainability? a) The capacity of the environment to absorb toxins is unlimited. b) The human population continues to grow. c) We are using fossil fuels as if they were present in unlimited supply. d) The Earth's resources are not present in infinite supply e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.1 Define sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability 37. All of the following can be considered definitions of “theory” EXCEPT: a) a theory is an explanation of scientific laws b) a theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large body of observations and experiments c) a theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared unrelated d) a theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of natural phenomena e) a theory is an ethical principle based on a religious foundation Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

39. In 1992, the United Nations had a conference on Environment and Development to consider all of the following issues EXCEPT a) deterioration of the atmosphere b) pollution c) biodiversity decline d) increasing natural disasters e) destruction of forests Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.3 Briefly describe sustainable development.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability 40. What is the environmental significance of the process of “consumption”? a) consumption can outstrip the natural resources available and lead to overexploitation of the environment b) extravagant consumption can create an environment of raising one’s status among peers c) the process of consumption is an economic act, providing the “demand” necessary for the “supply” of the environment d) consumption can generate economic growth that relies significantly on the importation of natural resources, which benefits the environments of less-developed countries e) consumption is strictly a social act and has no environmental significance Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

41. Environmental sustainability implies: a) the actions of humans directly impacting the wellbeing of the natural environment b) future generations will have the resources necessary for quality of life c) a shared global responsibility for conservation practices d) the environment can function indefinitely without going into a decline from the stresses imposed by human society on natural systems e) all of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.1 Define sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability

42. The current global ecological footprint of each person is about 2.3 hectares. The Earth presently has 11.4 billion hectares of productive land and water. If we divide this usable area by the global human population of approximately 6 billion, this means: a) we have an ecological deficit – we have exceeded our allotted footprint of 1.9 hectares per person b) we have an ecological surplus – we have undershot our allotted footprint of 2.5 hectares per person c) we have an ecological deficit – we have not reached our allotted footprint of 2.5 hectares per person d) we have an ecological surplus – we have surpassed our allotted footprint of 1.9 hectares per person e) we are in a sustainable condition – we are at our allotted footprint of 2.3 hectares per person Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.2 Define ecological footprint.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment 43. A journalist reports on what Hardin (1968) referred to as a “tragedy of the commons.”

The media story concerns: a) a disaster that happened in the park b) the technology divide that exists between the social classes of poverty and elite

c) the environmental costs that everyone must pay in the long run due to individual exploitation of resources for short-term gains. d) the environmental costs that a widespread natural disaster brings to all walks of life e) common understanding of the environmental pressures that threaten endangered species Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.2 Relate Garrett Hardin’s description of the tragedy of the commons in medieval Europe to common-pool resources today.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability

44. A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because it hasn't yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment: Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

In this experiment, Site 2 is your: a) variable. b) control. c) replication. d) hypothesis. e) treatment.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

45. A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the

preserve because it hasn't yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment: Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Which of the following represents the hypothesis that you are testing with this experiment? a) Kudzu will eventually grow on the west side of the park. b) Kudzu will kill off the trees in the preserve by strangling them. c) Kudzu should be removed from the preserve because it is killing the rare plant. d) Kudzu is negatively affecting populations of the rare plant in the preserve. e) None of these choices is an appropriate hypothesis for your study.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

46. A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because it hasn't yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment: Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Based solely on the data represented in the associated table, what can you report to the agency that contracted you to do this study?

Site Site 1 Site 2

Mean number of individuals of rare plant per plot 1.7 4.2

a) Kudzu is shading out the rare plant. b) The rare plant is unaffected by the presence of the kudzu. c) Fewer individuals of the rare plant grow in the presence of kudzu when compared to areas without. d) It will be impossible to remove kudzu from the park because it grows too fast.

e) Kudzu grows much faster than the rare plant and will dominate the preserve within a decade.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science

47. Which of the following represents a common-pool resource? a) fresh water b) atmosphere c) forests d) marine fisheries e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.2 Relate Garrett Hardin’s description of the tragedy of the commons in medieval Europe to common-pool resources today.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability

48. The hypothesis that best describes the Lake Washington case study is that: a) Lake Washington is unfit for public recreation. b) increases in cyanobacteria numbers are a direct response to increased nutrient availability. c) if the sewage is diverted, then the water quality of the lake will return to previous levels. d) bacteria from municipal sewage are increasing in the lake. e) human activity has had no impact on Lake Washington, it is undergoing a natural process.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

49. Which of the following is NOT a renewable resource? a) trees b) fishes c) minerals d) fresh water e) fertile agricultural soil Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment

Question Type: Essay

50. How do you determine if a resource is renewable or nonrenewable? Give examples of both. What affects both of their usage?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment Solution: A nonrenewable resource (minerals: aluminum, tin, copper, and fossil fuels: coal, oil, natural gas) are present in limited supplies and are depleted by use. Natural processes do not replenish nonrenewable resources within a reasonable period on the human time scale. Some take millions of years to form. Usage is affected by: nation’s population, how efficiently the resources are extracted and processed, how much of it is required or consumed by different groups.

A renewable resource (trees, fisheries, fertile agriculture soil, fresh water) is naturally replaced at a fairly rapid pace (on a scale of days to decades), and they can be used forever as long as they are not overexploited in the short term. In developing countries, forests, fisheries, and agricultural land are particularly important renewable resources because they provide food. Rapid population growth can cause the

overexploitation of renewable resources. Renewable resources are potentially renewable because they must be used in a sustainable way (a manner that gives them time to replace or replenish themselves).

51. Define environmental sustainability. Discuss three reasons why experts in environmental science think that the human population is not operating sustainably.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment Solution: The ability to meet humanity’s current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs is considered environmental sustainability.

Many experts in environmental problems think human society isn’t operating sustainably because of the following human behaviors: -we are using nonrenewable resources such as fossil fuels as if they were present in unlimited supplies -we are using renewable resources such as fresh water and forests faster than they are replenished naturally -we are polluting the environment with toxins as if the capacity of the environment to absorb then is limitless.

-our numbers continue to grow despite Earth’s finite ability to feed and sustain us and absorb our waste

52. What are Eco-roofs? What are their environmental benefits? Why are new buildings the best locations for them?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems Solution: An Eco-roof is also called a Green roof. It is a roof that is completely or partially covered with vegetation and soil. The environmental benefits are that: 1) The plants and soil are effective insulators (reducing heating and cooling energy consumption), 2) The rooftop mini-ecosystem filters pollutants out of the rainwater and reduces the amount of storm water in the sewers. 3) They provide wildlife habitat, even on the tops of buildings. 4) They can be used to grow vegetables. They can be added to existing buildings but it is often easier and less expensive to install them in new buildings. Modern green roofs, which are designed to support the additional weight of

soil and plants, consist of several layers that hold the soil in place, stop plant roots from growing through the rooftop and drain excess water, thereby preventing leaks.

53. Planet Earth is remarkably suited for life. Make connections between external environmental factors and the Earth’s living organisms. Include in your discussion the concepts of habitability, evolution and emergence of dominant species.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.3 Describe the three most important factors that determine human impact on the environment.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment Solution: External environmental factors include climate, terrain, and availability of food, water and shelter. The moderate amount of sunlight received on Earth is enough to power photosynthesis, which supports almost all the life forms that inhabit Earth. Water is important both in the internal composition of organisms as well as providing habitat in oceans and lakes. Lakes, rivers and wetlands provide terrestrial organisms with fresh water. These external environmental factors have supported life on Earth for about 3.8 billion years. The combination of natural resources, geological processes and atmosphere provided the raw materials and energy needed for early life forms to arise and adapt.

Early cells evolved over time into simple multicellular organisms – early plants, animals, and fungi. Today several million species inhabit the planet. However a single species has emerged as a dominant species in terms of impact on these external environment factors that support the Earth’s living organisms. About 800,000 years ago, humans appeared in Africa. Over time, due to large brains and the ability to communicate, humans grew in number, expanded their range, and impacted the environment with demands on resources and bearing of technology.

54. Compare and contrast environmental science and ecology.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.1 Define environmental science.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science Solution: Ecology is a basic tool of environmental science. Ecology is branch of biology that studies the interrelationships between organisms and their environment.

Environmental science is much broader. Environmental science combines information from many disciplines, such as biology, geography, chemistry, geology, physics,

economics, sociology, demography, cultural anthropology, natural resources management, agriculture, engineering, law politics and ethics.

55. What is an Ecological Footprint? Based on the average global ecological footprint of 2.3 hectares per person in conjunction with the growing global population, what are some of the short-term results we can observe? What would the long term outlook be? How does an American’s ecological footprint differ from someone’s in India?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.2 Define ecological footprint.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment Solution: An ecological footprint is the average amount of productive land, fresh water, and ocean required on a continuous basis to supply that person with food, wood, energy, water, housing, clothing, transportation, and waste disposal.

Some of the short-term results we can observe are: forest destruction, degradation of croplands, loss of biological diversity, declining ocean fisheries, and local water shortages. The long term outlook, if all consumption stays the same or grows, is potentially disastrous. In the United States, the ecological footprint is about 9.6 hectares while a person from India would have a footprint of less then 1 hectare. If all the people in the world had the same lifestyle and level of consumption as the average North American, and assuming no changes in technology, we would need four additional planets the size of earth.

56. Compare and contrast highly developed countries (HDCs) and less developed countries (LDCs). Include in your answer examples of countries in each category, a description of the gap between categories, and the similarities and differences that one might expect to see in these types of countries.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment Solution: HDCs are the rich (haves) and LDCs are the poor (have nots). HDCs possess complex industrialized bases, low rates of population growth, and high per capita incomes. The United States, Canada, Japan and most of Europe fall into this category.

The LDCs include Bangladesh, Mali, Ethiopia, and Laos. These countries are characterized by a low level of industrialization, a very high fertility rate, a very high

infant mortality rate and a low per-capita income. Most economies of LDCs are agriculturally based rather than industrialized. Hunger, disease, and illiteracy are common in LDCs. However both categories of countries (HDCs and LDCs) are subject to global climate changes and environmental degradation. In LDCs the rapidly increasing populations tend to overwhelm and deplete the country’s soils, forests, and other natural resources. In HDCs, extravagant consumers exhaust resources and degrade the global environment.

57. Create an illustrated dictionary entry for the term, “nonrenewable resource”. Define the term, provide an example, a synonym and an antonym, and draw an illustration that represents the term.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment Solution: Nonrenewable resources, which include minerals (aluminum, tin, and copper) and fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas), are present in limited supplied on the Earth and are depleted by use. Synonyms for nonrenewable resources might include disappearing or shrinking resources. Antonyms include resources replenished, restored, or renewable resources. Illustrations will vary but include the concept that natural processes will not restore nonrenewable resources within a reasonable period on the human time scale.

58. The Lake Washington case illustrates the five sequential steps used to address environmental problems. Align the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem to these steps of addressing environmental problems. Identify the solution(s) implemented to address this problem. Speculate on why the final outcome of dumping highly treated sewage into Puget sounds is not an ideal, long-term solution.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems Solution: The first stage is scientific assessment, the gathering of information. As suburban expansion around Seattle demanded increased sewage treatment plants, partially treated sewage was discharged into the lake. By the mid 1950’s, scientists noted large masses of cyanobacteria in the lake, indicating a rise in dissolved nutrients. The problem was defined. The treated sewage effluent was raising the levels of dissolved

nutrients in Lake Washington to the point of serious pollution. The scientists developed a hypothesis: if the pollution were stopped, the lake would recover.

In the second stage, risk analysis, it was important to weigh the options of remediation so that the solution to the problem would not create yet another problem. For Lake Washington, plans were made to further treat the sewage and divert the discharge to Puget Sound. Puget Sound’s large area, marine water constitution and tide activity would sufficiently dilute and mix the excess nutrients.

In the third stage, public education and involvement, scientists wrote articles for the general public that explained what nutrient enrichment was and what problems it can cause. The public’s awareness of why urgent action was necessary was increased.

In the fourth stage, political action, a course of action was developed in the form of a public referendum. Even though this action increased taxes, when the final votes were counted, treated sewage was diverted from the lake into new trunk sewers.

In the final stage of evaluation, the results of the action were monitored both to see that the problem was addressed and the initial assessment has improved. Water transparency returned to Lake Washington within a few years and by 1975, the lake was back to normal 59. Why would consumption overpopulation lead to what Hardin (1968) refers to as a “tragedy of the commons”?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3.0 Describe the principles of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.3.2 Relate Garrett Hardin’s description of the tragedy of the commons in medieval Europe to common-pool resources today.

Section Reference 1: 1.3 Sustainability Solution: In the tragedy of the commons, Hardin contends our inability to solve many environmental problems is the result of a struggle between short-term individual welfare and long-term environmental sustainability and societal welfare. In medieval Europe, shared pastureland was termed “the commons” and each individual could bring animals onto the commons to graze. The more animals an individual brought, the greater his individual gains. However if each individual maximized the commons, overgrazing caused the entire village to suffer. Likewise consumption overpopulation results from consumption-oriented lifestyles when each individual in a population consumes too large a share of resources. Highly developed countries represent only 20% of the world’s population, yet they consume significantly more than half of its resources causing the entire global village to suffer. The effect of consumption overpopulation and the tragedy of the commons is the same – degradation of the environment. In both cases the challenges of sustainability managing resources is key. Overgrazing and resource exploitation may benefit only a few, however everyone must pay the environmental cost of the short-term individual gains.

60. Outline how the scientific method is applied in order to solve environmental problems. Use a real-life example and correct terminology in your explanation.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science Solution: The scientific method is the way a scientist approaches a problem, by formulating a hypothesis, and then testing it by means of an experiment in order to draw a conclusion about the problem. The first step is to recognize a question or unexplained occurrence in the natural world. Then an educated guess is made to predict a solution to the problem. A set of variables are identified and manipulated experimentally to collect data about the question. The data is then analyzed and interpreted so that a conclusion can be reached. The hypothesis is supported, rejected or modified and the results are shared with other scientists. Examples of this procedure will vary.

61. What is the relationship between variables and the control group in a well designed scientific experiment?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4.0 Explain how the scientific method is used to study environmental science.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.4.3 Outline the scientific method.

Section Reference 1: 1.4 Environmental Science Solution: Each factor that influences a process is a variable. To test a hypothesis about a variable in a scientific experiment, we conduct two forms of the experiment in parallel. In the experimental group we alter the chosen variable in a known way (the independent variable). In the control group we do not alter that independent variable. In all other respects the two groups are the same and all other variables are held constant. The dependent variable is the measure of any changes in the independent variable as the experiment is run. We then compare the results (measurements) of the control group to the experimental group. These measurements compare an experiment in which a particular variable was manipulated and the identical experiment where this variable was not manipulated. The differences in results can then be attributed to that single independent variable.

62. Identify two types of human environmental impact that may be created locally, but that have global consequences. Briefly explain the global consequences of each event and

discuss what actions would be needed to address each issue. Use the framework of the tragedy of the commons in developing your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.3 Describe the three most important factors that determine human impact on the environment.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment Solution: The common-pool resources are experiencing environmental stress. The atmosphere, fresh water, forests, wildlife, and ocean fisheries can be considered common-pool resources. As actions are taken at the local level, the results of those actions are felt at the global level. One example of local practices that have global consequences is automobile exhaust emissions that pollute the atmosphere. The pollutants are carried around the globe in the jet streams; there are no barriers. The global consequence is ozone reduction that is felt by all. One possible action would be emission controls on automobiles in every country. The world needs effective legal and economic policies to prevent the short term degradation of our common-pool resources to ensure the long term wellbeing of our natural resources.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 2

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Provisions of the Endangered Species Act a) require the timber industry to reforest in areas of logging. b) grant the President authority to establish National Parks for endangered species. c) provide a spending limit by the federal government in protecting endangered species. d) require the government to protect the habitat of endangered species so that their numbers increase. e) specify incentive-based regulation for endangered species.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States 2. “Multiple individuals receiving the greatest amount of goods and services from a limited set of resources” describes the economic principle (s) of: a) externality b) efficiency c) utility d) externality and utility Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

3. Whose work heightened public awareness and concern about the use of pesticides and ultimately led to restrictions on the use of certain pesticides? a) George Perkins Marsh

b) Henry David Thoreau c) Paul Ehrlich d) John Muir e) Rachel Carson Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

4. Which U.S. president was most responsible for setting aside national forests in the late 1800s and early 1900s? a) Grover Cleveland b) Benjamin Harrison c) Abraham Lincoln d) Herbert Hoover e) Theodore Roosevelt Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

5. Who was the first head of the U.S. Forest Service? a) Gifford Pinchot b) George Perkins Marsh c) John Muir d) Aldo Leopold e) Wallace Stegner Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

6. Founder of the Sierra Club, naturalist, and force behind the establishment of Yosemite and Sequoia national parks: a) Aldo Leopold. b) Henry David Thoreau. c) John James Audubon. d) John Muir. e) Theodore Roosevelt.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

7. The world's first national park was established in what year? a) 1780 b) 1865 c) 1872 d) 1890 e) 1906 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

8. All of the following were authors whose writings influenced the environmental movement except: a) Rachel Carson b) John James Audubon c) Aldo Leopold d) Wallace Stegner e) George Perkins Marsh Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

9. The legislation that authorizes the president of the United States to set aside national monuments is the: a) Antiquities Act. b) National Parks and Forest Act. c) National Monuments Act. d) Wilderness Act. e) Endangered Species Act. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

10. Earth Day: a) is celebrated exclusively in the U.S. b) was initiated by the U.S. Senate in 1970. c) has gained support for the environment within one or two major religions. d) is largely a government-sponsored event. e) focuses on what individuals can do to protect the environment.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

11. An environmental impact statement must include: a) an ethical analysis of the proposed action. b) short- and long-term effects and any adverse environmental effects. c) solutions to any potentially adverse environmental effects. d) documentation of the financial cost-benefit analysis of the proposed action. e) a description of the solution to any associated environmental controversy.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Explain how environmental impact statements provide powerful protection of the environment.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

12. The National Environmental Policy Act: a) mandates development of an Environmental Impact Statement at the end of any project using federal funds. b) provided for the establishment of the Court on Environmental Quality to enforce U.S. environmental law. c) requires the evaluation of federal highway construction and military projects. d) requires documentation of the financial impact of all projects with potential environmental impact. e) was signed into law in 1965.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Explain why the National Environmental Policy Act is the cornerstone of U.S. environmental law.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

13. Environmental Impact Statements: a) must be made available to the public. b) only address potential impact on endangered or threatened species. c) only need to project impact out to two years following the completion of the project. d) only affect the 20% of lands owned by the federal government. e) are not required for any state-funded projects.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Explain how environmental impact statements provide powerful protection of the environment.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

14. Which of the following is not included in an environmental impact statement? a) nature of the proposal b) short- and long-term effects of the proposal c) why the proposal is needed d) alternatives to the proposed course of action e) guarantees that no species or habitat will be negatively impacted by the proposal Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Explain how environmental impact statements provide powerful protection of the environment.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

15. Which of the following is a positive outcome from environmental legislation since 1970? a) establishment of the U.S. Forest Service b) establishment of 23 additional national parks

c) establishment of the Civilian Conservation Corps d) passage of the Wilderness Act e) improvements for all endangered species Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Explain how environmental impact statements provide powerful protection of the environment.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

16. In the field of economics, the additional cost associated with one more unit of something is called a(n): a) marginal cost. b) external cost. c) direct cost. d) fringe cost. e) total product cost.

Answer: a Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment Difficulty: Easy

17. When consumption or production of a product has a harmful side effect that is borne by people not directly involved in the market exchange for that product, the side effect is called a(n): a) marginal cost. b) indirect cost. c) additional cost. d) intrinsic cost. e) external cost.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

18. Laws that impose rules and regulations and set limits of pollution are called: a) command and control. b) environmental impact statements. c) legislative documents. d) legislative directives. e) environmental directives.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe command and control regulation, incentivebased regulation, and cost-effectiveness analysis.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

19. You are an environmental ethicist. As such you consider: a) what role humans play in determining the fate of Earth’s resources b) how humans should relate to the natural environment c) the moral basis of environmental responsibility d) political, economic, societal, and individual tradeoffs e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.1 Define environmental ethics.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews

20. The deep ecology worldview is an understanding of our place in the world based on a) harmony with nature and a spiritual respect for life b) human superiority and dominance over nature c) right and wrong environmental behaviors of our government d) hidden beliefs about the hierarchy of all species e) green politics Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.2 Define environmental worldview, discussing distinguishing aspects of the Western and deep ecology Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews

21. One approach to pollution control is incentive-based regulation. In this tactic: 1) industries adopting specific pollution control methods recommended by the government are rewarded.

2) industries are encouraged to emit an amount of pollution that is economically most desirable for that company.

3) green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on polluters.

4) pollution control laws establish emission targets and industries are provided enticements to reduce emissions. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 2 and 3 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe command and control regulation, incentivebased regulation, and cost-effectiveness analysis.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

22. Environmental destruction in formerly communist countries was so extensive because of: a) an attitude of high production and economic self-sufficiency, regardless of environmental damages. b) an attitude of meeting industrial production quotas taking precedence over environmental concerns. c) an attitude of support for heavy industry such as power plants, chemicals, metallurgy, and large machinery. d) an attitude of low regard for the economic value of clean air, water, and soil. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

23. A green campus is a(n) ______ campus! a) discard and go b) reuse and recycle c) environmentally unfriendly d) naïve and unsophisticated e) emerald and olive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

24. National income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance because national income accounts do not include: a) gross domestic product b) net domestic product c) estimates of imported goods and services d) estimates of external costs such as natural resource depletion and the environmental cost of economic activities e) estimates of human manufactured material goods Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.3 Give two reasons why the national income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

25. Which of the following statements reflects the Western worldview? a) All organisms are interdependent. b) Nature should be preserved, not used. c) Humans have the right to modify the environment to benefit their wellbeing and high standard of living.

d) Humans and all other species have an equal worth. e) Humans have no right to reduce diversity of life forms except to satisfy vital needs.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.2 Define environmental worldview, discussing distinguishing aspects of the Western and deep ecology worldviews.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews 26. According to the EPA’s Draft Report on the Environment 2003, levels of wet sulfate, a major component of acid rain, have dropped by 20-30% since 1990. This success may be attributed to: a) National Environmental Policy Act (1970) b) Clean Air Act (1977) c) Clean Water Act d) Earth Day 1990 (Think globally, act locally) e) Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Explain why the National Environmental Policy Act is the cornerstone of U.S. environmental law.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

27. A preservationist is more likely to have a __________ worldview, and a conservationist probably has a __________ worldview. a) biocentric, eccentric b) biocentric, utilitarian c) anthropocentric, biocentric d) universal, rare e) self-centered, unselfish Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.3 Distinguish between utilitarian conservationists and biocentric preservationists.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

28. University of Oxford philosopher John Broome argues that society has not adequately considered the ethical consequences of global warming. These ethical considerations include all except the following: a) Proper weighting of potentially catastrophic worst case outcomes. b) Appropriate distribution of benefits across the current population of the planet. c) Focusing on the expected outcomes of global climate change based on the best available climate models. d) The extent to which we should act now to limit impacts on future generations. e) Appropriate distribution of benefits across the current population of the planet.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6.0 Discuss the ethical implications of climate change.

Section Reference 1: 2.6 Energy and Climate Change: Environmental Ethics

29. Which of the following people is incorrectly matched with their environmental voice? a) John Audubon: On Walden’s Pond b) Rachel Carson: Silent Spring c) Paul Ehrlich: The Population Bomb d) Aldo Leopold: A Sand County Almanac e) Wallace Stegner: Wilderness Essay Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

30. Put the following historical views of the environment in the correct chronological sequence.

I. Frontier attitude: desire to conquer and exploit nature as quickly as possible.

II. Biocentric preservationists: belief that all life deserves respect and consideration.

III. Utilitarian conservationist: view of environment in terms of usefulness for people.

IV. Earth Day celebrant: demonstrates support of environmental quality by planting trees, cleaning roadsides and rivers and marching in parades. a) I – II – III- IV b) V – III – II - I c) I – III – II - IV d) III – IV – I - II e) IV – II – I - III Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

31. All of the following are successes in pollution control since 1970 except: a) improved water quality in rivers and streams. b) DDT, asbestos, and dioxins have been banned from use in the U.S. c) 75% reduction in sulfur dioxide and resulting acid rain. d) 98% reduction in lead levels in the air. e) 70% reduction in the use of CFCs and other chemicals that are contributing to the ozone hole.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

32. The graph below represents the Marginal Cost of Pollution. Which is the correct curve for the marginal cost of pollution?

A

B

C

Cost of Damage

D

E Amount of Pollution

a) Curve A b) Curve B c) Curve C d) Curve D e) Curve E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

33. All of the following would contribute to natural capital, except: a) groundwater. b) soil. c) clean air. d) mineral resources. e) None of these choices, all are natural capital Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.3 Give two reasons why the national income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

34. The cost, in environmental quality, of a unit of pollution that is emitted into the environment is the: a) marginal cost of pollution.

b) marginal cost of pollution abatement. c) optimum amount of pollution. d) indirect cost of pollution. e) indirect cost of pollution abatement.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

35. The associated graph represents the:

a) marginal cost of pollution. b) marginal cost of pollution abatement. c) marginal cost of recycling. d) marginal cost of waste-charge policy. e) marginal cost.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

36. Based on the accompanying graph, which of the following statements is correct?

a) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution decreases. b) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution stays the same. c) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution increases. d) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution reaches equilibrium when intersecting the amount of pollution axis. e) Nothing can be inferred from the graph.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

37. The amount of pollution that is economically most desirable is determined by plotting two curves. The point where the two curves meet is termed the __________ from an economic viewpoint. a) marginal cost of pollution b) marginal cost of pollution abatement c) direct cost of pollution d) indirect cost of pollution e) None of these choices is correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

38. Pollution is considered an external cost because: a) it has a harmful effect borne only by people who purchased the product that caused it. b) its cost to the environment is not reflected in the price of the product that produces it. c) it has a significant impact on the consumer's decision to buy the product that causes it. d) it is a hidden cost that would produce increased demand if the consumer were aware of it. e) it is an advertised cost that may affect consumer demand for a given product.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

39. The marginal cost of pollution abatement: a) is the added cost of reducing all types of pollution by one unit. b) drops as the level of pollution falls. c) increases as the level of pollution falls. d) is low at low levels of pollution. e) is high at high levels of pollution.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

40. Having a bottle of freon cost a consumer $2,000 to pay for the damage it does to the ozone layer when it is eventually released into the environment is an example of adding in: a) emission charges. b) environmental impact statements. c) marginal costs. d) external costs. e) emission reduction credits.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

41. Economic strategies for pollution control include all of the following except: a) emission charges. b) emission reduction credits. c) waste-discharge permits. d) complete shutdown of a business that is responsible for excess environmental damage. e) None of these choices, all are valid economic strategies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

42. When economists adopt a market-oriented strategy to deal with pollution: a) they encourage large retailers to pollute more. b) they raise the cost of pollution to discourage it. c) they lower the cost of pollution to discourage it. d) they increase the demand for pollution. e) they discourage recycling and encourage the use of virgin materials.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe command and control regulation, incentivebased regulation, and cost-effectiveness analysis.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

43. Western Xanadu is permitted to place a maximum of 350 tons per day into its landfill but must trade 50 extra tons to a nearby county. This is an example of a(n):

a) command and control policy. b) emission charge policy. c) emission reduction credit. d) marketable waste-discharge permit. e) environmental directive.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe command and control regulation, incentivebased regulation, and cost-effectiveness analysis.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

44. The Western world view most closely resembles the: a) deep ecology worldview b) utilitarian conservationist attitude c) biocentric preservationist attitude d) frontier attitude e) paralysis by analysis worldview Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.2 Define environmental worldview, discussing distinguishing aspects of the Western and deep ecology worldviews.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews

45. One approach to pollution control is incentive-based regulation. In this tactic a) industries adopting specific pollution control methods recommended by the government are rewarded. b) industries are encouraged to emit an amount of pollution that is economically most desirable for that company. c) green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on polluters. d) governments issue a fixed number of marketable waste-discharge permits. e) green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on polluters and governments issue a fixed number of marketable waste-discharge permits.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe command and control regulation, incentivebased regulation, and cost-effectiveness analysis.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

46. Which of the following statements reflects the Western worldview? a) All organisms are interdependent b) Nature should be preserved, not used c) Human superiority and dominance over nature d) Humans and all other species have an equal worth e) Humans have no right to reduce diversity of life forms except to satisfy vital needs Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.2 Define environmental worldview, discussing distinguishing aspects of the Western and deep ecology worldviews.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews

47. Which of the following gave authority to the president to establish forest reserves on federally owned land? a) Northwest Forest Plan b) General Revision Act c) frontier attitude d) Antiquities Act e) The Fifth Amendment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

48. Which of the following are NOT examples of religions making an effort to improve the environment? a) The 2010 Baha’i Social and Economic Development Conference

b) U.N. Millennium World Peace Summit of Religious and Spiritual Leaders c) Evangelical Climate Initiative d) International Seminar on Religion, Culture, and Environment sponsored partially by the Islamic Republic of Iran e) All of the above are examples of religious efforts to improve the environment Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews

49. Which of the following describes the cost to society of having less pollution being offset by the benefits to society of the activity creating the pollution? a) marginal cost of pollution b) optimal amount of pollution c) marginal cost of abatement d) regulatory reform e) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

50. Which of the following is not a successful pollution-control outcome according to the EPA? a) Levels of wet sulfate dropping by 20% b) Over 800 of the 1500 Superfund sites have been cleaned up c) Release of toxic chemicals has decreased by 48% since 1988 d) Emissions of six air pollutants have decreased by 25% e) 50% of rivers and streams are in violation of water quality standards Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Explain why the National Environmental Policy Act is the cornerstone of U.S. environmental law.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation

51. Which of the following is a critique of economic approaches to environmental regulation? a) It’s difficult to assess the costs of environmental damage b) Utilitarian economics are not universally accepted c) Many economic records of environmental problems are false d) It’s difficult to assess the costs of environmental damage and Utilitarian economics are not universally accepted e) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

52. Which of the following NOT a principle of deep ecology, according to Arne Naess? a) All life has intrinsic value b) Environment must be exploited to improve living standards c) Flourishing human and nonhuman life depends on diversity of life forms d) Human interference with nature is excessive e) Flourishing of human and nonhuman life depends on a decrease in the human population Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5.0 Discuss environmental values, ethics, and worldviews.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.2 Define environmental worldview, discussing distinguishing aspects of the Western and deep ecology worldviews.

Section Reference 1: 2.5 Environmental Ethics, Values, and Worldviews

Question Type: Essay

53. Identify three individuals that have made a significant contribution to the environment and provide a brief explanation of the contribution of each.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the environmental contributions of the following people: George Perkins Marsh, Theodore Roosevelt, Gifford Pinchot, John Muir, Aldo Leopold, Wallace Stegner, Rachel Carson, and Paul Ehrlich.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States Solution: Answers may include: John James Audubon detailed lifelike paintings of birds and other animals in their natural habitat increased public interest in the wildlife of North America.

Henry David Thoreau lived at Walden Pond and contemplated how people could economize and simplify their lives to live in harmony with nature.

George Perkins Marsh wrote Man and Nature, which provided a discussion of humans as agents of global environmental change.

Aldo Leopold wrote A Sand County Almanac in which he argued for a land ethic and the sacrifices such an ethic requires.

Wallace Stegner wrote “Wilderness Essay” which helped create support of the passage of the Wilderness Act of 1964.

Rachel Carson wrote Silent Spring to heighten public awareness and concern about the dangers of uncontrolled use of DDT and other pesticides.

Paul Ehrlich wrote The Population Bomb describing the damage occurring to Earth to support such a huge population.

54. Explain the frontier attitude and the effect it had on early development of North America.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States Difficulty: Hard Solution: The frontier attitude was a desire to conquer and exploit nature as quickly as possible. Land, timber, wildlife, rich soil, clean water, and other resources were cheap and seemingly inexhaustible. Efforts to conserve were seldom made and the effect was widespread environmental destruction

55. What is an environmental impact statement (EIS)? List what each EIS must include.

How does an environmental impact statement provide protection for the environment?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Explain how environmental impact statements provide powerful protection of the environment.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation Solution: An environmental impact statement considers the environmental effect of a proposed federal action, such as highway or dam construction, in order to assist federal officials in making informed decisions for legislation. Each EIS must include: a) The nature of the proposal and why it is needed b) The environmental impacts of the proposal, including short-term and long-term effects and any adverse environmental effects if the proposal is implemented c) Alternatives to lessen the adverse effects of the proposal.

The environment is protected because solicitations of public comments are included when preparing an EIS, which generally provide a broader perspective on the proposal and its likely effects. The public scrutiny places intense pressure on federal agencies to respect EIS findings. There is also an oversight Council on Environmental Quality to monitor the required EIS and report directly to the president.

56. What is the relationship between marginal cost of pollution and marginal cost of pollution abatement? What can plotting these two curves together tell you?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment Solution: The marginal cost of pollution involves assessing the risks associated with the pollution. The marginal cost is the added cost for all present and future members of society for each additional unit of pollution. At low pollution levels, the environment may absorb the damage, so the marginal cost of one added unit of pollution is near zero.

As the quantity of pollution increases, the marginal cost rises, and at high levels of pollution, the cost soars.

The marginal cost of pollution abatement is the added cost for all present and future members of society of reducing one unit of a given type of pollution. The marginal cost of pollution abatement tends to rise as the level of pollution declines. At high pollution

levels, the cost of eliminating one unit of pollution is low, but as more and more pollution is eliminated, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution rises.

By plotting the two curves together, a cost-benefit diagram is constructed. Where the two curves intersect is the amount of pollution that is economically most desirable.

57. Discuss the role of economics and government on the status of the environment in Central and Eastern Europe. Cite specific issues and/or examples in your discussion.

Given the relatively recent changes in the government structure within this region, have any improvements in environmental policy or condition occurred? If so, explain the mechanism(s) that have allowed this to happen.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment Solution: The communist regime left a grim legacy of environmental destruction in Central and Eastern Europe. Meeting industrial production quotas always took precedence over environmental concerns. The prevailing attitude included a devalued economic view of clean air, water, and soil. The governments supported heavy industry at the expense of the more environmentally benign service industries. Communism did little to encourage resource conservation or curb pollution. When switching from communism to democracy with a free-market economy, these countries are generating enough money to invest in environmental cleanup. In the Czech Republic, for example, 1.5% of the country’s gross domestic product is used for environmental protection. The levels of air pollution are declining. The mechanism that has allowed this to happen is political reform, economic recovery and sufficient governmental budgets.

58. Describe the optimum amount of pollution concept and identify any weaknesses in this approach. What is the nature of the conflict between this economic view of the environment and an environmentalist's perspective? How can these discrepancies be resolved in a way that benefits the environment?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment Solution: The optimum amount of pollution is the amount that is economically most desirable. From an economic point of view, there is a trade-off between harm to the environment and progress of development. Economists think the use of resources for pollution abatement should increase only until the cost of abatement equals the cost of the pollution damage. From an environmental perspective, there are two major flaws in the economist’s concept of optimum pollution. It is difficult to place a monetary value on

scenic landscape, extinction of a species or quality of life. When pollution, such as acid rain, covers a large area, involving millions of people, assessing pollution cost is extremely complex. Second, the risk of unanticipated environmental catastrophe (disruption or destruction of the environment) is not taken into account in assessing the potential environmental damage of pollution. These discrepancies can be resolved if economists take a look at the larger picture rather than the sum of the environmental parts. The cost of lost elements in a polluted environment does not account for the web of relationships within the environment.

59. What is the National Environmental Policy Act? Discuss its role in U.S. environmental law. Include a specific example of the implementation of NEPA in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Explain how environmental impact statements provide powerful protection of the environment.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation Solution: The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) is a law that states that the federal government must consider the environmental impact of a proposed federal action.

The NEPA provides the basis for developing detailed environmental impact statements (EIS) to accompany every federal recommendation or proposal for legislation. For example if the government wants to construct a highway through a particular area, public comments are solicited on the project which provide a broad perspective on the proposal and its likely effects on the environment. The EIS is prepared which states the need of the highway, the short-term and long-term effects (if any) the project will have on the surrounding areas, and alternatives to lessen the adverse effects of the project. The Council on Environmental Quality monitors the EIS and reports directly to the president.

The NEPA revolutionized environment protection in the United States. The NEPA has helped federal agencies reduce adverse environmental impacts of their activities and projects.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 3

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is an abiotic factor of the environment? a) living spaces b) disease organisms c) photosynthesis d) producers e) detritivores Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.1 Define ecology.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

2. The biotic environment includes a variety of components including: a) saprotrophs. b) protozoa. c) primary producers. d) decomposers. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.1 Define ecology.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

3. A species is defined as: a) organisms that live together. b) organisms that live in the same area at the same time. c) a group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another.

d) all of the organisms that live together in an area, plus the physical environment that they live in. e) all organisms at a given trophic level within a particular community.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

4. Which of the following series is organized according to the levels of organization used by ecologists? a) population -> ecosystem -> community b) species -> community -> abiotic factors c) species -> ecosystem -> population d) population -> community -> biotic factors e) population -> community -> ecosystem Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

5. An ecosystem can be characterized as: a) populations + community. b) all species, population, and community interactions for organisms in a given area. c) the abiotic components of the environment. d) all of the biological interactions, plus interactions with the abiotic environment, in a given area. e) interactions between physical processes and the abiotic environment.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

6. Landscape ecology: a) is the study of human-designed communities. b) examines the influences of human activity on natural ecosystems. c) is exclusively concerned with terrestrial ecosystems. d) studies the connections among various ecosystems in a particular region. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

7. All of the following are components of the hydrosphere except: a) sea ice. b) tropical rainstorms. c) soil. d) hail. e) rivers.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

8. The crust of our planet that is made of rock and soil is known as the: a) hydrosphere. b) ecosphere. c) biosphere. d) lithosphere. e) atmosphere.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

9.The chemical energy stored in a plant is an example of: a) kinetic energy. b) nuclear energy. c) solar energy. d) potential energy. e) radiant energy.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

10. Which of the following is an example of a closed system? a) Earth b) ocean c) desert d) hydrothermal vent e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.3 Distinguish between open and closed systems.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

11. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that: a) energy can be created or destroyed by physical processes. b) entropy always increases.

c) energy cannot be created or destroyed. d) the organization of the universe is steadily increasing. e) energy transfer between organisms is inefficient and much energy is lost.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

12. Entropy is a measure of: a) the amount of energy in a system. b) the amount of work done. c) the disorder in a system. d) the efficiency of a system. e) the rate of energy use in a system.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

13. Physical laws state that we can recycle: a) both matter and energy. b) neither matter nor energy. c) matter, but not energy. c) energy, but not matter. d) There are no physical laws governing the recycling of matter or energy.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

14. Energy: a) recycles continuously through an ecosystem. b) is used over and over again. c) flows in only one direction through an ecosystem. d) tends to be concentrated by living organisms. e) is efficiently transferred between trophic levels.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

15. Light is the energy source for which process? a) respiration b) glycolysis c) mitochondria d) chemosynthesis e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

16. The correct, chemically balanced equation for photosynthesis is: a) 12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY -> C6H12O6 + 12O2. b) 6CO2 + 12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY -> C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2. c) 12O + C6H12O6 + 6H2O -> 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGY.

d) 12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O -> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. e) 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O -> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

17. Which of the following organisms are capable of cellular respiration? a) green plants b) bacteria c) carnivores d) algae e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

18. The correct, chemically balanced equation for cellular respiration is: a) 12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY -> C6H12O6 + 12O2. b) 6CO2 +12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY →->C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2. c) C6H12O6 + 12 H2O -> 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGY. d) 12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O -> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. e) 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O -> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

19. Which of the following is not a product of cellular respiration? a) carbon dioxide b) water c) sugar d) energy e) carbon dioxide and sugar Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

20. Carbohydrates are not: a) stored potential energy. b) made mostly of nitrogen and carbon. c) broken down by cellular respiration. d) made by producers. e) used by decomposers.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

21. The ultimate source of energy for the communities of the hydrothermal vents is: a) hot seawater. b) sinking detritus from the surface waters. c) energy derived from photosynthesis, as in almost all other communities. d) chemical synthesis of organic molecules by bacteria. e) algae.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

22. Chemosynthesis supports which of the following ecosystems? a) salt marsh b) forest c) estuary d) desert e) hydrothermal vent Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

23. Which of the following organisms are producers in hydrothermal vent communities? a) bacteria b) algae c) fungi d) moss e) None of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

24. Which of the following is a producer? a) nutrient-rich water b) a rabbit c) an alga d) a fungus e) a saprotroph Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

25. Decomposers are: a) bacteria and fungi. b) consumers. c) saprotrophs. d) heterotrophs. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

26. A secondary consumer would eat: a) tertiary consumers. b) fungi. c) bacteria. d) herbivores. e) lions.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

27. A primary consumer would eat: a) secondary consumers. b) plants. c) Bacteria. d) herbivores. e) rabbits.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

28. Decomposers provide mineral nutrients for: a) heterotrophs. b) autotrophs. c) the second trophic level. d) the third trophic level. e) omnivores Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

29. Detritivores consume: a) leaf litter. b) animal flesh. c) fungi. d) both plants and insects.

e) only microorganisms.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

30. Each level or "link" in a food chain or a food web is called: a) a trophic level. b) a consumer. c) an energy flow unit. d) an equivalent. e) entropy.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

31. The dominant herbivores in the Antarctic food web are: a) baleen whales. b) squid. c) krill. d) king and emperor penguins. e) barnacles and mussels.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

32. In the Antarctic food web the base of the food chain is occupied by:

a) krill. b) minnows. c) algae. d) tuna. e) deep-sea bacteria.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

33. Which of the following is one of the most productive ecosystems? a) swamps b) agricultural land c) tropical rainforest d) open ocean e) streams Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

36. In human cells, energy utilization is about __________ efficient compared to an automobile engine, which is about ______ efficient. a) 1% / 100% b) 10% / 50% c) 25% / 90% d) 40% / 25% e) 75% / 10% Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

37. Of the following statements, which statement is false? a) The second law of thermodynamics predicts that although localized areas may temporarily increase in the degree of order, the overall randomness of the universe will not decrease. b) Energy flow in ecosystems is linear, or one-way. c) Photosynthesis converts the energy of the sun into stored chemical energy. d) Cellular respiration converts carbohydrates into usable energy and heat. e) Only about half the energy available in an organism is transferred to the consumer that eats it.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

38. In a pyramid of biomass, the tropic level of which organism would have the LEAST BIOMASS? Grass, is eaten by grasshoppers, which are eaten by toads, which are eaten by snakes a) grass b) grasshoppers c) toads d) snakes e) none of these choices, all tropic levels would be of equal biomass Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

39. The most inclusive description of the biotic portion of an ecosystem is:

a) detritivores. b) producers, consumers, and decomposers c) herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores d) primary and secondary consumers e) all nonliving chemicals or matter.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.1 Define energy flow, trophic level, and food web.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

40. The chlorophyll in producers captures _________, and transforms this to chemical energy stored in __________ . a) electrons; waste products b) light energy; organic compounds such as carbohydrates c) nuclear energy; chemicals such as DNA d) light energy; the ozone e) heat energy; the ability to do work Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

41 Many important, nonliving factors within an open (eco)system are recycled, although some are not. The survival of an open system depends on an exchange of ______ with its surroundings. a) energy b) carbon dioxide c) plants d) oxygen e) nitrogen Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

42. The major biological source of oxygen, which many organisms require when they break down glucose, is actually a by-product of: a) cellular respiration b) chemosynthesis c) entropy d) photosynthesis e) global warming Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

43. Net primary productivity represents: a) plant growth per unit area per unit time. b) energy per unit area per unit time. c) the energy available to herbivores. d) amount of biomass found in excess of that broken down by a plant's cellular respiration. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.4 Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity, discussing human impact on the latter.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

45. Image missing?

In the food web above, the mountain lion is an example of:

a) a tertiary consumer. b) an autotroph. c) a saprotroph. d) a herbivore. e) an omnivore.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

46. In October of 2003, a raging wildfire swept through the mountain ecosystems in Southern California, burning everything in its path to the ground and driving away all of the animals. In order for the mountain ecosystem to re-establish itself, which member of the food web has to return first? a) deer b) snakes c) birds d) coyotes e) grasses Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

47. Which term encompasses the other four? a) community b) population c) species d) biosphere e) ecosystem Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

48. An example of a biotic component of an ecosystem is a) the climate b) a community c) water d) synthetic pesticide e) rock Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.1 Define ecology.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

49. In a pyramid of numbers, the largest number of organisms would typically be found: a) at the highest end of the food chain, with each lower trophic level occupied by fewer organisms. b) at the highest end of the food chain, with each lower trophic level having the same number of organisms. c) at the lowest end of the food chain, with each successive trophic level occupied by fewer organisms. d) at the lowest end of the food chain, with each successive trophic level having the same number of organisms. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

50. In a pyramid of energy, the lowest quantity of energy ( kcal per m2), would be found in the:

a) producers. b) primary consumers. c) secondary consumers. d) tertiary consumers. e) herbivores.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

51. Which of the following is not a concern related to human impact on the Antarctic food web? a) global warming b) commercial whaling c) thinning of the ozone layer d) harvesting krill e) None of these choices, all are human impacts on the Antarctic Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

52. Which of the following is not critical for a balanced ecosystem? a) decomposers b) producers c) plants d) consumers e) humans Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

53. All of the following refer to primary consumers except: a) carnivore. b) consumers that eat autotrophs. c) rabbits. d) herbivores. e) second trophic level.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

54. With respect to _________, every ecosystem is open. a) species b) populations c) the first and second laws of thermodynamics d) energy flow e) inorganic compounds Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

55. Detritivores, scavengers, and decomposers are similar in that they a) consume nonliving organic matter b) are primarily microorganisms c) are primarily producers d) are among the Earth’s least useful organisms

e) are found only in the water Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

56. Why do deep-sea organisms cluster around hydrothermal vents? a) these organisms prefer the warmth of the vent b) these organisms depend on the organic material drifting down from surface waters to the vent for food c) these organisms obtain energy by chemosynthesis from inorganic molecules of vents d) these organisms have a light phobia e) these organisms use the pressure of the deep ocean to metabolize organic molecules Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

57. Which of the following is not one of the forms of energy? a) Mechanical b) Radiant c) Solar d) Stagnant e) Chemical Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

58. One _________ is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 degrees Celsius? a) kilojoules b) molecule c) atomic nuclei d) thermodynamic e) kilocalorie Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

59. Which of the following statements about energy is true? a) Organisms can reuse energy for biological work b) Organisms can create the energy required to live c) The energy present in the universe will always be the same amount d) Energy cannot change from one form to another e) None of these choices is true Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

60. Energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be converted from one form to another… a) second law of thermodynamics b) first law of thermodynamics c) theory of relativity d) first law of centrifugation e) energy transformation

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life 61. Energy enters almost all ecosystems as… a) mechanical energy b) recycled energy c) potential energy d) radiant energy e) none of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

62. What category would carnivores fall into? a) heterotrophs b) tertiary consumers c) omnivores d) secondary consumers e) tertiary consumers and secondary consumers Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

63. Which represents the interlocking of food chains which connects organisms in an ecosystem? a) community b) trophic level c) food web d) symbiosis e) saprotrophy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

64. Which of the following is true about human interference with the Antarctic food web? a) Humans have had little impact on the Antarctic food web b) Whaling was only a small contributor to the decline in krill population c) There is still an abundance of pack ice to provide marine algae for krill d) Low krill population increases the breeding success of penguins and fur seals e) None of these choices is true Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

65. Which of the following is NOT one of the main types of ecological pyramids? a) pyramid of consumption b) pyramid of energy c) pyramid of numbers d) pyramid of biomass e) None of these choices, all are types of ecological pyramids Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

66. Decomposers are: a) consumers b) bacteria c) saprotrophs d) fungi e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

Question Type: Essay

67. Draw a flow chart to represent the organizational relationships between the following terms from the most inclusive to the least inclusive: ecosystem, population, species, community, and biosphere.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

Solution: Biosphere -> ecosystem -> community -> population -> species

68. Define landscape ecology and briefly explain how it relates to individual ecosystems.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1.0 Describe ecological levels from simple to complex.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.1.2 Distinguish among the following ecological levels: population, community, ecosystem, landscape, and biosphere.

Section Reference 1: 3.1 What is Ecology?

Landscape ecology is a sub discipline of ecology that studies ecological processes that operate over large areas and interacting ecosystems. Two adjacent ecosystems, a forest and pond, impact each other. For example, a great blue heron eats fish, frogs and insects from the pond but builds its nest and raises its young in the treetops of the forest ecosystem.

69. Compare and contrast potential energy and kinetic energy using biological or ecological examples and references.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Use an example to contrast potential energy and kinetic energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: Energy can exist as stored energy or potential energy or as the energy of motion, kinetic energy. The cordgrass a meadow vole eats has chemical potential energy, some of which is converted to kinetic energy and heat as the meadow vole swims in the salt marsh.

70. Define energy and briefly describe how the different forms contribute to the continual energy needs of organisms.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.1 Define energy, explaining how it is related to work and to heat.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: Energy is the capacity or ability to do work. Energy exists in several different forms: chemical, radiant, thermal, mechanical, nuclear, and electrical. Chemical energy is stored in the bonds of molecules, radiant energy is in radio waves, visible light and X rays, transmitted as electromagnetic waves. Solar energy is radiant energy from the sun including ultraviolet radiation, visible light, and infrared radiation. Thermal energy is heat energy that flows from an object with a higher temperature to an object with a lower temperature. Mechanical energy is energy in the movement of matter. Nuclear energy is in atomic nuclei and electrical energy flows as charged particles.

71. Briefly explain the process of cellular respiration and uses of the energy obtained from the process. Your answer should include the following terms: glucose, water, carbon dioxide, chemical energy, and oxygen. What organisms carry on this process?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: Cellular respiration is the process of releasing the chemical energy stored in molecules such as glucose into chemical energy that plant and animal cells can use for biological work, such as moving around, courting, and growing new cells and tissues.

This process occurs in the presence of oxygen and water and also produces carbon dioxide and water. All organisms, including green plants, trees, animals, and protists respire to obtain energy.

72. Briefly discuss the role of autotrophs in an ecosystem.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems Solution: Producers, also called autotrophs, manufacture organic molecules from simple inorganic substances, generally carbon dioxide and water, usually using the energy of sunlight. Autotrophs perform the process of photosynthesis, releasing oxygen as a byproduct. Autotrophs become potential food sources for other organisms in the ecosystem, the consumers. Autotrophs are the basis for the food chain providing both food and oxygen for the rest of the community.

74. Define each component of the following equation and explain the equation in terms of energy available as food for an ecosystem’s consumers.

Net primary productivity = gross primary productivity – plant cellular respiration Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.4 Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity, discussing human impact on the latter.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems Solution: Gross primary productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is the rate energy is captured during photosynthesis. It is primary because plants occupy the first trophic level in food webs. Plants respire to provide energy for their own use so that the energy in plant tissues after cellular respiration has occurred is the net primary productivity (NPP). The Net primary productivity represents the rate organic matter is actually incorporated into plant tissues for growth. Only the energy represented by NPP is available as food for an ecosystem’s consumers.

75. What is the human impact on net primary productivity? What are the potential environmental problems associated with this impact and what changes would be required to minimize human impact?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.4 Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity, discussing human impact on the latter.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems Solution: Humans consume more of Earth’s resources than any other animal species.

When both direct and indirect human impacts are accounted for, humans use 32% of the annual NPP of land-based ecosystems. Humans represent only 0.5% of the total biomass of all consumers and are in competition with other species’ needs for energy. A future increase in biofuel use may also lead to an increase in our energy use, as we grow crops to fuel our energy needs. Human use of so much of the world’s productivity may contribute to the loss of many species through extinction. Human population growth becomes a serious threat to the planet’s ability to support both non-human and human components. To minimize this impact, humans must share terrestrial photosynthesis products, NPP with other organisms and control the population explosion.

76. Cellular respiration occurs in both plant and animal cells while photosynthesis only occurs in plant cells. How are plants and animals connected via these two processes? Be sure to include balanced chemical equations as part of your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: In photosynthesis: 6CO2 + 12H2O + sun’s energy → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 In cellular respiration: C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6CO2 + 12H2O + chemical energy Plants, algae, and some bacteria capture radiant energy with chlorophyll and store the energy in the chemical bonds of carbohydrate molecules through the process of photosynthesis. A by-product of this process is the release of oxygen. The carbohydrate molecules produced in photosynthesis can then be broken down through the process of cellular respiration to release chemical energy that can be used for cell processes. Plants are producers, animals are consumers. Plants can make their own carbohydrates for cellular respiration. Primary consumers depend on plants as food resources. Without this source of carbohydrates, animals would not be able to carry out cellular respiration.

77. Discuss the contributions of saprotrophs and detritivores to a balanced ecosystem.

Identify two representatives of each group in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems Solution: Saprotrophs and detritivores are consumers. Saprotrophs, also called decomposers, are microbial heterotrophs that break down dead organic material and use the decomposition products to supply themselves with energy. They typically release simple inorganic molecules, such as carbon dioxide and mineral salts, that producers can reuse. Bacteria and fungi are examples of saprotrophs. Saprotrophs are essential to the long-term health of a balanced ecosystem because they rid the ecosystem of dead organisms and waste products that would accumulate indefinitely otherwise. They also liberate important elements such as potassium, nitrogen, and phosphorus to new generations of organisms from the dead organisms. Detritivores, such as snails, crabs, clams, and worms consume organic matter such as animal carcasses, leaf letter, and feces. Detritus feeders work with microbial decomposers to destroy dead organisms and waste products.

78. What are krill? Using appropriate terminology, discuss the role of krill in the Antarctic food web, and describe what has been happening to the population of these animals over that past 150 years and why. What has been the impact on this Antarctic ecosystem of human related change in the global environment?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems Solution: Krill are tiny, shrimplike animals that live in large swarms and eat photosynthetic algae in and around pack ice. Whales, squid, seals, penguins, and fish consume vast numbers of krill. Other carnivores, in turn, eat these animals: toothed whales, elephant and leopard seals, king and emperor penguins and albatross and petrel.

During the last 150 years (until the 1986 global ban on whaling), the hunting of whales steadily reduced the number of large baleen whales in Antarctic waters. As a result of fewer whales eating krill, more krill became available for other krill-eating animals, whose populations increased. This altered the ecosystem. Now that commercial whaling is regulated, it is hoped that the number of large baleen whales will increase and resume their former position of dominance in terms of krill consumption. Human-related change has thinned the ozone over Antarctica allowing more of the sun’s ultraviolet radiation to penetrate the atmosphere, which may damage the algae that forms the base of the Antarctic food web. Another human induced change is global warming. As the water warms, less pack ice is available to provide the food supply for the krill. In addition, fishermen have started to harvest krill to make fishmeal for aquaculture industries. The loss of krill affects the entire Antarctic food web including the many marine animals that depend on krill for food.

79. Briefly summarize the first and second laws of thermodynamics and then explain how each is applicable to the study of ecosystems and energy.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: The first law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, although it can change from one form to another. This explains why organisms cannot produce energy but must continuously capture it from the sun or by consuming other plants or animals. According to the second law of thermodynamics, when energy is converted from one form to another, some of it is degraded into heat, a less-usable form that disperses into the environment. This explains why no process requiring energy is ever 100% efficient. In every energy transaction, some energy is dissipated as heat, which contributes to entropy. The pyramid of energy illustrates the energy flow through each trophic level. These pyramids, which always have large energy bases and get progressively smaller through succeeding trophic levels, show that most energy dissipates into the environment when going from one trophic level to the next.

80. As organisms grow and develop, body form typically becomes more complex. Does such development conform to the Second Law of Thermodynamics? Why or why not?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.4 State the first and second laws of thermodynamics, discussing their implications as they relate to organisms.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: The second law of thermodynamics states that the amount of usable energy available to do work in the universe decreases over time. As this energy is used to do work, entropy (a measure of disorder) increases. Development and maintenance of complex structure in organisms conforms to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, because individual organisms are not isolated systems; they are continually taking in energy to do the work necessary to maintain complexity. Producers capture this energy from the abiotic environment, while consumers acquire it by ingesting other organisms.

81. Consider the city or town that you live in. Is it an example of an open system or a closed system? Explain your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.3 Distinguish between open and closed systems.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life Solution: Cities and towns are open systems, because there is an exchange of energy with the surrounding environment. Examples of energy inputs include food, water, and consumer goods. Energy outputs include manufactured goods, sewage, and solid waste.

82. How does a food web differ conceptually from a food chain? Which is more realistic, and why?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.2 Summarize how energy flows through a food web, using producer, consumer, and decomposer in your explanation.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

Solution: A food web differs conceptually from a food chain in two major ways. First, food webs allow for more than one organism per trophic level. This is true for most cases, with the exception of extremely simple ecosystems such as the arctic. Secondly, in food webs each organism typically is connected to more than one species on the trophic level below it (accounting for omnivory), and above it (accounting for multiple predators of a single species). Again, this is the case for the vast majority of ecosystems around the world.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 4

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Why was Hurricane Katrina such a devastating storm? a) The city is at or below sea level b) Sea level has been rising c) Destruction of wetlands due to construction d) The city has been subsiding e) All of these choices are correct Answer: E Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

2. Which of the following statements about a storm surge is true?

1) A sudden increase in water that moves onto land before a hurricane makes landfall 2) A sudden increase in water that moves onto land as a hurricane makes landfall 3) A sudden increase in water that moves onto land after a hurricane makes landfall a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1,2, and 3 e) None of these statements is true Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

3. Biogeochemical cycles:

a) Only include processes conducted by or within living organisms. b) Pertain only to the abiotic environment. c) Describe the movement of water and other materials through abiotic and biotic interactions. d) Only pertain to exchanges and interactions that occur within the atmosphere. e) Are used to describe the attempts of humans to recycle various pollutants.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

4. Which of the following is not one of the biogeochemical cycles considered of particular importance for organisms? a) carbon b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) phosphorus e) water Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

5. In the carbon cycle, carbon can be found in: a) Limestone, animals, and plants b) Biocarbonate and sugar c) Carbon dioxide and coal d) The atmosphere e) All of these choices are correct Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

6. Approximately what percentage of the atmosphere is CO2? a) 0.001% b) 0.0375% c) 10% d) 30% e) 75% Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

7. The pathway by which carbon is transferred from living organisms to the atmosphere is called: a) Photosynthesis b) Cellular respiration c) Evaporation d) Burning fossil fuels e) transpiration Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

8. The movement of water from land to rivers, lakes, wetlands and ultimately, the ocean is called: a) groundwater b) transpiration c) hydrologic cycle d) runoff e) precipitation Answer: D

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

9. Which of the following is not an example of a fossil fuel? a) Wood b) Oil c) Natural gas d) Coal e) The remains of ancient organisms Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

10. Which of the following is not a source of carbon for the carbon cycle? a) Shells of marine organisms b) Oil c) Decomposers d) Inorganic fertilizer e) The atmosphere Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

11. The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and complex of the biogeochemical cycles. It is important because nitrogen: a) is a greenhouse gas b) is an essential part of biological molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids (DNA) c) is the most toxic element to living organisms d) dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing respiratory problems

e) is a crucial part of the process of photosynthesis Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

12. Nitrogen fixation is a) the conversion of gaseous nitrogen into an organism friendly form (ammonia (NH3). b) preplanned setting of atmospheric levels of nitrogen at 78% c) stabilizing elemental nitrogen into a gaseous two-atom molecule (N2) d) the reduction of nitrate (NO3-) to gaseous nitrogen. e) the repair of D.N.A. by adding nitrogen to the organism's diet Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

13. Nitrogen is essential for living organisms to synthesize: a) Lipids b) Proteins c) Carbohydrates d) Sulfates e) Benzene rings Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

14. Nitrogen gas accounts for what percentage of the atmosphere? a) 0.03% b) 1%

c) Approximately 50% d) 78% e) 99% Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

15. What is the first step in the nitrogen cycle, in which gaseous nitrogen is converted into ammonia? a) Nitrification b) Ammonification c) Assimilation d) Phosporication e) Nitrogen fixation Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

16. Which of the following plants is a legume which may have nitrogen fixing bacteria attached to their roots? a) Bean b) Beet c) Potato d) Cucumber e) carrot Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

17. What part of the nitrogen cycle deals with the conversion of nitrogen in waste products (urea in urine) into ammonia? a) Nitrification b) Ammonification c) Assimilation d) Dentrification e) Nitrogen fixation Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

18. The reduction of nitrate (NO3-) to gaseous nitrogen (N2) is called: a) Nitrification b) Ammonification c) Assimilation d) Dentrification e) Nitrogen fixation Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

19. By what process do plants take the nitrate (NO3-) absorbed by their roots and incorporate the nitrogen into plant proteins and other molecules. a) Nitrification b) Ammonification c) Assimilation d) Dentrification e) Nitrogen fixation Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

20. Nitrogen fertilizer: a) contributes to acid rain. b) leads to the formation of dioxins. c) may contaminate groundwater. d) contributes to the production of photochemical smog. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

21. One human impact on the phosphorus cycle occurs through: a) burning of fossil fuels. b) the erosion of agricultural lands. c) the greenhouse effect. d) global warming. e) depletion of the ozone layer.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

22. Which of the following processes plays an important role in the phosphorus cycle? a) Erosion b) Fixation c) Combustion d) Cellular respiration e) ammonification Answer: A

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

23. Transpiration occurs in: a) oceans b) groundwater c) the atmosphere d) animals e) terrestrial plants Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

24. Solar radiation: a) powers the hydrologic and other biogeochemical cycles. b) is essential for photosynthesis. c) is the product of a massive nuclear fusion reaction. d) is captured by plants and may eventually become the energy available from fossil fuels. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: E Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

25. Which of the following surfaces has the highest albedo? a) Glaciers b) Forests c) The ocean d) Buildings

e) pavements Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Summarize how solar energy affects Earth's climate.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 Solar Radiation

26. The primary reason we have seasons is because of the: a) Earth’s rotation b) Earth’s orbit c) Earth’s tilt on its axis d) Density of the Earth’s atmosphere e) Layers of the Earth’s atmosphere Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Summarize how solar energy affects Earth's climate.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 Solar Radiation

27. The Earth's atmosphere is important because: a) it is primarily composed of oxygen, essential for our survival. b) it is composed of approximately twenty different layers. c) it protects us from UV radiation and X-rays. d) it is a stable and unchanging part of our global environment. e) the densest outer layer shields the Earth's surface from dangerous forms of energy.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

28. Stratospheric ozone is important because it: a) Absorbs UV radiation b) Is what we breathe c) Powers the weather cycle

d) Is an industrial pollutant e) Is part of the troposphere Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

29. The thermosphere: a) is the layer of atmosphere closest to the Earth's surface. b) extends to a height of approximately 35 km. c) is characterized by very low temperatures. d) is characterized by steadily increasing temperatures. e) is the layer where weather, including most clouds and wind, occurs.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

30. The ocean conveyor belt affects: a) The nitrogen cycle b) Albedo c) The greenhouse effect d) Regional and possibly global climate e) Surface water currents Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Discuss the environmental conditions and factors that affect Earth's oceans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing global water flow patterns, including gyres.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 The Global Ocean

31. Complex horizontal movements of the atmosphere are commonly known as: a) Gyres b) Wind c) Climate d) The Coriolis effect e) upwelling Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.2 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing atmospheric circulation.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

32. Which of the following does not describe major surface winds that blow more or less continually? a) Prevailing winds b) Polar easterlies c) Westerlies d) Trade winds e) Coriolis Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.2 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing atmospheric circulation.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

33. The Coriolis effect is due to: a) variations in the amount of solar radiation reaching different locations. b) seasonal changes in the levels of solar radiation at a given location. c) The density of the oceans. d) the Earth's orbit. e) the Earth's rotation.

Answer: E

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.2 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing atmospheric circulation.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

34. Gyres are: a) prevailing winds b) circular ocean currents c) an effect of El Niño d) an upwelling of deeper waters e) major climate zones Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Discuss the environmental conditions and factors that affect Earth's oceans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing global water flow patterns, including gyres.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 The Global Ocean

35. El Niño—Southern Oscillation events: a) are responsible for dramatic increases in the productivity of fisheries off South America. b) reach coastal areas of Peru around mid-summer. c) occur once or twice every century. d) alter both ocean and atmospheric circulation patterns. e) have little impact on marine organisms, but devastating effects on terrestrial weather patterns.

Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Discuss the environmental conditions and factors that affect Earth's oceans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 Define El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and La Niña, describing some of their effects.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 The Global Ocean

36. Cyclones, hurricanes and typhoons are distinguished from one another by:

a) size b) speed c) direction of spin d) location e) destructive potential Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

37. Which of the following does not influence climate? a) Distance from the ocean b) Topography c) Latitude d) Vegetation e) None of these choices, all affect climate Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Distinguish between weather and climate, briefly discussing regional precipitation differences.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

38. Precipitation: a) refers to any form of water, including rain, snow, runoff and groundwater. b) has a profound effect on the distribution of organisms. c) is lightest near the windward (the side from which the wind blows) coasts of continents. d) varies among geographic locations, with the highest annual precipitation occurring in Chile. e) occurs independently of atmospheric circulation patterns.

Answer: B

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Distinguish between weather and climate, briefly discussing regional precipitation differences.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

39. Which of the following has the most concentrated energy and highest destructive potential? a) Tornadoes b) Ice storms c) Thunderstorms d) El Niño- Southern Oscillation e) tsunamis Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

40. Subduction occurs: a) when ozone is struck by cosmic radiation. b) when one tectonic plate descends below another. c) because of the Coriolis effect. d) on the leeward side of a mountain. e) as the result of volcanic eruptions or earthquakes.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6.0 Explain how plate tectonics affect Earth's surface.

Section Reference 1: 4.6 Internal Planetary Processes

41. Volcanoes are commonly found: a) near canyons. b) where land masses on two different plates come together. c) above hot spots.

d) on land, but never beneath the ocean surface. e) in the Southern Hemisphere and only rarely in the Northern Hemisphere.

Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6.0 Explain how plate tectonics affect Earth's surface.

Section Reference 1: 4.6 Internal Planetary Processes

42. The scale typically used by seismologists to measure the magnitude of an earthquake is the: a) Richter scale. b) subduction scale. c) earthquake scale. d) moment magnitude scale. e) seismologist's earth movement indicator scale.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6.0 Explain how plate tectonics affect Earth's surface.

Section Reference 1: 4.6 Internal Planetary Processes

43. Rain shadow describes the a) silhouette of mountains as the sun passes from east to west b) shade on the ground produced by clouds that threaten rain c) darkened areas of the distant sky indicating rain is falling at a far-away location d) dry land on the side of the mountains away from the prevailing wind e) lessening of a chance of precipitation on any given day due to dry air at the equator Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Distinguish between weather and climate, briefly discussing regional precipitation differences.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

44. Which of the following does not affect ocean currents?

a) Position of the continents b) Marine organisms c) Atmospheric temperatures d) Prevailing winds e) Varying density of seawater Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Discuss the environmental conditions and factors that affect Earth's oceans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing global water flow patterns, including gyres.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 The Global Ocean

45. A Tropical Cyclone forms as: a) a mass of cool, dry air collides with warm humid air b) a sudden increase in water moves onto land c) wind picks up speed as it moves from land to water d) strong winds pick up moisture over warm waters e) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

46. Which of the following statements about the sulfur cycle is true? a) Bacteria play little or no role in the sulfur cycle. b) Most of the planet's sulfur is found in the atmosphere. c) Plants are unable to assimilate sulfate (SO42-) d) Sea spray, forest fires, and dust storms release sulfates (SO42-) into the air. e) Sedimentary rocks and erosion do not contribute to the sulfur cycle.

Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

47. During photosynthesis, plants, algae, and certain bacteria remove CO2 from the air and fix it into chemical compounds such as __________ . a) Water b) Sugar c) Salt d) Acids e) ammonia Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

48. Steps I and VII come together to complete the carbon-silicate cycle. However, two consecutive steps of this cycle are OUT OF ORDER – which two?

I. In weathering, atmospheric CO2 dissolves in rainwater to form carbonic acid (H2C03) II. Carbonic acid dissociates to form hydrogen ions (H+) as rainwater moves through soil III. Hydrogen ions enter silicate-rich minerals such as feldspar, releasing calcium ions (Ca2+) IV. Microscopic marine organisms incorporate (Ca2+) and HC03-) into their shells V. Calcium and bicarbonate ions wash into surface waters and eventually reach the ocean VI. Shells are incorporated into sedimentary rock VII. Geological uplift exposes limestone, which is eroded by weathering returning C02 to the atmosphere and water. a) II and III b) III and IV c) IV and V d) V and VI e) none, all the steps are in the correct order Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

49. Which of the following accurately represents a sequential portion of the nitrogen cycle? a) N2 in the atmosphere → ammonification → nitrification → plants b) N2 in the atmosphere → nitrification→ plants c) dead organic material → ammonification → nitrification → plants d) plant proteins → animal proteins → nitrification → N2 in the atmosphere e) animal proteins → nitrogen fixation → N2 in the atmosphere Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

50. The phosphorus cycle differs from the carbon cycle in that: a) there is little or no human impact on the phosphorus cycle. b) phosphorus is not a critical component of living organisms. c) the hydrosphere plays a role in the phosphorus cycle. d) the atmosphere does not contribute to the phosphorus cycle. e) plants play a role in the carbon cycle, but have no role in the phosphorus cycle.

Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

51. Which of the following processes is not involved in the hydrologic cycle? a) Transpiration b) Precipitation c) Evaporation d) Fixation e) Condensation Answer: D Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

52. Which of the following accurately represents a carbon source and the process that releases carbon from that source? a) Fossil fuels, respiration b) Animals, photosynthesis c) Plants, cellular respiration d) Biocarbonate, combustion e) Limestone, combustion Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

53. Many plants have evolved mutualistic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria because: a) The bacteria transform nitrogen into useful forms for the plants; the plants provide carbohydrates b) The bacteria protect the plant from harmful effects of nitrogen compounds such as ammonia; the plants provide carbohydrates for the bacteria c) The bacteria utilize nitrogen to produce energy for the plants; the plants provide the source of the nitrogen for the bacteria d) The bacteria provide natural immunities to the plants; the plants shelter the bacteria from predators e) There is not a mutualistic relationship between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and plants Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

54. Put the following surfaces in descending order from those surfaces that reflect the greatest % of sunlight hitting their surfaces to those surfaces that have the lowest albedo.

I. clouds

II. ice sheets III. forest IV. asphalt pavement a) I-II-III-IV b) II-I-IV-III c) III-I-IV-II d) IV-III-II-I e) II-IV-I-III Answer: B Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Summarize how solar energy affects Earth's climate.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 Solar Radiation Difficulty: Medium

55. If the temperature of the troposphere decreases with increasing altitude by about 6°C for every kilometer, then the temperature at the outermost edge of this layer is approximately __________ lower than at the Earth's surface. a) 0°C b) 6°C c) 60°C d) 360°C e) 600°C Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

56. Lava IS TO volcano AS tsunami IS TO a) Tornado b) Cyclone c) Firestorm d) Earthquake e) Plate boundary Answer: D

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6.0 Explain how plate tectonics affect Earth's surface.

Section Reference 1: 4.6 Internal Planetary Processes

57. Weather incorporates all of the following atmospheric conditions except: a) Atmospheric pressure b) Latitude c) Cloudiness d) Humidity e) wind Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Distinguish between weather and climate, briefly discussing regional precipitation differences.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

58. El Niño and La Niña are similar in that both events a) originate in the Atlantic Ocean b) affect weather patterns c) are predictable every year d) cause global cooling e) are associated with Christmas Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Discuss the environmental conditions and factors that affect Earth's oceans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 Define El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and La Niña, describing some of their effects.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 The Global Ocean

59. After the 2004 tsunami, the death tolls in 2 coastal Sri Lankan cities were examined.

The village with intact mangrove vegetation recorded _________ deaths, whereas the other settlement had almost ________ deaths. a) 2;6000

b) 20;6000 c) 6;2000 d) 60; 2000 e) 100;1000 Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

60. The atmosphere consists of five concentric layers. What is the order of these layers starting at the Earth's surface?

I. troposphere II. thermosphere III. mesosphere IV. stratosphere V. exosphere

a) I-II-III-IV-V b) I-IV-III-II-V c) V-II-III-I-IV d) II-III-V-IV-I e) V-IV-III-II-I Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

61. What is the relationship between locations of earthquakes and plate tectonics? a) Earthquakes frequently happen where landmasses are on the boundary between two plates. b) Earthquakes release energy as seismic waves. Energy accumulates from the push and stretch of rocks as plates move horizontally across Earth's surface. c) Earthquakes occur along faults. Fault zones are often found at plate boundaries.

d) Earthquakes are common in volcanic regions. Volcanoes are common where two plates meet. e) All of these constitute a relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics.

Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6.0 Explain how plate tectonics affect Earth's surface.

Section Reference 1: 4.6 Internal Planetary Processes

62. Weather is a term that refers to the conditions in the atmosphere on a ________ basis, whereas climate is a description of ___________weather conditions. a) Hourly or daily, average, long-term b) Permanent, temporary c) Global, local d) Stable, unstable e) Long-term, short term Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Distinguish between weather and climate, briefly discussing regional precipitation differences.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

63. Why were the mangroves cut down in the Sri Lankan village? a) Lumber b) Fossil fuel used for energy c) Export to boost their economy d) Build tourist resorts or aquaculture e) All of these choices are correct Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Contrast tornadoes and tropical cyclones.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate

64. Winds tend to blow from areas of _________atmospheric pressure to areas of _______atmospheric pressure, and the greater the difference between the high- and lowpressure areas, the _______ the wind. a) Low, high, weaker b) High, low, stronger c) Low, high, stronger d) High, low, weaker e) East, west, more continuous Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.2 Discuss the roles of solar energy and the Coriolis effect in producing atmospheric circulation.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere

65. Which of the following contributed to the high loss of life during the 2008 earthquake in Sichuan Province, China? a) Many buildings were not constructed to withstand earthquakes b) The focus of the earthquake was extremely deep in the earth’s crust, affecting the earth’s surface over a wider area c) Sichuan is near the boundary of two tectonic plates d) All of these choices are correct e) Many buildings were not constructed to withstand earthquakes and Sichuan is near the boundary of two tectonic plates Answer: E Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6.0 Explain how plate tectonics affect Earth's surface.

Section Reference 1: 4.6 Internal Planetary Processes Difficulty: Medium

66. What is the function of the TAO/TRITON array? a) To assist in the prediction of ENSO weather events b) To monitor global atmospheric CO2 concentrations c) To help map location of the Gulf Stream d) To monitor seismic activity on the seafloor e) To measure daily temperature variation

Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4.0 Discuss the environmental conditions and factors that affect Earth's oceans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 Define El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and La Niña, describing some of their effects.

Section Reference 1: 4.4 The Global Ocean

67. Which biogeochemical cycle(s) contribute(s) to eutrophication? a) The P cycle b) The C cycle c) The N cycle d) The P cycle and the N Cycle e) All of these choices are correct Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems

Question Type: Essay

70. List and briefly explain three ways in which human activities are impacting the biogeochemical cycles.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems Solution: Human activities are increasingly disturbing the balance of biogeochemical cycles. The burning of fossil fuels such as coal, oil and natural gas release CO2 into the atmosphere at a rate greater than the carbon cycle can handle. This increase of carbon dioxide may contribute to global warming which could result in a rise in sea level, changes in precipitation patterns, death of forests, extinction of organisms and problems for agriculture. In addition, humans more than doubled the amount of fixed nitrogen entering the global nitrogen cycle in the 20th century through the use of chemical fertilizers. Precipitation washes nitrogen fertilizer into rivers, lakes and coastal waters,

stimulating the growth of algae. These algae die and their decomposition by bacteria robs the water of dissolved oxygen contributing to fish kills. The nitrates from fertilizer can also leach through the soil and contaminate groundwater used by many for drinking water. Humans affect the phosphorus cycle by accelerating the long-term loss of phosphorus from the land. For example, corn grown in Iowa (which contains phosphate absorbed from the soil), fattens cattle in Illinois (some phosphate ends up in feedlot wastes), which are eaten by humans in Texas (more phosphate in human wastes ending up in sewer systems). Sewage treatment rarely removes phosphorus and thus phosphorus washes into the ocean where it remains for millions of years.

71. Discuss the major components of the hydrologic cycle and identify the processes involved in the transfer or exchange of water from one reservoir to another. In the correct context, use the following vocabulary in your discussion: watershed, transpiration, percolate, runoff, precipitation, groundwater, evaporation, and estuary. Draw a diagram incorporating these terms into the cycle.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems Solution: In the hydrologic cycle, water continuously circulates from the ocean to the atmosphere to the land and back to the ocean. Water moves from the atmosphere to the land and ocean in the form of precipitation (rain, show, sleet, or hail). Evaporation of this water from land allows water vapor to reenter the atmosphere directly. Or water may runoff into rivers, streams, lakes and wetlands. The area of land drained by runoff is a watershed. Ultimately the water from rivers and streams drains back to a coastal estuary where fresh water meets the ocean. Water, from precipitation, may also percolate downward through the soil and rock to become groundwater, fresh water stored in underground caverns and porous layers of rock. In addition, transpiration, the loss of water vapor from land plants, adds water to the atmosphere.

72. Bacteria are key participants in the sulfur and nitrogen biogeochemical cycles. Briefly describe the role of oxygen in the various bacteria's ability to process sulfur and nitrogen.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems Solution: Bacteria drive both the sulfur and nitrogen cycles. In freshwater wetlands, tidal flats, and flooded soils, which are oxygen-deficient, bacteria convert sulfates to hydrogen sulfide gas, which is released into the atmosphere. Or the bacteria convert sulfates to

metallic sulfides, which are deposited as rock. In the absence of oxygen, other bacteria perform an ancient type of photosynthesis that uses hydrogen sulfide instead of water.

Where oxygen is present, different bacteria oxidize sulfur compounds to sulfates.

Bacteria that reside in the root nodules of legume plants have the ability to convert gaseous nitrogen to ammonia. These nitrogen-fixing bacteria, including cyanobacteria and Rhizobium, employ the enzyme nitrogenase to split diatomic atmospheric nitrogen (N2) and combine the resulting single nitrogen atoms with hydrogen. Nitrogenase functions only in the absence of oxygen.

73. List four ways in which solar radiation makes life on Earth possible.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Summarize how solar energy affects Earth's climate.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 Solar Radiation Solution: The sun supports life on Earth because it warms the planet to habitable temperatures. Without the sun's energy, the temperature on Earth would approach absolute zero making all water freeze, including the ocean. The sun also powers the hydrologic cycle, carbon cycle, and is the primary determinant of climate. Plants capture the sun's energy through the process of photosynthesis, in which water and carbon dioxide are converted to carbohydrates, which fuel nearly all forms of life. Most of the fossil fuels, oil, coal, and natural gas represent solar energy captured by photosynthetic organisms.

74. Briefly discuss the role of the Earth's rotation and inclination on its axis on seasonal temperature variations.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Summarize how solar energy affects Earth's climate.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 Solar Radiation Solution: Seasons are primarily determined by Earth's inclination on its axis. Earth's inclination on its axis is 23.5 degrees from a line drawn perpendicular to the orbital plane.

From March 21 – September 22 the Northern Hemisphere tilts toward the sun for the spring and summer seasons, and during the other half (September 22 – March 21), the Northern Hemisphere tilts away from the sun for fall and winter. The orientation of the Southern Hemisphere and thus its seasons are just the opposite at these times.

75. Define “rain shadow” and explain why deserts form in the rain shadows of mountains.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5.0 Describe various weather and climate conditions that occur on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Distinguish between weather and climate, briefly discussing regional precipitation differences.

Section Reference 1: 4.5 Weather and Climate Solution: The dry land on the side of a mountain, away from the prevailing wind, is a rain shadow. Rain shadows are formed because mountains force air to rise and remove moisture from humid air. The air cools as it rises, clouds form, and precipitation occurs.

As the air mass moves down the other side of the mountain, it is warmed, thereby lessening the chance of precipitation of any remaining moisture. Deserts, characterized by lesser precipitation, tend to form in this rain shadow of mountains.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 5

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed in The Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection (1859) written by: a) G. F. Gause b) Rachel Carson c) Ponce de Leon d) Charles Darwin e) Aristotle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Define evolution.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

2. Individuals within a population each have a unique combination of traits due to: a) overproduction. b) evolution. c) genetic variation. d) differential reproductive success. e) natural selection.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Explain the four premises of evolution by natural selection as proposed by Charles Darwin.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

3. The mechanism of natural selection involves all of the following except: a) overproduction within a species. b) limits on population growth.

c) genetic variation. d) differential reproductive success. e) a stable community structure.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Explain the four premises of evolution by natural selection as proposed by Charles Darwin.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

4. Which of the following characteristics would easily identify a prokaryotic organism? a) lack a nuclear envelope and other internal cell membranes. b) able to photosynthesize c) multicellular d) ingest food and then digest it within their bodies e) only found in oxygen-deficient environments Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Identify the three domains and six kingdoms of living organisms.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

5. Which of the following characteristics is used to identify members of the Kingdom Animalia? a) lack a nuclear envelope and other internal cell membranes. b) use radiant energy to synthesize organic molecules c) ingest food and digest it internally d) secrete digestive enzymes into their food and then absorb the pre-digested nutrients e) locomotion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Identify the three domains and six kingdoms of living organisms.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

6. Symbiosis is the result of coevolution. Coevolution is the result of the interdependent evolution of: a) two interacting species b) similar organisms whose members freely interbreed in the wild c) a single species producing more offspring than will survive d) species that lack a nuclear membrane and other internal cell membranes e) two individuals within a single species Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.4 Define symbiosis.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

7. Which of the following is an area where primary succession is likely to occur? a) a sand dune along a lakeshore b) an area that has been clear-cut c) an area that was recently burned d) an abandoned field e) an area cleared by a tornado Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 Community Development

8. Which of the following organisms would be members of a pioneer community on bare rock? a) grass b) lichens c) herbs d) moss e) trees Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 Community Development

9. Which of the following represents the sequence of primary succession on a sand dune? a) lichens → mosses → grasses → shrubs → trees b) crabgrass → weeds → oak trees → pine trees c) crabgrass → horseweed → weeds → pine trees → hardwood trees d) grasses → shrubs → poplars → pine trees → oak trees e) grasses → shrubs → pine trees → poplars → hardwood trees Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 Community Development

10. Secondary succession: a) leads to a stable, persistent community. b) reaches completion in about 15 years. c) occurs in areas lacking vegetation where soil is present. d) typically begins with lichens. e) would occur on a sand dune.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 Community Development

11. Keystone species: a) are only found in aquatic habitats. b) are always found at the top of the food chain. c) are usually not the most abundant species in the ecosystem. d) are vital to the soil balance of an entire ecosystem. e) are typically symbiotic.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.7 Define keystone species and discuss the wolf as a keystone species.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

12. The aquatic community of Lake Victoria: a) has been stable for the past 200 years. b) includes approximately 400 species of cichlids. c) has been markedly altered by the introduction of an invasive species, the Nile perch. d) has been altered by decreased nutrient input due to changes in the terrestrial habitat surrounding the lake. e) continues to support extensive local fisheries featuring a wide diversity of species.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Give several examples of ecosystem services.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

13. The interdependent evolution of two interacting species is known as: a) natural selection. b) ecology. c) coevolution. d) mutualism. e) herbivory.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

14. An organism's role, or lifestyle, within the structure of an ecosystem is its: a) habitat. b) trophic level. c) symbiotic relationship. d) ecological niche. e) limiting resource.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

15. An ecological description of a species typically includes: a) whether it is a producer, consumer, or decomposer b) the kinds of symbiotic associations it forms c) whether it is a predator and/or prey d) what species it competes with e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

16. Which of the following characterizes a symbiotic relationship? a) a close interrelationship where both species benefit b) a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected c) a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is adversely affected d) an intimate relationship between members of two or more species e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.4 Define symbiosis.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

17. Mycorrhizae help plants: a) to absorb water. b) to convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates. c) to repel insects. d) to resist disease organisms. e) to absorb essential nutrient minerals.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.4 Define symbiosis.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

18. In a parasitic relationship where the host contracts a disease and sometimes dies, the parasite is called a(n): a) predator. b) keystone species. c) mutualistic symbiont. d) interspecific competitor. e) pathogen.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

19. Predation can be defined as:

a) two or more individuals attempting to use an essential common resource. b) one organism consuming another organism, which may be a plant or animal. c) organisms living together. d) a relationship where one organism benefits and the other is adversely affected. e) a relationship that only exerts selective (evolutionary) force on the prey.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

20. Competition occurs when: a) one organism, the predator, attempts to consume another , the prey. b) two species in different habitats have similar niches. c) two or more species attempt to use an essential common resource. d) two or more species have an ecological relationship. e) symbiotic organisms interact.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.2 Define competition.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

21. All of the following are examples of mutualism except: a) reef-building corals and zooxanthellae. b) nitrogen-fixing bacteria and legumes. c) trees and epiphytes. d) flowers and bees. e) mycorrhizae.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

22. The relationship between silverfish and army ants is an example of: a) parasitism. b) mutualism. c) commensalism. d) competitive exclusion. e) predation.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

23. The relationship between a tick and a dog is an example of: a) parasitism. b) mutualism. c) commensalism. d) an epiphytic organism and its host. e) predation.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

24. Which of the following is an adaptation of flowers resulting from the coevolution of plants and pollinators? a) mycorrhizae b) nectar

c) epiphytes d) nitrogen fixing bacteria e) zooxanthellae Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

25. An anglerfish possesses a luminescent lure close to its mouth to attract prey. This is an example of what type of predator behavior? a) symbiosis b) competition c) pursuit d) ambush e) warning coloration Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

26. Which of the following statements is true? a) Predation only favors the predator, leading to evolution of more efficient ways to catch prey. b) Predation only favors the prey, leading to evolution of more efficient ways to escape predators. c) Predation exerts a selective force on the prey, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of capture. d) Predation exerts a selective force on the predator, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of prey capture. e) Predation has no evolutionary consequences for either the predator or the prey.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

27. Which of the following is not an adaptation to improve the efficiency of prey capture? a) ambush b) warning coloration c) camouflage d) pursuit speed e) intelligence Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

28. All of the following traits are characteristic of predators except: a) having a large brain size in relationship to body mass. b) speed. c) camouflage. d) assembling in packs or other types of animal groups. e) having spines or other mechanical defensive devices.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

29. Which of the following traits is not a defense used by plants against herbivores?

a) assembling in groups b) toxins c) spines or thorns d) thick wax layer e) noxious chemicals Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

30. All of the following traits are characteristic of the adaptations of prey except: a) having a large brain size in comparison to body mass. b) having the appearance of twigs or leaves. c) warning coloration. d) assembling in herds, schools, or other types of animal groups. e) producing toxins.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

31. The realized niche for the green anole differs from its fundamental niche because of: a) competition. b) symbiosis. c) disease. d) coevolution. e) unlimited food supply.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

33. Which of the following terms encompasses all of the other terms? a) parasitism b) symbiosis c) commensalism d) mutualism e) co-evolution Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

35. Resource partitioning can be accomplished through all of the following except: a) selection of different varieties of prey. b) changing the time of day during which a particular species is active. c) changing the season during which a given species is present in a given habitat. d) increasing niche overlap. e) selection of different nesting sites.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.3 Relate the concepts of competitive exclusion and resource partitioning.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

37. The number of species in a community can depend on: a) the geological history of the region.

b) the productivity of the ecosystem. c) the abundance of ecological niches. d) the stability of the ecosystem. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe factors associated with high species richness.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

38. The reason(s) that tropical regions of the world have such high biodiversity is: a) because they are geologically stable. b) because they have a high productivity. c) because there are many ecological niches. d) All of these choices are correct e) None of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe factors associated with high species richness.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

39. Which of the following does not correctly pair the ecosystem with a service it provides? a) forests – absorb carbon dioxide b) coasts – provide a buffer against storms c) grasslands – dilute and remove pollutants d) freshwater systems – moderate water flow e) sustainable agriculture systems – produce and maintain soil Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Give several examples of ecosystem services.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

40. Which of the following is not a source of human impact on Lake Victoria? a) introduction of an invasive aquatic plant b) introduction of an invasive aquatic predator c) nutrient enrichment d) thermal stratification e) deforestation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe factors associated with high species richness.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

41. If each breeding pair of elephants produces 6 offspring during a 90-year life span, in 750 years, a single pair of elephants will have given rise to a population of 19 million elephants. Yet elephants have not overrun the planet. WHY? a) Elephants have a niche that expands with the population b) Elephants produce more offspring than will survive to maturity c) Most elephants are kept in captivity (circus & zoo) and not allowed to reproduce d) Individual elephants in a population exhibit no variation, reducing their reproductive success e) Elephants have become geographically separated into separate species that cannot interbreed Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Explain the four premises of evolution by natural selection as proposed by Charles Darwin.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

42. Which of the following is an example of coevolution? a) plants and carnivores b) fig trees and insect-eating birds c) sea urchins and orcas d) flowering plants and their pollinators e) None of these choices is correct

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

43. Because of their large size and aggressive nature, European Starlings have displaced Bluebirds from their nests in many areas of North America. This is an example of: a) Commensalism b) Parasitism c) Mutualism d) Predation e) Competition Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

44. The relationship exemplified by bees consuming nectar and carrying pollen from one flower to another is known as: a) Commensalism b) Parasitism c) Mutualism d) Predation e) Competition Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

45. Which of the following best illustrates the process of evolution? a) A lizard’s color becomes brown as it sits on a log b) A bear goes into hibernation c) A plant loses its leaves in a drought d) A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide e) A population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Define evolution.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

46. Which of the following is the best example of primary succession? a) a forest develops on abandoned farmland b) a forest develops on the edge of a retreating glacier c) a forest develops in the area of a forest fire d) a forest develops in the area of a devastating flood e) a forest develops on the site of a logging operation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 Community Development

48. In order for a parasite to be successful, it must a) live outside its host’s body b) live inside its host’s body c) do no harm to the host organism d) kill the host organism e) keep its host alive Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

50. The ability of a community to withstand environmental disturbances (community stability) is a consequence of: a) geographic size of community b) power of keystone species c) species richness d) species poverty e) sheer luck Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.2 Give several examples of ecosystem services.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

51. The potential ecological niche of an organism is its _______, while the niche an organism actually occupies is its ________. a) realized niche; fundamental niche b) fundamental niche; realized niche c) kinetic niche; latent niche d) genuine niche; probable niche e) competitive niche; passive niche Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

52. Which of the following is an area where primary succession would occur?

a) recently formed volcanic lava b) a clear-cut area c) an abandoned field d) an area cleared by a tornado Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.5 Community Development

53. Which of the following is a keystone species in U.S. temperate forests? a) deer b) white pine c) gray wolves d) lichen e) rabbit Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.7 Define keystone species and discuss the wolf as a keystone species.

Section Reference : 5.3 Biological Communities

54. What is the transitional zone where two or more communities meet? a) edge effect b) ecotone c) resource partition d) keystone habitat e) competitive exclusion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4.0 Discuss the importance of species richness in a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4.1 Describe factors associated with high species richness.

Section Reference 1: 5.4 Species Richness in a Community

55. Which term defines competition between species? a) commensalism b) intraspecific competition c) predation d) competitive exclusion e) interspecific competition Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.2 Define competition.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

56. Small plants attaching to the bark of larger trees benefit from the position on the tree, receiving necessary water and sunlight while giving the tree neither help nor harm. This is an example of… a) environmental stressors b) Mycorrhizae c) habitat fragmentation d) commensalism e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

57. What are the three kinds of symbiosis? a) warning colors, mutualism, and cannibalism b) mutualism, parasitism, and commensalism c) competition, predation, and coevolution d) epiphytes, prokaryotes, and eukaryotes e) none of these choices is correct

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

58. Green anoles were forced out of their established habitat of trees, plants, walls and fences by invasive brown anoles. The green anoles then had to find new habitats in wetlands and tree crowns. This example illustrates the concepts of: a) competition b) fundamental niche c) realized niche d) parasitism e) both competition and realized niche Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

59. Which of the follow statements of why the Yellowstone wolf was declared an ‘experimental nonessential’ species in the area is true?

1) The ESA forbids killing an endangered species 2) There wasn’t enough demand to keep the wolves on the endangered species list 3) Farmers and ranchers wanted the right to kill wolves to defend their livestock 4) Defenders of Wildlife didn’t believe the wolves were endangered any longer a) b) c) d) e)

1 2 3 4 1 and 3

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.7 Define keystone species and discuss the wolf as a keystone species.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities

60. How did the discovery of genetic mutation contribute to the modern synthesis of evolution? a) It explained patterns of inheritance b) It demonstrated the true structure of DNA c) It provided a mechanism by which genetic variation could be generated d) It showed why reproductive success can vary among individuals e) It illustrated that many more young are produced than can survive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Define evolution.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time

61. Which of the following statements about population ecology is true? a) Population ecology only deals with declining populations that are in need of intervention in order to survive. b) Population ecology focuses on individuals and their interactions, but not the abiotic environment. c) Population ecology attempts to explain how and why the number of individuals changes over time. d) Population ecology is not important to scientists in applied disciplines, such as wildlife management. e) Population ecology deals with organisms in nature, but cannot be applied to the study of human populations.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Define population, explaining the four factors that produce changes in population size.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

62. Population density is: a) the total number of individuals. b) the total number of individuals of a given species. c) the total number of individuals per unit of area. d) the total number of individuals of a given species per unit of area. e) the total number of individuals of a given species per unit of area at a given time.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Define population, explaining the four factors that produce changes in population size.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

63. The maximum number of individuals of a given species that a particular environment can support for an indefinite period, assuming there are no changes in the environment is called its a) environmental resistance b) intrinsic rate of increase c) carrying capacity d) sustainability e) demography Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

64. The movement of individuals out of a population is: a) natural increase. b) emigration. c) immigration. d) dispersal. e) carrying capacity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Define population, explaining the four factors that produce changes in population size.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

65. Which of the following organisms would be predicted to have the lowest intrinsic rate of increase? a) bacteria b) cats c) cockroaches d) mice e) whales Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

66. Populations that are growing at their intrinsic rate of increase: a) exhibit logistic growth. b) exhibit exponential growth. c) double in size every year. d) mutate rapidly. e) have no impact on their environment.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

67. Limits set by a surrounding environment on reproduction are called a) biotic potential. b) environmental resistance. c) natural increase. d) demographics. e) doubling time.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

68. Which of the following feature is typical of K-selected species? a) early maturity b) small body size c) do not produce a large number of offspring d) short life span e) no parental care invested in the offspring Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

69. Humans exhibit:

a) Type I survivorship b) Type II survivorship c) Type III survivorship d) Type I survivorship in early life and type II in mid-life. e) Type IV survivorship Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Define survivorship and describe type I, type II, and type III survivorship curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

70. In Type II survivorship: a) the probability of survival decreases with age. b) the probability of survival increases with age. c) the probability of survival doesn't change with age. d) the male dies more frequently than females. e) the female dies more frequently than males.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Define survivorship and describe type I, type II, and type III survivorship curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

71. Which of the following is true for Type III survivorship? a) The probability of survival decreases with age. b) The probability of survival increases with age. c) It is characteristic of redwood trees. d) It is characteristic of humans. e) It is characteristic of adult gulls.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.4 Define survivorship and describe type I, type II, and type III survivorship curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

72. Which of the following species is characterized by a boom-or-bust cycle? a) whales b) Paramecium c) reindeer d) lemmings e) humans Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

73. All of the following are examples of a density-independent factor affecting population growth EXCEPT: a) fire. b) blizzard. c) hurricane. d) food availability. e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

74. A dieback or population crash often occurs after a species ________ its environmental carrying capacity.

a) meets b) undershoots c) overshoots d) oscillates around e) reduces Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

75. Factors that limit growth and produce population equilibrium are known as a) predation conflicts b) diebacks c) biotic potential d) environmental resistance e) fertility factors Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

76. Density-independent factors that regulate population include all of the following EXCEPT: a) drought b) severe storms c) supply of food d) fire in a grassland biome e) extreme cold, or moderate cold at an especially critical time of year Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

77. In the real world, many factors determine the numbers of organisms in any one population. Yet a SUPERFLY population with unlimited food and no mortality would show what types of growth? a) exponential b) logistic c) linear d) Malthusian e) unpredictable Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.2 Use intrinsic rate of increase, exponential population growth, and carrying capacity to explain the differences between J-shaped and S-shaped growth curves.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

78. Which of the following equations accurately represents population growth? a) r = (b – d) + (i – e) b) r = (b + d) - (i + e) c) r = (b – d) ÷ (i – e) d) r = (b + d) ÷ (i + e) e) None of these Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Define population, explaining the four factors that produce changes in population size.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

79. Which of the following scenarios is (are) likely to lead to creation of a metapopulation? The type of organism is listed first, followed by the change to its habitat.

1) Forest bird species; Large sections of a forest are cleared to construct residential subdivisions 2) Grassland small mammal species; Large areas of grassland are cleared and plowed for agriculture 3) River fish species; An industrial chemical spill causes a massive fish kill on the river a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1 and 2 e) All of the scenarios are likely to lead to a metapopulation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.6 Distinguish between source and sink habitats.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

80. Which of the following populations would have a growth rate of zero? a) b= 100, d=50. i=0, e=100 b) b= 100, d=50. i=50, e=100 c) b= 100, d=50. i=75, e=100 d) b= 100, d=50. i=100, e=100 e) b= 100, d=50. i=150, e=100 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.1 Define population, explaining the four factors that produce changes in population size.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

81. All of the following are characteristics of an r-selected population EXCEPT: a) It has a high intrinsic rate of growth.

b) The onset of reproduction is at an early age. c) There is extensive parental care of offspring d) It is likely to occur in variable environments e) There are many offspring per reproductive event.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

82. Features that are typical of r-selected species include all of the following except: a) late reproduction. b) small body size. c) early maturity. d) short life span. e) large broods Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

83. Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor affecting population growth? a) disease b) the salinity of the soil c) the amount of rainfall d) temperature range e) hurricane Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

84. Which of these is not an example of a density-dependent factor affecting population growth? a) competition b) disease c) climate d) accumulation of body wastes e) None of these choices, all are examples of density-dependent factors Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology

Question Type: Essay

85. What are the basic requirements for natural selection?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Explain the four premises of evolution by natural selection as proposed by Charles Darwin.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time Solution: Evolution by natural selection consists of four observations. Each species produces more offspring than will survive to maturity. Those individuals that are most fit for a particular environment will survive. Each individual in a population exhibits variation. These variations improve the chances of an individual’s survival and reproductive success. Organisms will compete with one another for the limited resources available to them. Those individuals that possess the most favorable combination of characteristics will survive and pass their genes on to the next generation. The bestadapted individuals reproduce most successfully.

86. Define keystone species and discuss an example of an organism that is a keystone species.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.7 Define keystone species and discuss the wolf as a keystone species.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: A keystone species is vital in determining the nature and structure of an entire ecosystem. The keystone species is often a predator, which exerts a profound influence on a community in excess of that expected by its relative abundance. Keystone species are usually not the most abundant species in the ecosystem. One example is the fig tree in a rainforest ecosystem. The fig tree is important in sustaining fruit-eating vertebrates.

While a supplemental fruit normally, during the time of year when other fruits are less plentiful, the fig trees sustain the fruit-eating vertebrates such as the monkeys, birds, and bats. Another keystone species in a different ecosystem is the gray wolf. The gray wolf is a top predator. If it were eliminated from the ecosystem, the population of deer and other herbivores would increase exhibiting grazing pressure and a loss of vegetation. That loss would result in shortfall of habitat and food for smaller animals and insects, thus decreasing the biodiversity of the ecosystem.

87. Define coevolution and list three examples.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: Coevolution is the interdependent evolution of two interacting species. Several examples are seen in the way flowering plants have evolved ways to attract animal pollinators. Bee-pollinated flowers contain nectar the bees use to make honey. The hairy bodies of bees catch and hold the flower’s sticky pollen for transport from one flower to another. Some orchid species have evolved to imitate the female of a wasp species to encourage mating by the male and thus the transfer of the pollen. Another example of coevolution is the shape of the long curved beaks of Hawaiian honeycreepers that allow the birds to insert their beaks into tubular flowers to obtain nectar.

88. Define symbiosis. Identify and briefly describe three different types of symbiotic relationships.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.4 Define symbiosis.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: Symbiosis is the intimate relationship between members of two or more species that has resulted from coevolution. Symbiotic associations fall into three categories.

Mutualism is a symbiotic relationship in which both partners benefit. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in nodules in the roots of legumes and supply plants with useable nitrogen.

In turn, the plants supply sugar to the bacteria. Commensalism is a type of symbiosis in which one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed nor helped. For example epiphytes such as mosses and ferns attach to the bark of tree for support and adequate light. The tree is unaffected and the epiphyte has a prime location. Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is adversely affected.

Tapeworms live in the digestive tract of mammals and obtain nutrients directly from the animal. The animal becomes nutritionally deficient and the parasite thrives and reproduces.

89. Describe two plant defenses against herbivores.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: The presence of spines, thorns, tough leathery leaves and thick wax discourage foraging herbivores from grazing on plants. Other plants may produce toxic, unpalatable chemicals to discourage foraging herbivores.

90. Compare and contrast the following terms: warning coloration and camouflage. Give examples of each.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: Warning coloration causes animals to stand out from their surroundings. The coloration prompts avoidance by experienced predators due to the toxic nature of the prey. Examples of animals with warning coloration include the striped skunk and South American poison arrow frog. Camouflage allows animals to blend into their surrounding to hide from predators. Certain caterpillars resemble twigs so closely, you would never guess they are animals until they move.

91. List and describe three animal prey defenses against predators.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: When confronted by a predator, animals have many defensive adaptations.

Woodchucks flee into their underground burrows. Porcupines and turtles have mechanical defenses, barbed quills and hard shells. Some animals live in groups for protection. This social behavior decreases the likelihood of a predator catching one of them. The South American poison arrow frog has poison glands in its skin and bright warning coloration. Other animals use camouflage to blend into their surroundings to hide from predators.

92. Compare and contrast the following terms: intraspecific competition and interspecific competition.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.3 Relate the concepts of competitive exclusion and resource partitioning.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: Competition occurs when two or more individuals attempt to use essential common resources such as food, water, shelter, living space, or sunlight. Intraspecific

competition occurs among individuals within a population while interspecific competition occurs between different species.

93. Define ecological niche and explain the role of limiting resources in the determination of an organism's ecological niche.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: Every organism is thought to have its own role, or ecological niche, within the structure and function of an ecosystem. An ecological niche is basically determined by all of a species’ structural, physiological, and behavioral adaptations. Any resource at a suboptimal level relative to an organism’s need for it or at a level in excess of an organism’s tolerance for it is a limiting resource. The resources can include mineral content of soil, extremes of temperature, and amount of precipitation. The limiting resources can affect part of an organism’s life cycle. For example, the ring-necked pheasant was introduced in North American but didn’t survive in the southern United States because the eggs can’t develop properly in the warm southern temperatures.

94. Draw a flow diagram of an old field undergoing succession. What type of succession is this?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5.0 Define ecological succession, comparing and contrasting primary and secondary succession.

Section Reference 1: 5.6 Energy and Climate Change: Polar Bears Solution: The change in an old field over the years is an example of secondary succession. First year after cultivation ceases, crabgrass dominates ->second year, horseweed ->third year, other weeds such as broomsedge, ragweed, aster ->years 5-15, pines -> oaks and other hardwoods

95. Explain the circumstances under which a prey organism would have coloration that would make it more visible to a predator. Include three specific examples of organisms that use this strategy.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.6 Define predation, describing the effects of natural selection on predator-prey relationships.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: If a prey has a chemical defense such as a poison, toxin, or acrid spray, then it can afford to have a bright warning coloration that would caution experienced predators to avoid it. For example the white stripe on a black skunk is very recognizable and associated with acrid chemicals sprayed from its anal glands. The poison arrow frog is brightly colored and has poison glands in its skin. Likewise some poisonous snakes have bright coloration.

96. Discuss the relationship between symbiosis and parasitism and between parasite and pathogen. Include at least three specific examples in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.5 Distinguish among mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is adversely affected. Although parasites, such as ticks and tapeworms, may weaken their host, they rarely kill it. When a parasite causes disease and sometimes the death of a host, it is a pathogen. Crown gall disease, caused by a bacterium, weakens plants sufficiently that they often succumb to other pathogens.

98. The Norway rat and the black rat were both introduced to this country from Europe.

The Norway rat is found only in cities and inhabits most cities in the U.S. The black rat can live in cities and rural areas but in New Jersey is ONLY found in rural areas. Some cities in New Jersey, which previously had only black rats, now have only Norway rats.

Discuss this phenomenon in terms of competitive exclusion, resource partitioning and limiting resources.

Answer:.

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3.0 Describe how organisms interact within a biological community.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.3.1 Describe the factors that contribute to an organism’s ecological niche.

Section Reference 1: 5.3 Biological Communities Solution: No two species can indefinitely occupy the same niche in the same community because competitive exclusion eventually occurs. Interspecific competition for limiting resources will result in the competitive exclusion of one of the species. In this particular case, the black rat was driven from the cities through competition of resources with the Norway rat. The two species of rats do not show evidence of resource partitioning that would allow the rats to coexist in the same habitat. Instead the black rat has confined its habitat to the rural areas while the Norway rat has taken over city existence

99. Discuss the six-kingdom system of classification. Include a list of the six kingdoms, characteristics used in classifying members of each kingdom, and the strengths and weaknesses of this classification system. Suggest changes or improvements to the sixkingdom system that would address the weakness(es) that you identified in this classification system.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Identify the three domains and six kingdoms of living organisms.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time Solution: The current taxonomy for living things includes six basic kingdoms: Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. The Archaebacteria and Eubacteria are both characterized by prokaryotic cell structure (no nuclear envelope or other internal cell membranes). The distinctions between the bacterial kingdoms is that archaebacteria frequently live in oxygen-deficient environments and are often adapted to harsh conditions including hot springs, salt ponds, and hydrothermal vents. The thousands of remaining kinds of bacteria are collectively called Eubacteria. The remaining 4 kingdoms are characterized by eukaryotic cell structure (defined nucleus, membrane bound cell organelles). Unicellular or relatively simple multicellular eukaryotes, such as algae, protozoa, slime molds, and water molds are classified as members of the kingdom Protista. Fungi secrete digestive enzymes into their food and then absorb the predigested nutrients. Plantae use chlorophyll found in chloroplasts to manufacture food by photosynthesis. Animals ingest their food, then digest it inside their bodies.

The strength of this classification system is the clear delineation of prokaryotes and eukaryotes and the use of types of nutrition to distinguish between Fungi, Plant, and Animal. The weakness of the system is in the Kingdom Protista. It contains organisms that are plant-like(have chloroplasts), animal-like (no cell wall) and fungi-like (molds).

One possible remedy to this weakness might be that the Kingdom Protista could be dismantled and algae put in the plant kingdom, protozoa in the animal and molds in the fungi.

100. What is the modern synthesis, and how has it broadened our understanding of evolution by natural selection?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1.0 Explain how natural selection results in evolution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Define evolution.

Section Reference 1: 5.1 Evolution: How Populations Change Over Time Solution: The modern synthesis refers to the bringing together of breakthroughs in many areas of biology beginning in the 1930’s and 1940’s and continuing to the present, that provided a clearer understanding of the mechanism by which natural selection operates.

This was important because although Darwin had established the pattern of natural selection, he did not know the details of the process by which it operated. Breakthroughs in genetics were very important to this, showing how the genetic variation which selection needs to operate was generated by mutation. If these mutations lead to changes beneficial to an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce, they will persist and become more frequent in the population over time; if changes due to mutation are not beneficial, they will not persist. Other areas of study that contributed to the modern synthesis include biogeography, molecular biology, the fossil record, and comparative anatomy.

101. Compare and contrast density-dependent and density-independent factors that affect population size. Include two examples of each type of factor.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2.0 Analyze the various factors that cause changes in populations over time.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.2.3 Distinguish between density-dependent and densityindependent factors that affect population size and give examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 5.2 Principles of Population Ecology Solution: Certain natural mechanisms influence population size. Factors that affect population size fall into two categories. A density-dependent factor is an environment factor whose effects on a population change as the population concentration changes.

Predation, disease, and competition are examples of density-dependent factors. For example, the more crowded the population, the more likely members of a population encounter one another frequently transmitting infectious diseases. As population density increases, so does competition for resources such as living space, food, water and sunlight. Density-independent factors are typically abiotic. These are factors that affect the size of a population but are not influenced by changes in population density. Random weather events such as blizzard, hurricane, tsunami, that reduce population size are examples of density-independent factors.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 6

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Wildfires: a) are not always damaging for natural environments. b) release nutrient minerals that were locked in dry organic material. c) can have an increased negative effect from the efforts to prevent them d) are increasing due to climate change e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.2 Identify at least one human effect on each of the biomes discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

2. Which of the following is characteristic of desert animals? a) They tend to be quite large in size. b) They remain inactive during the driest months of the year. c) They are active throughout the day and night. d) Rodents are the only group of mammals represented in this biome. e) Amphibians and reptiles are absent.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

3. Chaparral biomes occur: a) only in the immediate area surrounding the Mediterranean Sea. b) in regions with low levels of annual precipitation.

c) in areas with very fertile soil and a deep topsoil layer. d) in areas where fires are almost nonexistent. e) in regions around the globe with mild, rainy winters, followed by hot, dry summers.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

4. Which of the following organizational hierarchies is correctly listed from smallest to largest unit? a) ecosystem → population → community → biome b) biome → community → population → ecosystem c) community → population → ecosystem → biome d) population → community → ecosystem → biome e) ecosystem → biome → community → population Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

5. A relatively distinct terrestrial region characterized by similar environmental factors regardless of where it occurs in the world is called a/an: a) biome. b) community. c) ecosystem. d) habitat. e) population.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

6. Tundra a) has an extended day length during its growing season. b) has nutrient-rich soils. c) is characterized by heavy precipitation. d) experiences very long winters and long summers. e) occurs in extreme southern latitudes.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

7. The biological community that characterizes the arctic tundra is composed of: a) migrating herbivores, small mammals, and predatory birds. b) large trees. c) mosses, lichens, and dwarf woody plants. d) diverse amphibians and reptiles. e) migrating herbivores, small mammals, predatory birds, mosses, lichens, and dwarf woody plants Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

8. The biome most suitable for the development of farmland is: a) taiga. b) tropical rain forest c) temperate grassland. d) chaparral. e) tundra.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Difficulty: Easy

9. The boreal forest: a) has numerous ponds and lakes formed by grinding ice sheets. b) has warm winters c) has a layer of permafrost. d) cannot support amphibians or reptiles. e) is well suited for conversion to agriculture.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

10. The boreal forest is located ______ of the tundra. a) north b) south c) east d) west e) in conjunction Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

11. The biome with high amounts of precipitation, large narrow-leaved evergreen trees, and epiphytes including lichens is the:

a) taiga. b) temperate deciduous forest. c) tropical rain forest. d) boreal forest. e) temperate rain forest.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

12. Hot summers and cold winters, topsoil rich in organic material, annual precipitation of 75 to 125 cm (30-50 in), and many hardwood trees are characteristics of the: a) temperate deciduous forest. b) temperate grassland. c) temperate rain forest. d) boreal forest. e) chaparral.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.3 Explain the similarities and the changes in vegetation observed with increasing elevation and increasing latitude.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

13. Tallgrass prairies do not occur in which of the following states? a) Iowa b) Kansas c) Minnesota d) Florida e) Illinois Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

14. Shortgrass prairies: a) are moist grasslands with rich soil b) are very similar to desserts c) have drought resistant grasses d) have helpful wildfires e) are moist grasslands with rich soil and have helpful wildfires Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

15. The Tallgrass Prairie is currently the rarest biome in North America due to: a) rampant urbanization b) recent climate change c) industrial pollution d) conversion to agriculture e) industrial pollution and the conversion to agriculture Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.2 Identify at least one human effect on each of the biomes discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

16. Which of the following biomes has the highest biodiversity? a) temperate deciduous forest b) savanna c) taiga d) tropical rain forest e) tropical desert

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

17. Transpiration is the most important source of precipitation for which biome? a) tropical rain forest b) savanna c) tundra d) chaparral e) tropical desert Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

18. Tropical rain forests: a) are typically composed of at least five distinct layers, or stories, of vegetation. b) are found in areas with high accumulations of organic material in the soil. c) occur in areas with ancient, mineral-poor soil. d) are known for being only moderately productive. e) are known for having moderate levels of biodiversity.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

19. Soil in deserts:

a) is high in mineral content. b) is high in organic material. c) often contains large amounts of humus. d) supports extensive vegetation. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

20. In temperate lakes, falling temperatures in autumn may cause a mixing of the water layers called: a) thermocline. b) turnover. c) benthos. d) thermal stratification. e) blooms.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

21. Free-floating aquatic organisms are known as: a) benthos. b) nekton. c) pelagic inhabitants. d) zooxanthellae. e) plankton.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

22. Flowing-water ecosystems, especially headwater streams, receive most of their energy from: a) light. b) water. c) wind. d) organic detritus. e) minerals.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

23. The shallow-water area along the shore of a lake or pond is called the __________ zone: a) limnetic b) littoral c) profundal d) headwater e) intertidal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

24. Which of the following organisms are representative of the limnetic zone? a) phytoplankton and zooplankton b) frogs and their tadpoles c) cattails and other emergent vegetation d) worms, insect larvae, and crayfish e) All of these choices are correct Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

25. The deepest zone in a large lake, below where the sunlight penetrates, is the: a) limnetic zone. b) littoral zone. c) profundal zone. d) benthic zone. e) intertidal zone.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

26. A coastal body of water partly surrounded by land with input from both sea and fresh water is called: a) the limnetic zone. b) an estuary. c) a freshwater wetland. d) the oceanic province. e) a reef.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

27. Coral reefs: a) may occur as barrier, fringing, or atoll formations. b) protect coastlines from erosion.

c) are found in shallow, nutrient poor, tropical waters. d) are the most diverse of all marine environments. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

28. The thermocline is the layer in a lake at which a) pollutants are trapped and held b) the warm upper zone meets the cold lower zone c) nutrient levels are the lowest d) light no longer penetrates enough for photosynthesis to occur e) the oxygen level is the lowest Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

29. Deciduous forests a) have very little precipitation b) have very week topsoil c) have trees that shed their leaves seasonally d) are not useful commercially e) are not found in the US Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

30. What are the two problems that override all other problems in the Everglades today? a) The Everglades receives too little water, and the water it receives is polluted with nutrient minerals from agricultural runoff b) The Everglades has too many foreign species crowding out natives, and as a National Park cannot expand in size. c) The Everglades receives too much water, and the water it receives comes in destructive floods due to breeches in the levee system. d) Urban growth and expansion of agriculture into the southernmost areas are responsible for loss of biodiversity in the area. e) The Everglades depends on the Florida aquifer for clean, fresh water, however that water is being diverted to golf courses and the aquifer is running dry.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.3 Identify at least one human effect on each of the aquatic ecosystems discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

31. Which of the following does not apply to the tundra biome? a) few species are found b) harsh winters and short summers c) the biome is dominated by mosses, lichens, sedges and grasses d) no permafrost e) tundra plants seldom grow taller than 30 cm (12 in) Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

32. All of the following apply to the tundra biome except: a) abundant average precipitation of 75 to 125 cm (30 to 50 in) per year b) permafrost c) nutrient-poor soils d) little organic matter e) long, harsh winters and short cool summers

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

33. The biomes that commonly have fire-adapted species are: a) temperate grassland, savanna, and boreal forest. b) desert, temperate grassland, and savanna. c) temperate grassland, savanna, and tundra. d) chaparral, temperate grassland, and savanna. e) temperate grassland, chaparral, and temperate deciduous forest.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

34. Which of the following is not a biome? a) boreal forest b) desert c) mangrove forest d) savanna e) tundra Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

35. Which of the following biomes is not known for its wood and lumber production?

a) temperate rain forest b) taiga c) chaparral d) temperate deciduous forest e) tropical rain forest Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

36. All of the following are fire-adapted except: a) African savannas b) jack and ponderosa pines c) most hardwood trees d) bur oak e) California chaparrals Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

37. The dominant vegetation of the temperate rain forest includes all of the following except: a) western hemlock. b) Douglas fir. c) western red cedar. d) hickory. e) Sitka spruce.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.3 Explain the similarities and the changes in vegetation observed with increasing elevation and increasing latitude.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

38. Which of the following abiotic factors does not typically affect biome structure? a) elevation b) wildfires c) droughts d) salinity e) floods Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

39. The biomes known for supporting herds of grazing animals are: a) temperate grassland and temperate deciduous forest. b) temperate grassland and savanna. c) temperate deciduous forest and boreal forest. d) boreal forest and temperate grassland. e) savanna and tropical rain forest.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

40. Which of the following does not apply to a biome? a) level of ecological organization above ecosystem b) boundaries are determined by climate barriers c) near poles temperature overrides climate d) usually confined to a relatively small geographical area e) in tropical and temperate regions precipitation is more significant then temperature

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

41. Which of the following statements about desert inhabitants is not true? a) Both annual and perennial plants live in the desert. b) Desert animals typically have adaptations for conserving water, but plants require no special adaptations. c) Many desert plants are protected from predation by thorns and toxins. d) Desert animals are typically small and nocturnal. e) All of these choices are true Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

42. Which of the following is not a major component of desert animal life? a) insects b) reptiles c) amphibians d) owls e) rodents Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

43. Which of the following characterizes both the savanna and the chaparral?

a) periodic fires b) extensive stands of trees c) large herds of herbivorous mammals d) soils with high mineral content e) moist summers and dry winters Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

44. Which of the following is not important in determining the distribution of organisms in aquatic biomes? a) light penetration b) mineral nutrient concentrations c) water d) salinity e) waves and currents Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

45. Which of the following does not apply to headwater flowing streams? a) small streams b) usually highly oxygenated c) shallow and swift flowing d) cold e) cloudy due to suspended particles Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

46. Which of the following does not apply to the profundal zone of a large lake? a) no light penetration b) it is the deepest zone c) effective recycling of minerals d) lacks oxygen (anaerobic) e) a mineral-rich zone Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

47. Which of the following does not apply to freshwater wetlands? a) anaerobic conditions b) accumulate organic material c) water-tolerant vegetation d) increase potential for flooding e) help to purify groundwater Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

48. Which of the following is not found at the boundary between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems? a) estuary b) oceanic province c) mangrove forest d) salt marsh

e) intertidal zone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

49. Ecosystem services supported by the estuarine environment include all of the following except: a) biological habitat. b) trapping pollution. c) groundwater supply. d) storm buffering. e) marinas.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

50. What do inhabitants of the rocky intertidal zone not do to protect themselves? a) follow tides in and out b) use an anchor or some other means of attachment. c) seal in moisture with a closing shell or other adaptations d) hide under rocks e) none of these choices is correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

51. Which of the following would not be found exclusively in the benthic environment? a) seagrass beds

b) coral reefs c) oysters, clams, and barnacles d) kelp forests e) nekton Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

52. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? a) coral reefs – zooxanthellae b) seagrasses – estuaries (mangroves) c) kelps – large brown algae d) benthic environment – mud or sand e) euphotic zone – photosynthesis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

53. Which of the following is not a source of human impact on the marine environment? a) coastal development, both residential and industrial b) global warming c) trash d) increased levels of O2 e) chemical pollution from pesticides, heavy metals, and synthetic chemicals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.3 Identify at least one human effect on each of the aquatic ecosystems discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

56. Which biome is mismatched with the statement that follows it? a) Tropical rain forest - plants grow in layers: canopy, understory b) Tundra: most fragile biome on this planet c) Boreal forest: well suited for agriculture because of short growing season and mineralpoor soil d) Tropical grassland: trees and grasses have fire-adapted features such as extensive underground root systems. e) Desert: plant cover is sparse and soil is low in organic material but high in mineral content Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

57. Humid tropical rain forests have extraordinary biological diversity a) because of the abundance of nutrient minerals in tropical soils b) due to human intervention in planting rare and endangered species c) because of the many pollinators that also call the tropical rain forest home d) due to local factors, such as varying soil fertility and topography e) because the plants capture a lot of energy by photosynthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

58. Which of the following human impacts is mismatched with the detrimental effect it has had on a biome? a) Oil and natural gas exploration: long-lasting injury due to slow regeneration of the tundra b) Mining, drilling for gas and oil, and farming: loss of boreal forest (deforestation) c) Overharvesting of old-growth forest: loss of temperate rain forest habitat for endangered and threatened species

d) Off-road vehicle damage and military exercises: erosion and loss of vegetation in the desert e) Hunting and fishing: desertification of the savanna, tropical grasslands Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.2 Identify at least one human effect on each of the biomes discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes

59. Wetlands are important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a) They support high species diversity. b) They reduce flooding by slowing the velocity of runoff water. c) They help recharge groundwater aquifers. d) They contribute to asymmetry in urban communities. e) They sometimes detoxify substances in the water.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

60. National Marine Sanctuaries include a) kelp forests off the coast of California b) coral reefs in the Florida Keys c) fishing grounds along the continental shelf d) deep submarine canyons e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

61. The benthic environment includes all of the following except

a) the bathyal zone b) the ocean floor from the intertidal zone to the deep ocean trenches c) the abyssal zone d) the bendal e) the hadal zone Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

62. Humans harm the oceans in all of the following ways EXCEPT a) Developing along the coast b) Polluting the land c) Recycling d) Killing marine life with trash e) With chemicals from the agriculture and industry Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.3 Identify at least one human effect on each of the aquatic ecosystems discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

63. Which of the following can be found in kelp forests? a) crabs b) tube worms c) sea cucumbers d) sea otters e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

64. The most fundamental division in aquatic ecology is a) salinity b) sunlight c) estuaries d) biomes e) differences in sea life Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems

65. Increases in temperature lead to coral bleaching because: a) warmer temperatures cause the coral exoskeleton to break down b) the stressed coral polyps lose their zooxanthellae c) the stressed coral polyps are unable to acquire enough food d) the warmer water is too turbid to allow light to penetrate down to the depth of the reef e) the stressed coral polyps lose their zooxanthellae and the stressed coral polyps are unable to acquire enough food Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3.0 Explain the connection between ocean warming and coral bleaching.

Section Reference 1: 6.3 Energy and Climate Change: Dissolved Oxygen in the Ocean

Question Type: Essay

66. Compare and contrast the alpine tundra and the arctic tundra.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Solution: Both the alpine tundra and the arctic tundra are characterized by treeless, boggy plains covered by lichens and small plants. Both have areas of permanently frozen ground (permafrost) and little precipitation. The tundras have low species richness and low primary productivity and are extremely fragile areas. Alpine tundra is located in the higher elevations of mountains, above the tree line. Arctic tundra is located in the extreme northern latitudes wherever the snow melts seasonally.

67. Provide characteristics of desert and tropical rain forest biomes. Compare and contrast the adaptations and types of animals found in deserts to those found in tropical rain forests.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Solution: A desert biome is characterized by low precipitation and daily temperature extremes of heat and cold. Desert plants tend to have reduced leaves or no leaves, an adaptation that conserves water. Other desert plants shed their leaves for most of the year, growing only during the brief moist season. Many desert plants (cactus) have spines, thorns, or toxins to resist the heavy grazing pressure often experienced in food- and water- deficient environments. Desert animals tend to be small and burrow or remain inactive during the heat of the day. A tropical rain forest biome is characterized by high precipitation and dense vegetation. The trees of tropical rain forests are typically evergreen flowering plants with shallow roots to catch and absorb nutrient minerals released from leaf litter by the decay process. Another adaptation of plants in the rain forest is epiphytic communities of ferns, mosses, orchids, and bromeliads. These plants obtain moisture from the air and use host trees primarily for support. Because little light penetrates the understory of the rain forest, plants are adapted to climb already established host trees rather than invest their resources in building the cellulose tissues of their own trunks. Rainforest animals are diverse and have specialized to consume fruit (parrots), or nectar (hummingbirds).

68. Wetlands and estuaries are highly productive and provide enough food to support a variety of organisms. a) Define an estuary and provide three reasons why estuaries are among the most fertile ecosystems in the world. b) Discuss TWO roles that coastal wetlands play that are ecologically important.

c) Identify and explain TWO ways in which humans have had a negative impact on estuaries and wetlands.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.1 Summarize the important environmental factors that affect aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems Solution: a) An estuary is a coastal body of water, partly surrounded by land, with access to the open ocean and a large supply of fresh water from a river. The high productivity of the estuary can be attributed to the nutrients that are transported from the land into rivers that flow into the estuary. Tidal action promotes a rapid circulation of nutrients and helps remove waste products. Also, a high level of light penetrates the shallow water promoting photosynthesis of aquatic plants. The presence of many plants provides an extensive photosynthetic carpet and mechanically traps detritus, forming the base of a detritus food web. b) Wetlands serve two very important roles. Wetlands are valued as wildlife habitat for migratory waterfowl and beavers, otters, muskrats, and game fishes. Wetlands provide natural flood control because they’re holding areas for excess water when rivers flood their banks. Wetlands serve as ground water recharging areas. They cleanse water by trapping and holding pollutants in the flooded soil. c) At one time wetlands were considered wastelands, areas to fill in or drain so farms, housing developments or industrial plants could be built. While wetlands have some legal protection, they are still threatened by agriculture, pollution, dam construction, and urban and suburban development. Polluted water empties into the wetlands that contain nitrogen from agricultural runoff, sewage treatment plants, and motor vehicles. Other human impacts include loss of habitat, overfishing, and sedimentation (the settling of soil particles that enter the water.)

69. Discuss the symbiotic relationship that reef building coral have with zooxanthellae.

Define coral bleaching and discuss possible causes for this development and the ecological impact of this process.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.3 Identify at least one human effect on each of the aquatic ecosystems discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems Solution: Zooxanthellae are algae that live and photosynthesize in the tissues of some coral animals. The coral animals obtain food from the zooxanthellae that live inside them.

The zooxanthellae have the protection of the calcium carbonate remains of the coral

reefs. Since the late 1980’s, coral in the tropical Atlantic and Pacific have suffered extensive bleaching, in which stressed corals expel their zooxanthellae. Environmental stressors such as warmer seawater temperatures, pollution and coral diseases are all potential causes of coral bleaching. Loss of coral reefs means loss of marine habitat for many organisms and loss of protection of coastlines from shoreline erosion.

70. The ocean is so vast it is hard to visualize human activities could harm it. However, the evidence of human impact is unmistakable. Discuss this evidence of marine ecosystem destruction coupled with recommendations from the 2004 report by the U.S. Commission on Ocean Policy for improving the situation.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.3 Identify at least one human effect on each of the aquatic ecosystems discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems Solution: Development of resorts, cities, industries, and agriculture along coasts alters or destroys many coastal ecosystems. Marine ecosystems receive pollution from land, from rivers and from atmospheric contaminants that enter the ocean via precipitation. Millions of tons of trash, including plastic and fishing nets entangle and kill marine organisms, less visible contaminants from fertilizers, pesticides and human sewage contaminate shellfish and other seafood posing an increasing threat to public health. Offshore mining and oil drilling activities pollute and millions of ships dump oily ballast overboard.

Scientists, economists, fishermen, and other experts have verified the seriousness of ocean problems. In 2004, a report was made by the U.S. Commission on Ocean Policy that outlined the following recommendations: 1) Create a new ocean policy to improve decision-making by consolidating federal ocean programs under the umbrella of NOAA. 2) Strengthen science and generate information for decision-makers so that resources can be concentrated where they are needed.

3) Enhance ocean education to instill citizens with a stewardship ethic to avoid a continuation of current destructive actions.

71. The major biomes are distributed as the result of two primary abiotic factors. Identify the two factors and briefly discuss how they influence the distribution of biome types.

Include two specific biomes and their distribution in your discussion. Outline and explain the ecological basis for the following statement: “Hiking up a mountain is similar to traveling toward the North Pole.”

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.3 Explain the similarities and the changes in vegetation observed with increasing elevation and increasing latitude.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Solution: Temperature and water availability are the two primary abiotic factors that influence the distribution of biome types. For example, the tundra is in such a cold clime that permafrost limits root penetration, excluding most woody plants and creating a distinctive tundra flora. On the other hand, the high rainfall and warm climate of the tropical rain forest leads to a constant warm, wet environment. This facilitates rapid breakdown of organic matter by decomposers, making nutrients available to plants extremely quickly and allowing accumulation of high levels of plant biomass on nutrientpoor soils. When hiking up a mountain, temperature decreases, and precipitation eventually changes from rain to snow given sufficient elevational gradient. Thus plants and animals that would normally be encountered at cool, high latitudes are present at much lower latitudes because of the cool temperatures present at high elevations.

73. Identify five abiotic factors that play a role in determining species composition in aquatic ecosystems. Briefly explain the importance of each to aquatic ecosystems and what role, if any, each factor plays in terrestrial biomes.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.1 Define biome, briefly describing the nine major terrestrial biomes.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Solution: Temperature, salinity, light, pH, and presence or absence of waves and currents are abiotic factors that play a role in determining species composition in aquatic ecosystems. Temperature is less important in watery environments because the water itself tends to moderate temperature. However in terrestrial biomes, temperature and precipitation are the major determinant of plant and animal inhabitants. Salinity, the concentration of dissolved salts and ability of light to penetrate to a depth in the water affects the kinds of organisms present in aquatic ecosystems. While light penetration is significant in some terrestrial biomes, such as the tropical rain forest with canopy cover, it is an ever-present element in other biomes such as the desert.

74. Compare and contrast the zonation and ecology of freshwater lakes and the ocean.

Identify relevant processes, and incorporate specific examples where appropriate using the following terminology: littoral, limnetic, profundal, intertidal, benthic, pelagic, neritic province, oceanic province Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2.0 Compare and contrast Earth's aquatic ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.2.2 Briefly describe the eight aquatic ecosystems.

Section Reference 1: 6.2 Aquatic Ecosystems Solution: In a standing-water ecosystem, such as a lake, the littoral zone is a shallowwater area along the shore. Emergent vegetation, such as cattails, and animals such as frogs, turtles and crustaceans live here. While there is no wave action, these organisms spend some time in the water and some time out of the water. Similarly in a marine ecosystem, such as the ocean, that shallow-water area along the shore is the intertidal zone. Animals and plants in this zone also spend some time in water and out. However these organisms must also deal with wave action. They usually have a means of anchorage when immersed during high tides and a way of sealing in water, perhaps by closing a shell during low tides when exposed to air. For example, rockweed (Fucus) has a gummy coat, which dries out slowly, and a flexible body not easily broken by wave action.

In a freshwater lake, the limnetic zone is the open water beyond the littoral zone extending down as far as sunlight penetrates to permit photosynthesis. The main organisms of this zone are microscopic phytophankton and zooplankton and larger fishes.

Likewise in the ocean the benthic zone extends from the intertidal zone to the deep ocean trenches, encompassing seagrass beds, kelp forests, and coral reefs.

The deepest zone of a lake is the profundal zone where light does not penetrate effectively and plants and algae do not live. The profundal zone is both mineral-rich and anaerobic. In a marine ecosystem, the pelagic zone (ocean water) is subdivided into the neritic province that overlies the ocean floor from the shoreline to a depth of 200m and includes all of the floaters or swimmers in the clearest open ocean where sufficient light penetrates for photosynthesis and the oceanic province (deep sea) which overlies the ocean floor at depths greater than 200m. Most organisms of the deep waters depend on marine snow, organic debris that drifts down from upper regions.

75. How is climate change currently affecting the earth’s ecosystems? Include examples from at least two different geographic regions in your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.2 Identify at least one human effect on each of the biomes discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Solution: Recent increases in the earth’s temperature have led to changes all across the planet. In the western United States, climate change has been linked to an increase in wildfire frequency, as warmer spring and summer temperatures have caused snowmelt to occur earlier in the year, resulting in drier ecosystems during the wildfire season. In the arctic tundra, melting permafrost has allowed conifers to replace tundra vegetation, resulting in lower reflectivity (albedo) of the earth’s surface, leading to further warming (positive feedback). Climate change has also caused plants and animals to migrate north

to follow temperature preferences; for montane species that already occupy cooler, high elevations, no further migration is possible, threatening these organisms with extinction.

In the oceans, climate change has been implicated in coral die-offs (bleaching), and creation of oxygen-depleted zones (dead zones).

76. How would you argue against the following statement made during the zoning board hearings in your local community? “Deserts are barren, hot and dry wastelands. My proposed housing development, including off-road vehicle recreation areas, will replace this scorching, arid, harsh environment with a revenue-generating complex that will benefit the entire community.”

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1.0 Compare and contrast Earth's major biomes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.1.2 Identify at least one human effect on each of the biomes discussed.

Section Reference 1: 6.1 Earth's Major Biomes Solution: Plant cover may be sparse in the desert due to low precipitation, however many unique plants populate American deserts such as cacti, yuccas, Joshua trees, and sagebrushes. Likewise, while you might not encounter too many animals during the heat of the day, desert-adapted insects, amphibians, mammals, and reptiles inhabit this ecosystem and come out in the cool of the evening to forge. Off-road vehicles damage desert vegetation and inflict environmental damage that takes years to recover. When the top layer of desert soil is disturbed, erosion occurs more readily, and less vegetation grows to support native animals. Houses built in deserts require vast quantities of water, which is imported from distant areas. Increased groundwater consumption by many desert cities has caused groundwater levels to drop, contributing to aquifer depletion. The revenue-generating complex will be an environmental-depleting development.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 7

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following action(s) may unintentionally contribute to outbreaks of infectious disease? a) global travel b) social factors c) disruption of natural environments d) crowding of people in cities e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

2. The body mass index (BMI) is used to determine the health status of your weight for a person of your height. Imagine you have a BMI of 35.7. Doctors would diagnose you as: a) malnourished. b) underweight. c) healthy weight. d) overweight. e) obese.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

3. Acute toxicity: a) is only caused by synthetic chemicals. b) is poorly understood by toxicologists. c) may mimic symptoms of chronic diseases. d) produces an effect within a short period of a single exposure. e) always results in death.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.1 Define toxicant, distinguishing between acute and chronic toxicities.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

4. Endocrine disrupters: a) do not include DDT b) only affect the reproductive capability of females c) affect the reproduction of fishes, birds, reptiles and mammals d) only affect the reproduction of humans e) are still often used in the US Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.2 Briefly describe some of the data suggesting that certain chemicals used by humans may also function as endocrine disrupters in animals, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

5. Pollutants that interfere with the normal functioning of hormones are called: a) radioisotopes. b) synergists. c) stimulants. d) endocrine disrupters. e) carcinogens.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.2 Briefly describe some of the data suggesting that certain chemicals used by humans may also function as endocrine disrupters in animals, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

6. The _________ and __________ were amended in response to the need to test chemicals for their potential to disrupt the endocrine system. a) Endangered Species Act and Fishery Act b) Food Quality Protection Act and Safe Drinking Water Act c) 2002 Conservation Act and 2005 Management Act d) Assessment of Risk Act and Human Protection Act e) Food and Drug Administration Act and Environmental Protection Act Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.2 Briefly describe some of the data suggesting that certain chemicals used by humans may also function as endocrine disrupters in animals, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

7. The large number of children being driven to school rather than walking has led to which of the following: a) Increased fossil fuel burning by vehicles b) A decrease in the child’s exercise c) Reduced interaction of children with their environment d) Increased risk of childhood obesity e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

8. All of the following are true of red tides EXCEPT: a) they are caused by certain species of harmful algae that grow in large concentrations b) they frequently cause the water to appear orange red or brown c) they produce toxins that attack the nervous system of some sea life d) observed in association with phases of the moon e) no one knows what triggers them Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4.0 Explain ecotoxicology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.4.2 Define ecotoxicology, explaining why knowledge of ecotoxicology is essential to human well-being.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 Ecotoxicology: Toxicant Effects on Communities and Ecosystems

9. The three leading causes of death in the United States today are cardiovascular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and: a) pneumonia. b) cancer. c) influenza. d) tuberculosis. e) diarrhea.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

10. What has prevented polio from becoming eradicated on a global basis? a) knowledge of what causes polio b) the development of an effective polio vaccine c) public fear and suspicion of the safety of the polio vaccine d) availability of the polio vaccine to developing countries e) global suspension of the polio vaccine

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

11.Two indicators of human health in a given country are a) BMI and life expectancy b) mortality rate and BMI c) emerging diseases vs. reemerging diseases d) health care and mortality rate e) infant mortality and life expectancy Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

12. Emerging diseases are a) infectious diseases that were not previously found in humans and typically jump from an animal host to humans. b) infectious diseases that existed in the past but for a variety of reasons are increasing in incidence. c) infectious diseases that were previously found in humans and typically jump from a human host to animals. d) non-infectious diseases that have transformed into infectious diseases. e) hidden diseases that are finally being detected through technology.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.2 Explain the difference between endemic and emerging diseases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

13. A dose that is represented as LD50 is a dose that a) is administered to 50% of the population. b) causes 50% of a population to exhibit whatever response is under study. c) has a threshold response of 50%. d) kills half of the population of test animals. e) has an acceptable risk level of 50%.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

14. A lethal dose of a toxicant may vary depending on all of the following EXCEPT: a) organism’s age b) organism’s geographic location c) organism’s sex d) organism’s metabolism e) organism’s genetic makeup Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

15. The National Institute of Environmental Health Science has identified several hundred environmental susceptibility genes. These genes a) affect how the body metabolizes toxicants, making toxicants more or less toxic. b) provide complete protection from environmental pollution.

c) allow adults to produce enzymes necessary to eat unprocessed food with no ill effects. d) cause weaknesses in the immune system. e) influence a person’s preference for outdoor activities.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

16. The study of contaminants in the biosphere, including their harmful effects on ecosystems is termed: a) Agrobiology. b) Physiology. c) Ecotoxicology. d) Archaeology e) Cytology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4.0 Explain ecotoxicology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.4.2 Define ecotoxicology, explaining why knowledge of ecotoxicology is essential to human well-being.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 Ecotoxicology: Toxicant Effects on Communities and Ecosystems

17. A carcinogen is a a) type of microorganism associated with human sewage. b) cancer-causing chemical, radiation, or virus. c) vehicle that requires no gasoline to operate. d) phytochemical (a protective plant compound that promotes health). e) computer chip.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.1 Define toxicant, distinguishing between acute and chronic toxicities.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

18. Chemicals that are not readily broken down into less toxic forms are said to exhibit: a) persistence. b) bioaccumulation. c) biological magnification. d) genetic resistance. e) short-term effects.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.1 Summarize the problems associated with chemicals that exhibit persistence, bioaccumulation, and biological magnification in the environment.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

19. The build up of pesticides in an organism's body is termed: a) persistence. b) bioaccumulation. c) biological magnification. d) biological amplification e) the pesticide treadmill.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.1 Summarize the problems associated with chemicals that exhibit persistence, bioaccumulation, and biological magnification in the environment.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

20. When a chemical mixture has a greater combined effect than expected it is a _________ chemical mixture. a) synergistic b) additive

c) compounding d) unrealistic e) antagonistic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

21. An antagonistic interaction in a chemical mixture results in: a) the expected effect given. b) a greater combined effect than expected. c) a smaller combined effect than expected given d) no chemical reaction. e) variable results depending on the chemicals present.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

22. Cancer potency is: a) an estimate of the expected increase in cancer associated with a unit increase in exposure to a chemical b) an estimate of the expected increase in cancer associated with a unit decrease in exposure to a chemical c) an estimate of the expected decrease in cancer associated with a unit decrease in exposure to a chemical d) an estimate of the expected decrease in cancer associated with a unit increase in exposure to a chemical Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.2 Explain how risk assessment helps determine adverse health effects.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

23. Which of the following is a true statement about cost-benefit analysis?

1) helps decision makers formulate environmental legislation.

2) balances estimated costs with potential environmental benefits.

3) is never used in issues involving human health and safety.

4) is really only applicable in the field of economics. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Explain how risk information can improve environmental decisions.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

24. If you measured the LD50 for a particular chemical, you would know: a) that the chemical is safe for human use. b) how much it takes to kill 50 rats. c) what dose is lethal to 50% of a population of test animals. d) the chemical properties of the given chemical. e) the effective dose for humans.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

25. All of the following are true statements about nanotechnology EXCEPT:

a) It enables glass to be produced that is heat-resistant up to 1,000˚ C b) The burden of proof about product safety will fall on the EPA c) It can assist doctors in identifying cancer cells d) The FDA will have to oversee regulation of nanotechnology with potential health and safety risks e) It includes devices designed on the scale of individual atoms Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Explain how risk information can improve environmental decisions.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

26. Which of the following is an endocrine disrupter? a) CFCs b) mercury c) ozone d) carbon dioxide e) acid rain Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.2 Briefly describe some of the data suggesting that certain chemicals used by humans may also function as endocrine disrupters in animals, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

27. Which of the following is not a leading cause of death in children of developing countries? a) malaria b) malnourishment c) lower respiratory tract infections d) diarrheal diseases e) None of these choices is correct Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

28. The factors that account for the differences in health and health care between highly developed and developing nations include all of the following EXCEPT: a) access to immunization services for children. b) adequate nutrition for normal growth and development. c) average number of children a mother has d) average life expectancy. e) money available for health care.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

29. All of the following are main factors involved in emergence or reemergence of infectious disease EXCEPT: a) A growing population of elderly people who are more susceptible to infection b) Urbanization, associated with overcrowding and poor sanitation c) The depletion of antibiotics d) Growth in international travel and commerce e) None of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.2 Explain the difference between endemic and emerging diseases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health

30. Which of the following statements is false? a) A dose-response curve shows the effect of different doses on a population. b) Doses lower than the threshold level will have no measurable effect on organisms. c) The smaller the LD50, the more toxic the chemical. d) A dose-response curve is a graph illustrating the inverse relationship between LD50 and the acute toxicity of a chemical. e) The threshold level for a dose-response is the minimum dose with a measurable effect.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

31. Which of the following associations between children, adults, and pesticides is correct? a) children are more susceptible to pesticides because they weigh substantially less than adults. b) lethal doses of pesticides are larger for children than for adults. c) children are more sensitive to pesticides than adults because adults have built up immunity to the pesticide chemicals. d) children have more stringent pesticide regulations to protect their health than do adults. e) pesticides commonly affect development of height and reproductive organs in young children but commonly cause brain cancer and leukemia in adults.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.3 Discuss pesticide risks to children.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

32. DDT was sprayed in a Long Island salt marsh over a period of years for mosquito control. A portion of the food web is as follows: Algae -> shrimp-> American eel -> Atlantic needlefish -> ring-billed gull In which organism would biological magnification be greatest? a) Algae

b) shrimp c) American eel d) Atlantic needlefish e) ring-billed gull Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.1 Summarize the problems associated with chemicals that exhibit persistence, bioaccumulation, and biological magnification in the environment.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

35. A "dose-response curve" shows: a) the dose of a given chemical that is lethal to 50% of the population. b) the dose of a given chemical that causes 50% of a population to exhibit a response. c) the correct dose to use in the treatment of illness. d) the dose that will be harmful to the environment. e) the effect of different doses on a population of test organisms.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

40. The study of organisms in the biosphere, including their harmful effects on ecosystems is known as a) environmental toxicology b) Ecotoxicology c) Biotoxicology d) Epidemiology e) Environmental toxicology and ecotoxicology Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4.0 Explain ecotoxicology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.4.2 Define ecotoxicology, explaining why knowledge of ecotoxicology is essential to human well-being.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 Ecotoxicology: Toxicant Effects on Communities and Ecosystems

41. Which of the following statements about carcinogens is false? a) Cancer was traditionally the only disease evaluated in the chemical risk assessment of environmental contaminants. b) Rats and mice often respond differently to the same toxicant. c) It is assumed that one can extrapolate from doses and cancer rates in rats to determine human cancer rates. d) The body often handles very small doses of carcinogens the same way as large doses. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.1 Define toxicant, distinguishing between acute and chronic toxicities.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution

42. Risk analysis is a tool used to organize how we think about complex environmental systems. When we think about risk from a systems perspective we can decide whether it’s most effective to: a) change out activities to avoid particular risks b) limit the extent to which the hazard can come in to contact with us c) limit the extent to which the hazard can harm us d) provide some sort of offset or compensation for being harmed by the hazard e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.2 Explain how risk assessment helps determine adverse health effects.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

43. Risk assessment involves all of the following except:

a) financial costs of the predicted risk. b) identification of the hazard. c) dose-response assessment. d) assessment of the exposure. e) characterization of the risk.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.2 Explain how risk assessment helps determine adverse health effects.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

44. What environmental catastrophe was largely responsible for replacement of the dilution paradigm by the boomerang paradigm? a) the effect of the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill in Alaska on birds b) the effect of the 1980 chemical spill in Lake Apopka on alligators c) an increase in surface temperatures in the Bay of Bengal increasing risk of cholera d) the accumulation of the pesticide DDT in birds at the top of the food web e) massive wildfires destroying habitat of endangered species Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4.0 Explain ecotoxicology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.4.1 Discuss how the discovery of the effects of DDT on birds led to the replacement of the dilution paradigm with the boomerang paradigm.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 Ecotoxicology: Toxicant Effects on Communities and Ecosystems

45. The infant mortality rate in a developing country is most likely to be: a) the same as in a highly developed country b) lower than in a highly developed country c) higher than in a highly developed country d) unrelated to life expectancy in a developing country e) impossible to determine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health 46. “The solution to pollution is dilution” was a generally accepted pattern of the past.

Today virtually all environmental scientists have rejected the dilution paradigm in favor of: a) the “now you see it, now you don’t” paradigm: what you throw away, stays away b) the boomerang paradigm: what you throw away can come back and hurt you c) the chemical paradigm: all chemicals that are thrown away transform naturally into biodegradable elements d) the awareness paradigm: there is no connection between pollution and health to cause concern e) the marine paradigm: what you throw away down the storm drain goes to the ocean, the best receptacle for pollution Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4.0 Explain ecotoxicology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.4.1 Discuss how the discovery of the effects of DDT on birds led to the replacement of the dilution paradigm with the boomerang paradigm.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 Ecotoxicology: Toxicant Effects on Communities and Ecosystems

47. Environmental contaminants are linked to ALL of the following serious diseases EXCEPT: a) cancer. b) birth defects. c) reproductive problems. d) malaria. e) damage to the nervous system.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.1 Summarize the problems associated with chemicals that exhibit persistence, bioaccumulation, and biological magnification in the environment.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease

48. If a chemical with a toxicity level of 1 is mixed with a different chemical with a toxicity level of 1, the combined effect of exposure to the mixture is 2. This is an example of: a) Chemical mixtures interacting by amplification. b) Chemical mixtures interacting by antagonism. c) Chemical mixtures interacting by squaring. d) Chemical mixtures interacting by synergy. e) Chemical mixtures interacting by additivity.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution 49. “An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.” This statement is the heart of the a) remedial principle. b) exposure principle c) persistence principle. d) precautionary principle. e) security principle.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Explain how risk information can improve environmental decisions.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

50. Which of the following issues does not fall within the realm of Ecotoxicology? a) Intercellular molecular interactions b) Loss of species richness c) The relationship between the number of species and their roles in the ecosystem d) Global climate change

e) Effects of contaminants on population size Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4.0 Explain ecotoxicology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.4.2 Define ecotoxicology, explaining why knowledge of ecotoxicology is essential to human well-being.

Section Reference 1: 7.4 Ecotoxicology: Toxicant Effects on Communities and Ecosystems

Question Type: Essay

51. Define acute toxicity. How is this different from chronic toxicity?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.1 Define toxicant, distinguishing between acute and chronic toxicities.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution Solution: Acute toxicity is the adverse effect that occurs within a short period of time after exposure to a toxicant. This can range from dizziness and nausea to death and occurs immediately to within several days following a single exposure. This is different from chronic toxicity in which adverse effects occur after a long period of exposure to a toxicant. Chronic toxicity generally produces damage to vital organs, such as the kidneys or liver following long term, low-level exposure to chemicals.

52. How do health care professionals define obesity? Identify two health risks associated with obesity.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health Solution: Obesity is defined by calculating the body mass index. To calculate the BMI, multiply your weight by 740, then divided that number by your height in inches, squared.

If this number is over 30 you are considered obese. Stroke, heart disease, kidney failure and type 2 diabetes are health risks related to obesity.

53. Discuss the pesticide risks to human health, including short-term effects of exposure to high levels, long-term effects of exposure to low levels, the risks to children, and the role of pesticides as endocrine disrupters.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.1 Define toxicant, distinguishing between acute and chronic toxicities.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution Solution: Pesticide products, such as pest strips, bait boxes, bug bombs, flea collars, pesticide pet shampoos, aerosols, liquids, and dusts contain ingredients (toxicants) that pose risks to human health. The effects of exposure to these toxicants can be immediate (acute toxicity) or prolonged (chronic toxicity). Short-term effects of exposure to high levels of toxicants can result in dizziness and nausea or even death and occurs immediately to within several days following a single exposure. Long-term effects of exposure to low levels of toxicants can result in damage to vital organs, such as the kidneys or liver Children are more susceptible to toxicants because they weigh less than adults and play on floors and lawns where they are exposed to greater concentrations of pesticide residues. Children may also be more sensitive to pesticides because their bodies are still developing. There is also concern about the ingestion by children of pesticide residues on food. Exposure to pesticides may alter the development of intelligence and motor skills of young children. Some pesticides, such as DDT, mimic or interfere with the actions of the endocrine system in humans and other animals. Thus the pesticide acts as an endocrine disrupter, which can alter reproductive development in males and females.

54. Compare and contrast bioaccumulation and biological magnification.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2.0 Describe both the environmental and health impacts of chemicals on our environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.2.1 Summarize the problems associated with chemicals that exhibit persistence, bioaccumulation, and biological magnification in the environment.

Section Reference 1: 7.2 Environmental Pollution and Disease Solution: When a pesticide is not broken down or excreted by an organism, it is simply stored, usually in fatty tissues. Over time, the buildup of a pesticide in an organism's body concentrates. This is termed bioaccumulation. Organisms at higher levels on food webs tend to have greater bioaccumulated pesticide stored in their bodies than those

lower on food webs. Biological magnification is the increased pesticide levels in bodies of animals as one goes up the food chain.

55. Compare and contrast the following terms: risk assessment and risk management.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.2 Explain how risk assessment helps determine adverse health effects.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks Solution: Risk assessment involves using statistical methods to quantify the risks of a particular action so they can be compared and contrasted with other risks. Once a risk assessment has been conducted, the results are evaluated with relevant political, social, and economic considerations to determine whether the risk should be reduced or eliminated. This evaluation, which includes the development and implementation of laws to regulate hazardous substances, is known as risk management.

56. Briefly explain what a dose-response curve is and how it is applied in determining the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution Solution: A dose-response curve is a graph that shows the effect of different doses on a population of test organisms. The threshold level, the maximum dose with no measurable effect (or alternatively, the minimum dose with a measurable effect) is established. It is assumed that doses lower than the threshold level are safe.

57. What is the precautionary principle? Identify one way in which this principle has created international controversy.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Explain how risk information can improve environmental decisions.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks

Solution: The precautionary principle is the policy that no action should be taken if there is any reason to think harm might be caused. At the international level, several European countries made the precautionary decision to ban beef from the U.S. and Canada because these countries use growth hormones to make cattle grow faster. Europeans contend the growth hormone might harm humans eating the beef. The ban effectively protects their own beef industry as the decision was made without the input of scientific evidence.

Another international controversy in which the precautionary principle is involved is the introduction of genetically modified foods.

58. Briefly explain the term ecological risk assessment. Identify one environmental problem being addressed by an ecological risk assessment.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5.0 Describe risk assessment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Explain how risk information can improve environmental decisions.

Section Reference 1: 7.5 Decision Making and Uncertainty: Assessment of Risks Solution: An ecological risk assessment (ERA) attempts to evaluate ecosystem health by estimating exposure to potential stressors, and how those stressors may negatively affect the ecosystem. The ERA involves hazard identification, dose-response assessment, exposure assessment, and risk characterization. The effects may occur on a wide scale, from individual plants or animals in a local area to ecological communities across a large region. One problem being addressed by an ecological risk assessment is the cumulative effects of many stressors on the Yellow River delta in China. The delta includes eight distinct ecosystems, including freshwater, marine and terrestrial habitats. Some of the stressors to this system include water diversions for irrigation, oil spills, drought and flooding. A recent ERA identified ecosystems under greatest threat from these stressors, assisting managers in prioritizing efforts on reducing ecological risks in the delta.

59. Compare and contrast LD50 and ED50. How are these values used to evaluate and/or regulate chemical pollutants?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3.0 Identify how environmental pollution affects the health of humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.3.2 Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine the health effects of environmental pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 7.3 Determining Heath Effects of Environmental Pollution Solution: LD50 is the dose of a toxicant that is lethal to 50% of a population of test animals. There is an inverse relationship between the LD50 and the acute toxicity of a chemical. The LD50 is determined for all new synthetic chemicals as a way of estimating their toxic potential. A chemical with a low LD50 for several species of test animals is

assumed toxic for humans. ED50 causes 50% of a population to exhibit whatever response is under study. ED50 is used for a wide range of biological responses, such as stunted development in the offspring of pregnant animals, reduced enzyme activity, or the onset of hair loss.

60. There is good news and bad news regarding the health and well-being of people in developing countries. Discuss two improving health issues for people in developing countries and two serious health risks.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.1 Contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health Solution: Gradual improvements in sanitation and drinking water supplies have reduced the incidence of diarrheal diseases such as cholera. Mass immunization programs have eliminated small pox and reduced the risk of polio. However, health risks include emerging diseases such as HIV/AIDS and re-emerging diseases such as tuberculosis.

61. What are re-emerging diseases, and why do they occur?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1.0 Compare and contrast health issues in highly developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.1.2 Explain the difference between endemic and emerging diseases.

Section Reference 1: 7.1 Human Health Solution: Re-emerging diseases are infectious diseases that existed in the past, but are now increasing in incidence or geographic range. Diseases may re-emerge because of socioeconomic factors, other emergent public health issues, or because they have been improperly treated in the past. Socioeconomic issues such as urban poverty can lead to disease re-emergence by creating unsanitary conditions and decreased access to proper health care, factors conducive to disease outbreak. Recently, the prevalence of HIV/AIDS has facilitated the re-emergence of certain diseases, by creating populations of people with weakened immune systems that are unable to fight off pathogens such as tuberculosis. Finally, improper use of antibiotics can lead to re-emergence of a disease, by selecting for antibiotic-resistance strains of pathogens which are untreatable with common drugs. This can be caused by over-use of antibiotics, where more pathogens are

exposed to antibiotics than need to be, or by under-use of antibiotics, where prescribed dosages are not completed, leaving a small population of resistant bacteria.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 8

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. The science of population structure and growth is called: a) ecology b) demography c) democracy d) human dynamics e) ethology Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.1 Define demography.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

2. The potential for future increases or decreases in a population based on the present age structure is called a) intrinsic rate of increase b) population density c) population growth momentum d) total fertility rate e) age structure Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.2 Explain how population growth momentum works.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

3. A scientist who first sounded the alarm about the growth of the human population and the ability of the earth to handle a large population of humans was

a) Charles Darwin b) Paul Ehrlich c) Thomas Malthus d) Rachel Carson e) James Lovelock Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.3 Identify Thomas Malthus, relating his ideas on human population growth, and explaining why he may or may not be correct.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

4. As of 2010, the current size of the human population was a) 2.5 billion b) 3.6 billion c) 4.2 billion d) 5.8 billion e) 6.9 billion Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.2 Summarize the history of human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

5. The human population is increasing because of: a) medical advances. b) agricultural advances. c) sanitation practices. d) improved water quality. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.2 Summarize the history of human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

6. Over the past several years the world growth rate has: a) increased b) decreased c) stayed the same d) doubled e) increased exponentially Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.1 Define demography Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.2 Summarize the history of human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

7. Developing countries fall into two categories, moderately developed and less developed. Which of the following is not classified as a less developed country? a) Laos b) Niger c) Bangladesh d) Thailand e) Ethiopia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

8. Relative to the United States, China: a) has higher CO2 production per unit of energy b) has higher per-capita CO2 emissions c) has lower overall CO2 emissions d) burns much less coal

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.7.0 Discuss how China's increasing population and its reliance on coal is impacting global carbon dioxide levels.

Section Reference 1: 8.7 Energy and Climate Change: Population

9. An age structure diagram shaped like a pyramid is characteristic of a country with: a) a decreasing population growth rate. b) an increasing population growth rate. c) a steady rate of population growth. d) a population crash. e) a population at its carrying capacity.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

10. In the postindustrial stage there is: a) modest population growth. b) a high death rate. c) greater affluence and higher levels of education. d) a high birth rate. e) high infant mortality.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

11. Which of the following is not true of highly developed countries? a) a list would include Japan, Australia, and Germany b) have high fertility rates c) have very low infant mortality rates d) have longer life expectancies than less developed countries e) have low rates of population growth Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

12. In the pre-industrial demographic stage: a) birth and death rates are high. b) there is a low death rate. c) there is only very light industrialization. d) there is a low birth rate. e) there is low infant mortality.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

13. Zero Population growth is: a) when the death rate equals the growth rate b) when the birth rate equals the death rate c) when the birth rate equals the growth rate d) when the growth rate equals the declining rate e) when the birth rate plus the death rate equals zero

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.4 Explain why it is impossible to answer precisely how many people Earth can support—that is, Earth's carrying capacity for humans.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

14. Which of the following statements is/are true of Population Growth Momentum?

1) it is the potential for future increase or decrease in a population based on the present age structure 2) there is no relation between population growth momentum and replacement-level fertility 3) a country can have replacement-level fertility and still experience population growth 4) it is the growth pattern of a given country’s population a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1 and 3 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.2 Explain how population growth momentum works.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

15. An improving socioeconomic condition of a country is generally correlated with a) increased birth rate and increased population growth rate b) increased death rate and decreased population growth rate c) decreased birth rate and increased population growth rate d) decreased birth rate and decreased population growth rate e) decreased death rate and increased population growth rate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

16. In the fourth demographic stage (postindustrial stage) of the demographic transition the population will stabilize a) at the carrying capacity of the environment b) at a population larger than before the transition, but with very slow or no growth c) at a rate of growth that is higher than before the transition d) at a size close to the original before the transition e) at a size much smaller than the original population Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

17. The challenges for countries with aging populations include all of the following concerns EXCEPT a) ways to deal with an increase in violent crimes b) a need to increase the age of retirement c) reduction in financial benefits for the elderly d) not enough young people to support the elderly population e) a greater demand for health and social services Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

18. Which of the following is a true statement about the global human population size? a) It is no longer increasing b) It is predicted to increase exponentially far into the future c) It is currently decreasing slowly d) It is predicted to stop growing in the next 100 years Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.2 Summarize the history of human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

19. Which of the following represent the two regions of the world with the greatest food insecurity? a) Sub-Saharan Africa and South America b) Central and South America c) South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa d) South Asia and South America e) Central America and South Asia Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.2 Define food insecurity.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

20. Potentially, world hunger could be eliminated by: a) improved food distribution b) promotion of economic development c) increased family planning education d) elimination of poverty e) All of these choices are correct Answer: E

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.2 Define food insecurity.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

24. Food insecurity is the condition in which people live in hunger or fear of starvation.

Where are the two regions in the world with the greatest food insecurity? a) South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa b) Indonesia and Southern Korea c) Eastern Asia and Saharan Africa d) Micronesia and the Kalahari Desert e) Egypt and adjacent to the Aral Sea Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.2 Define food insecurity.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

25. Which of the following factors affects the total fertility rate for human populations today? a) availability of family planning services b) Cultural and religious traditions c) Government policies d) Marriage age e) All of these choices are correct Answer: E Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.2 Explain how total fertility rate and cultural values are related.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

26. Which of the following is not a reason for high fertility rates?

a) economic and societal roles of children b) high infant mortality rate c) educating women d) religious pressures e) desire for more male children Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.3 Define gender inequality, relating the social and economic status of women to total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

27. The single most important factor affecting high total fertility rates may be: a) limited access to family planning services. b) the low status of women in many societies. c) the economic status of large families. d) tradition. e) religious values.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.3 Define gender inequality, relating the social and economic status of women to total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

28. The country with the current largest population in the world is: a) Brazil. b) China. c) India. d) Russia. e) United States.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Discuss the effectiveness of human population growth policies employed by various countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.5.1 Compare how the governments of China and Mexico have tried to slow human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 Government Policies and Fertility

29. The social construct that results in women not having the same rights, opportunities or privileges as men is a) Gender impartiality b) Gender inequality c) Masculinity dominance d) Feminine discrimination e) Sexual equivalence Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.2 Explain how total fertility rate and cultural values are related.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

30. Each person who scales back unnecessary consumption lessens the effects of population growth. The way of life that involves wanting and spending less is: a) Intentional complexity b) Parsimony c) Dedicated spending d) Voluntary simplicity e) Unrestricted expenditure Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.6.0 Identify policies that will help a country achieve population stabilization.

Section Reference 1: 8.6 Achieving Population Stabilization

31. In addition to providing information on reproductive physiology, family planning services also provide: a) Contraceptives b) Marriage licenses

c) Long term childcare d) Infertility medical treatment e) Religious support groups Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.4 Explain how the availability of family planning services affects total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

32. Famines are attributed to all of the following except: a) Insect outbreaks b) Armed conflict c) droughts d) floods e) food insecurity Answer: E Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.3 Relate human population to chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life 33. In a typical year, what percentage of the world’s hungry people are without food because of famine? a) 5-10% b) 20-25% c) 30-35% d) Approximately 50% e) 90-95% Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.3 Relate human population to chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

34. The ideas and customs of a group of people at a given period and passed from generation to generation is defined as: a) Religion b) Carrying capacity c) Ethnicity d) Culture e) Value system Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.2 Explain how total fertility rate and cultural values are related.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

35. Which of the following statements about the relationship between economics and population growth is true? a) Population growth has no effect on economic development. b) Economic development does not affect population growth. c) If a country's standard of living is to increase, then its population growth must decrease to almost zero. d) Economic growth in developing countries would profit from slower population growth. e) The debt burden in developing countries is not affecting economic development.

Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.4 Describe the relationship between economic development and population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

36. Which of the following statements about per capita resource use is not true? a) In highly developed countries, per capita resource use is high.

b) In developing countries, per capita resource use is high c) Many people in more affluent nations exploit resources in order to meet their desires. d) In highly developed countries, resource demands exceed the requirements for survival. e) The resources that are essential to an individual's survival are small.

Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries

37. Which of the following makes it impossible to determine the carrying capacity for humans? a) quality of life and quantity of people are intertwined in this issue b) fertility rates differ between highly developed and developing countries c) contraceptives are not used uniformly on a global basis d) the impact of the HIV/AIDS epidemic has yet to be determined e) government policies on population growth vary dramatically between countries Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.4 Explain why it is impossible to answer precisely how many people Earth can support—that is, Earth's carrying capacity for humans.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography

38. High fertility rates are generally encouraged in developing countries because: a) children contribute to the family's livelihood. b) children must care for aging parents. c) male children are culturally more desirable, so families continue to have children until male children are born. d) high fertility rates compensate for high infant mortality rates. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: E

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.2 Explain how total fertility rate and cultural values are related.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

39. Family planning services: a) are generally more available in developing countries than in developed countries. b) have resulted in about 70% of married women using contraceptives. c) provide information on reproductive physiology and contraceptive methods. d) force people to limit family size. e) always encourage pregnant poor women to have an abortion.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.4 Explain how the availability of family planning services affects total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

40. Which of the following does not apply to family planning measures used now or in the past in China? a) compulsory sterilization of fathers after males are born b) penalties and fines for a second child c) many newborn girls abandoned or killed d) abortion is common when the woman is pregnant with a second child e) education and publicity problems Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Discuss the effectiveness of human population growth policies employed by various countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.5.1 Compare how the governments of China and Mexico have tried to slow human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 Government Policies and Fertility

41. Which of the following does not apply to family planning measures in Mexico?

a) improved health services to improve infant mortality rates b) measures have not been effective, and total fertility rate has stayed constant over the past 30 years c) multimedia campaigns, including soap operas d) social workers are trained in family planning e) public school curriculum includes population education Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Discuss the effectiveness of human population growth policies employed by various countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.5.1 Compare how the governments of China and Mexico have tried to slow human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 Government Policies and Fertility

42. Increasing education results in a decrease in total fertility, primarily by: a) accelerating marriage age. b) delaying the age at which women have their first child. c) decreasing access to contraceptives. d) leading to a greater understanding of traditional and religious beliefs. e) decreasing the economic standing of childless individuals.

Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.3 Define gender inequality, relating the social and economic status of women to total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

43. Family planning services affect total fertility rate because where family planning services are available: a) men and women are able to limit family size b) safeguards are in place for individual health rights c) the quality of life for children are improved d) total fertility rates decrease e) all of these choices are corrrect Answer: E

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.4 Explain how the availability of family planning services affects total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

44. Even with lower birth rates, Mexico's positive __________will cause its population to increase because of the large number of young women having babies. a) Pronatalists b) Population growth momentum c) Welfare system d) Access to maternal medical assistance e) TFR (total fertility rate) Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Discuss the effectiveness of human population growth policies employed by various countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.5.2 Explain the role of population growth momentum in Mexico's population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 Government Policies and Fertility

45. The involvement of governments in childbearing and child rearing is well established.

All of the following are government interventions to influence population growth EXCEPT: a) In the U.S., laws governing the minimum age people may marry b) In the U.S., tax structures which provide allowances based on family size c) In China, enforcement of penalties and fines with the birth of a second child d) In China, preferential housing for couples who sign a pledge to limit themselves to a single child e) In Mexico, monetary “baby bonuses”, paid maternity and paternity leaves, and government sponsored child care Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Discuss the effectiveness of human population growth policies employed by various countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.5.1 Compare how the governments of China and Mexico have tried to slow human population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 Government Policies and Fertility

46. The countries with the greatest food shortages have some of the a) Lowest food insecurities b) Fastest economic developments c) Lowest foreign debt d) Highest average levels of education e) Highest total fertility rates (TFR’s) Answer: E Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: 8.3.2 Define food insecurity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.3 Relate human population to chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

47. In Sri Lanka, the average age at marriage is 25, and the average number of children born per woman is 2.0. In Bangladesh, the average age at marriage is 17, and the average number of children born per woman is 3.3. Which of the following conclusions is supported by these data? a) The earlier a woman marries, the more children she is likely to have b) The more highly educated the woman, the less children she is likely to have c) The doubling time of the Bangladesh population is 58 years at its current rate of natural increase d) The earlier a woman marries, the less children she is likely to have e) There is no relationship between fertility rate and marriage age Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.3 Define gender inequality, relating the social and economic status of women to total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate

48. What is the goal of the Millennium Villages Project? a) To solicit input from villagers on potential development projects

b) To reduce migration of villagers to cities c) To transfer management of development projects to rural communities d) To study patterns of village life around the world e) To connect villages to urban centers Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.3 Relate human population to chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

49. What is the goal of the Poverty Action Lab? a) To conduct scientifically rigorous studies of anti-poverty programs b) To bring attention to global poverty c) To analyze the chemical composition of a few common global food crops d) To study the history of poverty e) To connect governments in the developing world with agencies that fund anti-poverty programs Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.4 Describe the relationship between economic development and population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

50. Which of the following conclusions arose from studies conducted by the Poverty Action Lab? 1. Welfare recipients who receive personnel counseling were better able to find jobs 2. Providing children with de-worming medicine and education increased school attendance 3. Elementary school children tutored by local secondary-school graduate girls scored higher on a standardized test than children that participated in an expensive computerbased tutoring program a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 2 and 3

e) All of these choices are correct Answer: D Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.4 Describe the relationship between economic development and population growth.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life

Question Type: Essay

53. Who was Thomas Malthus and what were his ideas about human population growth?

Was he correct or not? Justify your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.3 Identify Thomas Malthus, relating his ideas on human population growth, and explaining why he may or may not be correct.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography Solution: Thomas Malthus was a 19th century British economist who was one of the first people to recognize that the human population cannot increase indefinitely. He correctly pointed out human population growth is not always desirable because it can exceed the food supply, resulting in famine, disease and war. Since Malthus’s time, the human population has increased from 1 to 6 billion. Scientific advances have allowed food production to keep pace with population growth. Malthus may ultimately be correct in his ideas because we do not know if our increase in food production is sustainable.

54. How does the population growth of the United States compare to that of other countries, both highly developed and developing? What factor(s) may account for the unique aspects of population growth seen in the U.S.?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries Solution: The U.S. has the largest population of all highly developed countries and one of the highest rates of population increase. U.S. citizens have a high level of material wellbeing compared to the global population. Highly developed countries, such as the U.S., have the lowest birth rates in the world as well as low infant mortality rates. However, the unique aspect of population growth seen in the U.S. stems from immigration (authorized and unauthorized). Immigration has a greater effect on population size in the U.S. than in other nations as more people from developing countries immigrate to the U.S. for a better life.

56. To date, all highly developed and moderately developed countries with more advanced economies have gone through a process of demographic transition. Describe the four steps in this process in terms of the impact birth and death rates have on population growth.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2.0 Compare and contrast population characteristics between a highly developed and developing country.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.2.1 Explain how highly developed and developing countries differ in population characteristics such as infant mortality rate, total fertility rate, and age structure.

Section Reference 1: 8.2 Demographics of Countries Solution: As countries become industrialized and urbanized, they go from having relative high birth and death rates to having relatively low birth and death rates. There are four stages in this process: the first stage is the pre-industrial stage in which birth and death rates are high and the population grows at a modest rate. Then, as a result of improved health care and better food and water supplies, the population enters the transitional stage characterized by a lower death rate. The population grows rapidly because the birth rate is still high. The third demographic stage is the industrial stage characterized by a decline in birth rate, which slows the population growth despite a relatively low death rate.

Finally, low birth and death rates characterize the last stage. This is the post industrial stage when people are better educated and more affluent and the population grows slowly or not at all in this stage.

57. Why is it impossible to precisely determine the Earth’s carrying capacity for the human population?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1.0 Explain how Earth's carrying capacity impacts human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.1.4 Explain why it is impossible to answer precisely how many people Earth can support—that is, Earth's carrying capacity for humans.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 The Science of Demography Solution: Predicting future population numbers is difficult because human choices and values have to be factored into the assessment and the natural environmental constraints alone do not predict the level of population. If all the people in the population have equivalent material well being, then more resources are needed and fewer people can be supported. In other words, the more resources individuals consume, the fewer people the Earth can support. Therefore the carrying capacity might support a larger population if each member of that population were more frugal with natural resources.

58. Discuss the relationship between world hunger and population growth, and explain why the world food problem is difficult to solve.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3.0 Describe how agricultural and economic productivity impact human population growth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.3.3 Relate human population to chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 8.3 Population and Quality of Life Solution: Countries with the highest total fertility rates also have the greatest food shortages. However, agriculture currently produces enough food for everyone to have enough if it were distributed evenly. Economic development, poverty, and the uneven distribution of resources affect the relationship between world hunger and population.

59. Discuss ways that the total fertility rate (TFR) can be reduced and identify the cultural values that make this process more complicated.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.2 Explain how total fertility rate and cultural values are related.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate Solution: Education for women, delaying marriage until the age of 25, and family planning services that enable men and women to limit their family size, safeguard individual health rights, and improve the quality of life for themselves and their children, are ways to reduce the TFR. High fertility rates are traditional in many cultures, and in some developing countries children play important economic and societal roles. Also many cultures place a higher value on male children than female children, and religious values are another aspect of culture that affects TFRs.

60. Discuss ways in which family planning services may be used effectively to reduce total fertility rates.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4.0 Discuss how the social and economic status of women and children affect total fertility rates.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.4.4 Explain how the availability of family planning services affects total fertility rate.

Section Reference 1: 8.4 Reducing the Total Fertility Rate Solution: Family planning services provide information on reproductive physiology and contraceptives, as well as the actual contraceptive devices, to those who wish to control the number of children they produce or to space their children's births. Family planning programs are most effective when they are designed with sensitivity to local social and cultural beliefs.

61. Identify and describe three of the goals drafted at the 2000 UN Millennium Summit.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5.0 Discuss the effectiveness of human population growth policies employed by various countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 8.5.3 Describe at least four of the Millennium Development Goals that came out of the U.N. Millennium Summit.

Section Reference 1: 8.5 Government Policies and Fertility Solution: Three from the following list: Goal 1: Eradicate extreme hunger and poverty, Goal 2: Achieve universal primary education, Goal 3: Promote gender equality and empower women, Goal 4: Reduce child mortality, Goal 5: Improve maternal health, Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases, Goal 7: Ensure environmental sustainability, Goal 8: Develop a global partnership for economic development. See Case in Point: The Millennium Development Goals for details of each goal.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 9

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Which event (s) corresponded with a rapid increase in the population growth rate of Las Vegas, NV? a) the end of World War II b) completion of the trans-continental railroad c) construction of the Hoover Dam d) recent climate change e) all of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.4 Describe some of the problems associated with the rapid growth rates of large urban areas Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

2. Which of the following problems is commonly shared by cities in both highly developed and developing countries? a) lack of adequate medical facilities b) lack of adequate clean water c) lack of adequate technology d) lack of adequate schools e) lack of adequate shelter Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.4 Describe some of the problems associated with the rapid growth rates of large urban areas Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

3. Mexico City: a) is representative of urbanization in a developing country. b) is a good example of a megacity c) was one of the 10 largest cities in the world in 2005 d) had a population of 19.4 million in 2005 e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

4. What percentage of the U.S. population lives in cities? a) 25% b) 50% c) 79% d) 85% e) 100% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

5. Urbanization: a) is growing more quickly in developing countries than in developed countries. b) currently accounts for housing about 75% of the global population. c) results in fewer employment opportunities in developed countries as compared to rural areas. d) refers to the migration of city people to the country to enjoy country living. e) describes a grouping of 10,000 or more individuals.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.1 Define urbanization.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

6. The young age structure of urban areas can be attributed to: a) high birth rates in urban areas b) influx of young people from rural areas c) high death rates in urban areas d) the presence of more females than males in urban areas e) shortened life expectancy of urban dwellers Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

7. Unlike people who live in urban areas, people who live in rural areas a) are employed in occupations which involve industrial labor b) are far more heterogeneous with respect to race c) are far more heterogeneous with respect to religion d) are generally younger than those in the surrounding cities e) are employed in occupations which involve harvesting natural resources Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

8. What characteristic defines a megacity?

a) a city that has more than 10 million inhabitants b) a city that grows by approximately 1,000 new immigrants each day from overpopulated rural areas c) a cluster of small or medium-sized cities, each with population of less than 1 million d) a suburban sprawl of developed suburbs e) a city that has over 100 high-rise buildings Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.3 Distinguish between megacities and urban agglomerations.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

9. The process in which people increasingly move from rural areas to densely populated cities is termed: a) high density accommodation b) rural redistribution c) urbanization d) metropolitan relocation e) municipality magnetism Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

10. Urban ecologists study urban trends and patterns in the context of four variables (POET) referring to: a) pollution, opportunity, emigration, and transportation b) population, organization, environment, and technology c) pain & suffering, overt crime rate, employment, and trades d) poverty, overcrowding, education, and traffic e) politics, options, ecosystems, and travel Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.1 Explain how cities are analyzed from an ecosystem perspective.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

11. Sustainable urban development, ideally, involves a) green space b) recycling c) urban farmers d) solar energy e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.1 List at least five characteristics of an ideal sustainable city.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable

12. A patchwork of vacant and developed tracts around the edges of cities that contain a low population density is considered: a) smart growth b) sustainable development c) green architecture d) suburban sprawl e) compact development Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning 13. All of the following are considered a part of a city’s infrastructure except:

a) roads b) department stores c) garbage trucks d) prisons e) water treatment plants Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.2 Relate how a city’s transportation infrastructure affects urban development.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

14. What is gentrification? a) The movement of wealthier people back to older, run-down homes that have been renovated. b) The remaining people in the city and older suburbs who find themselves the victims of declining property values and increasing isolation from suburban jobs c) The movement of more affluent citizens to the suburbs to avoid the noise and pollution of inner cities. d) The remaining of people in the inner city because of prejudice encountered when they seek to move out to suburban neighborhoods e) The movement of people to the suburbs to pay less in terms of taxes but more in terms of transportation costs.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

15. Transportation has affected the spatial structures of cities because: a) as cities grow, a grid must be maintained for street development b) as cities grow, a plan must be in place to evenly distribute the accumulation of heat from automobile use c) as cities grow, they expand along public transportation routes d) as cities grow, they expand in the direction of waterways e) as cities grow, the dependence on transportation is lessened

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.2 Relate how a city’s transportation infrastructure affects urban development.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

16. Designing and constructing buildings that are energy efficient, economical, and made of recycled materials, is a trend called: a) friendly construction. b) green architecture. c) environmental building. d) passive design. e) ecology construction.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.1 List at least five characteristics of an ideal sustainable city.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable

17. In 2007 __________ was the fourth largest city in the world with 19 million people.

By 2025, this city’s population is projected to be 26.4 million, which will make it the second largest city in the world. a) Mumbai (Bombay), India b) Mexico City, Mexico c) Calcutta, India d) Shanghai, China e) New York, U.S.A. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

18. A program in Curitiba, Brazil which pays bus tokens, surplus food, or school supplies for filled garbage bags is: a) Trash to Treasure Program b) Rubbish Reward Program c) Debris Barter Program d) Garbage Purchase Program e) Waste Watchers Program Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.2 Explain how city planners have incorporated environmental sustainability into the design of Curitiba, Brazil.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable

19. A brownfield is an urban area of a) vacant house lots that are overgrown with weeds and vegetation b) parking lot pavement that collects heat during the day and emits heat at night c) meadows that are earmarked for industrial development d) sports arenas for baseball, football, and soccer e) abandoned, vacant factories, warehouses, and residential sites that may be contaminated from past uses.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.2 Describe brownfields.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

20. The National Science Foundation has two long-term research (LTER) sites (Baltimore and Phoenix) to gather information on: a) interactions among humans in urban settings b) the ecological effects of humans on their urban environment c) the effects of natural disasters on plant and animal populations d) public awareness of environmental policy decisions e) the flow of money into and out of the urban region

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.1 Explain how cities are analyzed from an ecosystem perspective.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

21. All of the following are negative effects of prolonged exposure to noise pollution EXCEPT: a) hearing damage b) increased blood pressure c) increased frequency of heart disease d) psychological stress e) all of these can be caused by prolonged exposure to noise pollution Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.4 Define noise pollution, giving specific examples of its harmful effects.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

22. All of the following historical events have led to movement of people into cities EXCEPT: a) development of agriculture b) the American Revolution c) the Industrial Revolution d) a search for jobs associated with natural resource extraction e) the American Revolution and a search for jobs associated with natural resource extraction.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

23. Which of the following urbanization trends is true? a) As of 2008, 75% of the world’s population lives in urban areas for the first time in history. b) Currently, most urban growth in the world is occurring in developing countries. c) Cities in developing nations tend to have more females while cities in highly developed countries often have a higher ratio of males to females. d) Urbanization in developed countries is increasing at a more rapid rate than in developing countries. e) According to the United Nations, there are almost 100 cities worldwide with a population of at least 1 million inhabitants.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.1 Define urbanization.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

24. Compact development benefits the environment in all of the following ways except: a) reversing the trend towards urbanization. b) reducing air pollution. c) preserving rural areas. d) utilizing brownfields, rather than natural habitats, for further development. e) minimizing the reliance on personal motor vehicles.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.5 Define compact development.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

25. Which of the following statements concerning urbanization is not correct? a) Urban and rural areas often have different proportions of males and females. b) To urban ecologists technology refers to human inventions that directly affect the urban environment.

c) Most workers in cities in the United States have to commute only one or two miles from home to work. d) Growing urban areas impact land-use patterns and water drainage. e) Factories and commercial enterprises in urban areas cause a buildup of airborne emissions.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

26. Many major U.S. cities face similar problems. These include all of the following except: a) traffic congestion b) suburban sprawl c) urban renewal forcing the poor out of neighborhoods d) compact development e) school funding issues Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.5 Define compact development.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem 27. Curitiba’s improved living conditions and decreasing environmental impact come from all of the following except: a) a Garbage Purchase program. b) development of an extensive series of interconnected parks. c) development of inexpensive, efficient mass transit. d) sharply curtailed population growth. e) cleaner air.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.2 Explain how city planners have incorporated environmental sustainability into the design of Curitiba, Brazil.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable

28. Currently the percentage of people living in cities, compared with rural settings, in highly developed countries is __________ in developing countries. a) less than b) greater than c) the same as d) rapidly increasing while slowing e) stagnant while slowing Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

29. Urban heat islands affect local air current and weather conditions including which of the following?

1) increased number of thunderstorms over cities in summer months 2) lingering dust domes over cities 3) stronger natural disasters such as earthquakes and hurricanes 4) extreme cold temperatures in the winter and record-setting heat in summer a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.3 Distinguish between urban heat islands and dust domes.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

30. Portland, Oregon provides a good example of compact development because: a) land-use policies are in place b) immigration is regulated through sponsorship c) automobiles are no longer used for transportation within city limits d) birth control measures are mandated by the city government e) brownfields are transformed into green space Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.1 Discuss the use of zoning in land use planning.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

31. What do brownfields have in common with dust domes? a) both are environmental problems associated with rural areas b) both are environmental problems associated with previous chemical contamination c) both are environmental problems associated with the buildup of pollution d) both are environmental problems associated with urban areas e) both are environmental problems associated with high temperatures Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.3 Distinguish between urban heat islands and dust domes.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

32. What is one way in which urban areas in developing nations differ from urban areas in highly developed nations? a) urban areas in developing nations have more females than males than urban areas in highly developed nations. b) urban areas in developing nations have a greater percentage people living in cities than urban areas in highly developed nations. c) urban areas in developing nations have the worst air pollution in the world, including urban areas in highly developed nations. d) urban areas in developing nations are growing at a slower rate than urban areas in highly developed nations.

e) urban areas in developing nations have fewer “top 10 largest cities” than urban areas in highly developed nations.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.4 Describe some of the problems associated with the rapid growth rates of large urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

33. Which of the following does not represent a "green architecture" feature? a) triple-pane windows b) motion sensors linked to lights in classrooms c) geothermal energy for heating and cooling d) using recycled water in toilets e) None of these, all are green architectural features Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.1 List at least five characteristics of an ideal sustainable city.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable

34. According to the U.N. Human Settlements Program, each of the following is a fact about cities in developing countries except: a) Almost one third of all cities have areas that the police consider dangerous b) About 5.8% of the children die before reaching 5 years of age c) One of every two urban households live above the poverty status d) About two thirds of the cities do not treat their sewage e) Buses are the most common form of transportation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.4 Describe some of the problems associated with the rapid growth rates of large urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

35. What is a valid conclusion given the following data?

Developing Countries Percentage of urban inhabitants in 2004 Gender of urban inhabitants Rate of urban growth Challenges of urban development Megacities

44%

Highly Developed Countries 74%

Higher ratio of males to females High High

Higher ratio of females to males Low High

Many

Many

a) Urbanization of developing countries is better than that of highly developed countries. b) Urbanization is a worldwide phenomenon. c) Females prefer urban living. d) Cities in highly developed and developing countries have exactly the same challenges. e) Megacities are an artifact of highly developed countries.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

36. __________ is an excellent example of a city with rapid spread of urban sprawl while __________ is a good example of a city that avoided the problem of suburban sprawl. a) Curitiba, Brazil / Tokyo, Japan b) New York, NY / Calcutta, India c) Mexico City, Mexico / Mumbai (Bombay), India d) The Greater Atlanta area, GA / Portland, OR e) Chicago, IL / The Greater Atlanta area, GA Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

37. Land use in many cities is based on economic concerns. Which urban area would be charged the highest taxes? a) residential property nearest the central business district b) the central business district c) land-intensive businesses d) residential property in the suburbs e) infrastructure property such as schools, prisons, & water treatment plants Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

38. Which of the following effects would zoning have on an individual who wants to build and operate a five-story department store above their garage?

1) The individual could operate a commercial business in a residential neighborhood as long as all of the homes were zoned as shopping centers.

2) The individual could operate a commercial business over the garage because he owns the land zone below.

3) The individual could not operate a commercial business on his residence because zoning restricts areas to specific land uses – commercial, residential or industrial 4) The individual could not build a five-story store on his residence because zoning ordinances regulate building height among other things. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 3 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.1 Discuss the use of zoning in land use planning.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

39. What do the cities of Tokyo-Yokohama-Osaka-Kobe represent in Japan? a) home to 50 million people b) the 4 largest cities in a developing country c) small or medium-sized cities with populations of less than 1 million d) an urban agglomeration e) home to 50 million people and an urban agglomeration Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.3 Distinguish between megacities and urban agglomerations.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization 40. What is required in order for a location to be considered a “city”? a) the answer varies from country to country b) a high incidence of homelessness c) a population of 10 million residents or more d) a climate that supports outdoor activities year round e) certain traits such as high socio-economic levels and a population of similar ethnicity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

41. Which of the following are NOT environmental problems commonly associated with urban areas? a) brownfields b) compact development c) dust domes d) urban heat islands e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.5 Define compact development.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem

42. Which of the following terms is used to describe an urbanized core region that consists of several adjacent cities or megacities and their surrounding developed suburbs? a) brownfield b) suburban agglomeration c) county d) urban agglomeration e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.3 Distinguish between megacities and urban agglomerations.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization

43. Which of the following statements is not true about cost differences between urban and suburban areas? a) People in “central business district” in cities typically pay higher taxes b) People in suburbs often pay less in transportation costs c) People in suburban areas typically pay higher taxes d) The less affluent seek housing away from the city to avoid high taxes e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.1 Discuss the use of zoning in land use planning.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

44. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the susceptibility of large cities (population size above 5 million) to damage caused by global climate change? a) they are not vulnerable, because they are protected by extensive infrastructure

b) they are extremely vulnerable, because of their close proximity to coastlines c) they are not vulnerable, because many of them are located in the northern hemisphere d) they are extremely vulnerable, because many of them are located in arid climates e) they are not vulnerable, because most of them are located in areas forecasted to experience little, if any, future change in climate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5.0 Explain the impact climate change can have on cities.

Section Reference 1: 9.5 Energy and Climate Change: Vulnerable Cities

45. What factors have contributed to the economic disparity between older neighborhoods and suburbs? a) declining inner-city property values b) gentrification c) relocation of jobs to suburban areas d) declining inner-city property values and relocation of jobs to suburban areas e) all of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning

Question Type: Essay 46. What is suburban sprawl? Is this sprawl “smart growth”? Why or why not?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.0 Describe urban planning.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning Solution: Suburban sprawl is a patchwork of vacant and developed tracts around the edges of cities that contain a low population density. This sprawl increases the economic disparity between older neighborhoods and newer suburbs. Smart growth protects open space in highly developed areas while promoting growth in areas that could be helped by

growth. Smart growth mixes land uses, incorporates compact development and creates communities in which it is easy to walk from one place to another, and preserves important environmental areas. Suburban sprawl is not smart growth because the further development extending around the edges of the suburbs cuts deeper into the surrounding rural land causing environmental problems such as loss of wetlands, loss of biological habitat, air pollution and water pollution. Smart growth would include zoning that would regulate land use and preserve important environmental areas.

47. Discuss the extent that available means of transportation determined the spatial structure and development of cities (urban areas) over historical time. Include in your discussion: a. The 1700 – 1850 time period when transportation was limited to walking, horse-drawn carriages, and ships. b. The 1870 – 1910 time period when transportation included railroads and electric street trolleys c. The 20th century with the advent of the automobile.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3.2 Relate how a city’s transportation infrastructure affects urban development.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.3.3 Define suburban sprawl, discussing a problem caused or exacerbated by sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 9.3 Urban Land Use Planning Solution: Cities grow and expand along public transportation routes. In the 1700’s-1850’s when transportation was limited to walking and horse-drawn carriages, cities were small and shopping and employment were centrally located. Land use was efficient and cities were located along waterways and coastal areas for ease of shipping trade. In the 1870’s – 1910’s, the railroads permitted cities to move inland and still be able to send goods to shipping ports for market. The fixed transportation routes of the electric street trolley system allowed for expansion of the city from the central business district. People could move beyond the city limits quickly and inexpensively. The first suburbs clustered around railway stations so that the city’s outward growth assumed a shape reminiscent of a sea star. The average commute was about 1.5 miles in 1920. In the 20th century, the automobile dramatically increased the city’s spatial scale. Roads expanded the access to undeveloped areas between the sea star’s “arms”. Construction of the interstate highway system supplemented rail transportation routes for shipping goods to market. Outer-city beltway “loops” encouraged development even further from the city’s central business district. Today, daily commutes of 20 or more miles each way are commonplace.

48. Explain how a city can be analyzed from an ecosystem perspective. What variables do urban sociologists use to better understand how cities function and change over time?

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.1 Explain how cities are analyzed from an ecosystem perspective.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem Solution: An ecosystem is an interacting system that encompasses a biological community and its nonliving, physical environment. Urban sociologists use this definition to better understand how cities function and change over time. The trends and patterns of population, organization, environment and technology are interrelated and interact much like the parts of natural ecosystem. Population refers to the number of people; the factors that change this number, such as births, deaths, immigration and emigration; and the composition of the city by age, gender, and ethnicity. Organization is the social structure of the city, including economic policies, method of government and social hierarchy. Environment considers both the natural environment and infrastructure of the city. Technology refers to human interventions that directly affect the urban environment. The concept of the city as an ecosystem also considers the effects the city has on its natural environment.

49. The fast pace of urban growth in developing nations has outstripped the limited capacity of many cities to provide basic services. Discuss the serious challenges that cities in developing nations are facing. Cite a city in the developing world that is experiencing these difficulties.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.4 Describe some of the problems associated with the rapid growth rates of large urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization Solution: Cities in developing countries are facing the challenges of homelessness, substandard housing (slums and squatter settlements), poverty; exceptionally high unemployment; heavy pollution; and inadequate or nonexistent water, sewage, and waste disposal. Rapid urban growth places strain on school tax bases, medical facilities, transportation capacity and other infrastructure systems. Malnutrition and illiteracy emerge in light of the shortcomings. Calcutta, India is a good example of a developing nation city whose inhabitants are suffering all of these terrible deprivations.

50. Imagine you are commissioned to design a sustainable city for 100,000 people.

Define the concept of sustainable city and indicate at least five features you would want this city to have.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.1 List at least five characteristics of an ideal sustainable city.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable Solution: A sustainable city has a livable environment, strong economy and a social and cultural sense of community. A sustainable city enhances the wellbeing of current and future generations of urban dwellers through compact development. In order to create such an urban setting, a clear, cohesive urban policy that enables the government infrastructure to manage effectively must be in place. My sustainable city would be designed to be democratic and participatory so that local citizens are encouraged to work together to address local problems. The sustainable city would encourage low levels of energy consumption, resource use, and waste production. A city code would enforce energy-efficient appliances, use of solar and other forms of renewable energy for buildings and regulate motor vehicle exhaust through smog controls. A reuse-recycle policy would be in place for ALL. Yard wastes would be composted, sewage treatment would involve marshes, and municipal solid wastes (paper, plastic, aluminum, cardboard) would be recycled. My sustainable city would be designed with large areas of green space for recreation and be people-centered. Wildlife habitat would play a prominent role in the design. Public transportation would be readily available, clean, safe, and inexpensive, therefore reducing dependence on automobile use. Vehicular traffic would be restricted in pedestrian commons. And finally, the people living in my sustainable city would grow a large percentage of their own food in rooftop gardens, window boxes, greenhouses and community gardens, and organize co-ops to distribute food to those in need.

51. What is green architecture? Discuss examples of green architecture that have been incorporated into Oberlin College’s Lewis Center for Environmental Studies building intended to save energy, reduce waste, conserve water, construct the building, and teach environmental ethics to students.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.1 List at least five characteristics of an ideal sustainable city.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable Solution: The Lewis Center at Oberlin College is an award-winning example of green architecture. Green architecture encompasses environmental considerations such as energy conservation, improved indoor air quality, water conservation, and recycled or reused building materials. The Lewis center is designed to save energy by using triplepaned windows, which allow light to enter the building but insulate against heat loss in winter and heat gain in summer. Classrooms have motion sensors that turn off lights when no one is in the room. An earth-coupled heat pump and photovoltaic cells meet

most of the building’s energy needs. Few wastes are produced that cannot be recycled or reused. Carpet squares in the classrooms will be recycled when worn out rather than disposed in the landfill. Conservation of water includes a “living machine” containing bacteria, aquatic organisms, and plants that remove organic wastes in the septic tanks.

After the wastewater has been cleaned, it is stored and reused in the building’s toilets.

Water is also gathered in a cistern that collects runoff from the roof. The building itself is composed of recycled steel, wood from forests certified to produce sustainably harvested wood and recycled materials from prior construction. Outdoor classrooms expose students to wetlands, deciduous forests and native forests.

52. Create a real estate advertisement that would encourage people in a highly developed country to move from a rural area to a megacity. Include an appropriate title, five reasons to come to the megacity, a quote from a person living in the megacity, and any other creative touches.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.3 Distinguish between megacities and urban agglomerations.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization Solution: THERE COMES A TIME FOR CHANGE A time to step back from the responsibilities of a farm and familiarity of a small community.

A time for new cultural options, diversification of acquaintances, and employment prospects.

Now is the time to enjoy the opportunities and high-density lifestyle of the megacity!

Amenities of the megacity include: *A higher ratio of females to males * Younger age structure * Heterogeneous population in terms of race, ethnicity, religion and socioeconomic status * Education opportunities *More jobs because of industry, economic development, and technology advances Says citizen #9,725,638: “I enjoy the potential for more than 10 million neighbors. The merge of the megacity into an urban agglomeration provides an incredible crossroad of cultures.”

53. Evaluate Curitiba, Brazil’s performance as a livable city in the developing world.

Give a letter grade A+, A, A-, B+, B and so on in each of the following areas: pollution

control, infrastructure, land-use planning, waste disposal and recycling. Give an example of each topic that would justify your grading.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4.0 List the features of a sustainable city.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4.2 Explain how city planners have incorporated environmental sustainability into the design of Curitiba, Brazil.

Section Reference 1: 9.4 Making Cities More Sustainable Solution: Curitiba is a good example of compact development. I would give Curitiba an A+ in terms of pollution control because it was the first city in Brazil to use a special low-polluting fuel that contains a mixture of diesel fuel, alcohol and soybean extract.

Curitiba also earns an A- for waste disposal. The inventive Garbage Purchase program in which poor people exchange filled garbage bags for bus tokens, surplus food or school supplies encourages waste pickup from the shantytowns that do not have garbage service.

The grade would be higher if waste reduction programs were introduced. In terms of infrastructure, Curitiba gets an A. An inexpensive, efficient mass transit system is in place and even though Curitiba’s population has more than doubled, traffic has declined 30%. Pedestrian walkways connected to bus stations, parks, and bike paths contribute to this high score as well as the fact that water, sewer, and bus service is provided to settlements. The compact development earns another A in terms of land-use planning.

High-density development is largely restricted to areas along the bus lines and green space is being increased per capita. Over several decades, Curitiba has purchased and converted flood-prone properties into parks reducing flood damage potential and increasing green space. Overall Curitiba earns a resounding “A”.

54. Urbanization is a process that is transforming human society. Summarize the three urban revolutions that sociologists recognize. How have these movements impacted the social order of civilization?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1.0 Discuss problems associated with increasing urbanization.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.2 Describe trends in the distribution of people in rural and urban areas.

Section Reference 1: 9.1 Population and Urbanization Solution: In the first urban revolution (8000-2000B.C.E.), people moved into cities for the first time. During the second urban revolution (1700 – 1950), the industrial revolution caused commerce to replace farming as the main way to make a living. As cities became wealthier, urban migration increased, causing cities to experience a dramatic increase in population. Today, a third urban revolution is underway. Currently, the greatest population growth is taking place in cities in developing countries, not in the alreadyestablished centers of commerce of the highly developed countries. The scale of today’s

urban migration makes the earlier two revolutions pale in comparison. The geographic distribution of people in rural areas to cities significantly influences the social, environmental and economic aspects of population growth thus impacting the social order of civilization. Occupations have shifted from physically demanding jobs involving harvesting natural resources (fishing, logging, and farming) to sedentary office jobs.

Cities also provide opportunities for more interracial/interreligion marriages because of population density and diversity. The young age structure of cities influences the educational opportunities, recreational activities and cultural interests.

55. Discuss the environmental problems associated with urban areas. Include in your discussion: a. How urban areas have affected land-use patterns and destroyed wildlife habitat. b. The impact of the buildup of local heat in areas of high population density.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2.0 Analyze problems associated with cities from an ecosystem perspective.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.2.3 Distinguish between urban heat islands and dust domes.

Section Reference 1: 9.2 The City as an Ecosystem Solution: Portions of Chicago, Boston, and New Orleans are former wetlands. As the land-use pattern transforms from wetland to cityscape, environmental problems erupt. For example, the city of New Orleans constructed levees to pump water from the natural wetlands environment so that an urban area could be developed. Hurricane Katrina demonstrated that the land would revert to the natural environmental ecosystem once the man-made structures, in this case, levees, are breeched. Likewise, when pavement replaces soil, the ability of rainfall to be absorbed is diminished. Rainfall then becomes “runoff” and picks up organic wastes such as animal droppings, motor oil, lawn fertilizers and heavy metals. High levels of precipitation can overwhelm the sewage treatment plants that usually clean the runoff and the result is the release of untreated urban runoff into the surrounding environment, destroying wildlife habitat.

Streets, rooftops, and parking lots in areas of high population density absorb solar radiation during the day and radiate heat into the atmosphere at night. Heat released by human activities such as automobile operation, factories, and commercial enterprises is also highly concentrated in the highly populated areas. An urban heat island is created, which affects local air currents and weather conditions causing more frequent thunderstorms over the city during summer months. Urban heat islands also contribute to the buildup of pollutants in the form of dust domes over cities. This air pollution sometimes contains higher levels of pollutants than are acceptable based on health standards.

Package Title: Chapter 10, Testbank Course Title: Energy Consumption Chapter Number: 10

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding sustainable building design?

1. Construction costs are usually less than traditional building practices.

2. There are currently no agreed-upon standards, making it difficult to learn what works and what does not.

3. Some benefits, such as reduced pollution from fossil fuel burning, are difficult to quantify. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 are true e) 1 and 3 are true Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.0 Chapter Opener

2) Compared to energy use practices hundreds of years ago, modern societies: a) rely less on fossil fuels b) rely more on biomass c) rely more on local sources d) rely more on highly concentrated sources e) rely more on biomass and rely more on local sources Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

3) Which of the following correctly lists solar, nuclear and crude oil energy sources from most to least versatile? a) crude oil > solar > nuclear b) crude oil > nuclear > solar c) solar > crude oil > nuclear d) solar > nuclear > crude oil e) nuclear > solar > crude oil Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

4) Which of the following is a completely clean energy source? a) coal b) nuclear c) solar d) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.1 Explain the importance of the concentration in an energy source.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy 5) Fill in the blank. Although _____ of the world’s population lived in highly developed countries in 2010, they consumed _____ of the commercial energy produced worldwide. a) 15%, 65% b) 20%, 60% c) 30%, 50% d) 30%, 60% e) 40%, 70% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

6) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the global increase in energy use since 1982? a) China now consumes more energy than the United States. b) Energy use in the United States and Japan has increased dramatically in the last five years. c) Recent increases in global energy use are on the order of 2.5%. d) Increases in energy use are distributed relatively equally across the globe.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

7) Which country has the highest rate of per capita energy use? a) United States b) China c) Japan d) Germany Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

8) Which of the following practices will increase energy efficiency? a) turning off lights when not in use b) changing incandescent light bulbs to compact fluorescent light bulbs c) lighting fewer rooms in the house d) turning off lights when not in use and lighting fewer rooms in the house Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

9) Compared to development of new energy sources, energy efficiency and energy conservation: a) cost less b) improve the economy’s productivity c) save energy for future use d) all of these choices are correct e) cost less and improve the economy’s productivity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation 10) Which term below is defined as “The amount of available energy in a source that is transmitted into useful work”? a) energy waste b) energy production c) energy use d) energy conservation e) energy efficiency Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

11) A burning candle gives off more heat than a lit lightbulb. What can we conclude from this? a) The candle provides more light than the lightbulb. b) The lightbulb coverts energy to light more efficiently than the candle. c) Using the candle conserves energy. d) The candle will burn out before the lightbulb. e) Electricity is the best way to transmit energy.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

12) Which of the following correctly ranks lightbulb types from most to least efficient? a) incandescent > compact fluorescent > LED b) compact fluorescent > LED > incandescent c) LED > compact fluorescent > incandescent d) LED > incandescent > compact fluorescent e) compact fluorescent > incandescent > LED Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

13) What are some of the potential drawbacks to switching from incandescent to compact fluorescent light bulbs? a) compact fluorescents cost more b) potential difference in light quality c) incandescent bulbs last longer d) all of these choices are correct e) compact fluorescents cost more and potential difference in light quality

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

14) Energy intensity is defined as: a) energy use per unit area b) energy use per person c) energy use per dollar of GDP d) energy use per dollar invested in research Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.3 Define energy intensity.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

15) Due to standards enacted by the National Appliance Energy Conservation: a) Annual electricity savings equivalent to the output of 32 nuclear power plants has been realized. b) Annual consumer savings based on energy conservation average $135/year. c) Modern refrigerators use much less energy than earlier models. d) all of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

16) Installation of energy-saving technologies in buildings can lag behind that of cars because:

a) Buildings are much more expensive. b) Buildings have a much longer lifespan. c) Technology is changing faster for cars. d) There is more “inertia” in public sentiment regarding building technology than car technology. e) All of these answer choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation 17) A “zero-net energy” building: a) is built using only natural raw materials b) can last longer than a traditional building c) produces as much as or more energy than it uses d) produces less than half the solid waste of a traditional building e) all of these answer choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

18) Which of the following are ways that public utility companies have helped electricity consumers conserve energy? a) paying customers to buy more efficient refrigerators b) paying customers to plant trees to shade their houses c) giving consumers energy-efficient light bulbs d) paying customers to buy more efficient refrigerators and planting trees to shade their houses e) all of these answer choices are correct

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe some advantages and disadvantages of conserving energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation 19) Which of the following is an example of “demand-side management” by electric utility companies to help consumers save energy? a) reducing rates charged to consumers b) building new power plants c) purchasing power from new sources d) giving away energy-efficient light bulbs to consumers e) reducing advertising costs Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

20) Electric power plants do not operate efficiently because: a) A large amount of energy is lost as heat during generation. b) Electricity is lost during transmission. c) Energy often must be converted to supercooled hydrogen. d) A large amount of energy is lost as heat during generation and electricity is lost during transmission Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

21) All of the following home energy-saving improvements are simple to make after a home is built except: a) installing thicker attic insulation b) caulking cracks around windows and doors c) installing storm windows and doors d) installing thicker wall insulation e) adding heat pumps Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

22) Some of the factors that decrease efficiency of automobiles include: a) friction between tires and the road b) Energy lost as heat during combustion inside the engine c) their heavy weight relative to the weight of passengers d) friction and energy lost as heat during combustion inside the engine e) all of these answer choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

23) Even though the electricity that powers them is generated primarily from burning fossil fuels, electric cars are still more efficient than gas-powered vehicles because: a) they are much lighter b) energy is produced more efficiently at power plants than inside vehicles c) their batteries are much more efficient d) they can transport more people per vehicle

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

24) According to the new standards of fuel efficiency adopted by the United States, average fuel efficiency for all passenger vehicles must be increase to _________ by the year 2020. a) 30 mpg b) 35 mpg c) 40 mpg d) 45 mpg Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

25) Production of two useful forms of energy from the same fuel is known as: a) cogeneration b) sustainability c) biproduction d) renewable production Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

26) Which of the following is an example of cogeneration? a) A power plant uses water to cool electricity-generating turbines, then lets the hot water cool in large cooling ponds. b) A power plant burns coal to produce electricity, and uses “scrubbers” to reduce pollution. c) A power plant takes steam left over after electricity production and uses it to heat buildings. d) A power plant uses water to cool electricity-generating turbines, then releases the hot water into a nearby lake.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.5 Define cogeneration.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

27) Which of the following are possible methods of decreasing the amount of energy required to transport people to and from work? a) satellite offices b) working from home c) working fewer, but longer, workdays d) use of early or late start times for the workday e) all of these answer choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

28) As a result of energy subsidies: a) consumer fuel costs have increased b) cars have become more fuel efficient c) there is less incentive to conserve energy d) externalities are included in the cost of fuel e) all of these answer choices are correct

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe some advantages and disadvantages of conserving energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

29) Hydrogen and electricity are considered secondary forms of energy because: a) they are used less than fossil fuels b) they are not found in nature in usable amounts c) they can be generated from any energy source d) all of these answer choices are correct e) they are used less than fossil fuels and can be generated from any energy source Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Explain why electricity is a flexible form of energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

30) Which of the following give the correct sequence of energy transfer during electricity generation? a) electrons » generator » turbines b) electrons » turbines » generator c) generator » electrons » turbines d) turbines » generator » electrons e) generator » turbines » electrons Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Explain why electricity is a flexible form of energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

31) Smart Grids were developed to help solve what problem? a) low efficiency associated with long distance electricity transmission b) variation in electricity demand c) overconsumption of electricity d) difficulty in trasmitting electricity to rural areas e) irregular patterns of electricity generation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Explain why electricity is a flexible form of energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

32) All of the following are advantages of using hydrogen as an energy source except: a) high energy density b) safer transportation than fossil fuels c) ease of production from almost any energy source d) hardly any waste produced when burning e) high natural abundance Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

33) All of the following are disadvantages of using hydrogen as an energy source except: a) high volatility b) relatively low energy density c) hydrolysis is relatively inefficient d) electricity must be used to produce it Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

34) A fuel cell differs from a battery because: a) A battery is an electrochemical cell, while a fuel cell is not. b) Fuel cell reactants are contained within the fuel cell. c) Fuel cells produce power as long as they are supplied with fuel. d) Fuel cells provide a fixed amount of energy.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

35) Approximately what percentage of global oil consumption is used for transportation? a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 80% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage 36) Use of Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (HFCV’s) in the United States is currently limited by: a) the relatively short distances HFCV’s can travel b) the scarcity of hydrogen fueling stations

c) the relative inefficiency of HFCV engines d) all of these answer choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage 37) Which of the following fuels could not be used in flexible fuel vehicles (FFV’s) a) gasoline b) ethanol c) compressed natural gas d) hydrogen e) none of these answer choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

38) An example of an intermittent energy source is: a) wind b) gasoline c) hydroelectric d) natural gas Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.4 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of storing energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

39) Which method(s) of energy storage utilize(s) potential energy? a) compressed air energy storage b) pumped hydroelectric storage c) superconducting magnetic energy storage d) all of these choices are correct e) compressed air energy storage and superconducting magnetic energy storage Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.4 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of storing energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

40) Which method (s) of energy storage take advantage of the fact that certain materials can contain an electrical current almost indefinitely under extremely cold conditions? a) compressed air energy storage b) pumped hydroelectric storage c) superconducting magnetic energy storage d) all of these choices are correct e) compressed air energy storage and pumped hydroelectric storage Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.4 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of storing energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

41) A major disadvantage of storing energy using electrochemical batteries is that: a) friction eventually dissipates kinetic energy into wasted heat b) they can be expensive to build and maintain c) a great deal of energy must be spent to maintain the conditions under which energy can be stored d) all of these answer choices are correct

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.4 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of storing energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

42) Why is investment in energy conservation and efficiency a necessary component of any governmental energy policy? a) it will result in an immediate increase in energy efficiency b) the market will naturally favor products that are energy efficient in the long term, given enough time c) it is often difficult for individuals or corporations to make purchases that save money in the long run, if they are more expensive over the short term d) all of these answer choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

43) Commercial production of which of the following energy sources became practical only after large amounts of investment by the United States and other countries over the past half century? a) coal b) nuclear c) solar d) wind Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

44) Users of which energy source have benefitted recently from a change in policy in the United States that allows consumers to sell energy back to the grid? a) coal b) nuclear c) solar d) wind Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

45) Carbon sequestration is much easier at a large power plant than in thousands of small engines. Because of this, mitigation of climate change while still using fossil fuels for energy can be achieved by a switch to which type of technology? a) electric cars b) solar panels c) wind energy d) superconducting magnetic energy storage Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

Question Type: Essay

46) How do the types of energy used by people today differ from those used a few hundred years ago, and what are the immediate environmental consequences of this?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

47) Imagine that you are a scientist studying a mineral that occurs on a foreign planet.

Preliminary analyses indicate that this mineral is combustible, and you have been asked to characterize this mineral’s potential as an energy source for people on earth. What information would you need before you could characterize the potential advantages and disadvantages of the mineral as an energy source?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

48) What are the recent trends in global energy use? How do these trends vary from place to place across the globe?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Energy Consumption and Policy

49) Define energy efficiency and energy conservation. How do they differ, and why should they both be included in the effort to solve our energy needs?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe some advantages and disadvantages of conserving energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

50) Describe the issues that lead to energy inefficiencies in automobiles. What can be done to reduce these inefficiencies?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

51) What are government subsidies, and how do they contribute to high levels of energy use?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the relationship between energy services and efficiency.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

52) What is electricity? How is it generated, and how is it used to do work?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Define electricity.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

53) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of hydrogen as an energy source. What processes are used to produce hydrogen for this purpose?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.3 Provide examples of the role hydrogen could play as a future fuel source.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

54) Compare and contrast two methods of energy storage. (Choose any two from bold terms below)

1. Pumped hydroelectric storage 2. compressed air energy storage 3. thermal energy 4. Kinetic energy storage 5. Superconducting magnetic energy storage 6. Electrochemical batteries Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.4 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of storing energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

55) What concerns exist about development of domestic fossil fuels as part of a comprehensive national energy strategy?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 11

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) What does the term “Peak Oil” refer to? a) the time period during which the rate of oil use is highest b) the point in time at which the maximum amount of oil is being pumped from underground c) an environmentally friendly synthetic oil with much lower greenhouse gas emissions than conventional oil d) the time period during which oil refineries operate at their highest capacity e) the time period during which international economies based on petroleum products arose Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.2 Explain what is meant by Peak Oil and why it might concern us.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

2) Which of the following statements regarding fossil fuel formation is NOT true? a) The sun is the ultimate source of the energy they contain b) They are formed at a much slower rate than they are currently being consumed c) They are formed in an oxygen-rich environment d) They are composed of the remnants of ancient organisms e) They require millions of years to form Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.1 Define fossil fuel.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

3) Which of these fossil fuels was/were formed from the remains of ancient microscopic algae and aquatic organisms?

a) oil b) natural gas c) gas hydrates d) methane e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.2 Distinguish among coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

4) Which of these fossil fuels is composed primarily of methane? a) oil b) natural gas c) coal d) tar sands e) lignite Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.2 Distinguish among coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

5) Combustion of which of these fossil fuels is/are linked to global warming? a) oil b) natural gas c) coal d) methane e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.2 Distinguish among coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

6) Which fossil fuel reserves will most likely last the longest? a) oil b) natural gas c) coal d) peat e) uranium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.2 Distinguish among coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

7) Which fossil fuel is most abundant in North America? a) oil b) natural gas c) uranium d) coal e) peat Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.1 Define fossil fuel.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

8) The type of fossil fuel made from the remains of ancient plants that lived millions of years ago is a) peat b) coal c) oil d) natural gas e) synfuel Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.2 Distinguish among coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

9) Anthracite coal a) causes the most air pollution b) has the highest sulfur content c) is very hard and burns cleanly d) is the most abundant grade of coal e) is very soft and burns at high temperatures Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

10) Bituminous coal: a) is the most common grade of coal b) causes the least amount of air pollution of any type of coal c) is very soft and burns at high temperatures d) is very hard and burns cleanly e) has the lowest sulfur content of any type of coal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

11) Lignite coal: a) is the most common grade of coal b) causes the least amount of air pollution of any type of coal c) is very soft and has a relatively low heat value d) is very hard and burns cleanly e) has the lowest sulfur content of any type of coal Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal 12) The world’s coal reserves could last for possibly another: a) 20 years b) 50 years c) 100 years d) 200 years e) 500 years Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.3 Define resource recovery and fluidized-bed combustion.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

13) The legislation that has regulated mining activities in the United States since 1977 is the: a) Wilderness Act b) Clean Water Act c) Endangered Species Act d) Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act e) Soil Conservation Service Act Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

14) Scrubbers in smoke stacks remove large amounts of what major air pollutant? a) carbon dioxide b) sulfur oxides c) nitric acid d) sodium oxides e) mercury

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

15) The concern about global warming is directly related to increased levels of what chemical in the atmosphere? a) mercury b) carbon dioxide c) sulfur oxide d) nitrogen oxide e) chlorofluorocarbon Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.4 Relate fossil fuels to the carbon cycle.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels 16) Today the world’s main energy source is a) coal b) hydroelectric c) natural gas d) nuclear e) oil Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

17) Tar sands, oil shales, and gas hydrates are examples of a) fossil fuels

b) synfuels c) evaporates d) petrochemicals e) strata Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

18) What is the current state of Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technology for use in coal power plants? a) CCS technology is ready to be implemented on a large scale b) CCS technology is not yet ready for testing in power plants c) CCS technology is being tested on a very small scale d) CCS technology has been tested many times and was found to be inadequate for meeting current capture and storage needs e) The theory of CCS technology is established, but an adequate design of a CCS mechanism has not been developed Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.4 Explain why many new coal plants will be designed to capture carbon dioxide.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

19) How has the burning of fossil fuels affected the global carbon cycle? a) Less carbon is stored underground b) Carbon is stored underground for longer periods of time c) The amount of carbon taken up by plants has decreased d) The total amount of carbon on earth has increased e) The carbon cycle has slowed down Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.3 Describe the processes that formed coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels

20) The greatest increase in worldwide energy consumption in the last few years is related to: a) American fascination with driving SUVs b) Economic development in China and India c) Use of fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture d) Increase in population in Africa e) Global warming Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Section Reference 1: 11.5 Energy and Climate Change: Fossil Fuels in China

21) China is quickly becoming a major player in the global market of oil consumption for all of these reasons except: a) China has developed technology for converting coal into oil b) China’s economic growth is exploding c) China’s motor vehicle ownership per capita is increasing d) China has a population of over 1 billion people e) Mass transit primarily uses oil as a source of energy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Section Reference 1: 11.5 Energy and Climate Change: Fossil Fuels in China

22) A major reason that global energy consumption is increasing is that: a) energy prices keep falling b) developing countries are using more energy as they improve their standard of living c) the world’s population growth is slowing d) global energy reserves are increasing e) farmers in developing countries depend on the energy of animals for plowing and other work

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Section Reference 1: 11.5 Energy and Climate Change: Fossil Fuels in China

23) Based on the figure below, which region of the world has the third-largest oil deposits?

a) North America b) Africa c) Asia and Oceania d) East Europe and former U.S.S.R. e) South and Central America Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

24) All of the following statements are true about surface mining except

a) It accounts for 60% of the coal mined in the United States b) It is also known as strip mining c) It is generally safer for miners than other coal mining processes d) It is a less expensive mining process than subsurface mining e) It is the most hazardous type of mining for workers Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.1 Distinguish between surface mining and subsurface mining.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

25) Which of the following compounds may be released by the burning of coal without emission controls? a) carbon dioxide b) nitrogen oxides c) mercury d sulfurous oxide e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

26) Which of the following fuels produces the greatest quantity of CO2 per unit of heat energy produced? a) methane b) natural gas c) coal d) oil e) wood Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

27) In areas experiencing acid precipitation, the pH of the rain may be a) 2.1 b) 5.6 c) 7.0 d) 7.9 e) 11.9 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

28) Natural gas may be used in all of the following except: a) cogeneration b) transportation c) commercial cooling d) plastics and paints e) generation of electricity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

29) It is hypothesized that undiscovered large oil deposits are located a) below ocean basin trenches b) under the continental shelves c) in locations where natural gas will not be found d) in the continental United States e) in locations where volcanoes are common Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.2 Explain what is meant by Peak Oil and why it might concern us.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

30) Petrochemicals are used in the production of all of the following except: a) paints b) fertilizers c) medicines d) synthetic fibers e) lightweight concrete Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

31) Which of the following techniques is used to identify structural traps that might contain oil and natural gas? a) mining b) watch plate tectonics c) satellite imaging d) drill test holes and obtain rock samples e) watch plate tectonics and drill test holes and obtain rock samples Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.1 Define structural trap, giving two examples.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

32) In fluidized-bed combustion of coal, what is mixed with coal to remove which major air pollutant? a) sand; nitrogen oxides b) limestone; carbon dioxide c) sand; sulfur oxides

d) limestone; sulfur oxides e) water; sulfur oxides Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.3 Define resource recovery and fluidized-bed combustion.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

33) Which of these statements about coal is false? a) Some types of coal contain a lot of sulfur. b) Subsurface mining accounts for about 40% of the coal mined in the U.S. c) Coal powered the steam engine during the Industrial Revolution. d) Coal produces far less SO2 than natural gas or oil. e) Coal supplies about 20% of the energy used in the United States.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

34) All of these factors are important in the discovery of oil and natural gas deposits except: a) detection of structural traps b) association with salt domes c) association with remains of ancient forests d) location of the right rock layer e) identification of core samples containing microfossils Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.1 Define structural trap, giving two examples.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

35) Negative environmental impacts from oil and natural gas production may occur due to: a) release of particulates into the atmosphere b) radical changes in the local topography c) release of acids d) accidental spills during transport e) release of toxins Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

36) Initially the Clean Air Act of 1990 required ___ of the nation’s dirtiest coal burning plants to cut down on emissions a) 50 b) 71 c) 111 d) 2300 e) 200 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

37) Acid mine drainage a) polluted steams b) can cause dangerous landslides c) are caused when sulfuric acid and dangerous dissolved materials wash from coal and metal mines into nearby lakes and streams d) are produced when rainwater seeps through iron sulfide exposed to mine wastes Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

38) One of the most destructive types of surface mining for the land itself a) is mountaintop removal using a dragline b) is associated with the increased risk of black-lung disease in miners c) is regulated by the guidelines of the 1977 Surface Mining and Reclamation Act d) is most common in the western United States e) involves replacement of the overburden that is first removed Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

39) Gas or methane hydrates in the arctic tundra show increasing promise as a limited energy supply for which two of these countries? a) United States and Iceland b) Greenland and Finland c) Germany and Ireland d) Russia and Canada e) Belgium and Holland Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

40) Which of the following statements about fossil fuel use in China is false? a) For the first time ever, China recently imported more oil than Japan b) China recently became the world’s second largest importer of oil c) China’s projected carbon dioxide emissions in 2025 are more than half the total amount that is currently being emitted by all the nations of the world d) China has large amounts of natural oil reserves

e) per capita motor vehicle ownership is predicted to increase in the near future Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Section Reference 1: 11.5 Energy and Climate Change: Fossil Fuels in China

41) Which of the following is associated with subsurface mining? a) overburden b) spoilbank c) strip mining d) reduced environmental problems e) more complete removal of coal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.1 Distinguish between surface mining and subsurface mining.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

42) A thick, asphalt-like oil that permeates tar sands is: a) overburden b) bitumen c) kerogen d) gas hydrate e) anhtracite Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

43) A mixture of hydrocarbons contained in oil shale is referred to as: a) overburden

b) bitumen c) kerogen d) gas hydrate e) anhtracite Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

44) Ice-encrusted energy reserves contained deep underground in porous rock are known as: a) overburden b) bitumen c) kerogens d) gas hydrates e) anhtracite Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

45) The process of Coal Liquefaction may be used to produce: a) a nonalcohol liquid fuel b) bitumen c) kerogens d) gas hydrates e) anhtracite Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

46) A synthetic fuel that served as the major fuel for lighting and heating American homes until the 20th Century is: a) anthracite b) bitumen c) kerogen d) gas hydrates e) coal gas Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

47) Which of the following is a potential environmental impact of using synthetic fuels for energy? a) production of CO2 b) use of large amounts of water c) use of large amounts of land d) production of CO2 and use of large amounts of water e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.3 Briefly consider the environmental implications of using synfuels.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

48) All of the following are arguments against oil drilling in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge EXCEPT: a) using domestic oil is only a short-term fix to energy problems in the United States b) it will be financially impractical to restore lands developed for oil extraction c) there is no nearby infrastructure to facilitate oil drilling d) documented declines in populations of wolves and bears in nearby areas where drilling has occurred

e) oil extraction in Prudhoe Bay has been declining Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.4 Summarize the continuing controversy surrounding oil drilling in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

49) For a given amount of useful energy, the most CO2 is produced by: a) coal combustion b) natural gas combustion c) oil combustion d) kerogen combustion e) gas hydrate combustion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

50) Potential uses for calcium sulfate sludge, resulting from acid neutralization, include: a) wallboard b) soil conditioner c) concrete d) wallboard and soil conditioner e) all of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

Question Type: Essay

51) Explain how the different types of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) were formed.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.3 Describe the processes that formed coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels Solution: Coal deposits formed from the decaying remains of giant swampy forests of tree ferns, horsetails, and club mosses that grew year round in earth’s milder climate.

Heat and pressure changed these remains that are found in sedimentary rock to coal. Oil formed from sedimentary deposits of aquatic microorganisms that were depleted of oxygen in the decomposition process. Natural gas is formed the same way as oil, but at higher temperatures. Oil and natural gas deposits are often found together and they tend to accumulate in pools beneath nonporous or impervious rock layers.

52) Identify the major ways that the burning of coal impacts the environment, and suggest one method for minimizing each type of impact.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal Answer: Burning coal releases more carbon dioxide per unit of heat energy produced than the burning of any other type of fossil fuel. A lot of coal contains mercury that is released into the environment during combustion. Bituminous coal contains sulfur and nitrogen that release sulfur and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere. When these gases combine with water they cause acid precipitation. Sulfur emissions can be reduced if scrubbers are used on the exhaust system of a coal burning plant. Other clean coal technologies are being developed such as fluidized-bed combustion. Use of higher grade coal (anthracite) produces fewest pollutants per unit of heat released.

53) What are synfuels and why are they not used more extensively if there are concerns about diminishing global reserves of traditional fossil fuels?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4.0 Describe the different types of synfuels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.4.1 Define synfuel.

Learning Objective 3: LO 11.4.2 Distinguish among tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquid coal, and coal gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.4 Synfuels and other Potential Fossil-fuel Resources.

Solution: Synfuels or synthetic fuels include tar sands, oil shales, gas hydrates, liquefied coal, and coal gas. They are more expensive to produce than traditional fossil fuels, and they have many of the same undesirable environmental effects as fossil fuels.

54) Discuss the economic and environmental advantages and disadvantages of natural gas as an energy source; address the perspectives of both production and use.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas Solution: Natural gas is the cleanest burning of the fossil fuels; it is composed of methane and smaller amounts of ethane, propane, and butane. Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide are the primary atmospheric pollutants from the combustion of natural gas – these are greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change/global warming. Methane is distributed by being pumped through pressurized pipelines or shipped as a solid in refrigerated tankers. Deposits are often far from where the energy could be used; it costs four times more to transport through pipelines than crude oil.

55) Explain the fundamental misunderstanding about fossil fuels that is embedded in this recent quote: "If extinction is happening at a greater rate now, why is our supply of fossil fuels decreasing?" (Rep. Steve Pearce - R, New Mexico - at a hearing on the Endangered Species Act, 6/16/05) Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1.0 Explain the differences between coal, oil, and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.1.3 Describe the processes that formed coal, oil, and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.1 Fossil Fuels Solution: Fossil fuels were formed many millions of years ago from the decaying remains of forests and marine sediments containing microorganisms. Fossil fuels are decreasing because of the increased rate of consumption of energy based on these limited sources.

The types of extinctions that scientists are documenting today refer to plant and animal species that have been impacted by habitat loss, and it has no real-time connection to the conditions that led to fossil fuel formation in geologic history.

56) Describe two characteristics of the arctic tundra that make it fragile, and relate each of these characteristics to damage from human impact related to exploitation of petroleum resources in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.4 Summarize the continuing controversy surrounding oil drilling in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas Solution: The tundra is characterized by permafrost, with a small amount of slowgrowing vegetation that supports a small number of specialized species of animals (e.g. herds of caribou and their predators) that are highly sensitive to environmental changes.

Drilling for oil, building of roads and disturbance of this environment by building pipelines and housing for workers may cause significant disruption to this biome.

57) Describe the restoration process that is required for the land as a result of surface mining of coal. Explain why this process might be more difficult in some areas because of differences in local climate, the sulfur content of the soil, and the extent of the vegetation and soil removed to mine the coal.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal Solution: After the coal is mined, the overburden (soil, vegetation, and rock covering the coal) must be replaced and the surface must be restored to its original condition. In arid regions, water would be needed to get the vegetation to grow again, and this might increase the likelihood of acid drainage if there was a lot of sulfur in the coal. Regions with lots of rainfall would have to have drainage basins built to take the effluent from mine tailings away from the site.

58) How can we best encourage the economic development and growing prosperity of the Chinese population in light of the projected demands this will place on the global reserves of fossil fuels?

Answer: Reference: 11.5 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Section Reference 1: 11.5 Energy and Climate Change: Fossil Fuels in China Solution: Answers will vary; incentives should be offered perhaps to encourage the use of alternative energy sources (solar, nuclear, wind, etc) and the development of more efficient technology that uses energy from fossil fuels (e.g. vehicles with better gas miles/gallon).

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 12

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Plant material used for food is called: a) hydromass. b) tidalmass. c) biomass. d) cogeneration. e) fertilizer.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.1 Define biomass.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

2) Which of the following is not an emerging alternative, renewable resource energy technology? a) nuclear energy b) wind farms c) alcohol fuels d) photovoltaic solar cells e) geothermal energy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.1 Discuss the pros and cons of electric power produced by nuclear energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

3) The amount of solar radiation hitting the Earth depends on: a) the amount of cloud cover.

b) the distance from the equator. c) the time of day. d) the season of the year. e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

4) In the United States, solar radiation is greatest in: a) the southwest. b) the northeast. c) the northwest. d) the mid-west e) Florida.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

5) All of the following materials are examples of biomass fuels except: a) wood b) oil c) animal waste d) crop wastes e) sawdust Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.1 Define biomass.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

6) Passive solar heating: a) cannot be used to heat buildings. b) is effective only in the summer. c) uses the sun’s energy without machines. d) is a non-renewable resource. e) depends on x-rays.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

7) Which of the following is part of a home designed with passive solar heating? a) south facing windows b) mirrors and lenses c) use of solar collectors on the roof d) little insulation e) a greenhouse Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

8) Which of the following can be used to store the heat from passive solar heating? a) containers of water b) reflective glass windows c) solar panels d) photovoltaic solar cells e) wooden roof beams

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

9) Which of the following renewable energy sources is not used to produce electricity? a) solar heating b) geothermal c) biomass conversion d) photovoltaics e) wind Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

10) Which of the following does not involve solar energy? a) geothermal energy b) photovoltaic cells c) solar power towers d) wind farms e) solar thermal collectors Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources

11) In rural areas of developing countries, photovoltaic cells are used to:

a) avoid the need to extend power lines. b) provide refrigeration for vaccines. c) grind grain. d) pump water. e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

12) The burning of biomass, such as wood, is an example of: a) active solar heating. b) indirect use of solar energy. c) passive solar heating. d) using a non-renewable resource. e) None of these Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.2 Explain why biomass is an example of indirect solar energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

13) Which of the following is a liquid fuel converted from biomass? a) charcoal b) hydrogen c) methanol d) propane e) methane Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.2 Explain why biomass is an example of indirect solar energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

14) Growing crops specifically for alcohol production would probably result in: a) increased desertification. b) increased soil erosion. c) reduced food production. d) increased pollution by fertilizers and pesticides. e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.3 Outline how biomass is used as a source of energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

15) Which of the following is not a source of biomass energy? a) uranium b) wood c) peat d) animal dung e) charcoal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.3 Outline how biomass is used as a source of energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

16) Which of the following is not an example of a renewable energy source that indirectly uses solar power? a) wind energy b) tidal energy c) hydropower d) ocean waves e) ocean temperature gradients

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources

17) Wind: a) is the result of the conversion of radiant energy into chemical energy. b) is used in Montana to generate most of the electricity used in that state. c) cannot be used to generate electricity. d) has been used to pump water, irrigate fields and grind grain for many hundreds of years. e) energy produces low levels of carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.4 Describe the locations that can make optimum use of wind energy and of hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

18) Which of the following is not a problem associated with hydropower? a) reservoir-induced seismicity b) habitat destruction c) flooding potential d) increased soil erosion e) disruption of fish spawning Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.4 Describe the locations that can make optimum use of wind energy and of hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

19) Geothermal energy is a prominent energy source in: a) Ireland. b) northern Europe. c) Iceland.

d) Australia. e) Canada.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources

20) Which of the following statements about geothermal energy is false? a) Geothermal energy is typically associated with volcanism. b) Geothermal energy is used to heat greenhouses for the production of produce in Iceland. c) The United States is the world's largest producers of geothermal electricity. d) Experts argue whether geothermal energy is a renewable resource. e) The most common environmental hazard associated with this resource is increasing levels of atmospheric CO2.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources

21) Utility companies: a) have no interest in solar power because it is universally available. b) cannot utilize solar power due to limitations of the current technology. c) cannot use photovoltaic cells because it would significantly increase their production of greenhouse gases. d) can purchase photovoltaic devices in small modular units to increase their power generating capacity. e) will not use photovoltaic cells because they will never be competitive with conventional energy sources.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

22) Which of the following does not apply to wind power? a) is a clean source of energy b) is most profitable in areas that have fairly continual winds c) is the least competitive of all forms of renewable energy, in terms of cost d) causes no air pollution e) wind machines detract from the esthetics of the region Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.4 Describe the locations that can make optimum use of wind energy and of hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

23) Which of the following is not a disadvantage to using biomass as a source of energy? a) deforestation b) air pollution c) depletion of minerals in the soil d) increased possibility of erosion e) nonrenewable source of energy Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.3 Outline how biomass is used as a source of energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

24) The energy released in the burning of biomass fuels: a) originated as solar energy. b) was stored as chemical energy in plant tissues or animal waste products. c) was initially converted from solar energy to chemical energy by the process of photosynthesis. d) is one of the oldest fuels known to humans. e) All of these Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.3 Outline how biomass is used as a source of energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

25) The direct cause of air warming via passive solar heating is: a) infrared radiation. b) visible light. c) ultraviolet radiation. d) microwave radiation. e) double-paned glass.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

26) Photovoltaic cells: a) have become more economical to produce and use over the past 25 years. b) are the most efficient means of converting solar energy to electricity. c) are currently only used in urban areas of highly developed countries. d) have only been adapted for use in small appliances. e) generate electricity with minimal pollution, but unfortunately, require expensive maintenance.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

27) Solar thermal energy systems are inherently more efficient than other solar technologies because:

a) the technology involved is less expensive. b) they can work at night and on cloudy days, as well as in full sunlight. c) they concentrate the sun's energy. d) they are dependent on circulating hot water. e) the technology involved is less expensive and they can work at night and on cloudy days, as well as in full sunlight Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

28) Many sun-tracking mirrors are used to focus sunlight on a central tower boiler to produce steam to drive generators. This best describes: a) active solar heating. b) indirect solar energy. c) passive solar heating. d) photovoltaic solar cells. e) solar power towers.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

29) Which of the following is NOT among the potential adverse environmental impacts of generating geothermal energy? a) emission of gases such as hydrogen sulfide b) water depletion c) induced seismicity d) increase in carbon dioxide emissions e) land subsidence Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources

30) Potential locations for wind farms include: a) mountain passes b) islands c) coastal areas d) grasslands e) All of these places Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.4 Describe the locations that can make optimum use of wind energy and of hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

31) The fact that solar systems only generate electricity during the day is typically not a problem because: a) many photovoltaic cells continue to generate electricity through the night. b) they currently do not produce much electricity on a global scale. c) demand for electricity is often highest during the day. d) the electricity can be used to power Stirling engines. e) they are often located in deserts.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

32) Photovoltaic solar cells are: a) single-celled organisms that are used to collect solar radiation, which they turn into heat.

b) wafers of crystalline silicon treated with metals that absorb solar radiation and generate electricity. c) cheap to produce, but contribute to atmospheric pollution, including CO2. d) highly efficient in converting solar energy to electricity. e) unable to function at all on rainy or cloudy days.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

33) One unique aspect of solar energy as a source of global power is: a) it is currently the only renewable energy resource. b) it contributes to the greenhouse effect. c) it is dispersed over the Earth's entire surface rather than being concentrated in highly localized areas. d) its reserves will last well into the next millennium. e) that it is not dependent on technology for collection or utilization.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

34) Which of the following statements about hydropower is true? a) Dams have little or no impact on native aquatic organisms. b) Hydropower includes dams, tides, and ocean currents. c) Dams are relatively inexpensive to build but are expensive to operate. d) The Wild and Scenic Rivers Act fosters the hydroelectric development of U.S. waterways. e) Humans downstream of a dam may be exposed to waterborne diseases if the dam breaks.

Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.5 Compare the potential of wind energy and hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy

35) The use of photovoltaic cells is limited by all of the following except: a) high cost b) low efficiency c) inability to directly generate electricity d) cells incorporate hazardous materials e) large output requires large areas of land Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

36) The temperature of buildings can by altered by using an underground arrangement of pipes containing circulating fluids, which use the Earth as both a heat source and heat sink. This uses _______ technology. a) Infrared Radiation compartment b) Fuel Cell c) Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) d) Geothermal heat pump e) Photovoltaic solar cell Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources 37) What factors have led to the recent “nuclear renaissance?” a) uncertainty and increased expense of building conventional coal power plants. b) technological advances in methods for disposing of nuclear waste. c) creating additional nuclear capacity is a political priority in the Unites States.

d) the uncertainty and increased expense of building conventional coal power plants and the fact that creating additional nuclear capacity is a political priority in the Unites States e) All of these.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7.0 Explore the future of nuclear power.

Section Reference 1: 12.7 The Future of Nuclear Power

38) Nuclear energy: a) is released when the chemical bonds that hold atoms together are changed. b) involves changes within the nuclei of atoms. c) involves converting a large amount of matter from the nucleus into a small amount of energy. d) results in the production of greater mass at the end of the energy process. e) All of these.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

39) Nuclear fusion: a) produces a product with a larger mass than the starting material. b) is a form of combustion. c) involves splitting a large atom into two smaller atoms of different elements. d) is the rearrangement of electrons that occurs during a chemical reaction. e) is the process that powers the sun and other stars.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

40) Nuclear fission: a) is a form of combustion. b) is the blending or "melting together" of two small atoms to form a large atom. c) is the splitting of a large atom into two smaller atoms of different elements. d) is the rearrangement of electrons that occurs during a chemical reaction. e) is the process that powers the sun and other stars.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

41) Joining two lightweight atomic nuclei into a single heavier nucleus is called: a) enrichment. b) fusion. c) fission. d) atom exchange. e) the nuclear fuel cycle.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

42) Forms of a single element that differ in atomic mass are called: a) atoms. b) radioactive. c) compounds. d) isotopes. e) molecules.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

43) The atomic mass of an element is equal to the: a) number of neutrons. b) number of protons. c) number of electrons. d) number of neutrons + number of protons. e) number of protons + number of electrons.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

44) The half-life of a radioactive element is the period of time required: a) to convert half of a given mass into radioisotopes. b) to extract one-half of the energy from the Earth's uranium supply. c) for one half of the total amount of a radioactive substance to change into a different material. d) for the sun to use up one-half of its available atomic resources. e) None of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

45) The most abundant isotope of uranium in ore is: a) C-12. b) U-234. c) U-235. d) U-238.

e) PU-239.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

46) The process of refining uranium ore and insuring the proper amounts of various types of uranium is called: a) breeding. b) fabrication. c) enrichment. d) fission. e) integration.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

47) Which of the following countries has the largest deposits of the element uranium? a) South Africa b) United States c) Australia d) Afghanistan e) Canada Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

48) Which of the following is not a component of a regular nuclear power plant? a) combustion engine b) fuel rods c) reactor core d) steam generator e) control rods Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

49) Above each fuel assembly is a control rod that regulates the nuclear reaction by absorbing: a) energy. b) heat. c) neutrons. d) radioactive wastes. e) uranium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

50) A reactor vessel in a nuclear power plant is: a) the protective structure surrounding the reactor core. b) the container used to store spent fuel rods. c) used to control the fission process in the reactor core. d) the site of steam and electricity production. e) the standard location for on-site waste storage.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

51) When high temperatures begin to melt the metal encasing the uranium fuel pellets, this is called a: a) breeder reaction. b) fission reaction. c) fusion reaction. d) meltdown. e) flame out.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.1 Discuss the pros and cons of electric power produced by nuclear energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

52) The worst nuclear accident ever to happen at a nuclear power plant occurred at: a) Bristol, England. b) Chornobyl, Ukraine. c) Normandy, France. d) Savanna River, GA. e) Three Mile Island, PA. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.2 Describe the nuclear power plant accidents at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

53) High level radioactive wastes: a) are produced by nuclear power plants and nuclear weapons facilities.

b) can be safely and permanently disposed of c) do not include spent fuel rods and tailings from uranium mining. d) have very short half-lives. e) All of these Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.1 Distinguish between low-level and high-level radioactive wastes.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

54) The greatest problem with the use of nuclear power to generate electricity is its production of: a) air pollutants. b) water pollution. c) carbon dioxide. d) radiation that is released into the surrounding region. e) radioactive waste that requires waste storage.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.2 Explain the pros and cons of on-site storage and deep geologic disposal.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

55) A storage site for high-level radioactive waste would have all of the following features except: a) isolated from major population centers. b) geological stability. c) no contact with groundwater. d) near volcanic activity where waste can be destroyed by high temperatures. e) no contact with flowing water or air movement.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.2 Explain the pros and cons of on-site storage and deep geologic disposal.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

56) All of the following are related to NIMBY response EXCEPT: a) not in my back yard b) it commonly is a response to the proposal for a nuclear power plant c) politicians and their term of office d) is the “sister” response to NIMTOO e) All of these are related Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7.0 Explore the future of nuclear power.

Section Reference 1: 12.7 The Future of Nuclear Power

57) The production of "glass logs" to store high-level liquid radioactive wastes in the United States is called: a) vitrification. b) "wet cask storage" c) spent fuel pools. d) fuel assemblies. e) logification Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.2 Explain the pros and cons of on-site storage and deep geologic disposal.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

58) Spent fuel is a) exhausted energy b) the depleted environmental reserves of radioactive elements c) the entombed storage of dismantled nuclear reactors

d) the used neutrons in the nucleus of an atom e) radioactive waste generated by nuclear energy Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

59) U-235 and U-238 are different a) isotopes of uranium b) elements that are radioactive c) ionic forms of the same element d) types of radioactive decay e) types of fuel for fusion reactors Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

60) All of the following are effects of the Megatons to Megawatts™ program EXCEPT: a) generation of energy that has been used by one in ten US consumers b) elimination of almost 14,000 nuclear warheads have been eliminated from former Soviet stockpiles c) conversion of over 350 metric tons of highly enriched uranium from dismantled Russian nuclear weapons to low enriched uranium d) elimination of over 10 tons of high level radioactive waste Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

61) Which of the following vocabulary is mis-matched with its definition? a) fission – splitting atoms into smaller fragments b) fusion - combining atomic nuclei into larger nuclei c) high-level nuclear waste – spent fuel elements from commercial reactors d) low-level nuclear waste – any slightly contaminated material e) meltdown – process by which uranium ore is refined after mining to increase the concentration of fissionable U-235 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.1 Discuss the pros and cons of electric power produced by nuclear energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

62) The main problem with energy from nuclear fusion power is: a) it is dependent upon hydrogen, a limited fuel resource. b) fusion only occurs in the sun, and we don't know how the sun's energy is produced. c) fusion technology requires vast quantities of uranium. d) fusion power still remains to be proven practical to control e) None of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

63) Which of the following statements is not true? The splitting of a uranium atom in a nuclear reactor: a) may trigger the splitting of additional atoms of uranium. b) produces dangerous waste material. c) results in the production of high-energy neutrons. d) results in the production of large amounts of heat energy. e) results in no loss of mass.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

64) How many countries are currently using nuclear energy to generate electricity? a) 21 b) 19 c) 101 d) 13 e) 31 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

65) Fission of U-235: a) results in the release of electrons, which collide with other U-235 atoms creating a chain reaction. b) releases a great amount of heat, which is used to transform steam into water. c) must be controlled in order to be used for the production of electricity. d) in power plants may get out of control generating a bomb-like nuclear explosion. e) is controlled by the careful placement of the reactor core within the turbine.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

66) Fission products with short half-lives that are products of U-235 fission: a) mimic nutrients essential for good health. b) can be incorporated into bones, teeth, muscle and the thyroid gland. c) continue to decay even after being ingested. d) can cause cancer. e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.1 Distinguish between low-level and high-level radioactive wastes.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

67) An unstable isotope of hydrogen is: a) tritium b) deuterium c) sodium d) lead e) uranium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7.0 Explore the future of nuclear power.

Section Reference 1: 12.7 The Future of Nuclear Power

68) In breeder nuclear fission reactors: a) uranium U-235 is converted into plutonium Pu-239. b) U-238 fission produces heat that is used to generate electricity. c) protons produced from the fission of Pu-239 produce additional Pu-239 from U-238. d) Pu-239 fission produces heat that is used to produce electricity. e) uranium U-238 is converted to U-235.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

69) Which of the following is a major advantage of breeder nuclear fission? a) Breeder nuclear fission is responsible for 30% of the electricity needed worldwide. b) Nonfissionable U-238 is converted to fissionable Pu-239 c) It uses sodium as a coolant, which is safer than using water. d) It uses uranium-235 as a main energy source. e) It neither uses nor produces weapons-grade materials.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

70) One advantage of conventional nuclear power, when compared to coal, is: a) no connection to water pollution. b) limited risk from catastrophic accidents. c) Emission of few pollutants to the atmosphere. d) no related occupational death. e) unlimited supply.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.1 Discuss the pros and cons of electric power produced by nuclear energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

71) Which of the following has not been linked to exposure to high levels of radiation? a) mutations b) increased incidence of influenza c) cancer

d) leukemia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.2 Describe the nuclear power plant accidents at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

72) The partial destruction of the reactor core at Three Mile Island: a) was controlled by the containment building. b) caused no safety issues for workers or nearby residents. c) resulted in extensive radioactivity being released into the surrounding environment. d) caused the power plant to be closed indefinitely. e) caused cancer in many children who lived near the power plant.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.2 Describe the nuclear power plant accidents at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

73) The two fuels commonly used in atomic fission weapons are: a) plutonium-239 and uranium-235. b) plutonium-239 and uranium-238. c) radium-226 and uranium-235. d) plutonium-239 and krypton-85. e) uranium-235 and plutonium-240.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

74) The formation of a mixed oxide (MOX) containing plutonium: a) produces an essential component of nuclear weapons. b) is a means of disposing of weapons-grade plutonium. c) allows for the safe transport of radioactive liquid. d) occurs during a meltdown. e) can only be applied to low-level radioactive waste.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

75) Low levels of radioactive wastes: a) give off small amounts of ionizing radiation. b) are produced only by nuclear power plants. c) are safely stored in local landfills. d) are in solid form only. e) are not a serious problem for disposal.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.1 Distinguish between low-level and high-level radioactive wastes.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

76) Hazardous radioactive materials produced by fission reactors include all of the following except: a) plutonium - 239 b) cesium - 137 c) carbon - 12 d) krypton - 85 e) strontium - 90

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.1 Distinguish between low-level and high-level radioactive wastes.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

77) What is the role of the reactor core in a nuclear power plant? a) it provides heat to superheat water into steam under pressure, which is used to generate electricity b) it restricts atomic fallout to reduce contamination c) it breaks large radioisotopes into smaller radioisotopes d) it reacts chemically with high-energy particles rendering them inert e) it maintains one radioactive decay per second Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.3 Define nuclear reactor, describing a typical nuclear power reactor.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

78) Which of the following does not have a short half life? a) Uranium- 235 b) Carbon – 12 c) Krypton – 85 d) Cesium – 173 e) Strontium – 90 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.1 Distinguish between low-level and high-level radioactive wastes.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes

79) All of the following are issues that have limited the building of breeder nuclear reactors except: a) a breeder reactor makes more fissionable fuel than it uses b) a breeder reactor uses liquid sodium, a highly reactive metal, rather than water as a coolant posing more safety risks c) a breeder nuclear fission use of plutonium as fuel is associated with plutonium use in nuclear weapons d) public opposition, technical problems, and accidents e) uranium, used for conventional nuclear fission, is more plentiful and cheaper than originally thought Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy

Question Type: Essay

80) Discuss the positive and negative aspects of using direct solar energy, and suggest ways to encourage research and development in this form of alternative energy.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.1 Describe the availability and variable intensity of solar energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy Solution: On the positive side, solar energy is renewable and there are many alternatives available for obtaining energy from the sun (e.g. passive and actives forms). It is an ideal source of energy in places with lots of sun. Newer technology incorporates photovoltaic cells into roof tiles, eliminating the concern about the appearance of solar panels On the negative side, the cost of photovoltaic panels is quite high. Solar energy as the primary energy source is not suited for many places on the planet. Some form of energy storage is needed when it is dark or when the sun is barely shining.

Ways to encourage research and development include government funding of research through the DOE, state or federal subsidies for homeowners or businesses to reduce the

cost of adding solar systems, giving tax incentives for solar designs and solar panels, using multimedia to educate people about the benefits of using solar energy.

81) Discuss the advantages and potential adverse environmental impacts of using geothermal energy.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3.0 Discuss forms of renewable energy other than solar.

Section Reference 1: 12.3 Other Renewable Energy Sources Solution: The amount of geothermal energy is enormous because it is natural heat within the Earth. Geothermal energy can be obtained from hydrothermal pools, hot dry rock, or geothermal heat pumps.

Environmental concerns include concern about whether or not geothermal energy from hydrothermal pools is renewable, the emission of hydrogen sulfide gas in the steam or hot water, subsidence of the surrounding land, possible induced seismicity, expense in creating systems for energy from hot, dry rock and GHPs (geothermal heat pumps).

82) Hydropower is an indirect form of solar energy. (a) Explain the connection between water and solar power. (b) Identify the major benefits of hydropower (c) Briefly discuss the environmental issues associated with hydropower Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.4 Describe the locations that can make optimum use of wind energy and of hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy Solution: (a) The sun’s energy drives the hydrologic cycle, which encompasses precipitation, evaporation from land and water, transpiration from plants, and drainage and runoff. As water flows from higher elevations back to sea level, we can harness its energy. (b) Hydropower is more concentrated energy; it is more efficient than any other energy source for producing electricity (90% conversion); it is renewable (c) Dams change the natural flow of a river, land is flooded, destroying plant and animal habitats, disrupting the spawning of fish, and some have reservoir-induced seismicity.

People are displaced, habitats are fragmented, and if a dam breaks people and property downstream are endangered. Reservoirs may provide habitats for waterborne diseases such as schistosomiasis. Silt is trapped behind the dam, depriving agricultural lands downstream of nutrients.

83) An electric company approaches you with a proposition to allow a wind farm installation on your available property in the Great Plains. Identify one advantage and one disadvantage of agreeing to a “wind farm” on your property. Suggest three alternative geographic places suitable for wind farm development.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.4 Describe the locations that can make optimum use of wind energy and of hydropower.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy Solution: A wind farm in the Great Plains would be very profitable because it is a rural area that receives fairly continual winds. An advantage to allowing the wind farm on your available property is that the use of wind power does not cause any major environmental problems. It produces no waste or emissions. Every kilowatt-hour of electricity generated by wind power rather than fossil fuel prevents 1-2 pounds of carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas from entering the atmosphere. A disadvantage would be aesthetics. Wind machines change the characterisics of the landscape and, if located in migratory paths, have contributed to bird kills. The lease payment from the electric company would help offset your aesthetic concerns. However, alternative locations for the electric company to explore would be California, Iowa, Texas, Wyoming, Oklahoma, Minnesota, North or South Dakota. Or, the wind farm could be developed on a platform offshore much like the drilling rigs are.

84) What is OTEC? List the advantages and limitations associated with this potential energy source.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2.0 Explain indirect solar energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.2 Indirect Solar Energy Solution: The generation of electricity from ocean temperature gradients is known as ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC). One advantage of OTEC is that after the cold ocean water has been used in the power plant, it can also be used to air condition buildings and for aquaculture growing algae, fish and crustaceans. A limitation is change that might occur in the ocean as a result of removing so much of the deep, cold water.

Water properties such as dissolved gases, turbidity, nutrient levels, and salinity gradients might be altered along with the temperature. This would have an impact on marine organisms.

85) You are planning on converting your “typical home” into one with passive solar heating. List five modifications that you are considering.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.2 Distinguish between active and passive solar heating and describe how each is used.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy Solution: First I will add a solar sunspace to my existing home. It will have south-facing double-paned glass on the roof and side for insulation. The space will contain blackpainted water-filled drums to store heat from sunlight and warm the surrounding air. An insulating curtain would slide closed at night. A cooling vent would be in place for the summer as well as a vent space for warm air to enter the house and cool air to enter the sunspace. A brick wall, which would store heat, would separate the sunspace and house. I would also consider insulating the attic and north-facing walls and installing insulated drapes on the windows. I would install thick adobe or stonewalls and floor and increase the overhang of the roof to help block the summer sun. Each improvement would be designed to capture solar energy and distribute it in the house without the need for pumps or fans

86) Briefly describe the important steps in the nuclear fuel cycle, and identify the steps that involve the use of fossil fuels as well as the steps that are the most expensive to properly carry out. Include the process of decommissioning the nuclear power plant in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power Solution: The nuclear fuel cycle begins with mining the uranium ore, producing enriched uranium from the ore to increase the concentration of fissionable U-235, generating electricity from the fission of the fuel in the fuel rods, reprocessing of the spent fuel, disposing the nuclear fuel waste, and decommissioning of the worn-out reactor. Fossil fuels are involved in the mining and enrichment process, and the most expensive part of the operation involves spent fuel and decommissioning of the worn-out reactor.

87) Yucca Mountain has been considered as a site for the permanent storage of 70,000 tons of high-level radioactive wastes from commercially operated nuclear power plants.

(a) Cite probable reasons for Congress approving Yucca Mountain in 2002 as a nuclearwaste repository. (b) Present arguments against locating radioactive wastes here, and include the use of the acronyms NIMBY and NIMTOO in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.6.0 Discuss environmental and health issues with radioactive waste.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.6.2 Explain the pros and cons of on-site storage and deep geologic disposal.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Radioactive Wastes Solution: (a) Billions of dollars have already been spent to establish this site inside Yucca Mountain. Government scientists and engineers say the site will be safe to protect the public from radiation leaks for 10,000 years. Politics. (b) Residents of Nevada (NIMBY = not in my back yard) oppose the location of high level radioactive wastes here because of its proximity to the fastest growing city in the U.S. (Las Vegas), its location near a volcano and active earthquake fault lines.

Transportation of radioactive wastes to the site involves risk to other states whose highways and rail lines would potentially be threatened (as well as Nevada). Because this is not a popular local idea, no politician wants to be credited with having it established here during his or her term of office (NIMTOO). Other concerns involve increased possibility of terrorist attacks in this region or along the transportation routes.

88) Compare and contrast the nuclear accidents that occurred at Three Mile Island and Chornobyl. Include the nature of the accidents, responses, and impacts in your comparison.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.2 Describe the nuclear power plant accidents at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy Solution: In 1979 there was a 50% meltdown of the reactor core at the Three Mile Island power plant in Pennsylvania. The accident was due to human error, and almost all of the radioactivity was kept from escaping because of the design of the containment building.

No significant health risks from this accident have been reported, but as a result the public became quite concerned about the safety of nuclear power plants. In 1986 the worst accident ever to occur at a nuclear power plant occurred at the Chornobyl (Chernobyl) power plant in the Ukraine. The nuclear reactor ripped apart with explosions, expelling large quantities of radioactive material into the air. The danger was not only to

the workers and residents of the local community, but also to people in northern Europe.

Many people died, others contracted cancer, and over 116,000 people had to permanently abandon their homes. The immediate cause of the accident was related to a flaw in the design of the plant (a RMBK reactor), combined with human error in reacting to the problem that developed.

89) Discuss the mechanisms and consequences of radiation for living organisms. Include the likely sources of radiation and specific impacts in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.2 Describe the nuclear power plant accidents at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy Solution: Radiation comes in three forms: alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays.

High-level radioactive sources are capable of giving off any of these forms of radiation that can be damaging to human health. Radioactive wastes with relatively short half lives create health concerns because many of the shorter-lived fission products mimic essential nutrients and tend to concentrate in the body, where they continue to decay, producing harmful effects. Examples of these are strontium-90, iodine-131, and cesium-137

90) Supporters of nuclear energy argue that nuclear power is a cleaner fuel and has less impact on the environment than coal-burning plants. Provide arguments supported by facts to both defend and refute this position.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.1 Discuss the pros and cons of electric power produced by nuclear energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy Solution: Nuclear power (including the fuel cycle) releases fewer greenhouse gases into the environment than coal-burning plants. Developing technology is producing new nuclear power plants – (pebble-bed modular reactors) that are safer and more cost effective to build and operate. Helium is used rather than water to turn turbines.

Vitrification can be used to seal the spent fuel for safer storage. Emissions from coal burning plants also may release a significant amount of sulfur oxides and mercury into the atmosphere.

Arguments against nuclear power include producing spent fuel that can provide a way for terrorists to develop nuclear weapons, the need for fossil fuel to mine and enrich uranium, and the safety concerns from nuclear power plant accidents.

91) The steps in the nuclear fuel cycle include mining, enrichment, electrical generation, reprocessing of spent fuel, waste disposal and decommissioning of worn-out reactors.

Relatively speaking, which of these steps is energy – intensive and which step is most expensive to properly carry out?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.2 Describe the nuclear fuel cycle, including the process of enrichment.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power Solution: Enrichment, the refining process to increase the concentration of fissionable U235 in uranium ore to about 3% is energy intensive. Decommissioning or the dismantling of an old nuclear power plant is very expensive. During the 21st century, we may find we are paying more in our utility bills to decommission old plants than we are to have new plants constructed.

92) Describe the improvements that have been made in designing the next generation of nuclear reactors. What problems remain?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7.0 Explore the future of nuclear power.

Section Reference 1: 12.7 The Future of Nuclear Power Solution: The vision is to design nuclear reactors that are 10 times safer than current reactors. The use of small ceramic-encased balls of uranium instead of fuel rods would increase the safety factor.

Costs can be held in line by standardizing nuclear power plants to be simple and smaller rather than custom-building each one. This will improve building schedules and streamline the regulatory process. However, questions involving safety and management of radioactive waste must still be addressed.

93) What happens during a core meltdown in a nuclear reactor?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.1 Discuss the pros and cons of electric power produced by nuclear energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy Solution: A core meltdown is a nuclear accident, in which at high temperatures the metal encasing the uranium fuel melts, releasing radiation, which contaminates the surrounding environment

94) Explain the difference between a nuclear fission reaction in a conventional nuclear reactor and that in a breeder nuclear fission reactor. Are there any other differences between the two processes? If so, explain.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.5.0 List the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.5.3 Discuss the link between nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.

Section Reference 1: 12.5 Pros and Cons of Nuclear Energy Solution: In nuclear fission, the nucleus of an atom of U –235 is struck by and absorbs a neutron becoming unstable and splitting into two smaller atoms. Each of these is approximately half the size of the original uranium atoms. In the fission process, two or three neutrons are also ejected from the uranium atoms. They collide with other U-235 atoms, generating a chain reaction as those atoms are split and more neutrons are released to collide with additional U-235 atoms.

In breeder nuclear fission, U – 238, which is not fissionable and is a waste product of conventional nuclear fission is converted to plutonium, Pu-239, a human-made isotope that is fissionable. Some of the neutrons emitted in breeder nuclear fission produce additional plutonium from U – 238. A breeder reactor makes more fuel than it uses.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number 13 Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) Water: a) is composed only of hydrogen atoms. b) is composed only of oxygen atoms. c) is composed of two atoms of oxygen and one atom of hydrogen. d) is composed of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen. e) is composed of two atoms of helium and one atom of oxygen.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.1 Describe the structure of a water molecule, explaining how hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 2) The basis for most of water's physical properties is/are: a) its non-polar structure. b) the hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules. c) ionic bonds. d) its status as a positive ion. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.1 Describe the structure of a water molecule, explaining how hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 3) Water: a) is a nonpolar molecule. b) is composed of helium and oxygen atoms. c) is a poor solvent. d) expands when it cools. e) freezes from the top down.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.1 Describe the structure of a water molecule, explaining how hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 4) Which of the following is an accurate representation of a water molecule?

A.

O

O H

*B.

H

O

H

C.

O

O

D.

O H E.

H O H H

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.1 Describe the structure of a water molecule, explaining how hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 5) Hydrogen bonds describe the way: a) two hydrogen atoms in a single water molecule are attracted to one another. b) a hydrogen atom in a single molecule is attracted to the oxygen atom in that same molecule. c) a hydrogen atom in one molecule is attracted to a hydrogen atom in an adjacent molecule. d) a hydrogen atom in one molecule is attracted to an oxygen atom in an adjacent molecule. e) an oxygen atom in a single molecule is attracted to the oxygen atom in an adjacent molecule.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.1 Describe the structure of a water molecule, explaining how hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 6) An area of land that is drained by a single river is called a/an: a) wetland. b) aquifer. c) watershed. d) drainage basin. e) both watershed and drainage basin Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.3 Describe surface water and groundwater.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 7) The upper limit of an unconfined underground reservoir of water is termed the: a) aquifer. b) water table. c) watershed. d) wetland. e) groundwater.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.3 Describe surface water and groundwater.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 8) Which of the following best describes groundwater? a) water flowing through permeable rocks and sediments b) water found in lakes and rivers c) water moving from precipitation over the ground to rivers and lakes d) water that is completely independent of surface water e) water found above the water table

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.3 Describe surface water and groundwater.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 9) The greatest use of fresh water is for: a) irrigation. b) industry. c) small businesses. d) homes. e) mining.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.1 Describe the role of irrigation in world water consumption.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 10) A flood plain describes the area bordering a river channel __________. a) where no building construction is allowed b) that is likely to flood c) that is flooded after a dam is constructed d) where periodic floods remove nutrients from the soil e) where plant cover should be removed to reduce flooding Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.2 Define floodplain.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 11) When the Mississippi River flooded in 2008, a) it was the first time such floods affected Minnesota, Wisconsin, or Iowa. b) sandbags and levees prevented major damage. c) it was only the latest in a series of major floods along that particular river. d) wetlands prevented the water from receding quickly. e) it affected relatively few people.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.3 Explain how humans exacerbate flood damage, using the upper Mississippi River basin as an example.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 12) Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce flood-related damage? a) creating exposed, barren hillsides by clear cutting woodlands b) constructing new buildings c) building expensive levees d) restricting development on flood plains e) paving new roads Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.3 Explain how humans exacerbate flood damage, using the upper Mississippi River basin as an example.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 13) The effects of flooding are more destructive today than in the past because: a) the use of levees has been determined to be an unsound engineering practice. b) retaining walls are too expensive to build in all of the appropriate locations. c) buildings are constructed on flood plains. d) soil with plant cover is ineffective in absorbing excess water. e) roads and buildings effectively absorb and slow water flow.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.3 Explain how humans exacerbate flood damage, using the upper Mississippi River basin as an example.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 14) Which of the following human actions or features does NOT significantly contribute to flooding? a) deforestation b) draining of wetlands c) paving surfaces for roads and parking d) zoning restrictions

e) all of these significantly contribute to flooding Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.3 Explain how humans exacerbate flood damage, using the upper Mississippi River basin as an example.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 15) A flood plain has the potential to flood. Why is this a problem? a) floods are caused by drought cycles in the weather b) floods are unnatural events caused by human activity c) flood damage is permanent, causing major changes in the course of the bordering river channel d) flood damage is extremely costly due to homes and businesses being built on the flood plain e) when flood waters recede, the flood plain is left infertile for growing crops Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.2 Define floodplain.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 16) Flooding of the Mississippi River basin in 2008 was caused, or exacerbated, by all of the following EXCEPT: a) faulty dams upstream of major flooding areas. b) several months of unusually heavy precipitation. c) levees that failed to hold back floodwaters. d) draining wetlands. e) building on flood plains.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.3 Explain how humans exacerbate flood damage, using the upper Mississippi River basin as an example.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 17) Removing too much fresh water from a river or lake can: a) result in increasing salinity for associated estuaries. b) cause a local increase in bird populations due to an increase in available habitat.

c) have little effect on associated wetland areas. d) increase the productivity of associated wetlands. e) reduce an area's precipitation.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.4 Relate some of the problems caused by overdrawing surface water and aquifer depletion.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 18) Excessive removal of groundwater can result in: a) rising water tables. b) sinkhole formation. c) groundwater desalinization. d) increased discharge to streams. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.4 Relate some of the problems caused by overdrawing surface water and aquifer depletion.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 19) Saltwater intrusion can occur in coastal areas due to: a) excessive groundwater pumping. b) larger or more frequent hurricanes. c) sinkhole formation. d) wetland degradation. e) subsidence.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.4 Relate some of the problems caused by overdrawing surface water and aquifer depletion.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 20) A 2008 study by researchers at the Scripps Institution of Oceanography predicts climate change over the next 50 years will result in:

a) flow in the Colorado River decreasing by 10-30%. b) flow in the Colorado River increasing due to warmer and wetter air masses. c) Lake Mead being unable to supply water to San Francisco. d) Hoover Dam producing 10% more electricity. e) greater saltwater intrusion along the Pacific Coast.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.4 Relate some of the problems caused by overdrawing surface water and aquifer depletion.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems 21) Future climate change will likely: a) have no effect on precipitation. b) cause an increase in precipitation. c) cause a decrease in precipitation. d) cause an increase in precipitation in some areas and a decrease in others. e) cause extreme droughts throughout all of North America.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 List global water problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.4.1 Explain the relationship between climate change and available water.

Section Reference 1: 13.4 Global Water Problems 22) Around the world, about ____ people live without adequate access to water. a) 1.5 million b) 10 million c) 98 million d) 1.1 billion e) 5.2 billion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 List global water problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.4.3 Briefly describe each of the international water problems.

Section Reference 1: 13.4 Global Water Problems 23) In many developing countries, individuals:

a) utilize excessive amounts of water for irrigation. b) consume about 200 gallons of fresh water per day. c) have insufficient water to meet basic drinking and household needs. d) use the most current technology to increase their water use efficiency. e) rely on desalinization to provide the majority of their water needs.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 List global water problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.4.3 Briefly describe each of the international water problems.

Section Reference 1: 13.4 Global Water Problems 24) The more than 100 dam impoundments along the Columbia River: a) generate electricity. b) control floods. c) adversely affect fish populations. d) supply municipal and industrial water to several major urban areas. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.3 Contrast the benefits and drawbacks of dams and reservoirs, using the Columbia River to provide specific examples.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management 25) Complete the following analogy: Dam is to ____________as levee is to ___________. a) xeriscaping / hydroponics b) electricity / natural gas c) reservoir / flood plain d) stable runoff / reclaimed water e) aquifer / drainage basin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.3 Contrast the benefits and drawbacks of dams and reservoirs, using the Columbia River to provide specific examples.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management

26) The process of forcing salt water through a permeable membrane in order to remove the salt from the water is termed: a) chlorination. b) distillation. c) reverse osmosis. d) saltwater intrusion. e) salinization.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.4 Briefly describe two methods of desalinization.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management 27) Approximately ______ of the Earth’s water is freshwater that can be readily used by humans and other terrestrial organisms. a) 0.1% b) 2.5% c) 10% d) 25% e) 50% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.2 Describe the importance of water.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 28) Most freshwater is present in the form of: a) water in lakes. b) ice caps and glaciers. c) water in rivers. d) groundwater. e) atmospheric water vapor.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.2 Describe the importance of water.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water 29) Water problems are particularly severe in the: a) Pacific Northwest. b) American Southwest (Colorado River basin). c) High Plains. d) Gulf Coast states. e) Upper Midwest.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0 Examine water problems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 13.3 Water Problems in the United States and Canada 30) Nonpotable water that has already been used once, but is reused for toilets or car washing is called: a) reclaimed water. b) household water. c) gray water. d) secondhand water. e) xeriscaped water.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation 31) The largest groundwater deposit in the world is the: a) Great Lakes Aquifer. b) Great Basin Aquifer. c) Rocky Mountain Aquifer. d) Ogallala Aquifer. e) Hell Creek Aquifer.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0 Examine water problems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 13.3 Water Problems in the United States and Canada

32) Which of the following countries does NOT face significant water supply challenges? a) United States b) Iraq c) China d) Mexico e) None; all of these countries face water supply challenges.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 List global water problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.4.3 Briefly describe each of the international water problems.

Section Reference 1: 13.4 Global Water Problems 33) Artificial lakes in which water is stored for later use are called: a) reservoirs. b) cisterns. c) lakes. d) ponds. e) estuaries.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.3 Contrast the benefits and drawbacks of dams and reservoirs, using the Columbia River to provide specific examples.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management 34) Saltwater and saline groundwater can be made drinkable by a process called: a) trickle irrigation. b) reverse osmosis. c) boiling. d) salinization. e) osmosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.4 Briefly describe two methods of desalinization.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management

35) Desalinization is a particularly large industry in: a) Arizona b) France c) Russia d) Saudi Arabia e) Denmark Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.4 Briefly describe two methods of desalinization.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management 36) Which of the following does NOT contribute to water shortages in the American Southwest? a) aqueducts transporting water from distant sources b) climate change leading to reduced snowfall in the Rocky Mountains c) growing demand for municipal, commercial, and industrial uses d) arid or semiarid climate with limited precipitation e) growing populations in cities such as Phoenix, Las Vegas, and Salt Lake City Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0 Examine water problems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 13.3 Water Problems in the United States and Canada 37) Which of the following does NOT describe Mono Lake, CA? a) the lake is naturally fed by rivers and streams originating the Sierra Nevada mountains b) evaporation is the only natural outflow from the lake c) water diversions to Los Angeles resulted in increasing lake salinity d) an agreement was reached to allow Mono Lake to return to its original volume e) the number of migratory birds on the lake’s shores is expected to increase over the next decade Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0 Examine water problems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 13.3 Water Problems in the United States and Canada 38) Which of the following have a vested interest in resolving the water rights controversy along the Missouri River?

a) farmers b) Native Americans c) recreational and tourism groups d) hydroelectric producers e) all of these groups have a vested interest Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.1 Define sustainable water use.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management 39) One way to make agricultural water more sustainable is through: a) water diversion. b) microirrigation. c) “use it or lose it” water allotments for farmers. d) international water swaps. e) plot flooding.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation 40) Cities are encouraging individual water conservation by: a) including water charges in the rent. b) providing economic incentives for installing water saving household fixtures. c) repairing city water mains and pipes to improve “water accountability”. d) collecting and storing rain water for redistribution to individuals. e) decreasing the price of water.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation

41) All of the following are successful motivators for consumers to conserve water EXCEPT: a) water rationing. b) increased water prices. c) improved technology. d) effective education c) All these choices are true Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation 42) The average U.S. citizen can conserve water by: a) not allowing the faucet to run while shaving. b) not allowing the faucet to run while brushing teeth. c) reducing showers to less than 10 minutes. d) washing only full loads of clothes. e) all of these choices can help conserve water Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation Question Type: Essay 43) Describe the relative distribution of water on earth and how water moves through the hydrologic cycle.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1.0 Draw the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.1.3 Describe the importance of water.

Section Reference 1: 13.1 The Importance of Water Solution: Most of the water on earth (97.5%) is in the ocean, and most of the freshwater on earth exists in frozen ice caps and glaciers. The remaining water (~0.5%) can be found in the atmosphere, surface water, and groundwater. Precipitation brings atmospheric water to the Earth’s surface, where some of the precipitation will seep through the soil and become groundwater. Groundwater flows slowly and eventually discharges to rivers,

wetlands, or other surface water bodies. Some precipitation may directly replenish surface waters as runoff.

Rivers eventually flow into the ocean, where evaporation creates atmospheric water and starts the hydrologic cycle over again.

44) What is aquifer depletion and what are some of its potential environmental effects.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2.0 Discuss how humans have impacted the hydrologic cycle.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.2.4 Relate some of the problems caused by overdrawing surface water and aquifer depletion.

Section Reference 1: 13.2 Water Use and Resource Problems Solution: Aquifer depletion occurs when groundwater is removed more rapidly than it can be recharged. This lowers the water table and decreases the water resources available for irrigation, municipal and residential uses.

Excessive groundwater removal can also lead to land subsidence and the formation of sinkholes. In coastal areas, seawater can move into freshwater aquifers, in a process called saltwater intrusion, if freshwater is overdrawn.

45) Many developing countries have insufficient water to meet the most basic drinking and household needs.

Discuss some potential solutions to the problem and some of the drawbacks associated with those solutions.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 List global water problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.4.3 Briefly describe each of the international water problems.

Section Reference 1: 13.4 Global Water Problems Solution: As populations increase in developing countries, they overwhelm any governmental effort to improve public water systems. One potential solution is to dig wells. However, the depletion of the aquifer can lower the water table, cause subsidence or sinkholes, and cause the water supply to become salty. Another solution might be rationing, but this would require personnel to enforce the sanctions. While water management projects would help conserve water, it would not increase the water supply. Finally, sharing water resources among countries could be considered. This solution would only work if respective governments cooperate with one another.

46) Describe how climate change is expected to play an important role in future freshwater availability.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4.0 List global water problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.4.1 Explain the relationship between climate change and available water.

Section Reference 1: 13.4 Global Water Problems Solution: Climate change will affect the amount, type, and distribution of precipitation. Precipitation will increase in some areas while dropping in others. Due to complex relationships in the hydrologic cycle, even small reductions in precipitation may have profound effects on freshwater availability. A recent study

concluded that rainfall variability will affect available surface water various parts of the African continent.

Areas like the American Southwest that depend on runoff from snowmelt will be impacted if precipitation falls as rain instead. Finally, sea level rise will exacerbate the effects of saltwater intrusion in coastal areas and lowlying nations.

47) Describe the benefits of dams along the Columbia River and strategies being implemented to minimize the impacts of the dams on salmon.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.3 Contrast the benefits and drawbacks of dams and reservoirs, using the Columbia River to provide specific examples.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management Solution: The Columbia River has more than 100 dams, which control floods, generate hydroelectric power, supply water to major urban areas, and provide irrigation water for 1.2 million hectares of agricultural land.

These dams also impede salmon migrations for spawning purposes. To minimize this impact, fish ladders have been installed to allow some adult salmon to bypass the dams and continue their upstream migration. Several hatcheries have been built upstream of the dams and several stream in the Columbia River system are designated off-limits for dam development. Salmon have been barged and trucked around the dams and some of the electrical generators are periodically turned off to allow the passage of salmon. Extra water, simulating spring snowmelt, has been released from the dams to help wash the salmon smolts downstream.

48) Do you think desalinization is the solution to our freshwater supply problems? Thoroughly justify your answer by examining both your position and the opposing viewpoint.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.4 Briefly describe two methods of desalinization.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management Solution: Answers will vary, but one such answer follows: No, desalinization is not the solution to our freshwater supply problems. Desalinization is the removal of salt from ocean water so that the water is fit to drink. Desalinization is expensive because it requires a large input of energy. The cost is further increased because the desalinized water must be transported from the site of production to where it is needed. Also the disposal of the remaining salt is a concern. On the other hand, there are several methods of desalinization and advances in reverse osmosis technology have increased energy efficiency and lowered the cost. Also, if brackish water is used instead of seawater, the costs could be 3-5 times less.

49) Discuss the role of individuals in water conservation. What actions can you take to conserve water? What are the obstacle(s) to these actions, and how might they be overcome?

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation Solution: Answers will vary but one such answer follows: If each individual conserves water, the end result will be cumulative. My individual action plan for conserving water would include three areas: personal hygiene, housework, and landscaping. For personal hygiene, I can turn the tap off while brushing teeth or shaving and only turn it on to rinse. I can shorten my shower to less than 10 minutes and install water-saving fixtures in the bathroom, including a low flow toilet. For housework, I can purchase energy efficient appliances and only run the dishwasher when it is full. I can adjust the water settings on the washing machine to fit the size of the load of clothes. I can also repair any water leaks in or around the house. And for my landscaping, I can keep the turf portion of lawn minimal and xeriscape the remaining yard.

Some of the obstacles to these actions would be to break old habits, have the money to fund the water-saving fixtures, and finding the time to fix any and all leaky faucets.

50) Identify three water conservation measures that can be implemented in agriculture. Provide an explanation of how each measure leads to the conservation of water resources.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation Solution: One of the most important agricultural conservation measures is microirrigation. This is a process by which pipes with tiny holes convey water directly to individual plants through a sealed system. This reduces the water needed to irrigate crops by 40%-60%, and also reduces the amount of salt left in the soil by irrigation water. Another water saving measure is the use of lasers to level fields. This allows for a more even distribution of water. Using a water management approach to irrigation by monitoring rainfall and soil moisture to determine when to irrigate and how much water to apply is also a measure that will effectively reduce overall water consumption by agriculture endeavors.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 14 Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) Soil is formed from parent material by biological, chemical, and physical: a) digestion processes. b) weathering processes. c) composting. d) terracing. e) leaching.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.2 Identify the factors involved in the formation of the soil system.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 2) Soil is composed of: a) mineral particles. b) organic materials. c) air. d) water. e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 4) Which of the following may affect the mineral composition of soil? a) soil age b) soil pH c) soil organisms d) parent material e) All of these

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 5) Humus is composed of: a) weathered rocks b) fresh leaf litter c) iron and aluminum compounds. d) decomposed organic matter. e) various inorganic minerals.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 6) The removal of dissolved minerals from the soil as water moves downward is called: a) illuviation. b) leaching. c) deposition. d) decomposition. e) weathering.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 7) The deposition of leached material in the lower layers of the soil is called: a) illuviation. b) leaching. c) deposition. d) decomposition. e) decompression.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 8) The uppermost layer of soil that is rich in plant litter and other organic material is the: a) A horizon. b) B horizon. c) C horizon. d) O horizon. e) E horizon.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.3 Describe the various soil horizons.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 9) The ____________ is a lighter-colored soil layer where iron and aluminum often accumulate. a) A horizon. b) B horizon. c) C horizon. d) O horizon. e) E horizon.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.3 Describe the various soil horizons.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 10) The ____________ contains weathered pieces of rock and is found just above the solid bedrock. a) A horizon b) B horizon c) C horizon d) O horizon

e) E horizon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.3 Describe the various soil horizons.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 11) _________ describes the pathway of various nutrient minerals or elements from the environment through organisms and back to the environment. a) Crop rotation b) Leaching and illuviation c) Mycorrhizae d) Nutrient cycling e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.5 Briefly discuss nutrient cycling.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 12) In soil, the smallest particles (less than .002mm) are called: a) sand. b) silt. c) parent material. d) clay. e) illuviation particles.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 13) Water tends to drain rapidly through soil that is high in: a) sand. b) silt.

c) humus. d) clay. e) illuviation particles.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 14) Which of the following sequences is in the correct order from largest particle size to smallest particle size? a) Sand > Silt > Gravel > Clay b) Sand > Gravel > Clay > Silt c) Gravel > Sand > Clay > Silt d) Gravel > Sand > Silt > Clay e) Clay > Silt > Gravel > Sand Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 15) Clay content is particularly important in soil because high-clay soils: a) provide excellent drainage b) have large surface areas that can “hold” mineral ions for plant use c) contain abundant oxygen d) are ideal for most agricultural crops e) are easy to till for agriculture Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 16) Loam:

a) contains about 40% each of sand and silt. b) is an ideal agricultural soil. c) has good aeration and drainage. d) has a medium ability to hold nutrients and water. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 17) A(n) ___________ is a type of soil that usually forms in colder climates beneath coniferous forests and makes poor farm land because it is often too acidic and nutrient poor. a) mollisol. b) oxisol. c) aridisol. d) alfisol. e) spodosol.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.2 Distinguish among spodosols, alfisols, mollisols, aridosols, and oxisols.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 18) A(n) __________ is a type of soil that forms in temperate deciduous forests, has a highly leached Ahorizon, and must be fertilized if cleared for farmland. a) mollisol. b) oxisol. c) aridisol. d) alfisol. e) spodosol.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.2 Distinguish among spodosols, alfisols, mollisols, aridosols, and oxisols.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types

19) A(n) _________ is a type of soil that forms in tropical and subtropical regions where organic material decomposes so fast there is very little A-horizon. a) mollisol. b) oxisol. c) aridisol. d) alfisol. e) spodosol.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.2 Distinguish among spodosols, alfisols, mollisols, aridosols, and oxisols.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 19) The soils of tropical rain forests tend to be nutrient-poor due to: a) extensive wind erosion. b) the fact that nutrient minerals are stored primarily in the vegetation. c) removal of native plants, largely grasses, depleting the nutrient minerals. d) sediment washing into streams from intact forests. e) poor crop rotation practices in slash-and-burn agriculture.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 20) Worldwide, 75 billion metric tons (83 billion tons) of topsoil is lost annually, primarily due to: a) poor agricultural practices. b) global warming. c) ozone depletion. d) the soil rustler's black market. e) conservation tillage.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.1 Define sustainable soil use.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 21) Which of the following two regions have the largest land areas with extensive soil damage? a) Europe and Asia b) North and South America c) Africa and Asia d) Europe and South America e) Africa and North America Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.1 Define sustainable soil use.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 22) The desertification of the Sahel is caused by: a) overgrazing. b) overcultivation. c) periodic droughts. d) soil erosion. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 23) Which of the following is not true of conservation tiling? a) a method of cultivation in which residues from previous crops are left in the soil b) residues are partially covering soil and helping it to hold seeds c) there are several types including no tilling d) over 70% of US farmland was planted using conservation tilling in the early 2000s e) all these are false Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 24) A major problem with conservation tillage is: a) the soil becomes compact. b) soil erosion increases. c) it increases insect populations. d) it requires greater use of herbicides to control weeds. e) the soil contains less organic matter.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 25) An important plant to use in crop rotation because of its association with nitrogen-fixing bacteria is: a) corn. b) wheat. c) oats. d) alfalfa. e) potatoes.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration

26) Legume plants like soybeans add which of the following to the soil? a) sulfur b) nitrogen c) trace minerals

d) phosphorus e) potassium Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.2 Identify methods of preserving soil fertility.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 27) Planting the same crop year after year: a) increases damage by insects and disease. b) decreases soil erosion. c) does not deplete essential nutrients from the soil. d) will slowly increase crop yields. e) is a new and innovative agricultural practice.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 28) Organic fertilizers: a) have nutrients immediately available to plants. b) can consist of manure, crop residues, or bone meal. c) are quickly leached out of the soil by rain. d) are manufactured. e) have minimal effect on the production of a given crop.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.2 Identify methods of preserving soil fertility.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 29) Mulch: a) helps to control weeds.

b) reduces evaporation. c) extends the growing season. d) decreases soil erosion. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.2 Identify methods of preserving soil fertility.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 30) Compost is: a) a natural fertilizer b) used to minimize soil erosion. c) placed on the soil surface when used. d) used to minimize water loss from the soil. e) used to control weeds.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.2 Identify methods of preserving soil fertility.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 31) Which of the following authorized the formation of the Soil Conservation Service (now called the Natural Resources Conservation Service)? a) Hugh H. Bennett b) Soil Conservation Act of 1935 c) Food Security Act (Farm Bill) of 1985 d) The Conservation Reserve Program e) Federal Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act (Farm Bill) of 1996 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.3 Briefly describe the Conservation Reserve Program.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 32) Scientists know relatively little about the roles of most soil organisms because

a) very few soil organisms have been identified b) it is hard to study them in a natural environment c) they are too small to see, even with high-powered microscopes d) they do not affect soil much and are not worth studying e) none of these; scientists have a good understanding of most soil organisms Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 33) Which of the following statements about minerals in soil is true? a) There are only two mineral ions, potassium and magnesium, that are essential for plant growth. b) Negatively charged mineral ions are often washed out of the root zone. c) Clay minerals are usually positively charged. d) Clay minerals very rarely have charged ions e) Clay particles may "hold" mineral ions in the soil and prevent their use by plants.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 34) Soil pH is important because: a) some mineral ions are leached more easily from an acidic soil b) plants cannot survive in soils with pH less than about 4.0. c) moderately basic soil is ideal for plant growth. d) plants can only absorb insoluble forms of mineral elements e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.3 Examine soil pH, describing how it affects plants.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 35) Soil with a pH of 6.0:

a) is slightly acidic b) is most likely caused by human-produced air pollution c) is problematic because the optimum soil pH for plant growth is 8.0 to 10.0 d) is often associated with toxic concentrations of soluble aluminum and manganese. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.3 Examine soil pH, describing how it affects plants.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 36) Increased soil erosion may be caused by all of the following except: a) construction of buildings. b) construction of roads. c) construction of shelterbelts. d) clearcutting large forested areas. e) agriculture.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 37) Soil erosion: a) may result in decreased water quality for fishes and other aquatic organisms. b) does not reduce the fertility of the soil, just the quantity. c) is exclusively linked to human activities. d) is not affected by the extent of plant cover. e) is never responsible for or related to water pollution.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil

38) The American Dust Bowl was caused by all of the following except: a) the fact that the Great Plains of North America have low annual precipitation. b) the extensive removal of native prairie grasses to plant crops. c) overgrazing. d) unusually severe wind and storm conditions. e) the poor (nutrient) quality of the soil of the Great Plains.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.3 Describe the American Dust Bowl, explaining how a combination of natural and human-induced factors caused this disaster.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 39) Which of the following outlines a typical crop rotation planting schedule? a) corn → oats → corn → alfalfa b) corn → soybean → oats → corn c) soybean → corn → oats → corn d) oats → soybean → oats → corn e) corn → alfalfa → oats → soybean Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 40) Of the following, which has the greatest permeability? a) clay b) loam c) sand d) silt e) humus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 41) The richest farming soils that form under the grasslands of central North America and under moist deciduous forests are the: a) spodosols and oxisols. b) aridisols and mollisols. c) mollisols and alfisols. d) sunisols and texsols. e) oxisols and ultisols.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.2 Distinguish among spodosols, alfisols, mollisols, aridosols, and oxisols.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 42) Which of the following represents an “ecosystem service” performed by soil organisms? a) maintaining soil fertility by decaying and cycling organic material b) providing minerals by assisting in weathering c) altering topography by amplifying erosion d) preserving toxic materials by situating toxins into encapsulated structures e) contributing to desertification by removing excess moisture from the soil Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.4 Name at least two ecosystem services performed by soil organisms.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 43) Which of the following is a type of contour plowing? a) strip cropping b) native prairie seizure c) grasslands reserve program d) sod busting e) crop rotation Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 44) Which soil horizons are most prone to erosion? a) A and B b) B and C c) A and O d) A and C e) B and O Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.3 Describe the various soil horizons.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System 45) Soil degradation is primarily attributed to: a) wildfires, surplus soil organisms and dense vegetation. b) poor agricultural practices, overgrazing and deforestation. c) erosion, excessive tillage and coastal location. d) exhaustion of parent material, severe climate and leaching. e) heavy rainfall, agroforestry and crop rotation.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 46) Rank the relative size of soil particles from smallest to largest.

I. sand II. clay III. gravel IV. silt a) I – II – III - IV

b) IV – III – II - I c) II – I – IV - III d) II – IV – I - III e) IV – I – II - III Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 47) Why is clay particularly important in determining many soil characteristics?

I. clay particles have the smallest surface area relative to other soil particles II. each clay particle has negative electrical charge on its outer surface to attract mineral ions III clay is the most porous of the soil particles IV. clay is the largest of the soil particles a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and II Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types 48) Crop rotation and strip cropping alternate crops such as corn and wheat. The difference is: a) In strip cropping, the crops are alternated by size. In crop rotation, the crops are alternated by color. b) In strip cropping, one crop is exposed and the other covered. In crop rotation, dual crops form concentric circles. c) In strip cropping, one crop transforms into the other by genetic seed manipulation. In crop rotation, each crop is alternated according to the type of pollinator required. d) In strip cropping, the crops are alternated by row. In crop rotation, the crops are alternated by years. e) There is no difference. Crop rotation is another word for strip cropping.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration 49) The 1930’s Dust Bowl in the western United States is an example of: a) prolonged drought and accelerated wind erosion caused by use of marginal land for agriculture. b) the use of flood plains for agriculture leading to desertification. c) the natural cycle of climate disasters in that region. d) the relationship between economics and annual precipitation. e) human activities not being the cause of or accentuating soil problems.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.3 Describe the American Dust Bowl, explaining how a combination of natural and human-induced factors caused this disaster.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil 50) The difference between compost and mulch is: a) compost is mixed into soil to improve fertility; mulch is placed on soil’s surface to control weeds and retain moisture. b) compost is made of inorganic materials; mulch is made of organic materials. c) compost is used in landfills, individual property owners use mulch. d) composting is an expensive commercial process; mulching is a do-it-yourself endeavor. e) There is no difference. Mulch and compost are synonyms.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.2 Identify methods of preserving soil fertility.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration Question Type: Essay 51) Identify the major components of soil and discuss the role of each in the support of living organisms.

How do differences in the composition of the soil affect the productivity of a particular region?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System Solution: Soil is composed of four distinct parts: mineral particles, organic matter, water and air. The mineral portion, which makes up about 45% of typical soil and comes from weathered rock, provides anchorage and essential nutrient minerals for plants. Organic matter, such as dead leaves, animal dung, and dead remains of plants, animals, and microorganisms, release essential nutrient mineral ions into the soil to be absorbed by plant roots. Soil air is necessary to produce a moist but aerated soil that sustains plants and other soil-dwelling organisms. The air contains oxygen, required by soil organisms for cellular respiration; nitrogen, used by nitrogen-fixing bacteria; and carbon dioxide, involved in soil weathering. Soil water contains low concentrations of dissolved nutrient mineral salts that also enter roots as plants absorb water.

Differences in the composition of the soil will determine soil fertility, soil pH, and capability of nutrient cycling. Soils high in nutrient minerals that are porous in composition will be highly productive.

52) What is humus? Briefly explain why it is important for the soil.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.1 Define soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System Solution: Humus is not a single chemical compound but a mix of many organic compounds persisting in agricultural soil for about 20 years. It is black or dark brown organic material resulting from the decomposition of dead leaves, animal dung, and dead remains of plants and animals by microorganisms and detritus-feeding earthworms, termites, and ants. The resulting humus increases the soil’s water holding capacity and raises the nutrient level of the soil. For these reasons gardeners often add humus to sandy soils which are naturally low in organic matter.

53) What steps can be taken to reclaim soils damaged by erosion? Include information about at least two specific geographic regions and two different actions in your response.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.1 Summarize how conservation tillage, crop rotation, contour plowing, strip cropping, terracing, shelterbelts, and agroforestry minimize erosion and mineral depletion of the soil.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration Solution: Land damaged by soil erosion and mineral depletion can be restored but it is a very slow process.

The U.S. has largely reversed the effects of the 1930’s Dust Bowl and China has reclaimed badly eroded land in Inner Mongolia. In the U.S., the Dust Bowl region was seeded with drought-resistant native grasses to prevent erosion. Farmers have adopted agricultural practices such as conservation tillage (residues from previous crops are left in the soil) and crop rotation (alternating nutrient demanding crops with nitrogenfixing legumes). In China, a shelterbelt or row of trees were planted as a windbreak to reduce soil erosion of

agricultural land. The Green Wall has been effective in controlling the dust storms from the expanding Gobi Desert. The annual frequency and severity of dust storms in China continues to decline.

54) Variations in precipitation, local vegetation, parent material, and soil age result in differences in soil types. Using these variables, explain why mollisols are richer soils than oxisols.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.2 Distinguish among spodosols, alfisols, mollisols, aridosols, and oxisols.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types Solution: Mollisols are fertile soils found primarily in temperate, semiarid grasslands. This soil type has an A-horizon rich in humus. The precipitation is not great enough in this climate to leach soluble nutrient minerals into lower layers so that the upper soil layers remain nutrient rich. Most of the world’s grain crops are grown on mollisols. Oxisol, on the other hand, exists in tropical and subtropical areas with ample precipitation creating soil that is low in nutrient minerals. Little organic material accumulates in the Ohorizon because leaves and twigs are rapidly decomposed. The A-horizon is enriched with humus and the B-horizon is highly leached, acidic, and nutrient poor. Most of the nutrient minerals are locked up in the vegetation rather than in the soil.

55) In the United States, agricultural practices have been modified in support of soil conservation. Identify two specific problems and the policies or actions that have been implemented to reduce the effect of each on soil conservation. Are there any drawbacks to these solutions?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil Solution: One practice has to do with the manner in which the fields are prepared for crops. An agricultural system disrupts the pattern of nutrient cycling when the crops are harvested and contributes to erosion.

Much of the plant material containing nutrient minerals is removed from the cycle, so it fails to decay and release its nutrient minerals back to the soil. Over time, soil that is farmed inevitably loses its fertility. One remedy to this is conservation tillage. Thirty-six percent of U.S. farmland is being restored using conservation tillage. This is a method of cultivation in which residues from previous crops are left in the soil, partially covering it and helping to hold it in place until the newly planted seeds are established. This practice reduces soil erosion and increases the organic material in the soil, improving the soil’s waterholding capacity. The nutrient quality of the soil also improved as the decaying plants added humus. The only drawback to this practice is the pests that cause plant disease reside in the plant residues left on the ground with conservation tillage. The Food Security Act of 1985 contained provisions that pay farmers to stop producing crops on highly erodible farmland. Instead they plant native grasses or trees on the land and retire it for 10-15 years. Because the vegetation isn’t disturbed, it provides biological habitat, reduces

erosion and improves water quality of surrounding rivers. The drawback to this program is that farmers enroll environmentally sensitive cropland in the CRP, thereby retiring the land, and then plow up native prairie to produce new cropland,a practice dubbed “sod busting.”

56) Imagine that you are a farmer. Write a journal entry that outlines the conditions that led to the Food Security Act (Farm Bill) of 1985) While you agree in principle with the Conservation Reserve Program of this bill, you’ve discovered a loophole that would be financially profitable for you. Present in your journal the argument you are having with yourself: the pros and cons associated with compliance with this program.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.3 Briefly describe the Conservation Reserve Program.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration Solution: Dear Diary, The Soil Conservation Act of 1935 (long before my time) authorized the formation of the Soil Conservation Service to work with U.S. citizens (read, me) to conserve natural resources on private lands, assess soil damage and develop policies to improve and sustain soil resources. Then in 1985, The Food Security Act (Farm Bill) created the conservation compliance program which required farmers (read, me) with highly erodible land to develop and adopt a 5-year conservation plan for farms that includes erosion-control measures. Now, if I don’t comply with this measure, I will lose my federal agricultural subsidy, which I cannot afford. The Conservation Reserve Program (CRP) will pay me to stop producing crops on highly erodible farmland. (YEAH!) Instead, I will plant native grasses or trees and leave the land alone for 10-15 years. This means I cannot put cattle on the acreage for grazing or harvest the grass for hay.

This is O.K. because I will enjoy the biological habitat that will emerge on this land and maybe do some deer hunting to help feed my family. My family also owns existing native prairie acreage that is not enrolled in the program. I can plow that land and put in the same crops I would have been growing on the preserve.

That way, I have my crop with its federal agricultural subsidy and CRP payment. This “sod busting” is perfectly legal as I am complying with the requirements of the CRP. Now I see that there is the Grasslands Reserve Program in the 2002 Farm Bill. This program will pay me to protect up to 2 million acres of virgin and improved pastureland for 10-30 years. Now, I can retire as a farmer and just live on the government payments to preserve the land around my former farm.

57) Compare and contrast the use of organic and commercial inorganic fertilizers. Which type is more cost effective? Which type is more environmentally friendly? Which type is the most effective overall? Justify your answers.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4.0 Discuss soil conservation methods.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.4.2 Identify methods of preserving soil fertility.

Section Reference 1: 14.4 Soil Conservation and Regeneration

Solution: Overall organic fertilizer is the most effective because it can change the types of organisms that live in the soil, sometimes suppressing microorganisms that cause certain plant diseases. Organic fertilizers include animal manure, crop residues, bone meal, and compost. They are slow acting and long lasting.

Commercial inorganic fertilizers are made from chemical compounds and because they are soluble, they are immediately available to plants but leach away quickly. Organic fertilizer is more environmentally friendly because inorganic fertilizers are mobile and often leach into groundwater or surface runoff, polluting the water. The nitrous and nitric oxides of inorganic fertilizers are also air pollutants. Inorganic fertilizers also do not improve the water-holding capacity of the soil as organic fertilizers do. It is also economically advantageous to limit the use of commercial inorganic fertilizer.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number 15 Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) A rock that contains a large enough concentration of a particular mineral to profitably mine and extract it is called a/an: a) atom. b) slag. c) metal. d) ore. e) compound.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 2) Which of the following is an example of a nonmetallic mineral? a) ore b) chromium c) zinc d) nickel e) silicon Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 3) _______ are minerals that are usually malleable, good conductors of heat and electricity, and lustrous.

a) Rocks b) High-grade ores c) Low-grade ores d) Metals e) Phosphates Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 4) Which of the following is an example of a mineral? a) bronze b) rock c) copper d) petroleum e) water Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 5) Which of the following is NOT an example of a mineral? a) bronze b) oxides c) salt d) sulfur e) platinum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 6) The difference between a high-grade ore and a low-grade ore is the: a) amount of a particular mineral within the ore. b) relative abundance of the ore worldwide. c) relative ease with which the ore can be mined. d) type of minerals present within the ore. e) distribution of the ore worldwide.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 7) Surface mining is more common than subsurface mining because it: a) does not cause as much land disturbance. b) is less expensive. c) requires fewer spoil banks. d) does not cause any water pollution. e) None of these statements is correct; subsurface mining is more common.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.4 Distinguish between surface mining and subsurface mining.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 8) Magmatic concentration: a) occurs when sand and gravel accumulate in riverbeds. b) separates iron-containing rock from silicon-containing rock. c) results in the separation of rock layers based on grain size. d) is responsible for some deposits of phosphorus and zinc. e) is responsible for some deposits of manganese, and sulfur.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.5 Describe several natural processes that concentrate minerals in Earth’s crust.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 9) Hydrothermal processes: a) occur when groundwater is heated and forced through fissures in rocks. b) are responsible for deposits of zinc, lead and copper. c) are responsible for deposits of gold and silver. d) promote the formation of insoluble metal sulfides. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.5 Describe several natural processes that concentrate minerals in Earth’s crust.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 10) Chemical and physical weathering processes are part of which mineral deposit-forming process? a) magmatic concentration b) hydrothermal mineral concentration c) sedimentation d) evaporation e) spoil bank formation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.5 Describe several natural processes that concentrate minerals in Earth’s crust.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 11) Evaporation: a) increases the concentration of dissolved minerals in bodies of water. b) can occur in bodies of water that exchange large volumes with the ocean. c) occurs when warm river water meets colder ocean water. d) leads to extensive deposits of tin, copper, and iron. e) is responsible for the formation of nickel and manganese deposits.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.5 Describe several natural processes that concentrate minerals in Earth’s crust.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 12) Which of the following mineral concentration processes does not require water? a) sedimentation b) evaporation c) hydrothermal processes d) magmatic concentration e) None of these choices is correct, all require water Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.5 Describe several natural processes that concentrate minerals in Earth’s crust.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 13) __________ use a variety of instruments to locate valuable mineral deposits. a) Astronomers b) Ecologists c) Geologists d) Marine biologists e) Meteorologists Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.6 Briefly describe how mineral deposits are discovered, extracted, and processed.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 14) The hill of loose rock produced as a by-product of strip mining is known as: a) an overbank. b) a spoil bank.

c) an open pit. d) acid mine drainage. e) tailings.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.6 Briefly describe how mineral deposits are discovered, extracted, and processed.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 15) Which of the following is used to separate impurities from molten metal? a) tailings b) phytoremediation c) mine drainage d) smelting e) recycling Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.6 Briefly describe how mineral deposits are discovered, extracted, and processed.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals 16) Smelting of which of the following minerals is done in a blast furnace? a) copper b) tin c) lead d) iron e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.6 Briefly describe how mineral deposits are discovered, extracted, and processed.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals

17) Acids and other toxic substances that cause problems when they enter streams and the groundwater system are called: a) tailings. b) slag. c) spoil banks. d) acid mine drainage. e) overburden.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 18) _______ is an impurity in many mineral ores and can cause acid rain when it escapes during the smelting process. a) Arsenic b) Cadmium c) Lead d) Sulfur e) Zinc Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 19) What usually happens to mine tailings? a) they are treated with scrubbers b) they are removed using phytoremediation c) they are left in piles on the ground d) they are treated with electrostatic precipitators e) they are treated with both scrubbers and electrostatic precipitators Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 20) Which of the following is not an environmental impact of mining? a) groundwater depletion b) enrichment of waterways c) erosion d) acid mine drainage e) air pollution Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 21) The environmental damage near Ducktown, Tennessee was caused by: a) coal mining and ash ponds. b) copper mining and smelting. c) gold mining and smelting. d) strip mining for diamonds. e) open-pit mining for sand and gravel.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 22) The environmental degradation of the Copper Basin, Tennessee region is the result of all of the following except: a) destruction of nearby aquatic communities.

b) deforestation. c) acid precipitation. d) soil erosion. e) All of these choices are associated with the environmental degradation of the Copper Basin area.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 23) Reclamation of the environment surrounding Ducktown, Tennessee has involved: a) the addition of fertilizer. b) using advanced technology to extract all of the residual mine and smelting toxins from the soil. c) reintroduction of animals, including birds and field mice. d) reconstitution of the original, complex forest ecosystem in just three decades. e) establishment of a preserve and national park on the old mining site.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.2 Explain how mining lands can be restored.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 24) Which of the following can be used to help remove pollutants from water draining away from mining lands? a) topsoil b) legume plants c) seeds d) fertilizer e) wetlands Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.2 Explain how mining lands can be restored.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 25) Phytoremediation is a process used to: a) remove impurities from metal ores. b) absorb toxic materials from the soil. c) treat harmful gases produced by smelting. d) neutralize acid mine drainage. e) minimize erosion in open-pit mines.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.2 Explain how mining lands can be restored.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 26) Which of the following statements about wetlands is false? a) Artificial wetlands may take 50 to 100 years to adequately neutralize acidity for aquatic life. b) Bacteria in wetlands consume the sulfur in the acid mine drainage, thereby decreasing the acidity of the water. c) Creating and maintaining wetlands is an inexpensive solution to the problem of acid mine drainage. d) As water in the wetland becomes more basic, zinc and copper precipitate out and enter the sediments. e) Wetlands trap sediments and pollutants so that water quality downstream from the wetland is improved.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.2 Explain how mining lands can be restored.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals 27) The world reserve base of minerals includes: a) deposits that have been identified and located. b) deposits of low-grade ores, which may be profitable to extract in the future. c) deposits of high-grade ores. d) deposits that have not been identified yet. e) All of these statements are correct

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.2 Distinguish between mineral reserves and mineral resources.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 28) _____ is stockpiling and controls the global supply of rare-earth metals, which are used in high-tech industries. a) South Africa b) Japan c) The United States d) China e) India Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.1 Contrast the consumption of minerals by developing countries and by industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 29) Estimates of mineral reserves are dependent upon: a) technological changes. b) economic changes. c) political changes. d) price fluctuations. e) all of these statements are true Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.2 Distinguish between mineral reserves and mineral resources.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective

30) All of the following statements are TRUE except: a) Examples of nonmetallic minerals include phosphates, salt, and sand. b) Subsurface mining disturbs the land less than surface mining. c) Highly developed nations still have large mineral reserves within their boundaries. d) Many developing countries lack any significant mineral deposits. e) Four of the world’s top five mineral producers are highly developed countries.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.1 Contrast the consumption of minerals by developing countries and by industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 31) Which of the following best characterizes the relationship between nations and their consumption of minerals? a) Highly developed nations often rely on developing nations for strategically important minerals. b) The nations with the richest concentration of minerals consume the largest portion of minerals. c) Highly developed nations consume a fair and proportionate share of the world’s minerals. d) As developing nations industrialize, their consumption of minerals decreases. e) The richest concentrations of minerals in developing countries have been depleted.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.1 Contrast the consumption of minerals by developing countries and by industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 32) Mineral ________ have been identified and are currently profitable to extract, while mineral ________include ores that are undiscovered or currently unprofitable to extract. a) funds; collections b) caches; refuges c) resources; reserves d) reserves; resources

e) stores; hoards Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.2 Distinguish between mineral reserves and mineral resources.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective 33) Identify the bacterial genus that shows promise in "biomining" of certain valuable minerals (i.e., copper). a) Arctostaphylos b) Thiobacillus c) Rhizobium d) Streptococcus e) Marchantia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.4.0 Examine methods of increasing the supply of minerals worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals 34) Provisions of the U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS): a) prohibit seabed mining in deep territorial waters. b) apply only to international waters. c) were developed primarily by the United States. d) have been ratified by all countries that have oceanic borders. e) None of these statements is correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.4.0 Examine methods of increasing the supply of minerals worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals 35) Which of the following statements about Antarctica is FALSE? a) The Antarctic Treaty of 1961 limits activity in Antarctica to peaceful uses, such as tourism and research.

b) Polar regions are extremely vulnerable to human activities and impact. c) Substantial mineral deposits have been found in Antarctica. d) The Madrid Protocol contains a moratorium on mineral exploration and development for at least 50 years. e) This continent plays a pivotal role in regulating many aspects of the global environment.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.4.0 Examine methods of increasing the supply of minerals worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals 36) Large potato-sized nodules found on the sea floor contain manganese, copper, and nickel.

What is the main reason these minerals have not been mined? a) it would cost more to mine the minerals than they are currently worth b) international agreements for seafloor mining do not yet exist c) nobody is really sure where these nodules are located d) the metals are of limited use and abundantly available elsewhere e) none of these statements is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.4.0 Examine methods of increasing the supply of minerals worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals 37) What is the difference between an ore and a rock? a) ores contain a large concentration of a particular mineral; a rock may or may not be an ore b) ores contain only metallic minerals; rocks contain only nonmetallic minerals c) ores are always profitable to extract; rocks are never profitable to extract d) ores are good conductors of heat and electricity; rocks are not good conductors of heat and electricity e) ores are usually formed through hydrothermal processes; rocks are usually formed through sedimentation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals

38) Dematerialization refers to: a) a company selling waste products to another company for a different use. b) a decrease in the weight of products over time. c) burning or otherwise destroying a product to reduce waste. d) replacing one material in a product with a less expensive one. e) recycling individual metals found in electronic products.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.5.0 Identify ways to conserve and increase mineral supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.5.3 Explain how sustainable manufacturing and dematerialization contribute to mineral conservation.

Section Reference 1: 15.5 Using Substitution and Conservation to Expand Mineral Supplies Question Type: Essay 39) What is a mineral? Compare and contrast the properties and uses of metallic and nonmetallic mineral resources. Include in your discussion three examples of both metallic and nonmetallic mineral resources.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.1 Define minerals and explain the difference between high-grade and lowgrade ores, and between metallic and nonmetallic minerals.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals Solution: A mineral is a naturally-occurring, inorganic solid with a set atomic structure. Metallic minerals are malleable, lustrous, and good conductors of heat and electricity. Nonmetallic minerals lack these characteristics. Iron is a metal that is used to produce steel, a building material. Beverage cans contain aluminum, and copper is used for electrical wiring. Sand and limestone are two nonmetallic mineral resources that serve as components of cement used in buildings and roads. Another nonmetallic mineral is sulfur, a component of sulfuric acid used to make plastics and fertilizer and to refine oil.

40) Discuss three processes that can lead to the formation of mineral deposits. Please include in your discussion the role water and mineral solubility play in the process. Include specific examples of mineral deposits formed by each process.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.5 Describe several natural processes that concentrate minerals in Earth’s crust.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals Solution: In hydrothermal processes, water that was heated deep in Earth’s crust seeps through cracks and dissolves certain minerals in the rocks. If chlorine or fluorine is present, they may react with metals to form salts that are soluble in water. When the hot water solution encounters sulfur (a common element in Earth’s crust), metal sulfides, which are not water-soluble, often form deposits by precipitating out of the solution. This process is responsible for mineral deposits of gold, silver, copper, lead, and zinc. In sedimentation, certain minerals in weathered particles are transported by water and deposited on riverbanks, deltas, and the sea floor. When the warm water of a river meets the cold water of the ocean, precipitation may also occur because most minerals are less soluble in cold water than in warm water. Sedimentation has formed deposits of iron, manganese, phosphorus, sulfur, and copper. Salt, borax, potassium salts, and gypsum are formed by evaporation. Minerals soluble in water build up in inland lakes and seas that have no outlet to the ocean. Evaporation leaves the salts behind, which may be covered with sediment and incorporated into rock layers.

41) Compare the mineral extraction processes of surface mining to subsurface mining in terms of the benefits and environmental impacts of each mining process, and identify various steps needed to reclaim surface mining sites.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.4 Distinguish between surface mining and subsurface mining.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals Solution: Surface mining is more economical than subsurface mining when mineral deposits are located close to the surface. This process disturbs large areas of land; the topsoil, subsoil, and overlying rock strata are removed, so that giant power shovels can scoop the ore out. This destroys existing vegetation, leaves behind land that is prone to erosion, and contributes to water and air pollution. As miners dig deeper into the ground to obtain the ore, they eventually hit the water table and have to pump out the water to keep the pit dry. To reclaim the site after mining, soil can be added to restore the natural topography and vegetation can be planted to hold the soil in place. Artificial wetlands can be created to serve as filters for contaminated water, and plants can absorb and accumulate toxic metals through a process called phytoremediation.

Subsurface mining causes less land disturbance than surface mining. However, miners risk death or injury from explosions, collapsed walls and prolonged inhalation of dust. Pumps are often required to keep the mine dry. When the mineral deposits are exhausted, water fills the mine and may become contaminated.

42) Discuss how geologists identify new mineral deposits.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1.0 Discuss mineralogy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.1.6 Briefly describe how mineral deposits are discovered, extracted, and processed.

Section Reference 1: 15.1 Introduction to Minerals Solution: Aerial or satellite photography can be used to identify geologic formations that may contain certain types of mineral deposits. Aircraft and satellite instruments can also measure Earth’s magnetic gravity fields to reveal other deposits. Seismographs, used to detect earthquakes, can also provide clues about mineral deposits. In the sea, depth-measuring devices are used to produce detailed three-dimensional maps of the sea floor, which can be analyzed to reveal probable mineral deposits. Once the site of a possible mineral deposit is identified, mining companies will drill or tunnel for mineral samples and analyze their composition.

43) What is the U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)? Describe at least one advantage and disadvantage to mining the sea floor.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.4.0 Examine methods of increasing the supply of minerals worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals Solution: The U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) (1994) is an international treaty that protects the resources of the ocean. The provisions of UNCLOS apply only to international waters and, as of 2004, 145 countries had ratified this treaty. The United States voluntarily observes the provisions, but has not ratified the treaty. The main advantage to mining the sea floor is that large deposits of metals including copper, cobalt, and nickel could supplement or replace terrestrial resources. However dredging the ocean floor would adversely affect sea life and result in ecological havoc.

44) Identify and discuss the environmental impacts of refining minerals. Discuss at least two ways to reduce the environmental impacts of mineral refining.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals

Solution: After processing, approximately eighty percent of the mined ore becomes waste (tailings). These tailings are usually left in piles on the ground or in ponds near the refining plant; they often contain toxic materials such a cyanide, mercury or sulfuric acid that can contaminate the air, soil, and water. Another impact of mineral refining is sulfur that escapes from the smelter into the atmosphere, where it forms sulfuric acid and contributes to acid precipitation. Scrubbers and electrostatic precipitators can be used to reduce the amount of sulfur released to the air.

Biomining, which uses microorganisms to extract minerals from low-grade ores, may also provide a way to reduce the environmental impact of refining minerals.

45) What is dematerialization? Identify one way in which dematerialization might help to conserve minerals and one way in which it may lead to greater consumption of minerals.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.5.0 Identify ways to conserve and increase mineral supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.5.3 Explain how sustainable manufacturing and dematerialization contribute to mineral conservation.

Section Reference 1: 15.5 Using Substitution and Conservation to Expand Mineral Supplies Solution: Dematerialization is the decrease in size and weight of a product as a result of technological improvements over time. Dematerialization only reduces consumption of minerals if products—such as household appliances, electronics, and cars—are durable or easily and inexpensively repaired. However, often smaller, lighter products may be of lower quality.

Because repairing broken, lightweight items is not cost effective, it encourages consumers to replace rather than repair the items leading to an overall greater consumption of minerals. Even though the weight of materials being used to make a specific items may be decreasing, the number of items beings used in a given period may actually be increasing.

46) Use the following flow diagram to provide a specific example that would illustrate this material and energy flow in an industrial ecosystem. raw material -> product -> wastes -> potential raw material -> product Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.5.0 Identify ways to conserve and increase mineral supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.5.3 Explain how sustainable manufacturing and dematerialization contribute to mineral conservation.

Section Reference 1: 15.5 Using Substitution and Conservation to Expand Mineral Supplies Solution: Answers will vary.

An electric power plant uses coal as a raw material to generate the product of electricity. Sulfur is a waste product produced in the coal smoke. By installing pollution control equipment, the

sulfur (in the form of calcium sulfate) is potential raw material for a wallboard plant and can be used as a substitute for gypsum drywall.

47) How did Copper Basin, Tennessee, become an environmental disaster?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals Solution: Mining companies began extracting copper ore from Copper Basin in the 19th century.

They refined the ore in open-air smelters and cut down the trees in the area to feed the smelter.

During the smelting process, sulfur released from the ore reacted with oxygen to form sulfur dioxide, which in turn reacted with water in the atmosphere to produce sulfuric acid. This fell as acid precipitation and prevented any plants from growing in the deforested land. Without food or shelter, animals in the area soon disappeared. The exposed soil was prone to erosion, and acidic runoff contaminated nearby rivers.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 16

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Ecosystem diversity is: a) variety of interactions among organisms in natural communities. b) the number of different species in a given area. c) the variety of abiotic characteristics within a given area. d) the genetic variety within all populations of a given species. e) synonymous with ecosystem services.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.2 Distinguish among genetic diversity, species richness, and ecosystem diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

2) Bacteria and fungi are important to humans because they: a) help control weeds. b) pollinate crop plants. c) provide shelter. d) deplete nutrient minerals in the soil. e) provide foods and antibiotics.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

3) Insects are an important biological resource because they: a) enrich the soil with nitrogen. b) help control weeds and insect pests.

c) help control the severity of local flooding. d) prevent soil erosion. e) produce antibiotics.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

4) The corn blight of 1970 was brought under control by: a) crossing highly uniform U.S. corn varieties with genetically diverse ancestral varieties from Mexico. b) strange weather patterns resulting in a drought that killed the fungus. c) the accidental release of a genetically engineered fungus from a research lab. d) repetitive treatment with various chemical sprays. e) pollution that seemed to have a greater adverse effect on the corn blight fungus than on the corn itself.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

5) The continuous, low-level extinction of species that has occurred throughout the history of life on Earth is known as: a) mass extinction. b) evolution. c) background extinction. d) human impact extinction. e) biotic pollution.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.1 Define extinction, distinguishing between background extinction and mass extinction.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

6) A species in imminent danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range is said to be: a) endemic. b) commercially extinct. c) endangered. d) threatened. e) invasive.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.2 Contrast threatened and endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

7) Most species facing extinction today are threatened because of: a) living in biodiversity hotspots. b) changing climate. c) the recent impact of a large comet. d) large quantities of dust in the atmosphere. e) human activity.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

8) Which of the following characteristics is known to make a species more vulnerable to extinction? a) herbivory b) occupying a small (localized) range c) living on a continent d) population less than 1 million

e) high reproductive success Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

9) Endemic species: a) are commonly found on islands. b) often have small populations. c) have few natural defenses. d) represent a high percentage of recently extinct (bird) species. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

10) Which of the following is an example of a species that was threatened historically due to overexploitation? a) Guam Rail b) American Bison c) Brown Tree Snake d) Nutria e) Water Hyacinth Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

11) The single greatest threat to biological diversity is:

a) the introduction of foreign species. b) air pollution. c) overexploitation. d) habitat loss. e) water pollution.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

12) Biodiversity hotspots: a) house only 10% of all species of vascular plants. b) are home to nearly 20% of the world's population. c) are all located in tropical regions. d) contain few endemic species. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.4 Define biodiversity hotspots, explaining where most of the world’s biodiversity hotspots are located.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

13) The current conflict between humans and elephants is based on: a) biotic pollution. b) over-hunting for ivory. c) water pollution. d) loss of habitat. e) needs for shelter.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

14) The introduction of a foreign species onto an island is an example of: a) commercial harvest. b) biotic pollution. c) commercial extinction. d) background extinction. e) endemism.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.6 Explain how invasive species endanger native species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

15) Which of the following affects organisms even in undisturbed, natural ecosystems? a) global warming b) ozone depletion c) acid precipitation d) thermal pollution e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

16) Which of the following have been linked to the dramatic global decline of amphibian populations? a) drainage of wetlands b) pollutants c) infectious diseases d) global climate warming e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

17) Snow geese: a) are currently a threatened species under the ESA. b) are experiencing a reduced range and decreasing population due to habitat destruction. c) are commercially hunted throughout their migratory range. d) have destroyed much of the Arctic's fragile coastal ecosystem due to increased foraging. e) are negatively impacting the farm sites where they spend the winter.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Distinguish between conservation biology and wildlife management.

Section Reference 1: 16.5 Wildlife Management

18) During the 19th and 20th centuries, many whale populations suffered: a) extinction. b) endemism. c) adaptive radiation. d) biotic pollution. e) commercial extinction.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Distinguish between conservation biology and wildlife management.

Section Reference 1: 16.5 Wildlife Management

19) The global ban on commercial whaling: a) went into effect in 1946. b) has allowed many populations of whales to recover.

c) defined the Southern Ocean Whale Sanctuary, where commercial whaling is prohibited. d) resulted in the removal of the southern blue whale from the endangered species list. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Distinguish between conservation biology and wildlife management.

Section Reference 1: 16.5 Wildlife Management

20) Organisms that provide an early warning of environmental damage are known as: a) endemic species. b) endangered species. c) threatened species. d) indicator species. e) commercial species.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.2 Contrast threatened and endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment 21) The policy that provides for “taking” of a rare species if it does not threaten the survival or recovery of the endangered or threatened species on that property is the: a) Endangered Species Act. b) Habitat Conservation Plan. c) Commercial Extinction Privilege Policy. d) World Conservation Strategy. e) U.S. Biological Resources Discipline.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4.0 Explain how conservation policies and laws work to protect the environment.

Section Reference 1: 16.4 Conservation Policies and Laws

22) Before attempting a reintroduction of captive-bred animals into the wild, biologists must a) restore disturbed lands to create appropriate biological habitat. b) teach social skills to animals in the wild for acceptance of captive-bred animals. c) determine what factors originally caused the species to become endangered. d) identify and locate biodiversity hotspots. e) artificially inseminate the captive-bred animals.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Explain how assisted colonization could be used for atrisk species.

Section Reference 1: 16.6 Energy and Climate Change: Assisted Colonization

23) Declining biological diversity in the U.S. is most serious in a) Hawaii (63% of species are at risk) and California (29% of species are at risk). b) Alaska (58% of species are at risk) and Washington (32% of species are at risk). c) Montana (46% of species are at risk) and Texas (38% of species are at risk). d) Florida (52% of species are at risk) and Louisiana (40% of species are at risk). e) Oregon (49% of species are at risk) and Wisconsin (34% of species are at risk).

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.4 Define biodiversity hotspots, explaining where most of the world’s biodiversity hotspots are located.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

24) Assisted Colonization is being proposed as a method to prevent species extinction in response to what environmental threat? a) prevalence of invasive species b) global climate change c) habitat destruction d) overexploitation e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6.0 Explain how assisted colonization could be used for atrisk species.

Section Reference 1: 16.6 Energy and Climate Change: Assisted Colonization

25) Which of the following is a true statement about conservation of tigers in India? a) Establishment of National Parks has been successful in stopping population declines. b) Poaching has been reduced due to strict enforcement and high fines. c) Tigers are usually solitary animals that require large areas to obtain prey. d) Tigers are not protected by any laws. e) Humans and tigers rely on different prey species for food.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

26) Humans depend on other organisms for all of the following requirements except: a) carbon dioxide. b) food. c) shelter. d) medicines. e) clothing.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

27) Genetic resources are important for the development of all of the following except: a) new fungicides from centipedes. b) new cancer treatments from marine organisms. c) new food sources like winged beans. d) new oils and lubricants from various plants.

e) none of these choices, genetic resources are important for the development of all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.2 Distinguish among genetic diversity, species richness, and ecosystem diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

28) Which of the following is not an ecosystem service? a) decomposition b) seed banks c) pollination d) maintenance of soil fertility e) prevention of soil erosion Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

29) Which of the following is not characteristic of species that are vulnerable to extinction?

I. endemic to islands II. high reproductive rates III. low reproductive success IV. occupation of a large territory or region a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and III Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

30) Which of the following statements about tropical rain forests is false? a) Approximately 1% of tropical rain forests are being cleared or degraded every decade. b) Most species that live in tropical rain forests are endemic. c) The forest itself generates much of the rainfall in tropical rain forests. d) Tropical rain forests cover 7% of the Earth's surface and provide habitat for 50% of the Earth's species. e) Migratory birds that winter in tropical rain forests are declining.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.4 Define biodiversity hotspots, explaining where most of the world’s biodiversity hotspots are located.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

31) Which of the following is an example of biotic pollution? a) elephants in southern Africa b) black-footed ferrets in South Dakota, Wyoming, and Montana c) brown tree snake in Guam d) California condor in the United States e) passenger pigeons in North America Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.6 Explain how invasive species endanger native species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

32) An example of an invasive species is: a) the California condor. b) the blue whale. c) the water hyacinth. d) the Tiburon mariposa lily. e) Quinoa.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.6 Explain how invasive species endanger native species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

33) Which of the following is a true statement about chytrid fungus?

I Climate change may be increasing its effects on amphibians II. It is responsible for die-offs in more than 500 species III. Under certain circumstances, it has infected and killed more than 85% of the amphibians present. a) I b) II c) III d) I and II are both true e) I and III are both true Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

34) Poaching has led to the decline of all of the following species except: a) gorillas. b) wild turtles. c) caimans. d) black-footed ferrets. e) American black bear.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

35) Which of the following is a mismatch between the animal poached and the highly valued black-market product? a) rhinoceros – liver b) bears – gall bladder c) gorilla – bushmeat d) caimans – skin e) birds – pets Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

36) Which of the following statements about amphibians is true? a) Amphibians are represented by about 500 species of frogs, toads, and salamanders. b) Populations of amphibians in a few local areas have declined dramatically in the last few decades. c) Amphibians lay their eggs in dry, sandy areas close to a source of water. d) Their moist, absorptive skin makes amphibians very susceptible to environmental contaminants. e) Scientists increasingly perceive amphibians to be fair-weather species.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

37) Deformities in amphibians include all of the following except: a) extra legs b) missing legs c) eyes located on the shoulder or back d) deformed jaws e) none, all are deformities

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

38) The practice of conservation biology uses information about all of the following variables except: a) habitat area b) connectivity among habitats c) accessibility to humans d) degree of ecosystem degradation e) economic value of biological resources Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

39) In situ conservation occurs: a) in laboratories. b) in zoos. c) in parks and reserves. d) without human intervention. e) in seed banks.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

40) An example of ex situ conservation is:

a) maintaining genetic diversity in a crop plant. b) protecting flyways. c) restoration ecology. d) sport hunting. e) charging fees for the use of genetic material.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

41) One problem with protecting vulnerable habitat areas as a means of conserving species richness is: a) that there are so few of these areas, less than 500 worldwide. b) that multiple uses of the area sometimes conflict with the goal of preserving species. c) that there is enough money, but not enough expertise to manage them effectively. d) that too much of the protection is located in tropical rain forests and not enough is in remote mountain areas. e) that too often the protected areas are in highly populated areas.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

42) Which of the following represents an unsuccessful captive-breeding and reintroduction program? a) Guam rails b) black-footed ferrets c) thick-billed parrots d) golden toads e) whooping cranes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

43) Which of the following is not a disadvantage associated with seed banks? a) the seeds of some types of plants do not tolerate being dried out b) embryo transfer is ineffective in plants because it has a very low success rate c) stored seeds do not evolve in response to changes in their natural environment d) seeds do not remain viable indefinitely and must be periodically germinated e) accidents, such as fires and power failures, can destroy the seeds Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

44) One of the controversies associated with the Endangered Species Act is that it: a) has generated too many unresolved cases with developers, over 1000 to date. b) allows for no compromises between species protection and development or livelihood concerns. c) only enhances economic development in specific regions of the country. d) provides too much consideration of individual property rights. e) focuses on saving a few popular species rather than the larger number of less glamorous species.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4.0 Explain how conservation policies and laws work to protect the environment.

Section Reference 1: 16.4 Conservation Policies and Laws 45) Which of the following is a shortcoming of many of the world’s protected areas? a) They are easily accessible to humans. b) They encompass one large area, rather than several small areas c) They are in lightly populated areas. d) They are located too close to other protected areas. e) They are often created to protect specific species

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

46) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? a) Capture-release programs have been very successful in saving many endangered species from extinction. b) We now have the ability to make genes. c) The 20 best-selling prescription drugs are all synthetic. d) There are less than 100 species that are endangered or threatened in the United States. e) Very few species have been evaluated for their economic (i.e., medical, agricultural, industrial) potential.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

47) Which of the following is a FALSE statement? a) Genetic variation increases a species’ resistance to disease. b) Pollution, ultraviolet radiation, and parasites have been implicated in the developmental abnormalities observed in amphibians. c) The present extinction rate is 10,000 times the background rate. d) Commercial extinction is permanent e) Genetic diversity is important for agriculture Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Distinguish between conservation biology and wildlife management.

Section Reference 1: 16.5 Wildlife Management

48) Which of the following medicinal plants is correctly matched with its benefit to humans? a) Horehound: AIDS treatment b) Periwinkle: Cancer therapy c) Quinoa: Antiviral drug d) Winged beans: Diabetes treatment e) Cherry: Birth-control potential Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity

49) All of the following are ecological benefits of habitat corridors EXCEPT: a) facilitating exchange of genetic material among populations b) increasing the probability that suitable habitat will be recolonized after a local population goes extinct c) preventing the spread of disease among populations d) providing access to more food resources e) reducing encounters with humans Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

50) A component of in situ conservation that uses the principles of ecology to help return a degraded environment to a more functional and sustainable one is: a) establishment of seed banks b) artificial insemination and embryo transfer c) restoration ecology d) habitat fragmentation e) creation of wildlife corridors Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.2 Describe restoration ecology.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

51) Which of the following is a disadvantage of restoration ecology? a) high cost b) long time periods required for restoration to occur c) lack of positive results in habitats such as Tallgrass Prairie d) Both high cost and the long time periods required for restoration to occur are disadvantages e) all of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.2 Describe restoration ecology.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology

Question Type: Essay

52) Define extinction and give the possible causes of mass extinction. What single human activity increases the susceptibility of a given species to extinction. Why? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: Extinction is the irreversible elimination of a species from Earth. The causes of past mass extinctions are not well understood, however possible causes include a major climate change or a catastrophic collision of Earth and a large asteroid or comet. Human activity disrupts or destroys the habitat of many organisms. If an organism’s habitat is altered, this impacts the organism's ability to find a mate, food sources, and territory necessary for survival and shelter. Some species have an extremely small range and when this is disturbed, the species will perish.

53) Identify and explain the significance of the various components of biological diversity. Supply one specific example of each type of diversity in your explanation.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1.0 Discuss the importance of biological diversity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.1.3 Describe several important ecosystem services provided by biological diversity.

Section Reference 1: 16.1 Biological Diversity Solution: Variation among organisms is referred to as biological diversity. The components of biological diversity include genetic diversity, species richness, and ecosystem diversity. Genetic diversity takes into account the genetic variety within all populations of that species. These differences provide a broad genetic base for each species’ long-term health and survival. If all members of a species were genetically identical, then they would all be susceptible to the same pests and disease. However, a corn blight fungus that ruined the corn crop in the U.S. in 1970 was brought under control by crossing the cultivated, highly uniform corn varieties with genetically diverse ancestral varieties from Mexico, making the resulting varieties resistant to the fungus.

Species richness refers to the number of species found in an ecosystem. Species richness within an ecosystem provides the ecosystem with resilience, the ability to recover from environmental disasters. The removal of one species from a community makes an ecosystem run less smoothly.

Ecosystem diversity is the variety of interactions among organisms in natural communities, including forests, prairies, deserts, coral reefs, lakes, coastal estuaries and other ecosystems. A forest community with trees, shrubs, vines, insects, worms, animals, fungi and bacteria has greater ecosystem diversity than a cornfield.

54) What is the goal of conservation biology? What are in situ and ex situ conservation practices, and how are they used to meet the goal of conservation biology? What gets in the way of each of these conservation practices being effective and highly successful?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology Solution: The goal of conservation biology is to study how humans impact organisms and develop strategies to cope with declining biological diversity. In in situ conservation, parks and reserves are established to concentrate on preserving biological diversity in nature. Currently, more than 3,000 national parks, sanctuaries, refuges, forests and other protected areas exist worldwide. Protected areas aren’t always effective in preserving biological diversity because there is little money or expertise to manage them so they become “paper parks.” Also the land that is set aside for the preserve is often in lightly

populated mountain areas, tundra, and desert. These places often have relatively few kinds of species. In ex situ conservation human-controlled settings are used to conserve biological diversity. This includes the breeding of captive species in zoos and the seed storage of genetically diverse plant crops. Problems that must be overcome with this practice include prioritizing which species are to be saved. Public support favors charismatic species such as pandas and bald eagles to the detriment of less “attractive” endangered species. The reintroduction of engendered species to nature has not shown overwhelming success. Before attempting a reintroduction, conservation biologists now make a feasibility study to determine what factors originally caused the species to become extinct and whether or not these factors still exist. Seed banks must overcome the drying out of seeds, loss of electricity needed to freeze the seeds and the fact that seeds don’t remain alive indefinitely and must be germinated periodically so new seeds can be collected.

55) What is biotic pollution? Why is it a problem? Discuss one specific example of this type of pollution.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.6 Explain how invasive species endanger native species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: Biotic pollution is the introduction of a foreign species into an ecosystem in which it did not evolve. If these foreign species cause economic or environmental harm then they are considered invasive species. Invasive species can become a nuisance such as the water hyacinth clogging Florida waterways or the kudzu vine climbing and blocking the light for all other plants. These invasive species can crowd out the native species. A good example of this is the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake to the island of Guam. The snake consumed large numbers of rainforest birds and their eggs causing the Guam rail, a flightless bird to be declared extinct in nature in 1986) The snake is also responsible for decimating Guam’s small reptiles and mammals.

56) Compare and contrast the designations of threatened, endangered, and extinct species.

Describe three human causes of species endangerment and/or extinction and explain which is the most threatening.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

Solution: A threatened species is one whose population has declined to the point that it may be at risk of extinction. An endangered species faces threats that may cause it to become extinct within a short period and an extinct species is one whose last individual member has died. Humans contribute to species endangerment through habitat destruction / disruption, spread of invasive species, pollution, and overexploitation. When humans alter or demolish habitat to build roads, parking lots, bridges, businesses, mine for minerals, go off-roading, log for timber or clear land for agriculture, the species that depend on those resources for survival are at a loss. As the human population expands, the habitat for endangered species shrinks. Loss of habitat is the most threatening to species continued existence. Invasive species that spread rapidly in a new area where they are free of predators are crowding out native species. Humans introduce these foreign species knowingly or unknowingly with the same result. Human-produced acid rain, stratospheric ozone depletion, and climate warming degrade even wilderness habitats.

Other types of pollutants that affect organisms include industrial and agricultural chemicals, sewage, and thermal pollution from heated wastewater. Some species become endangered as a result of deliberate efforts to eradicate or control their number.

Unregulated hunting, over-hunting, and poaching endanger animals from the passenger pigeon to the snow leopard.

57) The American whooping crane and the California condor are two of North America’s largest birds. In 1983 the California condor population reached a low of 22 birds. From 1987 to 1992, it was no longer found in nature. Condors were reintroduced into the wild and the population has since recovered to about 80 condors flying free in California by 2004) Likewise, the whooping crane population was reduced to 14 birds in 1937) By 2002 the total number of wild cranes was 284) However, the recovery programs for each of these birds are not unqualified success stories. a) Discuss why the captive breeding program for the birds is not considered an unqualified success. b) Identify and describe a major cause for the original decline of each of these birds. c) Discuss the factors that might cause endangered species to be slow to recover.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: a) Both the condor and whooping crane stories are not considered unqualified success stories because the condors have yet to become a self-sustaining population that replaces its numbers without augmentation by captive breeding and the whooping crane efforts have not yet led to additional self-sustaining flocks. b) One cause of the decline for these birds has been loss of habitat. Species that require flyways or extremely large territories to survive are threatened with extinction when all or part of their territory is modified by human activity. The California condor, a

scavenger bird that lives off of carrion, requires a large, undisturbed territory to find adequate food. Some whooping crane populations are migratory (Wisconsin-Florida) and need protected habitat in the flyway. c) Habitat fragmentation, the breakup of large areas of habitat into small, isolated patches is a major threat to the long-term survival endangered species. For a species to survive, its members must be present within their range in large enough numbers for males and females to mate. And the species needs the social skills or predator skills to integrate into independent life in the wild.

58) Discuss why endemic species living on islands are particularly vulnerable to extinction. Then discuss two additional characteristics that make a given species particularly susceptible to extinction. Provide a specific example for each.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: Many species are endemic to certain islands. This means that they are not found anywhere else in the world. These organisms often have small populations that cannot be replaced by immigration if their numbers dwindle. Because they evolved in isolation from competitors, predators, and disease organisms, island species have few defenses.

Other characteristic that would make a given species susceptible to extinction is a highly specialized feeding habit. For example, in nature, the giant panda eats only bamboo. If all of the bamboo in a particular area died, then the panda population would face starvation.

Another characteristic that would make a given species susceptible to extinction is a low reproductive rate. For example, the female blue whale produces a single calf every other year.

59) Amphibians merit attention because of precipitous declines in their populations occurring around the world. a) Discuss possible causes for the current status of current amphibian populations. b) What characteristics of amphibians (frogs) make them particularly important bellwether species? c) What environmental issues need to be addressed as signaled by the amphibians?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.3 List four characteristics common to many endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment

Solution: The declines of amphibian populations are not limited to areas with obvious habitat destruction. Some remote, pristine locations show dramatic declines in amphibians. Potential factors contributing to the amphibian decline include pollutants, increased UV radiation, agricultural chemicals, infectious diseases, and global climate warming. Amphibian deformities have been reported in almost all of the U.S. and four continents. Scientists have demonstrated that pesticides, parasitic flatworms, and multiple environmental stressors such as habitat loss, disease, and air and water pollution may cause the deformities. A bellwether species provides an early warning of environmental damage with the potential to affect other species. Amphibians are remarkably sensitive environmental indicators in both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. Additionally, frogs breathe primarily through their permeable skin. This moist, absorptive skin makes frogs susceptible to environmental contaminants. The environmental issues that need to be addressed include the stratospheric ozone thinning that is causing an increase in UV radiation. Additionally, increasing global temperatures must be addressed as the climate warming has reduced moisture levels in cloud forests. A decline in the frequency of dryseason mist has been linked to declines in the abundance of frogs. And, of course, we must address habitat loss, air and water pollution, and pesticide residues as species endangerments.

60) Discuss the provisions of the Endangered Species Act of 1973) In your discussion identify those aspects of the law that have been effective and those that are controversial.

Should the ESA be modified? If so, how and why, and if not, why not? Justify your position.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4.0 Explain how conservation policies and laws work to protect the environment.

Section Reference 1: 16.4 Conservation Policies and Laws Solution: The Endangered Species Act (ESA) of 1973 authorizes the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) to protect from extinction endangered and threatened species, in the U.S. and abroad. The act makes it illegal to sell or buy any product made from an endangered or threatened species. The law has been effective in requiring the FWS to select critical habitats and design a recovery plan for each endangered or threatened species. The recovery plan includes an estimate of the current population size, an analysis of what factors contributed to endangerment, and a list of activities to help the population recover. The ESA is controversial because it does not include any economic considerations, such as providing compensation for private property owners who suffer financial losses as a result of obeying the law. Conservation advocates think the ESA does not do enough to save endangered species, and those who own land on which endangered species live think the law goes too far and infringes on property rights. A modification that should be considered for the ESA is providing private landowners tax cuts to help save endangered species living on their lands. This would provide economic incentives for compliance. Additionally, the ESA should be modified to consider entire

ecosystems and maintain complete biological diversity rather than attempt to save endangered species as isolated entities.

61) Compare and contrast at least three goals, strategies, or focus used in wildlife management as compared to conservation biology.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Distinguish between conservation biology and wildlife management.

Section Reference 1: 16.5 Wildlife Management Solution: Conservation biology is the scientific study of how humans impact organisms and of the development of ways to protect biological diversity. Wildlife management is an applied field of conservation biology that focuses on the continued productivity of plants and animals. Conservation biology ranges from studying the processes that influence a decline in biological diversity, to protecting and restoring populations of endangered species, to preserving ecosystems and landscapes. Wildlife management ranges from the regulations of hunting and fishing to the management of food, water, and habitat. While conservation biology focuses on threatened or endangered species, wildlife management focuses on common organisms. Conservation biologists establish parks and reserves to preserve all types of biological diversity, whereas wildlife managers manipulate the plant cover, food, and water supplies of a specific animal species habitat to encourage the presence of certain species and discourage others.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 17

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) What is the current percentage of land used by humans for agriculture? a) 28% b) 42% c) 55% d) 31% e) 38% Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use 2) Cities make up what percentage of the world’s total land area? a) 5% b) 17% c) 3% d) 12% e) 7% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

3) Which U.S. government agency manages the federally owned land? a) Bureau of Land Management b) U.S. Fish and Wildlife c) National Park Service d) U.S. Forest Service

e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

4) Which of the following statements is NOT true about public planning of land use? a) Land use decisions are complex because they have multiple effects b) Public planning of land should take all repercussions into account c) Public planning is concerned primarily with immediate effects d) Initial land development spawns additional land development e) All of these statements are true Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

5) All of the following are benefits of coastal wetlands except: a) reduced flooding through their ability to hold excess water b) improved water quality c) reduced impact of ozone depletion. d) Provide habitat for endangered species e) Produce important commercial products Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.1 Name at least four ecosystem services provided by natural areas.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

6) Which of the following is NOT one of the top 5 countries with the greatest tree harvests?

a) United States b) Canada c) China d) Germany e) Brazil Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

7) Which of the following statements about clear cutting is false? a) It is the most cost-effective way to harvest trees b) When done on a small scale, it can benefit some wildlife species c) It increases soil erosion and causes mudslides d) Clear cutting forests at higher altitudes is more difficult to regenerate than low altitudes e) None of these statements is false Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

8) Which of the following is a direct cause of deforestation? a) Insects b) Indigenous people c) Decrease of agriculture d) Diseases e) Both insects and diseases are direct causes of deforestation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

9) Which organization is a provision of the 1990 Farm Bill which helps landowners protect environmentally important forestlands from development? a) Forest Legacy Program b) Bureau of Land Management c) Environmental Protection Agency d) Department of Environmental Management e) Sierra Club Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.6 Explain how conservation easements help private landowners protect forests from development.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

10) Which of the following statements about forest ownership in the United States is true? a) Federal government owns the majority of the forests b) State and local governments own about 25% of the forests c) Private individuals own the majority of the forests d) Corporations own about half of the forests e) None of these statements is true Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.6 Explain how conservation easements help private landowners protect forests from development.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

11) Which of the following is not a method currently used to harvest trees?

a) clear cutting b) selective cutting c) seed tree cutting d) shelterwood cutting e) None of these choices is currently used Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

12) The natural or human-induced process that decreases the future ability of the land to support crops or livestock is known as: a) desertification b) land degradation c) overgrazing d) clear cutting e) undergrazing Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.2 Define desertification, explaining its relationship to overgrazing.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands

13) Approximately 55 percent of the land in the United States is owned by: a) the federal government, as national parks. b) Native Americans. c) citizens, corporations, and non-profit organizations. d) state and local governments. e) the federal government, as national forests and rangelands.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

14) Most of the federally owned land in the United States is located in: a) Alaska and 11 western states. b) Alaska and the Rocky Mountain area. c) 11 western states and the Upper Midwest. d) Alaska and Texas. e) Alaska, Arizona, California, and Nevada.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

15) The Wilderness Act of 1964: a) established five new national parks. b) limits the percentage of an area that can be developed for human habitation and other activities. c) gives designated wilderness areas the highest protection of any public lands d) established wilderness areas, but only within existing national parks. e) safeguards mountain areas but not tundra or desert.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

16) National parks may include: a) significant modern architecture. b) economically significant areas or buildings. c) historic battlefields. d) farm land. e) None of these statements is correct

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

20) Which of the following is not a threat to national parks? a) ecosystem services b) vandalism c) collecting plants, minerals, and fossils d) declining wildlife populations e) proliferating wildlife populations Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

21) The National Wildlife Refuge System was established by which President of the United States? a) Abraham Lincoln b) Woodrow Wilson c) Harry Truman d) Herbert Hoover e) Theodore Roosevelt Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

22) Forests: a) fix large amounts of oxygen, removing it from the atmosphere. b) promote soil erosion.

c) maintain watersheds. d) provide habitat for few animal species. e) release large amounts of carbon monoxide into the atmosphere.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.1 Define sustainable forestry.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

23) Timber companies prefer to harvest trees by: a) clearcutting. b) seed tree cutting. c) selective cutting. e) shelterwood cutting. e) even-age harvesting.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

24) The removal of all mature trees in an area over an extended period of time is known as: a) clearcutting. b) even-age harvesting. c) selective cutting. d) seed-tree cutting. e) shelterwood cutting.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

25) Tropical dry forests are being destroyed largely due to demand for: a) food. b) pharmaceutical products. c) mining ores. d) industrial wood and wood fiber. e) fuel.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

26) Boreal forests: a) comprise the world's largest biome. b) are currently the primary source of the world's industrial wood and wood fiber. c) are harvested primarily by clearcut logging. d) are comprised of evergreen trees, such as spruce, fir, cedar, and hemlock. e) All of these statements are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

27) Public rangelands in the United States: a) have been on the decline since the early 1900s. b) are maintained exclusively by fees collected from private livestock operators. c) do not currently support large populations of free-ranging grazers.

d) make up approximately 50% of the total land area in the United States. e) can be used for grazing private livestock for a fee if you have a permit.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.1 Describe public rangelands and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands

28) Which of the following is not a commercial product of freshwater wetlands? a) blueberries b) cranberries c) grapes d) peat moss e) wild rice Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Examine the ecological importance of wetlands and coastal areas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.5.1 Describe the current threats to freshwater and coastal wetlands.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Wetlands and Coastal Areas

29) Which of the following includes a provision to protect and restore freshwater wetlands? a) Wilderness Act b) Wild and Scenic Rivers Act c) Federal Land Policy and Management Act d) Land and Water Conservation Fund Act e) Food Security Act Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Examine the ecological importance of wetlands and coastal areas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.5.1 Describe the current threats to freshwater and coastal wetlands.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Wetlands and Coastal Areas

30) Conservation strategies that set aside ecosystems for preservation: a) are the best way to preserve an area’s diversity. b) increase the likelihood that a given ecosystem will be exploited. c) decrease the number of endangered species living in that ecosystem. d) can only be carried out by government agencies. e) are impractical and not encouraged.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6.0 Describe characteristics of endangered ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.6.1 Name at least three of the most endangered ecosystems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 17.6 Conservation and Land Resources

31) A legal agreement that protects privately owned forests or other property from development for a specified number of years is termed: a) a public range land. b) a sanctuary deed. c) a conservation easement. d) an ecosystem lien. e) a habitat right of way.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.6 Explain how conservation easements help private landowners protect forests from development.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

32) According to the Defenders of Wildlife, the top three most endangered ecosystems in the U.S. include: a) Northwestern grassland, Heartland savanna, and California native grassland

b) South Florida landscape, Southern Appalachian spruce-fir forest, and longleaf pine forests and savannas. c) Alaskan tundra, Hawaii’s rainforest, and coastal wetlands d) Bogs, Arizona’s deserts, and Rocky Mountain evergreen forests e) Freshwater lakes, prairie lands, and volcanic landscapes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6.0 Describe characteristics of endangered ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.6.1 Name at least three of the most endangered ecosystems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 17.6 Conservation and Land Resources

33) An ecological simplification in which only one type of plant is cultivated over a large area is called a: a) wildlife corridor b) natural regulation c) wise-use move d) monoculture e) single species standard Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.1 Define sustainable forestry.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

34) Which of the following is not an ecosystem service performed by rural lands? a) flood and erosion control b) waste recycling c) leaching of mineral nutrients d) wildlife habitat e) groundwater recharge Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.1 Name at least four ecosystem services provided by natural areas.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

35) The controversy involving the decline of white pine trees (source of a major part of the grizzly bears' diet) is based on: a) the popularity of the grizzly bears compared to their destruction of the local forest community. b) the fact that global warming and ozone depletion are responsible for the trees' decline. c) the exotic nature of the fungus that is killing the trees. d) the provision of the Wilderness Act that intentional ecological management will be avoided. e) None of these statements is true Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

36) Which of the following statements regarding trees and climate change is true? a) The oxygen produced by trees helps to moderate climate change. b) When trees act as carbon “sinks,” they accelerate climate change. c) There is much more carbon stored in trees than there is in the atmosphere. d) The process of photosynthesis removes greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. e) Trees take greenhouse gases and turn them into CO2, an important compound for many living organisms.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.1 Define sustainable forestry.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

37) Which of the following federal agencies is not charged with the managing of federally owned lands? a) Department of Agriculture

b) Department of Interior c) Bureau of Land Management d) U.S. Forest Service e) Department of Commerce Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

38) According to recent climate projections, how is Amazonia likely to be affected by deforestation?

I. Rainfall will decrease.

II. Temperatures will increase due to a negative feedback loop between forest cover, drought, and air temperature.

III. Drought frequency could increase forest loss.

IV. All of these a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and III Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7.0 Explain how deforestation of the Amazon Rain Forest will affect local climate.

Section Reference 1: 17.7 Energy and Climate Change: Deforestation of the Amazonian Rain Forest

39) The purpose of the National Wildlife Refuge System is to: a) preserve lands and waters for the conservation of wildlife. b) preserve historically significant buildings. c) maintain quality drinking water for urban areas. d) raise money to protect wilderness areas of the United States. e) More than one of these statements are correct Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

40) What prompted the 88th Congress to implement the Wilderness Act of 1964? a) The need to preserve areas of land for future timber harvest b) Concern that human population expansion could drastically reduce the amount of land remaining in pristine condition c) Lobbying by individuals such as John Muir d) The need to make more land accessible to citizens for recreational purposes e) A decrease in land prices, facilitating purchases of large areas by the Federal Government Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

41) Forests play an important role in the hydrologic cycle by: a) returning most moisture to underground storage as groundwater. b) recycling small amounts of water to the atmosphere. c) recycling 75% of precipitation to the atmosphere by transpiration and evaporation. d) removing large amounts of carbon monoxide from the atmosphere. e) increasing runoff to local streams.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.4 Describe national forests and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

42) Forest management for timber production: a) includes the harvesting of trees. b) results in forests with high biodiversity. c) maintains the natural species composition of the forest.

d) results in forests less susceptible to disease. e) specifically avoids producing monoculture forests.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.2 Explain how monocultures are related to forestry.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

43) Habitat corridors are intended to provide: a) further habitat fragmentation. b) increased species richness within forest monocultures. c) a means for controlling insect pests and invasive species. d) increased timber production. e) opportunities for larger animals to establish larger territories.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.2 Explain how monocultures are related to forestry.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

44) Deforestation is linked to all of the following except: a) release of CO2, which may contribute to an increase in global temperature. b) decreased soil fertility. c) the extinction of many species. d) increasingly dry local climates. e) decreased surface water flow into streams and rivers.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

45) Why are tropical rain forests considered so important to global ecology? a) they contribute greatly to the world's carbon and oxygen cycles b) they retard soil erosion c) they contain much of the world's biodiversity d) they mitigate floods and droughts e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

46) The countries of Indonesia and the Philippines have which of the following in common? a) desertification b) drought c) rare cold fronts during winter d) high rates of deforestation e) extensive dry tropical forests Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

47) Subsistence agriculture: a) has little or no impact on deforestation since it is a small-scale approach. b) is where a family produces just enough food to feed itself. c) is only used by 1 to 2 million farmers today since it is an outdated farming practice. d) does not use the slash-and-burn agriculture method. e) is a typical land use practice in highly developed countries.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

48) Which of the following is not a way to slow deforestation? a) replant trees b) allow the land that has been under slash-and-burn agricultural practices to rest for 20 to 100 years c) promote additional slash-and-burn agricultural practices d) harvest trees only at the time they reach harvestable size e) promote land reform changes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

49) Which of the following statements is true? a) Temperate forests are currently the primary source of the world's industrial wood and wood fiber. b) Temperate forests in the eastern United States are holding steady or even expanding. c) Government protection is responsible for the expansion of virgin stands in the eastern United States. d) Well over sixty percent of U. S. forests are owned and supervised by the government. e) The Forest Legacy Program is a provision of the1990 Farm Bill that helps to further protect public lands.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.6 Explain how conservation easements help private landowners protect forests from development.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

50) Which of the following statements about Tongass National Forest is false? a) A single large Sitka spruce from Tongass may yield as much as 10,000 board feet of high-quality lumber. b) Tongass is the largest forest in the National Forest System. c) Tongass is a prime logging area because it was clearcut in the early 1900s and has now regrown. d) The modified Tongass Land Management Plan calls for reduced road density to protect wildlife habitat. e) The 1999 modified Tongass Land Management Plan increased timber harvest rotations to 200 years.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.4 Describe national forests and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests

51) Which of the following statements about rangelands is true? a) Rangelands have native grasses with fibrous root systems that can survive extended periods of drought. b) Rangelands are valuable for food production but yield no other economically valuable resources. c) Rangelands can benefit from overgrazing by cattle since it may actually increase the plant diversity. d) Rangelands are found in temperate regions, but not in tropical climates. e) About 10% of the human population lives in rangelands that border deserts.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.1 Describe public rangelands and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands

52) All of the following are benefits of coastal wetlands except: a) providing food. b) acting as nurseries for many marine organisms. c) reducing the impact of ozone depletion. d) protecting coastlines from erosion. e) reducing the damage from hurricanes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.1 Name at least four ecosystem services provided by natural areas.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use

53) The policy of no net loss of wetlands in the U.S. is only partially successful because: I. wetland dynamics are not totally understood. Reconstructed wetlands do not always provide the essential elements necessary to attract the species of the original habitat.

I. wetlands developed for the drinking water supply do not have to be replaced. This contributes to overall net loss of wetland .

III. There is no routine tracking of compliance to document success.

IV. The definition of wetland was broadened by Congress, adding marginal wetlands in addition to swamps and marshes. a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and III Answer: e Reference: 17.5 Describe the current threats to freshwater and coastal wetlands (T) Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Examine the ecological importance of wetlands and coastal areas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.5.1 Describe the current threats to freshwater and coastal wetlands.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Wetlands and Coastal Areas

54) What is the relationship of overgrazing to desertification?

a) Overgrazing is the destruction of vegetation; desertification is the destruction of a desert ecosystem b) Overgrazing results in barren exposed soil; if erosion continues, it contributes to desertification c) Overgrazing is brought about by cattle; desertification is brought about by temperature d) Overgrazing is caused by too fertile rangeland; desertification is caused by too fertile agricultural land e) Overgrazing is a synonym for desertification Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.2 Define desertification, explaining its relationship to overgrazing.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands

55) Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) There is at least one wildlife refuge is each of the 50 states. b) Hunting is not allowed in wildlife refuges. c) The National Wildlife Refuge system has made it a priority to expand the limited ecosystems currently represented d) Wildlife refuges are managed by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) e) The primary mission of the National Wildlife Refuge system is to provide public recreation areas for wildlife observation, photography and environmental education.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges

54) Which of the following is a true statement regarding farms in the United States? a) The number of farms has decreased, while the size of farms has increased b) The number of farms has increased, while the size of farms has decreased c) Both the number and size of farms has increased d) Both the number and size of farms has decreased e) Both the number and size of farms has remained about the same Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.3 Discuss trends in U.S. agricultural land, such as encroachment of suburban sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands

Question Type: Essay

55) Provide a solid definition of wetlands and explain why the definition of a wetland is controversial. How does narrowing the definition of wetland pose a threat to wetlands?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5.0 Examine the ecological importance of wetlands and coastal areas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.5.2 Define wetlands and explain ecosystem services provided by wetlands.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Wetlands and Coastal Areas Solution: Wetlands are lands transitional between aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems that are usually covered by shallow water for at least part of the year. This definition includes marginal wetlands as well as marshes and swamps. Responding to the protest from farmers and real estate developers, who perceived a broad definition as an economic threat to their property values, politicians attempted to narrow the definition, removing marginal wetlands and thus excluding approximately one half of existing wetland in the U.S. from protection.

56) In the United States, national parks serve to provide biological habitat and facilitate human recreation. Discuss the impact of at least three threats to national parks. If a natural regulation policy were in place at a national park, what effect would it have on the management of the park? Why is natural regulation controversial?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges Solution: Overuse and overcrowding of the National Parks leads to urban problems of crime, vandalism, litter, traffic jams and pollution of the soil, water, and air. Resource violations, including collection of plants, minerals, fossils and defacing historical structures have led to restrictions being placed on fragile environments in the park.

National Parks are not self-sufficient. The entrance fees alone are not adequate to maintain, repair and operate the parks. Human activities beyond park borders also affect national parks. Pollution does not respect park boundaries. Some national parks also have imbalances in wildlife population. Introduction of predators help to control prey populations. However, if natural regulation, a park management policy that involves letting nature take its course most of the time, with corrective actions undertaken as needed to adjust for changes caused by pervasive human activities, were implemented, then the prey population would be allowed to fluctuate naturally. Because fires are an integral part of national park ecosystems, with this policy in place, fires would not be suppressed unless they threaten people or buildings. The controversy over natural regulation involves what kinds of and how much human intervention are necessary to maintain ecological systems in pristine condition.

57) What are ecosystem services? How would you respond to the critic who says, "Forests are only good for providing timber"? Support your answer with examples of at least four different ecosystem services offered by forests.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.1 Name at least four ecosystem services provided by natural areas.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use Solution: Ecosystem services are important environmental benefits, such as clear air, water, and fertile soil that ecosystems provide. Forests provide many goods and services to support human society besides lumber. Forests supply nuts, mushrooms, fruits, and medicines. Forests also influence local and regional climate conditions. Biological cooling is a result of a process called transpiration. Forests play an essential role in regulating global biogeochemical cycles, such as those for carbon and nitrogen. By acting as carbon “sinks,” forest help mitigate global warming. At the same time, forests supply essential oxygen for other organisms through photosynthesis. The roots of forest trees hold soil in place, reducing erosion and mudslides. Forests protect watersheds because they absorb, hold and slowly release water. And forests provide habitats for mammals, reptiles, amphibians, fish, insects, lichen, fungi, mosses, ferns, conifers and numerous flowering plants.

58) Identify and discuss four ways in which forest trees are currently harvested. Which method is the most ecologically sound, and why? Which method is the most economical?

If your answer is different for these two questions, how could a compromise be reached?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.4 Describe national forests and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests Solution: Selective cutting harvests mature trees by cutting individual or small clusters of trees while the rest of the forest remains intact. This is ecologically sound because it allows the forest to regenerate naturally through seeding from remaining trees. While this method has fewer negative impacts on the forest community, it is not profitable in the short term because timber isn’t removed in great enough quantities. Shelterwood cutting removes all mature trees in an area over an extended period of time. The first harvest removes dead or diseased trees. The second harvest, perhaps ten years later, removes mature trees but leaves some of the largest to shelter the younger trees. After another decade, a third harvest removes the remaining mature trees. By now the younger trees are established. This method is ecologically sound because it prevents soil erosion and is self-sustaining. In seed tree cutting, almost all trees are harvested from an area leaving a scattering of desirable trees to provide seeds for regeneration. This method is not ecologically sound because it allows erosion and a severe alteration of the forest ecosystem, including loss of habitat for other organisms. Clearcutting is harvesting timber by removing all trees from a forest. Afterward, the area is either allowed to reseed and regenerate naturally or is planted with one or more variety of trees. This is the most cost effective method of harvesting forests yet it is ecologically unsound because it destroys biological habitats and increases soil erosion. The recreation and ecological services of forests are lost and sometimes the forests do not regenerate. Because selective cutting is the most ecologically sound and clearcutting is the most economical, a compromise could be reached by clearcutting selective patches of the forest. This might benefit the species that thrive in the regrowth of trees and shrubs that follow removal of the overhead canopy.

59) Describe public rangelands, stating which government agencies administer them in the U.S. What is the carrying capacity of a rangeland and what results when this capacity is exceeded?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.1 Describe public rangelands and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands Solution: Rangelands are grasslands, in both temperate and tropical climates, that serve as important areas of food production for humans by providing fodder for livestock such as cattle, sheep, and goats. In the U.S. the rangelands are administered by the BLM (guided by the Taylor Grazing Act of 1934, Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, and the Public Rangelands Improvement Act of 1978) The USFS manages an additional

50 million acres. The carrying capacity of a rangeland is the maximum number of animals the rangeland plants can sustain over an indefinite period without deterioration of the rangeland. When the carrying capacity is exceeded, overgrazing leaves the ground barren and susceptible to erosion.

60) Identify the criteria used by the Defenders of Wildlife to rank the endangered ecosystems in the United States. Identify three endangered ecosystems that meet these criteria and explain how the criteria apply to them.

Answer:.

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6.0 Describe characteristics of endangered ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.6.1 Name at least three of the most endangered ecosystems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 17.6 Conservation and Land Resources Solution: The criteria used to rank the most endangered ecosystems include: a) The area lost or degraded since Europeans colonized North America b) The number of present examples of a particular ecosystem or the total area c) An estimate of the likelihood that a given ecosystem will lose a significant area or be degraded during the next 10 years d) The number of threatened and endangered species living in that ecosystem The three most endangered ecosystems in the U.S. are the South Florida landscape, Southern Appalachian spruce-fir forests, and longleaf pine forests and savannas. They fit the criteria of being lost and degraded and the organisms that compose these ecosystems are declining in number and in genetic diversity

62) Tropical rain forests and boreal forests are both undergoing deforestation. Compare and contrast the causes of deforestation in these two different biomes.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.5 Define deforestation, including clear-cutting, and describing the main causes of tropical deforestation.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests Solution: In tropical rain forests, deforestation is occurring due to a variety of economic, social, and governmental factors. In general, rates of deforestation increase with population growth, since more people need more resources to survive. Subsistence agriculture is responsible for much of the deforestation in tropical rain forests, and is driven in some cases by government policy that encourages settlement by poor families, who may have no other option but to practice slash and burn agriculture. Tropical rain

forests are also logged commercially for export abroad at non-sustainable rates – a practice that degrades ecosystems rather than contributing to economic development.

Plantation agriculture and cattle ranching are also activities that contribute to deforestation of tropical rain forests.

Deforestation of boreal forests, on the other hand, has been due almost exclusively to clear-cut logging. They are the world’s primary source of wood and wood fiber. Similar to tropical rain forests, logging has been allowed to continue at unsustainable rates, threatening the future of these forests.

63) The United States Federal Government owns over 1/3 of the land in the United States. How is this land categorized, and how are the different categories of land managed? Mention any potential conflicts that could arise over management of these areas.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3.0 Discuss current issues surrounding the management of forests.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.3.4 Describe national forests and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.3 Forests Solution: Land owned by the U.S. Federal Government is categorized primarily as: 1) National Parks and Preserves, 2) National Wildlife Refuges, or 3) National Forests and Grasslands. In addition, portions of the ocean are classified as National Marine Sanctuaries, also managed by the Federal Government. National parks and preserves are managed to protect land and biodiversity for peoples’ enjoyment. National Wildlife Refuges are managed to preserve land and water for conservation of biodiversity.

National forests are managed so that citizens may reap the greatest benefit from the harvest of their natural resources, although many National Forests are also enjoyed for the recreational opportunities they offer. National Forests are the sites of the most frequent management controversies, largely because recreational interests would prefer that the forests be left as natural as possible, whereas industry responsible for harvesting the natural resources (primarily timber) would prefer to log more of the area. Conflict also arises here because of subsidies provided to the timber industry, the ultimate source of which is taxpayer dollars.

64) What is the Farmland Protection Program? How does it work, and what environmental problem is it designed to address?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.3 Discuss trends in U.S. agricultural land, such as encroachment of suburban sprawl.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands Solution: The Farmland Protection Program (FPP) is a component of the 1996 Farm Bill designed to ensure that farmland is used for agricultural purposes. It allows farmers to sell conservation easements, ranging in duration from 30 years to forever, that prevent them from turning their land to non-agricultural uses. This program is designed to slow urbanization and suburban sprawl, both of which often occur via the transformation of agricultural land. Funding for the FPP is subject to annual appropriation by Congress.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 18

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The two areas of the world with the greatest food insecurity are: a) South America and South Asia. b) South America and sub-Saharan Africa. c) China and sub-Saharan Africa. d) South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. e) the Middle East and South Asia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

2) The quantity of various grains remaining from previous harvests is known as: a) subsistence agriculture. b) food security. c) world grain stocks. d) yield. e) organic farming surplus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

3) The main cause of undernutrition and malnutrition is:

a) poverty. b) inadequate global food production. c) polyculture. d) decreasing livestock yields. e) organic farming practices.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.3 Explain the relationship between poverty and malnutrition.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

4) The most common foods eaten in the world today are: a) corn (maize), rice, sweet potato, and wheat. b) barley, corn, rice, and wheat. c) corn, rice, and wheat. d) cassava, potato, rice, and wheat. e) corn, potato, soybean, and rice.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.2.1 Name the three most important food crops.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production

5) According to Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen, what is the leading cause of hunger and famine? a) Soil degradation b) Per capita income c) Climate conditions d) Government type e) Access to education Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.1 Explain how famines differ from chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

6) All of the following are among the most important livestock species except: a) pigs. b) turkeys. c) goats. d) water buffalo. e) deer Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production

7) The decline in genetic diversity within a given variety of crop plant results in loss of: a) color variations. b) flavor differences. c) nutritional differences. d) size variations. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

8) Germplasm: a) can only be distributed by government agencies. b) refers to only the seeds of traditional crop varieties. c) is the subject of a new international treaty governing the exchange and patenting of these materials. d) cannot be used to preserve or improve the genetic characteristics of livestock. e) All of these statements are correct

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

9) Which of the following crops has not been significantly improved by the green revolution? a) potatoes b) wheat c) sweet potatoes d) rice e) corn Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Describe the benefits and problems associated with the green revolution.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock 10) From the farmer’s field to the kitchen table, which section of the “food pipeline” contributes the most greenhouse gases? a) transportation b) food production c) packaging d) marketing e) home storage Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Describe how agriculture has impacted the environment.

Section Reference 1: 18.4 The Environmental Impacts of Agriculture

11) Which of the following is/are currently used to increase livestock yields?

a) maintaining a wide variety of genetically diverse livestock b) using genetically engineered foodstuffs c) implementing integrated pest management d) administering antibiotics and hormones e) increasing use of nomadic herding Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.3 Explain the roles of hormones and antibiotics in industrialized agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

14) Which of the following fishing practices has been banned by most countries but continues to be used illegally? a) longlines b) bycatch c) trawl bag d) drift nets e) purse-seine nets Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Contrast fishing and aquaculture, describing the environmental challenges of each activity.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World

15) Aquaculture is: a) fish farming. b) growing plants without soil. c) using desalinated water for irrigation. d) a type of germplasm storage. e) fishing without hooks.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Contrast fishing and aquaculture, describing the environmental challenges of each activity.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World

16) Which of the following statements about organic food production is true? a) Organic farming has allowed U.S. agriculture to become the most efficient and productive in the world. b) It may involve the use of antibiotics and hormones for livestock, as long as no chemicals are added to crops. c) Organic livestock must be fed organic feed. d) The soil is fertilized with commercial inorganic fertilizer, with the use of cover crops every fourth year. e) Organic farms must be kept insect-free to allow for the crops to survive without the use of pesticides.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Define sustainable agriculture, contrasting it with industrialized agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.5 Solutions to Agricultural Problems

17) Two main reasons that the world grain stocks have dropped in the past few years are: a) bad weather and increased consumption of animal products. b) wars (conflicts) and political unrest. c) increased disease (e.g. AIDS) and bad weather. d) bad weather and wars. e) lower grain prices and political unrest.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

18) Livestock is an expensive source of food because: a) it is particularly rich in protein. b) of the amount of land area needed to house the animals. c) the antibiotics and hormones needed to support high yield are exceedingly expensive. d) it is the preferred food source in many developing countries. e) animals are inefficient at converting plant food into meat.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production

19) Domesticated plants and animals: a) are characterized by high genetic diversity. b) are less likely to succumb to new strains of disease-causing organisms. c) tend to lose genetic diversity as the farmer selects for more desirable agricultural characteristics. d) can readily survive in both cultivated and wild (natural) settings. e) readily adapt to changing environmental conditions.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

20) In the future, all of the following factors are likely to contribute to an increased demand for rice, corn and wheat EXCEPT: a) increasing demand for meat b) increased use of crop plants to produce biofuels c) increased population size d) migration away from productive growing areas e) increasing affluence Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

21) Which of the following identifies one of the problems associated with the "green revolution"? a) It did not produce enough food for developing countries. b) It made developing countries dependent on high-energy, imported technologies. c) It was confined to highly developed countries. d) it was rejected due to conflict with cultural traditions in developing countries.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

22) Concern over the routine use of antibiotics in raising livestock centers around: a) the potential that bacterial resistance to antibiotics may increase as a result. b) violations of U.S. government policy that prohibits their indiscriminate use in livestock. c) the fact that the antibiotics may be toxic to small children. d) a tentative link between antibiotics and cancer. e) the excessively high concentrations of chemicals that are then found in the meat products.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Describe the benefits and problems associated with the green revolution.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

23) Which of the following is not an environmental problem associated with industrialized agriculture? a) release of antioxidants b) soil erosion c) depletion of freshwater resources d) disposal of livestock wastes e) habitat loss Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Describe the benefits and problems associated with the green revolution.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

24) Which of the following statements about sustainable agriculture is false? a) An important goal of sustainable agriculture is to preserve the quality of the agricultural soil. b) Sustainable agriculture methods are less damaging to the environment, but have higher associated costs. c) Sustainable agriculture relies on beneficial biological processes and environmentally friendly chemicals. d) Sustainable agriculture involves diversification of crops and livestock. e) Sustainable agriculture is also known as alternative or low-input agriculture.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Define sustainable agriculture, contrasting it with industrialized agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.5 Solutions to Agricultural Problems

25) Sustainable agricultural practices are characterized by all of the following except: a) crop selection. b) water and energy conservation. c) monoculture. d) use of manure as a fertilizer. e) increasing biological diversity to control pests.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Define sustainable agriculture, contrasting it with industrialized agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.5 Solutions to Agricultural Problems

26) GM (genetically modified) crops and foods: a) may have higher nutritional value than the original product. b) may be resistant to pests, diseases, and stressful (weather)/climate conditions. c) may produce unexpected allergic reactions in some consumers. d) have been largely banned by the European Union. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.4 Identify the potential benefits and problems of genetic engineering.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

27) To optimize the quality and productivity of their "crops," aquaculture farmers control all of the following except: a) predation. b) breeding cycles. c) market prices. d) diets. e) water quality.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Contrast fishing and aquaculture, describing the environmental challenges of each activity.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World

28) One of the factors slowing the expansion of aquaculture is:

I. restrictive legislation.

II. that it is expensive.

III. lack of public willingness to purchase fish produced by aquaculture.

IV. that the fish produced are of lower quality than wild-caught. a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) III and IV Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Contrast fishing and aquaculture, describing the environmental challenges of each activity.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World

29) All of the following are subsistence agriculture practices except: a) shifting cultivation. b) slash-and-burn agriculture. c) nomadic herding. d) intercropping. e) high-input agriculture.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.2.3 Contrast industrialized agriculture with subsistence agriculture, describing three kinds of subsistence agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production

30) Which areas of the world are at the most risk for famine? a) developing nations in South America b) developing nations in Africa c) Western Europe d) Impoverished cities in highly developed countries e) Developing nations in both South America and Africa

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.1 Explain how famines differ from chronic hunger.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

31) Which of the following is NOT a reason why world grain stocks have decreased in recent years? a) environmental conditions due to global warming b) consumption of beef has increased in China and other developing countries c) increased investments in agricultural research d) corn yields are increasingly diverted into ethanol production and research e) All of these statements are reasons why world grain stocks have decreased Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security

32) A type of subsistence agriculture which requires large tracts of land and consists of short periods of cultivation followed by lengthened fallow periods: a) slash-and-burn agriculture b) nomadic herding c) intercropping d) shifting cultivation e) Both slash and burn agriculture and shifting cultivation are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.2.3 Contrast industrialized agriculture with subsistence agriculture, describing three kinds of subsistence agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production

33) A type of intercropping in which many different species of plants are planted together: a) monoculture b) afroculture c) magniculture d) polyculture e) ambiculture Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.2.3 Contrast industrialized agriculture with subsistence agriculture, describing three kinds of subsistence agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production

34) Which of the following statements about genetic diversity is false? a) Wild plant and animal populations generally have high genetic diversity b) Much of genetic diversity is lost due to domestication c) During domestication, selection often occurs for traits which are not of obvious value to humans d) Low genetic diversity increases vulnerability to new disease-causing organisms e) The majority of vegetable crops grown in the U.S. are of only a few varieties Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

35) Modern cultivation methods combined with high-yielding varieties of certain popular crops to increase the amount of food produced per designated area characterizes: a) organic farming b) the green revolution c) chemical enhancement d) self-yielding farming e) none of these choices is correct

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

36) What country produces the most genetically modified crops? a) Germany b) Brazil c) Canada d) United States e) France Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.4 Identify the potential benefits and problems of genetic engineering.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

37) Based on our current understanding of genetically modified crops, which of the following statements is true? a) Genetically modified crops are just as safe for consumption as organic crops b) No research is being done to analyze the effects of genetically modified crop seeds spreading uncontrollably c) Genetically modified crops in North America have already been found to have harmful effects on the environment d) There are very lenient rules in areas of genetic modification research e) None of these statements is true Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.4 Identify the potential benefits and problems of genetic engineering.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

38) Important environmental benefits provided by ecosystems, and which have been affected by industrial agriculture, are known as: a) evolution of genetics b) habitat exploitation c) ecosystem services d) natural products e) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Describe how agriculture has impacted the environment.

Section Reference 1: 18.4 The Environmental Impacts of Agriculture

39) A process, either natural or manmade, that decreases the ability of land to support future crops or livestock is: a) habitat fragmentation b) slash-and-burn farming c) overgrazing d) marginal cultivation e) land degradation Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4.0 Describe how agriculture has impacted the environment.

Section Reference 1: 18.4 The Environmental Impacts of Agriculture

40) Which of the following is NOT part of sustainable agriculture? a) organic farming b) integrated pest management c) water and energy conservation d) decreased biodiversity e) decreased pesticide use Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5.0 Define sustainable agriculture, contrasting it with industrialized agriculture.

Section Reference 1: 18.5 Solutions to Agricultural Problems

41) Germplasm: a) can only be distributed by government agencies b) refers to only the seeds of traditional crop varieties c) refers to any plant or animal that may be used for breeding d) cannot be used to preserve or improve the genetic characteristics of livestock. e) All of these statements are correct Answer: c Difficullty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock

42) Which of the following factors concerning South Asia and southern Africa suggest that people there will be increasingly food-insecure as a result of global climate change? a) People are dependent on locally-grown foods. b) Increases in extreme weather events will lead to a decrease in all food crops. c) The warming climate will lead to an increase in production of certain crops. d) Uncertainty of climate projections. e) Different plant species will respond differently to changing climate.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7.0 Explain the relationship between food security and climate change.

Section Reference 1: 18.7 Energy and Climate Change: Food Security

43) Approximately what percentage of marine organisms captured in commercial fisheries is undesirable, and returned to the water as bycatch? a) 5% b) 10% c) 25% d) 50%

e) 75% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Define bycatch.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World

Question Type: Essay

44) What is a vegetarian? Give two reasons why a person might become a vegetarian. If I exclude all meat, milk and eggs in all forms from my diet, in which vegetarian category would you place me?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production Solution: A vegetarian is a person who doesn’t eat the flesh of any animal, including fish and poultry. Some people become vegetarians for health reasons, and some people become vegetarians because they are morally or philosophically opposed to killing animals. Some people become vegetarians in compliance with their religion. Some people also become vegetarians for environmental reasons, because more energy is required to produce livestock than to produce crop plants. Vegans exclude milk and eggs in all forms from their diets.

45) What are world grain stocks? Discuss the recent history of world grain carryover stocks and some explanation for what has happened. How does this history relate to world food security?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security Solution: World grain stocks are the amounts of rice, wheat, corn, and other grains remaining from previous harvests, as estimated at the start of a new harvest. Stockpiles of

grain have decreased each year since their all-time high in 1987) According to the United Nations, world grain carryover stocks should not fall below the minimum amount of 70 days’ supply in a given year. However, the world grain carryover stocks reached 70 days or higher only two times since 1990) When food is scarce and prices increase, the risk of political instability is a real concern in poor nations. The reasons that world grain stocks have dropped each year include environmental conditions such as rising temperatures, falling water tables, and droughts causing poor harvests. Global demand for meat has also reduced world grain stocks, as more grain is being used to feed livestock and poultry.

Another reason is attributed to declining investments in agricultural research to improve crops.

46) What was the green revolution and who started it? Discuss the pros and cons associated with this revolution in agriculture. What additional changes or improvements will be needed to improve agricultural productivity for the future?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Describe the benefits and problems associated with the green revolution.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock Solution: The green revolution is credited to Norman Borlaug, a U.S. scientist who worked on wheat in Mexico. He introduced a short-stemmed, hybrid strain of wheat. He used modern cultivation methods and the high yielding varieties of certain staple crops to produce more food per acre of cropland. The pros of the revolution include the increased production of grains in developing countries. However the green revolution has made these developing countries dependent on imported technologies such as agrochemical and energy consuming equipment. Environmental problems caused by the use of commercial inorganic fertilizers and pesticides are also attributed to the green revolution. To improve agricultural productivity in the future, countries need to direct more money to support a concerted scientific effort to develop improved crops. Genetic engineering can assist in developing crop varieties to have high yield. Modern agricultural methods, such as waterefficient irrigations will also need to be introduced.

47) Why are resources in the ocean more susceptible to overuse than resources on land?

Describe some of the steps nations have taken to manage ocean resources.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Contrast fishing and aquaculture, describing the environmental challenges of each activity.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World Solution: Resources in the ocean are more susceptible to overuse and degradation than are resources on the land because no nation can claim the open ocean, making it difficult to manage these resources. In response to overharvesting, many nations have extended the limits of their jurisdiction to include all of the ocean within 200 miles of land. This would allow nations to regulate the amount of fish and seafood harvested from this area.

However, many nations still practice an “open management policy,” allowing all fishing boats of that country unrestricted access to fishes in national waters, thus the issue of overharvesting is still not addressed. Other nations have passed legislation to regulate harvest in their waters, as the Unites States did with the Magnuson Fishery Conservation Act and subsequent modification into the Magnuson-Stevenson Fishery Conservation and Management Act. The original Act established regional fishery councils and required them to develop management plans for their regions. The Magnuson-Stevenson Act strengthened controls and regulations on illegal and unreported fishing.

48) In 1999, the EU placed a 5-year moratorium on virtually all approvals of genetically modified (GM) crops. Currently, the European Union (EU) bans all imports of hormonetreated beef. What reasons does the EU give for not wanting these agricultural developments? What do critics of the EU ban contend?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.4 Identify the potential benefits and problems of genetic engineering.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock Solution: The reason the EU gives is health concerns for human consumers. The EU cites a few studies that suggest hormones or their breakdown products, both found in trace amounts in meat and meat products, could cause cancer or affect the growth of young children. Excess hormones excreted in cattle feces could end up in other foods or drinking water. Critics of the EU ban contend it is a move to reduce competition and protect the EU beef industry. Likewise, EU opposition to GM crops may have been the result of economic considerations, such as protecting the market for homegrown foods by banning imports. The EU was concerned the inserted genes in the GM crops could spread in an uncontrolled manner to weeds or wild relatives of crop plants and possibly harm natural ecosystem in the process.

49) Define genetic diversity and explain the importance of genetic diversity for crop plants and livestock. Identify one way genetic diversity is lost in organisms and discuss one benefit and one difficulty of lower genetic diversity.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe the beneficial and harmful effects of domestication on crop plants and livestock, defining germplasm in the process.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock Solution: Genetic diversity is the variation in genes, units of hereditary information that specify certain traits for organisms. Genetic diversity is important because it contributes to a species’ long-term survival by providing the variation that enables each population to adapt to changing environmental conditions. One way genetic diversity is lost is through domestication. This is the process of taming wild animals or adapting wild plants to serve humans. Domestication markedly alters the characteristics of the organism by selecting against traits in the organism that are not valued by humans. This is beneficial because a few selected domesticated agricultural crops are very high yielding. Likewise, domesticated Holstein cows and white leghorn chickens produce almost all of the milk and eggs in the U.S. The difficulty of this approach is that the lower genetic diversity increases the likelihood that the organisms will succumb to new strains of diseasecausing organisms. The entire domesticated population is susceptible.

50) Compare the benefits and challenges of fishing and aquaculture. Which approach has a greater impact on the environment? Justify your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Contrast fishing and aquaculture, describing the environmental challenges of each activity.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World Solution: Fishing is like hunting. Fish and other seafood are highly nutritious and can be caught in shallow coastal waters as well as the open ocean. However, currently, 62% of the world’s fish stocks are fully exploited, overexploited or depleted because of the growing human population and technological advances in fishing gear.

Aquaculture is like farming. Fish, shellfish, and seaweed are grown for human consumption. To optimize the quality and productivity of the “crops,” aquaculture farmers control the diet, breeding cycle, and environmental conditions of the ponds or enclosures. Aquaculture has enormous potential to provide food to people of developing nations. However, coastline aquaculture damages or destroys some coastal ecosystems such as the mangrove. Aquaculture also produces wastes that pollute the adjacent water

and harm other organisms. The aquaculture farms must be monitored for disease and overbreeding.

Although developing nations harvest more fishes from the ocean, they produce much more seafood by aquaculture. In fishing the limit of the size of the catch depends on the size of the natural population. In aquacultural production, the limit is largely the size of the enclosure. Aquaculture has a greater impact on the environment in terms of pollution, ecosystem alterations, and domestication resulting in loss of genetic diversity.

51) What is bycatch, and why is it an issue of concern for commercial fisheries?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6.0 Explain the environmental challenges facing the world fishing industry.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Define bycatch.

Section Reference 1: 18.6 Fisheries of the World Solution: Bycatch refers to the organisms captured unintentionally, and accounts for approximately 25% of all organisms captured by commercial fishers. This is a problem, since the majority of these animals die soon after they are released, either because they have been injured by the fishing gear, or because they were kept out of water too long. As a result, commercial fishing negatively impacts the populations of many species which are not even targeted for harvest.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 19 Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) The two atmospheric gases most important to humans and other organisms are: a) carbon dioxide and oxygen. b) hydrogen and oxygen. c) oxygen and argon. d) carbon dioxide and nitrogen. e) carbon monoxide and oxygen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1.0 Describe the composition of the atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 List the four main gases that comprise most of the atmosphere.

Section Reference 1: 19.1 The Atmosphere as a Resource 2) The most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere is: a) argon. b) carbon dioxide. c) hydrogen. d) nitrogen. e) oxygen.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1.0 Describe the composition of the atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 List the four main gases that comprise most of the atmosphere.

Section Reference 1: 19.1 The Atmosphere as a Resource 3) The two main human sources of primary air pollutants are: a) agriculture and residential sources. b) agriculture and industry. c) industry and incineration. d) industry and transportation. e) incineration and transportation.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.2 List various sources of outdoor air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 4) Automobiles and trucks do not release significant quantities of the following into the atmosphere: a) carbon dioxide b) hydrocarbons c) nitrogen oxides d) particulate matter e) sulfur oxides Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.2 List various sources of outdoor air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 5) The difference between primary and secondary air pollutants is that primary air pollutants: a) only affect plants, while secondary pollutants affect plants and animals. b) are not harmful to humans, whereas secondary air pollutants may be toxic to humans. c) enter the atmosphere directly, whereas secondary pollutants form from other substances released into the atmosphere. d) are the direct result of natural processes, whereas secondary air pollutants are the result of human activity. e) are smaller, primary molecules.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.1 List the seven major classes of air pollutants, including ozone and hazardous air pollutants, describing their effects.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 6) Fine solid or liquid particles suspended in the air are known as: a) primary air pollutants.

b) particulate matter. c) hydrocarbons. d) secondary air pollutants. e) hazardous air pollutants.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.1 List the seven major classes of air pollutants, including ozone and hazardous air pollutants, describing their effects.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 7) The stratospheric chemical that prevents much of the solar ultraviolet radiation from penetrating to Earth's surface is: a) carbon dioxide. b) water vapor. c) ozone. d) particulate matter. e) nitrogen oxides.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.1 List the seven major classes of air pollutants, including ozone and hazardous air pollutants, describing their effects.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 8) Urban areas receive less sunlight than rural areas, partly as a result of greater quantities of __________ in the air. a) ozone b) hydrocarbons c) particulate matter d) sulfur oxides e) nitrogen oxides Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.1 List the seven major classes of air pollutants, including ozone and hazardous air pollutants, describing their effects.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 9) Photochemical smog: a) is sometimes called London-type smog. b) is generally worse during the winter months. c) is formed from chemical reactions involving sunlight, nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons. d) is caused primarily by industrial emissions. e) was more prevalent in the 1800s than the 1900s.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.3 Distinguish between industrial smog and photochemical smog.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 10) Industrial smog: a) was first described in Los Angeles. b) caused thousands of deaths in London. c) is formed from chemical reactions involving sunlight and hydrocarbons. d) is much worse in the summer months. e) is generally a more significant problem in highly-developed countries.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.3 Distinguish between industrial smog and photochemical smog.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 11) Which of the following air pollutants is correctly paired with one of its major effects? a) sulfur oxides — acid precipitation b) carbon oxides — corrosion of metal c) hydrocarbons — reduced visibility d) nitrogen oxides — blocks UV radiation e) particulate matter — production of photochemical smog Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.1 List the seven major classes of air pollutants, including ozone and hazardous air pollutants, describing their effects.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 12) Temperature inversions: a) cause gases and particulate matter to remain trapped near the ground. b) typically last for weeks at a time. c) occur when air a layer of warm air is trapped near the ground by a colder, upper layer. d) are of greatest concern in areas with relatively flat topography. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.4 Explain how ozone-related air quality has changed in Southern California over the past five decades.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 13) Paints and cleaning products can release _____ that contribute to smog production. a) lead b) nitrogen oxides c) ozone d) particulate matter e) volatile organic compounds Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.4 Explain how ozone-related air quality has changed in Southern California over the past five decades.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 14) All of the following affect ozone-related air quality in Southern California except: a) high temperatures. b) hydrocarbons. c) lead. d) sunlight. e) water vapor.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.4 Explain how ozone-related air quality has changed in Southern California over the past five decades.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution 15) Which of the following effects is NOT typically associated with outdoor air exposure to lead? a) acute poisoning b) behavioral problems c) headaches d) hearing problems e) permanently reduced cognitive abilities Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.1 Describe the adverse health effects of specific air pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 16) The effect of carbon monoxide on humans is: a) eye and skin irritation. b) a higher incidence of heart defects in infants whose mothers were exposed during pregnancy. c) impairing gas exchange in the lungs by causing the airways to constrict. d) its irreversible binding with hemoglobin, eliminating the body’s ability to transport oxygen in the blood. e) suppressing the immune system.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.1 Describe the adverse health effects of specific air pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 17) Air pollution has been linked to all of the following human health problems except: a) suppression of the immune system. b) increased susceptibility to West Nile virus. c) inflammation of the respiratory tract. d) potential development of emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

e) impaired reflexes and increased drowsiness.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.1 Describe the adverse health effects of specific air pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 18) _______ is a lung disease that causes breathlessness and wheezy breathing. a) Cataracts b) Diabetes c) Emphysema d) Hepatitis e) Meningitis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.1 Describe the adverse health effects of specific air pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 19) Which air pollutant is associated with slow development and permanent reduction in mental ability for young children? a) carbon dioxide b) lead c) nitrogen dioxide d) ozone e) radon Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.1 Describe the adverse health effects of specific air pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 20) A study of 5000 children in southern California found all of the following EXCEPT? a) children who play sports in high-ozone areas are more likely to develop asthma b) children who breathe polluted air have less lung growth than children who breathe cleaner air

c) children’s lung development did not change when they moved to areas with less particulate air pollution d) children who moved from areas of high particulate pollution to areas with lower particulate pollution showed increasing lung development e) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.2 Explain why children are particularly susceptible to air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 21) Air pollution is a greater health threat to children than adults because: a) children need more oxygen than adults. b) children breathe more air per pound of body weight than adults. c) children have a higher metabolic rate than adults. d) children's lungs are still developing. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.2 Explain why children are particularly susceptible to air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution 22) Electrostatic precipitators, and scrubbers in smokestacks, are used primarily to remove which air pollutant? a) particulate matter b) ozone c) carbon dioxide d) sulfur dioxide e) oxygen Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.1 Provide several examples of air pollution control technologies.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States

23) Which of the following is a method used to prevent unburned gasoline vapors from being released into the atmosphere? a) vapor recovery b) catalytic afterburners c) vapor isolation d) volatile emission treatment e) none of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.1 Provide several examples of air pollution control technologies.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 24) Which of the following technologies is responsible for reducing carbon monoxide emissions in auto exhaust by over 85%? a) carburetor b) catalytic converter c) muffler d) alternator e) engine air filter Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.1 Provide several examples of air pollution control technologies.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 25) Lead in the atmosphere has decreased significantly since the 1970s primarily due to: a) new CAFE standards for automobiles. b) the invention of the catalytic converter. c) increased use of scrubbers in coal-fired power plants. d) the phasing out of leaded paint in buildings. e) replacing leaded gasoline with unleaded gasoline.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.1 Provide several examples of air pollution control technologies.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 26.) Which of the following requires the average fuel economy of covered vehicles to be 27.5 miles per gallon by 2020? a) Clean Air Act (1970) b) Clean Air Act Amendments (1990) c) CAFE standards d) EPA Emissions Testing e) None of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.1 Provide several examples of air pollution control technologies.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 27) All of the following are methods of controlling air pollution due to particulate matter EXCEPT: a) catalytic afterburners. b) scrubbers. c) careful land-excavating activities. d) fabric filters. e) electrostatic precipitators.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.1 Provide several examples of air pollution control technologies.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 28) The U.S. Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 require the: a) development of automobiles with lower nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbon emissions. b) construction of more mass transit systems. c) elimination of diesel-fueled vehicles. d) reduction of automobile traffic. e) reduction of air pollutants in agricultural and rural areas.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.2 Summarize the effects of the Clean Air Act on U.S. air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 29) Which of the following statements about the U.S. Clean Air Act is true? a) The Clean Air Act of 1970 focused on about 200 air pollutants. b) The most dramatic improvement in air quality has been a reduction of lead in the atmosphere. c) Sulfur dioxide emissions since 1970 have been reduced by over 90%. d) The Clean Air Act was passed in 1970, but has not been updated since then. e) Urban areas have done the best job of meeting the standards for clean air.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.2 Summarize the effects of the Clean Air Act on U.S. air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States 30) Which ozone-depleting chemical is not matched with its proper use? a) chlorofluorocarbons - pesticide b) halons - fire extinguishers c) methyl chloroform - industrial solvent d) carbon tetrachloride - industrial manufacturing e) methyl bromide - pesticide Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.1 Define stratospheric ozone thinning.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere 31) Which of the following is the chemical formula for ozone? a) NO3 b) O c) O2 d) O3 e) CO2 Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.1 Define stratospheric ozone thinning.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere 32) Where was ozone thinning first noticed? a) North America b) Europe c) Antarctica d) Arctic e) None of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.1 Define stratospheric ozone thinning.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere 33) Which of the following is NOT linked to overexposure of UV radiation due to ozone thinning? a) eye cataracts b) sterility c) skin cancer d) weakened immunity e) ecosystem disruption Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.2 Describe some of the harmful effects of ozone depletion.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere 34) Chlorofluorocarbons such as CFC-12 are released into the atmosphere by: a) smoke stacks. b) car exhaust. c) leaking air conditioners and old refrigerators. d) pesticides. e) nuclear power plants.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.3 Explain how chlorofluorocarbons and other chemicals attack stratospheric ozone.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere 35) The agreement which called for a 50% reduction of CFC production by 1998 was the: a) Copenhagen Protocol. b) Montreal Protocol. c) Kyoto Protocol. d) Boston Protocol. e) Mexico City Protocol.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.3 Explain how chlorofluorocarbons and other chemicals attack stratospheric ozone.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere 36) Which of the following describes the pH of natural rainfall? a) very acidic b) slightly acidic c) neutral d) slightly basic e) very basic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.1 Explain how acid deposition develops.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 37) Which of the following pH values indicates a strong base? a) pH=3 b) pH=5 c) pH=7 d) pH=9

e) pH=11 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.1 Explain how acid deposition develops.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 38) The average pH of rainfall in the northeastern United States is: a) < 2. b) 3 to 4. c) 5 to 6. d) 8. e) 9 to 10.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.1 Explain how acid deposition develops.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 39) In the absence of air pollution control devices, which of the following is the most significant source of sulfur dioxide? a) refrigeration and air conditioning b) coal-burning power plants c) motor vehicles d) fertilizers e) fire retardants Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.1 Explain how acid deposition develops.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 40) Which of the following is NOT an effect of acid deposition? a) destruction of monuments and buildings b) decreased hatching success in some birds

c) forest decline d) mutations and skin cancer e) decline in aquatic animal populations Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.2 Describe some of the effects of acid deposition.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 41) Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water to produce: a) ozone. b) hydrochloric acid and hydrofluoric acid. c) sulfuric acid and nitric acid. d) sulfur nitrate and nitrogen sulfate. e) carbonic acid and hydrochloric acid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.1 Explain how acid deposition develops.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 42) Acid deposition has impacted: a) the Black Forest of southwestern Germany. b) The Washington Monument in Washington, D.C. c) tree health in the Appalachian Mountains. d) Adirondacks of New York State. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.2 Describe some of the effects of acid deposition.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 43) The general symptoms of forest decline may include all of the following EXCEPT: a) reduced vigor.

b) reduced growth. c) greening of leaves. d) yellowing of needles. d) death of trees.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.3 Define forest decline, explaining its possible causes.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 44) Forest decline can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT: a) acid deposition. b) insects. c) lead. d) ozone. e) radon.

Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.3 Define forest decline, explaining its possible causes.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition 45) Which city currently has the worst air pollution in the world? a) Beijing, China b) Los Angeles, United States c) Mexico City, Mexico d) Tokyo, Japan e) London, England Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Explain why air pollution is generally worse in developing countries than in highly developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World 46) Mexico City has attempted to improve its air quality by:

a) switching to all hybrid vehicles. b) prohibiting smoking in public areas. c) increasing gas exports to the United States. d) replacing buses and taxis with a clean, non-polluting mass transit system. e) requiring residents to buy new cars.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Explain why air pollution is generally worse in developing countries than in highly developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World 47) Dangerous levels of toxic compounds have been measured in pristine arctic regions due to the: a) many power plants required for power and heat in the winter. b) migration of birds and marine animals each year. c) global distillation effect. d) illegal disposal of waste from urban areas. e) none of these is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Describe the global distillation effect, telling where it commonly occurs.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World 48) Cigarette smoking has been definitively linked to which of the following human health concerns? a) heart disease b) emphysema c) strokes d) lung cancer e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Examine why indoor air pollution is a serious environmental health risk in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Indoor Air Pollution

49) Radon is: a) a metallic element produced in nuclear power plants. b) a naturally occurring gas produced during the radioactive decay of uranium. c) an alpha-emitting gas that penetrates the skin naturally. d) a secondary air pollutant resulting from photochemical smog. e) a by-product of nuclear energy production.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Examine why indoor air pollution is a serious environmental health risk in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Indoor Air Pollution 50) Harm to humans from radon is greatest: a) in well-insulated homes. b) near nuclear power plants. c) in cities. d) outdoors. e) in high-rise office buildings.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Examine why indoor air pollution is a serious environmental health risk in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Indoor Air Pollution Question Type: Essay 51) Identify the difference between primary and secondary sources of air pollution and give two examples of each type of pollution.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.1 List the seven major classes of air pollutants, including ozone and hazardous air pollutants, describing their effects.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution

Solution: Primary air pollutants are harmful chemicals that enter directly into the atmosphere. These include carbon oxides, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, particulate matter and hydrocarbons. Secondary air pollutants are harmful substances formed in the atmosphere when a primary air pollutant reacts with substances normally found in the atmosphere or with other air pollutants. Ozone and sulfur trioxide are examples of secondary air pollutants.

52) Discuss the major health effects of air pollution on both adults and children.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3.0 Describe the health problems caused by the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.3.2 Explain why children are particularly susceptible to air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.3 Effects of Air Pollution Solution: In adults, air pollution has its greatest effects on the respiratory system (emphysema and chronic bronchitis), and many air pollutants suppress the immune system – increasing susceptibility to infection.

People living in cities with the worst air pollution are more likely to die from specific types of heart disease than those living elsewhere. Air pollution is a greater health threat to children than adults. For example, it has been shown to restrict lung development and lead to asthma in children who play sports in areas with high levels of tropospheric ozone. Additionally, due to a higher metabolic rate, children tend to take in more oxygen than adults, meaning more pollutants are taken into children’s lungs than adult lungs in any given environment.

53) Discuss measures that have been taken in the United States at the federal level to address the problems of air pollution. What problems have yet to be addressed in these control measures?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.2 Summarize the effects of the Clean Air Act on U.S. air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States Solution: The Clean Air Act was passed in 1970) It authorizes the EPA to set limits on how much of specific air pollutants are permitted in the United States. The original legislation regulated seven toxic chemicals, including lead, particulate matter, and ozone. The greatest success of the Clean Air Act has been in the reduction of lead; emissions of carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, volatile organic compounds, and particulate matter have also been significantly reduced. The Clean Air Act was later amended to include over a hundred additional chemicals, including a variety of industrial chemicals and motor vehicle emissions. Concerns remain as to whether the standards are strict enough to protect the health of citizens, particularly from particulate matter and ozone.

54) A friend tells you there is no reason to worry about the ozone layer. In fact, he says, today’s air quality report says there is plenty of ozone around the city. How would you respond?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5.0 Explain how human activity has impacted ozone levels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.5.1 Define stratospheric ozone thinning.

Section Reference 1: 19.5 Ozone Depletion in the Stratosphere Solution: Ozone is found in both the stratosphere (10-45 km above earth’s surface) and the troposphere (atmosphere closest to Earth). Ozone in the stratosphere, which occurs as a result of oxygen reacting with ultraviolet radiation, prevents much of the damaging solar UV radiation from penetrating to the Earth’s surface. Unfortunately, ozone in the stratosphere is threatened by man’s use of chemicals like CFCs, which break down the ozone into oxygen. Ozone in the troposphere is a human-made secondary pollutant. Ozone in the troposphere causes health problems and stresses plants. Ozone in the troposphere does not ever find its way to the stratosphere to fix the declining composition there. Thus, reducing ozone in the stratosphere and increasing ozone in the troposphere are both air quality concerns, though for different reasons.

55) Describe how acid deposition develops and describe some of the effects of acid deposition.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6.0 Describe the environmental effects of acid deposition.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.6.1 Explain how acid deposition develops.

Learning Objective 3: LO 19.6.2 Describe some of the effects of acid deposition.

Section Reference 1: 19.6 Acid Deposition Solution: Acid deposition occurs when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the atmosphere.

These compounds react with water to form sulfuric and nitric acid, which falls to the ground as rain, snow, or dew. The pH of natural rainfall is slightly acidic (pH 5-6), but acid deposition can lower the pH to 3 or lower in industrial areas. The effects of acid deposition include corroding metals and building materials, harming aquatic species, and forest decline.

56) Compare and contrast the air pollution problems in Beijing and Mexico City in terms of causes of the pollution problems, and measures that have been taken to address the air pollution problem in each city.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Explain why air pollution is generally worse in developing countries than in highly developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World Solution: Beijing has the worst air quality in the world. The primary causes of the air pollution problems are a rapidly-increasing population and the resulting increases in automobile exhaust, dust from construction sites, and coal-powered electricity production. In preparation for the 2008 summer Olympics, Beijing took significant steps to decrease its air pollution. Efforts included increasing public transportation, improving power plants and switching to low-sulfur coal, and improving automobile emission standards.

Air pollution in Mexico City is primarily caused by automobile exhaust from older vehicles (gasoline in Mexico also contains many contaminants), dried fecal matter from sewage, and leaks from liquefied petroleum gas lines. In addition to its large population, Mexico City’s air pollution problems are related to its topographical setting. Mexico City is located in a bowl-shaped valley ringed on three sides by mountains, making temperature inversions fairly common during the late fall and early winter months. To improve Mexico City’s air quality, steps have been taken to introduce cleaner vehicles, cleaner gasoline, driving restrictions, and emissions testing. Moreover, Mexico’s national oil company has upgraded its refineries, and increased imports of cleaner fuel from the United States.

57) Explain how people such as the Inuit who live in remote places can be victims of the health effects of air pollution. Use the term global distillation effect and persistent compounds in your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Describe the global distillation effect, telling where it commonly occurs.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World Solution: The global distillation effect is the process by which volatile organic chemicals evaporate and are transported by winds to higher latitudes where they condense and fall to the ground. Some of these chemicals, such as PCBs and DDT, are considered persistent compounds because they don’t readily break down in the environment. Instead, they accumulate in the environment, enter food webs, and become concentrated at the top of the food chain. Fish, seals, polar bears, and arctic people such as the Inuits are therefore particularly vulnerable to these chemicals. For example, the level of PCBs in the breast milk of Inuit women is five times greater than in women who live in southern Canada.

58) What are the impacts of tobacco smoke on public health? What attempts have been made to reduce exposure to tobacco smoke?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Examine why indoor air pollution is a serious environmental health risk in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Indoor Air Pollution Solution: Smoking causes lung cancer, emphysema, and heart disease. It also contributes to strokes, male impotence, and to cancers of the bladder, mouth, throat, pancreas, kidney, stomach, larynx, and esophagus.

Smoking during pregnancy affects fetal development, and infants who are exposed to second-hand smoke have a greater chance of pneumonia and bronchitis. Although fewer people in highly developed nations (U.S., Japan, most European countries) are smoking, more people are taking up the habit in many developing nations. Attempts to reduce the exposure to tobacco smoke include banning smoking at work and in other public places, limiting or banning cigarette advertisements, and programs to educate citizens about the hazards of smoking.

59) What is radon, and what are the health concerns related to radon exposure? Why is radon more of a problem today than in the past?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8.0 Examine why indoor air pollution is a serious environmental health risk in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Indoor Air Pollution Solution: Radon is a naturally occurring gas produced from the decay of uranium in the Earth’s crust. The ionizing radiation (alpha particles) is damaging to tissues when ingested or inhaled. It increases the risk of lung cancer, especially among current or former smokers. In areas where geological formations contain uranium, homes that are designed to be energy-efficient have increased the hazard from radon because the gas is trapped inside the home.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 20

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) projected a global temperature increase by the year 2100 of: a) 0º to 1.5ºC. b) 1.8º to 4.0ºC. c) 3º to 5.5ºC. d) 3.5º to 10.4ºC. e) none, they didn't actually make such a prediction.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

2) Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? a) carbon dioxide b) methane c) water vapor d) chlorofluorocarbons e) sulfur oxide Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

3) Which of the following activities is responsible for the largest percentage of humanmade carbon dioxide emissions? a) burning fossil fuels

b) deforestation c) ozone depletion d) acid deposition e) agriculture Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

4) Land conversion, such as when tropical forests are logged or burned, releases what substance(s) into the air? a) carbon dioxide b) methane c) nitrous oxide d) chlorofluorocarbons e) sulfuric acid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

5) The group of air pollutants that tends to cool the atmosphere are known collectively as: a) CFCs. b) ozone enhancers. c) nitrous oxides. d) atmospheric aerosols. e) anti-greenhouse gases.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.4 Describe the importance of extreme and unpredictable climate change.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

6) Which of the following organisms have already been negatively affected by global climate change? a) Mediterranean fruit flies b) tropical forests in Brazil c) crop plants in the Midwest d) zooplankton along the California coast e) nematodes in the soil Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

7) Global climate change may actually benefit: a) humans. b) certain weeds. c) agriculture. d) most plants. e) aquatic animals.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

8) Which of the following is the chemical formula for ozone? a) NO3 b) SO3 c) O2 d) CO2 e) O3 Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

9) Stratospheric ozone: a) is a pollutant. b) is composed of nitrogen. c) has been decreasing for several decades. d) is thinning because of sulfur oxide pollution. e) absorbs all of the incoming ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

10) Gases that absorb infrared radiation include all of the following except: a) carbon dioxide. b) methane. c) nitrous oxide. d) sulfur oxide. e) tropospheric ozone.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

11) A situation in which a change in some conditions triggers a response that counteracts, or reverses, the changed condition is called a) the second law of thermodynamics.

b) positive feedback. c) negative feedback. d) thermoregulation. e) the Gaia hypothesis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

12) Permafrost has traditionally been found in a) Bangladesh and Pakistan. b) Tuvalu and the Maldives. c) Peru and Montana. d) Canada and Alaska. e) Greenland and Antarctica.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

13) The international treaty which provides operational rules on reducing greenhouse gas emissions is called a) Kyoto Protocol. b) Montreal Protocol. c) IPCC Protocol. d) Mount Pinatubo Protocol. e) The enhanced greenhouse effect.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Discuss methods to mitigate global climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.3.2 Explain why reducing greenhouse gas emissions requires international efforts.

Section Reference 1: 20.3 Dealing with Global Climate Change

14) The atmospheric cooling that occurs where and when aerosol pollution is the greatest is an example of: a) positive feedback. b) negative feedback. c) equilibrium instability. d) carbon management. e) adaptation.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change 15) In California, major wildfires have been increasing since the mid-1980’s. Climate change is believed to play a role in this increase by its effects on: a) prevailing wind patterns b) timing of snowmelt c) reduction in annual precipitation. d) Both the timing of snowmelt and the reduction in annual precipitation e) all of these statements are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

16) The Earth's average temperature is based on daily measurements taken from all of the following except: a) orbiting satellites. b) weather balloons. c) spectrophotometers. d) sea-surface buoys. e) transoceanic ships.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

19) Studies documenting the arrival of spring and fall in the Northern Hemisphere are based on: a) average daily temperatures as measured at locations throughout Northern Hemisphere. b) fixed calendar dates that have been consistent for the past 150 years. c) when buds of particular plants open and when the leaves of particular plants change color and fall. d) average snow melt, precipitation, and consistently increasing or decreasing temperatures across the state. e) the amount of pollution, particularly greenhouse gases, found in the atmosphere of that region.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

21) The greenhouse effect occurs because: a) greenhouse gases released interact chemically to produce excess heat. b) there are too many greenhouses scattered across the Earth's surface. c) carbon dioxide and other trace gases trap infrared radiation in the Earth's atmosphere. d) sulfur emissions from smokestacks and volcanoes continue to occur. e) the gases produced by human activities allow significantly more heat to pass out of the Earth's atmosphere.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

22) Which of the following statements about sulfur emissions is false?

a) Both natural processes and human activities produce sulfur emissions. b) Sulfur emissions are concentrated in heavily populated industrial areas, primarily in the Northern Hemisphere. c) Sulfur haze only cools the planet during the daytime, while greenhouse gases warm the planet 24 hours a day. d) Most countries are trying to reduce their sulfur emissions because of the negative impact of acid deposition. e) Sulfur emissions remain in the atmosphere for hundreds of years and cause global cooling.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.4 Describe the importance of extreme and unpredictable climate change.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

23) Which of the following is not a predicted outcome of global climate change? a) higher global temperatures b) more extreme weather patterns c) extinction of some organisms d) rising sea levels e) ocean water becomes alkaline Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

24) Major thawing of glaciers and the polar ice caps: a) is occurring as the result of excess aerosols in the atmosphere. b) will only impact those few people that live within 150 km of a coastline. c) will contribute to a rise in sea level because of thermal expansion of the warming ocean, d) will result in an estimated 150 cm increase in sea level by 2100, according to IPCC estimate. e) All of these statements are correct Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.1 Differentiate between sea-level rise due to melting ice and that due to the thermal expansion of water.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

25) The potential impact of global climate change on the lifestyle of those people and animals living in Alaska and Northern Canada include all of the following except: a) changes in distribution and migration patterns of some wildlife species. b) collapse of roads and buildings with increased thawing of the permafrost. c) higher risk of contaminated water supplies. d) decreased agricultural productivity due to changing climate. e) a reduction in subsistence hunting due to reductions in wildlife habitat.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

26) Which of the following statements about the effects of global warming on agriculture is true? a) Global climate change may decrease the frequency of droughts. b) The warmer temperatures will result in increased soil moisture content in many agricultural soils. c) Global climate change will result in a global increase in agricultural productivity. d) Rising sea level may inundate some of the world's most productive agricultural lands. e) Warmer temperatures associated with global climate change will probably help to control agricultural pests.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

27) The Kyoto Protocol: I. has been signed and ratified by over 160 countries.

II. is an agreement to establish legally binding timetables to cut global emissions of greenhouse gases.

III. is an attempt to control global climate change by prohibiting all carbon dioxide emissions by 2050.

IV. has been ratified by the U.S., resulting in voluntary reductions in industrial emissions. a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) I and II Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Discuss methods to mitigate global climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.3.2 Explain why reducing greenhouse gas emissions requires international efforts.

Section Reference 1: 20.3 Dealing with Global Climate Change

28) Chlorofluorocarbons are released into the atmosphere by: a) smoke stacks. b) car exhaust. c) leaking air conditioners and old refrigerators. d) pesticides. e) nuclear power plants.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

29) Which ozone-depleting chemical is not matched with its proper use? a) chlorofluorocarbons - pesticide b) halons - fire extinguishers c) methyl chloroform - industrial solvent d) carbon tetrachloride - industrial manufacturing

e) methyl bromide - pesticide Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

30) Excessive exposure to UV radiation has been linked to: a) the greenhouse effect. b) skin lesions. c) deforestation. d) declining aquatic plant populations. e) weakened eggshells in birds.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

31) Assuming the absence of air pollution control devices, which of the following is a major source of sulfur dioxide? a) refrigeration and air conditioning b) coal-burning power plants c) motor vehicles d) fertilizers e) fire retardants Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.4 Describe the importance of extreme and unpredictable climate change.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

32) All of the following are probable results of global climate change EXCEPT: a) more extreme weather patterns. b) extinction of some organisms. c) increases in sea level. d) higher global temperatures. e) an increase in acid rain.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

33) Organisms that take CO2 out of the water and sequester it in the form of calcium carbonate are a) increasing in numbers because of the excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. b) effectively serving as a sink for carbon dioxide. c) being threatened by the increasing acidity of the oceans from carbonic acid. d) disappearing at an alarming rate as oceans become more alkaline. e) converting the calcium carbonate to sulfuric acid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

34) Which of the following does NOT influence climate change? a) winds b) clouds c) albedo d) ocean currents e) none of these, all influence climate change Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced

greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

35) What indicates the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere before large scale use of fossil fuels began? a) negative feedback b) preindustrial CO2 level c) post-fossil CO2 level d) emission scale e) none of these Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

37) Which of the following are two ways to attempt to manage global climate change? a) mitigation and conservation b) adaptation and exploitation c) reducing electricity and stopping cigarette smoke d) mitigation and adaptation e) none of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Discuss methods to mitigate global climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.3.1 Define mitigation and adaptation, providing some examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 20.3 Dealing with Global Climate Change

38) Increased UV exposure has been linked to a) the greenhouse effect b) disruption of photosynthesis c) deforestation d) declining aquatic plant populations e) weakened eggshells in birds

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

40) Which of the following is NOT true about the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change? a) It summarizes the current state of knowledge and uncertainty of global climate change b) It provides the most definitive scientific statement about global climate change c) It concluded that human-produced pollutants have caused minimal climate warming d) It seeks input and review from climate experts e) None of these, all are true Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

41) Warmer temperatures leading to greater evaporation and higher concentration of atmospheric water vapor which leads to warmer air and ocean temperatures is an example of: a) negative feedback b) infrared radiation c) UV rays d) Greenhouse gasses e) Positive feedback Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

42) Which of the following does not cool the atmosphere?

a) Sooty aerosols b) Atmospheric aerosols c) Sulfur dioxide emissions d) Human-produced sulfur emissions e) None of these statements is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.4 Describe the importance of extreme and unpredictable climate change.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

43) Which of the following is NOT a function of climate models? a) exploring and analyzing past climate events b) exploring and analyzing future climate events c) determine consequences of global warming on the biosphere d) represent interactions among the atmosphere, ocean, and land e) none of these, all are functions of climate models Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

44) Which of the following causes sea levels to rise? a) Expansion of water as it warms b) Water is more reflective than ice c) retreat of glaciers d) ice absorbs more heat than water e) Both the expansion of water as it warms and the retreat of glaciers Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.1 Differentiate between sea-level rise due to melting ice and that due to the thermal expansion of water.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

45) Water shortages, frequent flooding, and heavy snow and rainstorms in some areas are a direct result of… a) melting ice caps b) changes in precipitation patterns c) rising sea levels d) agricultural byproducts e) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

46) Which of the following effects on organisms is a result of climate warming? a) premature birth in mammals b) sterility c) early migration of aquatic species d) physical deformities e) increased cancer rates Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

47) Which of the following ecosystems are NOT considered at greatest risk of loss of species in the short term? a) polar seas b) coral reefs c) tundra d) temperate forests e) coastal wetlands Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

48) Which of the following is NOT a potential harmful effect on human health resulting from climate change? a) malaria b) yellow fever c) heatstroke and heat-related illnesses d) respiratory problems e) schistosomiasis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

49) Which of the following statements about climate change affecting agriculture is FALSE? a) Increased nighttime temperatures are beneficial for some crops b) Increased nighttime temperatures are detrimental to some crops c) Agricultural productivity will increase in some areas, and decrease in others d) Subtropical regions will be able to increase their agricultural productivity in a warmer climate e) Agricultural methods are now less reliant on CO2-producing fossil fuels Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change

Question Type: Essay

50) Distinguish between the terms “greenhouse effect” and “enhanced greenhouse effect”. Include identification of four major greenhouse gases and their sources in your discussion.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: The natural trapping of the heat from the sun’s radiation by gases in the atmosphere such as carbon dioxide, methane, tropospheric ozone, and nitrous oxide is called the greenhouse effect. The gases trap infrared radiation and make the global climate hospitable for life on Earth. The accumulation and increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere as a result of human activities is called the enhanced greenhouse effect; this additional warming is contributing to global climate change. Increased carbon dioxide levels come from fossil fuel combustion and deforestation. Increased levels of methane come from grazing cattle and termites. Increased levels of nitrous oxide and tropospheric ozone come from transportation and smog.

51) Identify four potential effects of global climate change. Briefly discuss the ramifications of each of the effects that you have identified.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.2 Describe how climate change impacts the physical environment.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change Solution: One effect is changes in sea level as glaciers and the polar ice caps melt. Islands and parts of countries that are at sea level will be submerged, and people living in those places will be displaced. Another effect is on precipitation patterns, bringing more violent storms to some parts of the world with increased precipitation, and droughts to others. A third effect is on human health – both from poor nutrition because of drought and famine and waterborne diseases associated with storms and floods. The increasing acidity in oceans from carbonic acid threatens corals, shellfish, and plankton that normally incorporate carbon dioxide in the form of calcium carbonate into their protective shells.

There are also effects on flowering times of plants and migrations of aquatic species – potentially bringing changes at the levels of populations, communities and ecosystems.

52) The 2003 movie “The Day After Tomorrow” portrayed the possible effects of humans ignoring the warning signs of global climate change. Temperature sensors in the oceans sent the immediate signals that things were in the process of changing rapidly.

How plausible was this scenario in light of what we know about climate change?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: The movie opens with scientists seeing firsthand melting of ice sheets as a preliminary warning signal. The movie next showed scientists detecting (using global temperature sensors in the oceans) a disruption of the ocean conveyor belt which transports heat around the globe. The ocean conveyor belt delivers heat from the tropics into the northern part of the North Atlantic Ocean, warming Europe by as much as 10 degrees Celsius. As the warm current transfers heat to the atmosphere, it cools, sinks, and flows southward (carrying some carbon dioxide to be sequestered). Models of the ocean conveyor belt during past episodes of climate warming suggest very rapid climate change could occur. However, the time frame for the Hollywood movie suggested that the major climate shift could occur in a matter of days and most scientists put the time frame in years instead.

53) Identify three strategies that can be used to mitigate the effects of global climate change. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of each strategy.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Discuss methods to mitigate global climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.3.1 Define mitigation and adaptation, providing some examples of each.

Section Reference 1: 20.3 Dealing with Global Climate Change Solution: One strategy to mitigate the effects of global climate change is to develop widespread use of energy sources that are most based on the combustion of fossil fuels.

These include solar energy and nuclear energy. The advantages of each alternative include freedom from dependence on fossil fuels and the resulting carbon dioxide emissions. Solar energy is currently expensive, and there are concerns about nuclear energy from many fronts. Energy conservation – regardless of whatever form of energy is used – is realistically the best suggestion.

Energy consumption is tied to the size of the human population as well as the level of consumption. Population control probably won’t be an effective strategy to limit consumption because as sizes of families are reduced, affluence increases and so does energy consumption.

Another strategy is to levy a carbon tax against the users of fossil fuels based on the proportion of carbon dioxide emissions produced per unit of heat released when the fuel

is burned. This is an example of an energy pricing strategy that could mitigate global climate change.

54) Identify and briefly describe the international agreements that have been formulated to address the issues of global climate change and the thinning of the ozone layer. Include the position that the United States has taken in response to these agreements.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3.0 Discuss methods to mitigate global climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.3.2 Explain why reducing greenhouse gas emissions requires international efforts.

Section Reference 1: 20.3 Dealing with Global Climate Change Solution: Kyoto Protocol: This is a legally binding international treaty that provides operational rules on reducing greenhouse gas emissions. It has been signed by almost 160 countries.

United States has signed, but not ratified the agreement, in spite of being responsible for producing 25% of the excess CO2 in the atmosphere. The U.S. claims that putting such restraints on our energy policies would hurt our economy and that developing countries should have the same guidelines as the most developed countries in complying with the rules. Many U.S. states, cities, and corporations have begun to reduce greenhouse gases on their own initiative.

Montreal Protocol: This is a 1987 agreement to significantly reduce the emission of chemicals that are known to attack the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere. It was modified to include stricter measures to limit CFC production in the 1990s.

The U.S. was a leader in phasing out CFC, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform production. Substitutes (HFCs) were developed; these do not attack the ozone layer, but they are significant greenhouse gases.

55) Describe the interactions of the effects of ozone depletion, global climate change, and acid deposition on North American. Why might these interactions be described as synergistic?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change Solution: The thinning of the ozone layer has resulted in more UV radiation striking the Earth. The depth to which UV radiation penetrates water is related to the presence of organic material in the water. Less UV light penetrates with more organic material.

Global climate change may result in a warmer lake with increased evaporation; this reduces the amount of water and dissolved organic compounds flowing into a lake from its watershed.

Acid from acid deposition causes organic mater to clump and settle on the lake floor.

This enhances the removal of organic material from the water, and both factors allow the damaging UV radiation to penetrate further.

Synergistic interactions of these three environmental threats implies that the combined effects of these three processes is greater than the additive effects of each process alone.

56) Distinguish between the terms positive feedback and negative feedback. In developing climate models that might result from the enhanced greenhouse effect, what role does water vapor play in the arguments that climate change might result in (a) global warming or (b) global cooling?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: Negative feedback is a situation in which a change in some condition triggers a response that counteracts or reverses the changed condition. Positive feedback is a situation in which a change in some condition triggers a response that intensifies the changed condition. Water vapor is a greenhouse gas, which in a positive feedback model causes greater evaporation from the ocean and this in turn causes warmer temperatures.

Increased evaporation may cause increased cloud cover that has a cooling effect. Also according to the aerosol effect, atmospheric cooling occurs where and when aerosol pollution (caused primarily by sulfur emissions) is the greatest and this is an example of negative feedback.

57) What is known thus far about the link between climate change and human disease?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change Solution: Climate change is known to affect human disease in several ways. For vectorborne diseases such as malaria, a change in climate can alter the range of disease vectors such as mosquitoes, brining the disease into contact with human populations that have not previously been exposed to it. For water- and food-borne diseases, a warming climate may increase survival of pathogens such as E. coli, in addition to causing climate-driven

changes in pathogen ranges. Incidence of respiratory diseases could potentially decrease, due to a lessening of winter severity. However, migration of non-immune populations into regions of disease endemism could also cause an increase in incidence of infection.

Incidence of fungal diseases could change as disease organism range changes with climate-driven alteration of soil ecology. In some areas, warm, dry summers are predicted to increase, followed by warm wet winters. Such a weather pattern could lead to an increase in spore counts for fungal pathogens.

58) Describe the link between greenhouse gas emissions and economic development in developing countries. Why has this been a point of controversy as highly developed and developing countries try and work together to reduce global greenhouse gas emissions?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2.0 Describe how climate change may impact life on Earth.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.2.3 Give examples of effects of climate change on organisms, including humans.

Section Reference 1: 20.2 The Effects of Global Climate Change Solution: If developing countries follow the path of previous countries, they will produce more greenhouse gases as they become more industrialized. The modern day industrialization process may not be quite as fossil-fuel reliant, however, due to contemporary awareness of the need to mitigate climate change. In addition, reduction in fossil fuel consumption will allow developing nations to address other public health concerns, such as air pollution. When drafting international agreements to fight climate change, developing nations often resist pressure from highly developed countries to reduce fossil fuel consumption, because of their awareness that nations have historically had to increase fossil fuel consumption during the development process. Although highly developed nations counter that the increase in greenhouse gas emissions from developing countries will have strong worldwide effects on climate change, developing nations point to the fact that current projections predict that, even in 2020, per capita rates of greenhouse gas emission will be much higher in highly developed than in developing nations.

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Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 21 Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) What potential health problems may result from the release of synthetic organic compounds into the environment? a) cancer b) high blood pressure c) neurological problems d) hormonal effects e) gastrointestinal disorders Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 2) Escherichia coli: a) is a deadly virus found in sewage. b) is an infectious protozoan. c) is a good indicator of the amount of sewage present in water. d) cannot be transmitted through water. e) was responsible for a large outbreak of diarrhea in Milwaukee in 1993.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 3) Which statement is NOT true about organic compounds? a) They contain carbon. b) They can be pesticides, solvents, or plastics. c) They come from industries, homes, and farms.

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d) The human body makes some organic compounds. e) None of these, all are true statements about organic compounds.

Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 4) Which of the following statements about mercury is FALSE? a) Methyl mercury compounds are unusual in that they cannot cross the body's bloodbrain barrier. b) Significant amounts of mercury are released into the environment during the smelting of other metals. c) Human exposure to mercury is primarily by eating marine animals containing high levels of mercury. d) Methyl mercury compounds are more toxic forms of mercury that readily enter the food web. e) Methyl mercury compounds persist in the environment for a long time.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 5) Sediment pollution is caused by: a) erosion. b) disease-causing agents. c) fertilizers. d) toxic compounds. e) heated water.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution

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6) Turbidity: a) is caused by toxic chemicals. b) impairs the ability of producers to photosynthesize. c) is directly correlated with bacterial contamination. d) lowers the water temperature. e) increases light penetration.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 7) Which of the following is an example of a synthetic organic compound found in polluted water? a) carbon dioxide b) caffeine c) chlorine d) salt e) heavy metals Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 8) Inorganic chemicals: a) are contaminants that contain carbon in addition to other elements. b) are easily degraded, or broken down, in the environment. c) are found in groundwater and surface water. d) may be toxic to aquatic organisms, but are safe for human consumption. e) are produced by urban, rather than industrial, sources.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 9) Which of the following is NOT an example of an inorganic chemical found in polluted water? a) acids b) salts c) heavy metals d) antibiotics e) all of these are examples of inorganic chemicals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 10) Which of the following heavy metals contaminates water and can accumulate in human muscle tissue? a) manganese b) aluminum c) mercury d) iron e) none of these heavy metals can accumulate in human tissues Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 11) Which of the following correctly identifies a source of possible lead poisoning for humans? a) food cans soldered with lead b) bioaccumulation of lead in albacore tuna c) prolonged exposure to fluorescent lights d) emissions from coal-burning e) bacterial agents transmitting lead particles

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 12) Mercury and lead: a) are components of acid precipitation. b) affect only small organisms. c) do not cause serious problems in the United States. d) can cause mental impairment. e) are radioactive.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 13) A fecal coliform test is a water-quality test for the presence of: a) disease causing bacteria. b) red blood cells in feces. c) the common intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli. d) Human Immunodeficiency Virus. e) none of these can be detected with the fecal coliform test Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 14.)All of the following represent categories of water pollution EXCEPT: a) thermal pollution. b) organic compounds. c) disease-causing agents.

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d) sediment pollution. e) oligotrophic pollution.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 15) All of the following conditions can be transmitted through contaminated food and water except: a) infectious hepatitis. b) cholera. c) bacterial dysentery. d) AIDS. e) typhoid.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 16) Mercury: a) does not occur naturally in the environment, but is a pollutant produced exclusively through human activities. b) emissions are linked to/produced by coal-fired power plants. c) emissions are generated exclusively by municipal and medical waste incinerators. d) emissions are strictly regulated by the Clean Air Act. e) cannot be removed from power plant emissions by the technology currently available.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 17) Radon:

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a) is produced by industry in large quantities. b) is a component of acid precipitation. c) causes mental impairment. d) causes nutrient enrichment of water. e) is a radioactive gas.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 18) Thermal pollution: a) only impacts the respiration of fishes and other aquatic animals. b) decreases the amount of dissolved oxygen. c) has little effect on smaller aquatic organisms. d) greatly increases turbidity. e) is linked to agricultural run-off.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 19) Eutrophication: a) lessens biodiversity. b) lowers the dissolved oxygen content of the water. c) is caused by nutrient enrichment. d) results in increased photosynthetic productivity. e) All of these statements are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution

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20) Lakes with naturally occurring low levels of nutrients are called: a) hypoxic. b) eutrophic. c) enriched. d) oligotrophic. e) polluted.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 21) One major problem with sewage is that it adds which of the following to water? a) sodium chloride and dissolved oxygen b) carbon dioxide and nitrogen c) nitrogen and phosphorus d) human wastes and heavy metals e) soil and microorganisms Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 22) What is the difference between an oligotrophic lake and eutrophic lake? a) An oligotrophic lake is enriched; a eutrophic lake is unenriched. b) Oligotropic lakes are found only in northern latitudes; eutrophic lakes are found only in southern latitudes. c) An oligotropic lake is defined as less than 40 meters deep; a eutrophic lake is defined as over 40 meters deep. d) An oligotropic lake has a low level of nutrients; a eutrophic lake has a high level of nutrients.

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e) An oligotropic lake has a high level of nutrients; a eutrophic lake has a low level of nutrients.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 23) A large amount of sewage: a) generates a high BOD, which raises the level of dissolved oxygen in the water. b) generates a high BOD, which lowers the level of dissolved oxygen in the water. c) generates a low BOD, which raises the level of dissolved oxygen in the water. d) generates a low BOD, which lowers the level of dissolved oxygen in the water. e) does not affect the BOD. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 24) Sewage is degraded by the process of: a) cellular respiration. b) photosynthesis. c) enrichment. d) eutrophication. e) primary treatment.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution

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25) The "dead zone" in the Gulf of Mexico is: a) home to numerous bacteria and bottom dwellers, such as sea stars and spiny lobsters, but no fishes. b) due to regular dumping of untreated human sewage into the gulf. c) a large zone of hypoxia caused by excessive decomposition of algae. d) present year round. e) the largest oxygen-free zone identified to date.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.3 Define dead zone.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 26) Coastal hypoxia can be reversed through: a) eliminating pesticide use. b) building dams to create reservoirs. c) controlling the mercury emission from power plants. d) regulating the disposal of medical wastes. e) restoring former wetlands in the watershed to reduce the nitrate and phosphate load from fertilizers.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.3 Define dead zone.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution 27) Pollution that is discharged into the environment through pipes, sewers, or ditches is called: a) polluted runoff. b) point source pollution. c) nonpoint source pollution. d) specific discharge. e) effluent runoff.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.1 Contrast point source pollution and nonpoint source pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 28) Which of the following is NOT an example of nonpoint source pollution? a) agricultural runoff b) erosion from logging operations c) acid mine drainage d) sewage treatment plant effluent e) construction sediment Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.1 Contrast point source pollution and nonpoint source pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 29) Which of the following occurs in sewage treatment plants when excessive rainfall causes sewage water to flow into waterways without being treated? a) combined sewer overflow b) isolated sewer overflow c) point source pollution d) industrial wastewater e) none of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.2 Provide examples of agricultural, municipal, and industrial water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 30) Which of the following industries does NOT contribute to high BOD in water? a) food processing b) nuclear power c) agriculture d) pulp and paper mills e) all of these choices are correct

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.2 Provide examples of agricultural, municipal, and industrial water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 31) Groundwater can be contaminated from all of the following sources EXCEPT: a) backyards. b) municipal sanitary landfills. c) intensively cultivated agricultural lands. d) underground petroleum storage tanks. e) all of these choices are potential sources of groundwater contamination Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.2 Provide examples of agricultural, municipal, and industrial water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 32) 72% of the water pollution in rivers is attributed to: a) industries. b) household wastes. c) agriculture. d) mining. e) logging.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.2 Provide examples of agricultural, municipal, and industrial water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 33) Which of the following is okay to dispose of in a toilet?

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a) Household cleaners b) Paint thinners c) Pet waste d) Unused medications e) All of these can be disposed of in a toilet Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.3 Identify various ways in which an individual can protect surface waters and groundwater from water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 34) Soil erosion forces about 200 acres of sediment disposition into the Adriatic Sea from which region every year? a) Po River, Italy b) Ganges River, India c) Lake Maracaibo, Venezuela d) Kwale River, Bangladesh e) None of these choices are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.4 Provide examples of water pollution worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 35) A unique source of water pollution contributing to water quality problems in the Ganges River is: a) raw sewage. b) disease-causing organisms. c) zebra mussels. d) PCBs. e) ash from human cremations.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.4 Provide examples of water pollution worldwide.

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Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 36) Chronic _____ poisoning from contaminated water in Bangladesh can cause skin lesions and eventually lead to death from cancer. a) arsenic b) lead c) mercury d) nitrogen e) phosphorus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.4 Provide examples of water pollution worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 37) Arsenic contamination of groundwater in the U.S., China, and many other countries comes from: a) agricultural runoff. b) municipal wastewater. c) natural sources. d) nuclear power plants. e) septic systems.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.4 Provide examples of water pollution worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today 38) In a water treatment plant, chlorination: a) removes suspended particles. b) uses aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic wastes. c) removes phosphorus and nitrogen. d) kills disease-causing organisms. e) involves the anaerobic digestion of organic wastes.

Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.2 Discuss the chlorine dilemma.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 39) Fluoridation: a) helps to keep drinking water free of disease-causing organisms. b) is more common in the western United States than on the east coast. c) may eventually be replaced by ultraviolet disinfection or filtration through activated carbon granules. d) is the main reason for the increase in tooth decay observed in children over the past few decades. e) has not been linked to any serious medical conditions or side effects.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.1 Describe how most drinking water is purified in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 40) Primary water treatment: a) uses aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic wastes. b) removes suspended particles. c) removes phosphorus and nitrogen. d) involves the anaerobic digestion of organic wastes. e) removes heavy metals and pesticides.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary treatments for wastewater.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 41) Secondary water treatment: a) uses aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic wastes. b) removes phosphorus and nitrogen.

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c) involves the anaerobic digestion of organic wastes. d) removes heavy metals and pesticides. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary treatments for wastewater.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 42) All of the following can be used to dispose of the sludge formed during wastewater treatment except: a) application to soil as a fertilizer. b) incineration. c) ocean dumping. d) anaerobic digestion. e) filtration through activated carbon granules.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary treatments for wastewater.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 43) Which form of water treatment reduces phosphorus and nitrogen, and purifies wastewater for reuse in communities where water is scarce? a) primary treatment b) secondary treatment c) tertiary treatment d) quaternary treatment e) it is impossible to reuse wastewater Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary treatments for wastewater.

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Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 44) Put the following events of septic system operation in the correct order of occurrence: I. Household sewage is piped into septic tank.

II. Wastewater containing suspended material flows into drain field.

III. Purified wastewater percolates into groundwater or evaporates from soil.

IV. Bacteria decompose organic material in well-aerated soil.

V. Heavy particles settle out of water and bacteria decompose grease and oil. a) I – II – III – IV - V b) I – V – II – IV - III c) I – IV – III – V - II d) I – III – V – II - IV e) I – IV – III – II - V Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.4 Discuss the use of individual septic systems and alternative wastewater treatment systems.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality 45) The Safe Drinking Water Act: a) was passed in 1965. b) allowed states to set their own standards for drinking water. c) required the EPA to determine the maximum contaminant levels for drinking water. d) established the Environmental Protection Agency. e) established national emission limitations for water pollutants.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.1 Compare the goals of the Safe Drinking Water Act and the Clean Water Act. Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 46) Which of the following associations correctly pairs the current law with its goal controlling water pollution? a) Refuse Act (1899) - eliminates the discharge of pollutants into sanitary landfills

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b) Clean Water Act (1987) – sets the amount of tax to charge polluters to pay for the cleanup c) Safe Drinking Water Act (1974) – sets uniform federal standards for public drinking water supplies d) Great Lakes Toxic Substance Control Agreement (1960) - regulates underground injection of wastes e) All of these are correctly paired Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.1 Compare the goals of the Safe Drinking Water Act and the Clean Water Act. Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 47) Which of the following is a basic goal of the Clean Water Act? a) to eliminate the discharge of pollutants b) to attain water quality levels that are safe for fishing and swimming c) to punish heavy waterway polluters d) both to eliminate the discharge of pollutants and to attain water quality levels that are safe for fishing and swimming e) set uniform federal standards for drinking water Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.1 Compare the goals of the Safe Drinking Water Act and the Clean Water Act. Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 48) Which of the following is the maximum amount of water pollutant that can be discharged from a certain source? a) national emission limitations b) maximum contaminant level c) artificial contaminant governance d) discharge regulation standards e) none of these statements is correct Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.2 Define maximum contaminant level and national emission limitation, specifying the water legislation to which each relates.

Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 49) Which of the following is the maximum amount of a water pollutant intended for human consumption? a) national emission limitations b) maximum contaminant level c) artificial contaminant governance d) discharge regulation standards e) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.2 Define maximum contaminant level and national emission limitation, specifying the water legislation to which each relates.

Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 50) The Federal Safe Drinking Water Act required the EPA to determine which of the following? a) national emission limitations b) maximum contaminant level c) artificial contaminant governance d) discharge regulation standards e) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.2 Define maximum contaminant level and national emission limitation, specifying the water legislation to which each relates.

Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 51) The EPA is required to monitor national emission limitations under the provisions of the:

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a) Clean Water Act. b) Healthy Forests Initiative. c) Safe Drinking Water Act. d) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.2 Define maximum contaminant level and national emission limitation, specifying the water legislation to which each relates.

Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution 52) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act helps prevent groundwater contamination by regulating the: a) amount of fertilizer used on commercial farms. b) design and construction of septic systems. c) storage and disposal of hazardous wastes. d) tertiary treatment facilities at municipal wastewater treatment plants. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.3 Explain how the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act helps prevent groundwater contamination.

Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution Question Type: Essay 53) Describe how most drinking water is purified in the U.S. What are the benefits and potential hazards of chlorinating the water? Is there an alternative method for the purification of drinking water?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.1 Describe how most drinking water is purified in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality

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Solution: In the U.S. municipal water supplies are usually treated with aluminum sulfate to cause suspended particles to clump and settle out. The water is then filtered through sand to remove remaining suspended particles. Some cities then pump the water through activated carbon granules to remove much of the organic compounds dissolved in the water. The final step in water purification is the addition of chlorine to kill any remaining disease-causing agents. The advantage to chlorination of the water is the elimination of diseases transmitted through contaminated water such as typhoid, cholera, and dysentery.

The long-term hazards from low levels of chlorine in drinking water have yet to be determined. However, chlorine byproducts formed when chlorine reacts with organic matter in treated wastewater are tentatively linked to several kinds of cancer and increased risk of miscarriages. Most of Europe has adopted an alternative to chlorination, the use of UV disinfection.

54) An inspection of your household practices revealed three ways in which you are contributing to water pollution problems! Create a plan to either reduce or eliminate these practices. List any problems that you might encounter in changing your ways, along with measures to deal with each problem.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.3 Identify various ways in which an individual can protect surface waters and groundwater from water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today Solution: Answers will vary but one possible answer is: The inspection uncovered the use of strong, toxic drain cleaners to unclog the accumulation of hairs in the shower drain. We use these products because the chemicals are fast, effective, and economical. We did not realize that the drain cleaners were hazardous, and would contaminate the sewage sludge produced at municipal sewage treatment facilities. Next time we will use a mechanical rotary “snake” tool to dislodge the hair clog. Once this tool is purchased, it can be used repeatedly. Another area the inspection pointed out was our neglect of pet wastes in the back yard. We simply let nature run its course and the rain clean up the messes. We were surprised to learn that pet wastes eventually wash into waterways where it can contaminate shellfish and enrich the water. From now on, we will pick up the pet feces and dispose of it in the garbage or toilet. We have won numerous “yard of the month” awards from our community association for our green, lush lawn. The inspection pointed out that through our continuous use of fertilizer and pesticides, nitrogen and phosphates were leaching into the groundwater or washing into waterways contributing to water pollution. We will now monitor our use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides and use sparingly. We will save money and our yard will not suffer. No problems were encountered in changing our ways.

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55) Compare the provisions of the Safe Drinking Water Act and the Clean Water Act. Briefly discuss the effectiveness of each act and highlight any areas in which pollution is still "escaping" regulation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4.0 Discuss legislation that regulates water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.4.1 Compare the goals of the Safe Drinking Water Act and the Clean Water Act. Section Reference 1: 21.4 Laws Controlling Water Pollution Solution: The Safe Drinking Water Act sets uniform federal standards for drinking water to guarantee safe public water supplies throughout the U.S. This law requires the EPA to determine the maximum contaminant level in water for human consumption, and to oversee adherence to the Act. Pollution still “escapes” regulation by the SDWA, however. It is estimated that nearly 10% of U.S. residents obtain water from private wells which are not covered by the SDWA. The Clean Water Act eliminates the discharge of pollutants in U.S. waterways and ensures the waterways are for swimming and fishing. The Clean Water Act improved the quality of water from point source pollutants. Despite legislation, nonpoint sources of pollution are still a major cause of water pollution because they are more difficult to regulate. However, the Clean Water Act has expanded the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System to include nonpoint sources, such as sediment erosion from construction sites.

56) Compare and contrast point source and nonpoint source pollution. Include the following components in your comparison: sources, impact, prevention, and regulation of each type of pollution.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.1 Contrast point source pollution and nonpoint source pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today Solution: Point source pollution is discharge of water pollutants from pipes, sewers or ditches that can be traced to a specific spot. Point source pollution is relatively easy to control legislatively and to prevent, but accidents still occur. Nonpoint source pollution consists of pollutants that enter bodies of water over large areas rather than being concentrated at a single point of entry. Major causes of nonpoint source pollution include agricultural runoff, mining wastes, municipal wastes and construction sediments. Rain moves over and through the soil, picking up and carrying away pollutions that eventually reach lakes and rivers. More difficult to regulate, nonpoint sources are diffuse and their cumulative impact is often huge.

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57) Why is the fecal coliform test an indirect indicator of the presence of pathogens in the water? What improvements in water quality analysis will bacterial source tracking provide?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution Solution: The fecal coliform test is a water-quality test for the presence of Escherichia coli, a common intestinal bacterium. Because fecal matter contains E. coli, its presence in the water test indicates that the water is contaminated with feces (animal or human). If E. coli is present in the water, there is a good change that pathogenic organisms from the intestinal tract may be present as well. This is an indirect way of determining the likelihood of pathogenic organisms in the water. Bacterial source tracking attempts determine subtle differences in strains of E. coli on the basis of their animal host and could thus identify the source of the coliform bacteria.

58) Describe the process of wastewater treatment, including primary, secondary, and tertiary treatment. Include the methods involved in each stage of treatment and the level of water quality following each treatment. Why is wastewater treatment an important part of sustainable water use?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary treatments for wastewater.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality Solution: In the primary stage of wastewater treatment, mechanical processes such as screening and gravitational settling remove suspended and floating particles. Primary treatment does little to eliminate the organic and inorganic compounds that remain suspended in the wastewater. In secondary treatment, aerobic bacteria are used to decompose the suspended organic material in the wastewater. In secondary treatment, wastewater trickles through aerated rock beds where the microorganisms degrade organic material. The wastewater can also be aerated and circulated through bacteria-rich particles at this stage. This results in the wastewater becoming clear and free of organic wastes. Tertiary treatment removes the phosphorus and nitrogen, heavy metals, viruses and organic compounds from the wastewater using biological, chemical and physical processes. This stage purifies the water for reuse. Treating wastewater to the tertiary stage is important for sustainable water use; because, instead of wastewater becoming a byproduct to dispose of, it becomes a resource to reuse.

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59) What is BOD? Discuss the relationship between artificial eutrophication and BOD. What is the impact of artificial eutrophication on an aquatic ecosystem in terms of dissolved oxygen levels being able to support life?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Discuss how sewage is related to eutrophication, biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), and dissolved oxygen.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution Solution: Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is the amount of oxygen needed by microorganisms to decompose biological wastes into carbon dioxide, water, and minerals. Artificial eutrophication is human-induced overnourishment of an aquatic ecosystem by nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates. A large amount of agricultural runoff or sewage discharge generates a high BOD, which lowers the level of dissolved oxygen in the water. As a result, only organisms that can tolerate lesser amounts of dissolved oxygen can exist in the water.

60) The water that comes out of my tap at home is fluoridated. Why does the city do that to the public water supply? I want to go before the city council to complain. Would my complaint have a basis for support?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.1 Describe how most drinking water is purified in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality Solution: Small amounts of fluoride have been added to most municipal drinking water since the mid-1940’s to reduce tooth decay. Most dental health officials think fluoride is the main reason for the significant decrease in tooth decay in children during the past several decades. As of 2009, almost 70% of the U.S. public water supplies were fluoridated. More than 40 years of research have failed to link fluoridation to cancer, kidney disease, birth defects, or any other serious medical condition. Usually you cannot taste or smell the fluoride in the water. While you can complain by questioning the safety and effectiveness of fluoride in the water supply, the data is currently against your complaint.

61) Lead and mercury poisoning are serious health threats. What are the sources of lead in the drinking water supply? Where does lead accumulate in the body and what medical

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conditions can result from lead exposure? Are the sources, bodily accumulations and medical conditions the same for mercury poisoning? If not, what are the differences?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution Solution: Because lead accumulates in the bones, bone lead levels more accurately reflect long-term exposure to lead. Lead-based paints, lead-containing anti-knock agents in gasoline releasing lead dust into the atmosphere when the fuel is burned, food cans soldered with lead, dinnerware containing lead, old lead water pipes and volcanoes all contribute to the lead levels found in water supplies. High levels of lead in the body contribute to hypertension in middle age men, miscarriages, premature deliveries, & stillbirths in pregnant women and mental and physical impairments in children. Mercury vaporizes at room temperature and tends to enter the atmosphere from coal-fired power plants, incineration of fluorescent lights, thermostats, thermometers, batteries, paints, plastics, and blood-pressure devices. Once in a body of water, mercury is converted by bacteria into methyl mercury compounds that bioaccumulate in the muscles of tuna, swordfish, sharks, and mackerel. Human exposure is mainly from eating fishes with high levels of mercury. Methyl mercury compounds do not accumulate in the bones like lead, instead they can cross the body’s blood-brain barrier and cause neurological problems such as headache, depression, and quarrelsome behavior.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 22

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) One benefit of using a machine like the "bug vac" to remove pests from crop plants is: a) it targets specific pest species. b) one treatment per season is sufficient for pest control. c) it is safer for farm workers than pesticides. d) it is much cheaper to use than pesticides. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.1 Describe the benefits of pesticides in disease control and crop protection.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

2) A narrow-spectrum pesticide would kill: a) all insects in the vicinity. b) the organism for which it was intended. c) broad-leafed plants. d) grasses and their relatives. e) a variety of organisms.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

3) A pesticide used to kill plants is a/an: a) fungicide.

b) herbicide. c) insecticide. d) botanical. e) rodenticide.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

4) Natural organic compounds produced by plants that are poisonous, particularly to insects, are known as: a) narrow-spectrum pesticides. b) organophosphates. c) grass herbicides. d) botanicals. e) broad-spectrum herbicides.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

5) Botanicals: a) have no effect on aquatic organisms or habitats. b) are toxic to most microorganisms. c) would include nicotine, pyrethrin, and rotenone. d) would include Aldicarb, Lindane, and Methoxychlor. e) are all synthetic pesticides.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

Section Reference 1:

6) DDT is a/an: a) organophosphate. b) carbamate. c) chlorinated hydrocarbon. d) inorganic compound. e) narrow-spectrum pesticide.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.2 Describe the various types of pesticides, such as insecticides and herbicides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

7) Carbamates are: a) broad-spectrum insecticides. b) derived from carbonic acid. c) not as toxic to mammals as organophosphates. d) insecticides that show broad, non-target toxicity. e) All of these apply to carbamates Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.2 Describe the various types of pesticides, such as insecticides and herbicides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

8) Pesticides are effective: a) at reducing crop productivity due to competition with weeds. b) for controlling some organisms that cause diseases in humans. c) at increasing the amount of crop damage due to insects. d) at controlling insects and weeds, but ineffective against plant pathogens. e) at increasing the farmer's cost for a particular crop.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.1 Describe the benefits of pesticides in disease control and crop protection.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

9) Any inherited characteristic that decreases the effect of a pesticide on a pest is known as: a) genetic resistance. b) biological amplification. c) resistance management. d) bioaccumulation. e) persistence.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.3 Summarize the problems associated with pesticide use.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

10) A predicament where the cost of applying pesticide increases while their effectiveness decreases is called: a) resistance management. b) persistence. c) biological magnification. d) the pesticide treadmill. e) chemical control.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.4 Describe the pesticide treadmill, explaining how resistance management may help with this problem.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

11) One problem associated with pesticides is that they: a) do not stay where they are applied. b) tend to move through water and soil. c) may move great distances from the point of application. d) can be transported through the atmosphere. e) All of these statements are correct.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.3 Summarize the problems associated with pesticide use.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

12) In the United States, the individuals that are most likely to be poisoned by pesticides are: a) children. b) farm workers. c) women. d) factory workers. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3.0 Describe the potential health risks of pesticides for humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.1 Discuss pesticide risks to human health, including shortterm effects and long-term effects.

Section Reference 1: 22.3 Risks of Pesticides to Human Health

13) Which of the following pesticides is a known endocrine disrupter? a) Atrazine b) 2, 4 - D c) Butylate d) Malathion e) Aldicarb

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3.0 Describe the potential health risks of pesticides for humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.2 Explain endocrine disruption.

Section Reference 1: 22.3 Risks of Pesticides to Human Health

14) Which of the following statement regarding endocrine disrupters is incorrect? a) A direct cause and effect relationship between endocrine disrupter chemicals and adverse effects of the human population has yet to be established b) In the lab, scientists have been unable to reproduce the abnormalities observed in wild animals exposed to potential endocrine disrupters c) Endocrine disrupters interfere with or mimic hormones d) Six pesticides are currently known to be endocrine disrupters e) Some known endocrine disrupters have yet to be banned in the United States Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3.0 Describe the potential health risks of pesticides for humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.2 Explain endocrine disruption.

Section Reference 1: 22.3 Risks of Pesticides to Human Health

15) An important technique in integrated pest management is: a) calendar spraying. b) monoculture. c) only using second-generation pesticides. d) crop rotation. e) bioaccumulation.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

16) Using a combination of biological, chemical and cultural methods to control pests is referred to as:

a) biological control. b) integrated pest management (IPM). c) scout-and-spray. d) biological magnification. e) resistance management.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

17) Which of the following correctly identifies a cultivation method that has been used to control pest organisms? a) interplanting two or more crops b) monoculture c) strip cutting d) irradiation e) interplanting two or more crops and strip cutting are both cultivation methods that have been used Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

18) The techniques of using naturally occurring disease organisms, parasites, or predators to control pests is called: a) biological control. b) biological magnification. c) biological amplification. d) bioaccumulation. e) genetic control.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

19) Pheromones are: a) produced by bacteria. b) toxins. c) sexual attractants. d) involved in metamorphosis. e) pesticides.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

20) Natural chemicals produced by insects to regulate their own growth and metamorphosis are: a) pheromones. b) hormones. c) biological controls. d) organophosphates. e) endocrine disrupters.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

21) Bt: a) is a potent fungicide. b) is classified as a botanical. c) is a broad-spectrum insecticide. d) is a narrow-spectrum herbicide. e) None of these choices is correct

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

22) Genetically modified, pest-resistant crops: a) may contain the gene from Bt. b) have been shown to be completely safe for non-pest insect species, such as the monarch butterfly. c) have not yet been developed. d) may become invasive pests or persist in the environment longer than unmodified crops. e) require more frequent applications of pesticide, although in lower doses, than unmodified crops.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

23) Quarantine: a) may require the destruction of an entire crop or field to prevent further spread or infestation. b) is a foolproof method of preventing the importation of foreign pests. c) occurs at the entry points to the United States and has little impact on local farmers. d) only applies to pest organisms and does not affect the import of the potential host organisms or products. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

24) The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants requires that countries develop plans to eliminate production and use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POP’s).

Countries have been granted an exception to this requirement for DDT because: a) It is found naturally in several plant species. b) It is an inexpensive method to control mosquitoes in countries where no affordable alternatives exist c) It is the only method to effectively control the mosquitoes that carry malaria. d) Many countries have stockpiled large amounts of DDT, and it would be difficult and costly to eliminate all of it. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Discuss issues associated with the production and use of Banned Pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.6 The Manufacture and Use of Banned Pesticides

25) According to recent studies, global climate change is likely to have all of the following effects EXCEPT: a) An increase in the use of DDT worldwide b) Positive feedback as more fossil fuels are used to fuel increased manufacture of certain chemicals c) A decrease in the spread of Dengue Fever. d) An increase in the spread of malaria. e) All of these are likely effects of global climate change Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Explain the environmental concerns associated with the use of persistent organic pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.7 Energy and Climate Change: Persistent Organic Pesticides

26) Which of the following do not apply to organophosphates? a) They are toxic to animals other than insects b) They are toxic to humans c) They are organic compounds that contain phosphorus d) They persist in the environment as long as chlorinated hydrocarbons e) They were an outgrowth of German World War II nerve gas research

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

27) Which of the following terms is NOT correctly paired with its description? a) grass herbicides – safe for most plants b) broad-leaf herbicides – do not kill grasses c) selective herbicides – kill all vegetation d) nonselective herbicides – kill all vegetation e) None of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

28) Monocultures _________the number of agricultural pests found in any one area due to the __________ of the habitat. a) increase / uniformity b) decrease / uniformity c) decrease / complexity d) increase / complexity e) have no effect / hardiness Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.2 Explain why monocultures are more susceptible to pest problems.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

30) Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) It is now known that pesticides can move great distances through the atmosphere from the point of origin. b) Exposure to pesticides can be a risk to human health, both short-term exposure to high levels of pesticide and long-term exposure to low levels of pesticide. c) Recent research has shown that persistent toxins in the environment are disrupting human hormone systems. d) Lymphoma occurrence has been linked to short-term exposure to certain pesticides e) Children may be more sensitive to pesticides because their bodies are still developing.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3.0 Describe the potential health risks of pesticides for humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.1 Discuss pesticide risks to human health, including shortterm effects and long-term effects.

Section Reference 1: 22.3 Risks of Pesticides to Human Health

31) Which of the following is not an integrated pest management technique? a) quarantine b) biological controls c) irradiation d) crop rotation e) calendar spraying Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

32) Which of the following is not an alternative to pesticides? a) pheromones b) quarantine c) biological controls d) organophosphates e) vacuuming pests Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

35) One of the fundamental premises associated with IPM is: a) perfect produce is best. b) the eradication of pest organisms. c) education in agricultural strategies. d) economic gain is foremost. e) knowledge of the dates on which pesticide spraying should occur.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

36) Which of the following does not apply to irradiating foods? a) Eating irradiated food has been shown to cause cancer in humans. b) Irradiation lessens the need for pesticides and food additives. c) Irradiated food does not become radioactive in the process. d) Ionized radiation kills many microorganisms, like Salmonella, that cause food poisoning. e) None of these, all apply to irradiating foods Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

37) One inconsistency in the Delaney Clause is that it did not cover: a) the link between animal testing and the potential for causing cancer in humans. b) pesticides on raw foods, such as fresh fruits and vegetables, milk, and meats. c) the presence of pesticides in processed foods. d) first-generation pesticides.

e) disclosure of inert ingredients in pesticides that might also be toxic or otherwise harmful.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.5.0 State the three U.S. laws that regulate the use of pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.5 Laws Controlling Pesticide Use

38) Which of the following does not apply to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)? a) It originally was passed to regulate the effectiveness of pesticides. b) It requires registration of older pesticides. c) It regulates pesticides that did not meet tolerance standards set by the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. d) It was updated and amended in 1988. e) All of these statements apply to FIFRA Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.5.0 State the three U.S. laws that regulate the use of pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.5 Laws Controlling Pesticide Use

39) Bioaccumulation is the buildup of a persistent pesticide in __________ .

Biomagnification is the buildup of a persistent pesticide in __________ . a) an individual organism’s body; organisms at the top of the food chain b) oceans and seas; lakes and ponds c) an individual’s blood stream; an individual’s fatty tissues d) plants; animals e) living tissue; air, water and soil.

Answer: a Difficulty: Mediu Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.3 Summarize the problems associated with pesticide use.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

41) Correctly match the U.S. Law with its regulation: a) Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act (FDCA): Regulated acceptable level of pesticides in produce, antibiotics, and perfume. b) Delaney Clause of FDCA: Allowed no substance capable of causing cancer in test animals or humans into processed food. c) Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA): Established acceptable and unacceptable levels of pesticides in the environment. d) Food Quality Protection Act: Regulated the effectiveness of pesticides. e) Pesticide Chemicals Amendment (Miller Amendment): Required testing and registration of the active ingredients of pesticides Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.3 Summarize the problems associated with pesticide use.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

42) Critics of irradiation of food products are mainly concerned with: I. irradiation producing blemishes on fruits and vegetables.

II. a fear that irradiated food is radioactive.

III. irradiation forming free radicals in food, some of which are carcinogenic in lab animals.

IV. a fear that irradiated foods cause sterility in humans a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) II and III Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

43) Which of the following would eliminate mold, mildew or mushrooms in a given area?

a) Rodenticide b) Insecticide c) Herbicide d) Fungicide e) Abioticide Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

44) Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of pesticides? a) lymphoma b) sterility c) leukemia d) breast cancer e) damage to nervous system Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3.0 Describe the potential health risks of pesticides for humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.1 Discuss pesticide risks to human health, including shortterm effects and long-term effects.

Section Reference 1: 22.3 Risks of Pesticides to Human Health

45) Which of the following is NOT a short-term effect of pesticides? a) nausea b) vomiting c) death d) damage to nervous system e) none of these, all are short-term effects Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3.0 Describe the potential health risks of pesticides for humans.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.1 Discuss pesticide risks to human health, including shortterm effects and long-term effects.

Section Reference 1: 22.3 Risks of Pesticides to Human Health

46) Which of the following is a strategy to reduce pesticide use? a) removing subsidies that encourage pesticide use b) applying pesticide only when needed c) adopting IPM practices d) using improved pesticide application equipment e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

47) Which type of insecticide is the most poisonous and is highly toxic to birds, bees, and aquatic organisms? a) carbamates b) organophosphates c) DDT d) Selective herbicides e) Chlorinated hydrocarbom Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.1 Distinguish between narrow-spectrum and broadspectrum pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

48) First-generation pesticides are __________ and second-generation pesticides are _________. a) organic compounds containing chlorine – synthetic poisons b) botanicals – organic compounds that contain phosphorous c) both inorganic compounds and botanicals – only inorganic compounds d) both inorganic compounds and botanicals – synthetic poisons

e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.3 Contrast first-generation and second-generation pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

49) Which of the following is NOT a highlighted concern of biological control? a) The agent might attack unintended hosts and become a pest itself b) Once the control is introduced, it can’t be recalled c) Some bacteria may produce a natural pesticide toxic to some insects d) Bt toxin is ingested by insects and poisons the rest of the food chain e) None of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

50) What is used to lure insects, such as Japanese beetles, into traps? a) pheromones b) hormones c) DDT d) Insecticides e) Herbicides Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

51) What method is used to prevent the spread of foreign pests by restricting any plant or animal which might harbor pests?

a) integrated pest management b) insecticide c) quarantine d) sterile male technique e) pheromones Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides

52) Which of the following is NOT a U.S. law that regulates pesticides? a) The Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act b) The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act c) The Clean Consumerism Act d) The Food Quality Protection Act e) None of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.5.0 State the three U.S. laws that regulate the use of pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.5 Laws Controlling Pesticide Use

53) All of the following are ways in which future climate change may increase risk of Persistent Organic Pesticides (POP’s) except: a) Release of POP’s as glaciers and icecaps melt b) Increased movement of POP’s from the air to the soil c) Increased volatilization of POP’s d) Shifting human diets as different crops are raised in different areas e) Expanded range of agricultural pests such as mosquitoes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7.0 Explain the environmental concerns associated with the use of persistent organic pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.7 Energy and Climate Change: Persistent Organic Pesticides

Question Type: Essay

54) What is the difference between an inorganic pesticide and a botanical pesticide?

Include in your answer: a) Examples of each category of pesticide. b) Potential risks of the pesticide in the environment. c) A distinction between first- and second-generation pesticides.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1.0 Identify the major categories of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.2 Describe the various types of pesticides, such as insecticides and herbicides.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 What is a Pesticide?

Solution: Inorganic pesticides contain lead, mercury, and arsenic and were extremely toxic to pests but did not degrade quickly in the environment. This persistence and accumulation in the soil and water of the inorganic compounds posed a threat to humans and other organisms. Botanicals are plant-derived pesticides. These organic pesticides include nicotine from tobacco and pyrethrin from chrysanthemum flowers. Botanicals are easily degraded by microorganisms and do not persist for long in the environment.

However, they are highly toxic to aquatic organisms and to beneficial insects that pollinate crops. Early (in the 1940’s) synthetic pesticides, both inorganic compounds and botanicals, were produced and are considered first-generation pesticides. Secondgeneration pesticides are synthetic poisons used today such as DDT and 20,000 other registered commercial pesticide products.

56) What is a persistent organic pollutant? How has the Stockholm Convention addressed persistent organic pollutants? Identify and briefly explain one notable exception to this treaty. What would be necessary to make this treaty effective globally?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Discuss issues associated with the production and use of Banned Pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.6 The Manufacture and Use of Banned Pesticides Solution: A persistent organic pollutant is a group of persistent, toxic chemicals that bioaccumulate in organisms and can travel thousands of kilometers through air and water to contaminate sites far removed from their source. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (2004) is an international treaty that seeks to protect human health and the environment for the twelve most toxic chemicals on Earth. A notable exception to this requirement is that DDT can still be produced and used to control

mosquitoes that carry the malaria pathogen in countries where no affordable alternatives exist. Although the convention goes a long way toward the goal of a global ban on these chemicals, it only applies to countries that have ratified the treaty. To be effective, more countries, including the U.S. will have to ratify it and adhere to its rules.

57) A number of alternative methods to controlling pest populations involve some aspect of insect reproductive biology. Why has this feature of insect biology been targeted?

Include in your answer: a) Two such methods and explain how they work to control the pests. b) The risks associated with each approach. c) Are these approaches broad-spectrum or narrow-spectrum?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides Solution: Insect reproductive biology is targeted as an alternative to insecticides because it is narrow-spectrum. One reproductive control strategy is to suppress pests by sterilizing some of its members. Large numbers of males are sterilized in the laboratory with radiation or chemicals and then released into the wild where they reduce the reproductive potential of the pest population by mating with normal females. The eggs never hatch so that the population of the next generation is much smaller. Males are sterilized rather than females because a single sterile female would prevent successful reproduction of only that female. The release of sterile males would prevent successful reproduction of many females. The risk to this approach is that it must be carried out continually to be effective.

If sterilization is discontinued, the pest population rebounds to a high level in a few generations. Another reproductive method of pest control is the use of pheromones, a natural substance produced by animals for use as a sexual attractant. This is also a narrow-spectrum approach to control individual pest species. Pheromones lure insects such as Japanese beetles to traps, where they are killed. Or pheromones are released into the atmosphere to confuse insects so they cannot locate mates. There are no known risks associated with this approach.

58) Unfortunately there is no such thing as an “ideal” pesticide. However, if you were to create one, describe six characteristics that your "ideal" pesticide might posses.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.3 Summarize the problems associated with pesticide use.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides Solution: An ideal pesticide would target a single species of pest and not affect the surrounding beneficial organisms. An ideal pesticide would not disrupt the balance of nature, such as predator-prey relationships. The ideal pesticide would decompose naturally and quickly in the environment not persisting or accumulating. The ideal pesticide would be inexpensive to use, require infrequent application, and not pose any health risks to humans or other non-target organisms. And finally, this ideal pesticide would stay only where applied and not end up in rivers or otherwise move around in the environment.

60) What are two major benefits of using pesticides? If pesticide use were discontinued, what pesticide alternatives or compromises would be needed to maintain these benefits?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.4 Describe the pesticide treadmill, explaining how resistance management may help with this problem.

Section Reference 1: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides Solution: Pesticides help with disease control by killing the organisms that transmit diseases. For example fleas and lice carry the microorganism that causes typhus in humans. Mosquitoes carry the microorganism that causes malaria in humans. If pesticide use were discontinued, biological controls such as male sterilization of insect populations or the use of pheromone to lure insects into a trap could be put into place to achieve the same benefits. Pesticides also reduce crop losses due to consumption by insects, competition with weeds, and plant pathogens such as certain fungi and bacteria. This crop protection significantly increases agricultural productivity. If pesticide use were to be discontinued, cultivation methods could be used to control pests. This might include interplanting crops with a mixture of plants that might attract beneficial insects for biological control of pests. Or, strip cutting, in which only one segment of the crop is harvests at a time leaving an undisturbed habitat for natural predators and parasites of the pest species.

61) Identify two problems concerning banned or heavily restricted pesticides. Why is pesticide misuse increasingly viewed as a global environmental problem?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Discuss issues associated with the production and use of Banned Pesticides.

Section Reference 1: 22.6 The Manufacture and Use of Banned Pesticides

Solution: One problem concerning banned pesticides is that they are notoriously difficult to monitor in international trade. The importing country needs to provide informed consent to receive these materials and then provide guidelines for their farmers on the safe storage and application of these restricted pesticides. Another concern relating to banned pesticides is that unwanted stockpiles of leftover, deteriorated pesticides are accumulating, particularly in developing countries. Over time, chemicals leach from these waste sites into the soil and ultimately into waterways and groundwater. Pesticide misuse is increasingly viewed as a global environmental problem because food is grown on foreign soils and imported to many places with traces of pesticides. Also most pesticides move around a great deal throughout the global environment. Some pesticides do not degrade readily or else break down into compounds as dangerous as, if not more dangerous than, the original pesticide.

62) You have noticed that mice are co-habiting your apartment with you. Besides spraying toxic chemicals, what are some steps you can take to control this pest?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference 1: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides Solution: First of all, try to eliminate the mice’s food source, by keeping all food items stored away in sealed containers when not in use. Also try to eliminate potential mouse habitat, by filling holes in walls or other places where you see the little rodents coming and going. If the rules of your residence allow, addition of a cat to your household adds a predator that can keep populations low, and cause a “habitat-shift” by the mice away from your apartment. If those strategies don’t work, you can resort to lethal control methods such as mousetraps placed in high-traffic areas.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 23

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The three largest producers of solid waste in the United States are: a) agriculture, industry, and municipal solid waste. b) agriculture, industry, and mining. c) industry, mining, and commercial office buildings. d) industry, mining, and municipal solid waste. e) agriculture, mining, and municipal solid waste.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.1 Distinguish between municipal solid waste and nonmunicipal solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

2) The largest single component of municipal solid waste in the United States is: a) food wastes. b) glass. c) paper products. d) plastic. e) yard waste.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.1 Distinguish between municipal solid waste and nonmunicipal solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

3) Which of the following does NOT contribute to municipal solid waste production? a) hospitals b) retail stores c) agriculture d) office buildings e) restaurants

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.1 Distinguish between municipal solid waste and nonmunicipal solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

4) Over half of the solid waste produced in the United States is disposed of: a) by composting. b) in sanitary landfills. c) by incineration. d) in open air dumps. e) by recycling.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste 5) A benefit of sanitary landfills over “open dumps” is that: a) clay liners at the bottom of the landfill help prevent groundwater pollution. b) a soil cover minimizes the escape and dispersal of offensive odors. c) they have systems designed to collect leachate. d) they tend to have fewer rodents than open dumps. e) All of these statements are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

6) What factors should be considered to make an "ideal" sanitary landfill? a) geology b) proximity to nearby surface and ground water c) proximity to population centers, but far enough to not be offensive d) does not require high transportation costs to deliver solid waste

e) All of these statements are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

7) One of the problems associated with sanitary landfills is: a) the possibility of a methane gas explosion. b) leakage of radioactive waste. c) depletion of groundwater. d) transmission of communicable diseases. e) None of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

8) Which of the following statements about landfills is FALSE? a) Most sanitary landfills in operation today meet current standards for new landfills. b) Landfills produce methane gas. c) Landfills have the ability to contaminate surface water and groundwater. d) Few new landfills are being opened to replace old ones. e) All of these choices are true Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

9) Tires are a problem in sanitary landfills because they: a) could be melted and reused for new tires instead. b) degrade too quickly, leading to sinking within the landfill. c) collect water and provide a good breeding place for mosquitoes.

d) represent the largest component of municipal solid waste. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

10) Which of the following statements does NOT explain why there are fewer sanitary landfills today than 20 years ago? a) Many landfills closed after they reached capacity. b) Many landfills closed because they did not comply with environmental standards. c) Fewer landfills are needed because newer landfills are generally much larger than in the past. d) Fewer landfills are needed because less municipal solid waste is produced today than in the past. e) Many desirable sites are already taken, and new sites are often opposed by local residents Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

11) All of the following are possible problems associated with incineration EXCEPT: a) production of heat to produce electricity. b) air pollution containing mercury. c) particulate air pollution. d) large quantities of toxic ash. e) the release of dioxins.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.3 Describe the features and problems of a mass burn incinerator.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

12) The materials in municipal solid waste that are best for incineration are: a) food wastes, glass, and paper.

b) food wastes, paper, and rubber. c) glass, plastics, and paper. d) paper, plastics, and rubber. e) yard wastes, rubber, and plastics.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.3 Describe the features and problems of a mass burn incinerator.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

13) A significant problem with waste incineration is that: a) acid rain can cause the lime scrubbers to neutralize electrostatic precipitators. b) hazardous materials cannot be removed by air-pollution control devices. c) heavy metals in the fly ash must be disposed of in a hazardous waste landfill. d) the resulting ash takes up more space than the original waste. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.3 Describe the features and problems of a mass burn incinerator.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

14) Organic waste can be converted into valuable soil conditioners through the process of: a) composting. b) osmosis. c) dematerialization. d) incineration. e) reduction.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.4 Evaluate composting as a method of managing solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

15) Which of the following represent potential markets for compost from municipal solid waste composting programs?

a) landscapers b) greenhouses c) golf courses d) farmers e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.4 Evaluate composting as a method of managing solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

16) Which of the following should NOT be recycled? a) personal computers b) food scraps c) televisions d) cell phones e) All of these items can be recycled Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

17) Which of the following acts contains provisions that attempt to reduce the amount of pollution at the point of origin, rather than mitigating the damage caused by the production and release of pollutants into the environment? a) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) b) Superfund Act c) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) d) Clean Water Act e) Pollution Prevention Act Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the

volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

18) Every ton of recycled paper saves approximately: a) 17 trees. b) 7000 gal of water. c) 4100 kilowatt-hours of energy. d) 3 cubic yards of landfill space. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

19) Which of the following correctly identifies one of the goals of waste prevention? a) increased use of disposable items b) decreased dematerialization c) increased consumption d) increased reuse of products e) decreased recycling of packaging materials Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

20) A good example of source reduction would be: a) burning old tires to generate usable energy. b) finding uses for discarded computers and other high technology equipment. c) the lighter weight of aluminum cans compared to 30 years ago. d) installing air pollution control devices in incinerators. e) increasing the percentage of paper, glass, and aluminum that is recycled in the United States.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

21.) Which of the following statements about recycling automobiles is FALSE? a) Fluids are drained, recycled, or processed for disposal. b) About 75% of the weight of the car can be reused for parts. c) Recycling the scrap iron and steel actually produces more air pollution than using new materials. d) Recycling plastic is difficult. e) Catalytic converters are disassembled for the platinum and rhodium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

22) Why are refillable glass beverage bottles rarely used in the United States today? a) increased concerns about disease transmission b) transportation costs of heavy bottles to and from centralized bottling plants c) most consumers prefer to purchase disposable containers d) legislation prohibits bottle reuse e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

23) The most successful recycling program in the United States involves: a) aluminum cans. b) old computers. c) glass.

d) old automobiles. e) paper.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

24) One reason that only a small percentage of plastic is recycled is that: a) the supply of plastic waste is very limited. b) few applications using recycled plastics have been developed. c) it is more expensive to recycle plastics than to make the products from raw materials. d) there is no legislative support for recycling plastic at the local, state, or federal level. e) there are many different kinds of plastic found in consumer products.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

25) Integrated waste management refers to: a) the principle of dilute and disperse. b) national programs of source reduction. c) proper disposal of household hazardous wastes. d) waste management techniques that involve reusing, recycling, and reducing. e) handling problems of household, industrial, and sewage wastes all together.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.2 Define integrated waste management.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention

26) Hazardous waste accounts for approximately what percent of the U.S. waste stream?

a) 1% b) 10% c) 25% d) 50% e) 75% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.1 Define hazardous waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

27) All of the following are major categories of hazardous waste EXCEPT: a) acids. b) sewage. c) heavy metals. d) organic solvents. e) radioactive waste.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

28) Which of the following forms of hazardous waste is incorrectly paired with its source? a) PCBs – composting b) nerve gas – old military installations c) mercury – metal refining d) CFCs – air conditioners and refrigerators e) dioxins – combustion of chlorine compounds Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

29) Which of the following statements about dioxins is CORRECT? a) Humans are primarily exposed to dioxins through drinking water. b) Dioxin pollution can be reduced if medical and municipal wastes are incinerated. c) Dioxins are byproducts during the combustion of unleaded automobile fuel. d) Dioxins are known to cause several kinds of cancer in laboratory animals, but data on humans are conflicting. e) Human exposure to dioxins is mostly limited to people living in polar regions.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

30) Incineration is a particularly effective method to destroy _______. a) PCBs b) dioxins c) radioactive Wastes d) coal ash e) heavy metals Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

31) The largest dioxin polluters in the United States are probably: a) gas stations. b) hospital waste incinerators. c) nuclear power plants. d) automobiles. e) cigarettes.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

32) In 1978, ________ became the first location ever declared a national emergency area because of hazardous waste. a) Hanford, WA. b) Times Beach, MO. c) Love Canal, NY. d) Three-Mile Island, PA. e) Gary, IN. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.1 Define hazardous waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

33) The Hanford Nuclear Reservation is located along which U.S. river? a) Colorado River, Arizona b) Columbia River, Washington c) Mississippi River, Louisiana d) Ohio River, Ohio e) Potomac River, Maryland Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

34) Which of the following statements about the Hanford Nuclear Reservation is TRUE? a) Bioremediation has been effective in reducing radioactive pollutants. b) The Hanford site is second only to Yucca Mountain, Nevada, in terms of contamination from radioactive waste. c) The cleanup is being conducted under the direction of the U.S. Department of Energy. d) Once cleanup is completed, the site will be used for an extensive public park.

e) Once cleanup is completed, the Hanford site will remain hazardous for approximately 100 years.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

35) Who pays for the cleanup of toxic sites on the Superfund National Priorities List? a) those who transported wastes to the site b) those who dumped wastes on the site c) prior owners of the site d) current owners of the site e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.3 Contrast the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act and the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (the Superfund Act).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

36) Bioremediation: a) is faster than conventional hazardous waste disposal methods. b) is much less expensive than traditional hazardous waste disposal methods. c) for toxic wastes has only been demonstrated in the laboratory. d) involves the use of either microorganisms or plants to clean up a contaminated site. e) is particularly effective in deep soil and groundwater applications.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.4 Discuss various biological treatments of hazardous contaminants.

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

37) Green chemistry can play a significant role in waste management by: a) converting radioactive waste into a less harmful byproduct.

b) fertilizing plants that can break down hazardous waste into harmless compounds. c) making it more economical to recycle polyethylene terphthalate (PET) plastic. d) reducing the amount of hazardous materials used in industrial processes. e) all of these statements are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.5 Explain how green chemistry is related to source reduction.

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste

38) Used tires: a) are one of the most successfully recycled materials in the U.S. b) can be recycled into a limited number of products including rubberized asphalt and playground equipment. c) are difficult to recycle due to their varied compositions. d) can be recycled into a wide variety of products including carpeting, automobile parts and clothing. e) from the United States are in high demand on the international market.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.4.0 Discuss the variety of health and safety concerns presented by used tires.

Section Reference 1: 23.4 Energy and Climate Change: Storing, Reusing, or Incinerating Used Tires

Question Type: Essay

39) Describe how modern sanitary landfills are located and designed to minimize the environmental impacts of solid waste.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste Solution: Sanitary landfill locations should be chosen based on the geology and soil properties of the area, climate, the location of nearby water bodies, and the proximity to the urban areas producing the solid waste.

Modern sanitary landfills are constructed with layers of clay or plastic sheeting at the bottom of the landfill to prevent liquid waste from seeping into groundwater. This liquid waste, called leachate, is collected and treated. The waste is covered with a thin layer of soil every day to reduce the number of vermin, odors, and fire danger. Once a sanitary landfill is closed, the EPA requires owners to monitor water quality for 30 years.

40) Discuss two advantages and two problems associated with the incineration of solid waste.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how solid waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.3 Describe the features and problems of a mass burn incinerator.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste Solution: Incineration converts a large volume of combustible waste into a much smaller volume of waste ash, reducing the land area necessary for landfills. The heat produced from the incineration can be used to generate electric power; most mass burn incinerators recover the energy produced from combustion.

Drawbacks to incineration include the potential to release toxic air pollutants (such as dioxin, carbon monoxide, particulates, and mercury) into the environment. To reduce this threat, pollution control devices such as scrubbers and electrostatic precipitators are used, which drives up the cost of building and maintaining incineration facilities.

41) When you want to bag groceries, should you request “paper or plastic?” Use information from this chapter to support your choice.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention Solution: Answers will vary, but one example follows: Neither!! You should bring reusable bags from home to sack your groceries. The most overlooked aspect of waste management is source reduction (the first “R” of reduce, reuse, and recycle). Reusable cloth grocery bags reduce the need to produce disposable paper or plastic bags, and they can be reused over and over again.

42) Describe the relative successes and/or limitations of paper, aluminum, and rubber tire recycling programs in the United States. What are the reasons behind these successes and/or limitations?

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help reduce the volume of sol waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention Solution: The United States currently recycles about half of its paper products, a much lower recycling rate

than many other developed countries. One reason for this low rate is that many older paper mills are not equipped to process waste paper. Aluminum recycling, however, is much more successful. This is largely due to economic factors, as making a new aluminum can from recycled materials uses significantly less energy than a can from raw materials. Rubber tire recycling is limited because there are relatively few products that can be made from old tires. Uses for old tires include playground equipment, rubberized asphalt, and carpets; product development continues to find new uses for the huge quantity of tires available for recycling.

43) Discuss some sources of dioxins and the health concerns associated with dioxin bioaccumulation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste Solution: Dioxins are highly toxic chemicals that are formed during the combustion of chlorine compounds.

Incineration of medical and municipal wastes accounts for the majority of known human emissions. These chemicals are stored and accumulate in fatty tissue; when they enter the environment, they are easily incorporated in the food web. Humans are exposed to dioxins mainly from eating contaminated meat, dairy products, and fish. Dioxins have been shown to cause cancer and other illnesses in laboratory animals, but their effects on humans have been not been fully determined. In some studies, high levels of dioxins have been linked to cancer, and problems with the immune, reproductive, and nervous systems.

44) What are PCBs? What is the risk that exposure to PCBs presents to human health? Identify methods for destroying these harmful chemicals.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.2 Briefly characterize representative hazardous wastes (dioxins, PCBs, and radioactive wastes).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste Solution: Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are industrial chemicals that were used as cooling fluids in electrical transformers, capacitors, vacuum pumps, and gas-transmission turbines among other uses. Health problems from exposure to PCBs include liver and kidney damage, damage to skin, reproductive organs, and gastrointestinal systems. They interfere with hormones released by the thyroid gland, and can cause learning problems in children. PCBs may be destroyed by high temperature incineration or degradation by bacteria.

45) Identify the major provisions of the two pieces of federal legislation that deal with the management of hazardous waste. Comment on the success of these laws in dealing with the problems of hazardous waste.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.3 Contrast the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act and the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (the Superfund Act).

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste Solution: The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), first passed in 1976, identifies which wastes are hazardous and provides guidelines and standards for states for hazardous waste management programs. Amendments to RCRA expedited cleanups and streamlined the permit systems to encourage hazardous waste recycling. The 1980 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as the Superfund Act, established a program to clean up abandoned and illegal toxic waste sites across the U.S. A complete site cleanup typically costs millions of dollars, and progress has been slow. Although about 1000 sites remain to be cleaned up, the very existence of CERCLA is a deterrent to further polluting because of the cost of liability and cleanup.

46) Discuss the use of biological organisms to remove hazardous contaminants. Give specific examples of types of organisms that can be used and the contaminants they can clean up. Identify two advantages of using living organisms and two problems associated with using this method.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3.0 Describe how hazardous waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.3.4 Discuss various biological treatments of hazardous contaminants.

Section Reference 1: 23.3 Hazardous Waste Solution: Bioremediation is the use of bacteria and other microorganisms (fungi) to break down hazardous waste into relatively harmless components. Phytoremediation is the use of plants to absorb and accumulate toxic materials from the soil. Cleanup can be accomplished at a much lower cost using living organisms, and these processes tend to leave behind harmless substances where once hazardous chemicals were found.

Plants that absorb toxins may be harvested and placed in a hazardous waste landfill if they cannot break the toxic chemical into a more benign form. However, bioremediation generally takes longer than tradition waste disposal methods, and plants cannot remove contaminants from deeper soil or groundwater.

Package Title: Raven Testbank Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 24 Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of terms below is defined as “The ability to meet humanity’s current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs?” a) b) c) d) e)

Environmental sustainability Sustainable development Carrying capacity Per capita GNI PPP Peak Oil

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.1 Define environmental sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably 2) How does the concept of Sustainable Development differ from that of Environmental Sustainability? a) b) c) d)

It focuses on meeting the current needs of humanity, without compromising the future needs of humanity It is concerned about not over-using natural resources It has a more direct focus on improving peoples’ lives It does not consider future generations

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.1 Define environmental sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably 3) Why is the environment’s ability to meet present and future needs directly related to technology and social organization?

I. Environmental impacts depend on population density

II. Affluence determines people’s level of consumption, and hence, their environmental impact III. Modern technological advances have made it possible for humans to significantly alter planetary systems a) I b) II c) III d) I, II, and III e) II and III Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.2 Discuss how the natural environment is linked to sustainable development.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably 4) What factor(s) ultimately determine the carrying capacity of a given ecosystem? a) b) c) d) e)

The technological development of the organisms living there The number of people living there How long organisms have existed there Its ability to absorb wastes and renew itself All of these choices are correct

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.3 Briefly describe the consumption habits of people in highly developed countries, relating consumption to carrying capacity.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably 5) Which of the following is a true statement regarding resource consumption in highly developed countries? a) b) c) d) e)

It is similar to that in developing countries It will not play a role in determining the earth’s carrying capacity It must be reduced in order to achieve environmental sustainability It has been gradually decreasing It is not generally linked to levels of affluence

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.3 Briefly describe the consumption habits of people in highly developed countries, relating consumption to carrying capacity.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably 6) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the level of wealth in highly developed nations?

I. It has created the wealthiest group of people that has ever lived II. Less than 5% of the world’s people control approximately 25% of the world’s economy III. The wealthiest nations depend on many other nations for their level of prosperity a) I b) II c) III d) I and II e) I, II, and III Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action 7) Which of the following is necessary to help raise the standard of living for the poorest segments of the population? a) b) c) d) e)

Education of children and reduction of illiteracy Increasing the number of trained professionals in highly developed nations Increasing the flow of money from developing to highly developed nations Maintain the current status of women in most developing nations All of these statements are correct

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action 8) “The poor stay poor, not because they’re lazy but because they have no access to capital.” This statement provides the philosophical basis for which development strategy? a) b) c) d) e)

Establishment of the United Nations Children’s Fund Establishment of Microcredit programs Reversing the flow of global funds so that is moves from highly developed to developing countries Increasing the number of trained professionals in developing nations Raising the status of women in developing nations

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

9) Approximately what percentage of the original area of tropical rain forests remains intact? a) b) c) d) e)

Slightly less than one quarter Slightly less than one third Slightly less than half Slightly less than two thirds Slightly less than three quarters

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.2 Discuss problems relating to loss of forests and declining biological diversity, including the important ecosystem services that these resources provide.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

10) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem service provided by forests? a) b) c)

Raw material for clothes Biomass for energy production Climate regulation

d) e)

Medicinal chemicals Building materials

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.2 Discuss problems relating to loss of forests and declining biological diversity, including the important ecosystem services that these resources provide.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

11) Globally, where do most malnourished people live? a) b) c) d) e)

Rural areas Urban areas Islands In the northern hemisphere In areas of high rainfall

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.3 Describe the extent of food insecurity and identify at least two ways to increase food production sustainably.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

12) An agricultural technique designed to protect topsoil is: a) b) c) d) e)

Drip irrigation Genetic engineering Conservation tillage Precision farming Integrated pest management

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.3 Describe the extent of food insecurity and identify at least two ways to increase food production sustainably.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

13) Fill in the two blanks in the following statement: According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, the average global temperature increased by ____ in the last 100 years, with more than half of that warming occurring in the last _____ years. a) b) c) d) e)

1° C; 10 1° C; 30 2° C; 10 1° C; 30 3° C; 30

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.4 Define the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

14) All of the following are likely candidates to be incorporated into a comprehensive energy plan to stabilize the global climate EXCEPT: a) b) c) d) e)

Nuclear power Carbon sequestration Energy conservation Increased use of fossil fuels as developing nations like China grow economically Reducing use of fossil fuels in highly developed nations

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.4 Define the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

15) All of the following are problems faced in the megacity of Jakarta, Indonesia, EXCEPT: a) b) c)

Water pollution Groundwater depletion Localized changes in seismic activity

d) e)

Traffic congestion Land subsidence

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.6 Describe at least two problems in megacities in the developing world and how they could be addressed.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action 16) A “Megacity” is defined as a city: a) b) c) d) e)

With a population greater than 10 million people Covering a greater land area than 1,000 Hectares That has grown by more than 25% in population in the last 10 years Facing severe environmental challenges That is the largest in the nation where it occurs

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.6 Describe at least two problems in megacities in the developing world and how they could be addressed.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action

17) Which of the following factors determine whether or not consumption is sustainable? a) b) c) d) e)

Population Economic activities Technology choices Social values All of these choices are correct

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Identify the environmental problems caused by increasing consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.3.1 Explain how consumption overpopulation threatens environmental sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 24.3 Changing Personal Attitudes and Practices

18) Which of the following is a true statement about sustainable consumption? a) b) c) d) e)

It is generally not affected by economic activities If we do not voluntarily adopt it now, we may be forced into it in the future due to environmental degradation of the world and its resources It does not require knowledge of resource levels It is generally unaffected by social values It will not require clear government plans

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Identify the environmental problems caused by increasing consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.3.2 Explain how sustainable consumption addresses the problem of consumption overpopulation.

Section Reference 1: 24.3 Changing Personal Attitudes and Practices

19) An important lesson that applies to many of the environmental issues discussed in this course is that: a) b) c) d) e)

Almost all environmental problems have clear solutions People in one part of the world are unaffected by the environmental choices made in other parts Those of us who live in highly developed nations are at the core of the environmental problems facing the world today Taking a “wait-and-see” approach is an effective way to deal with environmental problems Developing nations use the majority of the world’s resources

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.4.0 Describe the kind of world you want to live in.

Section Reference 1: 24.4 What Kind of World Do We Want?

20) How does environmental diplomacy differ from diplomacy concerning other issues? a) It requires that policy decisions be made on an international level b) It involves issues critical to the survival of millions of people c) It will require a clear policy statement

d) It will require good mediators e) It has an extremely long history Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Describe how environmental diplomacy can be used to address global environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 24.5 Energy and Climate Change: Environmental Diplomacy Question Type: Essay 21) What is living sustainably and how does it relate to the analogy of "living off the interest instead of living off the principal "? What changes are needed to approach this ideal?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.1 Define environmental sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably Solution: If the world’s resources were considered a bank account, then living off the interest instead of having to tap into the principal would be considered living sustainably.

Environmental sustainability is the ability to meet humanity’s current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs. This means keeping the principal intact. To approach this ideal, natural resources are not overused, excessive pollution is not generated and economic growth is balanced with environmental conservation.

22) What role(s) do poverty and the standard of living play in addressing environmental problems on a global level? What actions will need to be taken to begin to address these critical issues?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.3 Briefly describe the consumption habits of people in highly developed countries, relating consumption to carrying capacity.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably Solution: The overall global population, each individual’s level of consumption (affluence) and their choices of technology all interact to produce a global society. People

in highly developed countries are extravagant consumers. The productivity of Earth has its limits and cannot sustain everyone at the level of consumption enjoyed in highly developed nations. To live within these limits, population size must be held within the carrying capacity, and the wealthy must stabilize their use of natural resources, and then reduce this use to a level that can be maintained. Until the needs of the world’s poor are met, there can be no overall sustainability. To address these critical issues, we must act on the basis of an understanding that development can occur only within the limits of the ecosystems themselves.

23) Identify and explain at least three distinct reasons why more scientists and engineers are needed in developing countries. What steps are needed in order to make this a possibility?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: More scientists and engineers are needed in developing countries to help make informed decisions concerning whether to join international agreements concerning the environment or how best to manage their own natural resources. In order to improve the quality of life in lower-income countries, an increase in economic growth is required.

This will rely on scientists addressing issues of health, in particular infant mortality.

Engineers are needed to tackle the requirements of clean water and increased agricultural productivity. And developing countries need scientists and engineers to protect biological diversity and existing ecosystems. To make this a possibility, educational opportunities need to be made available in developing countries for the training of scientists and engineers. The transition to a sustainable world depends on changing individual attitudes and practices in intelligent ways based on scientific information. This requires the training and employment of professional scientists and engineers in developing countries.

24) What does it mean to manage a resource sustainably? What evidence exists that humans are not currently managing resources in a sustainable manner?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: Lo 24.1.2 Discuss how the natural environment is linked to sustainable development.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably

Solution: If resources are managed sustainably, there will be no net decrease in resource levels, as illustrated by the earlier analogy of principal and interest; sustainable resource use is living off the interest. If resource levels are decreasing, this indicates use at an unsustainable rate. Some evidence presented in the current chapter is that we have cut 1/3 of forests since 1950 without replacement, and that we are driving many species to extinction, with extinction rates higher than they have been in the last 65 million years.

With regard to biodiversity, any decline in population size due to human actions indicates unsustainable use; extinction only results when such use continues unabated for long periods of time. Another example is our use of fossil fuels; U.S. oil production peaked in the 1970’s, and global oil production is predicted to peak during the 21st Century. An example from a previous chapter is the Ogallala Aquifer, from which water is being removed as much as 40 times faster than nature is replacing it. All these lines of evidence clearly indicate that we are not managing natural resources in a sustainable manner.

25) Identify and discuss the measures that we will need to implement in order for the human population to stay within the Earth's carrying capacity for our species.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.3 Briefly describe the consumption habits of people in highly developed countries, relating consumption to carrying capacity.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably Solution: The maximum human population that can be sustained by a given ecosystem is its carrying capacity. This capacity is determined by the system’s ability to absorb wastes and renew itself. To stay within Earth’s carrying capacity, it will be necessary to reach a stable population and to reduce excessive consumption and waste. New technologies must be developed that will be more environmentally friendly than the ones they are replacing. To restrict the global population, there must be sustained worldwide attention to family planning.

26) Describe the role of education in changing individual values, attitudes, and practices toward a healthier global environment.

Answer: Education, both formal and informal, is influential in translating an individual’s concerns Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Identify the environmental problems caused by increasing consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.3.2 Explain how sustainable consumption addresses the problem of consumption overpopulation.

Section Reference 1: 24.3 Changing Personal Attitudes and Practices

Solution: about the environment into actions. In order to make an informed decision in their personal choices that effect the environment such as amount of water use, type of transportation, and responsible use of pesticides, understanding of the challenges that face the environment are necessary. To adopt new lifestyle choices, individuals must be educated to understand the reasons for changing practices that may be highly ingrained or traditions. Accurate information and learning opportunities must be made available to outline the fundamental reasons why environmental goals are important and the role that individuals can play in realizing those goals.

27) We often speak of throwing garbage away. Is there an “away?” Explain your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Identify the environmental problems caused by increasing consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.3.1 Explain how consumption overpopulation threatens environmental sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 24.3 Changing Personal Attitudes and Practices Solution: When garbage is thrown away, there is no “away.” All that enters Earth, with minor exceptions, is sunlight; and all that leaves is radiated heat that ultimately originated from that sunlight. It is as if we took into our homes all that we need or wish to consume, and then just left any part we didn’t use inside the home. Soon the house would be full and no room for people. And that is what is happening to Earth when garbage is thrown “away.” We are filling our house. We are trashing our Earth.

28) Why is it important for communities to take responsibility for their own (local) environments if our goal is to improve the global environment? Provide an example to support your answer.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Identify the environmental problems caused by increasing consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.3.2 Explain how sustainable consumption addresses the problem of consumption overpopulation.

Section Reference 1: 24.3 Changing Personal Attitudes and Practices Solution: Local self-sufficiency in production of goods and disposal of wastes is needed for a community to maintain the vitality of its local ecosystem. Likewise national efforts of environmental protection are needed to manage the world’s biological and physical resources. Actions that give communities control over their own lives are important in enabling them to move their communities toward sustainability. If individual nations empower communities in these ways, their local communities will function well, and so

will the world as a whole. For example, the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 brought together heads of state who were able to stress how effective their individual national efforts were. These efforts differed widely in scope and intensity, but all helped form the basis for achieving collective success in creating a sustainable world.

29) The chemical composition of the earth’s atmosphere is currently changing, as carbon captured by plants hundreds of millions of years ago is being released into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide through the burning of fossil fuels. From a systems perspective, what are the implications of this increased level of carbon dioxide for terrestrial plants, and to corals?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.4 Define the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: Increased carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere will likely affect plants via three different pathways. First, plant growth may be directly affected, as more CO2 means more potential for photosynthesis, resulting in higher rates of plant growth. Second, because CO2 is a greenhouse gas, higher atmospheric concentrations will lead to warmer air temperatures, which may cause extinction of species intolerant to new temperature regimes, and may lead to other changes such as different growth patterns and changes in timing of flowering. Third, changes in air temperature will lead to changes in precipitation patterns, which can have a strong effect on plant growth. All of the above can lead to changes in species composition of plant communities due to extinction of species that cannot tolerate altered climatic conditions, and population increases of species that can.

In the world’s oceans, higher atmospheric CO2 concentrations will lead to higher CO2 concentrations in ocean water via diffusion, changing water chemistry to be more acidic.

This could be devastating for corals and similar organisms, whose shells are made of materials that dissolve under acidic conditions.

30) What is the relationship between biological diversity and cultural diversity? Include in your answer definition of terms and a rationale for why both notions need preservation.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.2 Discuss problems relating to loss of forests and declining biological diversity, including the important ecosystem services that these resources provide.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: Biological diversity is the number and variety of Earth’s organisms. Cultural diversity includes Earth’s variety of human communities, each with its individual languages, traditions, and identities. These two concepts are intertwined. They are in fact two sides of the same coin. For both concepts, the more variety that is preserved, the more interesting and beautiful the world is. Cultural diversity enriches the collective human experience. Biological diversity does too. Both contribute to Earth’s vitality.

31) What is “Environmental Diplomacy,” and why is it likely to play a large role in resolving many of our environmental problems? Provide an example of an environmental problem and the role Environmental Diplomacy could play in its solution.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.5.0 Describe how environmental diplomacy can be used to address global environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 24.5 Energy and Climate Change: Environmental Diplomacy Solution: Environmental Diplomacy is the idea that negotiations among nations will play a large role in determining our success at solving environmental problems and creating a sustainable global society. Such negotiations will be necessary because, although different nations have different priorities, the world they all share is one, and it must be managed in a way that all can live healthy lives. Many global problems require local solutions, requiring that each country work within its own borders for the good of the planet. Examples given will vary, but one is the biodiversity crisis, and the importance to the entire world of the ecosystem services provided by organisms. Globally, the Amazon rain forest removes massive amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, reducing atmospheric concentration of a key greenhouse gas, and moderating climate change around the world. However, the condition of the rainforest is dependent on local and national policy in nations such as Brazil; thus a global environmental issue can be strongly affected by local events occurring within a given country. To make sure that the needs of all the world’s citizens are addressed by policy on national and local scales, while still meeting the needs of local citizens, will require a great deal of diplomacy.

Another example is the production of greenhouse gases; the United States and other developed nations produce much more than developing nations, while in many cases, developing nations in areas such as Africa are expected to experience the worst effects of global climate change. Again, diplomacy will be needed to forge environmental policies that take into account the interest of the citizens of the entire world.

32) Suppose that you have just started a summer internship working for the United Nations. Discuss two important sustainable development goals that might be addressed most effectively at this international level.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Explain the goals of environmental sustainability.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.1 Define environmental sustainability.

Section Reference 1: 24.1 Living Sustainably Solution: To attain sustainable development globally, we need to develop international cooperation that will identify comprehensive opportunities that could prevent problems from ever occurring instead of trying to react to each problem as it occurs. The better integrated the common efforts of each nation, the better the results. Successful dealing with these global problems depends on national actions that contribute to an integrated global action. Additionally, the international community must commit themselves to new ethical standards of a sustainable society to guarantee the long-term success of sustainability. Additional environmental treaties should be devised and implemented with an international system of governance. The strengthening of the United Nations as an effective force for global sustainability would contribute greatly to the creation of a sustainable world.

33) In his second inaugural address in 1937, U.S. President Franklin Delano Roosevelt said, “The test of our progress is not whether we add more to the abundance of those who have much; it is whether we provide enough for those who have too little.” Describe the disparity in the standards of living experienced in different parts of the world today. What score would you give the U.S. on Roosevelt’s “test of our progress?”

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: Today, on a global level, nearly one in four people lives in extreme poverty, and one in eight cannot get enough food to make it possible for their bodies to grow and function properly. In the U.S. less than 5% of the world’s people, control approximately 25% of the world economy. Yet, the U.S. depends on many other nations’ ecosystems for its prosperity, including medicines, building materials, energy resources, and fossil fuels.

Improving the quality of life in lower-income countries cannot be addressed without modifying the standard of living and consumption rates enjoyed in highly developed countries. Raising the standard of living for poor countries will require the universal education of children and the reduction of illiteracy. One of the greatest barriers to equalizing the gap between highly developed and developing nations is the lack of trained professionals. Today, only 10% of the world’s scientists and engineers live in less developed countries. For the above reasons, I would give the U.S. a “D” on Roosevelt’s “test of our progress.”

34) In what way would improving the status of women in developing countries have a positive impact on achieving sustainable development?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference 1: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: Failing to confront the problem of poverty around the world continues to make it impossible to attain global sustainability. The role of women requires increased attention because women are often disproportionately disadvantaged in poor countries. In many countries, women have the full responsibility for childcare as well as the responsibility to contribute significantly to family income by direct labor. In many developing countries women have few rights and little legal ability to protect their property, rights to their children, or income. The improvement in women’s status can therefore make a significant contribution to the stability and prosperity of those communities and have a positive impact in advancing sustainable development.

35) Why must your generation become the next environmental pioneers to advocate for an environmental revolution that will support sustainable conditions for human existence? What steps could be taken in the arenas of politics, economics, and social change to fuel the revolution? Is “doing nothing” an option?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.4.0 Describe the kind of world you want to live in.

Section Reference 1: 24.4 What Kind of World Do We Want?

Solution: Deliberate actions by today’s youth to preserve global ecosystems will be the cornerstone of the environmental revolution. The political will for the revolution will be created with numbers and commitment from the youth of society. Thoughtful decisions by the current generation as both consumers and leaders will create the economic power to preserve what is left of today’s environment. The position of consumption and abuse without thought of environmental consequences must be abandoned. Social change with acceptance and respect of the differences among peoples will coincide with a reconnection to the natural environment by society’s youth. The new environmental revolution will require that we revalue ourselves according to a different set of ideas. The myths of Western culture such as “faster” and “more” inevitably meaning “better” will be debunked. Market forces will work in favor of environmental protection and business activities will develop cooperative partnerships to make decisions based on long-term benefits to the environment. “Doing nothing” is not an option.

36) What should you do to improve the global environment? What can you do to improve the global environment? What will you do to improve the global environment?

Be honest!

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.4.0 Describe the kind of world you want to live in.

Section Reference 1: 24.4 What Kind of World Do We Want?

Solution: I should take responsibility for my actions and be aware that each action has consequences. I should adapt an attitude of conservation, preservation, recycling and reuse. I should base all of my consumption decisions on long-term benefits to the environment. I should reexamine my personal commitment and contribution to improving the global environment.

I can become involved in the activities of environmental organizations. I can support institutions such as natural history museums, zoos, aquaria, and botanical gardens, which promote conservation and sustainability. I can encourage the inclusion of relevant environmental material in the programs of churches, social groups and other institutions that should logically emphasize them.

I will …answers will vary.

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 1

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Use the I=PAT equation to calculate the environmental impact in terms of CO2 emissions per year at the beginning of the 21st Century, when there were 6 billion people, an average of 0.1 motor vehicles per person, and 5.4 tons of CO2 emitted by each car per year. a) 3.24 trillion tons of carbon b) 6.48 billion tons of carbon c) 3.24 billion tons of carbon d) 16.1 billion tons of carbon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2.0 Explain how humans impact the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.2.1 Explain how both population and affluence can lead to unsustainable consumption.

Section Reference 1: 1.2 Population, Resources, and the Environment 2. According to the UN, 40% of the world’s human population lives in poverty. Using the 2008 population estimate of 6.9 billion, calculate approximately how many individuals are living in poverty. a) 276 million b) 1.76 billion c) 2.76 billion d) 4.76 billion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

3. Calculate how long it took for Earth's population to double from 3 to 6 billion.

a) 10 years b) 20 years c) 30 years d) 40 years Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

4. Identify the year in which almost 100% of the phosphorus in Lake Washington was attributed to sewage effluent.

a) 1955 b) 1960 c) 1963 d) 1966 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.5.0 Describe the analysis procedures used to evaluate environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.5.2 Briefly describe the history of the Lake Washington pollution problem of the 1950s and how it was resolved.

Section Reference 1: 1.5 Addressing Environmental Problems

5. According to the UN, nearly 2.8 billion people subsist on less than $2US a day (adjusted for purchasing power). Assuming that Earth's human population is approximately 6.9 billion people in 2009, what percentage subsists on less than $2US per day? a) 30% b) 41%

c) 61% d) 70% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1.0 Compare and contrast highly, moderately, and less developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 1.1.2 Distinguish among highly developed countries, moderately developed countries, and less developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 1.1 Human Impacts on the Environment

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 2

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. As the amount of pollution in an environment is reduced, the cost of removing the remaining pollution:

a) increases b) decreases c) is the same as when the pollution abatement began d) can’t be calculated from this graph Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3.0 Explain the economic cost of pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Explain why economists prefer efficient solutions to environmental problems.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Economics and the Environment

2. By 1897, loggers in Michigan had removed 160 billion board feet of white pine, leaving only 6 billion board feet. What percent of the original board feet of white pine remained?

a) 2% b) 4% c) 8% d)16% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

Solution: 6 / 166 = 4%

3. In 1916, the U.S. had 13 national parks and 20 national monuments. Today there are 58 national parks and 73 national monuments. By what percent has the total of national parks and monuments increased in 90 years? a) 2.97% b) 75% c) 98% d) 297% Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States 4. In 1968, Earth’s human population was ~3.5 billion; by 2008 it had grown to 6.7 billion.

By what percent did the population grow? a) 3% b) 46% c) 91% d) 96% Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1.0 List the contributions made by individuals during the environmental movement in the United States.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Briefly outline the environmental history of the United States.

Section Reference 1: 2.1 A Brief Environmental History of the United States

5. In 2007, the EPA considered that human exposure to contamination was under control at 93% of the 1,968 listed hazardous sites. How many sites still run the risk of human exposure to contamination? a) 212 b) 138 c) 47 d) the number of sites can’t be calculated with this information alone Answer: b Difficulty: easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2.0 Evaluate the importance of the National Environmental Policy Act in protecting the environment.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Explain why the National Environmental Policy Act is the cornerstone of U.S. environmental law.

Section Reference 1: 2.2 U.S. Environmental Legislation Solution: 1,968 x .93 = 1,830 sites under control 1.968 – 1, 830 = 138 sites exposed to humans

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 3

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1. The NPP for a particular river ecosystem is measured at 8,833 kcal/m2/year. Respiration by the aquatic producers in this ecosystem is estimated at 11,977 kcal/m2/year. Calculate the GPP for this ecosystem. a) -3,144 kcal/m2/year (a productivity deficit) b) 3,144 kcal/m2/year c) 20,810 kcal/m2/year d) it is impossible to calculate the GPP without other data Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.4 Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity, discussing human impact on the latter.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

2. Assuming that 10,000 kcal of energy are theoretically available to the grass plant, how much useful energy will be available to the hawk in this food chain?

a) 1 kcal b) 10 kcal c) 100 kcal d) 1000 kcal Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.4 Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity, discussing human impact on the latter.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems 3. Use Figure 3.14, The Pyramid of Energy, to calculate what percent of energy (in Kcal/m2/yr) is available to a coyote that eats a rabbit.

a) 8% b) 10% c) 12% d) 17% Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.3 Describe typical pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

4. Calculate how much more efficient swamps and marshes are in NPP compared to deserts and semidesert scrub ecosystems.

a) 12x more efficient b) 24x more efficient c) 36x more efficient d) 48x more efficient Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3.0 Diagram how energy moves through an ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.3.4 Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity, discussing human impact on the latter.

Section Reference 1: 3.3 The Flow of Energy Through Ecosystems

5. How many carbon atoms are present in 6 molecules of glucose, the key product of photosynthesis? a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 36 Answer: 36 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2.0 Discuss energy, work, and heat in terms of biological systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.5 Write summary reactions for photosynthesis and cellular respiration, contrasting them.

Section Reference 1: 3.2 The Energy of Life

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 4

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1. Convert the temperature range in the lower stratosphere (-450 C to -750 C) to degrees Fahrenheit. a) -49 to -1030 F b) -45 to -750 F c) -113 to -167 0 F d) can’t be calculated because the temperatures are below freezing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere Solution: 0F = 0C x 9/5 + 32 0 F = -45 x 9/5 + 32 = -113 0F F = -75 x 9/5 + 32 = -167 0F

2. How much more water (in cubic kilometers) is lost from the oceans by evaporation than enters through precipitation and runoff?

a) 71,000 b) nearly 40,000 c) about 13,000 d) it is roughly the same, maintaining a fairly constant ocean level Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems Solution: About 40,000 cubic kilometers of water enters oceans from land runoff and 385,000 from precipitation, thus maintaining a fairly constant ocean level.

3. Calculate how much more nitrogen is fixed by biological nitrogen fixation than by human activity.

a) 140 times as much b) 14 times as much c) 1.4 times as much d) this amount is impossible to calculate Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1.0 Diagram the main steps in the phosphorus, carbon, nitrogen, hydrologic, and sulfur biogeochemical cycles.

Section Reference 1: 4.1 The Cycling of Materials Within Ecosystems Solution: Using human fixation of 100 (x 1012 g N), biological fixation is 140 (1.4 times as much)

4. Calculate how much incoming solar radiation is both absorbed and reflected by clouds.

a) 3% b) 9% c) 22% d) 31% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2.0 Summarize how solar energy affects Earth's climate.

Section Reference 1: 4.2 Solar Radiation

5. Consider Earth's atmosphere from ground level to the outer limit of the thermosphere (~500km from the planetary surface). Which percent of the atmosphere is found within the troposphere?

a) 2% b) 7% c) 15% d) 32% Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3.0 Explain the various forces that affect Earth's atmosphere.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.3.1 Describe the four layers of Earth’s atmosphere: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere.

Section Reference 1: 4.3 The Atmosphere Solution: the troposphere (where life occurs) is only about 10km (10/500) thick.

Package Title: Chapter 10, Quantitative Course Title: Energy Consumption Chapter Number: 10

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) Highly developed countries contain less than 20% of the world’s population but they consume _____ of the energy worldwide.

a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 80 Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1.0 Describe global energy consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Describe global energy use.

Section Reference 1: 10.1 Describe global energy consumption

2) All of the following are energy saving methods that can be incorporated into homes except

a) Installing programmable thermostats b) Eliminating energy vampires c) Installing low-flow shower heads d) Using incandescent bulbs Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2.0 List examples of where energy efficiency and conservation have been improved.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Identify methods of energy conservation both at home and in the workplace.

Section Reference 1: 10.2 Energy Efficiency and Conservation

3) Using batteries to store energy is an example of a) Kinetic energy storage b) Electrochemical energy storage c) Compressed air energy storage d) Superconducting magnetic energy storage

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3.0 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electricity and hydrogen as sources of energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.4 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of storing energy.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Electricity, Hydrogen, and Energy Storage

4) Fuel consumption increases approximately ______ percent if a car is driven at 75 mph rather than 55 mph a) 15 b) 30 c) 50 d) 65 Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.4.0 Describe the role policy decisions have in shaping energy resource and technology development.

Section Reference 1: 10.4 Energy Policy

5) Carbon in the form of CO2 is released into the atmosphere with the use of all of the following except a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Electricity d) Oil Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.5.0 Discuss how sequestering carbon from fossil fuels could impact global climate.

Section Reference 1: 10.5 Energy and Climate Change: Carbon Sequestration and Electricity

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 11

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Given: • Coal contains about 24 million Btu per ton, • Only about 40% of this energy can be converted into electricity • The average US household uses 108.7 Million BTU (31,857 kWh) per year • Coal produces about 2.71 tons carbon dioxide (CO2) per ton of coal How many tons of CO2 will be released each year to provide electricity for this household, if the electricity supply is entirely produced from coal? a) 50.40 tons of CO2 b) 40.11 tons of CO2 c) 30.68 tons of CO2 d) 11.32 tons of CO2 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with coal.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.2.2 Summarize the environmental problems associated with using coal.

Section Reference 1: 11.2 Coal

2) In 2004, China used 6684 barrels of oil per day. This was 15.8% more than they used in 2003. If the rate of increase stays the same, how much total oil would they use in 2007? a) 10,379 barrels of oil per day b) 7740 barrels of oil per day c) 6699 barrels of oil per day d) 8963 barrels of oil per day Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.5.0 Discuss how China's increasing energy demand is impacting global atmospheric emissions.

Learning Objective 2: 11.5 Energy and Climate Change: Fossil Fuels in China Section Reference: Solution: 6684 + (6684 * .158) = 7740 barrels of oil per day, 2005 7704 + (7704 * .158) = 8963 barrels of oil per day, 2006 8963 + (8963 * .158) = 10,379 barrels of oil per day, 2007

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3) A car consumes approximately 6530 BTU’s per person per mile compared to the bus which consumes 939 BTU’s per person per mile. How many times more energy efficient is it for you to take the bus to work than to drive your own car? a) 5 times b) 10 times c) 7 times d) 3 times Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas

4) Cars consume gasoline at certain efficiency; it has been shown that a car will get better fuel economy when driven at 55 mph compared to 75 mph. Fuel consumption can be increased by 50% when a car is driven at 75 mph rather that 55 mph. Considering that a car will get 20 (mpg) miles per gallon at 75 mph, on a trip of 300 miles how much less gas will be used if the car is driven at 55 mph. a) 15 gallons b) 10 gallons c) 5 gallons d) no difference Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3.0 Discuss environmental and health issues associated with oil and natural gas.

Learning Objective 2: LO 11.3.3 Discuss the environmental problems of using oil and natural gas.

Section Reference 1: 11.3 Oil and Natural Gas Solution: A trip of 300/20 = 15 gallons of gas at 75 mph 20 mpg X 50% divided by 100 = 10 mpg, 20 mpg + 10 mpg = 30 mpg at 55 mph 300/20 = 15 gallons of gas at 75 mpg 300/30 = 10 gallons of gas at 55 mph, 15 – 10 = 5 gallons

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Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number 12

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Given the following information determine how large of an area of photovoltaic cells will be necessary to power a house. The house uses 1000 kilowatt-hours (kWh) per month. It receives 6 kWh/m2/day of solar radiation. (m2 is square meter) The available photovoltaic cells have 15% efficiency. Assume perfect battery storage (0% losses) of the generated electricity. a) 166 m2 b) 66 m2 c) 40 m2 d) 37 m2 e) 5.6 m2 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

2) Calculate the total amount of electricity (in MW) used globally in a year given the following information. Photovoltaic (PV) solar cells currently provide about 5000MW of electricity worldwide.

PV cells account for only about 0.15% of global electricity. a) 75,000 MW b) 7,500 MW c) 15,000MW d) 33,333MW e) 3,333MW Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1.0 Compare and contrast active versus passive solar energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.1.3 Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of solar thermal electric generation and photovoltaics in converting solar energy into electricity.

Section Reference 1: 12.1 Direct Solar Energy

3) Uranium-235 (U-235) has an atomic mass of 235 and an atomic number of 92. What are the number of protons and neutrons in an atom of U-235?

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a) 92 protons and 92 neutrons b) 235 protons and 92 neutrons c) 92 protons and 235 neutrons d) 92 protons and 143 neutrons e) 143 protons and 92 neutrons Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

4) Starting with 1 kg of Plutonium-239, which has a half-life of approximately 24,000 years, how many grams will remain after 24,000 years? How many will remain after 96,000 years? a) 500 grams and 62.5 grams b) 1000 grams and 125 grams c) 500 grams and 0 grams d) 0 grams and 0 grams e) 500 grams and 250 grams Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

5) The Yucca Mountain high level Nuclear Waste Storage Facility has a design capacity of 70,000 metric tons of radioactive waste and is designed to last to the year 2025. In 2000 the United States had an estimated 42,710 metric tons. Approximately how many metric tons per year of high level radioactive waste can be generated in the United States without exceeding the design capacity? a) 1,000 b) 500 c) 100 d) 10,000 e) 10 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power 2

6). Uranium ore is a mixture of isotopes of which 0.71% is U-235. How much uranium ore must be mined to obtain one ton of fuel grade U-235 at 3% enrichment? a) 20 b) 42 c) 50 d) 2.1 e) 7 Answer: B Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.4.0 Describe how nuclear power is used to produce energy.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.4.1 Distinguish between nuclear energy and chemical energy.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Nuclear Power

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Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 13

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Calculate how many gallons of water are wasted each year from a leak of one drop per second (13,140 drops equals 1 gallon). a) 1 gallon b) 360 gallons c) 2400 gallons d) 13,140 gallons e) 31,536,000 gallons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation

2) At a particular site, the ocean water used for desalination has a salinity of 35 ppt (parts per thousand). If the desalinization removes all salt from water, how many grams of salt will be removed in the process of producing 100 liters of fresh water?

1 liter of fresh water weighs 1 kg; ppt = weight of solute / weight of solution * 1000; note that the weight of the solute is included in the weight of the solution. a) 100 kg b) 42 kg c) 36.3 kg d) 3.63 kg e) 3.63 g Answer: d Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5.0 Discuss how water management is used to provide sustainable water supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.5.4 Briefly describe two methods of desalinization.

Section Reference 1: 13.5 Water Management

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3) The 1922 Colorado River Compact stipulates an annual allotment of 7.5 million acre-feet of water to the lower Colorado (California, Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico). An acre-foot equals approximately 326,000 gallons of water. If the standard adequate daily requirement of water is 5.2 gallons per person per day, approximately how many people can this allotment provide for on a daily basis? Approximately, how many people can it provide for if typical American water consumption is 90 gallons per day? a) 1.29 billion, 7.44 billion b) 1.29 billion, 7.44 million c) 1.29 billion, 74.4 million d) 129 million, 74.4 million e) 12.9 million, 7.44 million Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3.0 Examine water problems in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 13.3 Water Problems in the United States and Canada Solution: 7,500,000 million acre-feet * 326,000 gallons = 2,445,000,000,000 gallons / 365 days = 6,698,630,137 gallons/day Standard water consumption: 6,698,630,137 gallons per day / 5.2 gallons per person per day = 1,288,198,103 people = 1.29 billion people Typical American water consumption: 6,698,630,137 gallons per day / 90 gallons per person per day = 74,429,224 people = 74.4 million people

5) Today, ultra low flush toilets are being sold that only use 1.6 gallons per flush. Most post1980 toilet models use 3.5 gallons per flush. Calculate the annual percent reduction in toilet water use for a family of four if a typical family member flushes 4 times per day. a) 56.2% b) 25.6% c) 54.3% d) 36.5% e) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6.0 Examine methods of water conservation.

Learning Objective 2: LO 13.6.1 Give examples of water conservation by agriculture, industry, and individual homes and buildings.

Section Reference 1: 13.6 Water Conservation

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Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: 14

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1.) If soil loss from erosion is 2.5 cm over 20 years in a particular region and if 1 mm of topsoil in an land area of 1 hectare weighs 13.0 metric tons, how many metric tons of topsoil will be loss per hectare in 20 years in that region. a) 2.5 metric tons b) 32.5 metric tons c) 260 metric tons d) 325 metric tons e) 650 metric tons Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil

2) If the rate of soil formation is 1 metric tons/hectare/year, how long will take to replace 2 cm of soil, given that 1 mm/hectare of soil weighs 13 metric tons. a) 13 years b) 26 years c) 260 years d) 1300 years e) 2600 years Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.2 Identify the factors involved in the formation of the soil system.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System

3) If you examined 100 lbs of soil, approximately how many pounds would be mineral particles, organic materials, water and air? a) 45-5-25-25 lbs respectively

b) 25-25-5-45 lbs respectively c) 30-10-30-30 lbs respectively d) these amounts are impossible to calculate without additional information Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1.0 Describe the soil ecosystem.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.1.2 Identify the factors involved in the formation of the soil system.

Section Reference 1: 14.1 The Soil System

4) If the largest sand particles are about 2mm in diameter, how much larger are they than the largest particles of silt (0.05mm in diameter)? a) 0.1x as large b) 10x as large c) 25x as large d) 40x as large Answer: d Difficulty: Easy L.O. Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2.0 Discuss physical and chemical properties of soil.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.2.1 Briefly describe soil texture and soil acidity.

Section Reference 1: 14.2 Soil Properties and Major Soil Types

5) If approximately 2.5 cm of soil on average is lost by erosion in the U.S. within a twenty year period, how much soil is lost each year? a) 0.13cm b) 0.5cm c) 13cm d) 50cm Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3.0 Identify environmental soil problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 14.3.2 Explain the impacts of soil erosion, mineral depletion, soil salinization, and desertification on plant growth.

Section Reference 1: 14.3 Environmental Problems Related to Soil

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 15

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) If North America consumes approximately 7,300,000 metric tons of aluminum per year and this represents approximately 29% of global aluminum consumption, how much aluminum does the world consume annually? a) 57,631,238 tons b) 49,369,126 tons c) 35,763,029 tons d) 25,172,413 metric tons Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.1 Contrast the consumption of minerals by developing countries and by industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective Solution: 7,300,000 / 29 = x / 100 29x = 730,000,000 x = 730,000,000 / 29 x = 25,172,413 metric tons

2) If Thiobacillus bacteria allows a 90% rate of recovery of gold from low grade ores compared to 75% recovery from tradition methods, how much more efficient is the bacteria? a) 12% b) 15% c) 75% d) 83% Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.4.0 Examine methods of increasing the supply of minerals worldwide.

Section Reference 1: 15.4 Increasing the Supply of Minerals Solution: 90%-75% = 15%

[insert table 15.2]

3) If 10 tons of iron ore are mined in Montana, how many tons of pure iron can actually be extracted?

a) 10 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2.0 Discuss the environmental impacts of mining.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.2.1 Explain the environmental impacts of mining and refining minerals, including a brief description of acid mine drainage.

Section Reference 1: 15.2 Environmental Impacts Associated with Minerals Solution: 6 tons (60%) of iron ore becomes waste tailings, leaving 4 tons of useful iron.

[insert figure 15.8] 4) Estimate what percent of the world's gold supply is consumed by the U.S. and Canada.

a) 4% b) 9% c) 11% d) 13% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3.0 Compare and contrast mineral use between developed and developing countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.3.1 Contrast the consumption of minerals by developing countries and by industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada.

Section Reference 1: 15.3 Minerals: An International Perspective Solution: Use the bar graph to estimate the percentage.

5) Given that there are 128 fluid ounces in one gallon of liquid, and recycling one aluminum can saves the energy equivalent of about 6 ounces of gasoline, how many aluminum cans would need to be recycled to save the energy equivalent of one gallon of gasoline? a) 22 cans b) 47 cans c) 768 cans d) impossible to calculate with only this data Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: LO 15.5.0 Identify ways to conserve and increase mineral supplies.

Learning Objective 2: LO 15.5.1 Summarize the conservation of minerals by reuse, recycling, and changing our mineral requirements.

Section Reference 1: 15.5 Using Substitution and Conservation to Expand Mineral Supplies Solution: 128/6 = 21.3 cans so round up to 22

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 16

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Annual global trade in animals is conservatively estimated at $10 billion. One third of that trade is illegal because it involves rare or endangered species. Calculate how much illegal trade, in millions of dollars, is done each day. a) $11.78 million b) $9.04 million c) $6.25 million d) $3.33 million Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.5 Describe four human causes of species endangerment and extinction, telling which cause is the most important.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: $10 billion x 0.33 = $3.3 billion/year 3,300,000,000 / 365 days = $9.04 million / day

2) High concentrations of endemic species live on island nations, such as the Philippines and Madagascar. Presently each of these countries has only set aside less than 2% of their total land for protection. If the total land area of the Philippines and Madagascar is 300,000 km2 and 581,540 km2 respectively, what is the total area set aside for protection of endemic species on these two islands? a) 5,630.8 km2 b) 17,630.8 km2 c) 11,630.8 km2 d) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.4 Define biodiversity hotspots, explaining where most of the world’s biodiversity hotspots are located.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: 0.02 * (300,000 km2 + 581,540 km2) = 17,630.8 km2 3) Worldwide, 11.5% of Earth’s total land area (19 million km2) has been set aside to protect

biological diversity. How much land remains unprotected? a) 2,185,000 km2 b) 13,300,000 km2 c) 16,815,000 km2 d) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3.0 Describe conservation biology.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.3.1 Define conservation biology, comparing in situ and ex situ conservation.

Section Reference 1: 16.3 Conservation Biology Solution: 19,000,000 km2 * (1 - .115) = 16,815,000 km2

4) In late 2006, there were a total of 373 endangered whooping cranes in the wild plus a total of 145 captive cranes that scientists had successfully breed in captivity. If scientists are able to successfully introduce approximately 70% of the captive population into the wild population, how many whooping cranes will exist in the wild? a) 101 b) 272 c) 475 d) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5.0 Distinguish between conservation biology and wildlife management.

Section Reference 1: 16.5 Wildlife Management Solution: (145 * 0.70) + 373 = 474.5 = 475

5) According to the Global Amphibian Assessment, 168 amphibian species have gone extinct in the world over the last 2 decades. Given this information, on average, how many amphibian species go extinct each month? a) 8.4 b) 1.7 c) 1 d) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Response: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2.0 Discuss the major causes of extinction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 16.2.2 Contrast threatened and endangered species.

Section Reference 1: 16.2 Extinction and Species Endangerment Solution: (168 species / 20 years) * (1 yr / 12 months) = 0.7 ~ 1 species/month

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 17

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Excluding agriculture, only about 3 % of the Earth's total surface area (14.9 billion hectares) is settled (homes, roads, cities, etc.). What is this settled area in hectares? a) 4.47 million hectares b) 44.7 million hectares c) 447 million hectares d) 4.47 billion hectares e) 44.7 billion hectares Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.2 Describe world land use.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use Solution: .03 * 14.9 billion hectares = .447 billion hectares = 447 million hectares

2) In 2003, the BLM collected $12,788,353 in grazing fees at a rate of $1.35 per head. The average private grazing fee was approximately $11.00 per head. How much more money could the BLM have collected if they increased their grazing fee to 1/2 of the private fee? (Round to the nearest head and to the nearest dollar). a) $104,201,394 b) $6,394,177 c) $70,335,942 d) $52,100,697 e) $39,312,344 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4.0 Describe how human activity is impacting rangeland and agricultural lands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.4.1 Describe public rangelands and current issues of concern.

Section Reference 1: 17.4 Rangelands and Agricultural Lands Solution: ($12,788,353 / $1.35/head) * [($11.00/head / 2) - $1.35/head] = $39,312,344

3.) The NPS, USFS, FWS, and BLM oversee 630 wilderness areas that encompass 40.3 million hectares of land. Given that 1 hectare = 2.47105 acres, what is the average size of each wilderness area in acres? a) 160,000 acres b) 1.6 million acres c) 16.0 million acres d) 68.9 million acres e) 6.89 million acres Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges Solution: (40.3 million hectares * 2.471 acres/hectare) / 630 = 0.158068 = 0.16 million acres 4) Calculate the total land area (in km2) held by Native American tribes if the total land area for the U.S. is 9,631,420 km2 and 3% of it is owned by Native Americans. Do the same for land held by the federal government (they own 35% of the land in the U.S.). a) 288,943 km2; 3,370 km2 b) 288,943 km2; 3,370,997 km2 c) 2,889 km2; 3,370,997 km2 d) 288,943 km2; 370,997 km2 e) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1.0 Identify services that are provided by ecosystems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 17.1.3 Describe land use in the United States.

Section Reference 1: 17.1 Land Use Solution: 9,631,420 km2 * 0.03 = 288,942.6 = 288,943 km2 9,631,420 km2 * 0.35 = 3,370,997 km2

5) Park Service entrance fees bring in nearly $132 million dollars per year. It is estimated that the Park Service spends nearly 2.2 billion dollars a year on upgrades and park maintenance. What percentage of upgrades and maintenance is provided for by entrance fees? a) 16% b) 1.6% c) 0.6% d) 0.06% e) none of these

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2.0 Examine the purpose for creating wilderness, parks, and wildlife refuges.

Section Reference 1: 17.2 Wilderness, Parks, and Wildlife Refuges Solution: 100 * ($132 x 106 / $2.2 x 109) = 6 %

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 18

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) It takes 7 kg of livestock grain (i.e., corn) to produce 1 kg of beef, 6 kg of livestock grain to produce 1 kg of pork and 2.7 kg of livestock grain to produce 1 kg of poultry. If the grain you are feeding your livestock costs $150/ton, calculate how much it costs to produce 1 kg of each type of meat. (1 ton = 907.2 kg). a) $1.16/kg beef, $0.99/kg pork, $0.45/kg poultry b) $42.346/kg beef, $36.29/kg pork, $16.33/kg poultry c) $0.024/kg beef, $0.028/kg pork, $0.06/kg poultry d) $21.43/kg beef, $25.00/kg pork, $55.56/kg poultry Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security Solution: $150/ton divided by 907.2 kg/ton = $0.165 / kg (approximate) 7 kg/1 kg beef * $0.165/kg = $1.16/kg beef 6 kg/1 kg pork * $0.165/kg = $0.99/kg pork 2.7 kg/1 kg poultry * $0.165/kg = $0.45/kg poultry

2) Given the following data, calculate the percent increase or decrease in tons per hectare of world grain production between 1970 and 2001. 1970: 663 million hectares farmed, 1,079 million tons produced. 2001: 684 million hectares farmed, 1,843 million tons produced (round results to nearest percent). a) 59% increase b) 66% increase c) 97% increase d) 59% decrease e) 66% decrease Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security Solution: 1970 tons per hectare = 1,079 million tons / 663 million hectares = 1.627 tons/hectare (approximate) 2001 tons per hectare = 1,843 million tons / 684 million hectares = 2.694 tons/hectare (approximate) Difference 2.694 tons/hectare – 1.626 tons/hectare = 1.068 tons/hectare % Difference = 1.068 tons/hectare divided by 1.627 tons/hectare = .6564 = 65.64%

3) The average adult man requires 3000 kcal per day, whereas the average adult woman requires 2200 kcal per day. Given this information, a man requires _____ more calories per year than a woman. a) 2.67% b) 8.21% c) 36.3% d) 73% e) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2.0 Explain global food production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.2.2 Explain why having just three plant species to provide almost half of the calories people consume is a potential problem.

Section Reference 1: 18.2 Food Production Solution: 100 * (3000 - 2200) / 2200 = 36.36%

4) Average world grain production increased from 247 kg per person in 1950 to 342 kg per person in 1984. Given this information, calculate the average increase per year from 1950 to 1984. a) 27.8% b) 1.13% c) 38.5% d) 8.2% e) none of these choices is correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1.0 Discuss the current issues associated with global food security.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.1.2 Define world grain stocks, explaining how they are a measure of world food security.

Section Reference 1: 18.1 World Food Security Solution: 100 * (342 kg/person – 247 kg/person) / 247 kg/person = 38.46% / 34years = 1.13 % per year

5) During the green revolution in Mexico, the annual amount of wheat produced per hectare increased from approximately 700kg annually in 1920 to 2400 kg per hectare in 1965. Calculate the percent increase in annual wheat production during the green revolution. a) .05% b) .54% c) 5.4% d) 54% e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3.0 Identify the major challenges with increasing global crop and livestock production.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Describe the benefits and problems associated with the green revolution.

Section Reference 1: 18.3 Challenges of Producing More Crops and Livestock Solution: 100 * (2400 kg – 700 kg) / 700 kg = 242.857% increase / 45 years = 5.3968 = 5.4%

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 19

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) Given the following data about Houston, Texas, calculate how many days per year its residents experienced good air quality, and how many days per year they experienced unhealthful air quality.

Data: days with good air quality: 48%; days with moderate air quality: 41%; days with unhealthful air quality: 4%. a) 17520 days good air quality, 1460 days unhealthy air quality b) 175.2 days good air quality, 14.6 days unhealthy air quality c) 48.0 days good air quality, 4.0 days unhealthy air quality d) 17.5 days good air quality, 1.4 days unhealthy air quality e) 7.6 days good air quality, 91.25 days unhealthy air quality Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4.0 Discuss how air pollution is controlled and regulated in the U.S. Learning Objective 2: LO 19.4.2 Summarize the effects of the Clean Air Act on U.S. air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.4 Controlling Air Pollution in the United States Solution: 365 days per year * 48% good air quality = 365 * .48 = 175.2 days 365 days per year * 4% good air quality = 365 * .04 = 14.6 days

2) Given the following data about the emission of nitrogen oxides in China, calculate the percent change from 1990 to 1995.

Data: 1990: 8,712.71 thousand metric tons per year; 1995: 12,357.03 thousand metric tons per year. Round to two decimal places. a) 141.83 % b) 70.51 % c) 41.83 % d) 36.44 % e) 29.49 % Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Explain why air pollution is generally worse in developing countries than in highly developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World Solution: 12,357.03 – 8712.71 = 3644.32 thousand metric tons per year change 3644.32 / 8712.71 = 0.418276 .418276 * 100 = 41.8276 % = 41.83 % change 3) Due to rapid industrialization in urban areas, China currently exhibits the worst air quality in the world. In 2004, an estimated 400,000 premature deaths were associated with air pollution.

Given China’s population of over 1,300,000,000 people, calculate the approximate percentage of the population that has died as a result of air pollution. a) .0004% b) .004% c) .04% d) 4% e) none of these choices is correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Explain why air pollution is generally worse in developing countries than in highly developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World Solution: 400,000 deaths/1,300,000,000 people = 0.00037 * 100 = 0.04%

4) Mexico City has seen dramatic human population growth this century. Its overall growth has increased from 5.4 million in 1960 to 18.7 million in 2003. Calculate the percent increase, per year, for this 43 year period. a) 0.5% b) 15% c) 150% d) 32.6% e) none of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7.0 Compare and contrast air pollution in developing and developed countries.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Explain why air pollution is generally worse in developing countries than in highly developed countries.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Air Pollution Around the World Solution: 18.7 million – 5.4 million = 13.3 million 100* 13.3 million/5.4 million = 246% increase in population 246% / 43 years = 0.5 % increase in population per year

5) Each year in the United States, more than 154 million metric tons of pollutants are emitted into the air. Calculate (in kg) the amount of pollutants emitted per day and per hour. a) 42.19 kg/day, 1.75 kg/hour b) 42.19 kg/day, 17.58 kg/hour c) 421.92 kg/day, 1.75 kg/hour d) 421.92 kg/day, 17.58 kg/hour e) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2.0 Identify the major types of air pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.2.2 List various sources of outdoor air pollution.

Section Reference 1: 19.2 Types and Sources of Air Pollution Solution: 154 metric tons * 1000kg/ton = 154,000 kg 154,000 kg / 365 days = 421.92 kg/day 421.92 kg/day / 24 hours/day = 17.58 kg/hour

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Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 20: Global Climate Change

Question Type: Multiple Choice

[insert table 20.1] 1. Identify which of the listed atmospheric gases has increased the most since preindustrial times (watch your units).

a) carbon dioxide b) methane c) nitrous oxide d) CFC -11 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: While CFC – 11 has increased 245% since preindustrial times, the concentration is measured in parts per trillion. Therefore, this amount is still less than the nearly 112% increase in methane when measured in parts per billion, and the 36% increase in carbon dioxide measured in parts per million. The 36% increase in carbon dioxide is the most significant, when measured in parts per million.

2) What has been the percent change in increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration from before the Industrial Revolution (about 200 years ago) when it was about 288 parts per million (ppm) to 2010 when it averaged 386 ppm? Round to the nearest percentage. a) 23 % b) 34 % c) 71 % d) 88 % e) 130 % Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.1 Explain radiative forcing, greenhouse gases, and the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: 386 ppm – 288 ppm = 98 ppm change 98 ppm / 288 ppm = 0.34 0.34* 100 = 34 % change

[insert figure 20.1] 3) Calculate the overall change in mean annual global temperature from 1960-2010 (in degrees Centrigrade)

a) 0.5 b) 0.6 c) 0.8 d) 1.5 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change

[insert figure 20.2] 4) Identify the approximate year with the least seasonal variation in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.

a) 1977 b) 1981 c) 1991 d) 1995 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: Look for the least with the least variation in the curve of winter and summer carbon

dioxide levels.

5.) One piece of evidence for global climate change is that phenological Spring in the Northern Hemisphere arrived about six days earlier in 2006 than in 1959, and phenological Autumn arrived about 5 days later for the same time period. What is the net change in the length of seasons? a) Spring (+6) + Autumn (+5) = +11 days b) Spring (+6) – Autumn (-5) = +1 day c) Autumn (-5) + Spring (-6) = -11 days d) impossible to calculate with only this data Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1.0 Explain the causes of climate change.

Learning Objective 2: LO 20.1.3 Explain how climate models project future climate conditions.

Section Reference 1: 20.1 Introduction to Climate Change Solution: Add 6 days to Spring and 5 days to Summer = 11 days

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 21

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) The water pollution from a slaughterhouse, in which one ton of cattle was processed each day, produced a daily biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of 10.5 kg? Calculate the human population equivalent (how many people) that it would take to produce the same daily BOD as this slaughterhouse. Each person produces an average of 0.07 kg of BOD per day. a) 1 b) 11 c) 15 d) 150 e) 1,500 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.2 Provide examples of agricultural, municipal, and industrial water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today Solution: 10.5 kg BOD/day divided by 0.07 kg BOD/day/person = 150 persons

2) An asphalt parking lot measures 100 m by 500 m. Calculate how much storm water runoff, in gallons, will be created following a storm which produced 2 cm of rain. Conversion factors 1 cubic meter (m3) = 1000 liters, 1 gallon = 3.79 liters (approx). Round to the nearest gallon. a) 2,274 gallons b) 50,000 gallons c) 158,316 gallons d) 263,852 gallons e) 26,385,224 gallons Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.2 Provide examples of agricultural, municipal, and industrial water pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today

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Solution: volume = 100 m * 500 m * 0.02 m = 1,000 m3 {1,000 m3 * 1000 liters/ m3} / 3.79 liters/gal = 263,852 gallons

3) In 1998, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) evaluated data from 1,368 U.S. watersheds. They found that sediments in 7% of watersheds are so contaminated, that consuming fish from these watersheds would potentially threaten human health. Calculate the total number of contaminated watersheds. a) 1,464 b) 1,272 c) 957 d) 9 e) none of these choices is correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1.0 Identify the major categories of water pollutants.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Briefly describe eight categories of water pollutants.

Section Reference 1: 21.1 Types of Water Pollution Solution: 1368 watersheds * 0.07 = 95.76 4) Leaking underground petroleum storage tanks are a common pollutant to the nation’s groundwater. Despite laws to the contrary, there are an estimated 250,000 underground storage tanks that may be leaking at service stations in the United States. On average, cleanup of these leaking gas tanks can cost $500,000 per tank. Calculate the approximate cost per person (given that the current U.S population is 311,706,602 people) if we were to cleanup all potential leaking tanks this year. a) $401.01 b) $824 c) $1.13 d) $41.87 e) none of these Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2.0 Identify sources of water pollution.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.2.1 Contrast point source pollution and nonpoint source pollution.

Section Reference 1: 21.2 Water Quality Today Solution: (250,000 tanks * $500,000) / 311,706,602 U.S. population = $ 401.01 per person

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5) Wastewater requires several treatments to prevent environmental and public health problems.

Nationwide, 11% of the U.S. population has access to primary treatment only, 62% have access to both primary and secondary treatments, and 27% have access to primary, secondary and tertiary treatments. Given that the current U.S. population is approximately 303.5 million people, calculate approximately how many more people have access to all three forms of wastewater treatment versus primary treatment only. a) 485,000 b) 48.5 million c) 81.9 million d) 33.4 million e) none of these Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3.0 Describe methods to improve water quality.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Distinguish among primary, secondary, and tertiary treatments for wastewater.

Section Reference 1: 21.3 Improving Water Quality Solution: (0.27 - 0.11) * 303.5 m people = 48.56 million

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Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 22

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) A water sample was analyzed and found to contain .00005 ppm of DDT. Plankton living in the same water sample were found to contain 800 times the concentration of DDT. In ppm, what was the concentration of DDT in the plankton? a) .00000000625 ppm b) 0.016 ppm c) 0.04 ppm d) 0.16 ppm e) 0.4 ppm Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.3 Summarize the problems associated with pesticide use.

Section Reference: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides Solution: 0.00005 ppm * 800 = 0.04 ppm

2) The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations estimates that world consumption of herbicides was 543,776 metric tons in 1997 and 201,182 metric tons in 2001.

What was the average annual percent change in consumption? a) -15.75% / year b) 42.57% / year c) -63% / year d) -9.25% / year e) 37% / year Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Discuss issues associated with the production and use of banned pesticides.

Section Reference: 22.6 The Manufacture and Use of Banned Pesticides Solution: 100 * (201,182 – 543,776 metric tons) / 543,776 metric tons = -63 % 2001 – 1997 = 4 years, -63% / 4 yrs = -15.75% / year

3) According to the U.S. Geological Survey, it is estimated that nearly 150 million pounds of pesticides are applied to crops in the Central Valley of California each year. Total land area of California is 163,707 square miles. Approximately how many pounds of pesticides per square mile are applied to California lands per year? a) 916 lbs/mi2 b) 9.16 lbs/mi2 c) 91.6 lbs/mi2 d) 916 kg/mi2 e) none of these choices is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2.0 Discuss the benefits and problems associated with the use of pesticides.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.4 Describe the pesticide treadmill, explaining how resistance management may help with this problem.

Section Reference: 22.2 Benefits and Problems with Pesticides

4) Reproductive controls of pests are often used as alternative to pesticides. The sterile male technique, often used to control medfly populations, is currently employed in California. Aerial drops of 1.5 million sterile male medflies were made twice a week over a 12.2 mi2 area from mid September 2007 until the end of July 2008. Calculate how many total medflies were released and approximately how many medflies were applied per square mile throughout the duration of this project. a) 126 thousand, 10 million/mi2 b) 1.26 million, 1.0 million/mi2 c) 12.6 million, 1.0 million/mi2 d) 126 million, 10 million/mi2 e) none of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4.0 List methods other than the use of pesticides to control pests.

Section Reference: 22.4 Alternatives to Pesticides Solution: Time interval = 10.5 months: (10.5 months) (4 weeks/month) (2 drops/week) = 84 drops 84 drops * 1.5 million medflies/drop = 126 million medflies 126 million medflies / 12.2 mi2 = 10.3 million medflies/mi2

5) The United States imports nearly 1.2 million shipments of food annually from other countries.

The FDA monitors toxic residues on incoming fruits and vegetables, but only inspects about 1% of the food shipments that enter each year. Assuming the U.S. imports 50 million metric tons of fruits and vegetables a year, calculate how many pounds of produce is not being inspected for traces of pesticides and herbicides. a) 49,500,000 lbs. b) 500,000 lbs. c) 109,128,690,000 lbs. d) 1,102,310,000 lbs. e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.6.0 Discuss issues associated with the production and use of banned pesticides.

Section Reference: 22.6 The Manufacture and Use of Banned Pesticides Solution: 50 million metric tons of produce * (100 – 1 %) = 49.5 million metric tons per year not inspected 49,500,000 metric tons * 2204.62 lbs/metric ton = 109,128,690,000 lbs

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 23

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. In 2004, the Steel Recycling Institute estimated that 43,913,800 tons of post-consumer scrap iron was incorporated into 107,470,000 tons of new liquid iron. What is the percentage of recycled content in the new iron? Answer to the nearest percentage point. a) 8% b) 41% c) 59% d) 64% e) 245% Answer: b Difficulty : Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2.0 Identify methods to reduce the amount of waste produced.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.2.1 Summarize how source reduction, reuse, and recycling help the volume of solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.2 Waste Prevention Solution: 100 * (43,913,800 tons / 107,470,000 tons) = 40.8614 % = 41%

2) In 2009, when the U.S. population was 306,000,000, the EPA estimated that it produced 243 million tons of municipal solid waste. On average, how many pounds of waste were produced per person each day? (1 ton = 2000 lbs) a) 0.45 lbs b) 4.35 lbs c) 79.67 lbs d) 1,623.05 lbs e) 646575.34 lbs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how soild waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.1 Distinguish between municipal solid waste and nonmunicipal solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste

Solution: {(243,000,000 tons of waste/year * 2000 lbs/ton) / 306,000,000 persons} / 365 days/year = 4.35 lbs/day/person.

3) It is estimated that each person in the United States produces an average of 2.1 kg (4.6 lbs) of solid waste per day. Assuming that the current U.S. population is 310.5 million, how much is produced per year (in lbs). Now calculate the total waste produced per year for India, with a current population of 1.21 billion, assuming the same levels of waste production per person. a) U.S.= 5.2 billion lbs/yr , India = 2.03 trillion lbs/yr b) U.S.= 52 billion lbs/yr, India = 20.3 billion lbs/yr c) U.S.= 521 billion lbs/yr, India = 20.3 trillion lbs/yr d) U.S.= 5.21 trillion lbs/yr, India = 2.3 billion lbs/yr e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty : Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how soild waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.1 Distinguish between municipal solid waste and nonmunicipal solid waste.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste Solution: for the U.S.: 310,500,000 * 4.6 * 365 = 521,329,500,000 or about 521 billion lbs/year India: 1.21 billion * 4.6 * 365 = 20,315,900,000,000 4) Sanitary landfills often charge “tipping fees” to accept solid waste. Tipping fees vary widely from one state to another. For example, in Nevada tipping fees are on the order of $11 per ton of solid waste and in Massachusetts they charge $69 per ton. How much less (in %) does Nevada charge per ton versus Massachusetts? a) 16% b) 11% c) 84% d) 58% e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how soild waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of modern sanitary landfills.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste Solution: $69 - $11= $58, 58/69 * 100 = 84%

5) Incineration has been known to reduce solid waste by up to 90%. If the current U.S. population is approximately 310.5 million people and each person produces about 2.1 kg of solid waste per day, calculate how many kg of residual waste would remain at the end of one year if 100% of solid waste was incinerated. a) 232 trillion kg b) 209 trillion kg c) 23 million kg d) 209 million kg e) none of these Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1.0 Explain how soild waste is managed.

Learning Objective 2: LO 23.1.2 Describe the features and problems of a mass burn incinerator.

Section Reference 1: 23.1 Solid Waste Solution: (100 – 90 %) * (310.5 million people * 2.1 kg/day * 365 days/year) = 23,799,825,000 kg = 23 trillion kg

Package Title: Raven Quantitative Questions Course Title: Environment 8e WileyPLUS Chapter Number: Chapter 24

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1) In 1960 the world population numbered 3 billion with approximately 0.5 hectares of cropland per capita. If we assume the available cropland remains the same and the world’s population in 2011 is approximately 7 billion what is the approximate number of hectares of cropland per capita? a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.3 d) 0.4 e) 0.5 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.2.3 Describe the extent of food insecurity and identify at least two ways to increase food production sustainability.

Section Reference: 24.2 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: (3,000,000,000 x 0.5) / 7,000,000,000 = .21

2) The estimated per capita GNI PPP in highly developed countries is $32,370, while the estimated per capita GNI PPP of developing countries is approximately $5,150. On average, people in highly developed countries live on _____ per day, compared to the _____ per day that people in developing countries live on? a) 25, 5 b) 46, 8 c) 88, 14 d) 100, 22 e) 172, 34 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference: 24.1 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: (32,370/365) = $88.68 per day; (5,150/365) = $14.10 per day 3) In 1950, the world’s population was 2.5 billion. If the world population reaches 9.15 billion by 2050 the world population will have grown by ____% a) 166% b) 266% c) 366% d) 500% e) 1000% Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.1 Define poverty, briefly describing this global problem.

Section Reference: 24.1 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: [(9.15 x 100) / 2.5] = 366

4) If we assume that we share this planet with approximately 5.5. million other species and fivesixths have yet to be recognized and described; scientifically, that means approximately ______ remain to be classified? a) 1.2 million b) 2.2 million c) 3.8 million d) 4.6 million e) 5.2 million Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1.0 Discuss how sustainable living can be used to address global environmental problems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.1.2 Discuss problems relating to loss of forests and declining biological diversity, including the important ecosystem services that these resources provide.

Section Reference: 24.1 Sustainable Living: A Plan of Action Solution: [(5/6) x 5,500,000] = 4,565,000

5) The human population of 6.9 billion people uses an estimated 55% of accessible, renewable supplies of fresh water. If the rate of use remains constant per person, and the human population reaches 9.15 billion by 2050, what percentage of accessible, renewable supplies of fresh water will be used by humans? a) 62% b) 75% c) 80% d) 82% e) none of these choices is correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3.0 Identify the environmental problems caused by increasing consumption.

Learning Objective 2: LO 24.3.1 Explain how consumption overpopulation threatens environmental sustainability.

Section Reference: 24.3 Changing Personal Attitudes and Practices Solution: [(55x9.15)/6.9] = 72.93