Business Information Systems Technology, Development and Management for the E-Business Paul Bocij Te

Type:

Test Bank

Business Information Systems Technology, Development and Resource: Management for the EBusiness Edition:

3rd Edition

Author(s):

Paul Bocij Andrew Greasley Simon Hickie

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is not a definition of information?

1) _______ A) Data that have been subjected to a transformation process B) Data that have been interpreted and understood by the recipient C) Data that have been processed so that they are meaningful D) Data that have been processed for a purpose E) Information acts to reduce uncertainty about a situation or event 2) Which of the following is not an example of a data process?

A) Classification B) Recording C) Performing calculations D) Selection E) Aggregating

2) _______

3) Which of the following is an example of informal communication?

A) A formal report B) A sales letter C) A sales invoice D) A conversation E) Minutes of a meeting

3) _______

4) Which of the following information characteristics belongs to the form dimension of

4) _______

information quality?

A) Relevance B) Clarity C) Accuracy D) Reliability E) Frequency

5) According to Fayol's definition, which of the following is not one of the responsibilities of

5) _______

management?

A) Budgeting B) Forecasting C) Planning D) Controlling E) Co-ordinating

6) In a conventional model of decision-making, at which stage will all possible solutions be

6) _______

considered?

A) Choice B) Implementation C) Evaluation D) Intelligence E) Design

7) Which of the following can be used to determine the intangible value of information?

7) _______

A) Profit - cost of gathering information B) Value of information - cost of gathering information C) Improvements in decision behaviour - cost of gathering information D) Labour costs - cost of gathering information E) Quality of information - cost of gathering information 8) Which of the following is not one of the physical resources that might be owned by a company?

A) Land B) Plant and machinery C) Labour power D) Money E) Product designs

8) _______

9) Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?

A) Attitudes B) Stock levels C) Personal values D) Beliefs E) Opinions

9) _______

10) Which of the following is not an attribute of information quality?

A) Frequency B) Cost C) Relevance D) Accuracy E) Level of detail

10) ______

11) Which level of an organisation is responsible for long-term organisational planning?

A) The strategic level B) The operational level C) The supervisory level D) The executive level E) The tactical level

11) ______

12) Which level of an organisation is responsible for short-term planning and the day-to-day

12) ______

control of the organisation's activities?

A) The strategic level B) The supervisory level C) The executive level D) The tactical level E) The operational level

13) Tacit knowledge is: A) is intangible, it is based on experience on how to react to a situation B) the same as data C) the same as information D) readily detailed in procedural manuals and databases E) none of the above

13) ______

14) E-commerce is: A) any electronically mediated communication between an organisation and its stakeholders

14) ______

B) the use of electronic communications for all business processes C) an organisation using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers D) an organisation using electronic media to sell direct to its customers E) none of the above 15) Which of the following can be used to calculate the tangible value of information?

A) Increased share value - Cost of gathering information B) Value of information - Cost of gathering information C) Value of conceptual resources - Cost of gathering information D) Reduction in uncertainty - Cost of gathering information E) Improvements in decision behaviour - Cost of gathering information

15) ______

16) Which of the following is not part of the environment an organisation operates within?

A) Suppliers B) Employees C) Customers D) Government E) Technology

16) ______

17) Structured decisions are also known as: A) computed decisions B) automated decisions C) complex decisions D) tacit decisions E) programmable decisions

17) ______

18) The process of gathering information from a range of sources with the aim of maintaining or

18) ______

increasing competitive advantage is known as: A) knowledge management B) document image processing C) competitive intelligence D) information leadership E) data mining

1) A 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) E 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) E 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is responsible for monitoring the performance of the system?

1) _______ A) Feedback B) Processing C) Control D) Inputs E) Outputs 2) In terms of a system, raw materials, energy and labour power are examples of: A) control B) outputs C) processing D) inputs E) feedback

2) _______

3) Which of the following defines the scope of a system?

A) Environment B) Suprasystem C) Interface D) Subsystem E) Boundary

3) _______

4) A system that little or no interaction with its environment is known as: A) a closed system B) an adaptive system C) a soft system D) a probabilistic system E) a deterministic system

4) _______

5) A system where all outputs can be predicted by examining inputs is known as: A) an adaptive system B) a deterministic system C) a probabilistic system D) a soft system E) a closed system

5) _______

6) A system that involves people or socio-technical situations is normally known as: A) a soft system B) a probabilistic system C) a closed system D) an adaptive system E) a deterministic system

6) _______

7) Which of the following is not one of the resources that support the use of information systems?

A) Software resources B) Data resources C) Hardware resources

7) _______

D) People resources E) Technical resources 8) A computer-based information system that attempts to apply human knowledge, reasoning

8) _______

and experience in order to solve a problem is known as: A) a decision support system B) an executive information system C) an information reporting system D) a transaction processing system E) an expert system

9) The ability to provide information on demand, periodic and exception reports is typical of

9) _______

which kind of computer-based information system?

A) A transaction processing system B) An executive information system C) A decision support system D) An information reporting system E) An expert system

10) Which category of computer-based information system might be used by senior management

10) ______

to select, retrieve and manage information that can be used to support the achievement of an organisation's business objectives?

A) An information reporting system B) An executive information system C) A transaction processing system D) An expert system E) A decision support system

11) Integrating a company's information systems with those of its suppliers would be an example

11) ______

of which competitive strategy?

A) Promoting business innovation B) Increasing switching costs C) Improving operational efficiency D) Raising barriers to entry E) Locking in customers and suppliers

12) The competitive strategy of enhancing a product or service with an organisation's specialised

12) ______

information or expertise is known as: A) information leadership B) promoting business innovation C) increasing switching costs D) locking in customers and suppliers E) raising barriers to entry

13) What kind of computer-based information system might be used to create a model of a situation so that ‘what if?’ questioning can be carried out?

A) A decision support system B) A transaction processing system C) An information reporting system D) An executive information system E) An expert system

13) ______

14) When the outputs of a system cannot be predicted with complete accuracy, this is known as: A) a deterministic system B) a soft system C) an adaptive system D) a closed system E) a probabilistic system

14) ______

15) Which control type incorporates a prediction element?

A) Feedforward B) Positive C) Feedback D) Negative E) All of the above

15) ______

16) In close coupled systems: A) both systems have the same objective B) one system controls the operation of the other C) similar outputs are produced D) both systems use the same inputs E) the output of one system is the input of another

16) ______

17) In which kind of system is it not possible to predict all outputs by examining its outputs?

A) Adaptive B) Stochastic C) Open Loop D) Deterministic E) Mechanistic

17) ______

18) Which of the following is not one of the four layers making up the Internet economy?

A) Internet Applications Infrastructure B) Internet Commerce C) Internet Infrastructure D) Internet Intermediaries E) Internet Service Providers

18) ______

19) Which of the following is not one of the five basic types of e-commerce activity?

A) Customer-to-business (C2B) B) Business-to-government (B2G) C) Business-to-business (B2B) D) Business-to-consumer (B2C) E) Consumer-to-consumer (C2C)

19) ______

20) In the Virtual Value Chain, business transactions take place in the: A) marketplace B) meatspace C) cybermarket D) e-space E) marketspace

20) ______

1) A 2) E 3) E 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) E 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) A 13) A 14) E 15) A 16) E 17) B 18) E 19) A 20) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following input devices is not an example of a pointing device?

1) _______ A) Touch screen B) Joystick C) Mouse D) Light pen E) Trackball 2) Which of the following might be used to interpret marks made on printed forms, such as answer sheets for multiple-choice tests?

A) COM B) CAD

C) OMR

D) MICR

2) _______

E) OCR

3) Which of the following methods might be used to store information on microfilm?

A) OMR B) MICR C) CAD D) COM E) OCR

3) _______

4) Which type of printer would works by striking a series of pins against a fabric ribbon in order

4) _______

to form characters?

A) Inkjet printer B) Thermal printer C) Daisywheel printer D) Dot-matrix printer E) Laser printer

5) Which of the following printers is not able to produce documents containing graphics?

A) Laser printer B) Inkjet printer C) Daisywheel printer D) Thermal printer E) Dot-matrix printer

5) _______

6) Which of the following storage devices represents a computer's "working" storage?

A) Memory (RAM) B) Floppy disk C) Magnetic tape D) CD-ROM E) Hard disk

6) _______

7) Which of the following storage devices supports only sequential access?

A) Floppy disk B) Hard disk C) Memory (RAM) D) CD-ROM E) Magnetic tape

7) _______

8) In terms of computer storage, which of the following represents the smallest unit of

8) _______

measurement?

A) Gigabyte (Gb)

B) Bit C) Megabyte (Mb) D) Byte E) Kilobyte (Kb) 9) Which of the following might be used to gauge the overall quality of the display produced by a

9) _______

computer monitor?

A) Bandwidth B) Resolution C) Dot pitch D) Dots per inch E) Clock speed

10) Which of the following might be used to gauge the overall quality of the output produced by a

10) ______

printer?

A) Resolution B) Clock speed C) Dot pitch D) Dots per inch E) Bandwidth

11) Which of the following allows data to be transferred between different types of networks?

A) Repeater B) Ethernet card C) Bridge D) Network interface card E) Network operating system

11) ______

12) Which of the following can be used to gauge how quickly a processor operates?

A) Seek time B) Clock speed C) Baud D) Cps E) Refresh rate

12) ______

13) Which of the following can be used to gauge the overall performance of a storage device, such

13) ______

as a hard disk drive or CD-ROM drive?

A) Bandwidth and error rate B) Data bus width and refresh rate C) Clock speed and bandwidth D) Refresh rate and seek time E) Seek time and data transfer rate

14) Which type of computer memory is non-volatile and cannot be altered once data has been stored?

A) ROM B) RAM C) SRAM D) Cache RAM E) VRAM

14) ______

15) Which type of computer memory is used to improve the performance of a computer system by

15) ______

anticipating and retrieving the data and instructions will be needed by the processor?

A) VRAM B) Cache RAM C) RAM D) ROM E) SRAM

16) Computers intended to be used as network servers would be housed in what kind of casing?

A) Desktop B) Tower C) Micro D) Mini Tower E) Rack

16) ______

17) A standalone satellite navigation system is called a(n): A) PNA B) PDA C) SatNav

17) ______ D) UPC

E) GPS

18) The technology that allows people to make telephone calls via the Internet is called: A) VoIP B) SkyPE C) IP-Phone D) Virtual Phone E) Telnet

18) ______

19) Which of the following storage devices has no moving parts?

A) Flash drive B) Tape streamer C) DVD-ROM D) Hybrid hard disk drive E) Hard disk drive

19) ______

20) VM stands for: A) Virtual Memory B) Virtual Manager C) Video Memory D) Virtual Machine E) Video Mail

20) ______

1) A 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) E 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) E 14) A 15) B 16) E 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) D

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which kind of Office Automation System allows users to create, edit, store and retrieve 1) _______ documents in electronic format?

A) Office management systems B) Electronic meeting systems C) Electronic publishing systems D) Image processing systems E) Electronic communications systems

2) Which kind of Office Automation System assists users in scheduling projects and tasks?

A) Office management systems B) Electronic meeting systems C) Image processing systems D) Electronic publishing systems E) Electronic communication systems

2) _______

3) Which kind of Office Automation System support the production of documents, such as letters,

3) _______

reports and catalogues?

A) Electronic communications systems B) Electronic publishing systems C) Office management systems D) Electronic meeting systems E) Image processing systems

4) E-mail is an example of which kind of Office Automation System?

A) Electronic communications systems B) Electronic publishing systems C) Electronic meeting systems D) Image processing systems E) Office management systems

4) _______

5) Word processing is an example of which kind of Office Automation System?

A) Electronic publishing systems B) Image processing systems C) Electronic meeting systems D) Electronic communications systems E) Office management systems

5) _______

6) A Personal Information Manager (PIM) is an example of which kind of Office Automation

6) _______

System?

A) Image processing systems B) Electronic communications systems C) Electronic meeting systems D) Electronic publishing systems E) Office management systems

7) The ability to plot data on a chart is a feature likely to be found in which of the following

sof tware

___ ___ _

packages? 7)

A) Word processor B) Spreadsheet C) E-mail program D) Database E) Desk top publishing program 8) Which of the following would you use to create a drawing or illustration?

A) Paint package B) Programming language C) Presentation package D) Diagramming package E) CAD program

8) _______

9) Which of the following would you use to create a variety of diagrams, charts or other graphics

9) _______

for business purposes?

A) Diagramming package B) Programming language C) Presentation package D) Paint package E) CAD program

10) Which of the following would you use if you wished to produce your own software

10) ______

applications?

A) Programming language B) Presentation package C) CAD program D) Paint package E) Diagramming package

11) Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent others from reading personal e-mail

11) ______

messages?

A) Ratings B) Cookies C) Site certificates D) Encryption E) Digital ID

12) Which of the following describes the content of an Internet site and its suitability for young

12) ______

people?

A) Digital ID B) Cookies C) Ratings D) Site certificates E) Encryption

13) The main tool used to view web pages is known as: A) web browser B) HTML profiler C) FTP program

13) ______

D) HTML sourcer E) none of the above 14) A search-engine: A) a searchable structured index of web site content B) is the same as a directory C) a searchable list of web-site names D) a searchable, non-structured index of web site content E) all of the above

14) ______

15) Which of the following is not a major category of computer software?

A) Utility Programs B) Application-specific Software C) Programming Tools D) Development Programs E) Operating Systems

15) ______

16) What proportion of e-mail traffic is made up of “spam”?

A) More than 40% B) More than 60% C) More than 30% D) More than 20% E) More than 50%

16) ______

17) Which of the following is not a common form of software licence?

A) Shareware B) Creative Commons C) Public Copyright D) Open Source E) GNU

17) ______

18) Which of the following is not true of the ASP model of software distribution?

A) Users can access their data from almost any location B) Hardware and software requirements tend to be high C) The ASP owns and operates the application D) The service is paid for on a per-use basis or by a regular fee E) The ASP employs the staff who operate, maintain and support the application and

18) ______

servers

19) Which of the following is not a benefit of Open Source software?

A) Competitors can be prevented from using the same applications B) Problems, such as security flaws, tend to be discovered and repaired very quickly C) Software can be customised quickly and at low cost D) A wide variety of applications is available free of charge E) In general, the software available is of very high quality

19) ______

1) D 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) E 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following connect PCs in different offices of a business located on a single site?

1) _______ A) PAN B) FLAN C) WAN D) LAN E) DAN 2) Which of the following techniques would be most suitable for transmitting data in a low cost network within a company?

A) Satellite B) Fibre-optic

C) Copper cable

2) _______

D) Microwave

3) Telecommunications processors include: A) hubs B) modems C) network interface cards D) ethernet cable E) A, B and C

3) _______

4) The least suitable topology for a large local area network is: A) star-configured bus B) bus C) token D) ring E) none of the above

4) _______

5) A network operating system: A) is an example of applications software B) controls access to files on a server C) the same as programming software D) is MS-DOS E) none of the above

5) _______

6) EDI is: A) a standard feature of a network operating system B) essential for an internal company network C) never performed using the Internet D) a standard method of transactions between business parties E) none of the above

6) _______

7) A peer to peer network: A) links PCs directly to share files B) is used in the House of Lords C) is equivalent to a PBX D) must use a more powerful server PC E) none of the above

7) _______

8) A remote server means: A) its exact location is unknown B) linked directly to a laptop C) it is at a different location from a client computer

8) _______

D) it is now out of date E) none of the above 9) An extranet: A) is the same as the Internet B) is the same as the intranet C) is the same as the world wide web D) is the same a wide-area network E) none of the above

9) _______

10) Web addresses for companies are sometimes known as: A) universal resource locators (URLs) B) company locators C) certification authorities (CAs) D) hyper text transfer protocol (http) E) none of the above

10) ______

1) D 2) C 3) E 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) E 10) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is a function of workflow software?

1) _______ A) Allowing collaboration between people sharing tasks B) Information retrieval C) Assigning tasks to people D) Report on task status E) All of the above 2) Which of the following is not a production type?

A) Project B) Jobbing C) Mass

2) _______ D) Batch

E) Product

3) Which of the following is not an approach to materials management?

A) Manufacturing resource planning B) Optimised production technology C) Just-in-time D) Master production schedule E) Material requirements planning

3) _______

4) Which of the following is the data communication standard for computer integrated

4) _______

manufacture (CIM)?

A) FMS

B) MAP

C) Ethernet

D) ISDN

E) CAM

5) Which type of problem has some incomplete data and partly understood goals and constraints A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV E) None of the above

5) _______

6) Sales information systems and telemarketing software are associated with which functional

6) _______

area?

A) Marketing B) Operations C) Finance D) Operations E) Personnel 7) Job management software is associated with which functional area?

A) Finance B) Marketing C) Personnel D) Operations E) Operations

7) _______

8) Which of these is a competitiveness driver of e-commerce?

A) Reduced sales and purchasing costs B) Reduced operating costs

8) _______

C) Increasing speed with which goods can be despatched D) Avoid losing market share to businesses already using e-commerce E) None of the above 9) Which is the most realistic relationship between these two concepts?

A) E-commerce has some overlap with E-business B) E-business is a subset of E-commerce C) E-commerce is a subset of E-business D) E-commerce is broadly equivalent to E-business E) None of the above

9) _______

10) Sell-side e-commerce is: A) any electronically mediated communication between an organisation and its stakeholders B) an organisation using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers C) an organisation using electronic media to sell direct to its customers D) the use of electronic communications for all business processes E) none of the above

10) ______

1) E 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In software acquisition, the term ‘bespoke’ means: 1) _______ A) software usually used in bicycle factories B) software that is bought off the shelf and subsequently altered C) software that is developed by software houses to meet a specific organisation’s requirements D) software developed internally by an organisation to help solve business problems E) C and D

2) For a proposed systems development project to be economically feasible: A) the organisation must be sure that the employees will be able to cope with the new

2) _______

system

B) the proposed system benefits must outweigh the costs C) the proposed benefits must be outweighed by the acquisition costs D) technology must already exist to enable the system development E) none of the above 3) Which of the following would you not expect to take place during the design phase of a new

3) _______

information system?

A) Determining whether system will work on a day to day basis B) Establishing general systems security standards C) Choosing an appropriate database management system D) Deciding on methods of system navigation (e.g. menu systems and graphical user interfaces) E) Screen design standards for input and output

4) Which of the following steps would you normally expect to find during the Build phase of an

4) _______

information system?

A) The conversion of a logical database design into tables and indexes B) Converting data from old paper based or computerised systems to run on the new system C) The testing of the various components on the new system D) All of the above E) None of the above

5) In SSADM, which of the following steps in systems development are fully supported in the

5) _______

methodology?

A) Design and Build B) Analysis and Design C) Analysis, Design and Build D) Feasibility and Analysis E) Analysis and Build

6) Rapid Applications development has been cited as a solution to some of the difficulties associated with the traditional approach to systems development because: A) the traditional approach is often perceived as a ‘quick and dirty’ method of system development B) of the long development times associated with the latter C) RAD increases the probability of users getting the system they want

6) _______

D) all of the above E) B and C 7) Which of the following terms is not normally associated with RAD? A) Structured Systems Analysis B) Joint Application Development C) Joint Requirements Planning D) Evolutionary Prototyping E) Dynamic Systems Development Methodology

7) _______

8) What are the benefits not normally gained from carrying out a Post Implementation Review?

A) The system as delivered can be assessed against its original objectives B) Lessons learned from the project can be applied to future development projects C) Incompetent programmers can be identified and sacked D) B and C E) None of the above

8) _______

9) Which of the following is not a primary objective of a project?

A) Structure B) Quality C) Time D) Cost E) None of the above

9) _______

10) Which of the following systems development activities would you not expect to undertake in a

10) ______

standard off the shelf package is being purchased?

A) Program writing B) Constructing a list of desirable features C) Data conversion D) Detailed analysis of user requirements E) Conducting a feasibility study

1) E 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) E 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) IS risk assessment is: 1) _______ A) assessing an IS for bugs during testing B) checking the credit of a supplier C) the same as risk management D) definition of potential problems with an IS project E) none of the above 2) Operational feasibility: A) asks will the software work?

B) includes definition of the user requirements of the software C) includes definition of the change management procedure D) involves consideration of suitability of the system for the operational level of

2) _______

management

E) assesses the cost of the software 3) Organisational feasibility is: A) involves consideration of suitability of the system for the operational level of

3) _______

management

B) is the same as operational feasibility C) how a system will suit the human resources department D) a review of the impact of the system on a company E) none of the above 4) IS outsourcing is: A) the same as single-sourcing B) the building of a system by the IS department C) off-the-Shelf software D) subcontracting IS development and services E) none of the above

4) _______

5) Requirements stability is: A) the same as organisational feasibility B) a system which is scalable to a large number of users C) when a system has been designed well and has few bugs D) when the purpose and functions of the system are well defined E) none of the above

5) _______

6) Software benchmarking is: A) always a method of comparing costs of software packages B) always a process involving bar graphs of processor speeds C) a comparison between software from different suppliers D) always a process involving review of reference sites of competitors E) all of the above

6) _______

7) The criterion used to assess how user and business needs are met in software is: A) security

7) _______

B) functionality C) cost D) scalability E) compatibility 8) What are the typical stages in risk management?

A) Identify probabilities and impacts, identify and implement solutions, identify risks B) Identify risks, Identify probabilities and impacts, identify and implement solutions C) Identify probabilities and impacts, identify risks, identify and implement solutions D) Identify risks, identify and implement solutions, Identify probabilities and impacts E) None of the above

8) _______

9) Which is a typical sequence of activities at the start of a systems implementation project?

A) Design, Initiation, Analysis B) Initiation, Design, Analysis C) Analysis, Design, Initiation D) Analysis, Initiation, Design E) None of the above

9) _______

10) Economic feasibility: A) considers intangible costs only B) evaluates the costs of an IS in comparison with the benefits C) specifically evaluates improvements to customer service provided by the IS D) considers tangible costs only E) none of the above

10) ______

1) D 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) B 9) E 10) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following indicate why information systems projects fail?

1) _______ A) User interactions B) Data errors C) Technical D) Organisational E) All of the above 2) Which of the following can be used to estimate the amount of effort required to complete a

2) _______

project?

A) LAN B) KDSI C) KLOC D) EAF E) COCOMO

3) Which of the following plan is required for ‘out-of-control’ behaviour in a PRINCE project?

A) Exception B) Stage C) Individual work D) Detailed E) Project

3) _______

4) Which plan is used by PRINCE to show the sequence of products which are required over

4) _______

time?

A) Quality B) Exception C) Product flow D) Management E) Technical 5) Which of the following are limitations of the network analysis approach?

A) Does not allow estimation resource requirements B) Provides no graphical displays C) Task times are subject to error D) A range cannot be used for the estimation of task duration E) None of the above

5) _______

6) Which of the following can reduce project development time?

A) Client/server databases B) Graphical programming C) Rapid application development D) Graphical user interfaces E) All of the above

6) _______

7) Which of the following are used by PRINCE to document changes?

A) Request for Change

7) _______

B) Project Issues Report C) Off-Specifications Report D) Exception Plan E) All of the above 8) The project management activity “corrective action” involves: A) analysis of the work breakdown B) allocating resources to tasks C) the project closedown review D) placing tasks in order E) assessing progress on tasks and actioning changes

8) _______

9) Which of the following is not a primary objective of a project?

A) Structure B) Cost C) Time D) Quality E) None of the above

9) _______

10) Which of the following is most appropriate for monitoring progress against plan?

A) Flow diagram B) Capacity loading graphs C) Gantt chart D) Network diagram E) None of the above

10) ______

1) E 2) E 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) E 7) E 8) E 9) A 10) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In an interview, open questions are most effective when they: 1) _______ A) are seeking to obtain qualitative information B) are seeking to obtain quantitative information C) allow interviewees to drop in to see the interviewer at any time D) use a Likert scale to record responses E) are phrased so as to elicit Yes or No answers 2) In an interview, which of the following does an analyst need to record?

A) Data requirements B) Business processes C) Personal characteristics of the interviewee D) Information flows E) A, B and D

2) _______

3) Which of the following would you not expect to find in a requirements specification?

A) The functional requirements that the system needs to support B) Preferred data capture methods C) The best way of laying out user interfaces D) When, where and how often data is to be captured E) A physical database design

3) _______

4) When drawing an Information Flow Diagram, which of the following items should you

4) _______

include?

A) State transitions B) Information sources and destinations C) Processes D) Datastores E) Entities

5) In an entity relationship diagram, how would you decompose a many to many relationship?

A) Introduce a linking entity between the two entities with a many to many relationship B) Remove one of the entities from the diagram C) Redraw the diagram so that it disappears D) Remove both entities from the diagram E) None of the above

5) _______

6) When purchasing an off the shelf package, which of the following fact finding methods is most

6) _______

appropriate?

A) Interviewing B) Documentation Review C) Brain-storming D) All of the above E) None of the above

7) The systems analysis process is primarily about: A) determining what the new system is to do

7) _______

B) deciding whether the system as envisaged is feasible C) discovering the best way of implementing the new system D) identifying which package to buy E) determining how the new system is to be implemented 8) Failure to complete observation during an analysis project may reduce the quality of analysis

8) _______

since:

A) people often behave differently when being observed B) observation highlights usability problems with the current system C) the influence of managers is incorporated into the analysis D) questionnaires often fail to include closed questions E) none of the above 9) The primary aspect of a system that analysis impacts is the: A) rollout of a system B) availability of a system C) feasibility of a system D) cost of a system E) functionality of a system F) none of the above

9) _______

10) Information flow diagrams and data flow diagrams are useful for informing: A) missing functional requirements B) inefficiencies in business or system processes C) data models for a system D) the information architecture of a system E) none of the above

10) ______

1) A 2) E 3) E 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) E 10) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Design differs from analysis since it: 1) _______ A) specifies the technical architecture of the system B) defines how the program will be structured C) has less user involvement D) occurs after analysis E) all of the above 2) Normalisation: A) specifies design performance constraints B) specifies the entities in a database C) specifies mandatory data fields D) can be achieved using an entity-relationship diagram E) none of the above

2) _______

3) Two-tier client/server involves: A) an intranet communicating with an extranet B) querying a database server using one program for business logic and one for user

3) _______

interaction C) querying a database server using a single program D) two client PCs communicating and then accessing data from a server E) none of the above

4) Data validation is: A) the same as verification B) an essential part of output design C) an essential part of security design D) checks on data quality when database fields are entered E) all of the above

4) _______

5) Authentication confirms: A) the validity of the sender of a message B) encryption C) data is not corrupted D) an e-mail has been delivered E) none of the above

5) _______

6) Object-oriented design: A) can involves an object inheriting another objects behaviour B) can involves an object overriding another objects behaviour C) is intended to increase the re-use of program code D) involves the integration of data and program routines acting upon them E) all of the above

6) _______

7) System design includes: A) module design B) input design

7) _______

C) database design D) output design E) none of the above 8) This is a unique identifier used to link tables in a database.

A) A form B) A secondary key D) A primary key E) A record

8) _______ C) A and C F) None of the above

9) Use-case analysis is: A) providing specific content and services appropriate to different audience members B) determination of interface design through identifying the stages a user needs follow

9) _______

when interacting with a system C) providing an overall design to a site consistent with the positioning of the products and services D) the menu options chosen to group and categorise information E) minimising the number of clicks needed to access relevant content F) none of the above

10) Design validation refers to: A) checking the design receives the correct inputs B) checking the design meets requirements identified during analysis C) checking the design creates valid outputs D) checking the design is optimal in efficiency E) none of the above

10) ______

1) B 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) E 7) E 8) D 9) B 10) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Implementation includes: 1) _______ A) design B) data modelling C) analysis D) systems changeover E) all of the above 2) System changeover is: A) the migration from an old system to a new system B) the migration of data only C) when a new team of programmers are employed D) the adding of data to a new database E) none of the above

2) _______

3) Resistance to change can take the form of: A) avoidance B) sabotage C) projection of blame D) all of the above E) none of the above

3) _______

4) System testing: A) is the same as user acceptance testing B) involves testing the integrity of the entire IS C) involves unit testing D) is done by project managers E) none of the above

4) _______

5) Software change requests are: A) generated by customers only B) generated by users only C) generated by project managers only D) generated by programmers only E) none of the above

5) _______

6) Software quality assurance is intended to: A) remove all bugs in the software B) part of the build and implementation phase only C) introduce a standard procedure for building information systems D) all of the above E) none of the above

6) _______

7) System documentation includes: A) requirements specification B) test specifications C) design specifications

7) _______

D) all of the above E) none of the above 8) Software change requests record: A) system crashes only B) bugs only C) difficulties in using the software only D) requests for new features only E) none of the above

8) _______

9) What is the typical sequence of phases within the implementation phase?

A) Maintenance, build, changeover, live B) Build, changeover, live, maintenance C) Changeover, maintenance, build, live D) Live, changeover, maintenance, build E) None of the above

9) _______

10) Testing is: A) the identification of errors and unfulfilled requirements in the system B) summarising the purpose and workings of the system for future maintenance C) the transfer of information from a previous system to a new system D) the identification of errors and unfulfilled requirements in the system E) the process by which an organisation migrates to a new system F) none of the above

10) ______

1) D 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) E 9) B 10) D

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The mechanistic approach to strategy formulation is characterised by: 1) _______ A) conscious and analytical thought processes B) the failure of business strategies to be developed properly C) evolution of business strategies over time D) the use of matrix diagrams E) their ability to respond to a rapidly changing business environment 2) Which of the following does not appear as one of the competitive forces in Porter’s Five Forces

2) _______

Model?

A) Rivalry between alternative Suppliers B) Rivalry between existing competitors C) The power of buyers D) The threat of substitute products E) None of the above

3) In Nolan’s stage model of the evolution of IS/IT within businesses, the contagion stage is

3) _______

characterised by: A) centralised controls placed on the systems B) IS raised higher in the organisation C) rapid growth of budgets D) emphasis on functional applications to reduce costs E) low expenditures for data processing

4) In what way does IS/IT act as a key enabler of BPR? A) By providing prototyping and support for BPR process itself B) By reducing the need for a change organisational culture C) By using IT to raise barriers to entry in the industry D) By requiring investment in new information systems to reduce costs E) None of the above

4) _______

5) Which of the following is a feature of the macro-environment of an organisation?

A) Distributors B) Competitors C) Social factors D) Customers E) None of the above

5) _______

6) In the business impacting IS strategy approach: A) IS strategy formulated according to business objectives B) business strategy is independent of IS Strategy C) IS strategy is independent of business strategy D) IS strategy strongly influences business strategy E) none of the above

6) _______

7) The IS strategy tool that reviews the current and future importance of IS is: A) Value chain analysis

7) _______

B) Porter’s competitive strategies C) McFarlans strategic grid D) Five forces analysis E) None of the above 8) An applications portfolio analysis category where IS are of high current and lower future

8) _______

significance to business performance is a: A) key operational system B) strategic system C) support system D) high potential system E) none of the above

9) The emergent approach to strategy entails: A) an unrelated development of strategy analysis and development B) an interrelated development of strategy analysis and development C) largely sequential development of strategy analysis and development D) A and C E) none of the above

9) _______

1) A 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A revenue model is typically: 1) _______ A) the main component of a business model B) one element of a business model C) all of the above D) none of the above 2) Matching of internal resources against external demands forms part of: A) strategic implementation B) strategic definition C) strategic analysis D) strategic objectives E) none of the above

2) _______

3) Strategic option selection forms part of: A) strategic analysis B) strategic objectives C) strategic implementation D) strategic definition E) none of the above

3) _______

4) Auditing the existing applications portfolio is part of: A) strategic definition B) strategic implementation C) strategic objectives D) strategic analysis E) none of the above

4) _______

5) When managing the IS/IT function, which of the following fall into the management of technology

5) _______

category?

A) Selection of software development tools B) Migration and conversion strategy C) Software development D) Database administration E) End-user applications development

6) Organisations that get the balance right between centralised and decentralised IS/IT can expect

6) _______

to experience: A) business success through successfully implemented IS/IT strategies B) adoption of appropriate IS strategies C) development of technology infrastructures which support the required information systems D) all of the above E) none of the above

7) Which of the following are often given as concerns by companies considering entering into an outsourcing agreement?

7) _______

A) Certain employees may be disappointed at being unable to join the outsourcing company as an employee B) The risk of a loss or degradation of internal IS services C) Outside personnel are too highly qualified and therefore expensive D) IS/IT managers lose control over the maintenance important legacy systems E) The outsourcing vendor may not understand the company’s security systems

1) B 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which approach to the control of computer-based information systems might employ methods 1) _______ such as advertising and reinforcing the penalties for unauthorised access or monitoring patterns of information system usage and investigating all anomalies?

A) Obfuscation B) Prohibition C) Recovery D) Deterrence E) Containment

2) Which approach to the control of computer-based information systems recognises that, no

2) _______

matter how well defended, a breach in the security of an information system will eventually occur?

A) Obfuscation B) Prohibition C) Recovery D) Containment E) Deterrence

3) With regard to methods of controlling computer-based information system, using the unique

3) _______

characteristics of individuals - such as fingerprints - to control access to important equipment or data is an example of: A) physical protection B) failure controls C) biometric controls D) telecommunications controls E) auditing

4) With regard to methods of controlling computer-based information system, firewalls,

4) _______

passwords and user validation routines are examples of: A) failure controls B) physical protection C) biometric controls D) telecommunications controls E) auditing

5) Which of the following might be used by a disgruntled employee to cause damage to important

5) _______

data after they have left the company?

A) Worm B) Polymorphic virus C) Logic bomb D) Trojan E) Stealth virus

6) Which of the following presents itself as an innocent program in order to gain access to a computer-based information system?

A) Stealth virus B) Trojan

6) _______

C) Polymorphic virus D) Worm E) Logic bomb 7) What is the average cost of a virus incident to computer users?

A) £2000 B) £4000 C) £3000 D) £1000

7) _______ E) £5000

8) Which kind of computer virus is able to infect word processing, spreadsheet or database files?

A) Virus mutation engine B) Macro virus C) Polymorphic virus D) Stealth virus E) Worm

8) _______

9) This type of virus is a small programme that self-replicates and transfers across a network from

9) _______

machine to machine.

A) Trojan virus B) E-mail virus C) Boot-sector virus D) Worm E) Macro-virus

10) This type of virus masquerades as a bona fide application.

A) Boot-sector virus B) Macro-virus C) Trojan virus D) E-mail virus E) Worm

10) ______

11) Which of the following is not one of the four major approaches to information security?

A) Containment B) Obfuscation C) Recovery D) Deterrence E) Prohibition

11) ______

12) Computer viruses account for roughly how many serious security incidents each year?

A) 50% B) 30% C) 40% D) 60% E) 70%

12) ______

13) The category of software that gathers personal information in order to allow advertising to be

13) ______

targeted more accurately at computer users is called: A) Trojan B) Malware C) Spyware

D) Zombie

14) Roughly how many companies do not have a formal security policy?

A) 40% B) 20% C) 60% D) 30% 15) How many computer viruses were thought to exist by 2004?

A) 300,000 B) 50,000 C) 100,000 D) 20,000

E) Adware 14) ______ E) 50% 15) ______ E) 150,000

1) D 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) E 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) End-user development is: 1) _______ A) one aspect of end-user computing B) the same as using a web browser C) the same as end-user computing D) the same as using applications E) none of the above 2) Network management services provide: A) backup of user data B) access to user applications C) backup of user applications D) access to user data E) all of the above

2) _______

3) The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) is not likely to include: A) the cost of software and hardware upgrades B) the cost of data backup C) the cost of help-desk support D) the cost of paper consumables such as paper and toner E) none of the above

3) _______

4) Microsoft Visual Basic for Applications is an example of: A) a system development tool for end-user development B) an application for end-user development C) an application developed by end-user development D) all of the above E) none of the above

4) _______

5) An information centre (IC): A) provides troubleshooting on software problems B) provides help on use of applications C) provides troubleshooting on hardware problems D) provides help on the development of applications E) all of the above

5) _______

6) The use of information stored on a company web site to help answer user problems is: A) an intranet B) a major security risk C) the Internet D) an extranet E) all of the above

6) _______

7) End-user computing: A) refers to help-desk software B) is the same as software licence agreement C) is the same as total cost of ownership

7) _______

D) is concerned with supporting development with a help-desk E) none of the above 8) When selecting hardware, the greatest cost for a PC or printer is likely to be: A) purchase cost B) total cost of ownership

8) _______

9) The concept of Total Cost of Ownership is ONLY applied to: A) applications software B) desktop PC purchases C) server purchases D) operating systems software E) none of the above

9) _______

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

10) End User Computing is one aspect of End-User Development.

10) ______

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) End user computing typically accounts for roughly what proportion of IS budgets?

11) ______ A) 80% B) 60% C) 40% D) 70% E) 50% 12) Which of the following is not a typical end user service?

A) Recruiting technical staff B) Achieving standardisation of software C) Providing training D) Providing a help-desk service E) Ensuring network efficiency

12) ______

13) The typical cost of an incident reported to a help desk by telephone is: A) $40 B) $80 C) $100 D) $20

13) ______ E) $60

14) Which of the following is not one of stages in Huff’s model of the development of end user

14) ______

computing in a typical organisation?

A) Standalone B) Manual integration C) Isolation D) Automated integration E) Full integration

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

15) Unproductive use of the Internet during work time is often known as cyberslacking.

15) ______

1) A 2) E 3) E 4) A 5) E 6) A 7) E 8) B 9) E 10) FALSE 11) E 12) A 13) D 14) E 15) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In the United Kingdom, a typical adult may be listed in how many data files?

1) _______ A) 50 B) 200 C) 100 D) 250 E) 150 2) Which of the following is not covered under the Computer Misuse Act (1990)?

A) Preventing or hindering access to any program or data B) Impairing the operation of a program or the reliability of data C) Creating computer viruses D) Unauthorised access with the intention of carrying out or assisting others with the

2) _______

commission of further offences

E) Unauthorised access to computer material 3) Which legislation covers the act of making an unauthorised copy of a computer program?

A) Data Protection Act (1984) B) Criminal Damage Act (1971) C) Copyright, Designs & Patents Act (1988) D) Computer Misuse Act (1990) E) None of the above

3) _______

4) Which legislation covers the act of distributing a computer virus?

A) Copyright, Designs & Patents Act (1988) B) Computer Misuse Act (1990) C) Data Protection Act (1984) D) Criminal Damage Act (1971) E) None of the above

4) _______

5) Which legislation covers the act of creating a computer virus?

A) Computer Misuse Act (1990) B) Criminal Damage Act (1971) C) Data Protection Act (1984) D) Copyright, Designs & Patents Act (1988) E) None of the above

5) _______

6) Which legislation covers the act of gaining unauthorised access to a computer system?

A) Criminal Damage Act (1971) B) Copyright, Designs & Patents Act (1988) C) Data Protection Act (1984) D) Computer Misuse Act (1990) E) None of the above

6) _______

7) Which legislation covers damage caused to data held on offline storage media, such as compact

7) _______

discs and magnetic tapes?

A) Criminal Damage Act (1971) B) Copyright, Designs & Patents Act (1988) C) Computer Misuse Act (1990) D) Data Protection Act (1984) E) None of the above

8) Duplicating the design of an item or computer program is known as: A) hacking B) computer monitoring C) copyright theft D) reverse engineering E) electronic eavesdropping

8) _______

9) Which group of individuals might be described as well-educated, white collar workers that feel

9) _______

undervalued or bear some resentment to an employer or former employer?

A) Computer criminals B) Software pirates C) Information warriors D) Crackers E) Hackers

10) The freedom of information act requires publication of: A) all information held by all organizations B) some types of information held by public organizations

10) ______

11) Using automated systems to pool information from a variety of sources in order to monitor

11) ______

people is called: A) computer monitoring B) dataveillance C) computer surveillance D) cybersurveillance E) cyberspying

12) What is the name of a controversial technology that involves “tagging” products with

12) ______

microchips containing small radio transmitters and often described as an alternative to the use of barcodes?

A) RPID B) UMPC C) IRC D) RFID E) RUPC

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

13) The new Computer Misuse Act still allows people to hire someone to launch a denial of service

13) ______

attack against a company.

14) In the European Union, it is an offence to make unsolicited direct marketing calls to individuals

14) ______

who have indicated that they do not want to receive such calls.

15) International copyright legislation can be used to prevent people from copying ideas or concepts.

15) ______

1) B 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE