Child Development Principles and Perspectives, 2E Joan Littlefield Cook Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Child Development Principles and Perspectives

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

Joan Littlefield Cook Greg Cook

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is NOT considered a primary component of cognitive development?

A) Storing and retrieving memories B) Communicating with language C) Processing information D) Coordinating muscle activity

1) _______

2) Preschool teachers are interested in how 3- and 4-year-olds play and make friends with others.

These teachers are interested in children's A) information processing skills.

B) socioemotional development.

C) ego development.

D) cognitive development.

2) _______

3) Which of the following is most likely due to a person's "nature"?

A) Language spoken B) Eye color C) TV viewing habits D) Religious beliefs

3) _______

4) "Nature" mainly refers to A) the influence of parents and others.

C) genetics and biology.

4) _______ B) nutrition and medical care.

D) cultural heritage and diversity.

5) Which of the following statements regarding the "nature vs. nurture" controversy is TRUE? A) Scientists have emphasized the importance of biology since the development of DNA testing in the late 20th century.

B) Psychological studies of identical and fraternal twins indicate overwhelming support for the "nurture" position.

C) The relative roles of biology and environment in human development have been debated for years.

D) It is now easy for psychologists to determine that "nature" plays a larger role in development than "nurture" does.

5) _______

6) John Watson's argument that he could train a child to be any type of specialist he chose reflected his belief that the most important influence on a child's behavior is/are A) behavior genetics.

B) nature.

C) learning.

D) his or her innate intelligence.

6) _______

7) In the field of behavior genetics, researchers study A) how parents and other adults influence behavior.

B) the relative roles of nature and nurture.

C) how genes behave when combined with other genes.

D) only the impact of DNA and other genetic factors.

7) _______

8) The argument that development is influenced either by nature or by nurture A) is of no theoretical or practical interest to individuals who study child development today.

B) is still a major point of contention and controversy within the field of child development in the 21st century.

C) was clearly resolved in the 1950s by researchers who argued that humans are totally determined by their experiences.

D) was cast aside as a major controversy as it became clear that neither side could completely explain human behavior.

8) _______

9) The fact that IQ scores are more similar among identical twins than among fraternal twins A) suggests that siblings treated similarly will be similar in achievement.

9) _______

B) shows the influence of nature on children's intellectual development.

C) suggests that siblings of the same gender are more intellectually similar.

D) shows the influence of nurture on children's intellectual development.

10) Janae is shy, so not many children talk to her. Because of this, she then feels rejected by her peers. This scenario demonstrates A) neuropsychology.

B) operant conditioning.

C) cross-sectional information.

D) a reciprocal relationship.

10) ______

11) Which of the following statements regarding theories is TRUE? A) Theories seldom allow for predictions to be made.

B) Theories summarize currently known facts.

C) Theories remain stable despite scientific advances.

D) Theories can directly be proven to be either right or wrong.

11) ______

12) Which of the following statements regarding psychoanalytic theory is TRUE? A) The most prominent psychoanalytic theory was developed by Skinner.

B) The impact of genetics is a primary component of psychoanalytic theory.

C) Psychoanalytic theory profoundly shaped early ideas regarding child development.

D) Psychoanalytic theory made little attempt to understand the impact of the unconscious mind.

12) ______

13) To deal with some of his unconscious issues, Johann went to see Sigmund Freud. Which of these is NOT one of the techniques Freud would have used?

A) Classical conditioning B) Hypnosis C) Free association D) Dream interpretation

13) ______

14) Identify the correct historical order of emergence for the following theories.

A) behavioral, dynamic systems, neuropsychological B) social learning, dynamic systems, psychoanalytic C) psychoanalytic, social learning, dynamic systems D) psychoanalytic, behavioral, neuropsychological

14) ______

15) According to psychoanalytic theory, in order to have a healthy personality A) a person's superego must be stronger than the ego and id for moral development to occur.

B) the ego must balance the id and superego and be able to cope with external demands.

C) the id, ego, and superego must be eliminated during psychosexual development.

D) a person's id must be stronger than the ego and superego to insure survival.

15) ______

16) The psychoanalytic personality part responsible for our sense of morality is/are the A) ego.

B) both the id and the ego.

C) id.

D) superego.

16) ______

17) Which of the following is the correct order of Freud's stages of psychosexual development?

A) anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital B) oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital C) latency, oral, anal, phallic, genital D) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

17) ______

18) According to the theory of psychosexual development, receiving too much or too little stimulation can cause A) sexual exploration.

B) a fixation.

C) a delay of gratification.

D) erogenous confusion.

18) ______

19) Learning to use the bathroom appropriately and waiting until morning to eat are examples of A) superego development.

B) delay of gratification.

C) unconscious sexual desires.

D) fixation.

19) ______

20) Freud claimed that the successful resolution of the phallic stage and the Oedipus complex involves A) copying the same sex parent.

B) curbing one's hunger.

C) using the bathroom appropriately.

D) the sexual pursuit of one's peers.

20) ______

21) Erikson theorized that the primary challenge facing newborns was A) developing a sense of patience.

B) dealing with oral needs.

C) coping with unconscious sexual desires.

D) struggling with trust issues.

21) ______

22) Early behaviorists were interested in A) understanding children's thought processes.

B) helping psychology align itself more with theories of evolution.

C) making psychology more objective and scientific.

D) ensuring that elements of the unconscious mind were more measurable.

22) ______

23) Which of the following stages of Erikson's theory does NOT occur during childhood or adolescence?

A) initiative vs. guilt B) generativity vs. stagnation C) autonomy vs. shame and doubt D) identity vs. role confusion

23) ______

24) In Pavlov's research with dogs, when salivation was elicited by the presentation of food, the food (meat powder) was A) an unconditioned stimulus.

B) a conditioned response.

C) a neutral stimulus.

D) a type of positive reinforcement.

24) ______

25) At first, Josh neither liked nor disliked the song "Hey There, Delilah." However, one day his girlfriend broke up with him while that song was playing. Now Josh gets sad each time he hears that song. "Hey There, Delilah" has now become A) a conditioned stimulus.

B) a conditioned response.

C) an unconditioned stimulus.

D) an unconditioned response.

25) ______

26) Praise and hugs are typically examples of A) ethology.

B) fixations.

26) ______ C) reinforcement.

D) imprinting.

27) Mark is babysitting five-year-old Sarah who throws tantrums in order to get her way. If Mark gives in to Sarah's demands in order to make her tantrums stop, Sarah's negative behavior is most likely being A) imprinted.

B) punished.

C) classically conditioned.

D) reinforced.

27) ______

28) Raenna was grounded for two weeks because she arrived home after her curfew one night.

Raenna now comes home before her curfew due to A) social learning.

B) operant conditioning.

C) classical conditioning.

D) observational learning.

28) ______

29) Ty notices that his parents praise his big sister, Kimberly, each time she makes her bed. If Ty decides to make his bed one morning, it will now be most likely due to A) classical conditioning.

B) imprinting.

29) ______

C) social learning.

D) operant conditioning.

30) Bandura's theory and research emphasized the fact that children A) can learn through punishment and reinforcement.

B) can be classically conditioned to show fear.

C) do not naturally imitate the behaviors of other people.

D) do not always need reinforcement or punishment to learn.

30) ______

31) Jean Piaget is typically credited with creating a theory of which type of development?

A) Behavioral B) Cognitive C) Psychoanalytic D) Ethological

31) ______

32) Ally believes that all vegetables are "gross." If she discovers that some vegetables actually taste good to her, Piaget would say that she will have to A) accommodate this information.

B) use formal operational thought.

C) use operant conditioning.

D) assimilate this information.

32) ______

33) Which of the following statements concerning Piaget's perspective on learning is TRUE? A) Learning occurs through the processes of modeling and imitation.

B) Learning is primarily unconscious and occurs through classical conditioning.

C) Learning occurs when the ego is strong enough to balance the id and superego.

D) Learning is a continual cycle of assimilation and accommodation.

33) ______

34) Which of the following is the proper order of Piaget's four stages of cognitive development?

A) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational B) concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor, preoperational C) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational D) formal operational, concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational

34) ______

35) "As children acquire the language of their culture, they also adopt the psychological tools imbedded in the language." This statement is most consistent with which of the following theories?

A) Ethological theory B) Cognitive-developmental theory C) Sociocultural theory D) Social learning theory

35) ______

36) According to Vygotsky's theory, development occurs due to the person's A) development of a basic sense of trust.

B) imitation of adult authority figures.

C) internalization of cultural values.

D) reorganization of mental schemes with age.

36) ______

37) Which of the following is the best example of social speech?

A) Dan wishing others would leave him alone B) Jeff asking Samantha to wash the dishes after dinner C) Mario wanting more friends to interact with D) Chad rubbing Carla's shoulders after noticing she is upset

37) ______

38) George hears his daughter saying, "I go up the ladder," while she is climbing the ladder. This is an example of A) inner speech.

B) private speech.

C) social speech.

D) assimilative speech.

38) ______

39) Which of the following is NOT a stage theory of development?

39) ______

A) Information-processing theory C) Cognitive-development theory

B) Psychoanalytic theory D) NONE of these theories offers stages.

40) The information-processing approach focuses on A) how reinforcement influences learning.

B) how children perceive information.

C) the assimilation and accommodation of information.

D) how unconscious forces influence information.

40) ______

41) Which of the following questions would be of LEAST interest to information-processing researchers?

A) Will rewards help children to learn to spell?

B) How do children perceive information in their world?

C) How do children solve math problems involving fractions?

D) Why does memory strategy usage increase with age?

41) ______

42) The roots of ethology can be traced to A) Piaget's original research in cognitive development.

B) Pavlov's and Skinner's work on classical and operant conditioning.

C) Freud's stage theory of psychosexual development.

D) Darwin's theory of evolution and the concept of natural selection.

42) ______

43) Lorenz' concept of imprinting involves A) looking for ways in which individuals process new information.

B) the impact of classical and operant conditioning on learned behaviors.

C) unconscious reasons for biological functions.

D) attachment to the first guardian figure found after birth.

43) ______

44) An ethologist might argue that an infant's attachment or bonding behaviors A) are determined primarily due unconscious issues.

B) have survival value for the individual and species.

C) depend upon the cultural and historical context.

D) are learned through observation.

44) ______

45) The growing field in which psychologists, biologists, and other scientists study the structure and function of the brain and nervous system is known as A) neuropsychology.

B) behavior genetics.

C) sociopsychology.

D) sociobiology.

45) ______

46) Which of the following theoretical perspectives focuses the LEAST on environmental or social explanations of child development?

A) Ecological systems theory B) Cognitive-developmental theory C) Behaviorism D) Neuropsychology

46) ______

47) CT, PET, and fMRI are acronyms for A) technologies used to study the brain and nervous system.

B) different types of information-processing strategies.

C) genetic codes found to be important to cognitive development.

D) system levels within Bronfenbrenner's theory of development.

47) ______

48) Dr. Worthing injects radioactive markers into Tina's bloodstream to see what brain areas are most active while she plays the piano. Dr. Worthing is using

48) ______

A) functional magnetic resonance imaging.

C) computerized tomography.

B) ultrasound.

D) positron emission tomography.

49) What was the name of the theory created by Urie Bronfenbrenner that attempted to explain how different social layers impact the child's development?

A) Cognitive-developmental theory B) Neuropsychology C) Information-processing theory D) Ecological systems theory

49) ______

50) Which of the following theoretical perspectives focuses the LEAST on biological explanations of child development?

A) Behavior genetics B) Ethological theory C) Neuropsychology D) Ecological systems

50) ______

51) Grandparents, aunts, uncles, cousins, and friends of the family are all part of Bronfenbrenner's A) mesosystem.

B) microsystem.

C) macrosystem.

D) exosystem.

51) ______

52) Dr. Schaab is a cross-cultural psychologist who conducts research on differences between collectivistic and individualistic societies. Bronfenbrenner would say that Dr. Schaab is focusing on the A) mesosystem.

B) microsystem.

C) macrosystem.

D) exosystem.

52) ______

53) Which of the following is an example of Bronfenbrenner's chronosystem?

A) The family moving to a new town B) The neighborhood children C) The father's workplace environment D) The interaction between siblings

53) ______

54) The new dynamic systems theories focus on A) how a variety of factors change over time.

B) how genetics and DNA influence the individual.

C) looking for the best ways to impact a child.

D) the impact of biology and the environment.

54) ______

55) Generally speaking, many theories A) do not allow for specific predictions to be made.

B) address specific aspects of development.

C) can be easily compared until one is proven "right."

D) are remarkably similar to one another.

55) ______

56) Dr. Lamping wants to know how often children behave aggressively. So, he goes to a playground and records what he sees. Dr. Lamping used the technique known as A) naturalistic observation.

B) cross-sectional observation.

C) structured observation.

D) random observation.

56) ______

57) One advantage of naturalistic observation is that it A) provides information about real-life behaviors.

B) allows the researcher to determine why behavior occurs.

C) lets the researcher carefully control the environment.

D) helps researchers determine the thinking behind the child's behavior.

57) ______

58) Sometimes a researcher creates a standard situation or environment that allows each child the same opportunity to engage in a specific behavior of interest. This type of research design is called A) naturalistic observation.

B) structured observation.

58) ______

C) cross-sectional observation.

D) path analysis.

59) To reduce observer bias, the person collecting information should be A) unaware of the hypothesis of the study.

B) never seen by the participants who are being observed.

C) about the same age as the individuals being studied.

D) knowledgeable about the study's purpose.

59) ______

60) Which of the following research techniques would be most useful to a researcher investigating what 5th graders like most about their best friends?

A) Naturalistic observation B) Case study C) Self-report D) Structured observation

60) ______

61) Dr. Kramer is asking children how often they eat pizza. Dr. Kramer's research is an example of A) naturalistic observation.

B) self-reports.

C) a case study.

D) an experiment.

61) ______

62) Dr. Nicklaus has spent sixteen months getting to know ten-year-old Eldrick, a gifted golfer. He has watched Eldrick play, talked to his parents, and obtained physiological measures. Dr. Nicklaus has been conducting what type of research?

A) Self-report B) Naturalistic observation C) Structured observation D) Case study

62) ______

63) Which of the following research techniques would be most useful to a researcher investigating the backgrounds of children born with rare neurological conditions?

A) Self-report B) Experimentation C) Case study D) Naturalistic observation

63) ______

64) Which of the following statements regarding correlation coefficients is FALSE? A) Positive correlation coefficients indicate better outcomes.

B) Correlation coefficients measure both the strength and direction of an association.

C) Correlation coefficients are symbolized using the letter "r."

D) Correlation coefficients can range from -1.0 to +1.0.

64) ______

65) Dr. Rice found that the correlation between children's amount of sleep and their amount of daytime energy was +.40. This correlation indicates that A) the more sleep a child gets, the more energy he or she has.

B) the more sleep a child gets, the less energy the child has.

C) sleep and energy are not related.

D) having more energy allows children to get more sleep.

65) ______

66) Which of the following correlations would be most likely to reflect the relationship between a child's age and mathematical skills?

A) +.75 B) -.85 C) -.30 D) 0.0

66) ______

67) Negative correlations indicate A) low scores of one variable are associated with low scores of another variable.

B) high scores of one variable are associated with low scores of another variable.

C) negative outcomes.

D) inconclusive results.

67) ______

68) A researcher is interested in learning more about the relations among children's attitudes toward

thei r

teachers, 68) their helping behavior s, the quality of their friendshi ps, and their ethnicity and gender.

Which of the followin g research methods would likely be most effective?

A) experimentation C) path analysis

___ ___

B) naturalistic observation D) case study

69) To determine cause and effect relationships, researchers must use A) case studies.

B) the experimental method.

C) path analyses.

D) correlational methods.

69) ______

70) Ninety preschool children are randomly divided into three groups. Every day for two weeks, one group watches 30 minutes of "Sesame Street," a second group watches 30 minutes of "Road Runner" cartoons, and a third group watches 30 minutes of "Scooby Doo" cartoons. At the end of two weeks, all three groups are given a test of creativity. This research design would best be classified as A) longitudinal.

B) naturalistic observation.

C) experimental.

D) correlational.

70) ______

71) An experimental design would be most useful in answering which of the following questions?

A) Does viewing violence impact eating choices?

B) Does height affect basketball ability?

C) Do shy newborns become easy-going adults?

D) Does birth order impact education?

71) ______

72) The variable that a researcher intentionally changes to determine how it might affect another variable is called a(n) A) dependent variable.

B) longitudinal variable.

C) independent variable.

D) non-random variable.

72) ______

73) The dependent variable A) will be positively correlated with the independent variable.

B) needs to be intentionally held constant throughout the experiment.

73) ______

C) is predicted to be influenced by manipulation of the independent variable.

D) is always negatively correlated with the independent variable.

74) When an experiment is designed and conducted properly, cause-and-effect can be determined because A) participants in all conditions are treated exactly alike except for manipulation of the dependent variable.

B) the only systematic difference between groups is due to manipulation of the independent variable.

C) random assignment to groups insures that participants will systematically be different.

D) the independent variable fluctuates randomly, while the dependent variable is held constant.

74) ______

75) Dr. Agassi wants to know whether exposure to music will impact reading skills. So, she has some students listen to rock music, while others listen to jazz or classical music. Then, she measures reading ability. The independent variable in this experiment is the A) musical preference of each child.

B) type of music each student heard.

C) age and gender of the children.

D) children's reading ability.

75) ______

76) To determine the effects of caffeine on alertness, Dr. Clinton has 50 children consume caffeine, while 50 others do not receive caffeine. In order for Dr. Clinton to be able to determine cause-and-effect, she must insure that A) her participants do not have any choice in whether to participate in the experiment.

B) her participants have about equal amounts of alertness.

C) her participants are randomly assigned to view one of the two groups.

D) all of her participants currently consume caffeine.

76) ______

77) Random assignment to conditions ensures that the A) participants will not know the true purpose of the study until after the research is completed.

B) groups will not differ in any systematic way at the beginning of the study.

C) independent variable will have an effect on the dependent variable.

D) local people will all have an equal chance of being a part of the study.

77) ______

78) Researchers sometimes use animals to study questions related to child development because A) there are no ethical guidelines for conducting research with animals.

B) it would be unethical to manipulate certain variables of interest in humans.

C) it is too difficult, time-consuming, and expensive to conduct correlational research.

D) children younger than six years of age cannot participate in psychological research.

78) ______

79) Dr. McGaw was interested in whether children's recall of familiar or unfamiliar words improved with age, so she tested 4-year-olds, 6-year-olds, and 8-year-olds at the same point in time. This is an example of a A) case study design.

B) cross-sectional design.

C) hybrid design.

D) longitudinal design.

79) ______

80) The two research methods scientists use to measure whether and how children change over time are A) cross-sectional and experimental research.

B) correlational and experimental research.

C) cross-sectional and longitudinal research.

D) correlational and observational research.

80) ______

81) A researcher choosing to use a cross-sectional design might have which of the following samples?

A) Three groups of 10-year-olds measured in different years B) A group of 6-year-olds measured again at ages 10 and 18 C) One group of 6-year-olds, one of 10-year-olds, and one of 18-year-olds D) A group of 6-year-olds and their fathers interviewed once

81) ______

82) A researcher choosing to use a longitudinal design might have which of the following samples?

A) A group of 4-year-olds measured again at ages 8 and 12 B) One group of 4-year-olds, one of 8-year-olds, and one of 12-year-olds C) A group of 4-year-olds and their preschool teachers interviewed once D) Three groups of 12-year-olds measured in different years

82) ______

83) Eisenberg et al. (1999) studied a single group of 32 children, taking measurements of their helping behaviors approximately every two years from the time the children were four years old until they were young adults. This study used a(n) A) longitudinal design.

B) cross-sectional design.

C) hybrid design.

D) experimental design.

83) ______

84) Longitudinal research always involves A) observing the same group of participants over time.

B) observing participants of different ages over a short amount of time.

C) establishing cause-and-effect directly by using random assignment.

D) asking people to respond to a variety of questions.

84) ______

85) A primary advantage of the cross-sectional research design is that it can be used to A) create groups of participants who have different ages but are similar in other ways.

B) establish cause-and-effect through random assignment.

C) observe change and stability over time within the same participants.

D) complete a study in a relatively short amount of time.

85) ______

86) Today's 20-year-olds often have better computer skills than today's 80-year-olds. This may be because computer skills worsen with age, but it is more likely due to A) a lack of random assignment.

B) hybrid designs.

C) differential dropout.

D) cohort effects.

86) ______

87) Hybrid designs combine the advantages of A) correlational and experimental research methods.

B) correlational and longitudinal research methods.

C) cross-sectional and longitudinal research methods.

D) cross-sectional and correlational research methods.

87) ______

88) A researcher choosing to use a cross-lag or sequential design might have which of the following samples?

A) A group of 4-year-olds and a group of 8-year-olds measured a single time B) Groups of 4-, 8- and 12-year-olds measured every five years for twenty years C) Groups of 4-year-olds and 6-year-olds measured with and without their mothers present D) A group of 4-year-olds measured twice a year for twenty years

88) ______

89) Dr. Young is studying children's memory ability. After collecting the data, Dr. Young lists each student's name and score on his Web site. By doing this, Dr. Young has violated which ethical

stan d? dar

89)

______ A) Risk versus benefit C) Informed consent

B) Confidentiality D) Correction of negative consequences

90) The main purpose of a university's Institutional Review Board (IRB) is to determine whether researchers A) have appropriate credentials for conducting studies.

B) are using the appropriate scientific method.

C) are adhering to ethical standards.

D) are testing their hypotheses efficiently.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) In regard to development, what do nature and nurture refer to?

92) Describe the Oedipus complex.

93) In the first stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory, what is believed to occur?

94) In operant conditioning, what is the difference between reinforcement and punishment?

95) In cognitive developmental theory, what is the difference between assimilation and accommodation?

96) What are some of the major advantages and disadvantages of naturalistic observation?

97) Independent and dependent variables are both a part of experiments. What is the difference between them?

98) What were the main concerns that Carolyn and Bob Landers had regarding their son, Connor?

99) In the Social Policy Perspective box, there is a list of various facts about suicide, death by firearms, poverty, teen pregnancy, drop out rates, arrest rates, and so on. What are some of the concerns/facts about American children and adolescents mentioned in this section of your text?

100) What did child social worker, Pamela Talbot, list as the most important problems faced by children and families?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) ________ development refers to changes in how one perceives the world and processes 101) ____________ information.

102) Nature refers to the ________ forces that govern development.

102) ____________

103) ________ study the degree to which psychological characteristics are influenced by nature and nurture.

103) ____________

104) A(n) ________ describes how facts are organized and relate to one another.

104) ____________

105) To test specific inferences otherwise known as ________, researchers collect scientific data.

105) ____________

106) The two most prominent psychoanalytic theories were developed by Freud and ________.

106) ____________

107) According to Freud, the three basic components of the mind are the ________.

107) ____________

108) In developing behaviorism, John Watson adapted Ivan Pavlov's work on ________.

108) ____________

109) ________ learning involves learning by observing and imitating the behaviors of others.

109) ____________

110) The biological theory called ________ examines the adaptive significance or survival value of behaviors.

110) ____________

111) ________ theories use dynamic models from physics and mathematics to explore complex systems of human development and how they change over time.

111) ____________

112) ________ involve the detailed description of one child or a small number of children.

112) ____________

113) ________ research methods measure the degree to which two or more variables are related or associated.

113) ____________

114) If it is found that shorter people live longer than taller people, there is a ________ correlation between height and longevity.

114) ____________

115) ________ research designs are sometimes used to balance the advantages and disadvantages of longitudinal and cross-sectional research strategies.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Consider again John Watson's famous quote: "Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and my own specified world to bring them up and I'll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become any type of specialist I might select." Discuss how this quote is relevant to his work with 11-month-old Albert.

117) Name and describe three of the technologies used in neuropsychology to study the brain.

118) Dr. Rescotra wants to design a study to investigate how exposure to various sounds can impact toddlers.

What are some of the ethical considerations Dr. Rescotra should keep in mind?

119) What are the steps involved in getting the dolphins to jump high out of the water in shows at Sea World?

120) What is the difference between primary and secondary reinforcement?

1) D 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) D 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) D 51) D

52) C 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) B 70) C 71) A 72) C 73) C 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) B 79) B 80) C 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) D 87) C 88) B 89) B 90) C 91) Nature refers to the impact of biological forces that govern development, whereas nurture refers to environmental conditions.

92) During the phallic stage (ages 3 to 7), Freud believed that children have unconscious sexual desires for their opposite-sex parent. When realizing they cannot have that parent, children ultimately identify with (begin to mimic) their same-sex parent.

93) Infants struggle with trust (versus mistrust) issues as a result of interactions with caretakers, learning whether the world is dependable, and whether people are basically trustworthy.

94) Reinforcement increases the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated, whereas punishment makes it less likely that an individual will repeat a behavior.

95) Assimilation involves bringing new information or objects into existing schemes. Accommodation involves adjusting a scheme so it better fits the new experience.

96) Advantages: It allows researchers to gather information about real-life behaviors. Disadvantages: The researcher cannot control the situation. Therefore, the desired behavior might not occur.

97) The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher, whereas the dependent variable is measured, as its outcome is dependent upon the manipulation of the independent variable.

98) Health, love of learning (good education), finding real happiness, being true to himself, knowing that he is loved, and his personal safety (without taking away his sense of innocence).

99) Students should accurately identify at least four of the facts.

100) Drug and alcohol abuse, physical abuse, neglect, educational and environmental neglect, and sexual abuse.

101) Cognitive 102) biological 103) Behavior geneticists 104) theory 105) hypotheses 106) Erikson 107) id, ego, and superego 108) classical conditioning 109) Social 110) ethology 111) Dynamic systems 112) Case studies 113) Correlational 114) negative 115) Hybrid 116) Students' responses should indicate their understanding that John Watson was a major early proponent of the importance of experience and learning (i.e., nurture) to children's development. Then, students should briefly describe Watson's classic study with 11-month-old Albert and indicate that Watson's research emphasized the importance of conditioning and environmental control to children's development.

117) Computerized tomography (CT) scans can give computer-enhanced three-dimensional X-ray images of the brain.

With positron emission tomography (PET), clinicians inject radioactive markers into a person's bloodstream and then trace them through the brain as the person engages in certain cognitive tasks. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) can detect changes in the rate of metabolism, or energy consumption, in smaller areas of the brain. With fMRI, researchers can precisely identify the specific parts of the brain that become more active as people process different types of information.

118) The answer will vary depending on how the study is designed, but the student should note some of the ethical considerations (such as weighing risks versus benefits, utilizing nonharmful procedures, informed consent, minimizing unforeseen consequences, protecting confidentiality, and being aware of the implications of their research) mentioned in the text.

119) The trainers use shaping. First, dolphins get food when they touch a target on the water's surface. Then, the target is raised slightly out of the water. When the dolphin touches it, it receives food. Then, trainers raise it higher and higher until the dolphins must jump high out of the water to get a treat.

120) Primary reinforcers (like food, water, sex, and pain reduction) are innately reinforcing and they typically fulfill a biological need. Secondary reinforcers (like money) do not fulfill any biologically need directly. They must be associated with primary reinforcers.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Chromosomes are strands of A) DNA molecules.

B) RNA molecules.

C) cytosine molecules.

D) guanine molecules.

1) _______

2) If Jose is a typical male, we would expect that inside of the nucleus of each cell in his body, there are how many pairs of chromosomes?

A) 22 pairs B) 13 pairs C) 23 pairs D) 46 pairs

2) _______

3) The pairs of chromosomes that are the same across males and females are known as A) DNA strands.

B) autosomes.

C) alleles.

D) sex chromosomes.

3) _______

4) In the sex chromosomes, females A) and males both have one X and one Y chromosome.

B) have two X chromosomes, whereas males have one X and one Y chromosome.

C) have one X and one Y chromosome, whereas males have two X chromosomes.

D) have two Y chromosomes, whereas males have one X and one Y chromosome.

4) _______

5) British researchers James Watson and Francis Crick are famous for their 1953 discovery A) of the makeup and shape of DNA molecules.

B) that men and women have different DNA profiles.

C) of the number of genes humans have.

D) of the number of chromosomes people have.

5) _______

6) The shape of DNA resembles a A) ladder.

B) pretzel.

6) _______ C) ball.

D) spiral staircase.

7) The statement "adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine" refers to the pairing of A) lipid bases in a DNA molecule.

B) phosphate bases in a DNA cell.

C) genes in the single pair of sex chromosomes.

D) nucleotide bases in a DNA molecule.

7) _______

8) If a strand of nucleotide base pairs follows the sequence of C, T, G, G, A, you know that its complementary sequence on the other strand will be A) T, C, C, A, G. B) T, A, G, G, C. C) G, T, C, C, G. D) G, A, C, C, T.

8) _______

9) A person's genetic code, which determines his or her traits or characteristics, is known as the person's A) allele.

B) phenome.

C) pheromone.

D) genome.

9) _______

10) A segment of the DNA strand that provides specific instructions for a particular structure, trait, or function is called a A) genome.

B) nucleotide.

C) chromosome.

D) gene.

10) ______

11) Which of the following statements concerning the human genetic code is FALSE? A) DNA consists of two strands of sugar and phosphate molecules that twist around each other.

11) ______

B) There are around 3 billion pairs of nucleotide bases along the 46 chromosomes in a cell.

C) There are around 20,000 to 30,000 genes aligned along the 46 chromosomes in each cell.

D) About 75% of the nucleotide base pairs in DNA molecules provide active instructions.

12) Scientists from around the world collaborated on the Human Genome Project. What was the main purpose of this project?

A) To determine the number of genes each human typically has B) To compare the genomes of people of various races and cultures C) To compare human genomes to what was known about animal genomes D) To locate the position of every gene in the human genome

12) ______

13) The Human Genome Project has already made it possible to do which of the following?

A) Select the healthiest embryos to carry to birth B) Determine the sexual orientation of fetuses C) Allow parents to select the sex of their embryos D) Select embryos for optimal height and weight

13) ______

14) All of the following are alternative techniques for conception EXCEPT A) in vitro fertilization.

B) assisted in vitro fertilization.

C) canalization.

D) cryopreservation.

14) ______

15) In vitro fertilization is a possible alternative technique for conception A) in which embryos are frozen for several years and then placed directly into a substitute mother's uterus.

B) involving the implantation of a fertilized egg into the uterus of a substitute mother who delivers the baby.

C) in which a male donor's frozen sperm are thawed and placed directly into a woman's uterus.

D) that involves uniting sperm and egg in a petri dish and then placing several embryos in the uterus.

15) ______

16) Dan and Robin have had difficulty becoming pregnant. They decide to go to a doctor who collects Robin's eggs and Dan's sperm. The eggs and sperm are then injected into Robin's fallopian tubes. Dan and Robin have just undergone A) cryopreservation.

B) chorionic villus sampling.

C) assisted in vitro fertilization.

D) in vitro fertilization.

16) ______

17) Research on children conceived by artificial insemination and in vitro fertilization indicates that these children A) have higher rates of emotional problems.

B) do not have any particular developmental problems.

C) are usually told how they were conceived.

D) tend to be smaller than other children.

17) ______

18) A sperm and egg have united and the fertilized cell has begun to divide. After the first division of this cell occurs, by what name do we refer to the new organism?

A) Zygote B) Fetus C) Allele D) Embryo

18) ______

19) The process of cell division that occurs when chromosomes are copied into each new cell is referred to as A) osmosis.

B) mitosis.

C) gameosis.

D) meiosis.

19) ______

20) Every cell in the human body contains an exact copy of the 46 original chromosomes in a single fertilized egg cell EXCEPT A) certain mutations.

B) sex cells.

C) Both A and B are exceptions.

D) Neither A nor B are exceptions.

20) ______

21) A gamete is a A) cluster of DNA strands along a specific sex chromosome.

B) type of sex cell that becomes sperm upon entering the fallopian tube.

C) sex cell containing half the number of chromosomes found in a regular cell.

D) product of mitosis and is essential for healthy cell division.

21) ______

22) Sperm and egg cells are formed during A) fertilization.

B) reproduction.

22) ______ C) mitosis.

D) meiosis.

23) During meiosis, the chromosomes A) increase in number from 23 to 46.

B) remain single strands throughout the process.

C) decrease in number from 46 to 23.

D) do not exchange genetic material.

23) ______

24) Which of the following is a function of meiosis?

A) Meiosis insures that genetic diversity occurs through "crossing over. " B) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes in each gamete to 23.

C) Both A and B are functions of meiosis.

D) Neither A nor B is a function of meiosis.

24) ______

25) The process of "crossing over" A) ensures that characteristics will be transmitted from parents to offspring.

B) ensures variability among the genetic codes of siblings.

C) increases the potential for healthy sperm to reach the site of fertilization.

D) decreases the likelihood of mutations, chromosomal abnormalities, and birth defects.

25) ______

26) Brandon and Brenda are fraternal twins. Patty and Selma are sisters born four years apart.

Which of these two pairs of siblings is genetically most similar?

A) The degree of similarity cannot be determined without DNA testing.

B) Brandon and Brenda, the fraternal twins, are genetically most similar.

C) The fraternal twins and the sisters are equal in genetic similarity.

D) Patty and Selma, the sisters, are genetically most similar.

26) ______

27) Which of the following statements regarding dizygotic (DZ) twins is FALSE? A) DZ twins can be different sexes.

B) DZ twins must have different fathers.

C) The occurrence of DZ twins varies across ethnic groups.

D) DZ twins can be very different in appearance.

27) ______

28) DZ twinning occurs more often among A) younger mothers.

C) Caucasians.

28) ______ B) Africans.

D) Asians.

29) Larry's new boyfriend, Alex, wants him to meet his twin sister, Alexis. Larry knows that Alex must be a/an

29) ______

A) identical twin.

C) monozygotic twin.

B) fraternal twin.

D) MZ twin.

30) Which of the following statements regarding DZ twinning is TRUE? A) DZ twins occur more often among Asians than among Africans.

B) Higher rates of DZ twinning tend to run on the father's side of the family.

C) DZ twinning is determined by the mother's genetics and biology.

D) The incidence of DZ twinning is more frequent among younger mothers.

30) ______

31) An individual whose 23rd pair of chromosomes is XX A) has Turner Syndrome.

B) is a genetic female.

C) has Down Syndrome.

D) is a genetic male.

31) ______

32) When the sex cells form, females pass A) only Y chromosomes to their eggs, whereas males only pass X chromosomes.

B) X and Y chromosomes to their eggs, whereas males only pass X chromosomes.

C) only X chromosomes to their eggs, whereas males pass X and Y chromosomes.

D) X and Y chromosomes to their eggs, and males do the same.

32) ______

33) Recessive traits are less common than dominant traits because A) the dominant alleles must not have existed in the person's family history.

B) only fathers are able to pass on recessive genes to their children, and mothers' genes are typically dominant.

C) recessive genes are more sensitive to the crossing over process than dominant genes.

D) a person would need to inherit the recessive allele from both parents.

33) ______

34) According to your text, which of the following is a recessive trait?

A) Detached earlobes B) Flat feet C) Dimpled cheeks D) Ability to roll tongue

34) ______

35) If Carrie has received one dominant allele and one recessive allele, which of the following traits is it possible for her to have?

A) Arched feet B) Shorter eyelashes C) Cannot roll her tongue D) Smaller eyeballs

35) ______

36) Boone's father has flat feet. Boone will probably have A) large feet.

B) arched feet.

C) flat feet.

D) It is hard to predict for sure, unless we have information about his mother.

36) ______

37) Huntington's disease is the most common example of a A) chromosome abnormality causing mental retardation.

B) genetic disorder governed by a recessive gene.

C) disorder caused by a sex-linked chromosome abnormality.

D) genetic disorder that is governed by a dominant allele.

37) ______

38) Which of the following statements about Huntington's disease is TRUE? A) The incidence of the disease is highest among Asians and Hispanics.

B) Huntington's disease is caused by a genetic abnormality.

C) The symptoms of Huntington's disease appear early in the person's life.

D) The gene for the disease has been identified on the tenth chromosome.

38) ______

39) In order for a child to inherit a recessive trait, A) only the mother needs to have the trait.

B) there must be some underlying biological weakness.

C) both parents must either have the trait or be a carrier.

D) only the father needs to have the trait.

39) ______

40) Gilda has a disease that occurs in about 1 in every 2,000 children. Gilda has serious respiratory problems and lung infections. Gilda probably A) has cystic fibrosis, but this should not affect how long she lives.

B) has sickle-cell disease, and she is likely to die before the age of thirty unless she gets a lung transplant.

C) has sickle-cell disease, but this should not affect how long she lives.

D) has cystic fibrosis, and she is likely to die before the age of thirty unless she gets a lung transplant.

40) ______

41) Sickle-cell disease (SCD) A) is a rare genetic disorder.

B) involves defective hemoglobin.

C) is curable with aggressive therapy.

D) is most common among Native Americans and Asians.

41) ______

42) Your son comes home from kindergarten talking about a classmate who has "sticky blood that is funny-shaped." You wonder if this classmate might have A) Huntington's disease.

B) sickle cell anemia.

C) Trisomy X. D) cystic fibrosis.

42) ______

43) Which of the following statements regarding Tay-Sachs disease is TRUE? A) People with Tay-Sachs do not live to reproductive age.

B) Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a dominant gene.

C) Tay-Sachs disease affects body tissues that secrete mucus.

D) Symptoms of Tay-Sachs begin after the age of thirty.

43) ______

44) Which of the following individuals is most likely to be diagnosed with Tay-Sachs?

A) Levi, who is Jewish and mentally retarded B) Jodi, who is deaf and having problems with blood clotting C) Pauli, a teenager with has breathing problems D) Selvi, who is a 9-year-old Indian girl

44) ______

45) Relative to females, males are much more likely to suffer from classic hemophilia because A) when males inherit the dominant hemophilia gene on their Y chromosomes, it is highly likely that they will also carry the gene on their X chromosome.

B) when males inherit the recessive hemophilia gene on their X chromosomes, their Y chromosomes do not have a corresponding dominant gene to mask the disease.

C) only males can inherit the dominant gene responsible for the blood-clotting disease on the larger of their two sex chromosomes.

D) when males inherit the recessive hemophilia gene on their Y chromosomes, their X chromosomes do not have a corresponding dominant gene to mask the disease.

45) ______

46) Which of the following is an example of an X-linked recessive trait?

A) Rett Syndrome B) Fragile X Syndrome C) Rickets D) Retinitis pigmentosa

46) ______

47) In regard to diseases caused by dominant genes on the X chromosome, A) males are twice as likely to show these diseases as females.

B) females are twice as likely to show these diseases as males.

C) females will not be susceptible to any diseases caused by these genes.

D) males will not be susceptible to any diseases caused by these genes.

47) ______

48) If we know that Ike is mentally retarded, your best guess is that it is due to A) hemophilia.

B) Fragile X Syndrome C) Turner Syndrome.

D) rickets.

48) ______

49) Which of the following statements regarding Fragile X Syndrome is FALSE? A) Fragile X Syndrome involves only the individual's sex chromosomes.

B) Fragile X Syndrome occurs in about 1 in 5,000 males and 1 in 10,000 females.

C) Mental retardation and facial deformities are the primary features of Fragile X Syndrome.

D) Fragile X Syndrome causes mental retardation only among males.

49) ______

50) Most miscarriages are due to A) chromosomal abnormalities.

C) sex-linked traits.

50) ______ B) unhealthy sperm.

D) the mother's young age.

51) Which of the following disorders is due to a chromosomal abnormality?

A) Trisomy 21 B) Huntington's disease C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy D) Cystic fibrosis

51) ______

52) More than half of all babies with Down syndrome are born to mothers who are A) older than 45 years of age.

B) younger than 35 years of age.

C) younger than 16 years of age.

D) older than 35 years of age.

52) ______

53) Which of the following statements regarding sex chromosome abnormalities is TRUE? A) Sex chromosome abnormalities cause physical but not cognitive or social difficulties.

B) Sex chromosome abnormalities typically lead to pregnancy loss or early death of the infant.

C) Sex chromosome abnormalities are among the most common human genetic disorders.

D) Sex chromosome abnormalities are extremely rare occurring in only 1 out of 100,000 births.

53) ______

54) If Roger is an XYY male, he is likely to A) be infertile.

C) be taller than average.

54) ______ B) experience motor skill problems.

D) have all of the above characteristics.

55) If Fred has Klinefelter syndrome, he is most likely to A) be shorter than average and overweight.

B) have underdeveloped testicles.

C) have issues with aggression.

D) be above average in intelligence and creativity.

55) ______

56) Your twelve-year-old daughter, Polly, describes a new female classmate, Holly, as "different."

Polly tells you that Holly is quite short, but has broad shoulders and a webbed neck. She also says that Holly is clumsy in gym class, slow in geometry, but okay in English. Of the following, which is most likely to be true?

A) Holly has Turner syndrome.

B) Holly is an XXX female.

C) Holly has Trisomy X. D) Holly has Klinefelter syndrome.

56) ______

57) Your teenaged son, Devon, describes a new male classmate, Leon, as "pretty weird." Devon tells you that Leon "looks more like a girl than a boy" because he's not growing facial hair like other boys. He also says that Leon seems to have difficulties reading, and that a lot of kids don't like him. Of the following, which is most likely to be true?

A) Leon is actually an XY female.

B) Leon is an XXY male.

C) Leon has Klinefelter syndrome.

D) Leon is an XX male.

57) ______

58) Your doctor explains that at your next appointment a technician will use an instrument that sends sounds waves through the abdomen to produce an image of the fetus and nearby structures. This technique is referred to as A) chorionic villus sampling.

B) amniocentesis.

C) ultrasonography.

D) positron emission tomography.

58) ______

59) If Kayley has gone for genetic screening, which of the following is LEAST likely to be done?

A) Amniocentesis B) Chorionic villus sampling C) Ultrasonography D) Intelligence assessments

59) ______

60) Which of the following statements regarding amniocentesis is FALSE? A) The results usually are available in about a week or two.

B) There is about a 1 in 200 chance that the procedure itself will cause serious problems.

C) Amniocentesis can only be performed before the 14th week of pregnancy.

D) A karyotype is created from the cultured cells obtained during amniocentesis.

60) ______

61) While pregnant and at her doctor office, Irene has a needle inserted through her abdomen and uterus. The doctor says that she wants to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for analysis. What procedure is taking place?

A) Chorionic villus sampling B) Positron emission tomography C) Amniocentesis D) Computerized tomography

61) ______

62) Which of the following procedures could involve either a catheter being inserted through the vagina or a needle inserted through the abdomen and uterus to obtain cells from the placenta?

A) Amniocentesis B) Computerized tomography C) Chorionic villus sampling D) Positron emission tomography

62) ______

63) Which of the following statements regarding chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is TRUE? A) The cells obtained in CVS originated in the zygote or fertilized egg.

B) There is little to no risk associated with the use of CVS during pregnancy.

C) CVS can be conducted only after the 14th week of pregnancy.

D) It usually takes three to four weeks to obtain the results from CVS.

63) ______

64) The "G x E interaction" describes how development is influenced by the interaction of A) genetics and ethology.

B) genetics and evolution.

C) geography and the environment.

D) genetics and the environment.

64) ______

65) A child's genetic makeup or code is his or her A) gamete.

B) genome.

65) ______

66) Genotype is to phenotype as A) dominant is to recessive.

C) male is to female.

C) genotype.

D) phenotype.

66) ______

B) nature is to nurture.

D) hidden is to observable.

67) The manner in which a child's genetic code is expressed in observable and measurable

cha racteris

tics is 67) referred to as his or her A) phenotype.

C) genotype.

___ ___

B) dominance type.

D) recessive type.

68) The concept of reaction range emphasizes that A) an infant's range of behavior is determined by genetic factors, whereas an adult's range of behavior is determined by the environment.

B) human behaviors are determined by wide differences in environments, and genetics accounts for very little human diversity.

C) human behaviors are determined by a wide array of genetic factors, and the environment contributes very little to human diversity.

D) genetic factors determine the field of possible outcomes, and the environment affects the emergence of specific outcomes within this field.

68) ______

69) Which of the following concepts places the heaviest emphasis on genetic determinism?

A) Canalization B) Niche-picking C) Evocative heritability D) Probabilistic epigenesis

69) ______

70) Which of the following statements regarding canalization is FALSE? A) The deeper the "canal," the smaller the influence of genetics on development.

B) Canalization illustrates the protective role that genetics can play in development.

C) Canalization claims that the environment can have many different potential impacts on the individual.

D) Human genetics limits the extent to which environmental factors can affect development.

70) ______

71) "The environment must be strong to have any significant effect on an individual's developmental path." This statement reflects the idea of A) amniocentesis.

B) niche-picking.

C) behavioral evolution.

D) canalization.

71) ______

72) Which of the following is the BEST example of canalization?

A) Keith, an XYY male, is tall for his age, of average intelligence, and currently having behavioral problems in school.

B) Jon and Jerry, MZ twins reared in highly different environments, have different temperaments as adults.

C) Terry and May, who both have brown eyes, are the biological parents of Jessica, who has brilliant blue eyes.

D) Regardless of when they are born, all human infants smile at exactly forty weeks after their conception.

72) ______

73) Until about one year of age, infants respond similarly to sounds that occur in all languages.

However, after one year of age, they can detect subtle differences among sounds only in their native language. This is a good example of A) active niche-picking.

B) heritability.

C) experiential canalization.

D) genetic determinism.

73) ______

74) According to Sandra Scarr, children's genetic codes can influence the types of environments in which they are placed or which they select for themselves. Scarr is describing A) probabilistic epigenesis.

B) behavioral evolution.

74) ______

C) mitosis.

D) the different roles genetics play.

75) As she always loved music, Julie's parents enrolled her in music lessons, made many trips with her to concerts, and tried to have music playing in the home as much as possible. This demonstrates the A) active role of her genetic code.

B) concept of niche-picking.

C) evocative role of her genetic code.

D) passive role of her genetic code.

75) ______

76) Fifteen-year-old Jacob loves bluegrass music. He bought himself a used banjo with money he saved and regularly plays music with a local band. He keeps in contact with other musicians through the Internet and plans to move to Nashville when he graduates from high school.

Jacob's behavior illustrates the A) concept of niche-picking.

B) active role of his genetic code.

C) evocative role of his genetic code.

D) both A and B.

76) ______

77) Which of the following is the BEST example of niche-picking?

A) Daniel chooses to play basketball rather than go with his family to antique shops.

B) Sam's father, who is an architect, brings him models and building blocks with which to play.

C) Barb wins first prize in the science fair with the help of her mother, who is a physicist.

D) Krista enjoys her mother's yoga tapes and goes on weekend meditation retreats with her.

77) ______

78) According to his parents, Taylor was a testy, finicky, and somewhat irritable kid from the moment he was born. In preschool, the other children called him "Grumpy" and wouldn't play with him, and his teacher found him "difficult to work with." This example best illustrates A) heritability.

B) niche-picking.

C) the evocative role that genes can play.

D) the passive role that genes can play.

78) ______

79) The unique idea within the concept of probabilistic epigenesis is that A) our environment influences which parts of our genetic potential are activated and expressed.

B) genetics can influence the environments that individuals choose.

C) the environment influences how an individual's genetic code is expressed.

D) genetics determines how much influence the environment can have.

79) ______

80) Which of the following is an example given in your text of behavioral evolution as a result of probabilistic epigenesis?

A) Cats growing two tails B) Humans lacking thumbs C) Birds developing teeth D) Salamanders having five legs

80) ______

81) Which of the following statements regarding heritability estimates is FALSE? A) Complex traits never show heritability estimates as high as 1.0.

B) Theoretically, it is possible for heritability estimates to be as high as 1.0.

C) Higher values of heritability estimates indicate stronger environmental influence.

D) Heritability estimates over .50 generally are considered fairly high.

81) ______

82) Heritability estimates can range from A) 0 to +1.0.

B) 0 to 100.

82) ______ C) 0 to 10.

D) -1.0 to +1.0.

83) Pretend for a moment that people's attitudes toward racial tolerance has a heritability estimate of .10. This indicates that A) the variation is due mostly to learning experiences.

83) ______

B) most people have unchangeable racist tendencies.

C) most people tolerate people of various races.

D) little of the variation in attitudes is due to the environment.

84) Which of these is the BEST example of a shared environment?

A) How your parents treated you and your siblings B) Growing up in the U.S. following 9/11 C) People's religious views D) A person's favorite movie

84) ______

85) Jack and Jill are siblings being raised in a very active household. The family attends many sporting events and participates in a wide range of athletic activities. Which of the following would be the BEST example of a nonshared environment?

A) Their parents enforce a strict, daily regimen of at least thirty minutes of vigorous exercise.

B) When the children were toddlers, the family went on a five-day backpacking trip to Yellowstone.

C) Jack, a Special Olympian with Down syndrome, needs certain accommodations to participate in family sporting activities.

D) Their financial status allows the family to travel to upscale events, such as the Indianapolis 500 and the running of the bulls in Pamplona.

85) ______

86) Which of following research methods is LEAST likely to be used in studying the heritability of traits?

A) Twin studies B) Experimental studies C) Adoption studies D) Correlational studies

86) ______

87) If the heritability estimate for height is high, then the greatest degree of similarity in height should be between A) identical twins.

B) fraternal twins.

C) child and father.

D) adopted siblings of differing ages.

87) ______

88) One of the primary reasons that behavior geneticists study identical twins is because identical twins are A) usually reared within the same family.

B) more likely to engage in active niche-picking.

C) generally treated similarly by the people around them.

D) more genetically similar than other biological siblings.

88) ______

89) Imagine that Dr. Walsh measures the heritability of anger in pairs of siblings who are being reared together. She finds a correlation of .15 between pairs of adopted siblings who are biologically unrelated, a correlation of .63 for fraternal twins, and a correlation of .92 for identical twins. These results suggest that A) relative to the influence of genetics, the environment contributes relatively little to variability in anger.

B) compared to the impact of the environment, genetics contributes relatively little to variability in anger.

C) the shared environment contributes greatly to the variability in anger only among identical twins.

D) both the environment and genetics contribute substantially to the variability in anger.

89) ______

90) Heritability estimates for cognitive skills A) are highly stable across age, indicating a strong genetic influence on these skills.

90) ______

B) increase with age, indicating a strong environmental influence on these skills.

C) decrease with age, indicating a strong environmental influence on these skills.

D) increase with age, indicating a strong genetic influence on these skills.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) How many pairs of chromosomes do most people have in most of their cells? Which pair determines our sex, and what is the difference between the male and female pairs of chromosomes?

92) What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

93) Explain the relationship between dominant and recessive traits and how it is determined which one will emerge.

94) What is cystic fibrosis?

95) What is amniocentesis and why would it be used?

96) What is the difference between a person's genotype and his or her phenotype?

97) Using the concept of niche-picking, explain why someone might become a boxer.

98) What does the federal Genetic Nondiscrimination Act of 2007 propose?

99) As described by Jamie Commissaris, what were the steps involved in her becoming pregnant?

100) Name and describe two of the newest techniques for genetic testing, besides gene therapy, that were mentioned by Robin L. Bennett.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) DNA consists of two strands of sugar and ________ molecules that twist around in a 101) ____________ spiral staircase pattern.

102) ________ are the molecules that dictate how our cells develop.

102) ____________

103) In terms of quantity, there are approximately ________ genes aligned along the set of chromosomes in each human cell.

103) ____________

104) An alternate version of a gene is called a(n) ________.

104) ____________

105) The term ________ refers to the newly fertilized cell that has just divided for the first time after the sperm and egg unite.

105) ____________

106) While identical twins are said to be monozygotic twins, fraternal or nonidentical twins are called ________ twins.

106) ____________

107) Traits are said to be either dominant or ________.

107) ____________

108) The most common recessive disease among Caucasians is ________.

108) ____________

109) While males have only one chance, females have ________ chances of inheriting dominant disease alleles on the X chromosome.

109) ____________

110) Trisomy 21 is better known as ________.

110) ____________

111) ________ involves an instrument that sends sound waves into the expectant mother's abdomen.

111) ____________

112) A ________ is a picture of a set of chromosomes — that are obtained via amniocentesis or VCS — that are arranged by size.

112) ____________

113) According to the ________ canalization perspective, the environment limits the expression of genes.

113) ____________

114) The tendency to choose activities and environments that fit our genetic predispositions is known as ________.

114) ____________

115) The term ________ refers to the emergence of a trait, characteristic, or behavior over the course of development.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Briefly describe the Human Genome Project (HGP). Then identify two ways in which findings from the HGP have influenced how scientists and medical personnel utilize "genetic testing." Finally, discuss one ethical question that will arise from this project.

117) Name and describe two of the alternative techniques for conception. Of the ones you named, which would you prefer to use and why?

118) Briefly discuss the labeling of experiences within a family as "shared" or "non-shared." Include clear examples of shared and non-shared environments. Then discuss an example of a situation in which the labeling depends to some extent on the researcher's perspective.

119) How can two siblings have a non-shared environment?

120) What is one of the major ways in which mapping the human genome will impact people?

1) A 2) C 3) B 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) A

52) B 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) C 59) D 60) C 61) C 62) C 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) A 71) D 72) D 73) C 74) D 75) C 76) D 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) C 86) B 87) A 88) D 89) A 90) D 91) People typically have 23 pairs of chromosomes and the 23rd pair determines whether a person is male or female.

The male pattern is XY, and the female pattern is XX. 92) Mitosis involves a cell copying its own chromosomes and then dividing to form two cells. Meiosis involves gametes reducing the number of chromosomes per cell from 46 to 23.

93) Dominant alleles typically determine the trait. If a person receives two of the same dominant alleles, or one dominant and one recessive allele, the dominant trait will be shown. However, if the person receives two recessive alleles, the recessive trait will be shown.

94) Cystic fibrosis is the most most common recessive disease among Caucasians. Cystic fibrosis affects tissues in the body that produce mucus secretions. The lungs, gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, and liver are often affected. People with cystic fibrosis usually experience serious respiratory problems and lung infections, and without lung transplants most do not live past the age of 30.

95) Amniocentesis involves using a needle to draw a small amount of fluid from the amniotic sac; the cells in this fluid are then cultured for genetic testing. This procedure — which can be conducted after the 14th week of pregnancy —

is

advised when parents have a high risk of passing a genetic defect to the baby, or when the mother is 35 or older.

96) While the genotype is the person's genetic make up, the phenotype refers to the individual's observable traits.

97) The person might be genetically predisposed to violence. Likewise, the child may grow up in a home where violence is watched or tolerated. Then the child may start to act aggressively with his or her peers. The parents might even enroll the child in violent activities. Eventually, the child will choose those activities for himself or herself.

98) It states that health insurers and employers cannot discriminate against people with genetic disorders.

99) She used in vitro fertilization. She had several weeks of hormone pills and injections. The eggs were retrieved and then fertilized in the lab. Then two were transferred back to her uterus.

100) Presymptomatic testing involves testing people for the potential of a genetic disorder. Pharmacogenomics involves testing people for many susceptibilities so that "designer medications" can be prescribed.

101) phosphate 102) Genes 103) 20,000 to 25,000 104) allele 105) zygote 106) dizygotic 107) recessive 108) cystic fibrosis 109) two 110) Down syndrome 111) Ultrasonography (or ultrasound) 112) karyotype 113) experiential 114) niche-picking 115) epigenesis 116) The HGP is a multinational research program that has a goal of eventually mapping the entire sequencing of human genes. Information gathered from the HGP already allows medical personnel to help parents select the sex of their embryos. In addition, embryos can be tested to determine whether or not they are carrying disease-causing genes. In these ways, parents can make decisions about whether to abort an embryo or to allow it to fully develop.

There are many ethical and moral issues that will arise as we learn more about the human genome. Students' answers to this part of the question will vary, but will probably be based on information found in the text.

117) The answer will vary based on which ones (such as IVF, artificial insemination, cryopreservation, assisted IVF, and surrogates) the student chooses. The student should properly name and describe the techniques based on the information in Table 2.1.

118) Shared environments are those experiences that are common to all individuals who are living together. Shared environmental factors may include certain family activities such as taking vacations together or dealing with a serious family trauma. In contrast, non-shared environments are those experiences that vary among individuals who are living together. For example, a sister and brother may be treated differently because of their gender.

Although the conceptual distinction may be easy to make, researchers are now beginning to realize that environmental factors that they once believed were shared by all family members can actually be non-shared environmental factors. Parents adjust their interactions with their children to fit the temperament of each child.

Therefore, parenting style can be a nonshared environmental factor.

119) One way is that they can perceive the situation differently. (For example, one child is delighted about having a new baby in the family, and the other is not.) Another way is that they had different experiences. (For example, one child went to day care the other did not.)

120) Eventually, there will be a shift to more personalized treatment and medicine. Pharmaceutical companies may look for more customized treatment for each individual.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Denise and Bill are concerned about their son's prenatal development. Therefore, they are worrying about A) his ability to interact with others.

B) the months prior to his birth.

C) his language skills.

D) how other people are treating him.

1) _______

2) Frida is a typical 30-year-old woman. Frida ovulated today. If today is June 1, we would expect that Frida will ovulate next on what date?

A) July 1 B) June 11 C) June 15 D) June 29

2) _______

3) To ensure that the correct number of chromosomes from the father are joined with the mother's chromosomes, A) the fallopian tube closes briefly after the entrance of multiple sperm cells.

B) a chemical reaction seals the ovum's outer membrane after penetration by one sperm cell.

C) more than one ovum is ovulated and fertilized during each menstrual cycle.

D) only one sperm will survive the journey through the uterus and into the fallopian tube.

3) _______

4) During conception, the point at which chromosomes from the mother and father combine is referred to as A) organogenesis.

B) ovulation.

C) fertilization.

D) differentiation.

4) _______

5) In prenatal development, the process through which each new cell, as it divides, forms a particular structure with a specific function is referred to as A) specialization.

B) fertilization.

C) ovulation.

D) differentiation.

5) _______

6) After fertilization, prenatal development continues through the processes of A) differentiation and organogenesis.

B) meiosis and differentiation.

C) cell division and meiosis.

D) cell division and differentiation.

6) _______

7) The first two weeks of pregnancy, beginning at conception and ending when the embryo implants itself, is referred to as A) the fetal stage.

B) the germinal stage.

C) fertilization.

D) the embryonic stage.

7) _______

8) Linda is a mother whose unborn child is in the germinal period of prenatal development. This period will end when her zygote implants itself into the A) fallopian tube.

B) umbilical cord.

C) uterine lining.

D) amniotic sac.

8) _______

9) It takes about how much time after conception before the fertilized cell divides for the first time?

A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) Less than one minute D) One week

9) _______

10) Trophoblast is to blastocyst as A) male is to female.

C) growing is to fading.

10) ______ B) rounded is to elongated.

D) outer is to inner.

11) The trophoblast will eventually differentiate to become the A) placenta, umbilical cord, amniotic sac, and other structures.

B) umbilical cord and fetus.

C) fetus.

11) ______

D) embryo.

12) What eventually occurs to the blastocyst?

A) Researchers do not know yet.

B) It becomes the fetus itself.

C) It gets absorbed into the mother's bloodstream.

D) It becomes the placenta, umbilical cord, and amniotic sac.

12) ______

13) Which of the following events does NOT occur during the germinal stage?

A) The trophoblast and blastocyst form.

B) Implantation occurs.

C) The first cell divisions occur.

D) The zygote forms a neural tube.

13) ______

14) The three major stages of prenatal development are A) ovulation, fertilization, and differentiation.

B) endodermic, ectodermic, and mesodermic.

C) ovulation, conception, and organogenesis.

D) germinal, embryonic, and fetal.

14) ______

15) Which of the following is NOT one of the three major stages of prenatal development?

A) Embryonic B) Fetal C) Organogenesis D) Germinal

15) ______

16) What is the outermost layer that originates from the blastocyst?

A) Mesoderm B) Endoderm C) Ectoderm D) Actually, there are no layers that originate from the blastocyst

16) ______

17) The spongy tissue that grows out of the trophoblast layer and into the uterine lining is called the A) blastocyst.

B) amniotic sac.

C) germinal layer.

D) placenta.

17) ______

18) Donna has just experienced a miscarriage. When her doctor discusses this with another doctor, he or she is likely to say that Donna had a/an A) spontaneous abortion.

B) endodermic abortion.

C) cephalocaudal abortion.

D) induced abortion.

18) ______

19) What is the main function of the umbilical cord?

A) It provides fluid for the amniotic sac.

C) It serves no real purpose.

19) ______ B) It connects the placenta to the embryo.

D) It provides the baby's bloodstream.

20) During prenatal development, the eyes begin to form and heart tissue begins to "flutter" in a primitive heartbeat by A) 2 weeks.

B) 8 weeks.

C) 4 weeks.

D) 6 weeks.

20) ______

21) "Cephalo" and "caudal" bear the same relation as A) inner and outer.

C) large and small.

21) ______ B) head and tail.

D) near and away.

22) As a result of organogenesis, A) new organs develop throughout infancy.

B) each body structure differentiates within the embryo.

C) new cells are created as old ones die out.

D) conception occurs due to the sperm and egg.

22) ______

23) Which of the following statements regarding the embryonic stage is TRUE? A) All of the major body structures are functioning at the end of the embryonic stage.

B) All of the major body structures exist and are identifiable at the end of the embryonic stage.

C) The process of organogenesis is completed by the 4th week after conception.

D) At the end of the embryonic stage, the embryo is approximately three inches long.

23) ______

24) Which of the following events does NOT occur during the fetal stage?

A) The organism grows dramatically in size and weight.

B) The heartbeat can be detected with a stethoscope.

C) All major organ structures appear.

D) First arm and leg movements occur.

24) ______

25) During prenatal development, reflexes first appear during the A) embryonic stage.

B) fetal stage.

C) germinal stage.

D) cephalocaudal stage.

25) ______

26) If the doctor wants to detect a heartbeat, he or she should wait until the A) germinal stage.

B) embryonic stage.

C) fetal stage.

D) zygotic stage.

26) ______

27) At its peak during fetal development, the brain produces 250,000 new cells per A) week.

B) second.

C) minute.

D) day.

27) ______

28) Angelina is pregnant with Brad's baby. They plan to name the baby Pat. Brad is thinking about Pat's exposure to teratogens. Brad is most likely thinking about what?

A) Angelina consuming alcohol B) Angelina reading to Pat in the womb C) Whether Pat will be breast-fed or bottle-fed D) What kind of school Pat will attend

28) ______

29) Shelly has just told Kim that she had a preterm birth. Kim now knows that Shelly's baby A) was born prior to 32 weeks of gestation.

B) has already died.

C) was born weighing below 5.5 pounds.

D) was born prior to 37 weeks of gestation.

29) ______

30) Which of the following processes is NOT a way in which alcohol can damage a fetus?

A) Alcohol can kill fetal brain cells.

B) Alcohol can reduce the blood flow.

C) Alcohol can cause Down syndrome.

D) Alcohol can disrupt cell division.

30) ______

31) Rubella (German or three-day measles) is likely to cause all of the following EXCEPT A) cataracts.

B) facial malformations.

C) deafness.

D) glaucoma.

31) ______

32) A mother's consumption of alcohol during pregnancy increases her chances of having a newborn with all of the following conditions EXCEPT A) hyperactivity.

B) blisters and open sores.

C) physical deformities.

D) a lower than normal IQ.

32) ______

33) Which of the following is NOT one of the three conditions recognized as characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Addiction to alcohol at birth B) Low birth weight

33) ______

C) Head and facial malformations D) Dysfunction of the central nervous system 34) Which of the following statements regarding fetal alcohol effects (FAEs) is TRUE? A) Children with FAEs have more serious health concerns than children with fetal alcohol syndrome.

B) FAEs involve physical deformities, but not cognitive deficits.

C) FAEs involve cognitive, but not physical or behavioral, deficits.

D) Fetal Alcohol Effects (FAEs) may not be noticed until later in childhood.

34) ______

35) As a nurse in the neonatal intensive care unit, you observe that a newborn is irritable, rigid, low in spontaneous movement, and experiencing tremors. You would most likely suspect A) syphilis infection.

B) cocaine exposure.

C) AIDS. D) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

35) ______

36) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of how cigarette smoking typically impacts prenatal development?

A) Cigarette smoking reduces the supply of oxygen that is available to the fetus.

B) The fetus is born addicted to nicotine and must go through a process of detoxification.

C) Chemicals in cigarettes can damage the placenta and reduce blood supply to the fetus.

D) Nicotine suppresses mothers' appetites, so they gain less weight during their pregnancies.

36) ______

37) Julia is a pregnant mother who is a cigarette smoker. She should be most concerned that her child will be born A) at a low birth weight.

B) with a mild form of retardation.

C) prematurely.

D) with slight visual problems.

37) ______

38) Which of the following statements regarding cytomegalovirus (CMV) is FALSE? A) An embryo infected with the CMV will usually die.

B) CMV is carried by 50 to 75% of the current U.S. population.

C) Babies infected with CMV are at risk for microcephaly and cerebral palsy.

D) Adults usually have serious health problems as a result of the CMV.

38) ______

39) Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with microcephaly?

A) Malformation of the intestines B) Poor motor coordination C) Small head circumference D) Mental retardation

39) ______

40) Which of the following statements regarding HIV infection is FALSE? A) Medications are able to reduce HIV transmission from mothers to infants.

B) Drug abuse is in some way implicated in the majority of babies with HIV. C) Babies born with HIV usually contract the virus during the embryonic stage.

D) Babies can be infected with HIV if an HIV-infected mother breastfeeds.

40) ______

41) Which of the following statements regarding pregnant women in their late 30s and 40s is FALSE? A) Women in their 40s giving birth for the first time have fewer problems than older women who already have children.

B) High blood pressure and diabetes are more likely to occur during pregnancy among women over age 35.

C) Most pregnancies among women in their late 30s and 40s proceed normally and produce healthy babies.

D) Older mothers are more likely to give birth to a baby with Down syndrome than are

41) ______

younger

women.

42) Why is vulnerability to toxins so low during the germinal stage?

A) The mother's body produces antibodies to most environmental toxins.

B) Organogenesis is already complete prior to the germinal stage.

C) The embryo is not yet connected to the mother's bloodstream.

D) The functioning placenta cleanses the mother's blood of environmental toxins.

42) ______

43) When toxins affect sperm cells, the damaged sperm usually A) multiply at rapid rates leading to multiple pregnancies.

B) do not survive the long journey to the egg.

C) have minimal impact on the child that is created.

D) lead to low energy levels when the toxin is alcohol.

43) ______

44) The specific biological mechanism that triggers the birth process is A) referred to as dilation.

B) initiated in the uterine lining.

C) a function of the ovaries.

D) still unknown to scientists.

44) ______

45) Which of the following statements regarding Stage 1 of labor is FALSE? A) Stage 1 begins when the uterus starts regular contractions.

B) Stage 1 generally lasts between 6 and 14 hours.

C) Stage 1 contractions cause dilation of the cervix.

D) Stage 1 is usually shorter for first-time mothers.

45) ______

46) While in Stage 1 labor, dilation refers to the gradual opening of the A) vagina.

B) cervix.

C) placenta.

46) ______ D) amniotic sac.

47) The tough ring of tissue that is closed during pregnancy to keep the fetus secure is called the A) cervix.

B) blastocyst.

C) uterus.

D) placenta.

47) ______

48) The purpose of contractions during Stage 1 of labor is to A) push the placenta through the birth canal.

B) prevent the baby from going through the birth canal.

C) expand the cervix.

D) push the baby into a breech position.

48) ______

49) If Fiona is in Stage 1 of labor, she can expect all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) Contractions that last for up to two minutes B) Her cervix dilating to allow for the passage of the baby C) Contractions about every two minutes D) Expelling of the placenta and umbilical cord

49) ______

50) Your pregnant friend Jean calls you and reports that her contractions are regular and have been going on for about an hour. You suspect that she may be in which of the following labor stages?

A) Stage 1.

B) Stage 2.

C) Stage 3.

D) Stage 4.

50) ______

51) What is the major event that occurs during Stage 2 of labor?

A) The baby is delivered.

B) The cervix dilates.

C) The placenta is pushed through the birth canal.

D) Uterine contractions begin.

51) ______

52) Stage 3 of labor involves A) malpresentation.

C) dilation.

52) ______ B) afterbirth.

D) effacement.

53) Annie was an American woman giving birth in the year 1902. We can expect that A) she gave birth in a hospital.

B) she received anesthesia or some other medication.

C) her friends and family were with her.

D) ALL of the above were likely to have occurred.

53) ______

54) Traci tells her sister, Nancy, that she will be "rooming-in." Nancy tells Traci, A) "I've heard that many women enjoy having an underwater delivery in the mother's private room."

B) "that's nice that you get your own private hospital room when you give birth."

C) "I'm glad that your baby will stay in the same room with you."

D) "I bet your husband, Eric, is happy that he can stay in the labor and delivery room with you."

54) ______

55) If Nicole is living in America today and she is getting ready to deliver, it is MOST likely that Nicole will use A) major tranquilizers during labor and delivery.

B) Travorsky's underwater delivery method.

C) delivery methods very similar to those in the early 1900s.

D) a hospital for labor and delivery.

55) ______

56) Before giving birth, Tanya requested a doula. Tanya requested A) a birth attendant.

B) silence and dim lighting.

C) medication.

D) a special type of couch.

56) ______

57) Frederick Lamaze theorized that A) women have a low tolerance for pain and need a general anesthetic during labor.

B) women have been classically conditioned to believe that labor contractions will be painful.

C) the delivery room environment should offer a trauma-free experience for the newborn.

D) birthing centers would decrease the risk of spreading contagious diseases to newborns.

57) ______

58) Ms. Charles' childbirth preparation classes focus on learning information about pregnancy and birth, breathing techniques, and selective relaxation. Which of the following childbirth methods is she learning?

A) Apgar B) Lamaze C) Travkovsky D) Doula

58) ______

59) Which of the following is NOT a role of the labor coach?

A) Administering medication to relieve pain during contractions B) Helping the pregnant woman remember to engage in controlled breathing C) Attending childbirth preparation classes with the pregnant woman D) Helping the pregnant woman practice relaxation techniques

59) ______

60) In the Lamaze method, the primary purpose of controlled breathing and relaxation techniques is to A) enhance the bond between mother and partner.

B) make the birth process less traumatic for the fetus.

C) decrease the pain of the mother's contractions.

D) enhance the effectiveness of epidural anesthesia.

60) ______

61) Women who use prepared childbirth can expect all of the following benefits EXCEPT A) enjoying the experience of childbirth more.

B) experiencing less pain during childbirth.

C) needing less pain medication during labor and delivery.

D) having a quicker labor and delivery.

61) ______

62) When a partner participates in a natural childbirth, his or her main role is to A) be present to bond with the newborn through skin-to-skin contact.

B) remind the mother to engage in relaxation and breathing techniques.

C) physically assist the midwife in the delivery of the newborn.

D) speed up the labor and delivery process by offering encouragement.

62) ______

63) Epidural anesthesia involves pain-relieving drugs being administered into the mother's A) spine.

B) uterus.

C) legs.

D) cervix.

63) ______

64) Chad is assisting his wife Hillary during labor and delivery. Which of the following is Chad LEAST likely to do?

A) Determine which medications will benefit Hillary most B) Help Hillary use selective relaxation and controlled breathing C) Help Hillary remain comfortable during labor D) "Catch" the baby when he or she is born and cut the umbilical cord

64) ______

65) Dr. West is most likely to hope that her pregnant patients deliver their babies with the baby's A) buttocks first.

B) head first.

C) feet first.

D) arms first.

65) ______

66) Which of the following does NOT describe a malpresentation?

A) Arms first B) Buttocks first C) Feet first

66) ______ D) Head first

67) Which of the following is an accepted practice for dealing with malpresentation?

A) The physician will physically turn an incorrectly positioned fetus.

B) A planned Cesarean section will be used to delivery the baby.

C) Both A and B are acceptable practices.

D) Neither A nor B is an acceptable practice.

67) ______

68) Which of the following is NOT an indicator of fetal distress?

A) Change in respiration B) Change in heart rate C) Anoxia D) Malpresentation

68) ______

69) To best detect fetal distress, doctors typically use A) chorionic villus sampling.

C) the Apgar test.

69) ______ B) amniocentesis.

D) electrodes.

70) A newborn may experience anoxia for one of several reasons. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the cause of anoxia?

A) Medications given too late during delivery B) Premature separation of the placenta C) Maternal hyperventilation during labor D) Sudden compression of the umbilical cord

70) ______

71) The basic purpose of vernix caseosa is to A) nourish the child.

71) ______ B) reduce pain during delivery.

C) protect the baby's skin.

D) speed up the delivery.

72) Which of the following is NOT typical of newborns?

A) Smiling when the hand is touched B) Turning when the cheek is stroked C) Sucking when the lips are touched D) Fuzzy vision

72) ______

73) The most widely-used newborn screening device is A) the Apgar test.

B) amniocentesis.

C) ultrasound.

D) the Teratogen test.

73) ______

74) As a nurse in the neonatal intensive care unit, you understand that a total score of 9 on the Apgar test indicates that a newborn A) is at serious risk and immediate action needs to be taken to help.

B) may have some potential problems and needs to be monitored carefully.

C) is doing fine and does not need close monitoring.

D) experienced anoxia during labor and delivery.

74) ______

75) Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions assessed using the Apgar Test?

A) Color B) Temperament C) Respiration D) Heart rate

75) ______

76) Which of the following newborns would be of most concern to medical personnel after its birth?

A) A baby with a five-minute Apgar score of 8 B) A baby with a large head and misshapen skull C) A baby who is crying and unable to visually focus D) A baby with a five-minute Apgar score of 2

76) ______

77) Your newborn daughter, Joni, just received a total score of 2 on the Apgar test.This indicates that Joni A) is at serious risk, although the test score does not explain why.

B) has been exposed to some environmental toxin prenatally.

C) has some serious genetic disorder such Down syndrome.

D) experienced anoxia during labor and delivery.

77) ______

78) The Apgar test mainly is used to assess a newborn's A) physical health.

B) auditory functioning.

C) reflexes.

D) responsiveness to social cues.

78) ______

79) Parents of a newborn would generally hope for an Apgar test score of A) less than 5.

B) 8-10.

C) 0-3.

D) greater than 10.

79) ______

80) Mark was born at 39 weeks gestational age and weighs 8 3/4 pounds. Mark would be considered A) low birth weight.

B) small for gestational age.

C) a preterm birth.

D) normal and full-term.

80) ______

81) Which of the following infants would be expected to have the most serious health problems?

A) Michelle, who was born at 30 weeks gestational age and weighs 6 pounds B) Tina, who was born at 38 weeks gestational age and weighs 11 pounds C) Lucy, who was born at 29 weeks gestational age and weighs 5 pounds D) Yi-Chun, who was born at 32 weeks gestational age and weighs 3 pounds

81) ______

82) Sandra is classified as having a very low birth weight. At birth she weighed

82) ______

A) less than 4 1/2 pounds.

C) less than 5 1/2 pounds.

B) less than 3 1/2 pounds.

D) less than 2 pounds.

83) A preterm birth is a birth A) before 37 weeks gestation.

B) more than three weeks before the expected due date.

C) Both A and B are used to classify a birth as "preterm."

D) Neither A nor B are correct classifications of a "preterm" birth.

83) ______

84) Which of the following infants is at greatest risk?

A) Carrie, who was born preterm.

B) Luka, who was born at 35 weeks of gestation, weighing under 4.5 pounds.

C) Carter, who was low in birth weight.

D) Abby, who is considered small for gestational age.

84) ______

85) Babies who are born "small for gestational age" (SGA) are of particular concern to medical personnel because A) some factor or condition has kept them from growing as well as they should have.

B) SGA infants tend to have a much poorer prognosis or outlook than preterm infants.

C) Both A and B are true.

D) Neither A or B is true.

85) ______

86) Which of the following statements regarding infant mortality is FALSE? A) The steps that would reduce low birth weight would also reduce rates of infant mortality.

B) Infant mortality refers to deaths that occur from the time of conception to one year of age.

C) The infant mortality rate for African Americans is higher than for white Americans.

D) The overall infant mortality rate in the United States is about 7 deaths per 1000 live births.

86) ______

87) Who of the following is LEAST likely to have a successful transition to new parenthood?

A) Brittney and Kevin, parents who are sensitive to each other's needs B) Jack and Diane, parents who show warmth toward one another C) Eva and Tony, parents who can address and resolve problems D) Johnny and Gina, parents with relatives nearby who assist with childcare

87) ______

88) As new parents, Paul and Heather can expect that it will take about how long to adjust to new parenthood?

A) 18 to 24 months B) 4 to 6 weeks C) 2 to 3 months D) 6 to 12 months

88) ______

89) Molly is a child and her mother just gave birth to Anna. We can expect Molly to experience all of the following EXCEPT A) anoxia.

B) sleep problems.

C) more whininess.

D) clinging.

89) ______

90) To help Zach adjust to the birth of his newborn twin sisters, his parents should A) try to limit Zach's time with his friends for a little while.

B) show Zach how helpful he can be with the twins.

C) try not to discuss any negative feelings about the new babies.

D) ALL of these ideas are recommended.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) Discuss the three stages of prenatal development and when they occur.

92) During the second stage of prenatal development, the blastocyst forms three cell layers. What are names of each and what does each layer eventually become?

93) What is the difference between a spontaneous abortion and an induced abortion?

94) What happens during the second stage of childbirth?

95) Name and describe two of the more common malpresentations.

96) What is the Apgar test and what does it measure?

97) What is the difference between a preterm and a low-birth-weight baby?

98) What was the cause of Justin's problems, and what disorder affects his motor skills?

99) What did Malissa Ann Crawley do that caused her to be in the news? What were the consequences of her actions?

100) According to Abbi Beuby, what does a midwife do?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) During a woman's reproductive years, an egg cell will come to maturity approximately 101) ____________ every ________ days.

102) A man may ejaculate as many as ________ sperm cells during intercourse.

102) ____________

103) The zygote takes about 3 to 4 days to travel through the fallopian tube before reaching the ________.

103) ____________

104) After the zygote implants into the uterine lining, the organism is referred to as a(n) ________.

104) ____________

105) The ________ pattern refers to a "head-to-tail" pattern of growth.

105) ____________

106) The process through which important body structures differentiate is known as ________.

106) ____________

107) The longest and final stage of prenatal development is the ________ stage.

107) ____________

108) If born at a normal gestational age, the average U.S. baby weighs ________ pounds.

108) ____________

109) Any substance that might cause birth defects is known as a ________.

109) ____________

110) Experts believe that prenatal exposure to ________ is the leading known cause of mental retardation in the United States.

110) ____________

111) During the surgical procedure of ________, the baby is removed from the mother through an incision made through the mother's abdomen.

111) ____________

112) The third and last stage of birth is called the ________.

112) ____________

113) ________ occurs when the fetus experiences a sudden lack of oxygen, change in heart rate, or change in respiration.

113) ____________

114) A type of premature birth that occurs before 37 weeks gestation is called a ________ birth.

114) ____________

115) Babies who are ________ for gestational age are of particular concern to medical personnel.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Describe how a cell goes from fertilization to birth. Be sure to mention the different stages and what happens during each.

117) Assuming it is a typical vaginal birth in the United States today, what would you tell a friend and her husband to expect during her delivery? Be sure to mention the three birth stages.

118) Barry, a proud, expecting father, imagines his soon-to-be first daughter in glowing terms: "She'll be gorgeous, I just know it. Glowing skin, pretty brown eyes, beautifully-shaped head, well-proportioned body." It's your job to tell Barry what a newborn really looks like. What do you say?

119) What are some of the main consequences of drinking while pregnant?

120) What are doulas and what are some of the benefits of having them?

1) B 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) A

52) B 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) A 71) C 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) D 82) B 83) C 84) D 85) C 86) B 87) D 88) D 89) A 90) B 91) The germinal stage is the first two weeks of pregnancy. The embryonic stage is from weeks 3 to 8 of pregnancy.

The fetal stage occurs from week 9 of pregnancy until birth.

92) The ectoderm is the outer layer of the cell mass, and during the embryonic stage it gives rise to the nervous system (including the brain and spinal cord), sensory receptors, and outer skin layers. The mesoderm, or middle layer, becomes the circulatory system, skeleton, muscles, excretory system, reproductive system, the outer layer of the digestive tract, and the inner layer of skin. The endoderm, or inner layer, will eventually become the respiratory system and the remainder of the digestive system.

93) Spontaneous abortions are also known as miscarriages, and they can occur for many reasons. Induced abortions are terminations of pregnancy that are chosen by the parent(s).

94) This stage involves the baby moving through the birth canal due to the mother's contractions, and it ends with delivery.

95) Breech position involves the feet or buttocks being lowest in the uterus, whereas transverse position involves the baby lying sideways.

96) The Apgar test measures the baby's health immediately after birth. The baby gets scores of 0, 1, or 2 (2 being the best) on each of five criteria: heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, color, and reflex irritability.

97) Preterm babies are born before 37 weeks of gestation, whereas low-birth-weight babies weigh less than 5.5 pounds.

98) Justin has fetal alcohol syndrome, which led to cerebral palsy.

99) She used cocaine during her pregnancy, and this caused her son's blood to test positive for cocaine. She was sentenced to five months in prison, but she ultimately served about 1 year, and she completed a six-month addiction program.

100) Midwives work with pregnant women during their pregnancies and deliver babies. They perform ultrasounds, annual visits, contraceptive counseling, and some primary care.

101) 28 102) 500 million 103) uterus 104) embryo 105) cephalocaudal 106) organogenesis 107) fetal 108) 7.5 109) teratogen 110) alcohol 111) Cesarean section 112) afterbirth 113) Fetal distress 114) preterm 115) small 116) The first two weeks are called the germinal stage. This stage starts with conception and ends when the zygote is implanted in the mother's uterine lining. During that time, the fertilized egg cell will divide and differentiate. It will form a trophoblast (outer layer) which will eventually become the placenta, umbilical cord, amniotic sac, and other structures that support the developing baby. The inner layer (blastocyst) will eventually become the baby. The second stage (weeks 3 to 8) is called the embryonic stage. During this stage, three cell layers will form. The ectoderm (outer layer) will become the nervous system (brain and spinal cord), sensory receptors, and outer skin layers. The mesoderm (middle layer) will become the circulatory system, skeleton, muscles, excretory system, reproductive system, the outer layer of the digestive tract, and the inner layer of skin. The endoderm (inner layer) will eventually become the respiratory system and the remainder of the digestive system. During the fetal stage (week 9 until birth), the fetus grows dramatically, the organs further differentiate and become functional, first movements occur, and the heart beats. Eventually, the baby is born.

117) Students should be sure to describe what happens during the three stages of childbirth: (1) dilation and first contractions, (2) delivery, and (3) afterbirth. Students might want to mention the Lamaze method and a father's role during delivery. Students might also discuss the role of medication (such as epidural anesthesia), birthing rooms, "rooming-in," and/or midwives or doulas.

118) A more complete description of a newborn can be found in the text. Students' descriptions should include the facts that newborns' heads are usually very large in relation to their bodies and their skulls are frequently misshapen as a result of being squeezed during the birth process. Their skin may still have remnants of vernix caseosa, which is the white, cheesy coating that protects the skin before birth, so their skin may not, in fact, be "glowing." The baby will be wet due to the amniotic fluid. Newborns can turn their heads and eyes toward voices, and they can see to some extent, so Barry might be able to observe the "pretty brown eyes." The baby should have reflexes such as turning the head when the cheek is stroked, sucking when the lips are touched, and grasping when a finger is placed in the hand.

119) Drinking alcohol might lead to low birth weight, face and head abnormalities, and/or mental retardation Further, Fetal Alcohol Syndrome can occur. This can result in low self-esteem, behavioral and learning problems, and difficulties interacting with others.

120) Doulas are birth attendants. They provide nonmedical support during labor, such as massages and positioning suggestions, and they guide parents as they adjust to caring for the newborn.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Jonah is born weighing as much as the average newborn. Jonah weighs A) 8 pounds.

B) 9.5 pounds.

C) 6 pounds.

D) 7.5 pounds.

1) _______

2) New parents may be surprised to learn that newborns A) sleep for a very small amount of time early in life.

B) lose a small amount of weight in their first days of life.

C) consume a lot during the first few days of life.

D) get few health benefits from their mothers' milk initially.

2) _______

3) Puberty, which marks the start of adolescence, occurs when A) the individual has his or her first sexual experience.

B) the individual reaches his or her teenage years.

C) sex hormones start to trigger the process of sexual maturation.

D) the child spends more time with peers than parents.

3) _______

4) If Django is a typical male, his adolescent growth spurt will peak around the age of A) eighteen.

B) twelve.

C) fourteen.

D) sixteen.

4) _______

5) Carla is excited because her son, Ethan, just demonstrated the rooting reflex. Ethan just A) cried when she left the room.

B) turned when his cheek was stroked.

C) grasped an object placed in his hand.

D) reacted to a loud noise or fall.

5) _______

6) The Moro reflex is also known as the A) perimeter response.

C) parachute reflex.

6) _______ B) startle reflex.

D) environmental factor.

7) In order to assess the health of infants, medical personnel often use the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale, which measures twenty different reflexes. A lack of response, or failure of a reflex to appear or disappear, can signal a problem associated with A) temperament.

B) malnutrition.

C) habituation.

D) neurological development.

7) _______

8) Gross motor development is to fine motor development as A) male is to female.

B) outer is to inner.

C) large is to small.

D) top is to bottom.

8) _______

9) By one month of age, Nikki was able to hold her head upright. She was rolling over when she was three months old, and by six months she could sit up without support. What type of development pattern does this represent?

A) Dorsal B) Proximodistal C) Lateral D) Cephalocaudal

9) _______

10) Due to proximodistal development, we can expect that children will A) recognize letters before they are able to write them.

B) crawl proficiently before they are able to walk well.

C) suck reflexively before they can choose whether to consume.

D) reach with their arms before they can grasp with their hands and fingers.

10) ______

11) One difference between the palmar and pincer grasp is A) using the thumb opposite the forefinger.

11) ______

B) the type of object being grasped.

C) BOTH A and B are correct.

D) Actually, they are two different names for the same thing.

12) Five-month-old Jasmine is playing with her older brother, Horatio. Horatio notices when he hands her a popsicle stick that she takes it by wrapping all four fingers and her thumb around it.

When he hands her a rattle she does the same thing. Jasmine is exhibiting the A) pincer grasp.

B) tripod grasp.

C) complete hand grasp.

D) palmar grasp.

12) ______

13) Esther Thelen and colleagues propose that coordinated, voluntary movement emerges from neurological development, parental encouragement, opportunities to exercise, and maturation of the cognitive systems. The synthesis of these interactive processes is called the A) active systems theory.

B) altered states theory.

C) dynamic systems theory.

D) motor development theory.

13) ______

14) Which of the following would NOT be an example of the dynamic systems theory?

A) Pillar and her brother watch television about an hour per day.

B) Patricia's mom creates games that encourage her to crawl and to climb.

C) Jeb's dad often buys new toys, then hides them for Jeb to find.

D) Babette began crawling at seven months of age and was walking by her first birthday.

14) ______

15) In Mali, mothers encourage babies to sit and stand at an early age, and they often suspend the infants by their arms or legs. Babies raised in this culture are A) typically two to three months behind North American babies in the major motor milestones.

B) more athletic as adults than babies raised in North America.

C) more susceptible to injury during adolescence than babies raised in North America.

D) typically ahead of North American babies in the major motor milestones.

15) ______

16) Wayne and Marsena Dennis found while studying the Hopi ethnic group of the southwestern United States that infants raised in this society take their first steps at an average of fourteen months of age. This is later than the North American average of twelve to thirteen months. Their research focused on the differences between traditional and more "Americanized" Hopi parenting practices, and they found that A) the infants confined to cradle boards were seriously delayed in motor development.

B) the role of physical practice and exercise in motor skills is key to early development.

C) confinement to the cradle board delayed walking by only two days on average.

D) the infants of the "Americanized" families were much more advanced in regard to motor development.

16) ______

17) The main purpose of proteins is to A) store energy.

C) provide energy.

17) ______ B) enable muscle contractions.

D) support new growth.

18) To ensure their daughter gets enough calcium, Ken and Lila should provide many A) vegetables to regulate her body temperature.

B) dairy products to maintain her healthy bones.

C) dairy products for strong muscles.

D) vegetables to provide her with enough energy.

18) ______

19) Hugh and Rebecca are concerned about their daughter Grace's intake of carbohydrates because

the y want

to ensure 19) that Grace A) will be properly insulated.

C) will grow properly.

___ ___ B) has enough energy.

D) has healthy bones.

20) To ensure that your child gets enough carbohydrates, you should feed him or her A) cheese.

B) rice.

C) fish.

D) meat.

20) ______

21) Barnaby is short for his age. His muscle mass is reduced, and his teacher thinks his IQ is below average. Given the choices below, Barnaby is most likely suffering from A) malnutrition.

B) anorexia nervosa.

C) steroid overuse.

D) obesity.

21) ______

22) Eighty percent of all children under the age of five who are seriously malnourished are A) living in the United States.

B) Asian.

C) African.

D) living in South America.

22) ______

23) The most frequent nutritional problem in the United States is A) bulimia nervosa.

B) anorexia nervosa.

C) being overweight.

D) malnutrition.

23) ______

24) The National Institutes of Health recommend which of the following to prevent obesity?

A) More physical activity, less screen time, and more sleep B) Less "fast food," more household chores, and more extracurricular activities C) More school-supported physical education and greater use of technology D) Less domineering parents and more athletic organizations at school

24) ______

25) Laika is worried about her friend Naomi because Naomi overeats and then causes herself to throw up immediately afterward. Naomi most likely has A) anorexia nervosa.

B) synaptogenesis.

C) bulimia nervosa.

D) myelination.

25) ______

26) In comparing anorexia nervosa to bulimia nervosa, research shows that A) three times as many people suffer from anorexia as suffer from bulimia.

B) anorexia is most common among females, and bulimia is most common among males.

C) anorexia usually appears between the ages of 14 and 18, whereas bulimia emerges in later adolescence.

D) anorexia is highly linked to genetics, but bulimia rarely runs in families.

26) ______

27) If Scott is a typical newborn, his brain and head are A) about one-tenth of their adult size.

B) more than half their adult size.

C) about 90% of their adult size.

D) about one-quarter of their adult size.

27) ______

28) A newborn's head is approximately 1/4 of the total body length, and an adult's head A) is about 1/5 of the total body length.

B) is about 1/8 of the total body length.

C) remains at the same ratio.

D) is about 1/10 of the total body length.

28) ______

29) The main function of the spinal cord is to A) allow information to pass between the body and the brain.

B) coordinate complex muscle movements.

C) regulate automatic functions.

29) ______

D) control posture and body orientation.

30) Located at the top of the spinal cord, the brain stem A) controls voluntary muscle movements.

B) organizes articulation for speech output.

C) controls automatic functions.

D) registers sensory input.

30) ______

31) Dr. Watson is studying one of her patients. Using technology, she notes that the patient is showing activation in the frontal lobe. Dr. Watson's patient is most likely to be engaging in which of the following activities?

A) Decoding messages involved with visual processing B) Processing sounds she is hearing C) Organizing, planning, and problem solving D) Tasting and smelling various foods

31) ______

32) Which of the following is NOT one of the lobes of the cortex?

A) Parietal B) Neural C) Temporal

32) ______ D) Occipital

33) Which of the following is one of the main functions of the frontal lobe?

A) Visual processing B) Processing sounds C) Regulating breathing D) Problem solving

33) ______

34) Wernicke's area and Broca's area are associated with the development of A) speech.

B) problem-solving and creativity.

C) hand and eye coordination.

D) balance.

34) ______

35) Broca's area, Wernicke's area, the somatosensory area, and the motor area are a part of the A) cerebrum and the cerebral cortex.

B) brain stem.

C) cerebellum.

D) spinal cord.

35) ______

36) Which of the following correctly describes the functions of axons and dendrites?

A) Dendrites receive messages, and axons send messages.

B) Dendrites process messages, and axons receive messages.

C) Dendrites process messages, and axons send messages.

D) Dendrites send messages, and axons process messages.

36) ______

37) Myelin sheathes serve a function to axons that is most similar to which of the following?

A) How coats warm cold people B) How microphones allow sounds to be heard C) How our hearts keep beating D) How electric fences contain animals

37) ______

38) Chemical neurotransmitters flow between the terminal buttons of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron. The open spaces between these two sites are called A) synapses.

B) neural voids.

C) myelin vacuoles.

D) synonyms.

38) ______

39) Twenty weeks after conception, the cerebral cortex has around 80 billion neurons. Neurons continue to form at this point, A) and triple by adulthood.

B) and quadruple by adulthood.

C) and double by adulthood.

D) but then the brain loses about as many as it gets.

39) ______

40) Which of the following statements about neurons is TRUE? A) Neurons are unable to migrate.

B) The cerebral cortex contains approximately 80 billion neurons.

C) Prior to birth, new neurons form very slowly.

D) Neurons seldom die before the person's birth.

40) ______

41) After neurons form, they mature during the processes of A) synaptic pruning and myelination.

B) synaptogenesis and glialysis.

C) migration and synaptic pruning.

D) synaptogenesis and myelination.

41) ______

42) Which of the following is NOT a function of the glial cells?

A) To activate electrochemical stimulation B) To remove waste products C) To provide structural support D) To form myelin sheaths

42) ______

43) Which of the following occurs due to synaptic pruning?

A) Synapses die out or are "lost."

B) New synapses constantly emerge.

C) Synapses help neurons grow stronger.

D) Synapses help neurons learn to communicate.

43) ______

44) Which of the following refers to experience-expectant development?

A) Whether handshakes or kisses are used as greetings B) Whether a person can rollerblade C) Whether babies form bonds with caregivers D) Which language the person learns

44) ______

45) Which of the following is TRUE regarding experience-dependent development?

A) Examples of experience-dependent development include hand-eye coordination and language.

B) Experience-dependent development tends to be hardwired in the brain.

C) Experience-dependent development offers us the potential for lifelong learning.

D) Experience-dependent development is associated with universal experiences and activities.

45) ______

46) Eugene's ability to learn to ride a unicycle is based on A) his synaptic pruning capacity.

B) the adequacy of his Broca's area.

C) experience-dependent development.

D) experience-expectant development.

46) ______

47) Experience-dependent development is related to A) sets of common processes and tendencies.

B) lifelong learning.

C) activities shared by all humans.

D) experiences that are universal.

47) ______

48) Kolb, Gibb, & Dallison (1999) studied the effect of enriched environments on rats of various ages.

Based on their findings, which of the following is TRUE? A) The effect of the experience is dependent on the age of the rat.

B) The enriched environment creates an increase of synapses for younger rats.

C) The effect of the experience is detrimental, regardless of age.

D) The enriched environment is detrimental to older rats.

48) ______

49) Which of these statements concerning "enriched" environments is FALSE?

49) ______

A) Enriched environments can include colorful and varied toys and books.

B) Enriched environments have little effect on experience-expectant or experience-dependent development.

C) Enriched environments can be presented by parents or other caregivers.

D) Enriched environments stimulate the development of the brain.

50) The ability of the brain to remain flexible or malleable until synaptogenesis is complete and until synapses have been pruned and assigned particular functions is referred to as A) neural plasticity.

B) synaptic leisure.

C) brain resilience.

D) synaptic elasticity.

50) ______

51) If an infant is born with a cataract in one eye, the synapses that would normally form and connect to the defective eye may instead become devoted to the healthy eye. This is due to A) plasticity of the visual area.

B) increasing sensitive periods.

C) plasticity of the frontal lobe.

D) decreased pruning in the temporal lobe.

51) ______

52) If Sasha is an adult who recently experienced head trauma and brain damage to her left hemisphere, we would expect A) the same type of recovery as a child who experienced the same thing.

B) plasticity to allow her a nearly complete recovery.

C) her to lose a significant amount of language function.

D) a much better recovery than a child who is not as familiar with language.

52) ______

53) Plasticity is greatest A) just before puberty.

C) during adolescence.

53) ______ B) before the age of two.

D) after sensitive periods.

54) As a result of sensitive periods and plasticity, second languages A) cannot be learned in adulthood for most adults.

B) cannot be learned well in adolescence, but the accents can be.

C) can be learned after age 12, but it is more difficult to master the accent.

D) are processed on the right hemisphere, unlike native languages.

54) ______

55) Children make significant progress in learning language A) as the frontal lobes develop.

B) as the temporal lobes develop.

C) as the cerebellum develops.

D) as the motor area develops.

55) ______

56) The parietal lobes A) allow for the controlling of emotions.

B) are responsible for hand-eye coordination.

C) are most active prior to the age of 2.

D) organize and plan behavior.

56) ______

57) One of psychology's founders, William James, believed that an infant's mental experience is A) frustrating, as movement is limited.

B) impossible to measure.

C) filled with confusion.

D) joyful, if parents are responsive.

57) ______

58) In regard to their vision, Fantz (1963) found that newborns A) preferred newsprint more than a plain colored disk.

B) preferred red disks over blue ones.

C) cannot be measured with a preferential-looking technique.

D) preferred a bull's-eye to a face.

58) ______

59) Mohammed wants to choose a toy that his newborn will enjoy looking at. His best choice is to pick one that A) features no real pattern.

B) is straight, rather than curved.

C) does not move.

D) has sharp color contrasts.

59) ______

60) In order to recognize faces, one must focus on the internal features such as the eyes and the mouth. At what age do infants begin switching their focus from external features (hairline and chin) and show recognition of familiar faces?

A) Two months of age B) Three months of age C) Four months of age D) One month of age

60) ______

61) Langlois et al. (1987) had college students rate the "attractiveness" of a face using photos of female adults. When an "attractive" photo was paired with an "unattractive" photo and shown to two-month-old children, the infants looked longer at the attractive photo. Langlois et al. concluded that A) infants prefer male faces to female faces.

B) infants prefer female faces to male faces.

C) infants are born with an innate sense of beauty.

D) infants are able to observe and favor particular faces at a very early age.

61) ______

62) An important limitation of the preferential-looking technique lies in the fact that A) if there is a preference, researchers are unable to record the time spent fixating on the selection.

B) illumination within the chamber is distracting to many infants.

C) many infants tested show extreme claustrophobia in the chamber.

D) if there is no preference, one cannot assume the infants are able to visually discriminate between the selections.

62) ______

63) The habituation-dishabituation technique is used by researchers to A) analyze which object the infant prefers to look at.

B) observe the infant's response to familiar stimuli.

C) analyze whether the infant is able to discriminate between novel and familiar stimuli.

D) observe the infant's response to novel stimuli.

63) ______

64) The first time four-month-old Lexi sees her new toy, she gets really excited. Over time, she becomes less excited by that toy. Lexi has A) dishabituated to that toy.

B) habituated to that toy.

C) yet to establish a schema for that toy.

D) demonstrated neural pruning.

64) ______

65) Four-month-old Barry is shown an orange circle. He looks at it for eight seconds. Upon successive showings, Barry's interest falls with each repeated trial until he looks for only two seconds. When a purple circle is substituted, Barry looks at the object for nine seconds. From this test, one may conclude that Barry A) is able to discern the difference between orange and purple.

B) prefers the color orange over the color purple.

C) is unable to discern the difference between orange and purple.

D) prefers the color purple over the color orange.

65) ______

66) As an infant, Felix was tested repeatedly with the habituation-dishabituation strategy and continually showed a high degree of dishabituation when presented with novel stimuli. What can we predict concerning his intelligence in later childhood?

66) ______

A) Felix will likely have diminished cognitive functions throughout childhood.

B) Felix will likely score quite well on intelligence tests.

C) Felix will likely score below average on intelligence tests.

D) There is no correlation between degree of dishabituation and intelligence.

67) Infants exposed prenatally to cocaine tend to show A) increased habituation and dishabituation.

B) reduced habituation and dishabituation.

C) an inability to discriminate between colors.

D) an inability to discriminate between shapes.

67) ______

68) Roseanne is alarmed to learn that her newborn's vision is not 20/20. Her doctor calms her down by telling her that this is typical and that it should be 20/20 by what age?

A) Two months B) Six to twelve months C) The beginning of the second year D) Three to five months

68) ______

69) Color vision is relatively mature by A) twelve months of age.

C) six months of age.

69) ______ B) nine months of age.

D) three months of age.

70) What do researchers typically use the visual cliff to measure?

A) Peripheral vision B) Color vision C) Depth perception D) Whether children have 20/20 vision

70) ______

71) After Gibson and Walk's original studies, researchers now believe that depth perception exists as early as A) two months of age.

B) eight months of age.

C) four months of age.

D) six months of age.

71) ______

72) In order to accurately measure auditory perception within the womb, researchers apply external noises or patterns of sounds and monitor the fetus' A) pulse and involuntary muscle contractions.

B) brainwave activity and number of eyeblinks.

C) heart rate and brain-wave activity.

D) breathing and kicking.

72) ______

73) When Camilla talks to her six-week old nephew, she moves closer and exaggerates her words with "sing-song" quality. This special style of talking is termed A) unadorned speech.

B) lucid speech.

C) infant-regard speech.

D) child-directed speech.

73) ______

74) Compared to adults, children may be A) better able to detect changes in frequency.

B) better able to hear softer sounds.

C) more sensitive to higher frequencies of sound.

D) more sensitive to lower frequencies of sound.

74) ______

75) In studies of infant reactions to the human voice, newborns generally A) prefer to listen to the voices of their fathers as opposed to voices of unfamiliar males.

B) prefer to listen to the voices of their mothers as opposed to voices of unfamiliar females.

C) show minimal reaction to the human voice until the age of four months.

D) cannot distinguish between their mother's voice and those of unfamiliar females.

75) ______

76) Which of the following statements concerning auditory perception is FALSE? A) At two months of age, infants show a preference for child-directed speech.

B) Newborns prefer familiar voices over novel ones.

C) At four months of age, infants prefer to listen to human voices over silence.

D) Newborns prefer the voices of their fathers over those of unfamiliar males.

76) ______

77) Imagine that Janice's mother sang Daniel Powter's song "Bad Day" twice a day during her last six weeks of pregnancy. Three days after Janice was born, she was tested for her recognition of the song. Her pacifier was connected to a switch that would activate a recording of her mother's rendition of "Bad Day" or her mother singing Beyonce's "Irreplaceable." Janice could chose the song by adjusting her rate of sucking. In repeated trials, Janice always chose the familiar "Bad Day." Given these results, as well as what you have learned about auditory perception, what can you conclude?

A) Janice was able to respond to auditory stimuli only after she was born.

B) Janice perceived something different about the two songs.

C) Janice was unable to perceive rhythmic, melodic, or tonal differences.

D) Janice had little or no ability to perceive auditory stimuli before she was born.

77) ______

78) After hearing about DeCasper and Spence's research, Selvi would be likely to A) talk to her child in a singsong voice.

B) let her new baby look at her often.

C) give her baby a pacifier daily.

D) read to her baby while the baby is still in her womb.

78) ______

79) Newborns show positive facial expressions in response to A) fishy odors.

B) rotten egg odors.

C) the smell of vanilla.

D) the smell of bananas.

79) ______

80) Most breast-fed newborns A) show no recognition of their mother's smell.

B) prefer the smell of their mother over the smell of unfamiliar females.

C) recognize their father's smell.

D) prefer the smell of their father over the smell of unfamiliar males.

80) ______

81) In regard to smell, research has found that A) at 3 or 4 days old, infants prefer the smell of breast milk to that of formula milk, regardless of whether they were breast-fed.

B) infants cannot discriminate between their amniotic fluid and the fluid of other infants.

C) at 3 or 4 days old, infants prefer the smell of breast milk to that of formula milk only if they were breast-fed.

D) children are better than adults at discriminating between similar odors.

81) ______

82) In regard to taste, researchers have found that A) babies cannot tell that substances are sour until about 6 months of age.

B) reaction to salty flavors develops at about one month of age.

C) babies actually enjoy bitter tastes right from birth.

D) newborns smile and make sucking movements with sweet tastes.

82) ______

83) As a result of intermodal perception, Reuben might A) enjoy raw tomatoes, but not like tomato sauce.

B) enjoy the taste, smell, and sound of popcorn.

83) ______

C) prefer one perfume to another.

D) have more sensitive hearing than his brother.

84) Which of the following is TRUE regarding intermodal perception?

A) Intermodal perception ability can serve as a reliable indicator of later cognitive functioning.

B) Even infants with depressed or diseased nervous systems are very competent at intermodal perception.

C) Infants need a significant amount of learning in order to connect the sensory input that leads to intermodal perception.

D) Infants are typically confused by complex sensory input to their auditory, visual, and olfactory systems.

84) ______

85) Jean Piaget's constructivist view basically claimed that newborns A) prefer using only one of their senses at a time.

B) do not realize that what they see may be what they are hearing.

C) are unable to determine which sense they are using.

D) are able to combine their senses well at birth.

85) ______

86) The leading cause of death among U.S. 15- to 24-year-olds is A) suicide.

B) car accidents.

C) alcohol and drug overdose.

D) homicide.

86) ______

87) In the United States, most deaths of children ages 1 to 4 can be attributed to A) car accidents.

B) fires and drowning.

C) SIDS. D) diseases and illnesses, such as cancer and heart disease.

87) ______

88) Josie works for her local Child Protective Services organization. She is most likely to verify claims of which of the following?

A) Neglect B) Sexual abuse C) Physical abuse D) ALL of these have about equal rates of verified cases.

88) ______

89) Which of the following is TRUE in regard to which children are most likely to be abused?

A) Girls most often suffer physical abuse between the ages of 5 and 10.

B) Caucasian children have higher rates of abuse and neglect than Native American or African American children.

C) Maltreatment rates are highest for children under the age of 1.

D) Girls and boys are equally likely to be victims of sexual abuse.

89) ______

90) Which of the following is TRUE in regard to who typically abuses children?

A) Mothers commit more acts of physical abuse and neglect than do fathers.

B) About half of all acts of abuse and neglect are committed by parents.

C) Mothers and fathers are equally likely to sexually abuse their children.

D) ALL of the above statements are correct.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What causes the Moro reflex? What does the child do when demonstrating the Moro reflex?

92) What were the two recommendations from the National Institutes of Health to prevent obesity?

93) What are the main functions of the brain stem?

94) What is myelination and why is it important?

95) What is the difference between experience-expectant and experience-dependent development?

96) What were the results and implications of the visual cliff testing?

97) What are the four standard categories of child maltreatment?

98) What were some of the special types of equipment that physical therapist Deanna Walsh said that she uses to help children with movement problems?

99) In 1999, what did Georgia governor Zell Miller propose doing in order to affect "the spatial, temporal reasoning that underlies math and engineering and even chess" and to help "those trillions of brain connections to develop"?

100) According to Dawn, the woman who was a victim of sexual abuse during childhood, what are some of the reasons why no-one helped her?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) At birth, the average newborn weighs ________ pounds.

101) ____________ 102) Maximum secretion of growth hormones occurs during periods of ________.

102) ____________

103) ________ are involuntary movements that are elicited by the environment.

103) ____________

104) ________ motor development involves coordinating movements with the large muscles in the body.

104) ____________

105) By ten months of age, infants typically demonstrate the ________ grasp, which involves using the thumb opposite the forefinger to pick up or grab objects.

105) ____________

106) A nutritional deficiency caused by inadequate intake of calories, protein, vitamins, or minerals is called ________.

106) ____________

107) According to the World Health Organization, 80% of all children under the age of 5 who are seriously malnourished live on the continent of ________.

107) ____________

108) A girl with a distorted body image, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a refusal to maintain a minimally healthy body weight is probably suffering from ________.

108) ____________

109) Located on the temporal lobe, ________ area processes speech input.

109) ____________

110) ________ are specialized cells that process information and allow communication in the nervous system.

110) ____________

111) ________ is the brain's tendency to remain somewhat flexible until synaptogenesis is complete.

111) ____________

112) ________ is the tendency to reduce responsiveness to stimuli that are presented repeatedly.

112) ____________

113) The singsong way that adults and older children speak to infants by speaking slowly and clearly with exaggerated intonation is called ________ speech.

113) ____________

114) The process of combining or integrating information across sensory modalities is ________.

114) ____________

115) Unlike the constructivist view, Eleanor Gibson's ________ view claimed that important features in the environment can be detected using multiple senses.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Distinguish between experience-expectant and experience-dependent development. Then explain how "enriched" environments affect each of these developmental patterns.

117) Define habituation and describe how researchers use the habituation-dishabituation technique to examine infant visual perception.

118) What are some of the more common safety and health risks that children face and what can be done about them?

119) What are the three major parts of the neuron and what does each do?

120) What is the visual cliff and what typically occurs when babies are measured using it?

1) D 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) A 51) A

52) C 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) C 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) D 62) D 63) C 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) C 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) B 78) D 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) B 86) B 87) D 88) A 89) C 90) A 91) A loud noise or beginning to fall cause the Moro reflex. Infants will extend their arms and legs outward, spread their fingers and toes, and then bring their limbs back to their bodies.

92) At least 60 minutes of vigorous physical activity per day and no more than 2 hours per day of recreational screen time.

93) The brain stem controls automatic functions (such as breathing and heart rate) and regulates the general level of alertness throughout the higher levels of the brain.

94) Myelination involves the growth of the myelin sheath around the axon. The myelin sheath insulates the axon and more than triples the speed of transmission of the impulse.

95) Experience-expectant development refers to experiences the brain has evolved to "expect" (such as attachment to caregivers), whereas experience-dependent development deals with experiences that are more unique to that particular individual (such as which language his or her family speaks).

96) Most 6-month-olds refused to crawl onto the deep side, and this told researchers that depth perception is intact by the time infants can crawl.

97) Physical abuse, neglect, sexual abuse, and psychological abuse 98) Special braces, shoe inserts, crutches, walkers, adapted bicycles, and wheelchairs 99) He wanted the state to spend $105,000 to send a CD or cassette of classical music home with every baby born in the state.

100) Her mother be quite violent when she was angry, so maybe her mom saw her stepfather's violence as acceptable.

She lived in a very small town where it was just not acceptable to make waves, and the issue of abuse was only beginning to become public. She once told her best friend's mother, and the mother became irate and accused her of horrific lies, so she nevermentioned it again. Also, her stepfather was respected in the community. He was from the largest family in town, taught Sunday school, and was a Boy Scout leader.

101) 7.5 102) deep sleep 103) Reflexes 104) Gross 105) pincer 106) malnutrition 107) Asia 108) anorexia nervosa 109) Wernicke's 110) Neurons 111) Plasticity 112) Habituation 113) child-directed 114) intermodal perception 115) ecological 116) Experience-expectant development is associated with the universal experiences and activities of a species such as those involving language functions and hand-eye coordination. In this type of development, extra synapses form and are later pruned according to the organism's experiences. In other words, the organism's brain is "hardwired" to expect these experiences to occur at some point during development. In contrast, experience-dependent development is associated with specific rather than universal experiences and activities. In this type of development, each member of the species grows individualized circuits of synapses that code or control its own unique experiences (e.g., playing the bassoon or surfboarding). Experiments with rats indicate that enriched environments stimulate experience-expectant development in younger rats (i.e., the enriched environment leads to a decrease in synapses through synaptic pruning) and experience-dependent development in adult rats (i.e., the enriched environment leads to an increase in synapses).

117) Habituation refers to the tendency of an organism to reduce its responsiveness to a stimulus as a result of repeated exposure. Researchers have used their knowledge of habituation to obtain evidence regarding infants' visual perception abilities. In using the habituation-dishabituation technique, researchers present infants with the same visual stimulus repeatedly until the infants habituate, or show decreased responsiveness, to it. Then the experimenter presents a new stimulus. If the infant shows "dishabituation," that is, if the infant shows renewed interest and responsiveness to this new stimulus, the infant's behavior is said to indicate that he or she has processed the difference between the first stimulus and the second stimulus. In other words, the infant can visually perceive the differences between the two stimuli.

118) Students might mention the risks of diseases (such as cancer, heart disease, and pneumonia) and accidents (such as car accidents, drowning, and fires). They could also note the impact of malnutrition. To reduce risk, kids should have immunizations, always use car seats properly while in the car, be supervised near water, be kept safe from heat (such as matches, lighters, and stoves), be kept away from guns, outlets, and household cleaners, be aware of "stranger danger," and be sufficiently and nutritionally well fed. Students might also wish to discuss various types of child maltreatment and how to reduce risk.

119) The cell body (soma) contains the nucleus, keeps the cell alive, and receives information from other neighboring neurons. The dendrites receive messages from nearby neurons, while the axons send electrochemical signals to other neurons.

120) It is a special table designed to measure visual perception in infants. Babies typically will stop at or before the "drop

off" beca use they notic e the chan ge in dept h.

Infan ts with little craw ling expe rienc e typic ally conti nue to craw l and do not perce ive "dept h-atan-e dge."

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Experts in child development generally agree that the most revolutionary and influential theorist in the study of child development was A) Geoffrey Saxe.

B) Jean Piaget.

C) Theophile Simon.

D) Lev Vygotsky.

1) _______

2) When looking at the wrong answers children would provide to questions on standardized intelligence tests, Piaget noted that A) children did not have regular or predictable ways of thinking.

B) children of the same age tended to make the same errors.

C) children's mistakes varied widely from child to child.

D) children of different ages tended to make the same errors.

2) _______

3) When using the clinical method, children are A) first given the Simon-Binet intelligence test and then observed in a laboratory.

B) first asked to give an answer to a problem and then explain their reasons for their answers.

C) examined by Ph.D. clinical psychologists and medical doctors in a hospital setting.

D) tested in small groups in a laboratory setting where their parents are not present.

3) _______

4) According to a constructivist perspective, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) People perceive the environment as it actually exists and do not make any interpretations.

B) There is only one reality, and individuals should not differ in their interpretations of it.

C) People interpret their experiences using their already existing knowledge and experiences.

D) Young children create their own independent interpretations of reality, but adults do not.

4) _______

5) Piaget believed that A) children must not experience cognitive conflict while they are learning.

B) children create their own adaptations to the environment.

C) children passively absorb schemes from the adults around them.

D) once knowledge is created, it is never modified or changed.

5) _______

6) Which of the following statements about "schemes" is FALSE? A) Schemes can involve both physical and mental activity.

B) Schemes are organized patterns of thought and action.

C) Schemes are the major building block of human cognition.

D) Schemes cannot be altered once they are formed.

6) _______

7) According to Piaget, a young child's ability to use a spoon to feed herself and a teenager's ability to play the trumpet are both examples of A) genetic predetermination.

B) stratagems.

C) biological maturation.

D) schemes.

7) _______

8) In thinking about the essential elements of cognitive development, Piaget placed much more emphasis on ________ than on ________.

A) biological maturation; the role of the environment B) the role of the environment; biological maturation C) scaffolding; mediation D) mediation; scaffolding

8) _______

9) According to Piaget, the three main processes that guide our interactions with the environment

are 9)

_______ A) biological maturation, mediation, and collaborative learning.

B) adaptation, scaffolding, and operational thought.

C) organization, adaptation, and reflective abstraction.

D) scaffolding, mediation, and internalization.

10) Which of the following statements regarding the concept of organization is FALSE? A) Organization helps people interpret and understand the many events they encounter.

B) In humans, organization occurs at both the physical and psychological level.

C) Because organization is a biological concept, the way in which information is organized is never inaccurate.

D) People cannot help but try to organize their knowledge and impressions of the world around them.

10) ______

11) Adaptation refers to changes A) that an organism makes to ensure its survival in its current environment.

B) in cognitive structures or the environment that lead to greater understanding.

C) Neither A nor B define adaptation.

D) Both A and B define adaptation.

11) ______

12) Which of the following accurately describes the correct order of the steps involved in adaptation?

A) Accommodation, cognitive equilibrium, assimilation, cognitive disequilibrium, new accommodation B) Accommodation, cognitive disequilibrium, assimilation, cognitive equilibrium, new accommodation C) Assimilation, cognitive disequilibrium, cognitive equilibrium, accommodation, new assimilation D) Assimilation, cognitive disequilibrium, accommodation, cognitive equilibrium, new assimilation

12) ______

13) Assimilation occurs when A) new information is brought into an already existing scheme.

B) a pre-existing scheme is modified in some way that is more adaptive.

C) a person notices something in the environment and then thinks about it.

D) there is movement between equilibrium and disequilibrium.

13) ______

14) Which of the following is an example of assimilation?

A) Anna believed that all sports have balls, but then she learns that hockey is a sport, too.

B) Jennifer tries many different ways to correct her daughter's nail-biting habit.

C) Alex has a hard time learning to use his new computer after working with his old one for so many years.

D) In time, Molly gets better at multiplication and division as a result of her new teacher, Mr. Jaffe.

14) ______

15) Three-year-old Kate sees many squirrels in her front yard. One weekend on a family camping trip, Kate sees a chipmunk, and says, "Look, Dad, a squirrel with no tail!" Calling a chipmunk a squirrel is an example of what Piaget would call A) equilibration.

B) accommodation.

C) assimilation.

D) reflective abstraction.

15) ______

16) Becca used to think that all boys liked firm back rubs. However, her new boyfriend has told her that he prefers gentle massages. According to Piaget, Becca will need to do what with this new

info tion? rma

16)

______ A) Assimilate

B) Disequilibrate

17) According to Piaget, the normal state of mind is A) assimilation.

C) disequilibrium.

C) Accommodate

D) Disregard 17) ______

B) equilibrium.

D) accommodation.

18) Which of the following represents the clearest example of reflective abstraction?

A) "This animal can't fly, but the teacher called it a bird."

B) "This bird is very tiny and small."

C) "This bird is huge and eats meat."

D) "I see that birds come in different shapes and sizes, but all birds have wings."

18) ______

19) According to Piaget's theory, conflicts in thinking are A) symptoms of immaturity.

B) signs of cognitive laziness.

C) steps toward success.

D) feelings to be avoided.

19) ______

20) The sensorimotor stage lasts from A) age 2 until the child starts school.

C) birth until the child can walk.

20) ______ B) birth until about age 2.

D) about ages 1 to 4.

21) The stage of cognitive development in which children understand the world through their senses and their actions on the environment is called A) sensorimotor.

B) concrete operations.

C) preoperational thought.

D) formal operations.

21) ______

22) Which of the following statements regarding the beginning of the sensorimotor stage is FALSE? A) Children in this stage are able to create mental representations of physical objects outside themselves.

B) Children in this stage "think" by making motor contact with objects.

C) Children in this stage "think" by making sensory contact with objects.

D) Children in this stage learn about the world through their senses (e.g., hearing, seeing, and tasting).

22) ______

23) Children in the sensorimotor stage can learn about their world through all of the following activities EXCEPT A) reaching.

B) grasping.

C) babbling.

D) sucking.

23) ______

24) When you give three-month-old Carmen a new plastic toy, you can easily predict that she will A) ignore it in favor of a familiar toy.

B) put it in her mouth.

C) cry from fear.

D) smile with excitement.

24) ______

25) According to Piaget, once an object is out of direct sensory or motor contact with a child in the earliest substage of sensorimotor development, the child A) cries in an indirect attempt to have the object returned.

B) develops a primitive physical representation of the object's texture.

C) remembers the object and is motivated to search for it.

D) does not know or remember anything about the object.

25) ______

26) Which of the following statements regarding the kinds of information children learn from interaction with the environment during the sensorimotor stage is FALSE? A) Children may learn about the sounds an object makes.

26) ______

B) Children may learn about how one object compares to another.

C) Children may learn about the object's surface texture and weight.

D) Children may learn about how an object can be manipulated.

27) Why did Piaget believe that young infants were basically "stuck" in the "here and now" world?

A) Because young infants cannot engage in representational thought.

B) Because young infants do not have the ability to use symbols.

C) Both A and B are true.

D) Neither A nor B is true.

27) ______

28) Piaget called his first stage of cognitive development the "sensorimotor" stage because young infants A) can engage in some representational thought but without the use of symbols.

B) cannot engage in the processes of organization, assimilation and accommodation.

C) make a conscious choice to engage directly with their environment rather than use symbolic thought.

D) learn about the world of "here and now" through their sensory and motor actions alone.

28) ______

29) Nikita has demonstrated representational thought when she has shown A) reflexive behavior and the onset of language.

B) object permanence and the onset of language.

C) intentionality and onset of language.

D) intentionality and trial-and-error learning.

29) ______

30) To say that a young infant's interaction with the environment is reflexive means that the infant A) can intentionally respond to the environment through physical and mental actions.

B) can engage in trial-and-error learning without anticipating a specific outcome.

C) reacts to the environment without having voluntary control over his or her actions.

D) can engage in trial-and-error learning in a logical and intentional manner.

30) ______

31) Seven-month-old Josef loves squeezing his rubber duck over and over to hear the high-pitched sound it makes. Josef is demonstrating A) reflexive actions.

B) trial-and-error.

C) accommodation.

D) intentionality.

31) ______

32) When a child does something to get specific results, he or she is demonstrating A) abstract thought.

B) assimilation.

C) reflexivity.

D) intentionality.

32) ______

33) When your niece's toy rolls out of sight under her bed, she immediately begins to search for it.

What Piagetian concept does her behavior illustrate?

A) Centration B) Animism C) Accommodation D) Object permanence

33) ______

34) Before the child has grasped object permanence, it is fair to say that a child believes which of the following?

A) Easy come, easy go B) Finders, keepers C) What's mine is mine D) Out of sight, out of mind

34) ______

35) According to Piaget, complete achievement of object permanence usually occurs around A) one year of age.

B) six months of age.

C) two years of age.

D) eighteen months of age.

35) ______

36) When faced with an invisible displacement problem, an infant A) watches an object being hidden in one location, and then the object is secretly moved to a different location.

B) watches two objects being hidden in separate locations, and then watches as the two objects are switched.

C) watches two objects being hidden in the same location, and then one object is secretly moved to a different location.

D) watches an object being hidden in one location, and then watches as it is moved to a different location.

36) ______

37) By about eighteen months of age, an infant can solve ________ displacement problems but not ________ displacement problems.

A) mental; physical B) invisible; visible C) physical; mental D) visible; invisible

37) ______

38) By about ________ months of age, a child can typically solve invisible displacement problems.

A) 3 B) 24 C) 6 D) 18

38) ______

39) Which of the following abilities does NOT develop during the preoperational stage?

A) Object permanence B) Fantasy play C) Symbolic play D) Intuitive thought

39) ______

40) Between eighteen months and two years of age, children's vocabulary typically increases by a little more than A) five hundred words.

B) one hundred words.

C) three hundred words.

D) two hundred words.

40) ______

41) When children can use one object to stand for or represent another, they are said to be able to engage in A) social play.

B) symbolic play.

C) make-believe play.

D) fantasy play.

41) ______

42) As a child, Danielle pretended she was a singer on the TV show "American Idol." This is an example of A) social play.

B) make-believe play.

C) symbolic play.

D) fantasy play.

42) ______

43) A primary difference between intuitive thought and logic is that A) logic is based on a formal system of rules, whereas intuitive thought is based on personal experience.

B) logic is egocentric, whereas intuitive thought involves the ability to take other people's perspectives into account.

C) intuitive thought develops in the formal operations stage, whereas logic develops during the preoperational stage.

D) intuitive thought is more symbolic and language-based, whereas logic is more artificial and centrated.

43) ______

44) Three common characteristics of preoperational thinking are A) egocentrism, conservation, and reversibility.

B) egocentrism, animism, and artificialism.

C) animism, artificialism, and dynamic transformation.

44) ______

D) conservation, reversibility, and dynamic transformation.

45) The three-mountains task measures children's A) ability to conserve mass and area.

B) level of egocentrism.

C) ability to make states-transformation judgments.

D) depth perception.

45) ______

46) According to Piaget, children's difficulty in understanding that others may perceive the world differently than they do is called A) artificialism.

B) egocentrism.

C) lack of conservation.

D) animism.

46) ______

47) When three-year-old Josh is asked what to get his father for his birthday, Josh says, "A dump truck." In reality, Josh — not his father — is the one who would want a dump truck. Josh just demonstrated what type of thinking?

A) Animistic B) Centrated C) Reversible D) Egocentric

47) ______

48) A preoperational child's tendency to believe that lifeless objects have the same lifelike characteristics as human beings is known as A) intuitive realism.

B) animism.

C) artificialism.

D) object realism.

48) ______

49) As a young child, Grace felt sorry for the unused ornaments and believed that they felt lonely and forgotten. This is most clearly an example of A) artificialism.

B) make-believe play.

C) egocentrism.

D) animism.

49) ______

50) A preoperational child's tendency to believe that natural events are controlled or caused by someone or some divine force is known as A) animism.

B) artificialism.

C) make-believe play.

D) egocentrism.

50) ______

51) When children understand that the amount of water in a tall, thin glass may be equal to the amount of water in a short, wide glass, they are demonstrating A) trial-and-error learning.

B) conservation.

C) representational thought.

D) intuitive thought.

51) ______

52) When Piaget used the word "conserved," it meant to A) remain the same.

B) change perspectives.

C) understand cause-and-effect.

D) accumulate freely.

52) ______

53) Three-year-old Dawn is given a brownie. She gets upset and says that she wants "more." So her father cuts the brownie into two pieces, and now Dawn is happier. Dawn's thinking shows that she has not yet learned to do what?

A) Conserve B) Assimilate C) Accommodate D) Centrate

53) ______

54) When children's thinking is "decentered," it means that they A) can consider multiple aspects of a problem at the same time.

B) can reverse operations in addition and multiplication problems.

C) can usually engage in egocentric thinking.

D) can't think about a problem from other people's perspectives.

54) ______

55) Show four-year-old Enrique five toy horses and three toy cows. Then ask, "Are there more horses or more animals?" If Enrique responds, "More horses," he is probably in the A) concrete operations stage.

B) sensorimotor stage.

C) formal operations stage.

D) preoperational stage.

55) ______

56) Show a seven-year-old child five toy horses and three toy cows. Then ask, "Are there more horses or more animals?" If the child responds, "More animals," he or she is likely to be in the A) concrete operations stage.

B) formal operations stage.

C) sensorimotor stage.

D) preoperational stage.

56) ______

57) Children's understanding that objects and people can belong to more than one category at a time can be observed in their responses to A) conservation problems.

B) class inclusion problems.

C) the three-mountains task.

D) transivity problems.

57) ______

58) Timothy told a four-year-old child that Brian is taller than Griffin, and that Griffin is taller than Simona. Timothy then asked, "Who is the tallest of those three people?" The child is likely to not really know because he or she A) has not achieved object permanence.

B) does not understand transitive inference.

C) is clearly engaging in egocentric thinking.

D) cannot reverse operations.

58) ______

59) When 8-year-old Jamal is asked to sort a pile of circles, squares, and triangles of various sizes and colors, he will probably be A) confused by too many options and unable to sort at all.

B) able to sort by object size only.

C) able to sort the objects in a variety of different ways.

D) able to sort by object shape only.

59) ______

60) "John is hungrier than Bill, and Bill is hungrier than Dwight. Who is hungrier, John or Dwight?"

This type of question is known as a A) transitive inference problem.

B) class inclusion problem.

C) reversibility problem.

D) displacement problem.

60) ______

61) Let's say we read this to a Sasha: "Brooks is faster than Darren, and Darren is faster than Chad.

Who is faster, Brooks or Chad?" If Sasha guesses at the answer or responds, "I can't tell," she is likely in the A) preoperational stage.

B) formal operations stage.

C) concrete operations stage.

D) sensorimotor stage.

61) ______

62) By the age of seven, most children can use logical thought. However, their thinking is closely tied to specific and tangible objects, experiences, and situations. This type of thinking occurs in the A) preoperational stage.

B) formal operations stage.

C) concrete operations stage.

D) sensorimotor stage.

62) ______

63) In Piaget's stage of concrete operations, children can think A) abstractly and hypothetically.

B) only using assimilation.

C) in a decentered way, able to consider multiple aspects of a problem.

63) ______

D) only using accommodation.

64) The primary limitation of children's thinking during the concrete operations stage is that they A) master the skills of transitivity, reversibility, and class inclusion in a sequential manner.

B) cannot think about process and only see the beginning and end of a problem.

C) can think logically only about tangible or familiar materials, contexts, and situations.

D) can only engage in deductive reasoning using activities like the pendulum problem.

64) ______

65) The ability to engage in abstract reasoning about hypothetical events that are not directly experienced develops in which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

A) Concrete operations B) Sensorimotor C) Formal operations D) Preoperational

65) ______

66) If you ask a child what she would do if she had a "third eye," she might respond by saying things like "spy on my older brother" or "put it on the top of my foot so I could see under things." These answers indicate that the child is capable of A) abstract thought.

B) perspective-taking.

C) transitive thinking.

D) reversibility.

66) ______

67) During the ________ stage, adolescents begin to think logically about abstract concepts such as truth, love, justice, and death.

A) preoperational B) formal operations C) concrete operations D) sensorimotor

67) ______

68) Considering all possible outcomes of choosing a certain career utilizes A) egocentric thought.

B) combinational logic.

C) the personal fable.

D) the concept of animism.

68) ______

69) The extreme feelings of self-consciousness that many adolescents feel may be related to the ________ form of adolescent egocentrism.

A) hyper-conscious B) exclusionary C) personal fable D) imaginary audience

69) ______

70) As a result of the personal fable, a female teenager may engage in sexual activity and believe that A) her partner will now like her more.

B) her parents will find out.

C) her friends will never find out.

D) she will never get pregnant.

70) ______

71) Postformal reasoning entails all of the following EXCEPT A) accepting contradictions that exist in the world.

B) understanding that one needs to place others' needs before their own.

C) realizing that all knowledge is subjective.

D) increasing emphasis on what is practical in a given context.

71) ______

72) Research examining Piaget's theory in a number of different cultures indicates that A) all children regardless of cultural background or educational level, eventually attain formal operations.

B) the rates at which individuals achieve formal operations are the same in industrialized and nonindustrialized countries.

C) children seem to pass through Piaget's stages in the same order, but not necessarily at the same ages, worldwide.

D) children seem to pass through Piaget's stages in the same order and at the same ages worldwide.

72) ______

73) Which of the following was NOT listed in your text as one of Piaget's major contributions to developmental psychology?

A) His work stimulated much research throughout the field of child development.

B) His work encouraged fathers to be more active in their children's lives.

C) His work led to changes in education, such as more hands-on materials.

D) His believed that children actively construct their worlds and initiate events.

73) ______

74) Vygotsky believed that children learn to think primarily by A) conditioning and reinforcement.

B) constructing their own knowledge about the world.

C) internalizing the speech they hear around them.

D) trial and error.

74) ______

75) A major distinction between Vygotsky's theory of development and Piaget's theory is that the Vygotsky focused more directly on A) cognitive assessment through standardized tasks.

B) the universality and invariance of cognitive development.

C) different stages of language development.

D) social interaction's contribution to cognitive growth.

75) ______

76) When children are learning a new activity, they often talk aloud in order to give support and directions to themselves. Vygotsky referred to this type of "talking aloud" as A) social speech.

B) mental speech.

C) public speech.

D) private speech.

76) ______

77) Which of the following is an example of Vygotsky's concept of private speech?

A) Sarah and Don whisper to each other about the person near them.

B) Lori tells her son, Mitchell, that his zipper is down.

C) Christopher announces to himself that he is going down the slide.

D) Julie and Jessica are twins who talk to themselves in an imaginary language.

77) ______

78) When children are learning a new activity, they often progress from talking out loud to themselves to whispering softly to silently moving their lips. These decreases in "thinking aloud" reflect a greater degree of A) mediation.

B) scaffolding.

C) guided participation.

D) internalization.

78) ______

79) According to Vygotsky, the process of taking external speech and activity and making it internal and mental is called A) externalization.

B) privatization.

C) internalization.

D) mediation.

79) ______

80) According to Vygotsky, the upper limit of the zone of proximal development refers to the child's A) inability to benefit from using a cognitive strategy.

B) problem-solving skills when assisted by an adult or a more capable peer.

C) attachment to a mother or father figure.

D) behavior during the preoperational stage.

80) ______

81) Ten-year-old Anne needs to prepare a book report for class tomorrow. Her mother is concerned because Anne is frustrated and seems to need help finishing it. Which of the following situations would best exemplify scaffolding behavior on the part of Anne's mother?

A) Writing the report for Anne

81) ______

B) Suggesting Anne talk to a friend about the book's plot C) Allowing Anne to finish the report without help, thereby working through her frustration D) Asking Anne questions about the book's plot 82) Providing supportive assistance and guidance to a child learning a new task or developing a skill is called A) assistive reassurance.

B) proximal development.

C) cognitive synthesis.

D) scaffolding.

82) ______

83) Manuel is learning to play a simple card game with his older sister. Her use of scaffolding might include any of the below EXCEPT A) "When you get to the hard part I'll do it for you."

B) "Remember, Manuel, the eights are wild."

C) "Let's play a practice game before we keep score."

D) "Watch closely as I make this next play, so that you can do it later on."

83) ______

84) Which of the following individuals is scaffolding with his or her child?

A) Ralph and Arianna wash his car together.

B) Susan is holding Ashley while she learns to swim.

C) Connie tells Zander that she knows he can solve his math problems.

D) Nancy lets Nick bake chocolate chip cookies.

84) ______

85) One of the main points of the situated cognition perspective is that children A) develop their cognitive skills by gradually increasing their levels of participation in sociocultural activities.

B) show more advanced cognitive skills when they are tested in familiar contexts as opposed to unfamiliar contexts.

C) show more advanced cognitive skills when they engage with other people in a collaborative manner.

D) develop their cognitive skills through internalization, mediation, scaffolding, and guided participation.

85) ______

86) Paolo has been working in his uncle's bakery since he was able to walk, and he can double or halve recipes with ease. In the classroom, however, he tends to have difficulty with word problems and equations containing fractions. This is an example of A) a phenomenological variant.

B) situated cognition.

C) collaborative learning.

D) stunted interaction.

86) ______

87) Which of the following would be the BEST example of development according to the guided participation perspective?

A) Marcus and Colin work together to solve a math problem that neither of them could solve individually.

B) Amos can play the piano beautifully at home, but has problems playing in front of his peers at school.

C) Tammy moves from watching her family dig clams to digging in the sand with her older brother to actually finding clams on her own.

D) Enrique moves from talking out loud to whispering to himself to silently moving his lips as he ties his shoes.

87) ______

88) One difference between the guided participation view and Vygotsky's perspective is that from the guided participation view, A) greater emphasis is placed on developmental changes in children's social roles.

88) ______

B) less skilled individuals gradually take on more and more task responsibilities.

C) greater emphasis is placed on how children internalize their culture's psychological tools.

D) individuals with greater skills structure experiences for less skilled individuals.

89) According to the idea of "socially shared cognition," A) thinking extends beyond the individual and includes that of pairs and groups.

B) individuals are unable to think independently.

C) thinking must revert to the question of "whose idea is it?"

D) individuals share information unconsciously through body language.

89) ______

90) If Chris and his coworkers work together to design a new ad campaign, they are demonstrating A) socially shared cognition.

B) situated cognition.

C) central participation.

D) guided participation.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) Name two of the reasons why Piaget's time in Binet's Laboratory was important.

92) According to Piaget, what is a scheme?

93) Provide a clear example of accommodation.

94) In Piaget's theory, what is object permanence?

95) What is conservation in Piaget's theory? Provide an example of a conservation task.

96) Name and describe the two types of adolescent egocentrism.

97) What is the ZPD? 98) Describe the 'Where Did It Go?' tasks, and explain what the three children did.

99) What specific activities does Stacie Anderson use in her school to help children construct knowledge?

100) According to your text, what are some of the arguments in favor of older kindergarten entry ages?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) According to Piaget, the primary building block of cognition is the ________.

101) ____________ 102) The process of adjusting existing schemes to better fit with assimilated information is known as ________.

102) ____________

103) Large cognitive structures that develop out of smaller structures are known as ________.

103) ____________

104) Infants understand the world in terms of both their sensory input and their physical actions by using ________ thought.

104) ____________

105) The ability to form mental symbols that represent real objects or events is known as ________.

105) ____________

106) ________ indicates a belief in one's ability to control the environment because it involves engaging in a behavior to produce a specific result.

106) ____________

107) By about ________ months of age, an infant will attempt to retrieve an object that he or

she had initially

seen that 107) was then complete ly hidden.

____ ____ ____

108) In ________ play, children pretend to be something they are not.

108) ____________

109) The inability to take another person's perspective is known as ________.

109) ____________

110) When Gina tells her mother that it is raining because the clouds are sad, she is demonstrating ________.

110) ____________

111) There are two balls of clay that have the same amount. When one is smashed, Kofi says that the flat one has more if he has not yet mastered ________.

111) ____________

112) The fact that a person can be a son, a husband, a father, a teacher, a volunteer, a friend, and an author is known as ________.

112) ____________

113) Due to the form of adolescent egocentrism called ________, 16-year-old Dora believes that everyone will notice her zit.

113) ____________

114) Vygotsky's concept of ________ speech refers to the speech we hear as people talk around us or to us.

114) ____________

115) Providing help while a child develops a mental function or learns to do a certain task is called ________.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Explain why Piaget considered the development of representational thought the "key" to freeing children from the "here and now."

117) Explain why Piaget believed that representational thought was necessary for the development of object permanence.

118) First, describe a preoperational child's likely response to the conservation-of-liquid task. Then discuss how centration, focus on static endpoints, and lack of reversibility are important limitations to children's preoperational thinking during the conservation-of-liquid task.

119) Describe Piaget's Three Mountain Task and the typical results for children of various ages.

120) Describe what happens to "Sam the Scientist." What does this tells us about him?

1) B 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) B

52) A 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) D 77) C 78) D 79) C 80) B 81) D 82) D 83) A 84) B 85) B 86) B 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) He realized that children were active in their thinking. He found similarities in the errors that children of similar ages make. Piaget found that a clinical method of asking children to explain things was invaluable.

92) A scheme is an organized pattern of action or thought.

93) The student's answer must reflect some kind of change in action or thinking as a result of new information.

(Example: Tony believes all dogs have long tails until he sees a short-tailed dog. Now, Tony knows dogs can have short or long tails.)

94) Object permanence is the fact that objects, people, or events continue to exist even when the child cannot see or hear them.

95) Conservation is the understanding that certain properties of an object stay the same, even though appearances may change. For example, if you pour the water from a tall, thin glass into a short, wide glass, there is still the same amount of water.

96) Some adolescents believe that there is an "imaginary audience" that is just as concerned with his or her behavior as he or she is. Some teens tend to believe that his or her experiences are unique, or that he or she is invulnerable -- the

"pers onal fable."

97) The Zone of Proximal Development is Vygotsky's concept of the distance between a child's actual developmental level as determined by independent problem solving and the child's level of potential development as determined through problem solving under adult guidance or in collaboration with more capable peers. In other words, it is the range of problems a child can solve if given some assistance.

98) Parents showed their child a toy and then hid the toy under a blanket. On a second trial, the same thing was done, except that the toy was then moved to a second place. The six-month-old (Asher) simply cried and didn't look for it both times, whereas the eleven-month-old (Paul David) found it on the first trial, but only looked in the first location on the second trial. The 25-month-old (Akindele) found it both times.

99) She uses hands-on activities, such as having children sort shapes and then list what they know about each shape.

She poses questions about various shapes and their similarities and differences with other shapes. Students also build towers with cubes to represent each number.

100) Older children are biologically, cognitively, and socially more mature, and are better able to take advantage of formal instruction.

101) scheme 102) accommodation 103) macroequilibrations 104) sensorimotor 105) representational or symbolic thought 106) Intentionality 107) twelve 108) fantasy 109) egocentrism 110) animism 111) conservation 112) class inclusion 113) imaginary audience 114) social 115) scaffolding 116) The student should be able to articulate the idea that the ability to think using symbols (i.e., representational thought) enables the young child to think about past events and anticipate, predict, and plan for future possible interactions with the environment. Representational thought also allows children to communicate with others using language. Therefore, children can begin to interact with others using information about the past, present, and future. Representational thought also allows for the development of imagination.

117) Students should articulate the idea that mental representations are necessary in order for an infant to think about or continue to "know" an object after it has been removed from his or her direct sensory or motor contact. Without symbolic thought, infants have no way of maintaining a mental representation of the continued existence of the object.

118) Students should first articulate that in the conservation-of-liquid task, preoperational children typically state that a taller container has more liquid than a shorter container, even though they initially watched the same amount of liquid being measured into two identical containers. Then students should be able to describe the three cognitive problems as they relate to this error: Centration — children tend to focus on the relative heights of the containers rather than on both height and width.

Focus on static endpoints — children tend to focus on the "before" and "after" states rather than on the process or transformation that occurred between these two states.

Lack of reversibility — children typically cannot imagine what would happen if the process or transformation were reversed (i.e., the water was poured back into its original container).

119) Children are shown a three-dimensional mountain scene (made of clay). Children sit on one side of the mountain, and a doll "sits" at another location. Children are asked to describe what the doll sees from its location. The child is

then two-dimensional drawing and must choose which depicts their view and which depicts the doll's view of the scene. show Four-year-olds typically pick cards at random, whereas 5-year-olds have difficulty differentiating between their n view and the doll's view. Most six- and seven-year-olds realize the doll's view is different, but cannot select the some correct cards. Ten-year-olds typically are accurate.

120) Sam watches as a beverage is poured from a short, wide glass into a tall, thin glass and then back again. Sam gets fooled and thinks that the taller, thinner glass contains more. Likewise, he is fooled when one pencil is pushed to the right. He now believes that it is longer. He also mistakenly believes that the flattened Play Dough has more than the unflattened one. These demonstrations show us that Sam does not yet understand conservation.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) According to the text, which of the following situations is a primary reason for the development of the field of information processing?

A) Strong empirical support for Piaget's cognitive development theory B) Linguists improved understanding of humans' use of language C) Scientists' growing awareness of cognitive development in the great apes D) Developments in computer science and related information technology fields

1) _______

2) In the analogy between computers and humans, the computer's operating system (CPU) is analogous to A) the brain.

B) long-term memory store.

C) our strategies.

D) waking up and sleeping.

2) _______

3) Which of the following is NOT a general assumption of information-processing approaches?

A) Computer models can help us understand how humans think.

B) Human processing capacity is limited.

C) Changes in processing efficiency and in knowledge base determine cognitive development.

D) Cognitive skills are global and domain-general.

3) _______

4) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the capacity of people's information processing abilities?

A) Children are limited in their information processing capacity, but adults are not.

B) Once a person's processing limit is reached, he or she will begin making cognitive errors.

C) Not everyone has a limit to his or her ability to process information.

D) People's information processing abilities are genetically determined and do not change.

4) _______

5) Tatum can think about six things at a time. Six is Tatum's processing A) limit.

B) capacity.

C) summation.

5) _______ D) efficiency.

6) Processing capacity refers to the amount of information a person can A) sustain attention on at one time.

B) consciously inhibit at one time.

C) remember or think about at one time.

D) selectively attend to at one time.

6) _______

7) To measure Heidi's processing capacity, Dr. Lamping could A) give Heidi a list of words to unscramble and see how many she can accurately unscramble.

B) time how long it takes Heidi to count backward by sevens from 100.

C) determine how many crossword puzzles Heidi could solve accurately before she needs a break.

D) read a list of grocery items and see if Heidi could say them back in the exact same order.

7) _______

8) Ten-year-old John is given a test in which he is required to remember as many words as he can in exact order after they have been presented at a high rate of speed. This test is designed to measure John's A) autobiographical memory.

B) processing capacity.

C) knowledge base.

D) verbatim traces.

8) _______

9) According to an information processing perspective, how can changes in processing capacity explain age differences in performance on the Piagetian conservation problems?

A) Relative to older children, younger children are better able to mentally reverse operations because they are "centered" on only one aspect of the problem at a time.

9) _______

B) Relative to older children, younger children's lower processing capacity may make it more difficult for them to think about two or more aspects of the problem (e.g., height and width) at the same time.

C) Relative to older children, younger children are better able to switch their attention back and forth between two different aspects of the problem.

D) Relative to older children, younger children's lower processing capacity may enable them to more easily reverse certain operations.

10) According to information processing perspectives, ________ refers to the amount of information a person can remember or think about at one time, whereas ________ refers to how effectively a person can work with information.

A) processing capacity; processing efficiency B) processing limit; processing ability C) processing ability; processing limit D) processing efficiency; processing capacity

10) ______

11) The difference between operating space and storage space is A) one is used alone, and one involves working with others.

B) one is being used at the moment, and one is for memory.

C) one refers to capacity, and one refers to duration.

D) Actually, they are two terms for the same thing.

11) ______

12) Sonia can tie her shoes while barely paying attention to what she is doing due to A) self-regulation.

B) automaticity.

C) metacognition.

D) a fuzzy trace.

12) ______

13) A benefit of automaticity is that it A) allows for more sophisticated and complex ways of thinking.

B) allows the person to consider other dimensions of the task.

C) frees up cognitive space for other tasks.

D) ALL of the above are advantages of automaticity.

13) ______

14) When four-month-old Sylvia continues to gaze at her mother, she is displaying A) processing efficiency.

B) automaticity.

C) metamemory.

D) attention.

14) ______

15) The ability to focus on an object without being distracted by other objects is known as A) accessibility.

B) automaticity.

C) attention.

D) alertness.

15) ______

16) While trying to balance her checkbook, Deniece is able to ignore both the telephone ringing and her barking dog who wants to go outside. In this situation, Deniece is displaying her ability to A) sustain her attention.

B) inhibit her responses to irrelevant stimuli.

C) selectively attend to stimuli.

D) all of the above.

16) ______

17) If Everett turns off the radio, takes notes while reading, and asks himself if his current thoughts are relevant to his current task, he is demonstrating A) inhibition of irrelevant responses.

B) automaticity.

C) selective attention.

D) various attention strategies.

17) ______

18) If Kobe has ADHD, which of the following symptoms is Kobe LEAST likely to possess?

18) ______

A) Inability to sustain attention C) Limited automaticity of tasks 19) The signs of ADHD typically emerge A) during the elementary school years.

C) in the first days or weeks of life.

B) Excessive activity levels D) Deficient impulse control 19) ______ B) prenatally.

D) before the age of 7.

20) The two phases of ADHD involve A) early high levels of both inattentiveness and hyperactivity and a later decrease of both.

B) early signs of hyperactivity and later inattentiveness.

C) early signs of inattentiveness and later hyperactivity.

D) early low levels of both inattentiveness and hyperactivity and later high levels of both.

20) ______

21) Cory has ADHD and is growing into middle childhood. It is MOST typical for Cory's symptoms of A) both hyperactivity and inattentiveness to improve.

B) hyperactivity to improve, while inattentiveness remains.

C) hyperactivity to remain, while inattentiveness improves.

D) both hyperactivity and inattentiveness to remain constant.

21) ______

22) Which of the following is NOT a type of ADHD? A) Predominantly inattentive ADHD C) Predominantly hyperactive ADHD

22) ______ B) Combined ADHD D) Environmentally determined ADHD

23) Which of the following facts regarding ADHD is TRUE? A) The most common type of ADHD is predominantly inattentive.

B) Parenting and problems with the temporal lobes are usually the causes of ADHD. C) ADHD rates are about 3 times higher for boys than for girls.

D) About 10 to 15% of all children meet the criteria for ADHD.

23) ______

24) If Jordan is a typical child with ADHD, we would expect him to A) get some form of special education.

B) drop out of school eventually.

C) be expelled from school eventually.

D) NONE of the above is true.

24) ______

25) In regard to treatments and cures for ADHD, your text mentions that currently A) behavior management works well when parents and teachers consistently use the techniques.

B) there is a pharmaceutical cure, but it only works for some children with relatively mild symptoms.

C) psychoanalytic treatments have consistently been shown to be effective forms of treatment.

D) there is a cure involving a combination of psychotropic and psychoactive medicines.

25) ______

26) Of the following, which area of human information processing has been most heavily researched?

A) Memory B) Metacognition C) Self-regulation D) Selective attention

26) ______

27) Kenge is chunking. Basically, this will allow him to A) respond quickly.

B) understand accurately.

C) group information.

D) solve problems.

27) ______

28) According to the stores model, the place where we store information that we are not consciously

thin king

about at 28) the present moment but that we might use in the future is called the A) long-term store.

C) sensory store.

___ ___

B) short-term store.

D) attentional store.

29) Which of the following statements regarding the stores model of memory is TRUE? A) An individual is consciously aware of information in all three memory stores.

B) The long-term store has a finite amount of storage space.

C) Information initially enters the cognitive system through the short-term store.

D) The sensory store holds information for less than two seconds.

29) ______

30) What is believed to control all three memory stores and the processes that pass information among them?

A) Metamemory B) Concept nodes C) Reconstruction D) Executive processor

30) ______

31) In the network models, links are believed to connect what?

A) Concept nodes B) Sensory memories C) Networks D) Chunks

31) ______

32) In ________ models, information is believed to move from one storage facility to another, whereas in ________ models, information is believed to be activated or accessible to different degrees at different times.

A) link; node B) node; link C) stores; network D) network; stores

32) ______

33) Information that is currently active in memory and available for use is said to be in A) working memory.

B) long-term memory.

C) retrievable memory.

D) autobiographical memory.

33) ______

34) The concept of "working memory" within network models of memory is similar to the concept of ________ within the stores model.

A) short-term store B) sensory store C) long-term store D) executive processor

34) ______

35) Working memory and the short-term store are similar in that they both A) require movement of information from one store to another.

B) are limited in capacity and can activate only a certain amount of information.

C) have unlimited capacity and decay over time.

D) make information available to the executive processor.

35) ______

36) As with short-term memory, the amount of information that adults can activate in working memory ranges from

36) ______

A) 1 to 3 chunks.

C) 20 to 100 chunks

B) 5 to 9 chunks.

D) 12 to 15 chunks.

37) Marge is trying to remember the name of the new donut store that Homer just told her about.

The name of this store should remain activated in Marge's working memory without the use of some active strategy for approximately A) 30 seconds.

B) 5 minutes.

C) 3 minutes.

D) 1 minute.

37) ______

38) When I look up a phone number in the phone book and I don't have a pen or pencil with me, I repeat the number over and over to myself. This rehearsal of information is best thought of as an attempt to keep the phone number in A) the executive processor.

B) long-term memory.

C) working memory.

D) the sensory register.

38) ______

39) When Alicia is first learning how to read, she keeps the individual letters D-O-G active in her working memory. As her reading skills improve, she will eventually be able to think of these three letters as the word "dog." This ability to take smaller bits of information and create larger bits is known as A) storing.

B) summarizing.

C) chunking.

D) paraphrasing

39) ______

40) An individual's long-term memory may be influenced by difficulties with initial encoding, storage, accessing, and A) decaying.

B) retrieval.

C) decoding.

D) consolidation.

40) ______

41) The "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon, in which you know for sure that you know something but you can't remember it at the moment, is a good example of A) the inability to retrieve information from long-term memory.

B) the inability to move information from short-term store to long-term store.

C) difficulties with encoding information into long-term memory.

D) difficulties with the executive processor.

41) ______

42) Blaine is on "Jeopardy" and is trying to recall the name of the movie that Matt Damon and Ben Affleck wrote and starred in. He knows that he knows it, but he just can't come up with the title ("Good Will Hunting"). Blaine is experiencing A) the "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon in which he can retrieve the information but is unable to access it.

B) the "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon in which he can access the information but is unable to retrieve it.

C) difficulties with encoding, retrieval, and storage of the information.

D) problems with his executive processor's ability to properly decode the needed information.

42) ______

43) Changing information into a form that can be stored in long-term memory is known as ________, whereas bringing information to mind that has been stored previously is known as ________.

A) accessing; encoding B) accessing; retrieval C) encoding; retrieval D) encoding; sensing

43) ______

44) As children develop, they get better at A) strengthening and weakening associations between concepts.

B) having more stored information in long-term memory.

C) interconnecting information that has been stored.

D) ALL of the above abilities.

44) ______

45) Because memory is reconstructive, we know that A) it is usually an accurate account of events.

B) most people have similar memory abilities.

C) we cannot hold on to too much information.

D) we store only certain pieces of information.

45) ______

46) When asked for help, Lori says, "I can't." However, Jana (falsely) remembers that Lori said "I won't." This is an example of how memory is A) reconstructive.

B) autobiographical.

C) infantile.

D) ALL of the above.

46) ______

47) Our memories are not simply mental copies of information and events. Rather we often take pieces of information from memory, combine these pieces with other sources of information, and make inferences about their meaning. This process mostly accurately describes A) semantic memory.

B) autobiographical memory.

C) reconstructive memory.

D) episodic memory.

47) ______

48) The fact that our memory is influenced by previous knowledge, memories, and the current context implies that memory is A) inaccurate.

B) reconstructed.

C) literal.

D) automatic.

48) ______

49) Which of the following questions does NOT result in prompted recall?

A) "Can you estimate the train's speed as it approached the railroad crossing?"

B) "How tall was the man who violently struck the postman?"

C) "Will you tell me all you can remember about the accident?"

D) "How fast was the car going when it crashed into the tree?"

49) ______

50) An English teacher gave his students an assignment to write an essay describing a memory of an event that occurred in their lives before they were three years of age. Many of the students told him that they couldn't complete the assignment. This is not surprising, mainly because A) there are too many retrieval problems for information stored in long-term memory for that length of time.

B) the limited space in the short-term memory causes very old information to be removed to make room for newer information.

C) research on infantile amnesia indicates that people have no memories of their experiences prior to three years of age.

D) infants and young children cannot remember specific events because of their reliance on semantic memory.

50) ______

51) Deficits in which of the following processes may be responsible for infantile amnesia?

A) Storage B) Retrieval C) Encoding D) ALL of the above

51) ______

52) Infantile amnesia refers to the fact that A) people cannot help babies to improve their early memory ability.

B) babies cannot recall much information.

C) people have few memories of events from their first three years of life.

D) babies tend to block out just the upsetting memories.

52) ______

53) Which of the following was NOT listed in your text as one of the primary reasons for infantile amnesia?

A) It is difficult to modify the memory of a child.

53) ______

B) Children do not yet have a well-developed sense of self.

C) The ways of encoding and later retrieval may not align.

D) The brain is not yet fully matured.

54) Which of the following has NOT been offered as an explanation for infantile amnesia?

A) Infants' original early memories are encoded as physical actions, and these action memories are highly resistant to reconstruction efforts later in life.

B) The degree of frontal lobe development in infancy may make it possible for infants to remember actions, but not be able to describe these memories using words in later life.

C) Infants have not yet developed a stable sense of self and therefore information in their early memories is likely to be disorganized and difficult to retrieve in later life.

D) The manner in which infants encode memories may not match the manner in which they are asked to retrieve the memories when they are older.

54) ______

55) Remembering what happened on your tenth birthday is an example of a/an A) infantile amnesia.

B) procedural memory.

C) autobiographical memory.

D) semantic memory.

55) ______

56) Which of the following statements regarding autobiographical memories is FALSE? A) Children's autobiographical memories are often vivid, detailed, and emotionally charged.

B) Children describe autobiographical memories as stories shared with adults.

C) The skills necessary to reconstruct autobiographical memories generally develop around six years of age.

D) The events remembered in autobiographical memories have a high degree of personal relevance.

56) ______

57) Autobiographical memories are important because they A) develop without help from parents or other adults.

B) are literal rather than reconstructed memories.

C) help a child develop his or her sense of self-identity.

D) represent a child's earliest and most negative experiences.

57) ______

58) How much Lakeshia knows about cars refers to her A) memory strategies.

B) metacognition.

C) knowledge base.

D) reconstructive memories.

58) ______

59) Which of the following statements regarding the effects of a strong knowledge base is FALSE? A) The more you know about a specific subject, the more time it takes you to integrate all of the information into a coherent whole.

B) The more you know about a specific subject, the easier it is for you to categorize new information about the subject.

C) The more you know about a specific subject, the better you are at remembering new information about it.

D) The more you know about a specific subject, the more able you are to notice new related information and details.

59) ______

60) In a study of expert-novice differences among chess players, Chi (1978) found that A) adults' memories of chessboard arrangements were clearly superior to children's memories.

B) the child experts clearly outperformed the adult novices on memory for chessboard arrangements.

C) children's performance on a memory task involving series of random numbers was superior to the adults' performance.

60) ______

D) child experts and adult novices did not differ in their performance on the random numbers memory tasks.

61) Brown and DeLoache (1978) describe young children as "universal novices." What do they mean by this statement?

A) Young children are better able to chunk information than older children.

B) Young children simply do not have as strong a knowledge base as older children.

C) Young children more easily create autobiographical memories than older children.

D) Young children have more domain-specific knowledge than older children.

61) ______

62) According to your text, which of the following factors appears to be most important to the development of a strong knowledge base?

A) Exceptional memory B) Practice C) General aptitude D) Intelligence

62) ______

63) In regard to memory strategies, younger children tend to use a more A) passive style.

B) cumulative rehearsal style.

C) elaborative style.

D) active rehearsal style.

63) ______

64) Dane is repeating the name of the girl he just met, because he knows he wants to remember her later. Dane is using a memory strategy known as A) repetition.

B) rehearsal.

C) organization.

D) elaboration.

64) ______

65) Which of the following is NOT considered a useful memory strategy?

A) Rehearsal B) Elaboration C) Automaticity

65) ______ D) Organization

66) If Shayann is a typical newborn, which of the following memory strategies will be the earliest to develop?

A) Elaboration B) Organization C) Contextualization D) Rehearsal

66) ______

67) In regard to memory strategies, research has found that A) children use them more often with novel materials and information.

B) younger children can easily be taught them.

C) spontaneous use of organization occurs during infancy.

D) preschoolers seldom use them spontaneously.

67) ______

68) Metacognition refers to A) understanding your own thought processes.

B) improving your memory ability.

C) understanding others' thought processes.

D) helping others understand material.

68) ______

69) Which of the following research findings clearly indicates that preschool children have some metamemory capability?

A) Children as young as three years of age can understand that dreams and real life are not the same.

B) Preschoolers know that it is easier to relearn something you once knew than to learn something new.

C) Preschool children know that it is possible to imagine doing things that can't really be done.

D) Three-year-old children know that mental objects and real objects are not the same.

69) ______

70) Hester's mother just read her a list of 30 items she wants to purchase at the store. Hester is asked to guess how many she will be able to recall. Hester, who is in preschool, is most likely to ________ her memory capability.

A) accurately assess B) underestimate C) have no understanding of D) overestimate

70) ______

71) Which of the following is the BEST example of metamemory?

A) Hugh knows that it is hard for him to remember periodic table of elements.

B) Kyan knows more about sports than music.

C) Because Kaleb studied the presidents last year, he clearly remembers them now.

D) Gupti clearly remembers his fifth birthday party.

71) ______

72) A coherent and integrated understanding of what the mind is, how it works, and why it works that way is called A) a theory of mind.

B) reconstructed memory.

C) metacognition.

D) metamemory.

72) ______

73) Research has shown that three-year-olds A) know an imaginary ice-cream cone is different from the real object.

B) understand that dreams are not real life.

C) know that you can imagine events that cannot really happen.

D) ALL of the above are correct.

73) ______

74) The results of the classic DeVries (1969) study involving a cat named Maynard who sometimes wore a "dog face" mask indicated that A) when Maynard wore the "dog face" mask, three-year-olds said that the cat was now a dog.

B) three-year-olds have difficulty with the appearance-reality distinction.

C) Both A and B are true.

D) Neither A nor B is true.

74) ______

75) If three-year-old Juliana sees a ball painted to look like a rock, she is most likely to believe that A) it could be a rock or a ball.

B) the object is a rock.

C) the object is a ball.

D) the object is not real.

75) ______

76) Do young children understand the difference between what they know themselves and what another person knows?

A) It's not clear.

B) Several studies have confirmed that they do.

C) Several studies have found that they do not.

D) Both A and C are correct

76) ______

77) Recent studies indicate that ________ seems to play a major role in the development of a theory of mind.

A) memory ability B) positive reinforcement C) maturation of the brain D) language

77) ______

78) According to your text, "mindblindness" or the lack a theory of mind may be involved in A) ADHD. B) autism.

C) conduct disorder.

D) Down syndrome.

78) ______

79) The fact that autism can range from milder to more severe types indicates that it is what type of

disorder?

79)

______ A) Differentiated C) Variable

B) Spectrum D) Domain-specific

80) Which of the following is NOT one of the typical indicators of autistic disorders?

A) Resistant to changes in routine B) Delayed language skills C) Development of splinter skills D) Repetitive body motions

80) ______

81) Charley is demonstrating echolalia. Which of the following scenarios is most likely?

A) He will not respond when asked a question.

B) He will repeat the same word over and over.

C) He will want to watch the shows repeatedly.

D) He will repeat back what he just heard.

81) ______

82) Two general types of computational models are A) domain-specific and domain-general models.

B) metacognition and metamemory models.

C) production systems and connectionist models.

D) network and stores models.

82) ______

83) Production systems models and connectionist models are similar in that they both A) hypothesize that information is not stored but rather reconstructed.

B) are sometimes referred to as neural networks.

C) involve neural activation and networking.

D) use computer simulations to understand human cognitive processing.

83) ______

84) Production systems utilize what types of statements?

A) True-false B) Yes-no C) If-then

84) ______

85) Simple connectionist models use A) decision rules.

C) if-then statements.

D) Why 85) ______

B) fuzzy traces.

D) units and links.

86) The main goal of computer simulations based on connectionist models is to A) match or surpass human cognitive performance.

B) create computers with highly developed metacognitive abilities.

C) learn how autobiographical memories are reconstructed.

D) imitate the developmental changes that occur as humans learn tasks.

86) ______

87) Connectionist models are said to be "neurally inspired." What does this mean?

A) These models are very sophisticated.

B) Neurons are programmed into the models.

C) The models are designed to match the working of neurons in the brain.

D) ALL of the above are correct

87) ______

88) Which of the following statements regarding "fuzzy traces" is FALSE? A) Fuzzy trace memories are not well integrated with prior knowledge in memory because they are not a verbatim account.

B) Fuzzy trace memories are better integrated with the existing knowledge base than verbatim memories.

C) Fuzzy trace memories are less susceptible to forgetting because they contain the "gist" of the experience.

88) ______

D) Fuzzy trace memories are less effortful to use because they contain the "gist" of an experience.

89) I can't remember exactly what happened on every episode of my favorite TV show last season, but I remember the main events. I am said to have what about that show?

A) Executive processor B) Fuzzy trace C) Metacognition D) Neural networks

89) ______

90) According to fuzzy trace theory, are you more likely to remember the words to a poem you have practiced over and over, or the basic plot of a short story?

A) The plot of the short story, because of its resemblance to an autobiographical script B) The poem, because you can "chunk" individual words into rhyming phrases C) The plot of the short story, because it's easier to remember the "gist" of something D) The poem, because of the amount of time you have invested in practicing it

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What is automaticity?

92) What are the two typical phases of ADHD and when does each occur?

93) In the stores model of memory, what are the names of the three memory stores?

94) What are the duration and the capacity of working memory?

95) What are three of the memory strategies discussed in the text?

96) What are some of the more common symptoms of autism?

97) Name and describe the two general types of computational models.

98) According to Annie Gordon and her mother, Tina, what interventions have helped Annie with her ADHD? 99) What is the impact of repeated questioning on information recalled?

100) What was the specific memory strategy that fourth grade teacher Karen Tuten used when helping her students remember the planets' positions?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) Information-processing psychologists often use the ________ as a metaphor for the 101) ____________ manner in which humans think.

102) Processing ________ refers to how much information a person can think about or remember at one time.

102) ____________

103) As children improve their ability to inhibit responses to irrelevant stimuli, they improve their ability to sustain ________.

103) ____________

104) ADHD rates are ________ times higher among boys than among girls.

104) ____________

105) According to the stores model, the ________ has infinite storage capacity.

105) ____________

106) According to the stores model, a/an ________ controls all three stores and the processes that pass information among them.

106) ____________

107) The short-term store in the stores model is similar to ________ memory in the network model.

107) ____________

108) Because memory is ________, Mary may remember only parts of her prom night, but her memory is patched together from those bits of information and other information.

108) ____________

109) The phenomenon in which people typically cannot recall any events from before the age of three is called ________.

109) ____________

110) Brown and DeLoache (1978) referred to children as "universal ________ " because they have less knowledge than adults.

110) ____________

111) Of the three memory strategies, the spontaneous use of ________ does not occur until adolescence or even later.

111) ____________

112) The understanding that people have about their own thought processes and memory is called ________.

112) ____________

113) A system of ideas about how and why the mind works the way it does is called a ________.

113) ____________

114) Theories of cognition that are tested using computers are known as ________.

114) ____________

115) Memory representations vary on a continuum from being very exact and literal to being imprecise and general according to the ________ theory.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) How can changes in processing capacity explain age-related differences in performance on Piaget's conservation-of-liquid problem?

117) As Maria works on her math problems, she is not disturbed by the Gilligan's Island rerun she hears on the TV or her younger sister's questions about dinner. Discuss the processes of attention that are related to Maria's ability to stay focused.

118) First, create a test question for an information-processing exam that would require students to rehearse information as they study. Then create a test question that would require higher level processing strategies.

Using these two test questions as examples, briefly discuss the potential effects that schooling may have on students' information processing strategies.

119) What were the results of Elizabeth Loftus' testing involving eyewitness testimony after watching a video showing a car collision?

120) When given a list of 7 items to purchase at the store, how did Melissa do, and what were some of the suggested ways to increase memory on this sort of task?

1) D 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) D

52) C 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) C 57) C 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) D 67) D 68) A 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) D 78) B 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) C 83) D 84) C 85) D 86) D 87) C 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) Automaticity is the ability to perform a task with little or no conscious effort.

92) Parents and caregivers usually notice the signs of hyperactivity by ages three or four. Signs of inattentiveness are usually noticed by ages five to seven 93) the sensory store, short-term store, and long-term store 94) Information lasts for up to 30 seconds, and a person can store between 5 and 9 chunks of information.

95) rehearsal (repeating information), organization (using relationships to improve memory for items), and elaboration (creating visual or verbal associations to link items) 96) repetitive body movements, self-stimulation activities, inflexibility regarding routines, low IQ scores, delayed language skills, and echolalia 97) Production systems are sets of computerized if-then statements. Connectionist models hypothesize that knowledge is not stored; rather, it is believed to be reconstructed based on different patterns of activation.

98) They said that speech therapy, behavioral cueing (signaling as a reminder), relying on visual memory, and having her teachers put up pictures of the day's activities have been helpful.

99) It increases the amount recalled, but it is not necessarily accurate.

100) She used the mnemonic device "My Very Eager Mom Just Served Us Nine Pizzas."

101) computer 102) capacity 103) attention 104) three 105) long-term store 106) executive processor 107) working 108) reconstructive 109) infantile amnesia 110) novices 111) elaboration 112) metacognition 113) theory of mind 114) computational models 115) fuzzy trace 116) Students should be able to describe age-related differences in children's responses to the conservation-of-liquid problem. Specifically, younger children maintain that a taller beaker of water contains more liquid than a shorter beaker, whereas older children understand that the amount of liquid remains constant even though the shape of the container is changed. Ideally, students should be able to articulate the idea that younger children have difficulty because they focus on only one aspect of the problem, whereas older children can consider several dimensions of the problem simultaneously. From an information processing perspective, it could be argued that younger children's processing capacity is simply too limited to allow them to work with two dimensions (i.e., height and width) at the same time.

117) Students should be able to discuss the situation in terms of the individual's ability to selectively attend to specific stimuli (e.g., the math problems) and inhibit responses to irrelevant external stimuli (e.g., the TV and the sister).

Students' answers should include a discussion of the importance of the ability to sustain attention over a relatively long period of time.

118) Students should include two test questions in their responses. One test question should focus on recall of factual content in information processing (e.g., What is the inability to recall experiences prior to the age of three years called?). The second question should require higher-level cognition such as application or analysis (e.g., "How are computational models and production systems similar and different?) Students should be able to articulate the idea that schools that emphasize rote recall of facts are more likely to produce students who can remember information quickly and accurately but not necessarily be able to elaborate on or extend that knowledge in any way.

In contrast, schools that emphasize higher-order thinking such as analyzing information or problem-solving are more likely to produce students who utilize information in novel ways, but are not necessarily able to rapidly recall facts.

119) People watched a car crash and afterwards were asked questions about what they had seen. When asked to estimate how fast the cars were traveling when they "contacted" each other, the average estimate was 34 miles per hour. When others were asked about the cars that "crashed" into each other, the estimate was 41 miles per hour. Of people asked about the "crash," 32% "saw" broken glass, whereas only 14% of those that were asked about the cars that "contacted" did. A school bus that was not there was "seen" by 26% of the people.

120) She remembered five. One way to improve memory is to put the words to music. Another way, the method of loci, involves imagining various objects all around a familiar place. Another way is to practice memorization skills often. ("Think of it as a muscle, and don't let it go soft.")

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following statements regarding intelligence is TRUE? A) Experts agree on exactly what intelligence is.

B) There are only two acceptable ways in which to measure intelligence.

C) There are cultural differences in the definition of intelligence.

D) Intelligence is one of the least studied topics in psychology.

2) _______

2) The letters "g" and "s" were used within A) Thurstone's seven-factor theory of intelligence.

B) Guilford's five-factor theory of intelligence.

C) Cattell & Horn's two-factor theory of intelligence.

D) Spearman's two-factor theory of intelligence.

3) In regard to intelligence, g stands for A) genetic.

B) growing.

1) _______

3) _______ C) gender.

D) general.

4) Which of the following statements regarding g is FALSE? A) General intelligence is learned through interaction with the environment.

B) General intelligence is the ability to see how things are related.

C) General intelligence is assumed to be important to all intellectual tasks.

D) General intelligence is neurologically based.

4) _______

5) According to Spearman, intelligence is comprised of two factors, A) common intelligence and singular intelligence.

B) regular intelligence and exceptional intelligence.

C) customary intelligence and extraordinary intelligence.

D) general intelligence and specific intelligence.

5) _______

6) In the two-factor theory of intelligence, "s" stands for A) special.

B) sequential.

C) semantic.

6) _______ D) specific.

7) The most contentious disagreement among psychometric theorists concerns A) why humans are able to function adaptively in social environments.

B) how many abilities are included in the concept of intelligence.

C) whether intelligence is related to real life success.

D) where intelligence is centered in the brain.

7) _______

8) Raymond Cattell and John Horn proposed a theory of intelligence with the two broad factors of A) social and asocial ability.

B) general and specific intelligence.

C) crystallized and fluid ability.

D) cognitive and emotional intelligence.

8) _______

9) Which of the following is an example of someone demonstrating crystallized ability?

A) Sydney is one of the smartest children in her class.

B) Anna knows the capital of Wyoming, her home state.

C) Molly understands how various car parts work together.

D) Skyler wonders why the world is round.

9) _______

10) Of the following, which theory of intelligence relies most heavily on the information processing perspective?

A) Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences

10) ______

B) Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence C) Spearman's two-factor theory D) Cattell and Horn's theory of fluid and crystallized abilities 11) Because Sternberg's theory is considered to be triarchic, we know that it A) contains three related parts.

B) involves trying to solve problems.

C) has been tried out by many theorists.

D) is considered valid and true.

11) ______

12) Which of the following is NOT the name of one of Sternberg's subtheories?

A) Contextual subtheory B) Metacomponential subtheory C) Experiential subtheory D) Componential subtheory

12) ______

13) In Sternberg's componential subtheory, a component is A) any technological advancement that enhances human thinking.

B) another name for creative thinking and abstract reasoning ability.

C) a mental process that gathers or works with information.

D) any mental process related to common sense or practical intelligence.

13) ______

14) According to Sternberg, retrieving words from memory and remembering grammar rules are accomplished by using ________ components.

A) knowledge-acquisition B) creative intelligence C) analytic intelligence D) performance

14) ______

15) In Sternberg's theory, ________ oversee the functioning of knowledge-acquisition and performance components.

A) metacomponents B) analytic intelligences C) specific intelligences D) contextual components

15) ______

16) "As we learn new tasks and then how to perform them automatically, we become more intelligent." This statement is the foundation of which of Sternberg's three subtheories?

A) Contextual B) Componential C) Analytical D) Experiential

16) ______

17) Marcus is able to see new patterns easily and he can readily discover new ways of problem-solving. His abilities are best explained by the A) creative intelligence.

B) experiential subtheory.

C) Both A and B are true.

D) Neither A nor B is true.

17) ______

18) Automaticity is utilized in which of Sternberg's three subtheories?

A) Experiential B) Contextual C) Componential

18) ______ D) Analytical

19) One aspect of intellectual ability that Sternberg feels is missing from other theories of intelligence is A) automaticity.

B) metacognition.

C) practical intelligence.

D) knowledge acquisition.

19) ______

20) Rebecca's friends and family agree that although she is an excellent student, she lacks common sense. According to Sternberg, Rebecca is likely to be higher in ________ intelligence and lower in ________ intelligence.

A) contextual; experiential B) fluid; crystallized C) general; specific D) componential; contextual

20) ______

21) If you are highly creative or gifted in athletics or the arts, you would likely have a lot of

21) ______

A) logical-mathematical intelligence.

C) contextual intelligence.

B) componential intelligence.

D) experiential intelligence.

22) Herve is struggling in his math class. He is considering getting a tutor, dropping the class, or purchasing the book's study guide. Generating these different ideas indicates that Herve has a good deal of which of Sternberg's types of intelligence?

A) Experiential B) Contextual C) Analytical D) Componential

22) ______

23) Which of the following was NOT listed in your text as one of the major criticisms of Sternberg's theory?

A) Research has shown practically no support for any of the theory's ideas yet.

B) It is not clear why some elements are included, while others are excluded.

C) It is not clear how the various subtheories relate to one another.

D) The theory is not linked to the biological processes regarding intelligence.

23) ______

24) In Sternberg's theory, "street smarts" or "common sense" are included as part of A) creative intelligence.

B) automatic intelligence.

C) analytic intelligence.

D) contextual intelligence.

24) ______

25) Which of the following statements regarding Gardner's contributions to intelligence research is FALSE? A) Gardner was the first person to identify several different areas of intelligence.

B) According to Gardner, each person has a different profile of intelligences.

C) Gardner argued that multiple intelligences exist in all people.

D) Gardner introduced the concept of "biopsychological potential."

25) ______

26) When Gardner refers to a biopsychological potential, he means that A) the person's free will is able to determine what the person can accomplish.

B) all people will eventually arrive at the same level of performance.

C) genetics provides the boundaries for what may or may not be achieved.

D) genetics alone determines the person's intelligence.

26) ______

27) According to Gardner, environmentalists, hunters, gardeners, and cooks are likely to have a lot of A) naturalist intelligence.

B) practical intelligence.

C) linguistic intelligence.

D) spatial intelligence.

27) ______

28) Herman likes to play with Tinkertoys. Give him the name of an animal and he can create a three-dimensional model of it with the toys. His favorite activity is to transform the model from one animal to another moving as few parts as possible. Herman might have a lot of A) spatial intelligence.

B) bodily-kinesthetic intelligence.

C) logical-mathematical intelligence.

D) interpersonal intelligence.

28) ______

29) When Shevaun was four years old, she liked to watch Sesame Street in both English and Spanish.

When she was seven years old, she could transcribe nursery rhymes from one language to the other. When she grows up, she wants to work for the United Nations as an interpreter. Shevaun would likely likely have a lot of A) interpersonal intelligence.

B) intrapersonal intelligence.

C) naturalist intelligence.

D) linguistic intelligence.

29) ______

30) Six-year-old Mandy got an Easy Bake Oven for Christmas. She surveys her family to determine their favorite foods and what they like about them. Then she enlists the help of her two younger

brot s to her help

her 30) "cook" a lavish meal.

Mandy says she wants to be teacher when she grows up. She is likely to have a lot of A) intrapersonal intelligence.

C) spatial intelligence.

___ ___

B) interpersonal intelligence.

D) bodily-kinesthetic intelligence.

31) Homer keeps a journal and writes honestly and deeply about his own intentions, feelings, and fears. He started meditating as a teenager and attended a retreat to learn more about his reactions to solitude. Homer would likely have a lot of A) intrapersonal intelligence.

B) linguistic intelligence.

C) naturalist intelligence.

D) interpersonal intelligence.

31) ______

32) Hillary has a high degree of interpersonal intelligence according to Gardner's theory. Depending on the social and cultural context, Hillary is likely to develop into A) a teacher.

B) a swindler.

C) a politician.

D) any of the above.

32) ______

33) Which of the following was NOT listed in your text as something used by Gardner to determine whether a given skill qualifies as an intelligence?

A) Exceptional people B) Psychometric findings C) CT and PET scans D) Evolutionary history

33) ______

34) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences?

A) Gardner's theory does not address how variations in social context might influence the activation of different types of intelligence.

B) Gardner's theory blurs the distinction between intelligence and other important human characteristics.

C) Measures of Gardner's different types of intelligence are correlated with one another, indicating that they are not independent.

D) Gardner's theory does not give a clear explanation of how different forms of intelligence work together within individuals.

34) ______

35) Gardner proposes that intelligence is a A) broad concept composed of several subcomponents.

B) general characteristic composed of three specific abilities.

C) set of eight distinct and relatively independent abilities.

D) unitary "g" factor similar to that proposed by Spearman.

35) ______

36) If Ava is being measured by Gardner, her overall level of functioning is most likely being

det ermine

d 36) accordin g to her A) scores on various psychometric indices of general and specific intelligences.

B) profile of strengths and weaknesses in regard to different types of intelligence.

C) ability to integrate performance and knowledge acquisition components of intelligence.

D) divergent thinking abilities and creativity in several life domains.

___ ___

37) In Gardner's view, A) children's private and social speech influence intelligence.

B) intelligence is completely determined by biological factors.

C) culture plays no role in the development of intelligence.

D) culture interacts with an individual's profile of intelligences.

37) ______

38) Which of the following statements regarding Gardner's theory of intelligence is TRUE? A) Gardner believes that education will have little impact on a child's innate intelligence.

B) Gardner argues that a school curriculum focused on reading, math, and science is sufficient.

C) Gardner asserts that all eight of his identified intelligences exist in every individual.

D) Gardner argues that giving children choices will cause them to ignore their weaknesses.

38) ______

39) If you need to determine the best way to open a locked door when you do not have a key, you must use A) experiential intelligence.

B) crystallized intelligence.

C) convergent thinking.

D) automaticity.

39) ______

40) There's a saying that goes, "There's more than one way to fry a fish." If you can think of many different ways to fry a fish you have what is considered to be A) convergent intelligence.

B) divergent intelligence.

C) fluid intelligence.

D) crystallized intelligence.

40) ______

41) Which one of following statements regarding creativity is FALSE? A) The products of creativity are perceived by others as valuable.

B) A person must be above average in intelligence to be creative.

C) Any activity can be approached in a creative manner.

D) People tend to be creative in specific areas.

41) ______

42) If Regina and Chris want to increase the creativity of their son, Cameron, they should do all of the following EXCEPT A) evaluate Cameron's ideas.

B) encourage his experimentation.

C) let him brainstorm possibilities.

D) allow Cameron to play.

42) ______

43) Who developed the first practical intelligence scale?

A) William Stern B) Lewis Terman C) Alfred Binet D) David Wechsler

43) ______

44) The first useful intelligence scale was developed in order to A) help schools select students for special education.

B) diagnose psychological disorders.

C) choose applicants for college.

D) select applicants for vocational training.

44) ______

45) Lewis Terman's test popularized the use of the term A) assessment.

B) mental age.

C) creativity.

D) intelligence quotient.

45) ______

46) Bjork is taking Terman's version of the intelligence test. She is a six-year-old girl who performs as well as the average eight-year-old boy. Her IQ score would be A) 75.

B) 133.

C) 150.

D) Given this information, it is impossible to know.

46) ______

47) If 10-year-old Shandra scored as well on her IQ test as most 10-year-olds do, she should get a score of A) +1.0.

B) 100.

C) 10.

D) We cannot tell from just this information.

47) ______

48) Karen took a test designed to measure her musical aptitude two times, and she earned the same score both times. This test of musical aptitude is definitely A) valid.

B) standardized.

C) objective.

D) reliable.

48) ______

49) In checking your weight on Monday, you find that you weigh 180 pounds at 10:00 am, 203 pounds at 11:00 am, and 160 pounds at noon. Your scale does not appear to be A) stabilized.

B) standardized.

C) valid.

D) reliable.

49) ______

50) A ________ test is a test that yields a similar score when the same person takes the test several times.

A) reliable B) questionable C) conclusive D) valid

50) ______

51) A researcher created a 40-item test of drawing ability. She divided the test into two tests of twenty items each and gave these two smaller tests to two different groups of people. Then she calculated correlations to see if scores on the two smaller tests were similar. This researcher is attempting to establish A) reliability.

B) validity.

C) standardization.

D) objectivity.

51) ______

52) If a test measures what it is intended to measure, it is referred to as A) reliable.

B) consistent.

C) valid.

52) ______ D) objective.

53) Paolo just received a score of 63% on his first test in algebra. However, Paolo claims that he knew at least 90% of the material that he was responsible for knowing on that test. Paolo is claiming that the algebra test is not A) valid.

B) objective.

C) consistent.

D) reliable.

53) ______

54) Which of the following statements indicates that an intelligence test has validity?

A) Students' performance in school is not related to their intelligence test scores.

B) Students' scores on several intelligence tests are not correlated with one another.

C) Students given the same test two months apart tend to obtain similar scores.

D) Students' test scores accurately predict their performance in school.

54) ______

55) Which of the following is NOT one of the areas assessed using the SB5?

A) Fluid reasoning B) Divergent thinking

55) ______

C) Visual-spatial processing

D) Knowledge

56) Which of the following statements regarding the SB5 is TRUE? A) The SB5 has a high degree of reliability.

B) The SB5 yields both a verbal and a nonverbal IQ score.

C) SB5 scores show moderately high correlations with other measures of intelligence.

D) The SB5 is the newer version of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale.

56) ______

57) The original versions of the WPPSI-III, WISC-IV, and WAIS-III were all designed by A) David Wechsler.

B) Robert Sternberg.

C) Louis Terman.

D) Howard Gardner.

57) ______

58) The WISC-IV is an intelligence test designed for A) individuals over sixteen years of age.

C) preschool children.

58) ______ B) newborns and infants.

D) children six to sixteen years of age.

59) WPPSI is to WAIS as A) creativity is to intelligence.

C) former is to current.

B) male is to female.

D) child is to adult.

59) ______

60) The two general subscales of the Wechsler tests include A) verbal and performance scores.

B) verbal and quantitative scores.

C) comprehension and memory scores.

D) fluid and crystallized ability scores.

60) ______

61) Each of the Wechsler intelligence tests includes a performance subscale measuring all of the following EXCEPT A) picture completion.

B) drawing.

C) object assembly.

D) block design.

61) ______

62) Tasks such as block design and object assembly are examples of ________ tests on the WAIS-III. A) performance B) creativity C) verbal D) abstract reasoning

62) ______

63) Twenty-year-old Lawrence took an intelligence test, and in addition to an overall or composite intelligence score, he also received a verbal and a performance subscore. Lawrence most likely took the A) WAIS-III. B) WISC-IV. C) Gardner Multiple Intelligences Test.

D) Sternberg Triarchic Intelligence Scale.

63) ______

64) You notice that Dr. Sun, a competent psychologist, gave the WPPSI-III to one of her clients. You can infer that Dr. Sun's client is A) less than three years of age.

B) between three and seven years of age.

C) at least sixteen years of age.

D) between six and sixteen years of age.

64) ______

65) One of the advantages to using dynamic assessment (DA) measures is that they A) determine how much a child can learn independently.

B) measure how much knowledge a child currently possesses.

C) help determine a child's potential when given assistance.

D) allow for comparisons between children of various cultures.

65) ______

66) When educators discuss a child's RTI, they are referring to his or her A) readiness to improve.

B) right to information.

66) ______

C) reading to inform.

D) responsiveness to instruction.

67) According to your text, which of the following is NOT one of the current beliefs in regard to intelligence?

A) Context impacts intelligence.

B) Intelligence is a stable trait.

C) Intelligence is multi-faceted.

D) ALL of the above are current beliefs.

67) ______

68) Which of the following is NOT one of the three components to the formal definition of mental retardation?

A) Deficits in adaptive behavior B) An onset early in life C) Limited ability to learn new information D) Below-normal intellectual functioning

68) ______

69) In regard to the cause of mental retardation (MR), A) the most severe forms of MR are due to prenatal alcohol exposure.

B) genetic disorders like Down syndrome tend to cause more mild forms of MR. C) prenatal exposure to alcohol is the leading known cause of MR. D) ALL of the above are true.

69) ______

70) Which of the following facts regarding mental retardation (MR) is NOT true?

A) 85% of children with MR have a severe form of MR. B) About 2-3 % of the U.S. population has MR. C) The onset of MR is before the individual is 18.

D) IQ scores typically are below 75.

70) ______

71) Aimee's son is mentally retarded. To best help him, Aimee should A) constantly provide him with new caregivers.

B) not let her son explore too much.

C) protect him from teasing and punishment.

D) try to let him care for himself as much as possible.

71) ______

72) A child who is unevenly gifted will A) seem to be exceptional, but will be difficult to measure.

B) perform much better than his or her siblings.

C) excel in some areas, but not in others.

D) perform exceptionally at certain times, but not at others.

72) ______

73) Winner (1996) stated that gifted children are typically all of the following EXCEPT A) "marching to their own drummers."

B) in possession of "a rage to master."

C) great team players.

D) precocious.

73) ______

74) In 1921, Lewis Terman began an important longitudinal study on A) gifted individuals.

B) artists.

C) developers of intelligence tests.

D) the mentally retarded.

74) ______

75) Lyle is a gifted child. Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen to Lyle?

A) Lyle will be in good physical health.

B) Lyle will live longer than most people.

C) Lyle will eventually get a divorce.

D) Lyle will be happier than most people.

75) ______

76) In regard to intelligence test scores in the United States, on average A) African-Americans score about 97.

B) Asians score slightly higher than Caucasians.

C) non-Hispanic whites score about 111.

76) ______

D) Hispanics and African Americans achieve similar scores.

77) Guaco is a black child with parents from Kenya. If he is demonstrating the stereotype threat, he will A) try to act as prejudiced as do those in the majority culture.

B) accept the negative stereotypes about blacks.

C) believe that others are prejudiced against him.

D) succeed despite — or maybe because of — others' prejudices.

77) ______

78) Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between intelligence scores and socioeconomic status is FALSE? A) When socioeconomic status is held constant, the mean IQ differences between Caucasians and African-Americans is reduced.

B) In the United States, ethnic minority children are overrepresented in the lower socioeconomic classes.

C) Children living in poverty have fewer educational opportunities, and that could lead to lower IQ scores.

D) Research evidence has been unable to find any consistent relationship between intelligence test scores and socioeconomic status.

78) ______

79) What is the earliest evidence of humans' ability to understand basic mathematical ideas?

A) Infants two or three months old can match the number of objects they see to the number of sounds they hear.

B) Newborns less than one week old can distinguish between cards with two black dots and cards with three black dots.

C) Newborns less than one week old can distinguish between cards with four black dots and cards with six black dots.

D) Children do not recognize mathematical quantities when they see or hear them until they are about four years old.

79) ______

80) Without actually counting with numbers, even young infants can determine that one set of objects has more or less than another set. This skill is called A) subitizing.

B) unconscious counting.

C) automatic mathematics.

D) digitizing.

80) ______

81) Which of the following statements about the relationship between language and mathematical skills is FALSE? A) Language affects how quickly number names can be pronounced.

B) Language affects memory for number names, but not for math-calculation ability.

C) Language affects how quickly children can memorize basic math facts.

D) Language affects children's understanding of place value.

81) ______

82) To add 8 + 5, Billy breaks down the 8 into 5 + 3. He then adds this 5 to the first 5 to get 10, then he adds the remaining 3 to get 13. Researchers might say that Billy used the strategy of A) digitizing.

B) subitizing.

C) numeration.

D) decomposition.

82) ______

83) Which of the following are skills that children need to develop to become good readers?

A) Automatic word recognition B) Phonemic awareness C) Familiarity with alphabet letters D) ALL of the above are necessary skills for reading.

83) ______

84) Which of the following is an example of a phoneme?

A) The "b" sound in the word "bat'" B) The phrase "Mommy go" C) The sentence "My house is big" D) The word "dog"

84) ______

85) According to Spivey and King, reading and writing skills are A) fundamental to our lives as humans.

B) highly correlated.

C) quite uncorrelated.

D) essential for measuring creative ability.

85) ______

86) Recently, my six-year-old daughter left my wife a note. Part of it read, "When you get home wack me up." Her writing 'wack' instead of 'wake' is known as A) spelling contortion.

B) linguistic confabulation.

C) inventive spelling.

D) paralanguage.

86) ______

87) Mature writers develop their ideas after extensive fact gathering and topic organization. After planning and writing, they evaluate their plan and rewrite several times. This dynamic process is called A) continued metamorphosis.

B) recursive revision.

C) modification.

D) transformation.

87) ______

88) Which of the following sets of terms refer in chronological order to the most common progression of the writing process?

A) Recursive revision, knowledge telling, and inventive spellings B) Rudimentary indications, transitional narrative, and radical alteration C) Knowledge telling, inventive spellings, and recursive revision D) Inventive spellings, knowledge telling, and recursive revision

88) ______

89) Communication and learning disorders are caused primarily by A) absent or insufficient corrections.

B) overly harsh criticism from the parents.

C) lack of available reading material.

D) genetic factors and brain abnormalities.

89) ______

90) Rodney is a child who stutters. It is most likely that A) if he speeds up his talking, he will notice improvements.

B) he has less than normal activity levels in his cerebellum.

C) this will be an issue for his entire life.

D) he has more than normal activity levels in the right half of his brain.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What are the two factors in Spearman's two-factor theory of intelligence?

92) What is the difference between fluid and crystallized abilities?

93) What are the names of the three subtheories in Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence?

94) Describe the adaptation of Stern's formula for calculating IQ that is made in order to arrive at a whole number.

95) What is the difference between validity and reliability?

96) What are the two factors that best predict success in early reading?

97) Describe the writing strategy known as knowledge telling.

98) According to Dr. Darren Levin, a school psychologist, what are some of the limitations of curriculum-based methods (CBMs)?

99) What were the major controversies regarding the book The Bell Curve?

100) What is the Jumpstart Literacy Program?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) Spearman labeled his two factors as ________ intelligence and ________ intelligence.

101) ____________ 102) According to Cattell and Horn, ________ consists of knowledge and skills acquired in a specific culture.

102) ____________

103) Sternberg's ________ subtheory describes how mental processes interrelate to produce intellectual thought.

103) ____________

104) In Gardner's theory, a child with strong ________ intelligence might develop into a skilled salesperson, politician, or religious leader.

104) ____________

105) The capacity for original thinking and problem-solving is known as ________.

105) ____________

106) The process of generating as many ideas as possible without evaluating them is known as ________.

106) ____________

107) The consistency of scores when a test is repeated under similar conditions is referred to as ________.

107) ____________

108) The ability of a test to measure what it is intended to measure is referred to as ________.

108) ____________

109) To be diagnosed with mental retardation, IQ scores are usually below ________.

109) ____________

110) Of Caucasians, Hispanics, Asians, and African Americans in the United States, the highest average IQ scores are achieved by ________.

110) ____________

111) According to the ________, children tend to choose the fastest approach to solving a math problem that they can perform accurately.

111) ____________

112) Systematic errors in children's mathematical problem-solving attempts are called ________.

112) ____________

113) The ability to associate letters of the alphabet with specific sounds is a component of ________.

113) ____________

114) A five-year-old who tries to spell the word "apple" as "apil" is using ________ spelling.

114) ____________

115) ________ disorders involve people who have significant difficulty producing speech sounds or understanding what other people say.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Discuss how Sternberg's contextual subtheory might be used to explain an individual's responses to a new job.

117) Discuss how Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences might be used to enhance students' educational

experien ces. Include examples of how teachers might apply Gardner's theory in their classrooms.

118) Describe three arguments for and three arguments against against the use of intelligence tests with ethnic minority children.

119) What are the steps involved in children learning to read?

120) According to Robert Guthrie, are intelligence tests valid?

1) C 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) A

52) C 53) A 54) D 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) D 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) B 78) D 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) D 84) A 85) B 86) C 87) B 88) D 89) D 90) D 91) There is s which refers to specific intelligence in a particular domain, and g which refers to general intelligence.

92) Fluid ability is a biologically based ability to think. It involves the ability to perceive relations among elements.

Crystallized ability consists of the knowledge and skills people acquire in a given culture. Fluid ability peaks at 18, whereas crystallized ability can increase throughout adulthood.

93) Componential, experiential, and contextual subtheories 94) After dividing mental age (MA) by chronological age (CA), multiply the answer by 100.

95) Reliability refers to the consistency of scores when a test is repeated under similar conditions. Validity refers to a test's ability to measure what it is intended to measure.

96) Familiarity with letters of the alphabet and phonemic awareness 97) Knowledge telling is a writing strategy (mainly used by children) in which there is little planning and the person just adds ideas as they come to mind.

98) Dr. Levin believes that CBMs do not do any of the following: identify the root cause of a child's difficulties, set reasonable expectations, provide a rationale for accommodations, and distinguish between low achievers and

peop le with "true" disabilities.

99) The authors claimed that IQ differences between different ethnic groups are due to real differences in cognitive abilities and not poverty, education, or test bias. (The book also claimed that intelligence is a general trait that is significantly influenced by genetics and can be measured well by IQ tests.)

100) Jumpstart builds literacy, self-confidence, language, social, and initiative skills in young children by having them meet twice a week with college students (called Corps members). A Corps member comes to the child's preschool for two hours each session for an entire year. The child selects a book and either reads it or has the Corps member read it to him or her. Corps members encourage the children to think critically about what they are reading and to notice letters or words. There is also circle time for singing, activities, or reading a book together. Also, there is choice time.

101) general; specific 102) crystallized ability 103) componential 104) interpersonal 105) creativity 106) brainstorming 107) reliability 108) validity 109) 70 (or 75) 110) Asians 111) strategy choice model 112) bugs 113) phonemic awareness 114) inventive 115) Communication 116) Students should be able to articulate that the contextual subtheory involves the mental activities of adapting, selecting, and shaping real-life situations. They should also discuss the idea that when individuals are initially placed in a new situation (e.g., a new job), their first response will usually be to try to adapt to it. That is, they will try to create a "good fit" without changing either the situation or themselves in any drastic manner. If, over time, the individuals realize that the new job does not "fit" well, then they may either select a different environment (e.g., quit and get another job) or try to shape the current environment (i.e., change one or more aspects of the job to make it more satisfying).

117) Students should be able to articulate the idea that, according to Gardner's theory, each individual has a profile of strengths and weaknesses in eight different areas. The unique profile of intelligences is more important to educational outcomes than is any generalized measure of intelligence. Parents and teachers must recognize each child's relative strengths and weaknesses, and provide opportunities for children to excel in their areas of relative strength. For example, children may be stronger in art, music, sports, reading, math, and so on. Classroom curriculum should be tailored to the individual student as much as possible rather than employing a "one-size-fits-all" philosophy.

118) Students should be able to articulate at least three of the following arguments against the use of intelligence tests with minority children: (1) Intelligence tests are culturally biased because most of them have been developed by white, middle class people who bring their own experiences into the creation of the tests. Some test items require knowledge about white, middle class culture that minority students may be less likely to possess.

(2) Students from minority backgrounds may have less experience in test-taking situations and less developed test-taking skills. They also may be less clear on the perceived importance of these tests.

(3) Most test examiners are white individuals who may have difficulty developing rapport and communication with students from minority backgrounds.

(4) Students' test results may lead to inferior educational tracking.

(5) Students may be affected by stereotype threat.

Students should be able to articulate at least three of the following arguments in favor of the use of intelligence tests

with Tests can be useful in evaluating students' current level of functioning, including children's relative strengths and mino weaknesses. rity (2) Test results can be used as important justification for the need for special programs. child (3) Test scores can be helpful in evaluating the outcomes of entire programs or school districts by documenting ren: changes in scores over time and differences among ethnic groups.

(1) (4) Test scores can be helpful indicators of likely future functioning.

119) It begins when children are introduced to the written word. For the first few years, children are involved with prereading skills, such as turning the pages in the correct direction and reciting the alphabet. In the early elementary school years, sounding out words and recognizing common words are the main skills. By the fourth grade, many children can recognize many words, and they recognize story structure. Later, reading will be a tool for learning.

120) A valid test must accurately measure what it is designed to measure and do a good job of predicting. He questions both the formula and the statistics used to measure IQ. He feels that the testing may have been used to demonstrate that certain people are less intelligent.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Language has semanticity, which means that A) language represents thoughts, objects and events through symbols.

B) people have the creative ability to make up new words.

C) people speak in different ways in different situations.

D) people must learn the proper ways to combine words.

1) _______

2) Which of the following is NOT one of the three key features of human language?

A) It is productive.

B) It has semanticity.

C) It allows for displacement.

D) It uses grammar.

2) _______

3) To say that human language is "productive" means that A) human beings can be highly creative and original in their use of language.

B) humans can think about imaginary events that never really happened.

C) it can be used to attain whatever personal goals we are interested in pursuing.

D) it can be used to communicate about past, present, and future events.

3) _______

4) Humans have the ability to think and talk about things that happened in the past, such as the age of the dinosaurs, as well as things that might happen in the future, such as world peace. This ability to communicate about things that are distant in time and space is called A) productivity.

B) symbolism.

C) displacement.

D) semanticity.

4) _______

5) Which of the following is NOT part of the text's definition of language?

A) Language is arbitrary.

B) Language is used by all people within a culture.

C) Language is rule-governed.

D) Language is a system of symbols.

5) _______

6) Which of the following words consists of exactly two morphemes?

A) in B) uninvolved C) taco

6) _______ D) books

7) A ________ is the smallest unit of speech sound in a language, whereas a ________ is the smallest unit of meaning in a language.

A) phoneme; morpheme B) morpheme; phoneme C) syntactic unit; semantic unit D) semantic unit; syntactic unit

7) _______

8) Dr. Birdwell is interested in how children learn to turn the adjective "loyal" into the noun "loyalty." He is studying ________ rules of language.

A) syntactic B) morphological C) pragmatic D) semantic

8) _______

9) Which of the following is NOT a good example of a morpheme in the English language?

A) misB) -s C) -ger D) cat

9) _______

10) Berko's (1958) research on children's understanding of morphology indicated that A) preschoolers and first graders can form correct plurals and past tenses of nonsense words.

B) first graders can form correct plurals of tangible, concrete objects, but not of imaginary objects.

C) children's understanding of plurals and tenses for nonsense words does not develop until they have achieved formal operations.

D) first graders can form correct plurals of nonsense words, but they cannot create past tenses.

10) ______

11) When asked to create a sentence using only the words on her flashcards, D.W. responded with "Mom home is not." D.W.'s answer demonstrates a problem with A) phonology.

B) morphology.

C) pragmatics.

D) syntax.

11) ______

12) Knowledge about the grammar rules for a language is known as A) semantics.

B) morphology.

C) syntax.

12) ______ D) phonology.

13) If a child understands that it is correct to say "The cat ate the mouse," but incorrect to say "Ate the mouse cat," the child has some understanding of A) syntax.

B) morphology.

C) semantics.

D) pragmatics.

13) ______

14) Which of the following statements regarding semantics is TRUE? A) A word's meaning can vary depending on the linguistic and social context in which it is used.

B) Knowledge of semantics allows a child to form correct tenses and plurals of different words.

C) The smallest unit of meaning in a given language is called a semantic cluster.

D) The ability to use the phonemes of the English language is a complicated task that takes years to master.

14) ______

15) Which of the following is a problem with semantics?

A) Dora says "aminal" instead of pronouncing it correctly as"'animal."

B) Diego literally held his tongue after his mom said, "Hold your tongue."

C) Miguel says that he saw two "deers," instead of two "deer."

D) Maya says that she "wisheded" the show was over.

15) ______

16) The use of language to communicate effectively with others and to accomplish activities is known as A) semantics.

B) morphology.

C) pragmatics.

D) syntax.

16) ______

17) On Cherese's first day of teaching a kindergarten class, she tried to talk with her young students as if they were teenagers, and chaos quickly ensued. Her inappropriate use of language indicated a weakness in A) syntax.

B) morphology.

C) pragmatics.

D) semantics.

17) ______

18) When a student makes a request that Kanye not wish to honor, he is likely to say, "I'm not going to do that." However, when Kanye is at home and his older brother makes a request, Kanye is more likely to say, "I ain't doin' that," or perhaps, "That ain't hapnin'." Kanye's ability to alter his language patterns in response to the social context is a component of A) syntactic knowledge.

B) semantic knowledge.

C) morphological knowledge.

D) pragmatic knowledge.

18) ______

19) Taking turns speaking, not dominating conversation, and using proper manners while communicating are all examples of A) syntactic knowledge.

B) morphological knowledge.

C) semantic knowledge.

D) pragmatic knowledge.

19) ______

20) According to the learning theory of language development, sounds become words through A) the development of a language acquisition device.

B) shaping, or reinforcement.

C) biological maturation of the brain.

20) ______

D) pairing a UCS with a UCR. 21) Learning theorists claim that ________ forms the foundation for learning language.

A) the LAD B) scaffolding C) shaping D) repetition

21) ______

22) The learning theory of language development is sometimes referred to as the A) interactionist view.

B) environmental view.

C) connectionist view.

D) nativist view.

22) ______

23) The learning theory of language development is based on research by A) Skinner and Bandura.

B) Chomsky and Vygotsky.

C) Skinner and Piaget.

D) Bandura and Chomsky.

23) ______

24) Which of the following is NOT a way in which parents typically help children learn language?

A) extending children's words and phrases B) providing models of more advanced language C) selectively reinforcing closer approximations to correct language D) explicitly teaching complex language-related rule systems

24) ______

25) Which of the following is the best example of what linguists refer to as productivity?

A) "I am six feet tall." (a 16-year-old) B) "Nobody likes me." (a 9-year-old) C) "I ain't very smart." (a 12-year-old) D) "I wented to the store." (a 3-year-old)

25) ______

26) Chomsky's nativist theory basically claims that language is A) an innate human capability.

B) determined by our environment.

C) acquired gradually over time.

D) relatively difficult to master.

26) ______

27) According to Chomsky's nativist perspective, a child's ability to say sentences that he or she has never heard before is one form of evidence for A) creative shaping behavior on the part of parents.

B) an innate mechanism changing syntactic errors to pragmatic errors.

C) fast mapping.

D) a language acquisition device.

27) ______

28) According to Chomsky, the basic structural rules of language learned by a child are A) acquired within the earliest months after children begin speaking.

B) a subset of all possible language rules available to everyone.

C) very specifically associated with each particular language.

D) absolutely identical regardless of the language involved.

28) ______

29) The language acquisition device is best described as a/an A) learned cognitive structure or scheme for distinguishing phonemes from morphemes.

B) hypothetical mechanism in the brain that helps children detect and learn the rules of language.

C) mental representation of speech sounds found in one's native language.

D) cognitive structure or scheme acquired during Piaget's sensorimotor period of cognitive development.

29) ______

30) Which of the following statements provides the most accurate support for the nativist position that there are sensitive periods for language development?

A) Younger children have faster and more complete recoveries of language functions after

30) ______

damage to the brain's left hemisphere than adults do.

B) Both children and adults exposed to language only through television develop normal language skills.

C) Learning a second language is easier for adults who have already mastered their native language than for young children.

D) Case reports of individuals experiencing early social deprivation show no detrimental effects on later language development.

31) Your text discusses the case of Genie, who was raised in a dysfunctional and neglectful home in which she was deprived of normal language. After being placed in protective custody at the age of 13, she was given intensive language training. Within a short time, Genie showed A) normal semantic development, but major delays in syntax and morphology.

B) normal syntax, morphology, and semantic development.

C) major delays in syntax, morphology, and semantic development.

D) major delays in semantic development, but normal syntax and morphology.

31) ______

32) A primary difference between the nativists' and the social interactionists' models of language development is that unlike nativists, A) social interactionists do not believe that humans are biologically wired to develop language.

B) social interactionists believe that any exposure to verbal or written language is enough to activate the language acquisition device.

C) social interactionists believe that the primary milestone necessary for language development is an understanding of object permanence.

D) social interactionists believe that children must have conversations with other people in order to develop language.

32) ______

33) If a child said, "We wented to Cottage Inn to eat last night," his mother might reply, "Yes, we went to Cottage Inn last night." This restatement of the child's sentence in correct grammatical form is known as a/an A) recast.

B) semantic correction.

C) expansion.

D) syntactic correction.

33) ______

34) Which of the following statements regarding child-directed speech is TRUE? A) Infants pay more attention to normal adult speech than to child-directed speech because adult speech is more novel to them.

B) Child-directed speech appears to be strictly an American and European cultural phenomenon.

C) Deaf mothers use child-directed speech by signing slowly, using repetition of signs, and exaggerating their gestures.

D) Although child-directed speech may improve social relations, it has no effect on children's ability to distinguish sounds.

34) ______

35) By using a habituation procedure, researchers learned that one-month-olds can recognize the difference between sounds. The researchers knew this because when they changed the sound, the babies A) looked in a different direction.

B) kicked their feet more vigorously.

C) increased their rate of sucking on a pacifier.

D) began crying loudly.

35) ______

36) Research indicates that infants are able to distinguish different sequences of sound

36) ______

A) by three months of age.

C) by two months of age.

B) at birth.

D) by six months of age.

37) According to research, a six-month-old infant's ability to distinguish different sequences of sounds A) does not depend on the language from which the sounds originate.

B) is limited to sounds to which they have been exposed previously.

C) will not develop without adequate exposure to child-directed speech.

D) is stronger for sounds from their native language than for sounds from other languages.

37) ______

38) If Tom and Rachel have a joint focus of attention, it means that they are A) attending to different aspects of the same object or event.

B) both paying attention to each other.

C) both looking in the same direction.

D) focusing their attention on the same object or event.

38) ______

39) Because sounds are differentiated and intentional, they are produced A) purposely by humans only.

B) in different ways in different cultures.

C) during specific conditions and for specific goals.

D) differently by different people.

39) ______

40) The nonintentional sounds that infants make, such as crying, burping, sneezing, and coughing, A) do not convey social meaning.

B) are reflexive.

C) are sometimes called vegetative sounds.

D) all of the above.

40) ______

41) Vegetative sounds are A) natural.

41) ______ B) unnatural.

C) intentional.

D) meaningful.

42) Which of the following statements regarding babies' crying is FALSE? A) A baby's cries begin to display variation around two months of age.

B) By two months of age, a baby can signal discomfort and requests through crying.

C) A baby's first cries all sound similar to one another.

D) By four months of age, a baby can signal discomfort and requests through crying.

42) ______

43) The occurrence of vowel-like sounds such as "g-o-o-o-o-g-a-a-a" A) signals pain or anger.

B) begins about six months of age.

C) communicates pleasure and comfort.

D) is called babbling.

43) ______

44) Repeated consonant-vowel syllables such as "babababa" or "mamamama" A) is not affected by an infant's hearing.

B) is called cooing.

C) occurs most often when infants are hungry.

D) is called true babbling.

44) ______

45) If Matthew is demonstrating echolalia, he will A) have a definite lisp or stutter when he speaks.

B) immediately repeat what others have said.

C) repeat consonant sounds, such as "mamamama."

D) repeatedly make 'ooo' or 'aaaa' sounds.

45) ______

46) A baby engages in ________ sounds as if she is really talking, but she is not using real words.

46) ______

A) jargon babbling C) variegated babbling

B) echolalia D) true babbling

47) A consistent pattern of sounds that a child uses to refer to specific people, objects, or events is called a A) protoword.

B) holophrase.

C) primal word.

D) overregularization.

47) ______

48) Claire's eight-month-old brother calls her "deedee." He also calls his favorite pacifier "popo."

These are clear examples of A) echolalia.

B) protowords.

C) true babbling.

D) telegraphic speech.

48) ______

49) Why is the transition from babbling to the use of protowords considered important in language development?

A) It marks a change from making intentional but meaningless sounds to making sounds that convey meaning.

B) The ability to use protowords allows the infant to communicate both positive and negative emotional states.

C) The ability to use protowords allows the infant to finally be able to communicate anger, discomfort, and displeasure.

D) It marks a change from making unintentional sounds to making sounds that can convey meaning.

49) ______

50) A child generally says his or her first true word at about A) six months of age.

B) nine months of age.

C) eighteen months of age.

D) twelve months of age.

50) ______

51) By the time he or she is eighteen months of age, the average child can produce about A) 25 words.

B) 100 words.

C) 50 words.

D) 200 words.

51) ______

52) "Tamika wants to know the name of everything she sees," exclaims her mother. This "naming explosion" typically occurs A) at about 36 months of age.

B) at about 12-14 months of age.

C) when a child enters kindergarten.

D) at about 18 to 24 months of age.

52) ______

53) By the age of six, the average child will have a vocabulary of approximately A) 2,000 words.

B) 5,000 words.

C) 25,000 words.

53) ______ D) 10,000 words.

54) The first words commonly acquired by children are A) action words.

B) function words.

C) names of things or people.

D) modifiers of action.

54) ______

55) The term for acquiring at least a partial understanding of a word after hearing it only once is called A) fast mapping.

B) protowords.

C) holophrases.

D) overextension.

55) ______

56) Elyse gets confused when she realizes that the word "car" refers not only to the car her family uses every day, but to all of the "cars" that she sees around her. This is an example of A) overextension.

B) overregularization.

C) underextension.

D) holophrasology.

56) ______

57) The process of using syntax as a cue to determine the meaning of a word is called A) syntactical bootstrapping.

B) syntactical mapping.

C) fast mapping.

D) overregularization.

57) ______

58) Tomas says, "I woogied the book yesterday." Tomas' friend, Elliott, can infer that 'woogied' is an action due to the process of A) overregularization.

B) fast mapping.

C) syntactical mapping.

D) syntactical bootstrapping.

58) ______

59) At the zoo, Brianne is introduced to the word "elephant" while looking at the big, gray animal with horns. Which of the following would be considered a whole object constraint concerning this new word?

A) When Brianne sees a rhinoceros, she calls it an elephant because it is gray and has a horn.

B) When Brianne sees a rhinoceros, she focuses on the entire animal and understands it is not an elephant even though it is gray and has a horn.

C) When Brianne sees a rhinoceros, she begins looking for other animals that are gray and have horns.

D) When Brianne sees a rhinoceros, she practices enunciating the word several times while looking at the animal.

59) ______

60) A child associates only one name with an unfamiliar object. This is an example of A) lexical contrast constraint.

B) whole object constraint.

C) mutual exclusivity constraint.

D) taxonomic constraint.

60) ______

61) Kia sees an animal, and her mom tells her that the animal is called a coatimundi. Kia will assume that the word "coatimundi" has a different meaning from any other word she knows due to the A) lexical contrast constraint.

B) mutual exclusivity constraint.

C) whole object constraint.

D) taxonomic constraint.

61) ______

62) A child says "cookie," meaning "I want a cookie." The word "cookie" is an example of a/an A) telegraphic speech.

B) holophrase.

C) overextension.

D) overregularization.

62) ______

63) A young child who says "ball" to his Dad may be trying to communicate that A) he wants Daddy's ball.

B) he wants Daddy to play ball with him.

C) Daddy has that ball.

D) All of the above are possible.

63) ______

64) Which of the following statements concerning holophrases is FALSE? A) Holophrases can serve as demands, requests, desires, and questions.

B) Holophrases require the listener to pay attention to context.

C) Holophrases are clearly and easily interpretable.

D) Holophrases are single words used to communicate an entire idea or sentence.

64) ______

65) In general, children start to produce two- and three-word sentences around A) 6 to 9 months of age.

B) 18 to 24 months of age.

C) 10 to 12 months of age.

D) 30 months of age.

65) ______

66) A child who asks her mother to mend her bike by saying "Mommy fix" is demonstrating A) expressive jargon.

B) telegraphic speech.

C) turn taking.

D) a referential style.

66) ______

67) Which of the following examples would NOT be a likely illustration of a child's two-word

utte rance in

___ ___

English? 67) A) no milk

B) cow brown

C) Daddy play

D) my doggy

68) The rules of transformational grammar involve A) the correct pronunciations for unfamiliar words.

B) elaborating on what the child says by adding words to create more complete sentences.

C) how to change what you intend to say into a proper grammatical form.

D) the child's knowledge of words improving with age.

68) ______

69) One day, Jason's mother explained to him that the family would take a vacation to Miami. The next morning, Jason emerged from his room with belongings spilling out of a suitcase and remarked, "I gotted my bag packed." What does Jason's error reveal about his language development?

A) He is engaging in overregularization.

B) He is applying regular grammatical rules to words that are exceptions to the rule.

C) Both A and B are correct.

D) Neither A nor B is correct.

69) ______

70) An illustration of the principle of overregularization would be a child who says A) "cats" instead of "animals."

B) "blue" instead of "red."

C) "feets" instead of "feet."

D) "mom" instead of "dad."

70) ______

71) Jean-Robert has learned turn-taking, saying something relevant to the conversation, and not repeating what has already been said. Jean-Robert has learned many of the A) syntactic bootstraps.

B) social rules of discourse.

C) fast mappings.

D) constraints.

71) ______

72) "Do you have to blow that horn so loudly?" Martha's father asks. If Martha understands that her father is asking (or telling) her to play more softly, then Martha understands the A) turn-taking rule.

B) parental priority rule.

C) obedience hierarchy rule.

D) answer-obviousness rule.

72) ______

73) Referential communication refers to A) learning the proper pronunciation of words.

B) adjusting your message for the listener.

C) talking about other people you know.

D) learning the words of your language.

73) ______

74) Children begin to show sensitivity to the age of their listener and adjust the language accordingly by what age?

A) six years B) two years C) four years D) eight years

74) ______

75) At what age would most children understand that "hand me the washing machine" is an impossible request?

A) five years of age B) one year of age C) three years of age D) seven years of age

75) ______

76) While speaking in the passive voice, Clayton says, A) "I ran the store."

C) "The store was run by me."

76) ______

77) Metalinguistic awareness refers to

B) "I ran to the store" D) "I ran by the store."

77) ______

A) understanding what others are saying.

C) knowing the rules of one's language.

B) knowledge about how you use language.

D) all of the above.

78) Which of the following is the best example of metalinguistic awareness?

A) Phillipe comprehends the passive voice and uses it in daily speech.

B) Jean understands that the word "draw" has several different meanings.

C) Malik recognizes the appropriate uses of sarcasm and humor.

D) Sarah knows not to repeat something that has already been said in a conversation.

78) ______

79) Which of the following is NOT true of the adolescent register?

A) It is used to identify adolescents as belonging to a particular social, cultural, or generational group.

B) It has an interesting vocabulary and includes many slang terms.

C) It has terms, syntax, and phonemes that rarely vary.

D) It is found within social, regional, and ethnic groups.

79) ______

80) The words '"groovy," "awesome," "phat," "nerd," and "poser" are all used in your text as examples of A) syntactic bootstrapping.

B) metalinguistic awareness.

C) adolescent phonemic awareness.

D) the adolescent register.

80) ______

81) Genderlects refer to how males A) attempt to understand females.

B) interact with females.

C) talk more than girls about their feelings.

D) and females have different ways of speaking.

81) ______

82) "We went to the store to get bread, and then Dad bought a lawnmower. We had pancakes for breakfast, but Jeffry dropped his on the floor. I got a puzzle for my birthday last week. Do you want to play?" This narrative most likely was created by a person A) six years of age.

B) two years of age.

C) four years of age.

D) eight years of age.

82) ______

83) Renee's parents were transferred to France when she was four years of age. Though she was speaking English on their arrival in France, she gradually began to speak and understand only French. This is an example of A) deductive bilingualism.

B) diminished bilingualism.

C) additive bilingualism.

D) subtractive bilingualism.

83) ______

84) Helga was born in Germany and lived there until she was ten. Her family then moved to Russia, and Helga was placed in a class to teach her Russian. After graduation from college, Helga became a missionary to Africa, where she learned Zulu. Helga's language history would be referred to as A) sequential bilingualism.

B) consecutive bilingualism.

C) simultaneous bilingualism.

D) succeeding bilingualism.

84) ______

85) Which of the following facts about bilingualism is TRUE? A) The older the learner, the more likely he or she is to acquire a native-sounding accent.

B) Children who learn a second language by the age of 3 usually become equally fluent in both languages.

C) Skills learned when learning a first language seldom apply when learning a second

85) ______

language.

D) Younger learners learn second languages faster than older learners do.

86) While engaging in code switching, Hannah A) struggles to learn a second language.

B) mixes words from both languages she knows.

C) does not know what certain words mean.

D) cannot master the accent for the new language she is learning.

86) ______

87) A disadvantage of learning two languages is that the child is likely to A) be less creative, both verbally and nonverbally.

B) acquire either language at a slower rate.

C) have reduced metalinguistic awareness.

D) utilize analogical thinking less frequently.

87) ______

88) A systematic and consistent variety of a single language shared by a particular subgroup of speakers is known as a A) localism.

B) geographic variance.

C) dialect.

D) regional idiom.

88) ______

89) Which of the following is NOT true of dialects?

A) They typically develop according to race.

B) Their rules remain consistent over time.

C) They are consistent linguistic systems.

D) The evolve from their speakers' distinctive backgrounds.

89) ______

90) African American English, also called Ebonics, is thought to have evolved from a mix of several West African languages as well as Portuguese, Dutch, and French. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding African American English?

A) It shares the Standard American English use of aspect.

B) It is a simplistic form of Standard American English.

C) It is a distinct dialect of Standard American English.

D) It lacks a set of consistent linguistic rules.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What is the difference between a phoneme and a morpheme?

92) What is semantics?

93) In regard to language, what is a LAD? 94) What are overextensions? Provide an example of one.

95) What is a holophrase? Provide a clear example of one.

96) If we say that a child is bilingual, what does that mean?

97) What is a dialect?

98) What did speech pathologist Jacklyn Mason claim were some of the more common speech and language problems that she sees?

99) Eliana Mejia is bilingual. According to her, what kind of impact has being bilingual had on her?

100) Name and describe the two basic types of bilingual education programs.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) ________ is the oral expression of language.

101) ____________ 102) The important speech sounds of a language are called ________.

102) ____________

103) The word "radios'" consists of two ________: radio and -s.

103) ____________

104) ________ refers to the use of language to communicate effectively with others.

104) ____________

105) The learning theory of language development focuses primarily on the importance of operant conditioning principles, particularly the procedure of ________.

105) ____________

106) Chomsky referred to the brain mechanism that is specialized for detecting and learning the rules of language as a/an ________.

106) ____________

107) Located in the brain's left temporal lobe for most people, ________ is important in the comprehension of the spoken word and the production of written and spoken language.

107) ____________

108) Greg says, "I wish my baby toothes would fall out." His mom corrects him by saying, "Oh, you wish your baby teeth would fall out." What Greg's mom did is known as a/an ________.

108) ____________

109) Repeated consonant-vowel syllables such as mamama or bababa is known as true ________.

109) ____________

110) The immediate imitation of someone else's words is known as ________.

110) ____________

111) When children acquire at least a partial understanding of a word after hearing it only once, they are demonstrating ________.

111) ____________

112) When a child believes the word "dog" refers to only his dog and to no other dogs, he is demonstrating a/an ________.

112) ____________

113) When using a/an ________, a child will convey an entire idea in a single word.

113) ____________

114) What a person intends to say is referred to as ________ structure, as opposed to surface structure.

114) ____________

115) The adolescent ________ is a special form of speech used to identify adolescents as belonging to a particular social, cultural, or generational group.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) A friend of yours argues that humans are not the only species that has the ability to use language. You respond that although other species have some ability to communicate, humans' ability to use language is different. Explain and give examples of the uniqueness of human language to your friend.

117) Discuss at least FOUR criticisms of the learning theory of language development.

118) Your friend is bilingual and she is not sure whether to encourage bilingualism with her newborn. Even if she does, she is not sure what type of bilingualism to utilize. What can you tell her about the various types of

bilingual ism and the advantages and disadvantages to being bilingual?

119) What is baby talk and what are the benefits of it?

120) What are the whole object constraint and the mutual exclusivity constraint?

1) A 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) C

52) D 53) D 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) D 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) C 83) D 84) A 85) B 86) B 87) B 88) C 89) A 90) C 91) Phonemes are individual units of speech sound, whereas morphemes are the smallest units of meaning in a language.

92) Semantics refers to the meanings that various words have.

93) The language acquisition device (LAD) was proposed by Noam Chomsky. It is a brain mechanism that is specialized for detecting and learning the rules of language.

94) Overextension refers to the expanding of a word's true meaning to include more objects than it should. For example, a child may call all dogs dalmatians, or the child may call all older women grandmas. (Answers will vary.)

95) A holophrase is a single word used to convey a whole idea or sentence. For example, a child may say "Dog" to mean "Look at the dog run fast," or a child may say "Daddy" to mean "Daddy, come here." (Answers will vary.)

96) It means that the child is fluent in two languages.

97) A dialect is a consistent and systematic variety of a single language that is shared by a certain subgroup of speakers.

98) She listed receptive and expressive language delays and disorders, developmental apraxia of speech, phonological

dela ys, and social-communicative disorders as some of the most common problems.

99) She said it has been positive in all ways. She has the opportunity to teach students in their native language and to communicate with their parents too. She believes it has helped her communicate with many people, including coworkers and friends.

100) Transitional bilingual education (TBE) instructs children in their native language, whereas structured English immersion (SEI) provides instruction mostly in English.

101) Speech 102) phonemes 103) morphemes 104) Pragmatics 105) shaping 106) language acquisition device 107) Wernicke's area 108) recast(ing) 109) babbling 110) echolalia 111) fast mapping 112) underextension 113) holophrase 114) deep 115) register 116) Students should articulate and give examples of the concepts of semanticity (language represents thoughts, objects, and events through abstract symbols), productivity (creativity), and displacement (referring to things that are distant in space and time).

117) Students should be able to articulate four of the following points about language development: Parents inconsistently shape children's language by focusing more on the accuracy of the content of children's language rather than on grammatical correctness.

Parents do not explicitly teach children the complicated rule systems governing language. In fact, parents may not be able to describe these rule systems themselves.

Much of the language children hear in everyday life is NOT a good model from which to learn language.

The novelty expressed in children's communication cannot be easily explained through learning theory.

It is impossible for all of children's utterances and the speed at which they learn language to have been produced through reinforcement, shaping, and modeling.

Research indicates that humans are biologically predisposed to detect language; therefore, it is likely that language development is not simply a learned behavior.

118) Students' answers should mention the difference between sequential (first learn one language and then the other) and simultaneous (learn both languages at the same time) bilingualism. Whether the family encourages in additive (learn a second language while maintaining the first) or subtractive (learn the new language while "losing" the old one) bilingualism will depend on whether the family and the community view both languages positively or if one language is preferred. Some disadvantages to bilingualism include possible punishment or disapproval for using a language, code mixing, and taking slightly longer to acquire language. Advantages include higher scores on things such as concept formation, cognitive flexibility, metalinguistic awareness, ability to correct ungrammatical sentences, verbal and nonverbal creativity, and analogical thinking.

119) Baby talk is soft, singsong, shortened speech used with infants. It is a "cleaned- up" version of speech. The long vowel sounds help teach the building blocks of everyday speech. By 20 weeks, babies try to copy what they are hearing. By 18 months, infants form sentences and mimic or replicate aspects of the speech they have heard.

120) The whole object constraint states that a new word refers to a whole object, not just a part of it. The mutual exclusivity constraint says that if a child already has a word for an object, the new word must apply to something new.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) No matter where they are or how long they have been apart, Trista and Ryan have close emotional ties to each other. Researchers would call this tie A) love.

B) cohesion.

C) attachment.

D) a parallel bond.

1) _______

2) Modern-day research on human attachment has its main roots in the works of what two men?

A) Freud and Watson B) Skinner and Piaget C) Thomas and Chess D) Bowlby and Harlow

2) _______

3) John Bowlby is primarily associated with A) ethological theory.

C) sociobiological theory.

3) _______ B) social learning theory.

D) ecological theory.

4) "It is fortunate for their survival that babies are so designed by Nature that they beguile and enslave their mothers." In regard to attachment, this quote most closely supports the position of A) cognitive development theory.

B) ecological theory.

C) social learning theory.

D) ethological theory.

4) _______

5) The primary point of John Bowlby's theory of attachment is that A) differences in infant attachment lead to differences in adult temperament and emotionality.

B) infants are instinctively motivated to receive contact comfort from their parents.

C) attachment behaviors evolved because they increase the chances that infants will survive.

D) parents must learn to nurture and comfort their infants by observing their own parents.

5) _______

6) Bowlby believed that a baby's ________ is a powerful releaser of adults' nurturing behaviors.

A) cry B) touch C) squeal D) smile

6) _______

7) Kara is 2 1/2 months old. When she cries in distress, almost anyone can soothe her by picking her up and cuddling her. According to Bowlby, which stage of attachment is Kara in?

A) Goal-corrected partnerships B) Orientation with discrimination C) Orientation without discrimination D) Safe-base attachment

7) _______

8) Keith's father is carrying him on his shoulders when a stranger approaches and tries to take him.

Keith seems happy with the stranger as he is smiling, cooing, and babbling all the while. Keith is probably A) 1 to 6 months old.

B) over 12 months old.

C) 6 to 9 months old.

D) 9 to 12 months old.

8) _______

9) According to Bowlby's theory, the primary development in Stage 2 is that A) infants use caregivers as a safe base to explore.

B) infants understand the motives of their caregivers.

C) attachment to a specific caregiver emerges.

D) infants' fears of strangers become heightened.

9) _______

10) Mark calls his 2-year-old brother Garrett a "scaredy cat" because Garrett cries whenever someone he doesn't know approaches him. You know that Garrett is simply in Bowlby's stage of A) orientation without discrimination.

B) goal-corrected partnerships.

C) safe-base attachment.

D) orientation with discrimination.

10) ______

11) Fear of strangers emerges during which of Bowlby's stages?

A) Orientation with discrimination B) Goal-corrected partnerships C) Orientation without discrimination D) Safe-base attachment

11) ______

12) Three-year-old Todd is fascinated by the clown who is making animal balloons, but he is hesitant to approach her. As he slowly inches his way toward the clown, he checks several times to make sure that his mother is still near and watching. Bowlby would say that Todd is in the stage of A) goal-corrected attachment.

B) safe-base attachment.

C) orientation with discrimination.

D) orientation without discrimination.

12) ______

13) When 4-year-old Ginny stubs her toe and falls down, she immediately gets up and runs to her big sister Jan for a hug. Jan, who is finishing her homework says, "Hang on a minute," and Ginny patiently waits for her hug. Bowlby would place Ginny in the stage of A) goal-corrected partnership.

B) safe-base attachment.

C) orientation without discrimination.

D) orientation with discrimination.

13) ______

14) Which of the following is NOT one of Bowlby's attachment stages?

A) Orientation with discrimination B) Safe-base attachment C) Differentiated attachment D) Goal-corrected partnership

14) ______

15) DeShawn loves it when his mother holds him. Harlow would say that DeShawn enjoys A) cohesion.

B) a goal-corrected partnership.

C) safe-base attachment.

D) contact comfort.

15) ______

16) Harry Harlow's "surrogate mothers" experiments provided strong support for his prediction that attachments develop A) out of the infant's need for contact comfort.

B) independently of the primary food source.

C) Both A and B are correct.

D) Neither A nor B is correct.

16) ______

17) In psychoanalytic theory, what is it that establishes the initial bond between the child and the mother?

A) Time spent together B) Smiling C) Feeding D) Contact comfort

17) ______

18) Harry Harlow's research utilized which of the following techniques?

A) Naturalistic observation B) Longitudinal assessment C) Correlational analysis D) Experimentation

18) ______

19) According to Harry Harlow's research, contact comfort is vital to development because it A) stimulates the endocrine system.

B) is the foundation for attachment.

C) ensures that the infant will receive food.

D) ensures the continuation of the genome.

19) ______

20) Mary Ainsworth's research was based on the groundbreaking work of A) Skinner and Watson.

B) Freud and Erikson.

C) Bowlby and Harlow.

D) Piaget and Vygotsky.

20) ______

21) Mary Ainsworth conducted her research on human attachment A) mostly in university labs.

B) only in the infants' homes.

C) only in the infants' nurseries.

D) at local day care centers.

21) ______

22) In an unfamiliar physical setting such as the laboratory in the Strange Situation, infants will typically situate themselves so that they can A) maintain physical contact with their mothers.

B) engage in verbal interaction with their mothers.

C) maintain visual contact with their mothers.

D) be at a distance of less than two feet from their mothers.

22) ______

23) According to Ainsworth, the most reliable indicator of secure attachment is how an infant behaves when A) his or her mother leaves the room.

B) confronted with an unfamiliar adult.

C) his or her mother returns to the room.

D) left alone with the "fear stimulus."

23) ______

24) What percent of U.S. infants are classified as securely attached using the Strange Situation procedure?

A) Approximately 65% B) Approximately 75% C) Approximately 35% D) Approximately 50%

24) ______

25) Research with the Strange Situation procedure is used to classify children into which primary categories?

A) Calm, clinging, aggressive, and fearful B) Secure, avoidant, resistant, and disorganized C) Independent, dependent, disoriented, and disorganized D) Autonomous, anxious, angry, and disorganized

25) ______

26) In one study using the Strange Situation procedure, baby Kira went directly to the female stranger when she entered the room. In addition, Kira was not at all distressed when her mother left the room, and she did not greet her mother when she returned. Kira would likely be classified as having which of the following attachment styles?

A) Insecure-disoriented B) Insecure-avoidant C) Insecure-resistant D) Secure

26) ______

27) Regarding insecure-avoidant attachment, why do infants turn away from or ignore their mothers when they return to the room?

A) They have not developed special bonds with their mothers B) There is no clear consensus among researchers about this behavior.

C) They don't need comforting.

D) They are angry with their mothers.

27) ______

28) Insecure-resistant children often show exaggerated A) stranger anxiety.

B) need to stay close to the parent.

C) separation anxiety.

D) ALL of the above

28) ______

29) Insecure-resistant attachment is sometimes called A) insecure-disorganized.

C) insecure-ambivalent.

29) ______ B) insecure-avoidant.

D) insecure-hostile.

30) When Jerry leaves the room, his daughter Jasmine cries hysterically. When Jerry returns a short time later, Jasmine immediately goes to him, but when he picks her up, she doesn't respond to him in any way. Jasmine's behaviors may indicate which of the following types of insecure attachment?

A) Ambivalent B) Passive-aggressive

30) ______

C) Disorganized

D) Avoidant

31) Which of the following infant behaviors may indicate an insecure-disorganized attachment?

A) Being calm one moment and angry the next B) Showing fear at the parent's approach C) Appearing confused D) ALL of the above are possible indicators of disorganized attachment.

31) ______

32) Which of the following parental responses is the BEST example of sensitive responsiveness?

A) Teresa's mother always makes sure Teresa has everything she needs even before she asks.

B) Pete's father makes sure that Pete eats his lunch at 12:00 and has a snack at 3:00 every day.

C) Mary's father picks her up and hugs her frequently and tells her she's a "sweet baby."

D) Jon smiles and points to a dog and says, "Da." His mother responds, "Yes, Jon, that's a dog."

32) ______

33) With secure attachments, the relationship between caretaker and infant is A) dominated by the needs of the caretaker.

B) mutual and interdependent.

C) dominated by the needs of the infant.

D) best when the caretaker has complete control.

33) ______

34) Pearlene's parents are completely engrossed in her. They are constantly picking her up and playing with her even when she is tired. They talk to her all the time and keep her involved continually. She never gets a quiet moment to herself. Such parental behavior may lead Pearlene to develop an A) insecure-disorganized attachment.

B) insecure-despondent attachment.

C) insecure-avoidant attachment.

D) insecure-resistant attachment.

34) ______

35) Research has shown that intervention programs for at-risk families A) have demonstrated some impact on attachment.

B) typically need at least two to three years to show positive effects.

C) do little to impact attachment.

D) work best when the father is not included.

35) ______

36) Which of the following statements can be used as evidence for the idea that infant characteristics cause differences in attachment?

A) Infants with insecure-resistant attachments are less alert and less active from birth.

B) Infants with special needs more often develop insecure-disorganized attachments.

C) Infants with insecure attachments tend to cry more than securely attached infants.

D) These statements are correlational and cannot be used as evidence for causal relationships.

36) ______

37) As noted by your text, two countries with particularly high rates of secure attachments are A) Greece and Israel.

B) Great Britain and Sweden.

C) the United States and Canada.

D) Mexico and Spain.

37) ______

38) Among nations studied, which have the lowest percentages of secure attachments?

A) Chile and Germany B) Great Britain and Mexico C) United States and the Netherlands D) Japan and Israel

38) ______

39) In the United States, A) Puerto Rican mothers view independence negatively.

B) Caucasian mothers tend to value independence.

C) Caucasian mothers like their babies to be dependent.

39) ______

D) few African Americans are raised in extended-family situations.

40) Which of the following statements regarding infants' attachment to their fathers is TRUE? A) Infants tend to develop the same types of attachment bonds with their fathers as they do with their mothers.

B) Infants are less likely to form secure attachments with their fathers because fathers are less likely to feed them.

C) Similarities between mothers' and fathers' parenting behaviors is the reason why infants develop similar attachments to them.

D) Researchers have studied attachments between fathers and infants as often as they have studied mother-infant attachments.

40) ______

41) Children in day care arrangements A) typically are securely attached to their mothers.

B) are much more likely to develop insecure attachments than other children.

C) usually develop insecure attachments with their mothers.

D) have a greater likelihood of developing secure attachments not only with the daycare employees, but with their parents as well.

41) ______

42) The BEST research technique for determining if the quality of infant attachment influences later development is a/an A) structured interview.

B) experimental study.

C) cross-sectional study.

D) longitudinal study.

42) ______

43) Securely attached infants tend to become A) teens who are more likely to be leaders.

B) children who have high self-esteem.

C) young adults with satisfying romantic relationships.

D) ALL of the above have been found.

43) ______

44) When Trish was between 6 and 12 months old, her mother was diagnosed with major depression and was unable to care for Trish in a positive manner. Fortunately, Trish's mother received medical and psychological help, as well as consistent social support, starting when Trish was about two years of age. Research would suggest which of the following outcomes for Trish?

A) Trish's lack of a secure attachment to her mother as an infant will lead her to have relationship problems throughout life.

B) Trish will likely have difficulties with relationships as a child, but she will improve her own social skills as an adult.

C) If Trish's mother continues to receive medical and social support, her improved parenting skills will benefit Trish's relational skills.

D) Trish's lack of a secure attachment to her mother as an infant will lead her to develop a hostile and ambivalent temperament.

44) ______

45) If Dr. Ketchum want to use an AQS, he will need what equipment?

A) Balls B) Cards C) Video camera D) The test itself and a pencil for the person being tested

45) ______

46) With the Attachment Q-sort, an attachment pattern is created and compared to a profile in order to assess a child's A) activity level, anxiety, emotionality, and task orientation.

46) ______

B) security, dependency, sociability, and social desirability.

C) control, sociability, hostility, and dependence.

D) autonomy, preoccupation, dismissal, and confusion.

47) One procedure asks adults who know a child well to sort through cards, each of which describes a behavior. Adults sort the cards according to how well the descriptions match the child. Which procedure is this?

A) Attachment Q-sort B) Apgar Attachment Profile C) Child Attachment Interview D) Infant Behavior Questionnaire

47) ______

48) An important limitation of the AQS is that it A) can only be used with children under 12 months of age.

B) does not involve adults who know the child well.

C) does not involve direct observation of the child.

D) can only be used with children who can communicate.

48) ______

49) Mary Main and her colleagues developed the A) Strange Situation procedure.

C) Attachment Q-sort.

49) ______ B) Child Attachment Interview.

D) Adult Attachment Interview.

50) When 50-year-old Mike talks about his childhood, he angrily mentions a lot of bad things that his mother and father did to him and how they never really included him as part of the family.

Even today, his hostility and resentment are apparent. Using the AAI, Mike would most likely be classified as A) preoccupied.

B) dismissing.

C) autonomous.

D) unresolved.

50) ______

51) Whenever anyone asks 35-year-old Rick about his childhood, he just shakes his head and says he can't remember. Strangely, even though he doesn't talk about any clear memories of when he was a kid, he talks about his parents as if they were "saints." Using the AAI, Rick would most likely be classified as A) preoccupied.

B) dismissing.

C) autonomous.

D) unresolved.

51) ______

52) When using the AAI, which of the following is NOT a form of insecure attachment?

A) dismissing B) unresolved C) autonomous D) preoccupied

52) ______

53) Recent research indicates that AAI responses reflect relative scores on A) how freely people discuss their past and how active or passive the responses seem to be.

B) how freely people are able to discuss their past and their overall satisfaction with childhood experiences.

C) whether people still have healthy relationships with their parents and current relationships with their own children.

D) overall happiness about the past and continuing healthy relationships with parents.

53) ______

54) The AAI was designed to predict the types of attachments that adults would have with their own A) parents.

B) partners.

C) infants.

D) siblings.

54) ______

55) Which of the following statements regarding research with the AAI is FALSE? A) Unresolved and dismissing parents tend to have insecure-resistant parents and infants.

B) Consistency in types of attachment can be remarkably high even across three generations.

C) The AAI was designed to predict the types of attachments that adults have with their infants.

55) ______

D) Autonomous parents usually have secure attachments with their infants.

56) In child development research, an individual's primary pattern of reacting to the environment is called his or her A) attachment type.

B) emotionality profile.

C) dispositional intent.

D) temperament.

56) ______

57) Using their nine temperament dimensions, Thomas and Chess (1977) identified three constellations that are particularly important. They are A) resistant, avoidant, and secure temperaments.

B) adaptable, responsive, and distractible temperaments.

C) unresolved, dismissive, and autonomous temperaments.

D) easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up temperaments.

57) ______

58) Six-year-old Carolyn has never liked new situations or experiences. However, when she is given ample time to prepare and then is eased into a new encounter, she responds in a quiet and positive manner. Thomas and Chess would most likely describe Carolyn as a(n) A) avoidant child.

B) slow-to-warm-up child.

C) anxious child.

D) easy child.

58) ______

59) Three-year-old Conrad hates changes in his routine. There are many foods he refuses to eat, and he becomes highly frustrated when his father tries to get him to sample new things. Thomas and Chess would most likely classify Conrad as having a/an A) angry temperament.

B) anxious temperament.

C) difficult temperament.

D) distractible temperament.

59) ______

60) In Thomas and Chess' temperament model, the most frequently observed category was the A) difficult temperament.

B) shy temperament.

C) easy temperament.

D) slow-to-warm-up temperament.

60) ______

61) Thomas and Chess (1978) claimed that temperament is mainly shaped by A) nature and nurture.

B) genetic factors.

C) the parents.

D) Actually, they said that it was impossible to determine the cause of temperament.

61) ______

62) Which of the following is NOT a good example of "goodness of fit"?

A) A slow-to-warm-up child is born to patient parents who value spontaneity and new experiences.

B) A highly active infant is born into a family that values exercise and other physical activity.

C) A highly reactive infant is born to parents who are calm, reflective, and patient.

D) A difficult child is born to parents who are unpredictable, intense, and argumentative.

62) ______

63) Which of the following is the best example of goodness of fit?

A) Lyn's friends tease her for wearing clothing that is out-of-style.

B) Connie's parents help her to complete her math homework.

C) Traci is uncoordinated, so her parents enroll her in dance classes to help her become more coordinated.

D) Allen's teacher assigns all students to read and give a speech on a book about animals.

63) ______

64) In order for a good "fit" to occur, characteristics of the child and parent A) must match.

B) must be complementary.

64) ______

C) must be genetically similar.

D) may either match or be complementary.

65) Which of the following statements regarding temperament is TRUE? A) The manner in which temperament is expressed does not change.

B) Most adults have very little insight regarding their own temperaments.

C) Measures of temperament are highly consistent over time.

D) In many situations, our behavior may not match our true temperament.

65) ______

66) In assessing temperament, Thomas and Chess used ________, whereas Rothbart used ________.

A) structured interviews; behavioral questionnaires B) naturalistic observation; structured interviews C) experimentation; surveys D) behavioral questionnaires; naturalistic observation

66) ______

67) In the original version of Rothbart's method of assessing temperament, which measure was NOT included?

A) Soothability B) Fear C) Duration of orienting D) Crying

67) ______

68) Among Rothbart's measured dimensions, which of the following showed the greatest consistency during the first year of life?

A) Soothability B) Anger C) Activity level D) Frustration

68) ______

69) If Rothbart said Jonathan scored high on measures of surgency, we could expect Jonathan to A) demonstrate shame.

B) focus his attention well.

C) be quite active.

D) be fearful and sad.

69) ______

70) A summary of more than 200 studies comparing boys' and girls' temperaments found that girls A) are more active and they get into more trouble.

B) are better at controlling their emotions.

C) score higher on measures of surgency.

D) and boys are equally likely to be shy.

70) ______

71) Kagan asserts that children who are extremely shy might A) become violent.

B) seek intense or dangerous activities.

C) be at risk for social phobia.

D) engage in delinquent behavior.

71) ______

72) Which of the following statements regarding Kagan's research on shyness is FALSE? A) Kagan found that shy infants facing unfamiliar situations experience decreases in their heart rates compared to other children.

B) Kagan found that shy infants were at an increased risk of developing social phobia as adolescents.

C) Kagan observed that 16-week-old infants who responded negatively to unfamiliar stimuli were very shy by four years of age.

D) Kagan argues that low thresholds of arousal in the limbic system and the hypothalamus influence the experience of shyness.

72) ______

73) Jerome Kagan hypothesizes that children develop extreme shyness because A) they are "difficult" children being reared by "difficult" or "slow-to-warm-up" parents.

B) they imitate the fearful and anxious behaviors modeled by their parents.

C) they experience lowered heart rates when faced with unfamiliar stimulation.

D) of low thresholds of arousal in the limbic system and the hypothalamus.

73) ______

74) Two-month-old Adrian is easily distressed by unfamiliar situations and experiences. According to Jerome Kagan's research, Adrian is likely to be A) difficult to classify with Thomas and Chess' temperament model.

B) unable to establish a clear self-other distinction.

C) anxious, fearful, and inhibited as a preschooler.

D) insecurely attached to his own children as an adult.

74) ______

75) Kagan indicates that children with extremely HIGH thresholds of arousal might A) back away from social situations.

B) seek out intense or dangerous activities.

C) become extremely inhibited.

D) be at risk for social phobia.

75) ______

76) Which of the following researchers is NOT primarily associated with the study of temperament?

A) Ainsworth B) Kagan C) Rothbart D) Chess

76) ______

77) When Mark was an infant, his older sister, Tabitha, was fascinated to discover that if she pretended to cry, Mark would start crying moments later. Tabitha had discovered the phenomenon known as A) shared genetic emotionality.

B) empathic linking.

C) infectious emotionality.

D) emotion contagion.

77) ______

78) Newborns are more likely to cry when they hear A) artificial crying sounds.

C) recordings of their own cry.

78) ______ B) older infants' cries.

D) other newborns cry.

79) Sorce and colleagues (1985) used the visual cliff procedure to show that 12-month-olds can A) understand the meaning of different adult facial expressions.

B) only discriminate among adults' facial expressions.

C) perceive differences in depth in an unfamiliar setting.

D) only imitate adults' facial expressions.

79) ______

80) Seven-month-old Freddie is in a quiet room with his mother when music suddenly starts playing. Due to social referencing, Freddie is likely to A) be upset by the sudden music.

B) be happy if his mother seems happy.

C) enjoy the music, if it is pleasant.

D) be upset, which will cause his mom to be upset.

80) ______

81) Social referencing refers to A) realizing what others are doing.

C) influencing someone else's behaviors.

81) ______ B) looking to parents for information.

D) knowing how others perceive you.

82) When do self-conscious emotions begin to emerge?

A) At birth B) After the first year C) At about age four D) At about six months

82) ______

83) Shame, guilt, pride, and embarrassment are all examples of A) emotion contagion.

B) self-conscious emotions.

C) attachment types.

D) social referencing.

83) ______

84) In order for people to experience self-conscious emotions, they must A) be able to interpret other people's verbal expressions of emotion.

84) ______

B) have the ability to think about how they should behave.

C) be securely attached to their parents or other primary caregivers.

D) be able to visually discriminate among other people's emotions.

85) If Diane is a teenager who has been diagnosed with depression, her clinician made the diagnosis based on all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A) less popular among her peers.

B) average school performance.

C) low self-esteem.

D) feeling rejected.

85) ______

86) In regard to depression, which of the following statistics is accurate?

A) During childhood, more girls than boys are diagnosed.

B) About 15 to 20% of adolescents suffer with depression.

C) By puberty, depression is five times more common among girls than boys.

D) ALL of the above statistics are accurate.

86) ______

87) Julia's mother is clinically depressed. We can expect Julia to have A) decreased left frontal lobe activity.

B) decreased frontal lobe activity.

C) increased temporal lobe activity.

D) increased right temporal lobe activity.

87) ______

88) In Oregon, it was found that all of the following were predictors of suicide attempts EXCEPT A) being born to teenage mothers.

B) living in a single-parent home.

C) having less education.

D) having well-educated parents.

88) ______

89) Which of the following statistics regarding suicide is accurate?

A) Women are more likely than men to die from a suicide attempt.

B) African-American adolescents are most likely to commit suicide than Latino-American adolescents.

C) Males and females are equally likely to attempt suicide.

D) NONE of the above statistics is accurate.

89) ______

90) Oprah Winfrey was born to unmarried teen parents. She grew up poor and was hit with a switch if she misbehaved. She was molested by several relatives. She ran away from home and was pregnant by the age of 14. Despite all of this, she skipped two grades in school, was an honor student, was voted Most Popular Girl, and won the Miss Black Tennessee Beauty Pageant. As an adult, she became one of the wealthiest and most influential people in the world. Because she succeeded despite growing up in such challenging circumstances, Oprah would be described as A) resilient.

B) high in surgency.

C) ambiguous.

D) socially referenced.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) Describe the basic set-up for, and results of, Harlow's research with monkeys.

92) According to Ainsworth's research, how do securely attached infants typically behave?

93) Grady is worried that placing his son in daycare will cause his son to not form an attachment with his mother. Based on research, what would you tell Grady?

94) What is an Attachment Q-sort (AQS)?

95) What is the AAI? 96) Name the three types of temperament identified by Thomas and Chess.

97) Provide an example of emotion contagion.

98) The interviewed kindergarten teacher said that parents should do what three things to prepare children for the first days of school?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

99) How does the Unites States compare to other industrialized nations in regard to time off 99) _____________ for parents when the baby is born?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

100) How did Mary Jane say that she has dealt with her son John's frustrations and difficult temperament?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) The emotional bond, enduring across space and time, between an infant and his or her 101) ____________ caregiver is referred to as ________.

102) During Bowlby's ________ stage of attachment, infants and toddlers actively seek to be near their favored caregiver for support and for confidence to explore new environments.

102) ____________

103) Harlow's research showed the importance of ________ in determining attachment bonds.

103) ____________

104) To measure attachment Mary Ainsworth developed the ________.

104) ____________

105) About 8% of all infants show ________ attachment, an unhealthy form of attachment in which infants seek the proximity of their caregivers but don't gain comfort from the contact.

105) ____________

106) Compared to mothers, fathers are ________ likely to form secure attachments with their infants.

106) ____________

107) Developed by Mary Main and her colleagues, the ________ measures an adult's state of mind regarding attachments with his or her own parents.

107) ____________

108) ________ attachment is the type of adult attachment involving detailed and thoughtful memories of loving childhood relationships with one's parents.

108) ____________

109) A person's behavioral style or primary pattern of reacting to the environment is known as ________.

109) ____________

110) Thomas and Chess would describe Hilel as a ________ child, because he is frequently negative, easily frustrated, and slow to adapt to change.

110) ____________

111) The degree to which a child's temperament and environment "match" is called ________.

111) ____________

112) Related to shyness, ________ is defined as an intense fear of social situations.

112) ____________

113) The tendency of the emotional cues displayed by one person to generate similar cues or emotional states in other people is called ________.

113) ____________

114) For self-conscious emotions to occur, the toddler must have a sense of his or her identity and a sense of what others ________.

114) ____________

115) When children succeed despite growing up under negative conditions, they are said to be ________.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Describe two or three reasons why the validity of the Strange Situation may be questioned.

117) As your cousin describes the behavior of her three-year-old, you realize that she has a child with a difficult temperament, sometimes called a Difficult Child. Based on what you have learned from Thomas and Chess' research, what advice would you give her about dealing with her Difficult Child?

118) Describe how Sorce, Emde, Campos, and Klinnert (1985) used the visual cliff procedure to obtain evidence that infants can understand the meaning of basic facial emotions.

119) What is secure attachment and — according to the interviewed student — what happens when it is not there?

120) What is temperament and what are the temperamental styles identified by (1) Thomas and Chess, and (2) Kagan?

1) C 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) B

52) C 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) D 57) D 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) D 68) C 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) D 78) D 79) A 80) B 81) B 82) B 83) B 84) B 85) B 86) C 87) A 88) D 89) D 90) A 91) Baby monkeys were raised by two surrogate-mother monkeys. One was made of wire and provided food, while the other was covered in cloth but had no food. The babies spent much more time with the cloth-covered "mother."

92) The baby is wary of the stranger and prefers the mother. The infant typically seeks contact with the mother and clings to her when she returns.

93) Infants spending more than 20 hours a week in day care are a little more likely to develop insecure attachments with their mothers. Still, most infants in daycare are securely attached to their mothers. It seems that insecure attachment due to daycare occurs only when combined with less sensitive and responsive mothering.

94) With the AQS, an adult is asked to sort through 90 cards based on how well various descriptions describe a certain child.

95) The AAI is an interview designed to determine an adult's state of mind regarding attachment with his or her own parents.

96) Easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up 97) The student will need to provide an example in which one person's emotional response influenced another person

to

respond similarly. For example, Toby smiles when seeing a toy. After seeing Toby smile, George smiles, too.

98) She suggested scheduling a day to visit a kindergarten classroom, discussing expectations with children, and establishing routines (with things such as TV viewing, bedtimes, and wake up times).

99) Not very well. On average, European Union nations provide 36 weeks of paid leave to families with newborns.

Mothers typically receive 14 to 16 weeks of maternity leave, which is often fully or partially paid, plus about 20 weeks leave for mothers (and sometimes dads) at a reduced pay rate. Out of the world's 29 most developed nations, only the U.S., Australia, and New Zealand have no paid leave benefits. In the U.S., new mothers typically receive 12 weeks of unpaid leave.

100) They tried counseling. She usually tries to talk to him (after waiting) and she begins the conversation with a positive attitude. She has patience and ensures privacy. She said their talks usually end with him saying he was glad that they talked. She also provides special one-on-one time with him.

101) attachment 102) safe-base attachment 103) contact comfort 104) Strange Situation (test or task or procedure) 105) insecure-resistant 106) as (or equally or just as) 107) Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) 108) Autonomous 109) temperament 110) difficult 111) goodness of fit 112) social phobia 113) emotion contagion 114) expect 115) resilient 116) Research has shown that there are ethnic group differences in infants' responses in the Strange Situation. However, because Ainsworth originally developed the procedure with predominantly white, middle-class American infants, it may not be appropriate to use these children's responses as a normative reference to classify infants raised in different cultural environments. Research also has found that infants in full-time daycare may not respond with separation anxiety during the Strange Situation because they have become accustomed to watching their parents leave and return. These infants may react differently during the Strange Situation due to their greater experience with separation from their primary caregivers rather than because they have a less secure attachment style.

Furthermore, home reactions may not parallel reactions in the lab.

117) A Difficult Child is one who is easily frustrated, slow to adapt to change, and likely to withdraw from new situations. A Difficult Child is often negative and shows irregular patterns of eating and sleeping. Important advice to give this cousin relates to Thomas and Chess's concept of "goodness of fit," which is defined as the degree to which a child's temperament and his or her environment are compatible or complementary. The cousin could help her child by being patient, supportive, warm, and nurturing. Her child will feel most confident when given time to adapt to new situations at his or her own pace rather than being pushed or rushed into them. As her child ages, she can help him or her identify and deal with feelings of anger, negativity, and frustration and the situations in which these feelings are most likely to arise. Providing structure to daily routines and using an authoritative parenting style will also be helpful when working with a Difficult Child.

118) These researchers placed 12-month-old infants on the shallow side of a visual cliff apparatus and an attractive toy on the deep end. As the infants approached the deep side, they looked to their mothers for guidance. The mothers had been instructed by the researchers to show either a happy, sad, interested, angry, or fearful facial expression.

The results of their study showed that none of the infants would cross to the deep side when the mothers showed fear. However, many of the infants crossed to the deep side when their mothers showed interest or happiness. Some of the infants crossed when their mothers displayed either anger or sadness. These results were interpreted as indicating that the infants could not only discriminate between facial expressions of emotion, but they could also use these different emotional expressions to obtain information to guide their own behavior.

119) Secure attachment is a lasting, enduring, long-term emotional tie. Due to the absence of this, this young woman felt

distr others, found it tough to love, had to relearn relating to people, and had to learn to not feel guilty or to apologize ustfu for things that she has no control over. She also had to learn that she doesn't have to earn kindness. She feels guilty l of that she is a "high need" person.

120) Temperament is a style of behavior determined (at least in part) by genetics. Thomas and Chess found that 2/3 of all the children they studied were either easy, difficult, or slow-to-warm-up. Kagan identified inhibited (fearful, shy) and uninhibited (calm, easygoing, happy) children.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The component of self that is consciously aware that it exists as a separate, unique individual is referred to as the A) I-self.

B) Me-self.

C) looking-glass self.

D) self-concept.

1) _______

2) Which of the following statements about the I-self is NOT generally accepted by psychologists?

A) The I-self exists across time and different contexts.

B) The I-self includes all of the objective knowledge an individual has about himself.

C) Very young children do not appear to realize that they are separate from other people.

D) The I-self includes an individual's belief that she can affect the environment.

2) _______

3) According to William James, the two basic aspects of the self are A) the id and the ego.

B) the I-self and the me-self.

C) personal agency and self-esteem.

D) self-representations and self-concept.

3) _______

4) Six-year-old Felice will tell you that she is a girl, that she goes to school, and that her best friend is Foster. These aspects of self are a part of Felice's A) self-concept.

B) looking-glass self.

C) intermodal perception.

D) profile of self-evaluations.

4) _______

5) Jessica feels that she is an outstanding speller, decent in math, and a pretty good volleyball player. These judgments represent her A) global self-esteem.

B) intermodal perceptions.

C) ideal self-concepts.

D) profile of self-evaluations.

5) _______

6) Which of the following is the BEST example of a global self-evaluation?

A) "I'm better at creative writing than most of my peers."

B) "I have very mixed feelings about my family."

C) "I think I'm a decent human being."

D) "I have no hand-eye coordination."

6) _______

7) Fourteen-year-old James is trying to eat three pounds of hamburger at one sitting. He looks around at his friends who are watching and laughing and thinks, "They'll think I'm a loser if I can't eat all of this meat." James is obtaining self-related information from A) the looking-glass self.

B) self-reflection.

C) social comparison.

D) intermodal perception.

7) _______

8) There are a number of theories that try to explain self-development. One common aspect of these theories is that they A) focus a great deal of attention on the role of biology.

B) pay very little attention to the role of genetics.

C) pay very little attention to the role of social interaction.

D) focus a great deal of attention on the role of genetics.

8) _______

9) Whenever 18-month-old Mark squeals loudly, his big sister comes running to see what is wrong.

As soon as Mark sees her, he smiles and giggles. Soon, Mark is squealing quite often. Mark's behavior will likely increase his sense of A) self-esteem.

B) self-efficacy.

C) personal agency.

D) ALL of the above.

9) _______

10) Two-year-old Tracy loves to throw rolls of toilet paper down the staircase. Every time she finds a loose roll in the bathroom, she sends it flying down the stairs with a squeal of absolute glee. This type of repetitive behavior may increase Tracy's A) abstract thinking ability.

B) ability to self-reflect.

C) sense of personal agency.

D) level of disobedience.

10) ______

11) Five-year-old Trina will tell you that she is a girl, that she's in Miss Viki's class, and that her dog's name is Rosebud. These aspects of self are a part of Trina's A) Me-self.

B) self-representation.

C) self-concept.

D) ALL of the above.

11) ______

12) The ability to integrate information across several different senses (e.g., hearing, seeing, and touching) is referred to as A) maturation.

B) primitive control.

C) self-regulation.

D) intermodal perception.

12) ______

13) Poeple's beliefs that they can reach the goals they have set for themselves is referred to as A) cross-modal perception.

B) self-efficacy.

C) self-esteem.

D) personal agency.

13) ______

14) Teresa strongly believes that she can get a get a good grade on today's spelling test. In regard to her spelling ability, Teresa has a A) stable and complex self-concept.

B) well-developed looking-glass self.

C) high degree of self-efficacy.

D) highly abstract ideal self.

14) ______

15) Erika is an infant who loves to drop her cereal on the floor and then watch her mother pick it up.

This interaction between Erika and her mother is A) not a good idea because it will hinder intermodal perception.

B) important because it will let Erika know that she can control the environment.

C) valuable because it will boost the mother's self-efficacy.

D) not productive because it will undermine Erika's feelings toward her mother.

15) ______

16) The me-self typically emerges when?

A) When the child can feed himself or herself B) During the first two months of life C) Between the first and second year D) At about age three

16) ______

17) In a classic study demonstrating self-recognition among infants, Lewis and Brooks (1978) put a spot of rouge on each infant's face while pretending to wipe it, then they placed the infant in front of a mirror. Infants were classified as having developed self-recognition when they noticed the spot and A) cried, displaying facial expressions of anger.

B) tried to touch their own faces.

C) cried, displaying facial expressions of fear.

D) tried to touch the face in the mirror.

17) ______

18) When my daughter was about 2 or 3, she sometimes would want to make the hot chocolate. To indicate that she wanted to do this on her own, she would say, "Olivia do it." This statement was an indication that A) she was developing her Me-self.

18) ______

B) her cognition and language are delayed.

C) her ability to use social comparison was improving.

D) she was unable to engage in self-regulation.

19) The process of comparing one's own characteristics and abilities to those of other people is referred to as A) self-comparison.

B) social comparison.

C) comparative psychology.

D) comparative reflection.

19) ______

20) In first grade, Brady thought he was "best" at everything. Now that he's in 5th grade, Brady knows that Juanita is better than he is in math, and Yao is better than he is in art. This process of evaluating one's self in relation to one's peers is known as A) real-self comparisons.

B) the looking-glass self.

C) identity diffusion.

D) social comparison.

20) ______

21) One of the main beliefs of the phenomenological variant of systems theory is that A) a person's personality and identity are constantly evolving.

B) genetic factors primarily determine the individual's personality.

C) once we have established identity, it remains fairly constant.

D) many different cultural influences impact the person's thinking.

21) ______

22) According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, identity development is an extremely important aspect of A) middle childhood.

B) adolescence.

C) infancy and early childhood.

D) early adulthood.

22) ______

23) In Marcia's theory, the two main components of identity development are A) internal conflicts and time.

B) the I-self and the me-self.

C) abstract and concrete thinking.

D) crisis and commitment.

23) ______

24) Identity foreclosure and identity moratorium are similar in that both A) feature individuals who are still uncertain about who they are.

B) involve a commitment that the person has already made.

C) involve much self-examination and questioning.

D) NONE of the above is correct.

24) ______

25) For months, sixteen-year-old Allison struggled to understand her sexual orientation. Now she knows that she is attracted to other young women, and she has finally gotten the courage to call herself a "lesbian." According to James Marcia, which identity status would fit Allison BEST? A) Identity achievement B) Identity moratorium C) Identity foreclosure D) Identity diffusion

25) ______

26) Two years ago, fifteen-year-old Kevin started questioning whether he believes in God. Likewise, he has not yet determined a career path for himself. According to James Marcia, which of the following identity statuses would fit Kevin BEST? A) Identity achievement B) Identity moratorium C) Identity diffusion D) Identity foreclosure

26) ______

27) At what age do children of ethnic minority groups usually begin to understand the differences between themselves and members of the majority group?

A) Eleven to thirteen years of age B) Five to seven years of age C) Three to four years of age D) Eight to ten years of age

27) ______

28) Wei-Chin knows that he is a Chinese American, but he has never given much thought as to what that means to him personally. He doesn't speak Mandarin Chinese, and the only things he knows about Chinese culture and history are the few things his parents have told him.

According to Phinney, Wei-Chin would be in which stage of ethnic identity development?

A) Ethnic identity confusion B) Unexamined ethnic identity C) Resolution of conflict D) Ethnic identity search

28) ______

29) The last time sixteen-year-old Rafael Garcia was at the mall, he noticed that the security guard seemed to be following him. A few weeks before that, a car full of white boys had yelled "wetbacks" as they drove by Rafael's house. According to Phinney, these experiences might lead Rafael to experience the stage of A) ethnic identity confusion.

B) unexamined ethnic identity.

C) resolution of conflict.

D) ethnic identity search.

29) ______

30) In which of Phinney's stages do individuals question which aspects of their ethnic identity make sense to them personally?

A) Ethnic identity search B) Resolution of conflict C) Foreclosure D) Moratorium

30) ______

31) Acculturation strategies are used by families to A) help the child understand the values and customs of their ethnicity, religion, or race.

B) deal with the differences between the customs and beliefs of their ethnic background and the majority culture.

C) help the child understand the primary values and customs of the majority culture in their society.

D) help ensure that their children will avoid and not want to join any type of cult group.

31) ______

32) Typically, young children do NOT develop an overall opinion of themselves until they are about A) seven years old.

B) eight years old.

C) six years old.

D) ten years old.

32) ______

33) Pam's overall opinion of herself is known as her A) self-representation.

C) global self-evaluation.

33) ______ B) working model of self.

D) self-concept.

34) Self-evaluations generally become much more negative when children A) are about 11 or 12 years old.

B) physically mature later than their peers.

C) physically mature earlier than their peers.

D) enter first grade.

34) ______

35) Of all the self-evaluation domains researchers have measured, the one that shows the highest correlation with overall self-esteem is A) friendships with peers.

B) overall school grades.

C) relationship with parents.

D) perceived physical appearance.

35) ______

36) Which of the following was NOT described in your text as a strategy for enhancing children's self-evaluations?

A) Teach children how to set their own specific and reasonable goals.

B) Offer children support and encouragement with their activities.

C) Provide instruction and guidance to help children improve their skills.

36) ______

D) Be sure to give children positive, instead of negative, feedback.

37) Our ability to control our own behavior, emotions, and thoughts is referred to as A) self-reflection.

B) self-regulation.

C) self-promotion.

D) self-competence.

37) ______

38) Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarded as evidence of primitive self-regulatory abilities among infants?

A) Within the first few months of life, infants can inhibit their first responses and resist interference.

B) Within the first few months of life, infants are able to comply with simple requests from a caregiver.

C) Within the first few months of life, infants can voluntarily initiate and stop their own behaviors.

D) Within the first few months of life, infants will turn away from sources of strong stimulation.

38) ______

39) Which of the following behaviors do researchers often use as a measure of early self-regulatory ability?

A) Compliance B) Creativity C) Imitation D) Conformity

39) ______

40) Research by Kochanska, Coy, and Murray (2001) found that it was easier for children to comply with their mothers' request when the children A) disagreed with the request.

B) negotiated with their mothers.

C) agreed with the request.

D) decided on the request themselves.

40) ______

41) According to your text, which of the following areas of the brain is closely associated with self-regulatory abilities?

A) Frontal lobes B) Amygdala C) Hypothalamus D) Parietal lobes

41) ______

42) Jan sees her mother, Carol, smiling, so Jan smiles too. This is an example of A) self-regulation.

B) modeling.

C) compliance.

D) self-efficacy.

42) ______

43) When children disagree but are forced to comply with a caregiver's request, A) they are less likely to learn effective self-regulation.

B) they are less likely to internalize the caregiver's standards.

C) caregivers are more likely to have to resort to power-based control strategies.

D) ALL of the above are potential consequences of forcing children to comply.

43) ______

44) When discussing a person's sex, we are referring to A) behavioral patterns.

B) nurture.

C) biology.

D) cognition.

44) ______

45) George and Jane expect their daughter, Judy, to know how to cook and sew. They expect her to wear dresses and to be a cheerleader. Their expectations mainly reflect A) gender concept.

B) spermarche.

C) gender roles.

D) sex.

45) ______

46) When children understand that a person's sex is permanent and cannot be changed by altering clothing, hair length, or other surface characteristics, they understand A) sex differences.

B) gender roles.

46) ______

C) sex-typed behavior.

D) gender concept.

47) If you are a male and you engage in sex-typed behavior, you are most likely to A) behave more like the women in your culture.

B) have a high level of sexual desire.

C) act like other men in your culture.

D) be comfortable with male or female roles.

47) ______

48) Puberty refers to the process of physical maturation that leads to A) the ability to reproduce.

B) developing identity.

C) adulthood.

D) pubic hair growth.

48) ______

49) The difference between primary and secondary sex characteristics is whether they A) are for males or females.

B) occur before or after puberty.

C) involve sex organs.

D) are due to nature or nurture.

49) ______

50) If Calvin just ejaculated for the first time, he has just experienced A) the HPG axis.

B) spermarche.

C) menarche.

50) ______ D) androgens.

51) The primary factor involved in the onset of puberty are genetics and A) HPG and leptin.

B) gender concept.

C) sex-typed behaviors.

D) androgens and estrogens.

51) ______

52) The endocrine system is in charge of regulating, producing, and secreting A) proteins.

B) leptin.

C) saliva.

52) ______ D) hormones.

53) The protein produced by fat cells that is believed to be especially important in initiating puberty for females is A) menarche.

B) HPG. C) leptin.

D) estrogen.

53) ______

54) Increased sexual attraction and subtle changes in secondary sex characteristics begin happening at around the age of A) 10.

B) 9 for boys and 11 for girls.

C) 13 for girls and 14 for boys.

D) 7.

54) ______

55) Which of these facts regarding menarche is TRUE? A) In the U.S., Caucasian girls start to menstruate earlier than minorities.

B) The age of first menstruation today is more than 1 year younger than in 1920.

C) U.S. girls reach puberty later than girls in most other nations.

D) The first menstrual period occurs when a girl is around 10 or 11.

55) ______

56) Cassandra is an early-maturing girl. Thus, she is MOST likely to A) avoid substance use.

B) believe that she is too thin.

C) believe that she is too fat.

D) begin dating at a later age.

56) ______

57) Maher is an early-maturing boy. Thus, he is MOST likely to A) believe that he is too fat.

B) feel uncomfortable when comparing himself to his peers.

C) engage in more delinquent behavior.

D) be viewed as being unattractive.

57) ______

58) A person's sexual orientation refers to whether he or she

58) ______

A) behaves like others of that sex.

B) is attracted to people of the same sex, opposite sex, or both sexes.

C) is male or female.

D) believes men or women are the more dominant gender.

59) If Gordon is a young man with gender identity disorder, he definitely is A) not comfortable being a male.

B) confused about male roles.

C) attracted to other men.

D) going to have a sex change.

59) ______

60) Which of the following statements regarding sexual orientation is FALSE? A) It is estimated that between two and ten percent of adults in the United States identify themselves as gay, lesbian, or bisexual.

B) Research with young homosexual and bisexual men indicates that, on average, the men experienced their first same-sex attraction at age ten.

C) Girls exposed to higher than normal levels of androgens during prenatal development show more masculine traits and behaviors.

D) Differences between homosexual and heterosexual individuals are not apparent during childhood.

60) ______

61) If Phil is in the identity assumption stage of developing a homosexual identity, he most likely is A) comfortable with his homosexuality and has "come out" to others.

B) accepting his homosexuality, but not currently dating someone.

C) is a teen who feels different from those in his peer group.

D) an adolescent who feels conflicted about his lack of attraction to women.

61) ______

62) Which of the following presents Troiden's stages of developing a homosexual identity in the proper order?

A) Identity confusion, identity assumption, sensitization, commitment B) Sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, commitment C) Identity assumption, identity confusion, sensitization, commitment D) Identity confusion, sensitization, identity assumption, commitment

62) ______

63) In regard to the role of biology in determining sexual orientation, research has found that A) some brain areas of homosexual men are more similar to homosexual women than heterosexual men.

B) there is a location on the Y chromosome that is shared more often by brothers who are both homosexual.

C) males with high levels of androgens are more likely to be homosexual.

D) identical twins are no more likely to be homosexual than fraternal twins.

63) ______

64) The "exotic becomes erotic" theory attempts to explain A) only how heterosexuality occurs.

B) how sexual orientation occurs.

C) only how homosexuality occurs.

D) why some people have more sexual desire than others.

64) ______

65) If Theo is an 11-year-old boy, which of the following best typifies the "exotic becomes erotic" theory?

A) "I used to think 'girls stink', but I don't think that now."

B) "Boys are stupid, because all they want to do is play sports."

C) "I used to like girls, but now I think they are annoying."

D) "Girls are really gross, because they like to kiss and hug."

65) ______

66) In regard to most male-female differences, most research has found that A) boys show more development in the first year or two, but girls then catch up and typically surpass boys.

B) there are few statistical differences between girls and boys.

C) there tends to be large differences between boys and girls.

D) girls show superiority during most aspects of development.

66) ______

67) In regard to verbal and language skills in childhood, most research finds that A) boys speak earlier and have larger vocabularies.

B) there are few male-female differences in these areas.

C) boys are better at spelling, whereas girls are better at writing.

D) most measures of verbal skills show that girls are superior.

67) ______

68) Of the following areas of cognitive skills, the smallest and least consistent gender differences are found for A) writing.

B) vocabulary.

C) national math assessments.

D) spelling.

68) ______

69) Mrs. Kahl teaches math classes. She can expect A) boys to do better with computation if her students are about 9.

B) the boys to have better math skills, if the students are in elementary school.

C) the girls to get better grades in math than the boys.

D) most of her students to be girls, if this is a class just for students who are talented at math.

69) ______

70) Daycare providers who are working with boys and girls should expect to find A) that the girls are more physically aggressive.

B) that the boys tend to have higher activity levels.

C) that boys are more flexible and have better fine-motor skills.

D) that the girls will use more of the physical space.

70) ______

71) Which of the following children is demonstrating relational aggression?

A) Taylor just hit Abby after Abby took her favorite toy.

B) Jessica just called her sister Samantha a "spoiled brat."

C) Maddy is crying after her brother Landon pulled her hair.

D) Grayson bangs his head against the wall after getting punished.

71) ______

72) Which of the following statements regarding gender differences in aggression is TRUE? A) The gender gap in aggression appears to be getting larger.

B) Girls are more likely than boys to engage in relational aggression.

C) As infants, girls display more aggression than boys do.

D) Cross-cultural studies of aggression indicate few gender differences.

72) ______

73) Which of the following statement regarding gender differences in emotional development is TRUE? A) Relative to girls, boys are less likely to commit suicide.

B) Relative to girls, boys are less likely to report feeling shame or guilt.

C) Relative to girls, boys are more likely to display symptoms of depression.

D) Relative to girls, boys are more likely to show symptoms of anxiety.

73) ______

74) A serious problem for Freud's theory of gender development is that children are not supposed to display sex-typed behavior prior to the

74) ______

A) anal stage.

B) genital stage.

C) phallic stage.

D) oral stage.

75) Research indicates that all human embryos A) have a male default pattern of development.

B) are genetically male at conception.

C) have a female default pattern of development.

D) contain TDF at six or seven weeks gestation.

75) ______

76) The social learning perspective claims that the two major influences on gender development are A) genetics and free will.

B) reinforcement and observational learning.

C) the parents and the peer group.

D) conscious and unconscious thoughts.

76) ______

77) Differential treatment of children in regard to sex-typed behavior is more noticeable with A) mothers.

B) boys.

C) girls.

D) children over five years of age.

77) ______

78) In regard to gender knowledge and stereotypes, fathers tend to A) treat boys and girls more differently than mothers do.

B) encourage less sex-typed behavior than mothers do.

C) be more verbal with their boys than their girls.

D) be more rough-and-tumble with girls than boys.

78) ______

79) Which of the following statements regarding the impact of fathers on children's gender development is TRUE? A) The absence of a father in the home is associated with more traditional gender typing for boys.

B) The absence of a father in the home is associated with less traditional gender typing for boys.

C) Fathers are less effective than mothers in encouraging children's non-sex-typed behavior.

D) Fathers treat boys and girls more similarly than mothers do.

79) ______

80) The concept of gender constancy is another form of Piaget's concept of A) conservation.

B) egocentrism.

C) accommodation.

D) assimilation.

80) ______

81) Which of the following identifies the correct sequencing of Kohlberg's stages of gender understanding?

A) Identity, stability, constancy B) Constancy, stability, identity C) Constancy, identity, stability D) Stability, identity, constancy

81) ______

82) Four-year-old Paulie believes that his male cousin, Spencer, is now a girl because his hair has grown down to below his shoulders during the year since he last saw Spencer. This shows that Paulie A) has not developed an understanding of gender constancy.

B) is likely to develop a homosexual orientation later in life.

C) clearly has a gender identity disorder.

D) clearly does not grasp the importance of sex-typed behavior.

82) ______

83) Gender stability refers to the A) belief that girls will always be female.

83) ______

B) ability to identify people as being male or female.

C) fact that you will always retain your current sex.

D) understanding that boys can play with dolls.

84) A serious problem with Kohlberg's theory of gender development is that A) children spend more time watching same-sex models as they learn about gender constancy.

B) children commonly display sex-typed behavior before they fully understand gender constancy.

C) higher levels of gender understanding are correlated with engaging in sex-typed behaviors.

D) studies in several different cultures do not support the sequencing of stages he describes.

84) ______

85) Gender schema theory synthesizes elements of Kohlberg's theory with A) information-processing theories.

B) Bandura's social learning theory.

C) Piaget's cognitive development theory.

D) principles of operant and classical conditioning.

85) ______

86) Amanda is about 2 1/2 years old. If she is typical, she can correctly identify other people's gender using all of the following EXCEPT A) genital cues.

B) clothing.

C) voice cues.

D) hair length.

86) ______

87) Because of gender segregation, Chrissie is most likely to A) be attracted to boys.

B) act like a girl.

C) play with other girls.

D) spend time with boys and girls.

87) ______

88) Identify the correct developmental sequence of the following gender-related processes.

A) applying correct gender labels, stereotyping is more flexible, displaying gender segregation B) applying correct gender labels, preferring sex-typed toys, displaying gender segregation C) displaying gender segregation, stereotyping is more flexible, applying correct gender labels D) preferring sex-typed toys, applying correct gender labels, displaying gender segregation

88) ______

89) The process of conforming more and more closely to gender stereotypes in actions, emotions, and activities is referred to as gender A) conformity.

B) constriction.

C) intensification.

D) obedience.

89) ______

90) Virginia Woolf once said, "It is fatal to be man or woman pure and simple; one must be woman-manly or man-womanly." This indicates that she is in support of A) sex-typed behaviors.

B) gender intensification.

C) gender constancy.

D) androgyny.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What did William James mean when he referred to the me-self?

92) In which one of Marcia's identity statuses would you say that you are? What leads you to believe this?

93) What are the names of the three stages in the development of ethnic identity according to Phinney?

94) What is self-regulation?

95) What is the difference between spermarche and menarche?

96) What does a person's sexual orientation refer to?

97) According to Kohlberg, what are the three stages of gender understanding?

98) What are some of the things that Angela Watkins has done to help her daughter develop a sense of her African American heritage?

99) According to Sara Rodriguez, what kinds of training and education does one need in order to become a high school guidance counselor ?

100) As listed in the text, what are some of the reasons that some people do NOT support single-sex schools?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) William James referred to the conscious awareness that you exist as a unique and 101) ____________ separate individual as the ________.

102) According to Cooley's ________ self, we use other people as a "social mirror" to gain understanding about ourselves.

102) ____________

103) An individual's belief that he or she can accomplish a specific goal is called self-________.

103) ____________

104) According to Marcia, the two components of adolescent identity development are crisis and ________.

104) ____________

105) If Dyan is in the identity ________ status, she is still struggling to figure out who she is.

105) ____________

106) Of all the self-evaluation domains researchers have measured, the one factor that shows the highest degree of correlation with overall self-esteem is ________.

106) ____________

107) Self-regulation involves the ability to inhibit first responses, to resist interference from irrelevant stimuli, and to ________.

107) ____________

108) The process of imitating, practicing, and internalizing others' behavior is known as ________.

108) ____________

109) If Candice lives in a culture in which women typically do the cooking and she, too, does the cooking, she is engaging in ________ behavior.

109) ____________

110) ________ is the process of physical maturation that leads to the physical capability to reproduce.

110) ____________

111) The two types of sex hormones are ________.

111) ____________

112) The way a person thinks about his or her body and how it looks to others is the person's ________.

112) ____________

113) When in the stage of identity ________, an adolescent feels a sense of conflict between his or her prior self-image and his or her current feelings of same-sex arousal.

113) ____________

114) If Dane is demonstrating ________ aggression, he is likely to call Jessica names.

114) ____________

115) An embryo remains female or becomes male through a process called sex ________.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Define self-recognition and describe how Lewis and Brooks (1978) obtained evidence that most children display recognition of their physical selves around 21 months of age.

117) Today, Chuck is a 25-year-old openly gay man. Discusses the steps he probably went through.

118) Identify three theories of gender development. Then choose one of these theories and describe how it explains the development of children's understanding of gender.

119) According to Florence Denmark, what is the difference between sex and gender?

120) Describe the five steps involved in Latane and Darley's model of helping.

1) A 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) D

52) D 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) C 69) C 70) B 71) B 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) B 78) A 79) B 80) A 81) A 82) A 83) C 84) B 85) A 86) A 87) C 88) D 89) C 90) D 91) It is what you know about yourself, such as your sex, age, personality characteristics, talents, and so on.

92) The student must refer to whether he or she has had a conflict/struggle (questioning identity) AND whether he or she has made a commitment (figured out who he or she is). If the student has struggled and determined who he or she is, the person is in identity achievement. If there has been no struggle and no commitment, it is identity moratorium. If there has been a struggle but no commitment has been reached yet, identity diffusion is the one. If there has been a commitment without crisis, it is identity foreclosure.

93) Unexamined ethnic identity, ethnic identity search, and resolution of conflict 94) Self-regulation is the ability to monitor and control our own behavior, thoughts, and emotions, and to alter them (as needed) according to the demands of the situation.

95) Spermarche refers to a male's first ejaculation, whereas menarche refers to a female's first menstrual period.

96) Sexual orientation refers to whether a person is heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual.

97) Gender identity (children knowing whether they and others are boys or girls), gender stability (knowing females will always be female and likewise for males), and gender constancy (knowing that gender is consistent regardless

of

outward appearance) 98) There is a more complete list in the text, but some of the things include having symbols of African American culture (such as books, dolls, and music) in the home, answering questions, celebrating Kwanza, purchasing greeting cards with African American faces, and teaching historical lessons.

99) A Master's in Counseling or a Master's in Education with Counselor Certification is required. Also, school counselors in her state (Texas) need 2 years of teaching experience.

100) Critics argue that single-sex classes and schools violate student's civil rights, representing a return to educational segregation. They argue that gender-segregated programs tend to be unequal, with girl's programs receiving fewer resources. Although the intent of single-sex programs is to combat gender stereotypes, critics argue that they may actually reinforce stereotypes by having, for example, better science facilities in boy's schools than in girls'. Critics argue that public schools' time and money are better spent on enhanced teacher training and ensuring that elements of good education are in place, such as small classes, fair instructional practices, and a solid academic curriculum.

101) I-self 102) looking-glass 103) efficacy 104) commitment 105) moratorium 106) perceived physical appearance 107) persist on relevant tasks 108) modeling 109) sex-typed 110) Puberty 111) androgens and estrogens 112) body image 113) confusion 114) relational 115) differentiation 116) Self-recognition involves a child's understanding that he or she exists as a separate and unique individual. Another way of thinking about this phenomenon is to assert that self-recognition involves the development of the I-self.

Most psychologists do not think that children have a sense of self-recognition at birth. Instead, self-regulation is believed to emerge gradually as a result of social interaction. To examine the typical age at which toddlers became aware of (or recognize) their physical selves, Lewis and Brooks tested children of three age groups: 9 to 12 months, 15 to 18 months, and 21 to 24 months. These researchers placed infants in front mirrors by themselves and allowed them to play. Then they placed a spot of rouge on the infant's face while pretending to wipe it clean. After this, they placed the infant back in front of the mirror. Infants who recognized themselves in the mirror and touched the red dot on their own faces were categorized as showing self-recognition. The majority of infants in this study displayed physical self-recognition by 21 months of age.

117) According to Troiden's theory, here are the four stages Chuck would go through.

Stage 1: Sensitization. In this stage, which usually occurs before puberty, Chuck probably had a general feeling of being different from his or her same-sex peers.

Stage 2: Identity confusion. Usually first experienced during adolescence, this stage involves a conflict between Chuck's prior self-image and his current feelings of same-sex arousal (or lack of heterosexual arousal).

Stage 3: Identity assumption. This stage often begins during the early 20s. Chuck defined and accepted himself as homosexual and associated regularly with homosexual peer groups.

Stage 4: Commitment. This stage began when Chuck entered a same-sex emotional and sexual relationship. Chuck then adopted homosexuality as a way of life, viewed a homosexual identity as a valid and satisfying self-identity, and probably came out to others.

118) Students could identify the psychoanalytic perspective, the social learning perspective, the biological perspective,

the er schema perspective, or the cognitive development perspective. Students' responses to the second part of this gend question will vary.

119) Gender is a social construct. In other words, gender refers to what we attribute to men or women, such as various gender roles. Sex is a biological construct, which refers to males and females.

120) In order, the five steps are noticing the emergency, interpreting the situation correctly, assuming responsibility, deciding how to help, and committing to act.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Knowing the difference between right and wrong is called A) perspective taking.

B) morality.

C) prosocial behavior.

D) altruism.

1) _______

2) In the movie "Gone Baby Gone," the detective was trying to determine the right thing to do. He is deciding between sending a child back to a not-so-good mother or letting the girl stay with her abductor, who would probably provide a very good life for her. The detective was struggling with an issue of A) prosocial behavior.

B) perspective taking.

C) morality.

D) altruism.

2) _______

3) Which of the following facts about morality is FALSE? A) Moral reasoning always predicts moral behavior.

B) Morality involves knowing the difference between right and wrong.

C) Morality often involves our emotions.

D) All of the above are TRUE.

3) _______

4) In regard to moral reasoning, one of the most famous theorists was A) Kohlberg, whose theory was based on Piaget's work.

B) Kohlberg, whose theory was based on Eisenberg's work.

C) Kohlberg, whose theory was based on Gilligan's work.

D) Piaget, whose theory was based on Kohlberg's work.

4) _______

5) Julia's friend, Zoey, just yelled at her. Julia understands that Zoey yelled because she was having a bad day and because the teacher just yelled at Zoey. Julia is engaging in A) altruism.

B) perspective taking.

C) postconventional morality.

D) moral reasoning.

5) _______

6) As a result of cognitive disequilibrium, a person always A) thinks in a relatively immature manner.

B) feels discomfort with his or her current way of thinking.

C) realizes his or her beliefs are different from other people's beliefs.

D) has a difficult time making a decision.

6) _______

7) In regard to Kohlberg's levels of moral reasoning, A) all people reach the same end point.

B) the pace is different for each individual.

C) people move through them in a variety of orders.

D) there are ten levels, each with three stages.

7) _______

8) Kyle is in Stage 2 of conventional morality. Kyle is trick-or-treating, and he comes to a house where there is a bucket of candy on the front porch. On the bucket is a sign that says, "Please take only one piece of candy." Kyle is likely to take A) multiple pieces, because he absolutely loves Halloween candy.

B) only one piece, because he says that to take more would be "unfair to others."

C) multiple pieces, because he knows other kids will do the same thing.

D) only one piece, because he fears how others would judge him if he took more.

8) _______

9) Jean is just entering the conventional level of morality. Jean is just starting to understand

9) _______

A) how to get rewarded for her actions.

B) the consequences of her actions.

C) that different opinions can be equally "right."

D) others' perspectives.

10) The difference between Stages 3 and 4 of the conventional level is whether following rules is done A) for himself/herself or for the benefit of others.

B) because others say to or because of rewards.

C) to protect others' rights or because of care for others.

D) for approval from others or for maintaining social order.

10) ______

11) In the postconventional level, unlike earlier levels, a person will now understand A) the consequences of his or her actions.

B) the importance of following rules to maintain social order.

C) that different opinions can be equally "right."

D) another person's perspective.

11) ______

12) Which of the following is NOT true of Stage 6 of the postconventional level?

A) Views on moral issues are determined by self-chosen, abstract principles.

B) People will accept the consequences of breaking the rules.

C) Most people reach this stage while in the midst of adolescence.

D) People may violate laws they believe are immoral.

12) ______

13) Which of the following facts regarding Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is TRUE? A) Kohlberg realized that most people achieve Stage 6 of the postconventional level.

B) The content (the choice) is what determines the person's level.

C) Kohlberg believed that all aspects of moral development were universal.

D) Kohlberg claimed that there may be a seventh stage of moral reasoning.

13) ______

14) Critics have claimed that Kohlberg's theory is based on what kind of morality orientation?

A) caring B) divinity C) community D) justice

14) ______

15) Carol Gilligan claimed that Kohlberg's theory did not really consider the perspective of A) women.

B) adults.

C) other cultures.

D) minorities.

15) ______

16) Research has found that men more often use a/an ________ perspective, and women more often use a/an ________ perspective.

A) community; care B) justice; careful C) justice; care D) justice; community

16) ______

17) When reasoning about real-life — rather than hypothetical — dilemmas, people tend to A) report having weak emotions.

B) suggest one specific strategy for how to address the situation.

C) use higher levels of moral reasoning.

D) NONE of the above.

17) ______

18) Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of feeling a sense of guilt?

A) It can motivate people to make amends.

B) It can encourage the person to think about the consequences of his or her actions.

C) It can help the person learn positive strategies for coping with anger.

D) It can lead to a sense of shame.

18) ______

19) While using inductive parenting, Karen and Bob tell their son Scott that A) others will not respect him if he keeps hitting.

B) they will not love him if he continues to hurt others.

C) they will spank him if he continues hitting others.

D) he had better quit hitting immediately, "Or else."

19) ______

20) While feeling a sense of shame, children are likely to A) focus more on others' consequences.

B) blame others for negative events.

C) engage in more moral behavior.

D) confess and try to repair damage.

20) ______

21) The basic difference between empathy and sympathy is whether the person A) believes the event is the other person's fault.

B) truly feels bad for the other person.

C) initially caused the event to occur.

D) feels the same emotion as the other person.

21) ______

22) According to Hoffman, the development of empathy occurs in which of the following orders, from first to last?

A) egocentric empathy, global empathy, empathy for another's feelings B) empathy for another's feelings, egocentric empathy, global empathy C) global empathy, egocentric empathy, empathy for another's feelings D) empathy for another's feelings, global empathy, egocentric empathy

22) ______

23) Tommy has won an award at school, but Rhoda feels that she deserves it. So Rhoda beats up Tommy to get the medal. This is an example of ________ aggression.

A) hostile B) relational C) instrumental D) verbal

23) ______

24) With hostile aggression, the goal is to A) get the other person in trouble with authorities.

B) harm someone.

C) embarrass the other person.

D) get something.

24) ______

25) Regis has taken Mekhi's toy. When Mekhi engages in relational aggression, he will A) try to get his toy back.

B) beat Regis up.

C) tell other kids what Regis has done.

D) call Regis names.

25) ______

26) Which of the following facts about aggression is FALSE? A) Physical aggression increases from age 2 to age 3, but decreases by age 5.

B) Children are particularly aggressive during the early childhood years.

C) Most of children's aggressive acts involve conflicts over possessions.

D) Verbal aggression steadily decreases from age 2 to age 5.

26) ______

27) Hostile and openly aggressive behavior reaches its highest level between the ages of A) 9 to 11.

B) 13 to 15.

C) 2 to 4.

D) 6 to 8.

27) ______

28) Adolescent boys are more likely than adolescent girls to engage in which of the following?

A) substance abuse B) disorderly conduct C) truancy D) ALL of the above

28) ______

29) Because Kiley has grown up in a coercive home environment, we could guess that her parents

29) ______

A) spend time discussing the house rules.

C) let her do whatever she wants.

B) ignore and neglect her.

D) yell at her and use physical punishment.

30) Matsuke thinks that Barrack was trying to be mean to him. However, Matsuke is not sure. He decides that confronting Barrack and hitting him would be the only way to stop Barrack from bullying him. Matsuke would be classified as a/an A) reactive aggressor.

B) proactive aggressor.

C) altruistic aggressor.

D) instrumental aggressor.

30) ______

31) Proactive aggressors believe that A) others are out to get them, so they behave aggressively and swiftly.

B) their own aggressive behavior is negative and thus, they have low self-esteem.

C) aggression will get them what they want, and that the personal cost is likely to be low.

D) aggression will get them what they want, despite the fact that the personal cost might be high.

31) ______

32) It has been found that aggressive children A) seldom blame their victims.

32) ______

C) tend to have high self-esteem.

B) typically view their behavior as negative.

D) show high levels of moral reasoning.

33) Which of the following cultural conditions tends to encourage aggressive behavior in the United States?

A) less parental monitoring B) lower-quality education C) associating with aggressive peers D) All of the above

33) ______

34) Bullies tend to A) report having difficulties with making friends.

B) experience non-coercive home environments.

C) be insecure and low in self-esteem.

D) face little resistance from their victims.

34) ______

35) Alec is a frequent victim of bullying. We can expect that Alec A) is relatively happy and low in anxiety.

B) does not have aggressive tendencies.

C) lacks social skills.

D) does not feel lonely, as he probably spends time with other victims.

35) ______

36) Mr. Helmer is a principal who wants to reduce bullying at his school. He should do all of the following EXCEPT A) increase awareness of bullying.

B) encourage students to supervise themselves.

C) consistently enforce rules against bullying.

D) support and protect victims.

36) ______

37) Conduct problems typically refer to A) rule-breaking behaviors.

C) language and speech issues.

37) ______ B) hyperactivity.

D) problems with shyness.

38) For the past year, Henry has been defiant, disobedient, and hostile toward authority figures. He breaks rules, refuses requests, often loses his temper, and blames other for his mistakes. A psychotherapist would likely diagnose Henry with

38) ______

A) juvenile delinquency disorder.

C) conductive disorder.

B) oppositional defiant disorder.

D) proactive aggressive disorder.

39) Those with a life-course consistent pattern of delinquency A) tend to come from home environments that are noncoercive.

B) seldom are influenced by peer pressure.

C) usually start as children with easy temperaments.

D) tend to have few academic or behavior problems.

39) ______

40) When an aggressive, unpopular teen is rejected by others, he may then seek the company of similar teens. They may then form groups that further encourage violence and aggression. All of this is typical in a pattern called A) conduct intensification.

B) deviancy training.

C) violence snowballing.

D) escalating aggression.

40) ______

41) Current surveys estimate that there are about how many different gangs in the United States?

A) 25,000 B) 6,000 C) 12,000 D) 750

41) ______

42) A common reason for joining gangs is A) to make money by selling drugs.

B) to gain social acceptance and friendships.

C) that these teens are actively "recruited" or coerced to join.

D) fear of suffering negative consequences if refusing to join.

42) ______

43) Substance use is to substance abuse as A) legal is to illegal.

C) single is to double.

43) ______ B) psychological is to physical.

D) occasional is to daily.

44) Among U.S. ninth graders who use alcohol and drugs, the preferred substances, ranked in order from "used the most" to "used the least," are A) marijuana, Ecstasy, and alcohol.

B) alcohol, marijuana, and Ecstasy.

C) marijuana, alcohol, and Ecstasy.

D) alcohol, Ecstasy, and marijuana.

44) ______

45) Katie is a typical American ninth grader. It is most likely that Katie has tried A) tobacco.

B) alcohol.

C) cocaine.

D) marijuana.

45) ______

46) Which of the following facts regarding U.S. drug use among teens is TRUE? A) About two-thirds of current ninth graders say they tried alcohol before they were 13 years old.

B) About 25% of current teens have tried Ecstasy at least once.

C) African Americans use most drugs more frequently than whites and Hispanics.

D) More 9th graders than 12th graders have tried inhalants.

46) ______

47) Which of the following is TRUE concerning high school alcohol and drug use?

A) Hispanic students are much more likely to use marijuana than are Non-Hispanic white or African American students.

B) Non-Hispanic white students are much more likely to use marijuana than are African American or Hispanic students.

C) African American students are much more likely to use marijuana than are Non-Hispanic white or Hispanic students.

D) There is little difference in frequency of marijuana use among Non-Hispanic white, African American, and Hispanic students.

47) ______

48) Which drug is correctly matched with the ethnic group that has the highest rate of usage?

A) Ecstasy: whites B) Tobacco: Hispanics C) Marijuana: Hispanics D) Cocaine: African Americans

48) ______

49) Binge drinking is defined as having at least how many alcoholic beverages on a single occasion?

A) 10 B) 7 C) 5 D) 3

49) ______

50) Which of the following facts regarding marijuana usage is TRUE? A) Similar percentages of teens are regular users of tobacco and marijuana.

B) It is the most frequently used drug that is illegal for both teens and adults.

C) BOTH A and B are true.

D) NEITHER A nor B is true.

50) ______

51) Which of the following individuals is LEAST likely to develop substance problems?

A) Stormy, who started using drugs at age 16 B) Rainn, who is has behavior problems C) Dusty, who is aggressive D) Sonny, who is impulsive

51) ______

52) Teens who use drugs are more likely to A) see drugs as a health threat.

C) have low levels of stress.

52) ______ B) have experienced abuse as a child.

D) describe themselves as religious.

53) Of all the factors studied, the strongest predictor of teen substance use is A) authoritarian parents.

B) parental use.

C) family financial status.

D) friends' usage.

53) ______

54) Maya's parents are concerned about her driving, given that she is a teen driver. They should be LEAST concerned about Maya getting into an accident when she is A) driving during the first 6 months after getting her license.

B) driving without any passengers.

C) text messaging while driving.

D) driving between 9 p.m. and 6 a.m.

54) ______

55) GDL laws are designed to reduce the rates of A) teen medication usage.

C) alcohol and drug usage.

55) ______ B) teen vehicle accidents.

D) bullying among peers.

56) The majority of young people in the United States have had sexual intercourse by A) the time they finish grade school.

B) ninth grade.

C) their junior year in college.

D) the time they graduate from high school.

56) ______

57) In regard to teen sexual activity, A) close to 85% of adolescents have had sexual intercourse by the twelfth grade.

B) close to 20% of teens between the ages of 12 and 15 report engaging in oral sex at least once.

C) more than 50% of adolescents have had sexual intercourse by the ninth grade.

D) ALL of the above are true.

57) ______

58) Adolescents who engage in earlier sexual activity are A) less likely to be impulsive.

B) more likely to perform poorly in school.

58) ______

C) less likely to use alcohol and/or drugs.

D) more likely to live in two-parent households.

59) Which of the following is NOT one of the three top reasons teens give for being sexually active?

A) curiosity B) peer pressure C) the idea that "everyone does it" D) love of their partner

59) ______

60) Bettina has decided to abstain from sex. It is MOST likely that she is abstaining due to the fear of A) pregnancy.

B) getting an STD. C) losing her reputation.

D) her parents finding out.

60) ______

61) Ryan and Sheena are concerned about their teenager being sexually active. Ryan and Sheena should be aware that their teenager is most likely to be sexually active A) outdoors.

B) in their friends' homes.

C) in their own home.

D) in a car.

61) ______

62) The best predictor of consistent contraceptive use is A) good relations with parents.

B) age.

C) family's income level.

D) race.

62) ______

63) Blair is sexually active, but she tells her friend that, "Good girls like me don't get pregnant at this age. That's why I don't use contraception." Blair is demonstrating A) the GDL law.

B) chlamydia.

C) the personal fable.

D) altruism.

63) ______

64) What percent of U.S. teen females become pregnant at least once before they turn 20 years old?

A) 14% B) 44% C) 24% D) 34%

64) ______

65) Of the following countries, which one has the lowest rate of teen pregnancies?

A) England B) Japan C) Canada D) the United States

65) ______

66) Megan is a pregnant U.S. teen. It is most likely that her pregnancy will end in A) a stillborn baby.

B) abortion.

C) a miscarriage.

D) a live birth.

66) ______

67) Most experts agree that the biggest factor in regard to teenage pregnancy is A) living in poverty.

B) overexposure to sex in the media.

C) premature physical development.

D) abusive parents.

67) ______

68) Moshe has responsible parents, a safe neighborhood, and an honest, non-aggressive personality.

Moshe is said to have many developmental A) enablers.

B) assets.

C) supports.

D) superlatives.

68) ______

69) Which of the following is not one of the Five Cs of positive youth development?

A) Connection B) Confidence C) Caring D) Civility

69) ______

70) Which of the following is NOT one of the central ideas of the positive youth development perspective?

A) The more positive social relationships the child has, the better the outcome.

B) The community is an essential aspect of supporting positive development.

C) Children are important contributors to their own development.

70) ______

D) Some children grow up in such toxic environments that recovery is unlikely.

71) Logan is being asked if she would give her favorite toy to a child who just lost all of her toys in a house fire. This scenario is measuring Logan's A) sociability.

B) resilience.

C) prosocial reasoning.

D) self-transcendence.

71) ______

72) Eisenberg's levels of prosocial reasoning parallel whose theory of moral reasoning?

A) Kohlberg B) Erikson C) Piaget D) Kubler-Ross

72) ______

73) Boz is only concerned with his own needs. Boz could be described as A) empathic.

B) altruistic.

C) prosocial.

73) ______ D) hedonistic.

74) Eisenberg's theory of prosocial reasoning A) believes that parenting has little impact.

B) views the perspective-taking ability as important.

C) assumes that the levels of prosocial reasoning are universal.

D) claims that all of the above are TRUE.

74) ______

75) Which of the following does NOT seem to impact prosocial reasoning?

A) the child's social environment B) warmth of parenting C) how simple the request is D) ALL of the above DO seem to impact prosocial reasoning.

75) ______

76) Isaac is going door-to-door gathering Halloween candy. While out walking, he sees a younger child, Gabrielle, who has dropped her bag of candy. If he is being altruistic, he will most likely A) gather up the fallen candy and hand it to Gabrielle.

B) ignore Gabrielle and keep walking to get more candy.

C) laugh at Gabriel for dropping her candy.

D) help Gabrielle if she offers him candy.

76) ______

77) Basically, altruistic behaviors occur because A) the parents have told the child to do it.

B) of the hope or promise of getting rewarded.

C) the person believes it is the right thing to do.

D) the other person has asked for assistance.

77) ______

78) Which of the following infant behaviors is considered to be a precursor to prosocial behavior?

A) Crying in response to another baby's cries B) Taking another child's rattle C) Screaming when in need of food D) Smiling when given a favorite toy

78) ______

79) Ray is trying to encourage his son, JJ, to share more. He should A) not specifically ask JJ to share.

B) ask JJ to share a toy that is not JJ's favorite.

C) ask JJ to share with a child JJ has never shared with before.

D) ensure there are plenty of available toys.

79) ______

80) Which of the following tends to encourage altruism?

A) inductive parenting

80) ______

B) a punitive approach to parenting C) asking the child to do tasks that only benefit the child D) non-collectivistic cultures 81) Which of the following facts regarding religion in the United States is TRUE? A) About 75% of American adults believe in God. B) About 33% of American teens report being actively involved in a church youth group.

C) About 50% of American teens believe in God. D) About 25% of American 6th to 12th graders say that religion and spirituality are very important to them.

81) ______

82) Self-transcendence involves A) a search for meaning and purpose in life.

B) an organized system of beliefs, codes, and symbols.

C) feeling good about all that you have achieved.

D) a feeling of connectedness with something greater than the self.

82) ______

83) One difference between religiosity and spirituality is that religiosity A) is very individualized.

B) is not as organized.

C) involves self-transcendence.

D) Actually, researchers sometimes use these terms interchangeably.

83) ______

84) In regard to spiritual development, A) mothers and fathers tend to equally influence religious views.

B) a constructive perspective encourages religious development.

C) fathers influence religious development more than mothers.

D) religious beliefs consistently show a positive influence on well-being.

84) ______

85) Research on religion has found that A) religious involvement has little association with overall self-esteem and self-concept.

B) participating in a religious community has no association with substance use or sexual promiscuity.

C) when religion is used to gain social acceptance or status, religion has a positive impact on the individual.

D) those who believe in and pray to a loving God during stressful times reduce their stress and anxiety.

85) ______

86) Devin is a 7-year-old boy. His religious beliefs are likely to be A) concrete.

B) based on his own internal sense of religion.

C) integrated with his morals.

D) abstract.

86) ______

87) Tico was abused as a child, and he went to a poor-quality school in a poverty-stricken neighborhood. Despite this, he earned great grades in school and today is a well-adjusted, well-paid child's rights advocate. Tico is considered to be A) resilient.

B) abstract.

C) self-transcendent.

D) ALL of the above

87) ______

88) Resilient children survive or thrive despite A) being labeled as mentally retarded.

88) ______ B) growing up in negative conditions.

C) physical handicaps.

D) a lack of religion in their lives.

89) Werner's research showed that children who are resilient tend to have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A) a positive tie with a family member or other important adult.

B) a pleasant personality.

C) many developmental assets.

D) average or above-average intelligence.

89) ______

90) Which of the following parents is utilizing a psychological control tactic?

A) Beyonce, whose son is being punished for his misbehavior B) Rihanna, who is constantly aware of where her daughter is C) Masi, who is making his son feel guilty about his low math test score D) Toby, who asks his daughter's teacher about her progress

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What type of moral reasoning occurs during Kohlberg's preconventional level?

92) What is the difference between sympathy and empathy?

93) What is the difference between instrumental aggression and hostile aggression?

94) What is conduct disorder (CD)?

95) What are some of the risk factors and reasons for joining a gang?

96) What is prosocial reasoning?

97) Dr. Kashman claims that Anna is a resilient child. What does that tell you about Anna?

98) According to juvenile probation officer Nancy Magowan, what are the most important things that can be done to prevent behavior problems, violence, and crime among youths?

99) What does the research show about the effect of the two main types of sex edutaion programs?

100) What were some of the types of aggressive behaviors that Ethan and Liana said they had seen at their school?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) Moral reasoning at the ________ level involves understanding that rules are social 101) ____________ conventions. It also involves the beginning of being able to understand things from others' perspectives.

102) Belinda is belittling Jorge and calling him names. Belinda is telling lies about Jorge to make him look bad. Belinda is engaging in ________ aggression.

102) ____________

103) In a ________ home environment, parents use a forceful style of discipline that includes yelling, threats, orders, and physical punishment.

103) ____________

104) Jesse has been breaking rules, losing his temper, arguing, deliberately annoying others, and blaming others for his mistakes for at least six months. However, he is not physically hurting others or destroying property. It is possible that Jesse may have ________ disorder.

104) ____________

105) Enduring groups of peers who are involved in deviant behaviors and are identified by name and common symbols are called ________.

105) ____________

106) Most drugs, except ________, have lower usage rates among African Americans than among non-Hispanic whites or Hispanics.

106) ____________

107) The ________ style of parenting is associated with lower levels of adolescent substance use.

107) ____________

108) GDL laws regulate adolescent ________.

108) ____________

109) When asked, the top reasons teens give for being sexually active are peer pressure, curiosity, and the idea that ________.

109) ____________

110) In the United States, most teenage pregnancies result in ________.

110) ____________

111) Most experts agree that the biggest risk factor for teenage pregnancy is ________.

111) ____________

112) Your text refers to positive family communication, living in a safe community, having neighbors that help families monitor their children, and parents who model responsible behavior as developmental ________.

112) ____________

113) A voluntary act motivated by concern for another or by internal values and goals (rather than by external rewards or punishment) is called ________.

113) ____________

114) The aspect of spirituality that refers to a search for a sense of connectedness with something greater than the self is called ________.

114) ____________

115) ________ children succeed or achieve despite having grown up under negative circumstances.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Name and describe the stages of moral reasoning as described by Kohlberg?

117) What are some of the risk factors that predict adolescent substance use and abuse?

118) Your friend is telling you that teen pregnancy in the United States is pretty rare and that even when it does occur, most teen parents and their children do just fine. What would you tell your friend?

119) Briefly describe the Heinz Dilemma and what it is used for.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

120) What are the names of Kohlberg_s six stages of moral reasoning?

120) ____________

1) B 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) B 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) A

52) B 53) D 54) B 55) B 56) D 57) B 58) B 59) D 60) B 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) D 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) D 84) B 85) D 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) C 91) Children accept the rules of powerful others without thinking about where the rules come from. To the person in this stage, actions may be determined by reward and punishment, and situations are not able to be seen from someone else's point of view.

92) Empathy is the ability to understand another person's emotion and to feel the same emotion yourself. Sympathy implies that you feel sorrow or concern for another, but you do not feel the same emotion yourself.

93) Instrumental aggression aims to get something (like a toy), whereas hostile aggression aims to harm someone.

94) Children with conduct disorder consistently violate the basic rights of other people or break major societal rules.

Examples include harming people or animals, fighting, bullying, using weapons, being cruel, destroying property, setting fires, stealing, lying, and running away from home. These individuals must show a consistent pattern over 12 months, with at least one violation within the past six months.

95) Some of the risk factors include being male, being Hispanic or African American, and having aggressive tendencies.

Reasons include wanting to gain social acceptance and friendship, wanting protection, seeking an identity, trying to improve self-esteem, and wanting money.

96) Prosocial reasoning refers to the person's thought processes as they decide whether to help someone.

97) For starters, it means that Anna was brought up in negative conditions, such as poverty, uneducated parents, abuse, and parents with alcoholism or mental illness. Being resilient further indicates that despite this, Anna has succeeded, achieved, or maybe even thrived.

98) According to her, family support, guidance, and encouragement are key. Communication among parents, schools, and support programs are important for maintaining continuity and encouragement. Also, empowering youth with education and emphasizing their strengths would reduce juvenile crime rates.

99) Satcher's report pointed out that there was no available research evidence that abstinence-only programs work in preventing or delaying teen sex. Comprehensive programs that teach abstinence and contraception, however, have been associated with slight delays in the onset of sexual activity, reductions in the numbers of sexual partners, and increased contraceptive use among sexually active teens. The teenage pregnancy rate did decline slightly during the 1990s, with most of the decline due to increased use of contraception (Alan Guttmacher Institute, 2002).

100) Teasing, verbal bullying, criticizing, gossiping, ball field aggression, snobbery, cliques, and ostracizing 101) conventional 102) relational 103) coercive 104) oppositional defiant 105) gangs 106) marijuana 107) authoritative 108) driving 109) "everyone does it" 110) live births 111) living in poverty 112) assets 113) altruism 114) self-transcendence 115) Resilient 116) The preconventional level has two stages. In Stage 1, morality is based on reward and punishment. In Stage 2, morality is based on meeting personal needs.

The conventional level has two stages. In Stage 3, morality is based on gaining others' approval. In Stage 4, morality is based on maintaining social order.

The postconventional level has two stages. In Stage 5, morality is based on protecting others' rights. In Stage 6, self-chosen, abstract ethical principles are applied to all humans and social systems.

Finally, students could mention that there may be a seventh stage which is based on "existential or religious experience and thinking."

117) Students' answers may vary, but they could address the role of many factors. All of the following are associated with increased risk of use: early usage, sensation seeking, aggression, impulsivity, poor behavioral control, self-regulation (planning, organizing, and selective attention) deficits, antisocial behavior, lack of strong religious beliefs, high stress levels, a history of abuse, witnessing violence, family history of drug use, prenatal exposure to drugs or alcohol, non-authoritative parenting styles (harsh, inconsistent, or permissive), emotional distance from parents, parental substance use, and friends who use. Also, students could discuss which substances are used more often by various ethnic groups.

118) You should tell your friend that he/she is wrong. The U.S. has a very high rate of teen pregnancy and that each year about 850,000 U.S. teens become pregnant. In fact, about one-third of all U.S. teens will become pregnant at least once prior to turning 20 years old. Further, the outcomes are not great for the mother or child. The mother is likely to: shorten her education, become financially unstable, and have disturbances in identity formation. The children are likely to before born prematurely and/or at a low birth weight; birth complications are more likely and so is infant mortality. Further, the teens' parenting skills and prenatal care are often insufficient.

119) The Heinz dilemma involves a woman who is near death due to having cancer. Her husband (Heinz) cannot raise enough money to pay for the drug (which the druggist is overcharging for). Heinz is considering whether to steal the medicine. This story is designed to measure moral reasoning.

120) Obedience and punishment orientation, egocentric orientation, good-child orientation, authority and social order, contractual-legalistic, and conscience or principle orientations.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Kenneth is a six-year-old boy interested in climbing trees and collecting insects. Which of the following children would be considered his peer?

A) Rebecca, a six-year-old classmate, who is afraid of heights and bugs B) Betty Lou, a nine-year-old, who won an award for her butterfly collection C) James Albert, his uncle, who tops trees for a lumber company D) Brandon, his four-year-old brother, who is fascinated by bugs

1) _______

2) People who are about the same age as one another are A) considered acquaintances.

B) considered playmates.

C) referred to as peers.

D) referred to as friends.

2) _______

3) By definition, friendships are always A) voluntary.

C) reciprocal.

3) _______ B) relationships that persist over time.

D) ALL of the above are accurate.

4) Rachel and Joey are both three months old. They are looking intently at each other, while they are both moving their arms and legs excitedly. Rachel and Joey are engaged in A) mutual gaze.

B) gender segregation.

C) coordinated imitation.

D) clique time.

4) _______

5) Mutual gaze begins to emerge at about A) one month of age.

C) six months of age.

5) _______ B) two months of age.

D) four months of age.

6) Which of the following statements on infant social interactions is TRUE? A) Infants vary greatly in social responsiveness.

B) Differences in temperament rarely contribute to infants' interaction style.

C) Infants begin to show interest in people their own size around the age of four months.

D) Infants are able to play by imitating each other's actions at about six months of age.

6) _______

7) Celine and Octavius are placed near each other. They imitate each other's actions, and they play together with toys. The youngest these children might be is A) six months of age.

B) two months of age.

C) twelve months of age.

D) two weeks of age.

7) _______

8) Infant social interactions are A) often characterized by mutual gaze, babbling, and smiling.

B) commonly filled with coordinated imitation.

C) normally unaffected by differences in temperament and social skill level.

D) a misnomer because social interaction does not occur until the toddler stage.

8) _______

9) Tong and Caleb are playing with finger paints. Tong takes the blue paint and makes a print of his hand, and Caleb does the same. Tong laughs and pours the red paint onto his foot, and Caleb copies again. Tong dips his elbow into the purple paint and touches it next to the print of his hand. Then Caleb laughs and follows suit. What is the probable age of the boys?

A) Two years B) One year C) Six months D) Three years

9) _______

10) When two children take turns copying each other and know that they are being copied, they are engaging in

10) ______

A) compatibility schemas.

C) reciprocal modeling.

B) friendship play.

D) coordinated imitation.

11) The typical toddler will choose playmates based largely on A) convenience.

B) toy selection.

C) physical appearance.

D) similar clothing styles.

11) ______

12) Which of these statements concerning toddlers is TRUE ?

A) Toddlers rarely select each other as mutually preferred playmates.

B) Toddlers are unable to interact through coordinated imitation.

C) Emerging language and motor skills distract toddlers and inhibit their ability to interact.

D) Interactions involving toddlers often center on repeated games.

12) ______

13) According to Howes (1988), children who are most successful at maintaining friendships A) tend to enter into peer play more easily and are more cooperative in social pretend play.

B) tend to be shy and are often initially rebuffed by their peers.

C) are physically and verbally aggressive in their approach to finding and maintaining friends.

D) are domineering and the center of many peer conflicts.

13) ______

14) Hay and Ross (1982) found that 84% of the conflicts observed in toddlers were A) over the attention of caregivers.

B) settled with retaliation or violence.

C) settled with abstract reasoning.

D) over toys.

14) ______

15) Research has found that which type of children tend to initiate more conflicts?

A) Children who recently won another conflict B) Girls C) Those who are socially outgoing D) Kids with parents who moralize

15) ______

16) Benji is the father of 2-year-old Zoey. Zoey is in the midst of a dispute with her friend, Jenna. It would be best for Benji to A) lecture Zoey about why she should not fight.

B) ask Zoey, "How do you think Jenna feels?"

C) moralize to Zoey about why fighting is bad.

D) distract Zoey with a different activity.

16) ______

17) Royce and Truett are two-year-olds involved in a "tug-of-war" over a Tigger doll. Royce's mother would like to resolve the conflict in the most practical way. She should A) tell Royce that she can go and buy her own Tigger doll.

B) ask Royce, "How do you think that makes Truett feel when you grab his doll?"

C) send Royce to sit in the corner until she can behave.

D) show Royce the Pooh and Piglet dolls.

17) ______

18) When forming friendships during early childhood, the main ingredients are A) opportunity and similarity.

B) size of toy collection and willingness to share.

C) social status and parental influence.

D) crowd affiliation and style of play.

18) ______

19) Svetlana is an eight-year-old third grader who likes to play Crazy Eights, ride her bicycle, and read books about nature. Which of the following children would Svetlana most likely chose as a

"bes friend" t ?

19)

______ A) Vladimir, a six-year-old neighbor boy, who likes riding bikes and painting animals B) Katisha, an eight-year-old girl in her class, who likes sports and card games C) Max, an eight-year-old boy in her class, who likes reading and going fishing D) Marilyn, a seven-year-old girl from her church, who likes computer games and dolls 20) The number of "best friends" that children have tends to A) decrease after the age of seven.

B) decrease after the age of fifteen C) increase until the age of eleven.

D) increase until the age of fifteen.

20) ______

21) When asked what they expected in their same-sex best friends, first-graders studied by Bigelow (1977) reported that A) admirable character was what they looked for.

B) physical attractiveness was most important.

C) having common activities was most important.

D) shared personality traits were what they looked for.

21) ______

22) Shawn is an eighth-grader who has just moved to a new school. He will probably seek out a best friend based on A) respect for the person.

B) shared personality traits.

C) physical attractiveness.

D) potential for intimacy.

22) ______

23) Which of the following reflects the correct sequence of phases through which children's close friendships progress?

A) Play-based friends, intimate friends, and then loyal and faithful friends B) Parent-chosen friends, true friends, and then activity-associated friends C) Parent-chosen friends, school friends, and then crowd- and clique-based friends D) Play-based friends, loyal and faithful friends, and then intimate friends

23) ______

24) Mildred and Sarah are teammates on the high school soccer team. They are close friends who share their most personal feelings and secrets. Each feels that the other is a safe haven for discussing issues and problems they would rather not share with adults or close siblings.

Mildred and Sarah would most likely be categorized as A) intimate friends.

B) play-based friends.

C) loyal and faithful friends.

D) confidential friends.

24) ______

25) One difference between younger children's friendships and those of adolescents is that the friendships of adolescents feature A) the presence of intimacy.

B) generosity and sharing.

C) loyalty and faithfulness.

D) spending time together.

25) ______

26) Because of gender segregation, we would expect that A) boys will try to dominate girls.

B) "boys will be boys."

C) boys will mainly just play with other boys.

D) boys and girls will play together often.

26) ______

27) Gender segregation is prominent A) mainly in the United States.

C) after the age of three.

27) ______ B) everywhere except in the United States.

D) after the age of six.

28) Which of these statements regarding gender segregation is TRUE?

28) ______

A) When observing six-year-olds you would expect one girl-boy group for every two boy-boy or girl-girl groups.

B) When playing with opposite sex friends, two- and three-year-olds are more interactive and sociable.

C) Gender segregation is typically only seen in third-world cultural settings.

D) Gender segregation is very prominent after the age of three.

29) Which of the following statements concerning gender segregation is TRUE? A) Gender segregation typically begins during early grade school years.

B) Gender segregation is a cultural universal.

C) Gender segregation diminishes after the age of three.

D) Gender segregation is predominant only in third-world cultures.

29) ______

30) The fact that children choose play partners who are similar to them, and that this in turn leads to gender segregation, is in line with which theory?

A) Psychoanalytic theory B) Operant conditioning C) Play compatibility D) Cognitive schemas

30) ______

31) In regard to gender segregation, the cognitive schema view theorizes that children A) choose friends based on concepts or ideas of what boys and girls are like.

B) seek play partners whose styles match or complement their own.

C) avoid playing with the opposite sex due to repressed sexual feelings.

D) are rewarded and punished based on their choices of playmates.

31) ______

32) Which of these scenarios is most in line with the operant conditioning explanation for gender segregation?

A) Brian is picked on when he joins the girls in their game, so he starts spending more time with boys.

B) Colleen has an inherent understanding of male and female roles, so she acts like other girls she has seen.

C) Sheila repressed her feelings toward boys when she was younger, but now she no longer feels the need to do so.

D) Ricardo makes fun of the ways that girls at his school behave, so he hangs out with the boys.

32) ______

33) Spheres of social influence that are based on the differences between male and female groups and affiliations are known as A) gender cultures.

B) sex spheres.

C) gender cliques.

D) gender domains.

33) ______

34) In regard to differences between boys and girls, research has found all of the following statements to be true EXCEPT which one?

A) Boys' play is more physically aggressive.

B) Girls tend to share thoughts.

C) Girls tend to play in larger groups.

D) Boys play more superhero games.

34) ______

35) Regarding the consequences of gender segregation, researchers believe that A) all effects tend to dissipate after high school dating begins.

B) the effects may relate to dating dissatisfaction.

C) there are no long-term effects.

D) the effects rarely carry over into adolescence and adulthood.

35) ______

36) Which of the following was NOT a suggestion that Leaper (1994) made for lessening the effects

of

childho

od 36) gender segregati on?

A) Parents can model egalitarian roles at home.

B) Parents can use gender as a way to address children (i.e., "Girls, let's go home").

C) Parents can reinforce and support children when they cross stereotypical gender lines during play.

D) Parents can arrange situations where children are encouraged to play and cooperate across gender lines.

___ ___

37) Compared to the time spent with their parents, siblings, and older adults, adolescents spend A) twice as much time with their friends.

B) three times as much time with their friends.

C) nearly the same amount of time with their friends.

D) half as much time with their friends.

37) ______

38) Savin-Williams and Berndt (1990) found that adolescents with close and supportive friendships tend to have each of the following EXCEPT A) higher incidence of delinquency.

B) an ability to understand other's feelings.

C) better grades.

D) higher self esteem.

38) ______

39) In regard to friends who spend a lot of time discussing personal problems, A) girls, but not boys, show increased levels of depression.

B) boys, but not girls, show increased levels of depression.

C) both boys and girls show decreased levels of depression.

D) both boys and girls show increased levels of depression.

39) ______

40) Small groups of three to nine friends who hang out together on a voluntary basis are called A) circles.

B) clans.

C) crowds.

D) cliques.

40) ______

41) Amarante is a percussionist in the high school band. He often hangs out with the other six guys on the drum line. These young men would be described as a A) clan.

B) confabulation.

C) crowd.

D) clique.

41) ______

42) Phil and Olive are in the backpacking club at school. On the weekends, the group sponsors activities and leads short hikes in the community. Among their peers, the group is called "The Nature Children." This is an example of a A) clan.

B) crowd.

C) clique.

D) circle.

42) ______

43) Crowds are groups made up of individuals who A) are socially segregated.

B) have chosen to join.

C) have similar reputations or share primary activities.

D) are of the same sex and race.

43) ______

44) Goths, nerds, preppies, jocks, and brains are all examples of A) cliques.

B) circles.

C) crowds.

44) ______ D) clans.

45) Research indicates that for most adolescents, the strongest peer pressures tend to be A) negative.

B) positive.

C) restricted to cliques.

D) neither positive nor negative.

45) ______

46) Friendly relationships with members of the opposite sex are referred to as A) courtships.

B) clique trysts.

C) affiliations.

D) desegregations.

46) ______

47) By the age of 13, ________ % of adolescents report having been in a romantic relationship recently, and the average length of these relationships was ________ months.

A) 66; 12 B) 75; 3 C) 25; 5 D) 50; 6

47) ______

48) Teens who form romantic relationships during the early adolescent years tend to A) have more symptoms of depression.

B) have lower rates of misbehavior.

C) get better grades in school.

D) have fewer emotional difficulties.

48) ______

49) Which of the following statements concerning play is FALSE? A) Play is a pleasurable activity that is extrinsically motivated.

B) Play is a pleasurable activity that is intrinsically motivated.

C) Play is actively engaged in on a voluntary basis.

D) Play usually contains a nonliteral element.

49) ______

50) According to Parten, which is the most highly integrated type of play?

A) Parallel B) Associative C) Onlooking

50) ______ D) Cooperative

51) Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding a child engaged in associative play?

A) The child plays among other children, but his play is not coordinated with theirs.

B) The child plays with other children, integrating his play with theirs.

C) The child plays alone, but with toys just like the children around him.

D) The child watches other children play and asks many questions about their toys.

51) ______

52) Uma watches Alex play with a toy computer. She asks him if the toy is his and what happens when he pushes the orange button. Which level of play is Uma displaying?

A) Parallel play B) Onlooking play C) Unoccupied-behavior play D) Sociodramatic play

52) ______

53) Melanie is a daycare provider in a room full of one- and two-year-olds. Joanna is a daycare provider in a room full of three- and four-year-olds. We can expect that A) Joanna's room will feature more associative play.

B) Melanie's room will feature more parallel play.

C) Joanna's room will feature more solitary play.

D) Melanie's room will feature more cooperative play.

53) ______

54) Gepetto, a three-month-old infant, has just discovered his left foot. After succeeding in grabbing it, he brings it to his mouth. For the next few minutes he attempts several times to grab the foot as he squirms and smiles. Gepetto is displaying A) sociodramatic play.

B) serendipitous play.

C) sensorimotor play.

D) symbolic play.

54) ______

55) Nine-month-old Courtney takes her new toy and puts it in her mouth. She mouths it and then shakes it producing a jingle sound. Each time the toy jingles, she kicks her legs in the air and laughs. Courtney is involved in A) sociodramatic play.

B) symbolic play.

C) sensorimotor play.

D) serendipitous play.

55) ______

56) Between the ages of six and nine months, infants begin A) engaging in symbolic play by imitating adults.

B) reaching out and grasping small objects.

C) treating objects differently and paying more attention to their specific features.

D) repeating playful actions and exploring new objects in their environment.

56) ______

57) Eugene enjoys playing with his toy horse. When he squeezes it, the horse neighs, and when he moves it along the floor, it emits a galloping-hooves sound. Eugene is most likely at least A) nine months of age.

B) one month of age.

C) six months of age.

D) three months of age.

57) ______

58) Miles and Marie are pretending they own a coffee shop. Miles greets the customers as they come in the door and helps them find a seat. Marie is taking orders for lattes and mochas and running the espresso machine. What type of play does this represent?

A) Sensorimotor B) Sociodramatic C) Serendipitous D) Symbolic

58) ______

59) Sociodramatic play typically A) consists of make-believe and pretend to embellish objects and actions.

B) includes sensory activity and the development of new motor actions.

C) involves acting out different social roles or characters.

D) is exhibited by children one to three years of age.

59) ______

60) Mary Jane is pretending to fix lunch for everyone, feed the dog, put the cat out, and get ready to leave for work. She is involved in which type of play?

A) Sociodramatic B) Associative C) Parallel D) Sensorimotor

60) ______

61) Which of the following is NOT one of the main functions of sociodramatic play?

A) Expression of needs B) Imitation of adults C) Mastery of skills D) Outlet for forbidden impulses

61) ______

62) Logic, structured rules, and realism become the focus of play during middle childhood. These years correspond to Jean Piaget's stage of A) logical operational thought.

B) concrete operational thought.

C) formal operational thought.

D) preoperational thought.

62) ______

63) Which of the following would NOT be typical of play during middle childhood?

A) Building a treehouse B) Doing flips on a trampoline C) Pretending to be a dentist D) Throwing a football

63) ______

64) Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding play during the grade school years?

A) Logic becomes the focal point in many children's games and activities.

B) Rules and strategies have little meaning for children in grade school.

C) Children demonstrate their skills in order to establish their positions in peer groups.

D) The mastery of skills and ability to do stunts is important to grade-school-aged children.

64) ______

65) What kinds of games do children between the ages of seven and ten typically choose?

A) Those with hypothetical and idealistic scenarios B) Those with emphasis on playacting and pretending C) Those with logical rules and physical skills D) Those with simple rules and teamwork

65) ______

66) An interest in items that can be collected and organized, such as dinosaur trading cards,

typi cally

appears 66) during which of the followin g age ranges?

A) Three to five years C) Seven to ten years

___ ___

B) Eleven to sixteen years D) One to two years

67) Takeuchi (1994) reports that children in the United States and Britain spend most of their after-school time A) studying for school.

B) in play.

C) watching television.

D) doing chores.

67) ______

68) Jo was finding her own food by the age of three, and was a productive hunter and gatherer by the age of 10. It is most likely that Jo grew up in A) Japan.

B) Indonesia.

C) Senegal.

D) Tanzania.

68) ______

69) Compared to children in many other countries, children in Japan A) place a high value on work and sacrifice.

B) spend little time devoted to studying.

C) tend to play in fairly large-sized groups.

D) typically play outdoors.

69) ______

70) According to Bloch and Adler (1994), which of these statements is TRUE regarding play in Senegal?

A) Young Senegalese children are supervised during play in an extended family arrangement.

B) Play among Senegalese boys focuses on pretend and make-believe games.

C) Senegalese girls show a higher than average level of aggression and retaliation during play.

D) There is little open space in Senegal, and play usually occurs indoors.

70) ______

71) In a cross-cultural study by Farver and Welles-Nystrom (1997), which of the following groups of children used the most aggressive words and created more unfriendly characters in their play?

A) Swedish B) American C) German D) Indonesian

71) ______

72) The peer nomination technique is utilized by researchers to A) classify social levels of play.

B) identify categories of popular and unpopular children.

C) analyze cultural values and their influence on development.

D) examine the degree of gender segregation.

72) ______

73) Which of the following is NOT one of the categories typically used when classifying the relative popularity of children?

A) Neglected B) Average C) Social D) Controversial

73) ______

74) Marika interacts well with other children and is both a good speaker and a careful listener. She is assertive in many situations, but does not interfere with other children or adults. In the peer nomination technique, Marika would most likely be categorized as A) controversial.

B) popular.

C) rejected.

D) neglected.

74) ______

75) Sheri wants to play dolls with the other girls. She starts by watching and waiting to be asked to join. Then she gradually joins in after being asked. She eases into the group, but she does not disrupt what they are doing. Sheri is most likely in which category of peer popularity?

75) ______

A) Average

B) Social

C) Popular

D) Assertive

76) Blake likes to play dodgeball, but he is always last to be chosen. He often steals the ball and demands his turn to throw. He claims to be the best player in the school and dares the other children to challenge him. In the peer nomination technique, Blake would most likely be categorized as A) neglected.

B) rejected.

C) controversial.

D) popular.

76) ______

77) The difference between rejected-aggressive and rejected-withdrawn children is whether A) these children cause others to have mixed feelings.

B) other children say that the child is one they "like least."

C) other children are familiar with that child.

D) these children are threatening or timid.

77) ______

78) Which of the following is the BEST example of relational aggression?

A) "Charles is angry. Go tell the teacher."

B) "If you don't let me be IT, I won't be your friend anymore."

C) "This is a stupid game. Let's go play football."

D) "You always get your way. Why can't I go first?"

78) ______

79) Relational aggression refers to A) children who strike out in a physical manner and use abusive language during a game or activity.

B) withdrawing friendship or threatening a social relationship as a way to change a situation.

C) conflicts among children who play together and are related in some way (siblings, cousins, etc.).

D) a tendency seen in popular children who are able to enter an activity in a nondisruptive manner.

79) ______

80) Controversial children A) receive large numbers of both positive and negative nominations.

B) are usually found in the "like least" category.

C) are usually chosen for the "like best" category.

D) receive few numbers of either positive or negative nominations.

80) ______

81) In the peer nomination technique, neglected children tend to A) receive a large number of negative nominations.

B) be described as sociable and cooperative.

C) be describes as verbally and physically abusive.

D) receive few nominations of either type.

81) ______

82) Beth Ann plays hopscotch by herself at recess. When other kids demand to use her squares, she nods and then moves to another spot on the sidewalk and draws a new set. In the peer nomination technique, Beth Ann would most likely be categorized as A) average.

B) neglected.

C) popular.

D) controversial.

82) ______

83) Which of the following is TRUE in regard to neglected children?

A) Neglected children are more likely to dress or behave oddly.

B) Neglected children are more helpful, cooperative, and show more leadership than average.

C) Neglected children tend to be less sociable, less negative, and less disruptive than average.

D) Neglected children receive mostly "like least" nominations.

83) ______

84) African American children will receive more "like best" nominations when A) they are more aggressive with other children in the class.

B) there are few other African American children in the class.

C) they are isolated from other races of children in the class.

D) there are more other African American children in the class.

84) ______

85) Marshall, a rejected sixth-grader, is warming-up to run in the school relay race. As he walks up to two of his classmates, one nudges the other and giggles. Which of the following examples of inner conversation would be most likely to lead Marshall to aggress against his classmates?

A) "I'll pretend I didn't hear them laugh and just join in like everything is OK." B) "Why are they laughing at me? I didn't do anything to either one of them."

C) "Were they laughing about me or were they talking about something else?"

D) "They were probably discussing that funny play we saw yesterday afternoon."

85) ______

86) According to Dodge's social cognition model, your response to a situation depends on all of the following EXCEPT A) your interpretation of the event.

B) how you perceive the information.

C) the responses you consider.

D) your current mood.

86) ______

87) Research by Rubin and colleagues (1998) suggests that popular children A) fail to act out positive responses which leads them to experience social failure.

B) have a negative bias and interpret social situations as threats to their self-esteem.

C) know how to respond appropriately in social situations, but are reluctant to take the risks involved.

D) have a positive bias and tend to perceive and interpret social situations as being comfortable and friendly.

87) ______

88) Adults who were securely attached as infants are more likely to A) develop negative social biases.

B) expect disapproval in social situations.

C) develop positive social biases.

D) withdraw from social situations.

88) ______

89) Compared to popular children, which of the following types of children are seven times more likely to fail a grade in school?

A) Neglected B) Controversial C) Average D) Rejected

89) ______

90) Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding peer rejection?

A) Peer rejection has been linked with anxiety and depression.

B) Peer rejection is a powerful force in adolescent life.

C) Peer rejection has been linked to delinquency and substance abuse.

D) Rejected children are less likely to drop out of school than popular children.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What are the three phases children go through when developing close friendships?

92) According to the play compatibility theory, why does gender segregation occur?

93) What is the difference between a clique and a crowd?

94) What is parallel play?

95) What are some of the functions of sociodramatic play?

96) What is the difference between rejected-aggressive and rejected-withdrawn children?

97) In terms of peer acceptance, what are controversial children?

98) According to toy company executive Susan Tice, what are some of the factors that toymakers consider when deciding what kinds of toys to produce?

99) How did sixteen-year-old Robbie say that he spends his free time?

100) What are some of the controversies involving the zero tolerance policy?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) ________ are people who are about the same age as each other.

101) ____________ 102) Intent eye contact between two people is called ________ gaze.

102) ____________

103) The tendency for children to interact with same sex peers is called gender ________.

103) ____________

104) The ________ theory believes that gender segregation occurs as children repress sexual feelings during the latency stage.

104) ____________

105) Small groups of friends who hang out together are known as ________.

105) ____________

106) Druggies, preppies, jocks, brains, nerds, and goths are all examples of groups called ________.

106) ____________

107) Tim and Donna spend a lot of time together, and they enjoy each other's company. They are not dating, so researchers would call this friendship between them a/an ________.

107) ____________

108) Eli colors by himself. Other children are nearby, but Eli is not watching nor talking to them. This is an example of ________ play

108) ____________

109) The first signs of play involve activities that children discover with ________.

109) ____________

110) Cary is pretending to be Superman, while he rescues Shanna from a "burning building."

Cary and Shanna are engaging in ________ play in which they are acting out these roles and characters.

110) ____________

111) By about seven years of age, children tend to enjoy activities and games that involve ________.

111) ____________

112) Researchers have found that adolescents aged 11 to 18 spend about ________ hours per day watching television.

112) ____________

113) ________ aggression is a type of aggression in which friendships are withdrawn.

113) ____________

114) ________ children receive few "like best" or "like least" peer nomination, and are mostly ignored by other children.

114) ____________

115) Ken Dodge proposed a ________ model to explain some of the differences in the ways children perceive, interpret, and respond to information in social settings.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Gender segregation is universal, occurring in every culture in which children have choices in selecting their

social

groups. Discuss the four most prominent theories of gender segregation.

117) Mildred Parten (1932) conducted what has become a classic study of play among one- to five-year-olds.

Describe Parten's levels of play and identify the age range associated with each level.

118) The negative social experiences associated with peer rejection can have lifelong consequences. What are the key consequences of peer rejection? How can parents and other adults reduce the effects of peer rejection?

119) What is cultivation theory and what are the statistics (in regard to virginity or abstinence) that are mentioned in this segment?

120) What are some of the common misconceptions about STDs that were noted by Michael Bailey?

1) A 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) A

52) B 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) B 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) C 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) B 80) A 81) D 82) B 83) C 84) D 85) B 86) D 87) D 88) C 89) D 90) D 91) Play-based friends, loyal and faithful friends, and intimate friends 92) This theory believes that boys play mainly with boys and girls play mainly with girls because children seek play partners whose play styles match or complement their own.

93) Cliques are small groups (almost always of the same sex and race), usually including three to nine friends, who spend time together on a voluntary basis. Crowds are larger groups made up of individuals who have similar reputations or share primary attitudes or activities.

94) During parallel play, children play alone, but with toys that are similar to ones used by nearby children. The children play near, but not with, each other.

95) Acting out different social roles and characters functions as a way to imitate adults, reenact family relationships, express needs, provide an outlet for forbidden impulses, and reverse roles.

96) While both types of children are actively disliked, the rejected-aggressive children are physically aggressive and verbally abusive. Rejected-withdrawn children are withdrawn and timid.

97) These are children who have a lot of both friends and enemies. In other words, many children say they like these

child "best," while about equal numbers say they like these children "least."

98) She stated that multiple factors are involved, and that it depends on the child's age. She said that her company considers the child's developmental skills, the educational benefits, age appropriateness, and how unique or different the toy can be from similar existing products.

99) He said that when he is with his friends, they like to go out to eat, cruise around downtown, play pool, set up bike jumps, go to the pool, and go to the movies.

100) These policies mandate a specific punishment (often expulsion) for specific offenses. These policies often use suspension and expulsion to punish both serious and trivial incidents. The policies are used inconsistently across schools and disproportionately affect minority students; compared to white students, black students are two to three times more likely to be suspended, and black students receive harsher punishments for less serious offenses (Skiba & Knesting, 2001). Also, there is little evidence that zero tolerance policies are effective in reducing student aggression and they may actually increase students' risk of dropping out of school and engaging in juvenile delinquency.

101) Peers 102) mutual 103) segregation 104) psychoanalytic 105) cliques 106) crowds 107) affiliation 108) solitary 109) their (own) bodies 110) sociodramatic 111) rules (or logic) 112) three 113) Relational 114) Neglected 115) social cognition 116) Students should summarize the four theories of gender segregation described in the text on pages 424-425, including play compatibility theory, cognitive schema theory, operant conditioning theory, and psychoanalytic theory.

117) Parten conducted an extensive study of one- to five-year-olds involved in social play. Based on her observations, she described six levels of social play among these children. The first level, unoccupied behavior, rarely occurred.

When it was observed, it was always seen in children who were one to two years of age. These children stood or sat, not playing and not watching other children play. Onlooking, the second level identified by Parten, was usually observed in one- and two-year-olds who watched other children play. These children might ask questions, but they don't engage in play with others. Solitary play, the third level, was also seen mostly in the younger-aged group.

During solitary play, children will play alone with no apparent connection to the activities of other children in the area. Parallel play was the most common type of play behavior overall. It was usually seen in three-, four-, and five-year-olds. In parallel play, children sometimes play with toys similar to those of other children nearby, but they don't play with the children themselves. Associative play and cooperative play, levels five and six respectively, were usually observed in the three-, four-, and five-year-old children, too. In associative play, children use the same toys as the other children, and they may talk with those children sitting nearby. Their main interest is in associating with others and not in the coordination of play. In cooperative play, the final level, children work together to create a product, act out a situation, or play a formal game. Children three to five years of age also engage in cooperative play, in which the child plays with other children and the play is integrated or coordinated with other children's play.

118) Peer rejection can have a variety of negative effects on one's social and academic life. Peer rejection has been related to delinquency, isolation, loneliness, murder, and suicide. In responding to this essay question, students may discuss the effects linked with school failure or incidents such as the tragic shootings in Columbine, Colorado, Jonesboro, Arkansas, or Paducah, Kentucky. Intervention programs have had some success in reducing the effects of peer rejection. Videotapes, coaching, role-playing, and direct instruction give parents and counselors a variety of

tools with which to help children develop the social skills they need.

119) Cultivation theory says we learn from TV. It is mentioned that only 1 in 85 sex references on television refer to virginity or abstinence.

120) Students overestimate the risk of contracting HIV and AIDS. Also, they underestimate the risk of getting the more common STDs (chlamydia, herpes, and HPV).

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Because families are dynamic systems, A) some members need more than others.

B) they change over time.

C) members influence each other.

D) they can change their environments.

1) _______

2) The two especially important dimensions of parenting are A) consistency and understanding.

B) collaboration and nurturing.

C) control and warmth.

D) affection and compromise.

2) _______

3) Children whose parents are cold and neglectful are A) less popular with peers, but perform well in school.

B) less popular with peers and perform poorly at school.

C) popular with peers, but perform poorly at school.

D) very nonaggressive and very friendly with others.

3) _______

4) The degree to which parents set firm limits and enforce rules with their children is referred to as parental A) control.

B) rigidity.

C) authority.

D) discipline.

4) _______

5) If Guerline and Jacque are high in control with their children, we know that they A) enforce rules inconsistently.

B) use discipline to provide structure.

C) are very affectionate with their children.

D) work well together in determining rules.

5) _______

6) The two types of parental control identified by researchers are A) physical and psychological control.

B) emotional and cognitive control.

C) permissive and neglecting control.

D) authoritarian and authoritative control.

6) _______

7) The use of force, such as spanking and pushing, to regulate children's actions is known as A) emotional control.

B) psychological control.

C) physical control.

D) punishment.

7) _______

8) The use of negative methods such as withdrawing love or inducing guilt to regulate children's actions is known as A) psychological control.

B) punishment.

C) behavioral control.

D) emotional control.

8) _______

9) Whenever Kari is successful, her parents shower her with praise, but when her performance does not meet their standards, her parents either rebuff her approaches or criticize her. These negative behaviors are examples of A) cognitive control.

B) psychological control.

C) discipline.

D) behavioral control.

9) _______

10) The use of psychological control strategies by mothers has been associated with what kinds of behaviors in daughters?

A) Physical and emotional aggressiveness B) Inductive parenting practices C) Better school performance D) Higher IQ scores

10) ______

11) Parents who are warm and set firm limits for their children are referred to as A) authoritative.

B) autonomous.

C) authentic.

D) authoritarian.

11) ______

12) Parents who exert firm control but are rejecting or unresponsive to their children are referred to as A) authentic.

B) authoritative.

C) autonomous.

D) authoritarian.

12) ______

13) When 15-year-old Terry comes in an hour after her curfew, her parents calmly sit down with her to discuss what happened. This type of parenting behavior is consistent with which of Baumrind's four parenting styles?

A) Authoritative B) Rejecting/neglecting C) Authoritarian D) Permissive

13) ______

14) Which of the following is NOT true of children raised by authoritative parents?

A) They have more self-esteem than other kids.

B) They are more dependent upon others.

C) They tend to do well in school.

D) They understand their parents' values.

14) ______

15) Which of Baumrind's four parenting styles is most obedience-oriented?

A) Permissive B) Authoritative C) Authoritarian D) Rejecting/neglecting

15) ______

16) Parents who are warm and loving, but have little control over their children, are referred to as A) authoritative.

B) rejecting/neglecting.

C) authoritarian.

D) permissive.

16) ______

17) "I'd rather be my son's buddy than his drill sergeant." Which type of parent would be most likely to make this statement?

A) Authoritarian B) Authoritative C) Rejecting/neglecting D) Permissive

17) ______

18) Permissive parents who actually encourage or foster their children's misbehavior are referred to as A) neglecting.

B) tolerant.

C) indulgent.

D) compliant.

18) ______

19) Which of the following parenting styles is most closely associated with children who are independent?

A) Authoritarian B) Permissive C) Authoritative D) Rejecting/neglecting

19) ______

20) Which of Baumrind's four parenting styles is associated with the most negative child outcomes?

A) Authoritarian B) Rejecting/neglecting C) Permissive D) Authoritative

20) ______

21) Which of the following comments would BEST illustrate an authoritarian parenting style?

A) "You can have two cookies for dessert after you wash up and eat dinner."

B) "I don't care if you eat the whole batch at one time, but I'm not cooking anymore."

C) "One more word about wanting a cookie, and I'm going to throw them out the door."

D) "You kids are going to spoil your appetite, but go ahead and take a couple of cookies."

21) ______

22) In her later research on parenting styles, Baumrind A) expanded the number of categories in her model of parenting to seven.

B) realized that parenting styles were determined by children's temperaments.

C) reduced her four categories to two categories focused on warmth and control.

22) ______

D) found that children responded positively to consistent and regular punishment.

23) Which of the following is a dimension that Baumrind added in her later research on parenting styles?

A) warmth B) power-assertion C) maturity demands D) control

23) ______

24) Parents' expectations that their children show age-appropriate behavior, self-reliance, and self-control are called A) power-assertive controls.

B) directive demands.

C) punishments.

D) maturity demands.

24) ______

25) When parents ask for and consider their children's feelings and opinions they are A) placing maturity demands on their children.

B) engaging in good-enough parenting.

C) being permissive and indulgent.

D) engaging in democratic communication.

25) ______

26) Shimon manipulates and inhibits his children. Shimon is considered to be A) indulgent.

B) intrusive.

C) inconsistent.

26) ______ D) incompetent.

27) The use of methods that teach children appropriate behavior is referred to as A) punishment.

B) psychological control.

C) discipline.

D) emotional control.

27) ______

28) Researchers have found that about two-thirds of all parent-child interactions with two-year-olds A) involve the child repeatedly ignoring the parent.

B) are positive, enjoyable, and playful.

C) demonstrate warmth and affection between the two.

D) involve the parent telling the toddler not to do something.

28) ______

29) Approximately what percent of parents report hitting, slapping, or spanking their infants?

A) 25% B) 10% C) 80% D) 65%

29) ______

30) What is most often cited as the behavior which parents believe deserves a spanking?

A) yelling at the parent B) running into the street C) using inappropriate language D) hitting other children

30) ______

31) Suicidal thoughts, alcoholism, and stealing property have all been linked with A) punishment.

B) authoritarian parenting.

C) spanking.

D) inductive parenting.

31) ______

32) Wise parents make sure that there are plenty of things for their children to do when the family takes long road trips. This strategy is an example of A) managing the situation.

B) setting clear rules and limits.

C) praising good behavior.

D) using explanation and reasoning.

32) ______

33) Which of the following is NOT an example of punishment?

A) loss of privileges B) managing the situation C) timeout D) spanking

33) ______

34) Kina and Shantel have a three-year-old son named Tomas. If the parents decide to place Tomas

in

timeout

, your 34) text suggests that that an appropri ate length for his timeout is A) about three minutes.

B) about fifteen minutes.

C) determined by the seriousness of the misbehavior.

D) about thirty minutes.

___ ___

35) Which of the following control strategies would be LEAST appropriate for older children and adolescents?

A) timeout B) negotiation C) loss of privileges D) grounding

35) ______

36) Your book recommends that with discipline, the focus should be on A) teaching good behavior.

B) talking about misbehavior.

C) using appropriate timeouts.

D) maintaining control.

36) ______

37) Jen and Santiago are married, and they just had a baby. We can expect them to A) become less traditional in their gender roles.

B) report an increase in marital satisfaction.

C) report a decrease in marital satisfaction.

D) both decrease the hours they spend working outside the home.

37) ______

38) Which of the following statements regarding parents' gender roles is TRUE? A) Overall, fathers spend more time playing with their children than mothers do.

B) Relative to new fathers, new mothers spend less time on household chores.

C) Mothers spend more than twenty hours a week alone with their children, and fathers spend about two hours.

D) After the birth of a child, new fathers usually decrease the number of hours they work outside the home.

38) ______

39) Which of the following statements regarding fathers' and mothers' interactions with their children is FALSE? A) Fathers tend to engage in more physical and rough-and-tumble play than mothers do.

B) Fathers spend a greater percentage of their interaction time playing with their children.

C) Fathers' physical play with their children increases until the children reach adolescence.

D) Fathers play with their children less than mothers do.

39) ______

40) Coparenting refers to A) balancing parenting and work responsibilities.

B) matching a parenting style to the child's needs.

C) parents and children both learning from each other.

D) mothers and fathers working together.

40) ______

41) Marie believes that her husband, Eric, will not teach their daughter, Sophia, how to read efficiently. Marie also believes that she "knows" the "right" way to bathe and read to her. So Marie limits Eric's time with Sophia. Marie is acting as a/an A) regulator.

B) authoritarian.

C) coparent.

D) gatekeeper.

41) ______

42) In regard to sibling relationships through childhood and toward adolescence, A) both sisters and brothers tend to grow further apart.

B) sisters tend to grow closer, whereas brothers grow further apart.

C) both sisters and brothers tend to grow closer.

D) brothers tend to grow closer, whereas sisters grow further apart.

42) ______

43) Approximately what percent of African American families with young family members are headed by a grandparent or another elder relative?

A) 33% B) 10% C) 67% D) 50%

43) ______

44) Which of the following is NOT one of the main purposes of family stories?

A) They contain messages about how to treat people.

B) They transmit the values of a family.

C) They provide information about where the family came from.

D) ALL of the above are main purposes of family stories.

44) ______

45) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a family ritual?

A) birthdays B) weddings C) hobbies

45) ______ D) bar mitzvahs

46) Which of the following is NOT currently true for U.S. families?

A) Less than 10% of all children live with one parent and one stepparent who were married.

B) Most children live with only one parent.

C) About three-fourths of all African American children whose parents were married when they were born will experience divorce before they are 16.

D) There are about half as many divorces as marriages each year.

46) ______

47) Brianna's parents are divorced. Compared to her classmates whose parents are still married, Brianna is more likely than them to A) earn more money during adulthood.

B) get good grades in school.

C) become pregnant during adolescence.

D) be obedient.

47) ______

48) Michael and Bertice are divorced, and their daughter is Amanda. As a result of parentification, we might find that A) Bertice was unsure of her parental role immediately following the separation.

B) Amanda provides emotional support for her mother after the divorce.

C) Michael and Bertice argue about how to raise Amanda.

D) Michael abandons his parenting responsibilities, given that Bertice has custody of Amanda.

48) ______

49) Instrumental parentification basically involves the child A) acting in more masculine ways, like the father.

B) providing emotional support for a parent.

C) acting in more feminine ways, like the mother.

D) taking on responsibility for household tasks.

49) ______

50) Emily's mother is clinically depressed and unable to meet the demands of being a parent, so Emily has been placed in the role of caretaker for both her mother and her three younger siblings. This role reversal is referred to as

50) ______

A) expressive parentification.

C) behavioral parentification.

B) instrumental parentification.

D) emotional parentification.

51) A reversal of roles in which children act as an advisor or confidant for a parent is called A) emotional parentification.

B) instrumental parentification.

C) behavioral parentification.

D) expressive parentification.

51) ______

52) Research has investigated the results of children taking on roles typically handled by parents.

These studies have found that A) regardless of the amount of this treatment, the outcomes tend to be negative.

B) boys are more likely to experience this treatment than are daughters.

C) at high levels, it may help alleviate many of the problems typically associated with children of divorce.

D) if it is moderate, it can have positive effects for both boys and girls.

52) ______

53) Tyler's parents divorced when he was 4 1/2 years old. The hardest time for Tyler, in terms of dealing with this divorce, was probably A) the first two to four years after the divorce.

B) about ten years after the divorce.

C) during the subsequent six months.

D) when he was about 4.

53) ______

54) Some effects of divorce may not become apparent until children reach adolescence or young adulthood. These effects are referred to as A) subtle effects.

B) hidden effects.

C) sleeper effects.

D) latent effects.

54) ______

55) Which of the following is the BEST example of a sleeper effect of divorce?

A) Fifteen-year-old Teresa got pregnant three months after her mother and father divorced.

B) Thirty-year-old Megan, whose parents divorced when she was ten, has been married four different times.

C) Sixteen-year-old Matt is failing 10th grade following his parents divorce six months ago.

D) Seventeen-year-old Patrick is depressed and rebellious as a result of his father's emotional dependency.

55) ______

56) If Chacko was eight years old when his parents divorced, which of the following is most likely to occur because of the sleeper effect?

A) He will struggle with friendships during the rest of his childhood.

B) He will now suffer with problems such as insomnia.

C) He will have problems with intimacy in young adulthood.

D) His grades will suffer shortly afterwards.

56) ______

57) Nelson and Julianna just divorced. Their parenting styles are LEAST likely to become A) permissive.

B) neglecting.

C) authoritarian.

D) authoritative.

57) ______

58) The process of divorcing sets into motion several events that both parents and children find stressful according to the A) deindividuation model.

B) compounding divorce theory.

C) stress-diathesis theory.

D) divorce-stress-adjustment perspective.

58) ______

59) Both the divorce-stress-adjustment perspective and the selection model attempt to A) understand the effects of divorce.

B) describe how children contribute to divorce.

59) ______

C) predict which families are most likely to experience divorce.

D) explain why parents get divorced.

60) Which perspective on divorce argues that the main cause of negative outcomes for children involves specific characteristics of one or both parents?

A) Sleeper effect model B) Divorce-stress-adjustment model C) Parentification model D) Selection model

60) ______

61) Which of the following statements regarding the potential positive effects of divorce is FALSE? A) Following a divorce, moderate demands on children to help out can result in greater social responsibility and empathy as adults.

B) When a parent shows high levels of antisocial behavior, children do better when they spend less time with that parent.

C) Some children, especially sons, benefit from the development of close relationships with their mothers after a divorce.

D) Children in high-conflict intact families are lower in overall adjustment and self-esteem compared to children from divorced families.

61) ______

62) In 1998, what percent of all children in the United States lived in households in which the parents had never married?

A) 11% B) 27% C) 21% D) 5%

62) ______

63) Gino and Carla are considering divorcing. If they want to help their child to get through this time, which of the following should they NOT do?

A) let the child maintain contact with both parents B) minimize changes C) abandon their weak marriage as soon as possible D) develop consistent rules

63) ______

64) Which of the following statements regarding the child outcomes associated with living in a never-married household is FALSE? A) Most of the outcomes associated with divorce are also evident among children living in never-married households.

B) For some outcomes, the risks for children of never-married parents are somewhat greater than for children from divorced families.

C) Research clearly indicates that children living in single-father homes are more troubled than children living with their mothers.

D) The issue of financial security is a problem for both never-married households and divorced households.

64) ______

65) Which of the following statements regarding child outcomes associated with stepfamilies is TRUE? A) Most stepchildren have extremely negative attitudes toward their stepfathers.

B) Living with a stepfather decreases a boy's chances of finishing high school.

C) Competition may exist between children and a stepfather over the mother's time.

D) Stepfathers provide as much discipline and supervision as married biological fathers.

65) ______

66) Which of the following statements regarding outcomes of adopted children is TRUE? A) Most adopted children report being dissatisfied with being adopted and do not feel attached to their adoptive parents.

B) Adopted girls tend to have more adjustment difficulties than adopted boys do.

C) Adopted children experience more adjustment problems when they are younger at the

66) ______

time of

adoption.

D) Adopted children are more likely to be referred for psychological treatment than other children.

67) Teresa is an adopted child who was given a lot of information about her biological parents.

Teresa's biological parents had a/an A) ancestral adoption.

B) public adoption.

C) open adoption.

D) familial adoption.

67) ______

68) What percent of children in the United States are estimated to have lesbian or gay parents?

A) 2 million B) 25 million C) 8 million D) 14 million

68) ______

69) Most children who have gay or lesbian parents were A) conceived through donor insemination.

B) born while their biological parents were in heterosexual marriages.

C) placed in gay and lesbian families through foster care.

D) adopted into gay or lesbian families.

69) ______

70) Francesca has homosexual parents. According to Patterson's (1992) review, we can predict that Francesca A) will be as well-adjusted mentally as other children.

B) will display problems establishing her gender identity.

C) is more likely to be physically or sexually abused.

D) is more likely to have a homosexual orientation.

70) ______

71) Compared to children of divorced or single heterosexual mothers, children of lesbian mothers are more likely to A) have weekly contact with their fathers.

B) see themselves as unlovable.

C) display masculine toy preferences.

D) have gender identity problems.

71) ______

72) If Denise is the child of lesbian parents, she is more likely A) to view herself as being unresponsive to younger children.

B) to do better if her mother is living with a partner.

C) to have conflict when visiting her father.

D) than children of divorced or single heterosexual mothers to have limited contact with men.

72) ______

73) Between 1990 and 2000, the rate of growth for ethnic minority populations in the United States A) was much faster than it was for Euro-Americans.

B) was much slower than it was for Euro-Americans.

C) did not vary by specific ethnic minority group.

D) was about the same as it was for Euro-Americans.

73) ______

74) Which of the following research perspectives assumes that negative outcomes among ethnic minority groups reflect the fact that these groups don't "measure up" to the standards of the Euro-American majority?

A) cultural deficit perspective B) acculturation model C) socio-cultural perspective D) strength and resilience perspective

74) ______

75) Which of the following research perspectives explores the many ways in which ethnic minority families survive and thrive in the face of prejudice and discrimination?

A) acculturation model B) cultural deficit perspective C) socio-cultural perspective D) strength and resilience perspective

75) ______

76) The process of learning to blend one's own cultural background with that of a new or majority culture is known as A) acclimation.

B) accommodation.

C) emigration.

D) acculturation.

76) ______

77) If Ricardo is from a Latino family, it is likely that his parents will teach him that his individual identity is inseparable from A) the larger identity of the family.

B) la familia.

C) chiao shun.

D) both A and B.

77) ______

78) Which of the following teenagers is likely to report the strongest sense of obligation to help his or her family?

A) Spring, who comes from a Native American family B) Carter, who comes from an African American family C) Julio, who comes from a Mexican American family D) Phei Gen, who comes from an Asian American family

78) ______

79) In many U.S. ethnic groups, there is a strong emphasis placed on A) family.

B) strict discipline.

C) BOTH A and B D) NEITHER A nor B

79) ______

80) If a child's family emphasizes chiao shun and guan, it is likely that her family is A) Latino.

B) Native American.

C) Chinese.

D) African American.

80) ______

81) Chiao shun and guan are consistent with which of Baumrind's parenting styles?

A) permissive B) neglecting/rejecting C) authoritarian D) authoritative

81) ______

82) Over the past few decades in the United States, the percentage of children in non-relative childcare settings has A) increased significantly.

B) decreased sharply.

C) stayed the same.

D) increased slightly.

82) ______

83) Which of the following statements regarding the effects of non-parental child-care on children's attachments is TRUE? A) There is strong evidence that secure infant-care provider attachments disrupt infant-parent attachments.

B) The length of time children spend with a specific care provider does not influence attachment.

C) Infants are more likely to show secure attachments when mothers are less anxious about non-parental child care.

D) Infants do not form significant attachment relationships with their non-parental care providers.

83) ______

84) Carl is in enrolled in a higher-quality childcare facility. It is likely he will have all of the following EXCEPT A) higher ratings of social competence.

B) reduced anxiety.

C) weaker attachment to his parents.

D) greater cooperativeness.

84) ______

85) Researchers have identified which of the following as components of non-parental childcare

qua lity?

85)

______ A) Institutional and family-centered B) Public and private C) Government- and non-government-sponsored D) Process and structural 86) Aspects of childcare such as the adult-child ratio and formal education of caregivers are components of A) experiential quality.

B) structural quality.

C) institutional quality.

D) process quality.

86) ______

87) Jan owns Happy Children Daycare. To improve process quality, she might want to A) hire more employees to work at the facility.

B) have her employees spend more time talking with the children.

C) reduce the size of the rooms in the facility.

D) limit the number of children in the facility.

87) ______

88) Kristy is a fourth-grader, and he has no adult supervision during after-school hours. Kristy is definitely a A) placeless kid.

B) latchkey kid.

C) neglected kid.

D) rejected kid.

88) ______

89) Which of the following children is most likely to utilize child self-care?

A) five-year-old Kathryn B) Kurt, whose parents are wealthy C) Suzanne, whose parents are poor D) Paolo, whose parents are Mexican

89) ______

90) Which of the following statements regarding child self-care is TRUE? A) Self-care in public places is not associated with greater susceptibility to negative peer influences.

B) Children in self-care consistently have been shown to have fewer academic problems than other children.

C) Self-care can have benefits such as increased independence, self-reliance, resourcefulness, and self-confidence.

D) Youngsters who stay home alone are more susceptible to peer pressure than those in adult care.

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What are the major similarities and differences between authoritative and authoritarian parenting?

92) What are timeouts and how should they be used?

93) Besides the amount of time spent with children, what are some of the differences in how mothers and fathers interact with their children?

94) What differences have researchers found between children of divorce and other children?

95) Explain the difference between the cultural deficit perspective and the strength and resilience perspective.

96) What is the difference between structural quality and process quality in childcare arrangements?

97) What are latchkey children?

98) According to its advocates, what would be some of the benefits of requiring parents to be licensed?

99) According to the families interviewed, what were some of the discipline techniques that did NOT work?

100) What is an MFTI and what does one do?

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) The two dimensions of parenting that are believed to be especially important are 101) ____________ parental warmth and parental ________.

102) Permissive parents who are ________ actually encourage or foster their children's misbehavior.

102) ____________

103) Control that parents maintain by psychologically manipulating and inhibiting their children is referred to as ________.

103) ____________

104) ________ refers to techniques used to teach children appropriate behaviors, whereas ________ are techniques used to eliminate undesired behaviors.

104) ____________

105) ________ is a disciplinary strategy that involves removing a child from a situation for a period of time.

105) ____________

106) The manner in which mothers and fathers work together for their children is referred to as ________.

106) ____________

107) Family ________ are beliefs and values that may not be true or positive.

107) ____________

108) While demonstrating ________ parentification, 10-year-old Jenna prepares the meals, washes the dishes, and takes care of the laundry.

108) ____________

109) Due to the ________ effect of divorce, the effects of a parent's divorce may not become apparent until much later.

109) ____________

110) According to the ________ model, it is the parent's characteristics, rather than the divorce itself, which causes many negative outcomes for children.

110) ____________

111) In ________ adoption, children are given more information about their biological parents.

111) ____________

112) The process of minority families struggling to blend their cultural background with that of the majority culture is called ________.

112) ____________

113) The concepts of chiao shun and guan are often practiced by ________ parents.

113) ____________

114) The two primary components of childcare quality are ________ quality and ________ quality.

114) ____________

115) School-aged children who have no adult supervision during the after-school hours are called ________.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Describe Baumrind's four parenting styles and summarize typical child outcomes associated with each style.

117) Your friend is struggling with disciplining her five-year-old son. She is frustrated because she consistently spanks him for his misbehavior, but is finding that spanking does not work. Based on your text, what might

you tell

her?

118) Identify the two primary components of childcare quality, and describe at least four questions that parents could ask to determine the quality of care given by a specific childcare facility.

119) According to Baumrind, what are the four ways in which parents differ?

120) According to Elkind and others, what are some of the benefits of a shared family meal?

1) C 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) A

52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) A 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) D 67) C 68) D 69) B 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) A 74) A 75) D 76) D 77) D 78) C 79) C 80) C 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) C 85) D 86) B 87) B 88) B 89) B 90) C 91) While both exert control over their children, only the authoritative parents are considered to be warm.

92) Timeouts involve removing the child from the situation and placing him or her in a safe environment for a period of time. Timeouts are disciplinary actions which allow children to collect themselves in order to reflect on their behavior. The typical advice given is that timeouts should last about one minute per year of the child's age.

93) Mothers perform more child care chores such as feeding, bathing, and dressing, and they are also more likely than fathers to transport children to day care and school, help children with homework, and supervise children's play.

Because mothers spend more total time with children, however, they still end up playing with children more than fathers do. Fathers' play tends to be more physical and rough-and-tumble, and mothers' play tends to be more toy oriented and verbal.

94) Children of divorce have more feelings of depression, distress, grief, anger, anxiety, shame, fear of abandonment, and responsibility for the divorce; more disobedience, aggresion, antisocial behavior, criminal behavior, and lack of self-control; lower grades in school, lower school attendance, and higher drop-out rates in high school; lower rates of college attendance, and lower annual incomes in adulthood; higher rates of teenage pregnancy; and lower

marr iage rates, higher cohabitation rates, and higher divorce rates when they do marry.

95) While both deal with minority families, the cultural deficit perspective assumes that negative outcomes for minorities are due to ways in which minority families are not "measuring up." The strength and resilience perspective looks at how minority families have survived or even thrived despite racism, bigotry, and inequality.

96) Structural quality refers to objective aspects (such as child-adult ratio, caregivers' education, and the facility size), whereas process quality refers to more subjective measures (such as the activities, caregiver warmth, and whether toys are developmentally appropriate).

97) These are children who come home after school and let themselves into an empty house with no adult there to supervise them.

98) It would provide a way to determine parental competence before the child is impacted, prevent abuse and neglect, save society much pain and money, establish parenting requirements, and require permission to become a parent.

99) yelling (Matos and Buenaventura families), spanking (Matos and Petraluzzi), discussions (Buenaventura), and timeouts (Petraluzzi) 100) An MFTI is a Marriage Family Therapist Intern. MFTIs provide families with the tools needed to maintain positive relationships and to cope with the stressors inherent in divorce. The goal is to make it safe for children to express feelings about the divorce. An MFTI also provides education for parents on how divorce impacts children. Also, an MFTI provides communication-skills training to parents so they are better able to support the child.

101) control 102) indulgent 103) intrusiveness 104) Discipline; punishments 105) Timeout 106) co-parenting 107) myths 108) instrumental 109) sleeper 110) selection 111) open 112) acculturation 113) Chinese 114) structural; process 115) latchkey kids 116) Diane Baumrind used the dimensions of parental warmth and control to delineate the following four parenting styles: (1) authoritarian, (2) authoritative, (3) rejecting/neglecting, and (4) permissive.

Authoritarian parents are high on control and low on warmth. They are firm disciplinarians, but unresponsive to the emotional needs of their children. These parents set firm limits, expect obedience, and use harsh discipline.

Authoritative parents are high in both control and warmth. They monitor their children closely, have clear standards and expectations, use open communication, and support their children's emotional needs.

Rejecting/neglecting parents are low in both control and warmth. They don't set limits and are unresponsive to their children's emotional needs. Rejecting parents tend to be harsh, whereas neglecting parents simply ignore their children and do not fulfill their parental responsibilities. Permissive parents are high in warmth but low in control.

These parents are too lenient with their children. They don't set limits or have standards for behavior, and they tend to avoid confrontation with their children. In general, the authoritative parenting style is associated with the most positive child outcomes. Children raised by authoritarian parents tend to be angrier, less popular with peers, less independent, and less likely to achieve academically relative to children raised with authoritative parents. Children raised by neglecting/rejecting parents suffer the most negative outcomes of all four parenting types. These children typically perform more poorly in school, and show higher rates of delinquency, alcohol and drug abuse, and early sexual activity. Children raised by permissive parents are more impulsive, perform more poorly in school, and are less confident and independent in their activities.

117) Students should first point out some of the negative outcomes associated with spanking. They should also note that discipline (which refers to teaching) may be more effective than just punishing the unwanted behavior after the fact.

Stud ld then note some of the disciplinary strategies noted by the text, such as managing the situation, setting clear rules ents and limits, praising good behavior, explaining and reasoning, removing privileges, and using timeouts. Students shou should note that the focus should be on teaching good behavior, rather than on punishing bad behavior.

118) The primary components of childcare are (1) structural quality, and (2) process quality. Structural quality refers to the quality of objective features of the childcare facility such as the ratio of caregivers to children, the educational credentials and experience of caregivers, and the size of the facility. In contrast, process quality refers to the quality of the children's experiences while at the facility, including interactions with caregivers and other children, and exposure to experiences and materials that enhance children's social, physical, and cognitive development.

Typically, it is easier to assess structural quality than it is to assess process quality. Parents can ask a number of questions that will help them to assess the quality of a specific childcare facility, including questions regarding caregivers' experience and educational background, adult-to-child ratio, quality and availability of toys, frequency of staff meetings, balance of children's activities, caregiver flexibility, and the extent to which caregivers appear to welcome and respect all parents.

119) Parents differ are in the areas of nurturing (whether warmth is demonstrated), control, the quality of communication patterns, and the expectation of developmentally or age-appropriate behavior.

120) Some of the benefits include quiet refuge, regularity, togetherness, conversation, children feeling important to parents, and the intellectual exchange which predicts learning and reading skills.

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) From first to twelfth grade, the typical U.S. child will spend close to how many hours in school, not including extra-curricular activities?

A) 15,000 B) 25,000 C) 20,000 D) 30,000

1) _______

2) Which of the following facts about Project Head Start is FALSE? A) It is a federally funded program to improve academic achievement.

B) It was designed as an academic opportunity for children from ages three to five.

C) It started in 1965 as part of President Johnson's War on Poverty.

D) It is designed for needy children, so the parents are not utilized.

2) _______

3) Both the Abecedarian Project and the High/Scope Perry Preschool program A) are for children living on the West Coast of the United States.

B) assist elementary school age children.

C) developed after Project Head Start.

D) targeted low-income African American children.

3) _______

4) Which of the following statements regarding early intervention programs is TRUE? A) Children in these programs are more likely to be placed in special education than children who are not in the program.

B) Children in these programs are less likely to graduate from high school compared to children not in the programs.

C) Children in these programs score lower on reading tests than children who are not in the program.

D) Children in these programs show immediate gains of about eight points on intelligence tests.

4) _______

5) According to your text, which of the following is the most important reason for the positive long-term effects of early intervention programs?

A) Positive changes in parents' attitudes to school B) Improvement in children's cognitive abilities C) Increases in children's motivation to learn D) Improvement in children's health and medical care

5) _______

6) The greater positive, long-term effect of the Abecedarian Project, relative to other early intervention programs, may likely be due to the A) early age at which children enter, and the length of time they stay in, the program.

B) fact that children in the program are not as impoverished as children in other programs.

C) inclusion of parents in the decision-making process regarding their children's education.

D) program's emphasis on nutrition, immunization, dental, and other medical care.

6) _______

7) Ray is enrolled in Project Head Start. Which of the following is MOST likely to predict Ray's success?

A) His parents later choose to send Ray to a private or parochial school.

B) Ray's public schools extend both educational and family services support.

C) Ray is tested using achievement tests rather than traditional IQ tests.

D) Ray's family is among the most impoverished and needing of services.

7) _______

8) When surveyors ask parents and kindergarten teachers to identify school readiness indicators, both parents and teachers emphasize

8) _______

A) ability to count numbers.

C) familiarity with the alphabet.

B) ability to follow directions.

D) physical health and enthusiasm.

9) When surveyors ask parents and kindergarten teachers to identify school readiness indicators, teachers are more likely than parents to emphasize A) ability to follow classroom rules.

B) verbal communication skills.

C) ability to count numbers.

D) familiarity with the alphabet.

9) _______

10) Parents are more likely than teachers to believe that which of the following is an important prerequisite for being ready to enter kindergarten?

A) Verbal skills B) The ability to sit still C) Enthusiasm D) Academic knowledge

10) ______

11) Which of the following facts regarding the testing of children entering kindergarten is NOT true?

A) Children of different races and ethnicities scored similarly.

B) The higher the mothers' level of education, the higher the children's scores.

C) Children from single-parent homes tend to score lower.

D) Children from higher-income families score higher.

11) ______

12) Estelle is old enough to enter kindergarten, but her parents feel that she is not mature enough to enter kindergarten yet. Her parents might decide to A) redshirt her.

B) use external attributions.

C) IEP her.

D) acculturate her.

12) ______

13) The basic purpose of redshirting is to A) measure a child's school readiness.

B) help a child get ready for kindergarten.

C) develop a game plan for delayed children.

D) assist teachers in teaching children.

13) ______

14) In her psychology class, Dr. Garcia claimed that "Schools should work with children's existing abilities and scaffold their learning experiences rather than retain them." Her comment indicates that she agrees with A) Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development.

B) Weiner's attribution theory.

C) current research in behavior genetics.

D) operant and classical conditioning.

14) ______

15) Your text uses which term to refer to the degree to which a person chooses to engage in, and keep trying to accomplish, challenging tasks?

A) Self-efficacy B) Incremental effort C) Achievement motivation D) Conditional regard

15) ______

16) Sefa believes that her good grades are due to her hard work, but her failures are due to confusing textbooks. Psychologists would refer to Sefa's beliefs about the causes of her successes and failures as her A) motivations.

B) attributions.

C) orientations.

D) intentions.

16) ______

17) Which of the following is the BEST example of an internal attribution?

A) "I can hit a baseball because I practice a lot."

B) "I made an A on the spelling test because I'm lucky."

C) "I have a hard time tying my shoes because it's difficult to do."

17) ______

D) "I failed the math test because the teacher didn't teach well."

18) Rihanna just scored a goal in her soccer game. Using an external attribution, she says, A) "The other team's goalie was not very good."

B) "I did a good job of paying attention."

C) "I want to play soccer again."

D) "I'll never be able to do that again."

18) ______

19) Which of the following is the BEST example of a stable attribution?

A) "I have the worst luck of anyone I know!"

B) "I didn't play well at the recital because I didn't sleep well the night before."

C) "I don't have a lot of talent at sports, but if I work hard, I'll get better."

D) "I usually do well on spelling tests, but the last test was hard!"

19) ______

20) Which of the following indicates a mastery orientation?

A) "I am great because I work hard."

B) "I must be better than everyone else."

C) "I believe I will succeed."

D) "I can't help it if I'm not good at math."

20) ______

21) Children with a mastery orientation usually attribute their failures to A) uncontrollable causes.

B) external causes.

C) unstable causes.

D) stable causes.

21) ______

22) Donna has as incremental view of ability. She is most likely to believe that A) she can achieve only a certain amount.

B) she can improve her ability.

C) she is better than others.

D) others have skills that she does not.

22) ______

23) The basic difference between the incremental and entity views of ability is the belief about A) whether you can improve.

B) how you compare to others.

C) how quickly learning occurs.

D) how much you can learn.

23) ______

24) Children with a helpless orientation are likely to A) have performance goals.

C) make external attributions for failure.

24) ______ B) have an incremental view of ability.

D) have learning goals.

25) Which of the following is the BEST example of a child expressing a performance goal orientation?

A) "Difficult tasks are a challenge to finish."

B) "I like to do math because it's easy."

C) "I like to read because it makes me smarter."

D) "Science is interesting because I learn something new."

25) ______

26) Given that Gavin has a performance goal orientation, his parents should be most concerned that he will A) avoid situations in which he could use improvement.

B) make fun of others who are not as skilled as he is.

C) believe that he can succeed only with help from others.

D) work hard even though he is unlikely to succeed.

26) ______

27) In regard to learning, one difference between Chinese and American cultures is that A) Americans associate learning with diligence.

B) Americans associate learning with persistence and concentration.

C) the Chinese view learning as a moral value.

27) ______

D) the Chinese view learning as a practical task to be accomplished.

28) In Rosenthal and Jacobson's (1968) classic study of the self-fulfilling prophecy, students showed greater increases in their IQ scores when A) they were told that they could expect to do better in their studies during the upcoming school year.

B) their parents were told that their children would make large intellectual gains during the upcoming school year.

C) their teachers were told that the students would probably make large intellectual gains during the upcoming school year.

D) their peers were told that some of their classmates would do better in their studies during the upcoming year.

28) ______

29) The self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when a person A) sets high goals for himself or herself.

B) believes that others will succeed.

C) behaves in ways that make his or her prediction come true.

D) understands what others are explaining to him or her.

29) ______

30) Melanie is a new teacher. If she wants to develop a more positive classroom climate, she should do all of the following EXCEPT A) participate in class decisions and discussions.

B) promote the teacher as the all-powerful authority figure.

C) establish clear rules for classroom behavior.

D) allow children to make choices and pursue their own interests.

30) ______

31) Hemmeter is a school that is tracking its students. That means that Hemmeter is A) monitoring children's progress.

B) separating children by their ability level.

C) providing assistance for children with poor ability.

D) promoting students despite their lack of skills.

31) ______

32) Between-class ability grouping, or tracking, is particularly common in A) elementary school.

B) middle school.

C) high school.

D) junior high school.

32) ______

33) Between-class ability grouping, or tracking, is particularly detrimental for A) high-ability students.

B) boys.

C) low-ability students.

D) girls.

33) ______

34) The placement of students into instructional groups based on their level of competence is referred to as A) school-home compatibility practices.

B) stage-environment fit.

C) constructing cooperative learning groups.

D) ability grouping practices.

34) ______

35) Which of the following statements about cooperative learning is FALSE? A) Children work together in large groups to plan activities.

B) Groups monitor themselves to make sure they are functioning properly.

C) Students depend on one another to reach group goals.

D) Each student in the group is accountable for his or her own performance.

35) ______

36) Duane is currently making the transition to middle/junior high school. Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen to Duane?

A) The individual attention and support he gets from teachers will now be decreased.

B) There will be more opportunities for him to maintain close friendship networks.

C) His grades will be emphasized more.

D) He will face increased emphasis on teacher control.

36) ______

37) The degree to which a particular environment can meet the social, cognitive, and emotional needs of a child at a specific point in his or her development is described by the A) degree of institutional congruence.

B) stage-environment fit.

C) longitudinal match or mismatch.

D) goodness of fit.

37) ______

38) Which of the following have educators suggested as a strategy for increasing the stage-environment fit for middle and junior high school students?

A) Ask teachers to use individual assessments of students' abilities rather than group work.

B) Encourage students to pursue performance-oriented goals in the classroom.

C) Give educators more control of the classroom decisions.

D) Schedule regular advisory sessions for teachers to know individual students better.

38) ______

39) Ezekiel, a sixth grader, is having a hard time adjusting to his new school. He says he's working as hard as he can, but his grades are lower than when he was in the fifth grade. He misses Mr. Sims, his fifth-grade teacher, and his new teachers don't seem to get to know their students like the teachers at his old school did. It's quite possible that Ezekiel is experiencing a/an A) self-fulfilling prophecy.

B) cultural conflict.

C) school-home incompatibility.

D) poor stage-environment fit.

39) ______

40) Due to his developmental difficulties, Charlie will need a/an A) RFA. B) IEP. C) ONG.

40) ______ D) CDF.

41) According to U.S. law, all children must be educated in the A) minimally isolative climate.

B) least restrictive environment.

C) maximal educational locale.

D) optimal learning culture.

41) ______

42) U.S. law states that students with disabilities should be educated A) in a one-on-one setting whenever possible.

B) with other disabled students, except in unusual circumstances.

C) in a manner determined by the child's home state.

D) with nondisabled students whenever possible.

42) ______

43) If Chandra is a typical public school student receiving federal funding support due to a disability, we could predict that Chandra received services for A) speech and language impairments.

B) a specific learning disability such as math or reading.

C) a specific type of mental retardation.

D) a physical limitation, such as being blind or wheelchair-bound.

43) ______

44) When comparing U.S. eighth graders to those of 45 other countries, the American students ranked A) 25th in math and 29th in science.

B) 5th in math and 39th in science.

C) 15th in math and 9th in science.

D) 35th in math and 19th in science.

44) ______

45) When comparing international assessments of students' achievement, the relative performance of U.S. twelfth graders was A) better than the performance of U.S. eighth graders.

B) above the international average in math and science.

C) below the international average in math and science.

D) about the same as the performance of U.S. eighth graders.

45) ______

46) In regard to the U.S. dropout rate, A) African Americans are more likely to drop out than Hispanic students.

B) the rate for non-Hispanic white students is about 3 percent.

C) it declined for all ethnicities during the 1970s and 1980s.

D) currently there are few ethnic differences.

46) ______

47) Which of the following statements regarding U.S. children's use of media is FALSE? A) At all ages, computer use is more common than television viewing.

B) Children between the ages of two and 18 spend the equivalent of a full-time workweek using media.

C) By the age of eight, about one-third of all children have TVs in their bedrooms.

D) About 75% of those surveyed said they read for pleasure regularly.

47) ______

48) Research on gender differences in media usage indicate that A) boys spend more time than girls listening to music during middle childhood.

B) boys spend more time on the computer than girls do from middle childhood on.

C) girls spend more time playing video games than boys do.

D) girls tend to watch more television than boys do.

48) ______

49) Research on ethnic group differences in media usage indicate that A) African American and Hispanic youngsters spend equal amounts of time using media.

B) African American and Hispanic families are just as likely to have a computer at home as white families.

C) from middle childhood on, African American children spend more time using media than white children.

D) African American and Hispanic students spend less time on the computer relative to white students.

49) ______

50) Research has examined differences in media usage as a function of socioeconomic status. When comparing middle- or upper-income children to others, children from lower-income families A) spend less time watching television.

B) spend more time using computers.

C) are less likely to have TVs in their bedrooms.

D) spend less time using the Internet.

50) ______

51) Which of the following statements regarding the effects of TV on children is TRUE? A) Educational TV shows appear to have the biggest benefits for children from higher-income families.

B) Educational TV appears to have its strongest positive effects among children who are four years of age or older.

C) Research has not shown any positive effects of TV on children's cognitive skills and achievement.

D) Experimental and correlational research indicates that educational TV can enhance children's cognitive skills.

51) ______

52) Which of the following statements regarding the effects of non-educational television on students' academic achievement is TRUE? A) There is a strong negative correlation between the number of hours children spend watching TV and the time they spend reading.

B) Correlational studies have shown no evidence that watching 30 hours of TV per week or more is associated with poor academic performance.

C) Children who watch 10 hours of TV per week have lower achievement scores than children who watch less TV. D) Heavy TV viewing appears to have more detrimental effects on girls and white, higher-IQ, and higher SES children.

52) ______

53) Which of the following statements regarding TV aggression is TRUE? A) Researchers have found no evidence that TV aggression affects children's thoughts, feelings, or behaviors.

B) In general, television shows depict violence and aggressive behavior in a true-to-life manner.

C) Adult-focused primetime television dramas contain much more aggression than children's cartoons.

D) By the time children in the United States leave elementary school, they have watched more than 8,000 TV murders.

53) ______

54) The researcher most closely associated with experimental research examining the effects of TV aggression on children's behavior is A) Huesmann.

B) Bushman.

C) Eron.

D) Bandura.

54) ______

55) Research conducted by Bandura on the effects of television violence on children's aggressive behavior shows all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) Watching violence on TV causes more aggressive behavior in the short term.

B) Children who viewed violent video clips behaved more aggressively with people.

C) Watching violence on TV causes more aggressive behavior in the long term.

D) Children who viewed violent video clips behaved more aggressively with objects.

55) ______

56) Bandura found that the effects of viewing violent television differed depending on children's A) gender.

B) pre-existing aggressive tendencies.

C) ethnicity.

D) NONE of the above.

56) ______

57) Which of the following children would be most likely to benefit from viewing prosocial television programs?

A) George, who watches shows by himself B) Richard, who watches similar amounts of prosocial and antisocial programming C) Paul, whose parents are poor D) 7-year-old John

57) ______

58) In regard to stereotyping, research indicates that A) seeing African American characters on TV can have positive effects on African American children's self-esteem.

B) for older teens, watching sexual material has little impact on attitudes toward women.

C) current television programming discourages stereotypic views of both gender and ethnicity.

D) programming today seldom shows gender and ethnic stereotypes.

58) ______

59) Which of the following has NOT been found in regard to video game usage?

59) ______

A) Usage peaks around 15 or 16 years of age.

B) Experimental data on its long-term impact are lacking.

C) Playing these games improves spatial skills.

D) More usage is associated with lower grades.

60) Most boys between the ages of eight and 12 years spend approximately how much time playing video games each day?

A) about four hours per day B) about two hours per day C) more than five hours per day D) less than one hour per day

60) ______

61) Glenn has purchased some educational computer games for his son, Chris. He believes these games will assist Chris in many ways. Based on your reading, you can tell him that these games have the fewest proven benefits in regard to A) making use of feedback.

B) divergent thinking skills.

C) his learning of the material.

D) organizing his thinking.

61) ______

62) In general, which of the following statements comparing video games to software games and interactive media is FALSE? A) Video games are more education-oriented than software games and interactive media.

B) Video games require fewer cognitive skills than software games and interactive media.

C) Video games engage fewer logical thinking skills than software games and interactive media.

D) Video games require a faster physical response than software games and interactive media.

62) ______

63) Which of the following has NOT been found in regard to American children's use of the Internet?

A) The most common reason teens go online is to communicate with friends.

B) Internet usage benefits problem-solving skills.

C) Half of all 12 to 18 year olds go online daily.

D) More than 80% of all 12 to 18 year olds go online.

63) ______

64) Shayann uses the Internet quite a bit. According to the social compensation hypothesis, this is because he A) is lonely and has few friends to begin with.

B) wants to develop his hand-eye coordination skills.

C) enjoys learning about foreign cultures and peoples.

D) wants to communicate with his large circle of friends.

64) ______

65) The social compensation hypothesis and the rich-get-richer hypothesis both seek to explain why A) the Internet improves cognitive skills.

B) teens utilize the Internet.

C) the Internet benefits social skills.

D) some teens have better Internet skills.

65) ______

66) After watching Power Rangers on TV, Jon, Travis, and Tim pretend they are characters from the show and enact some of the more aggressive moves that they have seen. This behavior is an example of how aggressive behavior may be acquired through A) observational learning.

B) desensitization.

C) positive reinforcement.

D) negative reinforcement.

66) ______

67) A cognitive schema is an individual's A) understanding of the events that are likely to occur in specific situations.

B) heightened arousal response to watching extremely violent media forms.

C) decrease in emotional responsiveness to an intense environmental stimulation.

67) ______

D) set of beliefs regarding the effectiveness of using aggression to solve problems.

68) Ten-year-old Bart has watched The Simpsons religiously for the last seven years. Bart is frequently disrespectful to his parents and other adults, and he believes that children know much more about the world than any adults. Because of his beliefs, Bart often finds himself in trouble. Bart's understanding of how things work is referred to as a/an A) observed memory.

B) reconstructed memory.

C) cognitive schema.

D) autobiographical memory.

68) ______

69) Fourteen-year-old Travis has watched the Texas Chainsaw Massacre at least fifty times. The first time he watched it, it really disturbed him and grossed him out. Now he laughs and makes fun of the lousy special effects. This decrease in Travis' emotional response to the movie is called A) affect diminution.

B) emotional deprivation.

C) stimulation reduction.

D) desensitization.

69) ______

70) Your text notes that by the time children finish elementary school, they have watched approximately 8,000 murders on television. This high degree of exposure to TV violence is likely to cause A) affect diminution.

B) post-traumatic stress disorder.

C) desensitization.

D) emotional deprivation.

70) ______

71) After playing a violent video game, ten-year-old Craig's father tells him it is past his bedtime.

Rather than using his usual mild complaints, Craig responds with anger and noncompliance. It is likely that playing the video game A) desensitized Craig to his father's directives.

B) altered Craig's cognitive schemas.

C) decreased Craig's emotional responsiveness.

D) increased Craig's arousal level.

71) ______

72) Which of the following is NOT true of cultures?

A) Their customs are transmitted from generation to generation.

B) They include clearly specified rules.

C) They can be vastly different in their customs.

D) They almost always focus on the group, not the person.

72) ______

73) Which of the following characteristics would be LEAST likely to describe a person from an individualistic culture?

A) Sense of duty to immediate family B) Focused on individual rights C) Identity based on personal achievements D) Strong sense of belonging to a group

73) ______

74) The general belief that people are dependent on one another and that each person has a duty to other members of his or her group is a primary component of A) connectedness.

B) collectivism.

C) social dependence view.

D) individualism.

74) ______

75) Which of the following characteristics is NOT considered important within collectivistic cultures?

A) Emphasis on religion, kinship, and ethnicity B) Focus on fulfilling one's personal duty to other people C) Emphasis on the importance of personal success and happiness D) Emphasis on group goals, values, and well-being

75) ______

76) Authoritative parenting A) seems to encourage group, rather than personal, values.

B) shares outcomes with individualistic orientations.

C) is viewed as effective in African cultures.

D) is the norm in East Asian countries.

76) ______

77) Which of the following statements regarding the influence of differences in cultural orientation is FALSE? A) East Asian and African cultures place a great amount of emphasis on developing children who are independent, competitive, and able to work alone.

B) Research has indicated that cultural differences in collectivism and individualism influence many child development practices.

C) World-wide, authoritative parenting practices are viewed as the most effective style of parenting because of their emphasis on self-regulation.

D) Cultural differences in individualism and collectivism impact children's emotional attachments, self-concept, and self-esteem.

77) ______

78) Which of the following statements about poverty in the United States is TRUE? A) Almost half of all U.S. families living in poverty have at least one full-time worker.

B) Seven out of ten African American and Hispanic children live in poverty.

C) As of 2004, the overall poverty rate in the United States was the highest in two decades.

D) In the United States, young children are less likely to live in poverty than any other age group.

78) ______

79) In 2002, the U.S. Census Bureau defined poverty as a total annual income for a household of four people of not more than A) $25,556.

B) $10,556.

C) $30,556.

D) $19,806.

79) ______

80) Which of the following statements regarding poverty in the United States is TRUE? A) Poverty causes stressful environmental conditions that contribute to higher rates of suicide and mental illness.

B) Due to early intervention programs, poor children are just as ready for school as other children.

C) Because poor parents use more power-assertive discipline, their children are more likely to complete high school.

D) Families with children constitute about 10% of the homeless population in the United States.

80) ______

81) Urban families that find ways to help their children take advantage of opportunities within and outside their immediate neighborhoods are known as A) community-bridging families.

B) cultural broker families.

C) acculturating families.

D) poverty-escaping families.

81) ______

82) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of community-bridging families?

A) These families expect their children to contribute to the family group through chores and part-time jobs.

B) These families consistently and conscientiously monitor their children's everyday activities and friendships.

C) These families restrict children's interactions with community members who may have positive impacts on them.

D) These families establish networks among immediate and extended family members to provide support and resources.

82) ______

83) Rakim and Kim are an African American couple raising their children in an inner-city environment. Rakim and Kim should be encouraged to A) expect their children to do household chores.

B) encourage their children's involvement in positive activities.

C) carefully and consistently monitor their children's activities and friendships.

D) do ALL of the above.

83) ______

84) Which of the following factors is a difference found between rural and inner-city poverty?

A) Number of daily hassles B) Overall stress levels C) Strength of family ties D) Number of negative life events

84) ______

85) The process of learning the language, values, customs, and social skills of a new culture is defined as A) immigration.

B) desensitization.

C) acculturation.

D) emigration.

85) ______

86) Sasha and his family just moved to Michigan from Russia. He is now working on improving his vocabulary, trying to find his way around, and figuring out what is expected of U.S. college students. Sasha is trying to A) become acculturated.

B) engage in community-building.

C) serve as a cultural broker.

D) act in a collectivistic manner.

86) ______

87) Which of the following statements regarding the process of acculturation is FALSE? A) Acculturation is usually complete within one family generation.

B) Acculturation is especially difficult during adolescence.

C) Language differences between children and parents influence acculturation.

D) Acculturation can create conflict and stress for family members.

87) ______

88) The ability to adopt two cultural orientations simultaneously is referred to as A) bilingualism.

B) linguistic diversity.

C) communicative diversity.

D) biculturalism.

88) ______

89) Twelve-year-old Fahmi's parents expect him to interpret the new language and to help them learn how to interact effectively in their new homeland. In other words, Fahmi is expected to act as a A) cultural compatibility specialist.

B) collectivist orientation educator.

C) child cultural broker.

D) cultural translator.

89) ______

90) Which of the following is NOT one of the typical effects of a being a child cultural broker?

A) Stronger bonds with parents B) Reduced stress levels C) Greater knowledge of the new culture D) Greater sensitivity to parents' challenges

90) ______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) What is Project Head Start?

92) Jade just received a perfect score on her math test. Using an internal attribution, why did this occur?

93) If you have an entity view of memory ability, what do you believe?

94) How does the social compensation hypothesis explain why some teens spend more time on the Internet?

95) Some claim that television causes desensitization. What does that mean?

96) What is the difference between individualism and collectivism?

97) What is biculturalism?

98) What are seen as as some of the pros and cons of having states control Project Head Start?

99) What advice did musically-talented teen Jose Soto offer to other talented teens and their parents?

100) What kind of work does Jan Craige Singer claim he and his employees do at BIG BLUE DOT? SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

101) ________ was started in 1965 as part of President Johnson's War on Poverty.

101) ____________ 102) Let's say that a child is old enough for school but not ready for school. Some might say that the best thing to do is to ________, or hold back, the child.

102) ____________

103) Using external ________, a person might believe that he or she made a great dinner because the recipe was clear, rather than because he or she is a great cook.

103) ____________

104) Children with a ________ orientation believe their failures are due to a lack of ability, but they believe their successes are due to uncontrollable factors such as luck.

104) ____________

105) Children with a/an ________ view of ability believe that ability is fixed and unchangeable.

105) ____________

106) Jason believes he will do well on his next math test, so he studies hard and pays close attention in class. When he does perform well on the test, it may be due to a/an ________ prophecy.

106) ____________

107) The social and emotional environment of a classroom is referred to as classroom ________.

107) ____________

108) Between-class ability grouping is also known as ________.

108) ____________

109) In ________ learning, children work together in small group to learn or solve problems.

109) ____________

110) When there is a mismatch between the school structure and the child's developmental needs, there is said to be a poor ________ fit.

110) ____________

111) United States Public Law 94-142 requires that each child identified as needing specialized education services has an IEP, which stands for ________.

111) ____________

112) A cognitive ________ is a person's understanding of the objects and sequences of events that are likely to be encountered in a specific situation.

112) ____________

113) The gradual decrease in an individual's sensitivity to a stimulus is called ________.

113) ____________

114) The belief that individuals are interdependent members of a social group and that the greatest concern is the group's goals, values, and well-being is known as ________.

114) ____________

115) The process of learning the values, language, customs, and social skills of a new culture is referred to as ________.

115) ____________

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Name and discuss some of the early intervention programs and their benefits and limitations. If you had to choose one, which would you select and why?

117) Discuss two of the primary ways in which the media can affect children.

118) Distinguish the cultural orientations of individualism and collectivism and give examples of countries with each of these orientations.

119) Describe the three factors that determine whether a person will make internal or external attributions.

120) What is a consequence card, and how can it be used in a classroom?

1) A 2) D 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) D

52) D 53) D 54) D 55) C 56) D 57) D 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) C 69) D 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) A 79) D 80) A 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) C 85) C 86) A 87) A 88) D 89) C 90) B 91) It is a federally funded program that started in 1965. It is designed to improve academic achievement and opportunity for children aged three to five. The children receive social and health services as well as educational support.

92) Jane focused on factors within her control, such as her ability, effort, and effective strategy usage (as opposed to factors such as luck, the teacher's ability, and the easiness of the test).

93) You believe that memory ability is a fixed and unchangeable ability.

94) This theory claims that teens who are lonely and have few friends are more likely to choose the Internet over face-to-face involvement.

95) It means that they believe that the result of watching TV is a gradual dulling of of response that causes the person to need more intense stimulation to produce a reaction.

96) Individualism is the belief that people are independent of each other and that the focus is on the person, whereas collectivism is the belief that people are interdependent and that the greatest concern is with the group's well-being.

97) It is the adoption of two cultural orientations at the same time.

98) Advocates claim that states are better able to determining the needs of its citizens and that they are better able to coordinate the necessary services for its residents. Critics claim that states are unprepared to do this and that the comprehensive services of Head Start would be lost.

99) He encouraged the teens to work hard and to have fun. He said parents should encourage their children and let them be who they are.

100) They help clients reach children in a variety of ways, including broadcast and website design, logos, print and packaging, and branding. They create a variety of age-appropriate ideas for companies that have products and services for children.

101) Project Head Start 102) redshirt 103) attributions 104) helpless 105) entity 106) self-fulfilling 107) climate 108) tracking 109) cooperative 110) stage-environment 111) individualized education plan 112) schema 113) desensitization 114) collectivism 115) acculturation 116) The text mentions Project Head Start, the Abecedarian Project,and the High/Scope Perry Preschool program. All are designed to provide early educational opportunities for at-risk (typically poor) children.

(1) There seem to be early IQ benefits that "fade away."( 2) They do lead to higher scores on math and reading tests, but these differences fade in time, too.( 3) The children in these programs show other social and health benefits, such as being less likely to be arrested or to receive welfare, and more likely to be employed, immunized, and employed in a better-paying job.( 4) Also, the parents in some of these programs tend to be more emotionally supportive, to spank less, and read to their children more.

Students' responses to the second part of this essay question will vary.

117) Students' responses to this essay question will vary widely, but students may discuss the impact on learning, aggression, desensitization, arousal, cognitive schemas, observational learning, and/or learning.

118) Individualism is a system of beliefs that asserts that people are basically independent of one another. Cultures with an individualistic orientation emphasize the importance of individuals' rights, personal autonomy, and self-fulfillment. People within individualistic cultures are primarily concerned with their own needs, accomplishments, and goals, and those of their immediate family. Collectivism, in contrast, is a system of beliefs that emphasizes the interdependent relationships among members of the group. Cultures with a collectivistic orientation emphasize a person's duty to other people, and the needs, accomplishments, and goals of the entire group rather than of just the person and his or her immediate family. Students' examples may differ; however, their examples should be consistent with the information presented in the text.

119) Consensus (whether others agree or disagree), consistency (whether there is persistence), and distinctiveness (whether this is typical of the individual) 120) Each student has his or her own card, and each starts with a green card. When a child misbehaves, he or she must change the card. A yellow one indicates a warning, while an orange one means the child needs to have cool-down time and a chat with the teacher. When a student receives a red card, the child's parents are called.