CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide, 2nd edition By Robin Abernathy Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

Robin Abernathy Ann Lang

CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 1 Project Characteristics, Methodologies, and Frameworks 1. What is the significance of defining start and finish dates for a project?

A) It ensures that the project's outcome will be unique.

B) It helps personnel to determine the budget required for the project.

C) It prevents the project from becoming part of day-to-day operations.

D) It allows stakeholders to change the project's scope and objectives.

Answer: C 2. Why is it important for a project to have a clear reason or purpose?

A) To ensure that the project remains ongoing indefinitely B) To provide value to the project sponsor or customer C) To create intangible outcomes such as patents and copyrights D) To allow for changes in the project's design and location Answer: B 3. How are projects, programs, and portfolios related to each other?

A) All projects and programs are part of the portfolio, but not all projects are part of a program.

B) Projects and programs are part of the portfolio, but they don't have a common outcome.

C) Each project must be part of a program to be included in the portfolio.

D) Projects, programs, and portfolios are all separate entities within an organization.

Answer: A 4. What is a primary characteristic of predictive project approaches?

A) They break projects into small components over an undetermined timeline.

B) They involve a combination of predictive and adaptive methods.

C) They are flexible and allow for changes in project scope.

D) They provide a linear development plan with a known outcome.

Answer: D 5. When might an adaptive project approach be most suitable?

A) When project requirements are fixed and unchangeable B) When historical data is available to create a linear development plan C) When project scope is well-defined from the start D) When requirements may change due to uncertainty and volatility Answer: D 6. How does an iterative approach differ from an incremental approach?

A) Iterative approaches provide a linear development plan, while incremental approaches allow flexibility.

B) Iterative approaches divide the product into fully operational features or functions, while incremental approaches build up features over time.

C) Iterative approaches are used for projects with significant investments, while incremental approaches are used for smaller projects.

D) Iterative approaches are suitable for projects with minimal uncertainty, while incremental approaches deal with changing requirements.

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Answer: B 7. What is the primary focus of PRINCE2 (PRojects IN Controlled Environments)?

A) Managing projects in an adaptive and flexible manner B) Organizing and controlling the entire project with structured stages C) Encouraging creativity and innovation in project execution D) Simplifying project management documentation Answer: B 8. What is a key characteristic of the Waterfall development model?

A) It allows unlimited backward iteration between phases.

B) It follows a sequential series of steps without revisiting earlier stages.

C) It emphasizes adaptive and flexible development.

D) It focuses on continuous deployment of system upgrades.

Answer: B 9. What is the primary focus of Agile development?

A) Following a rigid plan and adhering to comprehensive documentation.

B) Providing clear contracts and negotiation terms to clients.

C) Responding to changes and uncertainties through iterative work and feedback.

D) Relying on tools and processes for effective project management.

Answer: C 10. What are the three main categories used in the Kanban method to manage project workflow?

A) Start, Progress, Finish B) To Do, Doing, Done C) Initiate, Develop, Deliver D) Plan, Execute, Evaluate Answer: B

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 2 Team and Resource Management 1. In a functional team structure, how are employees typically grouped and managed?

A) They report to multiple project managers.

B) They report to a single manager or supervisor.

C) They report to a project manager and a functional manager.

D) They are grouped by their level of experience.

Answer: B 2. What is a key characteristic of a projectized team structure?

A) Employees report to a single project manager.

B) Employees report to multiple project managers.

C) Employees are grouped by their job roles and specialties.

D) Employees are allocated resources on an ad hoc basis.

Answer: A 3. What is a potential advantage of a projectized team structure?

A) Resources are grouped by job roles and specialties.

B) Project managers have little to no authority.

C) Team members develop a cohesive identity within their team.

D) Flexibility to support project goals and departmental goals.

Answer: C 4. In a strong matrix team structure, the project manager typically reports to the?

A) Chief executive B) Functional managers C) Manager of project managers within a project management office (PMO) D) Project team members Answer: C 5. How are resources usually assigned to projects in a matrix team structure?

A) Resources are assigned solely by the project manager.

B) Resources are allocated from functional areas to the project.

C) Resources are allocated based on job roles and specialties.

D) Resources are chosen by the Chief Executive.

Answer: B 6. In a matrix team structure, what is the relationship between functional managers and project managers?

A) Functional managers have full authority and project managers report to them.

B) Project managers have full authority and functional managers report to them.

C) Authority is shared between functional managers and project managers.

D) Project managers serve as coordinators for functional managers.

Answer: C 7. What does the resource life cycle for a physical resource encompass?

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A) Hiring, training, assignment, performance reviews, and succession planning B) Acquisition, maintenance, and decommissioning C) Needs assessment, skill evaluation, and task allocation D) Planning, execution, monitoring, and controlling Answer: B 8. What is the purpose of successor planning in the resource life cycle?

A) To identify potential risks and mitigate them in advance B) To prepare for the replacement of key team members who may leave due to resignations, removals, or retirements C) To assess the financial impact of resource changes on the project budget D) To evaluate the performance of team members and allocate tasks accordingly Answer: B 9. What are the three main issues that gap analysis in resource deployment aims to identify?

A) Gaps in procurement processes, utilization inefficiencies, and software compatibility B) Gaps in budget allocation, project milestones, and risk management C) Gaps in team member knowledge and skills, gaps affecting product features or functionalities, and gaps in utilization D) Gaps in project scheduling, stakeholder engagement, and communication plans Answer: C 10. In what way do extended team members differ from outsourced labor in project management?

A) Extended team members work remotely, while outsourced labor is located in-house.

B) Project managers directly control the work of extended team members while they acquire the end result of outsourced labor through procurement.

C) Extended team members are typically core team members, while outsourced labor is composed of functional team members.

D) Outsourced labor brings unique skills to the project, while extended team members provide manpower and resources.

Answer: B

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 3 Change Control Process Throughout the Project Life Cycle 1. Who holds the ultimate responsibility for managing changes in a project?

A) Project team members who raise change requests B) External stakeholders who suggest changes C) The project manager D) The quality assurance team Answer: C 2. What is the purpose of a change control process in project management?

A) To prevent any changes from being requested during the project execution phase B) To ensure that all change requests are automatically approved without any review C) To manage and control the process of reviewing, estimating the impact, approving, and communicating changes to critical project factors D) To delegate the responsibility of change management to external stakeholders Answer: C 3. What information should be included in a change control log for effective change management in a project?

A) Change requestor's personal information and contact details B) A brief description of the requested change and its expected impact C) The project manager's opinion on whether the change should be approved D) The change request's priority level compared to other changes Answer: B 4. When conducting an impact assessment for a change request, why is it important to consider both new project risks and changes to existing project risks?

A) To justify rejecting the change request if it introduces too many risks B) To demonstrate the project manager's comprehensive understanding of risk management C) To identify any changes to requirements that result directly from the change D) To ensure that the change request aligns with the project's goals and objectives Answer: D 5. What is the purpose of conducting a preliminary review before conducting an impact assessment for a change request in a project?

A) To identify the potential impacts of the change request on project components B) To finalize the change request and approve it for implementation C) To create a detailed work breakdown structure for the requested change D) To delegate the responsibility of impact assessment to the project team Answer: A 6. What is the primary purpose of an established change control board (CCB) in a larger organization?

A) To delegate the responsibility of approving changes to the project manager B) To ensure that all change requests are accepted and implemented without delay C) To act as a cross-functional group that makes decisions on accepting or rejecting changes D) To overrule the decisions made by the project sponsor regarding change requests

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Answer: C 7. What distinguishes product change management from project change management in Agile methodology?

A) Product changes are changes that significantly affect the trajectory of the project.

B) Project changes refer to changes in the features of the finished product produced through sprints.

C) Product changes do not affect current project work and are simply added to the backlog.

D) Project changes are changes that occur to portions of the product that fall outside the current project’s scope.

Answer: C 8. What is a common origin of scope creep in projects?

A) Rigorous change control process B) Detailed and well-documented project requirements C) Clear communication of new features D) Verbal requests that bypass the change control process Answer: D 9. Which of the following is NOT a common constraint that can impact a project?

A) Project sponsor's expertise B) Regulatory requirements C) Budget limitations D) Availability of skilled resources Answer: A 10. In the context of the triple constraint, if a project sponsor is mainly concerned with keeping project costs low, what other aspects of the triple constraint might be affected?

A) Time and quality B) Scope and quality C) Time and scope D) Time, scope, and quality Answer: C

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 4 Risk and Issue Management 1. Which of the following statements correctly defines the term "issue" in the context of project management?

A) An issue is a planned event with mitigation strategies in place to manage its impact on the project's objectives.

B) An issue is an uncertain event that may or may not occur and could have a positive or negative effect on project objectives.

C) An issue is an event that has occurred in the project's life cycle, affecting its objectives, schedule, tasks, or other significant factors.

D) An issue is a formal modification to a project's parameters that requires analysis and approval before implementation.

Answer: C 2. When unknown risks are discovered during a project, what action should be taken?

A) They should be ignored as they are not significant.

B) They should be analyzed and added retroactively to the risk register.

C) They should be immediately escalated to the project sponsor.

D) They should be shared with the project team for discussion.

Answer: B 3. What is a key response to managing risks caused by infrastructure end of life?

A) Ignoring the risk since it is usually minor in impact B) Proactively upgrading technology to eliminate old infrastructure C) Waiting until the vendor provides support for the outdated systems D) Reverting to manual processes to avoid technological risks Answer: B 4. What is the main purpose of risk analysis in a project?

A) To determine the effects of risks on project objectives for effective response planning B) To allocate a risk budget for every potential risk C) To eliminate all risks that might impact the project D) To analyze risks only during formal change control Answer: A 5. Which risk analysis technique involves assigning subjective ratings to risks based on their likelihood and impact?

A) Quantitative analysis B) Situational analysis C) Qualitative analysis D) Impact analysis Answer: C 6. What is the primary difference between quantitative risk analysis and qualitative analysis?

A) Quantitative analysis relies on expert judgment, while qualitative analysis uses statistical models.

B) Quantitative analysis uses numeric values for risk's probability and impact, while qualitative analysis uses subjective values. .

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C) Quantitative analysis only considers high-impact risks, while qualitative analysis focuses on low-impact risks.

D) Quantitative analysis is used in Agile projects, while qualitative analysis is used in Waterfall projects.

Answer: B 7. What is expected monetary value (EMV) in the context of risk analysis?

A) The total budget allocated for risk response plans B) The total revenue generated by successful risk response plans C) The total amount of financial reserves set aside for project risks D) The product of a risk event's probability and the resulting gain or loss Answer: D 8. What is the primary purpose of Monte Carlo simulation in quantitative risk analysis?

A) To generate random project scenarios for entertainment purposes B) To predict the exact project outcomes with high accuracy C) To simulate real-life project results and calculate the probability of outcomes D) To assess project risks qualitatively and prioritize them Answer: C 9. What is a probability and impact matrix used for in risk management?

A) To generate random values for project outcomes B) To predict the exact likelihood of a risk occurring C) To assign a relative risk score based on likelihood and impact D) To calculate the expected monetary value of a risk event Answer: C 10. Which risk response strategy aims to decrease the probability or impact of a risk?

A) Avoidance B) Acceptance C) Exploitation D) Mitigation Answer: D

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 5 Schedule Development and Management

1. What is the primary purpose of a work breakdown structure (WBS) in project scheduling?

A) To define the overall project goal and objectives B) To track the progress of individual tasks in the project C) To allocate budget and resources for the project D) To break down the project into manageable components Answer: D 2. What is the lowest level of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A) Project goal B) Work packages C) Deliverables D) Phases of the project Answer: B 3. Which framework uses the product backlog as the equivalent of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A) Predictive B) Waterfall C) Agile D) Scrum Answer: C 4. In the context of project planning, what is the primary purpose of roll wave planning?

A) To plan detailed activities for future deliverables B) To prioritize tasks in the project schedule C) To allocate resources to individual tasks D) To modify the project scope with formal change control Answer: A 5. What is the purpose of using story points in Agile project management?

A) To measure the duration of individual tasks B) To allocate resources to user stories C) To estimate the overall duration of a sprint D) To provide a measurement point for the complexity of a user story Answer: D 6. In Agile project management, what is the purpose of an epic?

A) To define the smallest unit of work in the project B) To break down user stories into manageable tasks C) To represent a longer-term body of work that can be further divided into user stories D) To allocate resources to specific tasks within a sprint Answer: C 7. What is a milestone in project management? .

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A) A task that has a short duration B) A significant project event that indicates when a phase of the project work is complete C) A high-priority task in the project schedule D) A deliverable that must be completed by a specific date Answer: B 8. What is the purpose of a sprint goal in Agile project management?

A) To define the duration of a sprint B) To allocate resources to individual tasks within a sprint C) To identify the major project milestones D) To establish an overarching objective for the scrum team to complete during a sprint Answer: D 9. Which of the following is an example of a mandatory or hard logic dependency?

A) Purchasing equipment while staff selection is ongoing B) Preparing the event venue only if power is available C) Shopping for ingredients after the menu has been determined D) Selecting and hiring staff before purchasing equipment Answer: C 10. In three-point estimating, what formula is used to calculate the activity duration for the Triangular method?

A) (tO + tM + tP) / 3 B) (tO + 4tM + tP) / 6 C) (tO + tM) / 2 D) (tO + tP) / 2 Answer: A

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 6 Quality, Cost, and Performance Management

1. What is the main difference between an objective and a key result in project management?

A) Objectives are measurable, while key results state project goals.

B) Objectives provide goals, while key results are non-measurable.

C) Objectives state the goal, while key results show the how.

D) Objectives focus on stakeholders, while key results focus on sponsors.

Answer: C 2. What is the role of the planned value (PV) in project cost control calculations?

A) It shows the money spent on the project to date.

B) It represents the budgeted cost for the work scheduled to be done.

C) It measures the value a project has earned from the money spent.

D) It compares the actual cost against the cost baseline.

Answer: B 3. What does the burn rate represent in project management?

A) The budget deficit or surplus at any given point in time B) The ratio of earned value to actual cost C) The rate at which the project budget is being spent D) The difference between earned value and planned value Answer: C 4. What does the cost performance index (CPI) represent in earned value management (EVM)?

A) The difference between earned value and planned value B) The ratio of earned value to planned value C) The budget deficit or surplus at any given point in timed D) The ratio of earned value to actual cost Answer: D 5. What is the CPI of a project with an earned value of $50,000, an actual cost of $75,000, and a planned value of $100,000?

A) 0.67 B) 0.5 C) 0.33 D) .98 Answer: A 6. What does a positive schedule variance (SV) indicate in terms of project schedule?

A) The project is ahead of schedule.

B) The project is behind schedule.

C) The project is proceeding as planned.

D) The project is under budget for the amount of work completed.

Answer: A

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7. Which formula can be used to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) when considering both cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI)?

A) EAC using calculated ETC: AC + ETC B) EAC for work performed at current rate: AC + (budget – EV) C) EAC for work performed at current CPI: Budget / CPI D) EAC for work including both CPI and SPI: AC + [(budget – EV) / (CPI × SPI)] Answer: D 8. Which TCPI formula should be used when the cost baseline is no longer viable and an estimate at completion (EAC) value is used?

A) TCPI using current budget = (Budget – EV) / (Budget – AC) B) TCPI using EAC value = (Budget – EV) / (EAC – AC) C) TCPI using original cost baseline = (EAC – EV) / (Budget – AC) D) TCPI using final cost baseline = (EAC – EV) / (EAC – AC) Answer: B 9. What is the main difference between verification and validation in project management?

A) Verification is internal, while validation is external.

B) Verification focuses on acceptance, while validation focuses on accuracy.

C) Verification applies to the end result, while validation applies to the deliverables.

D) Verification results in rework, while validation results in rejection.

Answer: A 10. How does a lessons learned process differ from a retrospective in project management?

A) Lessons learned focus on improving current projects, while retrospectives focus on future projects.

B) Lessons learned aim to assess work processes, while retrospectives aim to document input from team members.

C) Lessons learned focus on future projects, while retrospectives focus on improving current projects.

D) Lessons learned involve brainstorming improvements, while retrospectives involve documenting and analyzing input.

Answer: C

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 7 Communication and Meeting Management

1. Which type of communication involves communication flowing back and forth between two or more people at the same time?

A) Push communication B) Pull communication C) Interactive communication D) Bidirectional communication Answer: C 2. What is the role of noise in communication?

A) It enhances the clarity of the message being communicated.

B) It interferes with communication by creating factors that disrupt the message transmission.

C) It ensures effective communication by minimizing distractions.

D) It provides additional information to the audience.

Answer: B 3. Which type of communication is characterized by a delay in participants entering the communication session at separate times?

A) Synchronous communication B) Interactive communication C) Asynchronous communication D) Bidirectional communication Answer: C 4. Which type of communication is often based on predefined templates or standards and is used for official communication representing the project or organization?

A) Formal communication B) Verbal communication C) Nonverbal communication D) Informal communication Answer: A 5. Which type of communication takes place between the project, team, program, organization, or group of stakeholders?

A) External communication B) Informal communication C) Horizontal communication D) Internal communication Answer: D 6. What is the responsibility of the project manager regarding communication platforms?

A) To choose communication platforms based on team preferences B) To configure communication platforms to support project work C) To delegate the selection of communication platforms to team members D) To create private channels for external stakeholders only .

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Answer: B 7. How can cultural differences influence project communication?

A) They only affect cognitive constraints, such as religious beliefs.

B) They can lead to time zone differences and scheduling conflicts.

C) They impact only remote team members, making them feel excluded.

D) They affect perception, verbal and nonverbal behavior, and emotional expression.

Answer: D 8. What is the purpose of communication archiving in a project?

A) To maintain communication records for the correct length of time in the required format(s) and using the approved storage method(s) B) To secure communication records from unauthorized access C) To ensure the integrity of communication records during storage D) To configure communication platforms to support project work Answer: A 9. What is the purpose of an escalation plan in project communication?

A) To provide guidelines for formal and informal communication B) To prevent conflicts from escalating within the project team C) To direct communication issues to the appropriate tier for resolution D) To document the roles and responsibilities of communication stakeholders Answer: C 10. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the project manager in relation to meetings?

A) Setting the meeting agenda B) Sending meeting invitations C) Recording meeting minutes D) Assigning action items to attendees Answer: C

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 8 Project Procurement and Vendor Selection 1. What is the primary purpose of the procurement process in project management?

A) To evaluate project team performance B) To assess the technical skills of project managers C) To acquire necessary products and services for the project D) To review project documentation for accuracy Answer: C 2. When does the decision to build, buy, lease, or subscribe to a resource typically occur in a project?

A) During the Execution phase B) After the project has been completed C) During the Discovery phase D) At the beginning of the project's Planning phase Answer: D 3. What is a key difference between a subscription and a pay-as-you-go (PAYG) service in procurement?

A) Subscriptions have a fixed monthly or annual fee, while PAYG services accumulate costs based on consumption.

B) Subscriptions are only applicable to cloud services, while PAYG services apply to all resources.

C) Subscriptions are typically used for short-term projects, while PAYG services are for long-term use.

D) Subscriptions are billed based on consumption, while PAYG services have flat fees.

Answer: A 4. In which situation would a project manager issue a request for information (RFI)?

A) When detailed specifications for a product or service are available B) When seeking price quotations from multiple sellers C) When wanting to gather more details about potential solutions or the vendor's offerings D) When the buyer is ready to compare prices among vendors Answer: C 5. In a cost-benefit analysis, which of the following is an example of an indirect cost?

A) Acquisition price B) Lost employee productivity while migrating to a new solution C) Increased output D) Licensing fees Answer: B 6. When evaluating vendor proposals, what should project managers consider when comparing bid documents?

A) Only the bottom-line cost of the proposal B) Only the overall value of the proposal C) The bottom-line cost and overall value of the proposal D) The qualitative aspects of the proposal, excluding quantitative factors Answer: C 7. What is the primary purpose of competitive analysis in the vendor selection process? .

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A) To identify the lowest-cost vendor B) To evaluate the technical approach of vendors C) To compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of different vendors D) To select a vendor solely based on their market share Answer: C 8. What is the purpose of performing a technical approach evaluation after a vendor responds to an RFP? A) To compare vendors against each other B) To assess the vendor's ability to meet project requirements C) To evaluate the financial stability of the vendor D) To evaluate vendor proposals based solely on cost Answer: B 9. What is the main characteristic of a firm fixed-price (FFP) contract?

A) The vendor's payment is a fixed fee based on the estimated costs.

B) The final cost is determined after the work is complete and performance goals are met.

C) The vendor absorbs any cost increase due to performance issues.

D) The price for the procurement is set at the outset and cannot change unless the scope of work changes.

Answer: D 10. Which type of contract is often used for simple projects with small monetary values or time frames?

A) Time and Materials B) Unit Price C) Cost Plus D) Fixed Price Answer: A

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 9 Project Life Cycles, Discovery/Concept Preparation Phase, and Initiating Phase Activities 1. During which phase of the project life cycle does the project manager validate project deliverables against project cost, budget, and schedule performance?

A) Discovery B) Planning C) Executing D) Closing Answer: C 2. What is the main purpose of the Initiating phase in a project’s life cycle?

A) Creating project deliverables B) Developing project plans C) Defining project stakeholders and responsibilities D) Validating project scope and quality Answer: C 3. What is the primary purpose of the business case in the Discovery phase of a project?

A) To provide detailed project financials and analysis B) To outline specific project tasks and schedules C) To describe the current state of the project D) To establish the scope and value of the proposed work Answer: D 4. What is the significance of a project kickoff meeting?

A) It signals the end of the project and the start of closure activities.

B) It aligns stakeholder expectations with project scope and objectives.

C) It outlines the detailed scope and milestones of the project.

D) It focuses on selecting the project manager and sponsor.

Answer: B 5. What is the purpose of a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) in project management?

A) It outlines the project’s budget and resource allocation.

B) It defines the project’s schedule and milestone dates.

C) It lists all project stakeholders and their contact information.

D) It maps roles and responsibilities for project tasks.

Answer: D 6. Which of the following components is typically included in a project charter?

A) High-level assumptions and constraints B) Risk management plan C) Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) D) Detailed scope statement Answer: A 7. What does the SMART criteria stand for in project management?

A) Simple, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound .

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B) Specific, Meaningful, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound C) Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Relevant, Time-bound D) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound Answer: D 8. What are the three criteria of the salience model to rank stakeholders?

A) Urgency, Legitimacy, Power B) Action, Power, Knowledge C) Urgency, Knowledge, Power D) Urgency, Legitimacy, Knowledge Answer: A 9. What is the purpose of a RACI chart?

A) Defining the project's budget and financial resources B) Outlining the project's milestones and schedule C) Clarifying roles and responsibilities for project tasks D) Identifying project risks and mitigation strategies Answer: C 10. What is the distinction between functional and nonfunctional requirements in a project?

A) Functional requirements focus on the project's budget and financial resources, while nonfunctional requirements outline the project’s milestones and schedule.

B) Functional requirements involve the project’s solution design and technical blueprints, while nonfunctional requirements deal with stakeholder communication and project kickoff.

C) Functional requirements describe what the solution must do or how it should behave for end users, while nonfunctional requirements encompass intangible aspects such as compliance, scalability, performance, and reliability.

D) Functional requirements cover the project’s organizational structure and team roles, while nonfunctional requirements address project risks and mitigation strategies.

Answer: C

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 10 Planning Phase Activities 1. How do the work breakdown structure (WBS), the WBS dictionary, and the detailed scope statement interact?

A) The WBS dictionary defines the project justifications, while the detailed scope statement lists the project milestones.

B) The WBS breaks down the project requirements, the WBS dictionary provides definitions for project components, and the detailed scope statement outlines the project schedule.

C) The WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the detailed scope statement together form the scope baseline, which is used to control project work.

D) The WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the detailed scope statement are interchangeable terms for the same project document.

Answer: C 2. In Agile projects, what is the purpose of the definition of done in relation to scope?

A) It describes the quality criteria that must be met for a product or deliverable to be considered complete.

B) It defines the project constraints and limitations.

C) It outlines the high-level project objectives and goals.

D) It lists the technical specifications and requirements for the project.

Answer: A 3. How does the backlog in Agile projects compare to the work breakdown structure (WBS) in traditional projects?

A) The backlog is a hierarchical listing of tasks, while the WBS is a list of high-level epics or themes.

B) The backlog includes a WBS dictionary, while the WBS doesn't have any associated documentation.

C) The backlog is used to hold initial project requirements and user stories, similar to how the WBS captures work packages and deliverables.

D) The backlog is used primarily for budget and resource allocation, while the WBS is used for project scheduling.

Answer: C 4. What is the primary purpose of establishing cadences in project management, especially in Agile projects?

A) To synchronize project activities with the project budget B) To provide a timeline for resource allocation C) To finalize the project scope and deliverables D) To create a pattern for the team to follow in terms of project tasks and events Answer: D 5. What is the purpose of a resource calendar in project management?

A) To list all the physical resources needed for the project B) To define the days and hours each resource will be available for project tasks C) To determine the availability of team members D) To assess the skill level of project team members Answer: B

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6. What is the purpose of a contingency reserve in project budgeting?

A) It is a budget allocation for anticipated risks and uncertainties in project costs.

B) It is a calculated amount of funds set aside for senior administration.

C) It is an additional budget provided by the project sponsor.

D) It is a portion of the budget used for project management activities.

Answer: A 7. What is the main purpose of the quality assurance (QA) plan in project management?

A) To outline the process for project resource management B) To specify the project's budget and financial resources C) To describe the approach for testing and verifying quality metrics D) To determine the project schedule and timeline Answer: C 8. Which document includes risk-related templates, risk categories, roles and responsibilities, and risk methodology?

A) Risk breakdown structure (RBS) B) Risk response plan C) Risk management plan D) Quality assurance plan Answer: C 9. What is the DISC method of categorization used for?

A) To prioritize stakeholders based on their interests and urgency B) To assign communication modes based on behavioral styles C) To develop risk response strategies D) To assess the impact of stakeholders on the project Answer: B 10. What is the primary responsibility of a transition owner in a project's transition plan?

A) Developing the project’s communication plan B) Overseeing the project’s development team C) Managing the project’s budget and financial resources D) Supervising the activities involved in transferring project results to the operations team or clientowner Answer: D

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 11 Executing Phase Activities 1. What is the primary role of the project manager during the Executing phase of a project?

A) Creating the project deliverables B) Defining the work breakdown structure (WBS) C) Overseeing and monitoring the work progress D) Developing the project schedule Answer: C 2. Which project management area is NOT monitored and controlled during the Executing phase?

A) Scope B) Quality C) Risk D) Planning Answer: D 3. What is the purpose of enforcing vendor rules of engagement in project management?

A) To define expectations for interactions between the project team and vendors B) To ensure that vendors deliver high-quality products C) To negotiate procurement contracts with vendors D) To monitor vendor performance and progress Answer: A 4. Why is it important for project managers to conduct regular meetings and provide updates to project stakeholders and the project sponsor?

A) To ensure that the project stays within the budget B) To assign tasks to team members during the project execution C) To communicate any changes to the project schedule D) To reduce the need for a formal communication plan Answer: C 5. Which type of reporting provides a high-level status update to individuals outside the project team and stakeholders?

A) Gap analysis reporting B) External status reporting C) Ad hoc reporting D) Overall progress reporting Answer: B 6. What is the purpose of conducting a gap analysis during the Executing phase of a project?

A) To compare the actual progress against the project plan B) To determine the financial resources required for the project C) To identify potential risks and issues D) To measure team members’ performance Answer: A 7. What is ad hoc reporting in project management? .

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A) Reports that are provided on a regular basis as part of the communication plan B) Reports created for internal team use only C) Reports that are automatically generated by project management software D) Reports created on an as-needed basis in response to stakeholder requests Answer: D 8. In which circumstances might the forcing conflict resolution technique be appropriate?

A) When the conflict involves differing viewpoints and collaboration is desired B) When the conflict is minor and not worth addressing C) When a quick resolution is required and resisting another party's actions is justified D) When a long-term relationship is important, and trust needs to be reinforced Answer: C) 9. Which conflict resolution technique emphasizes areas of agreement rather than differences?

A) Smoothing B) Avoiding C) Forcing D) Collaboration Answer: A 10. What is the primary purpose of gate reviews in a phase-gate project model?

A) To complete a phase of the project life cycle and move on to the next phase B) To conduct quality-control checks on the project deliverables C) To define the criteria for go/kill decisions for each project phase D) To ensure that project managers participate in project sponsor meetings Answer: A

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 12 Closing Phase Activities 1. What is a common method used for obtaining opinions and feedback from stakeholders during the project evaluation process?

A) Conducting one-on-one interviews with stakeholders B) Hosting town hall meetings for stakeholders C) Distributing questionnaires and surveys to stakeholders D) Sending personalized emails to stakeholders Answer: C 2. Why is it important to validate project deliverables as soon as they are completed?

A) To ensure that stakeholders are satisfied with the final project outcome B) To verify requirements are met, and no rework is needed C) To minimize the need for project documentation D) To accelerate the project's completion timeline Answer: B) 3. What is an important aspect of contract closure in project management?

A) To ensure all project tasks are completed on time B) To finalize the project scope and requirements C) To document the vendor's performance and any issues for analysis D) To allocate project resources efficiently Answer: C 4. What is the purpose of formally releasing resources during the project Closing phase?

A) To ensure that project team members are provided with performance evaluations B) To evaluate the performance of equipment, services, and supplies used in the project C) To maintain ownership of resources within the project team D) To return resources to the project sponsor or owner and conclude the project Answer: D 5. What is the product of the closure meeting?

A) Project closeout report B) Lessons learned report C) Retrospectives D) Project closure signatures Answer: A 6. Why is it important for project managers to store project documents in a retrievable format and location?

A) To make them difficult to access B) To impress the project team C) To fulfill stakeholder requests D) To enable future use and reference Answer: D 7. What is the purpose of budget reconciliation in project management? .

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A) To create new budget allocations B) To identify discrepancies in transactions and documentation C) To increase project expenses D) To delay budget planning Answer: B 8. What is the purpose of celebrating project closure in project management?

A) To recognize and reward team members’ efforts B) To extend the project timeline C) To allocate additional funds to the project D) To revise project objectives Answer: A 9. What is the purpose of project sign-off in project management?

A) To allocate additional resources to the project B) To extend the project timeline C) To validate project completion according to the project management plan D) To initiate a new project phase Answer: C 10. What does operational handoff refer to in project management, particularly for IT projects?

A) The process of transitioning project tasks to the project manager B) The phase of project planning where project goals are defined C) The final project team meeting before project closure D) The successful migration of completed product deliverables to the live environment and transfer of control to the client Answer: D

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 13 Project Management Tools 1. What is the primary purpose of a Gantt chart in project management?

A) Identifying potential project risks B) Monitoring project team’s performance C) Displaying project progress and completion D) Analyzing project stakeholder communication Answer: C 2. How is a milestone chart commonly used in project reporting?

A) To showcase individual team member contributions B) To track financial transactions and expenses C) To highlight potential risks and issues in the project D) To report progress in status meetings and project dashboards Answer: D 3. Besides tracking progress in Agile sprints, what other use does the burndown chart format have?

A) Cost reporting and budget management B) Reporting on project scope changes C) Managing stakeholder communications D) Tracking resource allocation in the project Answer: A 4. Which type of project network diagrams are used for depicting project activities and their relationships A) Financial flowcharts B) Organizational structure charts C) PERT charts and critical path diagrams D) Project communication matrices Answer: C 5. What is the benefit of creating process diagrams for procedures within a project?

A) To showcase project milestones B) To document project expenses C) To identify potential process improvements D) To determine stakeholder communication preferences Answer: C 6. When is the risk register typically created in a project?

A) During project planning B) During project initiation C) During project execution D) During project monitoring and controlling Answer: A 7. What information should be tracked in an issue log or issue register?

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A) Project tasks and milestones B) Issue priority, impact, type, owner, resolution date, and status C) Project budget and expenses D) Stakeholder communication and feedback Answer: B 8. What benefit does a project dashboard offer to stakeholders and team members?

A) It provides in-depth project documentation.

B) It offers real-time project communication.

C) It presents a comprehensive project timeline.

D) It enables direct project management by stakeholders.

Answer: B 9. Which tool is commonly used in software development for managing source code version control?

A) Microsoft Excel B) Microsoft Word C) Microsoft Azure DevOps Server D) Microsoft Project Answer: C 10. How do time-tracking tools differ from project scheduling software?

A) Time-tracking tools are used for creating Gantt charts, while project scheduling software logs time spent on tasks.

B) Time-tracking tools allow project managers to estimate the time needed for tasks, while project scheduling software tracks actual time spent.

C) Time-tracking tools and project scheduling software have the same functionalities and can be used interchangeably.

D) Time-tracking tools allow team members to log actual time spent on tasks, while project scheduling software focuses on task dependencies and timelines.

Answer: D

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 14 Quality and Performance Charts 1. What distinguishes a histogram from a standard bar graph?

A) A histogram uses different colors for each bar, while a standard bar graph uses only one color.

B) A histogram represents continuous data for a specific range, while a standard bar graph displays separate categories.

C) A histogram uses a circular shape for each bar, while a standard bar graph uses a rectangular shape.

D) A histogram depicts data in a three-dimensional format, while a standard bar graph is twodimensional.

Answer: B 2. What is the "80/20 rule" that the theory behind a Pareto chart is based on?

A) 80% of project tasks should be completed in the first 20% of the project timeline.

B) 80% of project problems are caused by 20% of the team members.

C) 80% of the project budget should be allocated to the 20% most critical tasks.

D) 80% of project problems are caused by 20% of the root causes.

Answer: D 3. How can run charts be used to measure the success of a solution in quality management?

A) By comparing the results of a run chart before and after implementing a solution B) By measuring the total number of data points on the y-axis of the chart C) By analyzing the distribution of data points above and below the center line D) By comparing the number of coding errors in different development teams Answer: A 4. You are looking at a scatter diagram with tightly aligned dots. What can you surmise from the chart?

A) There is no correlation between variables.

B) There is moderate correlation between variables.

C) There is a strong correlation between variables.

D) It is impossible to know without analyzing more data.

Answer: C 5. Which of the following terms is often used interchangeably with fishbone diagram?

A) Pareto chart B) Gantt chart C) Scatter plot D) Ishikawa diagram Answer: D 6. How are the upper control limit (UCL) and lower control limit (LCL) determined for a control chart?

A) They are fixed values based on industry standards.

B) They are randomly assigned by the project manager.

C) They are adjusted based on process monitoring and improvement.

D) They are calculated as the sum of all data points.

Answer: C 7. How can a velocity chart be used to estimate the time required to complete a project? .

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A) By calculating the total story points of the project and dividing by average velocity B) By comparing the committed hours to the completed hours C) By measuring the team's performance against committed hours D) By tracking the team's progress over time in terms of completed sprints Answer: A 8. What is the primary purpose of a decision tree analysis in project management?

A) To select the most common or familiar decision option B) To determine the path with the highest net gain or lowest loss C) To prioritize decision options based on their ease of implementation D) To calculate the exact costs associated with different decisions Answer: B 9. How does a burnup chart differ from a burndown chart? a) A burnup chart tracks the effort remaining, while a burndown chart tracks work completed. b) A burnup chart tracks work completed, while a burndown chart tracks work remaining. c) A burnup chart is used in Waterfall projects, while a burndown chart is used in Agile projects. d) A burnup chart only displays completed tasks, while a burndown chart displays both completed and remaining tasks.

Answer: B 10. What is the primary purpose of a fishbone diagram in project management?

A) To visualize project progress over time B) To track the usage of project resources C) To display a project's budget allocation D) To brainstorm potential causes of a problem Answer: D

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 15 Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Factors and Compliance, Data Security, and Privacy Considerations

1. What does the term unsustainable development refer to?

A) A project that focuses on short-term returns without considering long-term harm B) A project that has no positive impact on the environment C) A project that lacks proper stakeholder engagement D) A project that does not meet its financial goals Answer: A 2. Workplace accidents, discrimination, and lack of employee benefits are negative examples of which ESG factor?

A) Management B) Environmental C) Social D) Governance Answer: C 3. Which of the following regulations is concerned with corporate accounting practices and applies to publicly traded companies in the U.S.?

A) PCI DSS B) HIPAA C) SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley) D) GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act) Answer: C 4. What is the main reason for project managers to remain aware of the company's vision statement, mission, and corporate values?

A) To ensure compliance with ESG regulations B) To align the project with industry standards C) To improve the company's brand image D) To ensure that projects adhere to company standards Answer: D 5. Which category of access controls is enforced by policies, procedures, best practices, training, and testing?

A) Technical controls B) Managerial controls C) Operational controls D) Physical controls Answer: C 6. What is the purpose of using a Faraday cage in the context of mobile device security?

A) To block electromagnetic fields and secure mobile devices B) To create a secure backup of mobile device data C) To enhance GPS tracking capabilities .

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D) To facilitate remote wipe and lock features Answer: A 7. Which term refers to an area of a facility designed to restrict the entry of unauthorized personnel?

A) Turnstile B) Bollard C) Access control vestibule D) Intrusion system Answer: C 8. What is the purpose of background screening in the context of employment?

A) To verify the accuracy of a person’s educational experience B) To detect potential issues in a person’s background that could affect employment C) To assess an individual's financial health and credit history D) To provide access to classified national security information Answer: B) 9. Which factor is considered part of the characteristic factor in multifactor authentication?

A) Password B) Smart card C) Fingerprint D) Trusted device's GPS location Answer: C 10. Which role is responsible for accurately labeling and securing data records upon their entry into the organization?

A) Data subject B) Data user C) Data controller D) Data owner Answer: D

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CompTIA® Project+ PK0-005 Cert Guide (Abernathy & Lang) Chapter 16 Foundational IT Concepts and Operational Change Control for IT Project Management 1. What does the term computing services refer to?

A) Software B) Hosted computing services C) Telecommunication hardware D) All of the above Answer: D 2. What is the purpose of a data warehouse in an organization?

A) To store project documentation and artifacts B) To provide access to schematics and specifications C) To store data from multiple sources for decision-making D) To provide instructions to application users Answer: C 3. What is a key advantage of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

A) Customers are responsible for maintaining the physical data center B) Customers have complete control over the hardware and OS maintenance C) It provides built-in software components to speed up code writing D) It offers rapid scalability without maintenance costs Answer: D 4. What is a key characteristic of the Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

A) Requires the customer to provision users and manage access B) Provides only hardware resources for application development C) Requires the customer to handle all updates and patches D) Offers complete control over the operating system and middleware Answer: A 5. What is the primary purpose of Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems?

A) Collecting shared data from multiple sources for individual departments B) Automating business activities without integrating data from various sources C) Managing and integrating business activities using data from multiple sources D) Focusing on real-time operations without system integration for security Answer: C 6. What is the primary distinction between databases and data warehouses?

A) Databases hold all archived data, while data warehouses store current data.

B) Databases manage current organizational data, while data warehouses hold all archived data.

C) Databases store data for analysis, while data warehouses store data for daily operations.

D) Databases and data warehouses are terms used interchangeably in IT. Answer: B 7. Which of the following is NOT typically a feature of Electronic Document and Record Management Systems (EDRMS)?

A) Version automation .

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B) Document check-in/check-out C) Archival notification D) Financial transaction processing Answer: D 8. What is the purpose of a rollback plan in the context of IT infrastructure change control?

A) To allow the IT infrastructure to return to its previous state in case of issues B) To notify customers about upcoming IT infrastructure changes C) To ensure that project tasks are minimally affected by downtime D) To schedule planned outages during periods of lower demand Answer: A 9. In an on-premises deployment, who typically needs to be involved in the change control process?

A) Cloud service provider (CSP) staff B) External stakeholders C) Both internal and external personnel D) Only internal personnel Answer: D 10. What is the purpose of continuous integration (CI) in the software development process?

A) To automatically deploy code changes to production servers B) To synchronize code changes between multiple repositories C) To validate new components through automated testing D) To manage the release pipeline for software updates Answer: C

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