Business Data Networks and Security 10 edition Raymond Panko Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Business Data Networks and Security

Edition:

10th Edition

Author(s):

Raymond R. Panko Julia L. Panko

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 1 Welcome to the Cloud 1) Depicting the Internet as a cloud symbolizes that ________.

A) the Internet is amorphous B) the Internet is no longer understandable by humans C) the Internet is too complex for anyone to depict D) users do not have to know how the Internet operates and where resources are located Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept 2) A networking device that plays an important role in directing network communication is called a ________.

A) client B) server C) host D) router Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept 3) Which of the following is a host when it is on a network?

A) a client PC B) a server C) a mobile phone D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 2b Objective: Describe basic networking devices, including networking hosts, networking devices, the Internet, and Internet service users.

Classification: Concept

1 .

4) Application programs on ________ communicate by sending messages between each other.

A) the same host B) different hosts C) the same network D) different networks Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 2d Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept 5) What kind of address do hosts have on the Internet?

A) World Wide Web URLs B) MAC addresses C) EUI-48 addresses D) IP addresses Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 3a Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 6) 60.49.7.254 is an ________.

A) IPv4 address B) IPv6 address C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3b Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application

2 .

7) The address 60.49.7.254 is represented in ________.

A) dotted decimal notation B) EUI-48 notation C) hexadecimal notation D) binary notation Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3c Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept 8) Dotted decimal notation is used by ________.

A) networks B) computers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3d Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept 9) What type of address is 32 bits long?

A) IPv4 B) IPv6 C) EUI-48 D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3g Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept

3 .

10) What type of address is 100 bits long?

A) IPv4 B) IPv6 C) EUI-48 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 3h Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 11) ________ collectively form the core of the Internet service.

A) CSPs B) ISO, the IETF, and ITU-T C) ISPs D) Telephone companies Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 4b Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 12) Who controls the Internet?

A) the U.S. government B) the United Nations C) the IETF D) no one Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 4c Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application

4 .

13) Netflix uses AWS for its ________.

A) recommendation system B) content delivery appliances C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 5d Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 14) Content delivery networks mainly ________.

A) increase transmission speed B) increase program selection C) decrease program selection D) reduce latency Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 5e Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 15) A ________ may have multiple ________.

A) physical server, virtual machines B) virtual machine, physical servers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 6a Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 16) Which can be moved more easily?

A) a physical server B) a virtual machine C) Both are about equally easy to move.

D) Neither can be moved easily.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6b Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 5 .

17) Netflix uses the most VMs ________.

A) on weekends B) on weekdays C) in the evenings D) during the day Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 6d Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 18) Which type of service manages application software for users?

A) IaaS B) SaaS C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 7b Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 19) IaaSs own _________.

A) application software B) servers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 7c Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 20) For Netflix, Google is a(n) ________.

A) IaaS B) SaaS C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 7d Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 6 .

21) For Netflix, ________ is a(n) ________, and ________ is a(n) ________.

A) Google, IaaS, AWS, IaaS B) Google, SaaS, AWS, SaaS C) Google, IaaS, AWS, SaaS D) Google, SaaS, AWS, IaaS Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 7f Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 22) An IaaS provides ________.

A) servers B) application programs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 7g Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 23) When a cloud client customer moves from one machine to another machine, ________.

A) the same data files are available B) the same application software personalization is in effect C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 8a Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 24) In SaaS, the user normally ________.

A) purchases software B) pays for software by amount of use C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 8c Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Concept 7 .

25) Cloud customers are concerned that ________.

A) their data might be hacked B) the government may access their data secretly C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9 Objective: Explain how the Internet works, how Netflix uses Amazon Web Services IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) with virtual machines, and a Google SaaS (Software as a Service).

Classification: Application 26) Guarantees by a provider to meet certain delivery quality specifications are called ________.

A) speed quality guarantees B) service level agreements C) service warranties D) contracts Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 11a Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept 27) Network speeds usually are measured in ________.

A) bits per second B) bytes per second C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 11c Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Concept

8 .

28) 320,000 kbps is ________.

A) 320 bps B) 320 Mbps C) 320 Gbps D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 11d Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 29) 20,000 bits per second is ________.

A) 20 Kbps B) 20 Mbps C) 20 Gbps D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 11e Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 30) 200,000M bits per second is ________.

A) 200 Kbps B) 200 Mbps C) 200 Gbps D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 11e Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application

9 .

31) 7,000 bps can also be written as ________.

A) 7 Kbps B) 7 Mbps C) 7 Gbps D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 12a Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 32) 0.02 Gbps can also be written as ________.

A) 2 Mbps B) 20 Mbps C) 200 Mbps D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 12d Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 33) Writing 37,400 Mbps properly in metric notation would be________.

A) It is written properly.

B) 37.4 kbps C) 37.4 Mbps D) 37.4 Gbps Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 13b Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application

10 .

34) Writing 37kbps properly in metric notation would be ________.

A) 37 bps B) 3700 bps C) 37,000 bps D) 37,000 Mbps Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 13d Objective: Describe basic networking, including why networks are drawn as clouds, hosts, addresses, the Internet, Internet service providers, transmission speed, and service level agreements.

Classification: Application 35) Dividing an application message into a series of smaller message segments is called ________.

A) fragmentation B) packetization C) serialization D) multiplexing Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 14a Objective: Describe messages, fragmentation, multiplexing, and frames versus packets.

Classification: Concept 36) If a transmission link has a relatively high error rate, ________.

A) fragmentation is likely to reduce delivery time for the entire application message B) fragmentation is likely to increase delivery time for the entire application message C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14c Objective: Describe messages, fragmentation, multiplexing, and frames versus packets.

Classification: Application 37) When messages of different users share a transmission line, this is ________.

A) fragmentation B) packetization C) multiplexing D) parallel transmission Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 14d Objective: Describe messages, fragmentation, multiplexing, and frames versus packets.

Classification: Concept 11 .

38) Multiplexing ________.

A) reduces cost B) increases transmission speed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14e Objective: Describe messages, fragmentation, multiplexing, and frames versus packets.

Classification: Application 39) The most widely used single network address is the ________.

A) EUI-48 address B) MAC address C) IP address D) PPP address Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Concept 40) All single network addresses are ________ addresses.

A) EUI-48 B) IP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 16d Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 41) Data link layer standards govern ________.

A) connectors B) frame organization C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 17c Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 12 .

42) Data link layer standards govern ________.

A) switch operation B) frame organization C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 17c Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 43) At what layer do you find EUI-48 addresses?

A) physical B) data link C) Internet D) two or more of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 17d Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 44) At what layer are frames standardized?

A) physical B) data link C) Internet D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 17e Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application

13 .

45) The second-lowest standards layer is the ________ layer. (Read the question and answers carefully.)

A) physical B) data link C) Internet D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 46) At what layer(s) do you find single network standards?

A) Layer 1 B) Layer 2 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 18d Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 47) PPP is standardized at the ________ layer.

A) physical B) data link C) Internet D) transport Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 18e Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application

14 .

48) 802.11 data link layer standards govern ________.

A) frame organization B) access point operation C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 19b Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 49) In a single network transmission, there is always ________.

A) a single frame B) a single data link C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 19c Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 50) Switches make decisions based on the ________.

A) physical link address B) source data link layer address C) destination data link layer address D) phase of the moon Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 20c Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 51) An individual switch knows the frame's entire ________.

A) session B) data link C) route D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 20d Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 15 .

52) In switched networks, to what device is a frame addressed?

A) the destination host B) switches C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 20e Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 53) In hybrid Ethernet—802.11 networks, wireless clients use the Ethernet network to gain access to ________.

A) internal servers B) their access point C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 21b Objective: Describe how single point-to-point, wireless, switched, and hybrid wireless-switched networks operate-especially how switches forward incoming frames.

Classification: Application 54) What device connects different networks into an Internet?

A) router B) workgroup switch C) Network Access Point D) core switch Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 23a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

16 .

55) In Internets, different networks are connected by ________.

A) switches B) routers C) PCs D) hot spots Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 23a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 56) Single network addresses in different single networks are ________.

A) unique B) unique if the two single networks use the same technology standard C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 24 Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Concept 57) ________ are carried inside ________.

A) Packets, frames B) Frames, packets C) Frames, application message segments D) Packets, application message segments Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 25b Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

17 .

58) When an application program transmits a message, what will the first field be in the message that is sent over the transmission link?

A) application header B) packet header C) transport header D) frame header Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 25d Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 59) When an application program transmits a message, what will the SECOND field be in the message that is sent over the transmission link?

A) application header B) packet header C) transport header D) frame header Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 25d Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 60) The path that a packet takes across an internet is a ________.

A) physical link B) data link C) route D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 26a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Concept

18 .

61) The path that a frame takes across a single network is a ________.

A) physical link B) data link C) route D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 26b Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Concept 62) When a packet travels through an internet, there are usually ________.

A) more data links than routes B) exactly the same number of data links and routes C) approximately the same number of data links and routes D) more routes than data links Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 26c Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 63) If two hosts are separated by seven networks, how many packets will there be along the way when a host transmits a packet to another host?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 7 D) 14 Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 26e Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

19 .

64) If two hosts are separated by seven networks, how many frames will there be along the way when a host transmits a packet to another host?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 7 D) 14 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 26f Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 65) The source host and destination host are separated by seven networks. There will be seven ________.

A) packets B) frames C) physical links D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 26h Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 66) If a frame passes through seven switches between the source and destination hosts, how many physical links will there be? (Careful!)

A) 1 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 28a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

20 .

67) If a frame passes through eight switches between the source and destination hosts on a single network, how many data links will there be?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 28a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 68) If a frame passes through two routers between the source and destination hosts, how many routes will there be?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 28a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 69) At what layer would you find IP addresses?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 29a Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

21 .

70) At what layer would you find EUI-48 addresses?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 29b Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 71) At what layer would you find packets?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 29c Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 72) At what layer would you find frames?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 29d Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 73) At what layer would you find wire connections?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 29f Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 22 .

74) At what layer would you find switches?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 28g Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 75) At what layer would you find routers?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 29 Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application 76) Packets are ________.

A) switched B) routed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B. Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 30 Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

23 .

77) Standards tend to bring _________.

A) interoperability B) higher prices C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 31b Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Application 78) What layer number is the transport layer?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 31d Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 79) What layer number is the physical layer?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 31d Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept

24 .

80) What layer number is the Internet layer?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 31d Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 81) What layer number is the data link layer?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 31d Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 82) Which layer's standards govern signaling?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 31e Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept

25 .

83) Which layer's standards govern delivering frames?

A) 1 B) 2 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 31f Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 84) Which layer's standards govern router operation?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 31g Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 85) In the Five General Layers Standard, which layer's standards govern application message fragmentation?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 31g Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept

26 .

86) In the Five General Layers Standard, which layer's standards govern application World Wide Web exchanges over the Internet?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 31h Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Application 87) Application message fragmentation is done on the ________.

A) source host B) destination host C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 31h Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Application 88) Application message reassembly is done on the ________.

A) source host B) destination host C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 31h Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Application

27 .

89) Which of the following is NOT a standards organization?

A) ISO B) OSI C) IETF D) All of the above are standards organizations.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 32a Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Application 90) OSI standards are dominant at the ________.

A) data link layer B) physical layer C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 32b Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Application 91) Which of the following layers governs internet transmission?

A) data link layer B) transport layer C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 32d Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept

28 .

92) Which of the following is a host's official address on the Internet?

A) its IP address B) its host name C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 33b Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 93) If a host wishes to transmit packets to another host, it must find the other host's ________.

A) IP address B) host name C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 33b Objective: List the five standards layers commonly encountered in networking, describe what each layer does, describe concepts and terms in each layer, identify at which layer a given process is operating, and identify which standards agencies and standards architecture are relevant to that process.

Classification: Concept 94) When the source host transmits a frame, the frame is addressed to the ________.

A) destination host B) first switch C) first router D) destination application Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 1-3 Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

29 .

95) When the source host transmits a packet, the packet is addressed to the ________.

A) destination host B) first switch C) first router D) destination application Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 1-3 Objective: Describe how internets and routers make it possible for hosts on different networks to work together.

Classification: Application

30 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 2 Network Standards 1) Internet standards are published as ________.

A) RFCs B) IETFs C) TCP/IPs D) Internet Protocols Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Explain how internet standards are made and why this approach is valuable.

Classification: Concept 2) Standards mean the same thing as ________.

A) semantics B) syntax C) rules D) protocols Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Provide the definitions of network standards and protocols, message syntax, semantics, and order.

Classification: Concept 3) Standards govern ________.

A) semantics B) syntax C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 3a Objective: Provide the definitions of network standards and protocols, message syntax, semantics, and order.

Classification: Concept

1 .

4) The meaning of a message is referred to as the message's ________.

A) protocol B) order C) syntax D) semantics Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 3b Objective: Provide the definitions of network standards and protocols, message syntax, semantics, and order.

Classification: Concept 5) How a message is organized is its ________.

A) protocol B) order C) syntax D) semantics Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 3c Objective: Provide the definitions of network standards and protocols, message syntax, semantics, and order.

Classification: Concept 6) A message's semantics is its ________.

A) protocol B) message order C) meaning D) structure Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 3d Objective: Provide the definitions of network standards and protocols, message syntax, semantics, and order.

Classification: Concept 7) A message's syntax is its ________.

A) protocol B) message order C) meaning D) structure Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 3e Objective: Provide the definitions of network standards and protocols, message syntax, semantics, and order.

Classification: Concept 2 .

8) In an HTTP, which one (browser or Webserver application program) transmits message first?

A) browser B) Webserver application program C) They transmit simultaneously.

D) It depends on the situation.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 4a Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application 9) In HTTP, which program may initiate communication?

A) browser B) Webserver program C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 4b Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application 10) Host P transmits a SYN segment to Host Q. If host Q is willing to open the connection, it will transmit a(n) ________ segment.

A) ACK B) SYN C) SYN/ACK D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 4c Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application 11) If a destination host does not receive a segment, it will ________.

A) transmit an ACK segment B) transmit a NAC segment C) transmit an RSND segment D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4d Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application

3 .

12) If the destination host receives a segment that has an error, it will ________.

A) transmit an ACK segment B) transmit a NAC segment C) transmit an RSND segment D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 4e Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application 13) A sending host will retransmit a TCP segment if it ________.

A) receives an ACK segment B) receives a NAC segment C) receives an RPT segment D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4f Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application 14) In a four-step close, which side transmits a FIN segment?

A) the side that initiates the close B) the other side C) either side D) neither side Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 4g Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application 15) After the side wishing to close a TCP connection sends a FIN segment, the other side will ________.

A) not send any more segments B) only send ACK segments C) only send FIN segments D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 4h Objective: Discuss message ordering in general and in HTTP and TCP. Classification: Application

4 .

16) Which of the following is inside the header of messages?

A) address field B) IP address field C) data field D) trailer Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 5a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 17) The ________ contains the content being delivered by a message.

A) address field B) header C) data field D) trailer Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 18) A message always has a ________.

A) header B) data field C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 5c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 19) Which part of a message is less often in a message compared to the other two parts?

A) header B) data field C) trailer D) All of the above are commonly seen in all messages.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 5d Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 5 .

20) "Octet" is the same as ________.

A) "bit" B) "byte" C) either A or B, depending on the context D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 5e Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 21) EUI-48 addresses are ________.

A) 32 bits long B) 48 bits long C) 128 bits long D) Address length varies.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 22) An EUI-48 address was formerly called a(n) ________ address.

A) IPv4 B) IPv6 C) MAC D) DNS Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 6b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application

6 .

23) ________ read(s) the destination address in an Ethernet frame.

A) The destination host B) Switches in the network C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 6c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 24) If the destination host finds an error in an Ethernet frame, it ________.

A) sends back a NAK B) sends back a ACK C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 6d Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 25) Ethernet does ________.

A) error detection B) error correction C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 6e Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 26) In IP, the first bit in the second row is ________.

A) 0 B) 31 C) 32 D) 63 Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 7a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 7 .

27) How long are IPv4 addresses?

A) 4 bits B) 32 bits C) 48 bits D) 128 bits Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 28) How long are IPv4 addresses in octets?

A) 4 octets B) 32 octets C) 48 octets D) 128 octets Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 7c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 29) To make a forwarding decision, a router looks at the arriving packet's ________.

A) destination IP address B) destination EUI-48 address C) both A and B D) MAC addresses Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 7d Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application

8 .

30) IP is ________.

A) reliable B) unreliable C) semi-reliable D) unreliable or reliable depending on the situation Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7e Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 31) TCP messages are called ________.

A) segments B) fragments C) packets D) datagrams Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 8a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 32) TCP has six single-bit fields in headers and these single-bit fields are called ________ fields.

A) port B) flag C) ACK D) binary Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 33) If someone says that a 1-bit flag is set, this means that it is given the value ________.

A) 0 B) 1 C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 9 .

34) The UDP has ________ fields.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 10a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 35) The UDP ________.

A) is unreliable B) has a checksum field C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 10b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 36) UDP is ________.

A) reliable B) unreliable C) It depends on the situation.

D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 10c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept

10 .

37) On a server, well-known port numbers indicate ________.

A) applications B) connections with client computers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 11a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 38) For every conversation, a client randomly generates an ephemeral port number for ________.

A) applications B) conversations C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 11b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 39) The range of port 1024 to port 4999 is the usual range for ________ port numbers.

A) well-known B) ephemeral C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 11c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept

11 .

40) 2500 is in the range for ________ port numbers.

A) well-known B) ephemeral C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 11d Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 41) The source socket is 60.171.18.22:2707. The source is a(n) ________.

A) client B) server C) well-known server D) ephemeral server Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 11e Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 42) Which of the following is a socket?

A) 80 B) 21 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 12a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 43) The source socket is 60.171.18.22:2707. The source host is a(n) ________.

A) client B) server C) well-known server D) ephemeral server Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 12b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 12 .

44) The destination socket is 60.171.18.22:161. The destination host is a(n) ________.

A) client B) server C) well-known server D) ephemeral server Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 12c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 45) The application standard is almost always ________.

A) HTTP B) TCP C) reliable D) None of the above is true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 13a Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 46) Which of the following layers has more standards than the other three layers?

A) data link B) Internet C) transport D) application Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 13b Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept

13 .

47) At which layer would you find standards for requesting videos from a video-sharing site such as YouTube?

A) application B) transport C) Internet D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 13c Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 48) At which layer would you find file transfer protocol (FTP) standards for downloading files from an FTP server?

A) application B) transport C) Internet D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 13d Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application 49) In HTTP headers, the end of a header field is usually indicated by a ________.

A) .

B) : C) ; D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 13e Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Application

14 .

50) In HTTP, the end of a header field is usually indicated by a ________.

A) bit position B) CRLF C) colon D) blank line Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13f Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 51) An HTTP request message usually has a ________.

A) header B) data field C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 13g Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 52) An HTTP response message usually has a ________.

A) trailer B) data field C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13h Objective: Discuss message syntax in general and in Ethernet frames, IP packets, TCP segments, UDP datagrams, and HTTP request and response messages.

Classification: Concept 53) Converting application messages into bits is called ________.

A) encapsulation B) encryption C) encoding D) exchange Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 14a Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Concept 15 .

54) At what layer is encoding done?

A) application B) transport C) Internet D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 14b Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Concept 55) How many bytes will it take to transmit "Brain Dead" without the quotation marks?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 9 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 15a Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 56) Which of the following is an integer?

A) 4,307 B) 45.7 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 57) Convert the binary number 100 to decimal.

A) It is in decimal.

B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 16b Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application

16 .

58) Convert a decimal number 15 to the binary number.

A) It is a binary number.

B) 1100 C) 1101 D) 1111 Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 16c Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 59) Convert decimal 8 to binary.

A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10000 D) 111 Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 16d Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 60) A 5-bit field can represent ________ alternatives or different combinations.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 17a Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 61) A 7-bit field can represent ________ alternatives or different combinations.

A) 14 B) 49 C) 128 D) 256 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 17b Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application

17 .

62) To represent 65 alternatives, your alternatives field would have to be at least ________ bits long.

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 17c Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 63) The five senses can be represented with a ________-bit field.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 17d Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application 64) The electrical signal generated by a microphone is called a(n) ________ signal.

A) binary B) digital C) analog D) Either A or B. Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 18a Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Concept 65) A codec ________.

A) encodes voice sounds into digital signals for transmission B) encodes voice sounds into analog signals for transmission C) encrypts the signal D) converts binary voice signals into digital signals for transmission Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 18b Objective: Explain how to encode application messages into bits (1s and 0s).

Classification: Application

18 .

66) ________ is placing a message in the data field of another message.

A) Encoding B) Vertical communication C) Layering D) Encapsulation Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 19a Objective: Explain vertical communication on hosts.

Classification: Concept 67) After the Internet layer process does encapsulation, it passes the IP packet to the ________ layer process.

A) transport B) data link C) physical D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 19b Objective: Explain vertical communication on hosts.

Classification: Application 68) After the data link layer process does encapsulation, it passes the IP packet to the ________ layer process.

A) physical B) internet C) transport D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 19c Objective: Explain vertical communication on hosts.

Classification: Application 69) Which layer process does NOT do any encapsulation when an application layer process transmits a message?

A) physical B) data link C) Internet D) All layers do encapsulation.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 19d Objective: Explain vertical communication on hosts.

Classification: Application 19 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 3 Network Security 1) The Target attackers probably first broke into Target using the credentials of a(n) ________.

A) low-level Target employee B) Target IT employee C) Target security employee D) employee in a firm outside Target Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 1b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 2) The Target attackers sold their stolen card information to ________.

A) crimeware shops B) card shops C) card counterfeiters D) Hallmark Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 1b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 3) Which of the following probably suffered the most financial damage from the Target breach?

A) Target B) banks C) consumers D) POS vendors Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 2a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 4) Which of the following probably suffered the most financial damage from the Target breach?

A) retailers other than Target B) banks C) consumers D) POS terminal vendors Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 2b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 1 .

5) The general name for evil software is ________.

A) virus B) worm C) exploit D) malware Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 4a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 6) The general name for a security flaw in a program is a ________.

A) virus B) malware C) security fault D) vulnerability Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 5a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 7) A ________ is a flaw in a program that permits a specific attack or set of attacks against this problem.

A) malware B) security error C) vulnerability D) security fault Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 8) Users typically can eliminate a vulnerability in one of their programs by ________.

A) installing a patch B) doing a zero-day installation C) using an antivirus program D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 5c Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept

2 .

9) Vulnerability-based attacks that occur before a patch is available are called ________ attacks.

A) preinstallation B) stealth C) malware D) zero-day Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 5d Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 10) ________ are full programs.

A) Viruses B) Worms C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 11) Which of the following attach themselves to other programs?

A) Viruses B) Worms C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 6b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 12) Viruses most commonly spread from one computer to another ________.

A) via e-mail B) by propagating directly by themselves C) through obfuscation D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 6c Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application

3 .

13) Which of the following sometimes uses direct propagation between computers?

A) viruses B) worms C) Trojan horses D) downloaders Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6d Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 14) Which of the following can spread more rapidly?

A) directly-propagating viruses B) directly-propagating worms C) Both of the above can spread with approximately equal speed.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6e Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 15) Mobile code is another name for ________.

A) virus B) worm C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 7a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 16) Malware programs that masquerade as system files are called ________.

A) viruses B) scripts C) payloads D) Trojan horses Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 7b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept

4 .

17) Trojan horses can spread by ________.

A) e-mailing themselves to victim computers B) directly propagating to victim computers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 7c Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 18) The general name for malware on a user's PC that collects sensitive information and sends this information to an attacker is ________.

A) keystroke loggers B) anti-privacy software C) spyware D) data mining software Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 7d Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 19) A program that can capture passwords as you enter them is ________.

A) a keystroke logger B) data mining software C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 7e Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 20) Small malware programs that download larger malware programs are called ________.

A) downloaders B) scouts C) foothold programs D) stage-one programs Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 7g Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept

5 .

21) Unsolicited commercial e-mail is better known as ________.

A) spam B) adware C) social engineering D) identity theft Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 7g Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 22) Pieces of code that are executed after the virus or worm has spread are called ________.

A) vulnerabilities B) exploits C) compromises D) payloads Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 8a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 23) Tricking users into doing something against their security interests is ________.

A) social engineering B) hacking C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 9a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 24) An attack in which an authentic-looking e-mail or website entices a user to enter his or her username, password, or other sensitive information is called ________. (Select the most specific answer.)

A) phishing B) identity theft C) social engineering D) a spyware attack Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 9b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept

6 .

25) An attack aimed at a single person or a small group of individuals is a(n) ________ attack.

(Choose the most specific answer.)

A) phishing B) spear phishing C) highly targeted D) customized Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9c Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 26) Credit card number thieves are called ________. (Pick the most precise answer.)

A) numbers racketeers B) fraudsters C) identity thieves D) carders Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 9d Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 27) Which of the following tends to be more damaging to the victim?

A) credit card theft B) identity theft C) Both are about equally damaging to the victim.

D) Neither is damaging to the victim.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9e Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 28) Which of the following meets the definition of hacking ________.

A) to intentionally use a computer resource without authorization B) to use a computer on which you have an account for unauthorized purposes C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 10a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application

7 .

29) If you see a username and password on a Post-It note that anyone can see on a monitor, is it hacking if you use this information to log in?

A) Yes B) No C) We cannot say from the information given.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 10b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 30) You discover that you can get into other e-mail accounts after you have logged in under your account. You spend just a few minutes looking at another user's mail. Is that hacking?

A) Yes B) No C) We cannot say from the information given.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 10c Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 31) Methods that hackers use to break into computers are ________.

A) cracks B) magics C) exploits D) compromises Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 11a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 32) DoS attacks attempt to ________.

A) hack a computer B) reduce the availability of a computer C) steal information from a computer D) delete files on a computer Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 12a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application

8 .

33) Attack programs that can be remotely controlled by an attacker are ________.

A) bots B) DoS programs C) exploits D) sock puppets Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 12b Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Concept 34) In distributed DoS attacks, the attacker sends messages directly to ________.

A) bots B) the intended victim of the DoS attack C) a command and control server D) DOS servers Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 12c Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 35) Which of the following can be upgraded after it is installed on a victim computer? (Choose the most specific answer.)

A) Trojan horses B) bots C) viruses D) worms Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 12d Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 36) Advanced persistent threats are ________.

A) inexpensive for the attacker B) extremely dangerous for the victim C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application

9 .

37) What type of attacker are most of attackers today?

A) disgruntled employees and ex-employees B) career criminals C) hackers motivated by a sense of power D) cyberterrorists Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 38) Who are the most dangerous types of employees?

A) financial employees B) manufacturing employees C) IT security employees D) former employees Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 16a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 39) What type of attacker can do the most damage?

A) criminal attackers B) hackers driven by curiosity C) employees and ex-employees D) national governments Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 17a Objective: Describe the threat environment, including types of attacks and types of attackers.

Classification: Application 40) A specific encryption method is called a ________.

A) code B) schema C) key method D) cipher Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 18a Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Concept

10 .

41) Using encryption, you make it impossible for attackers to read your messages even if they intercept them. This is ________.

A) authentication B) confidentiality C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 18b Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Concept 42) In two-way dialogues using symmetric key encryption, how many keys are used for encryption and decryption?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Application 43) In symmetric key encryption, a key must be ________ bits long, or longer, to be considered strong. (Choose the choice closest to the correct answer.)

A) 36 B) 56 C) 64 D) 128 Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 18d Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Concept

11 .

44) Electronic signatures provide message-by-message ________.

A) authentication B) confidentiality C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 19a Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Concept 45) Electronic signatures also provide ________ in addition to authentication.

A) message integrity B) message encryption C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 19b Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Concept 46) The messages of VPNs ________.

A) share the same transmission lines B) are encrypted C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 20a Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Application 47) SSL/TLS is used for ________.

A) Web applications B) any application C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 20b Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Application 12 .

48) Using SSL/TLS for Web applications is attractive because SSL/TLS ________.

A) is essentially free to use B) offers the strongest possible cryptographic protections C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 20c Objective: Explain in detail the protection of dialogues by cryptography, including symmetric key encryption for confidentiality and electronic signatures.

Classification: Application 49) Requiring someone to use a resource to prove his or her identity is ________.

A) confidentiality B) authentication C) authorization D) both B and C Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 21a Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Concept 50) In authentication, the ________ is the party trying to prove his or her identity.

A) supplicant B) verifier C) true party D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 21b Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Concept

13 .

51) ________ is the general name for proofs of identity in authentication.

A) Credentials B) Authorizations C) Certificates D) Signatures Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 21c Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 52) Authentication should generally be ________.

A) as strong as possible B) appropriate for a specific resource C) the same for all resources, for consistency D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 21d Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 53) Passwords are widely used because they ________.

A) are demanded by users B) offer strong authentication C) are the only authentication techniques known by most security professionals D) are inexpensive to use Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 22b Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 54) A user picks the password "tiger." This is likely to be cracked quickly by a(n) ________.

A) attack on an application running as root B) brute-force attack C) dictionary attack D) reverse engineering attack Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 22c Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 14 .

55) Prepare2 can be cracked most quickly by a(n) ________.

A) authentication attack B) brute-force attack C) dictionary attack D) hybrid dictionary attack Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 22d Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Concept 56) A password-cracking attack that tries all combinations of keyboard characters is called a ________.

A) dictionary attack B) hybrid mode dictionary attack C) brute-force attack D) comprehensive keyboard attack Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 22e Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Concept 57) The password "velociraptor" can be defeated most quickly by a ________.

A) dictionary attack B) reverse engineering attack C) brute-force attack D) None of the above because it is more than 8 characters long.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 22f Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application

15 .

58) To defeat brute-force attacks, a password must be ________.

A) long B) complex C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 22h Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 59) The password "NeVEr" can be defeated by a ________.

A) dictionary attack B) hybrid dictionary attack C) brute-force attack D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 22i Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 60) The password "R7%t&" can be defeated by a ________.

A) dictionary attack B) hybrid mode dictionary attack C) brute-force attack D) All of the above could defeat the password equally quickly.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 22j Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 61) Which of the following is a form of biometrics?

A) reusable passwords B) digital certificate authentication C) facial recognition D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 24a Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Concept 16 .

62) Iris scanning is attractive because of its ________.

A) low cost B) precision C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 24b Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 63) Which of the following can be done today without the target's knowledge?

A) iris scanning B) face recognition C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 24c Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 64) In digital certificate authentication, the supplicant encrypts the challenge message with ________.

A) the supplicant's private key B) the verifier's private key C) the true party's private key D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 25a Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application

17 .

65) In digital certificate authentication, the verifier gets the key it needs directly from the ________.

A) supplicant B) verifier C) true party D) certificate authority Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 25b Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 66) In digital certificate authentication, the verifier uses ________.

A) the supplicant's public key B) the true party's public key C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 25c Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application 67) The digital certificate provides the ________.

A) private key of the supplicant B) private key of the true party C) public key of the supplicant D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 25d Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Application

18 .

68) Debit card is secure because it requires two credentials for authentication. This is also called ________.

A) the supplicant's authentication B) the verifier's authentication C) two-factor authentication D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 26a Objective: Evaluate alternative authentication mechanisms, including passwords, smart cards, biometrics, digital certificate authentication, and two-factor authentication.

Classification: Concept 69) When a firewall identifies an attack packet, it ________.

A) discards the packet B) copies information about the packet into a log file C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 27a Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application 70) A firewall will drop a packet if it ________.

A) is a definite attack packet B) is a probable attack packet C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 27b Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application

19 .

71) Firewall log files should be read ________.

A) every month B) every day C) every week D) usually only when a serious attack is suspected Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 27c Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application 72) Egress filtering examines packets ________.

A) arriving from the outside B) leaving to the outside C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 27d Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept 73) ACLs are used for packets in the ________ state.

A) connection-opening B) ongoing communication C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 28a Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept

20 .

74) When a packet that is part of an ongoing connection arrives at a stateful inspection firewall, the firewall usually ________.

A) drops the packet B) drops the packet and notifies an administrator C) passes the packet D) passes the packet, but notifies an administrator Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 28b Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept 75) When a packet that is not part of an ongoing connection and that does not attempt to open a connection arrives at a stateful inspection firewall, the firewall ________. (Read this question carefully.)

A) drops the packet B) passes the packet C) opens a new connection D) does not approve the connection Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 28c Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept 76) Stateful firewalls are attractive because of their ________.

A) high filtering sophistication B) ability to filter complex application content C) QoS guarantees D) low cost Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 28d Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application

21 .

77) ________ is the dominant firewall filtering method used on main border firewalls today.

A) ACL filtering B) Application content filtering C) Stateful packet inspection D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 28e Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application 78) How will a stateful packet inspection (SPI) firewall handle a packet containing a TCP segment which is an acknowledgement?

A) process it through the Access Control List (ACL) B) pass it if it is part of an approved connection C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 29a Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept 79) How will a stateful packet inspection (SPI) firewall handle a packet containing a TCP SYN segment?

A) process it through the Access Control List (ACL) B) pass it if it is part of an approved connection C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 29b Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application

22 .

80) How will a stateful packet inspection (SPI) firewall handle a packet containing a TCP FIN segment?

A) process it through the Access Control List (ACL) B) pass it if it is part of an approved connection C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 29c Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application 81) Which type of firewall filtering collects streams of packets to analyze them as a group?

A) static packet filtering B) stateful packet inspection C) next-generation D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 30a Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept 82) Which type of firewall filtering looks at application-layer content?

A) static packet filtering B) stateful packet inspection C) NGFW D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 30b Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept

23 .

83) NGFWs ________.

A) can implement different rules for different applications B) can detect threats that span multiple packets C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 30c Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application 84) If a packet is highly suspicious but not a provable attack packet, a(n) ________ may drop it.

A) SPI firewall B) IDS C) IPS D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 30d Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application 85) In a firewall, VPN traversal ________.

A) increases the effectiveness of firewall filtering B) reduces firewall filtering effectiveness C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 30e Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Application

24 .

86) If a firewall does not have the processing power to filter all of the packets that arrive, ________.

A) it will pass some packets without filtering them B) it will drop packets it cannot process C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 30f Objective: Describe firewall protection, including stateful packet inspection, intrusion prevention systems, and next-generation firewalls.

Classification: Concept 87) ________ look at ________, and ________ look at ________.

A) Antivirus programs, packets, firewalls, packets B) Antivirus programs, files, firewalls, files C) Antivirus programs, packets, firewalls, files D) Antivirus programs, files, firewalls, packets Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 31a Objective: Describe the role of antivirus protection.

Classification: Application 88) In antivirus filtering, the best ways to filter currently use ________.

A) application awareness B) stateful inspection C) signature detection D) behavioral detection Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 31b Objective: Describe the role of antivirus protection.

Classification: Concept

25 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 4 Network and Security Management 1) Compared to network demand, network budgets are growing ________.

A) faster B) as fast as it used to be C) slower D) both A and C Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Describe strategic network planning principles.

Classification: Concept 2) In QoS, the S stands for ________.

A) software B) security C) service D) satisfaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 3a Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 3) QoS is quantified through ________.

A) criteria B) consensus C) metrics D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 3b Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept

1 .

4) Transmission speed is normally measured in ________.

A) bits per second B) bytes per second C) octet per second D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 4a Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 5) Throughput is ________.

A) the speed a network actually provides to users B) a network's rated speed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 4a Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 6) Users of an access point share the transmission capacity of the access point. The throughput a user gets is called the ________.

A) rated speed B) aggregate throughput C) individual throughput D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 4b Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept

2 .

7) In a coffee shop hot spot, the rated speed is 10 Mbps. Throughput is about half of the rated speed. There are ten people using the hot spot. You and three others are transmitting or receiving at a particular moment. What speed should you expect to get?

A) 0.5 Mbps B) 1 Mbps C) 1.25 Mbps D) 2.5 Mbps Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 4c Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 8) ________ is the percentage of time that a network is available for use.

A) Availability B) Downtime C) QoS D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 5a Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 9) Which of the following usually has higher availability?

A) data networks B) Public Switched Telephone Network C) Both of the above usually have equal availability.

D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 5b Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application

3 .

10) Error rates can soar when the network traffic level ________.

A) is at a high level B) is at an average level C) is at a low level D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 5c Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 11) Errors may substantially reduce throughput in ________. (Pick the standard most affected.)

A) IP B) TCP C) UDP D) HTTP Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 5d Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 12) When a packet travels through a network, the time it takes to get from the sender to the receiver is called ________.

A) latency B) milliseconds C) jitter D) throughput Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 5e Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept

4 .

13) Latency is usually measured in ________.

A) bits per second (bps) B) milliseconds (ms) C) minutes of downtime D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 5e Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 14) Variability in delay is called ________.

A) jitter B) variance C) a QoS failure D) latency Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 5g Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 15) Jitter is a problem for ________.

A) voice over IP (VoIP) B) streaming media C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 5h Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 16) Jitter is a problem for ________.

A) downloading a file attached to an e-mail B) e-mail C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 5h Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 5 .

17) An SLA should specify the ________.

A) best case B) worst case C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6b Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 18) An SLA for speed should specify a ________.

A) maximum speed B) minimum speed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6c Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 19) An SLA for availability should specify a ________.

A) maximum availability B) minimum availability C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6d Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 20) An SLA for latency should specify a ________.

A) maximum latency B) minimum latency C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 6e Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 6 .

21) An SLA for jitter should specify a ________.

A) maximum jitter B) minimum jitter C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 6f Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 22) If throughput falls substantially below a QoS guaranteed speed, the ISP ________.

A) always pays a penalty B) may pay a penalty C) does not pay a penalty D) may renegotiate the QoS guarantee for speed Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6h Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Concept 23) ISPs usually offer QoS guarantees to ________.

A) residential customers B) business customers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6i Objective: Discuss network quality of service (QoS) and how to specify service level agreement (SLA) guarantees.

Classification: Application 24) Momentary traffic peaks can lead to ________.

A) latency B) packet loss C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9c Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application 7 .

25) Which of the following is latency intolerant?

A) video B) e-mail C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9d Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application 26) Overprovisioning is ________.

A) wasteful of capacity B) highly labor-intensive C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9d Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application 27) Overprovisioning means ________.

A) assigning high priority to latency-intolerant applications while giving low priority to latencytolerant applications B) adding much more switching and transmission line capacity than will be needed most of the time Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9d Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Concept 28) Priority is assigning high priority to ________ applications while giving low priority to ________ applications.

A) latency-tolerant, latency-intolerant B) latency-intolerant, latency-tolerant Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9d Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Concept

8 .

29) A packet will definitely get through if it has ________.

A) QoS reserved capacity B) priority C) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9e Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application 30) Compared to other methods for reducing problems during momentary traffic peaks, overprovisioning ________.

A) increases capital cost B) increases labor costs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9e Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application 31) Which of the following would receive the highest priority?

A) video packets B) e-mail packets C) World Wide Web packets D) network management packets Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 9g Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application 32) Priority addresses the problem of ________.

A) momentary traffic peaks B) chronic under-capacity C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9h Objective: Be able to describe options for dealing with momentary traffic peaks.

Classification: Application

9 .

33) Which phase of the plan-protect-respond cycle takes the largest amount of work?

A) plan B) protect C) respond D) The phases require about equal amounts of effort.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 11b Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 34) Which of the following is NOT one of the four major security planning principles?

A) perimeter defense B) risk analysis C) comprehensive security D) defense in depth Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 12b Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 35) Balancing threats against protection costs is called ________.

A) economic justification B) risk analysis C) comprehensive security D) defense in depth Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 12b Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 36) Attackers only need to find a single weakness to break in. Consequently, companies must ________.

A) have comprehensive security B) have insurance C) do risk analysis D) only give minimum permissions Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 13a Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application

10 .

37) An attacker must break through two firewalls to get to a host. This illustrates the principle called ________. (Select the most specific answer.)

A) comprehensive security B) risk assurance C) having a DMZ D) defense in depth Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 13c Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 38) Vulnerabilities are occasionally found in even the best security products. Consequently, companies must ________.

A) have comprehensive security B) have defense in depth C) do risk analysis D) only give minimum permissions Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13d Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 39) There is a single countermeasure in ________.

A) weakest links B) defense in depth C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 13e Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 40) Companies should ________ single points of takeover.

A) eliminate B) pay special attention to C) multiply D) authorize Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13f Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application

11 .

41) Actions that people are allowed to take on a resource come under the heading of ________.

A) hacks B) authorizations C) exploits D) risks Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 13g Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 42) Another term for authorization is ________.

A) authentication B) token C) establishing the creator of a file D) permission Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 13h Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 43) If someone has been properly authenticated, they should receive ________ permissions.

A) all B) no C) maximum D) minimum Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 13i Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 44) A policy specifies ________.

A) what should be done B) how to do it C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14a Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept

12 .

45) Which of the following specifies what should be done?

A) policies B) implementation C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14b Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 46) Policies are separated by implementation to take advantage of ________.

A) implementer knowledge B) the delegation of work principle C) minimum permissions Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 14c Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 47) Implementation guidance is less specific than ________.

A) policy B) implementation C) standards D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 14e Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 48) Which of the following must be followed?

A) standards B) guidelines C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 14f Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept

13 .

49) Which of the following is true?

A) Guidelines must be followed.

B) Guidelines must be considered.

C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14g Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 50) Oversight activities include ________.

A) vulnerability testing B) creating guidelines C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14j Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application 51) Attacking your own firm occurs in ________.

A) vulnerability testing B) auditing C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14j Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Concept 52) Policies should drive ________.

A) implementation B) oversight C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14k Objective: Describe and apply strategic security planning principles.

Classification: Application

14 .

53) To determine if a host is reachable, you would send a(n) ________.

A) SNMP SET command B) MIB C) trap D) ping Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 15 Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Application 54) In SNMP, the manager communicates directly with the managed device.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Question: 16b Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Application 55) SNMP Set commands can ________.

A) ask agents for information about the managed device B) reroute traffic C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16c Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Application 56) SNMP ________ commands can change how managed devices operate.

A) Get B) Set C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 16c Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Concept

15 .

57) The SNMP manager stores the information it receives from Get commands ________.

A) in the MIB B) on the agent C) on the managed device D) in the cloud Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16d Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Concept 58) SNMP agents can initiate ________.

A) Get commands B) traps C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16e Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Concept 59) Creating switching tables is an example of ________.

A) forwarding B) routing complexity C) hardwiring D) control Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 17a Objective: Explain how software-defined networking may revolutionize the way that networks are managed and what benefits SDN may bring.

Classification: Concept 60) Control is done on individual switches and routers in ________.

A) traditional operation B) SDN C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17b Objective: Explain how software-defined networking may revolutionize the way that networks are managed and what benefits SDN may bring.

Classification: Application 16 .

61) In SDN, which device manages the control function for individual devices?

A) SNMP manager console B) forwarding device itself C) SDN policy server D) SDN controller Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 17f Objective: Explain how software-defined networking may revolutionize the way that networks are managed and what benefits SDN may bring.

Classification: Concept 62) SDN holds the promise of bringing ________.

A) lower cost B) lower agility C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17g Objective: Explain how software-defined networking may revolutionize the way that networks are managed and what benefits SDN may bring.

Classification: Application 63) When a firewall policy server is used to manage SPI firewalls, what device creates specific ACL rules?

A) the policy server B) the SNMP manager C) individual firewalls D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 18a Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Application

17 .

64) Which of the following is the easiest to understand?

A) firewall hardware B) firewall ACLs C) firewall policies D) firewall IDSs Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Describe the importance of centralized network and security management and discuss tools for centralizing network and security management.

Classification: Application

18 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 5 Ethernet (802.3) Switched LANs 1) A local area network operates ________.

A) on a customer premises B) between customer premises C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1 Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept 2) What type of switch connects users to the network?

A) user switches B) core switches C) access switches D) workgroup switches Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept 3) What type of switch connects switches to other switches?

A) trunk switches B) core switches C) workgroup switches D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Concept 4) In LANs, ________ typically is for ________.

A) optical fiber, access lines B) UTP, access lines C) UTP, trunk lines D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 2b Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Application

1 .

5) In LANs, optical fiber typically is used in ________.

A) trunk lines B) access lines C) workgroup switches D) core switches Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 2b Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Application 6) Optical fiber's main advantage over UTP is ________.

A) lower cost B) lower fragility C) higher speed D) greater distance span Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 2c Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Application 7) What organization creates Ethernet standards? (Give the most specific answer.)

A) IEEE B) IETF C) ISO D) OSI Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3a Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept 8) What 802 Working Group creates Ethernet standards?

A) 802.1 B) 802.2 C) 802.3 D) 802.11 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 3c Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Application

2 .

9) In this book, we use the terms Ethernet and 802.3 interchangeably.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Question: 3d Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept 10) Which working group is likely to develop security standards to be used by multiple LAN/WAN technologies?

A) 802.1 B) 802.e C) 802.3 D) 802.11 Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 3e Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Application 11) Ethernet standards are specified at the ________ layer.

A) physical B) internet C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 4a Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept 12) Ethernet standards are specified at the ________ layer.

A) physical B) data link C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 4a Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept

3 .

13) Ethernet standards are specified at the ________ layer.

A) Internet B) transport C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4a Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept 14) Ethernet has only a single standard at the ________ layer.

A) physical B) MAC C) data link D) Internet Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 4e Objective: Explain how Ethernet LAN technology is standardized.

Classification: Concept Application 15) Physical layer standards govern ________.

A) frame structure B) signaling C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 5 Objective: Describe digital and binary signaling and why they reduce transmission errors.

Classification: Application 16) In binary signaling there is (are) ________ state(s).

A) one B) two C) a number of D) an infinite number of Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6b Objective: Describe digital and binary signaling and why they reduce transmission errors.

Classification: Concept

4 .

17) In digital signaling there is (are) ________ state(s).

A) one B) two C) a small number of D) an infinite number of Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 6b Objective: Describe digital and binary signaling and why they reduce transmission errors.

Classification: Concept 18) Which of the following is relatively immune to small errors?

A) analog signaling B) binary signaling C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6f Objective: Describe digital and binary signaling and why they reduce transmission errors.

Classification: Concept 19) What form of transmission is most resistant to transmission errors?

A) digital B) analog C) Both are about equally resistant to transmission errors.

D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 6f Objective: Describe digital and binary signaling and why they reduce transmission errors.

Classification: Concept 20) What type of copper wiring is widely used in Ethernet?

A) optical fiber B) 4-pair UTP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7a Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept

5 .

21) How many wires are there is a UTP Ethernet cord?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 7b Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept 22) 4-pair UTP terminates in a(n) ________ connector.

A) USB B) RJ-45 C) SC D) standard telephone Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7e Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept 23) Four-pair UTP uses ________ connectors.

A) universal B) binary C) ST or SC D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 7e Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept 24) The main benefit of parallel transmission over serial transmission is ________.

A) reliability B) speed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 8 Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 6 .

25) UTP categories rate the ________ of UTP cabling.

A) quality B) speed C) quality-of-service performance D) error performance Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept 26) CAT 5e and CAT 6 wiring can carry Ethernet traffic 100 meters up to ________.

A) 10 Mbps B) 100 Mbps C) 1 Gbps D) 10 Gbps Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9b Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 27) Which UTP quality levels can send signals at 10 gigabits per second?

A) category 6 B) category 6A C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9c Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application

7 .

28) Which UTP quality levels are needed to send signals 100 meters at 10 gigabits per second?

A) category 6 B) category 6A C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 9d Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 29) Untwisting wire pairs no more than 1.25 cm (a half inch) at their ends reduces ________.

A) interference B) crosstalk interference C) terminal crosstalk interference D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9f Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 30) In optical fiber, light travels through the ________.

A) core B) cladding C) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 10a Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 31) When the light energies of two pulses arrive at overlapping times, this is ________.

A) multimode transmission B) modal bandwidth C) modal dispersion D) modal interference Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 10d Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept Application 8 .

32) Modal dispersion limits transmission distance in ________.

A) multimode fiber B) single-mode fiber C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 10d Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 33) Fiber that has a core diameter of 8 microns is ________.

A) multimode fiber B) single-mode fiber C) full duplex fiber D) exceptionally fast Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 10f Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept 34) The longest transmission distances are possible with ________.

A) USB B) UTP C) single-mode fiber D) multimode fiber Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 10h Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 35) Which of the following is used most heavily in LANs for fiber transmission links?

A) modal bandwidth fiber B) 1.550 nm fiber C) single-mode fiber D) multimode fiber Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 10i Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 9 .

36) Optical fiber cords use two strands ________.

A) for reliability through redundancy B) to form a complete electrical loop C) to double the transmission speed D) for full-duplex transmission Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 11a Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 37) The ability to transmit in two directions simultaneously is ________.

A) parallel communication B) full-duplex communication C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 11b Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept 38) The distance between two corresponding points in adjacent cycles is the ________.

A) frequency B) wavelength C) bandwidth D) span Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 11c Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Concept

10 .

39) Which light wavelength dominates in LANs? A) 850 nm B) 1,310 nm C) 1,550 nm D) 1 Gbps Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 11e Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 40) ________ fiber is being sold today.

A) OM2 B) OM4 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 12a Objective: Explain the technologies of 4-pair UTP and optical fiber and compare and contrast their relative strengths and weaknesses.

Classification: Application 41) Link aggregation can increase trunk speed by a factor of ________.

A) two B) three C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 13a Objective: Be able to design a physical network based on knowledge of Ethernet physical link standards, including link aggregation.

Classification: Application 42) Ethernet usually has a 100 meter distance limit for ________.

A) physical links B) data links C) routes D) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14a Objective: Be able to design a physical network based on knowledge of Ethernet physical link standards, including link aggregation.

Classification: Application 11 .

43) At what layer is the 100BASE-TX standard?

A) physical B) data link C) Internet D) physical and data link Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14b Objective: Be able to design a physical network based on knowledge of Ethernet physical link standards, including link aggregation.

Classification: Application 44) Ethernet addresses were formerly called ________ addresses.

A) MAC B) EUI-48 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 15a Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Concept 45) The official name for Ethernet addresses is the ________ addresses.

A) MAC B) EUI-48 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 15b Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application 46) The Ethernet data field contains ________.

A) a packet B) the LLC subheader C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 15g Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Concept

12 .

47) The purpose of LLC subheader is to ________.

A) permit error detection B) divide the data field from the trailer C) divide the header from the data field D) designate the type of packet in the data field Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 15h Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Concept 48) The Ethernet length field gives the length of the ________.

A) frame B) frame, less the frame check field's size C) data field D) data field plus PAD Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 15i Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Concept 49) If an Ethernet receiver detects an error in an arriving frame, it ________.

A) drops the frame B) sends an ACK to the sender C) sends a NACK to the receiver D) sends the sender a retransmission request frame Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 15k Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Concept 50) Using priority in Ethernet requires the use of ________ fields.

A) QoS B) flag C) extension D) tag Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 15l Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application

13 .

51) An Ethernet switch knows ________.

A) an IP address for each EUI-48 address B) a single port number for each EUI-48 address C) multiple port numbers for each EUI-48 address D) the entire path from the source host to the destination host Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16b Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application 52) Switches in an Ethernet LAN are organized in a ________ topology.

A) mesh B) hierarchical C) point-to-point D) bus Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 17a Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application 53) In a ________ topology, there is only one possible path between any two hosts.

A) mesh B) hierarchical C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 17b Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application 54) Ethernet is inexpensive thanks to ________.

A) its hierarchical topology B) its use of multiple switches C) its use of regeneration D) its use of the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 18a Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application

14 .

55) Ethernet becomes the dominant of LAN technology primarily because of its ________.

A) high speed, compared with competing technologies B) use of multiple switches C) low cost, compared with competing technologies D) sophistication, compared with competing technologies Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 18b Objective: Describe the Ethernet frame. Explain basic Ethernet data link layer switch operation.

Classification: Application 56) Ethernet's hierarchical topology makes it ________.

A) expensive B) reliable C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 19b Objective: Explain why the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol is necessary and how it functions.

Classification: Application 57) Ethernet's hierarchical topology tends to create ________.

A) greater reliability B) lower cost per frame handled C) both A and B D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 19b Objective: Explain why the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol is necessary and how it functions.

Classification: Application 58) Which of the following can increase reliability considerably in an Ethernet LAN? A) using a hierarchical topology B) using a mesh topology C) using a bus topology D) using the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 19f Objective: Explain why the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol is necessary and how it functions.

Classification: Application

15 .

59) Creating effective backup links in RSTP is ________.

A) completely automatic B) simple and largely automatic C) difficult and time consuming D) impossible Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 19g Objective: Explain why the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol is necessary and how it functions.

Classification: Application 60) Ethernet can offer ________ priority levels.

A) up to 2 B) up to 4 C) up to 8 D) Ethernet cannot offer priority levels.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 20b Objective: Explain priority, manageability, and POE in Ethernet LANs. Classification: Application 61) Managed Ethernet switches ________.

A) are not standardized B) are managed by an outsourcing company C) reduce hardware costs D) reduce labor costs Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 21b Objective: Explain priority, manageability, and POE in Ethernet LANs. Classification: Application 62) Strong security is needed to ________.

A) collect information from remote switches B) reconfigure remote switches C) have a MIB D) reduce total costs Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 21c Objective: Explain priority, manageability, and POE in Ethernet LANs. Classification: Application

16 .

63) What is the maximum power for POE Plus in the standard?

A) 15 watts B) 25 watts C) 75 watts D) 150 watts Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 22c Objective: Explain priority, manageability, and POE in Ethernet LANs. Classification: Application 64) Under the standard, Ethernet switches can provide enough power over UTP for ________.

A) wireless access points B) voice over IP telephones C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 22d Objective: Explain priority, manageability, and POE in Ethernet LANs. Classification: Application 65) Under the standard, Ethernet switches can provide enough power over UTP for ________.

A) wireless access points B) desktop computers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 22e Objective: Explain priority, manageability, and POE in Ethernet LANs. Classification: Application 66) The ________ standard was created to prevent attackers from walking in and simply plugging a computer into a wall jack and therefore accessing the network.

A) Ethernet firewall B) 802.1AE C) 802.3X D) 802.1X Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 23a Objective: Describe security threats to Ethernet LANs and how they are addressed by the 802.1X and 802.1AE standards.

Classification: Concept

17 .

67) In 802.1X, the workgroup switch is the ________.

A) authentication server B) authenticator C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 23c Objective: Describe security threats to Ethernet LANs and how they are addressed by the 802.1X and 802.1AE standards.

Classification: Concept 68) Which of the following is a benefit of using a central authentication server?

A) consistency in authentication B) faster changes when authentication information needs to be changed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 23d Objective: Describe security threats to Ethernet LANs and how they are addressed by the 802.1X and 802.1AE standards.

Classification: Application 69) A man in the middle attack ________.

A) reads traffic traveling between one host to another B) creates a denial service attack on both parties C) creates a denial of service attack against the client D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 24a Objective: Describe security threats to Ethernet LANs and how they are addressed by the 802.1X and 802.1AE standards.

Classification: Application 70) ARP cache poisoning can be defeated using ________.

A) 802.1X B) 802.3 Lock C) 802.1AE D) 802.2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 24f Objective: Describe security threats to Ethernet LANs and how they are addressed by the 802.1X and 802.1AE standards.

Classification: Application 18 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 6 Wireless LANs I 1) Wireless network standards operate at ________.

A) the data link layer B) the Internet layer C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 1a Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 2) Wireless network standards are ________ standards.

A) OSI B) TCP/IP C) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1b Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 3) Wi-Fi Standards come from the ________ Working Group.

A) 802.1 B) 802.3 C) 802.11 D) 802.1X Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application

1 .

4) We use the terms Wi-Fi and ________ interchangeably in this book.

A) 802.1 B) 802.3 C) 802.11 D) 802.1X Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 2b Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Concept 5) Wireless access points typically link wireless clients to ________.

A) wireless servers B) servers on the wired network C) both A and B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 3a Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 6) Compared to wired transmission, propagation problems in radio transmission are ________.

A) worse B) about as bad C) better Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 4b Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 7) Wireless radio transmission speed is usually measured in terms of ________.

A) wavelength B) frequency C) amplitude D) wetness Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Concept

2 .

8) Frequency is measured in terms of ________.

A) nanometers B) hertz C) microns D) microseconds Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 5c Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Concept 9) Radio transmission is measured in terms of ________.

A) bytes per second B) wavelength C) frequency D) bits per second Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Concept 10) The other wireless device is far away in a known direction. It would be better to use ________.

A) an omnidirectional antenna B) a dish antenna C) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6c Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 11) A cellular telephone uses a(n) ________.

A) omnidirectional antenna B) dish antenna C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 6d Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 3 .

12) At 10 meters, a signal has a strength of 100 mW. About how strong will it be at 40 meters?

A) about 0.5 mW B) about 5 mW C) about 25 mW D) about 6 mW Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 7a Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 13) What propagation problem is especially bad in moist air?

A) absorptive attenuation B) electromagnetic interference C) multipath interference D) inverse square law attenuation Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 7b Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 14) What propagation problem becomes worse as there is a large and dense object between sender and receiver?

A) multipath interference B) shadow zones or dead zones C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7c Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application

4 .

15) The most serious problem with wireless transmission in WLANs is ________.

A) inverse square law attenuation B) absorptive attenuation C) shadow zones D) multipath interference Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 7e Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 16) What propagation problem becomes worse as frequency increases?

A) inverse square law attenuation B) electromagnetic interference C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 7g Objective: Explain basic radio signal propagation concepts, including frequencies, antennas, and wireless propagation problems.

Classification: Application 17) The frequency spectrum extends ________.

A) into the gigahertz range B) into the visible light range C) into the ultraviolet range D) to infinity Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 8a Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Concept Application

5 .

18) 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz are ________.

A) frequency spectrums B) broadbands C) channels D) service bands Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 8a Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 19) To handle multiple conversations in radio transmission, you normally use multiple ________.

A) channels B) frequencies C) service bands D) wires Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 8b Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 20) Signals in a transmission usually ________.

A) travel at a single frequency B) spread over a range of frequencies C) spread over the entire frequency distribution D) spread over the entire service band Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Concept

6 .

21) A channel extends from 55 MHz to 60 MHz. Its bandwidth is ________.

A) 60 MHz B) 55 MHz C) 65 MHz D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 9b Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 22) To transmit very rapidly in RADIO, you need ________.

A) single-frequency transmission B) single-mode transmission C) wide bandwidth D) narrow bandwidth Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 9d Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 23) Channels with wide bandwidths are called ________ channels.

A) multimode B) full-duplex C) broadband D) parallel Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 9e Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Concept

7 .

24) To transmit data very rapidly, you would want a ________ channel.

A) narrowband B) broadband C) single-frequency band D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9f Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 25) 802.11 standards are being developed to work in the ________ unlicensed band.

A) 2.4 GHz B) 5 GHz C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 10a Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 26) The 2.4 GHz band supports ________ possible non-overlapping 20 MHz channel(s).

A) 1 B) 3 C) 7 D) 11 Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 10c Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Concept Application

8 .

27) Companies are moving to the 5 GHz band because there is ________ than in the 2.5 GHz band.

A) more bandwidth B) less absorptive attenuation C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 10e Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 28) The 5 GHz band usually supports about ________ non-overlapping 20 MHz channel(s).

A) 1 B) 3 C) 7 D) 12 Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 10f Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Concept 29) Spread spectrum transmission is used in WLANs because ________.

A) it is required by regulators B) it offers strong security C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 11a Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application

9 .

30) Spread spectrum transmission is used in WLANs for ________.

A) higher transmission speed B) more reliable transmission C) greater security D) more efficient transmission Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 11b Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 31) WLANs normally use ________.

A) licensed bands B) unlicensed bands C) both A and B D) neither A or B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 12a Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 32) In unlicensed bands, ________.

A) you can use radios wherever you please B) you can prevent nearby businesses from setting up access points in the same channel C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 12c Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application

10 .

33) A channel has more bandwidth than is necessary given data transmission speeds requirements in ________ transmission.

A) normal radio B) reliable commercial C) spread spectrum D) licensed Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 13b Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Concept 34) Which of the following uses OFDM? A) 802.11ac B) 802.11n C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 13c Objective: Explain the frequency spectrum, service bands, channels, bandwidth, licensed versus unlicensed service bands, and the type of spread spectrum transmission used in 802.11 Wi-Fi LANs. Classification: Application 35) Access points take ________ from wireless devices and send them on to devices on the wired LAN. They also do the converse.

A) packets B) frames C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 15 Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Concept

11 .

36) A wireless host sends a packet to a server on the company's wired Ethernet LAN via an access point. How many frames will be involved in this one-way transmission?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) There will be one frame for each switch along the way.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 15 Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 37) A single access point and the set of hosts it serves is called a(n) ________.

A) BSS B) BSSID C) ESS D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Concept; Concept Application 38) ________ have SSIDs. A) Wireless clients B) Wireless access points C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16b Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application

12 .

39) To use an access point, you need to know its ________.

A) SSID B) BSSID C) ESSID D) Wi-Fi ID Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16b Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 40) To connect to an access point, you must know its ________.

A) SSID B) EUI-48 address C) IP address D) Wi-Fi ID Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16b Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 41) An extended service set (ESS) is a group of BSSs that ________.

A) are connected to the same distribution system B) have the same SSID C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 17c Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application

13 .

42) In an extended service set, each access point ________.

A) must have the same SSID B) must have different SSIDs C) must have coordinated SSIDs D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17d Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 43) Access points in the same ESS communicate via ________.

A) wireless transmission B) the distribution system C) a master access point D) routers Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 17e Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Concept Application 44) The standard for roaming among access points is ________.

A) 802.11r B) 802.11s C) 802.11W D) the wireless handoff protocol Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17f Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Concept Application

14 .

45) What happens if two nearby access points use the same channel?

A) They will interfere with each other.

B) They will be bonded for joint operation automatically.

C) They will be bonded for joint operation automatically if they are on the same ESS. D) They will be bonded for joint operation automatically if they have the same SSID. Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 18a Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 46) There is an access point that serves eight wireless hosts. On how many channels will these devices transmit and receive during the course of an hour or two?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 18a Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 47) ________ is a technique for preventing two wireless stations from transmitting at the same time and therefore interfering with each other.

A) Creating extended service sets B) Roaming C) The distribution system D) Media access control Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 18b Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Concept

15 .

48) Media access control governs transmission by ________.

A) access points B) wireless hosts C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 18c Objective: Describe 802.11 Wi-Fi WLAN operations with access points and a switched Ethernet distribution system to link the access points. Distinguish between BSSs, ESSs, and SSIDs. Discuss communication between access points.

Classification: Application 49) In CSMA/CD+ACK, when a wireless NIC wishes to transmit, it listens for traffic. If there is traffic, it waits. When the traffic stops, it may transmit immediately.

A) always true B) sometimes true C) always false Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 19b Objective: If you read the box, compare the CSMA/CA+ACK and RTS/CTS media access control disciplines.

Classification: Concept 50) CSMA/CD+ACK is ________.

A) unreliable B) reliable C) semireliable Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 19b Objective: If you read the box, compare the CSMA/CA+ACK and RTS/CTS media access control disciplines.

Classification: Concept

16 .

51) In ________, when a wireless host wishes to send, it first sends a message to the wireless access point asking for permission to send. When the access point sends back a response, the host sending the original message may transmit. All other hosts must wait.

A) CSMA/CA+ACK B) CSMA/CA C) CSMA/CD D) RTS/CTS Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 20a Objective: If you read the box, compare the CSMA/CA+ACK and RTS/CTS media access control disciplines.

Classification: Concept 52) The 802.11 standard has two mechanisms for media access control. One of two mechanisms is mandatory; it is ________.

A) MAC B) CSMA/CA+ACK C) RTS/CTS D) CSMA/CD Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 20b Objective: If you read the box, compare the CSMA/CA+ACK and RTS/CTS media access control disciplines.

Classification: Application 53) CSMA/CA+ACK usually is ________.

A) mandatory B) optional C) not important D) efficient Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 20c Objective: If you read the box, compare the CSMA/CA+ACK and RTS/CTS media access control disciplines.

Classification: Concept

17 .

54) Which of the following is more efficient and faster?

A) CSMA/CA+ACK B) RTS/CTS C) Both are about equally efficient and fast.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 20d Objective: If you read the box, compare the CSMA/CA+ACK and RTS/CTS media access control disciplines.

Classification: Application 55) Which of the following is the newest Wi-Fi standard?

A) 802.11ac B) 802.11g C) 802.11n D) 802.11b Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 21a Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application 56) Today, Wi-Fi sales are dominated by ________.

A) 802.11a B) 802.11g C) 802.11n D) 802.11ac Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 21c Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application

18 .

57) Wider channel bandwidth ________.

A) increases transmission speed B) allows more channels to be used in a service band C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 22b Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Concept 58) Which of the following only operates in the 5 GHz band?

A) 802.11b B) 802.11ac C) 802.11g D) 802.11n Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 22c Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application 59) In 802.11g, channel bandwidth usually is ________.

A) 20 GHz B) 40 GHz C) 20 MHz D) 40 MHz Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 22d Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application

19 .

60) In the 5 GHz band, how many channels can you have with 802.11ac with 80 GHz channels?

A) 1 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24 Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 22d Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application 61) MIMO ________.

A) bonds two or more channels for higher speed B) is used in all forms of 802.11 C) uses a single spatial stream but multiple signals D) transmits multiple signals in the same channel Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 23a Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Concept 62) MIMO ________.

A) increases throughput B) lowers propagation distance C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 23b Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application

20 .

63) Beamforming can allow an access point to ________.

A) direct power to individual clients B) send signals to two different clients at the same time C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 24a Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application 64) An access point can transmit to more than one wireless client at a time with ________.

A) bonding B) MIMO C) Multiuser MIMO D) CSMC/CA+ACK Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 24c Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Concept 65) If more users move to an access point, this decreases ________.

A) individual throughput B) aggregate throughput C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 25b Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application

21 .

66) If an 802.11n client tries to use an 802.11ac access point, ________.

A) they will not be able to communicate B) they will communicate using 802.11n C) they will communicate using 802.11ac D) either B or C Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 26c Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application 67) If two products both comply with 802.11 ac, they should have close to the same performance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Question: 27a Objective: Compare and contrast the 802.11g, 802.22a, 802.11n, and 802.11ac transmission standards. Discuss emerging trends in 802.11 operation, including channels with much wider bandwidth, MIMO, beamforming, and multiuser MIMO. Classification: Application 68) Mesh networking in 802.11 is likely to use ________.

A) only wireless devices B) wireless devices and the site's wired LAN C) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 28a Objective: Briefly discuss the key points of wireless mesh networking.

Classification: Concept 69) The 802.11 standard for mesh networking is ________.

A) 802.11m B) 802.11r C) 802.11ac D) 802.11s Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 28c Objective: Briefly discuss the key points of wireless mesh networking.

Classification: Application

22 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 7 Wireless LANs II 1) In the TJX breach, attackers first got into the network through ________.

A) spear phishing B) an inside conspirator C) the use of weak wireless encryption D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 2) Wireless LAN standards come from ________.

A) OSI B) TCP/IP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 2 Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 3) To drive around a city looking for working access points that are unprotected is ________.

A) drive-by hacking B) war driving Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 4) Breaking into WLANs from outside the premises is ________.

A) drive-by hacking B) war driving Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 2a Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application

1 .

5) 802.11i provides ________.

A) confidentiality B) message integrity C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 3a Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 6) In 802.11i, protection is provided between the client and the ________.

A) access point B) switch C) router D) server Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3b Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 7) Which 802 working group created 802.11i?

A) 802.1 B) 802.3 C) 802.11 D) It was not an 802 working group. It was the Wi-Fi Alliance Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 3c Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 8) Which offers stronger security?

A) WPA B) 802.11i C) Both A and B offer equally strong security.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 3f Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application

2 .

9) What is the strongest security protocol for 802.11 today?

A) 802.11i B) 802.11s C) 802.11X D) WPA Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3f Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 10) In what mode of 802.11i operation is a central authentication server used?

A) 802.1X mode B) PSK mode C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 4a Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 11) In 802.11i ________, hosts must know a shared initial key.

A) 802.1X mode B) PSK mode C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 4b Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 12) After authentication in 80.11i PSK mode, a wireless client communicates with the access point via a(n) ________ key.

A) VPN B) session C) 802.1X D) preshared Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 4c Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept

3 .

13) After two wireless clients authenticate themselves via PSK to an access point, they will use ________ to communicate with the access point.

A) the preshared key B) an 802.1X key C) WPS keys D) different session keys Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4e Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 14) For post-authentication communication with an access point, the client in 802.11i PSK mode will ________ for subsequent communication.

A) always use the same preshared key each time it is connected B) always use the same session key each time it is connected C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4f Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 15) Session keys are used to ________.

A) make cryptanalysis more difficult B) improve authentication C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 4g Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 16) Which of the following is a risk in 802.11i PSK mode?

A) WPS can easily be cracked if it is used.

B) Unauthorized sharing of the pre-shared key.

C) A weak passphrase may be selected.

D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4h Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application

4 .

17) In 802.11i PSK mode, the pass phrase should be at least ________ characters long.

A) 8 B) 12 C) 20 D) 128 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 4j Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 18) Part of WPS weakness is caused by ________.

A) 802.1X mode B) WPA2 preshared key mode C) dividing the 8 digit PIN into two 4 digit halves D) IPsec Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 19) Which of the following has a dangerous vulnerability that is causing problems today?

A) PEAP B) 802.11i C) WPA D) WPS Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 20) If a firm has many access points, it should use ________ mode in 802.11i.

A) PSK B) 802.1X C) IPsec D) PEAP Answer: B Diff: 22 Question: 6a Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application

5 .

21) The Wi-Fi Alliance calls 802.1X mode ________ mode.

A) enterprise B) personal C) WEP D) WPA Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 6c Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 22) In ________, the authenticator is the ________.

A) 802.1X, wireless access point B) 802.11i, switch C) 802.11i, wireless access point D) 802.1X, central authentication server Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 6e Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Concept 23) 802.1X requires security between the supplicant and the authenticator in ________.

A) Ethernet B) 802.11 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 7b Objective: Explain 802.11i Wi-Fi security.

Classification: Application 24) An unauthorized internal access point is a(n) ________ access point.

A) evil twin B) rogue C) shadow D) counterfeit Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 8a Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Concept

6 .

25) A rogue access point is created by ________.

A) an employee B) an external attacker C) the IT security department D) an evil twin Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 8b Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Concept 26) A rogue access point ________.

A) is an unauthorized internal access point B) often has very poor security C) often operates at high power D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 8c Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Application 27) A notebook computer configured to act like a real access point is a(n) ________.

A) evil twin access point B) rogue access point Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Application 28) Which of the following is usually set up by a hacker outside the building?

A) a rogue access point B) an evil twin access point C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Application

7 .

29) If a company uses 802.11i for its core security protocol, an evil twin access point will set up ________ 802.11i connection(s).

A) one B) two C) four D) 16 Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9b Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Application 30) Which of the following secures communication between the wireless computer and the server it wishes to use against evil twin attacks?

A) VLANs B) VPNs C) PEAP D) 802.1X mode Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 10a Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Application 31) In VPNs designed to frustrate evil twin attacks, the shared secret ________.

A) is transmitted in the clear B) is transmitted with cryptographic protections C) is not transmitted D) Any of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 10c Objective: Explain why 802.11i security is not enough for WLANs. Classification: Application 32) Centralized access point management ________.

A) increases management costs but provides better control B) reduces management costs Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 12a Objective: Explain 802.11 WLAN management.

Classification: Application

8 .

33) Managed access points should ________.

A) allow access point power to be adjusted remotely B) provide constant transmission quality monitoring C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 12b Objective: Explain 802.11 WLAN management.

Classification: Application 34) Managed access points should ________.

A) identify rogue access points B) be able to push updates out to access points C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 12b Objective: Explain 802.11 WLAN management.

Classification: Concept Application 35) Which is the correct formula for decibels?

A) 10 * P2/P1 B) 10 * (P2/P1)2 C) Log10(P2/P1) D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 13a Objective: If you read the box on decibels, work with decibel representations of power ratios.

Classification: Concept 36) An 8/1 increase in power corresponds to approximately ________ decibels.

A) 3 B) 6 C) 20 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 14a Objective: If you read the box on decibels, work with decibel representations of power ratios.

Classification: Application

9 .

37) A power ratio of 8/1 decrease in power corresponds to approximately ________ decibels.

A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 14b Objective: If you read the box on decibels, work with decibel representations of power ratios.

Classification: Application 38) A 100/1 increase in power corresponds to approximately ________ decibels.

A) 6 B) 10 C) 20 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 14d Objective: If you read the box on decibels, work with decibel representations of power ratios.

Classification: Application 39) 1 Watt represents a dBm value of about ________.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) We cannot say because only one power is given.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 15b Objective: If you read the box on decibels, work with decibel representations of power ratios.

Classification: Application 40) A radio that has a power of 8 mW represents a ratio of about ________ dBm. A) 2 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 15c Objective: If you read the box on decibels, work with decibel representations of power ratios.

Classification: Application

10 .

41) I wish to have a wireless LAN to serve my house. I will use ________.

A) 802.11 B) Bluetooth C) either A or B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 42) Bluetooth is for ________.

A) large WLANs B) cable replacement C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 43) Which of the following was created for PANs? A) 802.11 B) Bluetooth C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application

11 .

44) Bluetooth is standardized by the ________.

A) 802.11 Working Group B) Wi-Fi Alliance C) Bluetooth Special Interest Group D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 16b Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Concept 45) Which form of Bluetooth has a typical transmission speed of less than 3 Mbps?

A) classic Bluetooth B) high-speed Bluetooth C) personal Bluetooth D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16c Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 46) Which form of Bluetooth has a typical transmission speed of about 24 Mbps?

A) classic Bluetooth B) high-speed Bluetooth C) enterprise Bluetooth D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 16c Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application

12 .

47) Which of the following can use access points?

A) 802.11 B) Bluetooth C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 48) In Bluetooth, a master can have up to ________ slaves at any moment.

A) 1 B) 3 C) 12 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 17d Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Concept 49) At the beginning of a telephone call placed through a Bluetooth headset with the Hands-Free Profile, which device is initially the master?

A) the Bluetooth phone B) the Bluetooth headset C) Both are simultaneously masters and slaves.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 17g Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application

13 .

50) Which Bluetooth profile would a desktop use with a Bluetooth keyboard?

A) Bluetooth input profile B) Bluetooth I/O profile C) human interface device profile D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Concept Application 51) Near-field communication has a maximum transmission distance of about ________.

A) 400 cm/200 in B) 40 cm/20 in C) 4 cm/2 in D) The devices must be physically touching.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 19a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Concept 52) In which frequency band does NFC operate?

A) 2.4 GHz B) 5 GHz C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 19d Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Concept

14 .

53) Passive RFID chips are powered by ________.

A) a battery B) the sun C) body temperature D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 19f Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 54) Passive RFID chips are powered by ________.

A) a battery B) the sun C) body temperature D) the scanning unit Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 19f Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 55) Which of the following uses an access point?

A) traditional Wi-Fi B) Wi-Fi Direct C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 20a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Concept 56) In NFC, an attacker several meters away cannot read the transaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Question: 21a Objective: Describe other local wireless technologies, including Bluetooth, near field communication (NFC), and Wi-Fi Direct. Discuss security in the context of emerging local wireless network standards.

Classification: Application 15 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 8 TCP/IP Internetworking I 1) Router connectors are called ________.

A) sockets B) plugs C) interfaces D) ports Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 2) When a router forwards incoming packets closer to their destination hosts, this is ________.

A) routing B) switching C) bridging D) relaying Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1b Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 3) Which of the following is one of the three parts of an IPv4 address?

A) subnet part B) mask C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 2a Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Application

1 .

4) The network part of an IPv4 address is ________ bits long.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) It is hard to say with limited information.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 2b Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 5) The total length of an IPv4 address is ________ bits.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) We cannot say.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 2c Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 6) In the IPv4 address 1.2.3.4, what is the network part?

A) 1 B) 1.2 C) 1.2.3 D) It is hard to say with limited information.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 2d Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 7) An internal router only connects different IP ________.

A) subnets B) networks C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 3b Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 2 .

8) A mask has ________ bits.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) We cannot say.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 4a Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 9) In a network mask, the 1s correspond to the ________.

A) network part B) subnet part C) host part D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 4b Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 10) In a subnet mask, the 1s correspond to the ________.

A) network part B) subnet part C) host part D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 4c Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept

3 .

11) In the mask 255.255.255.0, how many 1s are there?

A) 8 B) 16 C) 24 D) We cannot say.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 5a Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 12) In the mask /14, how many 1s are there?

A) 8 B) 16 C) 24 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Concept 13) Express the mask /24 in dotted decimal notation.

A) 255.0.0.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.0 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 5c Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Application 14) Express the mask /18 in dotted decimal notation.

A) 255.0.0.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.0 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 5d Objective: Define hierarchical IP addresses, networks and subnets, border and internal routers, and masks.

Classification: Application 4 .

15) For a given volume of traffic, which are more expensive?

A) switches B) routers C) Both of the above are about equally expensive.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6 Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Application 16) Routers usually are connected in a ________ topology.

A) point-to-point B) mesh C) hierarchical D) bus Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6 Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 17) There is a row for each individual Ethernet address in a(n) ________.

A) Router table B) Ethernet switching table C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7c Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 18) For 100,000 addresses, which will have fewer rows?

A) a routing table B) an Ethernet switching table C) Both will be about the same length.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 7d Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Application 5 .

19) A(n) ________ must find the best-matching row in its ________ table by comparing multiple row matches.

A) Ethernet switch, switching B) router, routing C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 8a Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 20) The default row ________.

A) always has the mask /32 B) will always match the destination IP address of an incoming packet C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 8c Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 21) In a routing table, Rows 47 and 3497 both match the destination IP address of an arriving packet's IP address. Which row will the router look at first when trying to find matches?

A) 1 B) 47 C) 3497 D) the default row Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 8d Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept

6 .

22) The first step in the routing process involves ________.

A) selecting the best match row B) comparing the packet's destination IP address to all rows C) comparing the packet's destination IP address to matching rows D) selecting an interface Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9a Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 23) Row 2707 has the mask /16 and the cost metric 20. Row 4400 has the mask /14 and the cost metric 10. Which row will the router choose if both are matches?

A) 2707 B) 4400 C) either A or B D) The router will choose the default row.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Application 24) Row 2707 has the mask /16 and the reliability metric 20. Row 4400 has the mask /16 and the reliability metric 10. Which row will the router choose if both are matches?

A) 2707 B) 4400 C) either A or B D) The router will choose the default row.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 9j Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Application

7 .

25) Deciding what interface and to what device to send the packet back out is step ________ in the routing process.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 10a Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 26) After selecting a row on a routing table, a router will send packets out to the ________.

A) port B) socket C) interface D) plug Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 10b Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 27) The router selects a row in which the next-hop router is labeled local. The router will send the packet to the ________.

A) default router B) local next-hop router C) local host D) destination host Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 10g Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Application

8 .

28) According to the IETF standards, if a router receives a series of packets from the same IP address to the same IP address, it should ________.

A) go through the entire process for each packet B) cache the decision made for the first packet and use this decision on subsequent packets C) skip the first step in the routing process but go through other steps for each subsequent packet D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 11a Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 29) Compared to normal routing, decision caching is ________.

A) faster B) less dangerous C) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 11c Objective: Given a routing table and an arriving packet's destination IP address, be able to predict what the router will do with the packet.

Classification: Concept 30) To deliver an arriving packet to a destination host on a subnet connected to a router, the router needs to know the destination host's ________ before the router can send the packet on to the destination host.

A) IP address B) data link layer address C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 13a Objective: (In a box) Explain the purpose and operation of the Address Resolution Protocol on an Ethernet network.

Classification: Concept

9 .

31) What does a router do with Address Resolution Protocol request messages?

A) It broadcasts them.

B) It sends them directly to the destination host.

C) It sends them to a next-hop router.

D) It sends them to the default next-hop router.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 13c Objective: (In a box) Explain the purpose and operation of the Address Resolution Protocol on an Ethernet network.

Classification: Concept 32) A router must use the Address Resolution Protocol process ________.

A) when a new router comes online B) when a router goes offline C) whenever it forwards an IP packet D) whenever it forwards an IP packet to a host that is not in its ARP cache Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 13e Objective: (In a box) Explain the purpose and operation of the Address Resolution Protocol on an Ethernet network.

Classification: Concept 33) Address Resolution Protocol is used to find the destination data link layer destination addresses of ________.

A) destination hosts B) routers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 13f Objective: (In a box) Explain the purpose and operation of the Address Resolution Protocol on an Ethernet network.

Classification: Application

10 .

34) ARP operates at ________.

A) Layer 2 B) Layer 3 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13g Objective: (In a box) Explain the purpose and operation of the Address Resolution Protocol on an Ethernet network.

Classification: Concept 35) The main version of Internet Protocol in use today is IP version ________.

A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 14a Objective: Explain the IPv4 packet header fields we did not see in earlier chapters.

Classification: Application 36) Which IPv4 header field is used to specify quality of service?

A) type of service B) version number C) ECN D) differentiated services control point Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 14b Objective: Explain the IPv4 packet header fields we did not see in earlier chapters.

Classification: Concept 37) A router will discard a packet if the Time to Live (TTL) value in an arriving packet is ________.

A) 0 B) 1 C) 254 D) 256 Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16b Objective: Explain the IPv4 packet header fields we did not see in earlier chapters.

Classification: Concept

11 .

38) In an IPv4 packet, the ________ field value tells the type of message contained in the IP packet's data field.

A) data B) next-hop C) next-header D) protocol Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 16c Objective: Explain the IPv4 packet header fields we did not see in earlier chapters.

Classification: Concept 39) Which is a problem with IPv4 addresses?

A) They cannot be used on wireless devices.

B) They are too complex.

C) Routers find it difficult to handle them.

D) We have run out of them.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 18a Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Application 40) The new version of Internet Protocol that is coming into use is IP version ________.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 18a Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Concept 41) The main benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 is ________.

A) two more bits in the IP address B) two more bytes in the IP address C) the ability to have quality-of-service guarantees D) the ability to support more possible hosts Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 18b Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Concept

12 .

42) What is pushing IPv6 adoption now?

A) pressure from ISPs B) pressure from the IETF C) pressure from ISO D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 19b Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Application 43) For human reading, IPv6 address is written in ________ notation.

A) decimal B) hexadecimal C) binary D) runic Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 20b Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Concept 44) For human reading, symbols in IPv6 addresses are written in fields of ________ symbols.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 16 Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 20c Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Concept 45) For human reading, IPv6 fields are separated by ________.

A) dashes B) slashes C) colons D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 20d Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Concept

13 .

46) How many fields are there in an IPv6 address written for human reading?

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 128 Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 20e Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Concept 47) If I simplify the address 2001:0000:0000:00fe:0000:0000:0000:cdef, I get ________.

A) 2001:::fe::::cdef B) 2001::fe::::cdef C) 2001:::fe::cdef D) 2001::00fe:::cdef Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 21a Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Application 48) If I simplify the address 2001:0ed2:056b:00d3:000c:abcd:0bcd:0fe0, I get ________.

A) 2001:ed2:56b:d3:c:abcd:bcd:fe0 B) 2001:ed2:56b:d3:c:abcd:bcd:fe C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 21b Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Application 49) If I simplify the address 2001:0000:0000:00fe:0000:0000:abcd:13ef, I get ________.

A) 2001:::fe:::abcd:13ef B) 2001::fe:::abcd:13ef C) 2001:::fe::abcd:13ef D) 2001::fe::abcd:13ef Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 21d Objective: Be able to convert a 128-bit IP address into compressed hexadecimal notation.

Classification: Application

14 .

50) The version number field in IPv6 has the value ________.

A) 0001 B) 0100 C) 0101 D) 0110 Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 22a Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Concept 51) In IPv6, the payload length gives the number of octets in the ________.

A) entire packet B) entire packet minus the main header C) entire packet minus the main and extension headers D) entire packet minus the extension headers Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 22e Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Concept 52) Which of the following allows routers to check for errors in the header when a packet arrives?

A) IPv4 B) IPv6 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 22g Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Concept 53) The encapsulating security protocol offers ________.

A) confidentiality B) authentication C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 23c Objective: Explain the IPv6 packet header fields and IPv6's use of extension headers.

Classification: Concept

15 .

54) TCP messages are called ________.

A) frames B) packets C) segments D) fragments Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 24c Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept 55) One-bit fields are called ________ fields.

A) SYN B) flag C) ACK D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 25b Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept 56) If someone says that a 1-bit flag is not set, this means that its value is ________.

A) 0 B) 1 C) blank D) We cannot say.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 25c Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept 57) A TCP ________ segment is a request to close a connection.

A) FIN B) ACK C) Close D) Disconnect Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 25e Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept

16 .

58) Four-way closes use ________ segments.

A) FIN B) RST C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 25f Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept 59) An abrupt close uses a(n) ________ segment.

A) FIN B) RST C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 25f Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept 60) Which of the following segments is not acknowledged?

A) FIN B) RST C) Both of the above are acknowledged.

D) Neither A nor B is acknowledged.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 25g Objective: Explain TCP fields and session closings.

Classification: Concept 61) Which of the following can handle an application message that is one megabyte in size?

A) TCP B) UDP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 26a Objective: Explain why application message fragmentation is not possible with UDP. Classification: Concept

17 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 9 TCP/IP Internetworking II 1) If your subnet part is 8 bits long, you can have ________ subnets.

A) 64 B) 128 C) 256 D) 254 Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application 2) In IP subnet planning, you need to have at least 130 subnets. How large should your subnet part be?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application 3) If you have a subnet part of 7 bits, how many subnets can you have?

A) 126 B) 254 C) 510 D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application

1 .

4) Your firm has an 8-bit network part. If you need at least 250 subnets, what must your subnet part size be?

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application 5) Your firm has an 8-bit network part and an 8-bit subnet part. How many hosts can you have per subnet?

A) 126 B) 254 C) 534 D) 65,534 Answer: D Diff: 2 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application 6) You have a 20-bit network part and a 4-bit subnet part. How many hosts can you have per subnet?

A) 14 B) 16 C) 254 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application 7) ________ is the process of presenting external IP addresses that are different from internal IP addresses used within the firm.

A) DNS B) NAT C) DHCP D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Explain IPv4 subnet planning and do calculations needed for working with subnet and host parts and decide on part lengths.

Classification: Concept Application 2 .

8) In NAT, the ________ creates new external source IP addresses and port numbers.

A) router B) firewall C) source host D) destination host Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Explain the purposes of Network Address Translation (NAT), how NAT operates, and problems related to NAT. Classification: Concept Application 9) NAT enhances security by ________.

A) preventing sniffers from learning internal IP addresses B) encryption C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Explain the purposes of Network Address Translation (NAT), how NAT operates, and problems related to NAT. Classification: Concept Application 10) Which of the following can be used within a firm?

A) private IP addresses B) public IP addresses C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Explain the purposes of Network Address Translation (NAT), how NAT operates, and problems related to NAT. Classification: Concept Application 11) Which of the following is a private IP address range?

A) 10.x.x.x B) 128.171.x.x C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Explain the purposes of Network Address Translation (NAT), how NAT operates, and problems related to NAT. Classification: Concept Application

3 .

12) Which of the following is true about NAT? A) It can enhance security.

B) It presents problems for some protocols.

C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Explain the purposes of Network Address Translation (NAT), how NAT operates, and problems related to NAT. Classification: Concept Application 13) The domain name system ________.

A) is a way to find a host's IP addresses if your computer only knows the host's host name B) is a general naming system for the Internet C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 14) ________ is a general naming system for the Internet.

A) NAT B) DNS C) DHCP D) Dotted decimal notation Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 15) In DNS, a group of resources under the control of an organization is called a ________.

A) network B) subnet C) scope D) domain Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application

4 .

16) ".com" is a ________.

A) root domain B) top-level domain C) second-level domain D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 17) ".edu" is a ________.

A) root domain B) top-level domain C) second-level domain D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 18) Most corporations wish to have ________ domain names.

A) top-level B) second-level C) third-level D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 19) The highest-level DNS servers are called ________.

A) root servers B) top-level servers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application

5 .

20) How many DNS root servers are there?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 10 D) 13 Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 21) A company receives its domain name from ________.

A) IETF B) its ISP C) a domain registrar D) its parents Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Explain how the Domain Name System (DNS) operates.

Classification: Concept Application 22) In SNMP, the manager communicates directly with a(n) ________.

A) managed device B) agent C) object D) access point Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the object model in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and describe the enabling value of good security in the use of Set commands.

Classification: Concept Application 23) Which of the following would be an SNMP object?

A) number of rows in routing table B) a managed switch C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the object model in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and describe the enabling value of good security in the use of Set commands.

Classification: Concept Application

6 .

24) Which of the following would be an SNMP object?

A) number of rows in routing table B) system uptime (since last reboot) C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the object model in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and describe the enabling value of good security in the use of Set commands.

Classification: Concept Application 25) In SNMP, companies are often reluctant to use ________ commands because of security dangers.

A) Get B) Set C) trap D) request Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the object model in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and describe the enabling value of good security in the use of Set commands.

Classification: Concept Application 26) SNMPv1 uses ________ for authentication.

A) community names B) digital certificates and digital signatures C) a different password for each manager-agent pair D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the object model in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and describe the enabling value of good security in the use of Set commands.

Classification: Concept Application 27) SNMPv3 uses ________ for authentication.

A) community names B) digital certificates and digital signatures C) a different password for each manager-agent pair D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Describe the object model in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and describe the enabling value of good security in the use of Set commands.

Classification: Concept Application

7 .

28) IPsec protects ________ layer messages.

A) data link B) application C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 29) In tunnel mode, IPsec provides protection ________.

A) all the way between the two hosts B) only between the IPsec servers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 30) IPsec provides protection in two modes of operation; one of these two modes is ________.

A) transport mode B) data link mode C) network mode D) 802.1X mode Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 31) The main limit of IPsec tunnel mode protection compared to transport mode protection in IPsec is ________.

A) protection over only part of the route B) higher cost C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application

8 .

32) Which mode of IPsec may be more expensive if a company has a large number of computers?

A) transport mode B) tunnel mode C) Both A and B are equally expensive.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 33) The main disadvantage of transport mode protection compared to tunnel mode protection in IP is ________.

A) that it provides protection over only part of the route B) higher cost C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 34) Client PCs must have digital certificates in ________.

A) transport mode B) tunnel mode C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 35) IPsec is used for ________ VPNs. A) remote-access B) site-to-site C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application

9 .

36) In IPsec, agreements about how security will be done are called ________.

A) tranches B) security contracts C) service-level agreements D) security associations Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 37) Which of the following standards permits central management?

A) IPsec B) SSL/TLS C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPsec securing Internet transmission.

Classification: Concept Application 38) Which is less expensive to implement?

A) SSL/TLS B) IPsec C) Both cost about the same to implement.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe SSL/TLS VPNs and their strong security.

Classification: Concept Application 39) Which has stronger security?

A) SSL/TLS B) IPsec C) Both have about equal security.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe SSL/TLS VPNs and their strong security.

Classification: Concept Application 40) If a host is to be able to communicate via IPv4 and IPv6, it is said to ________.

A) be bilingual B) have a dual-stack C) be IPv6-ready D) be IP-agile Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 internet layer protocol stacks.

Classification: Concept Application 10 .

41) Today, it can be problematic to have only a single IPv6 stack because ________.

A) a single IPv4 stack is out of date B) a single IPv6 stack could not communicate with a single IPv4 stack C) a dual stack has become a common solution D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Objective: Describe IPv6 internet layer protocol stacks.

Classification: Concept Application 42) Which is NOT one of the three parts of a public IPv6 unicast address?

A) subnet ID B) routing prefix C) host part D) All of the above are parts in a public IPv6 unicast address.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application 43) The routing prefix in IPv6 is like the ________ part in an IPv4 address.

A) network B) subnet C) host D) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application 44) If the subnet ID in an IPv6 address is 32 bits, how long is the routing prefix?

A) 16 bits B) 32 bits C) 64 bits D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application

11 .

45) The part of an IPv6 global unicast address that designates the host is called the ________.

A) host part B) interface ID C) routing prefix D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application 46) In an IPv6 global unicast address, the interface ID is ________ bits long.

A) 32 B) 64 C) 128 D) It varies.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application 47) The IEEE calls 64-bit interface addresses ________.

A) Extended Unique Identifiers B) Interface IDs C) MAC addresses D) half-IP Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application 48) A step in creating an EUI-64 is dividing a 48-bit MAC address in half and inserting ________ in the center.

A) the interface ID B) the subnet ID C) fffe D) 0000 Answer: C Diff: 1 Objective: Describe IPv6 subnetting.

Classification: Concept Application

12 .

49) Dynamic ________ protocols allow routers to transmit routing table information to one another.

A) routing B) transport C) synchronization D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the DNS was modified to deal with IPv6 addresses for host names.

Classification: Concept Application 50) A company is free to select whatever ________ dynamic routing protocol it wishes.

A) interior B) exterior C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the DNS was modified to deal with IPv6 addresses for host names.

Classification: Concept Application 51) Which of the following can route non-IP packets?

A) OSPF B) EIGRP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the DNS was modified to deal with IPv6 addresses for host names.

Classification: Concept Application 52) ________ is an interior dynamic routing protocol.

A) OSPF B) BGP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the DNS was modified to deal with IPv6 addresses for host names.

Classification: Concept Application

13 .

53) ________ is used for supervisory messages at the internet layer.

A) TCP B) DNS C) DHCP D) ICMP Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the ICMP was used for supervisory messages at the internet layer.

Classification: Concept Application 54) IP is reliable because of ________.

A) echo and echo reply messages B) error advisement messages C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the ICMP was used for supervisory messages at the internet layer.

Classification: Concept Application 55) To see if a target host can be reached, you normally would send it an ICMP ________ message.

A) echo request B) error advisement C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the ICMP was used for supervisory messages at the internet layer.

Classification: Concept Application 56) Pinging is to send ICMP ________ messages to the target host.

A) echo request B) error advisement C) ping D) echo Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Describe how the ICMP was used for supervisory messages at the internet layer.

Classification: Concept Application

14 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 10 Carrier Wide Area Networks (WANs) 1) A network that runs on the customer premises is a ________.

A) LAN B) WAN C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Concept 2) A LAN is the network that ________.

A) links different sites together B) provides service within a company C) provides service within a site D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Concept 3) A WAN is the network that ________.

A) links different sites together B) provides service within about a mile C) provides service within a site D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1a Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Concept

1 .

4) Companies use carriers for WAN transmission because ________.

A) companies lack rights of way B) carriers have extremely strong security C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 1c Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application 5) A company has more control over its ________ technology.

A) LAN B) WAN Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 1d Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application 6) LAN speeds are faster than WAN speeds. This is because of ________.

A) technological limitations B) regulatory limitations C) slow corporate adoption of newer WAN technologies D) economic reasons Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 2a Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application 7) Which of the following has more diversity in technologies?

A) LANs B) WANs C) Both A and B are about equal in diversity of technologies.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 2c Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application

2 .

8) Which of the following usually offers higher speeds?

A) LANs B) WANs C) Both A and B are about equal in typical speeds.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 3a Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Concept 9) LANs are ________.

A) single networks B) local internets C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 3b Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application 10) WANs are ________.

A) single networks B) internets C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 3c Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application 11) The Internet is a ________.

A) LAN B) WAN C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 3d Objective: Contrast LANs and WANs in terms of technology diversity, economics, speed, and need for optimization.

Classification: Application 3 .

12) Which of the following does the carrier NOT own?

A) the network core B) customer premises equipment C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 4c Objective: Describe the three carrier WAN components and the two typical business uses for carrier WANs. Classification: Application 13) Which of the following is a common use for carrier WANs? A) to connect corporate sites B) to connect a corporate site to the Internet C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 4d Objective: Describe the three carrier WAN components and the two typical business uses for carrier WANs. Classification: Application 14) Which of the following allows you to connect to the hosts of almost any corporation today?

A) carrier WANs B) the Internet C) both A and B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 4e Objective: Describe the three carrier WAN components and the two typical business uses for carrier WANs. Classification: Application 15) How do WAN carriers typically get their trunk lines?

A) They construct them.

B) They lease them from telephone companies.

C) They use wireless transmission.

D) They use the Internet.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 5a Objective: (Most carrier WAN networks use the public switched telephone network for some or all of their communication.) Describe how the telephone system is organized, including its hierarchy of switches.

Classification: Application 4 .

16) In the telephone system, the lines that connect customers to the nearest switch are called the ________.

A) access lines B) local lines C) access loop D) local loop Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 5b Objective: (Most carrier WAN networks use the public switched telephone network for some or all of their communication.) Describe how the telephone system is organized, including its hierarchy of switches.

Classification: Application 17) Most end-office switches are Class ________ switches.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 5c Objective: (Most carrier WAN networks use the public switched telephone network for some or all of their communication.) Describe how the telephone system is organized, including its hierarchy of switches.

Classification: Concept 18) The PSTN core is organized as a ________.

A) mesh B) hierarchy C) modified hierarchy D) loop Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 5d Objective: (Most carrier WAN networks use the public switched telephone network for some or all of their communication.) Describe how the telephone system is organized, including its hierarchy of switches.

Classification: Concept

5 .

19) DSL offers ________.

A) voice transmission B) data transmission C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 6a Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 20) DSL residential service provides ________.

A) symmetric speed B) asymmetric speed C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6b Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 21) What transmission medium do ALL DSL services use?

A) one-pair data-grade UTP B) two-pair data-grade UTP C) one-pair voice-grade UTP D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 6c Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 22) Which of the following already runs to nearly all customer premises?

A) 4-pair UTP B) 1-pair VG UTP C) 1-pair DG UTP D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 6c Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 6 .

23) In ADSL, the customer should have ________.

A) splitters B) an ADSL modem C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 6d Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 24) In ADSL, the residential customer needs a(n) ________.

A) DSLAM B) ADSL modem C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 6e Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 25) For ADSL service, which of the following typically must be added to the telephone system?

A) a DSLAM B) a transmission line to the customer premises C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 6e Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept

7 .

26) The promise of FTTH is ________.

A) higher speed B) lower cost C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 6f Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Application 27) Fiber to the home service is normally created by ________.

A) running optical fiber to neighborhoods B) running individual fiber cords from the nearest switching building to individual homes C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 6g Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 28) For their transmission medium, cable television companies primarily use ________.

A) 2-pair VG UTP cabling B) 2-pair DG UTP cabling C) coaxial cable D) 4-pair UTP Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 7a Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 29) In coaxial cable, the two conductors ________.

A) run side-by-side B) are twisted around each other C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 7b Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 8 .

30) Two-way amplifiers are needed for cable ________ service.

A) television B) data C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 7d Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 31) Compared to ADSL service, cable modem service typically is ________.

A) faster and more expensive B) faster and less expensive C) slower and more expensive D) slower and less expensive Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 8b Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Application 32) Which of the following is moving toward FTTH? A) cable modem service companies B) ADSL service companies C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 8c Objective: Explain and compare the ADSL and cable modem residential Internet access services.

Classification: Concept 33) In cellular technology, a ________ is a small geographical area.

A) cell B) cellsite C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 9a Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Concept 9 .

34) In cellular technology, the carrier antenna and equipment to which mobile customers connect directly is called a(n) ________.

A) cell B) cellsite C) MTSO D) wireline carrier Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Concept 35) An MTSO ________.

A) controls cellsites in a cellular system B) links mobile users to wired telephone customers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9c Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Concept 36) Cells are used in cellular telephony to provide ________.

A) service for more customers B) greater reliability C) greater transmission speed D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 10a Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Application 37) Today's dominant cellular technology is ________.

A) LTE B) 3G C) HSPA+ D) MTSO Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 11c Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Application

10 .

38) What speed does the LTE Advanced standard require downstream?

A) 3 Mbps B) 30 Mbps C) 3 Gbps D) 30 Gbps Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 11d Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Application 39) Which of the following affects what throughput an individual user will receive?

A) being in a moving car B) being far from the cellsite C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 11f Objective: Discuss trends in cellular data transmission speeds.

Classification: Application 40) Leased lines offer ________ service.

A) fast B) any-to-any C) rapid-connection D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 12a Objective: Distinguish between access lines and leased lines. Select a leased line for a given application speed requirement. Explain how companies use leased lines in Internet access.

Classification: Concept 41) Which lines run from one customer premise to another?

A) leased lines B) access lines C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 12b Objective: Distinguish between access lines and leased lines. Select a leased line for a given application speed requirement. Explain how companies use leased lines in Internet access.

Classification: Concept

11 .

42) To use a leased line, the customer requires a(n) ________ at each site.

A) switch B) router C) CSU/DSU D) modem Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 12c Objective: Distinguish between access lines and leased lines. Select a leased line for a given application speed requirement. Explain how companies use leased lines in Internet access.

Classification: Concept 43) A customer's leased line to its ISP connects to the ISP's ________.

A) POP B) NAP C) CSU/DSU D) interface Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 13 Objective: Distinguish between access lines and leased lines. Select a leased line for a given application speed requirement. Explain how companies use leased lines in Internet access.

Classification: Concept 44) T1 leased lines run at a speed of about ________.

A) 250 kbps B) 1 Mbps C) 10 Mbps D) 45 Mbps Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14a Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Concept

12 .

45) To connect two sites at 2.8 Mbps, I would use ________.

A) a T1 line B) bonded T1 lines C) a T2 line D) a T3 line Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14d Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Application 46) Many "T1" lines that carriers provide today use ________ in the local loop.

A) 1-pair voice-grade UTP B) 2-pair voice-grade UTP C) 1-pair data-grade UTP D) 2-pair data-grade UTP Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 14e Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Application 47) Which of the following DSL services tends to be symmetric in speed?

A) residential B) business C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14f Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Application

13 .

48) Which of the following DSL services usually offers QoS guarantees?

A) residential B) business C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14f Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Concept 49) A firm uses a PSDN. It has four sites. How many leased lines will it need?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 4 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 15a Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Concept 50) In a PSDN, customers connect to the network core at ________.

A) NAPs B) public/private access points C) POPs D) DSLAMs Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 15b Objective: Explain how networks of leased lines, public switched data networks (PSDNs), and MPLS can be used for site-to-site communication in a firm. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

Classification: Concept

14 .

51) The PSDN technology that is growing rapidly today is ________.

A) Frame Relay B) Carrier Ethernet C) the Internet D) No PSDN technology is growing rapidly today.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 15d Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Application 52) In Carrier Ethernet, which service is a competitor for leased line service?

A) E-Line B) E-LAN C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 15g Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept 53) Why is Carrier Ethernet popular?

A) It uses a familiar technology.

B) It has attractive prices.

C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 15h Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept 54) In MPLS, the router interface to send the packet back out will be decided ________.

A) during the router's routing process B) before the packet arrives C) by a dynamic routing protocol D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept

15 .

55) MPLS ________ the work that each router must do to deliver a packet during a traffic exchange.

A) reduces B) increases C) does not affect D) occasionally reduces Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16b Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept 56) In MPLS, the packet travels along the ________.

A) route B) data link C) label-switched path D) MPLS path Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 16c Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept 57) In MPLS, the ________ adds the label to the packet.

A) source host B) first label-switching router C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16d Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept 58) MPLS routers base their decisions on a packet's ________.

A) destination IP address B) label number C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 16e Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept

16 .

59) MPLS is ________ the source and destination hosts.

A) transparent to B) nontransparent to C) apparent to D) a burden on Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16g Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Concept 60) Label-switching routers bring ________.

A) lower cost B) the ability to do traffic engineering C) quality of service D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 16h Objective: Explain carrier Ethernet and MPLS in some detail.

Classification: Application 61) WAN optimization devices are deployed ________.

A) at the ends of leased lines B) by the telephone carrier C) by the PSDN carrier D) by the ISP Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17a Objective: Explain the capabilities of WAN optimization devices.

Classification: Concept 62) WAN optimization provides ________.

A) network protocol acceleration B) caching C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 17b Objective: Explain the capabilities of WAN optimization devices.

Classification: Application

17 .

63) In caching, ________.

A) a message may not have to be transmitted B) messages are cached at the transmitting end of the line C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 17d Objective: Explain the capabilities of WAN optimization devices.

Classification: Concept 64) Traffic shaping ________.

A) limits the amount of some types of traffic B) does not admit some types of traffic C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 17f Objective: Explain the capabilities of WAN optimization devices.

Classification: Application 65) The highest layer in SDN consists of ________.

A) switches B) routers C) the SDN controller D) SDN applications Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 18a Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Concept 66) The creation of routing tables for a router is an example of ________.

A) forwarding B) control C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 18b Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Application

18 .

67) Forwarding functions are located in routers in ________.

A) traditional routing B) SDN C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Concept 68) Control functions are located in routers in ________.

A) traditional routing B) SDN C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Concept 69) SDN can ________.

A) permit routing rules to be changed rapidly B) reduces router costs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 18e Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Application 70) SDN ________.

A) reduces CapEx B) increases OPEx C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 18h Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Application

19 .

71) In SDN, a switch receives its forwarding table rules directly from ________.

A) the SDN controller B) an SDN management application C) another switch D) an SNMP manager Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 19b Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Application 72) A router's load-balancing process is determined by ________.

A) the SDN controller B) an SDN application C) the router D) any of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 20b Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Application 73) Communication between SDN applications and SDN controllers is governed by ________.

A) northbound APIs B) southbound APIs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 21b Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Concept 74) OpenFlow can be used to standardize ________.

A) northbound APIs B) southbound APIs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 21d Objective: Explain key concepts in software defined networking.

Classification: Application

20 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Chapter 11 Networked Applications 1) The attack on GHOSTNET began with ________.

A) a wireless vulnerability B) a social engineering attack C) malicious mobile code D) an insider attack Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 1a Objective: Describe the concept and importance of networked applications.

Classification: Application 2) The Trojan horse placed on the first compromised GHOSTNET client could ________.

A) conduct audio and video surveillance B) delete files C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 3 Question: 1b Objective: Describe the concept and importance of networked applications.

Classification: Application 3) A networked application is an application that requires a network to operate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Question: 2a Objective: Describe the concept and importance of networked applications.

Classification: Concept 4) The way in which application layer functions are spread among computers to deliver service to users is called ________.

A) distributed processing B) peer-to-peer computing C) client/server computing D) an application architecture Answer: D Explanation: D) An application architecture is the way in which application layer functions are spread among computers to deliver service to users.

Diff: 1 Question: 2b Objective: Describe the concept and importance of networked applications.

Classification: Concept

1 .

5) Users are primarily concerned with the ________ layer.

A) application B) transport C) internet D) physical Answer: A Explanation: A) Users focus on the application layer because it is the only layer whose functionality users see directly.

Diff: 1 Question: 2c Objective: Describe the concept and importance of networked applications.

Classification: Application 6) The advance that made the client/server application architecture possible was ________.

A) the Internet B) client processing power C) application sophistication D) input/output methods Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 4 Objective: Describe the concept and importance of networked applications.

Classification: Application 7) Typically, the most common way for an attacker to get extensive privileges on a computer is to ________.

A) take over an application program B) take over the operating system C) take over a computer's hardware D) privilege escalation after an initial takeover Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 5a Objective: Describe how taking over an application can give an attacker the ability to control the computer.

Classification: Application

2 .

8) Having all privileges on a computer is known as having ________.

A) access B) omniscience C) root privileges D) mojo Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 5b Objective: Describe how taking over an application can give an attacker the ability to control the computer.

Classification: Concept 9) In XSS, the malicious script that gets placed in a webpage sent to a target is ________.

A) created by a Trojan horse B) sent by someone who has compromised the webserver C) embedded in a database the user queries D) sent by a user Answer: D Explanation: D) The explosion in mobile apps makes vetting applications very difficult.

Diff: 3 Question: 6a Objective: Describe how taking over an application can give an attacker the ability to control the computer.

Classification: Application 10) A lesson of XSS is that programmers should never trust ________.

A) contractors B) their own staff colleagues C) databases D) user input Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 6b Objective: Describe how taking over an application can give an attacker the ability to control the computer.

Classification: Application

3 .

11) In SQL injection attacks, the attacker sends ________.

A) a legitimate SQL query B) a malformed SQL query C) user input that is used in an SQL query D) an SQL query in malware that is delivered to the target computer Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 7 Objective: Describe how taking over an application can give an attacker the ability to control the computer.

Classification: Concept 12) RFC 822 and RFC 2822 standards govern ________.

A) plain text content of e-mail messages B) HTTP page contents C) HTML page contents D) pages written in any language Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 8a Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Concept 13) E-mail bodies that have non-English text use ________.

A) RFC 822 and RFC 2822 B) HTTP C) MIME D) UNICODE Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 8a Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Concept 14) A traditional e-mail user sending messages to his or her mail server would most likely use ________.

A) IMAP standard B) POP standard C) either IMAP or POP standard D) SMTP standard Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 8b Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Concept

4 .

15) Mail servers communicate with each other by using ________.

A) POP B) HTTP C) RFC 2822 D) SMTP Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 8c Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Concept 16) A traditional e-mail user retrieving messages from his or her mail server could use ________.

A) IMAP standard B) POP standard C) either IMAP or POP standard D) SMTP standard Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 8d Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Concept 17) Which of the following allows you to read your e-mail easily on an Internet café's computer?

A) POP B) Web-enabled e-mail C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 8f Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application 18) Antivirus software checks e-mail attachments for ________.

A) viruses B) Trojan horses C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 9a Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application

5 .

19) If companies place antivirus software on all of their client PCs, this will stop almost all virus infections.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Question: 9b Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application 20) Which of the following offers more reliable antivirus protection?

A) antivirus software on user PCs B) antivirus software on the mail server C) Both A and B are about equally reliable.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 9c Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application 21) According to the principle of defense in depth, antivirus filtering should be done in at least ________ location(s).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 9d Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application 22) When an e-mail user encrypts an outgoing messages with SSL/TLS, how far will this encryption extend?

A) to the sender's e-mail server B) to the receiver's e-mail server C) to the receiver's client host D) to an application program on the receiver's client host Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 10a Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application

6 .

23) Which of the following provides end-to-end encryption?

A) SSL/TLS B) PGP C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 10b Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application 24) What is the almost universal standard for end-to-end encryption?

A) SSL/TLS B) IPsec C) PGP D) There is no almost universal standard for end-to-end encryption.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 10c Objective: Describe electronic mail standards and security.

Classification: Application 25) VoIP ________ uses the Internet Protocol for transmission.

A) always B) usually C) seldom D) never Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 11a Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 26) The main promise of VoIP is to ________.

A) add video B) improve voice quality C) improve reliability D) reduce cost Answer: D Diff: 1 Question: 11b Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application

7 .

27) Telephones that can plug directly into a VoIP network are called PCs with multimedia hardware and added software.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Question: 11c Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 28) Speech codecs ________.

A) translate human voice signals into digital signals for transmission B) translate human voice signals into analog signals for transmission C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 11d Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 29) A media gateway connects a client computer or VoIP phone to the VoIP network.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Question: 11e Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 30) A media gateway translates ________ transmissions.

A) signaling B) transport C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 11g Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application 31) SIP is a ________ protocol for VoIP. A) signaling B) transport C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 12a Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 8 .

32) Which of the following signaling standards is likely to dominate in VoIP? A) SIP B) H.323 Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 12a Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application 33) The SIP invite is transmitted to the ________.

A) called party's SIP proxy server B) called party's VoIP phone or computer C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 12c Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application 34) VoIP users have ________ in their phones or on their computers.

A) media gateways B) codecs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 13a Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 35) Speech codecs vary with respect to ________.

A) compression B) voice quality C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 1 Question: 13b Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application

9 .

36) For the transport layer, VoIP uses ________ for transport transmission.

A) TCP B) UDP C) SIP D) IP Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13d Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application 37) RTP supports ________.

A) faster transmission speed B) jitter control C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 13e Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Application 38) Which header comes SECOND in a VoIP transport packet?

A) RTP B) UDP C) TCP D) Application Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 13f Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept 39) Codec data comes after the ________ header in VoIP transport frames.

A) IP B) TCP C) UDP D) RTP Answer: D Diff: 3 Question: 13f Objective: Describe voice over IP (VoIP) operation and standards.

Classification: Concept

10 .

40) Which of the following is used to retrieve Web pages?

A) HTTP B) HTML C) RTP D) SQL Answer: A Explanation: A) The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the standard used for the transfer of requests and responses. The Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is the standard used for creating webpages.

Diff: 1 Question: 14a Objective: Describe the World Wide Web in terms of standards and explain how a webpage with text, graphics, and other elements is downloaded.

Classification: Concept 41) Which of the following is used to define webpage bodies?

A) HTTP B) HTML C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 14a Objective: Describe the World Wide Web in terms of standards and explain how a webpage with text, graphics, and other elements is downloaded.

Classification: Concept 42) How many HTTP request-response cycles are needed to transfer a webpage containing three graphics images?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Question: 14b Objective: Describe the World Wide Web in terms of standards and explain how a webpage with text, graphics, and other elements is downloaded.

Classification: Application

11 .

43) How many HTTP request-response cycles are needed to transfer a webpage containing 88 lines of text and three different images?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 88 D) 91 Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 14b Objective: Describe the World Wide Web in terms of standards and explain how a webpage with text, graphics, and other elements is downloaded.

Classification: Application 44) Which of the following is considered a bigger problem with traditional client/server based architectures than with peer-to-peer architectures?

A) underutilized processing capacity of client PCs B) potential for essential data/services to become unavailable as a device is turned off C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 15c Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application 45) Transient client presence tends to be a problem in ________.

A) P2P applications B) client/server applications C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 15c Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application

12 .

46) In ________ file retrieval, your computer downloads a file from a server.

A) P2P B) client/server C) BitTorrent D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 16a Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application 47) In BitTorrent, a(n) ________ website is a site the BitTorrent client program goes to in order to get .torrent files.

A) swarm B) index C) tracker D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 16b Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 48) BitTorrent's .torrent files are stored on the ________.

A) swarm B) index server C) tracker D) individual peers Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 16c Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept

13 .

49) In BitTorrent, a(n) ________ is a server that coordinates the file transfer.

A) swarm B) index C) tracker D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Question: 16d Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 50) In BitTorrent, the group of all connected computers that have all or part of the file to be downloaded is called the ________.

A) swarm B) index peers C) trackers D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 16e Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 51) Which of the following is a security risk associated with BitTorrent?

A) danger caused by opening ports on the firewall B) danger that an employee may download an infected file that cannot be rejected by filtering C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 16f Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application

14 .

52) The main advantage of ________ file sharing is that it brings cost savings by using clients rather than server processing power.

A) BitTorrent B) client/server C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 16g Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application 53) Skype offers ________.

A) free calling among Skype customers B) free calling to and from Public Switched Telephone Network customers C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 17a Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application 54) Which of the following is NOT one of the main elements of the Skype network?

A) login server B) proxy server C) host node D) super node Answer: B Diff: 3 Question: 18a Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept

15 .

55) In Skype, ________ is the process where a Skype application looks up the username and IP address of the party it wants to contact.

A) login B) directory search C) transport D) signaling Answer: B Diff: 2 Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 56) Which element of the Skype network is in charge of signaling?

A) the login server B) host nodes C) super nodes D) media gateways Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 18c Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 57) Which element of the Skype network is in charge of transport?

A) the login server B) the calling and called host nodes C) super nodes D) media gateways Answer: B Diff: 2 Question: 18e Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 58) Which of the following steps are done in order during a call with Skype?

A) login, signaling, transport B) signaling, transport, end a call C) login, signaling, end a call D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Question: 18g Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 16 .

59) Which of the following is a processor-sharing application?

A) BitTorrent B) SETI@home C) SIP D) Skype Answer: B Diff: 1 Question: 19 Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application 60) Tor was created to improve ________.

A) anonymity B) end-to-end encryption C) file download speed D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Question: 20a Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application 61) Tor provides confidentiality ________.

A) all the way to the destination host B) up to the entry P2P node C) up to the exit P2P node D) Tor does not provide confidentiality.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Question: 20c Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Concept 62) Most P2P applications use servers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Question: 21 Objective: Explain peer-to-peer (P2P) computing including BitTorrent, Skype, SETI@home, and the Tor network.

Classification: Application

17 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Module A More on TCP 1) A TCP segment begins with octet 8,658 and ends with octet 12,783. What number does the sending host put in the sequence number field?

A) 8,658 B) 8,659 C) 12,783 D) 12,784 Answer: A 2) A TCP segment begins with octet 8,658 and ends with octet 12,783. What number does the receiving host put in the acknowledgment number field of the TCP segment that acknowledges this TCP segment?

A) 8,658 B) 8,659 C) 12,783 D) 12,784 Answer: D 3) A TCP segment carries data octets 456 through 980. The following TCP segment is a supervisory segment carrying no data. What value is in the sequence number field of the latter TCP segment?

A) 456 B) 457 C) 980 D) 981 Answer: D 4) Flow control in TCP depends on the ________ field.

A) acknowledgement number B) window size C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C

1 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Module B More on Modulation 1) Amplitude modulation uses two ________ levels.

A) loudness B) frequency C) both A and B Answer: A 2) Phase modulation uses two ________ levels.

A) loudness B) frequency C) wave D) none of the above Answer: C 3) BPSK uses ________ phase levels.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 15 Answer: A 4) BPSK modulation uses two ________.

A) amplitudes B) frequencies C) phases D) none of the above Answer: C 5) QPSK modulation uses ________ phases.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 15 Answer: B 6) QPSK sends ________ bit(s) per clock cycle.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 16 Answer: B

1 .

7) QAM uses ________.

A) amplitude modulation B) phase modulation C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C 8) QAM uses ________ levels.

A) loudness B) frequency C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 9) In QAM, if you have four possible amplitudes, you have ________ possible states.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) none of the above Answer: C 10) In QAM, if you have eight possible amplitudes, you have ________ possible states.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) none of the above Answer: D 11) In QAM, if you have eight possible amplitudes, how many bits can you send per clock cycle?

A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: B 12) Frequency modulation uses two loudness levels.

Answer: FALSE

2 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Module C More on Telecommunications 1) In TDM, time is first divided into brief periods called ________.

A) packets B) frames C) slots D) cells Answer: B 2) In TDM, a voice conversation gets the same ________ in each ________.

A) frame, packet B) packet, frame C) frame, slot D) slot, frame Answer: D 3) A ring topology is attractive because it brings ________.

A) higher speed B) lower cost C) greater reliability D) all of the above Answer: C 4) SONET/SDH uses a ________ topology.

A) point-to-point B) hierarchy C) mesh D) ring Answer: D 5) SONET/SDH applies ________ when there is a break in a trunk line between switches.

A) the Spanning Tree Protocol B) wrapping C) half-duplex transmission D) full-duplex transmission Answer: B 6) Which of the following is packet-switched?

A) ATM B) TDM C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A

1 .

7) ________ is/are widely used in Europe for PSTN signaling.

A) C7 B) SS7 C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 8) PSTN signaling in the United States uses ________.

A) SS7 B) ATM C) TDM D) SIP Answer: A 9) Because of the curvature of the earth, microwave systems that must travel over long distances need ________.

A) to operate at low frequencies B) to operate at high frequencies C) repeaters D) mirrors Answer: C 10) Satellite ________ operate on a point-to-point basis.

A) uplinks B) downlinks C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 11) Which of the following is good for mobile stations?

A) GEOs B) LEOs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B 12) Which of the following have an altitude of a few thousand kilometers (a few thousand miles)?

A) GEOs B) LEOs C) MEOs D) none of the above Answer: C

2 .

13) Cross-connect devices are found in ________.

A) PBXs B) equipment rooms C) telecommunications closets D) switches Answer: C 14) In telephone wiring, there need to be four wires for each computer on the floor in ________.

A) horizontal distribution B) vertical distribution C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C 15) In data wiring, there need to be four wires for each computer on the floor in ________.

A) horizontal distribution B) vertical distribution C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 16) Plenum wiring is needed for ________.

A) heavy traffic loads B) safety C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B 17) Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of PBX services?

A) attendant services B) management services C) advanced services D) user services Answer: C 18) For PBXs, call transfer is ________.

A) a user service B) an attendant service C) a management service Answer: A 19) For PBXs, camp-on is ________.

A) a user service B) an attendant service C) a management service Answer: A 3 .

20) For PBXs, call forwarding is ________.

A) a user service B) an attendant service C) a management service Answer: A 21) For PBXs, nighttime calling is ________.

A) a user service B) an attendant service C) a management service Answer: B 22) For PBXs, call detail reporting is ________.

A) a user service B) an attendant service C) a management service Answer: C 23) With 888 numbers, the ________ pays and pays ________ per minute than direct distance dialing.

A) caller, more B) caller, less C) called party, more D) called party, less Answer: D 24) With 900 numbers, the ________ pays and pays ________ per minute than direct distance dialing.

A) caller, more B) caller, less C) called party, more D) called party, less Answer: A 25) With WATS calls, the ________ pays and pays ________ per minute than direct distance dialing.

A) caller, more B) caller, less C) called party, more D) called party, less Answer: B

4 .

26) Which of the following would a mail order company's customers prefer?

A) 900 number service B) 800 number service C) WATS service D) They would have no preference among these choices.

Answer: B 27) Which of the following is an advanced carrier telephone service?

A) voice mail B) caller ID C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C 28) PTTs were found in ________.

A) Europe B) United States C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 29) A ________ provides telephone service to customers.

A) PTT B) Ministry of Telecommunications C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 30) Which of the following was set up primarily to provide long-distance telephone service after the breakup of the Bell System in the early 1980s?

A) AT&T B) RBOCs C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 31) Which of the following regulates telephony within individual states in the United States?

A) FCC B) PUCs C) neither A nor B Answer: B

5 .

32) Which of the following provide(s) overall regulations for the U.S. carriers in the United States?

A) FCC B) PUCs C) neither A nor B Answer: A 33) In the United States, telephone customers can connect to a(n) ________ carrier to receive telephone service.

A) ILEC B) CLEC C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: C 34) In the United States, which of the following is a carrier?

A) ILEC B) LATA C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A 35) In the United States, IXCs provide telephone transmission service ________.

A) within a LATA B) between LATAs C) between the United States and another country D) all of the above Answer: B 36) In the United States, ________ handle long-distance communication.

A) ILECs B) IXCs C) ICCs D) PTTs Answer: A 37) ICCs provide telephone transmission service ________.

A) within LATAs B) between LATAs C) between different countries D) all of the above Answer: C

6 .

38) Within a LATA, ILECs and CLECs interconnect at ________.

A) access points B) NAPs C) POPs D) IXCs Answer: C 39) Deregulation is the highest for ________.

A) customer premises equipment B) local telephone service C) long-distance telephone service D) All of the above are deregulated to about the same degree.

Answer: A 40) Deregulation is the least for ________.

A) customer premises equipment B) local telephone service C) long-distance telephone service D) All of the above are deregulated to about the same degree.

Answer: B 41) In TDM, there are usually more frames than slots.

Answer: FALSE 42) ATM provides quality-of-service for voice.

Answer: TRUE 43) Incompatibilities between signaling systems in United States and Europe cause serious problems.

Answer: FALSE 44) Call restriction refers to a switch's ability to control incoming calls to a station.

Answer: FALSE 45) Even for local calls, many telephone companies charge by the duration of the call.

Answer: TRUE 46) Local calls are always billed on a flat rate basis where the customer pays a monthly fee for unlimited local calling.

Answer: FALSE 47) Message units are a time and distance pricing method that can be used to charge for local calls.

Answer: TRUE

7 .

Business Data Networks and Security, 10e (Panko) Module D Directory Servers 1) Directory servers organize information in a ________.

A) mesh B) hierarchy C) relational database D) all of the above Answer: B 2) Which of the following is used to query a directory server to get someone's e-mail address?

A) LDAP B) IMAP C) SNMP D) HTTP Answer: A 3) An Active Directory domain ________.

A) has only a single domain controller B) makes all servers domain controllers C) must have its servers organized as a tree D) none of the above Answer: D 4) In Active Directory domains, there is complete replication between domain controllers ________.

A) in the same domain B) in adjacent levels in the domain hierarchy C) throughout a tree D) throughout a forest Answer: A 5) A group of Active Directory domains organized in a hierarchy is a ________.

A) network B) tree C) forest D) none of the above Answer: B 6) In Active Directory domains, there is a partial replication between domain controllers ________.

A) in the same domain B) in different domains at adjacent levels in the domain hierarchy C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B 1 .

7) Which device holds authentication data?

A) authenticator B) authentication server C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B 8) If a company has multiple authentication servers, which devices are likely to hold the authentication data?

A) authenticators B) authentication servers individually C) authentication servers doing replication D) directory servers Answer: D 9) Active Directory is Microsoft's directory server product.

Answer: TRUE 10) A company may have many AD domains.

Answer: TRUE 11) A group of Active Directory trees organized in a hierarchy is a forest.

Answer: TRUE

2 .