Choosing Health, 2E April Lynch Barry Elmore Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Choosing Health

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

April Lynch Barry Elmore Jerome Kotecki

Chapter 001 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

The current life expectancy at birth in the United States is 67.7 years.

72.7 years.

78.7 years.

82.7 years.

2

The four keys to good health include all the following except not smoking. following healthy eating habits. practicing relaxation techniques. exercising regularly.

3

Which of the following statements best defines the term disease as we understand it today?

It is a subjective state in which a person feels ill.

It is an alteration of a person's mental and physical state.

It is an imbalance of the body's internal fluids.

It is an alteration in body structure or biochemistry that causes the body's regulatory mechanisms to fail.

4

Intellectual health is characterized by being physically active. an openness to new ideas and skills and a capacity to think critically. the ability to perceive reality accurately. satisfying interactions with friends and family.

5

Psychological health is a broad category that encompasses all of the following except having healthy relationships. being physically fit. having autonomy. continually growing as a person.

6

Recall Corey's Student Story in the chapter. Corey is the student who has a large scar from surgery to correct a skeletal condition. Based on his story, he is at the low end of the wellness continuum. at the high end of the wellness continuum. moving in a negative direction in the wellness

continuum. in a diseased state.

7

All of the following has contributed to improvements in health and an increase in life expectancy in the United States except an increase in vigorous leisure­time exercise among the U.S. population. medical innovations. widespread vaccinations. safer food handling.

8

The leading cause of death in 15­24 year olds in the United States is heart disease. accidents/unintentional injuries. cancer. suicide.

9

One of the two primary initiatives of Healthy People 2020 is to explore strategies to increase awareness about immunizations. strategies to decrease substance abuse. strategies to achieve a long, healthy life expectancy for everyone. techniques to improve mental health.

10

The highest rates of hypertension are found in this ethnic population.

Asian Americans Caucasian Americans African Americans Native Americans

11

Which of the following statements is true regarding college students' health behaviors?

Unhealthy eating habits and physical inactivity are common for college students.

Research shows that students underestimate how many of their peers regularly use of alcohol, tobacco, and drugs.

Over 50% reported their health as fair to poor.

Over 50% meet the national recommendations for moderate physical activity.

12

The Healthy Campus initiative is

a federal initiative to facilitate broad, positive health changes in the U.S. population. an initiative to address health concerns for college students. a mandatory high school program focused on decreasing alcohol and drug abuse. a program outlining college campus progress towards meeting Healthy People 2020 goals.

13

Which of the following statements best reflects the relationship between college achievement and student health?

Stress has a positive effect on college achievement.

Exercising regularly significantly decreases academic performance because it decreases study time.

Tobacco use can increase academic performance since nicotine is a stimulant drug.

Negative health behaviors and illness can decrease academic performance.

14

The most common health problem reported by students in a recent nationwide study was allergies. bronchitis. strep throat. sinus infection.

15

According to a recent nationwide study on student health, most students describe their health as very good or excellent. good. fair. poor.

16

All of the following are true regarding college students and chronic illness risks except college students experience lower rates of chronic illness than the adult population as a whole. over 50% of all college students meet the American Heart Association's recommendations for physical activity. the majority of students report being at a healthy weight. college students often engage in behaviors that increase the risk of developing chronic illnesses.

17

Infectious diseases, such as malaria and cholera are a common problem in

the United States.

Northern Europe.

Canada.

Africa and Asia.

18

Infectious disease is a global health concern because airplane travel is a primary means of spreading the diseases. countries with more economic development face diseases that have been eradicated from other areas. vitamin and mineral deficiencies in the United States and Europe have increased the prevalence of deficiency diseases, such as rickets and scurvy. some infections have become resistant to treatment.

19

"Globesity" refers to increased global rates of HIV. increased global rates of infectious diseases. nutritional diseases around the world. increased global rates of obesity.

20

Global health concerns include all the following except obesity. nutritional deficiencies. upper respiratory infections. drug resistant strains of microorganisms.

21

Which of the following is true with respect to differences in health outcomes between men and women?

Women tend to live about 4 years longer than men.

Women have lower rates of disabling health problems such as arthritis.

Women are more likely to experience high blood pressure.

Women are more likely to abuse alcohol.

22

Which of the following terms describes health disparities between the rich and the poor? socioeconomic status cultural norms social biological differences status syndrome

23

Health literacy includes the ability to read, understand, evaluate, and follow medical instructions. make medical choices based on gut instinct. decide what medications are actually necessary to treat a condition. describe symptoms to a physician.

24

Life expectancy in the United States is highest for Hispanics.

African Americans.

Asian Americans.

Native Americans.

25

The highest incidence for cancer of any type is most common among Hispanics.

African American males.

Native Americans.

Caucasians females.

26

The following are all examples of enabling factors that influence health behavior except the financial ability to afford health care. the availability of fresh produce in your local grocery store. strong personal motivation and willpower. a history of cancer in your family.

27

Rewarding yourself for successfully quitting smoking would be an example of a(n) predisposing factor in behavior change. enabling factor in behavior change. reinforcing factor in behavior change. self­efficacy factor in behavior change.

28

The theory that a person progresses through six stages of change before achieving sustained behavior change is known as the stress­diasthesis model. transtheoretical model. health belief model. general adaptation syndrome model.

29

Kara wants to start jogging for exercise, has just

bought a pair of shoes and workout clothes, and has signed up to join a jogging group. Based on this information, what stage in the Stages of Change model is Kara in?

Contemplation Preparation Action Maintenance 30

Which of the following is true regarding the Maintenance stage of the Stages of Change Model?

The new behavior is maintained for only 3 months.

Relapses are unlikely.

It can last months or even years.

There is no longer a need to work actively to keep from reverting back to old habits.

31

Which of the following is not a factor in the Health Belief Model of behavior change?

Perceived threat Perceived benefit Cues to action Positive reinforcement

32

Recall Jasmine's Student Story in the chapter. Jasmine is the night owl who is a college freshman. Based on her story in your text, what does Jasmine need to work on changing?

Social relationships Sleep habits Eating habits Work schedule

33

Recall Jasmine's Student Story in the chapter. What benefit might Jasmine perceive as a motivator to changing her current behavior?

Achieving a better financial situation Getting higher grades in school Making lasting relationships Having more time to spend with family

34

Self efficacy, as it relates to behavior change, is all of the following except the belief that you can make successful change. demonstrating a sense of personal control over a situation. the view that you avoid thinking about a difficult situation. the ability to take action to change a behavior.

35

Strategies for successful behavior change include all of the following except learning behaviors by watching others. breaking a big task into smaller tasks. implementing punishment if change is not sustained. using positive self­talk.

36

Janet eats a large doughnut every morning with her coffee. Since she wants to decrease her intake of foods high in sugar and fat, she plans to start substituting a whole­wheat bagel for the doughnuts. She is practicing this strategy.

Self­discipline Cue control Counter conditioning Health belief

37

When looking for health information online, you should avoid sites with URLs that end with ".gov". stick to commercial sites advertising products and services. seek out sites with reputable professional accreditations. prioritize sites that are attractively designed.

38

An article about the results of the latest study on the health effects of vitamin B12 is more credible if it is carried out by an individual organization that sells a B12 product. the first study showing a health benefit for taking vitamin B12. supported by other researchers who have replicated the same results. lacking information about how the study was funded.

39

The top three causes of death in the United States are lifestyle­related diseases.

True False Through thermonuclear fusion, four protons (hydrogen nuclei) are transformed to a helium nucleus (two protons, two neutrons) and energy. This is called the proton–proton chain. The process changes a little bit of mass into energy (E = mc2) and the energy is produced

in the form of a gamma­ray photon, a positron (positively charged electron), which soon interacts with an electron and completely annihilates or turns into energy, and a neutrino.

40

A growing number of consumers are seeking health information on the internet.

True False A small amount of mass is transformed into energy through the proton–proton chain to produce energy through thermonuclear fusion: c = speed of light, m = mass, and E = energy (in joules).

41

A person suffering from a high level of stress will be moving in the negative direction of the wellness continuum regardless of efforts to manage the stress.

True False The layers are the core, the radiative zone, and the convective zone. In the core, the energy is produced by thermonuclear fusion and is transported outward by radiative diffusion, and this is called the radiative zone.

In the convective zone, energy is transported through fluid transfer in convective currents.

42

Being respected by coworkers is one sign of occupational health.

True False The layers are the photosphere, the chromosphere, and the corona. Essentially, all of the Sun's visible light emanates from a single, thin layer of gas called the photosphere or “sphere of light.” Granulation, or the bubbling convection currents of gas can be seen in the photosphere. The tenuous chromosphere can be seen as a glowing, pinkish layer of gas above the photosphere during a total solar eclipse. The corona, or outermost region of the Sun's atmosphere, begins at the top of the chromosphere. It extends out to a distance of several million kilometers. It is very thin and tenuous and the temperatures can reach 2 million K.

43

Colleges who participate in the Healthy Campus initiative can choose which health issues they want to focus on improving.

True False

Sunspots are dark, cooler areas on the photosphere of the Sun and often come in pairs or groups. They are formed by magnetic field loops getting tangled because of the differential rotation of the Sun, which causes magnetic polarity in the sunspots.

44

Student health influences whether a college meets its goal of providing the best education possible.

True False The Zeeman effect is the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a strong magnetic field. Features on the Sun, like sunspots, that display the Zeeman effect are strongly magnetic in nature.

45

According to research on student behaviors, over 40% smoke marijuana.

True False There is a cycle of increased and decreased solar activity on the Sun's surface, which includes sunspots.

From solar sunspot maximum to maximum, it is approximately 11 years. Because the magnetic polarity of the sunspot groups switches each sunspot cycle, it is sometimes said to be a 22­year cycle until the polarity cycles through two sunspot cycles.

46

Though individual factors influence our health, we all have the same basic health needs.

True False The corona is actually not very “hot,” that is, it contains very little thermal energy. The reason is that the corona is nearly a vacuum. Because of the corona's high temperature, the atoms there are moving at very high speeds. The corona's temperature is thought to be produced by magnetic heating.

47

Health literacy is the ability to evaluate and understand health information and make informed choices for your own health care.

True False Neutrinos are elementary particles that have little or no electric charge with little or no mass and weakly interact with matter. This means that they are difficult to detect. What they tell astronomers is if the models of thermonuclear fusion that produce the energy in the core of the Sun are correct.

48

Poverty is an example of a physical determinate of health.

True False Earth's magnetic field has important effects far above the atmosphere, where it interacts dramatically with charged particles from the Sun's solar wind. Some of these particles are able to leak through Earth's magnetic field at its weaker points and cascade down into Earth's upper atmosphere, where Earth's magnetic field connects with Earth near Earth's north and south poles. This is usually observed as a ring­shaped pattern above Earth's polar regions.

49

Societal pressures can undermine the emotional wellness of gay, lesbian, and transgender adults.

True False Astronomers can tell by looking at the splitting of the light spectra of sunspots. This only happens with objects that have strong magnetic fields.

50

Geographical differences such as air pollution and proximity to trauma centers can affect a person's health risks.

True False It was a period of time between 1645 and 1715 in which virtually no sunspots were observed. This shows that variations in solar activity seem to affect climates on Earth; however, the origin of this connection is still being studied.

51

People who are underinsured are as likely to have preventative screenings as higher income Americans.

True False The planet would need a magnetic field, an atmosphere and be near a star with a solar­type wind with charged particles for the magnetic field to deflect.

52

The Affordable Care Act has created exchange markets where the uninsured can purchase health insurance.

True False A prominence is a bright, arching column of gas that extends for tens of thousands of miles above the

photosphere. Violent, eruptive events on the Sun are called solar flares and occur in complex sunspot groups.

Coronal mass ejections are the most energetic of the three and are explosive events related to large­scale alterations in the Sun's magnetic field.

53

Native Americans have the lowest rates of diabetes in the world.

True False

54

State, local, and federal policies can indirectly have a positive effect on health.

True False

55

A person's attitude toward screening to detect diseases can be a predisposing factor that influences health behavior.

True False

56

Encouragements and rewards that promote positive behavior change are examples of predisposing factors.

True False

57

If a person is thinking about making a behavior change in the next few months, he/she has entered the precontemplation phase of the Transtheoretical Model.

True False

58

A person with an external locus of control has higher self­efficacy than someone with an internal locus of control.

True False

59

Telling yourself "I can train and run a 10K road race" is an example of "shaping."

True False

60

If you have a strong internal locus of control, you think that external events are out of your control.

True False

61

Social networks can provide an opportunity for health advocacy.

True False

62

"Media" includes books, magazines, newspapers, television, the internet, and advertising.

True False

63

Sites that end in ".gov" or ".edu" are more likely to provide credible information than ".com" sites.

True False

64

SMART goals should be based on those of celebrities in magazines who have been successful at losing weight or gaining muscle.

True False

65

Many Americans use search engines for information about their health.

True False

66

The ecological model of behavior change is based on an individual following three steps to achieve a change.

True False

67

The process of actively making choices to improve one's health is known as physical well­being.

True False

68

Health disparities are differences in quality of health among various segments of the population.

True False

69

Healthy Campus is an offshoot of the Healthy People initiative, specifically geared toward high school students.

True False

70

Healthy People 2020 takes an economical approach to health.

True False

71

Health literacy can be enhanced by the availability of medically­based websites.

True False

72

The first stage of change in the transtheoretical model of behavior change is understanding the severity of the behavior.

True False

73

Encouragements or rewards that promote positive behavior change are called reinforcing factors.

True False

74

Since Maria is fearful of heart disease, she is more likely to start exercising.

True False

75

The health belief model is a model of behavior change emphasizing personal beliefs in the process of creating effective change.

True False

76

Russ blames his lack of skills in math for his poor grades. He has an internal locus of control.

True False

77

A person with an external locus of control believes that the ability to change is out of his/her control.

True False

78

Ariana has started an exercise program to increase her strength for cheerleading. She follows her coaches' workout routines. She is practicing the technique of modeling.

True False

79

Match the following:

A smoker who doesn't think he has a health problem is in this stage of behavior change.

Precontemplation Stopping smoking to reduce the risk of lung cancer is an example of this.

Seeing a perceived benefit Someone who admits he has a smoking problem and is thinking about quitting is in this stage of behavior change.

Contemplation Seeing a friend die of lung cancer is an example of this.

Cue to action A theory describing the six stages a person goes through to stop smoking.

Transtheoretical model of change

80

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81

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82

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83

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84

Match the following:

Quality of relationships with others Social health How well the body functions Physical health Centers on the beliefs we hold that lend meaning to life Spiritual health Ability to perceive reality accurately Psychological health Capacity to think critically Intellectual health

85

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86

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87

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88

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89

Match the following:

An alteration in body structure or biochemistry significant enough to cause the body's regulatory mechanisms to fail.

Disease A state of well­being encompassing social, physical, and psychological dimensions.

Health The most preventable health problem in the United States.

Chronic disease An active process of being aware of and making choices toward a more successful existence.

Wellness A subjective state of not feeling well.

Illness

90

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91

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92

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93

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94

Match the following:

Rewards for sustained behavior change Reinforcing factors A person's internal dialogue Self­talk Division of a large task into smaller tasks Shaping

Learning by watching others Modeling Changing the stimuli that provoke the unwanted behavior Cue control

95

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96

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97

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98

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99

Describe the primary factors that affect personal health.

Answer: * Lifestyle choices­such as deciding not to smoke, to be

physically active, to avoid drinking excessively and eat nutritiously can greatly reduce risk of illness. * Age­as we get older, some diseases such as chronic illness, become more likely. * Sex­biological differences in gender can result in different health outcomes. * Ethnic background­health disparities exist between different population subgroups. * Geography­geographic region can affect exposure to diseases, risk factors, and access to health care. * Income and health insurance­people at lower socioeconomic levels or without health insurance are less likely to get preventive care. * Sexual orientation­Gay or bisexual men face greater risk of HIV/AIDS and other infectious diseases. Teens struggling with sexual orientation may face emotional challenges as well as physical abuse. * Health literacy­Health information and the healthcare system can often be confusing and complex. Those with better navigational skills can positively affect their health.

100

What are some health disparities that different ethnic groups face?

Answer: Hispanics are more likely to suffer from obesity or die from complications of stroke or diabetes. African American babies have higher infant mortality rates and adults are less like to have cancer diagnosed at an early stage. Although Asians typically have longer life spans, certain subgroups suffer from disparities such as a higher incidence of infectious diseases like Hepatitis B. Native Americans suffer from the highest rates of diabetes in the world. They also have shorter life expectancies due to high rates of accidental injuries, substance abuse, and suicide. Caucasian women have a higher rate of breast cancer. In addition, certain genetic diseases such as cystic fibrosis occur more frequently among Caucasians.

101

Choose a health behavior and using the transtheoretical model, outline the stages a person would progress through while trying to change the behavior.

Answer: Answers will vary depending upon behavior chosen. * Precontemplation­the person may not be aware that a problem exists and is not considering change.

* Contemplation­the person acknowledges the problem and thinks about changing it within the next 6 months. * Preparation­the person prepares for change by developing a plan for implementation within the next month. * Action­the person modifies behavior in an observable way. * Maintenance­the person maintains new behavior for at least 6 months and actively tries to prevent relapse. * Termination­the person has achieved behavior change and is confident that relapse will not occur.

102

Using the health belief model, provide an example of why someone would or would not get a recommended flu shot?

Answer: The perceived threat of actually contracting the flu would need to be compared to the perceived benefit (i.e., that getting a flu shot would prevent them from getting the flu). In addition, the individual would have to overcome perceived barriers such as the time, cost, dislike of shots, etc. If barriers are minimized and the perceived benefit is high, the person is likely to obtain the shot if they feel the threat is also high.

103

Give some examples of basic behavior change strategies people can use to increase their physical activity.

Answer: * They can model others who are more physically active by observing their behavior and trying to mimic it. * They can create a plan to shape the behavior. The plan should break up large tasks into smaller tasks that can be more easily accomplished. * Rewards should be built into the program. * The individual can also use positive self­talk (e.g. "I can be more physically active") to help overcome barriers in a constructive way.

104

When evaluating a health supplement, what are some things that you should consider when deciding whether to buy it?

Answer: You should evaluate the source carefully. The manufacturer will have a financial investment in the

product and is probably not the best resource to use.

Look for government, nonprofit, or educational sites that may have less biased information about the product. Trace information presented back to its source. Look for published research findings about the product and its uses. Look for the most relevant and up­to­date information.

Chapter 002 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Psychological health encompasses which of the following dimensions of health?

Spiritual Mental Emotional All of the answers are correct.

2

The capacity to make informed, un­coerced decisions is called autonomy. assertiveness. realism. self­esteem.

3

A sense of positive regard for oneself, resulting in elevated levels of self­respect, called realism. assertiveness. autonomy.

Self­acceptance.

4

Maslow's hierarchy of needs pyramid includes all of the following except physiological health. safety and security. self­esteem. need for entertainment.

5

Juanita is trying to improve her self­esteem. All of the following suggestions will help her except relying on others to take care of her responsibilities. learning something new. practicing positive self­talk. eating a healthy diet and exercising.

6

The psychological tendency to have a positive interpretation of life's events is called intimacy. optimism. pessimism. self­actualization.

7

Which of the following techniques can help increase

emotional intelligence?

Recognizing and naming your emotions when you feel them.

Thinking about other people's feelings and motivations in relation to specific situations or actions.

Accepting your own emotions without allowing them to override your priorities.

All of the answers are correct.

8

The most common feeling reported by college students is loneliness. being overwhelmed by all they had to do. hopelessness. overwhelming anger.

9

Having an optimistic outlook has been associated with all of the following except carrying less anger. a decreased likelihood of getting sick with serious or minor illness. a higher likelihood of developing diabetes. a better ability to cope with the ups and downs of illness.

10

People meditate for which of the following reasons?

To develop a greater sense of self­awareness.

To reach a higher level of consciousness.

To be more relaxed.

All of the answers are correct.

11

The practice of helping and giving to others out of a genuine concern for their well­being is called shyness. altruism. mindfulness. spirituality.

12

Which of the following is/are common side effects of antidepressants?

Sexual dysfunction Anxiety Insomnia All of the answers are correct.

13

Which of the following is the most effective way to deal

with feelings of anger?

Express feelings of anger in a way that releases emotions without damaging relationships.

Hold the feelings inside.

Express anger impulsively and aggressively.

Refrain from expressing negative emotions.

14

Mental disorders can be caused by past or current experiences. extreme stress. chemical imbalances.

All of the answers are correct.

15

Major depressive disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences five or more depressive symptoms for at least two weeks straight. occasional loss of interest in things that were once important. mild chronic depressive symptoms for two or more years. apprehension in social situations.

16

Which of the following increase a person's risk for depression?

Being pessimistic Loss of a relationship Having a limited network of emotional support All of the answers are correct.

17

Which of the following statements is true regarding mental disorders and minorities?

The tendency toward depression is more inborn in minorities than in heterosexual Caucasians.

African Americans and Mexican Americans have lower rates of depression than Caucasians.

The challenges many minorities face increase their likelihood of developing depression.

Most minorities have mental­health insurance coverage.

18

Which factor has the most measurable effect on the rate of mental illness?

Discrimination Placement in foster care Exposure to violence

Living in poverty 19

Which of the following is true of men and depression?

Men are more likely than women to seek treatment for depression.

Men do not experience any physical effects of depression.

Men are more likely to turn to drugs and alcohol to deal with depression than women.

Men with depression are less likely to contract heart disease.

20

Which of the following is not true of antidepressants?

They work by normalizing the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin, norepinephrine, or dopamine.

Abruptly stopping use of antidepressants can cause withdrawal symptoms.

The same drug that helps one person may not help another person.

They have no side effects.

21

Attention­deficit/hyperactivity disorder can cause which of the following?

Impulsivity Inattention Fidgeting All of the answers are correct.

22

Sudden feelings of terror that strike without warning are characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder. depression. a panic attack. seasonal affective disorder.

23

All of the following statements regarding generalized anxiety disorder are true except its sufferers feel worry, anxiety and pessimism even when there is little or nothing to provoke it. physical symptoms, such as headaches, muscle tension, and difficulty swallowing often accompany the anxiety. it affects twice as many men as women. it can be diagnosed when the symptoms last six months or more.

24

Which of the following are signs of social anxiety disorder?

Cancelling social engagements at the last moment Having few friends who really know you Avoiding enjoyable activities because they require social interaction All of the answers are correct.

25

A person with obsessive­compulsive disorder concerned about germs may be embarrassed about his or her repeated rituals. perform hand washing more than 100 times per day. get brief relief by repeating a ritual.

All of the answers are correct.

26

After witnessing a fatal automobile accident, Marisela developed this disorder that causes her to feel depressed and emotionally numb. She has also has reoccurring nightmares about the accident scene. Her symptoms are characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder. obsessive compulsive disorder. panic disorder. post traumatic stress disorder.

27

To treat his fear of heights, Michael underwent systematic desensitization. Which of the following was/were likely components of his treatment?

Climbing stairs or taking an elevator to gradually increasing heights Talking to a therapist about the anxiety he feels Having the assistance of a therapist while dealing with the anxiety accompanying his ascent All of the answers are correct.

28

All of the following are symptoms of schizophrenia except delusions. hallucinations. the ability to distinguish what is real from what is imaginary. inappropriate emotions.

29

People who commit self­injury usually do so for all of the following reasons except to deal with negative or overwhelming emotions.

to get attention. to kill themselves. to punish themselves.

30

Recall the Student Story about Kristina. After Kristina's friend committed suicide, what became more important in her life?

Attending social events Traveling frequently Developing closer relationships with her friends and family Focusing on her own mortality

31

The highest suicide rates are in this ethnic group.

Hispanics Asian Americans African Americans Native Americans and Caucasians

32

Self­care includes all of the following except eating well. getting enough sleep. getting enough exercise. drinking alcohol to help deal with stress.

33

Which of the following mental health professionals has the authority to prescribe medications?

Counselors Psychologists Psychiatrists None of the answers are correct.

34

A mental health professional with a doctoral degree but not a medical degree describes which of the following?

A psychiatrist A psychologist A counselor None of the answers are correct.

35

Cognitive therapy focuses on changing unconscious sources for a person's behavior. negative and distorted thoughts. a person's level of optimism. a person's response to medication.

36

Justin is seeking the help of a therapist. Which of the following factors should he discuss before his first session?

The cost The therapist's credentials and approach to therapy The experience the therapist has in helping others with similar issues All of the answers are correct.

37

Behavioral therapy includes all the following techniques except exposure therapy. biofeedback. negative reinforcement. positive reinforcement.

38

Although Jenna has a 3.8 GPA, she doesn't believe she is a good student. What type of cognitive distortion is this?

Disqualifying the positive Overgeneralization Minimizing Catastrophizing

39

An emerging field of psychology that focuses on increasing psychological strengths and improving happiness rather than on psychological problems is psychodynamic therapy. positive psychology. behavioral therapy. cognitive therapy.

40

In psychodynamic therapy the therapist and patient explore the patient's conscious behaviors. unresolved issues buried in the unconscious. incorporating positive ideas. how to identify distorted, negative thinking.

41

When her boyfriend is feeling slighted over an event that occurred at work, Meghan feels that she is at fault for his negative feelings. This is an example of overgeneralization. personalization. emotional reasoning. mental filtering.

42

Sue failed the first test in her statistics class. She is

now convinced she is a total failure and will never graduate college. This type of destructive thought is called personalization. emotional reasoning. magnification. all­or­nothing thinking.

43

John gets up every ten minutes to make sure he turned off the oven. This is an example of obsessive­compulsive disorder. personalization. panic attacks. post­traumatic stress disorder.

44

Justine, who has ________ disorder, has periods of depression followed by periods of mania. generalized anxiety disorder schizophrenia bipolar attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

45

A phobia of heights is classified as a(n) ________ phobia. situational natural environment injury animal

46

A World Health Organization survey of 17 countries found that the United States has the highest lifetime prevalence of DSM mental disorders.

True False

47

The typical college student is likely to experience loneliness, sadness, anxiety or stress at some point.

True False

48

Mental health is the component of psychological health that pertains to a person's feelings and emotions.

True False

49

Spirituality can mean different things to different people.

True False

50

Individuals with high self­esteem tend to be more resilient and optimistic than those with a low self­ esteem.

True False

51

An assertive person uses anger and hostility to make a point.

True False

52

A person who is autonomous relies on the judgment of others when making decisions.

True False

53

Misdiagnosis of mental health disorders is more common in minorities than in Caucasians.

True False

54

Emotional intelligence is the same thing as intellectual intelligence.

True False

55

The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs is having a high self­esteem.

True False

56

A person needs to belong to an organized religion to have spirituality.

True False

57

The values a person has as an adult are developed shortly after birth and remain unchanged.

True False

58

Optimists are more likely than pessimists to succeed academically.

True False

59

Physical health can decline when a person has a negative outlook or high levels of stress and anxiety.

True False

60

Only 10% of college students consider themselves shy.

True False Stellar parallax is the most straightforward way of measuring stellar distances. This is the apparent displacement of an object because of a change in the observer's point of view. To measure this shift against a background of stars, these views should be taken at opposite sides of Earth's orbit, 6 months apart from each other. Distances can be measured in parsecs for relatively nearby stars.

61

Shyness is a result of genetics and cannot be altered by a person's environment.

True False

A parsec is defined as the distance at which a star has a parallax of 1 arcsecond; 1 parsec = 3.26 light­years.

62

Loneliness can cause depression and other health problems.

True False Apparent magnitude is how bright a star appears from Earth using Hipparcos's magnitude scale with 6 being stars that are barely visible to the unaided eye and increasing in brightness with decreasing numbers of magnitude. Absolute magnitude is the actual brightness of a star on the stellar magnitude scale as the star would look if it were at a standard 10 parsecs away from Earth.

63

Holding in angry feelings can be as physiologically damaging as expressing anger or rage.

True False The stars are dimmer as the numbers get bigger and more positive. If a star were to have a negative number it would be brighter than the positive values. In addition, the magnitude is not linear. A magnitude difference corresponds to a factor of 100 in brightness and a change in one magnitude is a difference in 2.512 times of brightness.

64

Because bad moods are the result of external, uncontrollable factors, they are out of a person's control.

True False With greater distance from the star, its light is spread over a larger area and its apparent brightness is less.

Because total surface area of a sphere is proportional to the distance squared, this is where the squared part of the relationship is derived. The inverse relationship is because the farther away you get from the source, the dimmer the object appears.

65

Depressive disorders often occur in conjunction with anxiety disorders and substance abuse.

True False The hotter a star is, the more light it emits across the spectrum; however, the wavelength with the peak intensity is determined solely by the temperature as stated by Wien's law. Therefore, the star's apparent

color depends on whether the intensity curve has larger values at the short­wavelength or long­wavelength end of the visible spectrum.

66

Anxiety disorders are the most common mental health problems among American adults.

True False In a popular classification scheme that emerged in the late 1890s, a star was assigned a letter from A through O according to the obvious presence of particular hydrogen lines in the star's spectrum, from greatest to least. However, nineteenth­century science could not explain why or how the spectral lines of a particular chemical are affected by the density and temperature of the gas. Since then, many of the original A through O classes were dropped and others were consolidated.

The remaining spectral classes were reordered in the current OBAFGKM sequence.

67

Panic disorder can lead to agoraphobia.

True False Below 4000 K, certain atoms in a star's atmosphere combine to form molecules. At higher temperatures atoms move so fast that when they collide, they bounce off each other rather than “sticking together” to form molecules. As these molecules vibrate and rotate, they produce bands of spectral lines of titanium oxide (TiO), which are strongest for surface temperatures of about 3000 K.

68

A debilitating symptom of panic disorder is the dread of the next panic attack.

True False Brown dwarfs are not really stars and not really planets either. These “substars” are too small to sustain thermonuclear fusion in their cores. Instead, these objects glow primarily from the heat released by contraction. They produce a spectrum that is strongest in the infrared.

69

Social anxiety disorder can lead a person to isolation.

True False

See Figure 10­15 (Slater) p. 248.

70

Women's risks of short­term and long­term depression can be increased by hormonal shifts.

True False Through the inverse squared relationship for light intensity versus distance, you can solve for distance if you know how bright the star appears in the sky and how bright it actually is based on spectroscopic analysis.

71

The most common anxiety disorder is schizophrenia.

True False You can find the temperature of a star based on its color, or more specifically, the wavelength of the maximum amount of light that is emitted from the star.

72

Schizophrenia is effectively treated with systematic desensitization therapy.

True False You can find a star's radius from its luminosity and surface temperature and the Stefan­Boltzmann law.

You could also confirm the size of a star based on the characteristics of a light curve from an eclipsing binary star system, specifically the amount of time that a star's light is blocked by the other star and the speed of the object in its orbit.

73

More women die from committing suicide than men.

True False You can measure the mass of a star if it is in orbit around another star in a binary system and use a modified Kepler's law relationship to calculate the masses.

74

Antidepressants often cause a change in the level of serotonin, a type of neurotransmitter.

True False

75

Brian has difficulty expressing his feelings and struggles with depression. These issues will most largely impact his emotional dimension of psychological health.

True False

76

Sudden feelings of terror that strike without warning describes schizophrenic attacks.

True False

77

Match the following:

Self­ actualization After getting married and completing his Ph.D., Enrique achieved his lifelong goals.

Self­esteem Brittany respects herself, believes in her abilities, and is satisfied with her achievements.

Optimism Susan views her life with a positive interpretation.

Assertiveness David expresses his needs and wants to others in appropriate ways.

Autonomy No longer living at home, Julia must decide for herself which college she will attend.

78

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CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 79

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80

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81

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82

Match the following:

Mental health the "thinking" component of psychological health Spirituality being connected to something larger than yourself Emotional health the component of psychological health dealing with feelings Emotional intelligence being able to monitor, assess and manage emotions

Spiritual health the component of psychological health associated with a connection to a higher purpose

83

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84

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85

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86

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87

Match the following:

Bipolar disorder Ana has occurrences of mania followed by occurrences of depression.

Social anxiety disorder

When Rick has to do a class presentation, he experiences symptoms of increased heart rate, trembling, and stuttering.

Generalized anxiety disorder For the past six months, Davis has experienced chronic worry that seems to be out of his control.

Depressive disorder For months, Paula has had no interest in daily life and doesn't get out of bed most days.

Postpartum depression Luci is a new mother and experiences this form of depression.

88

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89

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90

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91

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TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 92

Discuss five characteristics of a psychologically healthy person.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Expresses feelings in ways that are honest, self­ accepting, and not harmful to others. * Prevents and manages stress and conflict in ways that lead to optimal health. * Seeks help for disruptive or troublesome feelings. * Focuses on positive rather than self­destructive activities. * Uses self­control. * Is empathetic towards others. * Understands and fulfills personal responsibilities. * Establishes and maintains relationships that are fulfilling, supportive, and based on mutual respect.

93

Discuss three ways to build self­esteem.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Take care of yourself by making time to exercise, eat right, and have fun. * Pat yourself on the back. * Practice positive self­talk. * Stretch your abilities by trying something new. * Tackle your to do list. * Listen to yourself. * Reach out and help others.

94

Explain the relationship between optimism and health.

Answer: Optimism helps patients fighting serious disease maintain a positive outlook. Optimistic people are more likely to live longer and less likely to get sick with minor illness.

95

Explain three ways depressed men differ from depressed women.

Answer: Rather than being sad, they may become angry, irritable, or abusive. They are more likely than women to self­medicate with alcohol and drug abuse. They are also more likely to be successful when attempting suicide.

96

Discuss three self­care strategies for overcoming mental or emotional stress.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Get some exercise * Set realistic goals * Take steps to build your self­esteem * Eat well * Get the right amount of sleep

97

Explain the difference between dysthymia and major depressive disorder.

Answer: A person must experience five or more depression symptoms including loss of interest or pleasure for at least two weeks straight to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Dysthymia is milder, chronic depression that persists for at least two years.

98

Discuss two reasons why women may be more prone to depression than men.

Answer: Any two of the following: * The hormonal shifts that women experience with menstruation, pregnancy, postpartum, and menopause increase their risk of depression. * Women who work full time and raise children have more stress that may lead to depression. * Women experience higher rates of sexual abuse, poverty, and low self­esteem than men, which can lead to depression.

99

What symptoms might a college student with attention­ deficit/hyperactivity disorder manifest?

Answer: The student may have trouble remembering, concentrating, and following directions. He or she may

also be anxious, chronically late, and disorganized; may have problems in relationships; and may have academic difficulties because the disorder makes it difficult to complete tasks.

100

What signs can you look for in a friend to be aware he or she is contemplating suicide?

Answer: Listen for statements implying an intended suicide.

Look for changes in a friend's behavior and personality that focused on hopelessness and negative thoughts.

Be aware of a friend's social withdrawal from friends, hobbies, and activities. Look for expressions of self­ hatred and apathy.

Chapter 003 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Which of the following statements best reflects the degree to which stress impacts college students?

It has little impact on college students.

It only affects high achieving students.

It has a positive effect on academic performance.

It's the most commonly reported obstacle to academic achievement.

2

Which of the following is a likely source of eustress?

Getting a zero for failing to turn in an assignment Getting in a car accident Starting a new job Having an argument with a close friend

3

The difference between distress and eustress is that the body does not respond to eustress. the body responds differently to distress and eustress. only eustress produces harmful effects on the body. distress is caused by negative stressors and eustress is caused by positive stressors.

4

The fight­or­flight mechanism causes all of the following except the speeding up of digestion. the increasing of blood pressure. the releasing of adrenaline. sweating.

5

The initial release of stress hormones triggered by a stressor occurs in the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. alarm resistance exhaustion homeostatic

6

Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is characterized by the body's attempt to restore homeostasis?

Alarm Resistance

Exhaustion Homeostatic 7

Jason has been overwhelmed this semester. He has fallen behind in all of his classes and, after two weeks of cramming and getting very little sleep, he has developed tension headaches. In addition, he has trouble eating. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Jason experiencing?

Alarm Resistance Exhaustion Allostasis

8

Which of the following is an example of the indirect relationship between stress and CVD? Increased blood pressure Damage to internal organs from hypertension Increased likelihood of obesity due to overeating Increased inflammation in artery walls

9

Chronic stress syndrome is the result of an isolated stressful event. being in the recovery stage of GAS for a prolonged time. a low allostatic load. maintaining flight or fight for an extended time.

10

Which of the following is not a behavioral warning sign of stress overload?

Having an asthma attack Overreacting after making a B on a quiz Drinking alcohol to try to relax Withdrawing from a group of friends

11

Emotional issues associated with stress overload include eustress. mood swings. stooped posture. migraine headaches.

12

Psychoneuroimmunology is the study of the interaction of psychological processes with the nervous system, hormones, and the immune system. the nervous system, the cardiovascular system, and

the digestive system. the respiratory system, the immune system, and panic attacks. hormones, white blood cells, and hemoglobin.

13

The effects of stress on body weight include all the following except increased weight due to increased snacking on comfort foods. decreased weight caused by decreased appetite. decreased weight caused by diarrhea. decreased weight caused by increased economic stress.

14

The body's inability to maintain homeostasis results in disease. increased fluid retention. increased energy. decreased allostatic load.

15

An example of a major life event stressor is getting a speeding ticket. having the flu for 2 weeks. getting a divorce. losing ten dollars.

16

All of the following are good strategies of coping with financial stress except using a credit card to pay your tuition. developing a budget and keeping track of expenditures. cutting back on items you truly don't need. talking to a financial aid advisor.

17

Financial stress can be lessened by examining your lifestyle and distinguishing luxuries from necessities. All of the following are luxuries that can increase budget expenses except magazine subscriptions. money for rent. sodas. a new cell phone.

18

Common causes of stress include all of the following except

financial issues. supportive social networks. daily hassles. living in an unsafe neighborhood.

19

Stress caused by procrastination is an example of an environmental stressor. a social stressor. an internal stressor. a daily hassle.

20

All the following personality traits are linked to an improved ability to adapt to stress except optimism. hostility. resiliency. hardiness.

21

You can try to reduce and better manage the stressors in your life by making changes to your daily routine. giving yourself opportunities to relax. thinking about stress in useful ways.

All answers are correct.

22

Healthy strategies for managing your stress include all of the following except exercising regularly. making time for leisure activities. getting 5 hours of sleep per night. expressing your feelings.

23

An example of effective time management is setting a timeline for completing an end­of­the semester project. putting off working on a research paper because you prefer to do your math homework. forcing yourself to finish a long assignment even though you are tired. making sure every minute of time in your schedule is used.

24

Exercise helps with the stress response by elevating levels of cortisol in the bloodstream.

keeping the body from reaching homeostasis. allowing the fight­or­flight response to do what it is supposed to do. increasing caloric expenditure.

25

To eat well when stressed it is important to drink caffeine to stay alert throughout your waking hours. drink sugared sodas rather than juices, which take longer to digest. eat larger meals at night when you are hungrier. keep healthy snacks with you to eat when you're on the go.

26

Strategies for developing support when under stress include all the following except talking to professors. connecting with others who understand your situation and the stresses you face. communicating with friends from home. occasionally use recreational drugs and alcohol with friends to alleviate stress.

27

All of the following can reduce the stress of test taking except scheduling your study time. staying calm. talking with other students right before the test. talking with your instructor about your test anxiety.

28

Looking back over your test when finished can improve your test­taking by allowing you to complete or change an answer because you remembered something. make sure you didn't skip any questions. change the answer to a question you initially misread.

All the answers are correct.

29

Jason suffers from test anxiety. When feeling anxious during a test, what should he do?

Remind himself that some anxiety is normal.

Concentrate on the fear and emotional response he is experiencing.

Accept that he is not in control of the situation.

Take rapid, deep breaths.

30

An example of a good test­taking skill is getting enough sleep. eating a large meal so that you feel full during the test. arriving a few minutes late so that others won't distract you. working on the difficult questions first.

31

When taking a test, you should answer the hard questions first. the easy questions first. the questions in the order in which they are presented. all the questions as quickly as possible.

32

To motivate yourself to exercise to relieve stress, you should consider enrolling in an exercise class. doing the same exercise every day. not scheduling a time to exercise. including exercises that you don't enjoy.

33

Which of the following exercises best improves relaxation by focusing on breathing? jogging yoga swimming weight training

34

To gain the most information about tests and how to succeed in a course, look at the course syllabus. the schedule of classes. the course web site. both the syllabus and the web site of the course.

35

All of the following are proper deep breathing techniques except breathing in through the nose out through the mouth. making sure the shoulders rise and fall with each breath. breathing slow, deep breaths. expanding the abdomen and chest.

36

All of the following are relaxation techniques that loosen tight muscles except progressive muscular relaxation. meditation. yoga. massage.

37

Listening to music to relieve stress is most effective if it is a loud volume. a medium volume. a soft volume. a fast beat.

38

All the following are effective ways to change your perceptions of stressors except setting realistic expectations. build your self­ esteem. have a sense of humor. be more critical of yourself.

39

All of the following are traits of a type A personality except impatient. free­floating hostility. free spirited. irritable.

40

Deep breathing exercises will result in lower stress levels. increased metabolism. activation of the flight­or­flight mechanism. the production of adrenaline.

41

Which of the following statements is true regarding gender and stress?

Men report higher levels of stress than women.

More men than women report they're doing a good job managing stress.

Men are more likely to engage in sedentary behavior to relieve stress.

Talking to friends was the leading stress reducing technique for men and women.

42

Listening attentively to calming music has been found to

increase stress. decrease blood pressure. decrease blood glucose. activate the fight­or­flight response.

43

The relaxation technique targeted at releasing physical tension is listening to music. creative visualization. progressive muscle relaxation. biofeedback.

44

The Transition Year Campaign is designed to help non­traditional college students.

Baby Boomers with changing social roles. students who are at risk for suicide. first year college students.

45

Which of the following would be most helpful in keeping everyday stressors from becoming overwhelming?

Setting goals high enough that they can't be attained Focusing on times that you failed to accomplish what you wanted to Accepting that you can't control certain things in your life Trying to avoid stressful events such as writing a research paper due at the end of the semester

46

Which of the following is an example of being proactive?

on 47

Studying before a test Waiting until the last minute to write a paper Not filling your gas tank until the "empty" light goes Exercising only when you feel like it

All of the following are effective strategies for managing debt except seek advice from free websites sponsored by your financial aid office. ask for an emergency loan from financial aid services to pay off high interest rate credit cards. open several credit cards to spread debt balance. seek campus and/or consumer debt relief programs and classes.

48

Finding humor in a situation can reduce stress by helping you to build problem­solving skills. put your stressors and their relative importance into perspective. increase social skills. decide what matters in the long term.

49

The first step in a stress management plan is to ignore stressors. plan ahead to improve time management. evaluate your personality type. make a list of stressors.

50

Which of the following would be the least effective strategy to manage stress? take a natural anti­depressant talk to a doctor talk to a therapist exercise

51

PTSD stands for post­traumatic situational disorder. stress disorder. stimuli distress. systemic disorder.

52

Long­term, life­changing stressors are called ________ stressors. chronic acute responsive allostatic

53

Researchers theorize that ________ allows the body to complete the fight­or­flight response by actually doing what it has been prepared to do. sleep talking physical activity the environment

54

Worry is a(n) ________ stressor. external

physical social internal 55

Being in a traffic jam is an example of a(n) environmental stressor. daily hassle. social stressor. emotional trigger.

56

The body's fight or flight response to eustress does not produce the increases in heart rate and breathing that are triggered during a state of distress.

True False

57

The body would respond physiologically the same whether you were attending your college graduation ceremony or getting stopped by the police for speeding.

True False

58

Students view stress as a primary obstacle to their academic achievement.

True False

59

The body tries to restore homeostasis in the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

True False

60

Acute stress increases your risk of chronic diseases.

True False

61

Stress contributes to the development of depression.

True False

62

Psychoneuroimmuniology associates stress with illness.

True False

63

Different personality types perceive stress differently in their lives.

True False

64

Recording thoughts and feelings in a journal can stimulate thinking and feeling more positively about yourself.

True False

65

Seeking support may decrease the likelihood of depression.

True False

66

Sleeping can help reduce stress by allowing the body time to recover.

True False

67

Taking time to do hobbies can increase stress.

True False

68

Self talk can be used to boost self­esteem.

True False

69

All stress is harmful.

True False

70

Chronic stress causes ulcers.

True False

71

A stressor is a condition or event that causes stress.

True False

72

The two small organs that sit atop your kidneys and produce stress hormones are called the pituitary glands.

True False

73

Epinephrine increases blood glucose.

True False

74

A person is most likely to get an infection during the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

True False

75

The short­term adaptive response that helps the body

deal with the challenges of stress is called allostatic load.

True False

76

Scientists specializing in psychoneuroimmunology study interactions among psychological processes, the nervous system, hormones, and the immune system.

True False

77

Listening to soft music can help activate your body's relaxation response, slowing your breathing and metabolism.

True False

78

Progressive Muscular Relaxation involves pressure, stretching, heat and cold to relieve muscular tension.

True False

79

Too much caffeine, a chemical substance found in coffee, can cause symptoms such as jitteriness and worsen your stress.

True False

80

Match the following:

An event that would cause excitement Eustress Any event that causes stress Stressor The body's preferred physiological balance

Homeostasis Negative stress Distress Reaction to an unexpected stimulus Stress Changes that occur when a body attempts to cope with a stressor Stress response

81

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82

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83

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84

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85

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86

Match the following:

Theory that attempts to explain the biology of stress General adaptation syndrome Maintaining stability through change Allostasis Physiological reaction, such as increased blood pressure, to a stressor Fight­or­flight response The feeling of being mentally and physically stressed out Allostatic overload Symptoms associated with prolonged exposure to body's stress response Chronic stress syndrome A dark nebula is so opaque that it blocks any visible light coming from stars that lie behind it. An emission nebula emits its own light, with the characteristic emission line spectrum similar to that of a hot, thin gas glowing pink. A reflection nebula looks like a bluish haze and is caused by fine grains of dust in a lower concentration than is found in dark nebulae. The characteristic blue color comes from an effect that causes Earth's sky to appear blue.

87

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FOR ON­LINE DISPLAY. THIS TEXT WAS INSERTED TO MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 88

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89

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90

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91

Match the following:

Triggers the fight­or­flight response Alarm Study of the physical and psychological interactions of systems in response to stress Psychoneuroimmunology Theory that explains the biology of stress General adaptation syndrome

Protective physiological adaptation Resistance Low­mass stars are formed from a large cloud of dust and gas that collapses under the force of gravity and becomes a protostar. It becomes a zero­age main­ sequence star when it starts its thermonuclear reactions in the core. It spends most of its life as a main­ sequence star and when it runs out of fuel—converting from hydrogen to helium—it becomes a red giant. When it finishes its red­giant phase, it expels its outer layers in a planetary nebula phase and then the core collapses down to a white dwarf.

92

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93

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94

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95

Distinguish between the two types of stress and give an example of each.

Answer: * Eustress is stress caused by something pleasant such as getting a promotion or graduating from college. * Distress is stress caused by something unpleasant.

Examples include having an accident or making a bad grade in a class.

* Both types of stress trigger the fight­or­flight response even though eustress may result in excitement while distress results in unpleasant feelings and anxiety.

96

Describe the body's physiological changes to the fight­ or­flight stress response.

Answer: Stress hormones are released (cortisol, adrenaline) that increase heart rate and blood pressure. The pupils of the eye dilate. Digestion slows as blood diverts to the muscles. The clotting factor in the blood increases. The liver releases glucose, which will be used for energy.

97

When exercising for stress management, what are some things that you can do to try to maximize the benefit and stay on track with the program?

Answer: Design a daily program utilizing activities that use large muscle groups (activities such as walking, cycling, resistance training, etc.) that continue for at least 20 minutes. To stay with the program, enlist a friend to workout with you, plan exercise into your schedule, or consider taking a structured fitness class. Vary your activity and choose something fun.

98

What are the primary health effects of long­term stress?

Answer: * Increased blood pressure can eventually lead to damage to both internal organs, such as the heart, and blood vessels. Also, stress can contribute to heart disease risk factors such as obesity and diabetes. * Stress can also lead to sleep disturbances, stomach problems, muscular tension and a weakened immune system.

99

Give examples of three common causes of stress and a strategy for coping with each.

Answer: Causes: * Financial * Daily hassles * Academic pressures * Job­related stress

* Social stressors * Environmental stressors * Internal stressors Strategies: Answers will vary. Examples include: * Stay focused and keep a realistic perspective * Strengthen your support network * Communicate * Keep a journal * Take time for hobbies and leisure * Eat well * Exercise 100

Eric is a student who is encountering academic problems. He has trouble fitting everything in that he needs to do and frequently stays up most of the night to try to catch up. What tips can you give Eric to help him deal with his stressors?

Answer: Answers will vary, but could include: * Take a workshop or class to improve your skills (study skills, test­taking skills, time management, etc.). * Keep a planner and break down large projects into smaller tasks. * Do what you like least, first. * Leave time in your schedule for unforeseen events and reward yourself periodically.

Chapter 004 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Diets lacking nutrients cause all the following except a decreased sense of well being. an increased energy level. an increased risk for chronic diseases such as heart disease and diabetes. an increased risk for obesity.

2

All the following are classified as macronutrients except carbohydrates. fats. calories. water.

3

Which of the following supplies the most energy?

A food that contains 10g of fat, 3g of protein, and 10g of carbohydrate A food that contains 10g of carbohydrate, 10g of protein, and 3g of fat A multivitamin with 600mg of calcium and B­ complex A 120­calorie protein drink

4

Which of the following has the most calories per gram?

Carbohydrates Protein Minerals Alcohol

5

Which of the following, consumed in excess, is/are stored as fat in the body?

Carbohydrates Fat Alcohol All of the answers are correct.

6

The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of 98% of all healthy people of similar age and gender is the on a high protein, low carbohydrate diet. Which of the following is a RDA.

UL. EAR. AI. 7

Which of the following does not contain complex carbohydrate?

Whole wheat bread Milk Beans Pasta

8

Why are unrefined grains a better choice for carbohydrates than refined grains?

They have fewer calories per serving.

They are lower in fat.

They have more fiber and nutrients.

They are less filling.

9

What percentage of daily calories should come from carbohydrates?

20­40 60­70 45­65 12­15

10

Lipids have all the following characteristics except they are not soluble in water. they have fewer calories per gram than carbohydrates or proteins. they help the body absorb fat­soluble vitamins. they help to cushion and insulate organs.

11

Saturated fats have all the following characteristics except they have a long shelf life. they are stable. there are associated with a decreased risk of heart disease. they are solid at room temperature.

12

Liz wants to increase her consumption of monounsaturated fats. Which of the following oils should she use?

Olive oil Soybean oil Corn oil Palm oil

13

Which of the following is not full of empty calories?

Alcohol Hot dog Peanut butter sandwich Doughnuts

14

David wants to eliminate trans fats from his diet. Which of the following is the best way for him to avoid trans fats in the foods he consumes?

Purchasing foods labeled "0 trans fats per serving" Purchasing stick margarine instead of vegetable oil Consuming only reduced fat snack foods Avoiding any food listing "hydrogenated" or "partially hydrogenated oils" in the ingredients

15

Fats should constitute ________% of daily caloric intake.

10­20 15­17 20­35 40­55

16

Chris is trying to reduce his fat intake. Which of the following changes should he make?

Replace ice cream with sorbet or sherbet.

Bake or broil meat instead of frying.

Choose baked potatoes instead of fries.

All of the answers are correct.

17

Which lipid is a key component in cell membranes?

Omega­6 fatty acid Triglyceride Phospholipid DHA

18

Which of the following is not a fat­soluble vitamin?

Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin C Vitamin E

19

All of the following statements regarding vitamin supplementation are true except

excessive consumption of vitamin supplements can be toxic. women of child­bearing age should consume 400mcg of folic acid daily. everyone should take vitamin supplements. anyone who doesn't get enough sun exposure should supplement with vitamin D. 20

All of the following are classified as major minerals except calcium. iron. magnesium. sulfur.

21

Water plays a role in digestion. nutrient absorption. regulating body temperature.

All of the answers are correct.

22

Which of the following help improve bone density?

Dietary calcium Vitamin D Weight­bearing exercise All of the answers are correct.

23

Fiber helps prevent all the following except high blood pressure. constipation. hemorrhoids. high blood cholesterol.

24

All of the following are true regarding phytochemicals except the statement that they are naturally occurring chemicals in plants. have health effects. are essential nutrients. are found in legumes, nuts, seeds, and grains.

25

Jim eats a slice of cantaloupe or watermelon every morning. These fruits are good sources of which type of phytochemical?

Organosulfur compounds Flavonoids

Carotenoids Soy compounds 26

Which of the following ingredients is most likely to help reduce Alzheimer's dementia?

A phytochemical A probiotic An organosulfur An antioxidant

27

Which of the following dietary changes could Peter, from the Student Story, make to lower his risk of becoming a diabetic without radically altering his lifestyle?

Become a vegan vegetarian Purchase only organically grown produce Switch from processed grains to whole grains Reduce his caloric intake by 50%

28

Consuming probiotics, such as yogurt, can improve immunity. vision. bone health. cardiovascular health.

29

DRI recommendations include which of the following groups?

Recommended daily allowances Adequate intakes Tolerable upper intake levels All of the answers are correct.

30

The serving size listed on a food label is based on the amount a 150lb adult should consume. the recommended serving size for the food item. a standard measuring cup. the average of an adult portion and a child portion.

31

All the following information is listed on a food label except calories per serving. fat calories per serving. percentage of vitamins, antioxidants, phytochemicals, and minerals per serving. percentage of daily values per serving.

32

The USDA's MyPlate recommends which of the following?

Make half your grains whole.

Consume only low fat dairy.

Eat fewer processed vegetables.

Drink more fruit juice.

33

All of the following are equivalent to a one ounce serving of a grain except one slice of whole wheat bread. one hamburger bun. one half cup of brown rice. one half cup of white rice.

34

The two most important dietary considerations for athletes are meeting energy needs and consuming fluids. consuming at least two grams of protein per kg of body weight and doubling caloric intake. supplementing the diet with protein shakes and taking vitamin supplements. eating several small meals daily and consuming electrolyte replacement drinks.

35

Leah is pregnant. Which of the following foods should she avoid to reduce her risk of foodborne illness?

Sushi containing raw seafood Cookie dough Raw milk All of the answers are correct.

36

If Eric eats anything that contains peanuts, he has difficulty breathing. Which of the following conditions does he have?

A food intolerance A nut allergy A foodborne illness A food additive allergy

37

Which of the following foods is least likely to cause an allergic reaction?

Milk Soy Corn Nuts

38

Destiny does not eat any red meat, poultry, or fish.

However, she does consume dairy products and eggs.

What type of vegetarian is she?

Vegan Lacto Lacto Ovo Semi 39

Which of the following nutrients may be low in a vegan diet?

Zinc Vitamin B12 Iron All of the answers are correct.

40

Lactose intolerance is best described as a(n) immune response to milk. condition that occurs immediately after consuming milk. inability to digest milk sugar. food allergy.

41

Which of the following ergogenic aids has been scientifically shown to benefit athletes?

Carnitine Ribose Chromium None of these choices have been proven beneficial.

42

Miguel is on a budget, but he is concerned about pesticide residue and wants to buy more organic produce. Which of the following foods should he purchase from the organic section based on pesticide absorption?

Corn Onions Peas Apples

43

Genetically modifying foods can result in plants that are more resistant to pests. meat that is lower in fat. plants that better tolerate heat and poor soil.

All of the answers are correct.

44

Madeline used www.choosemyplate.gov to analyze her diet for a week. What is her next step in creating a personalized nutritional plan?

Identify her dietary drawbacks Start an exercise program Plan her diet for the following week Identify potential obstacles 45

Eating a diet high in complex carbohydrates reduces your risk of obesity. heart disease. type 2 diabetes.

All of the choices are correct.

46

Foods with a high glycemic index include legumes. whole grain bread. apples. pastries.

47

Which food contains complete protein?

Peanut butter Rice Quinoa Whole grain bread

48

Vitamin ________ regulates blood calcium levels and maintains bone health.

D C K E

49

Which part of the whole grain is used to make white bread?

Bran Endosperm Germ All the parts of the whole grain are used.

50

Antioxidant nutrients include vitamins D, E and K. vitamins C, E and beta carotene. omega­3 fatty acids. pantothenic acid and thiamin.

51

Osteoporosis can be the result of an inadequate intake of ________ and vitamin ________. calcium; D magnesium; E zinc; C potassium; K

52

A ________ diet does not contain any red meat or poultry but will include fish. vegan semivegetarian pesco­vegetarian lacto­ovo­vegetarian

53

Coffee, tea, and hot cocoa all provide ________ which can interfere with sleep. flavonoids prebiotics caffeine organosulfur compounds

54

Essential nutrients are nutrients produced by the body.

True False

55

Brain cells can only use carbohydrates for energy.

True False

56

Fruit is classified as a complex carbohydrate.

True False

57

As the body breaks foods down, it distinguishes between foods naturally containing sugars and foods containing added sugars.

True False

58

Whole grains are classified as starches, and processed grains are classified as sugars.

True False

59

Enriched grains are equally as nutritious as whole grains.

True False

60

Omega six fatty acids are found in fish and flaxseed oil.

True False

61

Although trans fats are unhealthy to consume, they are a better option than saturated fats.

True False

62

Few people in the United States suffer from protein deficiencies.

True False

63

Foods high in fat­soluble vitamins need to be consumed more frequently than foods high in water­soluble vitamins.

True False

64

Sun exposure is necessary for the body to produce vitamin D. True False

65

Excessive consumption of vitamin supplements can be toxic.

True False

66

Minerals are manufactured by the body.

True False

67

Fruits and vegetables are a source of water in the diet.

True False

68

Phytochemicals are one of the six major nutrients.

True False

69

Antioxidants work by neutralizing free radicals that can harm cells.

True False

70

Probiotics are substances that should be avoided because they accelerate the growth of bacterial infections.

True False

71

The "percent daily values" on a food label give estimates of how much a serving of the food contributes to the daily intake of the listed nutrients.

True False

72

Daily physical activity should be built into a nutritional plan.

True False

73

The best way to decrease sodium intake is to avoid using salt at the dinner table.

True False

74

Whole grains, fresh fruits, and vegetables are considered "good" carbohydrates to consume.

True False

75

The MyPlate online feature provides an individualized nutritional plan for male and female children and adults.

True False

76

If athletes consume two to three times the recommended amount of protein, they will accelerate muscle growth and decrease body fat.

True False

77

Match the following:

Micronutrients nutrients needed in smaller quantities Carbohydrates the body's universal energy source

Fats the most concentrated energy source in the diet Protein a nutrient that helps build many body components Macronutrients nutrients needed in larger� quantities

78

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79

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80

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81

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82

Match the following:

Cholesterol protein lipid produced by the liver Monounsaturated fat examples include omega­3 and omega­6 Trans�fats hydrogenated polyunsaturated fat Polyunsaturated fat examples include olive and canola oils Saturated fat fats found in animal products

83

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84

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85

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86

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87

Match the following:

Vitamin D regulates blood calcium Folic Acid needed for amino acid and DNA synthesis Vitamin A required for vision Vitamin C an antioxidant; enhances iron absorption Niacin needed for carbohydrate and fat metabolism

88

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89

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90

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91

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92

Compare and contrast vitamins and minerals.

Answer: Vitamins are carbon­containing compounds required in small amounts to regulate body processes, such as blood­cell production, nerve function, and skin and bone maintenance. They also help chemical reactions take place. Minerals originate in the earth and cannot be produced by living organisms or broken down.

Water­soluble vitamins dissolve in water, and fat­ soluble vitamins dissolve in fat. Neither vitamins nor minerals are energy nutrients.

93

Jennifer wants to consume more fiber. What are four foods that are high in fiber? How will fiber help her digestive health?

Answer: * Fruits and vegetables, nuts, seeds, and grains. * Fiber absorbs water in the intestines and thus softens stools, promotes bowel regularity, and helps with digestive disorders.

94

List and describe three types of phytochemicals, sources of each, and their benefits.

Answer: * Carotenoids are found in red, orange, and deep green fruits and vegetables. They may help reduce the risk of certain cancers, cardiovascular disease, and age­

related eye diseases. * Flavonoids are found in soy, berries, tea, and chocolate. They may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease, cancer, blood clotting, and high blood pressure. * Organosulfur compounds are found in broccoli, cabbage, leeks, garlic, and onions. They may help protect against cancer.

95

Explain the importance of consuming foods high in antioxidants.

Answer: Antioxidants stabilize free radicals. Free radicals are produced by pollution, sunlight, cigarette smoke, strenuous exercise, and stress. They cause a chain reaction that causes damage to cells and is linked to cancer, aging, Alzheimer's, dementia, heart disease, arthritis, and Parkinson's disease.

96

Judson is not sure how to read a food label and doesn't understand why he should bother. What information can he find on a food label? Why is this information helpful?

Answer: He can find a list of ingredients, calories and nutrients per serving, serving size, percentage of calories from fat, and the percentage of the daily value one serving supplies. Answers to "why" will vary, but could include tracking calories, understanding a serving size vs. a package size, and tracking nutrient consumption.

97

List five suggestions from the Dietary Guidelines for Americans for a better dietary intake.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Obtain adequate nutrients within caloric need. * Focus on healthful foods. * Watch your intake of fat. * Choose carbohydrates wisely. * Maintain proper levels of potassium and sodium. * Manage your body weight. * Engage in regular physical activity. * Use alcohol moderately, if at all. * Be food safe.

98

Your friend Jenny has decided to begin eating healthier, but doesn't want to give up eating at fast food

restaurants. What are three suggestions you have for your friend so she can choose healthy fast­food options?

Answer: Any three of the following: * Order a vegetarian version of his favorite foods (burgers, pizza, subs). * Choose turkey, fish, or chicken instead of beef or pork. * Order a sandwich without cheese. * Avoid the supersize option. Choose the smallest size or share with a friend. * Substitute a side salad for fries. * Order the smallest size of fries. * Order skim milk, water, or diet soda instead of regular soda. * Have fruit instead of dessert or yogurt parfaits. * Stop eating when full.

99

Explain some steps that you can do to keep food safe.

Answer: Wash your hands thoroughly before you eat and prepare food. What utensils and small cutting boards with hot soapy water after each use. Use diluted bleach to clean surfaces that won't fit into the sink. Before you cut or peel them, wash fruits and vegetables.

100

What are some health benefits of a vegan diet?

Answer: Vegetarian diets may reduce the risk for obesity as well as several chronic degenerative diseases, such as coronary artery disease, some forms of cancer, diabetes, and high blood pressure. Vegan diets are lower in saturated fat and cholesterol and higher in carbohydrates, fiber, magnesium, folate, potassium, and antioxidants than the typical American diet.

101

According to the EPA, what are four ways consumers can reduce their exposure to pesticides?

Answer: 1. Peel fruits and vegetables whenever possible, and remove and discard outer leaves of leafy vegetables.

2. Scrub all fresh fruits and vegetables thoroughly under running water.

under running water.

3. Trim the fat from meat, and remove the fat from poultry because some pesticide residue collects in the fat.

4. Eat a variety of foods from various sources to reduce the risk of exposure to a single pesticide.

Chapter 005 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

John is physically active most days of the week. This means that he lifts weights every day. can do vigorous levels of exercise without fatigue. plays competitive sports. regularly moves his body to expend energy.

2

The ability to perform moderate to vigorous levels of activity and respond to physical demands is known as exercise. physical activity. physical fitness. cardiorespiratory fitness.

3

The foundation of health­related fitness is a healthy body composition. muscular endurance. cardiorespiratory fitness. muscular strength.

4

The ability of your heart and lungs to effectively deliver oxygen to your muscles during prolonged physical activity is called muscular endurance. muscular strength. flexibility. cardiorespiratory fitness.

5

Which of the following would be an indicator of static muscular endurance?

The number of pushups you can do in a minute The maximum amount of weight you can bench press The amount of time you can hold your body weight suspended from a pull­up bar The number of sit­ups you can do until failure

6

The primary difference between dynamic and static muscular endurance is dynamic endurance requires higher intensity training. dynamic endurance requires movement. dynamic endurance does not fatigue a muscle.

static endurance does not fatigue a muscle.

7

All of the following are considered flexibility activities except yoga.

Tai Chi. jogging.

Pilates.

8

Good flexibility can decrease the risk of all the following except joint pain. muscle tension. back pain. osteoporosis.

Iron requires an input of energy rather than causing energy to be released. Nuclei of this size or larger cannot act as fuel for thermonuclear reactions. Hence, the sequence of fusion ends with silicon fusion.

9

Which of the following occurs as a result of being physically active and exercising?

The lungs are able to take in more air.

The heart pumps less blood per beat due to improved oxygen carrying capacity.

HDL cholesterol is lowered.

Blood glucose levels increase.

The star's energy comes from a series of concentric fusing shells, all combined within a volume roughly the same size as Earth. It builds up layers of hydrogen fusion, moving inward to helium fusion, followed by carbon, neon, oxygen, and silicon fusion. The result of this is an iron core, and because iron requires more energy than it releases, it cannot be used for thermonuclear fusion. Because it can no longer sustain the weight of the star, the core collapses and quickly rebounds, producing the explosive supernova.

10

Which of the following has been shown to be most effective in lowering type II diabetes risk?

Exercise Exercise and healthy diet Prescription diabetes medication Vitamins and regular physical activity Pulsars are neutron stars, but with Earth in the rotating beam produced by radiation along the magnetic axis, similar to a lighthouse beam, so it appears as pulses of light.

11

Physical activity has been shown to reduce the risk of all the following cancers except breast cancer. colorectal cancer. ovarian cancer. lung cancer.

Jocelyn Bell, a young graduate student at Cambridge in the summer of 1967, and her colleagues used an array of radio antennas to look for radio signals that “twinkle.” They found very precise radio pulses and thought that it might be signals from an advanced alien civilization. After discarding that possibility, they came to the conclusion that they must be caused by a natural phenomenon, and the only thing that could spin that fast without being ripped apart would have to be a neutron star.

12

Exercise may reduce the risk of cancer by increasing appetite. increasing the levels of estrogens in the bloodstream. encouraging the body to process and remove toxic substances. reducing the risk of muscle injuries.

It is the “surface” around a black hole where the escape velocity is equal to the speed of light. The distance to the event horizon from the singularity is called the Schwarzschild radius.

13

All of the following exercises reduce the risk for osteoporosis except swimming. running. walking. weight lifting.

They can be detected through the study of the gravitational influence on a companion by an unseen object of large mass. The other way is through the detection of X­rays that are produced by the dust in the accretion disks swirling very close to the black hole.

14

Which of the following types of exercises is MOST effective in reducing stress and depression and increasing productivity?

Flexibility Muscular strength Muscular endurance Cardiorespiratory endurance

A stellar black hole is produced by the collapse of a very massive single star; a supermassive black hole is found at the cores of most large galaxies. Stellar black holes are around 3 solar masses and greater, but supermassive black holes are on the order of billions of solar masses.

15

An example of the progressive overload principle would be increasing the amount of weight you bench press from 80 to 85 lbs to continue improving. suffering from tendonitis because you increased your workout program too quickly. trying to manage your stress by exercising regularly. stressing the body too much by working more than one component of fitness at the same time.

A nova is produced by an explosion on a white dwarf pulling material from a companion in a binary system that does not destroy the star. A supernova is when a large star ends its life in a spectacular explosion that does destroy the star and leaves the core as a neutron star or black hole. Both brighten quickly, but the nova can repeat after time.

16

The FITT principle stands for frequency, intensity, training and type. frequency, intensity, time and type. flexibility, interacting with training and time. four components, increasing, to tone and treat illness.

A Type Ia supernova is a white dwarf in a close binary system that undergoes a nuclear detonation that destroys it completely. A Type II supernova is when a large mass star reaches the end of its life and explodes spectacularly. The Type Ia supernovae are generally brighter than the Type II supernovae.

17

The primary difference between overload and progressive overload is overload produces greater gains in endurance. progressive overload requires multiple modes of training. progressive overload is gradual and steady. overload is slow and gradual.

Both are compact objects orbiting a companion star in a close binary system with mass transfer. A nova is when the compact object is a white dwarf, and an X­ray

burster is when the object is a neutron star. The explosions from the X­ray bursters produce powerful bursts of X­rays.

18

Intensity of training refers to the time you're spending exercising. the number of days a week you're exercising. the type of training you're doing. the effort you put into exercising.

They tend to slow down over time because they are radiating away their rotational energy and its pulse period increases. However, if they are in a binary system, they can have interactions that cause them to spin up.

19

Specificity of training refers to performing exercises that will specifically address your goal for improvement. performing exercises at a rate that will maintain your training level. the body's unique response to demands placed on it during training. how your body responds to reduced demand.

Electron degeneracy pressure supports white dwarfs from further collapse and neutron degeneracy pressure supports neutron stars from further collapse.

20

The principle that states your fitness level will decline if you don't maintain your physical activity is known as the principle of recuperation. adaptation. reversibility. individuality.

Intense beams of radiation emanate from regions of spinning neutron stars near the north and south magnetic poles of a neutron star observed as pulses of radio waves. These beams sweep outward and you only see the pulses if you are in the path of the beam, like the light from a lighthouse.

21

Based on David's Student Story, which is about cardiorespiratory fitness, he is having trouble when he runs because he has had a previous injury that makes difficult to run. not adequately trained his cardiorespiratory system.

not been physically active for the past several years. not done enough repetitions when lifting weights.

In the last stages of its life, a high­mass star has an iron­rich core surrounded by concentric shells hosting the various thermonuclear reactions, like layers of an onion.

22

Based on David's Student Story, which is about cardiorespiratory fitness, he needs to adjust his exercise routine in order to improve his cardiorespiratory fitness. Which of the following principles of fitness training should he pay particular attention to when making changes to increase his cardiorespiratory fitness?

Principle of specificity Principle of reversibility Principle of individuality Principle of overload

23

Which of the following is not true with respect to cardiorespiratory exercise?

It requires the use of oxygen.

It makes your heart, lungs and entire circulatory system stronger.

Benefits are maximized when you exercise within your target heart rate range.

It should be performed 2­3 days a week.

24

The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a target heart rate zone between 48 and 76 % of your maximum heart rate.

56 and 82 % of your maximum heart rate.

61 and 91 % of your maximum heart rate.

72 and 99 % of your maximum heart rate.

25

A 20­year­old male with a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute would have a predicted maximum heart rate of 160 beats per minute.

177 beats per minute.

194 beats per minute.

200 beats per minute.

26

Clarisse wants to start a moderate cardiorespiratory endurance exercise program, but she has been sedentary for the past 5 years. Which of the following activities would be the best for her to incorporate to meet her goal of increasing her cardiorespiratory

endurance?

Light stretching Water aerobics Competitive tennis Weight training 27

Moderate intensity activity is defined as activity that will raise your heart rate to 40­50% of your maximum heart rate.

50­70% of your maximum heart rate.

70­85% of your maximum heart rate.

None of the answers are correct.

28

Jason has been exercising for four weeks and is ready to increase his intensity. Which of the following best describes the benefit he'll gain by increasing from light to moderate activity?

Lowered risk of chronic disease Increased cardiorespiratory endurance A moderate health improvement A moderate improvement in wellness

29

All of the following are examples of isotonic exercises except arm curls. push­ups. a plank. leg curls.

30

Pushing against a wall as part of resistance training is an example of isometric exercise. isotonic exercise. isokinetic exercise.

All of the answers are correct.

31

The best program for building muscular endurance would be one that consists of at least 20 minutes of aerobic exercise. exercises performed in sets of 12 repetitions with high amounts of resistance. exercises performed in sets of 20 repetitions with low amounts of resistance. performing one set of 10 with 8 different exercises.

32

You can resistance train on consecutive days as long as you work different muscle groups from day to day.

you do a low to moderate intensity workout. you allow each muscle 96 hours of recovery time. you perform the same exercises each day.

33

Being able to move quickly and fluidly through a range of motion is known as static flexibility. dynamic flexibility. core flexibility. progressive flexibility.

34

Reaching towards your toes while seated (with your legs out straight) and holding the stretch would be an example of static stretching. passive stretching. dynamic stretching.

Pilates.

35

All of the following are examples of opposing muscle group pairs except low back and abdominals. chest and back. triceps and chest. biceps and triceps.

36

Core strength can be built through all the following exercise except abdominal curls. back extensions. arm curls. planks.

37

Ballistic stretching is performed by holding a stretch for 30 seconds. using a partner to apply pressure. bouncing gently while stretching. working the entire body through a series of quiet, fluid motions.

38

When stretching you should warm up for at least 10 minutes before stretching. hold static stretches for at least 2 minutes. stretch to the point that the muscle feel tight but not to the point of discomfort. hold your breath as you move into the stretch.

39

The movements involved in dynamic stretching are forced stretches to stretch tendon length. slow held movements to maximize the muscle length. bouncing stretches to increase range of motion. rehearsal moves that mimic the movement to follow.

40

The following activity levels would adhere to the Physical Activity Guideline for Americans from the Department of Health and Human service except At least 150 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic activity per week At least 50 minutes of vigorous intensity aerobic exercise per week Performing resistance exercises 2 day per weeks for most major muscle group in sets of 5­7 repetitions At least 30 minutes of stretching a day

41

Raul plans to start jogging after being sedentary for 2 years. What is the first step he should take?

Make sure he is medically healthy enough to exercise.

Practice warming up with 20 minutes of static stretching.

Review the routes he plans to run.

Start a weight training program to condition his legs.

42

Water is the best choice for rehydration during all the following exercises except a 30 minute jog on a treadmill. workout 60 minute group exercise class. a 1/2 marathon. a 60 minute pick­up basketball game.

43

Karen has been working out in the heat and is beginning to feel fatigued and nauseated. It is likely that Karen is developing hypothermia. heat exhaustion. heatstroke. muscle cramps.

44

No matter what your level of fitness, you should stop exercising immediately if you experience

soreness in your legs. thirst. cold sweats. fatigue.

45

Which of the following ergogenic aids causes facial hair in women and testicular shrinkage in men?

Creatine Anabolic steroids HGH Ephedra

46

According to Molly's Student Story in your text, how has she been able to adapt her activities?

She swims or cycles instead of running She works out at her home gym She uses a specially designed wheelchair She uses specialized equipment

47

According to Molly's Student Story in your text, her goal is to be more efficient at work. be less stressed. safely reach her target heart rate. compete against her friends.

48

Physical activity is bodily movement that substantially increases energy expenditure. body composition. muscle strength. muscular endurance.

49

Exercise can prevent type 2 diabetes ________ by increasing the body's ability to use carbohydrates for energy raise blood sugar levels move through a full range of motion use insulin

50

The principles of fitness training include all the following except intensity. overload. reversibility. specificity.

51

The level of effort you exert while exercising is known as exertional force. power. intensity. energy.

52

The ________ principle states that your fitness level will decline if you don't maintain your physical activity. overload reversibility individuality specificity

53

Stretching performed with a partner who increases the intensity of the stretch by gently applying pressure to your body as it stretches is called ________ stretching. active passive assisted ballistic

54

The body's core temperature drops too low during the condition known as hypothermia. hyperthermia. frostbite. thermal regulation.

55

The RICE protocol involves rest, ice, compression, and elasticity. eversion. extension. elevation.

56

Men derive greater benefits from strength training since they have higher levels of testosterone.

True False

57

To significantly lower your risk of premature death, you must exercise at least ten hours per week.

True False

58

Physical inactivity increases the risk of type 2 diabetes.

True False

59

The typical American lifestyle promotes physical activity.

True False

60

Current physical activity trends indicate that people may have an increased awareness of the benefits of fitness.

True False

61

Lean tissue consists of muscle, bone, organs, and water.

True False

62

Being physically active can benefit anyone at any age.

True False

63

Skill related and health related fitness are the same.

True False

64

Exercise increases your metabolism both during and after workouts.

True False

65

Any type of regular, sustained physical activity can be beneficial.

True False

66

Poor cardiorespiratory is one of the most important factors in overall health.

True False

67

Strength training programs optimize cardiorespiratory endurance.

True False

68

Resistance bands are better than exercise machines for pinpointing specific muscles.

True False

69

The primary characteristic that distinguishes between isometric and isotonic exercise is movement.

True False

70

Anaerobic exercises build your body's ability to deliver long bursts of energy over an extended period of time.

True False

71

A muscle that has been overloaded by training needs at least 24 hours of recovery.

True

False

72

Walking for 10 minutes three times a day is not as beneficial for improving health as walking for 30 continuous minutes.

True False

73

When lifting weights, you should breathe out as you lift the weight.

True False

74

Performing 15 minutes of aerobic exercise 5 days per week will meet the aerobic guidelines outlines in the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans.

True False

75

Stretching prevents injury.

True False

76

Minor injuries to muscles and joints should be treated with the RICE protocol. This involves Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation.

True False

77

Although dangerous, human growth hormone has been shown to improve performance.

True False

78

The relative proportions of fat tissue and lean tissue in your body do not change with fitness training.

True False

79

A reduction in flexibility can be minimized with a regular stretching program.

True False

80

The number of times you perform a leg extension exercise continuously is known as the number of repetitions.

True False

81

The number of sets and repetitions remains constant regardless of training goals.

True False

82

Rhythmic bouncing movements in a stretch is a safer technique than static stretching.

True False

83

Stretching before exercising has been found to prevent post exercise soreness.

True False

84

Androstenedione is a safe alternative to anabolic steroids.

True False

85

Match the following:

The maximum amount of force a muscle can apply in a single effort Muscular strength The ability to perform moderate to vigorous levels of activity and to respond to physical demands without excessive fatigue Physical fitness The ability to perform activities of daily living with vigor Health­related fitness The ability of the heart and lungs to deliver oxygen to the working muscles Cardiorespiratory fitness The capacity of the muscles to exert force repeatedly Muscular endurance

86

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87

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88

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CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 89

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90

Match the following:

To improve a fitness component, the exercises must be appropriate for that component Specificity Muscle contraction without movement Isometric Requires a training partner Passive stretching Increasing the stress placed on the body Overload Muscle contraction with movement Isotonic

91

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92

ALERT....THIS QUESTION COULD NOT BE FORMATTED

FOR ON­LINE DISPLAY. THIS TEXT WAS INSERTED TO MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 93

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94

ALERT....THIS QUESTION COULD NOT BE FORMATTED FOR ON­LINE DISPLAY. THIS TEXT WAS INSERTED TO MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer:

95

Name and describe the components of the FITT principle.

Answer: * Frequency­the number of times per week you engage in exercise. * Intensity­the level of effort you exert. Measured in terms of heart rate for cardiorespiratory training, sets and repetitions for resistance training, and the depth of stretch for flexibility. * Time­duration of exercise. * Type­the type of exercise you choose to do.

96

What strategies should you use to ensure that your weight lifting sessions are safe?

Answer: Answers should include a combination of the following: * Make an appointment with a specialist/trainer to ensure you learn proper techniques. * Always warm up before lifting. * Work out with a partner who can "spot" you. * Breathe in as you lift the weight and out as you release the weight back to the starting position. * Focus on the muscle you are trying to work. * Equally train opposing muscle groups.

* Take your time. * Only use weight your body can handle without having to engage additional muscles or momentum.

97

What can you do to help you increase your activity levels and meet the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans?

Answer: Answers should include a combination of the following: * Park your car at the far end of the parking lot to extend the amount of walking you do. * Walk briskly or ride your bike to class. * Take the stairs instead of the elevator. * Begin an active new hobby like in­line skating, yoga, or dance classes. * Get an exercise buddy. * Include resistance and flexibility exercises at least two days per week. * Gradually increase the intensity of your aerobic exercise by replacing moderate­ with vigorous­intensity activities. * Be active for longer. * Be active more often.

98

What are five key points to consider when choosing athletic shoes?

Answer: Answers should include five of the following: * You should purchase shoes specifically for any activities that you participate in for more than 3 hours per week. * Always go to a store that specializes in athletic shoes to find the best selection and the most knowledgeable salespeople. * Shop for shoes at the end of the day, when your feet are at their largest. * Wear the type of socks you plan on wearing with the shoes, in order to get the best gauge on fit. * If your foot is wide or narrow, select a shoe made specifically for that width. * If you have high arches, make sure to purchase a shoe or separate insoles with lots of arch support and cushioning. * Purchase shoes made specifically for your sex.

However, women with wide feet may consider trying men's or boy's shoes, which are made a bit larger throughout the heel. * Bring your old shoes with you. Shoe professionals can

give you tips based on the wear pattern on your old shoes. * Try on both shoes, and walk, run, or perform the types of movements you will use the shoe for. * Don't assume you wear the same shoe size in athletic shoes as you do in regular shoes.

99

Jeff has diabetes. He wants to exercise but he also wants to make sure he does so safely. What are some things Jeff can do to reduce his risk and ensure an effective workout?

Answer: Answers will likely include some of the following: * He can monitor his blood glucose before and after exercise, especially when beginning or modifying his exercise program. * He can wear a diabetes ID bracelet during exercise. * He can carry a snack with him if he will be active for a few hours. * If Jeff begins to feel shaky, anxious, or suddenly begins to sweat more, he should halt exercise and consume a fast­acting carbohydrate. * He should be sure to wear well­fitting shoes and check his feet for blisters or sores before and after exercise.

100

What are some strategies you can use to maintain a fitness program?

Answer: Answers will likely include some of the following: * Set realistic goals. Write them down and track your progress. * Find activities you enjoy and schedule a time to participate in them. * Find ways of overcoming obstacles such as lack of time by breaking up exercise into segments or getting your family involved. * Assess your progress every 4 to 6 weeks.

Chapter 006 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, obesity affects over 60% of U.S. adults. is considered a national epidemic. is spreading globally.

All of the answers are correct.

2

An estimated ________ of American children and teenagers between the ages of 12 to 19 are obese.

2% 5% 10% 18%

3

A person who is overweight is more likely to have high blood pressure than an average weight person for all the following reasons except an increased capacity of the blood vessels to transport blood. a higher blood volume. a higher heart rate. a reduced capacity of the blood vessels to transport blood.

4

Type 2 diabetes most often affects individuals who are overweight or obese due to their low blood pressure. their resistance to insulin. the inability of their pancreas to manufacture insulin. their reduced levels of blood glucose.

5

Obesity is associated with lower levels of this type of cholesterol.

LDL Triglycerides HDL Saturated

6

Doctors will only recommend surgical weight­loss procedures for people who meet which of the following criteria?

Have a BMI of 40 or more Have a BMI of 25 Have osteoarthritis in the hips

Recently gained weight and wish to lose it quickly 7

Shonda is an obese female who is trying to plan her pregnancy. By losing weight before conceiving she will reduce her risk of all the following complications during pregnancy except insulin resistance. high blood glucose. low blood sugar. high blood pressure.

8

Obese people are at a higher risk of developing sleep ________, a condition in which a person may stop breathing for short periods during sleep. apnea stroke metabolic syndrome osteoarthritis

9

Obesity is associated with an increased risk of developing which of the following cancers?

Colon Rectal Esophageal All of the answers are correct.

10

When the calories you consume equal the calories you expend, you have achieved weight loss. weight gain. energy balance. thermogenesis.

11

All of the following factors have contributed to the obesity epidemic in the United States except a low intake of dietary protein. an excessive intake of foods high in fat and sugar. a lack of physical activity. an increase in portion sizes.

12

The majority of the energy a person utilizes daily goes toward digesting food. regulating body temperature. physical activity expenditure. basal metabolism.

13

All of the following factors contribute to a lower basal

metabolic rate except being over 40. being tall. being physically inactive. being short.

14

Which of the following factors can increase a person's risk for obesity?

Having obese parents Having a long car commute Having a specific variety of an FTO gene All of the answers are correct.

15

Rhonda has gained fifteen pounds since she started a sedentary part­time job and began eating fast food more frequently. Her weight gain is likely due to ________ factors. environmental psychological genetic gender

16

Most first year college students gain ________ pounds.

7­8 15 20 25

17

All of the following factors contribute to first­year college student weight gain except being less physically active after starting college. consuming more calories. being overweight before starting college. becoming involved in student life activities.

18

Which of the following factors should be considered when evaluating whether or not a person is a healthful weight?

Body composition Age Body type All of the answers are correct.

19

Waist­to­hip ratio assesses a person's percentage of body fat.

disease risk based on where they carry fat. body mass index.

All of the answers are correct.

20

Bob is 6'1" and 204 pounds, with a BMI of 27.

According to a standard BMI chart, Bob is underweight. a healthful weight. overweight. obese.

21

What are the limitations of using BMI as an indicator of healthful weight?

It is not a reliable indicator for athletes with large amounts of lean muscle mass.

It can underestimate the total body fat in older people who have lost muscle.

It is not always a reliable indicator of health for young adults.

All of the answers are correct.

22

Justin is trying to lose weight. All the following are effective strategies that will help him safely and effectively reach a healthful weight except eliminating all carbohydrates. expending more calories than he consumes. replacing sodas with water. choosing whole foods instead of processed foods.

23

Which of the following can occur as a result of bulimia nervosa?

Stomach rupture Dental problems Dehydration All of the answers are correct.

24

Many popular diets have high failure rates because they focus only on quick weight loss. they don't include exercise as part of the diet plan. they fail to educate participants on changing their lifestyle habits.

All of the answers are correct.

25

Which weight loss drug has received approval from the FDA for sale as an over­the­counter weight­loss medication?

Human chorionic gonadotropin, HCG

Hydroxycut supplements Alli All of the answers are correct.

26

The physiological sensation caused by a lack of food is called satiety. appetite. hunger. volumetrics.

27

The psychological response to the sight, smell, thought, or taste of food that prompts or postpones eating is called satiety. appetite. hunger. energy balance.

28

All of the following guidelines are important for a healthy fat intake except cut trans fats from the diet. consume more good fats, such as olive oil. fats should comprise 45% of your daily caloric intake. include a little fat with each meal to provide satiety.

29

Which of the following is true of weight loss pills sold over­the­counter?

They are only minimally regulated by the Food and Drug Administration.

They do not need to be proven safe by the manufacturer unless they include a new ingredient.

They are not tested by the Food and Drug Administration before becoming available on the market.

All of the answers are correct.

30

The side effects of prescription weight loss drugs may include increased blood pressure. sleepiness. headaches, cramping, or diarrhea.

All of the answers are correct.

31

Gastric bypass surgery works by

permanently reducing the size of the stomach. partitioning off part of the stomach with an adjustable band. cutting the nerves in the stomach that control appetite. partitioning off part of the intestines with an adjustable band.

32

What is the best choice to safely gain more muscle mass without gaining excess fat?

Eating empty calorie foods such as pizza, burgers and fries Regularly doing strength training and consuming more calories from a variety of healthful foods Taking dietary supplements Eating three very large meals every day

33

Having body dysmorphic disorder can affect a person's risk for developing an eating disorder. the way a person eats. the way a person feels.

All of the answers are correct.

William Hershel found approximately the same density of stars all along the Milky Way and concluded we were at the center of the Galaxy. However, he did not take into account the interstellar dust that was dimming and obscuring distant stars. The mapping of the globular clusters showed a three­dimensional spherical distribution around the Milky Way: Earth is not in the center of it, but in the disk.

34

Anne exercises 2 hours a day, eats only one meal most days, is 5'5" and weighs 90 pounds, and is terrified of gaining weight. Her behavior is characteristic of someone suffering from anorexia nervosa. bulimia nervosa. binge eating disorder. binge and purge disorder.

They are standard candles, meaning that we know how intrinsically bright they are. If we know how bright they are and how bright they appear, we can find their distances. The larger a variable star is, the longer it takes to pulsate, making it fairly easy to observe its pulsations. The reason Cepheids are so important is because they are so big and bright. They can be seen in other galaxies, which gives us the ability to determine distances.

35

All of the following factors increase a person's risk for developing an eating disorder except being preoccupied with being thin. being in a healthy relationship. depression. participating in a sport that values low body weight.

Both are variable stars, but RR Lyrae stars vary much more quickly than Cepheids and are not as big and bright. RR Lyrae stars were observed in globular clusters to determine distances.

36

The "thrifty gene" is responsible for which of the following?

Reducing a person's appetite Influencing a person's activity level Increasing a person's appetite Encouraging fat storage Our Milky Way Galaxy is a spiral galaxy with a thin disk, a nuclear bulge at the center, and a halo of globular clusters in a spherical region around it. The Galaxy is about 50 kiloparsecs (or 160,000 light­years) wide and about 0.6 kiloparsecs (or 2000 light­years) thick.

37

Which of the following behaviors are most strongly associated with bulimia nervosa?

A refusal to eat, a refusal to maintain a normal body weight, and a distorted body image A regular pattern of binging and purging and an obsession with body weight and shape Eating only one meal per day Using food as a reward, eating even when not hungry, and thinking about food throughout the day The Population I (young, metal­rich) stars are in the spiral arms in the disk of the Galaxy. The Population II (old, metal­poor) stars are in the halo of the Galaxy in globular clusters. The central bulge contains both Population I and II stars.

38

Disordered eating is the same as an eating disorder. a mental disorder characterized by physiological or psychological disturbances in appetite or food intake. unhealthful eating habits used to deal with emotional issues that do not warrant a diagnosis of a specific eating disorder. a condition in which a person's dietary intake may

consist mostly of comfort foods.

When neutral hydrogen switches from a higher energy configuration of both the proton and the electron spinning in the same direction to a lower energy configuration with the proton and the electron spinning in opposite directions, a photon is emitted with a wavelength of 21­cm. This allows us to use this spectral line in the radio region to map clouds of H I, or neutral hydrogen.

39

Recall Viege's Student Story in the chapter. It seems from her story that her friend, Lisa, likely has anorexia nervosa. bulimia nervosa. disordered eating. binge­eating disorder.

When the velocities determined by the Doppler shift are plotted from the center of the Galaxy outward, the material is seen to rotate faster than it would if only the stars and other bright objects in the sky had gravitational influence. The calculations show that approximately 90% of our Galaxy, as well as other galaxies, are made of something that has a gravitational effect, but is not easily detectable visibly.

40

Which of the following is considered a drawback of the Jenny Craig diet plan?

Prepackaged meals are not conducive for teaching dieters how to shop and prepare foods.

The diet is not balanced and too high in fat.

Weekly meetings can be inconvenient.

The diet is based on blood type which has no scientific basis.

Dim objects with less than 1 solar mass could include brown dwarfs, white dwarfs, or black holes, and these are called massive compact halo objects (MACHOs).

Another possibility is a new type of subatomic particle called weakly interacting massive particles (WIMPs), which have a considerable amount of gravity, but rarely interact with normal matter.

41

Individuals who are overweight continue to eat even if they aren't hungry. eat quickly and often. use food as a reward.

All of the answers are correct.

Density waves, or a wave of increased density throughout the spiral arm is thought to instigate star

formation. The biggest, brightest, and hottest stars (O and B stars) quickly die and produce supernovae with shock waves that compress the surrounding interstellar medium, encouraging more star formation.

42

Characteristics of night­eating syndrome include all of the following except consuming starchy or sugary foods in the evening. eating breakfast daily. waking up during the night to eat. it may be treated successfully with melatonin supplements.

Stars near the center of the Galaxy move very, very fast in their orbits, and the mass of the unseen object can be calculated to have approximately 3.7 million solar masses. In addition, X­ray observations indicate that the object is no larger than 10 light­minutes across and produces X­ray flares. The only object that could be that small and that massive is a supermassive black hole.

43

Which of the following would be the most effective way to help a friend you suspect of having an eating disorder?

Tell the friend about trained professionals and support groups that might help change the friend's self­ perceptions and habits.

Constantly talk to your friend about his or her dieting, weight, or body size.

Angrily accuse your friend of not taking care of himself/herself.

Wait until your friend's behavior results in a medical problem.

Stars in the disk of the Galaxy rotate in the plane of the disk, maybe oscillating up and down through the disk.

Stars in the halo orbit in much more random directions around the core of the Galaxy.

44

The ethnic group with the lowest prevalence of obesity is Caucasian Americans.

Asian Americans.

Hispanic Americans.

African Americans.

Grand design spiral galaxies have thin, graceful, and well­defined spiral arms. Flocculent spiral galaxies have arms that are broad, fuzzy, chaotic, and poorly defined.

45

Disparities in obesity rates among persons of various ethnicities, levels of socioeconomic class, and race may

be due to cultural differences. socioeconomic differences in patterns of fast food consumption. inequalities in access to healthy food.

All of the answers are correct.

A dark nebula is a cloud of dust and gas made of normal matter that does allow light to pass through.

Dark matter has a lot of mass, but does not put off measureable light in the E­M spectrum.

46

Being overweight puts a person at a higher risk for which disease?

Osteoarthritis Pregnancy complications Fertility problems None of the answers are correct.

The stars would not orbit as quickly if the mass of the galaxy were much less, as would happen if no dark matter existed there.

47

Which is associated with the Female Athlete Triad?

Amenorrhea Weight gain Binge eating Purging regularly

48

Metabolic syndrome is characterized by all of the following except large waistline. high LDL. high triglycerides. high HDL.

49

A diet that emphasizes the consumption of protein and fat over carbohydrates is known as the ________ Diet.

Jenny Craig Atkins Weight Watchers Volumetrics

50

Jan eats 2,000 calories daily and expends 1,500 calories. Based on energy balance, how will Jan's weight be affected?

Jan will lose weight over time.

Jan will gain weight over time.

Jan will stay the same weight.

It is impossible to predict.

51

What affect does the FTO gene have?

It decreases a person's risk of obesity.

It increases a person's risk of acquiring an eating disorder.

It increases a person's risk of obesity.

It increases a person's risk of type 2 diabetes.

52

Low carbohydrate diets work by causing an initial loss of ________ weight. fat water tissue muscle

53

Which disorder is characterized by a person who often secretly eats large quantities of food without taking steps to expend the calories consumed?

Binge eating disorder Bulimia nervosa Anorexia nervosa Body dysmophic disorder

54

Which diet aims to maximize the amount of food eaten per calorie?

Volumetrics South Beach Weight Watchers Jenny Craig

55

Being physically inactive contributes to a higher metabolic rate.

True False

56

Being obese is a risk factor for developing Type 2 diabetes.

True False

57

High blood pressure is twice as common in obese adults.

True False

58

Fatty liver disease only affects alcoholics.

True False

59

Obesity increases a person's risk of having a stroke.

True False

60

Being obese can increase a person's risk for developing sleep apnea.

True False

61

A health risk associated with being underweight is gallbladder disease.

True False

62

Obese individuals have a lower life expectancy than people who are a healthful weight.

True False

63

Excess weight can put pressure on the joints and cause osteoarthritis.

True False

64

To lose weight, a person must expend the same

number of calories that he or she consumes.

True False

65

The average American today eats about 570 more calories per day than in 1977.

True False

66

Seventy percent of adults get the recommended minimum of 30 minutes of moderate activity a day, most days of the week.

True False

67

Age increases a person's basal metabolic rate.

True False

68

Consuming lots of protein and fat will help you lose weight.

True False

69

Pubescent boys need more calories than pubescent girls.

True False

70

Women store fat that may be used for pregnancy and breast feeding.

True False

71

Environmental factors that contribute to obesity include a decrease in physical activity, a lack of access to healthy foods, and an increased intake of high calorie foods.

True False

72

Research shows that eating certain foods according to your blood type is an effective way to prevent disease.

True False

73

On college campuses, obesity is higher in female students than male students.

True False

74

The major contributing causes of obesity in college students are increased caloric consumption and decreased physical activity.

True False

75

Obesity statistics from 2011 showed that every state in the United States had an obesity rate of 20% or more.

True False

76

As more countries adopt Westernized eating habits, obesity becomes more of a global epidemic.

True False

77

A BMI of 25 indicates healthful weight.

True False

78

Aging has no effect on a person's body weight.

True False

79

Polycystic ovary syndrome is a condition associated with anorexia nervosa.

True False

80

Consuming a lot of protein will help you lose weight.

True False

81

You are more likely to develop health problems if you carry fat mainly in your hips and thighs.

True False

82

When scar tissue blocks proper blood flow to the liver, the condition is called a fatty liver.

True False

83

If both your parents are obese, your chances of being obese increases.

True False

84

Match the following:

Obese having a BMI between 30 and 35

Healthy weight having a BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 Extreme obesity having a BMI over 35 Underweight having a BMI below 18.5 Overweight having a BMI between 25 and 29.9

85

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86

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87

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88

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Answer: 89

Match the following:

Night­Eating Syndrome Joy skips breakfast and lunch and consumes a lot of calories before going to bed.

Bulimia Nervosa Jan binges then takes an entire box of laxatives.

Binge Eating Roy eats until he is uncomfortably full and eats alone.

Anorexia Nervosa Rodger refuses to maintain a normal body weight and exercises 2­3 hours a day.

Purging Jamie routinely abuses laxatives and vomits to prevent caloric absorption.

90

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91

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92

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93

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94

Explain why an overweight person in college should be concerned about his or her weight now, rather than believing that the problem should be addressed when they get older. Provide two strategies an overweight person can incorporate to lose the extra weight.

Answer: * A younger person should be concerned about weight because being overweight or obese increases his risks for developing type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, certain types of cancers, metabolic syndrome, fatty liver disease, osteoarthritis, gallbladder disease, sleep apnea, abnormal blood lipids, stroke, and hypertension. * Answers to the second question may vary, but could include: make healthier choices when eating fast food and walk whenever there is a break between school and work.

95

Discuss four environmental factors that contribute to obesity.

Answer: * Many neighborhoods lack sidewalks, which makes walking more difficult and encourages driving. * Long work/school days combined with long commute times leave people little time for exercise. * Most people are stressed and reach for comfort foods. * Few people have the time to cook, and many turn to fast food as an option. * Most menu items at fast food restaurants are high in fat and calories. * Food advertisements focus on calorically dense, nutritionally lacking foods. * Some neighborhood supermarkets have limited

selection and lack a variety of healthy options.

96

Choose a lower calorie option for each of the following food items: 1/3lb burger on a bun, large order of fries, and a 24oz cola.

Answer: Any of the following: * Instead of the burger choose a salad topped with chicken breast and dressing on the side or a smaller burger (4oz or less). * Instead of large fries, choose a small baked potato or a piece of fruit. * Instead of a 24oz cola, choose an 8oz serving of low­ fat milk, a 20oz bottle of water, or a diet cola.

97

Your friend is trying to lose weight. What are three tips that you can provide to help her cut calories?

Answer: * Share large portions with others. * Avoid buying high calorie foods that are difficult to consume in moderation. * Don't skip meals, especially breakfast. * Fill your plate with vegetables alongside higher calorie foods to feel fuller. * If you crave a snack, reach for foods high in bulk to keep you fuller longer.

98

What are the risks of bariatric surgery?

Answer: Some patients eventually gain back the weight they lost, even if they only consume small amounts of food.

Others can't properly absorb certain nutrients, and some have complications after the surgery.

99

Your friend is trying to gain weight. What tips can you provide to help him gain weight healthily?

Answer: * Increase calories in a healthy way by adding foods like nuts, meal replacement bars and drinks, fruit juices, and peanut butter. * Eat smaller meals more frequently throughout the day. * Add calories to your favorite meals. * Exercise to increase appetite and build muscle.

100

How does a person's body image affect eating behaviors?

Answer: The media provides conflicting messages about food and weight. While we are surrounded by ads selling calorically dense foods, we are also surrounded by ads promoting thinness and fitness. For some people, this contributes to an unhealthful approach to eating and appearance.

101

Explain the differences between disordered eating and eating disorders.

Answer: Eating disorders refer to a group of mental disorders including anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge­eating disorder characterized by physiological and psychological disturbances in appetite and food intake. Disordered eating refers to a range of unhealthful eating habits in which food is used primarily to deal with emotional issues. It does not warrant a diagnosis of a specific eating disorder.

Chapter 007 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Addiction is considered a condition associated with drug abuse. an exaggerated feeling of desire. a chronic disease that originates in the brain. a psychological variation.

2

All of the following are characteristics of addiction except increased pleasure from engaging in the behavior. denial. continued use despite negative consequences. craving.

3

All of the following are forms of behavioral addictions except compulsive spending. caffeine overuse. compulsive gambling. hypersexual disorder.

4

Which of the following illicit drugs is most commonly used by college­aged adults?

Ecstasy Prescription drugs Marijuana Cocaine

5

Which of the following age groups has the highest reported past month reported illicit drug use?

16­18 year olds 12­14 year olds 20­22 year olds 18­20 year olds

6

Which of the following is true with respect marijuana use?

College students underestimate the percentage of their peers who use marijuana.

More females than males use marijuana.

Marijuana is the most commonly used psychoactive drug.

Past year marijuana use among college students was 25% according to a 2012 survey.

7

Which of the following illicit drugs is most popularly used in the United States?

Cocaine Hallucinogens Marijuana Heroin

8

The non­medical use of ________ is the second largest category of illicit drug use in the United States. cocaine heroin hallucinogens prescription drugs

9

Which of the following demographics has the lowest rates of illicit drug use?

People without high school degrees People with college degrees People who are unemployed People who live in the West

10

Which of the following would be considered drug misuse?

Taking aspirin for an ankle sprain Buying allergy medicine online with a prescription Taking one of your mother's prescription sleeping pills to fall asleep Doubling the standard dosage of pain medication on a doctor's recommendation

11

The feeling of intense pleasure that dopamine delivers is called tolerance. euphoria. withdrawal. addiction.

12

Substance dependence is characterized by all of the following except an immoral desire to experience intoxication. tolerance to the substance. inability to control usage. using in larger quantities or for longer than intended.

13

The depressed or "flat" feeling that drug users may feel when they are not taking a drug is related to

high levels of dopamine being released in the brain. reduced production of the brain's natural chemical regulators. the body being primed for repeat stimulation. lower tolerance for the drug.

14

Drug use over a long period of time typically leads to what condition in the body?

Euphoria Withdrawal Tolerance Misuse

15

Symptoms of drug withdrawal include all of the following except headaches. nausea. vomiting. euphoria.

16

Withdrawal symptoms occur as a result of psychological dependence. physical dependence. drug tolerance. drug overdose.

17

Which of the following is an example of psychological dependence?

Experiencing withdrawal when the drug is inaccessible Developing tolerance to a drug Taking a depressant drug in order to fall asleep Using stimulant drugs to feel more self­confident

18

All of the following statements about illicit drug use in the United States are correct except males are more likely to use drugs than females. around 9 of Americans use drugs. rates of drug use are highest in the South. drug use is more common in urban areas.

19

Chewing tobacco commonly enters the body through which method of administration?

Injection Inhalation

Mucosal absorption Topical administration 20

Heroin commonly enters the body through which method of drug administration?

Ingestion Inhalation Mucosal absorption Injection

21

Drugs are metabolized in the stomach. the intestines. the skin. the liver.

22

Distribution half­life is the time it takes for a drug to achieve peak level in the bloodstream. a drug to move from general circulation to body tissues. half of a drug dose to be excreted through the kidneys. the psychoactive effects of a drug to subside.

23

When a person takes two or more drugs at once, the physiological effects are likely to be greater if the drugs exhibit additive interactions. antagonistic interactions. selective interactions. endogenous interactions.

24

All of the following are common examples of prescription drug misuse except taking the incorrect dose. taking the medicine at the wrong time. forgetting to take a dose of the medication. completing the required course of medication.

25

The prescription drugs most commonly misused are depressants. narcotics. stimulants. antidepressants.

26

All of the following statements about over­the­counter medicines are correct except they may interact with herbal supplements. they may not be safe for pregnant women. they include allergy pills and cold medicines. they do not present any of the challenges associated with prescription drugs.

27

Combining acetaminophen and alcohol can lead to liver damage. brain damage. nerve damage. kidney damage.

28

Recreational marijuana use is legal in which of the following states?

Washington California New York Wyoming

29

The main psychoactive chemical in marijuana is PCP. THC. LSD. MDMA.

30

The physiological effects of marijuana include all the following except increased heart rate. expansion of the blood vessels in the eye. enlargement of the bronchi. decreased heart rate.

31

Long­term effects of marijuana use may include all of the following except chronic cough and phlegm production. bronchitis and other respiratory problems. enhanced immune system function. impaired cognitive ability.

32

Recall Andrea's Student Story from the chapter. Andrea gave up marijuana because she was arrested.

she had a very bad experience after smoking a joint laced with PCP. her boyfriend left her because of her drug use. she spent all of her money on pot and ended up broke.

33

Which of the following is not a central nervous system stimulant?

Caffeine Ritalin Cocaine LSD

34

The most popular mind­altering drug in the world is alcohol. nicotine. caffeine. cocaine.

35

A common effect of excessive caffeine consumption is restlessness. serenity. lethargy. lower blood pressure.

36

Symptoms of caffeine withdrawal may include all of the following except headaches. depression. alertness. anxiety.

37

Freebasing cocaine means that the user is snorting the powder form. injecting the liquid form. mixing it with other drugs. heating the crystal form and inhaling the vapors.

38

Side effects of cocaine include all of the following except higher blood pressure. hunger. blurred vision. increased respiration.

39

Adderall and Ritalin are typically misused by college students who are treating attention­deficit disorder. seeking intoxication without side effects. suffering from anxiety disorders. attempting to improve their attention and concentration skills.

40

Which of the following stimulant drugs is used as a prescription drug to treat ADHD and chronic fatigue?

Cocaine Caffeine Amphetamines Marijuana

41

Which serious complication is associated with long­term amphetamine use?

Cancer Liver disease Heart attack Alzheimer's

42

How does methamphetamine differ from amphetamines?

It is more potent.

It is less potent.

It has fewer side effects.

It is more commonly prescribed by doctors.

43

Methamphetamine use may cause all of the following except paranoia. memory loss. reduced heart rate. convulsions.

44

All of the following are true about LSD except its effects are unpredictable. it usually takes 30­90 minutes to take effect. users sometimes have "flashbacks." users cannot develop a tolerance to the drug.

45

PCP was originally developed as a diet drug.

a hallucinogen. an anesthetic. a sedative.

46

Ecstasy's negative effects are similar to those of LSD. amphetamines. barbiturates. alcohol.

47

Rohypnol can make people vulnerable to sexual assault because it can cause unconsciousness. restlessness. paranoia. nausea.

48

Inhalants include solvents. ketamine. opiods. benzodiazepines.

49

All of the following are examples of depressants except barbituates. benzodiazepines. ketamine. alcohol.

50

Psilocybin causes users to experience an elevated sense of pleasure. increased energy. hallucinations. depression.

51

All of the following are true about heroin except it is fast­acting. it is classed as a depressant. it is highly addictive. it is typically injected into a vein.

52

All of the following are examples of prevention

strategies except a 12 step program. drug testing at the workplace. campaigns to discourage drug abuse. drug education programs.

53

The "feel good" neurotransmitter in the brain that produces the euphoria associated with drug use is called dopamine. endorphin. epinephrine. adrenaline.

54

Drug users develop ________ to a drug over time, which means they need more of the drug to produce the same effect. withdrawal tolerance sensitivity desensitization

55

In ________ interactions, the effect of one drug is diminished when combined with another drug. additive synergistic antagonistic volatile

56

Cocaine in its pure form is called coke. freebase. powder. crack.

57

Alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines are all examples of a class of drugs known casually as "downers," a slang term for hallucinogens. depressants. cannibus. opoids.

By observing Cepheid variable stars that are a standard candle for measuring distance, he was able to determine that these were very far away. This shows that the Andromeda “nebula” was an enormous stellar system, far beyond the confines of the Milky Way.

58

Most Americans use drugs during their lifetime.

True False See Figure 14­11 (Slater)

59

The most commonly used illicit drug is cocaine.

True False The more massive a galaxy, the more luminous and the faster the material rotates around the center of the galaxy. The faster it rotates, the broader the hydrogen spectrum lines. By analyzing the spectra, determination of absolute luminosity and observation of apparent luminosity, distances can be calculated.

60

Physical dependence on a drug leads to drug tolerance.

True False Parallax can be used out to 500 parsecs; spectroscopic parallax can be used from about 40 parsecs to 10 kiloparsecs; standard candles can be used to measure distances depending on their brightnesses; RR Lyrae can be used out to globular clusters; Cepheid variable stars can be used out to nearby galaxies; and Tully– Fisher and Type Ia supernovae can be used to measure distances to more distant galaxies.

61

Injection is a common method of administering heroin.

True False Clusters of galaxies are grouped together in huge associations called superclusters. The superclusters are grouped together in filaments and voids— regions of no galaxies—similar to patterns of soapsuds surrounding air bubbles.

62

A pregnant woman who drinks 2 cups of caffeinated coffee has double the risk for miscarriage.

True False Galactic cannibalism is the “eating” or incorporating of smaller galaxies into larger ones. It means that galaxies can merge or incorporate several galaxies and in the process may produce starburst galaxies or

irregular merging galaxies and will likely eventually settle down into large elliptical galaxies.

63

Toxicity is the dosage level at which a drug causes death.

True False Gravitational lensing is when an object of very large mass bends space­time around it and the light that passes nearby follows that curvature and bends around the object like light through a lens. When a gravitational lensing effect is seen from Earth, it indicates that something massive is in the way of the distorted light. The mass of dark matter can also be inferred from gravitational lensing.

64

Taking painkillers to get high is an example of drug misuse.

True False Quasars are luminous, rather small objects, far away from Earth. They are members of a diverse group of active galaxies, most likely fueled by a supermassive black hole that was very active early in the formation of the universe.

65

Drug abuse is the same as drug misuse.

True False Rapid fluctuations in the brightness of active galaxies is evidence that the region that emits radiation is quite small and as gases spiral in toward the supermassive black hole, some of the gas may be redirected to become two jets of high­speed particles that are aligned perpendicularly to the accretion disk.

66

Over­the­counter medications are prescription drugs.

True False The rate at which stars form within a protogalaxy may determine whether the protogalaxy becomes a spiral or an elliptical galaxy. If stars form relatively slowly, the gas surrounding them has enough time to settle by collisions to form a flattened disk, much as happened on a smaller scale in the solar nebula during the formation of our Sun and solar system. If stars form

relatively quickly, an elliptical galaxy is likely to form.

67

Cold medications are never dangerous.

True False Some strange objects had radio wave sources and their spectra had emission lines in a completely surprising part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Once it was realized that their redshifts were so extreme that these objects had to be very far away, they must also be incredibly powerful and bright. They were dubbed quasi­stellar radio sources because they looked like stars but have unusual spectra for galaxies.

68

Smoking marijuana has none of the long­term health effects of smoking tobacco.

True False Some galaxies are observed to currently be merging.

They may have gravitational tidal tails or antennae, some large elliptical galaxies have several galactic cores, and starburst formations where the gas clouds merge and create areas of active star formations.

69

Stimulants affect the function of the central nervous system.

True False When large gas clouds combine and the shock waves begin star formation that is noted by the blue color of young, bright, hot stars.

70

Caffeine is not addictive.

True False Regular clusters are almost completely spherical in nature with a greater number of galaxies at the core of the cluster. Irregular clusters of galaxies might have galaxies scattered across a sprawling region of the sky.

71

Alcohol increases the toxicity of cocaine.

True False

72

Psilocybin is more addictive than cocaine.

True False

73

Ecstasy is used as a date rape drug.

True False

74

Most inhalants slow down the body's function, much like anesthetics.

True False

75

Inhalants can cause brain damage.

True False

76

Withdrawal symptoms from depressant use can include fever, seizures, and delirium.

True False

77

Anyone admitted to a drug treatment program will probably face legal charges and spend time in jail.

True False

78

A hallucinogen is a chemical substance taken to alter the body physically or mentally for a non­nutritional purpose.

True False

79

When a user continues to use a substance and demonstrates an uncontrollable drug craving they have reached addiction.

True False

80

Methamphetamine is chemically similar to amphetamine but is even more potent and harmful.

True False

81

A common side effect from methamphetamines is weight gain.

True False

82

Club drug users can quickly become dehydrated.

True False

83

The most widely abused opioid is rohypnol.

True False

84

Narcotics Anonymous is an example of a 12­step program.

True False

85

Match the following:

Weed

Marijuana Roofies Rohypnol Magic mushrooms Psilocybin Ecstasy MDMA Crack Cocaine

86

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87

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88

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89

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TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 90

Match the following:

"Date rape drug" GHB Inhalant Nitrous oxide Opioid OxyContin OTC pain­relief drug Acetaminophen Central nervous system depressant Barbituates

91

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92

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93

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MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 94

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95

How are behavioral addictions defined by the American Psychiatric Association? List 4 types.

Answer: It is defined as addiction to an activity * pathological gambling * compulsive spending * hypersexual disorder * technology addiction

96

Describe the five basic ways that people self­administer drugs, and explain their effects.

Answer: * Ingestion is the process of swallowing and absorbing a drug through the digestive system. It is the slowest way for a chemical to reach the brain. * Injection is the process of using a syringe to inject a drug into the skin (subcutaneous injection), muscle (intramuscular injection), or bloodstream (intravenous injection), Injecting a drug into a vein sends it more quickly to the brain. As a result, the drug can deliver a quicker rush, but the high can also fade faster, which leads to repeated use and a higher addictive potential.

Injecting a drug can expose a user to diseases. * Inhalation is the process of breathing a drug into the lung through the mouth or nostril. Like injection, it increases a drug's addictive potential because it speeds drugs into the bloodstream. * Mucosal absorption is the absorption of a drug through the mucous membranes. Chewing tobacco is absorbed through the mucous membranes of the mouth. Cocaine that has been snorted is absorbed through the mucous membranes of the nose. * Topical administration is typified by applying a drug

directly to a body surface like the skin. A nicotine patch, which is applied directly to the skin's surface, is an example of topical administration.

97

Explain three factors that help determine the physiological response to a drug.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Weight­Someone who is heavyset may require a greater amount of a drug than someone who is thin. * Sex­Women have a greater fat­to­muscle ratio and a lower amount of water in their bodies, which can influence the effects of a drug. * Ethnicity­For example, Caucasians generally transform antipsychotic and anti­anxiety medications in the body more quickly than Asians. * History of drug use­Long­term use can result in tolerance. * Other factors include the influence of other drugs taken at the same time (additive and antagonistic reactions).

98

What are some of the health concerns surrounding long­term marijuana use?

Answer: Because marijuana is usually smoked, users can end up with many of the long­term problems that tobacco smokers do. Problems may be heightened because pot smokers inhale deeply and hold the smoke in their lungs. Long­term health risks include daily cough and phlegm production, bronchitis and other respiratory problems, lung damage, impaired immune system functioning, impaired cognitive functioning, and possibly increased risk of cancer of the respiratory tract and lungs.

99

What are the health risks associated with methamphetamine use?

Answer: * Methamphetamine can cause a rapid or irregular heartbeat, boost blood pressure, and reduce appetite.

Irritability, anxiety, insomnia, confusion, and tremors are also side effects. High doses can elevate body temperature to dangerous or lethal levels, as well as cause convulsions. Cardiovascular collapse and death are not uncommon. Chronic abusers may experience

aggressiveness, anorexia, memory loss, hallucinations, and a paranoia that sometimes causes homicidal or suicidal thoughts. * Chronic methamphetamine use significantly changes how the brain functions. Long­term use can reduce motor speed and impair verbal learning. * "Meth mouth" (severely stained teeth that appear to be rotting away or falling out) and cold sores may also develop.

100

Discuss campus based programs for students struggling with substance abuse.

Answer: Campus health services center may offer assistance for students struggling with substance abuse. These services may include drug treatment, weekly support group meetings, substance­free housing, and opportunities to participate in community service projects.

Chapter 008 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

According to national surveys, slightly more than ________ of the adults in the United States drink alcohol.

50% 60% 70% 80%

2

The 1984 Federal Uniform Drinking Age Act has had all the following positive effects on health and safety except decreasing alcohol consumption in minors. decreasing the availability of alcohol nationally in retail stores. decreasing alcohol­related traffic fatalities. decreasing suicides.

3

Katie only drinks on the weekend, and she typically consumes 4­5 mixed drinks during the first two hours that she is out with her friends. This drinking pattern is called social drinking. alcoholism. teetotaling. binge drinking.

4

Binge drinking is most common in this age group.

Under 18 Over 25 18­24 25­30

5

Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest percentage of current drinkers?

Caucasians Native Americans African Americans Asian Americans

6

Which of the following students is least likely to binge drink?

Athletes Minorities Fraternity and sorority members

Sports fans 7

What effect does parental acceptance of alcohol use during high school have on college drinking patterns?

It decreases a student's risk of misusing or abusing alcohol during college.

It has no effect on the student's drinking habits during college.

It increases a student's risk of misusing or abusing alcohol during college.

It encourages the student to drink responsibly during college.

8

Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) is affected by which of the following?

A person's body weight What a person has had to eat How much and how quickly a person drinks All of the answers are correct.

9

Rita and John both had 2 shots of vodka, but Rita's blood alcohol level is higher than John's. Which of the following best explains the difference between Rita's and her friend's reactions to the alcohol they consumed?

Women absorb about 30% more alcohol into their bloodstream than men do.

Rita may have eaten a meal high in protein and fat prior to drinking.

Rita is younger than John.

Rita may have drank her vodka slower than John did.

10

Short­term effects of alcohol consumption include all the following except decreased urination. lightheadedness. sleep disturbances. indigestion.

11

The effect of coffee on a hangover is a reversal of symptoms associated with a hangover. an increase in dehydration and worsening of a hangover. a shortened duration of a hangover due to the stimulant effects of coffee.

a worsening of a hangover due to coffee providing additional hydration.

12

Justin consumed too much alcohol at a friend's party and awoke with a hangover. Which of the following is the best way for him to treat his hangover?

Drinking additional alcohol the next morning Taking a pain reliever immediately after drinking Drinking water or a sports drink the next morning Drinking coffee the next morning

13

Drinking alcohol during pregnancy can cause birth defects. mental retardation. developmental disabilities.

All of the answers are correct.

14

When a person quits drinking alcohol and experiences physical symptoms such as nausea, sweating, shakiness, and anxiety, this is called tolerance. withdrawal. alcohol abuse. binge drinking.

15

Having a BAC of ________ or greater will qualify you for a DWI arrest. .02% .05% .06% .08%

16

All the following factors increase a person's risk for abusing alcohol except needing approval. having low self esteem. having a low stress level. being impulsive.

17

All of the following are characteristics of the alcoholic young adult subtype except having a family history of alcoholism. being free of mental disorders. being unlikely to seek help for alcoholism. being alcoholic by age 21.

18

When Colin was 6, his father died from alcohol

poisoning. Colin started drinking and using marijuana at the age of 12. As an adult Colin has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. What subtype is Colin?

Intermediate family subtype Young adult subtype Functional subtype Young antisocial subtype 19

Newer medications used to treat alcoholism have all the following advantages except they have no effects on the brain. they don't make a person sick if he drinks while taking them. they reduce the cravings for alcohol. they are not addictive.

20

All of the following are important components of effective alcohol­counseling programs except offering empathy. including heavy confrontation. strengthening motivation. providing concrete ways to change drinking behavior.

21

Sam is seeking help for alcoholism through a program that emphasizes sensible drinking at healthy levels rather than abstinence. This type of counseling is called a 12­step program. motivational enhancement. brief intervention. group therapy.

22

"Falling off the wagon" is a term to describe alcoholism. rehabilitation. abstinence. relapse.

23

Beating alcoholism requires all the following except practice. substituting alcohol with another drug. patience. lifestyle changes.

24

All of the following are reasons young adults start smoking except that

they have never heard that smoking can kill you. they do it as an act of rebellion. their friends smoke. one or both of their parents smoke.

25

Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest rate of smoking?

African Americans Native Americans Hispanics Asian Americans

26

When Bob smokes, he feels a sense of pleasure. This is likely due to the release of large amounts of nicotine. tar. dopamine. carcinogens.

27

Which of the following causes the most deaths in the United States?

Tobacco Alcohol abuse HIV Illegal drug use

28

The majority of adults who regularly smoke began smoking after graduating from college. at 21 years of age. at 19 years of age or younger. at middle age.

29

Where does most alcohol absorption occur?

Mouth Stomach Small intestine Large intestine

30

Smoking is a key risk factor for coronary heart disease. stroke. abdominal aortic aneurysm.

All of the answers are correct.

31

A person with COPD can have asthma. chronic bronchitis. emphysema.

All of the answers are correct.

32

Lynn switched to light cigarettes. Which of the following is true?

There is no evidence that "light" cigarettes provide any health benefits.

She will inhale fewer hazardous chemicals than she did with regular cigarettes.

She will have a greater chance of quitting.

All of the answers are correct.

33

Robert has been a smoker for two years. For the past three months he has been coughing up mucus and wheezing. His symptoms suggest he may have emphysema. asthma. chronic bronchitis.

None of the answers are correct.

34

Beth's physician warned her to quit smoking when she learned she was pregnant because of which of the following risks?

Low birth weight Sudden infant death syndrome Miscarriage All of the answers are correct.

35

Secondhand smoke can cause or exacerbate which of the following health conditions?

Asthma Cancer Respiratory infections All of the answers are correct.

36

The tobacco in one cigar can contain as much tobacco as ________ cigarette(s). one half a pack of a pack of five

37

All of the following statements regarding bidis are true except

they are safer than regular cigarettes. they have more nicotine than regular cigarettes. bidi smokers have a higher cancer risk. bidis may appeal to smokers who like the exotic flavors not available in regular cigarettes.

38

Which of the following groups is least likely to use smokeless tobacco?

Caucasian males Female college students Intercollegiate athletes College students in rural areas or small towns

39

Leukoplakia is most common in cigar smokers. older smokers. smokeless tobacco users. younger smokers.

40

Nicotine activates the pleasure center of the brain and raises levels of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine. glutamate.

GABA. dopamine.

41

Most digested alcohol is metabolized in the kidneys. liver. gall bladder. pancreas.

42

Symptoms of alcohol poisoning include all of the following except seizures. hypothermia. hyperglycemia. slow breathing.

43

Secondhand smoke can cause ear infections. lung cancer. sudden infant death syndrome.

All of the answers are correct.

44

African Americans have the highest reported rate of alcohol use of racial or ethnic groups.

True False

45

Alcohol­induced sleep is deeper and more restorative than regular sleep.

True False

46

The highest incidence of alcohol dependence is in the age group of 24­34.

True False

47

The majority of preventable accidents in college­aged adults can be attributed to alcohol.

True False

48

Fewer than 10% of college students have never tried alcohol.

True False

49

A 100­proof bourbon contains 50% alcohol by volume.

True False

50

Peer pressure is a major factor in student drinking.

True False

51

Students whose parents allowed them to drink in high school have no desire to drink by the time they enter college.

True False

52

Distilling ethyl alcohol decreases its concentration of alcohol.

True False

53

Taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) after drinking is not recommended and can lead to permanent liver damage.

True False

54

A 12 ounce beer has less alcohol than a 1.5 ounce shot of tequila.

True False

55

When Janet pours herself a glass of wine at home, she fills a wine glass that can hold 8 ounces to the top. This is equivalent to one serving of wine.

True False

56

Blake finds that he becomes intoxicated quicker when he drinks rum and cola than when he drinks rum and pineapple juice. This is because the carbon dioxide in the cola increases the rate of absorption.

True False

57

Women produce more of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase than men.

True False

58

Most alcohol is metabolized in the liver.

True False

59

Having a BAC greater than 0.08% or greater is the criterion for legal intoxication.

True False

60

One of the key contributing factors to a hangover is the amount of congeners the drink has.

True False

61

Effects of a hangover do not last longer than 12 hours after the drinking has stopped.

True False

62

If a person has alcohol poisoning, the best treatment is a cup of coffee and a cold shower.

True False

63

Oral cancers are more common in drinkers than nondrinkers.

True False

64

Chronic heavy drinking can lower triglycerides.

True False

65

Alcohol is associated with three forms of liver disease.

True False

66

Heavy drinking increases a woman's risk for being a victim of sexual assault.

True False

67

Withdrawal symptoms are a defining characteristic of alcohol abuse.

True False

68

There is no evidence that switching to light cigarettes helps smokers kick their habit.

True False

69

Smoking causes one out of every five deaths in the United States.

True False

70

The younger people are when they start smoking, the higher the likelihood that they will become adult smokers.

True False

71

Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide are harmful chemicals found in cigarette smoke.

True

False

72

Because nicotine acts as an appetite suppressant, some young adults smoke to help them lose weight.

True False

73

Cigarettes contain chemicals found in gasoline and embalming fluid.

True False

74

Because Ashley is regularly exposed to secondhand smoke, she inhales higher concentrations of nicotine, tar, carbon dioxide and ammonia than a smoker does.

True False

75

Cigars are a safer alternative to cigarettes.

True False

76

Clove cigarettes pose fewer risks to long­term health than conventional cigarettes.

True False

77

Consuming alcohol may lead to dehydration because alcohol is a diuretic.

True False

78

Moderate underage drinking can temporarily impair memory and learning.

True False

79

For some, abstinence is ultimately the only way to keep alcohol from disrupting their lives.

True False

80

Body temperature and blood sugar level may rise dangerously in a person with alcohol poisoning.

True False

81

The functional subtype of alcoholics are typically middle­aged smokers who have stable jobs, families, good incomes, and are well educated.

True False

82

Match the following:

Alcoholic cirrhosis the most serious type of alcohol­related liver disease Fetal alcohol syndrome pattern of mental and physical birth defects caused by drinking alcohol during pregnancy Alcoholic hepatitis inflammation of the liver Alcohol poisoning dangerously high level of alcohol consumption causing depression of the central nervous system

Fatty liver buildup of fat cells in the liver Olbers's paradox asks the question: “Why is the sky dark at night?” Newton concluded that we must be living amid a static, infinite expanse of stars. In this model, the universe is infinitely old, and it will exist forever without major changes in its structure. Oblers noticed, however, that a static, infinite universe presents a major puzzle. If space goes on forever, with stars scattered throughout it, then any line of sight must eventually hit a star and the sky would be lit brightly.

Because this does not occur, the universe must either be finite in size or finite in age and the light has not reached us yet.

83

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84

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85

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86

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87

Match the following:

Dopamine a neurotransmitter that stimulates feelings of pleasure Tar a sticky brown residue formed from burning tobacco Carcinogenic cancer­causing Nicotine an addictive alkaloid derived from tobacco Carbon monoxide a gas that inhibits the delivery of oxygen to the body Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson, of Bell Telephone Laboratories in New Jersey, were puzzled when they pointed their microwave antenna for communications at the sky and detected a faint background noise. After cleaning the antenna carefully to remove the bird droppings that they thought were causing the “noise,” they came to realize they were measuring the leftover radiation from the Big Bang.

88

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89

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Answer: 90

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91

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92

Compare and contrast drinking patterns among Caucasians, African Americans, Native Americans, Asian Americans, and Hispanics as reported in a recent national survey conducted by The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration.

Answer: At 56.8% Caucasians have the highest rates of current drinking of any ethnic/racial group. Native Americans and Hispanics have nearly identical reported rates of current drinking at 44.7% and 42.5%, respectively.

African Americans reported rates of nearly 42.1%, and Asian Americans were the lowest at 40%. Binge drinking rates were highest among Native Americans, Caucasians, Hispanics, African Americans, those of mixed race, and Asian Americans.

93

Refer to Rita's Student Story in the chapter. From Rita's student story in the chapter, how would you advise her to avoid intoxication if she decides to drink alcohol again in the future?

Answer: Rita should eat a meal that is high in protein and fat to help slow down the absorption of alcohol before she drinks. She should avoid combining alcohol with carbonated beverages because carbonation speeds up the absorption of alcohol. She should also alternate drinking nonalcoholic and alcoholic beverages.

94

Explain how alcohol is absorbed and metabolized in the

body.

Answer: Some alcohol is metabolized in the stomach by alcohol dehydrogenase. Some is absorbed in the stomach.

Food in the stomach slows down the absorption of alcohol. Most of the alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine. Most alcohol is metabolized in the liver.

Alcohol that is not metabolized returns to the blood and circulates through the body, including the brain.

95

List five short­term effects of alcohol.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Sleep disturbances * Lightheadedness * Relaxation * Lack of inhibitions * Compromised motor coordination * Slower reaction time * Slurred speech * Dulled senses * Clouded judgment * Dehydration * Digestive problems * Low blood sugar due to alterations in metabolism * Hangover

96

Rachel is going to a sorority party with her friends.

Discuss three ways she can protect herself from risky alcohol­related behaviors.

Answer: Any three of the following: * She can avoid drinking to get drunk by drinking moderately, eating before, during, and after drinking, alternating between drinking alcoholic and nonalcoholic beverages, and avoiding drinking games. * She can make a pact with a friend to stay together during the night. * She can make arrangements ahead of time for getting home if she plans to drink. * She can refuse to accept a drink from a stranger. * She can remember the signs of alcohol poisoning and be prepared to get help if someone is exhibiting those signs.

97

Carlton suspects his roommate is an alcoholic. What

symptoms would his roommate exhibit if he were an alcoholic?

Answer: Alcoholism is defined as exhibiting at least three of the following symptoms during a one­year period: * Increasing alcohol tolerance * Physical withdrawal symptoms of sweating, nausea, shaking, tremors, seizures, and anxiety after stopping drinking * A desire to quit or an inability to quit * Spending an excessive amount of time buying, using, and recovering from alcohol * Interference with life activities due to alcohol use * Continuing to use alcohol despite physical or psychological problems 98

Compare and contrast treatment options for alcoholism.

Answer: Medications can make quitting easier by reducing the craving for alcohol. They are not addictive and don't make a person sick who drinks while taking them.

Medications can be combined with counseling or support groups. Alcohol counseling or talk therapy can focus on individual or group therapy, alcoholism support groups, or lectures and activities. Specialized counseling may focus on the individual or the family and may involve multiple or occasional sessions. Brief interventions have gained recent popularity. Unlike the traditional counseling approach, this method encourages sensible drinking at healthy levels rather than abstinence. Brief interventions require minimal follow up and can be quite effective. Self help groups such as 12­step involves attending meetings and mutual support. Intensive treatment programs are 14 to 28 day residential programs that combine a 12 step approach with individual and group counseling in a strictly scheduled abstinence environment as well as longer term programs and halfway houses.

99

Discuss three reasons why students smoke.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Peer pressure­ to gain acceptance from friends who smoke * Rebellion and experimentation­ a desire to rebel

against authority and to try recreational drugs * Family exposure­ twice as more likely to smoke if one or both parents smoke * Aggressive marketing­ advertising that directly reaches youth * Desire to lose weight­ nicotine's effect on lowering the appetite * Stress­ a perception that smoking reduces stress likely due to its effect on dopamine levels in the brain 100

Describe the START method as a smoking cessation strategy?

Answer: S­ Set a quit date T­ Tell his family and friends for support A­ Anticipate and plan for the challenges he will face R­ Remove cigarettes and other forms of tobacco from his home, car and work T­ Talk to his doctor about quitting

101

Discuss three options available for people trying to quit smoking.

Answer: * Nicotine replacement therapies to help smokers gradually reduce nicotine dependence * Medications that reduce cravings and withdrawal effects, such as Zyban and Chantix * Smoking cessation programs in the forms of group or individual therapy, residential, and educational support groups

Chapter 009 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

All of the following communication strategies are recommended when having an argument with someone except resist antagonizing the person. look for a win­win solution. walk away and try to avoid the subject. listen effectively.

2

Which type of nonverbal communication sends a positive message?

Making good eye contact Acting passive or indifferent Keeping your arms crossed Hunching your shoulders to avoid looking aggressive

3

Which communication style is most typical of women?

Finishing a topic before going on to the next one Speaking with fewer words Making requests bluntly Thinking aloud

4

Which communication style is most typical of men?

Trying to build a consensus among participants Trying to connect with others during conversations Giving direct feedback Thinking through a problem out loud

5

The theory that the type of relationship we have with others when we are young strongly influences our behavior in later relationships is known as the attachment theory. self­esteem theory. intimacy theory. assortative mating theory.

6

According to Robert Sternberg, the three primary components of healthy, loving relationships are all of the following except intimacy. passion. financial security. commitment.

7

The feeling of closeness in loving relationships is called intimacy. passion. commitment. honesty.

8

Marika received an inflammatory comment. Which of the following strategies would help her prevent cyber bullying in the future?

Ignore it since most cyber bullying is a one time event.

Think before she posts something online.

Send back an insulting retort.

Post a derogatory comment towards the bully's cyber friends.

9

Which of the following is an example of assortative mating?

Joe is Caucasian and is dating Pam, who is Asian.

Sue is Muslim and marries Lamar, who is Methodist.

Sammy is thin but is attracted to Mary, who is obese.

Jessica has a PhD in biology and marries David, who is a physician.

10

Refer to Jonathan's and Yeani's Student Story in the chapter. What advice do Jonathan and Yeani give to couples trying to make things work while in college?

Avoid difficult subjects that might lead to arguments.

Spend time apart on a regular basis.

Be open with one another.

Keep your problems to yourself.

11

Mark is 80 years old and lost his wife last year. He marries a woman who lives nearby who lost her husband several years ago. They sleep in separate rooms but enjoy each other's company. This is an example of empty love. companionate love. romantic love. fatuous love.

12

Joe and Jean have been married for 35 years. They are in love and remain passionate toward each other. This

is an example of consummate love. companionate love. romantic love. fatuous love.

13

Helen went to France for spring break. While there, she met Jacques and had a passionate affair, but then returned to college to finish her degree. This is an example of companionate love. consummate love. empty love. fatuous love.

14

Kaylee and Mark are in their senior year of high school and have dated for 6 months. They have had sex and are not sure what their plans are once they graduate from high school. This is an example of empty love. companionate love. romantic love. fatuous love.

15

Today, the definition of "hooking up" means meeting someone at a bar and having dinner. drinking excessively. hanging out at someone's house and playing video games. having a casual physical encounter with someone.

16

The following precautions are recommended for online dating except do not have the new date pick you up at home. make sure not to introduce your new date to your friends in case you don't get along. tell a friend where you are meeting the new date. trust your gut feelings.

17

A sign of a healthy relationship includes all the following except you insist on doing everything together. you engage in activities you both like. you share decision making. you confide in each other.

18

Joe needs to know where Jessica is every minute of the day. This is

a sign of a healthy relationship. a sign of normal jealousy. a sign of a dysfunctional relationship. what happens when people cohabitate.

19

When relationships end, all of the following are recommended except keep busy. talk about it. focus on what you did wrong. let your emotions out and allow yourself to cry.

20

All of the following are benefits of marriage except better mental health. reduced life expectancy. improved financial health. better physical health.

21

Couples who cohabitated before marriage experience lower rates of depression. experience higher rates of infidelity. experience higher rates of marital satisfaction. experience lower rates of divorce.

22

All of the following are correct about cohabitation except couples who cohabitate cannot collect social security benefits after the death of a partner. couples who cohabitate in the United States report the highest levels of wealth among household types. couples who cohabitate have lower self­esteem. couples who cohabitate have higher relational dependency.

23

Domestic partnerships are for committed couples who are homosexual only. are heterosexual only. are either homosexual or heterosexual. want to adopt children and are not married.

24

Which couple is at increased risk of divorce?

Jon and Helen, who earn an annual income of $85,000

20

Eileen and Rick, who married when they were both

Bonnie and Mitch, who both have parents who are still married Jill and David, who have two children 25

All of the following are correct about single parents except they are most often female. they generally suffer from economic hardships. their children tend to do as well in life as children born to two parents. their children are more likely to have a child out of wedlock themselves.

26

John and Rhonda can discuss their feelings and share information that is very personal. This is known as communication. self­disclosure. intimacy. love.

27

Standing with your arms crossed is a type of ________ communication. intimate nonverbal self­disclosing developmental

28

Learning how to deal with and resolve disagreements is known as conflict resolution. conflict escalation. conflict avoidance. conflict theory.

29

Jan refuses to discuss how mad she is with John about their money issues. Jan is demonstrating conflict resolution. escalation. avoidance. resiliency.

30

The cognitive component of Sternberg's triangular theory of love is fatuous love. intimacy.

companionship. commitment.

31

Marie and Rob are no longer intimate and are considering divorce, but are still living in the same house. This type of love is called ________ love. empty fatuous companionship commitment

32

Joe and Elaine met at a bar and went back to his room to have sex. This is known as assortive mating. dating. hooking up. intimacy.

33

Young adults get married at younger ages today than they did in 1980.

True False

34

"Love at first sight" is also known as empty love.

True False

35

Research has shown that we tend to be happiest when we pick partners who are a lot like us in many ways.

True False

36

Hooking up is more likely to occur after drinking alcohol.

True False

37

Adolescents exposed to marital discord in their lives are less likely to have conflict in their own marriages years

later.

True False 38

Most cohabitating couples are denied the legal and financial benefits afforded to married couples.

True False

39

Most Americans will marry during their lifetime.

True False

40

Married people tend to be happier and more satisfied with their lives than unmarried people.

True False

41

Married men die seven years earlier on average than single men.

True False

42

Divorce rates are higher for people who have attended college.

True False

43

Only 67% of children in 2009 lived with two married, biological parents.

True False

44

Same sex marriages are recognized by the federal government.

True False

45

Parenthood is often associated with an increase in marital satisfaction.

True False

46

Happy families spend quality time together as much as possible.

True False

47

Children born out of wedlock are more likely to experience a wide range of behavioral and emotional problems than children from married, two­parent families.

True False

48

Most divorced adults go on to remarry.

True False

49

Single mothers, on average, have higher levels of education than other women.

True False

50

Today, around one­third of all children are born to single mothers.

True False

51

Children from single­parent households are less likely

to have a child outside of marriage themselves.

True False

52

Asking for clarification before jumping to conclusions is an example of good communication skills.

True False

53

It is important to learn not to interrupt people who are talking to you, so that they can complete their thoughts before you speak.

True False

54

Behaviors and tasks considered appropriate for one sex only are called sexual roles.

True False

55

The first relationship we ever experience is the intimate relationship.

True False

56

In Sternberg's terminology, love with intimacy, passion, and commitment is known as consummate love.

True False

57

Occasional jealousy that doesn't accompany domestic violence or irrational thoughts is a natural emotion.

True False

58

Friendships can be more fulfilling and longer lasting than many romantic relationships.

True False

59

Toxic relationships in which neither partner is happy are referred to as empty relationships.

True False

60

There has been a significant decrease in unmarried couples cohabitating.

True False

61

In a domestic partnership, an unmarried couple lives together in a long­term, committed relationship and have all of the legal rights of a married couple.

True False

62

Healthy relationships don't have any occurrences of hurt feelings or emotional pain.

True False

63

An estimated 10 percent of women who have a child born out of wedlock live in poverty.

True False

64

Match the following:

Assortative mating Attraction to people similar to you

Fatuous love A whirlwind romance Romantic love Physical attraction with an emotional bond Infatuation Love at first sight Empty love Commitment without intimacy

65

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66

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67

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68

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Answer: 69

Match the following:

Homophobia Fear and hatred of homosexuality Heterosexual A person sexually attracted to someone of the opposite sex Homosexual A person sexually attracted to someone of the same sex Homonegativity Unfavorable views towards homosexuals

70

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71

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72

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73

Discuss five communication skills that may be helpful when dealing with conflict or other uncomfortable situations.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Stay focused. * Take responsibility. * Use "I" messages. * Listen effectively. * Be solution­focused. * Step away if necessary. * Avoid jumping to conclusions or making quick judgments. * Resist antagonizing the other person. * Seek help if you need it.

74

What is "Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love"?

Answer: According to Sternberg's theory, there are three primary components of healthy relationships: intimacy, passion, and commitment. The type and intensity of love a couple experiences depends upon the strength of each of the three components in their relationship.

75

What have studies found regarding the notion that "opposites attract"?

Answer: Scientists have found that we tend to be attracted to people who share some of our characteristics. This is known as assortative mating.

76

What is "infatuation"? Give an example.

Answer: Infatuation is passion alone. It is also known as "love at first sight." An example would be when two people who have just met and barely know each other feel a powerful romantic attraction.

77

What is "empty love"? Give an example.

Answer:

Empty love is the absence of intimacy and passion but still has commitment. This type of relationship can be found in couple who are on the brink of a break up or whose relationship is stagnant.

78

What is "hooking up"?

Answer: Hooking up is a casual, noncommittal, physical encounter that may range from kissing and "making out" to oral sex and intercourse.

79

What is online dating? What are some precautions that should be taken?

Answer: Online dating is finding potential partners through a dating Website that allows you to get to know someone prior to a face­to­face meeting. You should never give out your full name and address or meet the person at your home on your first date. Meet the person in a public place and tell a friend where you will be. If something doesn't feel right, cut the date short.

80

Discuss five recommendations for maintaining a strong relationship with someone.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Be honest. * Trust each other. * Respect each other. * Communicate effectively. * Give your loved one freedom and encouragement. * Encourage common interests and shared activities. * Be kind to one another. * Have mutual affection for one another. * Share decision making.

81

When a relationship ends, what are five ways to facilitate the recovery process?

Answer: Any five of the following: * Talk about it. * Focus on what is good about you. * Take care of yourself.

* Let your emotions out. * Do things you normally enjoy. * Keep busy. * Give yourself time to recover.

82

Discuss at least five characteristics of a dysfunctional relationship.

Answer: Any five of the following: * You focus on the other person at the expense of yourself. * You feel pressured to change to meet your partner's ideals. * Your partner expects you to justify what you do and whom you see, or you do the same. * One of you makes all the decisions without listening to the other's input. * You don't have any personal space. * You are afraid to disagree, and your ideas are criticized. * You lie to each other. * You feel stifled and trapped. * You or your partner is addicted to drugs or alcohol, and it affects your relationship.

83

What are five questions you and your partner can ask yourselves to determine if you are a happy couple?

Answer: Any five of the following: * Are we satisfied with how we talk to each other? * Are we creative in how we handle our differences? * Do we feel very close to each other? * Are we controlling toward each other? * When discussing problems, do we understand each other's opinions and ideas? * Are we completely satisfied with the amount of affection we get from each other? * Do we have a good balance of leisure time spent together and separately? * Do our friends or families rarely interfere with our relationship? * Do we agree on how to spend money? * Are we satisfied with how we express our spiritual values and beliefs?

84

Discuss the benefits of marriage.

Answer: Studies have shown that marriage provides various benefits, including better mental and physical health, longer life expectancies, and better financial health.

85

What are the benefits of staying single?

Answer: Answers will vary, but may include the following: the chance to focus on education or career; financial independence; having a network of strong relationships with many different people.

86

Having or adopting children can produce dramatic changes in your life. Discuss five important things to consider when thinking about becoming a parent.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Changes in your relationship * Changes in your relationships with family and friends * Having less time for yourself * Health issues * Financial issues * Changes in your home environment * Childcare arrangements * Division of labor with your partner * Parenting styles

87

What are the greatest challenges single mothers face?

Are the challenges different from those faced by single fathers? Explain your answer.

Answer: Responses will vary but will likely include one or more of the following: * Single mothers face economic hardship, in part due to lower rates of education that affect their job prospects. * They may lack emotional support from a partner and experience stress as a result of decision­making pressures and childcare issues. * Single fathers are less likely to face economic hardship and the troubles that accompany poverty.

88

Discuss three strategies for maintaining old friendships.

Answer: Any three of the following: Understand that both you and your friends are changing.

Don't overwhelm your friends with information about your college life. Listen to their stories as well.

Keep in touch with emails and phone calls.

Don't be afraid to reconnect even if it has been a few years.

Chapter 010 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

The term vulva refers to a woman's clitoris. external genitalia collectively. internal reproductive organs. vaginal area.

2

All of the following statements are true regarding the ovaries except the ovaries are where the ova are stored. midway through a woman's cycle, she ovulates. during ovulation an egg forms in one of the ovaries. the ovaries produce estrogen.

Answers will vary. Factors included in the student's response may include:

• Hunger, appetite, and food habits • Nutrition knowledge, health beliefs/concerns, and practices • Availability, convenience, and economy • Advertising and the media • Early experiences, social interactions, and cultural traditions • Personal preference, taste, and psychological needs • Values, such as political views, environmental concerns, and religious beliefs

3

A female should have her first gynecological visit when she is between the ages of 13­15. at age 18. at age 21. at age 24.

Questions that should be considered when attempting to separate a bogus story from a legitimate nutritional news story include:

• Where is the study published?

• How recent is the study?

• What research methods were used to obtain the data?

• What was the size of the study?

• Who were the subjects?

• Does a consensus of published studies support the results reported in the news?

4

Brenda is a 19­year­old virgin. According to the ACOG, when should she have her first pelvic exam and pap smear?

Not until she becomes sexually active By the age of 21 When she shows any symptoms of menstrual irregularities At age 30 Answers may vary. The following is an example:

A number of environmental, behavioral, social, and genetic factors work together to determine a person's likelihood of suffering from a degenerative disease. For example, diet notwithstanding, someone who smokes, doesn't exercise regularly, and has a parent who suffered a heart attack is more likely to end up with heart disease than a nonsmoker who works out regularly and does not have a close relative with heart disease. The way to alter disease risk is to concentrate on changing the daily habits that can be controlled. The results can be significant.

5

A yeast infection is an inflammation of the vagina that is also known as pelvic inflammatory disease. vulvovaginal candidiasis. human papillomavirus. bacterial vaginitis.

Possible strategies for keeping the saturated fat and calories in check when considering options for meals on­the­go include:

Strategy 1: Don't supersize.

Strategy 2: Think grilled, not fried.

Strategy 3: Hold the mayo.

Strategy 4: Avoid all­you­can­eat restaurants.

Strategy 5: "Just say no."

Strategy 6: Balance fast­food meals with other food choices during the day.

Strategy 7: Split your order­share with a friend.

Strategy 8: Bring your lunch.

Strategy 9: Choose grab­and­go foods.

Strategy 10: If all else fails, go for the obvious low­calorie choices.

6

Circumcision is the surgical removal of the glans. vas deferens. foreskin. scrotum.

Things you can do to help save money and time while providing healthful meals for you and your family include:

1. Buy local foods and fresh foods in season. Use the local newspaper to find the best seasonal buys and special sale items.

2. Shop from a list to help avoid buying unnecessary items. Keep a running list in your kitchen, and note items that you need to replace.

3. Read the ingredients list and Nutrition Facts label on packaged foods; compare amounts of fat, sodium, calories, and nutrients in similar products.

Ingredients are listed in order of quantity.

4. Use "sell by" and "best if used by" dates to ensure quality and freshness.

Buy only the amount you or your family will eat before the food spoils.

5. Shop the perimeter of the grocery store to find many fresh whole foods: fresh produce; low­fat dairy products; lean meats, poultry, and fish; and whole­grain breads. Maneuver down the aisles only for specific items on your list, such as canned tomato products, spices, and canned or dry beans.

7

The mixture of sperm and seminal fluid is called semen. urethra. the prostate gland. seminal vesicles.

Four general factors that work together to determine a person's likelihood of suffering from a degenerative disease are environmental, behavioral, social, and genetic factors.

8

Which chemical is responsible for dysmenorrhea?

Lutenizing hormone

Estrogen Prostaglandins Human chorionic gonadotropin Overnutrition, calorie or nutrient overconsumption severe enough to cause disease or increased risk of disease, is a form of malnutrition.

9

The first onset of menstruation in females is called menopause. menarche. the proliferative phase. the secretory phase.

Healthy People 2020 ­ Physical Activity Objectives Reduce the proportion of adults who engage in no leisure­time physical activity.

Increase the proportion of adults who meet the objectives for aerobic physical activity and for muscle­strengthening activity.

Increase the proportion of the Nation' public and private schools that require daily physical education for all students.

10

Which of the following can interrupt the menstrual cycle?

Excessive exercise Illness Excessive dieting All of the answers are correct.

Answers will vary. As an example, a student may suggest a Subway sandwich (with 6 grams of fat or less) with extra lettuce and tomatoes and no mayonnaise. A cup of soup could be added as a side, and orange juice could be the selected beverage.

11

Which of the following triggers an end of menstruation around day 6?

Estrogen reaching the uterus Progesterone reaching the uterus A decrease in FSH Ovulation Answers will vary. As an example, a student may describe holiday food traditions involving recipes or rituals surrounding holiday meals passed from one generation to the next.

12

Ovulation occurs at the end of the ________ phase of the menstrual cycle.

menstrual proliferative secretory pre­menstrual Perceived barriers for healthful eating include:

Healthful foods are not always available from fast­food and take­out restaurants.

It costs more to eat healthful foods.

I'm too busy to take the time to eat healthfully.

I hear too much conflicting information about which foods are good for me and which foods are not.

Healthful foods don't taste as good.

The people I usually eat with do not eat healthful foods.

13

All of the following are common PMS symptoms except increased sweating. breast tenderness. mood swings. backache.

Leading causes of death that have been linked to diet are: heart disease cancer stroke diabetes hypertension

14

All of the following can exacerbate PMS symptoms except smoking. stress. alcohol. exercise.

The following pertain to the dietary recommendations for sodium and potassium: Limit daily intake of salt.

Increase food sources of potassium such as fresh fruits and vegetables.

15

Janet wants to reduce her PMS symptoms naturally without using any prescription or over­the­counter medications. Which of the following lifestyle changes may be beneficial?

Reducing her intake of foods high in sugar and salt

Avoiding alcohol and tobacco Exercising regularly All the answers are correct.

Health promotion focuses on changing human behavior, including: getting people to eat healthful diets be physically active, get regular rest develop leisure­time hobbies for relaxation strengthen social networks with family and friends achieve a balance among family, work, and play

16

The hormone associated with stimulating the release of an ovum is progesterone. estrogen.

LH. FSH. Factors that influence the types and quantities of available foods include: geographic area climate soil conditions labor capital to maintain an agricultural industry

17

What differentiates PMDD from PMS? PMDD is less severe than PMS. PMS affects a woman psychologically; PMDD affects a woman physiologically.

PMDD is more severe than PMS and affects a woman's daily functioning and social relationships.

PMDD is more common than PMS but both have similar symptoms.

18

Dysmenorrhea is characterized by painful menstruation. a lack of periods. debilitating PMS. anxiety and sadness.

19

Endometriosis is a condition in which endometrial tissue grows in areas ________ the uterus. inside

outside in the walls of deep within 20

Amenorrhea is clinically defined as having no periods for at least one month. six weeks. two months. three consecutive months.

21

The most important consequence of amenorrhea is vaginal dryness. low bone density. increased risk of uterine cancer. increased risk of breast cancer.

22

According to Masters and Johnson, the first stage of the human sexual response cycle is excitement. plateau. orgasm. resolution.

23

The phase in the human sexual response cycle that precedes orgasm is plateau. resolution. refractory. excitement.

24

Which of the following can cause painful intercourse?

Vaginal dryness Prior injury Infection or inflammation All the answers are correct.

25

Erectile dysfunction not caused from injury or underlying disease can result from fatigue. depression. the use of certain medications.

All the answers are correct.

26

Which of the following statements is not true?

Sexual fantasies allow people to experience sexual situations they may not be comfortable acting out.

According to research, only 10% of college females have masturbated.

Outercourse is a safe way for couple to engage in physical contact without risking pregnancy.

Masturbation is a healthy and common expression of sexuality.

27

All of the following are safe alternatives to intercourse except oral sex. masturbation. outercourse. abstinence.

28

Unprotected oral sex can lead to the transmission of herpes. syphilis.

Hepatitis B. All of the answers are correct.

29

The use of cell phones or similar electronic devices to send sexually explicit text, photos or videos is called cyberstalking. sexting. blogging. tweeting.

30

Which of the following statements regarding anal intercourse is true?

Anal intercourse is practiced only by homosexual men.

Anal intercourse is safer than vaginal sex for both pregnancy prevention and STI prevention.

Over 30 percent of males and females aged 25­44 have had anal intercourse with a partner of the opposite sex.

Anal intercourse is considered taboo by most young adults.

31

In order to remain a "virgin," Maria has decided to practice only anal intercourse with her boyfriend, who has had previous sexual partners. Which of the following risks should she be concerned about?

HIV Injury to anal tissues Gonorrhea All the answers are correct.

32

Sexual orientation refers to a person's physical and romantic attraction to others. biological gender. sexual activity. sexual ideologies.

33

The majority of adult males and females in the United States identify themselves as homosexual. heterosexual. bisexual. celibate.

34

The American Psychiatric Association defines homosexuality as a mental illness. a biological abnormality. a normal variant of sexual orientation. an abnormal variant of sexual orientation.

35

All of the following are examples of increased acceptance of homosexuality over the last ten to thirty years except the current prevalence of homophobia in middle schools and high schools. the current number of Fortune 500 companies offering domestic partner benefits. the number of U.S. adults who believe that homosexual relationships are always sinful. cultural acceptance of the American Psychiatric Association's redefinition of homosexuality.

36

The most accurate way to define bisexuality is the number of male and female sexual partners a person has had over a lifetime. having romantic or sexual relationships with people of the same or opposite sex. being attracted to both males and females. a transitional phase of sexuality.

37

Transgendered individuals are people who

live as the gender opposite of their assigned sex. express their gender as different from their assigned sex. reject their gender. don't identify with people of their assigned gender.

38

Implantation occurs when the sperm penetrates the egg. the blastocyst becomes a zygote. the egg is released into the fallopian tubes. the blastocyst lodges in the uterus.

39

Crystal and her partner have decided to use a non­ hormonal form of contraception that is effective at preventing pregnancy and STI transmission. Which of the following would serve their needs?

Birth control pills Morning­after pill Condoms Spermicide

40

Which of the following contraceptive options also offer STI protection?

Birth control pills Emergency contraception Condoms All the answers are correct.

41

Sperm can survive for ________ days in the vagina.

2 3 5 All of the answers are correct.

42

A plastic, T­shaped device that is inserted into the uterus for long­term pregnancy prevention is called a(n) diaphragm. cervical cap. spermicide. intrauterine device.

43

Which of the following methods of contraception has the lowest failure rate?

IUD

Male condoms Transdermal patch Female condoms 44

Fertility awareness methods involve the tracking of a woman's menstrual cycle. the consistency of cervical mucus. a woman's body temperature.

All the answers are correct.

45

The majority of college students surveyed reported using ________ for contraception. female condoms male condoms spermicides withdrawal

46

All of the following are problems associated with the withdrawal method except it may cause irritation or infection. it provides no protection from STIs. pre­ejaculatory fluid may contain sperm even if the man doesn't ejaculate in his partner. it requires the man to have a great deal of control.

47

The contraceptive sponge increases a woman's risk for all the following except urinary tract infection. contracting an STI. hormonal side effects. toxic shock syndrome.

48

Long­term adverse effects of birth control pills include all the following except post pill amenorrhea up to six months. increased risk for ovarian and endometrial cancers. increased risk for cervical and liver cancers. increased risk for cardiovascular disease.

49

Recall Betty's Student Story in the chapter. What does Betty consider to be advantageous about birth control pills over other methods of contraception?

They lessen PMS and cramping.

They help menstrual periods to be more predictable.

They are effective at preventing pregnancy.

All the answers are correct.

50

The ________ is largely responsible producing the female orgasm. clitoris labia minora labia majora vagina

51

The ________ connect the uterus to the ovaries. labia majora fallopian tubes clitoris vulva

52

The purpose of the ________ is to secrete seminal fluid into the ejaculatory duct. fallopian tubes urethra seminal vesicles epididymis

53

Unlike women, men experience a(n) ________ period after an orgasm. plateau excitement refractory resolution

54

Fellatio is oral stimulation of the nipples. clitoris. vulva. penis.

55

The mini pill is a(n) ________ form of contraception. barrier IUD hormonal non­hormonal

56

An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants within the ovary. a fallopian tube.

the uterus. the vagina.

57

An Apgar score is a measure of the newborn's heart rate. muscle tone. reflexes.

All of the answers are correct.

58

Which method of treating infertility involves placing sperm and several eggs into a woman's fallopian tube?

In vitro fertilization Zygote intrafallopian transfer Gamete intrafallopian transfer Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

59

Which of the following is a valid reason for a cesarean section?

The placenta is covering the cervix.

If the fetus is in the wrong position in the uterus.

If the mother has hypertension.

All of these are valid reasons.

60

The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends routine neonatal circumcision of newborn boys.

True False

61

The length of all menstrual cycles is 28 days.

True False

62

A symptom of an enlarged prostate gland is impaired flow of urine.

True False

63

Celibacy is practiced only by older adults or for religious reasons.

True False

64

Oral sex is a safe alternative to intercourse because pregnancy and STIs are not concerns associated with this practice.

True False

65

In Arizona, "sexting" is a misdemeanor for minors.

True False

66

Anal intercourse is one of the riskiest of sexual behaviors because of the high rate of disease transmission.

True False

67

The vaginal ring, NuvaRing, protects against STIs. True False

68

Transsexuals are transgendered individuals who live as the gender opposite to their assigned sex.

True False

69

Male and female condoms are equally effective in the prevention of unplanned pregnancy.

True False

70

The 1973 Roe vs. Wade court decision legalized abortions up to the end of a woman's first trimester.

True False

71

In 2008, the American Psychological Association ruled that having an abortion posed a significant threat to a woman's psychological health.

True False

72

Both home pregnancy tests and blood tests detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin.

True False

73

A woman who is trying to become pregnant should not be concerned with making lifestyle changes (like avoiding alcohol and drugs) before she actually becomes pregnant.

True False

74

In a pregnant woman, hormonal changes can result in symptoms of nausea and vomiting.

True False

75

The embryo is most susceptible to damage from substances the mother ingests during the first trimester.

True False

76

The fetus gains most of its weight during the second trimester.

True False

77

During pregnancy, a woman needs to consume an

additional 500­1000 calories to sustain fetal growth.

True False

78

At least 10­15% of pregnancies end in miscarriage.

True False

79

At the end of the first stage of labor, the cervix dilates to 10 cm.

True False

80

A prior untreated STI can lead to infertility.

True False

81

Match the following:

Vagina the tube connecting a woman's external organs to the uterus Labia two pairs of fleshy lips surrounding and protecting the clitoris and vaginal/urethral openings Mons pubis the fatty rounded tissue covering the pubic bone Clitoris an organ composed of spongy tissue and nerve endings

Vulva collective term for a woman's external organs

82

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83

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84

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85

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86

Match the following:

Vas deferens tube that transports sperm Penis the male sexual reproductive organ

Scrotum the skin sac at the base of the penis Epididymis where sperm are held until they mature Testes two reproductive glands that manufacture sperm

87

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88

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89

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90

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91

Match the following:

Embryo growing collection of cells that eventually become a baby Zygote a fertilized egg Amniotic fluid fluid surrounding the developing fetus Umbilical cord a vessel linking the bloodstream of the placenta to that of the baby Placenta tissue that connects mother and baby

92

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93

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94

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95

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96

What does it mean to talk honestly about sex? Do you think this is important? Why or why not?

Answer: It means that you are honest with your intended sexual partner before becoming intimate. If you have ever tested positive or have had symptoms of an STI, you need to tell this to your partner.

97

Compare the four classifications of contraception. What are advantages and disadvantages of each?

Answer: 1. Natural methods are free and involve no pills or devices. However, the risk for an unplanned pregnancy is often higher, and there is no protection from STIs. 2. Hormonal methods deliver hormones that stop ovulation. These methods have lower failure rates than natural methods but are often costly and may have side effects.

3. Barrier methods prevent sperm from reaching an egg. Some of these offer protection from STIs as well but they require using a device.

4. Surgical methods deliver permanent protection from unplanned pregnancy but do not protect from STIs.

98

What are the side effects of using birth control pills?

Answer: Side effects include nausea, weight gain, breast tenderness, and moodiness. Long­term adverse effects include amenorrhea that can last 3­6 months, increased blood pressure, increased risk for cervical and liver cancer, and cardiovascular disease.

99

List five changes that occur in a pregnant woman's body.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Breathing deepens and quickens. * Kidneys filter more blood. * Breasts become more sensitive and fuller. * Uterus enlarges as fetus grows. * Skin stretches to accommodate growth of abdomen. * Pressure on the bladder increases. * Ligaments and muscles stretch.

100

List and explain three options for infertile couples who want to have a baby.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Surgery to repair and treat endometriosis * Fertility drugs which promote ovulation * Intrauterine insemination to boost the odds that an egg will be fertilized * In vitro fertilization in which sperm and egg are combined in a laboratory dish and a fertilized egg is implanted * Gamete interfallopian transfer in which fertilization takes place in a woman's fallopian tubes * Zygote interfallopian transfer in which fertilized eggs transferred to the fallopian tubes * Intercytoplasmic sperm injection in which a single sperm is injected into an egg

Chapter 011 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Alcohol­based hand sanitizers are only used in hospital settings. are preferable to water and soap. will not cause antibiotic resistance. are best used for dirty hands.

2

Arielle just adopted a dog from the animal shelter. It is important that her dog be vaccinated against contracting and transmitting this infection.

Tuberculosis MRSA H1N1 virus Rabies

3

All of the following are examples of direct transmission of a disease except kissing someone who is sick. being bitten by a rabid animal. touching a shopping cart handle after an infected individual coughed on it then rubbing your eyes. having unprotected sex with someone who has HSV2.

4

The body's first line of defense against pathogens includes mucous membranes.

B cells. macrophages. mast cells.

5

If a person is infectious but has no symptoms, they are considered a carrier. vector. host. transmitter.

6

The cells responsible for producing antibodies are called ________ cells.

Helper B Natural Killer T

7

Cells called ________ survey our bodies and gobble up bacteria and wounded and dead cells.

T cells macrophages memory cells cytokines

8

Recall Jessica's story. She takes all the following precautions to avoid an infection except using hand sanitizers. frequently washing her hands. living at home instead of on campus. getting the flu shot.

9

Checking your body for ________ after a hike in the woods is the best way to prevent Lyme disease. mosquito bites red bugs ticks fleas

10

Malaria is typically transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes. birds. ticks. fleas.

11

All of the following regarding HSV 2 are true except it's often mistaken for jock itch or a yeast infection.

2.

12

some individuals are asymptomatic. individuals with HSV1 develop an immunity to HSV it is highly contagious.

The role of antibodies is to attack the invader. mark the invader for destruction. destroy the infected cells. stop cells from being infected.

13

Nonspecific immunity involves all of the following except

T cells. neutrophils. macrophages. natural killer cells.

14

Lymphocytes are a type of antigen. macrophage. white blood cell. antibody.

15

Inflammation is classified as a(n) specific immune response. allergic reaction. nonspecific immune response. herd response.

16

The success of vaccines relies on which type of immune cell?

Macrophage Natural killer cell Neutrophils Memory B cells Below are suggested snacks from each of the food groups:

Grains: Whole­grain cereal, whole­grain crackers, mini rice cakes, sliced whole­grain bread, mini bagels, graham crackers, whole­wheat tortillas Vegetables: Veggie "matchsticks" (thin sticks) made from fresh carrots or zucchini, bell pepper rings, cherry tomatoes, steamed broccoli, green beans, sugar snap peas, avocados Fruits: Apple slices, clementine sections, strawberry halves, bananas, pineapple, kiwi, peach, mango, nectarine, melon, grapes, berries, dried apricots Dairy: Low­fat cheese slices or string cheese, fat­free or low­fat milk, low­fat cottage cheese, low­fat regular or Greek yogurt Protein Foods: Hard­boiled eggs, peanut butter, bean dip, hummus, slices of lean turkey or chicken, shelled pumpkin seeds

17

All of the following are correct about vaccines except they can be prepared from weakened pathogens. they can cause autism.

they allow the body to develop immunity to a pathogen without being ill. they induce active immunity.

Chinese food served in American Chinese restaurants is a far cry from the type eaten daily by rural Chinese people. Many Chinese restaurant meals are swimming in oil and contain much more meat and poultry and fewer vegetables than real Chinese food. Consider that a typical American Chinese meal might include wonton soup, barbecued spareribs, chicken lo mein, and fried rice­chalking up some 1,400 calories and more than 80 grams of fat. A typical meal eaten in rural China, in contrast, would likely contain a heaping portion of rice, along with fiber­ and nutrient­rich vegetables and less than an ounce of meat or fish, and would thereby contain only a fraction of the fat

18

The incidence of allergies has increased in recent years due to all of the following except increased exposure to microbes. smaller family size. less exposure to animals. use of antibiotics and vaccines to prevent diseases.

Daily Value is the amount of fat, sodium, fiber, and other nutrients health experts say should make up a healthful diet. The "% Daily Values" that appear on food labels tell you the percentage of a nutrient that a serving of the food contributes to a healthful diet.

19

Allergies are due to decreased natural killer­cell numbers. exposure to certain microbes. the release of histamine by mast cells. the production of antibodies by macrophages.

Lifestyle diseases, including some forms of cancer, heart disease, obesity, diabetes, high blood pressure, stroke, osteoporosis, and liver disease, are conditions that may be aggravated by modern lifestyles that include too little exercise, poor diets, and excessive drinking and smoking. Lifestyle diseases are also referred to as diseases of affluence.

People may choose to change lifestyle patterns of exercise, diet, and drinking practices to reduce the risks of acquiring these diseases.

20

Anaphylaxis is a beneficial response to rid the body of pathogens. drop in blood pressure and constriction of airways due to an allergic response.

type of passive immunity after a vaccination. complication of tertiary syphilis.

Students' answers will vary but should include reference to key recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans:

• Balancing calories to manage weight • Foods and food components to reduce • Foods and food nutrients to increase • Building healthy eating patterns

21

Colds can't be treated with antibiotics because it is not known what causes colds. antibiotics don't kill viruses. the bacteria that cause colds are resistant to antibiotics. antibiotics only work before symptoms appear.

The following is an example of a health Mexican­American dinner:

Appetizer: "no­fry" chips­Immerse several tortillas in warm water, drain quickly, cut into six to eight wedges, and place on a nonstick pan; bake in a 500­degree Fahrenheit oven for 3 to minutes, flip, and continue to bake for another minute or two until golden brown. Serve with salsa.

Main course: corn tortilla filled with regular, unfried pinto beans mixed with chopped onion and topped with a sprinkle of shredded cheese and a generous portion of lettuce, salsa, a dollop of fat­free plain yogurt or fat­ free sour cream, and a garnish of sliced avocado.

Dessert: one­half cup fresh fruit­banana, apple, pineapple, and mango.

22

All of the following are correct about influenza except there is an inhaled vaccine available to prevent it. up to 20 percent of the U.S. population get the flu every year. flu cannot lead to pneumonia. animals are a reservoir for flu viruses.

Dietary References Intakes (DRIs)

DRI for Nutrients · EAR, Estimated Average Requirement: the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement for the nutrient in half of the people of a specific age and gender. The EAR is used in setting the RDA. · RDA, Recommended Dietary Allowance: the average daily amount of a nutrient that is sufficient to meet the nutrient needs of nearly all (97­98 percent) healthy individuals of a specific age and gender. · AI, Adequate Intake: the average amount of a nutrient that appears to be adequate for individuals when there is not sufficient scientific research to calculate an RDA. The AI exceeds the EAR and possibly the RDA. · UL, Tolerable Upper Intake Level: the maximum amount of a nutrient that is unlikely to pose any risk of adverse health effects to most healthy people. The UL is not intended to be a recommended level of intake.

DRI for Energy and Energy Nutrients · EER, Estimated Energy Requirement: the average calorie intake that is predicted to maintain energy balance in a healthy adult of a defined age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity, consistent with good health. · AMDR, Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range: a range of intakes for a particular energy source (carbohydrates, fat, protein) that is associated with a reduced risk of chronic disease while providing adequate intakes of essential nutrients.

23

Which statement is incorrect about viruses?

They can multiply outside a host.

They hijack a cell once they enter.

They can only be seen with a microscope.

There are vaccines available to prevent many viral diseases.

The % Daily Values for vitamins and minerals are calculated using standard values designed specifically for use on food labels. These standard values for nutrients were created to help manufacturers avoid a stumbling block they face as they label foods. Because manufacturers don't know whether you're an 18­year­old woman or a 30­year­old man, they don't know exactly what your nutritional needs are. You may recall that the DRI include a different set of vitamin and mineral recommendations for each gender and age group.

24

Which disease causes the lymph nodes and tonsils to become enlarged?

Mononucleosis Lyme disease Meningitis Pneumonia

MyPlate includes variety, proportionality, and moderation as three of six key components that can help achieve a healthy lifestyle.

Variety. MyPlate creates a foundation for good nutrition and health by guiding us to make food selections from all food groups and subgroups.

Different foods contain different nutrients and other substances known to be protective against chronic diseases. No one food or no single food group provides all essential nutrients in amounts necessary for good health.

Proportionality. MyPlate shows the proportions of foods that should make up a healthful diet. MyPlate illustrates the five food groups using a familiar mealtime visual, a place setting. The plate is split into four sections: red for fruits, green for vegetables, purple for protein, and orange for grains. A separate blue section, shaped like a drinking glass, represents dairy foods.

MyPlate provides a visual reminder of a key nutrition principle: Fruits and vegetables form the foundation of a healthy diet and should fill at least half of a plate at every meal. The MyPlate food guide advises you to eat more of some foods (fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and fat­free or low­fat milk products), and at less of others (such as foods high in refined grains and added sugars).

Moderation. Currently, many of the foods and beverages Americans eat and drink supply empty calories­calories from solid fats and/or added sugars. Solid fats and added sugars add calories to the food but few or no nutrients and are thus called empty calories. A small amount of empty calories is fine, but most people eat far more than is healthy. It is important to emphasize nutrient­rich foods in the diet and limit empty calories to the amount that fits your calorie and nutrient needs. Making better choices, like unsweetened applesauce or extra­lean ground beef, can help keep your intake of added sugars and solid fats low. To find your personal total calorie needs, enter your information into the Daily Food Plan section of www.ChooseMyPlate.gov.

25

Rhinoviruses typically cause colds. herpes sores. tuberculosis.

genital warts.

In general, we eat too many calories and too much solid fat, added sugars, refined grains, and sodium. Solid fats and added sugars should make up only a small proportion of total calories in the diet. Americans consume about 35 percent of total calories from foods high in solid fats and added sugars­soft drinks, desserts, fatty meats, French fries, pizza, and whole milk products, in contrast to a recommended limit of no more than 5 to 15 percent of total calories for most individuals.

We also consume too few vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and fat­free or low­fat milk and milk products. Consumers eat only 15 percent of the recommended amount of whole grains, less than 60 percent for vegetables, about 42 percent for fruits, and 52 percent for milk and milk products.

Examples of nutrient­dense selections are:

• Vegetables, fruits, high­fiber whole grains • Fat­free or low­fat dairy products • Seafood, lean meat and poultry, eggs, soy products, nuts, seeds, and oils​ 26

When many people suddenly acquire a disease throughout the world, it is called sporadic. epidemic. pandemic. endemic.

Other available tools for diet planning include:

Information on Food Labels

The Nutrition Facts panel must indicate the amount of certain mandatory nutrients that one serving of the food contains. You can use the Nutrition Facts panel to help you follow a healthful diet by considering the nutrition information that it provides.

A client could be counseled to compare food products based on food label information including:

1) serving size

2) total calories and calories from fat per serving 3) nutrient information 4) percent Daily Values

Nutrient claims By law, foods carrying terms called nutrient content claims­low­fat, low­ calorie, light, and so forth­must adhere to specific definitions spelled out by the Food and Drug Administration.

Health claims A statement linking the nutritional profile of a food to a reduced risk of a particular disease is known as a health claim. The FDA has set forth very strict rules governing the use of such health claims

A client should understand the meanings of nutrient and health claims.

Exchange lists As their name implies, exchange lists are simply lists of categories of foods, such as fruit, with portions specified in a way that allows the foods to be mixed and matched or exchanged with one another in the diet.

27

The 2009 H1N1 flu virus started in which animal?

Rats Chickens Cattle Pigs

28

The Epstein­Barr virus causes herpes. rabies. measles. mononucleosis.

29

Meningitis is an infection of the meninges. The meninges are the thin membranes that surround the spinal cord and brain. surround the heart.

line the heart, including the valves. line the urinary tract.

30

Which type of hepatitis is the primary reason for liver transplants in the United States?

Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D

31

All of the following are correct about hepatitis A except it is transmitted by animals. it is the most widespread form of hepatitis. most people make a full recovery from the disease. there is an effective vaccine to prevent it.

32

All of the following are correct about bacteria except they can live independently in nature. some produce harmful toxins. they are single­celled microorganisms. most types of bacteria are harmful.

33

The two most common types of bacteria that cause meningitis are Neisseria meningitides and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Staphylococcus aureus.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

34

Staph may cause all of the following except skin ailments. cancer. lung infection. organ failure.

35

In 1980, more than 800 people developed toxic shock syndrome, and 38 died from it. This outbreak was linked to the use of a highly absorbent tampon. wrestling mats that were not adequately sanitized. contaminated beef used by a large restaurant chain. mosquito infestations during a particularly humid

summer.

36

Janet's mom has an infection caused by MRSA. All of the following are correct about MRSA except it can cause serious skin infections. it is a type of Staphylococcus. it is treatable with a variety of antibiotics. it is transmitted by skin­to­skin contact.

37

Physicians generally prescribe antibiotics to treat a strep throat, because if left untreated, it can lead to rheumatic fever. pneumonia. toxic shock syndrome. mononucleosis.

38

John just came back from a camping trip and noticed a bull's­eye­shaped skin rash on his arm. Which disease does John probably have?

MRSA skin infection Toxic shock syndrome Mononucleosis Lyme disease

39

Lyme disease is transmitted by contaminated water. can last for years if untreated. will usually go away by itself. is commonly referred to as MRSA.

40

All of the following are correct about tuberculosis except symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, and a persistent cough. a ten­day course of medication is the recommended treatment. infection rates are highest in the United States among immigrants and minorities. latent TB does not cause symptoms.

41

Candida albicans is transmitted by pubic lice. can cause an infection after taking antibiotics. was once the leading cause of death in the United States. is transmitted by contaminated water or food.

42

Which is not a type of fungus?

Mold Mildew Yeast Helminths

43

Which of the following is not considered an emerging disease?

H1N1 influenza Rabies Bird flu West Nile Virus

44

The only way to avoid getting West Nile Virus is to avoid unwashed vegetables. undercooked meat. mosquito bites. unprotected sex.

45

A tapeworm is an example of a ________ infection. protozoan helmith fungal sexually transmitted

46

Which is correct about sexually transmitted infections?

They are not very common.

There are more than 30 different causes.

Women are at less risk than men.

People under the age of 25 are less vulnerable.

47

All of the following groups of people are disproportionately infected with HIV in the United States except African Americans.

IV drug users. homosexual men. immigrants.

48

The effects of HIV are most damaging to which body system?

Digestive system

Immune system Respiratory system Reproductive system 49

The continent with the highest incidence of HIV/AIDS is North America.

South America.

Europe.

Africa.

50

HIV can be transmitted in all the following ways except through blood. breast milk. sharing a cup. anal intercourse.

51

Mother­to­child transmission of HIV can occur in all of the following ways except kissing the baby. breastfeeding the baby. during childbirth. during pregnancy.

52

Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through unprotected sex. sharing needles. unclean water. fecal matter.

53

All of the following are true about herpes except most infected people do not realize they have the virus. oral sex can pass both HSV­1 and HSV­2 back and forth between the mouth and genitals. you can spread the virus to someone else only when you have visible blisters. it can be fatal to newborns.

54

Which sexually transmitted infection can cause cancer?

Syphilis Human papillomavirus Gonorrhea

Chlamydia 55

All of the following are true about herpes except treatment helps alleviate symptoms. there is no cure for the disease. condoms prevent the spread of herpes. herpes can leave the body vulnerable to other STIs.

56

The Gardisil vaccine is recommended to prevent herpes. chlamydia. human papillomavirus. gonorrhea.

57

A possible outcome of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is cancer. infertility. rheumatic fever. opportunistic diseases.

58

All of the following may raise a woman's risk of contracting PID except having a pelvic exam. douching. having an IUD inserted. having multiple sex partners.

59

A chancre is associated with which disease?

HIV Human papillomavirus (HPV) Syphilis Gonorrhea

60

Small tumor­like growths called gummas may appear when which disease goes untreated for years?

HIV Rabies Streptococcal pneumonia Syphilis

61

The main symptom of scabies is

blindness. itching. blisters. dementia.

62

Painful urination, a greenish­yellow vaginal discharge, and itching are symptoms of gonorrhea. pubic lice. trichomoniasis. syphilis.

63

A drinking cup can be a vector for disease.

True False

64

Bacteria and viruses can enter the body through unbroken skin.

True False

65

Antigens are tiny regions on the surface of a pathogen.

True False

66

Successfully defeating an illness never leaves a person immune.

True False

67

To achieve artificially acquired immunity, antibodies are introduced into the body.

True False

68

Herd immunity offers protection to individuals who are

not vaccinated.

True False 69

Passive immunity only lasts a few months.

True False

70

It is well established that the MMR vaccine causes autism in children.

True False

71

Flu symptoms are worse than the symptoms of the common cold, but no one dies from the flu.

True False

72

Mutations allow bacteria to overcome the effects of an antibiotic.

True False

73

If Lyme disease goes untreated it can lead to permanent neurological problems.

True False

74

Pneumonia can only be caused by bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.

True False

75

Not everyone with a tuberculosis infection will become ill from it.

True False

76

With specific prevention interventions, the risk of mother­to­child transmission of HIV can be reduced to less than 5%.

True False

77

Pubic lice can infect beards, eyelashes, and mustaches.

True False

78

Over 1/2 of all staph infections were MRSA in 2004.

True False

79

The bacteria that cause tuberculosis typically attack the lungs, where they create holes and hinder breathing.

True False

80

AIDS is also called advanced HIV disease.

True False

81

Infections due to scabies are the most common worm infections in the United States.

True False

82

Abstinence and condoms provide 100% protection from STIs. True False

83

Subsequent outbreaks of herpes are usually less severe.

True False

84

Women are more likely to experience symptoms of an STI than men.

True False

85

African Americans comprise 44% of new HIV infections.

True False

86

Match the following:

a fungal infection� Yeast infections transmitted by infected ticks� Lyme disease a protozoan infection transmitted by infected mosquitoes Malaria infection in the thin membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord

Meningitis

87

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88

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89

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90

Name the two types of acquired immunity and explain how they are acquired.

Answer: The two types are naturally acquired immunity and artificially acquired immunity. The former is acquired by having had a disease and surviving it. The latter is acquired by introducing pathogens of a disease (or parts of pathogens) into the body through a vaccine, which causes the immune system to fight them off and build up future immunity.

91

What is herd immunity and why is it important?

Answer: Herd immunity occurs when more than 90% of people in a community are fully vaccinated against a disease, leaving that disease with little ability to spread through the population. It is important because it offers protection to people who cannot be vaccinated or who

have not been vaccinated yet.

92

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

Answer: It asserts that early childhood exposure to microbes can prevent the development of allergies and that, conversely, reduced exposure to microbes can increase the chance of developing allergies. This may be due to the overuse of antiseptics and our health­conscious environment.

93

What is asthma? Explain what happens in the body during an asthma attack.

Answer: Chronic constriction and inflammation of the airways, making breathing difficult and causing shortness of breath, wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.

94

Who is most at risk for contracting pneumonia?

Answer: Seniors and infants are at higher risk, as are young people with asthma and other chronic respiratory problems, impaired immune systems, or who have been exposed to certain chemicals and environmental pollutants.

95

Identify four factors that raise your risk of acquiring an STI. Answer: Any four of the following: * having unprotected vaginal, anal or oral sex * having multiple sex partners, especially strangers, and not discussing STIs before sex * exchanging sex for drugs or money * participating in sex while drunk or high on drugs * coming into direct, skin­to­skin contact with someone who has infections such as HPV, herpes, pubic lice, or scabies * injecting drugs with used needles or syringes, or having unprotected sex with someone who has * sharing needles for tattoos and body piercings * not being vaccinated against hepatitis B or HPV

96

Discuss four important questions to ask someone prior to having sex.

Answer: Responses may vary, but students may identify the following questions: * Do you have any STIs? * Have you ever participated in risky behaviors in the past? * Have you been tested for STIs in the past and have you participated in risky behaviors since then? * Are you prepared to use a condom?

97

What is an opportunistic disease? Give an example.

Answer: An opportunistic disease is an infection or disorder that occurs when the host's immune system is weakened.

Examples include pneumonia, eye infections, yeast infections, and cancer.

98

Recall Gabe's story. What steps should he take in the future to decrease his risk of contracting STIs? Answer: Responses will vary but students may identify: Get vaccinated against Hepatitis B and HPV; use condoms consistently and correctly; get tested regularly.

99

What is an ectopic pregnancy and who is at risk?

Answer: An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the embryo implants outside the uterus. Women who have had Chlamydia or other STIs may be at higher risk due to scarring of the fallopian tubes.

100

Discuss the three stages of syphilis.

Answer: In the first stage, primary syphilis appears. A chancre appears 10 days to 3 months after infection, in the spot where the bacteria entered the body. In the next stage­secondary syphilis­symptoms may include a rash on the body and possible hair loss. In most

cases, the disease then enters a latent stage. If left untreated, it may enter a final, tertiary stage, which can result in blindness, neurological problems, and even death.

Chapter 012 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

All the following statements describe chronic disease except it develops gradually. it lasts for a long time. it can easily be spread from one person to another. it causes either continual symptoms or recurring bouts of illness.

2

What portion of deaths in the United States every year are caused by cardiovascular disease and cancer?

More than a quarter More than a third More than half More than two­thirds

3

Amanda smokes a half pack of cigarettes per day, is inactive, and has a poor dietary intake. Which of the following chronic diseases is she at risk of developing?

Cardiovascular disease Cancer Diabetes All of the answers are correct.

4

Amanda engages in several health­risk behaviors, including smoking, lack of physical activity, and poor diet. If she chooses to change only one of these behaviors, which change will have the biggest impact on reducing her risk of developing a chronic disease?

Inactivity Smoking Poor diet Each will have the same impact.

5

As of 2011, incidence of this chronic disease had more than doubled tripled over the previous 31 years.

Cancer Cardiovascular disease Diabetes Osteoporosis

6

Fred is a 60­year­old male who is obese and physically inactive. He was recently diagnosed with diabetes by his physician, but he is not taking supplemental insulin.

Which type of diabetes does he likely have?

Type 1

Type 2 Type 1.5 Gestational 7

Diabetes is associated with all the following complications except increased nerve sensitivity caused by hypoglycemia. increased risk of heart attack and stroke. decreased ability of the body to heal. increased risk for blindness.

8

If Davis has high blood pressure, high blood glucose, and low levels of good cholesterol, which diagnosis will his physician most likely give?

Diabetes Cardiovascular disease Metabolic syndrome Pre­diabetic

9

Which ethnic group has the lowest risk of developing type 2 diabetes?

African Americans Caucasians Mexican Americans Native Americans

10

Cancer that involves cells of the immune system is known as sarcomas. lymphomas. carcinomas. central nervous system cancers.

11

Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of adult mortality in the United States, causing more than 2 in 10 deaths.

3 in 10 deaths.

4 in 10 deaths.

5 in 10 deaths.

12

De­oxygenated blood enters the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava. aorta. right atrium. left atrium.

13

Blood travels back to the heart via the arteries. capillaries. veins. aorta.

14

The type of cardiovascular disease responsible for the most deaths in the United States is stroke. congestive heart failure. hypertension. coronary heart disease.

15

Which of the following factors may damage the inner linings of the arteries?

High blood pressure Smoking Certain types of infection All of the answers are correct.

16

Hardened and ruptured artery plaque may result in plaque breaking off and moving through the bloodstream. a clot in the artery that can cause a sudden heart attack or stroke. blood flow being shunted to nearby arteries. elevated blood pressure.

17

Which of the following factors contributes to healthy blood pressure?

Having narrowed arteries Having arteries that stretch and recoil Having soft plaque buildup Having sclerotic arteries

18

Jorge has a blood pressure reading of 120/80. This classifies him as having normal blood pressure. prehypertension. stage 1 hypertension. stage 2 hypertension.

19

Depending on severity, coronary heart disease can cause all the following except angina.

sudden cardiac arrest. high cholesterol. heart attack.

20

Which of the following is the most dangerous form of an arrhythmia?

Atrial fibrillation Tachycardia Bradycardia Ventricular fibrillation

21

Which of the following was found to be the most common risk factor for congestive heart failure?

Tachycardia Coronary heart disease Bradycardia Hypertension

22

A TIA is a milder form of heart attack. stroke. heart valve disorder. hypertension.

23

It is important for Ariana to take all her prescribed antibiotics for strep throat so that it doesn't lead to ischemic stroke. congestive heart failure. rheumatic heart disease. atherosclerosis.

24

Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes only?

It develops in a woman during pregnancy.

It is characterized by insulin resistance.

A virus may be involved in its development.

Glucose accumulates in blood and causes high blood sugar levels.

Cells are organized into tissues designed to perform specialized tasks. For example, some cells are organized to form muscle tissue that helps move our bodies from place to place. Tissues can be organized to form organs.

One organ, the heart, relies on muscle tissues, nerve tissues, and connective tissues to pump blood throughout the body. When several organs work together cooperatively, these organs are considered parts of a body system.

One such system, the digestive system, consists of organs and tissues working together to supply necessary energy, water, and essential nutrients to every cell in our bodies.

25

What effect do statin type drugs have?

They lower blood pressure.

They lower blood cholesterol levels.

They lower blood glucose levels.

They slow the absorption of glucose into the bloodstream.

The liver produces about one liter of bile each day. Bile, made up of water, bile salts, bile pigments, and cholesterol, is slightly alkaline, which helps neutralize acidic chyme in the intestinal tract.

Bile is stored in the gallbladder and released through the common bile duct into the small intestine when fat arrives there. The bile emulsifies the fat, making it ready for enzyme action. Bile emulsifies fat­soluble vitamins and aids in their absorption with other fats. The bile pigments and cholesterol are waste products and are eventually eliminated from the body.

26

All of the following are found in arterial plaque except calcium. cholesterol. triglycerides. c­reactive protein.

The intestinal tract lining is composed of a single sheet of cells, and the sheet pokes out into millions of finger­shaped projections called villi. Each villus has its own capillary network and a lymph vessel so that as nutrients move across the cells, they can immediately mingle into the body fluids.

Every villus cell has a brush­like covering of tiny hairs, called microvilli, which can trap nutrient particles.

The lining of the small intestine, villi and all, is wrinkled into thousands of folds, making its absorbent surface area enormous. If the folds and the villi that cover them were spread out flat, the total area would equal the size of a tennis court. The billions of cells of that surface, although they weigh only 4 to 5 pounds total, absorb enough nutrients in a few hours a day to nourish the other 150 or so pounds of body tissues.

27

All of the following behaviors can reduce a person's risk for cardiovascular disease except not smoking. limiting alcohol intake. managing stress. keeping LDL cholesterol levels high.

Accessory organs (organs outside the digestive tract)­the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas­contribute digestive juices through a common duct into the small intestine. Presence of these digestive juices and enzymes requires ancillary cells that specialize in protecting the digestive system. They do so by secreting a layer of thick, viscous mucus.

Liver The liver, which produces bile, determines the metabolic fate of every nutrient we digest and absorb, in addition to performing a wide variety of other functions, most of them essential for life.

Gallbladder The gallbladder is a sac, attached to the liver, where bile is stored and concentrated. Bile empties from the gallbladder into the uppermost part of the small intestine (duodenum) via the common bile duct. Entry of bile into the small intestine is controlled by the sphincter of Oddi.

Pancreas The pancreas lies behind the stomach and upper portion of the small intestine. The principal functions of the pancreas are exocrine. Bicarbonate and digestive enzymes that act on carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are secreted into the duodenum. Pancreatic amylase breaks down starch and other complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars called disaccharides.

28

All of the following are inherent links to CVD except being Asian American. being over 65. being male. having a parent with CVD. The islets of Langerhans (which are scattered on the surface of the pancreas) perform the endocrine functions of the pancreas. These cells help regulate blood glucose levels through secretion of the hormones insulin and glucagon into the blood.

29

Which hormone appears to have a protective effect against heart disease?

Testosterone Androgen Estrogen Progesterone Endocrine is a term to describe a gland secreting or a hormone being secreted into the blood.

Example: The pancreas secretes the hormones insulin and glucagon into the blood.

Exocrine describes glands that secrete chemical messengers through a duct into a body cavity or onto the surface of the skin; exo means "out."

Example: Bicarbonate and digestive enzymes are secreted by the pancreas into the duodenum.

30

Which of the following ethnicities is at greatest risk of dying from cancer?

Asian Americans Caucasians Hispanics African Americans The glycogen stored in the liver provides a reserve supply of the body's sugar, glucose, and thus can sustain cell activities if intervals between meals become so long that glucose absorbed from ingested foods is used up.

When the body is depending solely on liver glycogen, however, the supply is used up within three to six hours. Similarly, fat cells store reserves of fat, the body's other principal energy nutrient. Unlike the liver, however, fat cells have virtually infinite storage capacity and can continue to supply fat for days, weeks, or even months when no food is eaten.

31

The challenges our bodies face in defending cells against mutations include all the following except some are more severe than the body can fix. the frequency of the encounter with the carcinogen can overwhelm the body's defenses. the body's defenses become inactive in response to the carcinogen. in some people other features of their DNA diminish their body's ability to protect and repair cells.

Frequent causes of constipation include: 

Lack of fiber in the diet



Lack of physical activity (particularly in older adults)



Not enough liquids

 Medications (e.g., pain medications, antacids, blood pressure medications, antidepressants, iron supplements, diuretics, antispasmodics, anticonvulsants) 

Milk



Changes in life or routine (e.g., pregnancy, aging, travel)



Over­the­counter laxative abuse

  Ignoring the urge to have a bowel movement

32

When cancer metastasizes it becomes non­threatening. attacks one area of the body. reaches its full growth potential. spreads to another area of the body.

The stomach carries out three jobs during digestion: 1) It stores a sizeable amount of food until the food can be processed 2) It forms a mixture of food and gastric secretions, which becomes a semiliquid blend called chyme.

3) It controls movement of the chyme into the small intestine at a rate suitable for proper digestion and absorption by the small intestine.

33

The genetic link that is associated with risk for cancer can be attributed to a cancerous gene being passed through the family blood line. a weaker version of a protective gene passed through the family blood line. similar hormonal levels evident in family members of the same sex. behaviors such as smoking that may affect genetic predisposition through the family blood line.

Constipation is a symptom, not a disease. Most constipation is temporary and not serious. Treatment depends on the cause, severity, and duration of the constipation, but in most cases dietary and lifestyle changes will help relieve symptoms and assist in preventing them from recurring.

Diet: 20 to 35 grams of fiber each day helps the body form soft, bulky stools.

Lifestyle changes: Increasing water consumption and other liquids, daily exercise, and not ignoring the urge to have a bowel movement will help prevent constipation.

Laxatives : Most cases of mild constipation do not require use of laxatives. But if the constipation is of long duration, a physician should be consulted for the best treatment to retrain a persistently lethargic bowel.

34

Hormone levels strongly influence this type of cancer in women.

Breast Heart Thyroid Lymphoma Food/Nutrient

Ancient Ancestors' Eating Habits

The Way We Eat Today

Grains (wheat, rice, corn, oats, barley)

Rarely used 40

90% of total caloric intake

Meat

30% total calories (undomesticated wild game, fish)

12% total calories (domesticated animals)

Fruits

50% total calories

6% total calories

Vegetables

> 100 different species of uncultivated plant foods, roots, tubers

5% total calories

Fiber

> 100 g/d

< 20 g/day

Milk & milk products

Nonexistent after weaning

1.8 c/day (or 14% total calories)

Fats

˜ 35% total calories (varied with latitude)

20­35% total calories

Saturated fats

5­7.5% total calorie intake

11­15% total calorie intake

Sugar

Honey when available

20 to 30 tsp/day

Sodium

600 mg/day

˜ 4,000 mg/day

Potassium

7,000 mg/day

˜ 3,000 mg/day

Energy intake

Feast­famine

Food abundance (food available 24 hr/day)

Energy expenditure

Obligatory for survival (probably  3,000 cal/day)

Sedentary (< 30 min/d of moderate­intensity physical activity, ˜

2,000 cal/day)

35

All of the following strategies for lowering cancer risk will also lower a person's risk for cardiovascular disease except not smoking. limiting alcohol consumption. checking for the presence of radon in the home. eating a variety of fresh fruits and vegetables.

The breakdown of body compounds is known as catabolism. These reactions usually release energy. Glycogen can be broken down to glucose, triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol, and protein to amino acids. When the body needs energy, it breaks any or all of the four basic units­glucose, fatty acids, glycerol, and amino acids­into even smaller units. When the body does not require energy, the end products of digestion (glucose, amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids) are used to build body compounds in a process called anabolism. Anabolic reactions involve conversion of glucose to glycogen or fat, conversion of amino acids to body proteins or fat, and synthesis of body fat from glycerol and fatty acids. Catabolism and anabolism are examples of energy metabolism.

36

If a woman tests positive for HPV, she may be at increased risk for this form of cancer.

Breast Cervical Uterine Colon Nutrients released early in the digestive process, such as simple sugars, and those requiring no special handling, such as the water­soluble vitamins, are absorbed high in the small intestine. Nutrients released more slowly are absorbed further down. The lymphatic and circulatory systems then take over the job of transporting them to the cell consumers. The lymph at first carries most of the products of fat digestion and the fat­soluble vitamins, later delivering them to the blood. The blood carries products of carbohydrate and protein digestion, water­soluble vitamins, and minerals.

By the time the remaining mixture reaches the end of the small intestine, little is left but water, indigestible residue (mostly fiber), and dissolved minerals.

37

All of the following are ways doctors look for signs of cancer except biopsies. lab tests that look for the presence of tumor markers. changes in hair growth patterns.

DNA tests.

38

Which type of cancer is most often associated with exposure to the sun?

Sarcoma Lymphoma Leukemia Carcinoma

39

Exposure to radon puts a person at risk for which type of cancer?

Skin Breast Lung Pancreatic

40

Which of the following screenings should a female with a family history of reproductive cancer and skin cancer have?

Monthly breast self­exams Yearly skin cancer screening HPV screening All of the answers are correct.

41

Julie has light skin that burns easily. Which of the following will not increase her risk for skin cancer?

Using a tanning bed instead of lying out in the sun Sunning on the beach using tanning lotion with an SFP of 4 Wearing sunscreen, a hat, and protective clothing when she is outside All of the answers are correct.

42

Which of the following is the deadliest form of skin cancer?

Malignant melanoma Basal cell carcinoma Myeloma Lymphoma

43

Risk factors for lung cancer include all the following except exposure to second­hand smoke. a history of exposure to radon gas. exposure to asbestos. a family history of allergies and asthma.

44

Aside from lung cancer, smoking also increases a person's risk of which of the following cancers?

Pancreatic Colorectal Oral cancer All of the answers are correct.

45

All of the following statements regarding lung cancer are true except being exposed to radon can cause lung cancer even in non­smokers. lung cancer is very easy to detect in its early stages. non­smokers exposed to second­hand smoke are at increased risk for lung cancer. chest pain can be a symptom of advanced lung cancer.

46

All of the following increase a person's risk for colon cancer except having a family history of polyps. having Crohn's disease. having a diet that is high in fiber. being over 50.

47

All of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer are true except signs rarely appear until the cancer is advanced. being a diabetic increases a person's risk. survival rates are low. standard screening guidelines call for yearly checkups.

48

Testicular cancer primarily affects males in which age range?

20­39 12­18 50­65 Over 65

49

All of the following are risk factors for both ovarian cancer and breast cancer except mutations in BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes. having two or more drinks a day on a regular basis. a family history of breast cancer. never having children.

50

Which treatment for cancer offers the greatest chances for cure?

Using surgery to remove tumors.

Using drugs to shrink malignant tumors.

Using drugs that disrupt a tumor's ability to grow.

All these are equally beneficial treatments.

51

A high level of C­reactive protein indicates inflammation is going on somewhere in the body. increased risk of stroke. increased risk of diabetes. increased risk of cancer.

52

All of the following detection methods rely on imaging technologies except Biopsy.

Ultrasound.

MRI. PET.

53

Which type of diabetes accounts for 90­95% of all adult diabetes cases?

Type 1 Type 1.5 Type 2 Gestational

54

Which blood glucose level indicates prediabetes?

Below 100 mg/dl 100­125 mg/dl Above 126 mg/dl Above 126 mg/dl and a A1C level of 6.5%

55

Which of the following may be a symptom of a stroke?

Vomiting Blurred vision Slurred speech All of the answers are correct.

56

A procedure to build new pathways for blood to flow around areas of arterial blockage is called balloon angioplasty. coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). automated external defibrillator. electrocardiogram.

57

High levels of homocysteine in the blood are associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. stroke and myocardial infarction. diabetes. cancer.

58

When excess ________ degrade, they can leave cholesterol in the bloodstream that builds up inside of blood vessels. low density lipoproteins high density lipoproteins triglycerides All of the answers are correct.

59

All of the following increase a person's risk of cardiovascular disease except high blood pressure. dyslipidemia. drug abuse. blood glucose level of 100 mg/dl.

60

National statistics suggest that more than half of young adults today will die of cancer, diabetes or cardiovascular disease during their lifetime.

True False

61

The aorta pumps oxygenated blood to the body.

True False

62

Most chronic diseases are a natural consequence of aging regardless of a person's lifestyle behavior.

True False

63

Diabetes is now one of the most common serious illnesses in the United States.

True False

64

The primary cause of Type 1 diabetes is consuming too many carbohydrates.

True False

65

Women with gestational diabetes are at a higher risk for Type 2 diabetes later in life.

True False

66

An elevated A1C test puts a person at a higher risk for colon cancer.

True False

67

Being overweight does not increase a person's risk for diabetes.

True False

68

Getting regular exercise reduces a person's risk for diabetes and other chronic diseases.

True False

69

Treatment for Type 1 diabetes requires several daily injections with a needle and syringe.

True False

70

De­oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the arteries.

True False

71

Aspirin works as a mild blood thinner and can reduce hypertension.

True False

72

The systolic reading in blood pressure measurement records the resting phase of the heart.

True False

73

Never having children puts a woman at risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer.

True False

74

Heavy alcohol consumption puts a person at a lower risk for oral cancer.

True False

75

Mutations in the BRCA1 gene protect against reproductive cancer whereas mutations in the BRCA2 gene promote reproductive cancers.

True False

76

The hepatitis B virus increases a person's risk for bladder cancer.

True False

77

Hepatitis A is closely linked to liver cancer.

True

False 78

African American males are more likely to be diagnosed with prostate cancer and are more likely to have an aggressive form.

True False

79

Gardisil is a vaccine to prevent cervical cancer.

True False

80

Match the following:

Type 1.5 diabetes diabetes with aspects of Type 1 and Type 2 Type 1 diabetes insulin­dependent diabetes Type 2 diabetes also called adult­onset diabetes Gestational diabetes diabetes that develops during pregnancy Hyperglycemia elevated blood glucose

81

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Answer: 82

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83

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84

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85

Match the following:

Congestive heart failure a gradual loss of heart function Coronary heart disease atherosclerosis of the arteries that feed the heart Ischemic stroke blockage of an artery in or leading to the brain Sudden cardiac arrest loss of heartbeat and consciousness Hemorrhagic stroke

rupture of a cerebral artery

86

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87

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88

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89

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90

Match the following:

Tumor an abnormal growth of tissue with no physiological function Benign tumor a non­cancerous tumor

Oncogene a mutated gene that encourages uncontrolled cell division Malignant tumor a cancerous tumor Metastasis the spread of cancer to other areas of the body

91

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92

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93

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94

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95

Compare the functioning of the pancreas in a healthy

individual, an individual with type 1 diabetes, and an individual with type 2 diabetes.

Answer: In a healthy individual, when glucose enters the bloodstream, cells in the pancreas produce and release insulin. Insulin signals the body cells to remove glucose and utilize it for energy. This process regulates blood glucose levels. In an individual with type 1 diabetes, the cells that produce insulin have been destroyed, so glucose collects in the bloodstream. This results in nerve and blood vessel damage and a lack of cellular energy. In an individual with type 2 diabetes, the cells produce insulin, but it's ineffective. Glucose is unable to enter the body effectively, so it accumulates in the bloodstream. This results in nerve and blood vessel damage and a lack of cellular energy as well.

96

What dietary behaviors reduce a person's risk of Type 2 diabetes?

Answer: A diet that is high in fiber and complex carbohydrates, low in sodium and saturated fat, and moderate in alcohol and plant­based fats may reduce a person's risk by 36%.

97

Betina's grandfather recently died of heart disease.

However, as a 21­year­old female, she is not concerned about her risk factors. Should she be concerned? Why or why not?

Answer: She should be concerned because the conditions that lead to heart disease develop earlier in life. One study showed that 21% of youths with diabetes already had at least two risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

Also, she has a family history of cardiovascular disease since her grandfather died of heart disease.

98

Discuss five health behaviors that reduce a person's risk for cardiovascular disease.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Eat a healthy diet that is high in fruits and vegetables, omega­3 fatty acids, and fiber and low in sodium, fat, and cholesterol. * Exercise and/or be physically active at least 30

minutes per day. * Maintain a healthy weight. * Don't smoke. * Drink moderately or not at all. * Manage stress and anger. * Aim for 8 hours of sleep per night. * Maintain good oral hygiene. * Monitor blood pressure and blood lipids. * If you have diabetes, control it.

99

Discuss racial disparities in the incidences of chronic diseases in African Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans.

Answer: African Americans die of cancer, heart disease, and diabetes at significantly higher rates than Caucasians or members of other racial or ethnic groups. This disparity seems to be linked more to differences in socioeconomic status than to biological differences.

Hispanics have much higher rates of stomach cancer than do non­Hispanic whites. This disparity appears to be related to diet and Helicobacter pylori infections.

Native Americans have the highest rates of diabetes in the world. Factors are obesity, poor diet, and a lack of access to health care.

100

What is a carcinogen? Give 2 examples.

Answer: A carcinogen is a substance known to trigger DNA mutations that can lead to cancer. Examples of carcinogens include ultraviolet light, other types of radiation, radon gas, cigarette smoke, alcohol.

Chapter 013 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Julie is searching the internet to find effective weight loss strategies. Which of the following would be the best indicator that the information from the internet site is from a valid source?

The information is based on testimonials of individuals who have tried various diets and been successful.

The site promotes a vitamin supplement designed to aid in weight loss.

The site carries HONcode certification.

The site guarantees that participants lose 5 lbs. per week if they follow the suggested program.

2

For what purpose do college students most often take over­the­counter medications?

To relieve constipation To relieve allergies To aid in sleep To relieve pain

3

All of the following are characteristics of over­the­ counter medications except they have benefits that outweigh the risks. they have high potential for misuse. they can be used for self­diagnosed illnesses. they do not require consultation with a health practitioner.

4

All of the following are examples of home health tests except pregnancy tests. pap smears. fertility thermometers. cholesterol tests.

5

The scientific method includes all the following steps except the researcher tests a product and reports his/her opinions to the general public. the researcher makes an observation that prompts one or more questions. the researcher tests a formulated hypothesis. the researcher collects data to support or challenge the hypothesis.

6

Which of the following home health tests would better be taken at a clinic or hospital where on­site counseling is available?

Pregnancy test Cholesterol test Blood sugar test HIV test

7

A health care professional who specializes in eye and vision care is called a(n) optometrist. podiatrist. physician assistant. nurse practitioner.

8

Conventional medicine can be referred to as all of the following except allopathic medicine.

Western medicine. complementary medicine. evidence­based medicine.

9

Which of the following is an example of a conventional medicine practitioner?

Acupuncture practitioner Podiatrist Naturopath Massage therapist

10

The National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine places Chinese medicine under which domain?

Biologically based practices Mind­body medicine Manipulative and body­based medicine Whole medical systems

11

The most commonly used CAM by college students is accupunture. accupressure. herbal supplements. massage.

12

The National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine places chiropractic medicine under which domain?

Biologically based practices Mind­body medicine

Manipulative and body­based medicine Energy therapies 13

All of the following are examples of preventative measures for wellness except taking herbal supplements. brushing and flossing your teeth twice a day. getting regular medical check­ups. avoiding tobacco products.

14

Which of the following statements is true regarding mammograms?

They are only recommended for women carrying the BRAC gene.

Women ages 50­75 should be screened every 1­2 years.

Women should have their first screening at 21.

They are no longer recommended by physicians.

15

A licensed professional who specializes in the care of the feet, is known as a specialist. generalist.

D.P.M. D.O.

16

Jacob, a full­time residential college student, sprained his ankle in an intramural basketball game at the university's gymnasium. He is insured on his parent's HMO plan, but the closest provider is 50 miles from campus. Which of the following facilities would be the best choice for him considering out of pocket costs, convenience, and time?

Going to his former pediatrician in his home town when he goes home for fall break next week Going to the local urgent care facility Going to the local hospital Going to the student health center on campus

17

A type of alternative medicine that is based on the assumption that "like cures like" is called naturopathy. homeopathy. acupuncture. ayurveda.

18

Which form of alternative medicine is based on the energy biofields?

Ayurveda Naturopathy Energy therapies Homeopathy 19

Which of these complementary and alternative treatments originated in India?

Ayurveda Naturopathy Chiropractic Homeopathy

20

Which type of alternative medicine is based on incorporating traditional therapies and techniques from all over the world, with an emphasis on supporting health rather than treating disease?

Ayurveda Naturopathy Chiropractic Energy therapies

21

Jill's health plan requires her care to be managed by her primary care provider. It is a(n) P.O.S. H.M.O. P.P.O. medicare plan.

22

Which of the following types of managed­care plans offers the consumer the most options in seeking a provider?

Health maintenance organization (HMO) Preferred provider organizations (PPO) Point­of­service plans (POS) Mini­med plan

23

A type of managed care plan that is usually the least costly for the consumer but has the most restrictions on choice is health maintenance organization plan (HMO). preferred provider organization plan (PPO). point­of­service plan (POS). mini­med plan.

24

COBRA is a program designed to insure young adults aged 18­21. supplement primary insurance. insure adults receiving federal assistance.

extend benefits after a policy terminates.

25

About 67% of college students are insured through a family member's employer. a student insurance plan.

Medicaid. their employer.

26

Mitchell's employer offers a program, not attached to an insurance plan, which allows employees to save pre­ tax dollars to cover certain medical costs. What type of program is this?

Medicare Medicaid Health savings account Flexible spending account

27

Which type of health­insurance plan allows you to use any medical provider you choose and then submit a bill to an insurance company that will pay part of the cost, leaving you to cover the rest?

Medicare Point­of­service plan Fee­for­service plan Mini­med plan

28

Carly receives a bill in the mail that says she owes her insurance company $100 towards her deductible. What is a "deductible"?

The amount of money that the employer pays for health care The amount of money that the government pays for health care The amount of money that the employee pays before the insurer begins to pay The amount of money that the employee pays for any medical tests only

29

Sandy just turned 65 and his friends tell him he can now participate in a federal public insurance plan for people over 65 years of age. Which program is this?

Medicare Medicaid Health savings account Point­of­service plan

30

Which of the following is an example of rescission?

Sue pays for a doctor that is on an approved list.

Bill is disabled and is enrolled in Medicare.

Carla's health insurance provider cuts off her coverage when Carla becomes sick with gallstones.

Jame's son, Kyle, can automatically join his parents HMO. 31

According to the new Health­Care Reform bill, how long can young people stay on their parents' insurance plan?

As long as they want Until they have their own children Until age 21 Until age 26

32

What percentage of college students have no health insurance?

20% 30% 40% 50%

33

Recall Anu­Ella's story. Why doesn't she have to wait several months for health insurance coverage?

Because she has a pre­existing condition.

Because her mom can only add a dependent once a year.

Because she will turn 65 in a few months and will be eligible for Medicare.

Because she is not currently a full­time student.

34

After age 26, you may be able to extend your health insurance coverage under your parent's plan with a program called COBRA. Medicare.

Medicaid.

Health Savings Account.

35

Under the federal health insurance reforms passed in 2012, the "individual mandate" is a requirement that all young adults be covered by their parent's insurance until age 26. a law that prohibits rescission. a requirement that all Americans have at least minimal insurance or pay a penalty. a lifetime insurance cap for individuals.

36

Which of the following correctly lists the items from

smallest to largest?

DNA, genome, chromosome, gene Genome, gene, DNA, chromosome DNA, gene, chromosome, genome Gene, genome, DNA, chromosome 37

Spelling out every point on your genome is also known as genome sequencing. whole genome scanning. pharmacogenetics. single­gene testing.

When the blood glucose level rises, the body adjusts by storing the excess.

The first organ to detect the excess glucose is the pancreas, which releases the hormone insulin in response. Most of the body's cells respond to insulin by taking up glucose from the blood to make glycogen or fat. Thus, the blood glucose level is quickly brought back down to normal as the body stores the excess. Insulin's opposing hormone, released by the pancreas when blood glucose is too low, is glucagon, which draws forth glucose from storage, making it available to supply energy. Insulin and glucagon both work to maintain the concentration of glucose in the blood within the normal range­neither too high nor too low.

38

The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, would prevent which of the following situations?

Judy turns 27 and can no longer be under her parent's medical insurance.

Joe works full time but has to be covered under Medicaid.

Cindy does not get a new job because the boss finds out she has a high genetic risk for developing breast cancer.

Everyone working at the furniture store pays the same premium for health care.

Because fiber carries water out of the body, too much fiber can cause dehydration and intestinal discomfort. Also, iron is mainly absorbed early in the digestive process; thus, because fiber speeds the movement of foods through the digestive system, it may limit the opportunity for absorption of iron and other nutrients. Binders in some fibers link chemically with minerals such as calcium and zinc, making them unavailable for absorption and carrying them out of the body. Too much bulk from the diet could reduce the total amount of food consumed and cause deficiencies of both nutrients and energy. The malnourished, some older adults, and children, because they eat small amounts of food anyway, are especially vulnerable to these concerns.

39

Recall Holly's story. Why didn't she see a doctor for her abdominal pain?

Because she only believes in homeopathic treatments.

Because her insurance only covered preventative care.

Because she was unable to get an appointment.

Because she had no insurance to pay for medical services.

Whole­grain products are preferable to enriched products. Although the enrichment of flour and other cereal products does improve them, it doesn't improve them enough. To compensate for nutrients lost when grain is refined, nearly all breads, grains such as rice, wheat products such as macaroni and spaghetti, and cereals (both cooked and ready to eat), have been enriched with iron, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and folate. However, enriched grains have very low levels of other important nutrients (vitamin B6, fiber, magnesium, and zinc) that are present in whole grain products.

40

Allopathic or Western medicine is also known as complimentary medicine and is the predominant type of care in the United States.

True False The sugar alcohols can be derived from fruits or commercially produced from dextrose and are absorbed more slowly and metabolized differently than other sugars in the human body. The sugar alcohols are not readily used by bacteria ordinarily found in the mouth and therefore are associated with less cavity formation. Although the sugar alcohols are used as sugar substitutes, they do add calories (about 1.5 to 3 calories per gram) to a food product. The common sugar alcohols found on food labels include: erythritol, isomalt, lactitol, maltitol, mannitol, sorbitol, and xylitol. Xylitol may actually inhibit the production of tooth­damaging acid by the caries­ producing bacteria in the mouth and prevent them from adhering to the teeth. For this reason, the FDA authorizes use of the health claim on food labels that sugar alcohols do not promote tooth decay. Sugar alcohols are found in a wide variety of chewing gums, candies, and dietetic foods.

41

Complementary and alternative medicines are health practices and traditions that are not typically part of conventional Western medicine.

True False For optimal dental health, the American Dental Association (ADA) recommends the following:

Eat a balanced diet.

Keep snacking to a minimum, if possible. The ADA recognizes that some people, such as people with diabetes, may require snacks. For others, however, the ADA suggests limiting the number of snacks if brushing the teeth is not possible shortly after eating them.

Eat sweets with meals rather than between them.

Brush and floss thoroughly each day to remove dental plaque.

Use an ADA­accepted fluoride toothpaste and mouth rinse, and talk to your dentist about the need for supplemental fluoride.

Visit a dentist regularly.

Do not allow an infant to sleep with a bottle in the mouth that contains sweetened liquids, fruit juices, milk, or formula.

42

Substances found in nature, such as vitamins and herbs are safe alternatives to medications that anyone can use.

True False The task of the digestive system, then, is to disassemble the disaccharides and starch into monosaccharides that can be absorbed into the blood.

Following absorption, the liver converts to glucose any carbohydrates that were not absorbed in the form of glucose, so they can be used by the cells.

The cells can then store the glucose, use it for current energy needs, or convert it to fat.

The first digestive enzymes to work on starch are those in the saliva; they begin taking the starch apart, and the enzymes in the stomach and intestines continue digestive action. The enzymes release the individual glucose units, which are absorbed across the intestinal wall into the blood. Cooking facilitates the digestive process by spreading out the tightly packaged chains of glucose so that during digestion the digestive enzymes can break the chains down into glucose units for absorption. One to four hours after a meal, all the starch has been digested and absorbed and is circulating to the cells as glucose.

If the blood delivers more glucose than the cells need, the liver and muscles take up the surplus to build the polysaccharide glycogen. The muscles hold two­thirds of the body's total store of this carbohydrate and use it during exercise. The liver stores the remaining one­third of the body's glycogen, making it available as needed to help maintain the blood glucose level.

43

CAMs are not legally available in the United States.

True False Numerous careful scientific investigations carried out both before and after aspartame first appeared on the market have indicated that the product brings about adverse health effects in only a small group of people with a rare metabolic disorder known as phenylketonuria, or PKU. People born with PKU must carefully control their consumption of phenylalanine (one of the two amino acids that make up aspartame) to prevent health problems as severe as mental retardation. The American Medical Association's Council on Scientific Affairs, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the

Food and Drug Administration, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, and numerous other health organizations all consider the sweetener safe for use except by people with PKU

44

A health issue that existed prior to enrollment in an insurance plan, is called a pre­existing condition.

True False The most common type of diabetes, type 2 diabetes, is usually diagnosed in people over the age of 40 and result. The incidence of type 2 diabetes is rising, mostly because the U.S. population is aging, sedentary, and gaining excess weight. Obesity is considered a major risk factor for this type of diabetes, especially when the excess fat is carried around the abdomen.

Usually, eating a healthful diet, exercising, and losing weight can normalize blood glucose levels for people with type 2 diabetes. For others, oral medications and sometimes insulin shots are necessary.

45

Cindy pays for her doctor visits with pre­tax money.

Her plan is not attached to an insurance plan and is known as a health savings account.

True False The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that you "reduce the intake of calories from added sugars." To help with this task while still catering to the sweet tooth, consider the following tips:

• Use less of all sugars, including white sugar, brown sugar, honey, jelly, and syrups.

• Choose sensibly to limit your intake of beverages and foods that are high in added sugars, such as soft drinks, energy drinks, fruit drinks, candy, ice cream, cakes, cookies, and pies.

• Select fresh fruits to satisfy your urge for sweets.

• Learn to read the ingredients list. Check food labels for clues about added sugar content. If any of the following sugars appears first or second in the ingredients list, or if several names are listed, the food is likely to be high in sugar.

• For dental health, remember that how frequently you eat sugar is as important as, and perhaps more important than, how much sugar you eat at one time.

• Alternatives to sweet desserts might be whole­grain crackers, low­fat cheese, and fresh fruit with unsweetened yogurt. Snacks for children could include fruits, vegetables, string cheese, popcorn, homemade fruit juice pops, and other wholesome foods.

• Substitute fruit juices or water for fruit drinks, regular soft drinks, and punches that contain considerable amounts of sugar.

• Buy unsweetened cereals so that you can control the amount of sugar added.

• Experiment with reducing the sugar in your favorite recipes. Some recipes taste just the same even after a 50 percent reduction in sugar content.

• The sweet spices­allspice, anise, cardamom, cinnamon, ginger, and nutmeg­can replace substantial sugar in recipes. Use half as much sugar and increase one and a half times the amount of spice the recipe calls for.

Increasing the amount of extracts like vanilla can enhance sweetness, too.

Experiment with other extracts like maple, coconut, banana, and chocolate, or try adding dried fruit to baked goods for extra sweetness and nutrients as you decrease sugar.

• Another alternative for reducing sugar intake is to use sugary foods that convey nutrients as well as calories, e.g., raisins and bananas.

• Explore possibilities of using nonnutritive sweeteners to reduce some of the total sugar in your diet

46

Medicare is a federal program that covers many health costs for all Americans who have certain disabilities or are 65 or older.

True False The information in the table below distinguishes between type 1 and type 2 diabetes:

Type 1 Diabetes

Type 2 Diabetes

Incidence

5%­10% of cases

90%­95% of cases

Age of Onset

<30

>40*

Insulin Deficiency

Yes; pancreas unable to make insulin to meet needs.

In some cases there may be insufficient insulin, or cells may be unresponsive to insulin.

Risk Factors

Genetic predisposition plus environmental factor (for example, viral infection).

Genetic predisposition plus obesity, family history, aging.

Treatment

Insulin injections, diet, and physical activity.

Weight loss, diet, and physical activity; oral drugs or insulin

sometimes needed.

*The incidence of type 2 diabetes is increasing among children. In the majority of cases, the children are overweight or obese and have a family history of type 2 diabetes.

47

Family health history is important for identifying risks for inherited diseases such as hemophilia but not chronic diseases, such as heart disease.

True False

48

While costs for insuring employees have increased significantly over the past ten years, families' share of the out of pocket costs have remained the same.

True False

49

An R.N. has the same training and licensing as a nurse practitioner.

True False

50

A county health clinic is an example of a nonprofit clinic.

True False

51

Weight loss pills are the supplements most commonly used by college students.

True False

52

Research has shown that homeopathic medications are highly effective in curing a variety of illnesses.

True False

53

Conventional medicine is an evidence­based science.

True False

54

A physician assistant can perform the same procedures as a nurse practitioner.

True False

55

A retail clinic, such as a drug store, may provide vaccines and screenings.

True False

56

An urgent care center offers the same type of care as an emergency room.

True False

57

If you are taking an herbal supplement, it is important to discuss this with your physician.

True False

58

Natural supplements have no side effects.

True False

59

To reduce monthly premiums, consumers should opt for low deductible plans.

True

False

60

A managed­care health plan generally offers you more choices at a lower price.

True False

61

A consumer­controlled account that is usually offered through employers and that uses pre­tax dollars to cover approved health care costs is also called a point­ of­service plan (POS).

True False

62

Medicaid is offered to low­income families to pay for healthcare.

True False

63

Under the new 2010 healthcare plan, you can stay on your parent's health insurance plan as long as you live with them.

True False

64

Under the new 2010 healthcare plan, employers can no longer place a lifetime cap on the insurance benefits you receive.

True False

65

Personalized medicine will be based on an individual's DNA. True False

66

Single­gene testing can tell you whether you carry DNA variants known to be linked to particular health conditions.

True False

67

Pharmacogenetics allows doctors to take a person's genetic makeup into consideration when prescribing certain medications.

True False

68

Match the following:

Manipulative and body­based practices Chiropractic medicine Energy therapies Therapies based on electromagnetic fields Natural products Involves taking herbal supplements Whole medical systems Built on theories of treating the entire body Mind­body therapies Therapies based on support groups and meditation

69

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70

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TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 71

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72

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73

Match the following:

Mini­med plan A type of managed care plan, sold individually to younger people, which carries lower costs but does not cover many services.

Point­of­service (POS) plan A type of managed care that lets HMO consumers see a broader list of providers for an additional fee.

Preferred provider organization (PPO) Type of managed care in which consumers are encouraged to stay within an approved network of providers but have more choices.

Fee for service plan A type of plan that allows consumer to choose any provider then submit the bill for reimbursement.

Health maintenance organization (HMO)

A type of managed care in which most health care is funneled through and must be approved by the primary care doctor.

74

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75

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76

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77

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78

Name 3 home screening kits currently available.

Answer: Answers should include three of the following: * Pregnancy test * fertility test * cholesterol test * blood pressure test * blood sugar test * colon cancer risk test * HIV test

79

What are some factors you should consider before choosing a conventional health care facility?

Answer: Consider individual needs, such as costs, type of care needed (everyday medical needs, screening, specialty care, or highest end of care) and convenience (hours of availability and location).

80

Name 4 vaccines recommended for college students.

Answer: * Human Papilloma virus (HPV) * tetanus booster * flu vaccine * meningitis

81

What distinguishes conventional medicine from complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)?

Answer: Conventional care is based on the principles of the scientific method; the belief that diseases are caused by identifiable physical factors and have a characteristic set of symptoms; and the treatment of physical causes through drugs, surgery, or other physical interventions.

CAM refers to those practices and traditions not typically part of conventional Western medicine, including everything from herbal remedies and meditation to chiropractors and traditional Chinese medicine.

82

Discuss 4 health problems that require medical assistance.

Answer: Answers may include any 4 of the following: * Severe injuries sustained in an accident such as an automobile wreck * Serious burns * Sudden severe pain anywhere in the body * An adverse allergic reaction to a food, medication, or an insect bite or sting * Severe bleeding * Difficulty breathing * Signs of a heart attack or stroke * Sudden worsening of a chronic condition, such as

diabetes 83

Why is having health insurance so important?

Answer: Because even if you don't get sick often, a sudden illness or an accident could have you visiting the hospital and facing thousands of dollars in medical bills.

84

What does the term "rescission" mean in regard to health insurance?

Answer: Rescission is the canceling of a person's insurance coverage because the person became sick. Under the 2010 reforms, this is not permitted.

85

Discuss 4 highlights of the 2010 Health­Care Reform bill.

Answer: Answer may include the following 5 highlights. * Better protections for children with pre­existing conditions. Children insured through private insurance plans, such as those offered through an employer, cannot be denied coverage because of pre­existing conditions. * Health plans cannot cut off coverage if a person becomes sick, a practice known as rescission. * Insurers can no longer place a lifetime cap on the insurance benefits you receive. * You can now stay on a parent's insurance plan until your 26th birthday, if your parent so chooses. * People who have had trouble getting insurance because of a preexisting condition can join a new national "high risk pool," a group that will be provided immediate options for purchasing coverage.

86

Explain the following statement: Your genome is not your destiny.

Answer: Though DNA is powerful, it is not the only factor that determines who you are or how healthy you may be.

Environment and behavior choices are also powerful forces that can shape your health such as smoking, drinking alcohol, and sun tanning.

Chapter 014 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

The number­one killer of young adults in the United States is cardiovascular disease. unintentional or intentional injuries. cancer. diabetes.

2

All of the following can lead to unintentional injuries except not wearing a seat belt. not wearing a bike helmet. attempting suicide. drinking and driving.

3

Which of the following causes of unintentional injuries results in the most deaths among young people?

Work accidents Bicycling accidents Motorcycle accidents Automobile accidents

4

Speeding leads to unintentional injuries by increasing the distance needed to stop in an emergency. reducing the effectiveness of safety devices like seat belts and airbags. reducing the amount of time to react to road conditions.

All of the answers are correct.

5

Which of the following distracted driving behaviors is the most dangerous?

Texting Talking on a cell phone Turning the radio dials Eating

6

All of the following are characteristics of aggressive driving except driving too quickly for road conditions. using the horn as a danger warning. cutting off other vehicles. changing lanes abruptly.

7

What percentage of car­crash deaths are linked to alcohol consumption?

Around 20% Around 30% Around 40% Around 50%

8

Refer to Caleb's Student Story in the chapter. What circumstance led to Caleb's accident?

Driving under the influence Being in a hurry Texting while driving Being fatigued

9

Refer to Caleb's Student Story in the chapter. What safety precaution did Caleb take that prevented him from sustaining injuries?

He wore a seatbelt.

He swerved his car to avoid the oncoming car.

He had a car with an airbag.

He put on his brakes when he saw the oncoming car.

10

Most of the bicycle accident deaths are attributed to head injuries. neck injuries. spinal injuries. abdominal injuries.

11

Unsafe bike riding habits include all of the following except riding with traffic. riding against traffic. running stop lights. weaving in and out of traffic.

12

The increases in poisoning from drug overdose over the past forty years can be attributed to more adults self­medicating. prescription painkiller abuse. more potent illegal drugs. ingestion of household cleaning products.

13

All of the following contribute to residential fires except solar panels.

candles. careless smoking. cooking.

14

Jess and her mother are at a restaurant when they see a woman at a nearby table violently coughing after choking on food. What should they do?

One of them should call 911 while the other performs the Heimlich maneuver.

One of them should pat the woman's back while the other raises the woman's arms above her head.

They should instruct the woman on how to lean over her chair and expel the object.

They should do nothing as long as the woman is able to cough.

15

For people over 15, most incidences of drowning occur in swimming pools. in natural water settings. in hot tubs. in boating accidents.

16

Which of the following occupations is most likely to cause carpal tunnel syndrome?

Using a computer keyboard regularly Driving a truck Operating large machinery Working in a mine

17

Repetitive strain injuries can result in which of the following?

Pain Swelling Permanent nerve damage All of the answers are correct.

18

When Raquel is working on a computer, which of the following should she do to avoid RSI? Angle the screen so that it faces direct sunlight.

Stop and stretch every 30 to 45 minutes.

Use a chair that reclines significantly.

Keep wrists bent and resting on the keyboard.

19

Back injuries on the job are most often the result of a fall. improperly lifting heavy objects.

not wearing a lifting belt. repetitively lifting small objects.

20

The majority of violent crimes in the United States are murders. rapes. aggravated assaults. robberies.

21

In 2011, which type of violent crime involved a gun in over half the cases?

Murder Robbery Aggravated assault Rape

22

Which of the following would be most likely to suffer a violent crime?

A young adult female living in an area with a high crime rate A young adult male living in a distressed community A middle­aged male a prosperous urban neighborhood A teenage female in a suburban community

23

Factors that have been linked to higher rates of violent crime include all the following except poverty. drugs and alcohol. aging. stress.

24

Ryan plays violent video games. According to research this will most likely cause him to commit a violent crime in the future. be a victim of a violent crime. develop paranoia. perceive that violence is normal.

25

Mass shootings at Columbine High School and Virginia Tech have led to all the following except increased crime rates on elementary, middle, and high school campuses since 2004. new emergency response plans and procedures on campuses. upgraded communication systems on campuses.

new safety services for students, faculty, and staff.

26

The legislation that requires colleges and universities to disclose their crime statistics is called the Virginia Law. Lehigh University Act. Clery Act. Anti­Hazing Law.

27

The majority of hate crimes target victims based on their religious beliefs. race. sexual orientation. ethnicity.

28

Terrorism is violence that is premeditated. politically motivated. against noncombatant individuals.

All of the answers are correct.

29

The U.S. Dept. of Homeland Security works to combat terrorism by negotiating with terrorists. suspending immigration to the United States. reducing terrorists' abilities to win public support. arming citizen militias.

30

Abuse in a family or intimate relationship arises from the abuser's need for intimacy. control. sexual fulfillment. love.

31

Putting down another person is an example of physical abuse. intellectual abuse. emotional abuse. social abuse.

32

Victims who stay in abusive relationships are likely to do so for any of the following reasons except financial dependence on the abuser.

a lack of self­confidence. cultural or moral prohibitions against family separation. the desire for revenge.

33

The cycle of domestic partner abuse begins with tension building. acute battering. remorse. pity.

34

Refer to Jenny's Student Story in the chapter. What was the first sign of control that Jenny's boyfriend demonstrated?

He pushed her into a wall.

He didn't want her to go out with her friends.

He checked her cell phone messages.

He made her check in with him every day.

35

Refer to Jenny's Student Story in the chapter. For Jenny, what was the turning point in the relationship?

When her boyfriend refused to go out with her friends When her boyfriend checked her cell phone messages When her boyfriend pushed her into a wall When she had to check in with her boyfriend every day

36

After Dana broke up with her boyfriend, he continued to call her, follow her, and send her emails several times a day. This behavior is considered sexual harassment. stalking. physical abuse. emotional abuse.

37

Sexual harassment is defined as physical sexual advancement towards another person. unwelcome sexual advancement that negatively affects the victim directly or indirectly. assault on a person of the opposite sex. coerced or threatening sexual advances that take place at work or school.

38

All of the following statements are true regarding date

rape drugs except they cause the victim to become weak or confused. they include the club drugs Ketamine and GHB. they are typically administered to an intoxicated victim via a needle and syringe. they can make it difficult for the victim to remember what happened.

39

When at a party, which of the following is recommended to avoid drinking a drink someone may have slipped a drug into?

Don't drink an unattended drink.

Don't drink from a punch bowl.

Don't consume a drink someone offers you.

All of these are recommended to avoid drinking a contaminated drink.

40

Jill was assaulted while walking back to her dormitory.

Which of the following is not recommended?

Call the police and report the crime.

Take a hot shower to calm down.

Go to the hospital to be treated for injuries.

Call a counselor.

41

Carpel tunnel syndrome is characterized by pain in the foot. neck. head. wrist.

42

How much more are motorcyclists than people driving in a car likely to die in the event of crash?

Twice Four times Six times 15 times

43

When a person is choking and their airway blocked, approximately how long until permanent brain damage can occur?

1 minute 6 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes

44

Most food­related choking incidents in children are due to which food?

Hot dogs Grapes Marshmallows Cookies 45

Most fires on college campuses are due to candles. barbeques. cooking. overloaded electrical outlets.

46

________ are more likely to commit a violent crime and ________ are more likely to be victims of violent crime.

Women; men Women; women Men; men Men; children

47

Joe joined a fraternity and was driven to an isolated park and forced to drink alcohol. This is an example of hazing. domestic abuse. terrorism. a hate crime.

48

All of the following are correct about stalking except it can be characterized by waiting for someone without a legitimate reason. it can be characterized by buying unwanted presents for a person. men are more likely to be stalked than women. it occurs more frequently among college students than in the general population.

49

What does the term "the red zone" refer to?

The area behind the bar where patrons are not allowed.

The first few weeks of a new semester when campus crime is more common.

The area of the library where students tend to study alone.

The summer weeks when fewer students are on campus and crime is more common.

50

Which of the following activities is considered safe to

do?

Eating while driving Shaving while driving Putting on make­up while in traffic None of these activities are safe to do.

51

Which strategy is recommended to prevent repetitive strain injuries when working on a computer?

Angle the screen so your head bends upwards.

Clean your screen regularly to remove dust.

Rest your palms on the keyboard so that your hands are angled up from your wrists.

Carry your laptop over one shoulder to protect your other shoulder from strain.

52

Which of the following causes the highest number of choking deaths?

Latex balloons Peanuts Grapes Bread

53

Which of the following is not the most important factor when choosing a bike helmet?

It must have a sticker from the Consumer Product Safety Commission.

It must have a strong buckle that does not pop open easily.

It must cost more than most helmets in the store.

It needs to be adjusted so it sits straight on the head.

54

Which of the following is correct procedure for lifting a heavy object?

Once you lift the item, keep it away from your body.

Once you lift the item, twist your spine from left to right to balance it.

When placing it on the ground, bend your lower back.

When you lift the item, keep your elbows close to your body.

55

Which ethnic group is most likely to commit murder and become murder victims?

Asian Americans Indian Americans Caucasian Americans

African Americans 56

Sex with someone who is drunk or under the influence of drugs is rape.

True False

57

Unintentional injuries are also referred to as accidents.

True False

58

Pedestrians should always walk on the side of the road opposite the direction of traffic.

True False

59

More expensive, specialized bike helmets are safer than standard bike helmets.

True False

60

The majority of all fire deaths occur at worksites.

True False

61

Most hate crimes are driven by a person's sexual orientation.

True False Dietary Recommendations from the Dietary Guidelines for Americans: • Keep total fat intake between 20 to 35 percent of calories, with most fats coming from sources of polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fatty acids, such as fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.

• When selecting and preparing meat, poultry, dry beans, and milk or milk products, make choices that are lean, low­fat, or fat­free.

• Consume less than 10 percent of calories as saturated fat with an ultimate goal of limiting saturated fat intake to less than 7 percent of calories, replacing these calories with those from monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids.

• Limit dietary cholesterol to less than 300 mg per day (and less than 200 mg per day in persons at high risk for heart disease or diabetes).

• Keep trans fatty acid consumption as low as possible, especially by limiting foods that contain synthetic sources of trans fats, such as partially hydrogenated oils.

• Reduce intake of solid fats (major sources of saturated and trans fatty acids).

• Consume two 4­ounce servings of seafood per week as a source of omega­ 3 fatty acids.​

62

Women are at greater risk for violence than men.

True False Fats in the Body: • Provide a concentrated source of energy to fuel the body's work • Serve as the body's chief energy reserve • Form the major components of cell membranes • Nourish skin and hair • Insulate the body from extremes of temperature • Cushion the vital organs to protect them from shock • Provide raw materials for body compounds such as bile and vitamin D​

63

The overall amount of violent crimes in the United States has increased over the past two decades.

True False The following lipoproteins: LDL, HDL, VLDL, and chylomicrons are described below: LDL (low­density lipoprotein) carries cholesterol (much of it synthesized in the liver) to body cells. LDL travels through blood vessels, is vulnerable to attack by oxygen, and has affinity for linings of artery walls­contributing to plaque buildup. A high blood cholesterol level usually reflects high LDL. High LDL blood cholesterol level increases the risk for heart disease.

HDL (high­density lipoprotein) carries cholesterol in the blood back to the liver for recycling or disposal. Low HDL blood cholesterol level increases the risk for heart disease.

VLDL (very­low­density lipoprotein) carries fats packaged or made by the liver to various tissues in the body.

Chylomicron is a type of lipoprotein that transports newly digested fat

(mostly triglyceride) from the intestine through lymph and blood. The structure of a chylomicron arranged with hydrophobic (water­fearing) molecules (the fatty acids) on the inside and hydrophilic (water­loving) molecules (proteins) on the outside allows lipids to travel through the watery fluids of the body.​

64

Most murders in the United States involve firearms.

True False Trans fatty acids found in margarine may be as likely to boost blood levels of "bad" LDL­cholesterol as the saturated fat found in butter. What's more, the research suggests that in large amounts, trans fatty acids lower "good" HDL­cholesterol in the blood. In addition, an analysis by researchers at Harvard University suggested that more than 30,000 American deaths each year are attributable to trans fatty acids.​

65

Belief in strict gender roles can be a contributing factor in violence within relationships.

True False General tips to achieve the goal of reducing your saturated fat intake to less than 10 percent of total calories and increase your intake of protective fibers and antioxidant nutrients include:

Become a Savvy Supermarket Shopper.

Learn to read food labels to help you choose nutritious, heart­healthy food products. Read manufacturers' labels to determine both the amounts and the types of fat contained in foods. When comparing foods, look at the Nutrition Facts panel, and choose the food with the lower amounts of saturated fat, trans fat, and cholesterol.

Keep Blood Cholesterol at or Below the Recommended Levels.

Among the most influential diet­related factors that raise blood cholesterol levels are saturated fat and trans fat intakes. For every one percent reduction in a high blood cholesterol level, there is a two to three percent reduction in the risk of heart attack.

• Substitute highly monounsaturated fats (canola or olive oils) and highly polyunsaturated fats (vegetable oils and fish oils) for saturated fats in the diet, because both lower LDL­cholesterol levels in the blood.

• Replace saturated fats and trans fats with unsaturated fats from vegetables, legumes (beans), and nuts.

• Add bulk. People on high­fiber diets have been shown to excrete more cholesterol and fat than those on low­fiber diets.

• Eat generous amounts of fruits and vegetables­at least five to nine servings a day­as a source of antioxidants and other protective compounds in the diet.

Balance Energy Intake with Energy Needs.

For heart health, maintain a healthy body weight and a level of physical activity that keeps you fit and matches the number of calories you eat

66

Men account for the majority of arrests for violent crimes.

True False Hypertension makes atherosclerosis worse. A stiffened artery, already strained by each pulse of blood surging through it, is stressed even more if the internal pressure is high. Hypertension causes injured places within the blood vessels to develop more frequently, and plaques grow faster.

Hardened arteries also fail to let blood flow freely through the body's blood­ pressure­sensing organs, the kidneys, which respond as if the blood pressure were too low and raise it further.​

67

Children raised in violent surroundings are less likely to grow up to be violent adults.

True False Answers may vary.

Instead of: a. cheddar cheese

Substitute: cheese made from part­skim milk (mozzarella, Swiss lace, farmer) or reduced­fat cheeses

b. 2% milk

fat­free or one percent milk

c. mayonnaise

reduced­fat or fat­free mayonnaise

d. one whole egg

2 whipped egg whites or 1? .4 cup egg substitute

e. pastry desserts

fresh­fruit desserts

f. fish sticks

baked salmon

g. pasta with Alfredo sauce

whole­grain pasta and sauce made with low­fat milk and

cornstarch or flour

68

h. Solid shortening (stir­frying)

Peanut or olive oil

i. salad dressing

fat­free salad dressings or reduced­calorie dressings

The influence of testosterone may lead to more male aggression, anger, and risk taking.

True False A strong association between moderate alcohol consumption and low rates of heart disease was first observed in France and then in other wine­drinking areas of the Mediterranean. Researchers have since identified antioxidants and other compounds in red wine that decrease blood clotting, and this may help explain part of the "French paradox"or how a region with high fat intakes could have such low rates of heart disease. Researchers are quick to point out, however, that other factors certainly may contribute to the paradox. For example, the French consume about 57 percent of their day's calories before 2 p.m., whereas most Americans have consumed only about 38 percent of their calories by that time.45 Also, the French mostly consume their wine with meals, and they eat more fruits and vegetables and leaner cuts of meat.​

69

Teens moving away from home and going to college for the first time may be more vulnerable to intimate partner violence.

True False ​he "Mediterranean diet" refers to the nutritional habits of people living in T Greece, France, Italy, and other countries around the Mediterranean Sea. Only a fraction of the heart disease and related deaths experienced by people living in Western, industrial countries like the United States is seen in these particular countries.

The traditional "Mediterranean diet" is rich in fruits, vegetables, grains, fish, and beans, whereas most American diets include much more meat and other animal products known to be high in saturated fat. Thus, the Mediterranean diet is high in the vitamins, minerals, fiber, and phytochemicals that keep bodies healthy and low in saturated fat, because Mediterranean people consume so little meat and butter.

70

If you are being stalked and you know the person, you should try to reason with them to make them leave you alone.

True False Factors that impact HDL levels:

• One factor is gender. Women have higher HDL­cholesterol levels than men. However, heart disease is the major cause of death among women after menopause, when low levels of estrogen lead to a decrease in HDL levels along with an increase in LDL levels.

• Another factor, interestingly, seems to be smoking habits. Nonsmokers have uniformly higher HDL levels than do smokers.

• Still another factor is body weight. Those who are overweight may increase HDL levels by losing weight.

71

Men who hold low opinions of women are more likely to show higher levels of sexual aggression.

True False

72

Victims of sexual violence can experience sexual dysfunction.

True False

73

Sexual harassment only occurs between people of opposite sex.

True False

74

It is never a good idea to drop to the floor when being attacked by an assailant.

True False

75

It is never a good idea to hit someone on the back when they are choking.

True False

76

Smoke rises so crouching and crawling will allow you to leave a building safer.

True False

77

Consumption of alcohol is a factor in most drowning deaths.

True False

78

Match the following:

Violence the use of physical force with intent to cause harm Hazing initiation rituals which can be dangerous or humiliating Intentional injury physical harm purposefully inflicted through violence Aggravated assault an attack intended to cause serious physical harm Murder intentionally and unjustifiably killing another person

79

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80

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82

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83

Match the following:

Statutory rape sexual activity with someone under the age of consent Sexual harassment unwelcome sexual advances that affect academic or employment situations Intimate partner violence the abuse of one member of a couple by the other Domestic violence the abuse of family members by other family members Stalking a pattern of harassment involving repeated unwanted contact

84

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85

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86

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87

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88

Discuss three factors that lead to unintentional injuries.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Risky behaviors, such as drag racing or heavy alcohol consumption * Male gender, since males account for almost 2/3 of the deaths attributed to unintentional injuries * Young age, since people between the ages of 15 and 29 account for the largest proportion of overall injury deaths * Environmental factors, such as poor weather and increased traffic volume * Divided attention, since performing any potentially dangerous activity without sufficient focus increases the risk of injury

89

List five safe driving practices.

Answer: Any five of the following: * Allow plenty of time for your trip. * Stay within speed limits. * Slow down when weather is bad. * Don't tailgate. * Follow the rules of the road. * Don't text or otherwise distract yourself. * Don't drink and drive. * Don't drive when you're sleepy. * Wear a seatbelt.

90

List three simple guidelines for reducing risks associated with motorcycle or bicycle accidents.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Follow the rules of the road. * Wear a helmet. * Stay visible. * Don't drink and ride.

91

What is the cycle of violence that makes it difficult for a victim to escape?

Answer: The cycle of violence begins with tension building. In this phase minor abuse occurs, and the victim tries to please the abuser to avoid another attack. Phase two is acute battering. In this phase the abuser lashes out more forcefully no matter how accommodating the victim has been. The final phase is remorse. During this phase the abuser may feel shock and denial over abuse and swear it will never happen again. Over time the cycle will start anew.

92

Justine and her friends are going out for the evening.

What precautions should they take to avoid accidentally consuming a date rape drug?

Answer: They should not accept any drinks (alcoholic or nonalcoholic) from other people. They should open drink containers themselves. They should watch each other's drinks or have their drinks with them at all times. They should not share drinks from any type of open

container. If someone offers to buy them drinks, they should accompany that person to the bar and carry the drinks back.

93

What is the Jeanne Clery Act and who is it named after?

Answer: The Jeanne Clery Act is a law that mandates that colleges disclose statistics about the crimes reported on and near their campuses. It is named for a Lehigh University student who was raped and murdered in her dorm room when dormitory security doors were propped open, allowing a perpetrator to enter.

94

How do hate crimes differ from other forms of crime?

Answer: Hate crimes are fueled by bias against another person's or group's race or ethnicity, religion, national origin, sexual orientation or disability. They can be physical assaults or vandalism against property.

95

Name 4 factors that constitute aggressive driving.

Answer: Factors that constitute aggressive driving include speeding, driving too fast for road conditions, tailgating, failing to yield the right­of­way, cutting off other vehicles, and abruptly or improperly changing lanes.

96

Describe 4 safety tips for preventing drowning.

Answer: Take swimming and CPR lessons. Swim with someone else and do not drink alcohol while swimming. Never dive or jump into an unknown body of water. Obey posted signs warning of unsafe swimming conditions.

Do not swim in a rip current and always wear a life jacket when riding in a boat or participating in other water activities.

97

What steps should you take if someone is choking on food?

Answer:

First, if the person is coughing, they should be left alone to cough and dislodge the food. If they cannot cough or speak, try back blows. Then if that doesn't help, try abdominal thrusts. Call 911 or get someone to make the call while you are helping the person.

98

Describe three strategies to prevent repetitive strain injuries while working on a computer.

Answer: Keep your neck in a neutral position. Angle the screen to prevent bending your head forward. The keyboard and mouse should be positioned slightly at or below elbow height. Keep your wrists straight and your fingers should reach slightly down to reach the keyboard. Clean your screen regularly.

99

Why might someone who experiences being raped not report the incident to the police?

Answer: Someone may be reluctant to talk about the attack because they are ashamed, or embarrassed or concerned about confidentiality. They may also fear reprisal from their assailant or fear being treated with hostility by law enforcement.

100

What suggestions does the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services offer for helping a friend who's being abused?

Answer: Assuming you are in private, ask your friend to tell you about what she or he has been going through and do not interrupt. Tell your friend you are concerned about her safety and offer to accompany her to your campus health center. Stay involved and invite her to stay with you until she decides what to do.

101

What are four ways that fatigue increases the occurrence of motor vehicle accidents?

Answer: Fatigue slows your reaction time and reduces your attention level, ability to process information, and the accuracy of your short­term memory, all of which impair your driving.

Chapter 015 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

All of the following statements regarding adults over 65 are true except 65.

currently, more than one in eight Americans is over

older Americans are becoming less racially diverse. average life expectancy has increased for older Americans. the number of older Americans is expected to reach 92 million by 2060.

2

Members of which ethnicity are most likely to rate their health as excellent or good?

Asian Americans African Americans Native Americans Hispanics

3

All of the following factors contribute to the gender gap in longevity except later development of CVD in women. men engage in fewer risk taking behaviors. lower rates of smoking in women. women have a back up set of genes because of their xx chromosomes.

4

Which of the following is predicted to decrease life expectancy in coming years?

Higher rates of smoking Higher rates of cardiovascular disease Higher rates of obesity Higher rates of alcohol abuse

5

Which of the following ethnicities has the highest life expectancy?

African Americans Asian Americans Caucasians Hispanics

6

The "eight Americas" analysis of longevity distinguishes between different groups of Americans based on all of the following except educational factors. racial factors.

geographic factors. economic factors.

7

The keys to better health as you age include all the following except regular exercise. avoidance of tobacco. regular, moderate alcohol use. healthy diet.

8

The term "eight Americas" refers to differences in life­ expectancy projections among eight groups of Americans based on a variety of racial, ethnic, economic, and ________ factors. environmental geographical disease behavioral

9

The three types of aging are biological, ________, and social. environmental spiritual physical psychological

10

What percentage of men develop osteoporosis?

20% 10% 40% 30%

11

All of the following factors contribute to the higher rates of osteoporosis in women except women have a lower absolute bone density than men. estrogen levels decline after menopause. women's bones experience more weight bearing stress than men's. women on average live five more years than men.

12

Although denial of death may feel life­affirming, it can cause you to engage in risk­taking behaviors. increase your risk for suicide. cause you to look older. cause you to perceive you are healthier than you

are.

13

Life expectancy for men is higher than it is for women by nearly 5 years. higher than it is for women by nearly 3 years. lower than it is for women by nearly 5 years. lower than it is for women by nearly 3 years.

14

Social aging refers to age­related changes in the body from birth to death. relationships, career, and income. cognitive functioning. mood and emotions.

15

Most age­related hearing loss is a result of listening to loud music. increased fluid in the inner ear. damage to microscopic hair cells in the inner ear. damage to the outer ear.

16

Presbyopia affects a person's ability to hear high pitched sounds. see close objects in low light. see objects far away. focus on the shape of an object.

17

Which of the following nutrients may slow the progression of age­related macular degeneration?

Protein and amino acids Soluble and insoluble fibers Zinc and antioxidants Vitamin C and calcium

18

Penny is a 45­year­old female who is experiencing changes in her menstrual cycle, mood swings, and vaginal dryness. Her symptoms are most likely due to menopause. premenstrual syndrome.

PMDD. perimenopause.

19

Menopause officially begins

when a woman turns 50. twelve months after a woman's last period. when a woman begins to experience hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and night sweats. when a woman's menstrual cycle slows down.

20

Andropause is a term given to describe an increase in male hormones that follows menopause. a decrease in overall hormone production in aging females. an increase in androgen as males age. a decrease in male hormones as men age.

21

The classic symptoms of menopause include all the following except abdominal bloating and cramping. hot flashes. vaginal dryness. night sweats.

22

Which of the following statements regarding sexuality and aging is true?

Sexual activity and sexual desire both decrease with age.

Sexual desire and activity may ebb and flow with aging.

Sexuality is not important as men and women age.

High sexual self­esteem has little relevance to womens' sexual activity later in life.

23

Recall Stephen's story. Which of the following best describes how he is handling aging?

He believes he is as fit and athletic as he was in his 20s.

He believes he is too old to go back to college.

He believes he is a better student now than he was in his 20s.

He believes he has sharply declined physically and mentally as he has gotten older.

24

Martha has osteoarthritis. All of the following are appropriate ways for her to treat her condition except rest. medication. jogging daily. physical therapy.

25

All of the following are effective treatments for menopause symptoms except testosterone therapy. vaginal estrogen. exercise. psychotherapy.

26

All of the following are normal age­related changes that occur in the brain except difficulty in multitasking. difficulty with problem­solving skills. difficulty recalling names of people and places. difficulty learning new information quickly.

27

The most severe age­related neurological disorder is Alzheimer's disease. schizophrenia. dementia. memory loss.

28

In Alzheimer's disease, nerve cells in the brain stop functioning and fuse together. disconnect from each other. disappear. swell to abnormal size.

29

Late­onset Alzheimer's disease occurs in people over 50.

60.

70.

80.

30

All of the following are characteristics of Alzheimer's disease except it's not life threatening. it steals memory and concentration. it affects mood and personality. it can leave a person depressed and subject to delusions.

31

All of the following lifestyle factors increase a person's risk for Alzheimer's disease except

having high cholesterol. being sedentary. consuming a diet high in fat. having high levels of social stimulation.

32

Empty Nest Syndrome describes how a child feels when leaving home. how parents feel when their last child leaves home. how people feel when they are away from home. how people feel when a loved one dies.

33

A medical cottage or "granny pod" is a small dwelling installed in a family member's backyard. an assisted living community for independent older adults. an assisted living community for older adults with health problems. a nursing home.

34

What percentage of Americans work past age 65?

5% 10% 18.5% 12.5%

35

The highest rates of suicide are in African American males over 60.

Caucasian females between 60 and 80.

Asian American males over 80.

Caucasian males over 85.

36

Kate is a healthy 65­year­old female who is interested in increasing her physical activity. Which of the following workouts would meet the minimum recommendations for her age group?

Doing a 30­minute walk on the treadmill four days per week Doing strength­training exercises twice a week Doing a combination of strength­training exercises twice a week and walking 30 minutes a day five times a week Doing a 20­minute jog twice a week and stretching

twice a week 37

The My Plate for older adults emphasizes all the following except hydration via soups and other liquids. red meats and cheese. spice instead of salt for flavoring. physical activity.

38

Older adults who smoke a pack of cigarettes a day can expect to die about how many years earlier than nonsmokers?

2 5 10 25

39

Older adults living in the Blue Zone shared all the following characteristics except they consumed 1­2 glasses of wine daily. they included 1­2 servings of meat with every meal. they belong to a spiritual community. they maintained social and familial ties.

40

Raymond wants to find an intellectually stimulating activity to help him reduce his risk for dementia. The key to the activity he chooses is that it include a mathematical component. an interactive component. a problem­solving component. a puzzle or game.

41

All of the following activities can help prevent cognitive decline except crossword puzzles. attending religious services. social networking on the computer. watching television for a couple of hours per day.

42

What defines clinical death?

A cessation of cellular respiration A lack of heartbeat A lack of all brain activity A combination of medical criteria

43

What does it mean to have a "good death?"

to die at home in peace to have active euthanasia to prolong death to have a quick exit 44

All of the following points should be covered in a health care proxy except whether to start or continue life support. whether to end life at home or in a care facility. whether to refuse or agree to certain treatments. whether to be buried or cremated.

45

George has asked his daughter, Megan to make his medical decisions in the event he is unable to do so himself. Megan is a(n) health care proxy estate planner. executor. power of attorney.

46

Bob is terminally ill. His family has requested that he not receive CPR if his heart stops beating. This means that he has this in his medical chart.

A living will A DNR order A will Palliative care

47

A will allows a person to name an estate executor. list possessions in detail and specify who should inherit them. detail any funeral arrangements.

All of the answers are correct.

48

The intent of palliative care is to relieve pain and suffering in terminally ill individuals. provide terminally ill individuals with alternative treatment options. prolong life for terminally ill individuals. provide assisted­suicide options for terminally ill individuals.

49

Hospice focuses on providing the best care for

nursing­home residents. the dying and their families. individuals dealing with grief. elderly adults living at home who need social services.

50

Which of the following factors is the most important to consider when deciding whether or not a seriously ill person should stop treatment or have treatment withheld?

The side effects of the treatment The costs of the treatment The wishes of the person expressed directly or in a living will How much stress family members are facing

51

The key to making organ donation effective is to choose the organs you want to donate. to only register if you're healthy. to inform family members of your decision. to include your decision in your living will.

52

A "green burial" involves using a plywood box in lieu of a casket. wrapping a body in cloth and burying it in the ground. cremating a body and spreading the ashes. burying a body on the family member's property.

53

When Meghan's grandmother died, the family had a traditional religious service during which they said prayers and consoled one another. It concluded with a eulogy from her grandmother's pastor. What type of service was this?

A wake A memorial A funeral A processional

54

All of the following statements regarding grief are true except grief is different for everyone. individuals may experience one or more of the stages of grief. some experiences of grief can be more complex

than others. people who are grieving will reach acceptance sooner if they are socially isolated.

55

Refer to Michelle's Student Story in the chapter.

Because Michelle's uncle died unexpectedly and at a young age, she most likely experienced this stage of grief first.

Disbelief Anger Acceptance Yearning

56

Refer to Michelle's Student Story in the chapter. What did Michelle provide her mother and aunt to help with their grief?

Complicated grief counseling Social support Financial support Social services

57

Ideas about aging in American culture are being transformed.

True False

58

Approximately 12.5% of the U.S. population is over the age of 65.

True False

59

The elderly population in the United States will become less racially diverse over the next twenty years.

True False

60

Most older adults have at least one chronic disease.

True False

61

Healthy life expectancy is the amount of time a person can expect to live.

True False

62

Long­term use of combination HRT has been linked to an elevated risk of breast cancer and cardiovascular disease in some women.

True False

63

In Alzheimer's disease, affected nerve cells in the brain are filled with abnormal collections of twisted protein threads called tangles and deposits of apparently toxic protein fragments called amyloid­beta plaques.

True False

64

Life support systems are palliative care support systems.

True False

65

Life expectancy in the United States has decreased over the last century.

True False The Functions of Body Proteins 1. Growth and Maintenance • Proteins provide building materials­amino acids­for growth and repair of body tissues.

• Body structures. Proteins form vital parts of most body structures, such as skin, nails, hair, membranes, muscles, teeth, bones, organs, ligaments, and tendons.

2. Regulatory Roles • Enzymes. Proteins facilitate numerous chemical reactions in the body; all enzymes are proteins.

• Hormones. Some proteins act as chemical messengers, regulating body processes; not all hormones are proteins. Examples include: Insulin, glucagon, and thyroid hormone.

• Antibodies. Proteins assist the body in maintaining its resistance to disease by acting against foreign disease­causing substances.

• Fluid balance. Proteins help regulate the quantity of fluids in body compartments.

• Acid­base balance. Proteins act as buffers to maintain the normal acid and

base concentrations in body fluids.

• Transportation. Proteins move needed nutrients (e.g., minerals, lipids) and other substances (e.g., oxygen) into and out of cells and around the body.

3. Energy and Glucose Production • Energy. Protein can be used to provide calories (4 calories per gram) to help meet the body's energy needs.​

66

Some researchers are concerned that obesity will reduce life expectancy in the future.

True False ​lthough protein is essential to health, the body converts extra protein to A energy (glucose), which is stored as body fat when energy needs are met.

Despite the flood of new protein­packed snack bars and other products in the marketplace, there are no known benefits from consuming excess protein. The recommended upper range for protein intake applies when calorie intake is adequate. Note the qualification "when calorie intake is adequate" in the preceding statement. Remember that your recommended protein intake can be stated as a percentage of calories in the diet or as a specific number of grams of dietary protein. The recommended protein intake for a 150­pound person is roughly 55 grams, or about 12 percent of their daily caloric intake. Fifty­five grams of protein is equal to 220 calories and equals 11 percent of a 2,000­calorie intake, which is reasonable for a 150­pound active person. If this person were to drastically reduce his or her caloric intake to, say, 800 calories a day, then 220 calories from protein is suddenly 28 percent of the total. However, it is still this person's recommended intake for protein, and a reasonable intake. It is the caloric intake that is unreasonable in this example. Similarly, if the person eats too many calories­say, 4,000­this protein intake represents only 6 percent of the total caloric intake, yet it is still a reasonable intake. It is the caloric intake that may be unreasonable.

Thus, it is important to be careful when judging protein intakes as a percentage of calories. Always ask what the absolute number of grams is, too, and compare it with the recommended protein intake in grams. As calorie intake decreases, it is necessary to increase the percentage of calories from protein so as to consume the RDA for protein.

Recommendations stated as a percentage of calories are useful only when food energy intakes (calories) are within reason.

67

Biological aging refers to the psychological changes a person undergoes as a consequence of aging.

True False Proteins: The vegetarian needs adequate amounts of all the essential amino acids. Because proteins from animals contain ample amounts of the essential amino acids, the lacto­ovo­vegetarian can get a head start on meeting protein needs by drinking recommended amounts of milk daily or by consuming the equivalent in milk or egg products in the day's diet. Adequate

amounts of amino acids can be obtained from a plant­based diet when a varied diet is routinely consumed on a daily basis. Mixtures of proteins from whole grains, vegetables, beans, nuts, seeds, nut butters, peas, and soy products (tofu, tempeh, veggie burgers) eaten over the course of a day complement one another's amino acid profiles so that deficits in one are made up by the assets of another

Fats: Intake of omega­3 fatty acids may not meet the recommended amounts. Fish, especially fatty fish, are good sources of DHA and EPA because the fish eat marine algae containing DHA and EPA. Additional sources include dairy products and DHA­fortified eggs. Vegetarian eating patterns that do not include consumption of these types of foods are especially lacking in these fatty acids. It is recommended that vegetarians include sources of omega­3 fats from ground flaxseed, flaxseed oil, canola oil, soy products, and walnuts. Incorporating foods that are fortified in omega­3 fatty acids, including algae­derived DHA, such as some brands of soy milk, orange juice, and breakfast bars is another option.

Vitamins: The lacto­ovo­vegetarian eating pattern can be adequate in all vitamins, but having adequate intake of some vitamins is a consideration in the vegan diet. One such vitamin is vitamin B12, which does not occur naturally in plant foods. Regular consumption of vitamin B12 fortified foods such as fortified soy and rice beverages, meat analogs and nutritional yeast is important to reduce the risk for deficiency.

Minerals: Iron and zinc need special attention in the diets of all vegetarians.32 Whole­grain products, soy foods, other legumes, dried fruit, nuts, and seeds are important sources of iron in the vegetarian diet. The iron in these foods, however, is not as easily absorbed by the body as that in meat. Because the vitamin C in fruits and vegetables can triple the absorption of the iron provided by other foods eaten at the same meal, vegetarian meals should be rich in foods offering vitamin C.

Zinc is widespread in plant foods, but its availability may be reduced by the fibers and other binders found in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

Vegetarians are advised to eat varied diets that include wheat germ, legumes, nuts, pumpkin seeds, and whole­grain products. Milk, yogurt, and cheese provide zinc to the lacto­vegetarian as well.

Having an adequate amount of calcium is also important. Whereas the lacto­vegetarian will most likely meet his or her calcium needs through the consumption of dairy products, vegetarians and vegans must find other sources of calcium. Some good sources of calcium are regular servings of calcium­fortified breakfast cereals and juices; legumes; firm­style tofu made with calcium sulfate; other soy foods, including calcium­fortified soy milk; dried figs; some nuts, such as almonds; certain seeds, such as sesame seeds; and some vegetables, such as broccoli, collard greens, kale, mustard greens, turnip greens, okra, rutabaga, and Chinese cabbage (bok choy). The choices should be varied, because the absorption of the calcium provided by some of these foods is hindered by binders in them. The strict vegetarian is

urged to use calcium­fortified soy or rice beverages, juices, or cereals in ample quantities.​

68

Hormone replacement therapy is no longer being used to treat menopausal symptoms because it causes blood clots.

True False Recommended protein intakes can be stated in two ways: as a percentage of total calories, or as an absolute number (grams per day). The DRI committee recommends that protein provide 10 to 35 percent of total caloric intake. The recommended protein allowance for a healthy adult is 0.8 gram per kilogram (or 2.2 pounds) of desirable body weight per day.

The recommendation for protein uses the desirable, not the actual, weight for a given height, because the desirable weight is proportional to the lean body mass of the average person. Lean body mass, not total weight, determines protein need. This is because fat tissue is composed largely of fat, which does not require much protein for maintenance.

The recommendations for protein intake are based on the assumption that the protein source will be a combination of plant and animal proteins, that it will be consumed with adequate calories from carbohydrate and fat, and that other nutrients in the diet will be adequate. These protein recommendations apply only to healthy individuals with no unusual metabolic need for protein.​

69

Smoking brings on earlier menopause and increases hot flashes.

True False ​he plant­based eating pattern associated with vegetarianism is associated T with a number of beneficial health effects. Vegetarians tend to consume foods that are higher in fiber, richer in certain vitamins and minerals, and lower in calories from fat than non­vegetarians. Studies have found that people with vegetarian or near­vegetarian traditions, such as the Seventh­ Day Adventists and Chinese, have lower rates of heart disease, cancer, diabetes, and obesity than those consuming the typical North American diet.

Informed vegetarians are more likely to be at a healthy weight and to have lower blood cholesterol levels, lower blood pressure, lower rates of certain types of cancer, and better digestive function. Several studies have reported that the rate of type 2 diabetes is lower among vegetarians compared with non­vegetarians.28 Even compared with people who are health conscious, vegetarians experience fewer deaths from cardiovascular disease. It is unlikely that dietary practices alone account for the lower mortality rates found in vegetarians. Non­dietary lifestyle factors such as not smoking, lower alcohol intake, and emphasis on supportive family also reduce one's risk for chronic diseases. These factors, together with a vegetarian­style

eating pattern, appear to contribute to positive health outcomes.

70

A substantial number of older adults remain sexually active.

True False Although the physical responses to a food allergy and food intolerance may be very similar, the difference between the two is whether or not the immune system is involved in the reaction. Food intolerance is far more common than food allergy. A food intolerance is an adverse reaction to food that does not involve the immune system. Lactose intolerance is one example of a food intolerance. A person with lactose intolerance lacks the enzyme needed to digest lactose. When that person eats milk products, symptoms such as gas, cramps, and bloating can occur. Some people may develop sensitivity to various other agents in a food. Tyramine, found in cheese or red wine, can induce a headache in some people. Others may have sensitivity to certain food additives, such as monosodium glutamate (MSG), sulfites, or coloring agents. The physical reactions to these agents can include hives, rashes, nasal congestion, or asthma.

A food allergy, in contrast, is an abnormal response to a food triggered by the immune system. The allergic reaction involves three main components: food allergens, immunoglobulin E (IgE), and mast cells. Food allergens are the fragments of food that are responsible for the allergic reaction. They consist of proteins from the food that are not broken down during the digestive process, which then cross the gastrointestinal lining to enter the bloodstream. IgE is a type of protein called an antibody that circulates through the blood. When allergic people eat certain foods, their immune system reacts to the food allergen by making IgE that is specific to that food. Once released, the IgE antibody attaches to a cell called the mast cell. Mast cells are specialized cells of the immune system that serve as the storehouse for various chemical substances, including histamine. Mast cells are found in all body tissues, but they are especially common in the areas of the body that are typical sites of allergic reaction: the nose and throat, lungs, skin, and gastrointestinal tract. When an allergic reaction occurs, the food allergen interacts with the IgE on the surface of the mast cells, which triggers those cells to release histamine. Depending on the tissue in which the histamine is released, these chemicals will cause a person to have various symptoms of a food allergy. The most severe allergic reaction is anaphylaxis. This potentially fatal condition occurs when several parts of the body experience food allergy reactions at the same time. Signs of anaphylaxis include difficulty breathing, swelling of the mouth and throat, a drop in blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. The reaction can occur in a few seconds or minutes, and without immediate medical attention, death may result. The foods most associated with anaphylactic reactions include peanuts, tree nuts (for example, walnuts, cashews), eggs, and shellfish.

71

Rheumatoid arthritis is the most common form of arthritis affecting older adults.

True

False The Vegetarian Nutrition Dietetics Practice Group of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics provides several recommendations for eating a more plant­based eating pattern. You can start by preparing at least one vegetarian meal a week. Many of the dishes that typically contain meat can be prepared vegetarian: for example, vegetable lasagna, tofu­vegetable stir fry, or bean burritos. If you already eat plant foods, eat a greater variety of them. Instead of a peanut butter and jelly sandwich, consider having oatmeal with nuts and raisins instead. Add more vegetables and beans to your soups and stews that contain animal products to slowly make them more vegetarian. Substitute soyfood products or meat analogs for the poultry and beef in your current recipes. Add firm tofu chunks in place of meat or poultry in stir­fries, fajitas, or shish kebabs. Use soy milk to make hot chocolate. Make your own breakfast sandwich with a whole­grain English muffin, slice of soy cheese, and soy sausage­style patty. After a workout, whip up a chocolate banana soy smoothie made from vanilla soy yogurt, chocolate soy milk, and a frozen banana. Take time to visit health food or grocery stores that carry plant­based foods like non­dairy beverages and frozen desserts, and varieties of grains, fruits, nuts, and seeds. Even when dining out, be aware that many restaurants can make vegetarian modifications to menu items. Finally, share your new­found knowledge of vegetarian dining with friends or family by inviting them over for a vegetarian meal. Including them in the process can make it fun and more likely to last.

72

Normal age­related changes include difficulty learning new information.

True False Below is a summary of protein digestion and absorption: 1. In the mouth, chewing crushes and softens protein­rich foods and mixes them with saliva.

2. Stomach acid works to uncoil (denature) protein strands and activate stomach enzymes. The enzyme pepsin breaks the protein strands into dipeptides, tripeptides, and polypeptides. A mucous coating on the stomach wall protects the stomach's own proteins from both the harsh stomach acid and the protein­digesting enzymes.

3. In the small intestine, the fragments of protein are split into free amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides with the help of enzymes from the pancreas and small intestine. Enzymes on the surface of the small intestinal cells break these peptides into amino acids, and they are absorbed through the microvilli of the small intestine into the blood.

4. The large intestine carries any undigested protein residue out of the body.

Normally, practically all the protein is digested and absorbed.​

73

Alzheimer's disease is a progressive, fatal form of dementia.

True False

If an essential amino acid (one the body cannot make) is missing, the building of the protein will halt. The cell cannot hold partially completed proteins to complete them later, for example, the next day. Instead, it must dismantle the partial structures and return surplus amino acids to the circulation, making them available to other cells. If other cells do not soon pick up these amino acids and insert them into protein, the liver will remove their amine groups for the kidney to excrete. Other cells will then use the remaining fragments for other purposes. The need for the production of that particular protein will not be met.

74

The traditional notion of retirement as a time of leisure has not changed.

True False Gluten is a protein that is found in wheat, rye, and barley. Wheat, the most widely used gluten­containing grain, is commonly consumed as bread, pasta, noodles and other baked goods. Gluten is also the compound linked to two disorders: wheat allergy and celiac disease. Although both conditions are considered immunologic responses, they differ in type.

Wheat allergy is a typical food allergy with presence of IgE antibodies that trigger the release of histamine from mast cells. The allergic response can affect the skin, gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, or sinuses. Diagnosis of wheat allergy is confirmed through a prick skin test or radioallergosorbent test (RAST) (a blood test). Celiac disease is an autoimmune condition affecting approximately 1% of the general population; individuals with a family history of celiac disease are at increased risk.19 Ingestion of gluten causes the immune system to release autoantibodies (tTG and EMA), which leads to an inflammation of the gastrointestinal mucosa. Symptoms include chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and skin rash.

Diagnosis is made through blood tests for the presence of specific autoantibodies. Biopsy of the small intestine will typically show a flattening of the villi.​

75

Physical activity can slow many of the effects of aging.

True False Non­celiac gluten sensitivity, or gluten sensitivity, is a reaction to gluten that results in symptoms that are similar to wheat allergy or celiac disease.

The important difference is that gluten sensitivity does not involve allergic or autoimmune mechanisms. Gluten sensitivity can be suspected if blood tests for wheat allergy and celiac disease are negative and symptoms of intolerance resolve with a gluten­free diet. The diagnosis may be substantiated if a subsequent challenge of reintroducing gluten in the diet results in a return of symptoms.

76

A person is considered clinically dead when the heart stops beating.

True False A strand of protein is not straight; it is more like a tangled chain. The amino acids at different places along the strand are attracted to one another, and this attraction causes the strand to coil into a shape similar to that of a metal spring. Not only does the strand of amino acids form a long coil, but the coil tangles, forming a globular structure.

The charged amino acids are attracted to water, and in the body fluids they orient themselves on the outside of the globular structure. The neutral amino acids are repelled by water and are attracted to one another; they tuck themselves into the center, away from the body fluids. All these interactions among the amino acids and the surrounding fluid result in the unique architecture of each type of protein. Additional steps may be needed for the protein to become functional. A mineral or a vitamin may be needed to complete the unit and activate it, or several proteins may gather to form a functioning group.

The differing shapes of proteins enable them to perform different tasks in the body. In proteins that give strength and elasticity to body parts, several springs of amino acids coil together and form rope­like fibers. Other proteins, like those in the blood, do not have such structural strength but are water­soluble, with a globular shape like a ball of steel wool. Some are shaped like hollow balls that can carry and store minerals in their interiors.

Still others provide support to tissues. Some­the enzymes­act on other substances to change them chemically.​

77

People who die without a will or similar document in place have their estate division determined by their next of kin.

True False ​ccording to the Food Allergy Research and Education organization, the A eight foods that cause 90 percent of all allergic reactions are: • egg • fish • milk • peanuts • shellfish • soy • tree nuts • wheat

78

Most older Americans die at home.

True False

Cross­reaction is the reaction of one antigen with antibodies developed against another antigen. Cross­reaction is a concern for someone diagnosed with a food allergy. For instance, if someone has a history of allergic reaction to shrimp, testing may show that person is also allergic to other shellfish, such as crab and lobster.

The possibility of cross­contamination is also a problem for people with food allergies. When one food comes in contact with another food, trace amounts of each food mix with the other. Cross­contamination can occur in processing plants when different foods are processed on the same equipment. It can also occur at home­a knife inserted into the peanut butter jar and then used in the jelly will contaminate the jelly with peanut protein.​

79

Physician­assisted suicide is legal in ten states.

True False The types of vegetarian eating patterns are:

 Vegan: includes only food from plant sources  Ovo­vegetarian: includes plant foods and eggs  Lacto­vegetarian: includes plant foods and milk and milk products  Lacto­ovo­vegetarian: includes plant foods, milk and milk products, and eggs  Pesce­vegetarian: includes plant foods and seafood  Pollo­vegetarian: includes plant foods and poultry​

80

Everyone experiences grieving as a five­stage process, with each stage lasting one to two months.

True False

81

Match the following:

Presbyopia decline in the ability to see objects up close Glaucoma

fluid buildup in the eye that causes internal pressure and damages the optic nerve Presbycusis age­related hearing loss Cataracts a clouding of the lens of the eye that dims vision Age­related macular degeneration impairment of the center of a person's vision

82

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83

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84

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85

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86

Match the following:

Hormone replacement therapy Linda takes a low dose oral contraceptive for hot flashes.

Perimenopause Nancy is 45 and still menstruating, but is experiencing hot flashes and weight gain.

Postmenopause Ruth is 58 and went through menopause five years ago.

Vaginal estrogen Linda applies this medicated cream to relieve dryness.

Menopause Alana is 52, and her last menstrual period was a year ago.

87

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88

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89

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MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 90

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91

Match the following:

DNR an order to not restart a person's heart or lungs if heart stops beating Advance directive legal documents stating a person's medical treatment Intestate dying without a legal will Estate a person's personal holdings, including money and property Palliative care care that focuses on reducing pain and suffering

92

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93

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94

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95

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96

Discuss the three health behaviors that can help you age successfully.

Answer: Avoid tobacco, especially cigarettes. Maintain a healthful weight. Get regular exercise.

97

Ahn is a 70­year­old Asian female who is 60 inches tall and weighs 105 lbs. Regarding her risk of getting osteoporosis, what are three factors she can't control, and what are three behaviors she can control?

Answer: She has the following three uncontrollable risk factors: being postmenopausal, being an Asian female, and being small­framed. The following behaviors are within her control: to consume 1,200 mg. of calcium daily, along with vitamin D; to do weight­bearing exercise regularly; and to avoid smoking and excessive alcohol consumption.

98

Ruth and Tom's only son recently left home for college for the first time. What changes and challenges might they face as they deal with "Empty Nest Syndrome?"

Answer: As a result of having more time alone than they have had in years, Ruth and Tom may find that they need to get to know each other again as individuals. In doing so they may find that the bonds that connected them as individuals have frayed, and they may separate.

Conversely, they may find that their connection is stronger than ever and enjoy the extra time together.

If they also have the task of care­giving for elderly parents, they may spend many hours per week "parenting" their own parents.

99

Discuss the stages of grief a loved one with a terminal illness may experience.

Answer: * Denial­ refusal to accept the diagnosis * Anger­ may be directed towards family members, the diagnosis, the physician, themselves, or God. * Bargaining­tries to avoid or delay in exchange for repentance or good deeds. * Depression­ may be marked by withdrawal from a loved one * Acceptance­ stops fighting; may spend more time with loved ones and try to make peace.

100

Compare and contrast the definitions of death.

Answer: * Brain death is the cessation of brain activity as indicated by various medical devices and diagnostic criteria. Functional death is the end of all vital functions, including heartbeat, breathing, and blood flow. * Cellular death is the end of all vital functions at the cellular level, such as cellular respiration and other metabolic processes. * Clinical death is a medical determination that life has ceased, and is often defined by medical criteria focusing on a combination of functional and neurological factors. * These are all physiological definitions of death. How an individual defines death philosophically, spiritually, and psychologically is largely influenced by age, life experiences, and values and beliefs.

Chapter 016 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Which of the following statements about sleep is correct?

Sleep is a state of "global shutdown."

Sleep is prompted by darkness.

Sleep is physiologically prompted.

Sleep is prompted by silence and other reductions in stimulation from the environment.

2

Which of the following is not one of the three areas of the brain involved in generating and maintaining sleep?

The cerebrum The pituitary gland The diencephalon The brain stem

3

Circadian rhythms follow a roughly ________­hour cycle of wakefulness and sleep. twenty­four twelve six thirty­six

4

A device that monitors the electrical activity of different regions of the brain using electrodes placed on the scalp is called a(n) electrocardiograph.

PKE meter. ultrasound transponder. electroencephalograph.

5

The five basic stages of sleep are further classified into two distinct orders characterized by body temperature. breathing rates. rapid vs. non­rapid eye movement. the ability of the sleeper to quickly respond to stimulus.

6

Dreaming occurs during which of the following stages of sleep?

Stage two Stage three Stage four Stage five

7

Delta waves are evident in which of the following stage(s) of sleep?

Stage five Stage two Stages three and four Stages two and five

8

During which stage of sleep does the pituitary gland produce growth hormone to facilitate repair of the body?

Stage one Stage three Stage four Stage five

9

REM sleep is prompted by which structure of the brain?

The brain stem The hypothalamus The pons The pineal gland

10

The hypothalamus and pineal gland are both contained within which structure of the brain?

The pons The diencephalon The cerebrum The brain stem

11

The brain's pineal gland produces the light­responsive hormone called adrenaline. melatonin. insulin. estrogen.

12

Remaining active during sleep, the brain's ________ is the thinking area and outermost "bark" of the cerebrum. hypothalamus pons pineal gland cerebral cortex

13

The five stages of sleep are differentiated from each other by varying levels of adrenaline found in the blood.

varying patterns of electrical activity generated by the cerebral cortex. the five different patterns of eye movement.

All of the answers are correct.

14

In which of the five stages of sleep does one typically spend the most time each night?

Stage one Stage two Stage four Stage five

15

Sleep experts agree that the optimal range of sleep per night is seven to eight hours. five to seven hours. six to ten hours. no less than five hours; there is not an upper limit.

16

Common in students, ________ is an accumulated amount of sleep­loss prompted by short sleep cycles. sleep surplus sleep deprivation sleep debt long sleep

17

To determine sleep needs, researchers sometimes conduct a survey study, comparing the hours of sleep reported by patients to the median age of the patient population. the age at which patients die. mitigating factors such as stress and medications. occupational and activity requirements of patients.

18

Cited studies in the text show that a moderate increase in sleep duration improves alertness. task­based performance. mood.

All of the answers are correct.

19

A national poll conducted in 2009 found that ________ of American adults experience short sleep every night of the week.

25 percent 30 percent 45 percent 50 percent

20

During weeknights, studies show that one in every ________ American adults experiences very short sleep, defined as less than 6 hours. ten five eight two

21

Americans of college age (19 to 29) typically get more sleep than the average American adult. get less sleep than the average American adult. get an equitable amount of sleep compared to the average American adult.

None of the answers are correct. There are no generalizations for this age group regarding sleep patterns.

22

Which of the following is not among the seven signs of potential sleep deprivation as cited by the American Academy of Sleep Medicine?

Dependency on an alarm clock Frequent dehydration Forgetfulness Frequent illness

23

The U.S. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) in Atlanta links short sleep to an increased risk for type 2 diabetes. heart disease. obesity.

All of the answers are correct.

24

Excessive sleeping is technically termed hypersomnia. hyposomnia. metasomnia. ultrasomnia.

25

Some researchers suggest the link between short sleep and impaired learning is brain­related, specifically because of problems with the hypothalamus. pons. prefrontal cortex. pituitary gland.

26

Memory consolidation occurs in the area(s) of the brain known as the spatial lobes. medulla. cerebral cortex. temporal lobes.

27

In a national poll, approximately ________ of American adults admitted to having fallen asleep behind the wheel of a vehicle at least once in the past year. one­half one­third one­fourth None of the answers are correct.

28

The most important influences to sleep patterns are biological and genetic. behavioral and environmental. gender and ethnicity.

All of the answers are equally important.

29

Pre­sleep use of electronic technology affects sleep by more quickly relaxing the muscular system. speeding entry into REM sleep. relaxing the mind and diverting attention from the concerns of the day. augmenting circadian rhythms via light­emitting screens.

30

For two to four hours after eating, you should recline. remain upright. exercise moderately. establish a routine.

31

The text cites which of the following suggestions regarding what to have for a snack before bedtime because it provides amino acids, carbohydrates, and minerals that are thought to create a relaxing combination?

A few plain crackers and hot tea A banana and glass of milk Chicken or vegetable bullion and a small piece of cheese Any raw vegetables and a glass of water

32

Persistent heartburn (GERD) can be a cause for sleep interruption when you lie down soon after eating. you remain upright for several hours after eating. you exercise vigorously after eating and before bedtime. your diet contains dairy products.

33

Spicy foods are believed to inhibit sleep primarily because of strong disruption to the body's pH level. gastric reflux. the rise in body temperature the spices induce. endorphins created in the brain.

34

Studies suggest that the amount of caffeine in as many as ________ of coffee per day yields little health risk. one cup eight cups two cups four cups

35

Which of the following ethnicities reported the lowest incidence of sleep problems in the United States according to a study by the National Sleep Foundation?

African Americans Asian Americans Hispanic Americans Caucasian Americans

36

Which of the following ethnicities reported the getting the lowest amount of sleep each night according to a study by the National Sleep Foundation?

African Americans Asian Americans Hispanic Americans Caucasian Americans

37

Which of the following ethnicities is most likely to sleep with a pet, according to a study by the National Sleep Foundation?

African Americans Asian Americans Hispanic Americans Caucasian Americans

38

Which of the following is not an individual behavior

affecting sleep?

Stimulant medication use Smoking Sensory disturbances Alcohol use 39

The American Academy of Sleep Medicine identifies ________ specific sleep disorders.

81 43 27 6

40

Which of the following conditions is generally tied to behavior such as substance abuse or other medical disorders such as heart disease?

Primary insomnia Secondary insomnia Tertiary insomnia Quaternary insomnia

41

Which of the following conditions is sleep deprivation that is generally tied to stress response?

Primary insomnia Secondary insomnia Tertiary insomnia Quaternary insomnia

42

As many as ________ percent of all Americans snore at least occasionally. ten ninety sixty­five fifty

43

Sleep apnea is primarily characterized by jerking of the legs and arms during sleep. an inability to stay asleep longer than an hour or so. pauses in breathing while one sleeps.

All of the answers are correct.

44

Sleep apnea is more commonly found in men. smokers. people who are overweight.

All of the answers are correct.

45

Loud snoring is directly characteristic of obstructive sleep apnea. central sleep apnea. secondary insomnia. primary insomnia.

46

Which of the following is a methodology of testing for sleep apnea?

Clinical examination for structural abnormalities in the back of the mouth and throat A polysomnogram Using an at­home sleep monitor All of the answers are correct.

47

Sleep apnea patients are advised to sleep on their sides. on their backs. on their stomachs. sitting up slightly.

48

The most severe cases of sleep apnea may require use of an at­home sleep monitor. the patient to sleep in a sitting position. use of a device delivering continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). surgery to remove obstructive tissue or to reset the lower jaw.

49

The disorder in which the brain fails to regulate the sleep­wake cycles in a normal fashion is called central sleep apnea. obstructive sleep apnea. parasomnia. narcolepsy.

50

________ is a general condition in which unusual events accompany sleep.

Primary insomnia Obstructive sleep apnea Parasomnia Narcolepsy

51

Sleepwalking occurs during stages ________ of NREM sleep, usually early in the night. one and two one and three three and four three and five

52

Sleep bruxism refers to a disorder in which the patient unconsciously makes his or her way to the kitchen and eats for several minutes. clenches or grinds his or her teeth. cannot control the cycle of sleep versus waking. goes long periods of time without taking a breath.

53

Sleep and hunger are both fundamental physiological drives regulated by the brain's hypothalamus. cerebral cortex. stem.

All of the answers are correct.

54

Which of the following is/are contributing factors for both iterations of nocturnal eating disorder?

Female gender A history of depression A history of insomnia All of the answers are correct.

55

REM behavior disorder results physiologically from the brain's ________ failing to inhibit muscle movement during REM sleep. pons hypothalamus cerebral cortex pineal gland

56

Restless leg syndrome seems to be triggered by tobacco use. alcohol use. an iron deficiency.

All of the answers are correct.

57

If sleep problems persist beyond ________, the text suggests it's time to see a doctor. five days two weeks

one month three months 58

A clinical sleep study is ordered by a physician to determine if blocked airflow is a problem during sleep. if movement of the limbs during sleep is keeping the patient from soundly sleeping. the amount of active brain waves, eye movements, heart rate, and snoring.

All of the answers are correct.

59

The American Academy of Sleep Medicine recommends that you avoid sleeping pills if possible, and suggests that physicians prescribe them for no more than six months. three weeks. one week. two months.

60

The newer classification of sleeping medications (e.g.

Ambien) are commonly referred to as opiates. barbiturates. benzodiazepines. "z­drugs."

61

Studies consistently demonstrate that study subjects fall asleep faster when the sleep environment is dark. when the bed is warm and the room is cool. when the sleep environment is reasonably quiet.

All of the answers are correct.

62

For optimum sleep, if you cannot cut out caffeine completely, the text suggests drinking coffee or tea no later than breakfast. lunchtime. dinnertime, or approximately six p.m. nine p.m.

63

For optimal sleep, the text recommends exposure to natural sunlight for ________ hours per day. two four six There is no limit; the more exposure to natural light

during the day, the better one should sleep.

64

Sleep has been shown to improve the most if one confronts the stressors in one's life ________ the day. as early as possible during halfway through towards the end of None of the answers are correct.

65

If you've gone to bed but cannot fall asleep in ________, get up and do something relaxing until you feel sleepy again and can head back to bed. an hour twenty minutes two hours ninety minutes

66

The most popular over­the­counter sleep drugs are antihistamines. antidepressants. benzodiazepines. taurine and ginseng.

67

Which of the following supplements does the text suggest may be helpful for easing the symptoms of jetlag? valerian chamomile melatonin All of the answers are correct.

68

Which of the following forms of physical activity was shown to have the greatest impact on sleep patterns? yoga Tai Chi Pilates All of these forms seemingly have an equal impact on sleep performance.

69

Studies show that when you're well­rested, you manage stress more effectively. make more realistic assessments of yourself and your surroundings. solve problems with greater ease.

All of the answers are correct.

70

The behaviors and environmental factors that together influence the quantity and quality of your sleep are collectively called sleep hygiene. initiation. maintenance. profile.

71

The actual task of falling asleep is called sleep hygiene. initiation. maintenance. profile.

72

The mechanics of falling asleep and remaining asleep for the optimum amount of time is called sleep hygiene. initiation. maintenance. profile.

73

An element of sleep hygiene would be regulating a uniform sleep and wake schedule for each day. avoiding naps. avoiding elevated temperatures.

All of the answers are correct.

74

The text suggests avoiding alcohol for a least ________ hours before bedtime for optimal sleep. two one six four

75

Insomnia is characterized by difficulty falling or staying asleep. a pattern of waking too early. poor­quality sleep over a lengthy period of time.

All of the answers are correct.

76

What percentage of people with insomnia suffer from primary insomnia?

10 percent

15 percent 20 percent 25 percent 77

All of the ________ primary regions of the human brain are involved in sleep. two three four five

78

Which of the following are among the actions some campuses are beginning to take to address sleep deprivation among students?

Starting classes later in the morning Instituting noise ordinances in dorms Offering programs to provide students with information about the importance of sleep All of the answers are correct.

79

Which of the following medications has been blamed for many instances of users walking, driving, or otherwise performing a wide range of dangerous tasks while under the influence and asleep?

Xanax Valium Ambien Ativan

80

What is the "worry control" procedure, which one study showed to be effective in reducing the time it took for students to fall asleep?

Students identified "buddies" with whom they exchanged their worries, forcing them to verbalize.

Students performed their before­bed tasks in a ritual manner to take their minds off their worries.

Students engaged in self­talk to put their worries into perspective.

Students wrote down their worries as well as possible solutions.  Shop for produce at least once a week. The longer fruits and vegetables stay in your refrigerator before being eaten, the more nutrients are likely to be lost.  Store fruits and vegetables (other than bananas, tomatoes, and potatoes) in your refrigerator rather than in a fruit bowl or on the kitchen counter.

Chilling slows the metabolic rate of the cells of a fruit or vegetable, which in turn causes the cells to use less of their own nutrients. Thus, chilling prevents nutrient depletion.

 Store fruits and vegetables whole, peeling and cutting only what you need immediately before cooking or eating. Once you cut into the skin of an item and expose it to air, vitamin loss begins. After slicing, the vitamin C content of oranges, grapefruits, tomatoes, and strawberries begins to decline. If you do have leftover cut produce, wrap it tightly in airtight plastic or store it in an airtight container inside the refrigerator.  Try to eat frozen vegetables within a month or two of purchase, because nutrient losses occur over time in stored vegetables.   Cook vegetables in the least amount of water and for the shortest period of time possible. Water­soluble vitamins readily dissolve into cooking water, and heat destroys some as well. To minimize such losses, steam vegetables over water, or cook vegetables in a microwave oven.

81

The slow, meditative movement therapy practiced in China for thousands of years is called acupuncture. yoga.

Pilates.

Tai Chi. One of the newest areas of nutrition research today focuses on a class of substances in plant foods called phytochemicals, nonnutritive substances in plants that possess health­protective benefits. Phytochemicals are the compounds that give plants their brilliant colors (for example, lycopene, a pigment that makes tomatoes red and watermelon pink) and distinctive aromas (for example, the allium compounds that give us "garlic breath").

These natural compounds also protect plants from the ravages of overexposure to sunlight and other environmental threats and insects.

Most recently, the term phytochemicals has been popularized to refer in particular to plant chemicals that may affect health and prevent disease. Of particular interest are phytochemicals in edible plants, including fruits and vegetables, whole grains, legumes, herbs, and seeds. In the classic sense, the naturally occurring phytochemicals are not nutrients, for they do not provide energy or building materials. However, ongoing research shows that phytochemicals might perform important functions by acting as powerful antioxidants, decreasing blood pressure and cholesterol, preventing cataracts, reducing menopause symptoms and risk for osteoporosis, and slowing or even reversing certain cancers.

82

Drowsy driving results in the death of approximately ________ Americans each year.

500 3,000 1,500 8,000

Vitamins fall into two categories: those that dissolve in water (water­ soluble vitamins) and those that dissolve in fat (fat­soluble vitamins). To date, scientists have identified 13 vitamins, each with its own special roles to play. Each of the food groups in the MyPlate food guide supplies a number of vitamins. Eating plans that exclude entire food groups or fail to include the amounts of food from each group may lead to vitamin deficiencies over time.

The nine water­soluble vitamins­eight B vitamins and vitamin C­are found in the watery components of foods, such as the juice of an orange. These vitamins are distributed into water­filled compartments of the body, including the fluid that surrounds the spinal cord. The body excretes excess water­soluble vitamins if blood levels rise too high. As a result, these vitamins rarely reach toxic levels in the body. This is not to say, however, that excess levels cannot cause problems, at least in some people.

In contrast, the four fat­soluble vitamins­A, D, E, and K­are generally found in the fats and oils of foods. Because they are stored in the liver and in body fat, it is possible for megadoses of fat­soluble vitamins to build up to toxic levels in the body and cause undesirable side effects.

83

Only ________ of American adults get eight or more hours of sleep per night.

5 percent 12 percent 28 percent 42 percent

The antioxidant nutrients are vitamin C, vitamin E, and the carotenoid called beta­carotene.

Functions of antioxidant vitamins • Enhance the immune system • Limit free­radical formation • Destroy free radicals and prevent oxidative damage to cells • Reduce inflammation in blood vessel walls ­ Vitamin C defends body cells and tissues such as skin, lungs, and blood. ­ Vitamin E and beta­carotene defend the body's lipids such as cell membranes and lipoproteins.

84

Most people require ________ to recover from the

effects of jet lag. about 12 hours about a week 2 or 3 days about 10 days Because vitamin K is obtained both in the diet and via the intestinal bacteria, deficiencies are rare and occur only under unusual circumstances.

Taking antibiotics for an extended period of time, for instance, could kill some of the intestinal bacteria and thereby prompt a deficiency.

Newborn babies are the one group that is commonly susceptible to vitamin K deficiency, because a baby's digestive tract contains no bacteria before birth. After birth, the infant? 's intestinal tract gradually becomes populated with bacteria, but this happens over time. What? 's more, baby formula or breast milk generally doesn't contain adequate amounts of vitamin K. Thus, newborns are given a dose of vitamin K to prevent the possibility of a life­ threatening hemorrhage in the case of injury.

Vitamin K toxicity is rare, but it can occur when supplemental doses are taken. In particular, adults who must pay attention to the amount of vitamin K in their diet are those who take anticoagulant drugs designed to prevent the blood from clotting and possibly causing a stroke or heart attack. People taking such medications are advised to keep their consumption of vitamin K fairly constant from day to day, because large fluctuations can limit the effectiveness of the anticlotting drugs

85

Your "body clock" is found in the hypothalamus. pons. pineal gland. cerebrum.

Many of the vitamin deficiency diseases that have been virtually eliminated today were first recognized in Greek and Roman times, and ultimately led to the discovery of vitamins centuries later. One of the most prevalent was scurvy, a disease caused by lack of vitamin C and characterized by bleeding gums, tooth loss, and even death. The scourge of armies, sailors, and other travelers forced to do without vitamin C­rich foods for weeks on end, scurvy was recognized by Hippocrates, a Greek physician heralded today as the father of medicine.

A cure for scurvy was not recorded until the 16th century, however, when a beverage made of spruce needles or oranges and lemons was recommended. In 1753, a British physician named James Lind published a famous report recommending consumption of herbs, lettuce, endive, watercress, and summer fruits to prevent scurvy. By the early 1800s, sailors in the British navy had been dubbed "limeys" because they were required to

drink lemon or lime juice daily. Although they still didn't know that vitamin C was the actual antidote, they did recognize that certain foods prevented and cured the illness.

86

During sleep, all your major organs continue to function.

True False When it comes to colon cancer, the best nutrition and physical activity­ related advice to reduce the risk of colon cancer is to: 

Increase the intensity and duration of physical activity.



Limit intake of red and processed meat.



Consume recommended levels of calcium and vitamin D.



Eat more vegetables and fruits.



Avoid obesity (especially weight gain around the abdomen).

  Avoid excess alcohol consumption.

87

Dreaming occurs during non­REM sleep.

True False Studies of the eating habits of different population groups provide some of the knowledge we already have about the diet­.cancer connection. Research involving Seventh­Day Adventists, a group of people with a remarkably low death rate from cancers of all kinds, is particularly telling. This religious group has rules against smoking and using alcohol, discourages the use of hot condiments and spices, and encourages a meatless diet. After cancers linked to smoking and alcohol are discounted, these people still have a cancer mortality rate about one­half to two­thirds that of the rest of the population. This may be due to a low consumption of meat and to a high consumption of fruits, vegetables, and cereal grains.

88

Disturbance of the body's circadian rhythm is usually termed "jet lag."

True False If you decide to start taking a supplement, keep the following points in mind when choosing one: 1. Remember that price is not an indication of quality. Many products sold at major retail chains and drugstores are just as high in quality as pricier

versions sold in health food stores. Look for a product that meets high standards for manufacturing. One way to do this is to check the label to see whether the product meets USP standards­manufacturing practices set forth by the U.S. Pharmacopeia, the organization that establishes drug standards.

The organization's standards require that a supplement be able to disintegrate and dissolve thoroughly in the stomach within a certain period of time, thereby increasing the chances that the nutrients inside will be absorbed and used by the body. Also look for a bottle or package that carries an expiration date. If it doesn't, you run the risk of buying a product that has been sitting on a shelf for a long time. After a while, the product may lose its potency.

2. Look for a supplement that contains both vitamins and minerals, with no more than 100 percent to 150 percent of the recommended Daily Values for each. For the most part, nutrients work in concert with one another, promoting the body's ability to make use of them. Products that include a balanced mix of vitamins and minerals are the best bet for most people.

Steer clear of products containing extraneous substances such as PABA, hesperidin, inositol, and bee pollen. These nonvitamin substances have never been proved essential to humans and only add to the price of the supplement. Be wary of taking multivitamins that also contain herbs.

Although herbal products are considered to be dietary supplements, the unregulated herbal industry of today is a buyer­beware market.

3. Buy products sold in childproof bottles or packages if you have children around. Vitamins and minerals, especially iron, can be highly toxic to children. Every year, tens of thousands of children swallow excess vitamin­ mineral supplements, and iron­tablet overdoses alone are one of the top causes of accidental death in youngsters.

89

College students who report pulling "all­nighters" to complete their work have, on average, lower GPAs than those who do not.

True False Major health organizations and other experts say that taking a multivitamin­ mineral supplement, under the guidance of a physician or dietitian, may be in order for these particular groups of people: •

People restricting energy intake for weight loss

• People with certain diseases or those taking medications that interfere with appetite, absorption, or excretion of nutrients • Strict vegetarians, whose diets may fall short in vitamin B12, vitamin D, calcium, iron, and zinc • Women who are pregnant or breastfeeding, phases that bolster the need for nutrients, including iron and folate • Women with excessive menstrual bleeding, who may need iron supplements • Women during their childbearing years who do not consume folate­rich foods or foods fortified with folic acid; they may need more folate in their

diets to prevent neural tube defects in infants • People with a specific nutrient gap that cannot or is not otherwise being filled by the individual's food intake. For example, people with lactose intolerance, or who does not consume milk or other dairy products­they need a source of calcium; those with inadequate exposure to sunlight may also need vitamin D • Older adults, who may have difficulty choosing an adequate diet, chewing problems, or a reduced ability to absorb and metabolize certain nutrients • People who are recovering from surgery, burn injuries, or other illnesses that increase nutrient needs • People with chronic diseases of the digestive tract or other conditions that lead to poor intake or deplete nutrient stores • People with alcohol or other drug addictions, who are likely to have a shortage of vitamins and minerals in their diets

90

Studies show that ample sleep after studying dramatically improves recall.

True False

91

The brain's oxygen consumption is significantly lower during REM sleep as compared with wakeful activity.

True False

92

Sleep experts agree that the best way to make up sleep debt is gradually, by getting just a little extra sleep each night.

True False

93

Over many years of study, researchers have shown significant losses in task­based performance in subjects who get less than seven hours of sleep per night.

True False

94

Sleep­study participants are usually aware of their impaired performance when deprived of sleep.

True False

95

Given the opportunity, sleep­study subjects will sleep upwards to 12 hours a day for months on end.

True False

96

What are circadian rhythms and why are they important?

Answer: Circadian rhythms are patterns of physical, emotional, and behavioral changes that follow a roughly 24­hour cycle in accordance with the hours of darkness and light in the individual's environment. This rhythmic cycle is essential for optimal performance of the human brain.

97

List the three primary regions of the human brain, all of which participate in the maintenance and structure of sleep.

Answer: the brain stem, the diencephalon, the cerebrum

98

List the five stages of sleep and identify in which stage REM occurs.

Answer: Stage 1: falling asleep; Stage 2: light sleep; Stage 3: beginning of deep sleep; Stage 4; deep sleep; Stage 5: dreaming occurs (REM sleep only present in Stage 5)

99

What is the role of the brain area called the pons during sleep?

Answer: The pons is responsible for inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters necessary for large­scale muscle movement; it is a protective mechanism that prevents the sleeper from physically acting out dreams. Although body movement is reduced, respiration, auditory nerves, and eye muscles continue to function.

100

To help with sleep problems, what is the most popular over­the­counter (OTC) remedy and most popular complementary and alternative therapies?

Answer: Antihistamines remain the most widely used OTC sleep remedy. Common complementary remedies include valerian root, chamomile extract, and melatonin supplements. Alternative therapies that have proved most successful in promoting sleep are t'ai chi and Pilates.

101

List the various treatments for sleep apnea as outlined in the text.

Answer: For mild cases of sleep apnea, taking care of contributing factors may solve the problem. For example, the patient may need to lose weight, quit smoking, avoid all alcohol, or use nasal decongestants. Patients are also advised to sleep on their side. For moderate cases, an orthodontist can fit the patient with a plastic mouthpiece that adjusts the lower jaw and tongue to keep the airways open during sleep. Or the patient can sleep with a CPAP machine. CPAP stands for continuous positive airway pressure: Through a mask that fits over the sleeper's nose and mouth, the device sends air into the sleeper's throat at a pressure just high enough to keep the airways open. In cases of severe sleep apnea, surgery to widen the breathing passages may be necessary. It usually involves shrinking, stiffening, or removing excess tissue in the mouth and throat or resetting the lower jaw.

102

What are the treatments for narcolepsy as outlined in the text?

Answer: Treatment for narcolepsy includes the use of certain medications, such as stimulants and antidepressants, to control sleep­wake cycles. Behavioral therapies are also important, and include scheduling regular naps, avoiding heavy meals, and avoiding alcohol.

103

Why does the ingestion of spicy foods at the evening meal tend to impede the natural sleep cycle?

Answer:

Rather than problems with digestion, researchers believe that the spices elevate the body's core temperature enough to disturb the nervous and hormonal mechanisms that normally initiate sleep.

104

List at least six of the eleven tips listed in the text for getting to sleep more quickly. (Note: You might recall these more easily by focusing on the ones which you either already use or are most likely to try.)

Answer: Answers will vary, but the eleven tips are: * Think of your bedroom as your "sleep cave." * Aim for a warm bed in a cool room. * Keep it quiet. * Cut caffeine. * Watch your food intake. * Hit the gym earlier in the day. * Get adequate expose to natural light throughout the day. * Set stressors aside until morning. * Don't work in bed * Give yourself time to wind down. * Don't stare at the ceiling.

Chapter 017 ­ Instructor Test Items 1

Which U.S. government agency exists to protect human health and safeguard the natural environment?

USDA FDA IPCC EPA

2

Public health experts get involved with all of the following except waste disposal. water safety. air pollution. road safety.

3

Which of the following environmental contaminates makes the most significant contributions to health problems?

Pollutantion Trash disposal Pesticides Fertilizers

4

The potential effects of global warming include all of these except increased food shortages. fewer hurricanes. more outbreaks of infectious diseases. increased air pollution.

5

You fly across the Atlantic Ocean and then offset the carbon emission by making a donation to a program that saves the rainforest. Your action conforms to the practice of reuse. sustainability. recycling. downsizing.

6

The world's population is around 1 billion.

4 billion.

7 billion.

10 billion.

7

All of the following are examples of social reforms to help curb population size except increased opportunities for people to immigrate to the United States. more opportunities for women to pursue a higher education. increased access to contraception. increased professional opportunities for women.

8

Which gas forms during metal processing and is linked to numerous health problems?

Ozone Nitrogen dioxide Sulfur dioxide Carbon monoxide

9

Which poisonous gas inhibits the blood's ability to carry oxygen?

Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Sulfur dioxide Ozone

10

The collection of organisms and their nonliving surroundings that functions as a unit is called global environment. the ecosystem. arable land. earth science.

11

When a country's number of live births and immigrations simply replaces the number of deaths and emigrations, it is said to have achieved ________ population growth. replacement reversal zero equal

12

The term ________ was coined from the words "smoke" and "fog." smog environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) particulates ozone

13

The ability to meet our current needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet their

own needs is referred to as environmental health. sustainability. the ecosystem. recycling.

14

All of the following are consequences of overpopulation except food shortages. decreased levels of carbon dioxide. water shortages. decreased reserves of oil.

15

Fish can have high levels of this toxin which can cause paralysis or death.

Mercury Lead Carbon monoxide Sulfur

16

In the early 1900s public health focused on increasing green spaces. combating infectious diseases. combating climate change. decreasing the use of pesticides.

17

According to a survey of college students' viewpoints on environmental health, over half felt that it was important to be involved in cleaning the environment. to make global warming a federal priority. to recycle. to adopt clean practices to help the environment.

18

Which gas is produced when certain pollutants mix with sunlight?

Ozone Nitrogen dioxide Sulfur dioxide Carbon monoxide

19

The phrase "good up high, bad nearby" with reference to ozone means ground level ozone decreases carbon dioxide levels; stratosphere level ozone increases carbon dioxide levels. the ozone rises and falls depending on air quality.

the stratosphere level ozone is protective; ground level is a component in smog. the stratosphere level ozone produces smog; ground level holds it in the atmosphere.

20

Where is the ozone layer found?

Deep in the ocean On the surface of large bodies of water In the stratosphere In the rainforest canopy

21

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to global warming?

Tree planting Meat production Fossil fuel emissions Deforestation

22

Recall Toby's student story. Which of his daily behaviors increase his carbon footprint?

Driving to campus instead of taking the shuttle Taking the shuttle to campus instead of walking to campus Not recycling plastic Not purchasing recycled products

23

All of the following are correct about methane and the environmental effects of cattle grazing except cows exhale methane. methane is a powerful greenhouse gas. methane has less environmental impact per molecule than carbon dioxide. cows excrete methane in their wastes.

24

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are found in all of the following except foam containers. computers. air conditioning units. spray propellants.

25

All of the following are problems associated with ozone depletion except increased skin cancer. disruption of aquatic plant life. increased cataracts.

damage to tall buildings.

26

All of the following are common forms of water pollution except lead. carbon monoxide. fertilizer run off. bacteria.

27

What percentage of the Earth's surface is covered by water?

25% 50% 75% 95%

28

What percentage of the Earth's water supply is accessible?

1% 10% 25% 50%

29

Which of the following is not a water pollutant?

Petroleum products Ozone Dioxins Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)

30

Most of our exposure to dioxins comes from the air. contaminated fruits and vegetables. home insulation materials. meat, dairy, and seafood.

31

All of the following are likely sources of water pollution except gasoline storage tanks. pesticide and fertilizer runoff. animal feedlots. groundwater.

32

All of the following are true regarding hybrid cars except hybrid vehicles do not utilize any fossil fuels to

operate. the manufacturing of hybrid cars causes greater environmental damage than the manufacturing of traditional vehicles. some models carry a battery warranty of 100,000 miles. hybrid vehicles do not pollute the air with emissions like a traditional vehicle.

33

What percentage of trash is recycled?

40% one­half one­third two­thirds

34

A criticism of the Kyoto Protocol is that it doesn't require developed nations to comply to emission restrictions. it doesn't require developing nations to comply to emission restrictions. the restrictions are too strict. the restrictions are not strict enough.

35

To reduce water pollution, you should do all of the following except bring outdated medicines to a drop­off site. dump old soaps and lotions in the trash. take used motor oil to a disposal site. wash your dirty car yourself.

36

Municipal solid waste (MSW) includes all the following except sewage. plastics. yard clippings. discarded food.

37

Which of the following is not an example of reuse?

Using cloth napkins Using canvas tote bags Using fluorescent light bulbs Using rechargeable batteries

38

Which of the following is an example of an environmentally friendly cleaning product?

Bleach Baking soda Ammonia Antibacterial spray 39

All of the following are examples of hazardous wastes except e­wastes, such as old cell phones and computers. paint. glass bottles. rechargeable batteries.

40

Recall Camille's student story. Why should she be motivated to take her cell phone to a recycling center?

Because cell phones are considered hazardous wastes.

Because cell phones are a type of municipal waste.

Because she can earn money recycling her cell phone.

Because cell phones increase radiation levels in the water.

41

Susan is a bit worried that her son, Max, only wants to eat tuna fish every day for lunch. She is concerned because tuna is known to contain phthalates. volatile organic compounds. formaldehyde. mercury.

42

All the following are true with regard to plastic bottles except Americans drink more than 30 gallons per person per year.

Only 10% of the bottles are recycled.

The bottle water industry is regulated by more strict controls than tap water.

High concentrations of bottles have been found in the Pacific Ocean and parts of the Atlantic.

43

Which indoor pollutant leaches into a home from rocks and soil under the foundation?

Radon Mold spores Lead dust Rodent droppings

44

Which type of indoor air pollution is the second leading

cause of lung cancer?

Mold spores Fireplace smoke Lead dust Radon 45

The Jones family went to sleep with their wood­burning stove still lit. Several hours later Mr. Jones woke up nauseous and confused. Which gas is likely to be at high levels in his house?

Volatile organic compounds Nitrogen dioxide Carbon monoxide Sulfur dioxide

46

Carbon monoxide is easy to detect because it smells like rotten eggs. causes liver cancer. can be fatal if inhaled. is more prevalent in the summer.

47

Which chemical agents found in paint strippers, paints, glues, permanent markers, and office supplies are known to cause cancer?

Phthalates Volatile organic compounds Formaldehyde Mercury

48

Pesticides and herbicides would most likely be found in farm produce. city dust. electrical equipment. preservatives.

49

Which of the following types of indoor pollutants is a significant cause of asthma in inner­city children?

Lead Mercury Mouse droppings BPA

50

What type of damage can BPA cause?

It can damage the nervous system.

It can cause cancer.

It can cause allergic reactions.

It can interfere with the endocrine system.

51

Which of the following is a way someone could be exposed to formaldehyde?

By eating fish By working with particle board or plywood By ingesting old paint chips By handling old home insulation materials

52

Making sure your bathroom is cleaned often and has good air circulation is recommended to help prevent exposure to mold. volatile organic compounds. formaldehyde. asbestos.

53

Paint containing lead was commonly used in the United States until what year?

1935 1955 1978 2000

54

Before the 1970's, which chemical was found in housing insulation materials and is now known to cause lung cancer?

Asbestos Volatile organic compounds Radon Phthalates

55

Which of the following foods should you avoid to reduce your exposure to pollutants in the foods you eat? high fat cheese low fat cheese organic vegetables skim milk

56

Noise pollution that can cause hearing loss begins at 50 decibels.

60 decibels.

85 decibels.

110 decibels.

57

Radiation can travel in which of the following forms?

Rays Waves Particles All of the answers are correct.

58

Which is an example of ionizing radiation?

Radio waves Microwaves Ultraviolet light Visible light

59

All of the following are suggested ways to reduce your exposure to radiation except when using a cell phone, use a headset. work with your dentist to reduce your exposure to X­rays. test your home for radon. maintain a good tan to protect your skin.

60

Industrialized nations have a larger ecological footprint than less developed countries.

True False

61

You are caring for the environment if you have a large carbon footprint.

True False

62

The ozone layer shields us from excessive UV radiation.

True False

63

A molecule of methane produces more than 20 times the warming of a molecule of carbon dioxide and remains in the atmosphere for up to 15 years.

True False

64

Acid rain is a combination of carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide.

True False

65

Ozone depletion only affects regions close to the poles, such as Australia.

True False

66

Ozone depletion is irreversible.

True False

67

Large fish, such as tuna and swordfish consume contaminated smaller fish and pass it on to consumers.

True False

68

Bisphenol A, or BPA is found in baby bottles, plastic dinnerware, and plastic beverage containers.

True False

69

Old paint may contain toxic levels of asbestos.

True False

70

The best way to avoid toxins in packaged products is to buy products in paper packaging.

True False

71

Bottled water must meet higher health and safety standards than tap water.

True False

72

African Americans carry higher levels of mercury than Caucasians or Mexican Americans.

True False

73

Carbon monoxide poisoning may result from a poorly ventilated gas heater.

True False

74

Listening to music on a personal device, such as an MP3 player is less damaging to hearing than exposure to busy city traffic noise.

True False

75

Of the two types of radiation, ionizing radiation is the less harmful.

True False

76

Health risks of tanning include increased risk of skin cancer.

True False

77

Tanning beds are safer than the sun because radiation exposure is minimal in a tanning bed.

True

False

78

Dioxins have been linked to cancer.

True False

79

Livestock production is a primary source of methane emissions.

True False

80

In environmental terms, reduction refers to changes in manufacturing and consumption to limit the amount and toxicity of waste.

True False

81

The terms reuse and recycle basically mean the same thing.

True False

82

Composting food scraps and yard trimmings produces a natural fertilizer.

True False

83

Discarded cell phones, televisions, and computers are all examples of e­waste.

True False Six tips to help prevent a rise in blood pressure with aging age and to reduce the risk of developing high blood pressure are:

1. Adopt an eating pattern rich in fruits, vegetables, legumes, and low­fat

dairy products (similar to the DASH diet) with reduced saturated­fat content.

2. Maintain a normal weight. Lose weight if you are overweight; even losing just a few pounds can reduce blood pressure if you are overweight.

3. Keep your sodium intake at or below recommended levels: not more than 2,300 milligrams a day, or not more than 1,500 milligrams a day if you are age 51 or older, or African American, or have diabetes, high blood pressure, or chronic kidney disease.

4. Pursue an active lifestyle: Walk briskly, swim, jog, cycle, or do other moderately paced aerobic activities. Aim for at least 30 minutes of activities daily.

5. If you drink, do so in moderation: no more than one drink a day for women, and no more than two drinks a day for men.

6. Don't smoke. Cigarette smoking raises blood pressure and seriously increases risk for heart disease.

84

Environmental researchers have noted that low income and minority families have increased risks from the environment.

True False Iron occurs in two forms in foods: as heme iron, bound into the iron­carrying proteins such as hemoglobin in meats, poultry, and fish; and as nonheme iron, in both plant and animal foods. Heme iron is much more reliably absorbed than is nonheme iron. Absorption of nonheme iron is affected by many factors, including the amount of vitamin C consumed with meals.

Vitamin C promotes iron absorption and can triple the amount of nonheme iron absorbed from foods eaten at the same meal.

Contamination iron­that is, iron obtained from cookware or soil­can also increase iron intake significantly.10 Consumers who cook their foods in iron cookware thereby contribute to their iron intake. For example, the iron content of a half­cup of spaghetti sauce simmered in a glass dish is 3 milligrams, but it is 87 milligrams when the sauce is cooked in an iron skillet. Similarly, dried apricots and raisins contain more iron than the fresh fruit because they are dried in iron pans. Admittedly, this form of iron is not as well absorbed as the iron from meat, but every little bit helps.

Some foods contain binders that combine chemically with iron and other minerals, such as calcium and zinc, thus preventing absorption of those substances and carrying them out of the body with other wastes. For example, phytates render the iron, calcium, zinc, and magnesium in certain foods less available than they might otherwise be; oxalate binds iron and calcium. Phytate is found in oatmeal and other whole grains. Other binders are the tannins, which occur in black teas, coffee, cola drinks, chocolate, and red wines. Fiber also can reduce iron absorption because it speeds up the transit of materials through the intestines.

85

Most contaminants in the human body must be present at a certain level before they exert any clear health effects.

True False The minerals involved in building and maintaining bone and the role each plays in the process are: Calcium is needed for bone mineralization.

Phosphorus is found combined with calcium in the crystals of the bones and teeth as calcium phosphate, and it is the chief compound that gives them strength and rigidity.

Magnesium promotes resistance to tooth decay by helping to hold calcium in tooth enamel.

Fluoride protects children's teeth from decay and also makes the bones of older people resistant to adult bone loss (osteoporosis).

86

X­rays are a form of ionizing radiation.

True False Factors that play a role in osteoporosis include:

 Age. During childhood, adolescence, and the young adult years, the cells that build bone (osteoblasts) form more bone than the bone­dismantling cells (osteoclasts) take away. With aging, the bone­building cells become less active, but the bone dismantlers continue to work, causing bone tissue and strength to decline.  Gender. Osteoporosis is four times more common in women. Men achieve a higher peak bone mass than women do, and the rate of age­ related bone loss is lower in men than in women.  Age­related decline in hormones. Hormones are important in bone health for both men and women. Menopause deprives women of the protective effects of estrogen. Estrogen improves calcium absorption from the intestines and reduces excretion of the mineral by the kidneys. Bone loss accelerates in women for the 5 to 10 years following menopause. The earlier menopause occurs, the greater a woman's risk of osteoporosis.

Women who have ceased menstruating (a reliable indicator of reduced estrogen levels) comprise the largest segment of people with osteoporosis.

Menopause occurs naturally in women typically between the ages of 45 and 55, but it can occur earlier in life with the removal of diseased ovaries. Risk of osteoporosis increases in men with an age­related decline in testosterone;

low testosterone levels increase risk of fractures in men.  Abnormal absence of menstrual periods (estrogen deficiency).

Menstruation can also cease in women who overexercise and are underweight, a condition called athletic amenorrhea. For the same reason, eating disorders (anorexia nervosa and bulimia) increase the risk of osteoporosis later in life.  Family history. The greater the history of skeletal fractures of the hips and vertebrae among older relatives, the greater your risk for osteoporosis.  Race and ethnic background. Those of British, northern European, Chinese, Japanese, or Mexican American background, or Hispanic people from Central and South America, are at the highest risk. African American women tend to have denser bones and are at lower risk.40 Undoubtedly, environmental factors­such as calcium and vitamin D intakes, physical activity, smoking, body weight, and alcohol intake ­can influence the ultimate outcome of one's genetic heritage.  Body build. The smaller the frame and the thinner the person (under 127 pounds), the greater the risk. Petite women have less bone to lose than larger­boned women.  Sedentary lifestyle. Inactivity leads to bone loss.  Smoking and alcohol. Smoking and excessive alcohol intake increase the risk. People who smoke tend to have lower body weights than nonsmokers.

Some women smokers have lower levels of estrogen in their blood and experience an earlier onset of menopause compared to nonsmokers. Alcohol decreases the activity of the bone­building cells, interferes with the absorption of calcium, and may increase excretion of calcium from the kidneys. People who abuse alcohol also tend to have poor nutrition status, including low intakes of calcium.  Medical conditions. Certain medical conditions, including type 1 diabetes, thyroid disorders, rheumatoid arthritis, asthma, seizures, and organ transplants, are associated with increased risk, primarily because of the drugs used to treat them. Prolonged use of medications such as thyroid hormone, antiseizure drugs, and the anti­inflammatory drugs (such as prednisone) used to treat asthma, arthritis, and some cancers may reduce calcium absorption, impair bone formation, and accelerate bone loss.  A bone­healthy diet that includes calcium, vitamin D, and other nutrients.

Calcium intake early in life affects the attainment of peak bone mass, achieved by about age 30, which may be the most important determinant of the risk of a fracture in later life. Hence, ensuring an adequate calcium intake throughout life appears to be a sensible strategy. Adequate intake of vitamin D is required for the absorption of calcium. Many older adults, who typically have lower intakes of vitamin D and reduced ability to synthesize the vitamin from sunshine, absorb less calcium as they age.

87

Match the following:

Sulfur dioxide

Causes acid rain Carbon monoxide Inhibits the blood's ability to carry oxygen Carbon dioxide Naturally found in the atmosphere; contributes to global warming Hydrocarbons Precursor to ground­level ozone

Every living cell contains iron. Bound into the protein hemoglobin in the red blood cells, it helps transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and thus permits the release of energy from fuels to do the cells' work. When the iron supply is too low, iron­deficiency anemia occurs, characterized by weakness, tiredness, apathy, headaches, increased sensitivity to cold, and a paleness that reflects the reduction in the number and size of the red blood cells. A person with this anemia can do very little muscular work without disabling fatigue, but can replenish iron status by eating iron­rich foods.

Iron deficiency is the most common and widespread nutritional disorder in the world.

7

People begin to feel the impact of iron deficiency, without knowing it, long before anemia is diagnosed. They do not appear to have an obvious deficiency disease; they just appear unmotivated and apathetic. Because they work and play less, they are less physically fit. In the United States, iron deficiency remains relatively prevalent among toddlers, adolescent girls, and women of childbearing age.

88

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89

ALERT....THIS QUESTION COULD NOT BE FORMATTED FOR ON­LINE DISPLAY. THIS TEXT WAS INSERTED TO MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED

TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer: 90

ALERT....THIS QUESTION COULD NOT BE FORMATTED FOR ON­LINE DISPLAY. THIS TEXT WAS INSERTED TO MAINTAIN NUMBER SEQUENCING WITH THE PRINTED TEST ITEM FILE. DO NOT USE THIS QUESTION WHEN CREATING AN ASSESSMENT. Answer:

91

Why is the burning of fossil fuels problematic?

Answer: It produces pollutants that contaminate the environment and contribute to global warming.

92

What is the AQI, and why does it matter?

Answer: The AQI, or Air Quality Index, measures air quality according to a list of federal air criteria. It matters because it provides warning of potentially dangerous levels of air pollution.

93

What daily choices contribute to your carbon footprint?

Answer: Answers may include the following points: * how you travel to and from work or school; * how you light, heat, and cool your home; * whether you compost, recycle, and reuse; * and what products you buy and avoid.

94

Describe three ways you can reduce your energy consumption.

Answer: Any three of the following: * Drive less. * Take care of your car. * Don't idle your car more than necessary. * Limit your use of other gasoline engines.

* Use less electricity.

95

Describe four things you can do to reduce water pollution.

Answer: Any four of the following: * Dispose of motor oil and similar products properly. * Throw old soaps, lotions, and cosmetics in the trash; do not flush them. * Take old medicine to a drop­off site. * Limit the use of pesticides, herbicides, and fertilizers. * Choose environmentally friendly soaps and cleaning products without phosphates. * Wash your car at a car wash.

96

List at least three steps you can take to reduce household hazardous waste (HHW).

Answer: Any three of the following: * Don't buy products with hazardous ingredients, if possible. * Think before you throw things away; discard hazardous waste properly. * Don't allow motor oil to flow into open drains. * Take e­waste to approved disposal centers. * Make sure empty containers of HHW are sealed properly before disposal. * Get involved in efforts to solve problems associated with HHW.

97

What is the difference between bioaccumulation and biomagnification?

Answer: Bioaccumulation is the buildup of pollutants in the fatty tissue of a human or an animal. Biomagnification is the concentration of contaminants in animal tissue as they move up the food chain.

98

How does radon enter homes? What are the hazards?

Answer: Radon is a radioactive gas released from uranium present naturally in rocks and soil. It leaches into indoor air through a home's foundation. It can also enter groundwater and be released into the air as the

water flows from faucets. It is a carcinogen and may cause lung cancer.

99

Discuss the pathway that leads to biomagnification of a contaminant in fish, and how that process may affect humans.

Answer: Industrial wastes are released into water. Plant and animal plankton become contaminated. Contaminated plankton are consumed by small fish. Large fish such as tuna and swordfish regularly consume smaller, contaminated fish, resulting in higher concentrations of contaminants. Humans may be affected if they consume contaminated fish.

100

What does the term body burden mean, and how can it be assessed?

Answer: Body burden is a person's cumulative exposure to and storage of chemicals and other pollutants. It can be assessed through the process of biomonitoring.