Changing Planet, A, 2nd edition By Jason Neff Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Changing Planet

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

Jason Neff

A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter SS The Science of Sustainability SS.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following terms best describes the practice of environmental science?

A) Highly specialized and focused B) Integrative and interdisciplinary C) Abstract and theoretical D) Theoretical and controversial Answer: B Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.1: Explain what other fields contribute to environmental science and provide a brief history of how the field of environmental science developed.

2) The current total world population is almost ________.

A) 6 billion B) 7 billion C) 8 billion D) 10 billion E) 11 billion Answer: C Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.2: Explain the concept of sustainability and how it applies to environmental science.

3) Which of the following best illustrates sustainability?

A) Constructing coal mines that do not require extensive surface excavations B) Transitioning from traditional to renewable sources of energy C) Upgrading or replacing computers every few years to improve performance D) Using an ethanol—gasoline blend in a vehicle instead of pure gasoline Answer: B Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.1.2: Explain the concept of sustainability and how it applies to environmental science.

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4) Sustainable development ________.

A) ensures an economy that will decline over time, since our economy hinges on the assumption that resources are finite B) involves using resources to meet today's needs without compromising future availability C) is technically impossible to accomplish, since resources would still be used up D) is hypothetically attainable but is beyond our current technologies Answer: B Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

5) The concept of sustainable development considers ________.

A) the needs of future generations B) growth in profits from international trade C) the importance of developing the arts D) the fastest ways to economic prosperity Answer: A Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

6) What is the rationale behind describing nations as developing economies, rather than developing countries?

A) Developing economies is a term used to describe a nation that has traditionally been dominated by bartering systems, but is now developing a more standardized system of capitalism.

B) Developing countries focus on improving their system of government, while developing economics focus solely on national wealth.

C) Using the term developing countries implies that wealthy countries are more advanced than developing ones.

D) Nothing is implied; the terms are interchangeable.

Answer: C Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

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7) How are the economy, natural resources, and society related in traditional ideas about development?

A) Resources support economic growth, and the higher income can then be used for societal improvement.

B) Resource use is balanced against societal needs and economic growth.

C) Economic and societal development are usually simultaneous, and only the largest societies use resources unsustainably.

D) Resource use fuel the economy, but improvement of societal conditions is unrelated to development.

Answer: A Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

8) How are the economy, natural resources, and society related in sustainable development?

A) Resources support economic growth, and the higher income can then be used for societal improvement.

B) Resource use is balanced against societal needs and economic growth.

C) Economic and societal development are usually simultaneous, and only the largest societies use resources unsustainably.

D) Resource use fuel the economy, but improvement of societal conditions is unrelated to development.

Answer: B Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

9) Which of the following is the best description of the concepts that should be balanced in sustainable development?

A) housing a growing human population and environmental health B) future resource availability and economic growth C) economic growth, environmental health, and societal equity D) supporting economic growth and societal development Answer: C Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

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10) Which of the following is a downside to organizations such as the OECD? A) The wealthiest nations play a much larger role in developing global policies than poorer nations do.

B) Their policies regarding human health and welfare often slow economic development.

C) Their environmental policies impose regulations that harm businesses and reduce profits.

D) Their emphasis on adopting shared policies for trade and development discourage entrepreneurship.

Answer: A Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.3: Differentiate between development and sustainable development.

11) At virtually any level of use, nonrenewable resources can be ________.

A) converted to renewable ones B) exhausted or depleted C) recycled or reused D) replenished once depleted Answer: B Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.4: Explain the concepts of renewable and nonrenewable resources.

12) Geothermal energy, wind energy, and solar radiation are all examples of ________.

A) nonrenewable resources B) renewable resources C) biotic environmental factors D) biodiversity Answer: B Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.1.4: Explain the concepts of renewable and nonrenewable resources.

13) A hypothesis can best be described as ________.

A) a proven fact B) an explanation that has been tested many times C) a proposed explanation based on observation D) a comparison between groups with an explanation for differences Answer: C Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.2.1: Describe what the scientific method is and how it is applied to environmental questions.

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14) A hypothesis is ________.

A) a way to prove a theory is correct B) a testable statement that explains an observed phenomenon C) the design of an experiment that can be used in scientific inquiry D) a proven scientific fact Answer: B Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.2.1: Describe what the scientific method is and how it is applied to environmental questions.

15) An experiment ________.

A) is an activity designed to test the validity of a hypothesis B) often involves manipulating as many variables as possible C) involves the manipulation of data D) is designed to generate a new scientific hypothesis Answer: A Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.2.1: Describe what the scientific method is and how it is applied to environmental questions.

16) All science and scientific discoveries are founded upon ________.

A) observations B) experiments C) competing hypotheses D) proven theories Answer: A Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.2.1: Describe what the scientific method is and how it is applied to environmental questions.

17) Some students on a biology field trip were sitting around watching honeybees. Some of the students noticed that bees spent more time on some flowers than on other flowers. As they talked about this behavior, the students offered various explanations. Some thought that the bees were avoiding predators on some flowers, while other students suggested that some flowers may have sweeter nectar. These speculations about bee behavior are examples of ________.

A) data B) bias C) theories D) hypotheses Answer: D Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.2.1: Describe what the scientific method is and how it is applied to environmental questions.

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18) Of the following, which is the best scientific hypothesis for the question, "How do bees help pollinate flowers?"

A) Bees help transfer pollen as they visit flowers to eat the pollen and drink the nectar.

B) We should help bees survive by planting more flowers that provide nectar and pollen.

C) Bees can see light-colored flowers better than dark-colored flowers.

D) Bees are attracted to flowers by both color and smell.

Answer: A Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.2.1: Describe what the scientific method is and how it is applied to environmental questions.

19) What is an essential characteristic of the scientific method?

A) Uncertainty of the question becomes an absolute certainty after using the method.

B) Scientific observations always support the questions asked.

C) The questions asked are designed to prove that the hypothesis is incorrect.

D) The hypotheses are always testable by careful observation and/or experiment.

Answer: D Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.2.1, SS 2.2 20) Which of the following statements best embodies the qualities of a scientific theory?

A) Squirrels in central Illinois prefer to build their nests in oak trees instead of hickory trees.

B) All gases, liquids, and solids consist of atoms.

C) Prairies that have large herds of bison show greater plant diversity than prairies without bison.

D) Dangerous wildfires in California could be avoided by better fire prevention strategies.

Answer: B Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.2.2: Explain how scientific consensus is built and how theories are generated.

21) The confidence in a scientific theory is most related to ________.

A) the number of grants received to study the subject B) the reputations of the investigating scientists and their related universities C) the amount of unbiased supporting evidence D) the number of publications that discuss the subject in question Answer: C Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.2.2: Explain how scientific consensus is built and how theories are generated.

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22) Which one of the following terms least applies to science?

A) Biased B) Outcome based C) Repeatable D) Creative Answer: A Module: SS.2 The Scientific Method and Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.2.3: Explain why creativity is critical to science and describe why this is important to the advancement of scientific understanding.

23) Which of the following observations lends itself best to scientific experimentation?

A) Male house finches seem to sing more when there is a female house finch around than when they are alone.

B) My sister does not drive very well.

C) Someone egged my house last night.

D) Archaeopteryx had a dinosaur-like skeleton but also had feathers.

Answer: A Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.1: Explain how scientific observations are conducted and what types of scientific questions are best addressed through observations.

24) A pharmaceutical company wishes to study a possible new headache medicine. They are doing human trials with 1,000 volunteers who experience frequent headaches. The researchers will need to ________.

A) have 10 volunteers in the control group B) put all women in the control group and all men in the experimental group C) give all 1,000 volunteers the same amount of the new medication D) control for the type of headache–stress, migraine, or other causes Answer: D Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.2: Explain how scientific experiments are conducted and what types of scientific questions are best addressed through experiments.

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25) Ruben has a new puppy named Paddington and wants to feed him the best possible food. He decides on an experiment where he will feed Paddington the very best canned food plus a dietary supplement of vitamins recommended by a veterinarian. Which of the following best describes Ruben's project?

A) This is an example of an excellent, controlled experiment.

B) Ruben needs to take careful measurements of Paddington's weight and height at least once a week for it to be a good experiment.

C) Ruben needs to use his mother's 6-year-old chocolate Sharpei named Scout to feed a standard diet so he can compare Paddington to a control dog.

D) This is not an experiment.

Answer: D Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.2: Explain how scientific experiments are conducted and what types of scientific questions are best addressed through experiments.

26) Scientists investigating a drug to cure a disease in birds conduct experiments. In these experiments, what would be the control group?

A) Birds that do not receive the drug being tested B) Birds that receive the drug being tested C) Rats that receive the drug being tested D) Birds that receive another drug not being tested Answer: A Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.2: Explain how scientific experiments are conducted and what types of scientific questions are best addressed through experiments.

27) Which of the following does a scientist typically do immediately after collecting data in an experiment?

A) Draw conclusions B) Perform statistical analyses C) Publish results D) Formulate a hypothesis Answer: B Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.3: Explain how statistics are used in science and how statistics can help answer scientific questions.

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28) Which of the following research topics is most likely to require the use of models?

A) The effects of creating a wolf-hunting season on gray wolf populations in Minnesota B) The effects of herbicide on dandelions and lawn grass C) The effectiveness of an influenza vaccine D) The effects of wildfire on sapling recruitment in lodgepole pine forests Answer: A Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.4: Describe what a model is and how it is used in science.

29) The process by which several researchers review another researcher's manuscript prior to publication to ensure research quality is referred to as ________.

A) hypothesis testing B) investigative inquiry C) peer review D) quality control E) critical analysis Answer: C Module: SS.4 Science, Pseudoscience, and the Evaluation of Scientific Claims Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.4.1: Describe how peer review is used in science and why peer review is an essential step to ensure the quality of science.

30) A study's results are deemed worthy of acceptance into the body of scientific knowledge if they are published in journals that ________.

A) use the peer-review process B) charge a fee for acceptance C) are funded by corporations funding the research D) meet guidelines advocated by environmentalists or consumer groups Answer: A Module: SS.4 Science, Pseudoscience, and the Evaluation of Scientific Claims Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.4.1: Describe how peer review is used in science and why peer review is an essential step to ensure the quality of science.

31) What is the value of submitting articles to "preprint servers"?

A) They allow scientists to publish their results while avoiding the scrutiny of peer review.

B) They allow scientists to share information before peer review in order to respond to rapidly changing circumstances.

C) They are used to make pseudoscientific claims seem more legitimate.

D) They are used after the peer-review process because the publishing process is too slow.

Answer: B Module: SS.4 Science, Pseudoscience, and the Evaluation of Scientific Claims Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.4.1: Describe how peer review is used in science and why peer review is an essential step to ensure the quality of science.

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32) What conclusions can be drawn when scientific recommendations change over time?

A) The recommendations likely changed because of information from new research and the scientific process is working as it should.

B) The scientific method of the original recommendations was probably flawed.

C) The scientists making the recommendations are untrustworthy and only trying to become famous or wealthy.

D) Scientists should not be making recommendations about an issue that they do not understand completely.

Answer: A Module: SS.4 Science, Pseudoscience, and the Evaluation of Scientific Claims Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.4.1: Describe how peer review is used in science and why peer review is an essential step to ensure the quality of science.

33) Compared to real science, pseudoscience ________.

A) is anything that threatens or contradicts your point of view B) is anything that confirms your point of view C) does not conform to the established scientific rigors D) does not include bias or subjective values Answer: C Module: SS.4 Science, Pseudoscience, and the Evaluation of Scientific Claims Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.4.2: Explain the difference between science and pseudoscience.

34) Which of the following statements best illustrates bias in scientific investigations?

A) Investigations of the cause of AIDS are limited by our inability to see viruses.

B) Investigations of the health effects of smoking are funded and published by a tobacco company.

C) Researchers studying heron nests notice that some baby herons fall out of nests and are killed.

D) An experiment testing the effect of a new drug has only one control group.

Answer: B Module: SS.4 Science, Pseudoscience, and the Evaluation of Scientific Claims Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.4.3: Describe ways that you can evaluate the quality of scientific claims, including the evaluation of difference sources.

35) Which of the following would be an emergent property of a motorcycle?

A) It has two wheels, a seat, and a gas tank.

B) It is made mostly of rubber, plastic, and metal.

C) It is very expensive.

D) It can be used for travel from point A to point B. Answer: D Module: SS.5 The Characteristics of Environmental Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.5.1: Explain why most environmental problems involve complex systems and what that means for the ease of predicting environmental responses to change.

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36) Which of the following would be an emergent property of a human?

A) They have nervous, endocrine, and circulatory systems that allow signals to be sent to other parts of the body.

B) They are made up of cells, tissues, and organs.

C) Their traits are determined by information carried by DNA. D) They have complex social systems and feel emotions, such as love.

Answer: D Module: SS.5 The Characteristics of Environmental Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.5.1: Explain why most environmental problems involve complex systems and what that means for the ease of predicting environmental responses to change.

37) Negative feedback processes tend to function within an ecosystem to ________.

A) cause further ecological destruction B) cause ecological relationships to flourish C) stabilize it D) reinforce harmful changes Answer: C Module: SS.5 The Characteristics of Environmental Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.5.2: Explain why feedback loops are important in complex systems and how they influence the direction of environmental change.

38) Qualitative data ________.

A) are expressed as numbers and can be tested using statistics B) are nonnumerical and indicate a characteristic of something C) are high-quality data that have been peer reviewed D) cannot be used to support or disprove hypotheses Answer: B Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SS.6.1: Compare and contrast qualitative and quantitative types of data.

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Read the following scenario, and answer the questions below.

Pablo and Johanna have to do a yearlong study for their biology course. After some discussion, they decide to propose comparing their dogs and the diet that they feed them to test their hypothesis that the local veterinarian's special dog food mix will enhance growth and development. Each student will adopt a puppy from the local pound. Pablo will feed his shepherd-mix dog the special diet of wet and dry foods from the local vet, while Johanna will use generic dry kibble from the supermarket for her bulldog.

39) The independent variable in this study is ________.

A) the age of the dogs B) the type of food the dogs receive C) how much the dogs grow D) the breed of the dogs Answer: B Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.2: Use a graph to make conclusions about the relationship of two variables.

40) One dependent variable in this study is ________.

A) the age of the dogs B) the type of food the dogs receive C) how much the dogs grow D) the breed of the dogs Answer: D Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.2: Use a graph to make conclusions about the relationship of two variables.

41) When Pablo and Johanna write up their initial proposal, the instructor will probably ________.

A) give them an A for thoroughness, and allow them to proceed with the experiment B) tell them that they need at least 100 dogs to do the study C) tell them to start over—it would take many years to do such a study D) tell them they have a serious problem with the proposal, but it is fixable if they are willing to take care of more dogs Answer: D Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.2: Use a graph to make conclusions about the relationship of two variables.

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Read the following scenario, and answer the question below.

THE EXPERIMENT: Researchers wanted to determine whether pesticide Z is effective at killing grasshoppers that typically invade cornfields. Two 10-acre cornfields located 1 mile apart were chosen. The cornfield to the west was sprayed only with water. The cornfield on the east received the same amount of water with a 10% solution of pesticide Z. The number of grasshoppers in the fields was recorded every week for 10 weeks.

RESULTS: The number of grasshoppers in the west field treated only with water doubled after 10 weeks.

The number of grasshoppers in the east field treated with pesticide Z declined by 50% after 10 weeks.

42) What was the independent variable in the above experiment?

A) Whether pesticide Z was applied B) The number of grasshoppers receiving the pesticide C) The location of the fields D) The number of grasshoppers after 10 weeks Answer: A Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.2: Use a graph to make conclusions about the relationship of two variables.

43) Which field was the control?

A) The west field B) The east field C) Both fields were controls for one another.

D) There were no controls in this experiment.

Answer: A Module: SS.3 Approaches to Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.2: Explain how scientific experiments are conducted and what types of scientific questions are best addressed through experiments.

44) If both fields had the same amount of grasshoppers at the start of the experiment, how many times more grasshoppers were in the west field than the east field after 10 weeks?

A) Twice as many B) Four times more C) Half as many D) Cannot be determined Answer: B Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.2: Use a graph to make conclusions about the relationship of two variables.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

45) What is the independent variable in this study?

A) Time (year) B) Carbon dioxide concentration C) Since this is a manipulative study, there is not an independent variable.

D) Observatory location Answer: A Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.2: Use a graph to make conclusions about the relationship of two variables.

46) How much higher is atmospheric CO2 concentration at Mauna Loa Observatory in 2015 than it was in 1960?

A) Four times higher B) Twice as high C) 25% higher D) 80% higher Answer: C Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.3: Critically evaluate graphical data to determine whether there is sufficient information to justify specific conclusions.

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47) Which of the following is the most reasonable conclusion based on the data in the figure?

A) Carbon dioxide molecules multiply themselves over time.

B) Forest fires and fossil fuel combustion are increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.

C) Average annual atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations have been increasing since 1960.

D) There is a great deal of uncertainty in measurements of global atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.

Answer: C Module: SS.6 The Language of Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.6.3: Critically evaluate graphical data to determine whether there is sufficient information to justify specific conclusions.

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SS.2 Essay Questions Read the following scenario, and answer the question below.

THE EXPERIMENT: Researchers wanted to determine whether pesticide Z is effective at killing grasshoppers that typically invade cornfields. Two 10-acre cornfields located 1 mile apart were chosen. The cornfield to the west was sprayed only with water. The cornfield on the east received the same amount of water with a 10% solution of pesticide Z. The number of grasshoppers in the fields was recorded every week for 10 weeks.

RESULTS: The number of grasshoppers in the west field treated only with water doubled after 10 weeks.

The number of grasshoppers in the east field treated with pesticide Z declined by 50% after 10 weeks.

1) Researchers wanted to determine whether pesticide Z is effective at killing grasshoppers that typically invade cornfields. Two 10-acre cornfields located 1 mile apart were chosen. The cornfield to the west was sprayed only with water. The cornfield on the east received the same amount of water with a 10% solution of pesticide Z. The number of grasshoppers in the fields was recorded every week for 10 weeks. The number of grasshoppers in the west field treated only with water doubled after 10 weeks. The number of grasshoppers in the east field treated with pesticide Z declined by 50% after 10 weeks. Discuss two problems with the design of this experiment, and propose solutions to these problems.

Answer: First, the cornfields need to be closer together. Two cornfields a mile apart are more likely to have other factors such as soil, slope, and even precipitation differences that might affect the study. It would be more appropriate to study cornfields right next to each other. A second problem is with the sample size. You cannot perform statistical analyses with sample sizes of only one plot, so the conclusions drawn that are based on the results of the experiment would not be scientifically sound. The researchers would be better off subdividing the fields and replicating the treatment on several plots. They could then run statistical analyses and draw more solid conclusions as to whether the difference between treatment and control is meaningful. (An alternative potential problem a student might point out is the difficulty of counting every grasshopper in a 10-acre cornfield, with the repeated disturbance potentially damaging the crop, and with the unreasonable amount of time and person-power required. The student could then propose instituting some kind of representative sampling method, such as a series of small traps that are open for a short length of time.)

Module: SS.2, SS.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: SS.2.1, SS.3.2, SS.3.3

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2) Why is it important to understand our interactions with the environment? What will studying environmental science enable you to do?

Answer: We depend on the environment for air, water, food, shelter, and everything else. We are capable of modifying and harming the environment whether we intend to or not.

Understanding our interactions with the environment is the essential first step toward devising positive, sustainable solutions that will allow future generations to enjoy a rich and full world.

Studying environmental science will give us the tools we need to evaluate information on environmental change and to think critically and creatively about possible actions to take in response.

Module: SS.1 Environmental Science and Sustainability Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.1.1, SS.1.2, SS.1.3 3) You are hired by a pesticide company to determine whether its new pesticide ("Zap-em") is effective at controlling soybean aphids, an invasive species that costs American farmers millions of dollars a year in crop damage and control costs. Describe an experiment you would perform to test the effectiveness of Zap-em.

Answer: Students' answers will vary but should include all of the following components: (a) replicate plots (It would be inappropriate to test Zap-em on a single field.); (b) treatment and control plots, assigned randomly (Zap-em plots need to be compared to plots not sprayed with Zap-em.); (c) dependent variables to be measured (e.g., crop yield, amount of crop damage, and density of soybean aphids in plots); and (d) use of statistical analysis to analyze the data.

Module: SS.3, SS.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SS.3.1, SS.3.2, SS.3.3, SS.6.1, SS.6.2, SS.6.3

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter EP Environmental Policy EP.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In 1962, Rachel Carson published the book Silent Spring, documenting the devastating effects of pesticides, including DDT, on birds and other organisms. In 1972, new policies were implemented that banned the use of DDT in the United States. The preparation and publication of the book Silent Spring represented which step in the policy process?

A) Debating the potential impacts of a policy B) Enforcing rules established by the policy C) Formulating the initial policy D) Establishing the problem to be addressed by policy Answer: D Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.1.2: Describe a generalized approach to decision making in environmental policy.

2) In 1962, Rachel Carson published the book Silent Spring, documenting the devastating effects of pesticides, including DDT, on birds and other organisms. By 1972, new policies had been implemented that banned the use of DDT in the United States. Given the response to ban DDT by 1972, which of the following steps in the policy process occurred in the late 1960s?

A) Evaluating the success of a policy B) Debating the potential impacts of a policy C) Establishing the problem to be addressed by policy D) Enforcing rules established by the policy Answer: B Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.1.2: Describe a generalized approach to decision making in environmental policy.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

When legislators consider passing policies to control pollution, they must consider the potential economic impacts of the policies. The legislators are given the information shown in the figure.

3) According to the figure, what level of pollution reduction comes at the highest cost?

A) The first 20% of pollution reduction B) From 20% to 40% pollution reduction C) From 60% to 80% pollution reduction D) From 80% to 100% pollution reduction Answer: D Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.1.2: Describe a generalized approach to decision making in environmental policy.

4) According to the figure, which of the following levels of pollution reduction has the greatest amount of benefit derived?

A) 20% reduction B) 60% reduction C) 80% reduction D) 100% reduction Answer: D Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.1.2: Describe a generalized approach to decision making in environmental policy.

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5) Assuming the legislators are considering the cost-effectiveness of the legislation and want to maximize net benefit, what level of pollution reduction would they most logically legislate?

A) No reduction, since there is a cost to all levels of pollution reduction.

B) 60% reduction C) 80% reduction D) 90% reduction Answer: B Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.1.2: Describe a generalized approach to decision making in environmental policy.

6) The probability of an event having a severe effect on organisms or the physical environment is known as the event's ________.

A) hazard B) risk C) inevitability D) disaster Answer: B Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.1.3: Explain how risk and uncertainty influence the policy process.

7) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relative "risk" of getting a sliver in your finger versus a volcanic eruption in the Pacific Northwest?

A) Getting a sliver in your finger is much more likely and so has the higher risk.

B) A volcanic eruption in the Pacific Northwest is much more likely and so has the higher risk.

C) The relative "risk" is difficult to assess because, even though getting the sliver is much more likely, the volcanic eruption would be much more severe.

D) The relative risk is roughly equal because both events are roughly equally likely, and both would be roughly equally severe.

Answer: C Module: EP.1 The Policy Process Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.1.3: Explain how risk and uncertainty influence the policy process.

8) Approaches to environmental public policy that involve punishment for not abiding by regulations are called "________" approaches.

A) command-and-control B) carrot-and-stick C) cap-and-trade D) god squad Answer: A Module: EP.2 Types of Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.2.1: Explain how punitive consequences are used in environmental policy, and what the benefits and drawbacks are to these types of policy instruments.

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9) A policy is approved that requires a company near a large city to keep its smokestack pollution to new lower levels, costing the company $2 million in additional equipment (which will last at least 10 years) and $100,000 a year in additional labor. Lowering the air pollutants in the region is expected to save $4 million in medical expenses in the region over the next 10 years. Which of the following can be inferred from this information?

A) The company will save approximately $1 million over the next 10 years by implementing the new equipment.

B) Taxpayers will save approximately $1 million if the company implements the new equipment.

C) The cost of the new equipment outweighs the benefit of its implementation.

D) The company appears to lose money because of the policy, but it may decide to pass the costs along to consumers.

Answer: D Module: EP.2 Types of Environmental Policy Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EP.2.2: Explain how taxation is used in environmental policy, and what the benefits and drawbacks are to these types of policies.

10) "Cap and trade" is a system that ________.

A) allows industries to set their own caps for pollution emission so trading can continue B) has been repealed by Congress as useless in diminishing pollution C) specifies a certain cap on industrial pollutants that can be traded to other nations D) permits industries that pollute at levels below the federal cap to sell credits to industries that pollute at levels above the cap Answer: D Module: EP.2 Types of Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.2.3: Explain how market-based approaches are used in environmental policy, and what the benefits and drawbacks are to these types of policy instruments.

11) The federal government requires Energy Guide labels for appliances for all of the following reasons except ________.

A) to encourage makers of appliances to try to make appliances that are more efficient B) to educate consumers so they can purchase products that are more environmentally friendly C) to institute taxes on environmentally unfriendly products D) to influence consumer behavior Answer: C Module: EP.2 Types of Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.2.4: Describe how voluntary decisions play a role in environmental policy, what mechanisms are used to influence these decisions, and what the benefits and drawbacks are to these types of policy instruments.

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12) Which part of the government is responsible for making environmental policy laws?

A) Executive branch B) Judicial branch C) Legislative branch D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Answer: C Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.1: Explain the role of the legislative branch in the creation of federal environmental policy.

13) When is a 60 to 40 majority required to pass a law instead of a simple majority (51—49)?

A) During a filibuster, when 60% of senators must agree to move forward.

B) During confirmation proceedings for a presidential nomination.

C) A 60—40 majority is required for all legislation.

D) It is required when the law will affect spending or taxation.

Answer: A Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.1: Explain the role of the legislative branch in the creation of federal environmental policy.

14) How does the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) affect environmental policy?

A) The EPA passes laws that control environmental regulations.

B) The EPA develops rules and regulations based on laws passed by Congress.

C) The EPA determines which laws passed by the judicial branch apply to environmental policy.

D) The EPA funds ecological studies that inform the executive branch about what environmental laws are needed.

Answer: B Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.2: Explain the role of the executive branch in the enforcement of federal environmental policy.

15) What does the existence and changing size of the Bears Ears National Monument in Utah illustrate?

A) The ability of legislators to create new laws depending on their constituents' needs B) The ability of the judicial branch to change laws passed by Congress C) The ability of the executive branch to change laws, depending on political trends D) The ability of the executive branch to alter decisions made by previous administrations Answer: D Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.2: Explain the role of the executive branch in the enforcement of federal environmental policy.

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16) The judicial branch of the U.S. federal government is important for environmental policy because ________.

A) it determines the constitutionality of laws B) it regulates administrative agencies C) it enforces federal laws D) it is responsible for making laws Answer: A Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.3: Explain the role of the judicial branch in environmental policy.

17) Which of these statements about the Environmental Protection agency is true?

A) The EPA sets broad guidelines about how to enact laws, but it is up to individual states whether to implement them.

B) Because the EPA only enacts the laws made by Congress, judicial cases cannot be brought against it.

C) The EPA may have to adjust its regulations to favor business interests more or less, depending on who heads the executive branch.

D) The EPA is a completely independent agency and enacts laws based on the best science available.

Answer: C Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.2, 3.3 18) Imagine that there is a growing concern over chemicals that disrupt hormone function entering our waterways, and the president asks the EPA to look into it and to set new standards regarding those chemicals under the Clean Water Act. Which statement is not a potential consequence of this action?

A) The Supreme Court might need to make a ruling about whether the president has the authority to make proposals to an agency such as the EPA. B) The Supreme Court might have to rule whether the EPA had the authority to use the Clean Water Act in this way.

C) Cases could be brought the federal judicial system by groups who think the EPA regulations are too strict or by groups who think they aren't strict enough.

D) A new administration could direct the EPA to make the regulations more or less strict.

Answer: A Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.3.3: Explain the role of the judicial branch in environmental policy.

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19) The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) ________.

A) was signed into law by Bill Clinton B) requires compensation to be given to anyone harmed by deliberate pollution from any business or corporate entity C) puts all federal land under stringent environmental protection D) requires environmental impact statements for any potentially harmful projects funded by the U.S. government Answer: D Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.4.1: Describe the National Environmental Protection Act (NEPA), and explain why it was created and how it influences policies and actions today.

20) The federal government is responsible for roughly 90% of the cost of building and maintaining the federal interstate highway system. What federal act would be violated if an interstate-widening project were undertaken without any assessment of the potential impact of the project on a nearby sensitive wetland habitat?

A) CITES B) NEPA C) ESA D) Clean Water Act Answer: B Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.1: Describe the National Environmental Protection Act (NEPA), and explain why it was created and how it influences policies and actions today.

21) What federal agency oversees regulations regarding point source water pollution established in the Clean Water Act? A) EPA B) FDA C) USFWS D) NOAA Answer: A Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.2: Describe the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act, and explain why they were created and how they influence environmental policy.

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22) Which class of pollutants was beginning to be regulated by the EPA during the Obama administration before the process was slowed during the Trump administration?

A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) B) Greenhouse gas emissions C) Emission standards for airplanes D) Particulate matter Answer: B Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.4.2: Describe the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act, and explain why they were created and how they influence environmental policy 23) If a pharmaceutical company wishes to market a new antidepression drug in the United States, the company would need to seek approval from what governmental agency?

A) EPA B) FDA C) USFWS D) NOAA Answer: B Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.3: Describe the major federal laws that influence human health and safety and those that affect the production of foods and consumer products.

Read the following scenario, and answer the questions below.

Recent news of governmental approval of a new herbicide for use in the United States has sparked an outcry from environmental groups and some farmers. The groups claim that the approval violates federal law because the agency that approved the herbicide did not consult with a fellow federal agency regarding the herbicide's potential effects on the whooping crane and Indiana bat, two endangered species that will likely ingest contaminated arthropod prey.

24) What federal agency is responsible for approving new pesticides?

A) EPA B) FDA C) USFWS D) NOAA Answer: A Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.3: Describe the major federal laws that influence human health and safety and those that affect the production of foods and consumer products.

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25) What federal agency is responsible for protecting endangered terrestrial species and thus should arguably have been consulted before the herbicide was approved?

A) EPA B) FDA C) USFWS D) NOAA Answer: C Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.3: Describe the major federal laws that influence human health and safety and those that affect the production of foods and consumer products.

26) Which federal law the environmental groups and farmers argue was violated when the new herbicide was approved?

A) Montreal Protocol B) CITES C) Food Safety Modernization Act D) ESA Answer: D Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.3: Describe the major federal laws that influence human health and safety and those that affect the production of foods and consumer products.

27) The Endangered Species Act (ESA) makes it illegal to kill any individual of an endangered or threatened species. Which of the following is true about the ESA? A) The ESA only covers terrestrial species; aquatic species are covered under a separate law.

B) Because the ESA is a federal agency, its determination of new species to add to the list cannot be overturned by the cabinet or state-level representatives.

C) Like the EPA, the ESA has always had to balance economic costs with environmental actions when considering what to regulate.

D) New presidential administrations can change the amount of protection for species that are already on the list.

Answer: D Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.4.4: Describe the Endangered Species Act, and explain why it was created and how it influences activities today.

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28) Environmental policies and regulations are approved at the ________.

A) federal level only B) state and federal levels C) local, state, and federal levels D) local level only Answer: C Module: EP.5 U.S. State and Local Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.5.1, EP.5.2 29) Regarding environmental laws and the U.S. Constitution, ________.

A) state environmental laws cannot violate the Constitution but can be stricter than federal laws B) the Constitution establishes that states have preeminence over federal policy in cases of environmental law C) the Constitution prohibits states from having environmental laws that are more strict than federal laws D) federal environmental laws can override the Constitution, but state laws cannot Answer: A Module: EP.5 U.S. State and Local Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.5.1: Describe the major ways that state governments create and enforce environmental policy.

30) Lobbying, legal action, and campaign funding are all means used by ________ to influence federal environmental legislation.

A) corporations and NGOs B) the scientific community C) the judicial branch D) the executive branch Answer: A Module: EP.6 The Role of Corporations and Nongovernmental Organizations in U.S. Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.6.1, EP.6.2

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31) Which of the following are true about the costs to corporations from compliance with environmental regulations when they are balanced against economically important benefits?

A) New environmental regulations impact industries negatively in terms of company costs and competitiveness.

B) New environmental regulations impact industries positively in terms of company costs and competitiveness.

C) The costs of complying with a new regulation are relatively large compared to other company costs such as labor and transportation.

D) The costs of complying with a new regulation are relatively small compared to other company costs such as labor and transportation.

Answer: D Module: EP.6 The Role of Corporations and Nongovernmental Organizations in U.S. Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.6.1: Describe how corporate interests influence the development of environmental policy in the United States.

32) One way to participate in the development of environmental policies is to become a member of an NGO. What is an NGO? A) Nongovernmental organization B) National geographic organization C) Neogeopolitical organization D) Natural global outlook Answer: A Module: EP.6 The Role of Corporations and Nongovernmental Organizations in U.S. Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.6.2: Explain how nongovernmental organizations influence environmental policy in the United States.

33) Multilateral treaties ________.

A) involve two countries, and negotiations are typically overseen by the United Nations B) involve two countries, and negotiations typically only include the countries involved C) involve three or more countries, and negotiations are typically overseen by the United Nations D) involve three or more countries, and negotiations typically only include the countries involved Answer: C Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.1: Describe how international environmental policies are created, and how these policies are adopted in the United States.

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34) In the United States, international treaties are ________.

A) negotiated by the president and must be approved by two-thirds of the Senate B) negotiated by congressional leaders and must be approved by the president C) negotiated by the president and must be approved by a simple majority of the Supreme Court D) negotiated by congressional leaders and must be approved by a simple majority of the senate Answer: A Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.1: Describe how international environmental policies are created, and how these policies are adopted in the United States.

35) Which of the following groups provides military support to enforce international law?

A) Justice League B) United Nations C) International Court of Justice D) World Trade Organization Answer: B Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.2: Explain how international environmental policy is enforced (or not), and why there are no binding international treaties.

36) The Montreal Protocol ________.

A) addressed transnational movement of acid-forming pollutants B) developed the framework for reduction of carbon dioxide in the United States and Canada C) resulted in significant reduction in the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) by signatory nations D) is an example of a failed attempt to reduce international air pollution Answer: C Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.4: Describe the purpose and scope of the Montreal Protocol.

37) The goal of the Kyoto Protocol was to ________.

A) protect endangered species from smuggling and illegal trade B) protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) C) increase the use of nuclear power generation D) reduce global greenhouse gas emissions Answer: D Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.6: Describe the purpose and scope of the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement.

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38) Which of these statements about the Paris Agreement is false?

A) It was signed and ratified by over 190 countries, including the United States.

B) It states that countries should limit global warming to 1.5°C. C) The Trump administration was eventually able to withdraw from the agreement.

D) Future U.S. participation in the agreement depends of state and local efforts, as well as the results of national elections.

Answer: D Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.6: Describe the purpose and scope of the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement.

Read the following scenario, and answer the questions below.

Long famous as a symbol of the United States, the bald eagle is also famous for its population decline and recovery during the 20th century. The bald eagle was declared endangered in the United States in 1967, when its population in the United States had declined to under 500 breeding pairs. The bald eagle was delisted in 1995 when its numbers had rebound to ~5,000 breeding pairs. An Illinois woman was convicted of violating the Lacey Act of 1900 and Bald Eagle Protection Act of 1940 after she gave Hillary Clinton a dream catcher that contained bald eagle feathers in 1994. The Lacey Act is a federal law that prohibits trade in wildlife and plants that have been illegally taken or possessed, and the Bald Eagle Protection Act (more recently amended to become the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act) is federal legislation that prohibits the possession of eagle parts, feathers, eggs, or nests without a permit. Typically, only Native Americans, raptor centers, and zoologists are able to obtain such permits.

39) What other federal legislation would the woman have violated when she made and attempted to sell dream catchers containing bald eagle feathers?

A) CITES B) NEPA C) ESA D) USDA Answer: C Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.4.4: Describe the Endangered Species Act, and explain why it was created and how it influences activities today.

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40) Since bald eagles were endangered at the time of the incident, what international treaty would the woman have likely also violated when she made and attempted to sell dream catchers containing bald eagle feathers?

A) CITES B) NEPA C) ESA D) Montreal Protocol Answer: A Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.7.5: Describe the purpose and scope of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species.

41) The woman violated several federal laws and international treaties by making and attempting to sell dream catchers that contained feathers from bald eagles and other species of protected birds such as goshawks and snowy owls. How do such federal laws and international treaties differ in how they are adopted in the United States?

A) Federal laws need two-thirds approval in both the House and Senate, while international treaties require a simple majority vote in the House and Senate.

B) They differ in their authorship but not approval in that both the House and Senate need to approve both by a simple majority vote.

C) Federal laws need majority approval in both the House and Senate, while international treaties require two-thirds approval in the Senate.

D) The House and Senate approve federal laws with a simple majority vote, while international treaties require approval of only the president.

Answer: C Module: EP.3, EP.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EP.3.1, EP.7.1

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EP.2 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the goal and success of the 1987 Montreal Protocol.

Answer: The goal of the Montreal Protocol was to reduce the global production and use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which were contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer that protects life on the planet from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, including skin cancer. The world community came together in 1987 to craft the Montreal Protocol, which has now been signed by over 190 nations. Because of the treaty, the production and use of CFCs has been phased out as countries have found replacement chemicals that are not as harmful to the ozone layer. Although it will take decades for the ozone layer to completely recover, the Montreal Protocol is widely considered to be the biggest success story thus far in addressing a global environmental problem.

Module: EP.7 International Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.7.4: Describe the purpose and scope of the Montreal Protocol.

2) What is the significance of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)?

Answer: Administered by the Council on Environmental Quality, NEPA requires that an environmental impact statement (EIS) be prepared for any major federal action that has the potential to harm the environment. The EIS process forces government agencies and businesses that contract with them to slow down and evaluate impacts on the environment before proceeding with a new dam, highway, or building project. It serves as a powerful disincentive for environmentally damaging work.

Module: EP.4 U.S. Federal Environmental Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.4.1: Describe the National Environmental Protection Act (NEPA), and explain why it was created and how it influences policies and actions today.

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3) Identify the three branches of the federal government, and describe their roles in environmental policy.

Answer: The three branches of the federal government are the legislative, executive, and judicial branches. The legislative branch, consisting of the Senate and House of Representatives, is responsible for drafting environmental legislation. If the legislation is approved by majority vote in both the House and Senate, the legislation is passed to the president (part of the executive branch) for approval. Should the president veto the legislation, it can still become law if twothirds of both the House and Senate vote to override the veto. The senate is also responsible for approving international environmental treaties with a two-thirds majority vote. The executive branch, consisting of the president and governmental agencies such as the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), is responsible for implementing and enforcing environmental policy. The executive branch is also involved in setting environmental standards. For example, the EPA is responsible for setting pollution standards for the Clean Air Act and Clean Water Act. The president is also responsible for negotiating international treaties, which then must be approved by the Senate. The judicial branch becomes involved in environmental policy when disagreements arise as to the constitutionality of the laws passed by Congress and enforced by the executive branch.

Practically every major environmental law has faced challenges that have been addressed by the courts. For example, in 2007 the Supreme Court ruled that the EPA has the authority to regulate greenhouse gas emissions from automobiles.

Module: EP.3 The Role of the U.S. Federal Government in Environmental Policy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EP.3.1, EP.3.2, EP.3.3

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter EV Economics and Values EV.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The study of how we decide to use scarce resources in the face of demand is called ________.

A) ecology B) environmental science C) economics D) ethics Answer: C Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.1.1: Describe the field of economics, and explain how its concepts are used to make decisions about the allocation of resources.

2) Which of the following most accurately describes "human capital" in a market system?

A) The tools, machines, infrastructure, and other built resources that can be used by humans to produce goods and services B) The central location where humans exchange goods and services C) The natural resources used by humans to produce goods and services D) The skills of the workforce Answer: D Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.1.2: Explain the concept of a market.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

3) The intersection of the two lines on the graph represents ________.

A) the convergence point, which is the point at which the supply and demand curves converge B) the equilibrium point, which is the quantity of product a manufacturer is willing to produce in a declining economy C) the convergence point, which is the quantity that consumers will buy when the product costs a certain amount D) the equilibrium point, which is the price at which consumers are willing to pay given the quantity that producers are willing to make Answer: D Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.1.3: Describe the concepts of supply and demand, and explain how these come together to determine price.

4) This graph illustrates ________.

A) how the supply of a product or service dictates demand for it B) how price dictates the supply of and demand for a product or service C) how the demand for a product dictates its price D) how supply and demand dictate the price of a product or service Answer: D Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.1.3: Describe the concepts of supply and demand, and explain how these come together to determine price.

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5) If a nonrenewable resource such as oil suddenly becomes scarce while demand remains constant, the ________.

A) price of the resource would increase B) demand would cause the supply to increase C) price of the resource would decrease D) price of the resource would remain unchanged Answer: A Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.3: Describe the concepts of supply and demand, and explain how these come together to determine price.

6) When a commodity is in short supply, the cost ________.

A) remains the same B) goes up C) decreases D) is near the cost of production Answer: B Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.1.3: Describe the concepts of supply and demand, and explain how these come together to determine price.

7) What is the name for the difference between the cost to produce a product and its price in the marketplace?

A) Profit B) Demand C) Economic value D) Discount rate Answer: A Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.3: Describe the concepts of supply and demand, and explain how these come together to determine price.

8) Which of the following would be considered a nonrenewable resource?

A) Sunlight B) Timber C) Wind energy D) Gold Answer: D Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.4: Explain how economics approaches the valuation of natural resources.

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Read the following scenario, and answer the questions below.

As an economist, you are asked to analyze the present versus future value of fossil fuel resources in a newly discovered oil field. You determine that the oil (which would take 1 year to extract) is estimated to be worth $10 million in today's market.

9) The money made on the oil would be worth approximately ________ after 10 years if it were immediately extracted and the proceeds were immediately invested at an annual interest rate of 7%.

A) $10 million B) $10.7 million C) $17 million D) $20 million Answer: D Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.5: Explain how the concept of discounting affects the valuation of natural resources and increases the likelihood of resource consumption.

10) You are asked to advise whether to immediately begin extracting the oil or wait 5 years to begin extraction. If the annual interest rate is 5%, at least how much would the oil have to be worth in the future market for you to advise waiting 5 years to begin extraction? Assume that you are asked to base your recommendation solely on the money earned.

A) Approximately $10.5 million B) Approximately $13 million C) Approximately $20 million D) Approximately $12 million Answer: B Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.5: Explain how the concept of discounting affects the valuation of natural resources and increases the likelihood of resource consumption.

11) What is the term for the economic practice that you are being asked to do by assessing present versus future value of the resource?

A) Temporal market valuation B) Resource rating C) Discounting D) Cost/benefit analysis Answer: C Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.5: Explain how the concept of discounting affects the valuation of natural resources and increases the likelihood of resource consumption.

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12) Discount rates are used to determine the ________.

A) future value of an asset B) aesthetic value of natural assets C) current value of an asset based on future value D) intrinsic value of renewable resources Answer: C Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.1.5: Explain how the concept of discounting affects the valuation of natural resources and increases the likelihood of resource consumption.

13) Externalities include ________.

A) the costs of raw materials B) wages C) worker's compensation and insurance D) the costs of environmental damage Answer: D Module: EV.2 Market Failures Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.2.1: Describe the concept of a market externality, and explain why externalities affect markets.

14) One of the largest and most significant negative externalities is ________.

A) pollution B) the need to upgrade infrastructure C) inflation D) oversized packaging Answer: A Module: EV.2 Market Failures Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.2.1: Describe the concept of a market externality, and explain why externalities affect markets.

15) In 1968, an ecologist named Garrett Hardin published a paper describing the "tragedy of the commons," which he described as occurring when individual self-interest inevitably leads to overuse and abuse of a shared resource. Which of the following types of resources is the kind of shared resource that Hardin described in his paper?

A) An economic resource B) A common pool resource C) A finite resource D) A renewable resource Answer: B Module: EV.2 Market Failures Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.2.2: Describe how the use of common pool resources can lead to the overuse of resources or environmental problems.

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16) The collapse of a fishery could be blamed on all of the following except ________.

A) overharvesting marine resources B) inadequate structural design C) tragedy of the commons D) misuse of a common pool resource Answer: B Module: EV.2 Market Failures Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.2.3: Explain why competitive markets alone may not yield socially acceptable outcomes.

17) Rocky Mountain National Park is one of the most visited national parks in the United States.

Economic consideration of the value of the park would include consideration of the tourism created by the existence of the park. The value of this kind of tourism would be considered a(n) ________ value of the park.

A) indirect use B) option C) direct use D) existence Answer: C Module: EV.3 Environmental Economics Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.3.1: Describe common approaches to the economic valuation of the environment.

18) Which of the following would be considered an option value if an environmental resource?

A) The ability of mangrove forests to limit storm surge from a tsunami B) The amount of money that people are willing to pay to visit Yosemite National Park C) Preserving natural habitat for giant pandas D) Preserving areas with a large diversity of plant life in case some of the plants can help cure disease Answer: D Module: EV.3 Environmental Economics Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.3.1: Describe common approaches to the economic valuation of the environment.

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19) The EPA's cost/benefit analysis of air pollution regulation in the United States indicates that ________.

A) although costly, the costs are far outweighed by benefits in illness and mortality prevention B) air pollution standards may be too strict, since the costs of compliance slightly outweigh the benefits C) the benefits and costs of the regulations are about equal, so the standards are at the economic breakeven point D) the costs of being in compliance with the regulations are negligible Answer: A Module: EV.3 Environmental Economics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.3.3: Describe some of the ways that cost/benefit analysis is used in environmental problem analysis.

20) Which of the following is a tenet of conventional economic theory?

A) Growth is good.

B) Resources are finite.

C) Long-term effects and planning are important.

D) Externalities are valuable.

Answer: A Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.4.1: Describe the role of economic growth in economic theory and the relation between growth and job/wealth creation.

21) Which of the following statements is true regarding the U.S. and global gross domestic products (GDPs)?

A) Although the nominal GDPs of the United States and the world have been increasing, the real GDPs have been at roughly the same levels since the year 2000.

B) U.S. and global nominal GDPs have both declined over the past decade as pollution control and global warming have become more problematic.

C) U.S. and global GDPs have both rapidly increased over the past century.

D) U.S. versus global GDP values are difficult to compare because GDP calculations in the United States include factors such as volunteerism and happiness that are ignored in most other countries' GDP calculations.

Answer: C Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.4.2: Explain the concept of gross domestic product and how it is used to measure economic success or failure.

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22) The GDP of the United States ________.

A) has decreased dramatically since 1950 B) includes a positive adjustment for parenting, volunteerism, and health and wellness C) increases when resource extraction and consumption increase D) is far below than that of the rest of the world Answer: C Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.4.2: Explain the concept of gross domestic product and how it is used to measure economic success or failure.

23) The GDP includes all of the following in its measures of economic growth except ________.

A) medical costs B) the costs of replacing outdated equipment used on farms and in industrial manufacturing C) the income from the sales of goods abroad D) human well-being Answer: D Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.4.2: Explain the concept of gross domestic product and how it is used to measure economic success or failure.

24) In a country experiencing rapid economic growth, we would expect ________.

A) a growing problem with health issues related to pollution B) the economy to rapidly decline to its original level, since economies tend to return to their equilibrium point C) wages for manual labor to decline D) unemployment rates to rapidly rise Answer: A Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.4.3: Evaluate how economic growth can lead to a decline in human welfare.

25) Which of the following indices is most likely to increase as a result of people spending money to rebuild or relocate after a hurricane wipes out their town?

A) GDP B) GNH C) BLI D) GPI Answer: A Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.4.4: Describe alternatives to GDP that can be used to measure the improvement of human welfare.

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26) GPI is an acronym for ________.

A) gas price index B) good parent index C) genuine progress indicator D) global price indicator Answer: C Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.4.4: Describe alternatives to GDP that can be used to measure the improvement of human welfare.

Use the following figure to answer the question below.

27) Examine the trends in the GDP and HDI. The HDI has remained fairly level because of ________.

A) the failure to include the depreciation of natural capital and ecosystem services B) the decreased social costs of economic activity C) the increased social costs of economic activity D) increased education, better social programs, and overall reductions in crime Answer: C Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.4.4: Describe alternatives to GDP that can be used to measure the improvement of human welfare.

28) Environmental ethics ________.

A) are the actions taken by humans in the environment in which they live B) is the extrinsic value placed on people, organisms, and objects in the environment C) are the rules and values humans use to guide environmental decisions D) is the study of the economic value of all living things in their environment Answer: C Module: EV.5 Environmental Values and Ethics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.5.1: Explain the concepts of instrumental and intrinsic value and explain how these values are relevant to environmental decision making.

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29) A(n) ________ would evaluate a decision or action based solely on its potential impact on human health, economic welfare, and aesthetics.

A) biocentrist B) ecocentrist C) anthropocentrist D) ethnocentrist Answer: C Module: EV.5 Environmental Values and Ethics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.5.2: Use the concepts of intrinsic and instrumental value to describe an anthropocentric, biocentric, and ecocentric perspective.

30) Someone with a(n) ________ perspective might argue that the loss of wildlife that results from DDT contamination is ethically defensible because of the human lives saved by using DDT to kill the insects that spread disease.

A) deontological B) biocentrism C) ecocentrism D) utilitarianism Answer: D Module: EV.5 Environmental Values and Ethics Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.5.3: Define the concept of consequential ethics and explain how this ethical system influences environmental decisions.

31) Someone presenting a deontological argument for not poaching elephants for their ivory would argue that doing so ________.

A) violates international laws B) robs elephants of a full and happy life C) costs more in lost tourism than is gained by the sale of ivory D) would be acceptable, but only if more economic gain occurs from selling the ivory than is lost in tourism income Answer: A Module: EV.5 Environmental Values and Ethics Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.5.4: Describe deontological ethics and explain how this ethical system influences environmental decisions.

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32) Virtue ethics focuses on the ________ decisions or actions.

A) motivations behind B) rules behind C) human consequences of D) environmental consequences of Answer: A Module: EV.5 Environmental Values and Ethics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.5.5: Describe virtue ethics and explain how this ethical system influences environmental decisions.

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EV.2 Essay Questions 1) Both gross domestic product (GDP) and genuine progress indicator (GPI) can be used as a measure of the wealth of a nation. Explain the difference between the GDP and GPI. Answer: GDP is the total value of goods and services produced by the citizens of a country in a certain amount of time (e.g., annually). GDP can be measured as either (a) money spent on goods and services, money flowing into investments, money spent by the government, and net exports; or (b) all of the money paid in wages, interest, rents, and business profits. Usually both approaches yield relatively similar totals. Because some actions and events may increase a country's GDP but reduce natural resources (e.g., overharvesting forests or fisheries) and/or degrade human welfare (e.g., illness and death from pollution), economists have more recently suggested using the GPI as an alternative measure of natural wealth. The GPI combines 26 economic, environmental, and social indicators into a single measure of welfare. An action such as forest destruction may decrease a country's GPI even though it may increase the country's GDP if the purpose were for timber harvesting. Likewise, destruction and hospitalization caused by a natural disaster would increase GDP but would likely decrease GPI. Module: EV.4 Conventional and Alternative Measures of Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EV.4.2, EV.4.4: Describe alternatives to GDP that can be used to measure the improvement of human welfare.

2) Mahogany is a tree found in the tropical rain forests of Central and South America. Mahogany lumber is prized for its beauty, durability, and color. Overharvesting of mahogany has led to the tree being classified as threatened, and there are international laws banning its harvest and trade.

Although an anthropocentrist, biocentrist, and ecocentrist might all agree that it is important to protect mahogany trees, they would disagree on the reasons for doing so. Explain how they would differ in their reasoning.

Answer: An anthropocentrist would focus on the value toward humankind of protecting the mahogany trees. They may argue that it would be wrong to harvest mahogany trees because doing so would damage an ecosystem that may (a) contain undiscovered materials and medicines that would benefit humankind and (b) help protect humankind from the effects of global climate change. A biocentrist would focus on the mahogany species itself, arguing that it would be unethical to drive mahogany to extinction. An ecocentrist would be concerned with the rain forest ecosystem as a whole and may argue that damage to the ecosystem and removal of the mahogany tree from the ecosystem would seriously impact the ecological interactions that occur within the rain forest ecosystem, thus harming the ecosystem as a whole.

Module: EV.5 Environmental Values and Ethics Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EV.5.2: Use the concepts of intrinsic and instrumental value to describe an anthropocentric, biocentric, and ecocentric perspective.

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3) Describe how the laws of supply and demand combine to dictate the price of a product.

Answer: The law of supply dictates that profit on a product will dictate its supply, in that a company will want to produce more of a product if it can make more profit on it. This would hypothetically lead to a company raising the price on its product, assuming the company thinks the consumers would still buy the product at a higher price. However, the law of demand dictates that consumer demand will decrease as the price of a product or service increases.

Ultimately, the producer is able to make a product for a certain price. Below this price, the producer would lose money on a transaction and may choose to stop production of the product.

Above this price, the producer would make a profit and so might choose to increase production of the product. As the price of a good or service rises, the producer may maximize their profits by increasing the quantity produced, but increasing price will decrease demand and lower profits.

The concept of supply and demand effectively brings together the perspectives of the consumer and the producer to determine the price of a good or service. Above the price, fewer products would be sold, cutting into profits, and below the price, the producer will not want to meet the demand, thus decreasing supply and driving up the price.

Module: EV.1 Fundamentals of Economic Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EV.1.3: Describe the concepts of supply and demand, and explain how these come together to determine price.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter BD Biodiversity and Evolution BD.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Genes are located on molecules called ________.

A) deoxyribonucleic acid B) proteins C) ribonucleic acids D) nuclei Answer: A Module: BD.1 The Building Blocks of Biodiversity: Genes and Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.1.1: Describe the basic function of a gene.

2) Which of the following correctly depicts the pathway of the transfer of genetic information?

A) DNA → protein → RNA B) Protein → DNA → RNA C) DNA → RNA → protein D) RNA → DNA → protein Answer: C Module: BD.1 The Building Blocks of Biodiversity: Genes and Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.1.1: Describe the basic function of a gene.

3) A population of birds is found on a remote island. Which of the following pieces of information is most important when using the most common definition to decide if the birds all belong to a single species?

A) Whether they share many physical characteristics B) Whether they mate with one another C) Whether the males all sing similar songs D) Whether their matings produce viable eggs or the offspring of some matings are sterile Answer: D Module: BD.1 The Building Blocks of Biodiversity: Genes and Species Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.1.2: Describe the different definitions of species and explain how biological and physical characteristics can be used to identify species.

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4) What scientific discipline involves the naming and classifying of species according to their similarities?

A) Ecology B) Taxonomy C) Environmental science D) Agronomy Answer: B Module: BD.1 The Building Blocks of Biodiversity: Genes and Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.1.2: Describe the different definitions of species and explain how biological and physical characteristics can be used to identify species.

5) What is the best way to differentiate between different species of microorganisms?

A) Use high-powered microscopes to locate identifying features B) Allow them to breed and then see if the offspring are fertile C) Use molecular techniques to compare their genomes D) Conduct a detailed examination of their of cellular structure Answer: C Module: BD.1 The Building Blocks of Biodiversity: Genes and Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.1.3: Describe how genetic characteristics can be used to identify species and explain how this is particularly useful for the classification of microbial life.

6) A friend of yours tells you that due to a recent mutation she has suddenly started to grow a few strands of eyebrow hairs that are over 1.5 inches long and curly. Your friend is concerned that, when she has children, the children will be born with long, curly eyebrows. Should your friend be concerned?

A) No, because the mutated DNA is in the hair follicle and not in her egg, and so it cannot be passed to her children.

B) No, because her mutation occurred later in her life, so her children will not develop long, curly eyebrow hairs until they are older.

C) Yes, because the long, curly hairs are mutations in her cell's DNA and will automatically be passed to her children.

D) Yes, because the mutation is clearly dominant over the genes for normal eyebrow hairs.

Answer: A Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.1: Describe how traits are inherited.

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7) Evolution is a process that occurs at the level of ________.

A) DNA B) genes C) individuals D) populations Answer: D Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.2.2: Explain how the concept of evolution applies to the genetic composition of a population.

8) New genetic traits upon which natural selection can act usually arise from ________.

A) mutations B) increases in cell size and shape C) the need to become adapted to a new environment D) the demands of the environment Answer: A Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.2.3: Explain how natural selection occurs by describing how genetic mutation and natural selection lead to evolutionary change.

9) Antibiotic resistance can occur when ________.

A) bacterial populations are repeatedly exposed to the same antibiotics B) patients with bacterial infections are denied access to antibiotics C) patients use antibiotics that are expired D) antibiotics are artificially produced in a research facility Answer: A Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.2.3: Explain how natural selection occurs by describing how genetic mutation and natural selection lead to evolutionary change.

10) Prairie grasses experience grazing herbivores, wildfires, droughts, deep snow, and blazing hot days in the summer. The prairie grasses alive today are descendants of those that have survived these challenges and thus must have ________ for such an environment.

A) adaptations B) predation C) endemism D) speciations Answer: A Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.2.3: Explain how natural selection occurs by describing how genetic mutation and natural selection lead to evolutionary change.

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11) A small flock of birds becomes stranded on an isolated island during a hurricane. Their population expands across the island, and over a period of several decades, the average beak size in the population becomes smaller, helping the birds eat the smaller seeds and insects found on the island. Which one of the following processes is best illustrated by the change in beak size in this example?

A) Genetic drift B) Natural selection C) Gene flow D) Extinction Answer: B Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.4: Explain how other processes that influence the frequency of genes in a population can affect evolution.

12) A small flock of birds becomes stranded on an isolated island during a hurricane. The birds successfully breed and spread across the island. Several decades later, a hurricane hits the island and randomly kills off most of the birds, including the only birds in the population that had black tails. Which one of the following processes is best illustrated by the loss of black-tailed birds in this example?

A) Genetic drift B) Natural selection C) Gene flow D) Speciation Answer: A Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.4: Explain how other processes that influence the frequency of genes in a population can affect evolution.

13) A small flock of birds becomes stranded on an isolated island during a hurricane. The birds successfully breed and spread across the island. Several decades later, another flock of birds of the same species also becomes stranded on the island. The new arrivals are slightly larger than the rest of the birds, but they freely interbreed with the rest of the birds, and they produce fertile offspring. Which one of the following processes is best illustrated in this example?

A) Genetic drift B) Natural selection C) Gene flow D) Speciation Answer: C Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.4: Explain how other processes that influence the frequency of genes in a population can affect evolution.

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14) Heavy rains and mudslides cause a river to change course, isolating two groups of lizards from each other. If the groups remain isolated from each other for a long period of time, ________.

A) one group will probably become an endemic species B) both groups will probably become invasive species C) the groups will probably diverge genetically, and speciation may occur D) both groups will probably go extinct Answer: C Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.2.5: Explain why evolutionary processes are central to understanding the development of biodiversity and modern environmental science.

15) A small flock of birds becomes stranded on an isolated island during a hurricane. The birds successfully breed and spread across the island. Several decades later, a hurricane hits the island and randomly kills off most of the birds, including the only birds in the population that had black tails. This scenario is an example of the loss of ________ diversity.

A) Genetic B) Species C) Ecosystem D) Botanical Answer: A Module: BD.3 The Characteristics of Biodiversity Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.3.1: Explain how biodiversity exists at three levels that range from the scale of genes to species to ecosystems.

16) Which of these groups has the highest estimated undiscovered species?

A) Insects and their kin B) Plants C) Crustaceans D) Vertebrates Answer: A Module: BD.3 The Characteristics of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.3.2: Describe the diversity of life on Earth.

17) ________ have greater species richness than ________.

A) Oceans; terrestrial ecosystems B) Tropical and subtropical grasslands; tropical rainforests C) Coral reefs; other areas of the oceans D) Deserts; tropical rainforests Answer: C Module: BD.3 The Characteristics of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.3.3: Describe the global patterns in biodiversity and explain the possible reasons that these patterns occur.

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18) Species richness is affected by many variables. As one travels toward higher latitudes, one would expect ________.

A) species richness to decrease B) species richness to increase C) population viability to increase D) species richness to be fairly constant Answer: A Module: BD.3 The Characteristics of Biodiversity Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.3.3: Describe the global patterns in biodiversity and explain the possible reasons that these patterns occur.

19) Which of the following are prokaryotes?

A) Sunflowers B) Soil bacteria C) The president and first lady D) Yeast cells Answer: B Module: BD.4 Earth's Evolutionary History of Biodiversity Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.4.2: Describe the basic timeline of life on Earth.

20) In eukaryotic cells, DNA is located in ________.

A) the nucleus B) the nucleoid region C) structures called plasmids D) structures called eukaryons Answer: A Module: BD.4 Earth's Evolutionary History of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.4.2: Describe the basic timeline of life on Earth.

21) Which of the following is not one of the three domains of organisms?

A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya D) Viruses Answer: D Module: BD.4 Earth's Evolutionary History of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.4.3: Understand the concept of the structure of a tree of life.

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22) Which processes regulate the world's current level of species diversity?

A) Speciation and migration B) Mutation and humidity C) Endemism and climate change D) Extinction and speciation Answer: D Module: BD.2 and BD.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.2.5 and BD.5.1 23) Compared with the long-term historical average rate of extinction, extinction rates today are ________.

A) lower B) about the same C) higher D) changing from higher to lower rates in the past century Answer: C Module: BD.5 Extinctions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.5.1: Define extinction and describe the background rates of species extinction in the past.

24) Extinction is ________.

A) a natural process B) always caused by human disturbance C) the loss of communities from the planet D) proceeding more slowly now than at any other time E) something that occurs only rarely Answer: A Module: BD.5 Extinctions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.5.1: Define extinction and describe the background rates of species extinction in the past.

25) The causes of the sixth mass extinction include all of the following except ________.

A) habitat alteration and destruction B) invasive species C) volcanic eruptions and meteorites D) global climate change Answer: C Module: BD.5 Extinctions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.5.2: Identify the major extinction events (before present) and their suspected causes.

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26) In general, biodiversity is ________.

A) fairly evenly spread among all of the major groups of animals and plants B) accurately quantified for most ecosystems C) 75% plant species and 25% animal species D) declining in the United States and around the world Answer: D Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.1: Describe the current rate of species extinction and explain how species are characterized with respect to their risk of extinction.

27) Endemic species are ________.

A) well established and show the least risk of extinction B) limited to just one location, such as an island C) widely distributed, found especially on large continents D) usually the dominant species within an ecosystem Answer: B Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.2: Explain how the biodiversity hotspot concept is used to identify areas with high diversity and risks of species loss.

28) Species that are found only in specific environments or have restricted localities are said to be ________.

A) extinct B) structurally complex C) endemic D) diverse Answer: C Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.2: Explain how the biodiversity hotspot concept is used to identify areas with high diversity and risks of species loss.

29) Which of the following would be most vulnerable to extinction?

A) A moth, brought to the United States for silk production, escaping into the wild and becoming established B) An orchid endemic to a forest where logging is occurring C) A healthy plant, such as a pine tree, that completely dominates its native environment D) A migratory flock of warblers stopping along its winter route to feed on local resources that are now gone and replaced by a suburb Answer: B Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.6.2: Explain how the biodiversity hotspot concept is used to identify areas with high diversity and risks of species loss.

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30) Endemic species ________.

A) are generalist organisms B) cause disease C) are invasive species that cause extinction D) are found only in one place on the planet Answer: D Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.2: Explain how the biodiversity hotspot concept is used to identify areas with high diversity and risks of species loss.

31) Biologists define a region as a biodiversity hotspot if ________.

A) volcanic eruptions threaten species living in the area B) there is an exceptionally high level of species diversity and endemism C) there is at least one umbrella species to be protected D) there is an endemic species protected by a captive breeding program Answer: B Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.2: Explain how the biodiversity hotspot concept is used to identify areas with high diversity and risks of species loss.

32) The greatest threat to global biodiversity is ________.

A) the introduction of alien species B) habitat destruction C) overconsumption of rice, corn, and wheat D) chemical pollution Answer: B Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.3: Identify the major drivers of diversity loss (habitat loss, invasive species, pollution, overexploitation, climate change) in order of importance.

33) The country of Belize depends on lobster for a major portion of its income, along with fishing and tourism. Over the past 30 years the average size of an individual lobster has dropped, even as increasing numbers of Belizeans buy boats, build lobster traps, and enter the industry.

This is an example of ________.

A) the problems with monoculture B) habitat alteration C) the results of an invasive species D) overharvesting Answer: D Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.6.3: Identify the major drivers of diversity loss (habitat loss, invasive species, pollution, overexploitation, climate change) in order of importance.

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34) The five major factors contributing to extinction today are ________.

A) catastrophic storms, invasive species, earthquakes and associated tsunamis, pollution, and agriculture B) hunting, fishing, habitat destruction, crop production, and the draining of wetlands C) air pollution, water pollution, toxic waste, ozone depletion, and agriculture D) habitat loss, invasive species, pollution, overexploitation, and climate change Answer: D Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.3: Identify the major drivers of diversity loss (habitat loss, invasive species, pollution, overexploitation, climate change) in order of importance.

35) Plant productivity is greatest in natural ecosystems when ________.

A) more species are present B) an invasive plant grows unchecked C) the ecosystems are converted into cropland D) endemic species are present Answer: A Module: BD.7 The Implications of Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.7.1: Describe how biodiversity influences ecological processes.

36) The ecotourism industry relies upon ________.

A) the harvesting and sale of natural products B) the human desire to collect wildlife and wildlife products from throughout the world C) a widespread public interest in exploring and maintaining natural environments D) an interest in discovering plants to create new crops and agricultural products Answer: C Module: BD.7 The Implications of Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.7.2: Describe how biodiversity influences human society.

37) Ecotourism ________.

A) decreases biodiversity by causing increased speciation in environmentally sensitive areas B) maintains biodiversity by providing income to areas that might otherwise be destroyed C) decreases biodiversity by the selling of souvenir organisms D) increases biodiversity by introducing new, rare species Answer: B Module: BD.7 The Implications of Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.7.2: Describe how biodiversity influences human society.

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38) Biodiversity enhances human food security because ________.

A) nearly 20% of our food crops require pollinators such as insects B) the loss of crop diversity makes our food supply vulnerable to pests C) drugs can be developed from compounds found in plants D) protecting biodiversity provides greater opportunities for ecotourism Answer: B Module: BD.7 The Implications of Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.7.2: Describe how biodiversity influences human society.

39) Considering the benefits of biodiversity in the cost—benefit analysis of development ________.

A) is not practical, because it is too difficult to estimate the monetary benefits of biodiversity B) makes no difference, because biodiversity has no monetary benefits C) would likely reduce the declines in biodiversity that are expected to occur in the next 30 years D) is an effective short-term strategy, but unlikely to have long-lasting effects Answer: C Module: BD.7 The Implications of Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.7.3: Explain how future decisions could impact biodiversity levels on the planet.

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BD.2 Essay Questions 1) In North America, many kinds of birds have closely related eastern and western counterparts (species or subspecies) that sometimes produce hybrid offspring where their ranges overlap. For example, Baltimore and Bullock's orioles have been known to produce hybrid offspring in Nebraska, as do yellow-shafted and red-shafted flickers. Formulate a hypothesis to explain this widespread pattern of closely related eastern and western birds.

Answer: This widespread pattern is best explained by a large-scale event that separated birds in central North America into geographically isolated eastern and western populations. Past ice ages would have made most of central North America inhospitable to birds and may be the very mechanism that divided the species and isolated the eastern and western populations. Once isolation occurred, the eastern and western populations would have diverged genetically to the point where they became either different species with limited cross-breeding or distinctly different subspecies.

Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.5: Explain why evolutionary processes are central to understanding the development of biodiversity and modern environmental science.

2) In North America, many kinds of birds have closely related eastern and western counterparts (species or subspecies) that sometimes produce hybrid offspring where their ranges overlap. For example, Baltimore and Bullock's orioles have been known to produce hybrid offspring in Nebraska, as do yellow-shafted and red-shafted flickers. Describe how you would determine whether the counterparts are two separate species or are just two subspecies within a single species.

Answer: Since the species produce hybrid offspring, the best way to determine whether the birds are a single species is to determine whether the hybrid offspring are capable of surviving to adulthood and producing offspring of their own. If the birds are subspecies within the same species, then their offspring should be able to survive to adulthood and produce offspring with other eastern, western, or hybrid birds. If the birds are two closely related but separate species, then the hybrid offspring would probably not be successful in developing to adulthood and/or producing their own offspring. You could also determine whether the hybrids are very common in the area where the eastern and western ranges overlap. If the birds are members of the same species, then hybrids would be common in the range of overlap, and birds would not appear to have a mating preference for their own kind. If the birds are separate species, then hybrids would be rare, and birds would appear to prefer to mate with their own kind rather than mate with their geographic counterpart.

Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.5: Explain why evolutionary processes are central to understanding the development of biodiversity and modern environmental science.

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3) Propose a reason why a species would benefit by having genetic diversity.

Answer: Species with more genetic diversity would have better chances of surviving environmental changes, because the built-in genetic variation better enables certain members of the species to cope with the change. Species with little genetic diversity are vulnerable to environmental change for which they are not genetically prepared. Species with little genetic diversity may also be more vulnerable to disease and may suffer the effects of inbreeding, which occurs when parents that are too genetically similar mate and produce weak or defective offspring. Genetic diversity in our crop plants is important for protection of our food sources.

Module: BD.3 The Characteristics of Biodiversity Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.3.1: Explain how biodiversity exists at three levels that range from the scale of genes to species to ecosystems.

4) In North America, many kinds of birds have closely related eastern and western counterparts (species or subspecies) that sometimes produce hybrid offspring where their ranges overlap.

Eastern and western meadowlarks are virtually indistinguishable from each other in appearance, and yet, despite the fact that their ranges overlap throughout much of the Midwest, there are few documented cases of the meadowlark counterparts mating with each other and producing hybrid offspring. Propose mechanisms that would prevent cross-breeding between eastern and western meadowlarks, thus maintaining the counterparts as separate species.

Answer: It is possible that the two species sing songs or exhibit some other kind of behavioral differences that prevent their counterparts from recognizing them as potential mates. It is likewise possible that the two species prefer different habitats and would not find themselves mating in the same area, even if their ranges overlap. There may also be genetic incompatibility between the two species, such that an eastern meadowlark mating with its western counterpart would produce eggs that do not hatch or, if they do hatch, that produce offspring that are unable to survive to adulthood and produce offspring of their own.

Module: BD.2 The Origins of Biodiversity: Evolution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BD.2.5: Explain why evolutionary processes are central to understanding the development of biodiversity and modern environmental science.

5) Explain why today's estimate of the number of species present on Earth is so uncertain.

Answer: One reason for the uncertainty in the estimate of today's global species number is because some areas of Earth remain largely unexplored, with scientists doing detailed sampling only in small areas and using those data to estimate what would be expected across larger areas.

Another reason is that many species are tiny and easily overlooked; these inconspicuous organisms include insects, soil-dwelling organisms, and microorganisms such as bacteria. Global estimates range from 5 to 100 million species, but only 1.75 million species have been identified and named.

Module: BD.3 The Characteristics of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.3.2: Describe the diversity of life on Earth.

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6) Describe the sixth mass extinction event and its specific causes.

Answer: Currently, most biologists believe that Earth is in the throes of its sixth mass extinction event and that we are the cause. The changes to Earth's environment by human population growth, resource use, and development have greatly altered conditions for many species, have driven many to extinction already, and are threatening countless more. The alteration and outright destruction of natural habitats, the hunting and harvesting of species, pollution, and the introduction of invasive species from one place to another have contributed to the threat to Earth's biodiversity.

Module: BD.6 Modern Biodiversity Loss Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BD.6.1: Describe the current rate of species extinction and explain how species are characterized with respect to their risk of extinction. and BD.6.3: Identify the major drivers of diversity loss (habitat loss, invasive species, pollution, overexploitation, climate change) in order of importance.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter PC Populations and Communities PC.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) All of the following are physical limiting factors affecting survival and growth of an organism except ________.

A) sunlight B) temperature C) salinity D) predation Answer: D Module: PC.1 Limitations on the growth and survival of organisms Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.1.2: Describe the physical factors that limit the growth of organisms.

2) An organism's range of tolerance is best exemplified by which of the following?

A) The difference between the amount of food available and the organism's consumption of that food B) The total amount of pollutants experienced by an organism C) The span between the minimum and maximum temperature in which an organism flourishes D) The difference between the amount of sunlight tolerated by an organism and the amount of sunlight available to the organism Answer: C Module: PC.1 Limitations on the growth and survival of organisms Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.1.3: Identify the key ways that organisms respond to limiting factors.

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Use the following figure to answer the question below.

3) Which of the following can be inferred from the figure shown?

A) Grizzly bears outcompete polar bears where their ranges overlap.

B) Both polar bears and grizzly bears can tolerate an air temperature of 5°C. C) Both polar bears and grizzly bears can acclimate to temperatures outside of their tolerance range, but only if they are gradually exposed to the extreme temperatures.

D) Polar bears and grizzly bears usually do not compete for the same resources.

Answer: D Module: PC.1 Limitations on the growth and survival of organisms Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: PC.1.3: Identify the key ways that organisms respond to limiting factors.

4) A population would be expected to grow if ________.

A) immigration increased and deaths and emigration decreased B) immigration and emigration increased by the same number of organisms C) emigration and death rates stayed the same and immigration decreased D) births decreased by 1% and emigration increased by 8% Answer: A Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.2: Identify the factors that control population growth.

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5) A stable population would remain at equilibrium if ________.

A) the birth rate increased as the death rate decreased B) emigration rates and death rates increased equally C) births and immigration of organisms increased by the same number D) births and deaths of organisms increased by the same number Answer: D Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.2: Identify the factors that control population growth.

6) A population's growth rate is determined by ________.

A) birth and immigration rates B) birth, death, immigration, and emigration rates C) birth rate D) birth rate and ecological resilience Answer: B Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.2.2: Identify the factors that control population growth.

Read the following scenario, and answer the questions below.

In North America, a toxic weed called leafy spurge was accidentally introduced and has grown and spread rapidly, covering millions of acres in north-central United States and south-central Canada. Leafy spurge is generally avoided by cattle and horses and may be toxic to them. Thus, rangeland where leafy spurge has spread has been damaged by the invasion of this plant.

7) Plants such as leafy spurge can double their population size every year in part because of their efficient production of large amounts of seeds. Populations that can double every year, such as leafy spurge, ________.

A) will do so endlessly, eventually achieving a global distribution B) exhibit logistic growth C) probably have more predators than other species D) exhibit exponential growth as they spread to new regions Answer: D Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.2.3: Explain how the concept of exponential growth applies to populations.

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8) Leafy spurge has spread across many U.S. states. If left uncontrolled in these states, leafy spurge populations will ________.

A) never experience environmental resistance B) eventually reach their carrying capacity C) shift from a J-curve to a constant rate of growth D) shift from a logistic curve to a J-shaped growth curve Answer: B Module: PC.2, PC.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.3, PC.3.1, PC.3.2 9) Many strategies have been used to control leafy spurge, including the deliberate introduction of different species of flea beetles that feed on leafy spurge. Each flea beetle female may lay about 200 eggs in her only year of life. In places where flea beetle introductions have quickly established large populations that have grown and stabilized, a graph of the population growth of these beetles most likely would look like ________.

A) a straight increasing line B) a J-shaped curve C) an S-shaped curve D) an upside down U-curve Answer: C Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.3: Explain how the concept of exponential growth applies to populations.

10) Flea beetles alone are unlikely to eliminate all of the leafy spurge in a region. Instead, the number of leafy spurge plants and the number of flea beetles in a particular community may stabilize. At such a point, the leafy spurge and flea beetle populations ________.

A) have exhibited exponential growth followed by a crash B) have experienced constant growth C) are still experiencing exponential growth D) are experiencing ecological resistance Answer: D Module: PC.6 Changes in Communities over Time Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.6.5: Define the concept of resistance and explain how it applies in the context of disturbance.

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11) Some flea beetles escape from a ship and fly to a small island covered with grass but with no trees or beetle predators. As the beetles feed, they destroy all the grasses. But with abundant food, the beetle population soars, doubling in size every month. After about a year, the population crashes as thousands of beetles have destroyed almost all of the plants, and there is little left to feed the large population. This scenario best illustrates ________.

A) constant growth followed by equilibrium B) a population that has stabilized near its carrying capacity C) exponential growth followed by a population crash D) the fact that the beetles have strong competition from other species for food supply Answer: C Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.3: Explain how the concept of exponential growth applies to populations.

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

12) Which line in the figure represents the survivorship curve for humans?

A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) None of the above Answer: C Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.2.5: Explain what determines the rate of death in populations.

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13) Once they are a year old, many small songbirds such as goldfinches and house finches have approximately a 50% probability of surviving to the following year, regardless of the bird's age.

Which survivorship curve in the figure best represents such birds?

A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) None of the above Answer: B Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.5: Explain what determines the rate of death in populations.

14) Which survivorship curve in the figure depicts a species that has a high death rate early in life, followed by a period of low death rate early in adulthood, and then a period of high death rate later in life?

A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) None of the above Answer: D Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.5: Explain what determines the rate of death in populations.

15) In logistic population growth, how does population growth change as the population nears its carrying capacity?

A) Population growth increases.

B) Population growth remains steady.

C) Population growth decreases.

D) Population growth typically crashes.

Answer: C Module: PC.3 Carrying Capacity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.3.2: How does carrying capacity affect population growth curves?

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16) If too many of a certain species of game fish are caught, the population will crash and future years of fishing in the lake will suffer. Your job as a fisheries and wildlife officer is to decide how many fish you should allow to be harvested so as to sustain the sport fishing industry while maintaining the fish population. Assuming the fish population normally experiences logistic population growth, which of the following options would seem to make the most sense in managing this fish population?

A) Allow harvesting to a level of 1/10 of the species' carrying capacity.

B) Allow harvesting to a level of half of the species' carrying capacity.

C) Allow harvesting to a level of the species' full carrying capacity.

D) Allow harvesting only above the species' carrying capacity.

Answer: B Module: PC.3 Carrying Capacity Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: PC.3.2: How does carrying capacity affect population growth curves?

17) When populations increase toward their carrying capacity, their resources ________.

A) increase because populations are decreasing B) are not a concern as they are usually infinite in supply C) become more scarce D) increase in supply as the population size decreases to zero Answer: C Module: PC.3 Carrying Capacity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.3.2: How does carrying capacity affect population growth curves?

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

18) Which of these lines depicts a population with a constant growth rate?

A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) Line D Answer: C Module: PC.2 Populations and Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.2.3: Explain how the concept of exponential growth applies to populations.

19) Which of these lines depicts logistic population growth?

A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) Line D Answer: B Module: PC.3 Carrying Capacity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.3.2: How does carrying capacity affect population growth curves?

20) Which of these lines depicts a population being affected by limited resources?

A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) Line D Answer: B Module: PC.3 Carrying Capacity Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.3.2: How does carrying capacity affect population growth curves?

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21) Along the shoreline of a pond, Canada geese, American toads, and grass frogs search for food while bluegill and bass prey on small fish in the shallow water. These species, living and feeding in this particular location, represent a(n) ________.

A) species B) population C) community D) ecosystem Answer: C Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.4.1: Define the concept of a community.

22) What makes up an ecological community?

A) All of the species that use the same resources B) All the plants, animals, and other organisms interacting in a specific area C) Different species of the same type of animal within a specific area D) All the humans living in a certain area Answer: B Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.1: Define the concept of a community.

23) Which one of the following illustrates interspecific competition?

A) The largest wolves in a pack are the first to feed on a freshly killed deer.

B) Two honeybees from the same colony converge on a flower to collect pollen and nectar.

C) Advertising its nectar with red colors, a columbine flower attracts a hummingbird for a meal.

D) Caterpillars of two different species of moth are feeding on the same plant's leaves.

Answer: D Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.2: Describe the idea of competition and define intra- and interspecific competition.

24) Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze, quickly burying and recycling cattle droppings. Because of the dung beetle's activities, breeding habitats and resources for diseasecarrying flies are reduced, and the plants upon which cattle feed are nourished. The relationship between the dung beetles and the disease-carrying flies is a type of ________.

A) mutualism B) commensalism C) intraspecific competition D) interspecific competition Answer: D Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.2: Describe the idea of competition and define intra- and interspecific competition.

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25) Which one of the following illustrates intraspecific competition?

A) A butterfly feeding on the nectar of a daffodil flower B) A Franklin's gull swooping down to snatch a fish from the water's surface C) A tick and a flea sharing a dog's back D) Male red-winged blackbirds defending nesting sites from other males Answer: D Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.2: Describe the idea of competition and define intra- and interspecific competition.

26) Purple martins are the largest species of swallow in North America. In the Eastern United States, they breed almost exclusively in large colonies in artificial martin houses and hollowedout gourds hung by martin enthusiasts, who often have to remove invasive house sparrows from these artificial nest sites in order for the martins to have a place to nest. The relationship between the martins and sparrows can best be described as ________, and the relationship between the martins and the martin enthusiasts can best be described as ________.

A) intraspecific competition; interspecific competition B) interspecific competition; mutualism C) parasitism; symbiosis D) predation; mutualism Answer: B Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.2: Describe the idea of competition and define intra- and interspecific competition.

27) Purple martins are the largest species of swallow in North America. In the Eastern United States, they breed almost exclusively in large colonies in artificial martin houses and hollowedout gourds hung by martin enthusiasts. Given this information, which of the following would be a valid inference?

A) In the Eastern United States, purple martins are generalists with a broad ecological niche.

B) Purple martins and martin enthusiasts exhibit a relationship that can best be described as commensalism.

C) In the Eastern United States, purple martins have a size advantage over other swallows and are able to outcompete them for nest sites.

D) In the Eastern United States, purple martins are specialists because they rely almost solely on humans for nesting sites.

Answer: D Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: PC.4.3: Describe the concept of an ecological niche and identify different strategies for niche use (generalist/specialist).

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28) Which of the following represents a type of mutualism?

A) A red-tailed hawk pounces on a field mouse for dinner.

B) A large herd of zebra graze lazily across the broad savannah.

C) A mosquito draws a blood meal from the back of an elk.

D) A honeybee pollinates an orange blossom as it feeds on the flower's nectar.

Answer: D Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.4: Recognize the primary types of species interaction and their characteristics (predation, symbiosis, etc.).

29) Which of the following is analogous to mutualism?

A) A basketball player is paid by a company to wear its particular brand of shoes.

B) A deer hunter stalks and kills a large buck.

C) A thief breaks into a store and steals some precious jewels.

D) Young lovers leave their initials carved into a tree, which then becomes diseased and dies.

Answer: A Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.4: Recognize the primary types of species interaction and their characteristics (predation, symbiosis, etc.).

30) Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze, quickly burying and recycling cattle droppings. Because of the dung beetle's activities, breeding habitats and resources for diseasecarrying flies are reduced, and the plants upon which cattle feed are nourished. The relationship between the dung beetles and the cattle is a type of ________.

A) mutualism B) parasitism C) intraspecific competition D) interspecific competition Answer: A Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.4: Recognize the primary types of species interaction and their characteristics (predation, symbiosis, etc.).

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31) Brown-headed cowbirds lay their eggs in the nests of other species of songbirds, relying upon the other species to raise their chicks. Many of these species unknowingly raise the cowbird chicks at the cost of their own reproductive success. The relationship between cowbirds and these other species of birds most closely matches which one of the following relationships?

A) Intraspecific competition B) Parasitism C) Commensalism D) Mutualism Answer: B Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: PC.4.4: Recognize the primary types of species interaction and their characteristics (predation, symbiosis, etc.).

32) Flying squirrels competing with each other for truffles is an example of ________.

A) intraspecific competition B) interspecific competition C) symbiosis D) parasitism Answer: A Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.4.4: Recognize the primary types of species interaction and their characteristics (predation, symbiosis, etc.).

33) Mutualism is ________.

A) a relationship between two species in which both benefit B) a relationship between two species in which only one benefits C) a relationship with no benefits to either species D) a relationship in which two species have a mutual predator Answer: A Module: PC.4 The Structure of Communities Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.4.4: Recognize the primary types of species interaction and their characteristics (predation, symbiosis, etc.).

34) In a terrestrial food web, which of the following categories of organisms will have the highest total energy content and biomass?

A) Carnivores B) Herbivores C) Primary producers D) Consumers Answer: C Module: PC.5 Energy Flow through Communities: Trophic Structures and Food Webs Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.5.1: Identify the levels of trophic structure within a community.

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35) With regard to trophic structure, the rule of 10 states that ________.

A) metabolic rates roughly double with every 10°C increase in temperature B) approximately 10% of the energy at one trophic level is lost to the environment before being transferred into the biomass of the next trophic level C) approximately 10% of the energy at one trophic level is transferred into the biomass of the next trophic level D) only 10% of the calories available at one trophic level will be consumed by organisms in the next trophic level Answer: C Module: PC.5 Energy Flow through Communities: Trophic Structures and Food Webs Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.5.2: Explain how energy and matter flow between trophic levels.

36) Why is the sea otter considered a keystone species in areas of the Pacific Ocean?

A) If sea otter populations were to crash, sea urchins would be unable to survive because kelp forests would become too dense.

B) Sea otters were introduced to control kelp and other invasive plants, and without them, the plants would grow too thick to support crab and lobster populations in the area.

C) Sea otters eat barnacles and mussels, and if sea otter populations were to crash, barnacles and mussel populations in tide pools would expand, causing a decrease in biodiversity in those areas.

D) If sea otter populations were to crash, kelp forests could disappear because of overgrazing by sea urchins that would otherwise be controlled by the sea otters.

Answer: D Module: PC.5 Energy Flow through Communities: Trophic Structures and Food Webs Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.5.3: Explain the concept of a keystone species and how it relates to the structure of a food web.

37) A keystone species ________.

A) has a disproportionately large impact on the stability of an ecosystem B) typically reduces overall biodiversity of an ecosystem C) is typically an herbivore D) is an example of amensalism Answer: A Module: PC.5 Energy Flow through Communities: Trophic Structures and Food Webs Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.5.3: Explain the concept of a keystone species and how it relates to the structure of a food web.

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38) Off the southern coast of Iceland, the small volcanic island of Surtsey first emerged above sea level in 1963. By 1970, plants, mosses, and lichens had colonized the island, and by 2008, over 50 species of plants were on the island, and birds and seals had begun using the island as well. The ecological changes that have occurred on this new island represent ________.

A) disturbances B) resilience events C) primary succession D) secondary succession Answer: C Module: PC.6 Changes in Communities over Time Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.6.2: Describe the process of primary succession and explain how communities change over time in this case.

39) What was once an open pasture on a long-abandoned farm has changed over time, without the direct influence of humans. After the cattle had been removed, shrubs and bushes could be seen dotting the grass-covered hillsides. A few years later, small pine trees and then larger deciduous trees appeared. Now, there are so many trees and shaded regions that it is difficult to tell that this was once a field. The ecological changes in this abandoned pasture represent ________.

A) disturbances B) resilience events C) primary succession D) secondary succession Answer: D Module: PC.6 Changes in Communities over Time Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.6.3: Describe the process of secondary succession and explain how communities change over time in this case.

40) Which of the following best illustrates resilience?

A) Crown fires resulting from many years of fire suppression B) The emergence of a meadow and young trees in a recently burned forest C) Soil erosion resulting from burned soil washing away from a forest floor D) Burned trees accumulating on a forest floor after a fire Answer: B Module: PC.6 Changes in Communities over Time Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.6.4: Define the concept of ecological resilience and explain how it applies in the context of disturbance.

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41) Hawaiian honeycreepers are ________.

A) birds that are endemic to the Hawaiian Islands B) invasive insects that have been introduced to the Hawaiian Islands C) birds that have been driven to extinction on the Hawaiian Islands D) rodents from Hawaii that were introduced to the panhandle of Florida, where they have driven some species of bees to extinction by eating their hives Answer: A Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.7.1: Describe the difference between non-native and native species.

42) Endemic species are ________.

A) native species that are found in only one part of the world B) non-native species that are only able to spread in a limited region C) species that are native to many areas in the world D) particularly invasive non-native species Answer: A Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.7.1: Describe the difference between non-native and native species.

43) Non-native species are most likely to cause economic or environmental harm when ________.

A) specialists are introduced into areas where they have no natural predators or diseases B) generalists are introduced into areas where there have no natural predators or diseases C) specialists are introduced into areas where they are the only non-native species D) generalists are introduced into areas where they are the only non-native species Answer: B Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.7.2: Identify the characteristics of a successful biological invader (generalist).

44) Which of the following scenarios would not be sufficient to classify a species as invasive?

A) An introduced rodent spreads and colonizes areas far from its place of introduction.

B) The non-native disease causes large losses in agricultural productivity.

C) An introduced snake significantly reduces the biodiversity of an island.

D) A non-native mussel requires expensive monitoring and removal efforts to avoid disruption of water treatment facilities.

Answer: A Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: PC.7.2: Identify the characteristics of a successful biological invader (generalist), PC.7.3: Recognize the consequences of biological invasions.

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45) Biocontrol strategies are most likely to work on which one of the following invasive species?

A) Chestnut blight fungus B) Burmese pythons C) Tamarisk D) Zebra mussels Answer: C Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: PC.7.4: Explain how biological invasions can be controlled.

PC.2 Essay Questions 1) Give an example of how an invasive species can cause ecological or economic harm.

Answer: In the absence of predators, parasites, and/or competitors in their new environment, invasive species can proliferate and dominate a community. The impacts of invasive species have become more extensive in recent years because of the increased mobility of humans and globalization. An example of an invasive species is the zebra mussel, which was likely transported from Europe in the ballast water of ships. It is now spreading across the waterways in the United States. The mussels clog the intake pipes of power plants, water treatment facilities, and even boat engines, requiring expensive monitoring and removal activities.

Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.7.3: Recognize the consequences of biological invasions.

2) Not all species introduced to a new area become invasive. Why have some introduced species become invasive, while others have either died off or become a harmless addition to our landscape?

Answer: Invasive species generally grow quickly and displace native species by outcompeting native species for resources such as water or nutrients and by changing the ecosystem so dramatically that the native species can no longer survive. Some invasive species are generalists, with an ability to use a variety of resources or live in a wide variety of habitats. Also, many invasive species spread when introduced because the new environment does not contain the natural predators or diseases that would control their populations in their native area. Introduced species that have either died off or simply become a harmless addition to the landscape may be held in check through interspecific competition or by predators and/or disease. They may also have been introduced into habitats that are not optimal (e.g., colder than their native habitat), thus limiting their reproductive and competitive success.

Module: PC.7 Biological Invasions Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.7.2: Identify the characteristics of a successful biological invader (generalist).

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3) Explain the principle of limiting factors. Identify examples of biological limiting factors and examples of physical limiting factors.

Answer: The principle of limiting factors is the concept that external factors limit the growth and/or survival of organisms. Biological limiting factors include predation, herbivory, and competition with other organisms for resources. Physical limiting factors include temperature, light availability, nutrient and moisture availability, and salinity.

Module: PC.1 Limitations on the growth and survival of organisms Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: PC.1.1, PC.1.2

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter EB Ecosystems and Biomes EB.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which one of the following would be a physical component of the desert ecosystem of the southwestern United States?

A) Cacti B) Rocks C) Sagebrush D) Rattlesnakes Answer: B Module: EB.1 Ecosystem Characteristics Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.1.1: Describe the components and properties of an ecosystem.

2) Which of the following would not be considered an ecosystem?

A) The combination of organism living in and making use of the resources of New York City B) The populations of microbes breaking down soil organic matter C) A tropical rainforest D) The association of lynx and hare that determines the population sizes of both species Answer: D Module: EB.1 Ecosystem Characteristics Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.1.2, EB.1.3 3) What organisms are involved in the process of transpiration?

A) Insects B) Grazers such as deer and elk C) Fish and other aquatic creatures D) Plants Answer: D Module: EB.2 The Flow of Energy, Carbon, and Oxygen through Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.2.1: Explain how energy is transformed through ecosystems.

4) As the sugars are broken down in the cells of living creatures, the energy returns to the atmosphere through the process of ________.

A) transpiration B) respiration C) evapotranspiration D) photosynthesis Answer: B Module: EB.2 The Flow of Energy, Carbon, and Oxygen through Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.2.1: Explain how energy is transformed through ecosystems.

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5) What process converts atmospheric carbon into organic carbon?

A) Transpiration B) Respiration C) Evapotranspiration D) Photosynthesis Answer: D Module: EB.2 The Flow of Energy, Carbon, and Oxygen through Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.2.2: Explain how carbon moves between the atmosphere and ecosystems and why this is important for environmental science.

6) Which of the following statements accurately describes gross and net primary production?

A) Gross primary production is always greater than net primary production.

B) Net primary production is always greater than gross primary production.

C) Gross primary production involves plants, while net primary production involves animals.

D) Gross primary production takes into consideration autotrophic respiration, while net primary production does not.

Answer: A Module: EB.2 The Flow of Energy, Carbon, and Oxygen through Ecosystems Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EB.2.2: Explain how carbon moves between the atmosphere and ecosystems and why this is important for environmental science.

7) Which of the following would occur if all photosynthetic processes on the Earth were to cease?

A) Carbon dioxide and oxygen levels in the atmosphere would decrease.

B) Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere would decrease, and oxygen levels would increase.

C) Carbon dioxide and oxygen levels in the atmosphere would increase.

D) Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere would increase, and oxygen levels would decrease.

Answer: D Module: EB.2 The Flow of Energy, Carbon, and Oxygen through Ecosystems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.2.2, EB.2.3 8) From largest to smallest, the soil particle sizes are ________.

A) sand, silt, and clay B) sand, clay, and silt C) clay, sand, and silt D) silt, sand, and clay Answer: A Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.3.1: Identify the biological and physical components that make up a soil.

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9) A soil consisting of equal amounts of ________ would hold the water the most.

A) sand and silt B) clay and sand C) silt and clay D) small stones and sand Answer: C Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.3.1: Identify the biological and physical components that make up a soil.

10) Of the following, water would move the quickest through a soil consisting of equal amounts of ________.

A) sand and silt B) clay and sand C) silt and clay D) small stones and sand Answer: D Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.3.1: Identify the biological and physical components that make up a soil.

11) Most plants acquire their minerals from ________.

A) fertilizers B) the precipitation of minerals from rainfall C) detritus and the weathering of rock D) nutrients in rainfall and dust storms that transport minerals into a region Answer: C Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.3.1, EB.3.2 12) ________ involves the breakdown of parent material by reactions with water and acids.

A) Chemical weathering B) Erosion C) Leaching D) Physical weathering Answer: A Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.3.2: Describe the process of weathering.

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13) The physical weathering of large rocks into smaller pieces is ________.

A) called mineralization B) caused by wind, water, and ice C) a major cause of topsoil erosion D) primarily caused by topsoil erosion Answer: B Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.3.2: Describe the process of weathering.

14) Soil layers with distinct properties are called ________.

A) profiles B) tiers C) bands D) horizons Answer: D Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.3.2: Describe the process of weathering.

15) Which one of the following processes would directly increase the amount of nutrients available to plants?

A) Photosynthesis B) Respiration C) Primary production D) Mineralization Answer: D Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EB.3.3: Explain how nutrients cycle between soils and plants.

16) What two processes determine the main two components of soil fertility?

A) The mineralization of soil organic matter and the chemical weathering of bedrock B) The mineralization of bedrock and the chemical weathering of soil organic matter C) The mineralization of different-sized soil particles and the physical weathering of bedrock D) The physical weathering of different-sized soil particles and the chemical weathering of bedrock Answer: A Module: EB.3 The Role of Soil and Nutrients in Ecosystems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.3.4: Define soil fertility and describe the role of soil in providing support for ecosystems.

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17) Which of the following best describes von Liebig's "law of the minimum"?

A) A plant cannot grow at temperatures below its lower tolerance limit.

B) A plant will grow at a rate limited by the nutrient in lowest supply relative to the needs of the plant.

C) A plant will grow best when levels of herbivory are as low as possible.

D) A plant's reproduction is limited by the minimum height of the plant.

Answer: B Module: EB.4 Nutrient Limitations in Ecosystems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.4.2: Explain why a single element is likely to limit plant growth at a particular point in time.

18) Primary productivity in nontropical terrestrial environments is typically limited by what nutrient?

A) N B) P C) Fe D) K Answer: A Module: EB.4 Nutrient Limitations in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.4.3: Describe what elements are most likely to limit plant or algal growth on land and in water and explain why this would be the case.

19) Many ecosystems are damaged by attempts to make a quick profit because ________.

A) natural services are valued more than natural goods B) ecosystem services require sustained human development C) the value of ecosystem services is underappreciated D) the prices of most natural goods continue to fall Answer: C Module: EB.5 Ecosystem Services Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.5.1: Describe the concept of provisioning services and identify how these services are important to human systems.

20) Which of the following are examples of provisioning ecosystem services?

A) Climate, water flow, and disease B) Aesthetic beauty and recreation C) Soil formation and nutrient cycles D) Food, water, and fiber Answer: D Module: EB.5 Ecosystem Services Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.5.1: Describe the concept of provisioning services and identify how these services are important to human systems.

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21) This figure depicts a ________ ecosystem service.

A) regulating B) cultural C) supporting D) provisioning Answer: D Module: EB.5 Ecosystem Services Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.5.1: Describe the concept of provisioning services and identify how these services are important to human systems.

22) Which of the following is an example of a cultural ecosystem service?

A) Providing food to the malnourished B) Enjoying the beauty or inspiration provided by a forest C) Ensuring flow of traffic in and out of a city D) Constructing a "green" building E) Ensuring good health access for populations in a community Answer: B Module: EB.5 Ecosystem Services Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.5.2: Describe the concept of cultural services and identify how these services are important to human systems.

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23) Which of the following are examples of regulating ecosystem services?

A) Climate, water flow, and disease control B) Aesthetic beauty and recreation C) Soil formation and nutrient cycles D) Food, water, and fiber E) Pollination and chlorophyll Answer: A Module: EB.5 Ecosystem Services Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.5.3: Describe the concept of regulating services and identify how these services are important to human systems.

24) Soil formation and oxygen production are examples of ________ services.

A) provisioning B) cultural C) regulating D) supporting Answer: D Module: EB.5 Ecosystem Services Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.5.4: Describe the concept of supporting services and identify how these services are important to human systems.

25) Biomes are regions with similar ________.

A) animals, plants, and climatic conditions B) terrain and elevations C) soils, water systems, and animals D) rocks, soil, minerals, and water Answer: A Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.2: Recognize how biomes are classified.

26) Which biome is characterized by the highest annual rainfalls and primary productivity?

A) Temperate deciduous forests B) Temperate grasslands and prairies C) Tropical broadleaf forests D) Tropical grasslands and prairies Answer: C Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.4: Describe the location and characteristics of tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests.

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27) Tropical dry forests are characterized by all of the following except ________.

A) a dry season B) warm temperatures year-round C) trees that retain their leaves throughout the year D) high biodiversity Answer: C Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.5: Describe the location and characteristics of tropical and subtropical dry broadleaf forests.

28) Which of the following biomes tends to be dominated by coniferous trees?

A) Boreal forest B) Tropical moist broadleaf forest C) Temperate broadleaf forest D) Mediterranean forest Answer: A Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.9: Describe the location and characteristics of boreal forests and taiga.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

29) All of the following can be inferred from the figure except ________.

A) areas classified as tundra tend to be very cold and dry B) plants in tropical dry forests experience both a wet season and a dry season C) only the warmest deserts receive greater than 50 cm of precipitation annually D) temperate coniferous forests tend to be wetter than temperate broadleaf forests Answer: B Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EB.6.10: Describe the location and characteristics of tropical and subtropical grasslands, savannas, and shrublands.

30) Tropical savannas tend to be ________ than tropical dry forests.

A) wetter and colder B) drier and colder C) wetter D) drier Answer: D Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EB.6.10: Describe the location and characteristics of tropical and subtropical grasslands, savannas, and shrublands.

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31) You are in a low-elevation area that receives an average of 51 cm (20 inches) of precipitation per year, with temperatures that are much colder in winter than summer. Which one of the following biomes are you most likely to be in?

A) Mediterranean forests, woodlands, and scrublands B) Desert C) Temperate grassland D) Subtropical moist broadleaf forest Answer: C Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.6.11: Describe the location and characteristics of temperate grasslands and shrublands.

32) Biomes with permafrost usually ________.

A) are covered in coniferous forests at high latitudes B) are in temperate zones and have deciduous trees C) lack trees and are located in polar regions D) are located at high altitudes nearest the equator Answer: C Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.14: Describe the location and characteristics of tundra.

33) Which biome is dominated by grasses and shrubs and experiences cold temperatures and relatively low levels of precipitation?

A) Desert B) Grasslands C) Savanna D) Tundra Answer: D Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.14: Describe the location and characteristics of tundra.

34) Biomes with less than 10 cm (4 inches) of rain a year are ________.

A) high in primary productivity B) likely to have extremely cold winters C) dominated by coniferous trees D) generally classified as deserts Answer: D Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.6.16: Describe the location and characteristics of deserts and xeric shrublands.

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EB.2 Essay Questions 1) Describe the distinction between macronutrients and micronutrients. Give several examples of each, and describe their importance.

Answer: Macronutrients, such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur, are elements needed in relatively large amounts by photosynthetic organisms. Micronutrients, such as iron, copper, and zinc, are needed in small amounts. Without sufficient amounts of all of these macronutrients and micronutrients, growth would be limited. For example, the chlorophyll molecules needed for photosynthesis contain nitrogen and magnesium, and a plant would be limited in its photosynthetic capabilities if nitrogen and/or magnesium were limited.

Module: EB.4 Nutrient Limitations in Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EB.4.1: Describe what nutrients are most important to plants and how those nutrients are supplied.

2) Discuss two climatic factors that are most important in the distribution and characteristics of biomes. Choose one biome and explain how these two factors impact the specific plants and animals found there.

Answer: Temperature and precipitation are the two factors that determine the distribution and characteristics of biomes. These factors influence the characteristics of the plants and animals that live there, because over multiple generations, climatic factors provide a selective force for certain traits. As average precipitation and temperature increase, the growing season is often longer, and with more water, photosynthetic rates increase and vegetation becomes taller, more lush, and varied. In the desert biome, with very little rainfall, the lack of water affects the types of organisms that can live there. Plants such as succulents and cacti that do thrive in deserts have evolved specialized adaptations to conserve water, such as reduced leaf surfaces and the ability to store water for times when water is unavailable. Animal species have also evolved waterconserving behaviors, such as nocturnal activity to avoid the heat of the day. Some deserts are hotter than others, and water conservation is of particular concern in hot deserts. Plants in cold deserts may need to be freeze-tolerant because nighttime temperatures often drop below freezing.

Module: EB.6 Biomes Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EB.6.1: Explain how climate influences organisms in ways that create common patterns in traits in similar environments.

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3) The goods and services that ecosystems provide to humanity are known as ecosystem services. Identify and explain the four categories of ecosystem services, and describe an example of each.

Answer: The four categories of ecosystem services are provisioning services, cultural services, regulating services, and supporting services. Provisioning services include the food that ecosystems provide for our nutritional needs, including crops, livestock, fish, and game animals.

Cultural services are the spiritual, aesthetic, recreational, and educational benefits humans receive from ecosystems. Cultural services include economic benefits from ecotourism and such intangibles as the enjoyment of the outdoors. Regulating services are basic functions of ecosystems that are relevant to human life, such as purifying water, reducing the spread of disease, regulating floods, and stabilizing climate via the regulation of concentrations of greenhouse gases. Supporting services are long-term ecological processes that contribute to the broader functioning of ecosystems and the various services they provide. The naturally occurring cycling of nutrients and water, the presence of habitat for organisms, and the production of organic matter and essential gases such as oxygen are all examples of supporting services, without which ecosystems and life itself could not survive.

Module: BD.5 Extinctions Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BD.5.1, BD.5.2

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter BC Biogeochemical Cycles BC.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Biogeochemical cycles involve ________.

A) only biological processes B) heat loss from both respiration and photosynthesis C) only geological and chemical processes D) the cyclic movement of materials through ecosystems Answer: D Module: BC.1 How Nutrients Move through the Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.1.1: Describe the basic components of a biogeochemical cycle, using the terms "reservoir" and "flux."

2) Which one of the following best describes a flux?

A) A pool or reservoir where an element or compound is stored within a biogeochemical cycle B) Variation in output from a large water reservoir, such as output through a hydroelectric dam C) Movement of elements or compounds between reservoirs in a biogeochemical cycle D) A type of flower used for food and fiber; also known as linseed Answer: C Module: BC.1 How Nutrients Move through the Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.1.1: Describe the basic components of a biogeochemical cycle, using the terms "reservoir" and "flux."

3) The volume of Lake Erie is 480 km3. The main inflows into the lake include the Detroit River and Buffalo River, and the main outflows include the Niagara River and Welland Canal. If the water level of Lake Erie remains level and the amount of water flowing into Lake Erie is 0.500 km3 per day, what is the approximate residence time for the water in Lake Erie?

A) 960 years B) 2.6 years C) 8.5 months D) 240 years Answer: B Module: BC.1 How Nutrients Move through the Environment Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.1.2: Explain the concept of residence time and how the flux of molecules in and out influences the size of a reservoir.

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4) All organic compounds contain ________.

A) carbon B) water C) nitrogen D) sulfur Answer: A Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.2.1: Explain why carbon is important and where it is found.

5) Fossil fuels were formed from ________.

A) plants and algae trapped underground millions of years ago B) nitrogen trapped in rocks during extensive volcanic activity C) sodium and calcium incorporated into ancient fossils, seashells, and limestone D) pockets of hydrogen sulfide gas that were trapped beneath bogs and wetlands Answer: A Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.2.1: Explain why carbon is important and where it is found.

6) By definition, inorganic fertilizers do not contain ________.

A) either nitrogen or phosphorus B) nitrogen C) phosphorus D) carbon Answer: D Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.2.1: Explain why carbon is important and where it is found.

7) The largest pools of carbon in the carbon cycle are ________.

A) freshwater systems and oceans B) plants and animals C) carbonate rocks and oceans D) the atmosphere and land plants Answer: C Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.2.1: Explain why carbon is important and where it is found.

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8) Which of the following carbon reservoirs contains the least carbon?

A) The atmosphere B) Fossil fuels C) Carbonate rocks D) Oceans Answer: A Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.2.1: Explain why carbon is important and where it is found.

9) Plants grow as their cells manufacture new organic molecules. The carbon in the newly created organic molecules of these plants came from ________.

A) carbon dioxide in the air B) carbon dioxide released during the production of plant sugars C) proteins and carbohydrates absorbed by the roots of the plants D) carbon compounds absorbed from water Answer: A Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.2: Describe the major fluxes in the carbon cycle.

10) Cell respiration and photosynthesis are complex processes that ________.

A) result in the production of glucose B) release carbon dioxide C) generate oxygen from soil minerals D) involve the flux of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms Answer: D Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.2: Describe the major fluxes in the carbon cycle.

11) Since the beginning of the industrial revolution, the increased flux of carbon into the atmosphere has been primarily due to ________.

A) the burning of fossil fuels B) desertification C) the addition of fertilizers to the soil D) the addition of phosphate to detergents Answer: A Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.2, BC.2.3

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Use the following figure to answer the question below.

12) What is the most likely cause for the difference between the black and gray lines?

A) Ice cores do not trap enough CO2 to reliably represent the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere.

B) About 250 years ago, ice cores began to melt, releasing CO2 into the atmosphere.

C) Burning fossil fuels and deforestation have caused a substantial rise in atmospheric CO2 concentration in recent decades.

D) CO2 concentrations increase as altitude increases, causing the Mauna Loa observatory to overestimate CO2 concentrations, while ice cores tend to underestimate them.

Answer: C Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.3: Describe how human activity has altered the exchange of carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.

13) Cows release which of the following into the atmosphere?

A) N2 and NOx B) CO2 and CH4 C) SO2 D) Phosphorus, sulfur, carbon, and nitrogen Answer: B Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.4: Describe how human activity has increased the amount of CH4 in the atmosphere.

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14) Which of the following is required to keep Earth from warming more than the target set by the Paris Accord?

A) Changes in agriculture that would reduce concentrations of methane.

B) The fertilization of natural ecosystems to increase the flux of carbon out of the atmosphere and into plant life.

C) An immediate transition to no-carbon fuels and the removal of CO2 from the atmosphere.

D) Immediately stopping deforestation and planting new trees to replace the ones that were cut down.

Answer: C Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.6: Describe the trends influencing the global carbon cycle and explain what they mean for the cycle's future.

15) The atmosphere is about 78% ________, but it is in a form that plants cannot use.

A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) water vapor Answer: B Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.1: Explain why nitrogen is important and where it is found.

16) All of the following can be converted into acids in the atmosphere except ________.

A) NO B) NO2 C) N2 D) sulfur Answer: C Module: BC.3, BC.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.1, BC.5.1, BC.5.3 17) Sewage treatment plants often use the same denitrification process that occurs in soils and bodies of water. The process of denitrification involves ________.

A) the bubbling of oxygen into sewage B) the removal of oxygen from sewage C) the conversion of reactive nitrogen into unreactive nitrogen D) the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to reactive nitrogen Answer: C Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.3.2: Describe the major processes in the nitrogen cycle.

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18) Which of the following naturally convert(s) atmospheric nitrogen into reactive nitrogen?

A) Various industrial processes for making fertilizers B) Fossil fuel combustion C) Lightning and soil bacteria D) Denitrifying bacteria Answer: C Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.2: Describe the major processes in the nitrogen cycle.

19) Nitrogen fixation is a process that makes nitrogen available to plants and is carried out by ________.

A) plants during photosynthesis B) volcanic eruptions C) nitrogen gas dissolving in fresh water and in the ocean D) bacteria Answer: D Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.2: Describe the major processes in the nitrogen cycle.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

20) Of the following forms of nitrogen, which one is least useful to plants?

A) NH4+ B) N2O C) NO3− D) NH3 Answer: B Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BC.3.2: Describe the major processes in the nitrogen cycle.

21) Which step in the figure shows nitrogen fixation?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.3.2: Describe the major processes in the nitrogen cycle.

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22) All of the following can be taken in and used by plants except ________.

A) N2 B) PO43− C) NH4+ D) CO2 Answer: A Module: BC.2, BC.3, BC.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.2.2, BC.3.2, BC.4.2 23) The first step in changing atmospheric nitrogen into a reactive nitrogen compound is called ________.

A) nitrification B) nitrogen fixation C) denitrification D) ammonification Answer: B Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.2, BC.3.3 24) The largest natural fluxes of nitrogen between the atmosphere and the land or water are ________.

A) photosynthesis and nitrification B) nitrogen fixation and denitrification C) nitrification and denitrification D) photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation Answer: B Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.3: Describe the major fluxes in the nitrogen cycle.

25) The Haber—Bosch process creates nitrogen fertilizers by ________.

A) extracting reactive nitrogen from soils B) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia C) extracting nitrogen oxides from the gases produced when fossil fuels are burned D) allowing vegetative detritus to break down under anaerobic conditions Answer: B Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.3: Describe the major fluxes in the nitrogen cycle.

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26) The artificial method of fixing atmospheric nitrogen for plant growth is called the ________.

A) denitrification process B) nitrification process C) Haber-Bosch process D) net primary production Answer: C Module: BC.3 The Nitrogen Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.3.3: Describe the major fluxes in the nitrogen cycle.

27) Which of the following is often contained in runoff, which leads to fast algal growth and the death of fish populations?

A) Nitrogen and phosphorus B) Sulfur and nitrogen C) Carbon and phosphorus D) Carbon and nitrogen Answer: A Module: BC.3, BC.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.3.4, BC.4.5 28) Which one of the following statements about the carbon, phosphorus, and nitrogen cycles is true?

A) The major source of carbon used by plants is the soil.

B) The major source of nitrogen used by plants is the atmosphere.

C) Of the three, only the phosphorus cycle has no gaseous component.

D) Bacteria drive all three cycles.

Answer: C Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.4.1: Explain why phosphorus is important and where it is found.

29) Which of the following elements is found in soils and rocks but is virtually absent from Earth's atmosphere?

A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Oxygen D) Phosphorus Answer: D Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.4.1: Explain why phosphorus is important and where it is found.

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30) What natural flux has the largest role in transforming phosphorus into a form that organisms can use?

A) Weathering of rocks B) Decomposition of organic matter C) Deposition from the atmosphere D) Leaching from soils Answer: A Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.4.2: Describe the major fluxes in the phosphorus cycle.

31) What is the biggest alteration that humans have made to the phosphorus cycle?

A) Increasing the flux of phosphorus out of rocks.

B) Increasing the residence time of phosphorus in rocks.

C) Increasing the flux of phosphorus due to weathering.

D) Increasing the residence time of phosphorus in the atmosphere.

Answer: A Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.4.3: Describe how human activity has altered the phosphorus cycle.

32) Which one of the following is most likely to cause eutrophication of a waterway?

A) The burning of diesel containing high levels of sulfur B) The use of excess phosphorus fertilizer C) The eruption of a nearby volcano D) The release of carbon monoxide from a coal-burning power plant Answer: B Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.4.4: Describe the environmental impacts of phosphorus use.

33) Global supplies of ________ are expected to run out by the end of this century if demand continues to increase at its current rate, but changes in agricultural practices could extend supplies until the end of the next century.

A) Carbon fertilizer B) Phosphorus fertilizer C) Reactive sulfur D) Nitrogen fertilizer Answer: B Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.4.5: Describe the trends influencing the global phosphorus cycle and explain what they mean for the cycle's future.

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34) Which of the following statements about the sulfur cycle is false?

A) Most sulfur is found in rocks and minerals.

B) Unlike nitrogen and carbon, organisms do not require or contain sulfur.

C) Sulfur is released into the atmosphere when humans burn coal.

D) A natural source of sulfur in soils is the weathering of rocks.

Answer: B Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: BC.5.1, BC.5.3 35) Which of the following rarely limits plant growth and is only added to fertilizer in certain settings?

A) Nitrogen B) Phosphorus C) Carbon D) Sulfur Answer: D Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.5.1: Explain why sulfur is important and where it is found.

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Use the following figure to answer the question below.

36) This figure depicts what biogeochemical cycle?

A) Carbon B) Nitrogen C) Phosphorus D) Sulfur Answer: D Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BC.5.2: Describe the major fluxes in the sulfur cycle.

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37) What human activity contributes most to the release of sulfur into the atmosphere?

A) Burning wood for fuel B) Using automobiles C) Burning coal in power plants D) Cutting down trees Answer: C Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.5.3: Describe how human activity has altered the sulfur cycle.

Use the following figure to answer the question below.

38) The trends depicted in the figure are best explained by ________.

A) an increased use of fossil fuels, followed by a recent decreased use of fossil fuels B) an increased use of sulfur-containing fertilizers, followed by a recent replacement of those fertilizers with those that contain phosphorus and nitrogen rather than sulfur C) an increased use of fossil fuels for more than a century, followed reduced emissions in highly developed economies D) a growth and subsequent decline in the global human population Answer: C Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BC.5.3: Describe how human activity has altered the sulfur cycle.

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39) Which of these statements about sulfur emissions is false?

A) Reduced coal consumption in many countries is expected to reduce global sulfur emissions.

B) All fossil fuels contain sulfur, which is emitted when the fuel burns.

C) Through 2010, when highly developed economies were reducing sulfur emissions, developing economies were increasing emissions.

D) Sulfur emissions can be reduced by burning low-sulfur fuels or by removing sulfur from the gases produced when burning fossil fuels.

Answer: B Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.5.3: Describe how human activity has altered the sulfur cycle.

40) What happens after sulfur is emitted into the atmosphere?

A) It is converted to an acid that falls to the ground as acid precipitation.

B) It soon falls back to the ground, where it acts as a fertilizer in most regions.

C) After it falls to the ground, it enriches the soil by mobilizing other nutrients.

D) It acts as a greenhouse gas and contributes to global warming.

Answer: A Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.5.4: Describe the environmental impacts of sulfur use.

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41) This graph illustrates two possible futures for the amount of sulfur emitted into the atmosphere. What is the reason for the differences between the two projections?

A) Expansion of coal use for electricity generation in developed economies, which use more electricity per person than developing economies B) Rapid industrialization in developing economies, such as India and China C) Purposeful release of sulfur as a way to cool global climate D) Increasing use of natural gas, which is cheaper than coal, but contains more sulfur Answer: B Module: BC.5 The Sulfur Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.5.5: Describe the trends influencing the global sulfur cycle and explain what they mean for the cycle's future.

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BC.2 Essay Questions 1) Identify the human activities that negatively impact the phosphorus cycle, and explain their impacts.

Answer: Humans mine phosphorus to produce phosphorus fertilizers, artificially increasing the flux of phosphorus from rocks to plants. Excessive use of fertilizers can result in phosphorus (and nitrogen) running off into waterways, causing eutrophication, excessive algal growth, murkier waters, and zones of oxygen depletion, ultimately causing the suffocation and death of fish and other aquatic life. Phosphates can also increase in waterways as a result of livestock production when the waterways become contaminated with animal wastes, which contain high levels of phosphorus. Human wastes also contain concentrated amounts of phosphorus, and detergents and soaps can contain phosphorus. The resulting phosphorus in our wastewater is often not removed during the process of sewage treatment, and thus, surface waters receiving effluent from sewage treatment plants can become contaminated with excessive phosphorus.

Module: BC.4 The Phosphorus Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.4.4: Describe the environmental impacts of phosphorus use.

2) Give a brief overview of the terrestrial carbon cycle. Include the source of carbon that enters terrestrial ecosystems, how carbon moves through ecosystems, and how carbon ultimately leaves ecosystems. Explain how part of this cycle is believed to contribute to global climate change.

Answer: Plants take up CO2 from the atmosphere and then incorporate the carbon into sugars and tissues. Animals then eat plants and gain organic forms of carbon that can be used for energy and for building tissues and molecules such as proteins and DNA. When animals and plants die, their tissues are metabolized by decomposers, and the partially degraded biomass (especially from plants) is then deposited into soils, and eventually the material fully decomposes. At each stage along the way, some organic molecules are broken down, and carbon is released back to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide. The use of fossil fuels (organic materials buried long ago) causes stored CO2 to be released to the atmosphere. This is occurring at very high rates and is contributing to global warming.

Module: BC.2 The Carbon Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: BC.2.1, BC.2.2, BC.2.5

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3) Discuss the role of bacteria in the (a) carbon and (b) nitrogen cycles.

Answer: (a) Like all organisms, bacteria require organic molecules for energy, and during cellular respiration, they break the molecules down and release carbon dioxide. Many bacteria are decomposers and contribute to the breakdown of dead organisms, releasing some carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Some bacteria are photosynthetic and can thus fix atmospheric carbon in much the same way that plants do. (b) Bacteria play a vital role in the nitrogen cycle. Almost 80% of Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen (N2), but it is an unreactive form of nitrogen and cannot be directly taken in and used by plants or animals. It is the job of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in soil and water to convert this nitrogen into ammonia and ammonium ions (NH3 and NH4+), which can then be converted to NO3− by nitrifying bacteria. Plants and algae can take up these reactive forms of nitrogen and incorporate the nitrogen into organic molecules such as proteins and DNA. Other bacteria convert the nitrogen-containing organic molecules from decomposing organisms back into ammonia. Finally, there are denitrifying bacteria that convert reactive forms of nitrogen back into unreactive atmospheric N2, completing the cycle.

Module: BC.2, BC.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: BC.2.2, BC.3.2

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter F Fresh Water Availability and Pollution F.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Most of the water on the Earth is found ________.

A) in lakes and rivers B) in polar ice caps C) underground D) in oceans Answer: D Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.1.1: Identify where and in what forms water is found on Earth.

2) If only a tiny fraction of the total water available on the Earth is available as surface water, what is the main reason that humans haven't run out of this resource?

A) Natural processes recycle water from one reservoir to another, replenishing usable fresh water.

B) Desalinization plants are able to turn ocean water into drinkable fresh water.

C) People are able to melt glaciers and sea ice when freshwater supplies run low.

D) That small fraction is adequate for human needs.

Answer: A Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.1.1, F.1.2 3) All of the following are reasons why useable surface freshwater is so limited except ________.

A) most of the planet's water is too salty to be used efficiently B) the majority of our freshwater resources are frozen or located in pores and cracks of underground rock C) many of our freshwater resources cannot be used safely by humans D) global warming has dried up most of our global freshwater resources Answer: D Module: F.1, F.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: F.1.1, F.3.5 F.5.1

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4) Which of the following natural processes would have to occur for water in the oceans to become fresh water available for human use?

A) Evaporation and precipitation B) Transpiration, purification, and precipitation C) Precipitation and infiltration D) Evaporation and infiltration Answer: A Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.1.2: Describe how the hydrologic cycle maintains a supply of fresh water.

5) Which of the following pairs of processes are most similar?

A) Percolation and infiltration B) Transpiration and precipitation C) Precipitation and infiltration D) Evaporation and percolation Answer: A Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: F.1.2, F.1.3 6) All of the following processes involve the flux of water into the atmosphere except ________.

A) transpiration B) percolation C) sublimation D) evaporation Answer: B Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.1.3: Identify the main ways that water moves through a watershed.

7) A watershed is ________.

A) the area of land from which rainfall drains into rivers or lakes B) an inland basin that connects to another inland basin C) a river that drains into the sea D) a term used to describe water stored underground Answer: A Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.1.3: Identify the main ways that water moves through a watershed.

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8) Which of the following would cause a rising water table?

A) Increased precipitation B) Increased runoff C) Decreasing infiltration D) Groundwater depletion exceeding the recharge rate Answer: A Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.1.4: Identify the layers where water can be found below ground and provide descriptions of the physical characteristics of these layers.

9) Which of the following would cause a rising water table?

A) Increased precipitation B) Increased runoff C) Decreasing infiltration D) Groundwater depletion exceeding the recharge rate Answer: A Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.1.4: Identify the layers where water can be found below ground and provide descriptions of the physical characteristics of these layers.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

10) The graph depicts rainfall and stream discharge during a flood event along Peachtree Creek on December 24, 2002. Which of the following can be inferred from the graph?

A) Water levels in the creek returned to base levels by the end of the day (hour 24).

B) Most of the rain fell during the time period from 8 am to 5 pm (hours 8—17).

C) Creek water levels peaked 3—4 hours after the rain fell hardest.

D) Creek levels subsided as quickly as they rose.

Answer: C Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: F.2.1: Describe the physical characteristics of a stream.

11) The graph depicting stream discharge during the flood event along Peachtree Creek is called a ________.

A) flow chart B) hydrograph C) aquagraph D) precipitation graph Answer: B Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.2.1: Describe the physical characteristics of a stream.

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12) Where will you find a riparian zone?

A) Between topsoil and the water table B) In an aquifer C) In an area that has been heavily eroded because of the removal of vegetation D) Along a waterway Answer: D Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.2.2: Describe the characteristics of stream ecosystems.

13) In a freshwater lake, the ________ zone is characterized by a shallow depth and the presence of rooted vegetation.

A) littoral B) limnetic C) profundal D) thermocline Answer: A Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.2.3: Describe the characteristics of ponds, lakes, and artificial reservoirs.

14) Artificial wetlands ________.

A) are the major program for replacing lost natural wetlands B) purify water for use as bottled drinking water C) are a source of arsenic contamination in Bangladesh D) can help purify water and also provide wildlife habitat Answer: D Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.2.4: Describe the physical characteristics of wetlands and explain how these characteristics influence the function of the ecosystem.

15) Which of the following human activities has been most problematic for wetlands around the world?

A) The alteration of ocean current circulation resulting in erosion of wetlands B) Eutrophication caused by humans dumping pollutants into water C) Boat traffic that causes excess oil and gas to be dumped in waterways D) The draining and alteration of wetlands for agriculture and urban development Answer: D Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.2.4: Describe the physical characteristics of wetlands and explain how these characteristics influence the function of the ecosystem.

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16) Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph depicting recovery after wetland restoration?

A) It takes 10 to 20 years after wetland restoration for a wetland to perform all of the functions that the undisturbed wetland did.

B) Soils are more important to wetland restoration than are plants.

C) Soil organic matter and nutrient absorption are much easier to accomplish than improvements in biomass.

D) Plant biomass recovers relatively rapidly in restored wetlands.

Answer: D Module: F.2 Freshwater Ecosystems Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: F.2.4: Describe the physical characteristics of wetlands and explain how these characteristics influence the function of the ecosystem.

17) Humans use more fresh water for ________ than for any other purpose.

A) drinking and cooking B) washing and home use C) agriculture D) mining and industrial processes Answer: C Module: F.3 Human Uses of Fresh Water Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.3.1: Describe the different ways that humans use fresh water and the relative importance of water use in different sectors of the economy.

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18) What determines whether ground water is considered a renewable or nonrenewable source?

A) How fast it is used compared to how quickly it is replenished B) The depth of the water table C) How fast it is replenished compared to the amount of pollution entering it D) Whether the water is returned to its source or not Answer: A Module: F.3 Human Uses of Fresh Water Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.3.2: Describe the difference between renewable and nonrenewable freshwater resources.

19) The city of Orangeville, Iowa, gets all of its water from groundwater aquifers. If the residents of Orangeville cannot use its groundwater resources sustainably, all of the following potential consequences could occur except ________.

A) the land in the area may start to sink B) nearby rural wells may begin to dry up C) the water table may lower, and surface waters may begin to dry up D) pollutants in the groundwater aquifers may become more concentrated Answer: D Module: F.3, F.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: F.3.1, F.4.4 20) A specific example of nonconsumptive use of water is ________.

A) disposal of sewage wastewater B) agriculture C) commercial forestry D) cattle-grazing operations on federal lands Answer: A Module: F.3 Human Uses of Fresh Water Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.3.3: Compare and contrast consumptive and nonconsumptive uses of water.

21) Which of the following foods requires the most water to produce?

A) A glass of milk B) A hamburger sandwich C) A cup of coffee D) A tomato Answer: B Module: F.3 Human Uses of Fresh Water Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.3.4: Describe the concept of virtual water and how it applies to water use in agriculture.

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22) Which of these statements about water scarcity is correct?

A) Physical water scarcity is becoming increasingly common.

B) Economic scarcity occurs when there are no regulations on how much water companies are allowed to charge.

C) Water scarcity affects humans, but has little impact on ecosystems.

D) Water scarcity refers to the amount of water required for human needs, but does not factor in the purity of the water.

Answer: A Module: F.3 Human Uses of Fresh Water Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.3.5 23) Which of these statements about dams and reservoirs is false?

A) Reservoirs can be used to provide consistent water to stream systems that would otherwise be dry for part of the year.

B) Reservoirs can provide a source of water during periods of drought.

C) Tall dams capture water almost exclusively for residential and industrial use.

D) Some urban areas are too far from stream systems to rely on reservoirs.

Answer: C Module: F.4 Managing Fresh Water as a Resource Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.4.1: Describe how surface freshwater is captured for human use.

24) Groundwater as a water source may be better than surface water because ________.

A) groundwater may be naturally purified by percolation through soil and rock B) groundwater is a self-replenishing resource that cannot be exhausted C) surface water is not naturally self-replenishing D) groundwater is more easily located than surface water Answer: A Module: F.4 Managing Fresh Water as a Resource Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.4.2: Explain where groundwater is found and how it is extracted.

25) Which of these statements about groundwater is false?

A) The amount of groundwater used in the United States varies depending on the availability of surface water.

B) In many countries in the Middle East, groundwater supplies all residential uses.

C) The use of groundwater is never sustainable because the recharge rate is too slow.

D) The largest risk of groundwater depletion is residential use by fast-growing populations.

Answer: C Module: F.4 Managing Fresh Water as a Resource Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.4.2: Explain where groundwater is found and how it is extracted.

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26) The city of Orangeville, Iowa, gets all of its water from groundwater aquifers. Each of the city's 6,000 residents uses an average of 200 gallons of water daily. If the city's citizens wish to use water more sustainably, which one of the following would you recommend that its citizens do to conserve the most water in and around their homes?

A) Fix leaky faucets and shower heads B) Water their lawns in the afternoons, when the grass needs it the most C) Replace old toilets with ones using less water and flush their toilets less often D) Reduce the amount of water that they drink each day Answer: C Module: F.4 Managing Fresh Water as a Resource Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: F.4.4: Describe how water conservation can reduce water usage.

27) Desalination plants, such as the ones completed in El Paso and Tampa Bay, ________.

A) produce water as inexpensively as groundwater supplies B) are expensive and cannot be a sustainable source of water, given today's technologies C) produce enough water for local agricultural crops such as corn D) are used to convert seawater into drinking water Answer: D Module: F.4 Managing Fresh Water as a Resource Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.4.5: How do we get fresh water through desalination?

28) A septic system is ________.

A) a toxic or badly polluted waterway B) a rural method of handling sewage C) an early version of a wastewater treatment plant D) a second-level mechanism to remove bacteria at a wastewater treatment plant Answer: B Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.5.1: Explain how microorganisms and viruses enter and affect human use of fresh water and why this is a particular issue in developing economies.

29) All of the following are potential consequences of inadequate treatment of drinking water except ________.

A) contraction of gastrointestinal disease B) contamination of groundwater resources with harmful bacteria C) dehydration caused by drinking contaminated water D) drinking water that contains feces Answer: D Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.5.1: Explain how microorganisms and viruses enter and affect human use of fresh water and why this is a particular issue in developing economies.

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30) Which of these statements about toxic materials entering fresh water is false?

A) Contaminants can enter drinking water from older pipes used to carry the water.

B) Contaminants that are emitted into the air can affect fresh water.

C) Contaminants only enter fresh water from human-created sources.

D) Some contaminants are used to remove precious metals from water.

Answer: C Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.5.2: Explain how toxic chemicals enter and affect freshwater.

31) The fish in the lake at the local park are dying, so a professor from the local college comes to investigate. First, she measures the dissolved oxygen because she wants to check for the ________.

A) presence of heavy metals B) presence of bacteria C) possibility of eutrophication D) influence of acid precipitation Answer: C Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.5.3: Describe how nitrogen and phosphorus pollution affect fresh water.

32) Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of pollution?

A) Fertilizer-enriched runoff B) An industrial facility C) Municipal sewage treatment plant D) Water released from a paint manufacturer Answer: A Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.5.4: Explain why non-point sources are a challenge in controlling water pollution.

33) The people of the central Great Plains depend on the ________ aquifer for drinking water and agricultural needs.

A) Nebraska B) Omaha C) Trans Dakota-Texas D) Ogallala Answer: D Module: F.6 The Future of Fresh Water Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.6.2: Provide an overview of the state of global groundwater and explain why this resource is at risk of overuse or contamination in so many locations.

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34) Depletion of groundwater supplies can cause which of the following?

A) The overabundance of surface waters B) A rise in the water table C) The flooding of wetlands D) Land subsidence Answer: D Module: F.6 The Future of Fresh Water Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.6.2: Provide an overview of the state of global groundwater and explain why this resource is at risk of overuse or contamination in so many locations.

35) The city of Orangeville, Iowa, gets all of its water from groundwater aquifers. Each of the city's 6,000 residents uses an average of 200 gallons of water daily. If the city wishes to use its water sustainably, what would the total daily recharge rate of its aquifers have to be?

A) 1.2 million gallons per day B) 200 gallons per day C) 6,000 gallons per day D) 120 thousand gallons per day Answer: A Module: F.6 The Future of Fresh Water Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.6.2: Provide an overview of the state of global groundwater and explain why this resource is at risk of overuse or contamination in so many locations.

36) All of the following are predicted to occur in the near future except ________.

A) Lake Mead may dry up B) water conservation measures will allow the Ogallala Aquifer to become replenished C) large urban areas around the globe will grow quickly without the infrastructure needed for providing safe drinking water D) more battles over water rights will arise between urban centers and agriculture Answer: B Module: F.6 The Future of Fresh Water Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.6.2, F.6.3, F.6.4

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F.2 Essay Questions 1) Identify and describe the major fluxes of the hydrologic cycle.

Answer: The major fluxes of the hydrologic cycle include evaporation, transpiration, and precipitation. Evaporation involves the conversion of water from a liquid to gas form as water moves to the atmosphere from Earth's surface. Transpiration occurs as plants draw water from the soil into their roots and transport the water into their leaves, where it evaporates. Water vapor in the atmosphere eventually condenses and returns to the ground as precipitation in the form of rain, hail, sleet, or snow.

Module: F.1 The Hydrologic Cycle Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: F.1.2: Describe how the hydrologic cycle maintains a supply of fresh water.

2) Describe how excessive algae growth can occur in a freshwater ecosystem, and explain why it is a problem.

Answer: Such algae growth is caused by an excess of nutrients (especially nitrogen and/or phosphorus) in the waterway. As the algae die off, they provide organic material for decomposing bacteria. Because the bacteria need oxygen, the increased bacterial activity drives down levels of dissolved oxygen. Oxygen levels can drop too low to support fish and shellfish that require oxygen, leading to a loss of biodiversity and dramatic changes in aquatic ecosystems.

Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.5.3: Describe how nitrogen and phosphorus pollution affect fresh water.

3) Your friend is an avid gardener. She is concerned about the overuse of freshwater resources and asks for your advice on how to conserve water while still being able to enjoy her hobby.

Describe two water-conservation practices that your friend can incorporate into her gardening activities.

Answer: Landscaping and gardening can require a great deal of water, so your friend's concerns are valid. You should advise your friend to water her garden only at night or in the early morning, when direct water loss from evaporation would be minimal. When gardens are watered during the day, much of the water evaporates into the air and never even makes it to the roots of the plant. You should also advise your friend to try to deliver the water directly to the plant roots by using soaker hoses or a drip irrigation system, rather than spraying the water through the air.

You could also advise your friend to grow plants that are more drought-tolerant and can survive on the typical amount of rainfall for the area, without needing to be watered. Some people overwater their gardens, and it may be worth pointing out to your friend that she should water only when it appears that the plants need it.

Module: F.4 Managing Fresh Water as a Resource Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.4.4: Describe how water conservation can reduce water usage.

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4) Define water pollution, point-source pollution, and non-point—source pollution. Explain which of the two (point source or non-point source) is more difficult to regulate and currently poses the greater threat to freshwater resources?

Answer: Water pollution is the contamination of a water source with chemicals or pathogens that could potentially harm humans and the environment. Water pollution can be emitted from point sources–single large sources such as a pipe from a factory–or from non-point sources– widely distributed small sources, such as farms, city streets, and residential neighborhoods.

Many common activities give rise to non-point—source water pollution, including applying fertilizers and pesticides to lawns, applying salt to roads in winter, and changing automobile oil.

Because non-point—source pollution is difficult to pinpoint and monitor, it is much more difficult to regulate, and it is non-point—source pollution that poses the greater threat to water quality in the United States.

Module: F.5 Water Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: F.5.4: Explain why non-point sources are a challenge in controlling water pollution.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter A The Atmosphere and Air Pollution A.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The air you breathe is 78% ________.

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) nitrogen D) hydrogen Answer: C Module: A.1 Atmospheric Structure and Properties Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.1.1: Describe the composition of the atmosphere, including the primary gases and important trace gases.

2) Gases that interact with forms of energy in our atmosphere are called ________.

A) inert B) chemically reactive C) radiatively active D) chemically nonreactive Answer: C Module: A.1 Atmospheric Structure and Properties Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.1.2 Explain why gases present in small concentrations are important to the atmosphere, and describe how oxygen influences the removal of other contaminants from the atmosphere.

3) The molecules higher in the atmosphere are ________ than the molecules in the lower atmosphere.

A) less densely packed B) lighter C) more chemically reactive D) exerting more pressure Answer: A Module: A.1 Atmospheric Structure and Properties Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.1.2, A.1.3

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4) Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted on an area from the weight of the atmosphere above it. Pressure is often measured in pounds per square inch (psi) and in units called millibars (mb). Normal air pressure at sea level is approximately 14.7 psi or 1013 mb. At the top of Mount Everest, the air is only 33% as dense as it is at sea level, and the air pressure is approximately 333 mb. Denver, Colorado, at an elevation of 5,280 feet, has an average air pressure of 834 mb.

What would Denver's air pressure be in psi?

A) 8.34 psi B) 12.1 psi C) 14.7 psi D) 17.9 psi Answer: B Module: A.1 Atmospheric Structure and Properties Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: A.1.3: Describe the concept of atmospheric pressure, and explain how and why it changes through the atmosphere.

5) Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted on an area from the weight of the atmosphere above it. Pressure is often measured in pounds per square inch (psi) and in units called millibars (mb). Normal air pressure at sea level is approximately 14.7 psi or 1,013 mb. At the top of Mount Everest, the air is only 33% as dense as it is at sea level, and the air pressure is approximately 333 mb. Denver, Colorado, at an elevation of 5,280 feet, has an average air pressure of 834 mb. The air in Denver is ________ as dense as it is at sea level.

A) 67% B) 16% C) 82% D) 121% Answer: C Module: A.1 Atmospheric Structure and Properties Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: A.1.3: Describe the concept of atmospheric pressure, and explain how and why it changes through the atmosphere.

6) Temperature increases with altitude through most of the stratosphere because ________.

A) of the interaction between ozone and the sun's UV radiation B) sunlight is more intense in the stratosphere C) jet stream winds produce frictional heat D) greenhouse gases in the stratosphere warm the air Answer: A Module: A.1 Atmospheric Structure and Properties Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.1.4: Describe how temperature and pressure change through the atmosphere, and explain how this leads to the presence of distinct layers in the atmosphere.

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7) Air at the equator is much warmer than air at the North and South Poles. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to decrease the difference in temperature between the equator and poles?

A) Earth spinning without a seasonal tilt to its axis B) Earth rotating in the opposite direction C) Earth being completely covered with water D) Earth being completely covered by land Answer: C Module: A.2 Atmospheric Circulation Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: A.2.1: Explain why there is more solar radiation at the equator than at the poles 8) As air descends in a circulation cell, the air ________, and a ________-pressure region occurs where the air reaches Earth's surface.

A) warms; high B) warms; low C) cools; high D) cools; low Answer: A Module: A.2 Atmospheric Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.2.2, A.2.3 9) Within a Hadley cell, ________.

A) warm air rises and cool air falls B) cool air rises and warm air falls C) warm water rises and cool water falls D) cool water rises and warm water falls Answer: A Module: A.2 Atmospheric Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.2.3: Describe the three global atmospheric circulation patterns that move energy from the tropics to the poles (Hadley, Ferrel, polar cells), and explain what these mean for global climate (e.g., location of deserts).

10) Near the equator, the atmospheric circulation patterns are called ________.

A) Coriolis cells B) Hadley cells C) high-pressure cells D) Ferrel cells Answer: B Module: A.2 Atmospheric Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.2.3: Describe the three global atmospheric circulation patterns that move energy from the tropics to the poles (Hadley, Ferrel, polar cells), and explain what these mean for global climate (e.g., location of deserts).

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11) The Coriolis effect contributes to ________.

A) global wind patterns B) global warming C) increased acidic deposition D) the destruction of the ozone layer Answer: A Module: A.3 Winds and Weather Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.3.1: Explain how the movement of air in the atmosphere and the rotation of Earth influence the direction of winds (the Coriolis effect).

12) The Coriolis effect ________.

A) results in the formation of stratospheric ozone B) is caused by the gravitational pull of the sun and the Moon C) results in seasonal temperature fluctuations across the globe D) is caused by Earth's rotational forces Answer: D Module: A.3 Winds and Weather Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.3.1: Explain how the movement of air in the atmosphere and the rotation of Earth influence the direction of winds (the Coriolis effect).

13) Winds carry air from ________.

A) areas of high pressure toward areas of low pressure B) areas of low pressure toward areas of high pressure C) areas of high temperature toward areas of low temperature D) areas of low temperature toward areas of high temperature Answer: A Module: A.3 Winds and Weather Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.3.2: Describe the location and general causes of major global wind patterns.

14) Jet streams are strong ________ that flow from ________.

A) ocean currents; continent to continent B) air currents; west to east C) ocean currents; the equator toward higher latitudes D) air currents; the equator toward higher latitudes Answer: B Module: A.3 Winds and Weather Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.3.3: Explain what a jet stream is and where it forms.

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15) Storms occur when small differences in temperature and pressure create areas of ________.

A) high pressure B) a jet stream C) low pressure D) atmospheric circulation cells Answer: C Module: A.3 Winds and Weather Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.3.4: Define a storm and describe its basic characteristics, including associated pressure and precipitation.

16) Which of the following statements is the most logical?

A) "I just shoveled 12 inches of climate off my driveway."

B) "I like the weather in Iowa. I just don't like the climate."

C) "Climate happens all the time. Weather just happens when you're paying attention."

D) "We can pretty well predict climate ourselves. We need professionals to predict weather."

Answer: D Module: A.4 Weather: Means and Extremes Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: A.4.2: Compare and contrast weather and climate, and explain why weather is challenging to forecast.

17) The huge dust storms that took place in the southern plains of the United States in the 1930s ________.

A) were triggered by tornados and were worsened by global climate change B) were caused by abnormally warm waters in the central Pacific Ocean C) were the result of a prolonged drought and poor farming techniques D) were the result of ozone depletion and acid precipitation killing off vegetation Answer: C Module: A.4 Weather: Means and Extremes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.4.3: Explain why variance and extremes in weather are important to human populations.

18) Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to nitrogen oxides ________.

A) when fossil fuels are burned at high combustion temperatures B) when fertilizers containing nitrogen are applied to farm fields C) by using catalytic converters on automobiles D) in a photochemical reaction with ozone Answer: A Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.1: Explain what the nitrogen oxides are and where they come from, and describe their fate in the atmosphere.

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19) Average NO2 concentration has been reduced by 50% over the last 35 years. What is the most likely reason that the decline in concentration has recently leveled off?

A) The United States has recently met the EPA's national standard for NO2 concentration and no incentive to reduce it more.

B) People have switched to fuels that contain less nitrogen.

C) As the United States has reached the EPA's standard for NO2 concentration, it has closed the majority of monitoring stations.

D) A certain amount of NO2 is required in atmosphere to maintain the pH of precipitation.

Answer: A Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: A.5.1: Explain what the nitrogen oxides are and where they come from, and describe their fate in the atmosphere.

20) The main pollutants that cause acid precipitation are ________.

A) tropospheric ozone and carbon monoxide B) sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides C) lead and sulfur dioxide D) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide Answer: B Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.1. A.5.2 21) What two pollutants are the primary causes of acid precipitation?

A) NOx and N2O B) Ozone and SO2 C) SO2 and NOx D) Ozone and lead Answer: C Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.1, A.5.2 22) In addition to the previous measures, the most recent reduction in atmospheric SO2 emissions is due to ________.

A) increasingly strict national standards for SO2 concentration B) low sulfur fuel for cars and trucks C) the United States' renewed involvement in the Paris climate accord D) decreased use of coal for electricity generation Answer: D Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.2: Explain what the sulfur oxides are and where they come from, and describe their fate in the atmosphere.

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23) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

A) Sulfur dioxide B) Lead C) Carbon monoxide D) Sulfuric acid Answer: D Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: A.5.2, A.5.3 24) Tropospheric ozone forms from reactions involving ________.

A) volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and nitrogen oxides B) atmospheric nitrogen and atmospheric oxygen C) tropospheric CFCs and stratospheric ozone D) stratospheric ozone and jet stream winds Answer: A Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.3: Explain what tropospheric ozone is and where it comes from, and describe its fate in the atmosphere.

25) Why has O3 concentration in the troposphere been more difficult to control than other pollutants?

A) O3 in the troposphere is replenished from O3 in the stratosphere.

B) O3 is a secondary pollutant resulting from complex reactions that cannot be traced back to specific sources.

C) Tropospheric O3 absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation, and regulations are aimed at increasing it, rather than reducing it.

D) O3 is not a criteria pollutant, so it is not regulated.

Answer: B Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.3: Explain what tropospheric ozone is and where it comes from, and describe its fate in the atmosphere.

26) Which of the following is a primary pollutant?

A) Ozone B) Sulfuric acid C) Nitric acid D) Lead Answer: D Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: A.5.3, A.5.5

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27) Coal mines and coal processing facilities are required to minimize the amount of coal dust emitted during mining, processing, and transporting the coal. The regulations controlling coal dust emissions would mainly prevent ________.

A) lung damage to those working at the plant and living nearby B) acid precipitation in the region C) wasting coal that can be reclaimed and burned to produce electricity D) coal "fog" that can cause traffic fatalities Answer: A Module: A.5, A.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: A.5.4, A.6.2 28) Much progress in reducing atmospheric levels of lead pollution has resulted from ________.

A) the elimination of leaded gasoline B) the switch from lead to graphite in pencils C) the development of new types of batteries that use lithium instead of lead D) new types of lead scrubbers on smokestacks that removed lead from the power plant emissions Answer: A Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.5: Explain what lead is and where it comes from, and describe its fate in the atmosphere.

29) Lead pollution is a problem because lead ________.

A) is a precious metal, and it is being lost to the atmosphere B) will cause the ozone hole to increase C) causes central nervous system damage in humans D) forms an acid in the atmosphere, resulting in acid precipitation Answer: C Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.5: Explain what lead is and where it comes from, and describe its fate in the atmosphere.

30) Several members of a family die of carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following is the most likely source of the carbon monoxide?

A) A nearby coal-fired power plant B) A faulty furnace C) A backyard bonfire D) A faulty electric space heater Answer: B Module: A.5 The Major Types of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.5.6: Explain what carbon monoxide is and where it comes from, and describe its fate in the atmosphere.

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31) Which of the following symptoms most closely matches the known physiological effects of carbon monoxide?

A) Lung irritation and bronchitis B) Inflammation of the eyes, nasal passages, and skin C) Feeling tired D) Skin cancer Answer: C Module: A.5, A.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: A.5.6, A.6.2 32) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant in the troposphere but a beneficial component of the stratosphere?

A) Ozone B) Nitrogen oxides C) Carbon monoxide D) Carbon dioxide Answer: A Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.1: Explain how the residence time and eventual fate of air pollution in the atmosphere affects the potential impacts it will have.

33) Inhaling PM 2.5 is most likely to cause ________.

A) depletion of the ozone layer B) damage to alveoli in the lungs C) brain damage D) hallucinations Answer: B Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.2: Explain the major ways in which air pollution harms human health.

34) Carbon monoxide ________.

A) causes ozone depletion B) is a major component of the atmosphere C) blocks oxygen transport in human blood D) is produced by plants during photosynthesis E) is consumed by plants for photosynthesis Answer: C Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.2: Explain the major ways in which air pollution harms human health.

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35) During the 1990s, damaging acid precipitation in the United States occurred predominantly ________.

A) in the Northeast B) in the Midwest C) in western states such as Nevada and California D) in southern states such as Texas and Louisiana Answer: A Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.3: Describe how air pollution can affect property and ecosystems.

36) Which one of the following would contribute most to acid precipitation falling in the northeastern United States?

A) Nuclear power plants in the region B) Coal-fired power plants in the Midwest C) Coal-fired power plants in northeastern Canada D) Ozone forming during morning rush hour in Buffalo, New York Answer: B Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.3: Describe how air pollution can affect property and ecosystems.

37) Which atmospheric pollutant increased in recently after many years of decline?

A) Sulfur oxides B) Nitrogen oxides C) Lead D) Particulate matter Answer: D Module: A.7 The Reduction of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.7 The Reduction of Air Pollution 38) Catalytic converters are used to control emissions of ________.

A) carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides B) carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas C) carbon monoxide and sulfur dioxide D) carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides Answer: A Module: A.7 The Reduction of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.7.1: Explain how air pollution issues associated with vehicles that use gasoline-burning engines (such as automobiles) can be addressed via pollution control equipment.

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39) ________ are used to remove sulfur oxides from the emissions from coal-fired power plants.

A) CFCs B) Scrubbers C) Catalytic converters D) Desulfinators Answer: B Module: A.7 The Reduction of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.7.2: Explain how air pollution issues associated with electricity generation are addressed, including scrubbing of coal plant emissions and switching from coal to natural gas.

40) Increases in fossil fuel combustion in vehicles and power plants have caused considerable increases in air pollution in ________ economies, while many ________ economies have large problems with indoor as well as outdoor air pollution.

A) developing; developing B) developing; developed C) developed; developing D) developed; developed Answer: A Module: A.7 The Reduction of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.7.3: Compare pollution control measures in highly developed and less developed economies of the world, and identify the major problem areas in both cases.

41) Improved air quality in ________ will require an investment in pollution control equipment and ________.

A) developing; indoor air purification technology B) developed; indoor air purification technology C) both developed and developing; changes in vehicle technology D) developing; changes in vehicle technology Answer: C Module: A.7 The Reduction of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.7.3: Compare pollution control measures in highly developed and less developed economies of the world, and identify the major problem areas in both cases.

42) The ozone layer is in what layer of the atmosphere?

A) Mesosphere B) Thermosphere C) Stratosphere D) Troposphere Answer: C Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.1: Describe the role of ozone in the stratosphere.

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43) In the 1970s and 1980s, CFCs were widely used in ________.

A) snowmobiles and motorcycles B) refrigerators and aerosol cans C) light bulbs and electronics D) coal-fired power plants Answer: B Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.2: Explain how compounds such as CFCs can cause the loss of ozone.

44) Stratospheric ozone destruction involves a complex series of reactions. The first significant reaction involves ________.

A) O3 reacting directly with CFCs B) ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunlight causing Cl atoms to break free from CFCs C) O3 reacting with industrial sulfuric acid D) UV radiation from sunlight breaking apart O3 molecules Answer: B Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.2: Explain how compounds such as CFCs can cause the loss of ozone.

45) The greatest loss of stratospheric ozone ________.

A) occurred after the Montreal Protocol failed to be ratified B) occurs in urban areas where automobile use is most prevalent C) has occurred over Antarctica D) is expected to occur in the mid-21st century Answer: C Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.3: Describe what parts of the atmosphere have ozone depletion, and how atmospheric ozone is changing.

46) Which of the following health problems is most closely associated with the thinning of Earth's ozone layer?

A) Blindness B) Heart disease C) Skin cancer D) Skin irritations Answer: C Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.3: Describe what parts of the atmosphere have ozone depletion, and how atmospheric ozone is changing.

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47) The Montreal Protocol ________.

A) addressed transnational movement of acid-forming pollutants B) developed the framework for reduction of carbon dioxide in the United States and Canada C) resulted in significant reduction in the production of CFCs by signatory nations D) is an example of a failed attempt to reduce international air pollution Answer: C Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.4: Explain what is being done to slow the decline in stratospheric ozone.

48) The size of the ozone hole in 2019 was the ________ on record up to that point, and the middle latitudes are expected to return to 1980 levels around 2030. Stratospheric ozone is expected to return to 1980 levels over Antarctica ________.

A) smallest; around 2060 B) smallest; around 2030 C) largest; around 2060 D) largest; around 2030 Answer: A Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.4: Explain what is being done to slow the decline in stratospheric ozone.

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A.2 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the objective and success of the 1987 Montreal Protocol.

Answer: The objective of the Montreal Protocol was to reduce the use of CFCs, which were contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer, the loss of which would increase the global prevalence of skin cancer. The world community came together in 1987 to craft the Montreal Protocol, which has been ratified by most countries. As a result of the protocol, CFC production has been phased out and replaced by more ozone-friendly compounds. The Montreal Protocol is viewed as one of the most successful international environmental treaties ever signed.

Module: A.8 The Loss of Stratospheric Ozone Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.8.4: Explain what is being done to slow the decline in stratospheric ozone.

2) Describe the distinction between a primary pollutant and a secondary pollutant. Give an example of a primary pollutant and an example of a secondary pollutant. Explain the source(s) and effect(s) of each of these pollutants, and describe recent U.S. trends in atmospheric concentrations of each.

Answer: A primary pollutant is a chemical contaminant that is directly released from its source, while a secondary pollutant is formed via reactions between primary pollutants and other gases in the atmosphere.

Lead is one example of a primary pollutant. Until its use was eliminated in 1996, lead was added to gasoline as a way to improve engine performance. Although its concentrations in the United States have been declining, lead is still released from fossil fuel combustion in power plants and from industrial processes such as lead smelters, solid waste incineration facilities, and lead-acid battery producers. Lead interferes with nervous system function and can cause brain damage.

Tropospheric ozone (O3) is one example of a secondary pollutant. Tropospheric ozone forms from a series of reactions that involve VOCs and NOx. Ozone irritates respiratory tissue and can cause breathing difficulty. Ozone can also cause damage to leaf tissue. Ozone concentrations have been declining in the United States, but not as rapidly as the decline in other pollutants.

Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.2, A.6.3 3) Explain how acid precipitation forms, and describe the impacts of acid precipitation on the environment.

Answer: Acid precipitation is a secondary pollutant formed in the atmosphere when sulfur and nitrogen oxides dissolve in water to produce sulfuric acid and nitric acid. Acid precipitation can affect both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems, in addition to human-made structures. Acid precipitation can acidify streams and lakes, leading to the death of fish and other aquatic species.

Trees are negatively impacted by acid precipitation when acidic rainwater causes harmful changes to soils. Acid precipitation is particularly damaging to stone structures, gradually dissolving away buildings, gravestones, and historic architecture.

Module: A.6 The Health and Ecological Impacts of Air Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: A.6.3: Describe how air pollution can affect property and ecosystems.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter O Oceans O.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is a key source of ions found in ocean water?

A) The ions originate from marine organisms that have decomposed on the bottom of the ocean.

B) The ions originate from salts contained in rainwater.

C) The ions are produced in the process of evaporation of ocean water.

D) The ions originate from the weathering of rocks on land.

Answer: D Module: O.1 The Structure and Composition of the Oceans Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.1.2: Describe the composition of ocean water and explain how the salinity level is controlled in the ocean.

2) Which of the following statements most accurately describes temperature and density patterns in Earth's oceans?

A) Density and temperature generally increase with depth.

B) Density generally increases and temperature generally decreases with depth.

C) The densest and warmest waters are found in the tropics.

D) Warm tropical waters are denser than waters at high latitudes.

Answer: B Module: O.1 The Structure and Composition of the Oceans Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.1.3, O.1.4

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

3) Which of the following is the best explanation for the relationship between salinity and depth in the mixed layer?

A) Salt water is less dense than fresh water, so water with the highest salt content would rise to the surface.

B) Salt is only slightly soluble in cold water, so salinity always decreases with water temperature.

C) Warm water is evaporating at the surface, so the water becomes saltier at the surface.

D) The increase in density and pressure with depth causes salt to precipitate out of the water, so the water becomes less salty with depth in the mixed layer.

Answer: C Module: O.1 The Structure and Composition of the Oceans Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation, Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.1.4: Describe how variation in temperature and salinity determine ocean water density, and explain how density gradients create distinct layers within the ocean.

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4) In what ocean are you least likely to find the patterns shown in the figure?

A) Indian Ocean B) Arctic Ocean C) Atlantic Ocean D) Pacific Ocean Answer: B Module: O.1 The Structure and Composition of the Oceans Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.1.4: Describe how variation in temperature and salinity determine ocean water density, and explain how density gradients create distinct layers within the ocean.

5) Which of the following can be inferred from the information in the figure?

A) Salinity closely relates to water temperature.

B) Water pressure affects both salinity and water temperature.

C) Light can penetrate oceans to a depth of only 1500m.

D) Cold water is denser than warm water.

Answer: D Module: O.1 The Structure and Composition of the Oceans Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: O.1.4: Describe how variation in temperature and salinity determine ocean water density, and explain how density gradients create distinct layers within the ocean.

6) If ocean water traveling in a current warms from 10 to 20 °C, it would ________.

A) decrease in density B) decrease in pH C) decrease in salinity D) dissolve increased amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere Answer: A Module: O.2 The Currents and Circulation of the Oceans Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.2.2: Describe how temperature and salinity gradients drive the thermohaline circulation.

7) As water in the Gulf Stream travels toward northern Europe, it becomes ________.

A) saltier and colder B) colder and less dense C) less salty, less dense, and warmer D) saltier, less dense, and warmer Answer: A Module: O.2 The Currents and Circulation of the Oceans Skill: Application/Analysis, Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.2.2: Describe how temperature and salinity gradients drive the thermohaline circulation.

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8) Where will you find the Gulf Stream?

A) Off the east coast of the United States B) In the Gulf of Mexico C) Along the Gulf Coast of the United States, where rivers feed into the ocean D) In the upper atmosphere Answer: A Module: O.2 The Currents and Circulation of the Oceans Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.2.2: Describe how temperature and salinity gradients drive the thermohaline circulation.

9) How would the increased melting of Arctic glaciers caused by global climate change affect thermohaline circulation? The increased melting of Arctic glaciers would increase the flow of ________ into the Arctic Ocean, resulting in ________.

A) fresh water; decreased salinity and density of the Arctic Ocean B) cold water; increased density of the Arctic Ocean C) water; rising sea levels and reversing the thermohaline circulation patterns D) ions; increased salinity and density of the Arctic Ocean Answer: A Module: O.2 The Currents and Circulation of the Oceans Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.2.2, O.2.3 10) The ________ zone forms the boundary between marine ecosystems and terrestrial environments.

A) pelagic B) photic C) intertidal D) benthic Answer: C Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.1: Describe the major zones of the ocean and their characteristics.

11) What is the name of the area of the ocean in the shallow water bordering continents?

A) Continental zone B) Reef zone C) Coastal zone D) Surface zone Answer: C Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.1: Describe the major zones of the ocean and their characteristics.

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12) Hydrothermal vents ________.

A) create ocean currents B) provide chemicals to bacteria that support ecosystems on the ocean floor C) occur in tropical areas at the ocean surface D) help make the photic zone the most productive area of the oceans Answer: B Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.1, O.3.4 13) What is the source of energy used by primary producers living in the abyssal zone?

A) Organic material falling from above B) Sunlight C) Sulfur compounds D) Primary producers cannot live in the abyssal zone.

Answer: C Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.1, O.3.4 14) In which of the following zones would you be least likely to find phytoplankton?

A) Coastal zone B) Pelagic zone C) Abyssal zone D) Photic zone Answer: C Module: O.3, O.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.3.1, O.4.2 15) Although the loss rates have slowed recently, development, fuelwood harvesting, and rising sea levels have made ________ one of the most threatened ecosystems on Earth.

A) deltas B) estuaries C) mangrove forests D) intertidal zones Answer: C Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.2: Provide some of the characteristics of the coastal zone, and explain why it is important to humans.

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16) Why is the area between land and ocean important to protect?

A) It is an excellent place for development since few organisms can survive the mix of salt and fresh water.

B) It provides habitat for diverse bird populations and nurseries for fish and other economically valuable species.

C) It provides protection against rising sea levels.

D) It is a very productive area and makes good farmland.

Answer: B Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.2: Provide some of the characteristics of the coastal zone, and explain why it is important to humans.

17) In addition to increasing atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide, humans are negatively impacting coral reefs by ________.

A) overharvesting, coastal development, and pollution B) using large amounts of coral rock to pave roads and build houses C) destroying large regions of coral reefs for commercial aquaculture and to produce coral skeletons for display D) reef fertilization and the introduction of alien species to increase productivity Answer: A Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.3: Describe the global distribution of coral reefs, and explain the major threats to this ecosystem.

18) Most coral reefs are located in shallow water because below this depth, ________.

A) water temperatures are too cold for coral to grow B) water currents are too fast for coral to colonize C) sunlight levels are too low to sustain the photosynthetic algae living within the coral exoskeleton D) there is not enough oxygen Answer: C Module: O.3 Marine Ecosystems Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.3.3: Describe the global distribution of coral reefs, and explain the major threats to this ecosystem.

19) Coral reef populations are threatened by all of the following except ________.

A) increased ocean acidity B) coastal development C) increased ocean temperatures D) parasitic algae that break down calcium carbonate Answer: D Module: O.3, O.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.3, O.7.2 6 .

20) In general, coral reef ecosystems are ________.

A) not heavily fished because fishing gear often becomes entangled and damaged by the reefs B) in critical condition in the Caribbean, but healthy elsewhere C) recovering quickly from human-caused damage because corals grow quickly D) sensitive to pollution and decreasing ocean pH Answer: D Module: O.3, O.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.3, O.7.2 21) All of the following would be classified as nekton except ________.

A) sea otters B) sharks C) lobsters D) whales Answer: C Module: O.4 Marine Primary Productivity and Food Webs Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.4.1: Construct a basic food web, and describe the major categories of marine life.

22) Which of the following statements about ocean productivity is true?

A) Limestone (calcium carbonate) is the source of carbon that enters the marine food web.

B) Ocean productivity is highest in the aphotic zone.

C) Sunlight and the availability of nutrients are two factors that regulate ocean productivity.

D) Productivity decreases in upwelling zones because the colder temperatures of the waters slow the process of photosynthesis.

Answer: B Module: O.4 Marine Primary Productivity and Food Webs Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.4.2: Explain what factors control primary productivity in the ocean.

23) Upwelling ________.

A) occurs in areas where there are no currents B) is the flow of warm water up toward the ocean surface C) results in areas of high primary productivity at the ocean surface D) transports oxygen up toward the ocean surface Answer: C Module: O.4 Marine Primary Productivity and Food Webs Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.4.3: Examine spatial patterns in global marine productivity, and identify the factors responsible for variation in productivity (for example, link to upwelling, temperature, etc.).

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24) The global fish harvest was around 100 million tons in 1990 and grew to almost 180 million tons in 2010. This growth of the global fish harvest has mostly been due to increases in ________.

A) the use of aquaculture B) volumes of the major rivers of the world C) ocean temperature D) saltwater capture fisheries Answer: A Module: O.5 Fisheries Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.5.1: Define the concept of a fishery, and explain the differences between natural and farmed fisheries.

25) The practice of aquaculture provides which of the following?

A) Tomatoes grown in troughs of nutrient-enriched water B) Salmon raised in pens along the coast of Norway C) Coral jewelry such as necklaces D) Anchovies caught off the coast of Peru Answer: B Module: O.5 Fisheries Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.5.1: Define the concept of a fishery, and explain the differences between natural and farmed fisheries.

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26) The fishing method shown in this figure ________.

A) is an effective way to prevent overharvesting of commercial species B) is specially designed to prevent damage to the seafloor C) can be used for capturing lobster D) selectively harvests a single species of fish Answer: C Module: O.5 Fisheries Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.5.2: Explain how technology and demand has led to overfishing, and why this threatens global fisheries.

27) What happens when fish populations begin to collapse in an area?

A) Fishing fleets move to different areas and may target different species.

B) The countries that own the overfished waters come together to set regulations restricting the amount of fishing allowed.

C) Since all areas of the ocean are controlled by a nation or a corporation, it depends on the owner to decide what changes to make.

D) The fishing fleet will generally switch to another method, such as long lines that don't capture non-target species as often.

Answer: A Module: O.5 Fisheries Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.5.2: Explain how technology and demand has led to overfishing, and why this threatens global fisheries.

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28) Marine protected areas are ________.

A) areas around certain coral reefs where restoration efforts are taking place B) areas along countries' coastlines that are protected from intrusions by foreign fishing fleets C) places in the oceans where fishing and other human activities are restricted D) opposed by most environmentalists because the protected areas are ineffective at protecting fish, since fishing is often still allowed Answer: C Module: O.5 Fisheries Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.5.3: Describe how fisheries can be made more sustainable through regulations and consumer actions.

29) Which of the following is an example of non-point-source pollution?

A) Fertilizer-enriched runoff from agricultural fields B) Wastes from an industrial facility C) Sewage from a municipal sewage treatment plant D) Trash dumped from a ship Answer: A Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.1: Describe the major ways that pollution enters the ocean.

30) Which of the following is true of eutrophication in marine ecosystems?

A) Eutrophication can kill fish.

B) Eutrophication can aid corals by killing parasites.

C) Eutrophication is rare and occurs only in bad weather.

D) Eutrophication aids the ecosystems by providing needed limiting nutrients, such as phosphorus.

Answer: A Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.2: Explain how excessive nutrient loading threatens marine ecosystems, and describe the causes of the problem.

31) Which one of the following scenarios is most likely to result in a body of water becoming hypoxic?

A) The overfishing of sharks B) The extraction of phytoplankton from the ocean to use as an ingredient in smoothies and health food drinks C) The overharvesting of oysters that would have filtered nutrients from ocean water D) An oil tanker running aground and seeping thousands of gallons of oil into the ocean Answer: C Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.6.2: Explain how excessive nutrient loading threatens marine ecosystems, and describe the causes of the problem.

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32) Which of the following is a characteristic of a marine dead zone?

A) Abnormally salty or silty waters B) Undersea volcanic activity C) A low concentration of oxygen D) Low nitrogen and phosphorus levels Answer: C Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.2: Explain how excessive nutrient loading threatens marine ecosystems, and describe the causes of the problem.

33) A hypoxic zone is most likely to directly kill which of the following?

A) Zooplankton B) Primary producers such as phytoplankton and seaweed C) Oysters and crabs D) Marine mammals such as dolphins and whales Answer: C Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.6.2: Explain how excessive nutrient loading threatens marine ecosystems, and describe the causes of the problem.

34) Which of the following most accurately describes the process by which a dead zone occurs?

A) Nutrient runoff leads to increased growth of aquatic algae and plants, which remove oxygen from water in order to photosynthesize. Fish and other marine organisms are thus robbed of the oxygen they need.

B) Overharvesting and poor fishing techniques create areas devoid of life within the ocean.

C) Fertilizers and pesticides are carried from cities and farmland to the oceans, where these pollutants kill fish and other marine organisms, creating a zone devoid of life near shore.

D) Increased nutrients lead to increased growth of algae and plants. When these organisms die, decomposers use oxygen in the water to break down the dead organisms. Fish and other marine organisms are thus robbed of the oxygen they need.

Answer: D Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.2: Explain how excessive nutrient loading threatens marine ecosystems, and describe the causes of the problem.

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35) How do the effects of nutrients in upwellings compare to the effects of nutrients from agricultural runoff?

A) Both negatively impact marine ecosystems by causing hypoxia as a result of eutrophication.

B) Both positively impact marine ecosystems by delivering nutrients that support healthy levels of marine productivity.

C) Nutrients from agricultural runoff tend to positively impact marine ecosystems by delivering nutrients that support healthy levels of marine productivity, while upwellings tend to harm marine ecosystems by causing hypoxia as a result of eutrophication.

D) Upwellings tend to positively impact marine ecosystems by delivering nutrients that support healthy levels of marine productivity, while nutrients from agricultural runoff tend to harm marine ecosystems by causing hypoxia as a result of eutrophication.

Answer: D Module: O.2, O.6, O.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.2.1, O.6.2, O.8.3 36) The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is a region of the Pacific Ocean northeast of Hawaii where high concentrations of marine debris can be found. This debris includes easily visible large pieces of floating litter such as plastic bottles, along with vast quantities of easily-overlooked confetti-sized plastic particles suspended in the surface waters. Several such patches exist in the various oceans across the globe. What is the most logical explanation for the existence of these patches?

A) There are several locations in the middle of the oceans where it is legal to dump wastes.

B) The patches are found along shipping lanes where cruise ships illegally dispose of their garbage by throwing it overboard.

C) The rotation of the planet causes marine debris to be pulled toward the Equator, where most of these patches are found.

D) Currents circulate plastics and other debris until they accumulate in areas where currents are more sluggish.

Answer: D Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: O.6.3: Explain how sewage and solid waste discharge impacts marine ecosystems.

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37) The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is a region of the Pacific Ocean northeast of Hawaii where high concentrations of marine debris can be found. This debris includes easily visible large pieces of floating litter such as plastic bottles, along with vast quantities of easily overlooked confetti-sized plastic particles suspended in the surface waters. Several such patches exist in the various oceans across the globe. Which of the following materials is most likely to end up in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?

A) A barrel of hazardous waste illegally dumped off the coast of Chile B) A toy army soldier flushed down the toilet in Los Angeles, California C) A glass bottle discarded into a garbage can at a convenience store in Seattle, Washington D) Debris from a ship that capsized and sank in a storm off the coast of Japan Answer: D Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.6.3: Explain how sewage and solid waste discharge impacts marine ecosystems.

38) Which of the following oil spills was not caused by a tanker accident?

A) Valdez B) Deepwater Horizon C) Prestige D) All of the choices were tanker accidents.

Answer: B Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.4: Explain how small and large oil spills impact marine ecosystems.

39) Short-term impacts of oil spills include all of the following except ________.

A) risk of fire along coastlines where the flammable material has washed ashore B) suffocation of animals whose gills or lungs have been compromised with oil C) death of birds that have been immobilized by the oil coating their feathers D) death of vegetation along coastlines where the oil has washed ashore Answer: A Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.4: Explain how small and large oil spills impact marine ecosystems.

40) Long-term studies have found that oil spills cause persistent damage to all of the following except ________.

A) plankton populations B) coastal wetlands C) deep ocean coral D) seabird populations Answer: A Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.6.4: Explain how small and large oil spills impact marine ecosystems.

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41) Which of the following occurs when atmospheric concentrations of CO2 increase?

A) H+ from ocean water will diffuse and react with the CO2 in the atmosphere to create atmospheric carbonic acid, decreasing the acidity of the ocean.

B) CO2 will diffuse into the ocean, where H+ from ocean water will react with the CO2, decreasing the acidity of the ocean.

C) CO2 will diffuse into the ocean, where H+ from ocean water will react with the CO2, increasing the acidity of the ocean.

D) CO2 will diffuse into the ocean, where it reacts with H2O, producing carbonic acid.

Answer: D Module: O.7 Ocean Acidification Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.7.1: Explain how carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere enters the ocean, and why this increases acidity.

42) Increased atmospheric carbon dioxide threatens coral reefs by ________.

A) decreasing the temperature and increasing the pH of the oceans B) decreasing both the temperature and the pH of the oceans C) increasing the temperature and decreasing the pH of the oceans D) increasing both the temperature and the pH of the oceans Answer: C Module: O.3, O.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.3, O.7.2 43) Ocean acidification results in which of the following?

A) An increase in ocean pH, resulting in more calcium carbonate available for plankton and corals to build shells and exoskeletons B) A decrease in ocean pH, resulting in more calcium carbonate available for plankton and corals to build shells and exoskeletons C) An increase in ocean pH, resulting in less calcium carbonate available for plankton and corals to build shells and exoskeletons D) A decrease in ocean pH, resulting in less calcium carbonate available for plankton and corals to build shells and exoskeletons Answer: D Module: O.7 Ocean Acidification Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.7.2: Explain how rising acidity can affect the ability of marine organisms to construct shells, and the implications this may have for marine food webs and ecosystems.

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44) The climatic event that involves the exceptionally strong warming of the eastern Pacific is referred to as ________.

A) the Coriolis effect B) La Niña C) El Niño D) EPSWW (Eastern Pacific Shallow Water Warming) Answer: C Module: O.8 El Niño and La Niña Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.8.1: Describe how surface winds affect equatorial Pacific Ocean surface temperatures and ocean circulation.

45) Which of the following would occur during a La Niña event?

A) Trade winds strengthen, causing greater upwelling of cold water off the west coast of South America.

B) Trade winds strengthen, causing the waters in the tropical eastern Pacific to become warmer than normal.

C) Trade winds weaken, causing greater upwelling of cold water off the west coast of South America.

D) Trade winds weaken, causing droughts in the United States and Southeast Asia.

Answer: A Module: O.8 El Niño and La Niña Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.8.2, O.8.3

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O.2 Essay Questions 1) Explain how increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels affect coral reef ecosystems.

Answer: Increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels affect coral reefs in two ways. First, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes increased global air temperatures, resulting in the warming of oceans. The increase in ocean temperatures in coral reef ecosystems causes the loss of algae associated with coral reefs, resulting in coral bleaching. Without the algae, coral reefs do not grow as quickly and face a higher likelihood of death. Second, increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide will cause an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide dissolving in ocean water to form carbonic acid, thus increasing the concentrations of hydrogen ions in the oceans and lowering the ocean's pH. This acidification of ocean water decreases the availability of carbonate ions that corals need to build their exoskeletons. The exoskeletons of corals can actually dissolve if the water becomes too acidic.

Module: O.3, O.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.3.3, O.7.2 2) Give examples of point-source and non-point-source pollutants, and describe how each one affects marine ecosystems.

Answer: Point-source marine pollutants are those that can be traced back to a single source.

Large oil spills are a prime example of point-source pollution. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico spilled millions of gallons of oil into the Gulf. Such oil spills coat birds with oil and prevent them from being able to fly. The oil also suffocates animals, kills vegetation along coasts, and has toxic effects on marine ecosystems for years. Small-scale oil seepages and spills from myriad watercraft would be an example of a non-point-source pollutant. Another point-source pollutant would be municipal sewage released by a city into the ocean. Sewage contains pathogens harmful to humans and marine life, and it also contains high levels of nutrients that can cause eutrophication, potentially leading to hypoxic conditions and the death of marine life. Such conditions can also be caused by non-point-source pollution from fertilizers applied to agricultural fields. Excess fertilizers can run off into local waterways that flow into larger rivers that eventually flow into the oceans, thus adding nutrients such as phosphorus and nitrogen to marine ecosystems. Solid waste such as trash would generally be considered a nonpoint-source pollutant. Trash enters the ocean through various routes, such as blowing or washing from shore, accidental and intentional dumping from ships, and abandoned fishing lines and nets. Animals can become entangled in such debris, and many marine animals mistake the trash as food and ingest it, with disastrous consequences. Animals can choke on larger items, and smaller items can fill the stomachs of marine creatures, causing starvation.

Module: O.6 Ocean Pollution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: O.6.1, O.6.2, O.6.3, O.6.4

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3) Explain what causes El Niño and La Niña events. How does each one relate to equatorial surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean, and how do they relate to atmospheric pressure in the region? Explain how El Niño events affect fisheries in South America.

Answer: Changes in the temperature of surface waters in the tropical Pacific Ocean cause El Niño and La Niña events to occur. Unusually warm surface waters are associated with El Niño events, while La Niña events occur when the water is unusually cold. Under normal conditions, trade winds blow toward low-pressure zones in the Western Pacific, pushing warm water toward Indonesia. This pattern causes an upwelling of cold water along the coast of South America. The nutrients brought to the surface by the upwelling make this region very productive and the fisheries very successful under these conditions. La Niña events strengthen the trade winds and increase the upwelling of cold water off the coast of South America. During El Niño events, the atmospheric circulation patterns change so that the low-pressure area is located in the east instead of the west. This causes the trade winds to weaken, and the upwelling along the coast of South America to be reduced or even to stop. This has a strong negative impact on fisheries in that region.

Module: O.8 El Niño and La Niña Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: O.8.1, O.8.3

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter C Climate C.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following parts of the electromagnetic spectrum emitted by the sun has the strongest effect on climate?

A) Microwaves B) Visible light C) Gamma rays D) Far infrared radiation Answer: B Module: C.1 The Global Energy Balance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.1.1: Describe the properties of solar radiation, and explain which forms affect climate.

2) Greenhouse gases trap ________ in the atmosphere.

A) gamma radiation B) visible light C) ultraviolet radiation D) infrared radiation Answer: D Module: C.1 The Global Energy Balance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.1.2: Describe the processes that control Earth's energy balance.

3) Which of the following has the highest albedo?

A) A green tent B) A blacktop road C) A healthy oak tree D) A white car Answer: D Module: C.1 The Global Energy Balance Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.1.3: Explain how color affects the reflection and absorption of energy at the Earth's surface, and describe the role this plays in climate.

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4) Which of the following would cause a negative forcing?

A) An increase in the burning of fossil fuels, leading to an increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere B) Snow-covered ice sheets in Greenland melting and revealing bare rock C) A large volcanic eruption spewing ash high into the atmosphere, blocking sunlight around the world for years until the ash cloud slowly dissipates D) All of these scenarios would cause a negative forcing.

Answer: C Module: C.1, C.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.1.4, C.2.1 5) Which of the following would be classified as an aerosol?

A) CFCs B) Water vapor C) Gasoline fumes D) Ragweed pollen Answer: D Module: C.2 Energy Flow through the Atmosphere Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.2.1: Describe how greenhouse gases and aerosols function in the atmosphere (physical interaction with energy).

6) If the Earth had no atmosphere, ________.

A) less of the sun's energy would strike the Earth B) the surface of the Earth would be considerably colder C) the Earth would experience much larger and more severe storms D) the concentrations of the Earth's greenhouse gases would be much greater than they are Answer: B Module: C.2 Energy Flow through the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.2.2: Explain how the natural greenhouse effect makes Earth habitable, and differentiate between the climate impacts of long-lived and short-lived greenhouse gases.

7) Which of the following gases has the greatest global warming potential (GWP)?

A) CO2 B) Ozone C) CH4 D) N2O Answer: D Module: C.2 Energy Flow through the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.2.3: Identify the primary greenhouse gases, and describe the sources of these gases.

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8) Which of the following gases has the greatest impact on global climate change?

A) Methane B) Nitrous oxide C) Carbon dioxide D) Water vapor Answer: C Module: C.2 Energy Flow through the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.2.3: Identify the primary greenhouse gases, and describe the sources of these gases.

9) Carbon dioxide is ________.

A) the most abundant greenhouse gas B) more potent (per molecule of gas) than methane C) produced during the combustion of fossil fuels D) the only greenhouse gas presently increasing in the atmosphere Answer: C Module: C.2 Energy Flow through the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.2.3: Identify the primary greenhouse gases, and describe the sources of these gases.

10) Which of the following is the most abundant long-lived greenhouse gas in our atmosphere?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Nitrous oxide C) Water vapor D) Methane Answer: A Module: C.2, C.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.2.3, C.5.1 11) If you could hop in a time machine and go back hundreds of millions of years, which of the following are you unlikely to find when you step out of your time machine?

A) An Earth so warm that it lacked polar ice caps B) An Earth completely inundated by deep seas, lacking any land masses C) An Earth whose atmosphere contains eight times more carbon dioxide in its atmosphere than it does today D) An Earth with giant mountain ranges that hadn't eroded yet like today's mountains Answer: A Module: C.3 Earth's Climate History Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.3.1: Explain (in broad terms) how Earth's climate has changed over the past 500 million years, and the factors that may have influenced those changes.

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12) Which statement is not a reason that it is difficult to understand the causes and magnitude of climatic changes from 500 million years ago, or to compare them with modern climates?

A) There are fewer geologic records from that long ago.

B) The oceans and continents were in different locations.

C) There differences in the type and abundance of life on Earth.

D) The chemical reactions that were possible in the atmosphere were different that long ago.

Answer: D Module: C.3 Earth's Climate History Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.3.1: Explain (in broad terms) how Earth's climate has changed over the past 500 million years, and the factors that may have influenced those changes.

13) Milankovitch cycles ________.

A) refer to shifts in the temperature of surface water in the middle latitudes of the Pacific Ocean B) are changes in Earth's rotation and orbit around the sun that may trigger climate variation C) describe the interaction between Earth and the Moon that results in periods of rapid temperature variations D) describe the transpiration, evaporation, and precipitation of Earth's water Answer: B Module: C.3 Earth's Climate History Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.3.2: Describe the Earth's climate variations over the past million years, with a focus on the Milankovitch cycles and glacial/interglacial periods.

14) The Little Ice Age occurred from 1450 to 1850 during the relatively ________ Holocene.

During that time, temperatures were ________ colder than the 20th-century average.

A) warm; slightly B) warm; much C) cool; slightly D) cool; much Answer: A Module: C.3 Earth's Climate History Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.3.3: Explain how climate has changed over the past 12,000 years, and what caused some of the major changes in this period.

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15) All of the following would result in a positive feedback loop except ________.

A) an increase in global temperatures increases evaporation of surface waters, which increases the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere B) an increase in volcanic activity causes sulfate aerosols to be released into the atmosphere C) an increase in global temperatures causes people to use more electricity for air conditioning D) the melting of ice sheets in Greenland causes rocks that had previously been covered in ice and snow to be exposed to sunlight Answer: B Module: C.3 Earth's Climate History Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.3.4: Describe the concept of positive feedback, and explain why it is important for understanding climate change.

16) Global temperature trends can be reconstructed from proxy records such as ________ and ________.

A) lake sediments; gases trapped in glacial ice cores B) the frequency of volcanic eruptions; fossils C) fossils; sea level records D) the frequency of volcanic eruptions; gases trapped in glacial ice cores Answer: A Module: C.4 Modern Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.4.1: Describe the methods used to estimate the temperature of Earth.

17) Scientists use proxy records in climate research to determine ________.

A) current levels of carbon dioxide B) changes in temperature over the past 100 years C) changes in the ozone layer over the past 30 years D) climates hundreds and thousands of years ago Answer: D Module: C.4, C.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.4.1, C.5.1 18) The Fifth Assessment Report of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) indicates that ________.

A) Earth is now at its warmest point in the past 800—1400 years B) modern global climate change has been triggered primarily by natural causes C) Earth has actually been cooling for the past 15 years D) Earth has never experienced the level of warming that has occurred over the past 30 years Answer: A Module: C.4 Modern Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.4.2: Describe the record of temperature change over the past 100 years, and explain how these records are evaluated.

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19) Which of the following is an artificial compound that acts as a greenhouse gas?

A) Nitrous oxide B) Carbon dioxide C) Chlorofluorocarbons D) Methane Answer: C Module: C.5 Human-Caused Changes to the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.5.1: Describe how the concentrations of primary greenhouse gases have changed.

20) Which of the following have contributed most to the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels over the past 250 years?

A) The thawing of permafrost and habitat alteration for agriculture B) Deforestation and combustion of fossil fuels C) Deforestation and ocean acidification D) Volcanic eruptions and widespread forest fires Answer: B Module: C.5 Human-Caused Changes to the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.5.1: Describe how the concentrations of primary greenhouse gases have changed.

21) Growing rice results in the release of ________ into the atmosphere.

A) methane B) sulfur oxides C) CFCs D) sulfate aerosols Answer: A Module: C.5 Human-Caused Changes to the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.5.1: Describe how the concentrations of primary greenhouse gases have changed.

22) When volcanoes erupt, they emit ________ into the atmosphere, resulting in a cooling effect on the planet.

A) nitrous oxide B) sulfate aerosols C) water vapor D) methane Answer: B Module: C.5 Human-Caused Changes to the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.5.2: Identify the primary aerosols and describe their roles in climate.

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23) Which one of the following has a net negative forcing effect on global climate?

A) Methane B) Sulfate aerosols C) Carbon dioxide D) Water vapor Answer: B Module: C.5 Human-Caused Changes to the Atmosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.5.3: Describe how much of an influence the greenhouse gases and aerosols have on global climate.

24) Recent research indicates that the variation in solar output ________.

A) is the major factor driving temperature change B) is greater than all the anthropogenic factors affecting climate change C) has a radiative force of 20 watts/m2 D) is less than any of the human-caused factors affecting climate change Answer: D Module: C.6 The Causes of Modern Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.6.1: Use climate forcing estimates to evaluate human versus natural causes of 20th century warming.

25) Your friend is arguing that Earth's atmosphere is warming as a result of an increase in solar output but not because of increased concentrations of greenhouse gases. Which of the following lines of evidence would best support your friend's argument?

A) Warming trends are detected in some regions of the planet but not others.

B) The stratosphere shows a warming trend, but the troposphere shows a cooling trend.

C) Earth's temperature stabilizes when the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere begins to decrease.

D) Both the troposphere and stratosphere show warming trends.

Answer: D Module: C.6 The Causes of Modern Climate Change Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: C.6.2: Explain how patterns of atmospheric warming can be used to evaluate human versus natural causes of 20th century warming.

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26) Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the climate models shown?

A) The climate forcings of volcanic eruptions are difficult to model.

B) Anomalous temperatures have become more common during the past 50 years as a result of natural forcings.

C) Models that include human emissions of greenhouse gases best explain global temperature trends during the time period shown.

D) The volcanic eruptions shown have resulted in a long-term cooling trend over the past 50 years.

Answer: C Module: C.6 The Causes of Modern Climate Change Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.6.3: Explain how climate models are used to evaluate and predict climate change.

27) Which of the following is causing global sea levels to rise?

A) The expansion of ocean water as it warms B) Large amounts of carbon dioxide diffusing into seawater C) Greatly increased precipitation D) Airborne silt and sand from desertified landscapes forming sediments on the bottom of oceans Answer: A Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.1: Describe the major current physical impacts from climate change.

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28) Increasing levels of greenhouse gases have caused a ________.

A) rise in ocean temperatures and a decrease in ocean pH B) rise in ocean temperatures and an increase in ocean pH C) decrease in ocean temperatures and a decrease in ocean pH D) decrease in ocean temperatures and an increase in ocean pH Answer: A Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.1: Describe the major current physical impacts from climate change.

29) Which one of the following has been decreasing over the past several decades?

A) Sea levels B) Methane levels in the troposphere C) Mean global temperature D) pH of the world's oceans Answer: D Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.1: Describe the major current physical impacts from climate change.

30) What may be a biological implication of global climate change?

A) Plants and animals may not be able to move to a suitable habitat quickly enough to adjust to climatic changes.

B) In general, plants and animals will probably benefit from warmer temperatures.

C) Since farmland may be lost, the habitats of plants and animals may increase in area.

D) Since biodiversity is usually higher in warmer, milder climates, there will be little or no ecological implications.

Answer: A Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.2: Describe the major current biological impacts from climate change.

31) Thawing permafrost–why is it a problem, or why is extra CO2 and CH4 release expected?

A) Thawing in those regions will produce numerous wetland areas, which will further disrupt the habitats of polar organisms.

B) The previously frozen organic matter may contain ancient bacteria and viruses that can cause new pandemics.

C) The breakdown of previously frozen organic matter will release large amounts of certain greenhouse gases.

D) Although it will release less water than sea ice, melting permafrost will increase sea level rise.

Answer: C Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.2: Describe the major current biological impacts from climate change.

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32) Which of the following is a major impact related to sea level rise?

A) Shorelines eroding in coastal areas B) Fish migrating earlier than usual C) Land vanishing near lakes and rivers D) Deforestation occurring as salt in the atmosphere increases Answer: A Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.3: Provide a list of the ways in which climate is likely to affect humans, and explain the level of certainty we have about these impacts.

33) As climate change continues, we expect that the countries with the ________.

A) largest coastlines will experience the greatest impacts B) greatest resources will experience the greatest impacts C) fewest resources will experience the greatest impacts D) fewest resources will experience the lowest impacts Answer: C Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.7.3: Provide a list of the ways in which climate is likely to affect humans, and explain the level of certainty we have about these impacts.

34) The Younger Dryas event tells us that ________.

A) climate change has not always necessarily been a gradual process B) the more recent warming trends have typically been associated with unusually dry periods C) we have not always fully understood proxy records, since it turns out that what we call the Younger Dryas event actually took place before the Elder Dryas event D) ice core samples are unreliable proxy records Answer: A Module: C.8 The Future of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.8.1: Explain how abrupt climate shifts are possible, and what this means for the potential impacts of climate change.

35) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is an international panel that ________.

A) constructed and oversees the Montreal Protocol B) performed the research included in the climate change findings C) summarizes research and reports on potential future impacts of climate change D) could not achieve its objectives because of lack of popular support Answer: C Module: C.4, C.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.4.2, C.8.2

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36) Indications from the sixth IPPC assessment report predict that the amount of global warming will be ________ than was predicted in the previous report, due to ________.

A) larger; continued fossil fuel emissions B) larger; eccentricity in Earth's orbit bringing it closer to the sun C) smaller; increased investment in renewable fuels D) smaller; carbon capture technology Answer: A Module: C.8 The Future of Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2.2: Describe the projections for climate change, and explain which regions of the world are likely to warm the most.

37) The most dramatic temperature shifts in the past few decades have been ________.

A) on land near the equator B) in the oceans nearest the equator C) in arctic areas such as Canada and Greenland D) in the inland areas of South America and Africa Answer: C Module: C.4, C.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: C.4.3, C.8.3 38) Which statement is true about how climate change is predicted to change the movement of water into and out of the atmosphere?

A) Extreme rainfall events, where water falls in short, intense bursts, will become more common.

B) The atmosphere can only hold a certain amount of water, so the amount of rainfall will be similar to today.

C) Water will evaporate faster, which will speed up the hydrologic cycle, but have little effect on ecosystem function.

D) Because warm air holds more water, rainfall will increase and droughts will be uncommon.

Answer: A Module: C.8 The Future of Climate Change Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.8.3: Describe what areas of the world are expected to warm the most, and explain why we should expect variation in the amount of warming that occurs.

39) Which one of the following best illustrates a type of mitigation strategy in response to climate change?

A) Constructing and using wind turbines to generate electricity B) Using scrubbers to remove sulfur from coal before burning it to generate electricity C) Using coal-generated electricity to power electric cars D) Building sea walls to protect low-lying areas from rising sea levels Answer: A Module: C.8 The Future of Climate Change Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.8.4: Describe how climate change may impact developing and developed economies, with a specific focus on the capacity to adapt.

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40) Which one of the following best illustrates a type of adaptation strategy in response to climate change?

A) Increasing the use of public transportation systems in cities B) Building taller levees along ocean coastlines to hold back rising sea levels and storm surges C) Using solar and nuclear power to generate electricity instead of burning coal D) Widening the Panama Canal to allow larger ships to move from China to Europe Answer: B Module: C.8 The Future of Climate Change Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.8.4: Describe how climate change may impact developing and developed economies, with a specific focus on the capacity to adapt.

C.2 Essay Questions 1) Why is the concept of climate forcing critical to understanding the causes of global climate change?

Answer: Climate forcing is the amount of change in thermal energy units (watts/square meter on Earth's surface) caused by a given factor. This allows a quantitative scientific evaluation of the many variables that make up the equation of Earth's energy balance. The variables include solar output, ocean absorption, ocean circulation, changes in albedo, Milankovitch cycles, aerosols, and human-caused factors such as increased concentrations of such greenhouse gases as carbon dioxide and CFCs. Positive values indicate a warming effect, while negative values have a cooling effect. This analytical approach strengthens the scientific conclusions drawn about the relative importance of each variable contributing to climate change.

Module: C.1, C.3, C.5, C.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.1.4, C.3.2, C.3.4, C.5.3, C.6.1 2) Over the past 50 years the average rate of sea level rise has been 1.8 mm per year. Explain the two primary factors responsible for this rise in sea level.

Answer: The expansion of water (in this case ocean water) as it warms is an important factor, since surface ocean waters have warmed during the past 50 years. Also, the warming of the atmosphere has led to the melting of continental ice sheets and alpine glaciers, the water from which would run off into rivers that feed into oceans, increasing the amount of water in ocean basins and causing the sea level to rise.

Module: C.7 The Impacts of Climate Change Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.7.1: Describe the major current physical impacts from climate change.

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3) Explain what mitigation strategies are, and describe two mitigation approaches that are currently being employed to address climate change.

Answer: Mitigation strategies are actions that can be taken to reduce or eliminate the cause of climate change. One mitigation strategy is to increase energy efficiency, such as using more efficient lighting or increasing fuel efficiency of vehicles. Another mitigation strategy currently being employed is to switch to alternative energy sources that do not produce as much greenhouse gas emissions as the burning of fossil fuels. For example, wind energy and solar energy are clean energy sources that are becoming more popular in recent years. A mitigation strategy currently under investigation is carbon sequestration, which involves the trapping of carbon dioxide for storage underground or deep in the ocean, but this kind of technology is not yet in use.

Module: C.8 The Future of Climate Change Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: C.8.4: Describe how climate change may impact developing and developed economies, with a specific focus on the capacity to adapt.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter HP Human Populations HP.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) During which time period did the world's population more than double?

A) 1800—1850 B) 1850—1900 C) 1900—1950 D) 1950—2000 Answer: D Module: HP.1 The History of Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.1.1: Describe how human populations have grown through time.

2) The world population growth rate is currently close to ________%.

A) 10 B) 5 C) 2.5 D) 1.05 Answer: D Module: HP.1 The History of Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.1.1: Describe how human populations have grown through time.

3) The current global human population is nearly ________.

A) 8 million B) 1.5 billion C) 8 billion D) 11 billion Answer: C Module: HP.1, HP.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.1.1, HP.5.1 4) The Green Revolution of the 20th century was characterized by ________.

A) increased awareness of the environment and environmental issues B) increased concern for the environment C) advancements in agricultural techniques D) increased use of environmentally sound products Answer: C Module: HP.1 The History of Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.1.2: Explain how periods of population growth coincide with major technological, industrial, and agricultural advancements.

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5) Which of the following continents is currently experiencing the most rapid population growth?

A) Africa B) Antarctica C) Asia D) South America Answer: A Module: HP.1 The History of Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.1.3: Describe patterns in human population growth and specifically how population sizes differ across the continents.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

6) In this figure, the width of each bar is a measure of the ________.

A) total fertility of the age group B) age of first reproduction of the age group C) number of individuals in the age group D) size of the family of women of reproductive age Answer: C Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

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7) Which one of the following statements about the figure above is true?

A) The greater number of females 85 years or older reflects an unusually high percentage of females born between 1920 and 1925.

B) The size of each bar generally increases from the top down because of increased fertility of later generations.

C) The declining size of bars from ages 40—44 to ages 30—34 most likely represents declining fertility rates.

D) The size of each bar generally increases from the top down because of immigration.

Answer: C Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

8) The age structure of the country in this figure reflects ________.

A) an increasing fertility rate B) a fertility rate that has declined C) the impact of increased immigration into the country D) an increasing rate of childhood mortality Answer: B Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

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9) About how many people are between the ages of 45 and 49 in the country shown in this age structure diagram?

A) 10 million B) 10 billion C) 20 million D) This cannot be determined.

Answer: A Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

10) A declining dependency ratio ________.

A) requires immediate and permanent increased spending on education and old-age medical expenses B) requires increased spending on education but decreased costs associated with old-age medical expenses C) requires permanently decreased spending on education but temporarily increased costs associated with old-age medical expenses D) permits temporarily decreased spending on education and old-age medical expenses Answer: D Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

11) Examine the dependency ratio trends for the regions in this figure. Which of the following best explains the recent increase in the dependency ratio in developed economies?

A) More people have to work to keep per capita incomes high.

B) As per capita income rises, family size increases.

C) As per capita income rises, people marry at a younger age.

D) Life spans are longer resulting in an increase in elderly citizens.

Answer: D Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

12) Which of the following best explains why the dependency ratio in South Asia has been declining?

A) The life expectancy in South Asia has been declining because of natural disasters and diseases, so there are fewer elderly citizens to take care of.

B) The longer life expectancy has allowed people to work for more years, thus not being dependent on others for social services.

C) The decreasing birth rate has resulted in fewer children dependent on social services.

D) The increasing population in the region has resulted in more working-age people who depend on social services.

Answer: C Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

13) Which of the following can you determine from the figure above?

A) The population in Canada is growing more rapidly than that in Nigeria.

B) The population in Nigeria is growing more rapidly than that in Canada.

C) The population in Nigeria has many more males than females.

D) The population in Nigeria is aging rapidly.

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Answer: B Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

14) What is the population in Canada likely to experience soon?

A) More single males B) Exponential population growth C) Government institution of a population control policy D) More senior citizens Answer: D Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

15) The age structure diagram of Canada suggests that its total fertility rate is ________.

A) less than its replacement rate B) zero C) steadily rising D) now rising but has been recently declining Answer: A Module: HP.2, HP.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1, HP.3.4

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

16) Assuming no immigration, at which point would this country's population grow most rapidly?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.2.2: Describe how changes in death and birth rates during the demographic transition affect population growth.

17) Assuming no immigration, at which point would this country's population decline?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.2.2: Describe how changes in death and birth rates during the demographic transition affect population growth.

18) A country that has undergone a full demographic transition has ________.

A) a lower birth rate and a higher death rate B) a higher birth rate and a lower death rate C) a higher birth rate and a lower death rate, and is about to undergo modernization D) a lower birth rate, a lower death rate, and has undergone modernization Answer: D Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.2.2: Describe how changes in death and birth rates during the demographic transition affect population growth.

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19) The total fertility is the average number of children a ________ will have in his/her lifetime.

It is calculated this way because ________.

A) woman; a woman's maximum fertility is more limited than a man's is B) man; on average, men have a shorter lifespan than women do C) man; a man can father more offspring in his life than a woman can produce in hers D) both men and women; both sexes contribute to the number of babies born in a population Answer: A Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.3.1: Describe the concept of total fertility rate and explain why this rate varies.

20) Which of the following factors would decrease total fertility rates?

A) Rural lifestyle B) Increased educational and economic opportunities for women C) Poverty D) High infant mortality Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.3.2: Explain how a woman's role in society can affect population growth.

21) Which of the following will slow the rate of global population increase?

A) Increasing life expectancy B) Allowing universal immigration rights C) Delaying the age of first reproduction D) Increasing life expectancy and reducing infant mortality Answer: C Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.3.2: Explain how a woman's role in society can affect population growth.

22) Women in two developed economies have similar total fertility rates of 3.5. However, women in country A typically have their children about 2 years earlier than women in country B. How will the population growth rates of the two countries compare?

A) The populations of both countries will be stable, with similar totals and little increase or decrease.

B) The population of country A will increase faster than that of country B. C) The population of country B will increase faster than that of country A. D) The population of country A will increase, but the population of country B will decline.

Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.3.2, HP.3.4 11 .

23) In general, fertility rates ________.

A) decrease as per capita income decreases B) decrease as per capita income increases C) increase as per capita income increases D) are unrelated to per capita income Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.3.3: Explain how countries have addressed high fertility rates, and describe the difference between coercive and social justice based approaches.

24) How can increasing the status of women improve a country's economic conditions?

A) With increased status, women will become more involved in government, and will reduce any corruption that was holding the country back.

B) Increased economic conditions for women double the size of the work force, allowing a country to maintain high fertility rates and reduce poverty at the same time.

C) Improved status for women will reduce fertility rates, which will also reduce the country's dependency ratio. The lower dependency ratio would ease the economic strain on its government.

D) Increasing the status of women will also increase their life expectancy, allowing them to become more influential government advisors in their post-reproductive years.

Answer: C Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.3.3: Explain how countries have addressed high fertility rates, and describe the difference between coercive and social justice based approaches.

25) What was the most logical reason for China adopting its one-child policy?

A) Contagious disease was rampant in the 1970s and fewer people meant less contagion.

B) It was clear that the country could not live within the limit of its resources if the population continued to grow.

C) The modernizing country wanted to give its women greater reproductive freedom.

D) The fertility rate was too low and the country needed more people to populate vacant lands.

Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HP.3.3: Explain how countries have addressed high fertility rates, and describe the difference between coercive and social justice based approaches.

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26) To enforce China's one-child policy, the government ________.

A) promoted voluntary compliance as a patriotic act B) deported anyone who did not comply C) instituted a system of economic and social incentives and penalties D) pursued strict compliance in rural agricultural areas but not in urban areas Answer: C Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.3.3: Explain how countries have addressed high fertility rates, and describe the difference between coercive and social justice based approaches.

27) Which of the following will reduce the rate of global population growth?

A) Encouraging women to reproduce earlier B) Changing the global total fertility rate to 2 C) Lifting all immigration moratoriums D) Making birth control options readily available in developed economies Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.3.4: Describe the concept of population momentum, and explain how populations can continue to grow even when the total fertility rate is at replacement levels.

28) Ignoring immigration, a country with a developed economy that has had a total fertility rate below 2 for several decades ________.

A) has a decreasing average age B) will have a population declining in size C) probably has a declining dependency ratio D) All of these are correct.

Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.3.4: Describe the concept of population momentum, and explain how populations can continue to grow even when the total fertility rate is at replacement levels.

29) Population momentum helps explain which of the following scenarios?

A) Increasing educational opportunities for women decreases the birth rate in India.

B) China's population continues to grow despite their total fertility rate being 1.63.

C) Most of the increase in the population of the United States is a result of immigration.

D) Some European counties are offering incentives to couples who have more than one child.

Answer: B Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.3.4: Describe the concept of population momentum, and explain how populations can continue to grow even when the total fertility rate is at replacement levels.

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30) Someone in sub-Saharan Africa is least likely to die of ________.

A) cancer B) HIV/AIDS C) malaria D) diarrheal diseases Answer: A Module: HP.4 Disease, Death, and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.4.1: Compare the causes of death in developed and developing economies.

31) Unlike developed economies, children in developing economies often die from ________.

A) common ailments such as diarrheal diseases B) hunting accidents C) accidents involving farm equipment and other agricultural activities D) snakebites or attacks from large predators such as crocodiles and tigers Answer: A Module: HP.4 Disease, Death, and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.4.1: Compare the causes of death in developed and developing economies.

32) Over the past 200 years, the major reason for the rapid global population growth has been ________.

A) a large increase in life expectancy B) an increase in total fertility rates C) population momentum D) a reduction in child labor Answer: A Module: HP.4 Disease, Death, and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.4.2: Describe how the transition from high death and birth rates to lower birth and death rates impacts human population growth.

33) A decline in a country's death rate will result in an increase in the country's population growth rate unless ________.

A) the country is in Stage 2 of the demographic transition B) there is an increase in the country's birth rate C) immigration offsets the deaths occurring in the country D) there is also a decline in the country's birth rate Answer: D Module: HP.4 Disease, Death, and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.4.2: Describe how the transition from high death and birth rates to lower birth and death rates impacts human population growth.

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34) According to the I = PAT model, which of the following would most likely reduce a country's environmental impact?

A) Construction of industrial plants to draw on cheaper labor B) Discovery of large reserves of fossil fuels within the country's borders C) Increased use of electricity and natural gas D) Greater use of birth control Answer: D Module: HP.5 Environmental Impacts of the Human Population Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.5.1: Describe the I=PAT model and explain the general relationship between population size, affluence, technology, and impact.

35) In the I = PAT model, how does technology relate to environmental impact?

A) Environmental impact increases with increased technology.

B) Environmental impact usually decreases a country's ability to develop new technologies.

C) Environmental impact decreases with increased technology.

D) Environmental impact may increase or decrease with increased technology, depending on how technology is being used.

Answer: D Module: HP.5 Environmental Impacts of the Human Population Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.5.2: Describe the role of technology in the acceleration or reduction of environmental impacts associated with affluence.

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36) Which of the following best explains the trends in sulfur emissions in England since 1970?

A) Regulations and new technology were employed to reduce sulfur emissions.

B) England began running out of sulfur resources.

C) The population of England increased rapidly during the latter half of the 20th century, so per capita emissions decreased even though total emissions increased.

D) Sulfur emissions is inversely proportional to per capita income because wealthier people do not need to use sulfur products.

Answer: A Module: HP.5 Environmental Impacts of the Human Population Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.5.2: Describe the role of technology in the acceleration or reduction of environmental impacts associated with affluence.

37) The area of land and water needed to provide the resources for one person and absorb his/her wastes defines the ________.

A) carbon footprint B) demographic impression C) ecological footprint D) resource capacity Answer: C Module: HP.5 Environmental Impacts of the Human Population Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.5.3: Explain the concept of an ecological footprint and describe how these footprints vary across countries.

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38) One estimate of the average sustainable global ecological footprint is about 4.2 acres per person. Which of the following countries has an ecological footprint that is lower than 4.2 acres per person?

A) Australia B) Afghanistan C) Germany D) The United States Answer: B Module: HP.5 Environmental Impacts of the Human Population Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.5.3: Explain the concept of an ecological footprint and describe how these footprints vary across countries.

39) The United Nations' best estimate is that the global population will ________.

A) continue to increase indefinitely B) level off at almost 11 billion in the year 2100 C) begin to decline by the middle of the 21st century as humans deplete Earth's resources D) reach 13 billion by the year 2080 Answer: B Module: HP.6 Future Human Population Trends Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.6.1: Using a range of potential growth rates, predict the potential range of global populations by 2100.

40) To keep the total global population below 11 billion and ensure that it is declining by the year 2021 would require an acceleration of changes ________.

A) in life expectancy in developed economies B) that reduce poverty in developing economies C) in family-planning services and increased status of women in developing economies D) in international cooperation to provide and distribute birth control in all nations Answer: C Module: HP.6 Future Human Population Trends Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.6.1, HP.6.2 41) Nearly all global population growth in the 21st century is expected to occur in ________.

A) China and India B) the United States and other developed economies C) developing economies in parts of Africa and Asia D) Micronesia, Swaziland, Botswana, and Lesotho Answer: C Module: HP.6 Future Human Population Trends Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.6.2: Describe current United Nations projections for population growth, and explain what would need to occur to meet the current projections of 11 billion.

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42) If the global population increases to 10 billion by the middle of the 21st century, which of the following would be necessary?

A) An increase of at least 50% in global food production over current levels B) A global one-child policy C) A tripling of the amount of water used for irrigating cropland D) Universal health care coverage Answer: A Module: HP.6 Future Human Population Trends Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.6.3: Explain how many additional resources will be required to support the increased population size of the 21st century.

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HP.2 Essay Questions 1) What is a demographic transition? What are its five stages? Describe each stage, including its consequences for population growth.

Answer: A demographic transition is a theoretical model of economic and cultural change proposed to describe and explain the declining death rates and birth rates that occur in countries as they develop. The first stage is a stable pre-development period, with high birth and death rates that offset each other. The second stage is the developing stage characterized by declining death rates due to increased food production and improved medical care. Birth rates are still high, as citizens have not yet grown used to the new economic and social conditions, resulting in a surge in population growth. The third stage is the modernizing period, involving economic, educational, and social changes. Children become less of a critical economic asset, and birth rates begin to fall. The fourth stage is the developed period, in which a stable population arises, with low birth and death rates. From there, many countries enter a fifth stage called the postdevelopment period, in which populations begin to decline as birth rates continue to drop, while death rates remain constant.

Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.2.2: Describe how changes in death and birth rates during the demographic transition affect population growth.

2) Define ecological footprint and differentiate between the ecological footprint of a developing economy and that of the United States. Support or challenge the following statement: "The population problem does not lie entirely with countries with developing economies."

Answer: An ecological footprint is the cumulative amount of land and water required to provide the raw materials that a person or population consumes and the disposal or recycling of the waste that is produced. The ecological footprint of the average U.S. citizen is significantly larger (23 acres) than that of the average resident of a developing economy (1 acre in some countries) and is clearly unsustainable. The population problem does not lie entirely with developing economies because developed economies' consumption is rising faster than its population (e.g., China).

Some scientists have suggested that increasing consumption poses a larger environmental problem than increasing population because even a stable population will increase its environmental impact as it increases in affluence. Developed economies continue to consume more meat (and food in general), fossil fuels, and materials than developing economies.

Module: HP.5 Environmental Impacts of the Human Population Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension, Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HP.5.3: Explain the concept of an ecological footprint and describe how these footprints vary across countries.

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3) Briefly explain how the status of women affects population growth.

Answer: Higher status of women in a society usually results in lower population growth.

Increased female literacy is strongly associated with reduced birth rates in many countries.

Studies show that educated women have better access to contraceptives, marry later, and have fewer children, keeping population growth low because improved educational and career opportunities make it necessary or desirable to delay childrearing or to limit family sizes.

Module: HP.3 Fertility and Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HP.3.2: Explain how a woman's role in society can affect population growth.

4) What social challenges are posed by a pyramid-shaped versus a "top-heavy" age structure diagram?

Answer: Growing populations have a pyramid-shaped age structure diagram. These populations face problems associated with depletion of resources such as fertile agricultural and grazing land, clean water, and raw material and energy stores. They face the threat of war as people fight over limited resources. Growing populations also face issues of dealing with increased pollution and waste. Top-heavy age structure diagrams reflect an aging population. Aging populations face the challenges of caring for their elderly. Social programs such as health care and Social Security may become stressed to the limit, as there are fewer young workers to support those who are beyond their most productive years. Economic growth may be compromised, and there might be a weaker military.

Module: HP.2 Age Structures and the Demographic Transition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HP.2.1: Explain how age structure influences human population growth rates and why the dependency ratio influences the function of society.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter LU Land Use LU.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) There is a great deal of cropland but very little pasture and rangeland in ________.

A) Europe B) North America C) Africa D) Australia Answer: A Module: LU.1 Population Growth and Land Use Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.1.1: Describe the major types of land use change, and explain why they occur.

2) Which of the following land uses takes up the most amount of habitable land?

A) Cities B) Cropland C) Rangeland D) Land that has not been significantly changed by humans Answer: C Module: LU.1 Population Growth and Land Use Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.1.1: Describe the major types of land use change, and explain why they occur.

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3) Which of the following best exemplifies land use intensification?

A) Buying an acre of prairie near your suburban home, tilling the land, and planting a large vegetable garden B) Cutting down an acre of forest on your property, tilling the land, and planting a large vegetable garden C) Tilling up an acre of your lawn and planting a large vegetable garden D) Clearing an acre of tropical rain forest to create pastureland for your cattle and oxen Answer: C Module: LU.1 Population Growth and Land Use Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation, Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.1.2: Explain the difference between land use extensification and intensification.

4) The world's urban populations are ________.

A) shrinking compared to rural populations B) growing at a faster rate than the global population as a whole C) growing at about the same rate as the rural populations D) shrinking in economically developing nations Answer: B Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.2.1: Explain what urbanization is, and identify the major urban centers.

5) In 1950, 29% of the world population lived in urban areas. The number grows annually, and by 2030, ________ are expected to be living in urban areas.

A) 35% B) 45% C) 60% D) 80% Answer: C Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.2.1: Explain what urbanization is, and identify the major urban centers.

6) Which of the following is the largest city in the world?

A) Tokyo B) Shanghai C) Delhi D) New York Answer: A Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.2.1: Explain what urbanization is, and identify the major urban centers.

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7) The move to urban areas from more rural ones is usually driven by ________.

A) Economic opportunities B) Decreased fertility of agricultural land C) Increased convenience of living in urban centers D) Decreased need for farmland Answer: A Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.2.2: Describe the factors that contribute to urbanization in developed and developing countries.

8) Any consideration of the true costs of sprawl must include ________.

A) the restoration of natural areas in inner cities B) the economic problems created by decreased water and energy consumption C) residual pesticides on the land that is being converted to subdivisions, potentially harming those who move there D) loss of cropland and increased use of fossil fuels Answer: D Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.2.3: Describe patterns of suburban development, and explain what sprawl is.

9) Which of the following most accurately describes population trends in the United States during the latter half of the 20th century?

A) A large migration into the inner cities occurred after World War II as the economy recovered from the Depression and people were more able to live in areas close to where they worked.

B) A large migration from inner cities to suburbs occurred in the latter half of the 20th century, as people were attracted to new lower-density housing.

C) Having grown weary of high crime rates and urban squalor, a mass migration of city dwellers into rural areas occurred in the years following World War II and the Korean War. D) Large cities annexed nearby towns so they could grow and provide places for their residents without those residents having to move to the suburbs or rural areas.

Answer: B Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.2.3: Describe patterns of suburban development, and explain what sprawl is.

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10) Urban sprawl would result in which one of the following?

A) Narrower highways B) Increased commuting distances C) Increased population densities D) Increased reliance on public transportation Answer: B Module: LU.2, LU.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.2.3, LU.6.1 11) Suburban living promotes ________.

A) the increased use of automobiles B) walking C) riding bicycles D) small farms Answer: A Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.2.4: Explain how urbanization affects the environment.

12) On an average, suburban households use about 24% ________ energy than urban households, and emit about 1,800 kg ________ CO2 from transportation needs, such as trains, buses, and cars..

A) more; less B) more; more C) less; less D) less; more Answer: B Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.2.4: Explain how urbanization affects the environment.

13) In Indonesia and Malaysia, forests are being cut for timber and ________.

A) for plantations of luxury wood B) to support palm oil production C) to clear land for cattle D) for urban development Answer: B Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.3.1: Describe the historical and contemporary patterns of deforestation, and explain what factors cause deforestation.

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14) In which of the following countries is deforestation occurring most rapidly?

A) China B) United States C) Brazil D) India Answer: C Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.3.1: Describe the historical and contemporary patterns of deforestation, and explain what factors cause deforestation.

15) All of the following are major causes of global deforestation except ________.

A) the need for agricultural expansion B) the need for fuel wood C) the need for wood products D) the need for urban development and the expansion of cities Answer: D Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.3.1: Describe the historical and contemporary patterns of deforestation, and explain what factors cause deforestation.

16) Which of these criticisms has not been used against reforestation and afforestation projects?

A) Replanted forests are often single-species plantations.

B) Some projects use non-native tree species.

C) The trees increase gas exchange with the atmosphere.

D) They use too much water in arid regions.

Answer: C Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.3.2: Define reforestation and explain why it is increasing during this century.

17) Which of the following is a result of clearing forests for agricultural purposes?

A) Crop productivity is greatly increased because of the rich soil.

B) Biodiversity is increased because croplands attract insect pests and birds.

C) Soil erosion is increased because deforestation and tilling remove the vegetative cover.

D) Water runoff is decreased because croplands tend to absorb more water than forests.

Answer: C Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.3.3: Describe the environmental impacts of deforestation, reforestation, and afforestation.

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Read the following scenario, and answer the questions below.

Haiti and the Dominican Republic share the Caribbean island of Hispaniola. When tropical storm Jeanne hit Haiti and the Dominican Republic in September 2004, over 20 inches of rainfall occurred in 24 hours—more than a third of the rain that typically falls during an entire year.

Forestry practices in these two tropical countries have been quite different. While the Dominican Republic's forests remain largely intact, most of Haiti's forests had been removed by 1990 as the rapidly growing population became increasingly dependent on subsistence farming in mountainous regions of the island. Tropical storm Jeanne created a national disaster for Haiti with over 3000 lives lost, but the Dominican Republic experienced very short-lived effects and only 18 deaths.

18) Why would the effects of the storm have been so much more pronounced and long-lasting in Haiti than in the Dominican Republic?

A) Haiti received much more rain than the Dominican Republic.

B) The deforested areas in Haiti experienced increased volume and speed of rainfall runoff, causing mudslides and severe flooding.

C) Because of the absence of forests, Haiti experienced stronger winds than the Dominican Republic.

D) The lack of forests in Haiti created a warmer land surface, which fed more heat energy into the hurricane, worsening the storm on that side of the island.

Answer: B Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.3.3: Describe the environmental impacts of deforestation, reforestation, and afforestation.

19) The deforestation in Haiti is largely a result of ________.

A) a strong Haitian government that mandates the cutting of timber on federal lands to supply wood for urban development B) earthquakes on the Haitian side of the island C) the need to sell timber for export D) the need for fuel wood and agricultural land Answer: D Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.3.3: Describe the environmental impacts of deforestation, reforestation, and afforestation.

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20) Which of the following is most likely to be true?

A) Compared to Haiti, the Dominican Republic has stronger laws preventing its citizens from deforesting their country.

B) Compared to the Dominican Republic, Haiti's citizens have better access to imported foods.

C) Citizens of both Haiti and the Dominican Republic rely heavily on subsistence farming in mountainous areas.

D) Before the deforestation occurred, Haiti already had far fewer forested areas than the Dominican Republic.

Answer: A Module: LU.3 Managing Forests Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.3.3: Describe the environmental impacts of deforestation, reforestation, and afforestation.

21) The rising global demand for food has recently been met by ________.

A) an increase in per-acre crop yields B) cultivating more land C) switching to a diet high in fish and seafood, which do not require cropland D) decreasing the per-capita amount of food available Answer: A Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.1: Explain how the use of cropland has changed, and why agriculture is leading to land use change.

22) Currently, ________ of global cropland is used to provide grain for meat and dairy operations rather than to feed people directly.

A) one-tenth B) one-sixth C) one-third D) one-half Answer: C Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.1: Explain how the use of cropland has changed, and why agriculture is leading to land use change.

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23) Irrigation has allowed humans to grow crops in areas where natural water supplies have been limited. A major challenge that exists in these areas has been ________.

A) soil erosion B) low crop diversity C) high pesticide use D) soil salinization Answer: D Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.2: Describe how cropland can be lost through poor management of soils and water resources.

24) Irrigation can result in the salinization of soils because ________.

A) shortages of fresh water require the use of salt water for irrigation B) salts are deposited on the soil surface as water evaporates C) the irrigation water washes away soil leaving behind concentrated salts D) many of the plants grown in these regions excrete salts into the soil Answer: B Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.2: Describe how cropland can be lost through poor management of soils and water resources.

25) ________ is the buildup of salts in soils as a result of improper irrigation.

A) Salinization B) Leachate C) Desertification D) Erosion Answer: A Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.2: Describe how cropland can be lost through poor management of soils and water resources.

26) All of the following would generally increase erosion except ________.

A) deforestation B) overgrazing C) growing cover crops D) plowing and tilling Answer: C Module: LU.4, LU.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.2, LU.5.2

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27) The Conservation Reserve Program pays farmers to ________.

A) grow native crops such as corn and beans B) stop cultivating cropland along streams C) grow cattle feed instead of commercial crops D) grow soybeans and other crops that can be used for biofuels Answer: B Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.4.3: Describe why cropland is being abandoned or converted to other uses in some economically developed countries.

28) All of the following contribute to the declining number of acres of cropland in the United States except that ________.

A) suburban sprawl has converted cropland into areas of low-density housing B) the Conservation Reserve Program pays farmers to remove cropland from certain areas C) improper management can make land unusable for growing crops D) the U.S. population has been declining in recent decades Answer: D Module: LU.4 Managing Cropland Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.4.3: Describe why cropland is being abandoned or converted to other uses in some economically developed countries.

29) Desertification is ________.

A) a natural process of succession that cycles from deserts to prairies to forests to deserts B) the formation of dryland ecosystems in regions where temperatures have increased C) the natural movement of deserts advancing into new regions due to shifts in wind direction D) often the result of overgrazing and drought Answer: D Module: LU.5, LU.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.5.2, LU.6.3 30) Desertification of dry ecosystems is usually caused by a combination of factors, including all of the following except ________.

A) crop production in areas too dry to support grazing B) drought C) overgrazing D) poor irrigation practices Answer: A Module: LU.5, LU.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.5.2, LU.6.3

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31) In a food chain involving agricultural land, where is the most total energy available?

A) At the bottom trophic level B) At the second trophic level C) At the top trophic level D) All levels have the same total energy available.

Answer: A Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.6.2: Explain how land use intensification can reduce the development pressures that lead to deforestation and the loss of natural ecosystems.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

32) According to the figure, it requires roughly ________ times more feed input to produce 1 kg of eggs than 1 kg of milk.

A) 3 B) 4 C) 30 D) 40

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Answer: B Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.6.2: Explain how land use intensification can reduce the development pressures that lead to deforestation and the loss of natural ecosystems.

33) Cows require a high quantity of feed because they ________.

A) can feed more people than pigs B) are raised on feedlots C) take time to grow and have a low energy conversion efficiency D) are the best source of high-quality protein Answer: C Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.6.2: Explain how land use intensification can reduce the development pressures that lead to deforestation and the loss of natural ecosystems.

34) To feed a growing population, it would be most energetically efficient for people to eat more ________.

A) plant-based foods B) herbivorous animals like cattle and chicken C) carnivorous animals like fish and alligator D) soylent green Answer: A Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.6.2: Explain how land use intensification can reduce the development pressures that lead to deforestation and the loss of natural ecosystems.

35) One way to increase food supplies without increasing the amount of land used for food production is to close the yield gap. The yield gap is the difference between ________.

A) the number of calories provided by a certain amount of grain and the number of calories that would be converted meat if the grain were fed to an animal B) the amount that land is worth as cropland and the amount it would be worth as a suburban neighborhood C) current crop production and the amount that could reasonably be expected through the use of modern agricultural techniques D) the amount of calories that two different crops could produce on a given piece of land Answer: C Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.6.2: Explain how land use intensification can reduce the development pressures that lead to deforestation and the loss of natural ecosystems.

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36) The main causes of desertification are ________.

A) human activities B) global increases in temperature C) shifting weather patterns D) declines in the ozone layer Answer: A Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.6.3: Define desertification, and explain how agricultural and grazing uses of semi-arid/arid lands can lead to desertification.

37) Overgrazing by cattle primarily contributes to desertification by ________.

A) promoting erosion and loss of rooted plant cover B) contaminating streams with cattle wastes C) cattle outcompeting natural herbivores D) spreading non-native species Answer: A Module: LU.6 The Future of Land Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: LU.6.3: Define desertification, and explain how agricultural and grazing uses of semi-arid/arid lands can lead to desertification.

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LU.2 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the major environmental impacts of raising livestock for food.

Answer: There has been a recent increase in the global demand for meat and dairy products, which has been problematic because livestock need to eat, and the global amount of cropland has remained stable. Feeding increased amounts of crops to livestock (e.g., feeding corn to cows) diverts crops that can be directly used to feed people. It is much less energetically efficient to eat meat than to eat a vegetarian diet, as only about 10% of the energy being fed to livestock ends up passed to the next trophic level (i.e., the humans that eat the livestock). An alternative to feeding crops to livestock is to allow the livestock to roam and graze on rangeland. However, large amounts of water are also needed to raise livestock, and rangeland tends to be quite dry, so the need for water for livestock tends to put a strain on an already scarce resource. Areas where livestock graze are prone to the effects of overgrazing, especially during times of drought.

Overgrazing can lead to decreased fertility of the land through soil erosion and desertification.

Some areas such as Brazil are being deforested for the purpose of raising livestock. Deforestation causes soil erosion, destroys ecosystems, and contributes to global climate change by putting sequestered carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere and possibly decreasing the area's ability to take up carbon dioxide via photosynthesis. An alternative to allowing livestock to graze on marginal lands is to keep them in a large confined feedlot, but doing so not only stresses the livestock and can lead to disease transmission, but it also creates problems with soil contamination and nutrient pollution in both surface waters and groundwater.

Module: LU.5, LU.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.5.1, LU.5.2, LU.5.3, LU.6.2 2) Describe two potential environmental benefits and two potential environmental drawbacks of urbanization.

Answer: The rapid urbanization occurring across the globe brings with it potential environmental benefits as well as potential negative impacts. People living in cities are at much higher densities than those living in suburbs and rural areas, so the physical amount of living space needed per person is smaller. Therefore, their personal impact is less spread across the landscape, thus decreasing the need for conversion of natural ecosystems and cropland to living space. People in cities tend to have smaller homes than people elsewhere and thus use less energy in their homes, and they also tend to drive less. The use of less energy slows global climate change and allows us to extend our energy resources further into the future. With less living space per person and lower per-capita energy use, an urban lifestyle can be more sustainable. However, large concentrations of humans create problems with large quantities of wastewater and solid waste, and proper treatment of sewage and proper disposal of large amounts of garbage can be problems. Large urban areas tend to have air quality issues (e.g., surface ozone and smog), so human health can suffer in large cities.

Module: LU.2 Urbanization Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: LU.2.4: Explain how urbanization affects the environment.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter AG Agriculture AG.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Many people in countries with developing economies primarily rely upon a diet of rice. Such a diet, even with plenty of rice available to meet daily caloric requirements, runs a high risk of ________.

A) protein deficiency and disease B) overnourishment C) insufficient intake of energy D) obesity Answer: A Module: AG.1 The Challenge of Malnutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.1.1: Define malnutrition and explain how it is caused.

2) In 2025, the average daily caloric intake in the United States was close to ________ calories, and the daily caloric intake in developing countries was around ________ calories.

A) 3800; 2400 B) 2400; 2400 C) 3800; 2900 D) 2900; 2400 Answer: A Module: AG.1 The Challenge of Malnutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.1.2: Describe the relationship between food supply and human population, and explain why there are differences in food supply between the richest and poorest countries.

3) There is much more food available in economically developed countries than economically developing ones. All of these statements are reasons for this disparity except that ________.

A) many of the most productive agricultural regions are located in economically developed countries B) the majority of economically developing countries have internal strife and corruption that keep food from being delivered where it is most needed C) much of the global grain supply is fed to livestock, but the resulting meat is often too expensive for people in economically developing countries D) economically developed countries can afford agricultural technologies that make their crops less vulnerable to things like drought than crops in economically developing countries Answer: B Module: AG.1 The Challenge of Malnutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.1.2: Describe the relationship between food supply and human population, and explain why there are differences in food supply between the richest and poorest countries.

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4) Armed conflicts are most likely to contribute to famine ________.

A) where food production and distribution are already problematic B) where rice is the main source of food C) in countries that are primarily exporters of grain D) in coastal regions that make great use of seafood Answer: A Module: AG.1 The Challenge of Malnutrition Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.1.3: Define famine and explain what causes famine to occur.

5) Today, famine is a regular event in the Sahel region of ________.

A) Australia B) Central America C) Africa D) Southeast Asia Answer: C Module: AG.1 The Challenge of Malnutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.1.3: Define famine and explain what causes famine to occur.

6) Although industrial agriculture has greatly reduced world hunger and malnutrition, it has ________.

A) doubled the amount of land used to raise crops B) not significantly increased the productivity of modern agriculture C) required high levels of fertilizer and pesticide use D) contributed significantly to the destruction of the ozone layer Answer: C Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.2: Describe the major factors that have been used to increase agricultural production.

7) The amount of farmland has remained relatively unchanged in economically developed countries since about 1960, yet the agricultural yield has more than doubled. This rise in productivity is known as the ________.

A) Yield Protection Framework B) Yield Gap C) Green Revolution D) Agricultural Renaissance Answer: C Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.2: Describe the major factors that have been used to increase agricultural production.

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8) The amount of farmland has remained relatively unchanged in economically developed countries since about 1960, yet the agricultural yield has more than doubled. Which is not a reason for this increase?

A) Use of grain to increase meat production B) Application of industrially produced fertilizers and pesticides C) Mechanization of the planting and harvesting processes D) Plant-breeding programs Answer: A Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.2: Describe the major factors that have been used to increase agricultural production.

9) Monoculture ________.

A) is a new development in agriculture that is more sustainable than industrial agriculture B) requires no chemical fertilizers or pesticides C) is a development of industrial agriculture D) accounts for less than 1% of U.S. croplands Answer: C Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.3: Explain how the industrialization of agriculture results in a change in the size and character of farms.

10) One of the consequences of switching to highly mechanized agriculture is the ________.

A) ability to grow more types of crops on the land at the same time B) decrease in famine worldwide C) transition from small family farms to large farming operations that can better afford high priced machinery D) decreased use of pesticides Answer: D Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.3: Explain how the industrialization of agriculture results in a change in the size and character of farms.

11) Which of the following statements about monoculture farming is true?

A) Monoculture farming prohibits the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.

B) Because of the risk of environmental degradation, monoculture farming is illegal in the United States.

C) Monoculture farming prohibits the use of crops that have been genetically modified.

D) Monoculture farming is an agricultural practice that increases a crop's susceptibility to insect pests.

Answer: D Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.3, AG.2.6 3 .

12) Which of the following can be inferred from this figure depicting global production of animal protein?

A) More beef protein is produced than all other animal proteins combined.

B) The amount of poultry and beef consumed is increasing because of an increase in global population.

C) If trends continue, poultry may soon become more popular than pork as a source of animal protein.

D) Although the production of beef and poultry has increased, global dietary intake of animal proteins has remained stable over the past 50 years.

Answer: C Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: AG.2.4: Describe how meat production has changed.

13) Which one of the following requires the most amount of grain to produce one pound of animal product?

A) Pork B) Eggs C) Milk D) Beef Answer: D Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.2.5: Describe the environmental effects of industrialized meat production.

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14) If the total global production of grains cannot be significantly increased in the next 50 years, and the human population continues to increase, one strategy to feed people would be to ________.

A) increase our use of fossil fuels in agriculture B) engineer plants that can grow without sunlight C) greatly reduce the amount of meat in our diets D) increasingly rely on fungi for nutritional needs Answer: C Module: AG.2, AG.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.2.5, AG.7.1 15) Which of these statements about meat production and consumption in developing economies or developed economies is true?

A) Meat production in developing countries is costly and damaging to the environment because it is inefficient without the use of CAFOs. B) Meat has a much smaller environmental impact in developed economies because these areas also tend to produce excess grain.

C) Meat is energetically inefficient to produce and has large negative environmental impacts in all countries.

D) Developing economies need meat to provide protein and nutrients, and the way animals are raised often has little impact on the environment.

Answer: D Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.2.5: Describe the environmental effects of industrialized meat production.

16) A farmer is worried about nutrient runoff, so they plant their crops without using synthetic fertilizers. For the first few years, crop yield is high, but yield soon begins to fall, and soil analysis shows that it is lacking key nutrients. What is the best explanation for the drop in yield?

A) Each year, the nutrients absorbed from the soil are taken away with the crop, rather than being returned to the soil as organic matter.

B) The soil is too sandy, and water takes key nutrients away with it as it quickly drains past the plants' roots.

C) The farmer has plowed the field too often, breaking up aggregates and losing the nutrients within them.

D) The farmer is trying to farm in an area that naturally had very low concentrations of nutrients to begin with.

Answer: A Module: AG.2 The Growth of Industrial Agriculture Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.3.1: Describe how soils influence agricultural growth.

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17) Which one of the following is a major cause of global topsoil loss?

A) Erosion via water and wind B) Construction of new buildings and roads C) Creation of new mines D) Rising ocean levels Answer: A Module: AG.3 Soils and Fertilization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.3.3: Describe how soils can be destroyed by mismanagement, and explain why the future of agriculture depends on sustainable management of soils.

18) Irrigation can result in the salinization of soils because ________.

A) shortages of fresh water require the use of salt water for irrigation B) salts are deposited on the soil surface as water evaporates C) the irrigation water washes away soil leaving behind concentrated salts D) many of the plants grown in these regions excrete salts into the soil Answer: B Module: AG.3 Soils and Fertilization Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.3.3: Describe how soils can be destroyed by mismanagement, and explain why the future of agriculture depends on sustainable management of soils.

19) Herbicides would be most useful in combating ________.

A) mosquitoes that spread malaria in tropical rain forests B) weeds that infest our agricultural fields C) bacteria, such as Salmonella, which sometimes contaminate meat D) fungi that attack plant roots Answer: B Module: AG.4 Pest Control Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.4.2: Describe how pesticide use has changed through time.

20) Published in 1962, the book Silent Spring helped to establish ________.

A) the modern civil rights movement B) the modern environmental movement C) the Food and Drug Administration D) the National Wildlife Federation Answer: B Module: AG.4 Pest Control Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.4.3: Describe the implications of pesticides for ecosystems and nontarget animals.

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21) What commonly used pesticide caused declines in bird populations in the 1950s and 1960s by weakening the shells of bird eggs?

A) Malathion B) Roundup C) DDT D) 2,4-D Answer: C Module: AG.4 Pest Control Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.4.3: Describe the implications of pesticides for ecosystems and nontarget animals.

22) Pesticide use has tripled in the past 40 years, yet pests still cause extensive damage to crops.

Why has this increased use of pesticides not been more effective?

A) The pesticides in use today are much less powerful due to government regulations.

B) The pesticides available are no longer suited for the most common types of pests.

C) Increases in ultraviolet radiation and global warming break down pesticides faster.

D) The widespread use of pesticides has resulted in the evolution of pesticide-resistant pests.

Answer: D Module: AG.4 Pest Control Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.4.5: Explain how pesticides can lead to the evolution of resistance in pests.

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23) What accounts for the increased yield of maize from 1940 to 1980?

A) Advances in the science of genetic engineering B) Conventional breeding programs C) An increased number of acres converted to cropland D) Economic growth, which allowed an increased mechanization of farming Answer: B Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: Explain what influence plant breeding has had on agricultural productivity, and provide an overview of the approaches used for breeding.

24) Transgenic plants are different from conventional hybrid plants produced hundreds of years ago in that transgenic plants may ________.

A) contain genes from animals or bacteria B) contain genetic material from genetically dissimilar parents C) have new traits not found in their ancestral species D) not be used as sources of human food Answer: A Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.5.2, AG.5.3

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25) Roundup Ready corn is a transgenic crop that is resistant to the herbicide Roundup (glyphosate). What is the main reason that farmers would want to plant Roundup Ready corn?

A) Many farmers have problems with airborne Roundup drifting in from nearby farms, and Roundup Ready corn would be protected from such airborne herbicide.

B) Water supplies are often contaminated with Roundup, which typically kills corn. Such contaminated water can be used only on Roundup Ready crops.

C) Roundup Ready corn produces its own herbicide, which would kill nearby weeds without the farmers having herbicides on their fields.

D) Farmers can use Roundup on the weeds in their cornfields without killing their corn.

Answer: D Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: AG.5.3: Describe the difference between genetic engineering and conventional breeding.

26) Roundup Ready corn is a transgenic crop that is resistant to the herbicide Roundup (glyphosate). Which one of the following would be the greatest concern regarding Roundup Ready corn?

A) Lower yields produced by Roundup Ready corn B) Evolution of herbicide resistance in weeds that commonly infect cornfields C) Transfer of Roundup resistance to other crops, such as soybeans D) Eventual loss of this trait from Roundup Ready corn due to hybridization Answer: B Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: AG.5.3: Describe the difference between genetic engineering and conventional breeding.

27) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the benefits of Bt corn?

A) Because it contains a certain gene removed from a soil bacterium, Bt corn is immune to the European corn borer.

B) Although Bt corn has its benefits, the use of Bt corn runs the risk of pests in the soil becoming immune to its toxins.

C) Bt corn produces increased yields because it is resistant to infection from the Bt virus that lives in agricultural soils.

D) Bt corn is resistant to the pesticide Bt, so farmers growing Bt corn can use Bt on the weeds in their cornfields without it harming their crop.

Answer: A Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: AG.5.3: Describe the difference between genetic engineering and conventional breeding.

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28) Which of the following statements is true regarding genetically modified (GM) crops?

A) Europe leads the world in land area dedicated to GM crops.

B) The United States leads the world in land area dedicated to GM crops.

C) Latin America leads the world in land area dedicated to GM crops.

D) GM crops are widely favored by environmentalists.

Answer: B Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.5.4: Explain how broadly genetic engineering is used and what risks are associated with it.

29) Which of the following can be inferred from the information in the figure?

A) The use of genetically modified crops began in 1985.

B) After rapid increases in the use of GMOs, the percent of U.S. crops that are genetically modified has leveled off since about 2010.

C) More bushels of genetically modified corn were produced in 2010 than soybeans.

D) Corn, cotton, and soybeans are the only genetically modified crops grown in the United States.

Answer: B Module: AG.5 Breeding Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: AG.5.4: Explain how broadly genetic engineering is used and what risks are associated with it.

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30) Organic agriculture ________.

A) began in the 1960s B) has no national standards in the United States C) and organically grown produce have not been supported by the European Union D) has increased in the United States in recent years Answer: D Module: AG.6 Organic Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.6.1: Explain the difference between conventional and organic agriculture, and explain how different definitions of "organic" are applied at the state and federal levels.

31) All of the following are USDA requirements for certified organic crops, dairy, and meat except that ________.

A) all animals raised for slaughter must be fed organic food or graze on land that is managed with organic practices B) vaccines are banned for animals raised for slaughter C) genetically engineered seeds may not be used to produce organic crops D) animal manure may be used to fertilize crops Answer: B Module: AG.6 Organic Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.6.1: Explain the difference between conventional and organic agriculture, and explain how different definitions of "organic" are applied at the state and federal levels.

32) Which of the following is an integrated pest management (IPM) strategy that would be used to prevent a pest outbreak?

A) Monoculture farming B) Mechanical pest control C) Planting several crops in the same area D) Targeted use of chemical pesticides Answer: C Module: AG.6 Organic Agriculture Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.6.2: Explain how crops can be grown with reduced use of pesticides.

33) Which of the following methods would be most effective in preventing the evolution of pesticide resistance?

A) Using more pesticide whenever resistance appears in the pest population B) Using crop rotation and biological controls instead of pesticides C) Using pesticides only during major outbreaks of pests D) Applying pesticides to the soil before planting and after harvesting a crop Answer: B Module: AG.4, AG.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: AG.4.5, AG.6.2 11 .

34) Which statement about the nutritional value of organically grown foods is true?

A) Organic foods typically have the same nutritional value as non-organic, but they expose consumers to much lower pesticide levels than non-organically grown foods.

B) The evidence on the nutritional value of organic foods is contradictory, with slightly more studies showing no nutritional benefits of organic food compared to non-organic.

C) Nutritional benefits of organically grown food are typically in the form of higher nutrient, antioxidant, or omega-3 fatty acid content.

D) Organic fruits and vegetables may or may not have higher nutritional content, but the pesticide residues found on non-organic produce means that it is healthier to avoid produce unless it is organically grown.

Answer: C Module: AG.6.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.6.4: Compare the food produced by organic and industrial agriculture in terms of nutrient content and chemical residues.

35) Which of the following statements about our global food supply is true?

A) To avoid a deficit in our global food supply, food production will have to continue to increase, particularly if the demand for meat continues to rise.

B) We currently have a deficit in our global food supply, and the deficit is expected to worsen over the next 40 years.

C) New developments in organic farming and genetically modified crops are expected to relieve our current deficit in global food supply.

D) The surplus in our global food supply is expected to provide us with a "cushion" as our global population increases to 9 billion people by the middle of the 21st century.

Answer: A Module: AG.7 The Future of Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.7.1: Explain how agricultural productivity will need to change in order to feed future populations.

36) Which of the following is a major contributor to the decline in pollinator populations?

A) Use of genetically modified crops B) Use of insecticides in agricultural areas C) Use of domesticated bees for pollinating fruit crops D) Collisions with vehicles Answer: B Module: AG.7 The Future of Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.7.2: Explain why the protection of pollinators is important to the future of agriculture.

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37) In the long term, sustainable agriculture will require ________.

A) increasing meat consumption in developing economies B) using less fertilizer and decreasing the production and use of fuels made from crops C) using more fertilizer and increasing the production and use of fuels made from crops D) expanding the type of industrial agriculture presently used in developed economies to Africa and Southeast Asia Answer: B Module: AG.7 The Future of Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.7.4: Explain what changes would need to be made to develop a more sustainable agricultural system.

38) What would be the most effective way to reduce food shortages, increase global equity, and sustain global food supplies into the mid-21st century?

A) Increase and evenly distribute meat production around the world.

B) Improve crop yields in the developing countries and improve infrastructure to deliver food to where it is needed.

C) Genetically modify crops so they will produce more biofuels to run the machinery of intensive agriculture in developing economies.

D) Increase the profitability of sustainable agriculture in all countries.

Answer: B Module: AG.1, AG.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.1.3, AG.7.4

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AG.2 Essay Questions 1) Explain the role of pollinators in agriculture, and describe two reasons for the global declines in pollinator populations.

Answer: For many crops, such as apples, peppers, tomatoes, and melons, pollinators are needed to transfer pollen grains from one plant to another. Without this crucial step, these crops would not be able to develop fruit. Plants are pollinated by a wide variety of insects, such as bees and butterflies, and sometimes by birds and bats. Pollinators are threatened by habitat loss as their native ecosystems have been replaced with monoculture fields. Their populations have also declined because of the widespread use of insecticides on agricultural fields. The use of insecticides on crops requiring pollinators can in fact decrease crop yield.

Module: AG.7 The Future of Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.7.2: Explain why the protection of pollinators is important to the future of agriculture.

2) Describe the main goals of precision agriculture.

Answer: The main goals of precision agriculture are to reduce the use of water and fertilizers in agriculture. In many areas, groundwater supplies are dwindling because of agricultural use. One solution for the overuse of groundwater is to reduce agricultural activity in areas that have insufficient rainfall or surface water supplies to sustain agricultural crops. Similarly, farmers can plant crops that require less water, and they can use drip irrigation systems that deliver water directly to the roots of their plants. Nitrogen fertilizers are energy intensive, and phosphorus fertilizer supplies are expected to dwindle in the 21st century, so farmers would want to apply fertilizers only in those areas of their fields where fertilizer is needed. Precision agriculture uses computer technology to identify areas of a field that need more (or less) water, and where fertilizer is required. The amounts of water and fertilizer are then adjusted so the each plant receives what it requires, but no part of the field receives more than is necessary.

Module: AG.7 The Future of Agriculture Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: AG.7.3: Explain what changes would need to be made to use agricultural resources such as water and nutrients more efficiently.

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3) Explain why there are so many malnourished people on the planet.

Answer: The majority of malnourished people are undernourished, meaning that there is some kind of nutrient deficiency in their diet. In some cases, people are simply not taking in enough calories. In other cases, they lack specific dietary nutrients such as iron, vitamin A, and zinc. In some places, the available food lacks some dietary requirements. For example, rice is widely available in many countries, but it lacks amino acids found in beans and meats, so someone with a diet consisting largely of rice will lack those amino acids. While the majority (about 820 million) of malnourished people on the planet are undernourished, a large number of malnourished people (about 40% of adults) are taking in excessive calories in their diet. These people tend to live in richer countries that have better developed agricultural regions. Ultimately, we are currently producing enough food for everyone. The problem is that we do not have the infrastructure in place to distribute the food to where it is needed. Natural disasters such as droughts and floods, plus human conflicts, exacerbate the problems with food distribution.

Module: AG.1 The Challenge of Malnutrition Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: AG.1.3: Define famine and explain what causes famine to occur.

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter WM Waste Management WM.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Wealthy nations generate approximately ________ kilograms of waste per person per day.

A) 0.42 B) 1.64 C) 13.7 D) 34.1 Answer: B Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.1.1: Explain how global waste generation has changed over time, and how waste generation varies across different countries.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

2) From the 1960s to the present, the trend has been that ________ over time.

A) less waste was sent to landfills B) more overall waste was produced C) less waste was recovered for recycling D) less overall waste was produced Answer: B Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.1.1: Explain how global waste generation has changed over time, and how waste generation varies across different countries.

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3) Since the year 2000, which of the following appears to have grown less popular as a method of dealing with municipal solid waste?

A) Recycling B) Landfilling C) Waste incineration D) Composting Answer: C Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.1.1: Explain how global waste generation has changed over time, and how waste generation varies across different countries.

4) Which of the following represent the categories of hazardous waste?

A) Toxic, nontoxic, and unknown B) Ignitable, corrosive, reactive, and toxic C) Nonbiodegradable and biodegradable D) Municipal, industrial, and agricultural Answer: B Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.1.1: Explain how global waste generation has changed over time, and how waste generation varies across different countries.

5) Which of the following is a component of the municipal solid waste stream?

A) Feces B) Household and restaurant food waste C) Scrap steel from an automobile manufacturing plant D) Low-level radioactive waste, such as medical syringes Answer: B Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.1.2: Identify the types of municipal solid waste.

6) About 25% of all U.S. municipal solid waste consists of ________.

A) wastes that would be classified as hazardous B) plastics and metals C) yard trimmings D) paper Answer: D Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.1.2: Identify the types of municipal solid waste.

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7) Between 1960 and 1990, the amount of solid waste generated by the average person in the United States ________, but after 1990 the rate of increase ________.

A) grew slowly; doubled B) doubled; slowed dramatically C) doubled; increased dramatically D) remained fairly constant; increased dramatically Answer: B Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.1.2: Identify the types of municipal solid waste.

8) Which of these statements is true about industrial solid waste?

A) Estimates suggest that there is more municipal waste generated in a year than industrial waste.

B) The United States' tracks and regulates industrial waste generation.

C) Waste generated by fossil fuel exploration and combustion is classified as hazardous waste rather than industrial waste.

D) A large amount of industrial waste is recycled or disposed of where it was produced.

Answer: D Module: WM.1 Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.1.3: Identify the types of industrial solid waste.

9) Compared to municipal solid waste in 1960, today's municipal solid waste is much ________.

A) less likely to be dumped into an open pit B) less likely to be recycled C) less likely to be buried in a sanitary landfill D) more likely to contain coal ash Answer: A Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.2.1: Describe the environmental impacts of the open dumping of solid waste.

10) A home located about 500 feet from an abandoned landfill explodes in a giant ball of flames.

This is a mystery, as the home only uses electricity for cooking and heating. Most likely, this disaster was caused by ________.

A) groundwater contamination from the landfill into the home B) methane that seeped from the landfill along horizontal cracks and into the home C) gasoline or other flammable substances that leached from the landfill into the home D) corrosives that leached from the landfill into the home and degraded the home's electrical wires Answer: B Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.2.2: Explain how solid wastes are disposed of in sanitary landfills, and the potential environmental impacts of this type of disposal.

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11) To safeguard against groundwater contamination, sanitary landfills are ________.

A) located on slopes so water runs downhill B) lined with an impermeable liner C) covered with cement D) located on industrial sites where groundwater is not used for drinking or agriculture Answer: B Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.2.2: Explain how solid wastes are disposed of in sanitary landfills, and the potential environmental impacts of this type of disposal.

12) ________ is a potent greenhouse gas produced during the decomposition process in sanitary landfills.

A) Dihydrogen oxide B) Methane C) Chlorofluorocarbon D) Ozone Answer: B Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.2.2: Explain how solid wastes are disposed of in sanitary landfills, and the potential environmental impacts of this type of disposal.

13) Waste incinerators ________.

A) extend the life of landfills by decreasing waste volume B) are able to eliminate the disposal of municipal solid wastes (MSW) C) increase the volume of MSW that must be buried in landfills D) ultimately increase the use of fossil fuels to generate electricity Answer: A Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.2.3: Describe how combustion and energy recovery can be used to dispose of trash, and describe the potential environmental impacts.

14) Why is waste incineration so much more common in countries such as Japan than it is in the United States?

A) Japanese citizens are not as worried about air pollution as people in the United States are.

B) Japan has limited space for landfills and incineration greatly reduces the volume of waste.

C) The United States uses the methane from landfills to generate a large percentage of its electricity.

D) The United States can afford the more popular, but more expensive, sanitary landfills.

Answer: B Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.2.3: Describe how combustion and energy recovery can be used to dispose of trash, and describe the potential environmental impacts.

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15) What is the difference between sewage and wastewater?

A) Sewage is wastewater that contains urine and feces and other wastes from households, but wastewater also includes stormwater and water contaminated from agricultural and industrial processes.

B) Sewage and wastewater are synonymous.

C) Wastewater does not contain the toilet paper and human water-borne wastes that are found in sewage.

D) Wastewater is sewage that has been fully processed in a sewage treatment plant to remove all solids and pathogens.

Answer: A Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.3.1: Identify the sources of wastewater.

16) If you were to accidentally flush your cell phone down the toilet, it would be removed during what stage of the sewage treatment process?

A) Primary treatment B) Secondary treatment C) Tertiary treatment D) It would not be removed during treatment, which is why one should not flush it down the toilet.

Answer: A Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

17) What do wastewater treatment facilities primarily depend upon for the breakdown of organic materials in wastewater?

A) Lots of chlorine bleach B) Microorganisms C) The neutralizing effects of high levels of oxygen D) Large amounts of antibiotics and disinfecting chemicals Answer: B Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

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18) People with home septic systems often flush several cups of a powdered substance down their toilets every month or two to keep their systems healthy. These powdered substances most likely contain ________.

A) bacteria and enzymes that help break down wastes B) chlorine and other disinfectants that help to prevent soil contamination C) chemicals that bind to heavy metals to keep them from leaching into the soil D) acids that help to clean the insides of the walls of the pipes and septic tank Answer: A Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

19) Which of the following should not be flushed down the drain or toilet in a home with a septic tank?

A) Urine and feces B) Vegetable fragments and organic detergents C) Toilet paper and other paper fragments D) Condoms and feminine hygiene products Answer: D Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

20) A septic system is ________.

A) a badly polluted waterway B) a rural method of handling sewage C) an early version of a wastewater treatment plant D) part of the secondary treatment at a wastewater treatment plant Answer: B Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

21) In a municipal wastewater treatment plant, the primary treatment step includes ________.

A) chlorinating the sewage B) adding bacteria to the sewage C) separating out large solids from the sewage D) stirring the sewage to increase oxidation Answer: C Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

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22) At a wastewater treatment plant, the primary purpose of secondary treatment is to ________.

A) remove the large solids B) remove the organic matter remaining in the wastewater C) remove toxic chemicals such as pesticides and heavy metals D) remove bacteria and other pathogenic organisms Answer: B Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.3.2: Explain how wastewater from homes, schools, and businesses is treated.

23) Of the following, which one would be the most logical use for graywater?

A) Washing dishes B) Flushing toilets C) Washing hands D) Filling swimming pools Answer: B Module: WM.3 Wastewater Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.3.3: Identify the challenges of wastewater management.

24) Latex paint is classified as a hazardous waste because it is ________.

A) flammable B) toxic C) corrosive D) reactive Answer: B Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.4.1: Define the major categories of hazardous waste and explain why these categories are hazardous to humans and the environment.

25) Latex paint is classified as a hazardous waste. If a homeowner wants to dispose of extra latex paint, she could legally do which of the following?

A) Burn the paint in a backyard fire pit.

B) Put the lid on it tightly, and place it in the trash.

C) Pour it down the drain.

D) None of these options is legal.

Answer: D Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.4.2: Explain how illegal or inappropriate disposal of hazardous waste has created highly contaminated sites.

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26) The disaster of Love Canal in New York in the 1970s illustrated the problem of ________.

A) unsafe nuclear waste disposal B) unsafe toxic waste disposal C) lax safety standards at nuclear power plants in the eastern United States D) health problems resulting from the processing of electronic wastes Answer: B Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.2: Explain how illegal or inappropriate disposal of hazardous waste has created highly contaminated sites.

27) The Superfund, which provides federal funds for the cleanup of heavily contaminated hazardous waste sites, was established by what federal law passed in 1980?

A) The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act B) The Superfund Authority and Management Act C) The Hazardous Waste Management Act D) The Superfund Management and Liability Act Answer: A Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.2: Explain how illegal or inappropriate disposal of hazardous waste has created highly contaminated sites.

28) Some hazardous waste is transported and disposed of in a different country from where it originated. Which statement is true about this transported waste?

A) Most of the transported waste is taken to countries with more specialized disposal facilities than the country of origin has.

B) The country where the waste originated likely has stronger environmental laws than the country receiving the waste.

C) The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal attempts to prevent the transfer of waste between countries.

D) An international treaty prevents the transfer of hazardous waste until it has been treated to reduce or eliminate the danger it poses.

Answer: B Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.3: Describe the approaches to the legal disposal of hazardous waste.

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29) In addition to taking up space, one of the greatest risks of adding e-wastes into landfills is ________.

A) the generation of large volumes of methane B) a danger that CRTs will result in huge explosions C) the leaching of heavy metals into soil and groundwater D) the tremendous amounts of heat generated when e-waste decays Answer: C Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.4: Explain how e-waste harms the environment.

30) Which statement about e-waste is true?

A) The components in electronics are not worth enough to try to recycle them.

B) Less the one quarter of e-waste is collected and recycled, and the fate of the majority of ewaste is not well known.

C) Most economically developed countries, such as the United States, have laws and regulations governing the disposal of e-waste.

D) E-waste is a type of non-hazardous waste.

Answer: B Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.4: Explain how e-waste harms the environment.

31) E-waste contains ________.

A) compostable organic compounds B) ignitables C) heavy metals D) radioactive materials Answer: C Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.4: Explain how e-waste harms the environment.

32) You want to purchase 5 pounds (80 ounces) of potato chips for your group's party. You can buy the chips packaged in many different ways. Which of the following represents the best way to reduce excessive packaging and the municipal solid waste burden on the environment? To reduce the greatest amount of packaging, you should purchase ________.

A) two 40-ounce bags B) four 20-ounce bags C) six 15-ounce bags D) ten 8-ounce bags Answer: A Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.5.1: Explain how source reduction can be used to produce less solid waste.

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33) Industrial ecologists ________.

A) study the negative impacts of industrial processes on the environment B) help design plans for industrial infrastructure in areas that are environmentally sensitive, such as Rocky Mountain National Park C) design systems that use energy and materials more efficiently during the manufacture, consumer use, and recycling or disposal of products D) strive to find uses for hazardous wastes so the wastes can be recycled rather than disposed of in potentially unsafe manners Answer: C Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.5.1: Explain how source reduction can be used to produce less solid waste.

34) Instead of purchasing a cheap new car every 5 years and trading in the old one, a person buys a new, well-built car every 15 years, repairs it as needed, and then trades it in for a new one. This approach saves the person money, reduces the overall impact on the environment, and illustrates the value of ________.

A) source reduction B) composting C) recycling D) a life-cycle analysis Answer: D Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.5.2: Explain how life-cycle analysis can be used to reduce waste generation.

35) Which of the following would reduce municipal solid waste by the greatest amount?

A) Using half as much toilet paper when you use the restroom B) Using paper towels whenever possible instead of sponges and rags C) Buying concentrated cleaning solutions and refilling smaller cleaning bottles at home D) Buying food products in individual serving containers whenever possible Answer: C Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.5.3: Explain how source reduction can result in less waste generation.

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36) A large online shipping company makes boxes in only a few sizes. This means that many of their products are shipped in containers that are far too large, which requires the products to be protected with packing peanuts or plastic bubble wrap. The shipping company determines that if they produced boxes in different sizes, they could greatly reduce their expenditure on cardboard and plastic. They also realize that the volume of plastic and cardboard waste that ends up in landfills because the packaging of their products would be drastically reduced. This is an example of ________.

A) right-sizing B) life-cycle analysis C) source reduction D) "cradle to grave" assessment Answer: C Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.5.3: Explain how source reduction can result in less waste generation.

37) Buying used items at a garage sale is one environmentally friendly approach that represents a form of ________.

A) source reduction B) composting C) reuse D) WTE disposal Answer: C Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.5.5: Explain how recycling can reduce the production of solid waste.

38) Which of the following components of municipal solid waste is recycled at the highest percentages?

A) Plastic B) Aluminum C) Glass D) Paper Answer: D Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.5.5: Explain how recycling can reduce the production of solid waste.

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39) Making a new soda (pop) can out of recycled aluminum requires almost ________% less energy than making it out of bauxite (raw aluminum ore).

A) 25 B) 50 C) 70 D) 80 E) 95 Answer: E Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.5.5: Explain how recycling can reduce the production of solid waste.

40) Which of these statements about plastic recycling is true?

A) It is only cost effective to recycle certain types of plastics.

B) The United States currently sends most of its plastic waste to China.

C) Currently, the most sustainable approach to plastic is to recycle it.

D) In places with curbside recycling programs, the majority of plastic waste is diverted away from landfills.

Answer: A Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.5.5: Explain how recycling can reduce the production of solid waste.

41) Transuranic wastes are materials that have been contaminated with ________.

A) urine B) elements with an atomic number greater than that of uranium C) transuranic acid D) gamma rays from distant parts of the solar system, beyond Uranus Answer: B Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.6.2: Explain how low-level radioactive wastes are stored.

42) There is/are currently ________ long-term, underground, nonmilitary, permanent, high-level radioactive waste storage facility(ies) in the United States.

A) zero B) one C) three D) four Answer: A Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.6.3: Explain how high-level radioactive wastes are stored, and describe the issues associated with current and proposed storage solutions.

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43) One of the biggest problems associated with long-term, high-level nuclear waste storage is ________.

A) finding an environment that will remain stable for more than 10,000 years B) determining a cost-effective way to shoot waste into space C) figuring out how to contain the material so that it does not leak into the ocean D) creating a secure environment to protect the material from terrorists Answer: A Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.6.3: Explain how high-level radioactive wastes are stored, and describe the issues associated with current and proposed storage solutions.

44) Yucca Mountain is best known as ________.

A) the location of a leaky nuclear power plant that will cost billions of dollars to clean up B) a potential site for long-term, high-level, nuclear waste storage in the United States, whose fate will be largely determined by politics and public opinion C) a military base that has accumulated low-level and high-level nuclear waste for many decades D) the site of a lake that received illegal dumping of nuclear waste in the 1960s Answer: B Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.6.3: Explain how high-level radioactive wastes are stored, and describe the issues associated with current and proposed storage solutions.

45) The reprocessing of nuclear fuel ________.

A) requires the heavy use of lead and iron ore B) is widely practiced in the United States C) requires additional mining of uranium D) reduces and reuses the stockpile of nuclear waste Answer: D Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.6.3: Explain how high-level radioactive wastes are stored, and describe the issues associated with current and proposed storage solutions.

46) All radioactive wastes ________.

A) are difficult to handle and store safely B) must be disposed of at Yucca Mountain in Nevada C) contain atoms that decay D) release gamma radiation Answer: C Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.6.1, WM.6.2, WM.6.3

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WM.2 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the benefits and disadvantages of modern-day landfills in the United States.

Answer: In contrast to open landfills, modern-day sanitary landfills prevent waste from contaminating the environment and threatening public health. Sanitary landfills also deal with trash in a more controlled manner than open dumping, and so minimize issues with trash escaping into the environment and harming wildlife (some land-based trash has ended up in places like the Pacific Ocean). Sanitary landfills are regulated by state or local governments and must meet federal standards. The bottom and sides must be lined with heavy plastic and clay to prevent groundwater contamination. Anaerobic bacteria that decompose landfill waste produce methane, which can be captured and used as an energy source. If this landfill gas is not captured, however, it can contribute to smog and global climate change, because methane is a potent greenhouse gas. Methane is also volatile and can cause an explosion. The dry state of landfills precludes rapid waste decay because decomposers thrive in wet conditions. Paper has been found to survive intact for decades. It has become increasingly difficult to find areas at which to locate new landfills. Most communities do not want large landfills in their midst for aesthetic reasons and for fear of potential health risks.

Module: WM.2 Disposal of Nonhazardous Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.2.1, WM.2.2 2) Describe what e-wastes are and why they are a problem.

Answer: E-wastes are the rapidly growing numbers of cell phones, computer components, fax machines, televisions, VCRs, and other electronic equipment that are turning up in landfills as they become obsolete and thus unwanted. These items contain toxic metals such as cadmium and lead that can pose a danger to the environment and human health if released into the air (via incineration) or water (via leakage into groundwater). Some e-wastes may also contain lithium and other substances that can explode if they are exposed to heat, such as the heat in an incinerator. Many discarded electronic devices can be disassembled for recycling. Cell phones contain gold, and many recycling companies are more than willing to collect used cell phones to harvest the gold and other valuable components. Although recycling rates have improved in the last decade, the vast majority of e-wastes are still ending up in landfills and incinerators.

Module: WM.4 Hazardous Waste and Its Disposal Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.4.4: Explain how e-waste harms the environment.

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3) Over the past 50 years, the total amount of waste generated by each person in the United States has nearly doubled, primarily because of increased affluence. Discuss three specific actions that an American citizen could take in order to promote a more environmentally sound waste management lifestyle.

Answer: First, reducing the amount of waste generated should be the focus, because packaging waste (paper and plastic) accounts for a significant amount of waste entering the municipal waste stream. This can be accomplished by purchasing items in bulk and in reusable containers, and choosing items with as little packaging as possible. Second, a citizen can recycle as much as possible. Over one-third of the municipal solid waste stream is already being recycled in the United States. Third, a citizen can reuse some wastes, including paper and plastic bags used to carry purchased food and material goods. Never using another paper or plastic bag (using cloth, reusable bags instead) would be a significant action, especially if practiced by every U.S. citizen.

Citizens can also reuse other people's "wastes" by buying gently used items at garage sales.

Module: WM.5 Reducing and Reusing Solid Waste Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: WM.5.1, WM.5.3, WM.5.5 4) Radioactive wastes are categorized as either low level or high level. Explain the distinction and how each kind of waste is properly disposed of.

Answer: Low-level radioactive wastes consist of materials that have become slightly radioactive because of exposure to primary sources of radiation or materials that contain low levels of radioactive materials. Low-level radioactive wastes include gloves, rags, and mops used to clean up radioactive material; building materials; equipment present in nuclear reactors; and even soil contaminated with radiation. All low-level radioactive wastes pose a health threat, but they cannot support a sustained nuclear chain reaction. These wastes typically release alpha or beta radiation that can be stopped by relatively simple containers, and so are typically stored at the site of generation until there is a sufficient quantity to transport to one of three disposal facilities in the United States. High-level radioactive wastes release gamma radiation and are very difficult and dangerous to store because they generate heat and intense radiation. The three basic approaches to storage or treatment of these wastes are reprocessing, above-ground storage, and underground storage. Two advantages of reprocessing are an 80%+ reduction in waste volume and the production of nuclear fuel. However, reprocessing also creates plutonium, which can be stolen by terrorists to make nuclear weapons. Ideally, radioactive wastes that are not reprocessed should be buried deep underground and sealed off for millennia in areas that are seismically inactive. However, no such site exists, so high-level radioactive wastes are currently stored aboveground at secure locations across the United States.

Module: WM.6 Radioactive Waste Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: WM.6.1, WM.6.2, WM.6.3

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter HH Human Health and the Environment HH.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) ________ can be defined as the probability of a harmful health impact.

A) A hazard B) Risk C) Toxicity D) Mortality Answer: B Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.1.1: Explain the concept of risk, and identify the major types of risks.

2) In cities, pollution most seriously affects ________.

A) children and elderly citizens B) women C) those who are exposed to indoor air pollution from cooking fires D) those who commute to work Answer: A Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.1.2: Explain how environmental risks are evaluated using probability.

3) According to the environmental risk transition model, all of the following are the largest risks that people living in the countries in the early stages of economic development face except ________.

A) indoor air pollution B) preventable disease C) having too little to eat D) tobacco use Answer: D Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.1.3: Describe how environmental risks change over time and through economic development (the environmental risk transition model).

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4) According to the environmental risk transition model, all of the following are the largest risks that people in living in highly economically developed countries face except ________.

A) risks linked to being overweight B) water pollution C) high blood pressure D) tobacco use Answer: B Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.1.3: Describe how environmental risks change over time and through economic development (the environmental risk transition model).

5) The environmental risk transition model explains the historical patterns of development in the United States and Europe. What is the problem with using it to describe the risks faced in some modern countries?

A) Regardless of developmental stage, an increasing number of people live in urban centers, where they face higher risks of both indoor and outdoor pollution.

B) The model doesn't account for areas with contaminated food supplies.

C) Some communities are more cohesive and don't face community-level risks as they develop.

D) There are no longer any countries in the earliest stages of development.

Answer: A Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.1.3: Describe how environmental risks change over time and through economic development (the environmental risk transition model).

6) In many countries, such as the United States, low-income communities, which often contain a higher percentage of people of color, face higher health risks than do high-income and predominantly White communities. Which statement about this disparity is false?

A) There are fewer educational opportunities for people in low-income communities, so people don't know enough about environmental risks to avoid them.

B) Industries that create a lot of pollution are more likely to build near low-income communities with a high percentage of people of color because the local residents who oppose having the industry in their community are less likely to succeed with their opposition.

C) When things go wrong, such as during the COVID-19 pandemic, people of color tend to have less access to health care and are more likely to work in industries that expose them to the risk.

D) Government policy decisions are often made without regard to the disparities that already exist between communities of color and predominantly White communities.

Answer: A Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.1.4: Explain how the concept of environmental justice applies to environmental health in both developing and developed economies.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

7) The figure shows the results of a toxicology study done on mice. Which of the following is a valid explanation for the results for an intermediate dose?

A) Some of the mice are given a greater dose of the substance than is given to other mice.

B) The intermediate dose was sufficiently toxic to kill all of the mice.

C) Animal tests do not replicate actual environments where people may be simultaneously exposed to multiple chemicals that may interact with one another.

D) Age and genetic differences may have resulted in mice having different responses to the dose.

Answer: D Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HH.1.2: Explain how environmental risks are evaluated using probability.

8) The figure shows the results of a toxicology study done on mice. The LD50 is ________.

A) 5 mg B) 10 mg C) 20 mg D) 30 mg Answer: C Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HH.2.1: Describe the basic scientific approaches to establishing the acute human health risk of toxic chemicals.

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9) The figure shows the results of a toxicology study done on mice. The threshold of toxicity for this substance is approximately ________.

A) 3 mg B) 8 mg C) 20 mg D) 30 mg Answer: B Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: HH.2.1: Describe the basic scientific approaches to establishing the acute human health risk of toxic chemicals.

10) In toxicology studies, the threshold level of a chemical is the dose of the chemical ________.

A) below which there is a measurable decline in the health of the organism being tested B) above which at least 50% of the organisms being tested died C) below which at least 50% of the organisms being tested died D) above which there is a measurable decline in the health of the organism being tested Answer: D Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.2.1: Describe the basic scientific approaches to establishing the acute human health risk of toxic chemicals.

11) Toxicology is the study of ________.

A) the effects of toxins on human health B) the effects of toxins on the environment C) risks and hazards D) intoxication of humans Answer: A Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.2.1: Describe the basic scientific approaches to establishing the acute human health risk of toxic chemicals.

12) In toxicology studies, LD50 is best described as ________.

A) the dose at which 50% of an exposed population develops disease B) the dose at which 50% of an exposed population is killed C) the dose at which 50% of an exposed population develops a chronic effect from the toxicant D) the dose at which at least 50% of the exposed population is not affected by the toxicant Answer: B Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.2.1: Describe the basic scientific approaches to establishing the acute human health risk of toxic chemicals.

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13) Of the following, for which would it be the most difficult to determine a discrete threshold level of exposure?

A) Carcinogens B) Acids C) Arsenic D) Drain cleaners Answer: A Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.2.1: Describe the basic scientific approaches to establishing the acute human health risk of toxic chemicals.

14) Which statement about exposure to toxic chemicals is false?

A) Testing toxic chemicals one at a time is sufficient to predict health problem accurately.

B) Chemicals with no acute impact may still cause harm if the exposure is chronic.

C) Chronic exposure to neurotoxins such as lead can lower the average global IQ. D) Testing for the combined effects of exposure to numerous toxins would require studying thousands of people.

Answer: A Module: HH.2, HH.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.2.3, HH.3.5 15) Concerned about the exposure of children to chlorine, staff running a public pool measure the exact concentration of the chlorine currently in the pool water. However, assuming the amount of water in the pool is unchanging, to accurately determine the dose of chlorine exposure, the staff must also know ________.

A) the age of each child in the pool B) the manufacturer of the chlorine C) how long each child is in the pool D) why each child is in the pool Answer: C Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.2.3: Describe how risk assessment and risk management are applied to exposure to toxic chemicals.

16) Which of the following steps in risk assessment comes first?

A) Exposure assessment B) Dose-response analysis C) Hazard identification D) Risk characterization Answer: C Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.2.3: Describe how risk assessment and risk management are applied to exposure to toxic chemicals.

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17) After initial testing on mice reveals that a new food coloring may be a carcinogen, researchers should next plan to examine the effects of different concentrations of the food coloring on mice in a type of ________.

A) exposure assessment B) dose-response analysis C) hazard identification D) risk management Answer: B Module: HH.2 Risk Assessment and Risk Management Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.2.3: Describe how risk assessment and risk management are applied to exposure to toxic chemicals.

18) In 2016, the U.S. Congress passed an act that changed the way the EPA handles potentially toxic chemicals. The act ________.

A) removes prior screening requirements, except when there is scientific evidence that the chemical is causing harm B) requires screening of any new chemical that is structurally similar to one that is known to be toxic C) increases the number of chemicals that are screened D) mandates the screening of all new chemicals before they can come into contact with the public Answer: C Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation 19) You should never store strong acids in metal containers because acids are ________.

A) ignitable B) neurotoxic C) reactive D) corrosive Answer: D Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.3.1: Explain the effects that hazardous chemicals have on human health and describe the types of chemicals that fall into this category.

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20) Picric acid is always stored wet, often in glass bottles in water. If the crystals dry out, they can explode. Therefore, picric acid demonstrates a high level of ________.

A) ignitability B) toxicity C) reactivity D) corrosivity Answer: C Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.3.1: Explain the effects that hazardous chemicals have on human health and describe the types of chemicals that fall into this category.

21) Carcinogens may be difficult to identify and study because ________.

A) they are the least common of the toxic substances B) cancer may be caused by chronic, long-term exposure C) they are rare in nature D) there is no way to measure the carcinogenic potential of a substance Answer: B Module: HH.2, HH.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.2.2, HH.3.2 22) A carcinogen's danger lies in its effect on ________.

A) oxygen-carrying red blood cells B) the ability of the lining of the lungs to absorb oxygen C) DNA D) the ability to absorb nutrients in the wall of the intestines Answer: C Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.2: Describe the health effects of carcinogens and give examples of chemicals in this category.

23) Bisphenol A is most often found in ________.

A) metals B) wood C) plastics D) glass Answer: C Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.3: Describe the health effects of endocrine disruptors and give examples of chemicals in this category.

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24) Bisphenol A is ________.

A) an endocrine disruptor used in some plastics B) produced when fossil fuels are burned C) released from aerosol spray cans D) an insecticide that has been banned in Europe but is still available in the United States Answer: A Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.3: Describe the health effects of endocrine disruptors and give examples of chemicals in this category.

25) Hazardous chemicals that are endocrine disruptors cause abnormal events in ________.

A) development and functioning of the musculoskeletal system B) digestion and absorption of foods C) growth, metabolism, and reproduction D) vision, hearing, and taste Answer: C Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.3: Describe the health effects of endocrine disruptors and give examples of chemicals in this category.

26) Environmental estrogens have been linked to all of the following except ________.

A) early puberty in girls B) delayed puberty in boys C) higher cancer risk D) unexplained weight loss Answer: D Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.3: Describe the health effects of endocrine disruptors and give examples of chemicals in this category.

27) A(n) ________ is defined as a chemical that causes physical or biochemical abnormalities at birth.

A) teratogen B) endocrine disruptor C) carcinogen D) toxin Answer: A Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.1, HH.3.4

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28) Which of the following is a neurotoxin shown to decrease IQ in children?

A) BPA B) Lead C) Asbestos D) PCB Answer: B Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.5: Describe the health effects of neurotoxic chemicals and give examples of chemicals in this category.

29) Exposure to ________ radiation can cause cancer.

A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) All of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Module: HH.3 Harmful Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.3.6: Explain how radioactivity affects human health.

30) Radioactive iodide gas released from the Chernobyl nuclear accident in 1986 has been linked to ________.

A) lung cancer B) thyroid cancer C) teratogenic effects D) pancreatic cancer Answer: B Module: HH.4 The Transport of Toxic Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.4.1: Explain how toxic chemicals and radiation move through the air and how they enter and affect the human body.

31) Metals such as arsenic can quickly move through ecosystems because they ________.

A) are soluble in water and are readily absorbed B) quickly dissolve in the fats of animals C) quickly become incorporated into sugars and starch D) easily clump together and bind tightly to soil compounds Answer: A Module: HH.4 The Transport of Toxic Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.4.2: Explain how toxic chemicals and radiation enter bodies of water and how they enter and affect the human body.

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32) Biological accumulation is the ________.

A) chemical change that occurs when substances are altered by the sun or metabolized by microorganisms B) increase in a pollutant's concentration as it moves up a food chain C) process by which chemicals are stored and concentrated in the tissues of living organisms D) total amount of chemicals stored in the tissues of living organisms Answer: C Module: HH.4 The Transport of Toxic Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.4.3: Describe how toxic chemicals move through ecosystems and explain why they become increasingly concentrated as they move up the food chain.

33) ________ is the increased concentration of a chemical at each higher level of a food chain.

A) Biological accumulation B) Teratogenation C) Biological magnification D) Intoxication Answer: C Module: HH.4 The Transport of Toxic Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.4.3: Describe how toxic chemicals move through ecosystems and explain why they become increasingly concentrated as they move up the food chain.

34) Mercury is not readily excreted but rather is stored in animal body tissues. This is an example of ________.

A) distillation B) toxification C) biological magnification D) biological accumulation Answer: D Module: HH.4 The Transport of Toxic Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.4.3: Describe how toxic chemicals move through ecosystems and explain why they become increasingly concentrated as they move up the food chain.

35) Which of the following diseases is caused by exposure to human wastes?

A) SARS B) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy C) Ebola D) Cholera Answer: D Module: HH.5 Pathogens and the Spread of Disease Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.5.1: Explain how human activities can affect the spread of diseases.

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36) Both SARS and the coronavirus that causes COVID-19 most likely started because of ________.

A) an accidental release from a biotechnology lab B) animals sold in a market C) mutations in the flu virus D) the increase in mosquito population Answer: B Module: HH.5 Pathogens and the Spread of Disease Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.5.1: Explain how human activities can affect the spread of diseases.

37) When viruses move through populations of animals and then move into human populations, they often ________.

A) quickly pass back to their original host, posing little danger to humans B) go through a number of genetic changes that can make them very dangerous to humans C) are similar enough to other human viruses that they pose little danger D) incorporate DNA from their original host, which makes them very dangerous to humans Answer: B Module: HH.5 Pathogens and the Spread of Disease Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.5.2: Explain how diseases can move between animal and human populations.

38) ________ is transmitted by an insect.

A) Malaria B) H1N1 C) Ebola D) Cholera Answer: A Module: HH.5 Pathogens and the Spread of Disease Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.5.2: Explain how diseases can move between animal and human populations.

39) A recent study indicated that more than 75% of new human infectious diseases are zoonoses, meaning that they ________.

A) can infect any animal species B) originate in humans and spread to various species of animals C) can be transmitted between animals and humans D) are transmitted via the sinuses and respiratory tracts of animals Answer: C Module: HH.5 Pathogens and the Spread of Disease Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.5.2: Explain how diseases can move between animal and human populations.

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40) Viruses that are able to infect the maximum number of people have a ________ incubation period and ________ mortality rate.

A) long; low B) long; high C) short; low D) short; high Answer: A Module: HH.5 Pathogens and the Spread of Disease Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.5.3: Explain why diseases pose a greater risk today than in the past.

41) Which of the following is an ecosystem service?

A) Wetlands breaking down pesticides before they enter a waterway B) The Nature Conservancy buying sensitive land that lacks protection C) Recycling aluminum in order to extend the life expectancy of bauxite ore D) Cleaning up a hiking trail in Rocky Mountain National Park Answer: A Module: HH.6 The Benefits of a Healthy Environment Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.6.1: Describe how large-scale environmental change is creating a new set of threats to human health.

42) How might global climate change cause an increase in cases of malaria?

A) Malaria is transmitted via human wastes, and it is more difficult to process human wastes in hot, dry environments.

B) Warmer temperatures will suppress human immune systems, so humans will be more susceptible to malaria.

C) Temperature increases may improve breeding conditions for disease-carrying mosquitoes.

D) Humans will migrate to cooler areas, spreading malaria to cooler areas of the globe.

Answer: C Module: HH.6 The Benefits of a Healthy Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.6.2: Explain why climate change can impact human health.

43) Deforestation causes an increased risk of ________.

A) hurricanes B) malaria C) mudslides D) cholera Answer: C Module: HH.6 The Benefits of a Healthy Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.6.3: Explain how protecting the environment is critical to maintaining the health of human populations.

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HH.2 Essay Questions 1) Discuss three of the most important factors influencing a person's vulnerability to environmental toxins.

Answer: The effects of toxic substances on humans vary considerably, depending on factors such as genetic makeup, age, and socioeconomic status. One's genetic makeup plays an important role in susceptibility to toxins. Humans vary in the ability of their DNA to be altered by toxic chemicals, and equal toxicant exposures can result in quite a difference in susceptibility to cancer. Age also influences vulnerability, with the young and elderly being particularly sensitive to pollutants. Toxins can affect developmental processes in fetuses and young children, with fetuses being particularly vulnerable to teratogens, which interfere with developmental processes and cause physical or biochemical abnormalities at birth. Children also undergo many neurological changes during the first decade of life, making children particularly vulnerable to neurotoxins. Children, the elderly, and others with compromised lung functioning are particularly vulnerable to air pollution. Socioeconomic status also affects vulnerability to toxins.

Not only do poor people have more limited access to health care, but they are also much more likely to live in environments that increase their risk of exposure, such as exposure to air pollution along busy freeways. Living in older homes with lead paint, or living closer to industrial and waste facilities, is often considered normal living conditions for lower socioeconomic groups.

Module: HH.1 Principles of Environmental Health Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: HH.1.4: Explain how the concept of environmental justice applies to environmental health in both developing and developed economies.

2) Explain and give an example of biological magnification.

Answer: When one organism ingests a harmful chemical, the toxicant may become concentrated within its tissues. When the higher-level consumer feeds, it eats multiple organisms at the lower trophic level, consuming magnified quantities of toxin with each feeding. Thus, with every step up the food chain from primary producer to top predator, concentrations of the toxin increase. An example of biological magnification in nature is when birds consume toxic amounts of DDT or some other pesticide, because they eat big fish, which have eaten small fish, which have eaten plankton and algae, which have taken up small amounts of pesticide from polluted water.

Module: HH.4 The Transport of Toxic Chemicals and Radiation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.4.3: Describe how toxic chemicals move through ecosystems and explain why they become increasingly concentrated as they move up the food chain.

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3) What does the field of environmental health encompass?

Answer: The field of environmental health assesses the risks of both natural and human-made environmental hazards, and how these hazards can potentially influence human health and quality of life. It seeks to prevent adverse effects on human health and on ecological systems essential to environmental quality and long-term human well-being. These hazards can cause acute and/or chronic symptoms. Acute (large dose with rapid onset of effects) symptoms are relatively easier to identify and to tie to a specific cause. It is much more difficult to trace the causes of chronic symptoms (low doses over a long period of exposure), which tend to be the impacts of the majority of environmental toxins.

Module: HH.1, HH.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: HH.1.1, HH.2.1

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter EU Energy Use EU.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following energy sources is an example of a traditional biomass fuel?

A) Nuclear energy B) Cow poop C) Coal D) Hydropower Answer: B Module: EU.1 The Fundamentals and History of Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.1.1: Describe how human energy use has changed over the last 200 years.

2) A pound of which of the following would have the highest energy content?

A) Lightbulbs B) Coal C) Wood D) Gasoline Answer: D Module: EU.1 The Fundamentals and History of Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.1.2: Describe how energy density and energy quality vary with different types of fuels.

3) The early Industrial Revolution primarily relied on fossil fuels to ________.

A) run gasoline engines B) run power plants that generated electricity C) generate steam D) generate heat and electricity Answer: C Module: EU.1 The Fundamentals and History of Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.1.3: Describe why energy use has changed from the late 1800s to the present.

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4) The energy use per person each year is growing faster in economically developing countries than it is in economically developed countries. Given what you know about historical per capita energy use in economically developing and economically developed nations, what will the comparative energy use to be like over the next five years? The average person in and economically developed country will use ________ energy each year than the average person in and economically developed country.

A) significantly more B) significantly less C) a little more D) a little less Answer: A Module: EU.1 The Fundamentals and History of Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.2.1: Describe the global demand for energy and explain the differences in energy use between economically developed and economically developing countries.

5) As a source of energy, developed economies rely on ________ the most, while developing economies rely more heavily on ________.

A) coal; oil and natural gas B) wood and other biofuels; fossil fuels C) fossil fuels; nuclear power D) oil and natural gas; coal Answer: D Module: EU.2 Current Global Energy Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.2.2: Describe the current mix of fuels used to meet global demand, and describe recent patterns in renewable energy use.

6) In 2018, fossil fuels met ________ of the global energy needs.

A) 35% B) 57% C) 70% D) 85% Answer: D Module: EU.2 Current Global Energy Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.2.2: Describe the current mix of fuels used to meet global demand, and describe recent patterns in renewable energy use.

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7) Calculations of per capita energy use include(s) the average ________.

A) only the amount of energy that a person uses B) the amount of energy that a person uses, plus the energy required to make the consumer goods that person purchases C) the amount of energy that a person uses, plus the energy required to make the goods that a country produces D) the amount of energy that a person uses, plus the per-person amount of energy used to make the goods that the country imports and exports Answer: D Module: EU.2 Current Global Energy Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.2.2: Describe the current mix of fuels used to meet global demand, and describe recent patterns in renewable energy use.

8) All of the following are secondary energy sources except ________.

A) gasoline B) electricity C) batteries D) coal Answer: D Module: EU.2 Current Global Energy Use Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.2.2: Describe the current mix of fuels used to meet global demand, and describe recent patterns in renewable energy use.

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Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

9) Which of the following can be inferred from the information in the figure?

A) If the United States had the same energy intensity as China, per capita energy use in the United States would be much higher.

B) The United States has higher energy intensity than most countries.

C) Countries that are more energy intense use more energy per capita than countries that are less energy intense.

D) Per capita energy use in China will decrease as the country's energy intensity decreases.

Answer: A Module: EU.2 Current Global Energy Use Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EU.2.3: Explain how energy use varies among countries and what factors account for this variation.

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10) According to the figure, ________.

A) of the countries shown, the United States uses the most energy per capita despite having the lowest energy intensity B) of the countries shown, China uses the least energy per capita despite having the highest energy intensity C) China's high energy intensity reflects its use of highly efficient technologies D) the United States is the only country shown that uses more energy per capita than the global per capita average Answer: B Module: EU.2 Current Global Energy Use Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.2.3: Explain how energy use varies among countries and what factors account for this variation.

11) An oil shortage in 1973 was mainly the result of ________.

A) global politics and an increased reliance on imported oil B) increased reliance on domestic oil production and the law of supply and demand C) a ban on offshore exploration in the United States D) global prosperity and an increased global demand for oil Answer: A Module: EU.3 Current Energy Use in the United States Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.3.1: Describe how energy sources in the United States have changed over the past 60 years.

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12) Which of the following statements can be inferred from the information in the figure?

A) Americans use more oil today than ever before.

B) Since the end of the great recession in the United States, around 2009, oil use in the United States increased by about 10%.

C) In 2009, renewable energy sources accounted for only 2% of the total annual energy use in the United States.

D) Oil is used mainly in transportation, and coal and natural gas are used mainly in the generation of electricity.

Answer: B Module: EU.3 Current Energy Use in the United States Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EU.3.1: Describe how energy sources in the United States have changed over the past 60 years.

13) Which of the following sectors is most heavily dependent on oil?

A) Industrial B) Residential C) Transportation D) Commercial Answer: C Module: EU.3 Current Energy Use in the United States Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.3.2: Explain how energy is used across the U.S. economy, including the relative demand for energy in different sectors and the fuels used to meet that demand.

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14) Coal and ________ are the energy sources that provide the least amount of energy for the transportation sector.

A) natural gas B) nuclear C) oil D) renewable energy sources Answer: B Module: EU.3 Current Energy Use in the United States Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.3.2: Explain how energy is used across the U.S. economy, including the relative demand for energy in different sectors and the fuels used to meet that demand.

15) Which of the following events in the development of electricity infrastructure in the United States occurred most recently?

A) The first coal-fired power plant was constructed.

B) The first nuclear power plant was constructed.

C) The first windfarm was constructed.

D) The first commercial solar voltaic system was developed.

Answer: C Module: EU.3 Current Energy Use in the United States Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.3.3: Describe the complexity of energy-distribution systems in the United States and explain the concept of path dependency.

16) Both a hydroelectric power plant and a fossil fuel power plant require ________ in order to generate electricity.

A) steam B) a water pump C) a turbine D) fuel Answer: C Module: EU.4 Electricity Generation and Distribution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.4.1: Explain how electricity is generated.

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17) One way to reduce energy use is to find more efficient ways to provide electricity. About what percentage of the energy in coal is lost during the generation and transmission of electricity?

A) 20% B) 30% C) 50% D) 70% Answer: D Module: EU.4 Electricity Generation and Distribution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.4.2: Describe how and why energy is lost during electricity generation and distribution.

18) Brownouts and blackouts involve drops in voltage to complete losses of electrical power, often occurring when electrical demand exceeds supply. As demands for electricity push beyond the capacity of the existing power grid in the United States, when is it most likely that a brownout or blackout will disrupt electricity to your home computer?

A) During a weekend in the winter B) During a weekday in the winter C) During a weekend in the summer D) During a weekday in the summer Answer: D Module: EU.4 Electricity Generation and Distribution Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: EU.4.3: Describe the characteristics of a centralized electric power system.

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19) Examine the changes in electrical demand in the United States. The daily drop in electrical consumption is most closely associated with ________.

A) people heading off to work B) people sleeping C) home heating and cooling systems D) daytime activities that consume little energy Answer: B Module: EU.4 Electricity Generation and Distribution Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.4.3: Describe the characteristics of a centralized electric power system.

20) Which of the following best exemplifies a decentralized power generation system?

A) The Hoover Dam B) A hot water heater C) A solar panel on a house D) A windfarm Answer: C Module: EU.4 Electricity Generation and Distribution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.4.4: Describe the characteristics of a decentralized electric power system.

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21) You visit a small village during a trip to Haiti. Which of the following would you be most surprised to find them using for cooking?

A) Coal B) Charcoal C) Dried animal dung D) Wood Answer: A Module: EU.5 Energy for Cooking, Heating, and Cooling Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.5.1: Describe how energy is used for cooking and heating in developing economies.

22) You visit a small village during a trip to Haiti. While there, you learn that a large number of villagers suffer from respiratory problems. Which of the following is the best explanation for this phenomenon?

A) The villagers are exposed to a great deal of air pollution from urban traffic.

B) The villagers are exposed to a great deal of air pollution from fuels used for cooking.

C) The villagers are allergic to your body spray.

D) Many of the villagers have had malaria, and lung damage is a permanent effect of the disease.

Answer: B Module: EU.5 Energy for Cooking, Heating, and Cooling Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.5.1: Describe how energy is used for cooking and heating in developing economies.

23) Which of the following would be the wisest investment to save you money on your energy bills if you lived in southern Louisiana?

A) An air conditioner B) A swamp cooler C) A solar hot water heater D) A natural gas furnace Answer: C Module: EU.5 Energy for Cooking, Heating, and Cooling Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.5.2: Describe how energy is used for cooking, heating, and cooling in developed economies.

24) Fractional distillation is used in processing ________.

A) natural gas B) coal C) ethanol fuel D) crude oil Answer: D Module: EU.6 Energy for Transportation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.6.1: Explain where transportation fuel comes from and how it gets to the point of end use.

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25) What does a hybrid car have that a traditional gasoline-powered vehicle lacks?

A) An electric motor B) An internal combustion engine C) A battery or batteries D) Brakes Answer: A Module: EU.6 Energy for Transportation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.6.2, EU.6.3 26) If the number of electric cars on the road increases, but our sources of electricity remain the same, what effect will it have on overall emissions?

A) Decrease because electric cars are completely emissions and pollution free B) Increase because most electricity is derived from coal C) Increase because the limited distance means more air travel D) Decrease because the limited distance means people will drive less Answer: B Module: EU.6 Energy for Transportation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.6.4: Describe how electric vehicles function and how this technology can reduce the environmental impacts of transportation.

27) What does a traditional gasoline-powered vehicle have that an electric car lacks?

A) An electric motor B) Emissions from the car C) A battery or batteries D) Fuel rods Answer: B Module: EU.6 Energy for Transportation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.6.2, EU.6.4 28) Instead of only generating more electricity, rising energy demands may also be met by ________.

A) switching from natural gas to coal B) switching from coal and natural gas to windmills and solar technologies C) increasing the efficiency of energy consumption D) using more nuclear power instead of fossil fuels Answer: C Module: EU.7 Energy Efficiency and Conservation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.7.1: Explain the distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency.

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29) Which of the following would increase the U.S. demand for imported oil?

A) Increasing the fuel efficiency of our transportation systems B) Developing alternatives to fossil fuels C) Decreasing the price of a gallon of gas D) Using natural gas to power personal and public transportation Answer: C Module: EU.7 Energy Efficiency and Conservation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.7.1: Explain the distinction between energy conservation and energy efficiency.

30) What is the difference between a negawatt and a megawatt?

A) A negawatt is one thousand watts, while a megawatt is one million watts.

B) A negawatt is the equivalent of 1 kilowatt of energy saved, while a megawatt is the equivalent of 1 kilowatt of energy used.

C) A negawatt is a megawatt of energy saved, while a megawatt is a million watts of energy used.

D) A negawatt is any amount of energy saved, while a megawatt is a measure equal to a million watts of energy.

Answer: D Module: EU.7 Energy Efficiency and Conservation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.7.1, EU.7.2 31) A smart thermostat ________.

A) monitors household energy use to help reduce it B) allows the electric utility to change the settings on the thermostat in times of peak demand C) allows the electric utility to provide incentives for customers to change thermostat settings during peak hours D) directs the flow of heated or cooled air only to rooms that are occupied Answer: A Module: EU.7 Energy Efficiency and Conservation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.7.2: Explain the concept of a negawatt, and explain how conservation and efficiency can offset the need for new energy generation.

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32) Use the information in the figure to answer the following question: If you were to replace one 60-watt incandescent bulb in your home with a 6—8 watt LED lightbulb, how much total money would be saved during the expected lifetime of the LED lightbulb?

A) $297.50 B) $300 C) $322 D) None, because the LED bulb costs more than the incandescent bulb Answer: C Module: EU.7 Energy Efficiency and Conservation Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.7.3: Explain the potential benefits of energy conservation and efficiency.

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33) From 2008 to 2012, the United States had ________.

A) increased its oil consumption, while India and China had decreased their consumption by means of strict environmental legislation B) decreased oil consumption, mostly due to recession and to citizens purchasing more fuelefficient vehicles C) been steadily consuming more oil and producing less oil domestically D) improved the efficiency of its technology and now does not need to import foreign oil Answer: B Module: EU.8 The Possible Future of Energy Demand Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.8.1: Describe the major causes of changing energy requirements and explain how different countries are changing resource use.

34) What cause the most recent decline in oil consumption in the United States?

A) The great recession B) The COVID-19 pandemic C) Consumers switching to more fuel-efficient cars D) Stricter regulations on vehicle emissions Answer: B Module: EU.8 The Possible Future of Energy Demand Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: EU.8.1: Describe the major causes of changing energy requirements and explain how different countries are changing resource use.

35) Which of the following would most reduce current U.S. reliance on oil imports?

A) Switching to energy-efficient lightbulbs B) Raising the fuel efficiency standards for all vehicles sold in the United States C) Replacing any dishwasher or refrigerator more than 10 years old with new energy-efficient models D) Turning computers and lights off when not in use Answer: B Module: EU.8 The Possible Future of Energy Demand Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.8.2: Describe the current trends in transportation and possible future technologies that could change energy demand for this sector.

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EU.2 Essay Questions 1) A recent economic downturn, the relatively high price of gasoline, and an increase in fuel efficiency of vehicles have led to a slight decline in oil consumption in the United States.

However, per capita oil use is still among the highest in the world–eight times higher than per capita oil use in China and almost 20 times higher than per capita use in India. Identify specific ways that the United States could further decrease its oil consumption and become more sustainable.

Answer: Currently, most of the vehicles in the United States use traditional internal-combustion engines that burn gasoline (derived from oil). An increase in the availability and use of hybrid cars would increase the overall fuel efficiency of cars on the road, thus decreasing the use of gasoline. Likewise, if electric cars were cheaper and more readily available, and if more fueling stations had the capacity to recharge electric cars, such cars would be more popular. These cars do not burn gasoline at all, and the electricity used for charging the electric cars usually comes from coal, natural gas, nuclear, hydropower, or wind, not oil. Along with the high price of gas motivating people to drive less, if the United States were to raise the gas tax, gasoline would become more expensive, further motivating people to drive less or switch to a hybrid or electric vehicle. Doing so might also motivate people to carpool or use buses and other mass transit options to get to and from work and school. The United States recently raised the mileage standards for new passenger vehicles to 54.5 mpg by the year 2025, which will require innovation into advanced technologies. If achieved, the new regulations would almost double the current fuel efficiency standards and would save millions of barrels of oil every day.

Module: EU.6, EU.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.6.3, EU.6.4, EU.8.1, EU.8.2 2) You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of a utility company in Arizona that is considering whether to expand its electrical capacity to keep up with demand. You decide that it would be wise to delay expanding your electrical capacity for as long as possible by getting your customers to reduce their electrical use. Explain how your company would go about doing this.

Answer: My company would encourage customers to use electricity more efficiently by providing rebates on energy-efficient lightbulbs, energy-efficient appliances, and rooftop solar panels that convert sunlight into electricity. Because Arizona has a dry climate, we would also encourage people (perhaps via rebates) to replace their air conditioners with swamp coolers, which are much more energy efficient in dry climates. We should also educate people about strategies for energy conservation, especially during times of peak demand when our power plants are running at full capacity. We could spearhead educational outreach programs that teach easy-to-do conservation strategies such as not running dishwashers until they are fully loaded. We could invest in modernizing our grid system so we can keep track of peak versus off-peak electricity usage, which would allow us to charge more for electricity used during peak periods, thus motivating people to wait until off-peak hours to do things like dry clothes and run dishwashers.

Ultimately, these negawatt programs (investments that improve energy efficiency and conservation) would allow us to use existing facilities more efficiently rather than build new ones.

Module: EU.5 Energy for Cooking, Heating, and Cooling Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.5.2: Describe how energy is used for cooking, heating, and cooling in developed economies.

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3) Despite constant technological advancements that are more and more energy efficient, global energy use is projected to increase for the foreseeable future (see the figure). Explain why global energy use is expected to increase.

Answer: The world's population is increasing, and even with the same amount of energy use per capita, more people would mean more total energy used. Furthermore, electricity and automobiles are becoming more widely available in developing economies, and likewise, energy-using technologies such as televisions are gradually becoming more widely available.

Furthermore, increased energy efficiency can be offset by increased energy consumption. Such trends as increased size of houses, increased use of automobiles, and increased use of air conditioners will likely require greater energy use, regardless of how much more efficient the houses, automobiles, and air conditioners are. Even increased efficiency of televisions is offset by the fact that people are buying larger and larger televisions.

Module: EU.1, EU.7, EU.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: EU.1.3, EU.7.3, EU.8.1, EU.8.2, EU.8.3

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter NE Nonrenewable Energy NE.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Fossil fuels represent ________.

A) plants and algae buried millions of years ago B) natural deposits of organic materials that formed long before life on Earth evolved C) the remains of fossil animals that lived a few thousand years ago D) sustainable sources of energy that are underused today Answer: A Module: NE.1 Formation of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.1: Describe the basic process of fossil fuel formation and explain why these fuels are nonrenewable.

2) Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable sources of energy because ________.

A) they are used more quickly than they can naturally be replaced B) they release carbon dioxide when they are burned C) people are cutting down too many forests to allow trees to turn into coal D) carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are too high to allow fossil fuels to form Answer: A Module: NE.1 Formation of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.1: Describe the basic process of fossil fuel formation and explain why these fuels are nonrenewable 3) Which of the following energy sources is considered nonrenewable?

A) Fossil fuel energy B) Sunlight (solar) energy C) Geothermal energy D) Tidal energy E) Wind energy Answer: A Module: NE.1 Formation of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.1: Describe the basic process of fossil fuel formation and explain why these fuels are nonrenewable.

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4) Scientists search for fossil fuels in many ways. Identifying pockets of fossil fuels by sending sound waves into the ground to reflect off of rock layers is called three-dimensional ________.

A) dynamite surveying B) seismic surveying C) sonar surveying D) geologic surveying Answer: B Module: NE.1 Formation of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.2: Describe how technology influences how fossil fuels deposits are found and extracted.

5) The process of hydraulic fracturing involves using ________.

A) explosives to fracture layers of rock that contain natural gas B) the energy from "fractured" water molecules to create a flow of electrons C) coal as a chemical reactant for producing natural gas D) high-pressure fluids to fracture rock layers that contain natural gas Answer: D Module: NE.1, NE.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.2, NE.4.1 6) ________ are fossil fuel deposits that are slightly too costly to be produced at the present time.

A) Recoverable reserves B) Subeconomic resources C) Marginal reserves D) Suboptimal reserves Answer: C Module: NE.1 Formation of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.3: Explain how fossil fuels deposits are classified by geological certainty and economic viability of extraction.

7) New technologies, such as hydraulic fracturing are able to extract oil and gas that are called ________ oil and gas.

A) conventional B) unconventional C) marginal D) subeconomic Answer: B Module: NE.1 Formation of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.1.4: Explain the difference between conventional and unconventional oil and gas.

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8) ________ can be isolated from crude oil through the process of fractional distillation.

A) Natural gas B) Oil shale C) Vegetable oil D) Gasoline Answer: D Module: NE.2 Oil Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.2.1: Describe how oil is used.

9) Which of the following statements about tar sands is true?

A) Most of Canada's petroleum reserves are in the form of tar sands.

B) Hydrofracking is used to extract oil from tar sands.

C) Deposits of tar sands are generally found in sandy deserts such as the Arabian Desert in the Middle East.

D) Most of the petroleum reserves in North Dakota are in the form of tar sands.

Answer: A Module: NE.2 Oil Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.2.2: Describe the global distribution of oil reserves.

10) Oil production is a misnomer for the process used by oil companies because ________.

A) the oil reserves may not be as large as expected B) the oil was produced millions of years ago C) much of the oil is found in other forms, such as tar and natural gas D) most oil is produced by drilling deeply into the Earth Answer: B Module: NE.1, NE.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: NE.1.1, NE.2.2 11) Technologies such as fracking allowed the United States to be the world's largest oil producer in 2018. This situation can only continue as long as ________.

A) China does not increase its domestic production B) sanctions prevent countries in the Middle East from exporting oil C) global oil prices are relatively high D) Canada continues to send oil from the tar sands for the United States to refine Answer: C Module: NE.2 Oil Resources Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: NE.2.2, 2.3

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12) The world's most abundant fossil fuel is ________.

A) biodiesel B) coal C) oil D) natural gas E) methane Answer: B Module: NE.3 Coal Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.3.1: Describe how coal is formed and explain how coal deposits differ in quality.

13) Which fossil fuel generally contains the greatest concentrations of pollution-causing contaminants?

A) Coal B) Oil C) Natural gas D) Uranium Answer: A Module: NE.3 Coal Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.3.1: Describe how coal is formed and explain how coal deposits differ in quality.

14) China, India, and the United States account for over 70% of the world's ________.

A) coal consumption B) coal reserves C) oil reserves D) natural gas reserves Answer: A Module: NE.3 Coal Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.3.2: Describe the global distribution of coal reserves.

15) Which country produces and consumes about half of Earth's coal?

A) The United States B) Russia C) India D) China Answer: D Module: NE.3 Coal Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.3.2: Describe the global distribution of coal reserves.

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16) The largest proven coal reserves on Earth are found in ________.

A) the Middle East B) China C) the United States D) Russia Answer: C Module: NE.3 Coal Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.3.2: Describe the global distribution of coal reserves.

17) Carbon sequestration ________.

A) involves capturing carbon emissions and then releasing them into the atmosphere B) has been shown to be more dangerous to the environment than releasing carbon dioxide C) is an unproven technology that is in the early stages of development D) converts carbon from carbon dioxide emissions into smaller elements that do not contribute to global climate change Answer: C Module: NE.3 Coal Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.3.3: Describe the environmental implications of coal production and consumption.

18) During the 1900s, the United States saw a transition from coal to natural gas furnaces, and today, few homes are directly heated with coal. All of the following are benefits of this transition except ________.

A) less truck traffic bringing fuel to homes B) a decrease in acid precipitation C) a switch to a fuel that is much more abundant D) a decrease in the release of greenhouse gases Answer: C Module: NE.3, NE.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: NE.3.3, NE.4.3 19) Natural gas is primarily composed of ________.

A) methane B) oxygen C) shale oil D) sulfur Answer: A Module: NE.4 Natural Gas Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.4.1: Describe where natural gas is found and what techniques are used to extract it.

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20) The use of high-pressure liquids to extract oil or natural gas from rocks is called ________.

A) freaking B) hydroextraction C) hydrofracking D) hydrolyzation Answer: C Module: NE.4 Natural Gas Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.4.2, NE.4.4 21) Proven natural gas reserves are largest in ________.

A) Saudi Arabia B) Russia C) Brazil D) the Iberian Peninsula (Spain and Portugal) Answer: B Module: NE.4 Natural Gas Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.4.3: Describe the global distribution of natural gas reserves.

22) Why is the global map of natural gas reserves likely to continue to change in the next decade?

A) New technology allows the discovery and extraction of unconventional gas reserves.

B) Some countries are using their reserves as fast as they can extract them, while others are holding them in reserve for when global prices rise.

C) As fossil fuel prices rise, land disputes are expected to arise over who owns valuable natural gas resources.

D) New technology has allowed the discovery of large natural gas pockets of the coast of several nations.

Answer: A Module: NE.4 Natural Gas Resources Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: NE.4.3: Describe the global distribution of natural gas reserves.

23) Which one of the following is the most cleanly burning fossil fuel?

A) Bituminous coal B) Anthracite coal C) Natural gas D) Oil Answer: C Module: NE.4 Natural Gas Resources Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.4.4: Describe the environmental impacts of natural gas production and consumption.

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24) Extracting oil from shale deposits ________.

A) has been initiated on a large scale in the United States and will soon surpass Canada's production B) is energy inefficient because it involves heating rocks to extract the oil C) in the United States will take place mostly in northeast states as well as in Georgia and Florida D) has been occurring in the Canadian tar sands Answer: B Module: NE.5 The Future of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.5.1: Describe how long oil reserves can last with estimated rates of use.

25) What is the "peak oil" supply?

A) A previously unknown deposits in the Ural Mountains B) The point at which rising oil production will have to fall because global supplies are running out C) The amount of oil production that will lead to the lowest gas prices D) The amount of oil production that will lead to the maximum demand and the highest profits for the oil suppliers Answer: B Module: NE.5 The Future of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.5.1: Describe how long oil reserves can last with estimated rates of use 26) Most projections predict that peak oil supply will be reached in the next ________ years.

A) 10—20 B) 20—30 C) 30—40 D) 50—60 Answer: A Module: NE.5 The Future of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.5.1: Describe how long oil reserves can last with estimated rates of use 27) At the current rates of use, the United States has enough coal to last the next ________.

A) 15—20 years B) 40—50 years C) 60—90 years D) 100—250 years Answer: D Module: NE.5 The Future of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.5.2: Describe how long coal reserves can last with estimated rates of use.

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28) Global coal use declined between 2014 and 2016, but consumption is rising again. Why is it rising?

A) The increased use of electric cars B) Increased demand for coal to replace other fossil fuels C) Deregulation of coal-fired plants in the United States has allowed older plants to be used again.

D) Increased investment in coal fired plants in places such as China Answer: D Module: NE.5 The Future of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.5.2: Describe how long coal reserves can last with estimated rates of use.

29) Natural gas reserves in the United States ________.

A) have been almost fully depleted, so the United States must import most of its natural gas B) are larger than those of any other country C) are expected to last at least another 70 years D) are being replenished more quickly than they are being used Answer: C Module: NE.5 The Future of Fossil Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.5.3: Describe how long natural gas reserves can last with estimated rates of use.

30) Electricity from nuclear power plants is produced via ________.

A) the fusion of electrons by bombarding them with uranium or plutonium atoms B) the fusion of nuclei of atoms C) bombarding radioactive elements with electrons D) the fission of uranium or plutonium atoms by bombarding them with neutrons Answer: D Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.1: Explain how nuclear energy is generated from fission and describe the basic parts of this process.

31) The source of energy for reactions on the sun is ________.

A) nuclear fusion B) hydrogen fuel C) nuclear fission D) natural gas Answer: A Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.1: Explain how nuclear energy is generated from fission and describe the basic parts of this process.

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32) Which of the following is a benefit of using nuclear power?

A) Core meltdown of reactors can provide "bonus" energy for electricity production.

B) Few greenhouse gases are emitted.

C) Mining activities enhance ecosystems.

D) The increasing costs of nonrenewable energy sources make nuclear energy more economically viable.

E) Using nuclear power causes more use of fossil fuels.

Answer: B Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.1: Explain how nuclear energy is generated from fission and describe the basic parts of this process.

33) What "ingredient" is required to begin the chain reaction in a nuclear power plant?

A) Heat B) A neutron C) 238U D) A proton Answer: B Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.1: Explain how nuclear energy is generated from fission and describe the basic parts of this process.

34) Which type of ionizing radiation is generally the most dangerous?

A) Alpha radiation B) Beta radiation C) Gamma radiation D) Omega radiation Answer: C Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.2: Explain the concept of radioactivity and differentiate between alpha, beta, and gamma radioactivity.

35) Nuclear fuel is generally made from ________.

A) methane and ethanol B) radium and radon C) the nuclei of cells D) uranium and plutonium Answer: D Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.3: Describe what raw materials are needed for nuclear energy, and explain what happens during enrichment of fuel.

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36) How does enriched uranium differ from naturally occurring uranium?

A) Naturally occurring uranium is mostly 238U, while enriched uranium is mostly 235U. B) Naturally occurring uranium is mostly 235U, while enriched uranium is mostly 238U. C) Naturally occurring uranium contains 1% 235U, while enriched uranium contains 3%—5% 235U. D) Naturally occurring uranium contains 1% 238U, while enriched uranium contains 3%—5% 238U. Answer: C Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.6.3: Describe what raw materials are needed for nuclear energy, and explain what happens during enrichment of fuel.

37) Your cousin lives near a nuclear power plant and is concerned about the white smoke he sees coming out of the giant smokestacks at the nearby nuclear power plant. To lessen his fears, you should inform your cousin that ________.

A) the smoke is being generated by the connected coal power plant that provides backup electricity to the nuclear power plant B) the smoke is actually steam coming from cooling towers and that the water producing the steam did not come from the reactor core C) nobody has ever been killed or injured from an accident at a nuclear power plant D) the amount of radioactivity in the fuel rods of a functioning nuclear power plant is so low that there would be nothing to worry about, even if the power plant were to fail and release all of its radiation into the air Answer: B Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: NE.6.4: Explain how nuclear reactors work.

38) Energy extracted from which one of the following fuels produces the least amount of carbon dioxide?

A) Nuclear B) Coal C) Natural gas D) Oil Answer: A Module: NE.6 Nuclear Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: NE.6.5: Describe the environmental implications of nuclear energy.

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NE.2 Essay Questions 1) You are the mayor of a very large city whose regional electrical utilities are struggling to keep up with demand. A new power plant must be built in the area, and you are faced with having to make a recommendation as to which kind of power plant should be built (coal, natural gas, or nuclear). Which would you recommend? Provide a rationale for your recommendation, and include reasons why you did not choose the other two options.

Answer: (Note: Any of the three choices could be correct, depending on the student's explanation.) As the mayor of the city, I would probably not have the final say in which kind of power plant would be built, but I would certainly have an opinion in the matter and would make my recommendation known. If it is not possible to expand the capacity of the power plants that already exist, and if conservation efforts would not be expected to sufficiently decrease demand, I would recommend a natural gas power plant. Supplies of natural gas are expected to last long into the future, so I do not expect the power plant to become obsolete or too expensive to run.

Natural gas burns more cleanly than coal, so a natural gas power plant would contribute less to the air pollution in the metropolitan area. Since transportation of natural gas can be accomplished through underground pipes, and since natural gas burns clean, there would be less truck and train traffic hauling in coal and hauling out ash that would have to be disposed of. Coal also produces 45% more carbon dioxide emissions than the energetically equivalent amount of natural gas, so natural gas would be a wiser choice with regard to greenhouse gas emissions. Although nuclear power produces negligible amounts of pollution and carbon dioxide emission at the power plant, it would not be wise to recommend a nuclear power plant. If the power plant has to be built in the area, it would probably be political suicide to recommend a nuclear power plant because of the real and perceived dangers of nuclear accidents. A nuclear accident would jeopardize the health and lives of thousands of citizens, and although the risks of a catastrophic accident are quite low, I would not want to be perceived as putting anything above the welfare of my citizens.

Module: NE.1, NE.3-NE.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: NE.3.3, NE.4.4, NE.5.1, NE.5.2, NE.5.3, NE.6 (Introduction), NE.6.5.

2) Describe the distinction between conventional and unconventional oil and gas, and give examples of the unconventional varieties.

Answer: Conventional oil and gas are found in large pools that can be extracted using traditional drilling and pumping. Unconventional oil and gas, including tar sands, oil shale, and shale gas, require far more effort and energy to extract and are thus less profitable sources of energy. Tar sands are a mixture of heavy oils and sand grains, with the oil and sand needing to be separated. Oil shale contains solid rather than liquid hydrocarbons and requires heating in order to release the oil. Shale gas, found in small cracks in seams of shale, needs to be hydrofractured (fracked) using high-pressure fluids in order to be released and extracted.

Module: NE.2, NE.4, NE.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: NE.2.3, NE.4.1, NE.5.1

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter RE Renewable Energy RE.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Construction of the large dams and reservoirs for hydropower can have all of the following consequences except ________.

A) killing fish by releasing warm water from the deep layers of the reservoir B) increasing the incidence of waterborne disease C) stopping the flow of soil-enriching sediments D) increasing risk of earthquakes if the reservoir adds stress to geologic faults Answer: A Module: RE.1 Hydropower Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.2: Describe the environmental impacts and practical limitations of hydropower.

2) Although hydroelectric dams generate electricity without directly producing greenhouse gases, they ________.

A) are short-lived structures that have to be rebuilt about every 20 years B) contribute only about 5% of global electricity production C) produce as much other air pollutants as coal-fired power plants D) eliminate wildlife habitats and affect the temperature of waterways Answer: D Module: RE.1 Hydropower Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.2: Describe the environmental impacts and practical limitations of hydropower.

3) In the United States, the production of hydroelectricity ________.

A) has declined in popularity because of fears of catastrophic dam failure, as depicted in several motion pictures B) is likely to increase rapidly by the year 2025 C) may increase in the future, but only if tidal energy and run of the river technologies are adopted D) is expected to decline rapidly by the year 2025 Answer: C Module: RE.1 Hydropower Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.3: Describe the potential for future hydropower development.

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4) Which of the following is most likely to be powered by photovoltaics?

A) A lawn mower B) A lighthouse C) A calculator D) An automobile Answer: C Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.1: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for electricity generation.

5) Current photovoltaic technology uses sunlight to generate electricity ________.

A) with a single structure in a single step B) by heating up water and using microscopic turbines C) via the process of microfusion D) while generating small amounts of methane for use as a fuel in other applications Answer: A Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.2.1: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for electricity generation.

6) Your environmental science instructor tells your class that you will have an extra credit question on your next exam based on a talk to be given by a scholar visiting campus to present his research on alternative energy sources. The night before the talk, you pull an all-nighter writing a research report. You attend the talk but immediately doze off. Afterward, all you remember about the talk is that the speaker said something about working with turbines. On your next environmental science exam, your instructor asks you about the focus of the speaker's research, with the following answer choices. Which one is most likely to be the correct answer?

A) Photovoltaic systems B) Biodiesel production C) Concentrated solar thermal systems D) Geothermal heat pumps Answer: C Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: RE.2.1: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for electricity generation.

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7) A concentrated solar thermal power facility concentrates solar energy by ________.

A) heating water in pipes that run along rows of mirrors B) using photovoltaic panels to produce electricity C) using a large array of reflectors to direct sunlight to a collector D) collecting light in a series of fiber optic cables directed to underground steam rooms Answer: C Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.2.1: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for electricity generation.

8) The Woods family uses about 10,000 kilowatt-hours of electricity annually. Coal-fired power plants release about 2 lbs. of carbon dioxide per kilowatt-hour of electricity produced. Wanting to be more environmentally "friendly," the family installs a solar photovoltaic (PV) system on their roof. They notice that the amount of electricity provided to them by their utility company has decreased by 60%. Assuming all of the utility company's electricity is generated from coal, how much less carbon dioxide is being produced annually as a result of the Woods installing their PV system?

A) 20,000 lbs.

B) 12,000 lbs.

C) 8,000 lbs.

D) It depends on how much carbon dioxide is being released by the PV system.

Answer: B Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.1: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for electricity generation.

9) Passive solar is used in the design of ________.

A) photovoltaic solar panels B) houses C) water heaters D) solar cars Answer: B Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.2.2: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for heating and cooking.

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10) Every winter morning when the sun is shining bright, a man living in Montana pulls back the drapes on a large south-facing window. In this way, he helps heat his home using ________.

A) conductive solar heating B) active solar heating C) radioactive solar heating D) passive solar heating Answer: D Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.2: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for heating and cooking.

11) The house in this figure represents the use of ________.

A) active solar design B) passive solar design C) photovoltaics D) thermogenerating windows Answer: B Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.2: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for heating and cooking.

12) Unlike solar, hydropower plants ________.

A) can be constructed quickly B) can be added to gradually as demand grows C) can consistently generate electricity at night D) do not pose a great safety risk Answer: C Module: RE.1, RE.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.1, RE.2.3 4 .

13) Pumping water from the Colorado River back up behind Hoover Dam could be used to provide ________.

A) an energy storage system for intermittent renewable energy sources B) increased drinking water for nearby cities C) irrigation water for agricultural operations D) an opportunity to purify water in the reservoir behind the dam Answer: A Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.2.3: Describe the environmental impacts and practical limitations of solar energy.

14) The cost of rooftop solar electricity is ________.

A) comparable to the average residential electricity cost B) comparable to the cost of large grid-based concentrated solar electricity C) comparable to the cost only affordable with government incentives D) more than twice as expensive as electricity produced from fossil fuels Answer: A Module: RE.1, RE.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.1, RE.2.3 15) What are the two main factors that determine the cost of solar energy production?

A) The types of metals used in the panels and where those metals are found.

B) The amount of panels produced and the efficiency of each panel.

C) The amount of land needed for concentrated solar thermal power and the price of batteries.

D) The amount of water needed to produce steam to turn turbines, and the efficiency of each turbine.

Answer: B Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.2.3, RE.2.4

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16) According to the figure above, the global installed solar capacity between 2010 and 2015 increased by approximately ________ percent.

A) 150 B) 200 C) 400 D) 900 Answer: C Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.4: Identify factors that will increase future solar energy development, and identify the barriers to widespread solar use.

17) Compared to the use of fossil fuels, wind energy ________.

A) is more consistent B) requires no investment C) produces no exhaust pollutants and contributes little to global climate change D) is not renewable Answer: C Module: RE.3 Wind Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.3.1: Explain how wind is used to generate electricity.

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18) Although they have tremendous advantages, wind turbines ________.

A) cause thousands of bird and bat deaths each year B) are known to dry out the soil in the surrounding region C) make the surrounding region unsuitable for farming or ranching D) generate greenhouse gases when producing electricity Answer: A Module: RE.3 Wind Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.3.2: Describe the environmental impacts and practical limitations of wind energy.

19) Wind and solar energy production are similar in that they ________.

A) are too expensive to develop without government incentives B) are typically not cost-effective C) are intermittent sources of energy, and require electricity storage systems D) are too difficult to connect to the power grid for large-scale use Answer: C Module: RE.3 Wind Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.3.2, RE.3.3 20) Compared to concentrated solar thermal power facilities and hydroelectric dams, wind farms ________.

A) cause less habitat disturbance B) can be placed anywhere C) do not involve the use of turbines D) are very expensive to build Answer: A Module: RE.1, RE.2, RE.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.2, RE.2.3, RE.3.2 21) Past analyses have suggested that wind energy could only meet 30—40% of total electricity needs in the United States. All of the following are reasons why wind energy cannot meet a greater portion of our energy needs except ________.

A) wind turbines are only 30—40% efficient at converting wind energy into electricity B) wind is an intermittent resource and may not be blowing when we need the electricity C) we have no efficient way of storing excess amounts of electricity produced when it is windy D) we cannot efficiently move electricity across a large grid from windy areas to distant areas where there are no wind farms Answer: A Module: RE.3 Wind Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.3.3: Describe the potential for future development of wind energy.

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22) Past analyses have suggested that wind energy could only meet 30—40% of total electricity needs in the United States. Which of the following is being developed that may improve the outlook for wind energy?

A) Wind farms located closer to major cities B) Larger wind farm locations C) Larger, more efficient wind turbines D) Improved grid-based storage Answer: D Module: RE.3 Wind Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.3.3: Describe the potential for future development of wind energy.

23) Which of the following involves the use of biomass energy?

A) Burning coal to produce electricity B) Using natural gas to heat a home C) Burning logs in a fireplace to heat a cabin D) Burning oil in a kerosene lantern Answer: C Module: RE.4 Biomass Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.4.1: Explain how energy is obtained from biomass fuels and describe how this energy is used.

24) Coal would not be considered a renewable source of biomass energy because ________.

A) it was not formed from living organisms B) it releases carbon dioxide when burned C) it does not contain organic material D) the organisms that formed the coal lived millions of years ago Answer: D Module: RE.4 Biomass Fuels Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.4.1: Explain how energy is obtained from biomass fuels and describe how this energy is used.

25) One of the main motivations for using corn-based ethanol in the United States is ________.

A) that all new vehicles can use both ethanol and gasoline as fuel B) that by doing so, we reduce our reliance on imported oil C) that we have excess crops available for fuel production D) the generation of biodiesel as a by-product of ethanol production Answer: B Module: RE.4 Biomass Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.4.1: Explain how energy is obtained from biomass fuels and describe how this energy is used.

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26) Richie learned in his environmental science class that using biofuels instead of fossil fuels could decrease the amount of greenhouse gases released into the atmosphere. Richie wants to be carbon-neutral, so he decides to replace the oil furnace in his small house with a corn stove, which uses whole kernels of corn as fuel. Richie's friend Angela points out that Richie may have failed to take a certain fact into consideration when he decided to buy the corn stove.

Specifically, Richie probably did not consider that ________.

A) burning corn releases carbon dioxide, so there is no decrease in the amount of greenhouse gases being released B) corn stoves are expensive, and Richie could have used the money to plant trees instead of buying the stove C) corn stoves have been shown to be dangerous because, unlike furnaces, they can leak carbon monoxide D) corn requires a good deal of energy to produce, and a wood pellet stove would have probably been a more carbon-neutral choice Answer: D Module: RE.4 Biomass Fuels Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: RE.4.2: Describe the environmental impacts and practical limitations of biomass energy.

27) Cellulosic ethanol, a second-generation biomass fuel, can be produced from ________.

A) soybeans and corn B) cornstalks and switchgrass C) animal fats D) old rubber tires and dirty diapers Answer: B Module: RE.4 Biomass Fuels Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.4.3: Explain the potential for future biomass energy development.

28) A home in Oklahoma is built into a hillside such that only the south-facing side of the home, with many large windows, is exposed to the outside. Such construction of a home takes advantage of ________.

A) biomass heating and geothermal cooling B) active geothermal heating and cooling C) passive solar heating and geothermal cooling D) passive solar heating and active biomass energy Answer: C Module: RE.2, RE.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.2, RE.5.1

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29) A geothermal heat pump can be used for which of the following purposes?

A) Warming a home in the winter B) Producing electricity C) Producing hot water D) Cooling a home in the winter Answer: A Module: RE.5 Geothermal Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.5.1: Describe how heat pumps use the relatively constant ground temperatures in the surface of the Earth to heat and cool buildings.

30) The greatest potential for the increased use of geothermal electricity production and geothermal direct-use systems is in what area of the United States?

A) West B) Midwest C) Northeast D) Southeast Answer: A Module: RE.5 Geothermal Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.5.4: Explain how geothermal energy is being used, and describe the recent growth in this technology 31) An anode and a cathode are found ________.

A) at the opposite ends of the pathway for water flowing through a hydroelectric dam B) in the heat exchange apparatus of a geothermal unit C) in a wind turbine D) on the opposite sides of a battery Answer: D Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.6.1: Describe how batteries work and explain why they are important to the future of energy.

32) The production of hydrogen used to power cars requires ________.

A) an efficient means of capturing hydrogen gas from the atmosphere B) a net input of energy C) fusion reactions typical of nuclear power plants D) fermentation using water and sugars Answer: B Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.6.2: Describe the benefits of a hydrogen-based transportation fuel and explain why it could help address the challenges of replacing crude oil.

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33) Hydrogen fuel cells power automobiles by ________.

A) generating electricity B) creating rapidly combustible hydrogen compounds C) generating changes in gas pressures that move pistons in car engines D) combining with equal parts of gasoline to create a fuel with extra octane Answer: A Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.6.2, RE.6.3 34) Whether a hydrogen-based energy system is environmentally cleaner than a fossil fuel system depends on ________.

A) the car driven B) the source of oxygen used for the process C) the source of energy used to produce the hydrogen D) governmental incentives for research Answer: C Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.6.2, RE.6.3 35) One major advantage of using hydrogen fuel cells is ________.

A) the potential for production of greenhouse gases B) methane is produced as a by-product C) the energy efficiency D) that the cells are nonpolluting Answer: D Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.6.2, RE.6.3 36) What molecule(s) is/are produced when hydrogen is used as an energy source?

A) Carbon monoxide B) Sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides C) Water D) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides Answer: C Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.6.2, RE.6.3

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37) You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of a large bus company that transports passengers long distances across the United States. You want to be environmentally "friendly" and are considering replacing your older buses with those that run on hydrogen fuel. However, your executive board dislikes the idea. Which one of the following arguments is valid and could be used by the board to dissuade you from adding hydrogen-fueled buses to your fleet?

A) Hydrogen vehicles are unsafe and have been known to spontaneously combust when rearended.

B) It may be difficult along some bus routes to find gas stations that sell hydrogen fuel.

C) Hydrogen vehicles are actually more polluting than gasoline-powered buses, so the environmentally friendly thing to do would be to add gasoline-powered buses to the fleet.

D) Hydrogen vehicles have a range of only around 50 miles, and they take hours to refuel, so hydrogen buses would not be a wise choice for vehicles traveling across the country.

Answer: B Module: RE.6 Batteries, Hydrogen Combustion, and Fuel Cells Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: RE.6.4: Describe the barriers to the wide-scale use of hydrogen and fuel cell technologies.

38) One of the advantages of solar power over the use of fossil fuels is that solar power ________.

A) can work equally well anywhere in the world B) generates electricity every hour of the day C) uses less expensive technology D) is sustainable Answer: D Module: RE.1, RE.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.7.1: Describe the basic requirements of a sustainable energy future.

39) A very large concentrated solar thermal power facility in a unique and ecologically sensitive area would be an example of a project that is ________.

A) sustainable but not renewable B) renewable but not sustainable C) both sustainable and renewable D) neither renewable nor sustainable Answer: B Module: RE.7 The Future of Renewable Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.7.1: Describe the basic requirements of a sustainable energy future.

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40) Which of these statements is a valid conclusion that could be drawn from this graph?

A) Although renewable energy is expected to be the largest global source in 2050, increasing energy demand will also increase the use of nonrenewable energy sources.

B) Changes in transportation technology will determine whether the majority of energy will be renewable or nonrenewable in the year 2050.

C) Over the next three decades, the increased use of natural gas will cause the use of nuclear energy for electricity generation to remain low.

D) The development of new technologies is expected to increase the use of unconventional coal reserves by 2050.

Answer: A Module: RE.7 The Future of Renewable Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.7.1: Describe the basic requirements of a sustainable energy future.

41) What are the main factors that could decrease the accuracy of projections of future renewable and nonrenewable energy use?

A) Negative effects of climate change and political changes B) Technological innovation and changes in infrastructure C) Technological innovation and political changes D) New discoveries in climate science and carbon mitigation strategies Answer: C Module: RE.7 The Future of Renewable Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.7.1: Describe the basic requirements of a sustainable energy future.

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42) In order to make a rapid transition to renewable energies, countries like the United States will have to ________.

A) reduce the amount governmental support given to the fossil fuel industry B) reduce the amount governmental support given to renewable energy development to create economic parity C) manufacture smaller, more fuel efficient cars and trucks D) strengthen its ties and involvement with the Middle East Answer: A Module: RE.7 The Future of Renewable Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.7.2: Describe the barriers to increased use of renewable energy and improved conservation and efficiency programs.

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RE.2 Essay Questions 1) In general, what has spurred the increased use of renewable energy, and what are the benefits of its use in environmental and economic terms?

Answer: Renewable energy use is growing fast, due to advances in technology and increasing concern over the environmental impacts of fossil fuel combustion. Unlike fossil fuels, renewable sources are inexhaustible on time scales relevant to human societies, and their use will help alleviate air pollution and the greenhouse gas emissions that are driving global warming.

Renewable energy can also bring economic benefits. Developing renewables can help diversify an economy's mix of energy, which could decrease price volatility and protect against rapid price increases caused by global political unrest in areas like the Middle East. New energy sources require more hands-on labor than fossil fuel industries and so can create new employment opportunities and sources of income and property tax for local communities.

Module: RE.1, RE.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.1.1, RE.7.1, RE.7.3 2) Compare and contrast solar water heaters and passive solar designs.

Answer: Solar water heaters involve circulating a liquid, such as a mix of water and antifreeze, into a dark panel located on a rooftop, where the liquid can be heated by the sun's rays. The liquid is then circulated through coils in a hot water heater, where its heat is transferred into the water being heated. Passive solar designs feature buildings that are designed, and building materials that are chosen, to maximize direct absorption of sunlight in winter, even as they keep the interior cool in the heat of summer. One passive solar design technique involves installing south-facing windows to maximize sunlight capture in the winter (in the Northern Hemisphere, or north-facing windows in the Southern Hemisphere). Overhangs or trees that block summer sunlight can shade these windows when the sun is high in the sky. Passive solar designs also include the use of heat-absorbing construction materials, which can store the heat and release it at night. While both solar water heaters and passive solar designs use energy from the sun, a solar water heater requires a special panel for absorbing solar energy, special pipes to circulate the fluid, and a special kind of water heater that contains the coils for heat exchange, while passive solar designs require no special equipment and may be as simple as closing blinds on hot days to keep out the sun's rays, and opening them on cold days to allow the rays to enter and warm a room.

Module: RE.2 Solar Energy Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: RE.2.2: Explain how solar energy can be captured and used for heating and cooking.

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3) What is geothermal energy? In what ways can we use geothermal energy, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of the use of geothermal energy?

Answer: Geothermal energy involves the heat energy from Earth's interior, left over from the planet's formation and also created by the radioactive decay of elements deep in Earth. The generated heat rises toward the surface through magma and through fissures and cracks, heating groundwater. Geothermal electrical plants use the heat energy of the water to generate electricity, and the hot water can be pumped from the ground and directly used to heat buildings. In many areas, where the temperature just below ground remains fairly constant year-round, people can install household geothermal heat pumps, which can be used to heat homes in the winter and cool them in the summer.

Advantages: Like other renewable sources, geothermal power produces far less air pollution and greenhouse gases than does fossil fuel combustion. Furthermore, there is a great deal of geothermal energy available underground, and geothermal technologies (especially geothermal heat pumps) create far less environmental impact than energy use from fossil fuels.

Disadvantages: Geothermal power plants draw up metals and salts that must be disposed of, although these impacts are relatively small compared with the contaminants produced during fossil fuel use. Some major concerns with geothermal electricity production are related to the withdrawal and reinjection of groundwater, which can result in earthquakes and land subsidence.

Other drawbacks of using geothermal energy include the prohibitive start-up costs for purchasing and installing a household geothermal heat pump, plus the fact that geothermally active locations that are appropriate for building geothermal plants are few and far between, and remote from areas that need the electricity or would directly use the hot water. Like solar and wind power, geothermal power involves substantial development costs but low operations costs compared to fossil‑fuel‑fired processes, and adopting the technology will likely save money in the long run.

Module: RE.5 Geothermal Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.5.1, RE.5.2, RE.5.3, RE.5.4

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4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of wind power.

Answer: Advantages: Wind produces no air and water pollutants, and no greenhouse gases, once the necessary equipment is manufactured and installed. Wind turbine technology can be used on many scales, from a single small turbine used to produce electricity for a house, business, or farm, to a large wind farm consisting of thousands of turbines that provide electricity to large populations. Small-scale turbine development can help make local areas more selfsufficient. Wind farms create less disturbance of land, allowing the land around the towers to be used for other purposes such as growing crops. Wind farms can also be set up in the ocean, where winds blow more consistently and land availability is not an issue.

Disadvantages: We have no control over when wind will occur; it is an intermittent resource.

This poses little problem if wind is one of several sources contributing to a utility's power generation. Moreover, several available technologies can help address the problem. For example, batteries or hydrogen fuel can store energy generated by wind and release it later when needed.

Some areas are windier than others, and only windy areas would be appropriate for wind farm development. Moreover, when wind farms are proposed near population centers and even in offshore areas, local residents sometimes oppose them, usually for aesthetic reasons. Wind turbines also pose a minor threat to birds and bats, which can be killed when they fly into the rotating blades. Studies estimate that the number of birds killed this way is far less than the millions already being killed annually by other human causes. The key for protecting birds seems to be selecting sites for wind farms that are not in the midst of prime habitat or along migration corridors.

Module: RE.3 Wind Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: RE.3.1, RE.3.2, RE.3.3

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A Changing Planet, 2e (Neff) Chapter SF Science Fundamentals SF.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Why is one region of a water molecule slightly negatively charged?

A) The oxygen atom attracts electrons more strongly than the hydrogen atoms do.

B) The hydrogen atoms attract electrons more strongly than the oxygen atom does.

C) The oxygen atom attracts protons more strongly than the hydrogen atoms do.

D) The hydrogen atoms attract protons more strongly than the oxygen atom does.

Answer: A Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.3: Compare and contrast covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

2) Hydrogen bonds involve an attraction between ________.

A) hydrogen atoms and oxygen atoms within water molecules B) oxygen atoms and other oxygen atoms C) positive regions of one water molecule and negative regions of other water molecules D) hydrogen atoms and other hydrogen atoms Answer: C Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.3: Compare and contrast covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

3) A(n) ________ is the smallest unit of matter that still maintains the chemical properties of an element.

A) molecule B) atom C) nucleus D) compound Answer: B Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.1: Define the basic structural terms used to describe matter.

4) ________ are atoms with the same atomic number but with different mass number.

A) Anions B) Cations C) Isotopes D) Neutrons Answer: C Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.2: Recognize how differences in the numbers of electrons or neutrons result in ions or isotopes.

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5) Which of the following is a charged particle found in the nucleus of an atom?

A) DNA B) Electron C) Neutron D) Proton Answer: D Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.1: Define the basic structural terms used to describe matter.

6) An atom with a charge of +1 has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14. How many neutrons does it have?

A) 6 B) 14 C) 8 D) Cannot be determined from the information given Answer: C Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.1.2: Recognize how differences in the numbers of electrons or neutrons result in ions or isotopes.

7) An atom with a charge of +1 has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14. How many electrons does it have?

A) 6 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 Answer: B Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.1.2: Recognize how differences in the numbers of electrons or neutrons result in ions or isotopes.

8) An atom with a charge of +1 has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14. How many protons does it have?

A) 6 B) 8 C) 14 D) Cannot be determined from the information given Answer: A Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.1.2: Recognize how differences in the numbers of electrons or neutrons result in ions or isotopes.

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9) ________ is defined as the number of protons plus the number of neutrons in an atom.

A) Mass number B) Ionic number C) Atomic number D) Nuclear number Answer: A Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.1: Define the basic structural terms used to describe matter.

10) Which of the following reactions represents aerobic cellular respiration?

A) Water + carbon dioxide + energy → glucose + oxygen + water B) Glucose + oxygen → water + carbon dioxide + energy C) Water + carbon dioxide → glucose + oxygen + water + energy D) Nitrogen + carbon dioxide + energy → methane + oxygen Answer: B Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.6: Describe how chemical energy drives the flow of matter through organisms.

11) Acid precipitation ________.

A) has a low concentration of hydrogen ions B) has a pH higher than 7 C) has a pH lower than pure water D) that measures pH = 4 is twice as acidic as precipitation that measures pH = 5 Answer: C Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.4: Describe what acids and bases are, and explain the pH scale.

12) ________ are proteins that facilitate chemical reactions such as digestion.

A) Nucleic acids B) Anions C) Isotopes D) Enzymes Answer: D Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.1: Describe the building blocks of genetic material and the basic function of a gene.

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13) Water held behind a dam is best described as a form of ________.

A) kinetic energy B) potential energy C) chemical energy D) entropy Answer: B Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.2.1: Define energy and describe different forms of energy.

14) During photosynthesis, ________.

A) there is a net consumption of water and carbon dioxide B) sugars and carbon dioxide are produced C) carbon dioxide and oxygen are produced D) there is a net consumption of oxygen and carbon dioxide Answer: A Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.5: Describe how light energy drives the flow of matter through organisms in photosynthesis.

15) Aerobic cellular respiration ________.

A) releases carbon dioxide and water B) results in a net consumption of energy C) represents a decrease in entropy D) involves a net consumption of water Answer: A Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.6: Describe how chemical energy drives the flow of matter through organisms.

16) The pH scale is a measure of the concentration of ________ in a solution.

A) hydrogen ions B) water C) sulfuric acid D) total ions Answer: A Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.4: Describe what acids and bases are, and explain the pH scale.

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17) When you burn a log in your fireplace, you are converting ________.

A) thermal energy to chemical energy B) thermal energy to electrical energy C) chemical energy to nuclear energy D) chemical energy to thermal energy Answer: D Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.1: Define energy and describe different forms of energy.

18) The devices shown are used to ________.

A) create energy B) convert kinetic energy to electrical energy C) convert electrical energy to kinetic energy D) convert potential energy to kinetic energy Answer: B Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.1: Define energy and describe different forms of energy.

19) In a chemical reaction, ________.

A) atoms are destroyed B) atoms are rearranged C) new atoms are formed D) new elements are formed Answer: B Module: SF.1, SF.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.1.1, SF.3.6, SF.3.7 5 .

20) Atoms are composed of ________, and compounds are composed of ________.

A) protons, neutrons, and electrons; atoms B) protons, neutrons, and electrons; molecules C) cells; protons, neutrons, and electrons D) molecules; atoms Answer: A Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.1, SF.1.3 21) Which one of the following is a molecule but not a compound?

A) H2O B) CO2 C) O2 D) All of these would be considered both molecules and compounds.

Answer: C Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.1.3: Compare and contrast covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

22) All organic molecules contain what element(s)?

A) Nitrogen B) Hydrogen and oxygen C) Carbon D) Potassium and sulfur Answer: C Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.4: Describe the ways that organisms obtain sources of chemical energy.

23) Which of the following best represents potential energy?

A) Cars stopped at an intersection B) Sunlight shining on people on a beach C) A charged battery in a flashlight D) A breeze blowing across the top of a lake Answer: C Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.1: Define energy and describe different forms of energy.

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24) Which of the following best represents kinetic energy?

A) The energy in the wax molecules of a candle B) Gunpowder in a bullet C) A charged battery D) A hot burner on a stove Answer: D Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.1: Define energy and describe different forms of energy.

25) Which of the following best represents potential energy converted to kinetic energy?

A) A windmill pumping water up into a water storage tank B) Plants capturing sunlight to produce sugars using photosynthesis C) Turning on a flashlight D) Pulling a boat up onto a shoreline Answer: C Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.1: Define energy and describe different forms of energy.

26) Which of the following statements defies the first law of thermodynamics?

A) When coal is burned in a power plant, some of the energy escapes as heat rather than being converted to electricity.

B) Autotrophs such as plants produce energy that is consumed by heterotrophs.

C) We can decrease the amount of entropy in our dorm room if we use energy to get things organized.

D) When we build a campfire, the energy stored in the molecules in the wood is released as thermal energy.

Answer: B Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

27) Perpetual motion machines, which by definition would not require an additional energy input, cannot exist because ________.

A) energy cannot be created or destroyed B) in any energy conversion, some energy is lost to the surroundings as heat C) energy cannot be converted from one form to another D) kinetic energy requires an input of light energy Answer: B Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

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28) When a windmill turns to generate electricity, the amount of kinetic energy input in the process ________.

A) equals the amount of electrical energy produced B) is less than the amount of electrical energy produced C) is greater than the amount of electrical energy produced D) is unrelated to the amount of electrical energy produced Answer: C Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

29) In energy conversions such as burning coal to produce heat, ________.

A) entropy increases because of heat released in the conversion B) entropy decreases because of heat released in the conversion C) entropy is unchanged because heat is used to ignite the coal D) entropy decreases because heat is used to ignite the coal Answer: A Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

30) Without regular cleanups, the tendency of a home or dorm room to become increasingly messy generally reflects ________.

A) the law of energy conservation B) an increase in entropy C) the loss of heat in any energy conversion D) the conversion of kinetic energy into potential energy Answer: B Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

31) Which of the following are products of photosynthesis?

A) Carbon dioxide and water B) Water and oxygen C) Light and heat D) Oxygen and sugar Answer: D Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.5: Describe how light energy drives the flow of matter through organisms in photosynthesis.

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32) In the process of photosynthesis, ________.

A) potential energy in light is converted to kinetic energy of chemical bonds B) energy in light is converted to potential energy of chemical bonds C) potential energy in glucose is used to generate kinetic energy in heat D) kinetic energy of heat is used to combine the potential energy of oxygen and water Answer: B Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.3.5: Describe how light energy drives the flow of matter through organisms in photosynthesis.

33) What is the basic unit of an element?

A) Molecule B) Neutron C) Atom D) Isotope Answer: C Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.1: Define the basic structural terms used to describe matter.

34) Molecules are ________.

A) two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds B) chemicals that cannot be broken or separated C) basic subunits of elements D) atoms of an element Answer: A Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.3: Compare and contrast covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

35) Which of the following most accurately describes a compound?

A) A compound is two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds.

B) A compound is a molecule that is electrically charged.

C) A compound is a combination of molecules.

D) A compound is a substance that is made of more than one element.

Answer: D Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.3: Compare and contrast covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

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36) A neutral solution has a pH of ________.

A) 1 B) 5 C) 7 D) 14 Answer: D Module: SF.1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.1.4: Describe what acids and bases are, and explain the pH scale.

37) The first law of thermodynamics states that ________.

A) energy is always degraded in a chemical reaction B) all energy always has kinetic and potential characteristics C) entropy always decreases in normal chemical reactions D) energy can be transformed but cannot be created or destroyed Answer: D Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

38) Use the Energy Conversions table to answer the following question: How many calories of energy (c) does a 60-watt lightbulb use in 1 hour?

A) 14.4 c B) 60 c C) 861 c D) 51,660 c Answer: D Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.3: Define and apply the basic units used to describe energy.

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39) Use the Energy Conversions table to answer the following question: An adult human has an average intake of approximately 2500 calories (kilocalories) per day. Approximately how many 60-watt lightbulbs would require the same amount of energy per day as an adult human?

A) 2 B) 17 C) 48 D) 2000 Answer: A Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.3: Define and apply the basic units used to describe energy.

40) If the temperature of a gas increases, the ________ of the gas decreases.

A) volume B) pressure C) number of moles D) None of these is correct.

Answer: D Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.4: Use the ideal gas law to demonstrate how the properties of gases change with pressure, temperature, and volume.

41) Which of the following is densest: a kilogram of feathers, a kilogram of bricks, or a kilogram of water?

A) A kilogram of feathers B) A kilogram of bricks C) A kilogram of water D) All three have the same density because they all have the same mass.

Answer: B Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.2.5: Explain the concept of density and how it relates to the mass of an object.

42) During the process of translation, codons found in ________ are translated to build ________.

A) DNA; RNA B) DNA; proteins C) RNA; proteins D) RNA; DNA Answer: C Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.1: Describe the building blocks of genetic material and the basic function of a gene.

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43) All of the following are found in a eukaryotic cell except ________.

A) nucleoid region B) mitochondria C) endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus Answer: A Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.2: Explain what a cell is with reference to major cellular structures in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.

44) A(n) ________ ecologist would study the interactions between the invasive European starling and native cavity-nesting birds in the United States.

A) organismal B) population C) ecosystem D) community Answer: D Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: SF.3.3: Describe the levels of biological organization from organism to ecosystem.

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SF.2 Essay Questions 1) Briefly explain the overall processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Include a brief explanation of autotrophs and heterotrophs in your answer.

Answer: Photosynthesis is performed by autotrophs, or more specifically, photoautotrophs, which are organisms that make their own organic molecules using energy from the sun. During photosynthesis, light energy is converted into chemical energy (stored within the bonds of sugar molecules). Water and carbon dioxide are consumed, and oxygen is released. In most autotrophs, photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts. Cellular respiration is performed by both autotrophs and heterotrophs (organisms that obtain their organic molecules from other organisms) to meet their energy needs. In aerobic cellular respiration, oxygen is consumed, and the bonds of sugar molecules are broken to release energy needed for work within the cell. Along with the released energy, carbon dioxide and water are produced, as is heat. Aerobic cellular respiration begins with glycolysis, which occurs in the cytosol, and then is completed in the mitochondria.

Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.4, SF.3.5, SF.3.6 2) Compare and discuss the first and second laws of thermodynamics.

Answer: The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can change from one form to another but cannot be created or destroyed. That is, the total energy in the universe remains constant. However, the second law states that the entropy of energy in the universe will change from a more ordered state to a less ordered state. Entropy in the universe is increasing as energy is converted from high quality (capable of doing work) to low quality (dispersed and unavailable for doing work). Low-quality energy from organisms is usually released into the environment as heat. For example, if you were to eat a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast, your digestive system would digest the starch to glucose, and your cells would then burn the glucose to convert the stored energy to ATP for cellular work, but much of the energy is lost as heat during these transformations. The products of this process are carbon dioxide and water, neither of which has any potential energy for you to use. Therefore, you have to keep taking in more chemical energy in food to keep your system running.

Module: SF.2 Fundamentals of Physical Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.2.2: Describe the first two laws of thermodynamics.

3) Identify and describe the basic function of a gene.

Answer: Composed of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid), a gene usually provides information to code for a specific sequence of amino acids. During transcription, DNA codes for RNA (ribonucleic acid), which codes for amino acids during the process of translation. A long chain of amino acids is called a polypeptide chain, and one or more polypeptide chains form proteins such as digestive enzymes or hormones.

Module: SF.3 Fundamentals of Biological Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: SF.3.1: Describe the building blocks of genetic material and the basic function of a gene.

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