Biochemistry Concepts and Connections, 2nd edition Dean R Appling Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Biochemistry Concepts and Connections

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

Dean Appling Spencer Anthony-Cahill Christopher Mathews

TEST BANK Paul D. Adams UNIVERSITY OF ARKANSAS

Rohit Singh UNIVERSITY OF CINCINNATI

Biochemistry Concepts and Connections SECOND EDITION

Dean R. Appling THE UNIVERSITY OF TEXAS AT AUSTIN

Spencer J. Anthony-Cahill WESTERN WASHINGTON UNIVERSITY

Christopher K. Mathews OREGON STATE UNIVERSITY

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 1 Biochemistry and the Language of Chemistry 1) The water content in the human body is approximately ________.

A) 90% B) 80% C) 70% D) 60% Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) The four most abundant chemical elements in living systems are ________.

A) Hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur and phosphorus B) Hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen and oxygen C) Sodium, potassium, carbon and oxygen D) Sodium, potassium, nitrogen and sulfur Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 3) A large majority of proteins contain ________.

A) Cobalt B) Phosphorus C) Selenium D) Sulfur Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 4) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Proteins can be structural components of cells.

B) Proteins can transmit signals between cells.

C) Proteins can transport molecules within cells and between cells.

D) Proteins are the only biological polymer that can catalyze biochemical reactions.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 5) Which of the following is NOT classified as a lipid?

A) Cholesterol B) Palmitic acid C) Glycerol D) Phosphatidyl serine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 1 .

6) Which of the following organic compounds CANNOT be produced without the use of enzymes?

A) Amino acids B) Urea C) Hydrogen cyanide D) Polysaccharides Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 7) ________ are the basis of many biochemical reactions and pathways.

A) Oxidation-reduction reactions B) Anapleurotic reactions C) Platinum-catalyzed reactions D) Combustible reactions Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 8) Many biochemical reactions that form biopolymers from monomeric units involve the removal of ________.

A) CO2 B) Water C) NH4+ D) PO4-3 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 9) The principle component of a biological membrane is a ________.

A) Triglyceride B) Carbohydrate C) Protein D) Nucleic acid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 10) The chemical element of ________ has a role in both transfer of energy as well as in the structure of nucleic acids.

A) Carbon B) Magnesium C) Phosphorus D) Zinc Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 2 .

11) Which of the following is NOT a major class of biological macromolecules?

A) Proteins B) Nucleic acids C) Lipids D) Chlorophylls Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 12) An amphipathic molecule provides the foundation for biological membranes because they have both ________ and ________ functional groups.

A) Exergonic, Endergonic B) Hydrophobic, Hydrophilic C) Enthalpic, Entropic D) Organic, Inorganic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 13) Genomics is concerned with the entire ________.

A) Cell B) Lipid network C) Genome D) Proteome Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.5 14) Wohler showed that a chemical found only in living organisms can be made from inorganic substances when he synthesized ________.

A) Ammonium cyanate B) Amino acids C) Urea D) Uric acid Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1 15) The lock-and-key theory described the action of ________.

A) Enzymes as keys that fit different chemicals B) Substrates as keys that fit different enzymes C) Enzymes as locks that fit other enzymes D) Substrates as locks that fit different enzymes Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 3 .

16) According to Crick's Central Dogma of molecular Biology, there can be NO transfer of information from ________.

A) DNA to RNA B) RNA to RNA C) RNA to protein D) Protein to RNA Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 17) Which linkage(s) occur extensively in nucleotides?

A) Amide B) Ester C) Phosphate ester D) Ether Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 18) Which functional group is shown?

A) Primary amine B) Acyl C) Amide D) Anhydride Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 19) Proteins in biological membranes ________.

A) May be porous B) May not be attached to the membrane surface C) May not span the membrane D) May be integrally-bound only Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2

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20) Sugars such as glucose are monomers of polysaccharides that are linked together when covalent bonds form between one ________ groups of one sugar to the same group on another sugar.

A) Ester B) Carboxyl C) Amino D) Hydroxyl Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 21) Which statement about cellulose is FALSE? A) It is the most abundant polysaccharide in nature.

B) Its monomers are joined by glycosidic bonds.

C) It is present in the stems of flowering plants.

D) It is a branched polymer of glucose.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 22) The essential attributes of all living things include all EXCEPT ________.

A) Program B) Improvisation C) Compartmentalization D) Emotion Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.3 23) Prokaryotes are valuable tools for biochemists because ________.

A) E. coli is well-studied and typical of prokaryotes B) They contain as many genes as eukaryotic cells C) Many of their chromosomes are sequenced D) They are not very diverse organisms Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.4 24) Which cellular component carries out oxidation reactions, some of which produce hydrogen peroxide?

A) Peroxisomes B) Mitochondria C) Chloroplasts D) Lysosomes Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.4 5 .

25) Which cellular component carries the secretion and transport of biosynthesized proteins?

A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Golgi complex D) Lysosomes Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.4 26) The theory which demonstrated that metabolic processes were chemical in nature in absence of cells is known as ________.

A) Spontaneous production B) Aerobic production C) Fermentation D) Biogenesis Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1 27) ________ has permitted rapid advances in our understanding of structural macromolecules from living cells.

A) Biogenesis B) Biokinetics C) Biothermodynamics D) Bioinformatics Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 1.5 28) The role of DNA as the ________ material was confirmed by transforming Streptococci in experiments performed several years after the famous Watson and Crick description of DNA structure.

A) Heredity B) Genetic C) Linkage D) Primary Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1

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29) ________ is generally in reference to how the flow of information is transferred from nucleic acid to protein.

A) Central Dogma B) Central Concept C) Central Idea D) Central Genome Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1 30) Portions of biological compounds, found in living cells that can be reactive are known as ________.

A) Fixed groups B) Static groups C) Functional groups D) Essential groups Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1 31) Under acidic conditions, amino groups are mostly ________.

A) Partially protonated B) Fully protonated C) Partially deprotonated D) Fully deprotonated Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1 32) When monomers covalently attach to each other to form a macromolecule, what product is often formed?

A) CO2 B) O2 C) NH2 D) Water Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.1

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33) The condensation of the α-amino and α-carboxyl groups of two amino acids results in the formation of a ________.

A) Lipid bond B) Peptide bond C) Monosaccharide bond D) Non-covalent bond Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 34) Which of the following can determine whether an enzyme is functional or not?

A) Conformation B) Size C) Volume D) Concentration Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 35) The ________ projection of the ring form of a monosaccharide always shows a flat plane with one edge projecting out of the page (using thicker lines).

A) Fischer B) Crick C) Haworth D) Wohler Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 36) Sugars with six carbons can form ring structures known as ________.

A) Cyclobenzene rings B) Pyranose rings C) Disaccharide rings D) Polysaccharide rings Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 37) ________ contains both phosphoester and phosphoanhydride linkages.

A) CCK B) Urea C) Ammonium Cyanate D) ATP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 8 .

38) A deoxyribose unit in DNA is a ________.

A) Sugar B) Lipid C) Protein D) Fatty acid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2 39) Lipids self associate in aqueous solvent to form bilayers because they are ________.

A) Amphibolic B) Amphipathic C) Amphigenic D) Amphicatalytic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 1.2

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Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 2 The Chemical Foundation of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment 1) Each of the following is a noncovalent interaction EXCEPT ________.

A) Hydrogen bond B) Carbon-hydrogen bond C) Dipole-dipole D) Van der Waals interaction Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 2) Which of the following is an important noncovalent interaction in biochemistry?

A) Sulfhydryl bonds B) Phosphate bonds C) Hydrogen bonds D) Electron bonds Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 3) Which of the following is FALSE when considering van der Waals interactions?

A) The van der Waals radius represents the most stable distance between two interacting centers.

B) Van der Waals radii can determine molecular surfaces.

C) Molecules that interact by van der Waals forces do not interpenetrate.

D) They are not important in determining the stability of three-dimensional structures of proteins.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 4) Which of the following in biological compounds are sufficiently electronegative to serve as strong donors in a hydrogen bond?

A) Hydrogen and oxygen B) Oxygen and nitrogen C) Nitrogen and hydrogen D) Hydrogen and carbon Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2

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5) Hydrogen bond donors must be covalently attached to atoms that are ________.

A) Electronic B) Electronegative C) Electrostatic D) Elastic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 6) Which of the following is TRUE of hydrophobic molecules?

A) They have limited solubility in water.

B) Water forms a cage-like structure around them.

C) Dissolving in water decreases the entropy of the mixture.

D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 7) Which of the following can serve as both a hydrogen bond donor and acceptor?

A) CH4 B) Water C) A carbonyl group D) An internal methionine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 8) Amphipathic molecules are ________; not able to interact via van der Waals forces.

A) Polar only B) Nonpolar only C) Neither polar nor nonpolar D) Both polar and nonpolar Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 9) Ionic compounds can be readily dissolved in water because the high dielectric constant of water screens and decreases the ________ force between the oppositely charged ions.

A) Entropic B) Enthalpic C) Electrostatic D) Enantiomeric Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3

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10) The ________ describes the tendency for hydrophobic molecules to aggregate because of the exclusion of water with the consequent increase of entropy of the solvent.

A) Hydrophobic effect B) Hydrophilic effect C) Hypertonic effect D) Hypotonic effect Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 11) Which of the following can serve as a buffer because it has two ionizable groups?

A) Benzene B) Sulphur C) CH4 D) Glycine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 12) The average charge on an amino acid below its pI will be ________.

A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral D) There will be no charges on an amino acid below its pI. Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 13) Calculate the acid dissociation constant Ka of a 0.2 M solution of weak acid that is 0.1% ionized is ________.

A) 2 × 101 B) 2 × 10-1 C) 2 × 107 D) 2 × 10-7 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 14) What is the pH of a 0.1 M phosphate buffer (pKa = 6.86) that contains equal amounts of acid and conjugate base?

A) 5.86 B) 6.86 C) 5.61 D) 8.11 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 3 .

15) What is the pH of a 0.2 M acetate buffer (pKa = 4.77) that contains twice as much acid as conjugate base?

A) 4.07 B) 4.47 C) 5.46 D) 5.07 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 16) Which of the following amino acid functional groups will influence the pKa of an amino acid residue the least if it is on an adjacent residue?

A) —OH B) —COOH C) —CH3 D) —NH3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 17) What would the pH be at the end of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction if it were carried out in a 0.1 M phosphate buffer of pKa 6.86 and 0.005 M of acid was produced during the reaction?

A) 6.86 B) 6.77 C) 6.15 D) 6.00 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.5 18) If hydroxide is added to an amino acid, how will this affect the charge on the amino acid?

A) It will become more positively charged.

B) It will become more negatively charged.

C) It will become more neutrally charged.

D) It will have a higher charge than before the —OH group was added.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.6

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19) What is the pH of a weak acid that is 0.2% ionized in a 0.2 M solution?

A) 2.76 B) 3.05 C) 3.21 D) 3.39 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.6 20) The net charge on an amino acid at its isoelectric point (pI) is ________.

A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.7 21) Many proteins interact with DNA at physiological pH because ________.

A) Proteins are naturally attracted to DNA regardless of the pH B) The negatively charged DNA is electrostatically attracted to positively charged regions on proteins C) The positively charged DNA is electrostatically attracted to negatively charged regions on proteins D) Proteins and DNA interact using mainly hydrophobic interactions Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.8 22) Small ions in biological fluids ________.

A) Encourage strong electrostatic interactions between oppositely charged macro-ions at low ionic strengths B) Encourage strong electrostatic interactions between oppositely charged macro-ions at high ionic strengths C) Have no effect on the interactions between oppositely charged macro-ions D) Tend to cluster around macro-ions of the same charge Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.8

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23) Which statement does NOT explain the polarity of water?

A) Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen.

B) Water molecules have a bent geometry (V-shaped).

C) The oxygen in water has sp2 hybrid orbitals.

D) In water the hydrogen carries a partial positive charge (δ+).

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 24) Which substance do you expect to be most soluble in water?

A) Ammonia, NH3 B) Methane, CH4 C) Carbon dioxide, CO2 D) Nitrogen, N2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 25) What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that one water molecule can have with neighboring water molecules?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 26) Which statement is TRUE about hydrogen bonds between water molecules?

A) They are about as strong as the covalent bonds in a water molecule.

B) They arise because of the linear geometry of water.

C) They cause water to have an unusually low freezing point for its molecular weight.

D) They involve the unequal sharing of a proton between water molecules.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 27) Compounds that ionize when dissolved in water are called ________.

A) Electrolytes B) Polar compounds C) Hydrophobic compounds D) Amphipathic compounds Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3

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28) Poorly soluble molecules such as lipids and nucleoside bases can be made more soluble in cells by attaching ________ to them.

A) Water B) Oxygen C) Carbohydrates D) Salt ions Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 29) Electrolytes dissolve readily in water because ________.

A) They are held together by electrostatic forces B) They are hydrophobic C) Water molecules can cluster around cations D) Water molecules can cluster around cations and anions Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 30) What is the difference between a particle, being hydrated versus being solvated?

A) A hydrated particle is surrounded by a shell of water. A solvated molecule is surrounded by a shell of solvent molecules, not necessarily water.

B) The terms hydrated and solvated mean exactly the same thing.

C) A hydrated particle has reacted with hydrogen. A solvated particle is dissolved in a solvent.

D) The word hydrated is used only when the solute is an electrolyte.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 31) Micelles, formed by detergents in water, have ________.

A) Hydrophilic interiors and hydrophobic exteriors B) Hydrophobic interiors and hydrophilic exteriors C) Hydrophilic interiors and exteriors D) Hydrophobic interiors and exteriors Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 32) Molecules that are both hydrophobic and hydrophilic are ________.

A) Amphipathic B) Amphoteric C) Bipolar D) Cannot exist Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 7 .

33) Which molecule or ion below is amphipathic?

A) H2NCH2COOH (glycine) B) H2O C) CH3(CH2)14COOD) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 34) Which statement explains the cleaning action of soap on greasy dishes?

A) The soap changes the water-solubility of the grease so that it is easily dissolved by the water.

B) The grease is trapped inside the hydrophobic interior of micelles made of soap molecules.

C) The soap chemically breaks down the grease into smaller, more water-soluble molecules.

D) The soap hydrates the grease with its polar head groups and holds it in suspension.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 35) Which of the following is NOT a "weak" interaction?

A) Hydrogen bonds B) Van der Waals forces C) Disulfide bonds D) Ionic interactions Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 36) Which of the following weak interactions is NOT an electrostatic interaction?

A) Hydrogen bonds B) Charge-charge interactions C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Van der Waals forces Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 37) Which of these noncovalent forces in biological systems is usually the strongest?

A) Hydrogen bonds B) London dispersion forces C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Van der Waals forces Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2

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38) Hydrogen bonds can occur when hydrogen is covalently bonded to atoms like nitrogen and oxygen. What property of nitrogen and oxygen is important for this?

A) Atomic mass B) Ionizability C) Hydrophobicity D) Electronegativity Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 39) Which statement is TRUE about the ability of carbon to participate in hydrogen bonds in living organisms?

A) There are too many carbon atoms competing for the hydrogens in biomolecules to allow for the stable formation of hydrogen bonds.

B) Carbon's electronegativity is too low to participate in hydrogen bonding.

C) Most carbons in biomolecules are hydrogen bonded to water.

D) Carbon is too large to participate in hydrogen bonding.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 40) Attractions of oppositely charged functional groups of proteins are sometimes called ________.

A) Salt bridges or electrostatic interactions B) Disulfide bridges C) London bridges D) Hydrophilic bridges Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 41) Which is TRUE about hydrogen bonding for biological molecules?

A) Hydrogen bonds are strong enough to confer structural stability, for example in DNA. B) Hydrogen bonds are weak enough to be easily broken (weaker than covalent bonds).

C) They contribute to the water solubility of many macromolecules.

D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1

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42) London dispersion forces are attractive forces that arise due to ________.

A) Infinitesimal dipoles generated by the constant random motion of electrons B) Permanent dipoles of molecules containing covalent bonds between atoms of very different electronegativities C) The hydrophobic effect D) Ion pairing between oppositely charged functional groups Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 43) The aggregation of nonpolar molecules or groups in water is thermodynamically due to the ________.

A) Increased entropy of the nonpolar molecules when they associate B) Decreased enthalpy of the system C) Increased entropy of the water molecules D) Very strong van der Waals forces among the nonpolar molecules or groups Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.2 44) Water molecules clustered around nonpolar molecules contribute to hydrophobic interactions because ________.

A) Their number is minimized to increase the total entropy of water B) Nonpolar molecules are more highly organized than polar molecules C) Water molecules in the cell are more organized in the regions away from the nonpolar molecule D) Water molecules will aggregate around nonpolar molecules Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 45) The three dimensional structure of most proteins is largely determined by ________.

A) Other proteins which fold them B) Weak noncovalent interactions C) Denaturation D) Hydrogen bonds Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3

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46) Enzymes that condense subunits of macromolecules during their synthesis usually ________.

A) Transfer an acyl or carbonyl group to an electrophile B) Exclude water from the active site C) Contain inhibitors of hydrolases D) Are catalyzing thermodynamically favored reactions Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 47) The ion-product constant for water, Kw, is ________.

A) 1 × 10-7 M2 B) 1 × 10-7 M C) 1 × 10-14 M2 D) 1 × 10-14 M Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 48) What is the concentration of hydroxide ion in an aqueous solution with an H+ concentration of 2 × 10-5 M? A) 2 × 109 M B) 2 × 1019 M C) 2 × 10-19 M D) 5 × 10-10 M Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 49) Pure water has a concentration of ________.

A) 18 g/ml B) 1 g/ml C) 1000 g/ml D) 55 M Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4

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50) How does the ion-product of water, Kw, relate to the equilibrium constant, Keq, for the dissociation reaction of water?

A) Kw is calculated by multiplying Keq by the concentration of water.

B) Kw is just another symbol for Keq, so they are equal.

C) Kw is calculated by dividing Keq by the ideal gas constant.

D) Kw is calculated by multiplying Keq by the concentrations of hydronium ion and hydroxide ion.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 51) In pure water, the concentration of H+ equals ________.

A) 1 × 10-7 M B) 1 × 10-14 M C) 1 M D) .07 M Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 52) The pH of a 10-4 M solution of HCl is ________.

A) 3.0 B) 3.5 C) 4.0 D) 4.5 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 53) Compare solution A with pH 4 to solution B with pH 6.

A) The concentration of hydronium ion in solution A is twice that in solution B. B) Solution A has greater buffering capacity than solution B. C) The concentration of hydronium ion in solution A is 100 times that in solution B. D) The hydroxide concentrations are equal in the two solutions since pH only measures the concentration of H+.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4

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54) The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation cannot be used to calculate ________.

A) The pH of a solution of an organic acid B) The amount of salt and acid to add to form a specific buffer C) The pKa of a weak acid D) The amount of a divalent cation being used in a buffer Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 55) Two weak acids, A and B, have pKa values of 4 and 6, respectively. Which statement is TRUE? A) Acid A dissociates to a greater extent in water than acid B. B) For solutions of equal concentration, acid B will have a lower pH. C) Acid B is the conjugate base of Acid A. D) Acid A is more likely to be a polyprotic acid than acid B. Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 56) Calculate the value of pKa for an acid when Ka = 2.6 × 10-4.

A) -3.59 B) +3.59 C) -8.25 D) +8.25 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 57) What is the approximate pH of a 0.10 M solution of a weak acid that has a Ka of 5 × 10-5 M? A) 2.7 B) 5.3 C) 4.8 D) 11.3 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 2.4 58) The ratio of the concentration of a(n) ________ over ________ describes the proportions of a weak acid necessary to satisfy the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

A) Conjugate acid; conjugate base B) Conjugate base; conjugate acid C) Proton donor; proton acceptor D) Electron acceptor; electron donor Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 13 .

59) At the midpoint of a titration curve ________.

A) The concentration of a conjugate base is twice that of the concentration of a conjugate acid B) The pH equals the pKa C) The ability of the solution to buffer is at its least effective D) The concentration of a conjugate base is 1/2 that of the concentration of a conjugate acid Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 60) A titration curve for a weak acid is shown. Which point shows the most buffering?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 61) The imidazolium ion has a pKa = 7.0. Imidazolium buffers can be prepared for pH values of ________.

A) 6.5 to 7.5 B) 6.1 to 7.1 C) 5.5 to 8.5 D) 6.0 to 8.0 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4

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62) Since HCl is a strong acid its value of Ka is ________.

A) Effectively equal to infinity B) Equal to Kw C) Zero D) Dependent on the concentration of HCl Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 63) For a weak acid with a pKa = 6.5, the effective buffering range is usually considered to be ________.

A) pH 6 to pH 7 B) pH 6.4 to pH 6.6 C) pH 5.5 to pH 7.5 D) Dependent on the molarity of the acid Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 64) The pKa of lactic acid is 3.9. A lactate buffer will be useful from pH values ________.

A) 3.5 through 4.4 B) 3.0 through 4.5 C) 2.9 through 4.9 D) 3.8 through 4.0 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 65) pKa values of phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2 and 12.7. A phosphate buffer of pH = 7.4 can be prepared using ________.

A) H2PO4- and HPO42B) HPO42- and PO43C) H3PO4 and HCl D) H3PO4 and PO43Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.4 66) Which of the following interaction(s) below is/are NOT considered non-covalent?

A) Hydrogen bonding B) Disulfide bonding C) Carbon-carbon bonding D) The bonding of an amino group to the α-carbon in an amino acid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.1 15 .

67) In the detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate, which of the following is (are) TRUE about them being hydrophobic?

A) Sulfate is very hydrophobic.

B) Sodium is very hydrophobic.

C) Dodecyl is very hydrophobic.

D) Dodecyl is slightly hydrophilic.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.3 68) Van der Waals forces are ________.

A) Very strongly repulsive to each other at short nuclear distances B) Very strongly repulsive to each other at long nuclear distances C) Very strongly attractive to each other at short nuclear distances D) Very strongly attractive to each other at long nuclear distances Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 69) The combined effect of many weak ________ interactions can be very significant in determining factors such as three-dimensional structure for large biological molecules.

A) Covalent B) Noncovalent C) Disulfide bridges D) Modular Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 70) Water molecules that surround a less polar molecule in solution are ________.

A) Immobile and ordered B) Immobile and disordered C) Mobile and ordered D) Mobile and disordered Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5

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71) The strength of van der Waals forces between two molecules would be strongest if ________.

A) The distance between them was zero angstroms away B) The distance between them was 10 angstroms away C) The distance between them was 20 angstroms away D) The distance between them was 4 angstroms away Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5 72) Micelles are stabilized in water by ________.

A) Interactions of hydrogen-bonding molecules with each other B) Interactions of electrostatic molecules with each other C) Interactions of nonpolar molecules with each other D) Interactions of salt-bridge containing molecules with each other Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 2.5

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 3 The Energetics of Life 1) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Organisms are open systems as they can exchange both energy and materials with their environments.

B) In an open system energy can be converted from one form to another.

C) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments.

D) Energy can be transferred between a system and the surroundings.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 2) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Entropy is a measure of disorder.

B) The entropy of an isolated system will tend to increase to a maximum value.

C) Biological systems are highly ordered so entropy changes are not relevant.

D) Biological systems expend energy to overcome entropy.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 3) A biochemical reaction will proceed in the direction as written if ________.

A) ΔG = 0 B) ΔG > 0 C) ΔG < 0 D) ΔH > 0 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.2 4) Life is a(n) ________ process, such that it never comes to equilibrium.

A) Combustible B) Reversible C) Irreversible D) Energetic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2

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5) The equilibrium constant of a reaction ________.

A) Is not related to the change in free energy of the reaction B) Is the same as the mass action ratio when the reaction is displaced from equilibrium C) Can change if the concentration of reactants and products are changed D) Is related to the change in free energy of the reaction Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 6) The change in ________ for the complete oxidation of a fatty acid is the same, whether it occurs via a biochemical pathway or combustion to CO2 and H2O. A) Entropy B) Enthalpy C) Free energy D) Heat capacity Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 7) A reaction at its lowest energy state for the system and with equal rates in the forward and reverse directions is said to be under ________.

A) Exergonic conditions B) Equilibrium conditions C) Endergonic conditions D) Anaerobic conditions Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 8) A reaction at equilibrium can be driven in one direction or the other by changing the ________ of reactants or products.

A) Volume B) Temperature C) Concentration D) Melting point Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4

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9) A thermodynamically unfavorable reaction can become favorable if the mass action ratio is ________ than the equilibrium mass action ratio.

A) Less B) More C) The same as D) Almost the same as Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 10) What is the equilibrium constant for the enzymatic hydrolysis of 0.1 M glucose-6-phosphate to glucose and inorganic phosphate given that 0.05% of the original glucose-6-phosphate remained after reaching equilibrium and the activity of water is unity?

A) 99.8 B) 199.8 C) 299.9 D) 399.8 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.4 11) The ΔGo of a reaction ________.

A) Will change if the temperature of the reaction is changed B) Will change if the concentration of reactants and products are changed C) Is not related to the equilibrium constant D) Can be used to calculate whether a reaction is thermodynamically favorable under defined non-standard conditions Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.5 12) Calculate the ΔG∘' for the reaction: fructose-6-phosphate → glucose-6-phosphate given the equilibrium constant is 1.97 and the physiological relevant temperature is 37°C. A) +0.21kJ/mol B) +1.75 kJ/mol C) -1.75 kJ/mol D) -0.21 kJ/mol Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.5

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13) A thermodynamically unfavorable reaction can become favorable when coupled to a highly ________ reaction.

A) Endergonic B) Exergonic C) Neutral D) Ionic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6 14) A reaction with a ________ free energy of hydrolysis can be coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. A) Small positive B) Small negative C) Large positive D) Large negative Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.6 15) In a general redox reaction, what becomes reduced?

A) The oxidant B) The reductant C) ATP D) NADH Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.8 16) The standard reduction potential is a measure for the ability of a reductant to ________ an electron.

A) Gain B) Lose C) Multiply D) Divide Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.8

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17) The standard reduction potentials for the following reactions are given below.

Pyruvate + 2H+ + 2e- → lactate E∘ = -0.190 V NAD+ + 2H+ + 2e- → NADH/H+ E∘ = -0.320V. What is ΔG∘ for the overall spontaneous reaction, make use of the relationship between ΔE∘ and ΔG∘?

A) 0k J/mol B) 25 kJ/mol C) -25 kJ/mol D) 15 kJ/mol Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.8 18) A biochemical reaction will not proceed spontaneously in the direction if ________.

A) ΔG = 0 B) ΔG > 0 C) ΔG < 0 D) ΔH > 0 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 19) A biochemical reaction will proceed both backwards and forwards equally in the direction written if ________.

A) ΔG = 0 B) ΔG > 0 C) ΔG < 0 D) ΔH > 0 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 20) In order to calculate ΔG of a reaction, what must we know?

A) Concentration of reactants only B) Concentration of products only C) The equilibrium constant D) Whether a reaction is thermodynamically favorable or not Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4

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21) The standard reduction potential is a measure of the ability of an oxidant to ________ an electron.

A) Gain B) Lose C) Multiply D) Divide Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.8 22) In a general redox reaction, what becomes oxidized?

A) The oxidant B) The reductant C) ATP D) NADH Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.8 23) A reaction with a ________ free energy of hydrolysis can be coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi. A) Neutral B) Small negative C) Large positive D) Large negative Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 24) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Organisms are open systems as they can exchange both energy and materials with their environments.

B) In an open system energy cannot be converted from one form into another.

C) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments.

D) Energy cannot be transferred between a system and the surroundings.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 25) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Entropy is a measure of order.

B) The entropy of an isolated system will tend to level to a minimum value.

C) Biological systems are highly ordered so entropy changes are not relevant.

D) Biological systems expend energy to overcome entropy.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 6 .

26) When Keq of a reaction = 1, then ________.

A) The forward reaction is faster than the reverse reaction B) The reverse reaction is faster than the forward reaction C) The forward and reverse reaction rate constants are equal D) More products are formed than reactants Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 27) Most of the energy required for life on Earth is supplied by ________.

A) Geothermal energy B) The sun C) Cosmic radiation D) The conversion of ADP to ATP Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 28) Which statement is TRUE about the Gibb's free energy of a reaction?

A) It is dependent on the concentrations of both products and reactants.

B) It is dependent only on the concentrations of the reactants.

C) It is dependent only on the concentrations of the products.

D) It is not dependent on the concentrations of either the products or reactants.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 29) Which statement is TRUE about a reaction with an equilibrium constant, Keq, equal to 1000?

A) The forward rate constant is 1000 times greater than the reverse rate constant.

B) The forward rate constant is 3 times greater than reverse rate constant.

C) The forward rate constant is 1000 times smaller than the reverse rate constant.

D) The forward rate constant is 3 times smaller than the reverse rate constant.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 30) If a reaction is at equilibrium, what is the free energy change?

A) It is always positive.

B) It is always negative.

C) It could be either positive or negative depending on the reaction.

D) It equals zero.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1

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31) Which statement is TRUE? A) If ΔG is negative, then the rate of the reaction will be fast.

B) If ΔG is positive, then the rate of the reaction will be fast.

C) If ΔG is negative, then the rate of the reaction will be slow.

D) The reaction rate is independent of ΔG. Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.2 32) The study of the energy changes during metabolic reactions is called ________.

A) Bioinformatics B) Metabodynamics C) Thermometrics D) Bioenergetics Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 33) A spontaneous chemical reaction always has a ________ change.

A) Positive Gibb's free energy B) Negative Gibb's free energy C) Positive enthalpy D) Negative enthalpy Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 34) ________ and its laws are obeyed by living cells.

A) Metal catalysis B) Cryogenics C) Thermodynamics D) Bioinformatics Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 35) The tendency of a metabolic reaction to proceed is due to the free energy of both the reactants and products as well as the change in ________ of that reaction.

A) Orientation B) Concentrations C) Residues D) Randomness Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4

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36) Biochemical reactions are more likely to proceed if the reaction has ________ in entropy (ΔS).

A) Increase B) Decrease C) Stabilization D) Surge Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 37) When Keq of a reaction is less than 1, then ________.

A) The forward reaction is faster than the reverse reaction B) The reverse reaction is faster than the forward reaction C) The forward and reverse reaction rate constants are equal D) More products are formed than reactants Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 38) When Keq of a reaction is greater than 1, then ________.

A) The forward reaction is faster than the reverse reaction B) The reverse reaction is faster than the forward reaction C) The forward and reverse reaction rate constants are equal D) More reactants are formed than products Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 39) Which statement is TRUE about a reaction with an equilibrium constant, Keq, equal to 0.001?

A) The forward rate constant is 1000 times greater than the reverse rate constant.

B) The forward rate constant is 3 times greater than reverse rate constant.

C) The forward rate constant is 1000 times smaller than the reverse rate constant.

D) The forward rate constant is 3 times smaller than the reverse rate constant.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 40) A reaction with a ________ free energy of hydrolysis can be coupled to the phosphorylation of ADP and Pi to ATP. A) Neutral B) Small negative C) Large positive D) Large negative Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 9 .

41) If a reaction is exergonic, what is the free energy change?

A) It is positive.

B) It is negative.

C) It could be either positive or negative depending on the reaction.

D) It equals zero.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 42) If a reaction is endergonic, what is the free energy change?

A) It is positive.

B) It is negative.

C) It could be either positive or negative depending on the reaction.

D) It equals zero.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 43) A nonspontaneous chemical reaction always has a ________ change.

A) Positive Gibb's free energy B) Negative Gibb's free energy C) Positive enthalpy D) Negative enthalpy Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 44) A spontaneous chemical reaction always has a ________ change.

A) Positive Gibb's free energy B) Negative Gibb's free energy C) Positive enthalpy D) Negative enthalpy Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 45) Under standard conditions, a solution must be which of the following ________.

A) 1 atmosphere of pressure B) The pure solute C) 1 molar concentration D) 2 molar concentration Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1

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46) Consider the reaction below which has a ΔG˚=+0.5kJ/mol: A + B ←→ C + D 10M A, 10M B, 1M C and 1M D are added to a container at room temperature. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) To reach equilibrium, reaction will proceed in the forward direction.

B) To reach equilibrium, reaction will proceed in the reverse direction.

C) To reach equilibrium, reaction will NOT proceed in either direction.

D) To reach equilibrium, reaction will proceed alternating between forward and reverse direction.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 47) Consider the reaction below which has a ΔG˚=+0.5kJ/mol: Succinate + FAD ←→ Fumarate + FADH2 2mM of each compound are mixed and the reaction then proceeds to equilibrium. Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about the concentration(s) of FAD at equilibrium?

A) [FAD] = 0 B) [FAD] > [FADH2] C) [FAD] < [FADH2] D) [FAD] = [FADH2] Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 48) Which of the following statements below is INCORRECT? A) For a solution, the standard state is considered to be 1M. B) For a pure solid, the standard state is considered to be the pure solid in its state.

C) For a gas, the standard state is considered to be 1 atm.

D) For a pure liquid, the standard state is considered to be 1M. Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 49) Why do biochemists use a changed value for standard ΔG values?

A) Because all reagents may not be at a 1 M. B) Because the pH in living systems is rarely 0.

C) Because the concentration of water is not 1 M. D) Because the reagents are not one molar at pH = 7.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.1 11 .

50) A spontaneous reaction is defined as one where ________.

A) Energy is released B) Energy is absorbed C) The energy change is zero D) The reaction happens quickly Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 51) The term oxidation means ________.

A) The loss of a hydroxyl B) The loss of an oxygen C) The loss of electrons D) The gain of electrons Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 52) The term reduction means ________.

A) The loss of a hydroxyl B) The loss of an oxygen C) The loss of electrons D) The gain of electrons Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 53) Examine the biochemical reaction below: CH3CH2OH + NAD+ ←→ CH3CHO + NADH + H+ Which of the following is the oxidizagent in the reaction?

A) EtOH B) NAD+ C) NADH D) Acetaldehyde Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3

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54) Examine the biochemical reaction below: CH3CH2OH + NAD+ ←→ CH3CHO + NADH + H+ Which of the following molecules is reduced in the aforesaid reaction?

A) EtOH B) NAD+ C) NADH D) Acetaldehyde Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 55) Examine the biochemical reaction below: CH3CH2OH + NAD+ ←→ CH3CHO + NADH + H+ Which of the following is the molecule(s) that losses electrons?

A) EtOH B) NAD+ C) NADH D) Acetaldehyde Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 56) Examine the biochemical reaction below: CH3CH2OH + NAD+ ←→ CH3CHO + NADH + H+ Which of the following products results from an oxidation of the substrate in the above reaction?

A) EtOH B) NAD+ C) NADH D) Acetaldehyde Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 57) Examine the biochemical reaction below: CH3CH2OH + NAD+ ←→ CH3CHO + NADH + H+ Which of the following products from the reaction results from a reduction of a substrate?

A) EtOH B) NAD+ C) NADH D) Acetaldehyde Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3

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58) Which of the following molecule(s) has a higher phospho-transfer potential than that of ATP hydrolysis to ADP? A) Pyrophosphate B) AMP C) Glycerol phosphate D) Creatine phosphate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 59) Which of the following molecule(s) has a lower phospho-transfer potential than that of ATP hydrolysis to ADP? A) Phosphoenol pyruvate B) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate C) Glycerol phosphate D) Creatine phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 60) Which of the following molecule(s) has a high enough phospho-transfer potential that it can phosphorylate AMP to ATP? A) Phosphoenol pyruvate B) pyrophosphate C) Glycerol phosphate D) Creatine phosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 61) Consider the following reactions: ATP → ADP + Pi ΔG˚°' = - 32 kJ/mol Glucose-6-phosphate → Glucose + Pi ΔG˚' = - 15 kJ/mol Glucose + ATP → Glucose-6-phosphate + ADP ΔG˚' = ?

What will be the ΔG˚' for the final reaction?

A) -47 kJ/mol B) -17 kJ/mol C) +17 kJ/mol D) +47 kJ/mol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.3

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62) Which of the following best describes what happens to entropy of a particular molecule as the number of resonance structures increases?

A) Entropy is decreased.

B) Entropy is increased.

C) Entropy is unchanged.

D) There is no correlation between entropy and the # of resonance structures.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.3 63) The reaction A B has a ∆G of +40 J/mol. The reaction B C has a ∆G of -20 J/mol. The overall energy change for A C is ________.

A) 60 J/mol B) 20 J/mol C) -20 J/mol D) -60 J/mol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 3.3 64) Which of the following below represent(s) endergonic processes?

A) Protein synthesis and active transport B) Protein synthesis and oxidation of carbohydrates C) Active transport and oxidation of carbohydrates D) Oxidation of fats and of carbohydrates Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4 65) Which of the following below represent(s) exergonic processes?

A) Protein synthesis and active transport B) Protein synthesis and oxidation of carbohydrates C) Active transport and oxidation of carbohydrates D) Oxidation of fats and of carbohydrates Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 3.4

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 4 Nucleic Acids 1) The difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide is ________.

A) the presence of uracil B) a phosphate group C) a phosphodiester bond D) a 2' –H group Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 2) Which statement is CORRECT? A) Both phosphodiester and glycosidic bonds in RNA and DNA are hydrolyzed in acid solution.

B) Both RNA and DNA are hydrolyzed in mild alkaline solution.

C) DNA is more unstable when dehydrated than when in solution.

D) RNA is not hydrolyzed in mild alkaline solution.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 3) Purines which are found mainly in both deoxyribonucleotides and ribonucleotides are ________.

A) Thymine and cytosine B) Thymine, cytosine and uracil C) Adenine and thymine D) Adenine and guanine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 4) The nucleotide sequence of a polynucleotide chain is what type of structure?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2

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5) Which of the following does NOT describe the secondary structure of DNA as proposed by Watson and Crick?

A) The two strands of the double helix are stabilized by hydrogen-bonding between A and T and between G and C. B) The two strands of the double helix run in opposite directions.

C) The distance between the 1' carbons of the deoxyribose units is the same between the A-T and the G-C base pair.

D) The base pairs are stacked on one other with their planes at 180o to the helix axis.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 6) An important observation that assisted in the elucidation of the secondary structure of DNA was ________.

A) The mole percent adenine was almost always the same as the mole percent of guanine B) The mole percent adenine was almost always the same as the mole percent of thymine C) The mole percent adenine was almost always the same as the mole percent of cytosine D) The mole percent guanine was almost always the same as the mole percent of thymine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 7) The mode of replication of DNA is best described as ________ in nature.

A) Semiconcise B) Semiconducive C) Semiconductive D) Semiconservative Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 8) Which of the following statements about nucleic acid secondary structure is FALSE? A) The width of the major and minor grooves is equal in the A-from of DNA than in the B-form.

B) Triple helices and G-quadruplexes can form at specific sequences in DNA. C) DNA can form cruciform structures at palindromic sequences.

D) The A-form of DNA exists at high humidity, whereas the B-form exists at low humidity.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2

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9) Supercoiled DNA has ________ mobility when compared relaxed DNA with the same number of base pairs when subjected to gel electrophoresis.

A) Higher B) Lower C) Similar D) Zero Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 10) Single-stranded RNA molecules can have extensive regions of intramolecular base pairing leading to defined ________ and ________ structure.

A) 1˚; 2˚ B) 2˚; 3˚ C) 3˚; 4˚ D) 2˚; 4˚ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 11) DNA in vivo is normally ________ supercoiled.

A) Circularly B) Positively C) Negatively D) Neutrally Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 12) Calculate the superhelix density of a circular DNA molecule with 210 base pairs and two negative supercoils, assuming that there are 10.5 bp per turn of the double helix.

A) 1.0 B) 0.1 C) -1.0 D) -0.1 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5

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13) What is the linking number in vivo for a plasmid that is 4200 bp in size, if there is normally 1 negative supercoil in every 20 base pairs of a circular DNA? Assume there are 10.5 bp per turn of the double helix.

A) 100 B) 120 C) 190 D) 220 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.5 14) Nucleic acids absorb light strongly in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum because they have ________ double-bond systems.

A) Saturated B) Unsaturated C) Conjugated D) Unconjugated Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 15) The melting temperature of DNA ________ with increasing G plus C content.

A) Increases B) Decreases C) Stays the same D) Has no relation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 16) Expression of genetic information involves first ________ then ________.

A) Replication, translation B) Replication, transcription C) Transcription, translation D) Translation, replication Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.11

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17) Restriction endonucleases are useful in gene cloning because ________.

A) They can cut DNA at specific sequences B) They can join DNA molecules that have been cut at specific sequences C) They all make cohesive ends when they cut DNA D) They all make 5' phosphate extensions and recessed 3' OH groups that can be rejoined by DNA ligase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.12 18) ________ can be used as vectors for making recombinant DNA molecules.

A) Viral proteomes B) Viral atoms C) Viral genomes D) Viral receptors Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.12 19) Dideoxynucleotide sequence analysis is a template-directed method that makes use of chain terminators that stop DNA synthesis because they lack a 2'OH group.

A) Very likely B) Somewhat likely C) Not at all likely D) Not enough information to determine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.12 20) Which of the following is a feature of X-diffraction?

A) Radiation passing through a structure will be scattered only if the structure contains repeating units.

B) Scattered radiation from repeating units in a structure will be weakened by interference.

C) Scattered radiation from repeating units in a structure will be strengthened by interference.

D) Short spacing in repeating structures will result in short spacing in diffraction patterns.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.13 21) ATP is NOT a nucleoside because it ________.

A) Has phosphate groups B) Has three phosphates instead of just one C) Lacks the deoxyribosyl group D) Is not connect to a carbohydrate group Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 5 .

22) Purines and pyrimidines exist in two tautomeric forms (lactam and lactim); nucleosides exist in two conformations (syn and anti). The most common forms found in cells are ________.

A) Lactam and anti B) Lactam and syn C) Lactim and anti D) Lactim and syn Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 23) In DNA, phosphodiester bonds form with hydroxyl groups of carbons number ________ and ________ of each deoxyribose sugar.

A) 2'; 3' B) 2'; 4' C) 3'; 4' D) 3'; 5' Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 24) Cells fed with 5-methyl uracil (radioactive in the methyl group) will form radioactive ________.

A) RNA B) DNA C) Ribosomes D) tRNA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 25) Deoxythymidine is a ________ found mainly in DNA. A) Nucleotide B) Deoxynucleotide C) Nucleoside D) Deoxynucleoside Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1

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26) The difference between dGMP and GMP is ________.

A) The type of phosphodiester linkage B) One hydroxyl group C) The syn versus anti conformation D) The presence of DNA or RNA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 27) Adenylate and AMP each contain ________ phosphate group(s).

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 28) The abbreviation dGp indicates ________.

A) 5' deoxyguanylate B) 3' deoxyguanylate C) 3', 5' deoxyguanylate D) 5', 3'deoxyguanylate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 29) The abbreviation pdAp indicates ________.

A) 5', 3' deoxyadenylate B) 3', 5' deoxyadenylate C) 5' deoxyadenylate D) 3' deoxyadenylate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 30) The abbreviation pppT indicates ________.

A) TMP B) TDP C) TTP D) 3, 5' TP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2

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31) According to Chargaff's observations of nucleotide composition of DNA samples ________.

A) % of (G + C) + % of (A + T) = 100% B) A = T C) G = C D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 32) Much of the stability of the double-stranded DNA structure is the result of ________.

A) Hydrogen bonding between purines B) The phosphodiester backbone C) The angle of the planes of the bases with respect to the helix axis D) The stacking interactions between base pair Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 33) How can mitochondrial DNA be distinguished from eukaryotic nuclear DNA? A) Mitochondrial DNA is in the Z conformation, nuclear DNA is in the B conformation.

B) Mitochondrial DNA is methylated, nuclear DNA is not.

C) Nuclear DNA is linear, mitochondrial DNA are circular.

D) They cannot be distinguished and must be clearly separate during purification.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 34) Protein X recognizes and binds to a particular (normal and undamaged) DNA sequence.

Which statement applies?

A) The protein can recognize the sequence by accessing the bases at the major or minor groove.

B) The protein can recognize sequence-dependent differences in the distance between the sugarphosphate backbones of the two strands.

C) The protein must have a cofactor to separate the DNA strands to access and recognize the sequence.

D) The protein must be dimeric to recognize the complementary sequences on each strand.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 35) Which is NOT true for the different conformations of DNA? A) Z-DNA is a left-handed spiral.

B) A-DNA and B-DNA are right-handed spirals.

C) A-DNA and Z-DNA segments are limited to short regions of DNA. D) Both A-DNA and B-DNA are dehydrated.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 8 .

36) In addition to knowing the chemical structures of the nucleotides, Watson and Crick used ________ of Franklin and Wilkins and the chemical equivalencies of Chargaff in order to propose their model of DNA structure.

A) Sequence information B) UV spectra C) % (G + C) and % (A + T) D) X-Ray diffraction data Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 37) In proteins, amino acids are linked by peptide bonds; in polynucleotides, nucleotides are linked by ________.

A) Phosphoanhydride bonds B) 3'-5'phosphodiester bonds C) 5'-3'phosphodiester bonds D) Phosphoester bonds Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 38) The tetra nucleotide AGTC (in DNA) has a free hydroxyl group on ________.

A) A B) A, G, T, and C C) C D) G, T, and C Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 39) "Five prime to three prime" description of a DNA strand refers to ________.

A) The phosphorylated 5' carbon at one end, the 3' at the other end B) The location of the hydroxyl groups C) The phosphodiester backbone of DNA D) The phosphorylated 5' carbon on one sugar and the 3' carbon on the next sugar Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1

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40) It is easier to melt DNA richer in AT than GC because ________.

A) It is more heat sensitive B) There is one less hydrogen bond in an AT base pair C) The helix pitch is longer in AT rich regions D) All of the above Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.2 41) For DNA, a plot of the change in absorbance versus temperature would be ________, which indicates ________.

A) Hyperbolic; a simple equilibrium between the native conformation and denatured DNA B) Linear; the breaking of bonds between the base pairs is an independent process C) Variable in shape (hyperbolic, linear or sigmoidal); the dependence of the denaturing process on the sequence of the DNA D) Sigmoidal; cooperativity where disruptions in the base stacking at one position destabilizes the stacking in neighboring base pairs Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 42) Changes in the topology and three-dimensional shape of B-DNA can result from ________.

A) Incubation with proteases B) Supercoiling C) Isomerization D) Hydration Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 43) Supercoiling of pure circular DNA is a result of ________.

A) Underwinding or overwinding of the helix B) Entanglements because of the long length of the strands C) The lack of associated histones D) The activity of exonucleases Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 44) What is the function of DNA topoisomerases?

A) Cleaving nucleotides from the ends of DNA B) Adding or removing supercoils C) Methylation of the nitrogenous bases D) Packaging of DNA into nucleosomes Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 10 .

45) Stem-loop is a type of secondary structure not usually found in ________.

A) rRNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) small RNA Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 46) Which type of RNA is the most abundant in living cells (by percent)?

A) Ribosomal B) Messenger C) Small D) Transfer Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3 47) Which is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA? A) The sugar ring of RNA is more oxidized than that in DNA. B) RNA contains uracil; DNA usually does not.

C) RNA cannot form helices.

D) RNA is usually single-stranded; DNA is double-stranded.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 48) Which type of RNA carries activated amino acids to the ribosome for assembly into proteins?

A) rRNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) sRNA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 49) Which is NOT a biological function of RNA? A) Participates in the modification of newly synthesized RNA. B) It is the genome of some viruses.

C) Serves as a scaffold component for chromosomes.

D) None of the above; all are functions of RNA. Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.3

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50) What is the order of packaging of chromatin in eukaryotic cells from smallest to largest size?

A) Double-helix → solenoid → nucleosome → chromosome B) Double-helix → chromatin → solenoid → chromosome C) Single-stranded DNA → chromatin → histones → chromosome D) Double-helix → nucleosomes → solenoid → chromosome Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.5 51) Which best describes the structure of a nucleosome core particle?

A) A histone octamer with DNA threaded through its center B) About 50 bp of DNA associated with one histone H1 molecule C) One nucleosome plus one histone H1 and linker DNA D) A histone octamer wrapped approximately two times around with DNA Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 52) ________ catalyze the hydrolysis of phosphodiester linkages to release nucleotide residues from only one end of a polynucleotide chain.

A) Topoisomerases B) Endonucleases C) Exonucleases D) Restriction enzymes Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 53) Bacteria produce many restriction endonucleases. What prevents these enzymes from degrading the host DNA? A) A bacterium will produce endonucleases that recognize sequences that are not present in its own DNA. B) The strong association between the histones and bacterial DNA prevent the endonucleases from acting on them.

C) The endonucleases are transported out of the cell so quickly they cannot significantly affect the host DNA. D) The host DNA is specifically methylated and is therefore protected from cleavage.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6

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54) Which recognition sequence is NOT a palindrome? (DNA sequences are shown in the standard 5'→ 3' direction) A) GGACCC B) TCTAGA C) AAGCTT D) AAATTT Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 55) The recognition site of some restriction enzymes are shown. Which will produce sticky ends?

A) EcoRI: G↓AATTC B) SmaI: CCC↓GGG C) XhoI: C↓TCGAG D) Both EcoRI and XhoI Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 56) Restriction endonucleases recognize specific DNA sequences by ________.

A) Contacting base pairs in the major groove B) Inserting amino acid side chains between the base pairs and interrupting the stacking interactions C) Hydrogen bonding with base pairs in the minor groove D) Detecting base pair-depended variations in the sugar-phosphate backbone Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6

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57) Examine the data given for a set of endonuclease digests of a 1000 bp DNA fragment. Then choose the restriction sites for Enzyme #2 on the restriction map shown. The restriction map displays all sites for both enzymes.

Digestion with Enzyme #1 produces fragments of 200 bp and 400 bp.

Digestion with Enzyme #2 produces fragments of 200 bp, 300 bp and 500 bp.

Simultaneous digestion with both enzymes yields fragments of 100 bp, 200 bp and 300bp.

A) Sites W and Y B) Sites X, Y and Z C) Sites X and Z D) Sites W and X Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.6 58) Two DNA sequences, each 48 kb in size, are treated with the same restriction enzyme. There is only one site for this restriction enzyme on each of these sequences. Digests are separated by gel electrophoresis. Sequence A shows ONE band that is 48 kb in size. Sequence B shows TWO bands, one 30 kb and the other 18 kb in size. What can you conclude from these data?

A) They are identical sequences.

B) Both sequences are linear.

C) Sequence A is circular; sequence B is linear.

D) Sequence A is linear; sequence B is circular.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 4.6 59) What is a restriction map?

A) The nucleotide sequence recognized by a particular restriction enzyme.

B) Diagram of a DNA molecule to show specific cleavage sites of endonucleases.

C) Table of enzymes that have a least one site in a species' DNA. D) A diagram of the compaction of DNA by packing into nucleosomes and solenoids.

E) A gel electrophoresis technique used for the purpose of DNA fingerprinting.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6

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60) Which enzyme would be least useful for recombination experiments that introduce new fragments of DNA into an existing DNA molecule?

A) EcoRI G↓AATTC B) SmaI CCC↓GGG C) XhoI C↓TCGAG D) All are equally useful.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.6 61) The genome of a species does NOT include the DNA in mitochondrial and ________ DNA. A) Bacterial B) Chloroplast C) Viral D) Ribosomal Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 62) ________ different bases are found in most DNA and RNA molecules.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 63) Uracil is found in most RNA, while ________ is found in most DNA. A) 3-methyluracil B) 3-methylguanosine C) 5-methylguanosine D) 5-methyluracil Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1 64) In any species, the ratio of the % (A + T) to the % (G + C) is ________.

A) The same B) 10% difference C) 50% different D) 100% different Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 4.1

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 5 Introduction to Proteins: The Primary Level of Protein Structure 1) Which of the following amino acids would most likely be found on the surface of a protein?

A) Aspartic acid B) Leucine C) Proline D) Valine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1 2) Protein biosynthesis uses only ________.

A) D-amino acids B) L-amino acids C) R-amino acids D) S-amino acids Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.1 3) All amino acids have a chiral α-carbon EXCEPT ________.

A) Proline B) Alanine C) Glycine D) Tryptophan Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.3 4) The side chain of ________ has a pKa in the physiological pH range and is therefore often involved in proton transfer during enzymatic catalysis.

A) Asp B) Glu C) Arg D) His Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.7

1 .

5) At physiological pH, the carboxylic acid group of an amino acid will be ________, while the amino group will be ________, yielding the zwitterion form.

A) deprotonated, protonated B) deprotonated, deprotonated C) protonated, deprotonated D) protonated, protonated Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.8 6) At pH=0, the net charge on a polypeptide will be ________.

A) Positive B) Zero C) Negative D) Not enough information to determine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.10 7) Which of the following modified amino acids is incorporated during translation rather than being modified post-translationally?

A) Phosphoserine B) Selenocysteine C) γ-carboxyglutamate D) N-ε-acetyllysine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.11 8) An amide bond between the α-carboxylic acid group of one amino acid and the α-amino group on another is called a ________.

A) Protein bond B) Noncovalent bond C) Peptide bond D) Phosphoester bond Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13

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9) The chemical ________ can cleave amide bonds on the C-terminal side of methionine residues.

A) Ethidium bromide B) Sodium bromide C) Calcium bromide D) Cyanogen bromide Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13 10) Which of the following is FALSE when considering the standard genetic code?

A) Three separate codons encode translation stop signals.

B) There are 64 possible codons to represent 20 common amino acids.

C) AUG serves as the translation start codon in most cases.

D) Each of the three stop codons can also encode rare modified amino acids.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 11) Which of the following statements about insulin is INCORRECT? A) In the active form it has two polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds.

B) It is synthesized as a random coil single chain on membrane-bound ribosomes.

C) The leader sequence is cleaved off after membrane transport.

D) The disulfide bonds form after the final proteolytic cleavage to yield mature insulin.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.17 12) Proteins have what charge on their carboxyl terminals at physiological pH? A) Zero B) Positive C) Negative D) Not enough information to determine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.7 13) Conservative amino acid changes never affect stability or function of a protein.

A) Always true B) Always false C) Sometimes true D) Sometimes false Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.18

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14) When referring to the amino acid sequences of proteins, sequence homology is the same as sequence similarity.

A) Always true B) Always false C) Sometimes true D) Sometimes false Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.18 15) Several homologous proteins can be aligned to provide a ________ sequence.

A) Constant B) Consistent C) Consensus D) Cordial Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.19 16) Recombinant proteins containing a ________ can be purified using immobilized metal affinity chromatography and eluted by the addition of imidazole in increasing concentrations.

A) GST-tag B) Biotin-tag C) Hexahistidine-tag D) Calcium-tag Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.20 17) Applications of mass spectrometry include ________.

A) Determination of the mass of a protein B) Determination of the secondary structure of proteins C) Detection of overall charge on intact proteins D) Determination of the tertiary structure of a protein Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.21 18) In size exclusion chromatography, which of the following proteins would be eluted last ________.

A) Protein of 8 kD B) Protein of 18 kD C) Protein of 28 kD D) Protein of 38 kD Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.21 4 .

19) ________ chromatography is used to separate proteins based on their surface charge.

A) Affinity B) Gel-filtration C) Size-exclusion D) Ion exchange Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.21 20) Amino acids are named that because each one ________.

A) Is a unique carboxylic acid B) Has a standard configuration C) Is a carboxyl derivative of an amide acid D) Is an amino derivative of a carboxylic acid Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2 21) If the R group of an amino acid is -CH3, then the name of this compound is ________.

A) 3-methyl amino acid B) 3-aminopropanoic acid C) Alanine D) Isoleucine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2 22) Amino acids with non-ionizable side chains are zwitterions when they are ________.

A) In any solution B) At physiological pH, pH = 7.4 C) In acidic solutions only D) In alkaline solutions only Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2 23) Glycine is NOT a stereoisomer because ________.

A) It has no chiral carbon B) It does not form enantiomers C) It does not exist in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.2

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24) An amino acid with two chiral carbon atoms ________.

A) Is unstable B) Can exist in 4 forms, all of which are superimposable C) Can form three possible stereoisomers D) Can form four possible stereoisomers Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5 25) At neutral pH, the net charge of serine is ________.

A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) None of the above Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5 26) The R group of an amino acid determines if it is ________.

A) Hydrophilic or hydrophobic B) Polar or nonpolar C) Charged or uncharged D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6 27) Proline is distinct among the 20 commonly found amino acids because ________.

A) It is a ring compound B) It is hydrophilic and ionic C) The nitrogen of the amino group is cyclized in a ring D) The carbon of the carboxyl group is cyclized in a ring Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5 28) Tyrosine and tryptophan are less hydrophobic than phenylalanine because ________.

A) Phenylalanine has an indole group B) Phenylalanine has no polar group in the side chain C) Phenylalanine is a phenol D) Tyrosine and tryptophan have smaller R groups Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5

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29) Alanine, valine, leucine and isoleucine are important in three dimensional structure because they ________.

A) Are branched B) Are highly hydrophobic C) Are highly hydrophilic D) Attract water molecules Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.5 30) Ultraviolet (UV) light can be used to estimate protein solution concentrations because ________.

A) Phenylalanine absorbs at 260 nm B) All the amino acids absorb UV light C) Aromatic amino acids absorb at 280 nm D) Tryptophan and tyrosine absorb at 280 nm Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.9 31) Concentrations of some proteins cannot be estimated by UV spectrophotometry because they are ________.

A) Low in glycine and valine B) Low in tryptophan and tyrosine C) Low in protein D) High in aromatic amino acids Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.10 32) The amino acids in polypeptide chains which contain sulfur (S) are ________.

A) Cysteine, lysine, and methionine B) Cysteine C) Methionine only D) Cysteine and methionine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.11

7 .

33) Disulfide bridges can form in proteins ________.

A) Only between cysteine residues side-by-side in the protein sequence B) Between cysteine residues that are close in three-dimensional space, but not necessarily close in the primary structure C) Between two cysteine residues in proteins D) Between any two methionine or cysteine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.11 34) The overall shape of a protein is greatly influenced by ________.

A) Amino acid R group properties B) Charged amino acids C) Hydrophobic amino acids D) pH Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13 35) Although the hydroxyl groups in serine and threonine are uncharged, they can react within active sites of some enzymes ________.

A) Precisely because they are uncharged B) Because the hydroxyl group is polar C) Because the hydroxyl group is small and fits into the site D) All of the above Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.12 36) Basic amino acids are ________ (positive, negative) at pH 7 and acidic R group amino acids are ________ (positive, negative) at pH 7.

A) Negative; positive B) Negative; negative C) Positive; negative D) Positive; positive Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.12

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37) Arginine is the most basic of the 20 amino acids because its side chain is ________ under most cell conditions.

A) Very highly charged B) Hydrophobic C) Titrated D) Protonated Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.12 38) Cysteine is likely to be isolated from proteins that are ________.

A) High in methionine B) In the cell nucleus C) Intracellular D) Extracellular Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.12 39) A protein that contains more isoleucine, phenylalanine and leucine than asparagine, lysine and arginine is most likely ________.

A) Hydrophilic B) Hydrophobic C) Neutral D) Low on the hydropathy index scale Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13 40) A sequence of amino acids with a relatively high hydropathy is very likely to function by ________.

A) Being at the active site of an enzyme B) Being embedded in a cell membrane C) Making a protein soluble D) Being on the protein surface Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13 41) Hydropathy is an important determination of protein-chain folding because ________.

A) It predicts accurately where charged amino acids will appear in a protein B) It describes a specific type of folding C) It distinguishes enzymes from structural proteins D) Hydrophobic R groups tend to cluster in the interior of proteins Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.15 9 .

42) A polypeptide chain may have abrupt changes in direction and restriction in geometry because of the presence of ________.

A) Arginine B) Glycine C) Proline D) Leucine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.15 43) Amino acids which are NOT incorporated into polypeptides are sometimes converted into ________.

A) Neurotransmitters B) Propyl donors C) Antineurotic D) Anti-blood flow regulators Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 44) Proteins can be modified by adding ________ to protein residues.

A) Sugars and phosphate groups B) Hydroxyl and formyl groups C) Cysteine D) A and B Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 45) At the isoelectric pH of an amino acid which has two pKa values the net charge is ________.

A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 0 D) -1 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16

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46) Histidine has pKa values of 1.8, 6.0 (R-group) and 9.3. At pH 8.0, the net charge on histidine is ________.

A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral (uncharged) D) Insufficient information to tell Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 47) Which amino acid is ideal for the transfer of protons within the catalytic site of enzymes due to the presence of significant amounts of both the protonated and deprotonated forms of its side chain at biological pH? A) Lysine B) Asparagine C) Tyrosine D) Histidine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 48) The pKa of arginine's α-Carboxyl group, α-Amino group and side chain are 1.8, 9.0 and 12.5, respectively. Calculate the isoelectric point.

A) 7.8 B) 7.2 C) 10.8 D) 5.4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.14 49) The pKa of isoleucine's α-Carboxyl group and α-Amino group are 2.3 and 9.8, respectively.

Calculate the isoelectric point.

A) 2.3 B) 6.0 C) 9.8 D) The isoelectric point cannot be calculated without the pKa value for the side chain.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.16

11 .

50) The pH inside cells is normally near pH 7. At pH 7 which statement is TRUE about the charges (ionization state) of the α-Carboxyl and α-Amino groups of an amino acid?

A) The α-Carboxyl group is 1- and the α-Amino group is 1+.

B) The α-Carboxyl group is 1+ and the α-Amino group is 1-.

C) The α-Carboxyl group is 1- and the α-Amino group is uncharged.

D) Both groups are uncharged (not ionized) at pH 7.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 51) Which structure below is appropriate for glycine at neutral pH? A) H2NCH2COOH B) H2NCH2COOC) +H3NCH2COOD) +H3NCH2COOH Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 52) The pKa of a certain weak acid is 4.0. Calculate the ratio of proton acceptor to proton donor at pH 7.0.

A) 1000:1 B) 20:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.16 53) The pKa of the side chain group and the α-carboxyl group of glutamate are 4.1 and 2.1, respectively. Which statement accounts for this difference?

A) The side chain has more possible resonance structures.

B) The α-carboxyl group has less steric hindrance and is therefore ionized more easily.

C) The side chain is a different functional group than the α-carboxyl group.

D) The α-carboxyl group is closer to the α-amino group than the side chain is.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.17

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54) How does the pKa values of an ionizable side chain compare when the amino acid is free versus when it is in a polypeptide chain?

A) The pKa of the side chain is independent of whether the amino acid is in a polypeptide chain or is free.

B) The pKa of the side chain is always lower for the free amino acid.

C) The pKa of the side chain may be lower or higher in a polypeptide chain due to weaker inductive effects and differences in their microenvironments.

D) The pKa of the side chain is usually higher in a polypeptide chain due to stabilization from nearby residues in the three-dimensional structure.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 55) The isoelectric point of alanine is pH = 6.15. It is mixed with proline (pHCOOH = 2.0; pHNH2 = 10.6), and the mixture is placed in an electric field at pH 6.15. Which statement is TRUE? A) The two amino acids will be separated.

B) The two amino acids will not be separated.

C) Neither amino acid will move in the electric field.

D) Both amino acids will move from the origin and be separated.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 56) An enzyme works well as a catalyst at a pH of 7.2. It is found that catalytic activity is significantly less at a pH of 8.4. What could likely cause the decrease in enzyme activity?

A) The protein has been degraded into its amino acids at pH 8.4.

B) The protein has changed shape due to a change in charge.

C) The protonation state of amino acids involved in the catalytic mechanism has not changed.

D) The protein has not changed shape due to a change in charge.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 57) According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, when the concentrations of proton acceptor and proton donor are the same, then ________.

A) The carboxylic acid is totally neutralized B) Only salt forms are present C) pH = pKa D) pKa = log[proton acceptor]/[proton donor] Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.3

13 .

58) For the amino acid lysine, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation can be applied to ________ ionization group(s).

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4 59) The primary structure of a protein specifically describes the ________.

A) Location of disulfide bonds B) Linear sequence of amino acids C) Overall three-dimensional shape D) Φ and Ψ angles for each amino acid Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.3 60) The peptide bond is which of the following?

A) An amide bond B) An ester bond C) An ether bond D) An amine bond Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.3 61) Which amino acids are linked in phenylalanylglycine?

A) Phenyline, alanine and glycine B) Phenol, alanine and glycine C) Phenylalanine and glycine D) Phenol, adenine and glycine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.4

14 .

62) Which shows a proper peptide bond?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6 63) What is the N-terminal for the pentapeptide Val-Ile-Glu-Arg-Tyr? A) The NH3+ group on the side chain of Arg B) Valine C) Tyrosine D) Tryptophan Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.6

15 .

64) What is the net charge on the tripeptide Gly-Arg-Lys at pH 7? The table below gives the pKa's of the ionizable groups on the free amino acids.

Free amino acid Glycine Arginine Lysine

pKa of pKa of α-Carboxyl group α-amino group 2.4 9.8 1.8 9.0 2.2 9.1

pKa of side chain --12.5 10.5

A) -1 B) 0 C) +1 D) +2 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.10 65) What is the net charge on the dipeptide Arg-Pro at pH 9.0? The table below gives the pKa's of the ionizable groups on the free amino acids.

Free amino acid Arginine Proline

pKa of pKa of α-Carboxyl group α-amino group 1.8 9.0 2.0 10.6

pKa of side chain 12.5 ---

A) -1 B) -0.5 C) 0 D) +0.5 E) +1 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 5.13 66) The ionic charges associated with a protein molecule are ________.

A) Mostly contributed by the side chains of constituent amino acids B) Determined by the contribution from the α-carboxyl group, α-amino group and side chain of every amino acid in the protein C) Contributed by only the N-terminal and C-terminal residues D) Independent of the amino acid composition and depend only on pH Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13

16 .

67) Which substance is used to fractionate proteins based on differences in their solubility as a function of salt concentration?

A) Cellophane B) Sodium dodecyl sulfate C) Phenylisothiocyanate D) Ammonium sulfate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.16 68) Ammonium sulfate is often used as a first step in protein purification because it ________.

A) Buffers solutions and protects the protein B) Precipitates many proteins C) Precipitates all proteins D) Hydrolyzes proteins into their constituent amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.13 69) Dialysis during protein purification is a process to ________.

A) Concentrate proteins B) Remove high molecular weight substances C) Dissolve insoluble proteins D) Remove low molecular weight solutes such as salts Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.14 70) The first treatment of a crude protein extract usually involves ________.

A) Electroplating of unwanted proteins B) Acidification followed by neutralization C) Fractionation with varying salt concentrations and centrifugation D) Treatment with a great number of proteases Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 5.14

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 6 The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins 1) In considering protein secondary structure which of the following is INCORRECT? A) An α helix repeats after 18 residues and has 3.6 residues per turn.

B) A network of main-chain hydrogen bonds connect β strands in a β sheet.

C) The most common structures are the α helix and the β sheet.

D) The 310 helix is right-handed and often contains proline residues.

E) The β strands can be in either parallel or antiparallel configuration.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) The amino acid side chain residues in an α helix point ________ away from the center of the helix.

A) Outward B) Inward C) Perpendicular D) Horizontally Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 3) ________ between amide protons and carbonyl oxygens is necessary to stabilize a regular folding of protein secondary structure.

A) Covalent bonding B) Electrostatic bonding C) Hydrogen bonding D) Organic bonding Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 4) A ________ plot describes which structures in a polypeptide are sterically possible and which are not based on the angles of rotation about the backbone Namide –Cα and Cα-Ccarbonyl bonds.

A) Richardson B) Ramachandran C) Rogers-Cromartie D) Roundabout Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3

1 .

5) Which of the following statements about α-keratins is FALSE? A) They include a major class of protein that comprises hair, fingernails and animal skin.

B) Individual molecules are α-helical.

C) There is a strip of contiguous hydrophobic surface making a shallow spiral around the helix.

D) Pairs of α-helices twist about each other in a coiled-coil structure held together entirely by hydrophobic interactions.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4 6) The protein that makes up about a third of the total protein mass in animals is ________.

A) β-keratin B) Collagen C) Hemoglobin D) Myoglobin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4 7) Fibroin is a β-sheet protein, with a high proportion of which amino acid ________.

A) Proline B) Glycine C) Alanine D) Leucine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4 8) Scurvy results in weakness in collagen fibers because the enzymes that catalyze ________ of proline and lysine residues in collagen require Vitamin C. A) Carboxylation B) Hydration C) Hydroxylation D) Carbonylation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.4 9) Which of the following is CORRECT when considering the tertiary structure of globular proteins?

A) β sheets are usually twisted or wrapped into barrel structures.

B) Hydrophobic residues are normally on the inside and hydrophilic residues are on the outside.

C) The amino acid proline never occurs in a region where the polypeptide chain bends or turns.

D) All parts of the proteins can be classified as helix, β sheet or turns.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.6 2 .

10) Proteins cannot self-assemble into a functional conformation after they have been denatured.

A) True B) False C) Not enough information to determine D) Proteins are permanently denatured.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.6 11) Protein folding is a random process, whereby a vast number of possible conformations are tested to find the desired most stable state.

A) True B) False C) Not enough information to determine D) Protein folding is completely random.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.7 12) The folded conformation of proteins can be stabilized by the binding of a ________ or ________.

A) DNA, RNA B) carbon ion, metal ion C) carbon ion, cofactor D) metal ion, cofactor Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.9 13) The interactions that stabilize multi-subunit complexes are different to those that stabilize tertiary structure.

A) True B) False C) Not enough information to determine D) No energy is required for stabilization of tertiary structure.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.9

3 .

14) Protein folding is a thermodynamically favorable process under physiological conditions because ________.

A) There is an increase in entropy associated with protein folding B) There is a decrease in entropy of the solvent by burying hydrophobic groups within the molecule C) Of the large negative enthalpy change associated with many noncovalent interactions D) No intermediate stage disulfide bonds form during the folding process Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.10 15) The cavity in the GroEL-GroES complex from E. coli provides a favorable environment that prevents ________ and misfolding.

A) Association B) Aggregation C) Aggrandizement D) Assimilation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.11 16) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an infectious disease caused by a prion protein, which undergoes a ________ change to become pathogenic.

A) Sequential B) Thermal C) Conformational D) Chemical Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.12 17) Proteins have an asymmetrical tertiary structure, while multi-subunit proteins can exhibit several types of symmetry.

A) True B) False C) Not enough information to determine D) Multi-subunit will have single symmetry Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.14

4 .

18) The functional organization of proteins where specific complexes of two or more polypeptides are formed is called ________ structure.

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.14 19) Which technique is able to investigate secondary structural features of proteins?

A) Mass spectroscopy B) Isothermal titration calorimetry C) SDS-PAGE D) Circular dichroism Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.15 20) ________ method can be used to study dynamic processes in solution.

A) X-Ray crystallography B) Circular dichroism spectroscopy C) Nuclear magnetic resonance D) UV-Vis Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.15 21) SDS gel electrophoresis can be used to determine ________.

A) Whether subunits in a protein complex are identical or not B) The molecular mass of a native protein complex C) The overall charge on a polypeptide D) The molecular mass of denatured protein subunits Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.18 22) Proteomics is ________.

A) The study of large sets of proteins, such as the entire complement of proteins produced by a cell B) The manipulation of protein sequences to develop new proteins C) The copying of proteins to generate a lot of molecules from a small sample D) The specific study of the energy costs for protein synthesis Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 5 .

23) A change from one conformation of a molecule to another, involves ________.

A) Rotation about bonds only B) Breaking and reforming of covalent bonds C) Inversion about a center of symmetry D) Nucleophilic substitution Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 24) The ________ is the single shape that a protein adopts under physiological conditions.

A) Minimal configuration B) Native conformation C) Primary structure D) Most stable enantiomer Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 25) Structural proteins that typically assemble into large cables or threads, to provide mechanical support to cells or organisms are classified as ________ proteins.

A) Fibrous B) Enzyme C) Globular D) β-strand Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 26) To what level of structure do α-helices belong?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1

6 .

27) Which statement is FALSE about a globular protein that performs its biological function as a single independent polypeptide chain?

A) Its tertiary structure is likely stabilized by the interactions of amino acid side chains in nonneighboring regions of the polypeptide chain.

B) It could contain α-helices that are stabilized by hydrogen bonding.

C) It likely has extensive quaternary structure to maintain its globular shape.

D) Non-covalent forces are the primary source of stability for the secondary and tertiary structure.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.1 28) What does it mean when it is said that a protein is oligomeric?

A) In vivo it establishes an equilibrium between two or more active conformations.

B) It has more than fifty amino acids.

C) The active protein involves the association of two or more polypeptide chains.

D) The protein has multiple α-helices.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.2 29) Computers are used to advance the understanding of three-dimensional protein structure by ________.

A) Determining the specific sequence of amino acids B) Finding repeating subunit patterns C) Calculating atomic positions from X-ray diffraction patterns D) Collimating X-ray beams Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.2 30) Which technique is commonly used to determine the three-dimensional conformation of a protein?

A) Isoelectric focusing B) The Edman degradation C) SDS-PAGE D) X-ray crystallography Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3

7 .

31) Which statement is FALSE for the determination of protein structures?

A) NMR can generate sets of structures which may represent protein fluctuations.

B) The structures found by NMR and X-ray crystallography are usually very different.

C) It is often difficult to produce quality protein crystals for X-ray analysis.

D) NMR spectroscopy exposes protein solutions to a magnetic field.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3 32) ________ is a technique used to analyze the macromolecular structure of proteins in solution.

A) X-ray crystallography B) SDS-PAGE C) Affinity chromatography D) NMR Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3 33) NMR is often used for the determination of the ________ of proteins.

A) Molecular weight B) Isoelectric point C) Tertiary structure D) pKa Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3 34) Which of these statements is evidence for structures for proteins determined by X-ray crystallography represent the structures in solution?

A) Their similarity to structures determined by NMR. B) The protein crystals are soluble in water.

C) The proteins must align in a regular pattern to form a crystal.

D) Only one conformation is ever possible for a protein so it is irrelevant whether the protein is in a crystal or in solution.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3

8 .

35) Which statement is NOT true about a peptide bond?

A) The peptide bond has partial double-bond character.

B) The peptide bond is longer than the typical carbon-nitrogen bond.

C) Rotation is restricted about the peptide bond.

D) The carbonyl oxygen and the amide hydrogen are most often in a trans configuration with respect to one another.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.3 36) In peptide bonds, the bonds between ________.

A) C and N are shorter than typical C-N bonds B) C and N are longer than typical C-N bonds C) C and O are shorter than typical C=O bonds D) C and O are longer than typical C=O bonds Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.7 37) Nearly all peptide bonds are in the trans configuration because ________.

A) cis peptide bonds are weaker B) trans peptide bonds are stronger C) cis peptide bonds prevent R groups from interacting D) trans peptide bonds minimize steric hindrance of R groups Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.7 38) Which represents the backbone of a protein?

Note: R = amino acid side chain N = nitrogen Cα = alpha carbon C = carbonyl carbon A) R1R2R3R4R5 B) Repeating units of N-C C) Repeating units of N-Cα-C D) Repeating units of Cα-C Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.10

9 .

39) What is TRUE about the rotation of bonds in a protein backbone?

A) The rotation is free about all bonds in the backbone, except for the bond between the nitrogen and the alpha carbon in proline residues.

B) The bond between the carbonyl carbon and nitrogen is restricted. Other bonds are free to rotate depending only on steric hindrance or the presence of proline residues.

C) All bonds in the backbone have restricted rotation and partial double-bond character.

D) The rotation is free only about the peptide bond. The other bonds are restricted by steric hindrance and the presence of proline residues.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.10 40) The trans configuration of most peptide groups is adopted in cells because it ________.

A) Is the only one available B) Minimizes steric hindrance of R groups C) Is favored in protein synthesis D) Both B and C Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.10 41) Enzymes implicated in several human hereditary diseases are similar to ones that regulate flowering in Arabidopsis. These enzymes are ________.

A) Peptidyl cis isomerases B) Proline isomerase C) Prolyl cis/trans isomerase D) Isomerase hydrolase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.12 42) The conformation of the backbone of a polypeptide is described completely by the angle(s) of rotation about which bond(s)?

A) The peptide bond only B) N-Cα only C) N-Cα, Cα-C and C-N bonds D) N-Cα and Cα-C bonds only Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.12

10 .

43) What feature does a Ramachandran plot display?

A) Allowed angles of phi and psi for a polypeptide backbone B) Preferred amino acids in an α-helix C) The hydropathy of amino acids D) The variation of pH versus volume of base added during titration to determine the pKa Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.15 44) Ramachandran determined the "allowed" values of the phi and psi angles primarily by considering ________.

A) pKa values of the amino acids B) The hydropathy of amino acids C) Steric hindrance D) Hydrogen bonding effects Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.15 45) The distance along a helix axis for one complete turn is called the ________.

A) Axial distance B) Rise C) Screw length D) Pitch Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 46) The amino acid that destabilizes alpha-helical structures and is usually found at the ends of alpha helices is ________.

A) Glycine B) Alanine C) Asparagine D) Glutamate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 47) Proline is NOT often found in α-helices of proteins because it ________.

A) Has a small, uncharged side chain B) Has a very bulky side chain C) Lacks a hydrogen atom on its amide nitrogen D) Interacts with adjacent amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 11 .

48) Which structure below indicates the proper hydrogen-bonding pattern between amino acids in an α-helix? (Dashed lines represent the hydrogen bonds.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 49) Which statement is NOT true about an α-helix?

A) It is usually right-handed.

B) It is a type of secondary structure.

C) It frequently contains proline residues.

D) It is stabilized by hydrogen bonding.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16

12 .

50) Which statement is TRUE about the side chains of residues in an α-helix?

A) They extend above or below the pleats.

B) They extend radially outward from the helix axis.

C) They point toward the center of the helix.

D) They hydrogen bond extensively with each other.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 51) What would be expected for the formation of an α-helix, for a segment of a protein chain that contains lysine approximately every fourth residue with all other residues being mostly hydrophobic?

A) Helix formation would be favored at low pH. B) Helix formation would be favored at high pH. C) Helix formation would be favored at neutral pH. D) Helix formation would never occur regardless of pH. Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 52) A helical wheel can be used to show ________.

A) The pitch of a helix structure B) The amphipathic nature of a helix C) DNA binding D) Pleated sheets Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.15 53) Which of these statements is NOT true about β-sheets?

A) The side-chains of all amino acids point to the same side of the sheet.

B) The polypeptide chains in the sheet are nearly fully extended.

C) The range of allowed phi and psi angles is broader than for those in the α-helix.

D) In antiparallel sheets the hydrogen bonds between adjacent strands are nearly perpendicular to the backbones of the strands.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 54) Proteins with alpha helix regions called leucine zippers are ________.

A) Often not found in DNA binding proteins B) Strictly hydrophilic helices C) Part of pairs of helices that are wrapped around each other D) Do not contain leucine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 13 .

55) A β-sandwich forms when ________.

A) Two hydrophobic sides of β-sheets interact B) Two hydrophilic sides of β-sheets interact C) A α-helix separates two β-sheets D) Two amphipathic α-helices interact Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 56) Loops and turns in proteins are ________.

A) Regions that let a polypeptide chain extend out B) Stretches of non-repeating three dimensional structures in proteins C) Regions that inhibit direction change in the polypeptide backbone D) Comprised of helices and β-sheets Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 57) Primary structure of proteins is dictated by its ________.

A) Polypeptide sequence B) Bringing amino acids far apart in primary structure close together C) Stabilizing protein structure by non-covalent interaction D) Disulfide bridges Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 58) Super secondary structures that contain recognizable combinations of α-helices, β-strands and loops (e.g. the Greek Key) are called ________.

A) Domains B) Folds C) Homologous regions D) Motifs Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 59) How many monomers are there in an oligomeric protein designated αβ2γ2?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 6.17

14 .

60) The principle force holding the subunits of an oligomeric protein to each other are ________.

A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrophobic interactions C) Covalent bonds D) Disulfide bonds Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.17 61) Which factor does NOT help to explain why many proteins exhibit quaternary structure?

A) Oligomers are usually more stable than the free monomers.

B) Active sites can be formed when the protein chains associate.

C) The subunits always are able to maintain the same three-dimensional structure whether they are associated into an oligomer or not.

D) Increased efficiency by the sharing of the same subunit with the same function among different proteins.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.17 62) Protein subunits in a multi-subunit protein are held to each other primarily by ________.

A) Covalent bonds B) Hydrophobic interactions exclusively C) Both strong and weak interactions D) Hydrophobic and other weak interactions Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.7 63) A tetrameric protein contains ________.

A) four different subunits B) four identical subunits C) three subunits and one prosthetic group D) A or B only Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.7 64) Which is NOT an example of an oligomeric protein?

A) Cytochrome c B) Potassium channel protein C) MS2 capsid protein D) Hemoglobin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.17 15 .

65) ________ is used to estimate the molecular weight of oligomeric proteins, while ________ is used to determine molecular weight of each chain.

A) Melting point; SDS-gel electrophoresis B) SDS-gel electrophoresis; gel-filtration chromatography C) Acrylamide gel electrophoresis; isoelectric focusing D) Gel-filtration chromatography; SDS-gel electrophoresis Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.14 66) Many proteins have multiple subunits because ________.

A) An active site is shared by only 1 subunit B) They are less stable and less flexible in movement C) Different combinations can perform different functions D) Different combinations only perform the same function Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.17 67) Which statement demonstrates that the primary structure of a protein determines its tertiary structure?

A) How the disulfide bonds hold it in the correct shape.

B) Proteins can refold even when the amino acid sequence is changed.

C) Proteins refold when the amino acid sequence is the same as in the native conformation.

D) Chaotropic agents cannot denature the native conformation.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 68) Protein X can bind to either protein A or protein B to form a complex. The association constants are 108.0M-1 (X with A) and 106.0M-1 (X with B). Which statement is TRUE? A) In the presence of excess X, it takes fewer molecules of A than B to generate a given amount of complex.

B) The dissociation constant of the complex XA is higher than that of complex XB. C) B must be a larger protein than A. D) The values of the association constants indicate that both complexes XA and XB are very unstable in small cells like E. coli.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.17

16 .

69) Which statement is TRUE about disulfide bonds and protein folding?

A) Disulfide bonds have no influence on protein folding since they only form after the protein adopts its native conformation.

B) Proteins occasionally adopt non-native conformations and form improper disulfide bonds that can be reversed by the enzyme protein disulfide isomerase.

C) The folding of the native conformation is influenced more strongly by the formation of disulfide bonds than by the primary structure of a protein.

D) If a protein forms an improper disulfide bond it is irreversibly inactivated and must be targeted by the cell for degradation.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.16 70) The Tm of a protein is temperature at which it ________.

A) Is completely denatured B) Liquefies C) Is half denatured D) Resists denaturation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 6.14

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 7 Protein Function and Evolution 1) Which of the following is NOT true of immunoglobulin molecules?

A) They consist of four polypeptide chains held together by disulfide bridges.

B) They have two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains.

C) Antigenic determinants reside only in the variable region of the light chains.

D) Proteolytic cleavage can generate fragments containing the antigen-binding site.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5 2) The immunoglobulin domain is a stable scaffold containing two antiparallel β- sheets upon which to display loops that are ________.

A) Hypervariable B) Hyperbolic C) Hyperbaric D) Hyperlistic Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5 3) The specific interaction between an antibody and antigen occurs by virtue of both shape and ________ complementarity.

A) Size B) Binding affinity C) Structure D) Charge Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5 4) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Myoglobin is a single polypeptide chain folded about a heme prosthetic group.

B) Hemoglobin is a tetramer, each of which binds a heme group.

C) In both hemoglobin and myoglobin, iron is chelated by a tetrapyrole ring system.

D) The iron in both hemoglobin and myoglobin has two coordination sites that bind to oxygen.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12

1 .

5) Cooperative binding to oxygen occurs for ________.

A) Myoglobin B) Hemoglobin C) Both D) Neither Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12 6) The conserved residues in the hemoglobins and myoglobins include the ________ proximal and distal to the heme iron.

A) Lysine B) Arginine C) Histidine D) Alanine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 7) The ________ binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is facilitated by changes in protein conformation upon oxygen binding to one subunit that affect the binding of oxygen to another subunit.

A) Sequential B) Concerted C) Non-cooperative D) Cooperative Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 8) Which of the following observations helps to explain the conformational changes that occur in hemoglobin upon binding to oxygen?

A) The four heme groups are positioned close to the surface of the molecule.

B) An αβ dimer rotates and slides with respect to the other dimer upon binding oxygen.

C) Both the heme and the iron ion in the deoxy conformation are in a planar conformation.

D) All of the above Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12

2 .

9) Fetal hemoglobin has a(n) ________ affinity for oxygen than does maternal hemoglobin because it has a higher affinity for the allosteric regulator 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate.

A) Higher B) Lower C) Equal D) No Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12 10) The production of carbon dioxide during respiration in aerobic tissues lowers the pH in erythrocytes, which in turn ________ the affinity of oxygen binding to hemoglobin.

A) Decreases B) Increases C) Equilibrates D) None of the above Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12 11) Comparison of globin sequences from many different species suggests that myoglobin and hemoglobin have evolved from a single myoglobin-like ________.

A) Protein B) Nucleic acid C) peptide D) None of the above Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12 12) The sickle cell mutation causes oxyhemoglobin molecules to ________ due to hydrophobic interactions because a glutamate residue is replaced with a valine.

A) Dissociate B) Ionize C) Aggregate D) Dissolve Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.14

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13) Which of the following statements about muscle contraction is TRUE? A) ATP hydrolysis releases myosin from actin.

B) ATP hydrolysis results in strong binding of myosin to actin.

C) ATP hydrolysis causes a conformational change in the myosin head.

D) Muscle contraction occurs as ATP is hydrolyzed.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.15 14) The heavy chain of the muscle form of myosin ________.

A) Forms a coiled-coil structure with a globular head domain B) Contains the motor domain within the C-terminal region C) Is a complex of 540 kDa D) Binds ATP near the C-termini Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.16 15) The A band of skeletal muscle is formed by noncovalent cross-bridges between the thin filaments that are mainly ________ and the thick filaments that are mainly ________.

A) Elastin, myosin B) Elastin, actin C) Actin, myosin D) Myosin, elastin Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.17 16) The most critical substance in stimulating muscle contraction is ________.

A) ATP B) Ca2+ C) Tropomyosin D) Troponin C Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12 17) Calcium regulates muscle contraction by binding to ________.

A) Actin B) Myosin C) Tropomyosin D) Troponin C Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12

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18) The concentration of which ion in the myoplasm can increase as much as 10,000 fold in response to a motor nerve impulse?

A) Mg2+ B) Mn2+ C) Ca2+ D) Zn2+ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.17 19) Which of the following can be used to purify proteins?

A) Antibodies B) Fatty acids C) Lipids D) Activity assays Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1 20) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, western blotting and immunofluorescent light microscopy all make use of the specific interaction between an antigen and a(n) ________.

A) Ganglioside B) Antibody C) Non-antigen D) Second messenger Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.1 21) The shape of the myoglobin binding curve that shows that it is NOT regulated allosterically is ________.

A) Gaussian B) Sigmoidal C) Hyperbolic D) Linear Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 22) The organic portion of the heme group in hemoglobin is known as ________.

A) Porin B) Proline C) Protozoa D) Protoporphyrin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 5 .

23) The chemical form in which most of the CO2 is transported in the blood is ________.

A) Phosphate ion B) Bicarbonate ion C) Carbonate ion D) Carbonic ion Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 24) The substance produced when CO2 reacts with water is ________.

A) Bicarbonate B) Carbonate C) Carbonic acid D) Hydrochloride Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 25) Which of these immune cells help in the secondary immune response to a same antigen already encountered by the immune system?

A) Complement system B) MHC C) Memory cells D) Effector cells Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2 26) In lupus erythematosus which of these is the target for invoking the autoimmune response?

A) T cell B) Nucleic acid C) Hemoglobin D) Peptide Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.2 27) Which of these immunoglobulins is the most abundant circulating antibodies?

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgD D) IgM Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.3 (Table 7.1) 6 .

28) Which if these is the largest immunoglobulin?

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgD D) IgM Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.3 (Table 7.1) 29) How many Fab fragments can be produced from proteolytic cleavage of a single IgG molecule?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.3 30) The hypervariable loops on the antibody that determine the binding to its antigen is called ________.

A) Variable region B) Constant region C) Complementarity determining regions D) Leucine region Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4 31) How many different antibodies can be produced by human immune system?

A) 10,000 B) 1,000000 C) 10,000000 D) 10,000000000 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.4 32) What protein is released by cytotoxic T cells by binding to foreign antigen displayed by MHC? A) Excretins B) Inteins C) Perforins D) Porins Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.5 7 .

33) Which immune cells is virulent to HIV? A) B cells B) T cells C) Competent cells D) MHC Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.6 34) Which of these antibody based molecules is used as a hybrid drug for cancer treatment?

A) Immunoadjuvant B) Immunoconjugates C) Immunopeptide D) Immunomitogen Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.7 35) Which of these cytotoxic agent is linked with antibody for treatment of cancer?

A) Doxorubicin B) Mercaptoethanol C) Azide D) Cyanide Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.7 36) Which of these molecules acts as O2 reserve for the tissue energy needs?

A) Hemoglobin B) Globin C) Myoglobin D) Nephroglobin Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.8 37) Which of these molecules alters the oxygen affinity to hemoglobins?

A) Inhibitor B) Activator C) Allosteric regulator D) Affinity modulator Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.8

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38) The peptide portion of any protein without its prosthetic group is called ________.

A) Apoprotein B) Euprotein C) Holoprotein D) Preprotein Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9 39) The peptide portion of any protein with its prosthetic group is called ________.

A) Apoprotein B) Euprotein C) Holoprotein D) Preprotein Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9 40) The iron ions are chelated by which complex of the myoglobin and hemoglobin family?

A) Protoporphyrin IX B) Protoporphyrin X C) Protoporphyrin XI D) Protoporphyrin IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9 41) Which histidine residue from the F helix binds the oxygen atom in the myoglobins?

A) 91 B) 92 C) 93 D) 94 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9 42) Histidine 64 of the ________ helix in the myoglobin chain binds the oxygen atom.

A) A B) B C) E D) H Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9

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43) Which histidine helps in promoting the O2 binding to myoglobin over other ligands?

A) Proximal B) Distal C) Dorsal D) Ventral Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9 44) Which of the molecule(s) below do NOT bind to the myoglobin and hemoglobin?

A) O2 B) CO2 C) CO D) NO Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.9 45) Which of these is NOT a model for the allosteric change in hemoglobin?

A) Sequential model B) MWC model C) Multistate model D) Static model Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.10 46) Which of these states of hemoglobin represents the high affinity binding O2 conformation of the hemoglobin?

A) T state B) R state C) B state D) D state Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.10 47) Which of these states of hemoglobin represents the low affinity binding O2 conformation of the hemoglobin?

A) T state B) R state C) B state D) D state Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.10 10 .

48) Which of these represents a hemoglobin molecule?

A) αρψβ B) α2βµ C) α2β2 D) αλµψ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.10 49) Which of these molecules can act as a proximal histidine to bind oxygen in globin proteins?

A) Imidazole B) Cyanide C) Pyrrole D) Lactose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.10 50) According to Perutz, the movement of which helix upon O2 allows the cooperative function of hemoglobin?

A) A B) C C) E D) F Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.10 51) Which of these parts of hemoglobin acts as an active site?

A) Heme pocket B) A helix C) E helix D) H helix Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 52) Binding of O2 to hemoglobin acts as a ________ effector.

A) Homotropic B) Heterotropic C) Cis D) Trans Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11

11 .

53) Which of these molecules is NOT a negative heterotropic effector for hemoglobin?

A) H+ B) CO2 C) ClD) O2 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 54) What enzyme facilitates the bicarbonate reaction in the erythrocytes?

A) Carbonic hydrase B) Carbonic anhydrase C) Carboxylate reductase D) Bicarbonate oxidase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 55) CO2 binds to hemoglobin in the form of ________.

A) Carbamate B) Carboxylate C) Ketol D) Aldol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 56) Which of these molecules in birds has a similar effect of 2,3-BPG on the O2 binding to hemoglobin?

A) Inositol triphosphate B) Inositol tetraphosphate C) Inositol pentaphosphate D) Inositol hexaphosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.11 57) Which of these represents the non-coding regions in a gene?

A) Introns B) Exons C) Mesons D) Codon Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.12

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58) Which of these mutations represents the synonymous mutation?

A) Val-His B) Val-Val C) Val-Arg D) Val-Leu Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.13 59) The nucleotide substitution that results in the change for the coding of one amino acid to another is called ________ mutation.

A) Silent B) Missense C) Non-synonymous D) Both B and C Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.13 60) Adding of a premature stop codon by nucleotide substitution is called ________ mutation.

A) Silent B) Missense C) Nonsense D) Frameshift Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.13 61) Proteins related by a common evolutionary origin are called ________.

A) Paralogs B) Orthologs C) Homologs D) Heterologs Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.13 62) What part of myosin II binds to the actin thin filaments of the muscle sarcomere?

A) Myosin subfragment 1 B) Myosin subfragment 2 C) Essential light chain D) Light meromyosin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.16

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63) What type of myosin aids in cell division of plant cells?

A) I B) II C) VIII D) XV Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.16 64) The region of sarcomere where the myosin thick filaments are anchored is called the ________.

A) A band B) M band C) I band D) Z disk Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.17 65) The region of sarcomere where the actin thin filaments are anchored is called the ________.

A) A band B) M band C) I band D) Z disk Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.17 66) Which chemical action results in the cocking of the myosin headpiece during muscle contraction?

A) Binding of ATP B) Hydrolysis of ATP C) Release of ADP D) Release of Pi Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.18 67) Which chemical phenomenon allows the strong binding of myosin heads to actin thin filaments?

A) Binding of ATP B) Hydrolysis of ATP C) Release of ADP D) Release of Pi Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.18 14 .

68) What invaginations of the plasma membrane allow the transport of calcium ions through sarcoplasmic reticulum to the muscle sarcomere?

A) Distal tubules B) Transverse tubules C) Ventral tubules D) Proximal tubules Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.18 69) The lumen of sarcoplasmic reticulum holds ________ folds higher concentration of calcium to facilitate muscle contraction.

A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10000 D) 100000 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.18 70) Upon calcium binding the troponin-tropomyosin complex moves tropomyosin approximately ________ angstroms closer to the central groove of F-actin helix.

A) 1 B) 10 C) 20 D) 50 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 7.18

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 8 Enzymes: Biological Catalysts 1) Which of the following statement is FALSE? A) The free energy barrier in a chemical reaction must be overcome in order for products to form.

B) An increase in temperature can result in an increased reaction rate.

C) Lowering the free energy of the transition state can increase a reaction rate.

D) At a given temperature and time all molecules in a solution or a sample will have the same energy.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) In a favorable reaction, the free energy of the products is ________ the free energy of the reactants.

A) Greater than B) Less than C) Same as D) Has no bearing on Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1 3) Catalysts affect the ________ of a chemical reaction.

A) Energy of product formation B) Energy of substrate formation C) Energy of activation to the transition state D) Thermodynamics Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.1 4) Pyruvate carboxylase is an example of the ________ class of enzymes.

A) Ligase B) Lyase C) Ligandase D) Digestive GTPase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2

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5) In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the lifetime of the transition state is similar to the ________ frequencies of covalent bonds.

A) Rotational B) Transitional C) Vibrational D) Sequential Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.2 6) A second-order reaction ________.

A) Occurs when one substrate is converted into one product B) Is characterized by two molecules coming together to form a product C) Is the rate-limiting step of a reaction D) Has a rate constant with units of (time)-1 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3 7) The equilibrium constant for a first-order ________ reaction is equivalent to the ratio of the rate constant for the forward and reverse reactions.

A) Constant B) Reversible C) Irreversible D) Non-stable Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.3 8) Enzymes can accelerate reactions by ________.

A) Binding a substrate or substrates B) Preventing the removal or addition of protons C) Positioning a metal ion to bind only to the substrate D) Raising the energy for activation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 9) The equilibrium state of a biochemical reaction is approached ________ in the presence of a catalyst.

A) More slowly B) At the same rate C) Not at all D) More rapidly Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 2 .

10) The lock and key model of substrate binding and enzymatic catalysis explains ________.

A) The release of product B) Substrate specificity C) Formation of a transition state D) The catalytic mechanism Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.5 11) Which of the following amino acid residues are often involved in proton transfers in enzymecatalyzed reactions?

A) Histidine, aspartate, serine, and cysteine B) Serine, tyrosine, arginine, and cysteine C) Glutamine, asparagine, lysine, and tyrosine D) Histidine, aspartate, glutamate, arginine, and lysine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.5 12) The ________ hypothesis suggests that an enzyme can induce distortion of the substrate or the substrate can induce conformational changes in the enzyme that stabilize the transition state.

A) Concerted fit B) Sequential fit C) Induced fit D) Lock and key fit Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.5 13) The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex tends to be thermodynamically favorable due to ________ interactions between the substrate and enzyme.

A) Covalent B) Carbon-based C) Non-covalent D) Nominal Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.5

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14) Which of the following statements about the proposed mechanisms for action of hen egg white lysozyme does NOT support either model?

A) Glycosidic bond cleavage occurs by general acid/base catalysis.

B) A covalent intermediate is formed between an active site aspartate and C1 of the substrate.

C) A water molecule is deprotonated, which then attacks C1 of the substrate.

D) The active site aspartic acid changes between being protonated and deprotonated.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 15) Serine proteases make use of ________ catalysis as well as ________ stability of the transition state to achieve rate enhancement.

A) Non-covalent, hydrogen-bonding B) Non-covalent, electrostatic C) Covalent, electrostatic D) Covalent, hydrogen-bonding Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 16) A common feature of serine proteases is the catalytic triad consisting of a nucleophile, a general base and an acid. In chymotrypsin these amino acid residues are ________, ________, and ________ respectively.

A) Ser, His, Asp B) Ser, Arg, Glu C) Thr, His, Asp D) Ser, His, Glu Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 17) The cofactor NAD+ is ________.

A) A reductant B) An oxidant C) Oxidized to NADH/H+ in dehydrogenase reactions D) Able to accept 2 electrons and 2 protons Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8

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18) Which of the following aid in enzyme catalysis but are NOT part of the protein itself?

A) Cofactors B) Spectroscopy C) Titration agents D) Amino acid analysis Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 19) Which of the following statements applies to metalloenzymes?

A) Some metal ions assist in ATP binding.

B) Amino acid residues in the enzyme are never covalently linked to the metal ion.

C) The metal does not bind at the catalytic site.

D) Many are kinases.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.9 20) ________ ions are often required for catalytic efficiency but they may not remain permanently bound to the protein or take part in the catalytic process.

A) Carbon B) Metal C) Hydrogen D) Oxygen Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.9 21) Which of the following statements BEST describes the Michaelis-Menten constant Km? A) It is numerically equal to the affinity between the enzyme and its substrate.

B) It is numerically equal to the substrate concentration required to reach half maximal velocity for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

C) It is a measure of the rate of a catalytic process.

D) It is a measure of enzyme efficiency.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 22) A mutation causing an amino acid change in an enzyme that affects the turnover number kcat will also affect the ________ as well.

A) Substrate concentration B) Km C) Total enzyme concentration D) Vmax Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 5 .

23) A Lineweaver-Burk plot can be used to determine ________ using initial-rate data for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

A) Kcat B) Km C) Ksat D) Keq Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 24) A graph of initial velocity vs substrate concentration will be ________ for an enzyme that obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics.

A) Straight B) Sigmoidal C) Hyperbolic D) Gaussian Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 25) Random substrate binding, ordered substrate binding and the ping-pong mechanism are all features of ________ enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

A) Multi-subunit B) Multi-coenzyme C) Multi-ordered D) Multi-substrate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 26) Which of the following statements about inhibitors of enzyme-catalyzed reactions is TRUE? A) An uncompetitive inhibitor typically affects Km but not kcat.

B) A competitive inhibitor does not affect Vmax.

C) An uncompetitive inhibitor will always bind at the active site.

D) A competitive inhibitor binds irreversibly to the enzyme at the active site.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6

6 .

27) A reversible ________ inhibitor is one that binds to the active site of an enzyme but cannot undergo the chemical conversion step of the reaction.

A) Non-competitive B) Competitive C) Uncompetitive D) Mixed-competitive Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 28) Which of the following is NOT a feature of substrate-level enzyme regulation?

A) A high substrate concentration will speed up the rate of reaction.

B) A high product concentration will slow the rate of reaction.

C) The product can be a competitor.

D) It is sufficient for regulation of most enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 29) Irreversible enzyme inhibitors bind ________ to the enzyme.

A) Reversibly B) Covalently C) Non-covalently D) Minimally Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 30) Feedback regulation of a metabolic pathway can either be activation or ________.

A) Stimulation B) Inhibition C) Covalent catalysis D) Catalytic site activation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 31) Which of the following is NOT a feature of allosteric regulation of enzyme activity?

A) Ligand binding does not cause a conformation change in the enzyme.

B) Allosteric enzymes often have multiple active sites.

C) Cooperativity in substrate binding.

D) There is often a range of different effectors for a single enzyme.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8

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32) ________ modification can either activate or inhibit enzymes.

A) Non-covalent B) Covalent C) Similar substrate D) Similar product Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 33) Protein kinases add a phosphoryl group to the –OH group of a ________, ________, or ________ residue of the target protein.

A) Ser, Tyr, Trp B) Ser, Tyr, Thr C) Ser, Trp, Gly D) Thr, Trp, Gly Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 34) Proteolytic cleavage is an example of ________ post-translational modification.

A) Reversible B) Non-covalent C) Irreversible D) Electrostatic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.9 35) Catalytically inactive enzyme precursors are called ________.

A) Zwitterions B) Zwittercations C) Zymogenes D) Zygotes Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.9 36) A ribonucleic acid that can act as a biological catalyst is called a ________.

A) Ribozyme B) Ribosome C) Ribose D) Ribulose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.10

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37) The hydrophobic cleft in globular proteins that bind substrate molecules is called the ________.

A) Substrate pocket B) Modulator site C) Active site D) Activity site Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 38) Most of the known enzymes are ________.

A) Oxidoreductases B) Transferases C) Hydrolases D) Lyases Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 39) An enzyme that catalyzes conversions of L-sugars to D-sugars is called a(n) ________.

A) Lyase B) Hydrolase C) Synthetase D) Isomerase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 40) Oxidases, peroxidases, oxygenase or reductases are all class of ________.

A) Lyases B) Synthases C) Synthetases D) Oxidoreductases Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 41) Enzymes that join two substrates and require energy of a nucleoside triphosphate (such as ATP) to do so are called ________.

A) Isomerases B) Lyases C) Ligases D) Synthases Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 9 .

42) In a first order enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the velocity of the reaction is proportional to the ________, while in a zero order enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the velocity of the reaction is proportional to the ________.

A) Amount of enzyme; concentration of substrate B) Concentration of substrate; amount of enzyme C) Concentration of substrate; speed of the reaction D) Speed of the reaction; concentration of substrate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 43) The main difference between chemical and enzyme kinetics is that ________.

A) Enzyme reactions are altered by pH B) Enzyme reactions depend on the concentration of the substrate C) Enzyme reactions depend on the concentration of the enzyme and its recycling D) The rate constant for the formation of products is k2 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 44) When two different substrates react to form two different products, the rate constants for each separate substrate can be determined by ________.

A) Varying one substrate at a time, keeping the other in excess B) Varying both substrates and measuring the appearance of the two products C) Limiting one substrate and varying the other D) Keeping both substrate concentrations high and detecting one product at a time Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 45) When there are two substrates in a reaction, the reaction is said to be second order if ________.

A) The reaction is first order with respect to each substrate concentration B) The maximum rate is independent of either substrate's concentration C) The substrate concentrations are equal D) It proceeds at twice the rate upon double the concentrations of both substrates Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6

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46) The non-enzymatic hydrolysis of sucrose into glucose and fructose is an example of a pseudo first-order reaction because ________.

A) No enzymes are involved B) Water has no role in the reaction C) Water is of such high concentration as to be considered constant D) Water is present at concentrations proportional to the sucrose Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 47) In an enzyme reaction involving one enzyme and one substrate, the rate of the reaction depends on ________.

A) Substrate concentration B) Enzyme concentration C) Both substrate and enzyme concentrations D) The enzyme concentration at first and the substrate concentration later on Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 48) Which step in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction was assumed to be negligible by Michaelis and Menten?

A) Formation of ES from E + P B) Formation of E + P from ES C) Conversion of ES to E + S D) Formation of ES from E + S Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 49) Which is appropriate for initial rate method experiments to analyze an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

A) Substrate concentration is constant and the rate is measured at different concentrations of enzyme.

B) Enzyme concentration is constant and the rate is measured at different substrate concentrations.

C) The substrate and enzyme concentrations are varied inversely with respect to one another and the rate is measured.

D) Both enzyme and substrate concentrations are constant. The temperature is varied and the rate is measured.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6

11 .

50) The initial velocity of an enzyme reaction (v0) describes ________.

A) The concentration of the enzyme at maximal velocity B) The concentration of substrate at maximal velocity C) The concentration of both at the start of the reaction D) The rate of the reaction when the substrate and enzyme are first mixed Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 51) When varying the substrate concentration at a fixed concentration of enzyme it is observed that at low concentrations of substrate the reaction is ________, while at high concentrations of substrate the reaction is ________.

A) Maximal; initial B) Initial; maximal C) Second order; first order D) First order; zero order Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 52) Which enzyme below is fastest?

A) Kinase, kcat = 103 B) Papain, kcat = 10 C) Carboxypeptidase, kcat = 102 D) Catalase, kcat = 107 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 53) The Michaelis constant, Km, is equal to the ________.

A) Maximum velocity that any given enzyme reaction can achieve B) Substrate concentration which gives the best enzyme assay for an enzyme reaction C) Substrate concentration when the rate is equal to half its maximal value D) Maximum velocity divided by two Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 54) The assumptions made in calculating the Michaelis-Menten equation include all but ________.

A) That the formation and decomposition of ES is the same for a period of time B) That the concentration of the substrate is much greater than the concentration of E C) That the value of k-2 can be ignored D) That the value of k-2 cannot be ignored Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 12 .

55) What is the shape of a typical plot of initial rate vs. substrate concentration for an enzyme catalyzed reaction that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

A) Sigmoidal B) Parabolic C) Sinusoidal D) Hyperbolic Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.4 56) Calculate the value of the maximum velocity for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics if the initial velocity is 6mM/s at a substrate concentration of 6mM. The Km for the enzyme system is 2mM. A) 4.5 mM B) 8 mM C) 8.75 mM D) 12 mM Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 57) The expression: Vmax = k2[E]total applies to ________.

A) Zero order kinetics of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction B) First order kinetics of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction C) Second order kinetics of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction D) Only the initial part (near time = zero) of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 58) The time that is required for an enzyme to convert one substrate molecule into one product molecule is ________.

A) Km B) kcat C) 1/Km D) 1/kcat Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6

13 .

59) The reason to rewrite the Michaelis-Menten equation (such as the Lineweaver-Burk plot) is to ________.

A) Visualize reactions better B) Form enzyme kinetic data as a hyperbolic curve C) Calculate catalytic proficiency D) Calculate Vmax and Km Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 60) In the Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzyme reaction, the Km is given by the ________.

A) x-intercept B) y-intercept C) Negative reciprocal of the x-intercept D) Reciprocal of the y-intercept Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.6 61) Which might be a method used for distinguishing among several mechanistic possibilities in a multi-substrate reaction?

A) Measure Km in the presence of one substrate at a time.

B) Measure the rate with respect to one substrate while varying the concentration of another substrate.

C) Measure the rate while adding inhibitors for all but one substrate.

D) All of the methods could be used.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 62) In a certain enzyme-catalyzed reaction the following steps occur: 1. A phosphate group on substrate A is transferred to a side chain of an active site residue of the enzyme.

2. The dephosphorylated form of substrate A dissociates from the enzyme.

3. Substrate B enters the active site and is phosphorylated with simultaneous regeneration of the enzyme in its original form.

What kind of kinetic mechanism is described?

A) Random B) Sequential C) Ordered D) Ping-pong Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7

14 .

63) Two substrates are used to produce a certain biological product in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. It is found that both substrates must bind to the enzyme, first one, then the other before the product is produced. This is an example of a(n) ________.

A) Linear reaction B) Ordered sequential reaction C) Random sequential reaction D) Ping-pong reaction Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 64) The difference between uncompetitive and noncompetitive inhibitors is that ________.

A) Uncompetitive inhibitors bind irreversibly B) 1 / V max is the same for all concentrations of uncompetitive inhibitors C) An uncompetitive inhibitor binds only to ES D) A competitive inhibitor binds only to E Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 65) In a ping-pong reaction which of these phenomenon do NOT occur?

A) One product is released before a second substrate is bound.

B) The enzyme covalently binds a portion of the first substrate.

C) The enzyme is permanently converted to an altered form by the first substrate.

D) A group is transferred from one substrate to another.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 66) Which statement is TRUE about the removal of reversible inhibitors from enzyme solutions?

A) PAGE is the primary technique used for this purpose.

B) Dialysis and gel filtration are often used.

C) These inhibitors cannot be separated from the enzyme without treatment with diisopropylfluorophosphate.

D) Removal of reversible inhibitors is extremely difficult and can be achieved only after many purification steps.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7

15 .

67) An inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme. Which statement below correlates with this observation?

A) It must be a competitive inhibitor.

B) The inhibition must be irreversible.

C) It could be noncompetitive or uncompetitive inhibition.

D) It could be irreversible, competitive, noncompetitive or uncompetitive. The data do not relate to the type of inhibition.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 68) Enzyme reactions that require all the substrate to be present before any product is released are called ________.

A) Bisubstrate B) Sequential C) Ping-pong D) Substituted Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 69) Non-classical competitive inhibition involves ________.

A) Binding of the substrate at both the active site and at the inhibitor site B) Binding of either the substrate to the active site or the inhibitor to its own binding site thus preventing the other from binding C) Binding of the inhibitor to the substrate followed by binding of this complex to the active site D) Chemical removal of the substrate from the active site by reaction with the inhibitor Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.7 70) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is an alcohol found in beverages. It is oxidized in the body to acetaldehyde by the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase. Methanol (CH3OH), also known as wood alcohol, is converted to formaldehyde by the same enzyme. Acetaldehyde is toxic, but formaldehyde is far more toxic to humans, which is why the ingestion of relatively small amounts of methanol can cause blindness or death. One treatment for mild methanol poisoning is the administration of ethanol. Why might a doctor choose this treatment?

A) Ethanol acts as a competitive inhibitor with respect to methanol as a substrate for the alcohol dehydrogenase and therefore slows the formation of formaldehyde.

B) Ethanol likely irreversibly binds to alcohol dehydrogenase which prevents the formation of formaldehyde.

C) The ethanol is likely an uncompetitive inhibitor and binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme.

D) The doctor has given up on the patient and administers ethanol for sedation.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 16 .

71) Which equilibrium below applies to a noncompetitive inhibition?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.7

17 .

72) What type of inhibition is indicated by the data graphed below?

A) Competitive B) Uncompetitive C) Noncompetitive D) Irreversible Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.7

18 .

73) The following data were obtained in the presence and absence of inhibitor. What type of inhibition is shown?

Substrate concentration (millimolar) 0.100 0.200 0.500 0.750 1.000 2.000

Rate without inhibitor (mmol/min) 2.5 4.2 6.6 7.4 9.9 10.0

Rate with inhibitor (mmol/min) 1.6 2.9 5.1 6.2 9.8 10.1

A) Competitive B) Uncompetitive C) Noncompetitive D) Irreversible Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.7 74) An enzyme is irreversibly inhibited by diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP). What does this show?

A) The enzyme has been denatured by DFP. B) Serine is likely an important residue in the active site.

C) DFP is an allosteric modulator of the enzyme.

D) DFP is an analog of the enzyme's substrate.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 75) Which might be most useful for determining the amino acid residues in an enzyme's active site?

A) Use an irreversible inhibitor that reacts with the side chains of specific amino acids.

B) Determine the entire primary structure of the protein.

C) Use a competitive inhibitor and plot the rate vs concentration of inhibitor.

D) Unfold the enzyme with urea and 2-mercaptoethanol. Then incubate and crystallize it in the presence of the substrate followed by X-ray crystallography.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8

19 .

76) Which statement is FALSE about allosteric regulation?

A) It is usually the mode of regulation for the last step in reaction pathways since this step produces the final product.

B) Cellular response is faster with allosteric control than by controlling enzyme concentration in the cell.

C) The regulation usually is important to the conservation of energy and materials in cells.

D) Allosteric modulators bind non-covalently at sites other than the active site and induce conformational changes in the enzyme.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8 77) Which statement is FALSE about regulatory enzymes that are controlled allosterically?

A) They are always less active when a modulator is bound to them.

B) They are often larger than other enzymes.

C) They have more than one binding site.

D) They often catalyze the first step in a reaction pathway.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8

20 .

78) Two curves showing the rate versus substrate concentration are shown below for an enzymecatalyzed reaction. One curve is for the reaction in the presence of substance X. The other curve is for data in the absence of substance X. Examine the curves and tell which statement below is TRUE for the observation made.

A) X is an activator of the enzyme.

B) The catalysis shows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, with or without X. C) X increases the activation energy for the catalytic reaction.

D) X could be a competitive inhibitor.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 8.8 79) In E. coli ________ is an activator and ________ is a negative allosteric modulator of the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1.

A) DFP; phosphoenolpyruvate B) Phosphoenolpyruvate; ATP C) ADP; phosphoenolpyruvate D) fructose-6-phosphate; ADP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8

21 .

80) Allosteric modulators seldom resemble the substrate or product of the enzyme. What does this observation show?

A) Modulators likely bind at a site other than the active site.

B) Modulators always act as activators.

C) Modulators bind non-covalently to the enzyme.

D) The enzyme catalyzes more than one reaction.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 8.8

22 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 9 Carbohydrates: Sugars, Saccharides, Glycans 1) Carbohydrates are components of the following ________.

A) The membrane of red blood cells B) Nucleic acids C) The bacterial cell wall D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1 2) Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?

A) Galactose B) Lactose C) Amylose D) Maltose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1 3) Which is NOT a glycoconjugate?

A) Proteoglycan B) Glycolipid C) Glycoprotein D) Homoglycan Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1 4) Pentoses and hexoses can form stable ring structures by internal ________ formation.

A) Hemiketal B) Hemiacetal C) Hemicationic D) Hemianionic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2 5) Which of the following is considered to be the smallest carbohydrate?

A) Glucose B) Dihydroxyacetone C) Ribose D) Xylose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 1 .

6) ________ is formed by a ring structure with either four or five carbons in the ring.

A) D-Ribose B) D-Glucose C) D-Galactose D) Dihydroxyacetone Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 7) Maltose has a (1→4) α linkage between glucose and ________.

A) Galactose B) Mannose C) Xylulose D) Glucose Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 8) Synthesis of sugar polymers is enzyme catalyzed and requires activated monomers like ________ in lactose biosynthesis.

A) UDP-Glucose B) UDP-Galactose C) UDP-Ribose D) UDP-Mannose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 9) Amylose and amylopectin are the principle storage polysaccharides of ________.

A) Bacteria B) Plants C) Animals D) Mollusks Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 10) The storage polysaccharides are ________ in plants and ________ in animals.

A) Glucose, Galactose B) Amylose, Amylopectin C) Starch, Glycogen D) Cellulose, Cellobiose Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5

2 .

11) N-linked glycans are attached to proteins through N-acetylglucosamine or N-acetyl galactosamine to the amide side chain of ________.

A) Glutamine B) Histidine C) Asparagine D) Arginine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 12) Proteins are marked for secretion from the cell by the post translational addition of ________.

A) Metal ions B) Polypeptides C) Oligosaccharides D) CO2 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 13) Heparin is a highly-sulphated glycosaminoglycan that acts as an ________.

A) Anticoagulant B) Antihistamine C) Antibiotic D) Antithrombotic Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 14) O-linked glycans are attached to proteins through the side chain of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) Serine B) Threonine C) Tyrosine D) Glutamate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 15) A saccharide is a ________.

A) Lipid B) Carbohydrate C) Nucleic acid D) Protein Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1 3 .

16) Which is a general term indicating a carbohydrate polymer?

A) Glycan B) Polycarb C) Multimer D) Oligosaccharide Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2 17) Which does NOT apply to dihydroxyacetone?

A) Ketose B) Triose C) Chiral D) Water-soluble Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2

4 .

18) Which structure is NOT a carbohydrate?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1

5 .

19) Which is TRUE about naturally occurring monosaccharides?

A) The L-isomers predominate.

B) The D-isomers predominate.

C) The L and D-isomers occur in equal ratios.

D) The ratio of L and D-isomers varies widely depending on the source.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.1 20) The structure of D-arabinose is shown below. How many stereoisomers are possible for this molecule (including the one shown)?

A) One B) Four C) Six D) Eight Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2

6 .

21) Examine the Fischer projection below. How is this carbohydrate classified?

A) L enantiomer; aldopentose B) L enantiomer; ketopentose C) D enantiomer; aldohexose D) D enantiomer; ketopentose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2 22) The Fischer projections of linear D-glucose and D-galactose are shown below. These two molecules are ________.

A) Epimers B) Enantiomers C) Anomers D) Structural (constitutional) isomers Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2

7 .

23) The structures of D-ribose and D-arabinose are shown below. These two molecules are ________.

A) Epimers B) Enantiomers C) Tautomers D) Anomers Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.2 24) The intramolecular cyclization reaction of glucose in solution ________.

A) Generates a chiral center B) Yields a hemiacetal C) Usually forms a pyranose D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 25) A ribopyranose contains ________ carbon atoms while a ribofuranose has ________ carbon atoms.

A) 6, 5 B) 6, 6 C) 5, 6 D) 5, 5 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3

8 .

26) The functional group shown is a(n) ________.

A) Hemiacetal B) Hemiketal C) Acetal D) Ketal Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3

9 .

27) Below is the Fischer projection of D-galactose. Which is the proper Haworth projection of βD-galactopyranose?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3

10 .

28) Below is the structure for a cyclic D-monosaccharide. Which is the anomeric carbon atom?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 29) Examine the cyclic D-monosaccharide shown below. The ring structure is the ________ and the linear form of this monosaccharide must be a(n) ________.

A) α anomer; ketose B) β anomer; ketose C) α anomer; aldose D) β anomer; aldose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 30) The compounds α-D-fructofuranose and β-D-fructofuranose are ________.

A) Enantiomers B) Mutamers C) Anomers D) Conformational isomers Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4

11 .

31) Anomers can be interconverted ________.

A) By rotation about carbon-carbon bonds B) Via a linear intermediate C) By an isotopic exchange reaction D) Anomers cannot be interconverted.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 32) In solution α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-glucopyranose ________.

A) Rapidly polymerize to form a heteropolymer B) Can never exist together C) Form a racemic mixture D) Form an equilibrium mixture Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 33) Who received a Nobel Prize in 1937 for his work on the structures of carbohydrates and the synthesis of Vitamin C? A) Linus Pauling B) Walter Haworth C) Max Perutz D) Emil Kaiser Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 34) Pyranose rings are usually most stable when the ring adopts a ________ conformation with the bulkiest ring substituents in ________ positions.

A) Chair; equatorial B) Chair; axial C) Boat; equatorial D) Boat; axial Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 35) Which are possible conformations of a furanose molecule?

A) Envelope and twist B) Chair and boat C) Cis and Trans D) A and B Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 12 .

36) Monosaccharide derivatives in which an amino group replaces one of the hydroxyl groups may have important roles in ________.

A) DNA structure B) Intermediary metabolisms C) Vitamin C D) Sialic acids Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 37) Ribitol is a ________.

A) Sugar phosphate B) Deoxy sugar C) Amino sugar D) Sugar alcohol Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 38) Which statement is FALSE about the sugar units in DNA? A) They are cyclic in DNA. B) It is a deoxy form of ribose.

C) It is an epimer of glucose.

D) It has a D-configuration.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 39) The abbreviation for glucose is ________.

A) Glu B) Gcs C) Glc D) Gluc Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 40) What distinguishes an aldonic acid from an alduronic acid?

A) The oxidation of the aldehyde group in an aldonic acid and the oxidation of the highest numbered carbon in the alduronic acid.

B) Aldonic acids are derivatives of aldoses, alduronic acids are derivatives of ketoses.

C) Aldonic acids are oxidized forms of linear monosaccharides; alduronic acids are oxidized forms of cyclic monosaccharides.

D) The two terms are synonyms and are used interchangeably.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 13 .

41) What type of bond links the monomers of a polysaccharide?

A) Glucosidic bond B) Phosphate ester bond C) Peptide bond D) Glycosidic bond Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.3 42) The chemical name for table sugar is ________ and it is a ________.

A) Lactose; monosaccharide B) Lactose; disaccharide C) Sucrose; monosaccharide D) Sucrose; disaccharide Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 43) If glucose supplies the anomeric carbon atom in a glycosidic link, the resulting compound is classified as a ________.

A) Glycoside B) Glycan C) Glucoside D) Glucosamine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4

14 .

44) Which classification(s) is(are) applicable to maltose?

A) Nonreducing sugar B) Reducing sugar C) Peptidoglycan D) Galatoside Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 45) Hydrolysis of maltose will yield ________.

A) Glucose and galactose B) Fructose and glucose C) Glucose and mannose D) Glucose only Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 46) You have two bottles, each of which contains a white, crystalline substance. Your lab director tells you that one contains lactose and the other sucrose. Your job is to determine which bottle contains which sugar. Which procedure would you use?

A) Test both for solubility in water. Sucrose is very soluble; lactose is only minimally soluble.

B) Test for the ability to reduce Ag+. Only lactose will react.

C) Dissolve each in water and record the pH. Lactose is far more acidic than sucrose.

D) React each with bromine (Br2) water. Only sucrose will react.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5

15 .

47) The structure of a disaccharide is shown below. Which statement applies?

A) Both rings A and B are in equilibrium with an open chain form.

B) Only ring A is in equilibrium with an open chain form.

C) Only ring B is in equilibrium with an open chain form.

D) Neither ring is in equilibrium with an open chain form.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 48) A monosaccharide whose anomeric carbon atom has a glycosidic bond to an alcohol, amine or thiol is a ________.

A) Glycoside B) Glycoprotein C) Heteroglycan D) Glucoconjugate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5

16 .

49) What is the name of the disaccharide shown below that is formed by joining two monomers of D-glucose?

A) β-D-glucopyranosyl-(1→4)-β-D-glucopyranose B) α-D-glucopyranosyl-(1→4)-α-D-glucopyranose C) β-D-glucofuranosyl-(1→4)-β-D-glucofuranose D) α-D-glucopyranosyl-(1→3)-β-D-glucopyranose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 50) A reducing sugar is one that ________.

A) Contains a b(1→1) link B) Has a hemiacetal group C) Can reduce Cu2+ but not Ag+ D) Makes you lose weight Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 51) Naturally occurring glycosides have roles in cells which include all EXCEPT ________.

A) Building blocks of lipids B) Chemical signals to plants C) Food flavoring D) Units in cell membrane structure Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 52) Which is a difference between maltose and cellobiose?

A) One is in cellulose and the other in starch.

B) One is linear and the other is branched.

C) The glycosidic bond is different.

D) The subunit sugars are not glucose for both.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 17 .

53) When a sugar polymer is analyzed and found to have equal portions of reducing and nonreducing ends, it is likely that ________.

A) It shows directionality B) It is linear C) It is branched D) It is branched, but not very highly Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 54) Polysaccharide structure can be varied by differences in ________.

A) Chain length (number of sugars in each polysaccharide) B) The kind(s) of sugars in each polysaccharides C) The presence of branching D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 55) Amylose differs from amylopectin in that amylose ________.

A) Has different monomers than amylopectin B) Has more glucose residues than amylopectin C) Is highly branched and amylopectin is not D) Forms a helix and no branch points Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 56) Enzymes in the human intestine which are needed to degrade plant starch into limit dextrin are ________.

A) α-Amylase B) γ-Amylase C) Debranching enzymes D) Amylopectinase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 57) Amylase is a hydrolase that is an ________.

A) Endonuclease B) Endoglycosidase C) Exonuclease D) Exoglycosidase that removes maltose Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 18 .

58) Which is NOT a similarity between glycogen and amylopectin?

A) They each contain about 6000 glucose residues.

B) Each has one reducing end and many nonreducing ends.

C) Each is highly branched.

D) Each has branches of similar chain length.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 59) Cellulose is NOT highly branched because it ________.

A) Does not have a polysaccharide backbone B) Does not have α (1→6) linkages C) Does not have β (1→4) linkages D) Is insoluble in water Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 60) Humans can digest limit dextrin that is formed from dietary plant starch using ________.

A) α-amylase B) β-amylase C) Debranching enzyme D) Branching enzyme Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 61) Highly branched cores of amylopectin that are resistant to hydrolysis are called ________.

A) Core saccharides B) Non-reducing saccharides C) Dextran D) Limit dextrins Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.4 62) Termites and cows have bacteria in their digestive tracts that can obtain glucose from plant cellulose because they have enzymes that can attack ________.

A) α-D-glucoside B) β-D-glucoside C) Cellulose branch points D) Hydrogen bonds in cellulose fibrils Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5

19 .

63) Chitin is all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) Found in insect and crustacean shells B) Found in plant cell walls C) Composed of N-acetylglucosamine subunits D) Composed of linear fibrils like cellulose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 64) The elasticity and resistance to compression of connective tissue is due to ________.

A) The branching of the glycosaminoglycans there B) The glycosidic linkage to the serine of proteins in the glycosaminoglycans C) The carboxyl and sulfated groups in the glycosaminoglycans D) The rigid structure of the glycosaminoglycans Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 65) Nodulation factors are ________.

A) Polysaccharides that help maintain the integrity of tree bark B) Lipo-oligosaccharides that stimulate the growth of nitrogen-fixing structures in plants C) Polysaccharides used to store energy in the roots of plants D) Lipo-saccharides that are often found in tumors Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 66) The bacterial cell wall is sensitive to penicillin because it ________.

A) Blocks the linkage of the MurNAc and GlcNAc subunits B) Blocks the pentaglycine bridge cross linkage C) Binds to an enzyme which recognizes D-alanine-D-alanine dipeptide D) Is not attacked by enzymes in animal cells Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5 67) The main reasons that glycoproteins are so diverse when compared to other proteoglycans are ________.

A) They may contain the same sugars in different combinations and chain lengths B) β or α-glycosidic linkages may join various carbon atoms in the sugars C) They are found in both bacterial, plant and animal cells D) They use a single type of glycosidic linkages Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5

20 .

68) ________ contain NeuNAc residues and sulfated sugars, and their negative charges contribute to the viscosity of mucins.

A) Proteoglycans B) N-linked polysaccharides C) O-linked polysaccharides D) Hyaluronic acid Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 9.5

21 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 10 Lipids, Membranes, and Cellular Transport 1) Saturated fatty acids are different to unsaturated fatty acids because they ________.

A) Have an even number of carbon atoms B) Have short hydrophobic tails C) Have no C=C double bonds D) Exhibit free rotation about the carbon-carbon bonds in the hydrocarbon tail Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The longer the chain length of a saturated fatty acid, the higher the melting temperature.

B) The difference in melting temperature between a saturated fatty acid and an unsaturated fatty acid with the same chain length is only a few degrees C. C) Most types of fat in many animals is used in energy production.

D) Some unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at physiological temperatures.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 3) Linolenic acid has cis double bonds with the formula CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH2CH=CH(CH2)7COOH. Write out the abbreviated systematic numbering for this fatty acid.

A) 18:3Δ9,15,12 B) 18:3Δ10,12,15 C) 18:3Δc9,12,15 D) 18:3Δ3,6,9 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 4) Which of following lipids can be a major component of biological membranes?

A) Phosphatidic acid B) Phosphatidylcholine C) Phosphatidylinositol D) Progesterone Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2

1 .

5) Sphingomyelin contains a fatty acid linked by ________ bond and phosphocholine linked via the C-3 hydroxyl group of sphingosine.

A) Hydroxyl B) Sulfhydryl C) Hydrogen D) Amide Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 6) Which of the following is unlikely to be a characteristic of a membrane protein?

A) Largely hydrophobic transmembrane segments B) α-helical membrane-spanning motifs C) Covalently attached lipid moities D) Symmetric orientation across the membrane Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 7) In an aqueous environment the hydrocarbon tails of lipids tend to associate by entropy-driven ________ and by Van der Waals interactions.

A) Hydrophilic effects B) Hydrophobic effects C) Electrostatic effects D) Covalent effects Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 8) Raft platforms in membranes have functional roles in cell signaling and sorting of proteins into specific ________ in the cell.

A) Organelles B) Compartments C) Domains D) Subunits Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3

2 .

9) Which of the following statements about biological membranes is FALSE? A) They are composed of a mixture of lipids and proteins in which lateral diffusion of components is possible.

B) Lipids and proteins move laterally at approximately the same rate within the membrane.

C) The faces of biological membranes are distinct and usually different in both composition and structure.

D) Phospholipids often require a specialized enzyme to facilitate movement across (flipping) the membrane.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 10) Integral membrane proteins can be inserted into the membrane and folded into the normal 3D structure during ________.

A) Translation B) Transcription C) Transduction D) Transportation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 11) Which of the following is NOT relevant to facilitated transport across biological membranes?

A) An ionophore is a carrier protein that increases the permeability of a membrane to ions.

B) Some permeases can transport their substrates in both directions.

C) A symport will transport two molecules in the same direction across a membrane.

D) ATP hydrolysis is required.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5 12) All of the following mechanisms is/are responsible for the selectivity of aquaporins for water EXCEPT ________.

A) Size exclusion B) Hydrophobic repulsion C) Dynamic hydrogen bonding D) Prevention of ion gradient formation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5

3 .

13) ________ facilitated cotransport can move some substrate across a membrane against its concentration gradient.

A) Slow B) Fast C) Active D) Passive Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5 14) The rate of nonmediated diffusion tends to increase as the ________ character of the diffusing substance increases.

A) Hydrophilic B) Hydrophobic C) Amphipathic D) Electrolytic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5 15) Active transport can move a substance across a membrane against its ________.

A) Concentration gradient B) pH gradient C) Proton gradient D) Electron gradient Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5 16) The standard free energy that is required for the sodium-potassium ATPase to pump two K+ ions into the cell and three Na+ ions is +43.8 kJ/mol but the standard free energy change of hydrolysis of ATP is only -32 kJ/mol. This apparent imbalance of free energy can be accounted for because ________.

A) The movement of Na+ ions is down the concentration gradient B) The movement of K+ ions is down the concentration gradient C) The membrane potential favors the flow of ions D) The free energy provided from the hydrolysis of one ATP is sufficient under physiological conditions Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.6

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17) ________ can act as a short term cardiac stimulant by inhibiting the Na+-K+ pump.

A) Insulin B) Dioxane C) Digitoxin D) TPP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.7 18) The sodium-glucose cotransport system is an example of ________.

A) An antiport transporter B) Passive transport C) Facilitated transport D) An ATP-dependent transporter Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.8 19) ________ are propagated along a nerve axon by sequentially opening and closing a series of voltage-gated potassium and sodium channels.

A) Action gradients B) Action potentials C) Action subunits D) Action domains Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.8 20) Lipids may be either hydrophobic or ________.

A) Hydrophilic B) Amphoteric C) Inorganic D) Amphipathic Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 21) ________ are the simplest lipids but they may be a part of or a source of many complex lipids.

A) Triglycerols B) Carbohydrates C) Terpenes D) Fatty acids Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 5 .

22) Isoprenoids are lipids that neither contain nor are derived from fatty acids and include ________.

A) Steroids B) Waxes C) Phospholipids D) Cerebrosides Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 23) A fatty acid designated as 20:0 is ________, while one that is designated 20:3 D5,8,11 is ________.

A) Simple; complex B) Complex; simple C) Saturated; unsaturated D) Unsaturated; saturated Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 24) Which statement is TRUE about the usual concentration of free fatty acids in cells?

A) The concentration is low because it could disrupt cell membranes.

B) The concentration is low because fatty acids are synthesized in the extracellular fluid.

C) The concentration is high because of the demand for fatty acids in cell membranes.

D) The concentration is high because the mitochondria are continuously synthesizing them.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 25) Which statement is TRUE about the most common naturally occurring fatty acids?

A) They have 50-100 carbon atoms and an even number of carbon atoms.

B) They have 50-100 carbon atoms and an odd number of carbon atoms.

C) They have 12-20 carbon atoms and an even number of carbon atoms.

D) They have 12-20 carbon atoms and an odd number of carbon atoms.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 26) A fatty acid designated ω-3 ________.

A) Has three double bonds B) Is saturated C) Has a double bond three carbons from the end of the chain D) Has a double bond three carbons from the a-carbon Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 6 .

27) Trans fatty acids have physical properties like those of ________.

A) ω-3 fatty acids B) cis-fatty acids C) Unsaturated fatty acids D) Saturated fatty acids Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 28) Plasma levels of cholesterol and triglycerides are elevated by ________.

A) Sphingolipids B) cis-fatty acids C) trans-fatty acids D) Plant oils Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 29) Fatty acids required in the diet of mammals are called ________.

A) Important B) Dietary C) Saturated D) Essential Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 30) Most lipids in the average human diet are ________.

A) Unsaturated fatty acids B) Saturated fatty acids C) Glycerophospholipids D) Triacylglycerols Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 31) Dietary triacylglycerols are digested as a result of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) Lipase action B) Bile salts C) Micelle formation D) Diffusion and absorption by lung cells Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2

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32) Adipocytes contain fat droplets that serve to provide an animal with ________.

A) Increased cell volume B) Ability to lower body temperature C) Chemical energy D) Thermal energy Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 33) Triglycerols containing only saturated long chain fatty acids tend to remain ________ at room temperature.

A) Unsaturated B) Liquid C) Solid D) Oils Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.1 34) Triacylglycerols are NOT found in cell membranes because they are ________.

A) Amphipathic B) Not amphipathic C) Not abundant in cells D) Charged at biological pH Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 35) Polar heads of glycerophospholipids may be all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) + charged B) - charged C) Involved in hydrophobic bonds D) A mixture of + and - charges Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 36) Glycerophospholipids have ________ heads and long ________ fatty acid tails.

A) Polar; polar B) Polar; hydrophobic C) Hydrophobic; polar D) Hydrophobic; hydrophobic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2

8 .

37) Like plasmologens, sphingolipids are found in relative abundance in ________.

A) Bacteria B) Plant cells C) Nerve cells D) Intestinal cells Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 38) Which type of sphingolipid can also be classified as a phospholipid?

A) Sphingomyelins B) Cerebrosides C) Gangliosides D) Neurosides Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 39) An unknown lipid is treated with a mixture of phospholipases A1, A2, C and D. Since no glycerol is formed after this treatment, the lipid is most likely ________.

A) Phosphatidylethanolamine B) Phosphatidylcholine C) Plasmologen D) Ceramide Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 40) A deficiency in the synthesis of sphingomyelins or cerebrosides will most likely result in the improper formation of ________.

A) Cell surfaces B) Cell to cell communication C) Nerve cells D) Blood groups Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 41) Tay-Sachs disease results from ________.

A) A deficiency of GM2 B) Defective lysosomes C) Malfunction of cerebroside metabolism D) The accumulation of GM2 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.6 9 .

42) Sterols are steroids that have ________.

A) A hydroxyl group at position C-17 B) A hydroxyl group at position C-3 C) The ability to accumulate as plaques in blood vessels D) 5 fused rings instead of 4 fused rings Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 43) Cholesterol is converted to cholesteryl esters for ________ in cells and are ________ (more, less) hydrophobic than glycerophospholipids.

A) Transport; more B) Transport; less C) Storage; more D) Storage; less Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 44) Triacylglycerols cannot form lipid bilayers because they ________.

A) Have hydrophobic tails B) Do not have polar heads C) Cannot associate with cholesterol D) Have polar heads Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 45) Mitochondria differ from other cellular structures such as lysosomes or nuclei by having ________.

A) A double membrane B) lipid-anchored membrane proteins C) A high level of cholesterol in the membrane D) Allowing the free passage of free fatty acids across the membrane Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2 46) The arrangement of lipid bilayers and other components is the basis for the currently widely accepted description which is called the ________.

A) Fluid model B) Lipid bilayer model C) Mosaic model D) Fluid mosaic model Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 10 .

47) A sea creature richer in ________ can more likely live or migrate to an area of low temperature.

A) Arachidonic acid B) Unsaturated fatty acids C) Saturated fatty acids D) Eicosanoids Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 48) Which would you expect for the fatty acyl chains of the membrane phospholipids of bacteria grown at low temperature?

A) Proportion of unsaturated fatty acyl groups increases.

B) Proportion of unsaturated fatty acyl groups decreases.

C) No change in the proportion of saturated versus unsaturated acyl groups.

D) More cholesterol is produced and is inserted between the fatty acyl chains of the membrane.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 49) Liposomes consist of ________ bilayers that enclose an aqueous compartment where drugs can be contained for delivery to specific tissues if target proteins are present.

A) Cholesterol B) Membrane protein C) Phospholipids D) Detergents Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 50) What is the role of cholesterol in animal cell membranes?

A) Blocks the association of the fatty acyl chains of phospholipids at high temperature.

B) Aids in the transport of small hydrophobic molecules across the membrane.

C) Is a receptor site for hormones on the surface of membranes.

D) Broadens the temperature range of optimum membrane fluidity.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.2

11 .

51) Diffusion of membrane proteins was demonstrated by fusing human cells and mouse cells that had membrane proteins labeled with ________ of different colors.

A) Radioactivity B) Fluorescent dyes C) Fluorescent antibodies D) Fluorescent lipids Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 52) Phospholipids can move to different places in the same bilayer by ________.

A) Lateral diffusion B) Biosynthesis C) Flippases and floppases D) Increased diffusion Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 53) Regions on cell membranes called lipid rafts form because ________.

A) Membrane proteins form them B) Cholesterol preferentially associates with sphingolipids C) Certain membrane protein patches aggregate D) Cholesterol and proteins bind to form them Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 54) Which statement is FALSE about lipid rafts?

A) Membrane proteins help maintain the integrity of membrane rafts.

B) They are distributed non-uniformly on the mammal cell surfaces.

C) They occur mostly on the outer mitochondrial membrane.

D) They are patches of cholesterol associated with sphingolipids.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 55) Determination of the tertiary structure of a membrane protein finds that the outer surface is composed primarily of hydrophobic residues. Which conclusion is most likely from this observation?

A) It is a lipid-anchored membrane protein.

B) It is an integral protein.

C) The protein must be involved in passive transport.

D) The protein can undergo transverse diffusion.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 12 .

56) Membrane passive transport and transport by channels and pores requires ________.

A) Energy input B) A protein carrier C) Hexanoic acid D) Ion gradients Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 57) When red-blood cells are treated extensively with protease most membrane proteins are broken down into small peptides. However, some proteins are very resistant to this treatment. If cleavage by protease is the only type of reaction that occurs in this treatment, how is this explained?

A) They are lipid-anchored membrane proteins.

B) They are peripheral proteins.

C) They contain at least 2 disulfide bonds.

D) They are integral (intrinsic) membrane proteins.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 58) Which type of membrane protein might be dissociated from the membrane by changing the pH or the ionic strength?

A) Integral membrane protein B) Peripheral membrane protein C) Lipid-anchored membrane protein D) All of the above Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 59) You have purified a cell membrane and wish to isolate a transport protein from it. Which treatment might you select?

A) Add a detergent.

B) Change the ionic strength.

C) React with a protease.

D) Add phenylisothiocyanate (PITC).

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3

13 .

60) Lipid-anchored membrane proteins that link to an isoprenoid chain via the sulfur atom of cysteine are called ________ proteins.

A) Prenylated B) Sulfide-linked C) Cysteine-anchored D) Prostaglandins Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 61) Which statement is FALSE about lipid-anchored membrane proteins?

A) They are found on either leaflet of the plasma membrane.

B) Like integral membrane proteins, they are permanently associated with the membrane.

C) The covalent link to the membrane can involve the phosphate group of the lipid anchor.

D) The protein portion that can be removed by treatment with phospholipase most resembles an integral membrane protein.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.3 62) Facilitated diffusion (passive transport) through a biological membrane is ________.

A) Generally irreversible B) Driven by the ATP to ADP conversion C) Driven by a concentration gradient D) Endergonic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 63) Which does NOT apply to the diffusion of O2, CO2 and small hydrophobic molecules across a membrane?

A) Diffusion is driven by the concentration gradient across the membrane.

B) The diffusion is spontaneous and there is a decrease in free energy as diffusion occurs.

C) The transport is saturated.

D) Membrane proteins are not needed for the diffusion process.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4

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64) Why should it not be surprising that for many cells water requires a protein for its transport across a membrane?

A) Water is very polar which inhibits its free diffusion across the membrane.

B) All molecules require transport proteins to cross a membrane.

C) The transport protein is needed to prevent the hydrolysis of the phospholipid chains as water crosses the membrane.

D) There is never a concentration gradient for water across the membrane to drive its transport.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 65) In the mitochondria phosphate ion (PO43-) and H+ are transported together from the intermembrane space into the matrix. Which statement applies?

A) The transport protein is a symport.

B) The transport protein must have a relatively large central channel to accommodate both ions.

C) The interior of the transport protein must be uncharged.

D) All of the above Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5 66) Another name for facilitated diffusion is ________.

A) Active transport B) Transverse diffusion C) Lateral diffusion D) Passive transport Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4 67) If the concentration of a solute is the same both inside and outside the cell, what might you expect with regard to its transport by a membrane protein?

A) Since there is no concentration gradient, no transport either in or out of the cell is possible.

B) Movement of the solute across the membrane could occur and cause accumulation on one side of the membrane by an active transport protein.

C) The transport protein has been saturated.

D) The solute must be phosphorylated with a phosphate group from ATP before further transport can occur.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.5

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68) Which is NOT a similarity between active transport proteins and enzymes?

A) Both undergo conformational changes upon binding a substrate.

B) Both are susceptible to inhibition.

C) Both cause chemical modification to the substrate.

D) Both can reach a saturation limit.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 10.4

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 11 Chemical Logic of Metabolism 1) Calculate the amount of ATP in kg that is turned over by a resting human every 24 hours.

Assume that a typical human contains ~50g of ATP (Mr 505) and consumes ~8000 kJ of energy in food each day. The energy stored in the terminal anhydride bond of ATP under standard conditions is 30.6 kJmol-1. Assume also that the dietary energy is channeled through ATP with an energy transfer efficiency of ~50%.

A) 31 kg B) 66 kg C) 99 kg D) 132 kg Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.2 2) The anabolic and catabolic processes of cellular metabolism can be coupled by ________.

A) A 2nd anabolic process B) carbohydrate hydrolysis C) ATP hydrolysis D) Lipid hydrolysis Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 3) Catabolic processes involve degradation of complex molecules into simpler molecules with the net release of ________.

A) Chemical energy B) Thermal energy C) Kinetic energy D) Ionic energy Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 4) Name the type of reaction that involves reversible electron transfer between a donor and an acceptor.

A) Hydrolysis B) Acid-base titration C) Hydration D) Oxidation-reduction Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4

1 .

5) Which of the following produces the largest number of reducing equivalents when oxidized?

A) Glucose B) NADPH C) NADH D) Palmitic acid Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 6) ATP has a high phosphoryl group transfer potential because ________.

A) It is chemically unstable B) It has a high rate of spontaneous hydrolysis at physiological pH and temperature C) It exhibits resonance stabilization prior to hydrolysis D) Cleavage of either of its two phosphoanhydride bonds proceeds with a large negative △Go' of hydrolysis Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 7) Substrate-level phosphorylation is a term given to product formation resulting in ________.

A) Lipid hydrolysis B) Lipid oxidation C) ATP hydrolysis D) ADP Phosphorylation Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 8) The main energy-coupling compound in biochemical reactions that allows thermodynamically unfavorable processes to become favorable is ________.

A) Creatine B) Biotin C) ATP D) Pyruvate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6

2 .

9) Under physiological conditions the complete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water in the presence of oxygen has a ΔG of -2900 kJ/mol glucose. This process can be coupled to the synthesis of ~32 mol ATP. The ΔG of the coupled reactions to make ATP is -1300 kJ/mol glucose. Calculate the ΔG for the synthesis of ATP from ADP. A) -50 kJ mol-1 B) -25 kJ mol-1 C) +25 kJ mol-1 D) +50 kJ mol-1 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.6 10) Which of the following cannot be used as a metabolic control mechanism?

A) Enzyme compartmentalization B) DNA repair C) Covalent modification of an enzyme D) Regulation of enzyme degradation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 11) A futile cycle is ________.

A) The citric acid cycle B) Two reactions or pathways that share substrates and products, and result in no net gain of ATP C) Two opposing cellular reactions that are independently controlled D) An endergonic reaction that uses up ATP Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 12) Reactions in metabolic pathways that are subject to regulation are those that are displaced far from ________.

A) Completion B) Reactant degradation C) Product formation D) Equilibrium Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6

3 .

13) An enzyme that catalyzes a committed step in a metabolic pathway has a high ________.

A) Capacitance control coefficient B) Flux control coefficient C) Ionic control coefficient D) Equilibrium control coefficient Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 14) Intermediary metabolism is the term applied to reactions that ________.

A) Degrade molecules B) Synthesize large molecules such as proteins C) Convert glucose to pyruvate D) Involve low molecular weight metabolites Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 15) A distinct set of metabolic reactions is called a reaction ________.

A) Network B) Cycle C) Pathway D) Mechanism Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 16) Metabolic pathways that involve the degradation of large molecules to smaller ones are classified as ________.

A) Anabolic B) Catabolic C) Amphibolic D) Intermediatory Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.1 17) The evolution of biochemical pathways can be studied by ________.

A) Isolating pathway enzymes from different individuals B) Comparing pathways in closely related species C) Comparing pathways in many diverse bacteria D) Comparing linear and circular pathways Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2

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18) Which statement does NOT explain, why many biochemical processes are carried out via multi-step pathways rather than by single-step reactions (or only a few steps)?

A) Multi-step pathways allow for more control points to regulate biochemical processes.

B) The end products of most pathways can usually be produced only by the pathway reactions that nature has evolved.

C) Sharing of intermediates between pathways is facilitated this way.

D) There is greater control over the amounts of energy that are consumed or released at any one time.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 19) Which of the following statements is FALSE about most metabolic pathways?

A) Most pathways are reversible under physiological conditions.

B) Pathways serve to increase the efficiency of energy transfers.

C) The rates of pathway reactions vary to respond to changing conditions.

D) The enzymes that catalyze reactions in metabolic pathways generally catalyze only a single step.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 20) The flow of material through a metabolic pathway is called the ________.

A) Current B) Degree of amplification C) Cascade effect D) Flux Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4 21) The flow of material through a reaction pathway usually depends on ________.

A) Control at several steps in the pathway B) Control of the first step of the pathway C) Covalent modification of the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction D) Feed-forward activation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5

5 .

22) For a step in a reaction pathway to serve as a control point it should be ________.

A) Irreversible B) Endergonic C) Close to equilibrium D) Exergonic Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 23) The glycolytic pathway oxidizes glucose to two molecules of pyruvate and also produces a net of two molecules of ATP. ATP allosterically inhibits the enzyme, PFK-1, that catalyzes the third step of glycolysis. This is an example of ________.

A) Feed-forward activation B) Feedback inhibition C) Negative cooperativity D) Competitive inhibition Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 24) Phosphorylation by protein kinases coordinates regulation of different pathways. Usually this phosphorylation ________ catabolic pathways and ________ anabolic pathways.

A) Deactivates; deactivates B) Deactivates; activates C) Activates; deactivates D) Activates; activates Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 25) Ten people are sitting in a row. Their objective is to whisper a secret from one person to the next all the way down the row. The first person whispers the secret to the second person who passes the secret to the third person and so on. After whispering to the third person, the second person in the row notices the ninth person has fallen asleep in their chair, so she gets up, goes down the row and shakes person nine awake. This example is similar to ________.

A) Allosteric control B) Positive cooperativity C) feed-forward activation D) Negative modulation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.5

6 .

26) Phosphorylation at the expense of ATP is catalyzed by ________.

A) Protein kinases B) Phosphoryl isomerases C) Phosphatases D) All of the above Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4 27) Bacteria that degrade oil at great depths in offshore waters have most likely evolved new pathways and ________ by modifying existing ones.

A) DNA B) Duplicate factors C) Cofactors D) Enzymes Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 28) Which is usually the slowest way to regulate a reaction in a metabolic pathway?

A) Allosteric modulation B) Covalent modification C) Changing the enzyme concentration D) All of the above are usually equally as fast.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 29) Which statement is NOT true about catabolic pathways?

A) They have a net release of energy.

B) They have a net consumption of ATP. C) They liberate smaller molecules from larger ones.

D) They include the citric acid cycle.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 30) The degradation of which class of biochemical does NOT significantly contribute to the release of energy to cells?

A) Nucleic acids B) Proteins C) Lipids D) Carbohydrates Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 7 .

31) The citric acid cycle is ________.

A) Anabolic B) Catabolic C) Amphibolic D) Linear Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4 32) The most biochemically complex organisms are ________.

A) Chemoheterotrophs B) Photoheterotrophs C) Heterotrophs D) Autotrophs Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 33) An organism that uses organic molecules as carbon sources and obtains energy by oxidizing inorganic molecules is a(n) ________.

A) Photoautotroph B) Chemoautotroph C) Photoheterotroph D) Chemoheterotroph Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 34) The reactions that digest foods in the mouth, stomach and intestine are classified as ________ reactions.

A) Proteolytic cleavage B) Hydrolysis C) Free radical D) Reduction Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 35) Which is NOT generally a molecule used to conserve energy?

A) ATP B) NADH C) FAD D) QH2 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4 8 .

36) The ultimate product of complete oxidation of carbohydrates is ________.

A) Carbon dioxide B) Acetyl CoA C) Pyruvate D) Acetate ion Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 37) Compartmentation of enzymes ________.

A) Helps prevent loss by diffusion B) Keeps separate pools of metabolites in cells C) Can help control metabolic pathways D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 38) Fatty acid synthesis occurs in the ________, while fatty acid breakdown occurs in the ________.

A) Cytosol; mitochondria B) Cytosol; nucleus C) Mitochondria; cytosol D) Golgi apparatus; cytosol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 39) Which are membrane-associated pathways?

A) Electron transport chain in eukaryotes B) Citric acid cycle in bacteria C) Lipid synthesis D) Glycolysis Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.2 40) Anabolic and catabolic reactions in eukaryotes can occur simultaneously in cells. This is possible because ________.

A) They all occur in the cytosol B) The anabolic and catabolic pathways do not share any intermediate metabolites C) Of the compartmentation of metabolites for the reactions of opposing pathways D) All catabolic reactions are exergonic and all anabolic reactions are endergonic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 9 .

41) Protein folding and lipid-bilayer formation result in decreased entropy for a protein molecule and bilayer components. The decrease in entropy is balanced by a large increase in the entropy of the surrounding ________.

A) Salt solutions B) Temperature C) Pressure D) Water molecules Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4 42) A chemical reaction with a negative enthalpy change and a negative entropy change ________.

A) Must be spontaneous B) Must be nonspontaneous C) Could be either spontaneous or nonspontaneous depending on the temperature D) Is not possible Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 43) Calculate ΔG°' for the reaction shown if the mass action ratio, Q, is 5.3 × 102 M-1 and ΔG is 46 kJ/mol at a temperature of 298 K. (R = 8.315 J/K-mol).

ADP + Pi ⇌ ATP A) 30 kJ/mol B) -30 kJ/mol C) 61 kJ/mol D) -61 kJ/mol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.5 44) Which thermodynamic quantity is used to determine if a reaction in a cell is spontaneous?

A) ΔG°' B) ΔG C) ΔH D) ΔS Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5

10 .

45) A reaction that best serves as a control point for regulation ________.

A) Is a near equilibrium reaction B) Has a large positive ΔG C) Is metabolically irreversible D) Follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 46) The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP has a ΔG°' of -30 kJ/mol. If in an E. coli cell the concentrations of ATP, ADP and inorganic phosphate are 7.90 mM, 1.04 mM and 7.9 mM, respectively, which statement is TRUE about the hydrolysis of ATP in the cell? (Assume a temperature of 298 K. R = 8.315 J/K-mol) A) Hydrolysis can proceed spontaneously.

B) The hydrolysis is at equilibrium.

C) The formation of ATP from ADP is occurring more rapidly than the hydrolysis.

D) The hydrolysis is being allosterically controlled.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 47) The conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme phosphoglucomutase has a ΔG°' of -7.6 kJ/mol. Calculate the equilibrium constant for this reaction at 298 K and a pH of 7. (R = 8.315 J/K-mol) A) 0.003 B) 0.047 C) 1.00 D) 21 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 11.5 48) The amount of energy recovered as ATP can be estimated by measuring free energy of hydrolysis of ________.

A) Phosphoester bond in ATP B) Phosphoanhydride bonds in ADP C) Phosphoester bond ADP D) Phosphoanhydride bonds in ATP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5

11 .

49) Nucleoside triphosphates exist in a cell as complexes with ________.

A) Phosphate ion B) Mg2+ only C) Mn2+ only D) Mg2+ and sometimes Mn2+ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 50) Which bond in ATP is primarily responsible for its being a high energy molecule?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 51) ATP is classified as an energy-rich compound because ________.

A) It complexes with Mg2+ B) It has a relatively low free energy of hydrolysis C) Its complete oxidation to carbon dioxide releases a large amount of energy D) Of the free energy released from cleavage of the phosphoanhydride bond Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.4 52) Levels of ATP and ADP are partly maintained in cells by ________.

A) Phosphoglucomutase B) The ADP concentration C) Adenylate kinase D) Equilibrium with dissolved oxygen Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 12 .

53) The free energy for ATP hydrolysis in vivo is actually greater than the standard free energy change of -30 kJ mol-1 because ________.

A) It has stronger electrostatic repulsion B) Of the actual concentrations of ATP and its hydrolysis products in cells C) It can easily be formed from other nucleotide triphosphates D) It can participate in phosphoryl group transfers Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 54) Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to the large free energy of hydrolysis of ATP? A) Electrostatic repulsion of oxygen atoms.

B) Better solvation of products than ATP itself.

C) Complexes with Mg2+ or Mn2+ ions.

D) Better stability of products than ATP itself.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 55) In order for a reaction to proceed spontaneously from left to right as written ________.

A) ATP must be involved in the reaction B) A common intermediate must be formed C) The overall free-energy change must be negative D) A phosphate group must be transferred Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 56) Which statement is FALSE about ATP? A) Its concentration in a particular cell usually fluctuates very little.

B) The concentration of ATP in cells is generally much lower than that of AMP. C) Its concentration is maintained in part by adenylate kinase.

D) The intracellular concentration of ATP varies among cell types.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 57) ATP can be used to activate a substrate by ________.

A) Phosphorylation B) Adding a nucleotidyl group C) Producing inorganic phosphate D) Both A and B Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 13 .

58) Phosphocreatine and phosphoarginine are ________ that are energy rich phosphate storage molecules found in animal ________ cells.

A) Phosphagens; muscle B) Phosphagens; liver C) Plasminogens; muscle D) Plasminogens; liver Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 59) γ-Glutamyl phosphate is formed as an intermediate in the conversion of glutamate to glutamine by the enzyme glutamine synthetase because ________.

A) It has a large negative free energy B) It is positively charged C) It is unstable in water D) It is a nucleophile Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.5 60) The synthesis of glutamine from glutamate and ammonia is an example of ________.

A) Transamination B) ATP phosphoryl group transfer C) ADP phosphoryl group transfer D) Inorganic phosphate group transfer Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.3 61) Which compound has a greater free energy of hydrolysis than ATP? A) Glucose 1-phosphate B) Any phosphoester C) Phosphoenolpyruvate D) Acetyl CoA Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 62) What function group leads to ATP being an "energy-rich" compound?

A) Phosphate ester B) Carbonyl C) Ether D) Amido Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 14 .

63) ATP is thermodynamically suited as a carrier of phosphoryl groups in animal cells because of all EXCEPT ________.

A) It is stable under cell conditions B) It is still hydrolyzed in cells without enzyme action C) It is intermediate in group-transfer potential D) It can be produced from phosphocreatine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 64) The formation of acetyl CoA is driven to completion by ________.

A) The negative standard free energy for the first step of the reaction B) The negative standard free energy for the final step of the reaction C) Removal of the product pyrophosphate by the enzyme pyrophosphatase D) The negative free energy for the formation of an ADP intermediate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 65) Thioesters are similar to oxygen esters of carboxylic acids EXCEPT that ________.

A) The energy associated with their hydrolysis is much less than that of the phosphoanhydride in ATP B) They are more stable at neutral pH values in cells C) They are less stable because S is present instead of O in the linkage D) They are used in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 66) What important high energy functional group is shown in molecule shown?

A) Methyl B) Ketone C) Thioester D) Thioanhydride Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6

15 .

67) The chemical energy generated by oxidation reactions cannot be captured by ________.

A) NADH B) NADP+ C) FMN D) FAD Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 68) Enzymes that oxidize NADH can best be measured by the ________.

A) Increase in absorbance at 340 nm B) Decrease in absorbance at 340 nm C) Increase in absorbance at 250 nm D) Decrease in absorbance at 250 nm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 69) If the standard reduction potential of a certain half-reaction is -0.30 V, which statement below is TRUE for this half-reaction to proceed as a reduction?

A) This half-reaction will proceed if it is coupled to another half-reaction that has a standard reduction potential greater than +0.30 V. B) This half-reaction will proceed if it is coupled to another half-reaction that has a standard reduction potential greater than -0.30 V. C) This half-reaction will proceed if it is coupled to another half-reaction that has a standard reduction potential less than -0.30 V. D) It doesn't matter what half-reaction this is coupled with; it will proceed spontaneously.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 70) The ability and capacity of coenzymes to become oxidized or reduced (reduction potential) may be found by ________.

A) Measuring the flow of zinc and copper electrons B) Measuring the flow of electrons when compared to hydrogen gas at standard conditions C) Measuring the number of H atoms present D) All of the above Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7

16 .

71) When a reduction half-reaction is ________ (negative, positive), electrons flow to the more readily reduced substance which is ________ (negative, positive) in value.

A) Negative; negative B) Negative; positive C) Positive; positive D) Positive; negative Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 72) The standard potential for electron transfer can be related to the standard free-energy change for redox reactions by using ________.

A) A calorimeter B) An electrochemical cell C) Two solutions separated by a salt bridge D) The Nernst equation Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.6 73) In theory at least, the energy released by the oxidation of one molecule of NADH is sufficient to form ________ ATP molecule(s).

A) 0.5 (meaning it takes about 2 NADH to form 1 ATP) B) 1 C) Several D) About 20 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7 74) Studies of specific enzymes in cells may not give information about cell metabolism since ________.

A) It is difficult to label many enzymes B) The pathways are too complex C) Many enzymes are mutant ones D) Conditions in isolation may not be like those inside the cell Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 11.7

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 12 Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway 1) ________ can produce ATP at a much faster rate than aerobic oxidative phosphorylation.

A) Aerobic glycolysis B) Anaerobic glycolysis C) Anaerobic oxidative phosphorylation D) Photosynthesis Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 2) Which of the following types of reaction does NOT occur in glycolysis?

A) Isomerization B) Nucleophilic attack C) Aldol condensation D) Oxidation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 3) The standard free energy change of the glycolytic pathway to pyruvate is -79.9 kJ/mol, while the standard free energy change associated with gluconeogenesis from pyruvate is -42.7 kJ/mol.

What would be the standard free energy change for a direct reversal of the glycolytic pathway?

A) +79.9 kJ/mol B) -122.6 kJ/mol C) +42.7 kJ/mol D) -37.2 kJ/mol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.4 4) Glycolysis is regulated primarily by ________.

A) The availability of glucose-6-phosphate B) Three strongly endergonic, non-equilibrium reactions C) Three strongly exergonic, non-equilibrium reactions D) Allosteric effectors of pyruvate kinase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6

1 .

5) Which of the following statements about regulation of phosphofructokinase is FALSE? A) AMP is an activator.

B) ADP is an activator.

C) Citrate is an inhibitor.

D) ATP decreases the apparent Km for fructose-6-phosphate.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 6) Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are each subject to ________ control.

A) Michaelis-Menten B) Non-allosteric C) Allosteric D) Ionic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 7) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is a feedforward ________ activator of liver pyruvate kinase.

A) Competitive B) Allosteric C) Non-allosteric D) Ionic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 8) The oxidation of glucose to lactate has a standard free energy change of approximately -196 kJ/mol. Calculate the efficiency of energy conversion if the standard free energy change for the production of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate is +32.2 kJ/mol.

A) 33.8% B) 66.2% C) 50% D) 70% Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.4 9) Much of the regulation of gluconeogenesis is a result of the inhibition of ________.

A) Electron transfer B) ATP hydrolysis C) Glycolysis D) TCA cycle Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 2 .

10) Which of the following cannot be used as a precursor for gluconeogenesis?

A) Glycerol B) Pyruvate C) Lactate D) Leucine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5 11) Flux through the pentose phosphate pathway is controlled mainly by the ________ ratio in the cell.

A) ATP/ADP B) NAD+/NADH C) FAD/FADH2 D) NADP+/NADPH Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 12) The primary gluconeogenic organ in animals is ________.

A) Skeletal muscle B) Kidney medulla C) Kidney cortex D) Liver Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5 13) ________ from muscle working anaerobically is released to blood and can be taken up by liver where it is converted to pyruvate by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.

A) Lactate B) Glucose C) Pyruvate D) Oxaloacetate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 14) Both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are controlled by ________ in response to hormones.

A) 3-Phosphoglycerate B) Pyruvate C) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate D) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 3 .

15) Pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase catalyze reactions of gluconeogenesis that bypass the reaction of glycolysis that is catalyzed by ________.

A) Pyruvate kinase B) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase C) Pyruvate carboxykinase D) Phosphoenolpyruvate synthase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5 16) ________ is a major energy source for skeletal muscle contraction.

A) Pyruvate B) Lactate C) Acetyl CoA D) Glycogen Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 17) Polysaccharide digestion and glycogen breakdown involve sequential cleavage from ________ ends of glucose polymers.

A) Ionic B) Hydroxyl C) Non-reducing D) Reducing Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 18) The major product from the action of glycogen phosphorylase and the debranching enzyme glucantransferase is ________.

A) glucose-6-phosphate B) UDP-glucose C) glucose-1-phosphate D) fructose-6-phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.8 19) Which of the following is NOT involved in glycogen synthesis?

A) UDP-glucose B) Glycogenin C) Amylo-(1,4 to 1,6)-transglycosylase D) Glycogen phosphorylase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 4 .

20) Which statement about control of glycogen metabolism is INCORRECT? A) Epinephrine signals glycogen breakdown in muscle.

B) Glucagon signals glycogen breakdown in liver.

C) Glycogen phosphorylase is activated by phosphorylation.

D) Glycogen synthase is phosphorylated at only one site.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 21) The pentose phosphate pathway provides ________ for reductive biosynthesis and ________ for nucleic acid biosynthesis.

A) NADPH, deoxyribose-5-phosphate B) NADH, deoxyribose-5-phosphate C) NADPH, ribose-5-phosphate D) NADH, ribose-5-phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 22) Which substance is a product of glycolysis, a precursor of gluconeogenesis and a precursor of the citric acid cycle?

A) Glucose B) Pyruvate C) ATP D) Coenzyme A Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.1 23) How many ATP molecules are consumed in the hexose stage of glycolysis for every one molecule of glucose?

A) 0; ATP is produced, not consumed, by glycolysis.

B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.1

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24) The net energy gain in glycolysis is due to the production of ________.

A) Phosphoenolpyruvate B) NAD C) NADH D) ADP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.4 25) During glycolysis, isomerization occurs during which of the following reactions?

A) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate → dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate B) Fructose 6-phosphate → fructose 1,6-bisphosphate C) Glucose 6- phosphate → fructose 6- phosphate D) Glucose → glucose 6- phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 26) Transfer of a high-energy phosphoryl group to ADP, resulting in ATP occurs when ________.

A) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-phosphoglycerate B) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) → pyruvate C) 3-phosphoglycerate → 2-phosphoglycerate D) Both A and B Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 27) An intramolecular phosphoryl-group transfer occurs when ________.

A) 2-phosphoglycerate is converted to phosphoenolpyruvate B) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate C) Glucose is converted to glucose-6-phosphate D) 3-phosphoglycerate is converted to 2-phosphoglycerate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.1 28) How would the liver normally respond under condition of high glucose?

A) Phosphorylating glucose for entry into the glycolytic pathway B) Saturating glucokinase with glucose C) Dephosphorylating glucose-6-phosphate for entry into the glycogen synthesis pathways D) A and B only Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6

6 .

29) Glucose 6-phosphate allosterically inhibits ________.

A) Hexokinase I B) Glucokinase C) PFK D) Aldolase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 30) Isozymes are enzymes ________.

A) From one species that catalyze the same reaction B) From different species that catalyze the same reaction C) That have isomers as substrates D) That have products that are isomers Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 31) Phosphofructokinase I deficiency results in ________.

A) An overproduction of Fructose 6-phosphate B) An overproduction of Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate C) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate abundance D) An overproduction of fructose-2,6-Bisphosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 32) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase causes ________.

A) The reduction and phosphorylation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to produce 1,3bisphosphoglycerate B) The oxidation of a molecule of NAD+ to NADH C) Neither A nor B D) Both A and B Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 33) The glucose 6-phosphate isomerase reaction is a near-equilibrium reaction. Therefore, at any time in a cell there is ________.

A) Little or no glucose- 6-phosphate remaining B) About equal amounts of glucose- 6-phosphate and fructose -6-phosphate C) An accumulation of fructose 6-phosphate D) All of the above Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 7 .

34) A cell that has been fed glucose containing carbon – radioactive with carbon-14 in carbon #1 will have ________ percent of the radioactivity in each mole of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 12.2 35) Although the Gibbs free energy change for the reaction of triose phosphate isomerase is positive (+6.7 kj/mole), the reaction product (1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate) is reduced to zero because ________.

A) Triose phosphate isomerase is written left to right B) Triosephosphate isomerase is complexed to phosphoglycerate kinase, the next step in the sequence of reactions C) There are too few molecules of dihydroxyacetone phosphate available D) There are allosteric stimulants of triose phosphate isomerase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.3 36) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is ________.

A) Not an essential component of glycolysis for ATP production B) Converted to 3-phosphoglycerate with formation of ATP C) Essential for the efficient release of O2 from hemoglobin D) A product of the enzyme phosphofructokinase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.2 37) Gluconeogenesis uses the same enzymatic reactions of glycolysis EXCEPT for the ________.

A) Pyruvate kinase catalyzed step B) 4 irreversible reactions in glycolysis C) 3 irreversible reactions in glycolysis D) 2 irreversible reactions in glycolysis Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5

8 .

38) Glucose is stored as ________ in bacteria and animals.

A) Glucagon B) Starch C) Glycogen D) NADPH Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.8 39) Gluconeogenesis is the ________.

A) Result of amylase activity B) Formation of glycogen C) Formation of starches D) Formation of glucose from simple two and three-carbon precursors Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5 40) Glucose monomers can be released to fuel energy by degradation of ________.

A) Stored glycogen B) Cellobiose C) Dextrin D) Cellulose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 41) Gluconeogenesis generates ________.

A) 2 ATP and 2 NADH B) 1 ATP and 1 NADH C) 1 ATP and 0 NADH D) 0 ATP and 0 NADH Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5 42) The ________ is the site of most gluconeogenesis in mammals.

A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Cytosol of all cells D) Small intestine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5

9 .

43) Which is the evidence for gluconeogenesis being a more ancient metabolic pathway than glycolysis?

A) The protein sequences for the gluconeogenesis enzymes are less conserved than those for glycolysis, indicating greater diversity developed by evolution.

B) Many archaebacterial enzymes for gluconeogenesis have the same catalytic triad as those in modern mammals.

C) Glycolysis in bacteria generally has fewer pathway steps, indicating that it has had less time to evolve.

D) Some bacterial species that diverged very early in prokaryotic evolution have gluconeogenesis, but not glycolysis.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.5 44) The only known regulatory mechanism for pyruvate carboxylase is ________.

A) Activation by acetyl CoA B) Activation by phosphorylation C) Activation by cAMP D) Activation by NADH Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 45) Gluconeogenesis is regulated by ________.

A) Glucagon B) Allosteric modulation C) Concentration of its substrates D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 46) An intermediate found in gluconeogenesis and not glycolysis is ________.

A) 2-phosphoglycerate B) Oxaloacetate C) Phosphoenolpyruvate D) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6

10 .

47) The reaction that converts amino acids into keto acids (such as pyruvate) is called ________.

A) The Cori cycle B) Catabolism C) Transamination D) Dehydrogenation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.7 48) Glycerol is converted to ________ when it is used for gluconeogenesis.

A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate B) Phosphoenolpyruvate C) Oxaloacetate D) 3-phosphoglycerate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.6 49) The pentose phosphate pathway has two primary products. They are ________.

A) ATP and NADPH B) Oxaloacetate and acetyl CoA C) Sorbitol and fructose D) ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 50) Individuals with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency have increased resistance to malaria because the parasite does NOT survive well in cells with ________.

A) Anemia B) High levels of NADPH C) Low levels of NADPH D) Hexose 6-phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 51) The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway ________.

A) Produces NADPH and releases CO2 B) Consists entirely of near-equilibrium reactions C) Contains two reactions whose enzymes are allosterically inhibited by NADPH D) Consumes four ATP molecules Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10

11 .

52) The pentose phosphate pathway can alternatively be called the pentose phosphate cycle because ________ is a net product of the pathway that can be recycled.

A) Glucose 6-phosphate B) NADP+ C) Carbon dioxide D) Phosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 53) Deficiencies in G6PDH (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) in humans causes ________.

A) Varying degrees of hemolytic anemia B) Decreased resistance to malaria C) Lack of NADPH in many cells D) All of the above Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 54) The major regulatory step of the pentose phosphate pathway is catalyzed by which enzyme?

A) Transaldolase B) Phosphofructokinase-1 C) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase D) Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 55) The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway produces substances that are intermediates of ________.

A) Glycolysis B) The citric acid cycle C) The Cori cycle D) Glycogenolysis Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 56) Fragments containing three carbons can be transferred from a ketose phosphate to an aldose phosphate by the enzyme ________.

A) Pyruvate carboxylase B) Transaldolase C) Debranching enzyme D) Ribose-5-phosphate isomerase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 12 .

57) What is the prosthetic group of transketolase?

A) Thiamine pyrophosphate B) Biotin C) Pyridoxal phosphate D) NAD+ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 58) Which is NOT a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A) To maintain levels of NADPH B) To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty acids C) To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA D) To raise the concentration of cAMP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.10 59) The activity of glycogen phosphorylase can be controlled by all EXCEPT ________.

A) Phosphorylation B) AMP C) Glucose 6-phosphate D) Protein subunit separation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 60) Why does glycolysis produce more energy (more ATP) from glucose units released by glycogen degradation than from free glucose?

A) Limit dextrin contains additional molecules.

B) The debranching enzyme releases free glucose.

C) The glucose is already phosphorylated after glycogen phosphorylase action.

D) The glucose from glycogen degradation bypasses glycolysis.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 61) Glycogenin is ________.

A) A protein for attachment of primer glucose chains B) An enzyme that attaches glucose residues to fructose C) A pre-existing primer in glycogen synthesis D) An enzyme that catalyzes glycogen branches Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 13 .

62) Glucose 1-phosphate formed by glycogen degradation is converted to glucose 6-phosphate by phosphoglucomutase. Why is this beneficial?

A) Glucose 6-phosphate is more stable.

B) Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to free glucose.

C) Glucose 6-phosphate is an intermediate in several pathways, including glycolysis.

D) Glucose 6-phosphate can be transported to the liver.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 63) Glycogen synthesis in vertebrates requires ________ to activate glucose 1-phosphate.

A) ATP B) ADP C) UTP D) UDP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.8 64) Possible treatment for diabetes are inhibitors of glycogen phosphorylase that mimic the natural inhibitory activity of ________ in non-diabetic persons.

A) Glucagon B) Insulin C) Cyclic AMP D) Glucose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 65) Which statement is TRUE about the reaction catalyzed by glycogen synthase?

A) It polymerizes free glucose to glycogen in the liver.

B) It requires UTP-glucose for chain lengthening.

C) It can both lengthen glycogen chains as well as form new branches.

D) It requires a primer of four to eight linked glucose residues.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.8 66) Glycogen degradation occurs in ________.

A) Muscle B) Liver C) Muscle and liver D) Saliva Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.8 14 .

67) The enzyme for the key regulatory step in glycogen biosynthesis is ________.

A) Glycogen synthase B) Glycogenin C) Branching enzyme D) Phosphoglucomutase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9 68) Protein kinase A, which stimulates glycogen degradation, is activated directly by ________.

A) Glucagon B) Insulin C) Epinephrine D) Cyclic AMP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 12.9

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 13 The Citric Acid Cycle 1) Oxaloacetate is replenished via the ________ in plants and bacteria.

A) Cori cycle B) Pentose phosphate shuttle C) Glyoxylate pathway D) Oxaloacetate cycle Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.9 2) The glyoxylate cycle in plants and bacteria can be used for net carbohydrate synthesis from fat because isocitrate lyase yields glyoxylate and ________ without the loss of two carbons as occurs in the citric acid cycle.

A) Oxaloacetate B) Succinate C) Sucrose D) Fumarate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.9 3) All of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in the ________.

A) Golgi complex B) Inner cell membrane C) Cytoplasm D) Mitochondrion Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1 4) Which of the following does NOT apply to the reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A) The process is highly exergonic and essentially irreversible in vivo.

B) Each intermediate in the five step reaction is able to diffuse to the next active site in a sequential manner.

C) It takes place in the mitochondrion.

D) It is an oxidative decarboxylation.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2

1 .

5) All of the following are cofactors used in the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase EXCEPT ________.

A) NAD+ B) Biotin C) Thiamine pyrophosphate D) FAD Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 6) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a reaction of the citric acid cycle that does NOT produce reduced electron carriers?

A) Malate dehydrogenase B) Succinate dehydrogenase C) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase D) Succinyl –CoA synthetase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 7) Arsenic poisoning acts by inhibiting the citric acid cycle at the point of both pyruvate dehydrogenase and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase because it makes a stable adduct with the ________ groups of the dihydrolipoamide intermediate.

A) Sulfhydryl B) Hydroxyl C) Methyl D) Phosphoryl Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.7 8) One substrate level phosphorylation occurs in the citric acid cycle in the reaction catalyzed by ________.

A) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase B) Succinate dehydrogenase C) Succinyl –CoA synthetase D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3

2 .

9) Taking one mole of glucose through glycolysis and the citric acid cycle generates ________.

A) 6C02, 8 NADH/H+, 1FADH2 and 1 ATP B) 6C02, 8 NADH/H+, 1FADH2 and 2 ATP C) 6C02, 10 NADH/H+, 2FADH2 and 2 ATP D) 6C02, 10 NADH/H+, 2FADH2 and 4 ATP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 10) Which of the following does NOT regulate flux through the citric acid cycle?

A) Substrate availability B) The ratio of [NAD+]/[NADH] C) Allosteric inhibition of isocitrate dehydrogenase by ADP D) Inhibition of α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase by succinyl CoA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 11) The malate dehydrogenase reaction has a strongly positive standard free energy change but it proceeds in the direction of oxaloacetate because the concentration of ________ is maintained at exceedingly low levels.

A) Acetyl CoA B) Fumarate C) Oxaloacetate D) Succinate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 12) ________ reactions can be used to provide intermediates for the citric acid cycle.

A) Dehydrogenation B) Transamination C) Oxidation D) Reduction Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.6

3 .

13) Acetyl CoA is a feed forward activator of the enzyme ________ ensuring sufficient oxaloacetate for the citric acid cycle to continue.

A) Pyruvate kinase B) Pyruvate carboxylase C) Pyruvate oxidase D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 14) The citric acid cycle oxidizes pyruvate, and some of the pathway intermediates are starting materials for many biosynthetic pathways. This means that the citric acid cycle is ________.

A) Amplifying B) Catabolic C) Anabolic D) Amphibolic Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 15) Compounds like succinate, fumarate and α-ketoglutarate have a catalytic effect on the consumption of oxygen in a cell suspension. The rate of oxygen consumption is far more than required for their own oxidation. This is evidence that ________.

A) They are intermediates in glycolysis B) They act as enzymes to cause the oxidation of other compounds C) They are involved in a cyclic pathway D) They must be cofactors for enzymes that are oxidoreductases Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 16) Why was the muscle cells and its extracts the best choice for Krebs, Johnson and SzentGyörgyi to elucidate the cyclic nature of the citric acid cycle?

A) The reactions of the cycle in muscle cells are more highly regulated, and therefore easier to study, than in other tissues.

B) Muscle cells have an unusually high concentration of the starting material, pyruvate.

C) In muscle the cycle intermediates are used almost exclusively for energy metabolism by the cycle and not for other reactions.

D) Muscle cells can more easily uptake oxygen than other cells, so monitoring the consumption of oxygen is easier for these cells.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.1

4 .

17) The net effect of the eight steps of the citric acid cycle is to ________.

A) Completely oxidize an acetyl group to carbon dioxide B) Convert pyruvate to succinate C) Produce NAD+ and Q D) Produce 8 ATP for every pass through the cycle Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 18) In eukaryotes the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are found in the ________.

A) Cytosol B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 19) The order of prosthetic groups as they act in the three proteins of the PDH (pyruvate dehydrogenase) complex is ________.

A) FAD→ thiamine pyrophosphate→ NAD+ B) FAD→ thiamine pyrophosphate→ dihydrolipoamide C) Thiamine pyrophosphate → dihydrolipoamide→ FAD D) NAD+→ FAD→ dihydrolipoamide Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 20) The arrangement of subunits in the PDH (pyruvate dehydrogenase) complex ensures that ________.

A) ATP is formed B) The product of one enzyme is delivered to the next in turn C) The dihydrolipoamide arm can react with NAD+ D) Acetyl CoA enters into the series of reactions Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 21) Some bacteria and anaerobic eukaryotes not using PDH (pyruvate dehydrogenase) form acetyl CoA and CO2 from pyruvate with ________.

A) PDH modified with methyl groups B) Pyruvate: ferredoxin oxidoreductase C) 2-oxoacid dehydrogenase D) An isoenzyme of PDH Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 5 .

22) Pyruvate passes through the outer mitochondrial membrane by ________.

A) Porin proteins B) Passive transport C) Pyruvate translocase D) Simple diffusion through the lipid bilayer Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 23) The enzyme pyruvate translocase is located ________.

A) In the cytosol B) In the inner mitochondrial membrane C) In the mitochondrial matrix D) In the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 24) Pyruvate translocase is a(n) ________ protein that transports ________.

A) Antiport; pyruvate and H+ in opposite directions B) Uniport; only pyruvate C) Symport; pyruvate and H+ in the same direction D) Antiport; pyruvate and CO2 in opposite directions Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 25) Which is NOT a component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A) Dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase D) Dihydrolipoamide acetyltransferase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 26) Which cofactor is NOT used by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A) Lipoamide B) Thiamine pyrophosphate C) FAD D) QH2 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2

6 .

27) Which carbon atom(s) of pyruvate is(are) first converted to carbon dioxide by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A) The carboxylate carbon (#1) B) The carbonyl carbon (#2) C) The methyl carbon (#3) D) Both carbons #1 and #3 in equal amounts Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 28) Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase catalyzes ________.

A) The dephosphorylation and activation of E1 B) The dephosphorylation and inactivation of E1 C) The phosphorylation and inactivation of E1 D) The phosphorylation and activation of E1 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 29) The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is larger than a ribosome. In bacteria these complexes are located in the cytosol while they are found in ________ of eukaryotes.

A) Cell membranes B) Mitochondrial membranes C) Mitochondrial matrices D) Nuclei Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 30) A deficiency in thiamine causes the disease beriberi. Which might you expect to be higher than normal blood concentration in an individual with this condition?

A) Isocitrate B) Pyruvate C) Oxaloacetate D) Acetyl CoA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.7 31) Most of the energy released in citric acid cycle reactions is conserved in ________.

A) GTP B) ATP C) NADH and QH2 D) ADP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 7 .

32) What are the fewest number of turns of the citric acid cycle needed before radioactive carbons in acetyl group of both acetyl Co A are incorporated into all 4 carbons in every molecule of oxaloacetate produced?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) None Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 33) When energy-rich acetyl CoA is oxidized to carbon dioxide, eight electrons are released.

Most often, electrons are released in such reactions because ________.

A) Double bonds formed in CO2 share electron pairs B) There are more electrons in the reactants than in the products C) Water is not available in the reaction D) An electron acceptor is linked to the reaction Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 34) Citrate can react asymmetrically in the citric acid cycle because the enzyme aconitase ________.

A) Binds citrate asymmetrically B) Binds either form of citrate C) Binds both forms of isocitrate D) Does not distinguish the -CH2COO- group Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 35) What type of reaction is the conversion of fumarate to malate?

A) Oxidative decarboxylation B) Hydration C) Dehydrogenation D) Condensation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3

8 .

36) Carbons from acetyl CoA are transferred to the citric acid cycle. Which is the first round of the citric acid cycle that could possibly release a carbon atom originating from this acetyl CoA? A) First round B) Second round C) Third round D) Fourth round Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.2 37) Which enzyme is the same in both the pyruvate dehydrogenase and α-ketoglutarate complexes?

A) Dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase B) Aconitase C) Pyruvate decarboxylase D) The two complexes have no components that are similar.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 38) Which step in the citric acid cycle is a rearrangement reaction?

A) Succinyl CoA to succinate B) Fumarate to L-malate C) Citrate to isocitrate D) Glucose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 39) Which is NOT produced by the citric acid cycle?

A) NADH B) FMN C) CO2 D) QH2 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 40) Which enzyme does NOT catalyze a reaction that releases carbon dioxide?

A) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase C) Malate dehydrogenase D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 9 .

41) After passing through pyruvate dehydrogenase and the citric acid cycle, one mole of pyruvate will result in the formation of ________ moles of carbon dioxide and ________ mole(s) of ATP (or GTP).

A) 2; 2 B) 2; 1 C) 3; 2 D) 3; 1 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 42) Which statement is TRUE about lactate dehydrogenase and malate dehydrogenase?

A) Both enzymes are highly specific for their own substrates.

B) A single amino acid change can convert lactate dehydrogenase to a malate dehydrogenase.

C) The naturally occurring enzymes do not have much sequence similarity, but do have closely related three-dimensional structures.

D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 43) Which intermediate of the citric acid cycle has a plane of symmetry?

A) Succinate B) Citrate C) Succinyl CoA D) α-ketoglutarate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 44) The step at which acetyl CoA enters the citric acid cycle is classified as a ________ reaction.

A) Condensation B) Substrate-level phosphorylation C) Decarboxylation D) Dehydrogenation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 45) Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of citrate to isocitrate?

A) Aldolase B) Citrate synthase C) Citrate isomerase D) Aconitase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 10 .

46) Which 5-carbon intermediate of the citric acid cycle is converted to a 4-carbon molecule with the release of carbon dioxide?

A) Fumarase B) α-ketoglutarate C) Succinate D) Isocitrate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 47) A carbon atom that has single bond to four substituents with exactly two of the four substituents identical is called a(n) ________.

A) Prochiral carbon atom B) Tetrahedral stereo center C) Divalent carbon atom D) Anomeric carbon atom Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 48) Which of the following enzymatic reactions are examples of substrate level phosphorylation?

A) Succinyl Co-A synthetase B) Pyruvate kinase C) Phosphoglycerate kinase D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 49) During catalysis, succinyl CoA synthetase generates ________.

A) An energy deficient, unstable phosphoenzyme intermediate B) An energy rich, unstable phosphoenzyme intermediate C) An energy rich, stable phosphoenzyme intermediate D) All of the above Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 50) The succinate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes ________.

A) The formation of a single hydrogen bond in the oxidation of succinate to fumarate B) The formation of a double bond in the oxidation of succinate to fumarate C) The formation of a double bond from the reduction of oxaloacetate D) The formation of a single bond from the oxidation of isocitrate to succinate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 11 .

51) The succinate dehydrogenase reaction is unusual for a dehydrogenase because it uses ________ as an electron acceptor (oxidizing agent) that is regenerated by ubiquinone.

A) ATP B) NADP C) Malonate D) FAD Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 52) Which of the following is/are TRUE statements about the succinate dehydrogenase reactions?

A) It is stereospecific.

B) Only the cis-isomer of the product is formed.

C) It is not stereospecific.

D) Both B and C. Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 53) Which of the following are components of the succinate dehydrogenase complex?

A) FMN prosthetic group B) Iron-sulfur clusters C) Malonate D) Isocitrate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 54) When fumarate is positioned in the active site of fumarase, the double bond of the substrate can be attacked from only one side. Therefore, fumarate is a(n) ________ molecule.

A) Asymmetric B) Prochiral C) Isomeric D) Duplicate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3

12 .

55) The molecule malonate ________.

A) Is a structural analog of succinate B) Binds to the substrate-binding site of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex but does not react C) Undergoes an oxidation reaction D) Can be used to generate FMN Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.3 56) Aqueous channels in cell membranes that small molecules such as pyruvate can pass through are formed by transmembrane proteins called ________.

A) Openings B) Porins C) Pores D) Locase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 57) Metabolites moved across the mitochondrial membrane by transporters include all EXCEPT ________.

A) Pyruvate B) PEP C) Citrate and malate D) Lactate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 58) What is the role of mitochondrial PEPCK? A) It converts oxaloacetate to PEP, which can then be transported to the cytoplasm.

B) It aids in the transport of pyruvate across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

C) It converts oxaloacetate to malate, which feeds into the malate-aspartate shuttle.

D) It converts acetyl CoA to citrate, which can then be transported to the cytoplasm.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.6 59) NAD-dependent malate dehydrogenase ________.

A) Catalyzes the oxidation of malate to regenerate fumarate B) Catalyzes the conversion of fumarase to malate C) Catalyzes a reaction which results in the formation of an NADH molecule D) All of the above Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.6 13 .

60) The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is located inside mitochondria. Pyruvate is formed by glycolysis in the cytoplasm. Pyruvate is brought into the mitochondrion by ________.

A) Diffusion B) TCA transporter C) PEP transporter D) Pyruvate transporter Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 61) About how many total ATP equivalents are generated by the complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl CoA? A) 1.5 B) 2.5 C) 3 D) 10 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 13.4 62) Which product of the citric acid cycle produces the most ATP equivalents?

A) NADH B) QH2 C) GTP D) CO2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.4 63) Which of the following inhibit(s) pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase?

A) Pyruvate B) NADH C) Acetyl-coA D) All of the above Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 64) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is inactivated by phosphorylation. This can be prevented by a chemical, dichloroacetate, and this disrupts many cancer cells because they are ________.

A) Aerobic B) Anaerobic C) Fast growing D) Non-fermenting Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 14 .

65) Mammalian pyruvate dehydrogenase is inactivated when pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase is activated by ________.

A) NADH B) ADP C) Pyruvate D) AMP Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 66) Each of the following catalyzed reactions of the citric acid cycle appears to be regulated EXCEPT ________.

A) Citrate synthase B) Fumarase C) Isocitrate dehydrogenase D) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 67) Which of the following allosterically activates mammalian isocitrate dehydrogenase?

A) ATP B) NADH C) Calcium D) All of the above Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.5 68) A metabolic pathway that is both catabolic and anabolic is ________. An example of such a pathway is ________.

A) Ambibolic; glycolysis B) Amphibolic; the citric acid cycle C) Duplibolic; the pentose phosphate pathway D) Pathways cannot be both anabolic and catabolic, so there are no example pathways.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.6

15 .

69) The glyoxylate cycle leads from two carbon compounds to glucose in each organism below EXCEPT ________.

A) Animals B) Plants C) Bacteria D) Yeast Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.9 70) Which statement is FALSE about the glyoxylate cycle?

A) In mammals the glyoxylate cycle is used to replenish citric acid cycle intermediates.

B) It is an anabolic alternative for the metabolism of acetyl CoA. C) It can be regarded as a shunt in the citric acid cycle.

D) In eukaryotes, metabolites must be transferred from the mitochondria to the cytosol to be used in the glyoxylate cycle.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 13.9

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 14 Electron Transport, Oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism 1) Cristae in mitochondria comprises what part of mitochondria?

A) Outer membrane B) Intermembrane space C) Inner membrane D) Matrix Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) The density of cristae is higher in mitochondria of the cell with higher rates of ________.

A) Respiration B) Perspiration C) Cytokinesis D) Signaling Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 3) Which intermediates of citric acid cycle are NAD+ -linked substrates?

A) Fumarate, malate, isocitrate B) Succinate, malate, α-ketoglutarate C) Isocitrate, α-ketoglutarate, malate D) Succinate, fumarate, malate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 4) Which of the statement is TRUE for Complex I of the respiratory chain complex?

A) It receives electrons from oxidation of FADH2.

B) It receives electrons from oxidation of NADH. C) It transfers the electrons from coenzyme Q to cytochrome c.

D) It catalyzes the oxidation of cytochrome c.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 5) Which of the statement is TRUE for Complex V of the respiratory chain complex?

A) It is involved in the production of ATP from ADP. B) It pumps the electrons in to the matrix of mitochondria.

C) It pumps the electrons in to the intermembrane space.

D) It pumps electron back to matrix and produces ATP. Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 1 .

6) Which electron carrier transfers electron to Complex III? A) Cytochrome c B) Coenzyme Q C) FADH2 D) NADH Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 7) What is the terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain and ATP synthesis in mitochondria?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Oxygen D) Ozone Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 8) In prokaryotic cells, where does the electron transport chain and synthesis of ATP occur?

A) Cytosol B) Plasma membrane C) Ribosome D) Inner mitochondrial membrane Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.1 9) Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction FADH2 + 1/2O2 → FAD + H2O given that the standard reduction potential for the reduction of oxygen to water is +0.82 V and for the reduction of FAD to FADH2 is -0.22 V. A) -152 kJ B) -200 kJ C) -220 kJ D) -164 kJ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.2

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10) Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction NADH + 1/2O2 + H+ → NAD+ + H2O given that the standard reduction potential for the reduction of oxygen to water is +0.82 V and for the reduction of NAD to NADH is -0.32 V. A) -152 kJ B) -200 kJ C) -220 kJ D) -164 kJ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.2 11) Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction Pyruvate + CO2 + H+ + 2e- → Malate, given that the standard reduction potential for the reduction of pyruvate to malate is 0.33.

A) -63 kJ B) 63 kJ C) 152 kJ D) -152 kJ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.2 12) What is the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation from oxidation of 1 mole of NADH under standard conditions?

A) 37% B) 50% C) 78% D) 70% Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 13) What is the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation from oxidation of 1 mole of NADH under in vivo conditions?

A) 37% B) 50% C) 78% D) 70% Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2

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14) What is the amount of ATP produced through oxidation of 1 mole of NADH through energy produced by electron transport chain?

A) 4.5 moles B) 3.5 moles C) 2.5 moles D) 1.5 moles Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 15) What is the order for the flow of electrons through the electron transport chain in mitochondria?

A) NADH, succinate, coenzyme Q, cytochrome c, oxygen B) Succinate, NADH, cytochrome c, coenzyme Q, oxygen C) Oxygen, cytochrome c, coenzyme Q, succinate, NADH D) Cytochrome c, coenzyme Q, NADH, succinate, oxygen Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.2 16) Which of the statement is TRUE for flavoproteins involved in electron transport chain?

A) The flavoproteins contains a dominant squalene structure.

B) The complex III and complex IV contains flavoproteins C) Flavin nucleotides of flavoproteins can link two-electron and one-electron process.

D) All the flavoproteins provide the same standard reduction potential on Flavin.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 17) Which complexes of electron transport chain contain an iron-sulfur cluster?

A) Complexes II, III and IV B) Complexes III, IV and V C) Complexes I, II and III D) Complexes I, II, III and IV Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 18) The iron can gain or lose electron to move from ________ and ________ states.

A) Fe+ and Fe+2 B) F+2 and Fe+3 C) Fe- and Fe-2 D) Fe-2 and Fe-3 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 4 .

19) What functional unit imparts the lipophilic character to coenzyme Q? A) Squalene B) Isoprene C) Glyceride D) Quinone Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 20) The number of electrons carried by coenzyme Q at a time during the electron transport chain.

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 21) What are the types of cytochrome present in Complex IV? A) Cytochrome b, c, and a B) Cytochromes b, c, and c1 C) Cytochromes a, a3 D) Cytochromes a, b and c Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 22) How is heme A different from heme?

A) Heme A has side chain modified by a methyl and isoprenoid group.

B) Heme A has side chain modified by a formyl and isoprenoid group.

C) Heme A has side chain modified by a butyl and glyceride group.

D) Heme A has side chain modified by a methyl and squalene group.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 23) Besides iron ion in the heme A of cytochromes a and a3 what other metal ion is available as an electron donor and acceptor?

A) Magnesium B) Calcium C) Copper D) Manganese Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3

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24) What is the name of Complex I based on its function in electron transport chain?

A) Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase B) Succinate-coenzyme Q oxidase C) NADH-coenzyme Q reductase D) NADH-coenzyme Q oxidase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 25) Which is a component of complex I? A) FAD B) FMN C) CoQ D) TPP Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 26) What is the role of FMN in complex I? A) Converts a two-electron transfer to a one-electron transfer.

B) Converts a one-electron transfer to a two-electron transfer.

C) Transports four H+ across the membrane.

D) None, there is no FMN in complex I. Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 27) How many protons are translocated across the membrane by complex I for every pair of electrons that are passed from NADH to CoQH2?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 28) The complete reaction catalyzed by complex I can be summarized as ________.

A) NADH + Q ↔ QH + NAD+ B) NADH + Q +3H+ ↔ QH2 + NAD+ + 2H+ C) NADH + Q +4H+ ↔ QH2 + NAD+ + 3H+ D) NADH + Q +5H+ ↔ QH2 + NAD+ + 4H+ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 6 .

29) Which complexes in the electron transport chain do NOT contribute to the pumping of protons in to the intermembrane space?

A) I and II B) III and IV C) I and V D) II and V Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 30) Which complexes in the electron transport chain contribute to the pumping of protons in to the intermembrane space?

A) I, III and V B) I, III and IV C) II, III and V D) II and V Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 31) What is the name of Complex II based on its function in electron transport chain?

A) Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase B) Succinate-coenzyme Q oxidase C) NADH-coenzyme Q reductase D) NADH-coenzyme Q oxidase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 32) What is NOT a component of Complex II? A) FAD B) FMN C) Q D) Heme Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 33) Besides Complex I and II, which enzyme transfers electrons to coenzyme Q? A) Cytochrome c oxidoreductase B) Rieske Iron-sulfur transferase C) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase D) Malate dehydrogenase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 7 .

34) Which protein complex or enzymes transfers electrons to coenzyme Q? A) Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase B) NADH-coenzyme Q reductase C) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 35) The terminal electron acceptor for complex III of the electron transport chain is ________.

A) Coenzyme Q B) Cytochrome c C) Cytochrome a D) NAD+ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 36) How many protons are pumped in to intermembrane space from matrix by complex III? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 37) How many molecules of QH2 are oxidized and how many molecules of Q are reduced respectively, during the Q cycle in complex III? A) 1,1 B) 1,2 C) 2,1 D) 2,2 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 38) What is the other role played by cytochrome c besides being an electron carrier in an electron transport chain?

A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Apoptosis D) Ubiquitination Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 8 .

39) Which statement is FALSE about complex IV? A) A binuclear center that contains an iron ion and heme-a3 is the site of the reduction of molecular oxygen to water.

B) Bacterial and eukaryotic forms of complex IV have very similar structures and number of subunits per functional unit.

C) The core structure of the cytochrome c oxidase in complex IV has three conserved subunits.

D) Copper ions shift from a +2 oxidation state to a +1 oxidation state as electrons are passed through the complex.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 40) The amount of electrons required to reduce an oxygen molecule to water in complex IV? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 41) The site in complex IV where an oxygen molecule is reduced to water molecule?

A) CuA and Fea B) CuA and Fea3 C) CuB and Fea3 D) CuB and Fea Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3 42) Which complex in the electron transport chain carries electrons from cytochrome c to molecular oxygen, reducing it to water?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3

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43) What is the P/O ratio for the oxidation of NADH in electron transport chain?

A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2 D) 2.5 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 44) What is the P/O ratio for the oxidation of succinate/FADH2 in electron transport chain?

A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2.0 D) 2.5 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 45) Which of the following compounds would block the flow of electrons from cytochrome b to c1?

A) Kanamycin B) Antimycin A C) Penicillin D) Clarithomycin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 46) Which among these can act as an inhibitor to cytochrome oxidase?

A) Cyanide B) Azide C) Carbon monoxide D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 47) Which of the reaction is NOT a part of 'coupling site' for the synthesis of ATP by electron transport chain?

A) Oxidation of NADH by coenzyme Q B) Oxidation of succinate by coenzyme Q C) Oxidation of CoQH2 by cytochrome C D) Oxidation of cytochrome C by oxygen Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 10 .

48) What is the minimum energy required by a reaction to contribute in the synthesis of ATP molecule exergonically?

A) 220.2 kJ/mol B) 152.4 kJ/mol C) 32.2 kJ/mol D) 50.6 kJ/mol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 49) How many protons are translocated across the inner mitochondrial membrane by complex IV for every pair of electrons passing through the electron transport chain?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3/14.4 50) Overall, how many protons are pumped by the membrane-associated electron transport system across the membrane for every molecule of NADH that is oxidized?

A) 12 B) 10 C) 8 D) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.3/14.4 51) Which model holds TRUE to explain the synthesis of ATP by energy released from electron transport chain?

A) Mosaic model B) Chemiosmotic coupling C) Passive diffusion D) Facilitated diffusion Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4

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52) Calculate the free energy change associated with transporting one proton from the matrix to the intermembrane space at 370C where the electrical potential across the membrane is 170 mV and the ΔpH is +0.75?

A) 11 kJ/mol B) 21 kJ/mol C) 31 kJ/mol D) 41 kJ/mol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 53) Calculate the free energy change associated with transporting one proton from the matrix to the intermembrane space at 270C where the electrical potential across the membrane is 70 mV and the △pH is +1?

A) 2 kJ/mol B) 12 kJ/mol C) 22 kJ/mol D) 32 kJ/mol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 54) Calculate the change in pH (△pH) required for 30 kJ/mol of energy required for transporting one proton from matrix to the intermembrane space at 370C where the electric potential across the membrane is 200 mV? A) +0.5 B) +1.0 C) +1.5 D) +2.0 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 14.4 55) Which of the following compound can uncouple the process of proton gradient formation and synthesis of ATP? A) Imidazole B) Sodium dodecyl sulfate C) Dinitrophenol D) Potassium chloride Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4

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56) What complex of ATP synthase is responsible for the synthesis of ATP? A) F0 B) F1 C) F2 D) F6 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 57) What complex of ATP synthase is responsible for the transport of proton to mitochondrial matrix?

A) F0 B) F1 C) F2 D) F6 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 58) What is the CORRECT subunit stoichiometry for the F1 complex of mitochondrial ATP synthase?

A) α3β3γδε B) α3β3γ3δ2ε C) α3β3γ2δ2ε D) α3β3γ2δε2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4 59) What is TRUE for the process of ATP synthesis by ATP synthase complex?

A) F1 rotor complex transports the protons across the membrane.

B) F0 complex results in the synthesis of ATP molecule.

C) The clockwise rotation of F1 rotor complex allows the synthesis of ATP molecule.

D) The anticlockwise rotation of F1 rotor complex allows the synthesis of ATP molecule.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.4

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60) What is the action of oligomycin on ATP synthase complex?

A) It transports the protons in to the matrix.

B) It inhibits the process of ADP phosphorylation.

C) It rotates the c ring.

D) It dissociates the αβ dimer.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5 61) What protein in brown adipose tissue help to dissipate heat in hibernating mammals during winter?

A) UCP1 B) UCP2 C) UCP3 D) UCP4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5 62) How is heat dissipated in hibernating mammals during winter?

A) By uncoupling the electron transport and ATP synthesis B) By dissipating heat through oxidation of acetyl-CoA C) UCP1 allows the transport of protons back to mitochondrial matrix D) All of the above Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.5 63) What type transporters are used by mitochondria to shuttle ATP and ADP through mitochondria and cell?

A) Antiport B) Symport C) Aquaporin D) Facilitated transport Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.6 64) What type of ion is used as a pair for antiport transfer of pyruvate through mitochondria?

A) Hydride B) Hydroxide C) Chloride D) Carboxylate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.6 14 .

65) In total, how many molecules of NADH and FADH2 are produced during the oxidative metabolism of one molecule of glucose?

A) 8 and 4 B) 10 and 2 C) 12 and 2 D) 14 and 4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.7 66) Under standard conditions, total how many molecules of ATP could be generated from metabolism of one glucose molecule?

A) 28 B) 30 C) 32 D) 34 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.7 67) How many molecules of ATP are generated form glucose molecule in a cell utilizing the glycerol phosphate shuttle?

A) 28 B) 30 C) 32 D) 34 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.7 68) What proteins of respiratory chain complex not encoded by the mitochondrial DNA? A) Complex II and cytochrome c B) Complex I and cytochrome a C) Complex IV and cytochrome c D) Complex V and cytochrome a Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.8

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69) Which is the most widely accepted theory for the origin of mitochondria in evolutionary biology?

A) Ectosymbiont hypothesis B) Endosymbiont hypothesis C) Parasitism D) Predation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.8 70) Which compound is NOT a reactive oxygen species?

A) Trioxygen B) Superoxide C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Hydroxyl radical Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.9 71) Superoxide turns toxic to cell membrane by association with free radical of ________.

A) Nitric oxide B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Sulfur dioxide D) Aminoxyls Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.9 72) Which cells utilize the reactive oxygen species to defend against the infecting bacteria?

A) Red blood cell B) White blood cell C) B cell D) T cell Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.9 73) Which of these proteins cannot metabolize hydrogen peroxide?

A) Peroxiredoxins B) Catalase C) Peroxidases D) Hydroxylases Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.9

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74) Which one of these compound is NOT an antioxidant?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin E Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 14.9

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 15 Photosynthesis 1) The anabolic process of converting CO2 into carbohydrates requires ________ of carbon.

A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Substitution D) Isomerization Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) The catabolic process of converting carbohydrates to CO2 requires ________ of carbon.

A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Substitution D) Isomerization Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 3) What molecule acts as the ultimate reducing agent for synthesis of carbohydrate from CO2 in plants, algae and cyanobacteria?

A) H2O B) H2S C) HSO3D) H2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 4) What molecule acts as the ultimate reducing agent for synthesis of carbohydrate from CO2 in purple bacteria?

A) H2O B) H2S C) HSO3D) H2 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1

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5) What molecule acts as the ultimate reducing agent for synthesis of carbohydrate from CO2 in green sulfur bacteria?

A) H2O B) H2S C) HSO3D) H2 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 6) What molecule acts as the ultimate reducing agent for synthesis of carbohydrate from CO2 in nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria?

A) H2O B) H2S C) HSO3D) H2 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 7) What is the phenomenon called which harnesses the light energy to convert ADP to ATP? A) Oxidative phosphorylation B) Quantaphosphorylation C) Photophosphorylation D) Chemophosphorylation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 8) Which statement is FALSE for dark reactions of photosynthesis?

A) It does not require the light energy for the reactions.

B) The reaction occurs both during day and night.

C) The dark reactions are accelerated by presence of light.

D) The dark reactions phosphorylate ADP to ATP. Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1

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9) Which of these reactions do NOT occur during light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) H2O → O2 B) ADP → ATP C) NADP+ → NADPH D) CO2 + H2O → Carbohydrate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.1 10) What organelle in plants are involved in photosynthetic reactions?

A) Mitochondria B) Vacuole C) Chloroplast D) Nucleus Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 11) On an average how many chloroplasts are present in a leaf cell?

A) 5-15 B) 20-50 C) 50-150 D) 200-300 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 12) Eukaryotic algae usually have ________ large chloroplast(s) in each cell.

A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1000 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 13) What part of chloroplast resembles the mitochondrial matrix?

A) Stroma B) Stroma lamella C) Thylakoid D) Granum Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2

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14) What is the flat, saclike membrane structure present in the stroma called?

A) Thylakoid B) Granum C) Lamella D) Solenoid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 15) Stacked units of thylakoid units are called ________.

A) Stratum B) Taxon C) Grana D) Stack Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 16) Individual grana are interconnected irregularly by thylakoid extension called ________.

A) Grana lamella B) Thylakoid lamella C) Stroma lamella D) Stratum lamella Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 17) What is the space enclosed by thylakoid membrane called?

A) Lumen B) Medulla C) Cortex D) Matrix Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 18) Where exactly does the light reactions occur in the chloroplasts?

A) Inner membrane B) Outer membrane C) Thylakoid membrane D) Stroma lamella Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2

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19) Where exactly does the dark reactions occur in the chloroplasts?

A) Stroma lamella B) Thylakoid membrane C) Stroma D) Inner membrane Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 20) In total how many membranes are available in a chloroplast?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.2 21) For a light with a wavelength of 568 nm, how much is the energy contained in one mole photons of the same light?

A) 180 kJ/mole B) 210 kJ/mole C) 240 kJ/mole D) 270 kJ/mole Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.3 22) For a light with a wavelength of 680 nm, how much is the energy contained in one mole photons of the same light?

A) 156 kJ/mole B) 166 kJ/mole C) 176 kJ/mole D) 186 kJ/mole Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.3 23) What is the wavelength of light with an energy of 210 kJ/mole?

A) 476 nm B) 576 nm C) 676 nm D) 776 nm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.3 5 .

24) What is the wavelength of light with an energy of 100 kJ/mole?

A) 110 nm B) 120 nm C) 130 nm D) 140 nm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.3 25) The energies of far-ultraviolet light are capable of breaking ________ bonds.

A) Weak B) Covalent C) Van der Waals D) Dipole Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 26) In what spectrum of electromagnetic radiation does the photosynthesis occurs?

A) Far-ultraviolet to ultraviolet region B) Ultraviolet to visible region C) Visible to near-infrared region D) Near-infrared to Infrared region Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 27) Which of the following statements is TRUE for photons in the visible and near-infrared region of electromagnetic radiation?

A) Photons have energies capable of breaking covalent bonds in organic molecules.

B) Photons have energies capable to alter the electronic states of the organic molecules.

C) Photons have energies capable of breaking ionic bonds.

D) Photons have energies capable of altering the atomic mass of the elements.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 28) What is the bound metal found in the chlorophylls a and b?

A) Iron B) Calcium C) Magnesium D) Sodium Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3

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29) What is the common chemical bond characteristic found in all the light absorbing pigments?

A) Protoporphyrin ring B) Large conjugated double-bond systems C) Large phytol side chain D) Bound metal ions Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 30) What kind of lipids dominate the thylakoid membrane?

A) Sphingolipids B) Phospholipids C) Glycolipids D) Glycerolipids Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 31) What part of chlorophylls allow them to interact with membrane lipids?

A) Protoporphyrin ring B) Phytol chain C) Bound metal ions D) Methyl side chain Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 32) What is the structural unit in chlorophyll called which allows the photon energy to be harvested in a chemical form?

A) Chemisystem B) Photosystem C) Biosystem D) Quantasystem Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 33) What is the term for transfer of energy from one molecule to another upon absorption of light energy?

A) Electron transfer B) Exciton transfer C) Proton transfer D) Meson transfer Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 7 .

34) What is TRUE about the energy transfer in a light-harvesting complex (LHC)?

A) All the chlorophylls in LHC acts as an electron acceptor B) All the chlorophylls in LHC acts as an antenna pigment molecule.

C) Most of the chlorophylls in LHC acts as an antenna pigment molecule to transfer energy to a chlorophyll acting as an electron acceptor.

D) Energy transfer from photon to reaction center of LHC occurs in a couple of seconds.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 35) What amongst these statements were one of the key discoveries of Robert Hill?

A) Chloroplasts can perform thermodynamically unfavorable reactions.

B) Chloroplasts can reduce oxygen to water.

C) Chloroplasts can absorb light in the ultraviolet region.

D) Chloroplasts can oxidize CO2 to O2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 36) What is quantum efficiency in terms of light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) Ratio of carbon dioxide reduced to sugar molecule B) Ratio of oxygen molecules released to photons absorbed C) Ratio of water molecule oxidized to oxygen D) Ratio of ATP produced to photons absorbed Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 37) What photosystem is capable of absorbing light in far-red light up to 700 nm?

A) Photosystem I B) Photosystem II C) Photosystem III D) Photosystem IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 38) What photosystem is capable of absorbing light up to 680 nm?

A) Photosystem I B) Photosystem II C) Photosystem III D) Photosystem IV Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3

8 .

39) What molecule absorbs the electron at the end of light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) NADP+ B) NAD+ C) FAD+ D) FADP+ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 40) What is the primary electron acceptor in Photosystem II? A) Pheophytin a B) Ferredoxin C) Cytochrome b6 D) Plastoquinone Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 41) Pheophytin are like chlorophyll, except with centrally bound ________ instead of magnesium in chlorophyll.

A) Electrons B) Protons C) Neutrons D) Positrons Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 42) What is the redox potential of an excited state in P680 chlorophyll?

A) +0.8 V B) -0.8 V C) +1.0 V D) -1.0 V Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 43) Electrons are transferred from pheophytin to a series of ________ in Photosystem II. A) Cytochromes B) Ferredoxins C) Plastoquinones D) Platins Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3

9 .

44) Which of the following is NOT a part of cytochrome b6f complex?

A) Cytochrome a3 B) Cytochrome b6 C) Cytochrome f D) Rieske iron sulfur protein Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 45) What is the final acceptor of electrons before they are transferred on to Photosystem I? A) Ferredoxin B) Cytochrome C) Plastoquinol D) Plastocyanin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 46) What is the CORRECT order for transfer of electrons through Photosystem II? A) P680-Pheophytin-Plastoquinone-Plastoquinol- Cytochrome b6f complex-Plastocyanin-P700 B) P680-Pheophytin-Plastoquinol-Plastoquinone-Cytochrome b6f complex-Plastocyanin-P700 C) P680-Plastocyanin-Cytochrome b6f complex-Plastoquinol-Plastoquinone-Pheophytin-P700 D) P680-Cytochrome b6f complex-Plastoquinol-Plastoquinone-Plastocyanin-Pheophytin-P700 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 47) What is the role of Oxygen evolving complex in Photosystem II? A) It splits two water molecules to release oxygen and four protons.

B) It splits oxygen to its superoxide radicals.

C) It splits carbon dioxide to carbon monoxide and oxygen radical.

D) It splits hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen radical.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 48) What is the electron donor which donates electron back to an excited P680?

A) Redox-active alanine B) Redox-active valine C) Redox-active isoleucine D) Redox-active tyrosine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3

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49) Which of this formula represents the Oxygen evolving complex?

A) O4Mg4Ca B) O4Mn4Ca C) O8Mn8Ca3 D) O8Mn8Ca2 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 50) How large is plant photosystem I complex?

A) Approximately 200 kDa B) Approximately 400 kDa C) Approximately 600 kDa D) Approximately 800 kDa Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 51) What is the redox potential of an excited state in P700 chlorophyll?

A) -1.1 V B) -1.2 V C) -1.3 V D) -1.4 V Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 52) What is the order for the transfer of electrons through Photosystem I? A) P700-A0-A1-FX-FA/FB-Fd-NADP+ B) P700- A1-A0-FA-FB-FX-Fd-NADP+ C) P700-Fd-FX-FB/FA-A1-A0-NADP+ D) P700- FX-FB/FA-A1-A0-Fd-NADP+ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 53) What is the number of protons translocated from stroma to thylakoid lumen for transfer of an electron through photosystems?

A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 11 .

54) What is the number of protons translocated from stroma to thylakoid lumen per O2 molecule released?

A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 55) How much fold difference in proton concentration for a successful pH gradient between lumen and stroma to drive the ATP synthesis?

A) 1000 B) 2000 C) 3000 D) 4000 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 56) During the light reactions of photosynthesis how many moles of proton are required to generate one mole of ATP? A) 1 B) 3 C) 9 D) 12 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 57) In net how many moles of ATP are produced per O2 molecule released during photosynthesis?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3

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58) Which photosystem dominates the stroma lamellae?

A) Photosystem I B) Photosystem II C) Photosystem III D) Photosystem IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 59) Which statement is FALSE about the photosystems in photosynthesis?

A) Photosystem I, II and cytochrome b6f complex are not contiguous.

B) Plastocyanin is a mobile molecule to transfer electrons from b6f complex to Photosystem I. C) Plastoquinone is a mobile molecule to transfer electrons from Photosystem II to b6f complex.

D) Cytochrome b6f complex is only confined to stroma lamellae.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 60) Where is Plastocyanin and Plastoquinone available in chloroplast respectively?

A) Thylakoid lumen and Thylakoid membrane B) Stroma and Thylakoid lumen C) Thylakoid Lumen and Stroma D) Thylakoid membrane and Thylakoid lumen Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 61) Which statement is FALSE about cyclic photophosphorylation in chloroplast?

A) It occurs when NADP+ is in small amounts.

B) It occurs when NADPH is available in excess.

C) Electrons from ferredoxin is transferred to cytochrome b6f complex.

D) Electrons from ferredoxin is transferred to NADP+.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 62) What is TRUE about cyclic photophosphorylation?

A) No oxygen and NADPH molecule are produced.

B) Oxygen and NADPH molecule are produced.

C) Electrons are transferred from ferredoxin to NADP+.

D) Occurs during excess availability of NADP+.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3

13 .

63) What molecule recycles the electron back to excited chlorophyll in a photosynthetic bacterium?

A) Cytochrome c B) Cytochrome bc1 C) Cytochrome a D) Cytochrome a3 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.3 64) What is the initial step required for binding of Rubisco enzyme to ribulose-1,5bisphosphate?

A) Methylation of lysine in active site B) Carbamation of lysine in active site C) Dehydration of lysine in active site D) Sulfonation of lysine in active site Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 65) What is the immediate intermediate formed after binding of Rubisco to ribulose-1,5bisphosphate?

A) 3-Phosphoglycerate B) Enediolate intermediate C) Carboxy-β-keto-intermediate D) Carbamate-β-keto-intermediate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 66) Carbon dioxide is taken up by enediolate intermediate to form ________.

A) Carbamate-β-keto-intermediate B) Carbamate-β-aldo-intermediate C) Carboxy-β-keto-intermediate D) Carboxy-β-aldo-intermediate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 67) Hydration of carboxy-β-keto-intermediate yields two molecules of ________.

A) 3-Phospholglycerate B) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate D) Glucose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 14 .

68) How many molecules from 3 fructose-1,6-bisphosphate produced are recycled to produce ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 69) How many moles of ATP and NADPH are required, respectively, to synthesize 1 mole of glucose from CO2?

A) 12,18 B) 18,12 C) 6,4 D) 4,6 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.4 70) In total summation how many photons of light is required to fix one mole of glucose from CO2?

A) 42 B) 48 C) 54 D) 60 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.5 71) If one einstein of 580 nm of light corresponds to 200 kJ of energy, what will be the theoretical efficiency of this light to fix a mole of glucose from CO2 and water?

A) 28% B) 30% C) 32% D) 34% Answer: B Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.5

15 .

72) If one einstein of 560 nm of light corresponds to 210 kJ of energy, what will be the theoretical efficiency of this light to fix a mole of glucose from CO2 and water?

A) 28% B) 30% C) 32% D) 34% Answer: A Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 15.5 73) What are the inhibitors to enzyme Rubisco?

A) Xylulose-1.5-bisphosphate B) 2-carboxy-D-arabinol-1-phosphate C) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate D) Glucose-1,5-bisphosphate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.5 74) Which enzyme removes the inhibitor 2-carboxy-D-arabinol-1-phosphate from rubisco upon illumination of chloroplast?

A) Rubisco phosphorylase B) Rubisco kinase C) Rubisco dismutase D) Rubisco activase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.5 75) Activation of dark reaction enzymes by reduction of disulfides to sulfhydryls are achieved by protein ________.

A) Ferredoxin B) Thioredoxin C) Cytochrome oxidase D) Rubisco activase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.5 76) Rubisco oxygenase activity occurs during which atmospheric conditions?

A) Low O2 and High CO2 B) High O2 and Low CO2 C) Low N2 and High O2 D) High N2 and Low O2 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.6 16 .

77) The intermediate, ________ is present in C4 plants.

A) Citrate B) Fumarate C) Succinate D) Oxaloacetate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.6 78) Where does the Calvin cycle occurs in C4 plants?

A) Mesophyll cells B) Bundle sheath cells C) Guard cells D) Parenchyma cells Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.6 79) Which enzyme regulates the transfer of CO2 from mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells in C4 plants?

A) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase B) Malate dehydrogenase C) Fumarate carboxylase D) Oxaloacetate dehydrogenase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.6 80) The oxidation of which intermediate of C4 cycle transfer the CO2 from mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells in C4 plants?

A) Malate B) Fumarate C) Oxaloacetate D) Pyruvate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 15.6

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 16 Lipid Metabolism 1) What type of lipid is most abundant in most of the organism?

A) Triglycerides B) Ceramides C) Monoglycerides D) Phospholipids Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) In animal systems, fat is stored in specialized cells called ________.

A) Keratinocytes B) Hepatocytes C) Adipocytes D) Glycerocytes Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) Which of this not an effective use of fats in an organism?

A) Energy reservoir B) Thermal insulator C) Shock absorber D) Ultrafiltration Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 4) How much is the energy yield per gram upon complete oxidation of triacylglycerols?

A) 17 kJ B) 27 kJ C) 37 kJ D) 47 kJ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 5) How much is the energy yield per gram upon complete oxidation of carbohydrates?

A) 17 kJ B) 27 kJ C) 37 kJ D) 47 kJ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 1 .

6) What is the reason for high caloric content in stored fats compared to stored carbohydrates?

A) Anhydrous B) Non-polar C) Highly reduced D) Highly reduced, non-polar and anhydrous nature of fats Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 7) A typical 70 kg human may have reserves of ________ kJ or more in total body fat.

A) 250000 B) 500000 C) 750000 D) 1000000 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 8) Which of these is NOT a primary source for triacylglycerols in mammals?

A) Diet B) Adipocytes C) de novo biosynthesis D) Hepatocytes Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 9) What characteristic of bile salts help in the digestion of fats in a mammalian digestive system?

A) Hydrophilic B) Hydrophobic C) Lipophobic D) Amphipathic Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 10) Which enzyme catalyzes the reactions at an oil-water interface?

A) Pancreatic kinase B) Pancreatic aconitase C) Pancreatic lipase D) Pancreatic isomerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1

2 .

11) What enzyme associates with pancreatic lipase in 1:1 ratio to assist in digestion of fats?

A) Coprotease B) Colipase C) Cohydrogenase D) Coisomerase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 12) What is the polypeptide component of lipoprotein called?

A) Prelipoprotein B) Prolipoprotein C) Apolipoprotein D) Exolipoprotein Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 13) The families of lipoproteins are classified, based on their ________.

A) Volume B) Mass C) Density D) Diameter Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 14) Which of these is NOT a class of major lipoprotein?

A) Chylomicron B) Very low-density lipoprotein C) Low density lipoprotein D) Chyme Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 15) Why does the blood plasma appear milky after a high-fat meal?

A) Presence of VHDL B) Presence of HDL C) Presence of IDL D) Presence of chylomicrons Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1

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16) What class of apolipoprotein has been associated with the development of Alzheimer's disease?

A) Apolipoprotein A B) Apolipoprotein B C) Apolipoprotein C D) Apolipoprotein E Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 17) Which apolipoprotein acts as an activator for hydrolysis of triacylglycerol by lipoprotein lipase?

A) C-I B) C-II C) A-I D) A-II Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 18) Which of these enzyme is NOT a part of serine esterase family?

A) Hormone sensitive lipase B) Lipoprotein lipase C) Pancreatic Lipase D) Phospholipase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 19) High level of cholesterol in blood results in the development of ________.

A) Atherosclerotic plaques B) Rupture-prone plaques C) Erosion-prone plaques D) Arteriosclerotic plaques Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 20) The synthesis of ________ from remnant chylomicrons and de novo synthesized cholesterol occurs in liver.

A) LDL B) VLDL C) HDL D) IDL Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 4 .

21) Cholesterol ester are synthesized from cholesterol and acyl chain on ________.

A) Phosphatidylcholine B) Phosphatidylserine C) Phosphatidylethanolamine D) Phosphatidic acid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 22) The synthesis of cholesterol ester is catalyzed by enzyme ________.

A) Phosphatidyl transferase B) Lecithin:cholesterol acyltransferase C) Lysolecithin:cholesterol acyltransferase D) Squalene:cholesterol acyltransferase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 23) What level of plasma cholesterol is considered as a major risk factor for heart disease?

A) 130 mg/100 mL B) 150mg/100 mL C) 180 mg/100 mL D) 210 mg/100 mL Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 24) What is the process by which LDL is taken up by cells?

A) Phagocytosis B) Exocytosis C) Endocytosis D) Plasmocytosis Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 25) Which type of apolipoprotein associated with LDL helps in its endocytosis?

A) B-48 B) B-100 C) A-IV D) A-II Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1

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26) Which protein comprises the coated pit of an endocytic vesicle?

A) Keratin B) Collagen C) Clathrin D) Entein Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 27) Approximately how long does it take for LDL receptors to be recycle in a cell?

A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 28) What amongst these are NOT a regulatory role for receptor mediated internalized cholesterol?

A) Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase B) Activation of acyl CoA:cholesterol acyltransferase C) Inhibition of transcription for LDL receptor D) Activation of ubiquitin degradosome Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 29) Which amongst these are NOT a type of ω-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid?

A) Linolenic acid B) Eicosapentaenoic acid C) Docosahexaenoic acid D) Docosapentaenoic acid Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 30) A single molecule of albumin can bind up to ________ molecules of fatty acid?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1

6 .

31) Which of these enzymes do NOT contribute to lysis of triacylglycerols?

A) Hormone-sensitive lipase B) Monoacylglycerol lipase C) Adipose triglyceride lipase D) HMG-CoA synthase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 32) Which of these hormones stimulate the process of lipogenesis?

A) Glucagon B) Epinephrine C) Insulin D) Thyrotropin Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.1 33) In a cell where does the oxidation of fatty acid occur?

A) Mitochondria B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi complex D) Nucleus Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 34) The transport of a long chain fatty acid from cytosol to outer membrane of mitochondria requires the formation of long-chain fatty acyl-CoA, achieved by enzyme ________?

A) Acyl-CoA transferase B) Acyl-CoA synthetase C) Acyl-CoA isomerase D) Acyl-CoA hydrogenase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 35) The transport of long-chain fatty acyl-CoA from outer membrane to intermembrane space in mitochondria by a carrier molecule ________.

A) Clathrin B) Carnitine C) Acetocarmine D) Collagen Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 7 .

36) The transfer of long-fatty acyl-CoA by carrier protein carnitine from outer membrane of mitochondria to intermembrane space is achieved by enzyme ________.

A) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I B) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II C) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase III D) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 37) Which carrier transfers the fatty acyl-carnitine from intermembrane space of mitochondria to the matrix?

A) Carnitine-acyltransferase transmutase B) Carnitine-acyltransferase isomerase C) Carnitine-acyltransferase dismutase D) Carnitine-acyltransferase translocase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 38) Which enzyme catalyzes the transfer of fatty acyl-carnitine from intermembrane space of mitochondria to the matrix?

A) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I B) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II C) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase III D) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase IV Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 39) Why is the oxidation of fatty acids called β-oxidation of fatty acids?

A) Reduction of β-carbon B) Oxidation of β-carbon C) Reduction of α-carbon D) Oxidation of α-carbon Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2

8 .

40) Myristoyl-CoA, a 14-carbon fatty acid, will be oxidized to yield how many moles of acetylCoA? A) 14 B) 7 C) 28 D) 35 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 41) What is the product achieved upon dehydrogenation of fatty acyl-CoA by acyl-CoA dehydrogenase?

A) Trans-2-enoyl-CoA B) L-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA C) 3-ketoacyl-CoA D) Acetyl-CoA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 42) Hydration of trans-2-enoyl-CoA to L-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA is achieved by enzyme ________.

A) Thiolase B) Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase C) Enoyl-CoA hydratase D) 3-L-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 43) The release of acetyl-CoA from ketoacyl-CoA is achieved by nucleophilic attack of ________ group in coenzyme A and β-ketothiolase?

A) Enol B) Thiol C) Cyanide D) Amide Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 44) What is the term used to indicate the fatty liver condition?

A) Cirrhosis B) Steatosis C) Hemochromatosis D) Hepatitis Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 9 .

45) How many moles of net ATP is produced upon oxidation of 16C fatty acid, Palmitate?

A) 102 B) 104 C) 106 D) 108 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.2 46) How many moles of net ATP is produced upon oxidation of 12C fatty acid, Lauric acid?

A) 74 B) 76 C) 78 D) 80 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 16.2 47) What is the yield of ATP per carbon oxidized during β-oxidation of fatty acids?

A) 4.6 B) 5.6 C) 6.6 D) 7.6 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 48) What enzyme helps in oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids with one cis double bond?

A) Enoyl-CoA thiolase B) Enoyl-CoA isomerase C) Enoyl-CoA hydrolase D) Enoyl-CoA dehydrogenase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 49) What enzyme helps in oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids with two cis double bonds after the action of enoyl-CoA isomerase on the first cis double bond?

A) Dienoyl-CoA hydrolase B) Dienoyl-CoA reductase C) Dienoyl-CoA thiolase D) Dienoyl-CoA oxidase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 10 .

50) What is the by-product in oxidation of odd-numbered carbon chain fatty acid?

A) Propionyl-CoA B) Methylmalonyl-CoA C) Acetoacetyl-CoA D) Glutaryl-CoA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 51) Which of this enzyme is NOT involved in the conversion of propionyl-CoA to succinylCoA? A) Propionyl-CoA carboxylase B) Methylmalonyl epimerase C) Methylmalonyl mutase D) Propionyl-CoA decarboxylase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 52) Which of these compound is NOT a part of ketone bodies?

A) Acetoacetate B) Acetone C) β-hydroxybutyrate D) Succinate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 53) The absence of enzyme ________ does NOT allow liver cells to utilize ketone bodies for energy production.

A) β-ketoacyl-CoA transferase B) β-ketoacyl-CoA mutase C) β-ketoacyl-CoA isomerase D) β-ketoacyl-CoA carboxylase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.2 54) Where in cell does the synthesis of 16-carbon fatty acid palmitate occurs?

A) Nucleus B) Cytosol C) Mitochondria D) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 11 .

55) Where in cell the desaturation of fatty acid occurs?

A) Nucleus B) Cytosol C) Mitochondria D) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 56) The formation of ________ from acetyl-CoA and bicarbonate is the first step in fatty acid synthesis.

A) Malonyl-CoA B) Propionyl-CoA C) Succinyl-CoA D) Acyl-CoA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 57) What is the order of chemical process in the synthetic cycle for generation of fatty acid?

A) Reduction, condensation, dehydration and reduction B) Condensation, dehydration, reduction and reduction C) Reduction, dehydration, condensation and reduction D) Condensation, reduction, dehydration and reduction Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 58) What kind of carbon-carbon bond formation occurs between acetyl-KS and malonyl-ACP? A) Claisen condensation B) Allan-Robinson reaction C) Blaise reaction D) Benary reaction Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 59) The final step in the synthesis of palmitate from palmitoyl-ACP is catalyzed by ________.

A) Thiolase B) Thioesterase C) Thioketolase D) Thioaldolase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3

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60) How many moles of ATP and NADPH respectively, are utilized in the production of a mole of palmitate?

A) 14,14 B) 7,7 C) 7,14 D) 14,7 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 61) In which organism does the type II fatty acid synthesis occurs?

A) E.coli B) Rabbit C) Monkey D) Platypus Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 62) In which organism does the type I fatty acid synthesis occurs?

A) Rabbit B) E.coli C) S.aureus D) M.indica Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 63) Triclosan, an anti-bacterial agent is an inhibitor to enzyme ________.

A) Ketothiolase B) HMG-CoA lyase C) Enoyl-ACP reductase D) Malonyl decarboxylase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 64) The first cis bond is introduced between carbons ________ and ________ from carboxyl end of the fatty acid.

A) 3 and 4 B) 5 and 6 C) 7 and 8 D) 9 and 10 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 13 .

65) Which of the desaturases is NOT available in a mammalian system?

A) ∆9 B) ∆5 C) ∆6 D) ∆12 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 66) Which of these is NOT an allosteric modulator of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

A) Malate B) Citrate C) Fatty acyl-CoA D) Malonyl-CoA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.3 67) Glycerol-3-phosphate is derived from dihydroxy acetone phosphate by enzyme ________.

A) Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase B) Phosphofructokinase C) PEP carboxylase D) Glycerol kinase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.4 68) Which of these lipids is NOT a class of glycerophospholipids?

A) Cardiolipin B) Phosphatidylethanolamine C) Phosphatidylserine D) Sphingolipids Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.5 69) What compound is the major precursor to all glycerophospholipids?

A) Phosphatidic acid B) Malonyl-CoA C) Acetyl-CoA D) Acyl-CoA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.5

14 .

70) Phosphatidylcholine can be generated upon ________ of phosphatidylethanolamine.

A) Esterification B) Acetylation C) Methylation D) Alkylation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.5 71) The energy cofactor for the synthesis of phospholipid is ________.

A) Cytidine triphosphate B) Uridine triphosphate C) Adenine triphosphate D) Thymidine triphosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.5 72) Which of the lipids are NOT a part of the class of sphingolipids?

A) Ceramide B) Arachidonic acid C) Gangliosides D) Sphingomyelin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.6 73) Methyl groups are present at carbon number ________ and ________ in the chemical structure of cholesterol.

A) 11 and 14 B) 10 and 13 C) 9 and 12 D) 8 and 11 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 74) Which of this compound is NOT in the class of isoprenoids?

A) Coenzyme Q B) Dolichol C) Cholesterol D) Indole acetic acid Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7

15 .

75) Which of these processes are NOT a part of cholesterol biosynthesis?

A) Conversion of acetate to mevalonate B) Conversion of mevalonate to squalene C) Cyclization of squalene to cholesterol D) Conversion of acetate to acetoacetate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 76) Squalene is generated from two molecules of ________ by squalene synthase upon removal of pyrophosphate and reduction by NADPH. A) Geranyl pyrophosphate B) Farnesyl pyrophosphate C) Dimethylallyl pyrophosphate D) Isopentenyl pyrophosphate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 77) Which of these compounds do NOT regulate the biosynthesis of cholesterol?

A) Insulin-induced growth response genes B) Sterol regulatory element binding proteins C) SREBP cleavage-activating protein D) Farnesyl pyrophosphate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 78) Statin are the compounds that carry a ________ like moiety which actively inhibits HMGCoA reductase.

A) Mevalonate B) Malate C) Fumarate D) Citrate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 79) Bile salts are formed from association of bile acid with ________ by amide linkage.

A) Saccharide B) Amino acid C) Fatty acid D) Inorganic salts Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 16 .

80) What intermediate of cholesterol undergoes ultraviolet photolysis to yield cholecalciferol?

A) Pregnelone B) Androstenedione C) 7-Dehydrocholesterol D) Corticosterone Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 81) Retinoic acid is produced from ________ of all-trans-retinal.

A) Reduction B) Oxidation C) Hydration D) Carboxylation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 82) Which of these lipid soluble vitamins acts as an antioxidant?

A) Cholecalciferol B) Tocopherol C) Retinol D) Phylloquinone Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.7 83) Which of these compounds are NOT included in the class of eicosanoids?

A) Prostaglandin B) Thromboxane C) Leukotriene D) Statin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 16.8

17 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 17 Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates 1) How much energy in kJ does one kcal carry?

A) 7.284 B) 4.184 C) 3.489 D) 2.384 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) Which of the following functions is NOT carried by liver?

A) Gluconeogenesis B) Plasma protein synthesis C) Cholesterol synthesis D) Generation of ATP for mechanical work Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 3) Depending on the level of exertion the caloric needs of human can increase ________.

A) 2-fold B) 4-fold C) 8-fold D) 10-fold Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 4) Where is the proteins majorly stored to be used as a fuel reserve?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Liver C) Adipocytes D) Lungs Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1

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5) Which these compounds are NOT a part of a major fuel reserve in the body?

A) Glycogen B) Protein C) Triacylglycerols D) Insulin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 6) Why does brain require large amounts of ATP for its functions?

A) Mechanical work B) Membrane potential to transmit nerve impulse C) Blood circulation D) Ultrafiltration Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 7) In terms of percentage, how much is the total energy consumed by brain?

A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20% Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 8) In terms of percentage, how much is oxygen consumed by brain?

A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20% Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 9) What alternate fuel reserve is used by brain during starving conditions?

A) Acetyl-CoA B) Ketone bodies C) Malonyl-CoA D) HMG-CoA reductase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1

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10) In resting muscles, which compound is used an energy source?

A) Fatty acid B) Glucose C) Ketone bodies D) Lactic acid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 11) What is the dominant energy reserve for a muscle during exertion?

A) Glucose B) Fatty acid C) Creatine phosphate D) Ketone bodies Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 12) Glucose from muscle glycogen cannot be exported to other tissues because of the absence of enzyme ________.

A) Fructose-6-phosphate B) Glucose-6-phosphate C) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate D) Glucose isomerase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 13) Lactic acid generated during muscle exertion is converted back to glucose in liver to return to muscle and other tissues by ________ cycle.

A) Calvin B) Cori C) TCA D) C4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 14) Which of this fuel reserve is exhausted early in muscle during exertion for rapid generation of ATP? A) Glucose B) Ketone bodies C) Muscle protein D) Creatine phosphate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 3 .

15) Which of this statement is FALSE for a cardiac muscle in heart?

A) The work output is more constant in cardiac muscle.

B) Mitochondria are much denser in cardiac muscle cell.

C) Glycogen reserves are high in cardiac muscle.

D) Cardiac muscle is a completely anaerobic.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 16) Mitochondria make up nearly ________ the volume of heart cell.

A) One-third B) Half C) One-fourth D) Three-fourth Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 17) In an average human how much is the energy content of the stored triacylglycerols?

A) 222000 kJ B) 333000 kJ C) 444000 kJ D) 555000 kJ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 18) Which of the fuel reserves are NOT resourced majorly from liver?

A) Glucose B) Fatty acid C) Creatine phosphate D) Ketone bodies Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 19) Which enzyme from liver helps in maintaining the blood sugar level?

A) Hexokinase IV B) Glucokinase C) Phosphokinase D) Phosphatase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1

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20) Which of these membrane proteins can carry out the facilitated diffusion of glucose from liver to blood?

A) Glycophorin B) Glucose transporter 2 C) Glucose transporter 4 D) Seipin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 21) Which of these organs can act as glucostat to monitor the blood sugar levels?

A) Heart B) Lungs C) Liver D) Gall bladder Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 22) What type of energy metabolism occurs in blood cells?

A) Gluconeogenesis B) Krebs cycle C) Oxidation of fatty acid D) Glycolysis Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 23) Since there are no mitochondria in red blood cells, what type of glycolysis occurs in these blood cells.

A) Aerobic glycolysis B) Anaerobic glycolysis C) Nitric glycolysis D) Citrate glycolysis Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.1 24) In an average human, what is the blood glucose level between meals?

A) 50mg/100ml B) 60mg/100ml C) 70mg/100ml D) 80mg/100ml Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 5 .

25) In an average human, what is the blood glucose level shortly after a meal?

A) 80mg/100ml B) 100mg/100ml C) 120mg/100ml D) 140 mg/100ml Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 26) Which of these hormones do NOT regulate the glucose levels in blood?

A) Epinephrine B) Glucagon C) Insulin D) Norepinephrine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 27) Which of these hormones have a short-lived effects of glucose metabolism?

A) Epinephrine B) Glucagon C) Insulin D) Pituitary stimulating hormone Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 28) What is the size of insulin hormone?

A) 4.8 kDa B) 5.8 kDa C) 6.8 kDa D) 7.8 kDa Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 29) What are the cell clusters called in pancreas which secrete hormones directly in to blood stream?

A) Islets of Cori B) Islets of Langerhans C) Islets of Wilhelm D) Islets of Newton Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2

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30) Insulin is synthesized by ________ cells of islets of Langerhans in pancreas.

A) α B) β C) γ D) δ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 31) Which of these actions are NOT performed by insulin signaling?

A) Uptake of fuel substrates into some cells B) Storage of fuels C) Biosynthesis of macromolecules D) Increased blood sugar level Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 32) Glucose in adipocytes are converted in to triacylglycerol by converting glucose to ________ and further association with fatty acids A) Phosphoenol pyruvate B) Pyruvate C) Glycerol-3-phosphate D) Fructose-6-phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 33) GLUT4 is a glucose transporter available in the membrane of ________ tissue.

A) Muscle B) Erythrocytes C) Hepatocytes D) Nephrocytes Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 34) What is the size of glucagon hormone?

A) 2.5 kDa B) 3.5 kDa C) 4.5 kDa D) 5.5 kDa Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2

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35) What cells of islets of Langerhans are responsible for the secretion of glucagon hormone?

A) α B) δ C) β D) γ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 36) What metabolite is accumulated in liver to promote gluconeogenesis upon secretion of glucagon hormone?

A) Phosphoenolpyruvate B) Oxaloacetate C) Mevalonate D) Fumarate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 37) Which secondary messenger is activated by the hormone glucagon?

A) Diacylglycerol B) Cyclic AMP C) Calcium D) Nitric acid Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 38) Which of these actions are NOT performed upon epinephrine signaling?

A) Glycogenolysis in muscle B) Triacylglycerol breakdown in adipocytes C) Stimulation of glucagon hormone D) Synthesis of ketone bodies Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 39) Which of these protein kinases play a key role in energy homeostasis?

A) Protein kinase A B) AMP-activated protein kinase C) Pyruvate kinase D) Protein kinase B Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2

8 .

40) Which of these enzymes do NOT regulate the energy homeostasis?

A) AMP-activated protein kinase B) Sirtuins C) Mammalian target of rapamycin D) Pyruvate kinase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 41) When does the energy charge of the cell is considered to be low?

A) High AMP B) High ATP C) High glycogen D) High fatty acids Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 42) Which subunit of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) acts as the catalytic subunit?

A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) Delta Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 43) For activation of catalytic subunit of AMPK, it required the binding of AMP to four nucleotide binding sites of ________ subunit.

A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) Delta Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 44) Activation of AMPK also requires phosphorylation of specific ________ residue in the alpha subunit.

A) Serine B) Threonine C) Aspartate D) Glutamate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 9 .

45) Which of the following effects do NOT occur upon activation of AMPK? A) Translocation of GLUT4 to plasma membrane B) Inhibition of cholesterol synthesis C) Activation of mitochondrial biogenesis D) Activation of triglyceride synthesis Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 46) Mammalian target of rapamycin is activated upon binding of ________ to its receptor in plasma membrane.

A) Glucagon B) Epinephrine C) Norepinephrine D) Insulin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 47) Which enzyme initiates the phosphorylation cascade to activate mTOR? A) Protein kinase A B) Protein kinase B C) Phosphofructokinase D) Phosphoinositide 3-kinase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 48) Sirtuins belongs to what class of enzyme family?

A) Decarboxylases B) Oxidoreductases C) Dehydrogenases D) Deacetylases Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 49) What is the role of NAD+ in Sirtuins?

A) Redox cofactor B) Acceptor of acetyl group C) Acceptor of protons D) Acceptor of electrons Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2

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50) Which of the following compounds are the byproducts of deacetylation reaction by Sirtuins?

A) Nicotinamide B) Acetyl C) NADH D) Nicotine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 51) How many types of sirtuins are available in a mammal?

A) One B) Three C) Five D) Seven Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 52) Sirtuin mediated deacetylation of ________ allows the metabolic reprogramming during fasting or starving conditions.

A) PGC-1α B) PGC-1β C) PGC-1γ D) PGC-1δ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 53) ________ deacetylates PGC-1α to upregulate its coactivator function.

A) SIRT1 B) SIRT3 C) SIRT5 D) SIRT7 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 54) AMPK first ________ then sirtuin 1 ________ PGC-1α to activate its coactivator function.

A) Phosphorylates, deacetylates B) Dephosphorylates, acetylates C) Dephosphorylates, deacetylates D) Phosphorylates, acetylates Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2

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55) The phenomenon by which cancer cell overcome the dependence on growth factors is called ________.

A) Warburg effect B) Bohr effect C) Hill's coefficient D) Planck effect Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 56) The fuel and hormone signals converge in neurons in the ________ of hypothalamus.

A) Arcuate nucleus B) Preoptic nucleus C) Mamillary complex D) Fornix Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 57) Which endocrine regulator inhibits food intake?

A) Leptin B) Ghrelin C) Adiponectin D) Seipin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 58) Which endocrine regulator promotes food intake?

A) Insulin B) Leptin C) Glucagon D) Adiponectin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 59) What is an adipokine?

A) Adipocyte that releases leptin.

B) Adipocyte that releases nexin.

C) Adipocyte that releases pectin.

D) Adipocyte that releases ghrelin.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2

12 .

60) Ghrelin is a hormone released in the cell linings of ________.

A) Esophagus B) Pulmonary tract C) Stomach D) Small intestine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.2 61) During immediate starving conditions the rapid supply of glucose to brain is provided by breakdown of ________ for gluconeogenesis.

A) Muscle protein B) Fatty acid C) Cholesterol D) Ketone bodies Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 62) After prolonged starvation the source of energy to brain is mainly derived from ________.

A) Muscle protein B) Fatty acid C) Cholesterol D) Ketone bodies Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 63) The total time by which a life can sustain without any nourishment depends on its ________ deposits.

A) Glucose B) Protein C) Fats D) Glycogen Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 64) What type of diabetes is caused by an actual deficiency of insulin hormone?

A) Type 1 diabetes B) Type 2 diabetes C) Type 3 diabetes D) Type 4 diabetes Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 13 .

65) What type of diabetes is caused by resistance to insulin in an individual?

A) Type 1 diabetes B) Type 2 diabetes C) Type 3 diabetes D) Type 4 diabetes Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 66) Which of these disorders do NOT fall in the spectrum of metabolic syndrome?

A) Abdominal obesity B) Hypertension C) High blood sugar D) High protein content Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 67) Which of the hypothesis for insulin resistance was derived from excess fat deposition in adipocytes?

A) Inflammation B) Lipid overload C) Atherosclerotic D) Altered signaling Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 68) Which of the hypothesis for insulin resistance was derived from excess fat deposition in muscle cells?

A) Inflammation B) Lipid overload C) Atherosclerotic D) Altered signaling Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 69) At low blood pH due to ketoacidosis leads to ________ of acetoacetate resulting in the formation of acetone.

A) Carboxylation B) Demethylation C) Methylation D) Decarboxylation Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3 14 .

70) Which of these are a characteristic of diabetes mellitus?

A) Excess of ketones in urine B) Excess of glucose in urine C) Excess of amino acids in urine D) Excess of fatty acids in urine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 17.3

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 18 Amino Acid and Nitrogen Metabolism 1) Microorganisms that fix atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia are called ________.

A) Azotrophs B) Chemotrophs C) Halotrophs D) Diazotrophs Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 2) Bacteria which catabolize ammonia to N2 are called ________ bacteria.

A) Denitrifying B) Diazotizing C) Deaminating D) Deoxidizing Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 3) What genus of bacteria occupy the roots of leguminous plants?

A) Starkeya B) Rhizobium C) Brucella D) Microvirga Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 4) What protein in root nodules help maintain the anaerobic conditions for nitrogen-fixing enzymes?

A) Hemoglobin B) Myoglobin C) Leghemoglobin D) Phytoglobin Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1

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5) How much is the bond energy of triple bonded N2 molecule?

A) 920 kJ/mol B) 940 kJ/mol C) 960 kJ/mol D) 980 kJ/mol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 6) What is the industrial process for reducing nitrogen gas to ammonia?

A) Haber-Bosch B) Edman C) Bergmann D) Curtius Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 7) How many moles of ATP is required to reduce one mole of N2 by nitrogenase enzyme?

A) 10 B) 12 C) 16 D) 20 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 8) During the N2 reduction ________ gas is released as a by-product.

A) H2 B) N2 C) O2 D) CO2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 9) What metalloprotein of molybdenum dependent enzyme transfers the electrons and protons for reduction of N2?

A) Dinitrogenase B) Dinitrogenase oxidase C) Dinitrogenase reductase D) Dinitrogenase carboxylase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 2 .

10) Which compound acts as the primary electron donor in the process of N2 reduction?

A) Ferredoxin B) ATP C) Fe4S4 D) NADH Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.1 11) Which of these molecules are NOT derived from carbamoyl phosphate?

A) Thymine B) Guanine C) Cytosine D) Adenine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 12) Which of these amino acids are NOT the source for the formation of other amino acids and other nitrogenous compounds in biosynthetic pathways?

A) Histidine B) Glutamate C) Glutamine D) Asparagine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 13) The reduction of α-ketoglutarate to glutamate is carried out by ________.

A) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase B) α-ketoglutarate decarboxylase C) Glutamate dehydrogenase D) Glutamate decarboxylase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 14) Which of these compounds activates α-ketoglutarate in an animal system?

A) GDP B) ATP C) GTP D) ADP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2

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15) Glutamine is generated from glutamate by ________ with energy provided by ATP hydrolysis.

A) Glutamate amidase B) Glutamine synthase C) Glutamine synthetase D) Glutamate synthase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 16) Which carboxylic group of glutamate is phosphorylated to add an amine group to form glutamine?

A) α B) β C) γ D) δ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 17) Which statement is TRUE for the enzyme carbamoyl synthetase in a eukaryotic cell?

A) There are two forms of the enzyme.

B) There is a single form of the enzyme capable of using ammonia and glutamine as substrate.

C) The enzyme utilizes hydrolysis of GTP as the energy source for the generation of glutamine.

D) The enzyme utilizes carbonate to form carbamoyl phosphate.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.2 18) Which statement is TRUE for normal nitrogen balance in a well-nourished adult?

A) Daily intake of nitrogen is equal to loss of nitrogen through excretion, sweating and other processes.

B) Daily intake of nitrogen is higher than its loss through excretion, sweating and other processes.

C) Daily intake of nitrogen is lower than its loss through excretion, sweating and other processes.

D) Normal nitrogen balance is maintained by excess breakdown of muscle proteins upon excess intake of nitrogen.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3

4 .

19) What determined that the process of proteolysis was not random but highly regulated?

A) Proteolysis is endergonic and requires energy.

B) Proteolysis is exergonic and requires energy.

C) Proteolysis is thermodynamically unstable.

D) Proteolysis is entropically driven.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 20) Which of these proteases are available in a lysosome?

A) Proteasome B) Cathepsin C) Elastase D) Thrombin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 21) What is the size of proteasome in a eukaryotic cell?

A) 1.5 mDa B) 2.5 mDa C) 3.5 mDa D) 4.5 mDa Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 22) The proteasome degrades a protein which has been marked with a small protein ________.

A) Ubiquitin B) Actin C) Fibrin D) Calmodulin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 23) The terminal carboxyl group of ubiquitin is bound to specific lysine amino group on target proteins to form ________ bond upon hydrolysis of ATP. A) Dipeptide B) Phosphodiester C) Amide D) Isopeptide Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3

5 .

24) How many ubiquitin-protein ligases are encoded in a human genome?

A) 500-1000 B) 50-100 C) 100-250 D) 5-10 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 25) Which of these bacterial proteases are similar to 26S eukaryotic proteasome?

A) Hsp70 B) Caspase C) Clp D) Hsp72 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.3 26) Pyridoxine has hydroxymethyl groups at carbon position numbers ________ and ________.

A) 1; 2 B) 2; 3 C) 3; 4 D) 4; 5 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 27) Pyridoxal phosphate has the hydroxymethyl group has been oxidized to aldehyde at position ________ and another hydroxymethyl is phosphorylated at position ________.

A) 1; 2 B) 2; 3 C) 3; 4 D) 4; 5 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 28) Which chemical changes are catalyzed by pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme?

A) Transamination B) Dehydrogenation C) Thiolation D) Methylation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4

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29) Which chemical changes is NOT catalyzed by pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme?

A) Racemization B) Elimination C) Retro-aldol D) Alkylation Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 30) What is the key to versatility of pyridoxal phosphate in enzyme catalyzed reaction?

A) Schiff base between amino acid and coenzyme B) Lewis base between amino acid and coenzyme C) Hydrophobic bond between amino acid and coenzyme D) Lewis acid between amino acid and coenzyme Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 31) What is the reactive species in pyridoxal phosphate for all the catalyzed reactions?

A) Aldehyde group B) Phosphate group C) Planar aldimine D) Planar ketamine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 32) What acts as an electronic sink when pyridoxal phosphate is conjugated to an amino acid?

A) Protonated pyridinium nitrogen B) Deprotonated pyridinium nitrogen C) Protonated pyridinium phosphate D) Deprotonated pyridinium phosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 33) The sigma bond from amino acid is cleaved based on the angle of rotational in ________ bond upon Schiff base formation between coenzyme and amino acid.

A) Cα-N B) Cα-C C) Cα-Hα D) Cα-Nα Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4

7 .

34) Which of these moieties are NOT utilized in the formation of naturally occurring tetrahydrofolate?

A) Pteridine ring B) p-aminobenzoic acid C) Tail of 3-8 glutamate residues D) Gamma butyric acid Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 35) Which compound is used as an antimetabolite for folate to bind dihydrofolate reductase?

A) Methotrexate B) Docetaxel C) Necitumumab D) Denosumab Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 36) What is the coenzymatic function of tetrahydrofolate?

A) Transamination B) Transfer of single carbon units C) Racemization D) Retro-aldol cleavage Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 37) What is the most reduced form of tetrahydrofolate?

A) 5-methyltetrahydrafolate B) 5-formyltetrahydrafolate C) 10-formyltetrahydrafolate D) 5,10-methylenetetrahydrafolate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 38) What is the most oxidized form of tetrahydrofolate?

A) 5-methyltetrahydrofolate B) 5-formyltetrahydrofolate C) 10-formyltetrahydrofolate D) 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4

8 .

39) What kind of new bonds are formed by 10-formyltetrahydrofolate?

A) C-C B) C-N C) C-S D) C-O Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 40) What moiety of 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate acts as a reducing agent in the synthesis of thymine nucleotide?

A) Pteridine ring B) Methylene group C) p-aminobenzoic acid D) Polyglutamate chain Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 41) Increased accumulation of ________ due to folic deficiency leads to many cardiovascular disorder.

A) Methionine B) Selenocysteine C) Homocysteine D) Alanine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 42) Why Vitamin B12 are also called cobamides or cobalamins?

A) Presence of cobalt and amide groups B) Presence of cobalt and imine groups C) Presence of cobalt and amine groups D) Presence of cobalt and ceramide groups Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 43) Vitamin B12 was discovered with the study to cure ________.

A) Scurvy B) Rickets C) Pernicious anemia D) Beri-beri Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 9 .

44) Why patients with stomach cancer develop pernicious anemia after removal of stomach?

A) Decreased production of intrinsic factor B) Increased production of intrinsic factor C) Decreased absorption of nutrients D) Increased development of toxic waste Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.4 45) The enzyme which catalyzes the removal of alpha amino group from an amino acid to form alpha keto acid are called ________.

A) Aminoacetyltransferases B) Aminoacyltransferases C) Aminotransferases D) Transferases Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 46) During the transamination process, the enzyme transaminases uses ________ as a cofactor.

A) Tetrahydrofolate B) Folate C) Pyridoxal pyrophosphate D) Phylloquinone Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 47) The carbon skeleton left after the transamination process are used for oxidation in the ________ cycle.

A) Transamination B) Cori C) Citric acid D) Calvin Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 48) What amino acid and pyruvate are interconverted by serum glutamate-pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)?

A) Alanine B) Valine C) Leucine D) Aspartate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 10 .

49) What amino acid and pyruvate are interconverted by serum glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase (SGOT)?

A) Alanine B) Valine C) Leucine D) Aspartate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 50) Mammals excrete most of the ammonia in the soluble form of ________.

A) Urea B) Uric acid C) Nitric acid D) Ornithine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 51) Muscle loses its ammonia by converting it to ________ and finally converted to alanine by interconversion with pyruvate.

A) Oxaloacetate B) Aspartate C) Malate D) Glutamate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 52) In mammals, urea is almost exclusively produced in ________.

A) Heart B) Muscle C) Kidney D) Liver Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 53) What molecule as the carrier for the assembly of carbon and nitrogen to form urea?

A) Ornithine B) Citrulline C) Arginine D) Carbamoyl phosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 11 .

54) Which of these molecules is the source of nitrogen in the production of urea?

A) Carbamoyl phosphate B) Citrulline C) Malate D) Oxaloacetate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 55) Which of these molecules is the source of nitrogen in the production of urea?

A) Carbamoyl phosphate B) Aspartate C) Malate D) Oxaloacetate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 56) Which enzyme is responsible for the recycling of ornithine in the urea cycle?

A) Arginase B) Ornithine transcarbamoylase C) Arginosuccinase D) Arginosuccinate synthetase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.5 57) The amino acids whose carbon skeleton are degraded in to precursors for the formation of glucose are called ________.

A) Glycogenic amino acids B) Glucogenic amino acids C) Aldogenic amino acids D) Ketogenic amino acids Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 58) The amino acids whose carbon skeleton are degraded in to precursors for the formation of ketone bodies are called ________.

A) Glycogenic amino acids B) Glucogenic amino acids C) Aldogenic amino acids D) Ketogenic amino acids Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 12 .

59) Which of these amino acid carbon skeleton does NOT get metabolized to form pyruvate?

A) Alanine B) Cysteine C) Serine D) Leucine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 60) Which of these amino acid carbon skeleton does NOT get metabolized to form αketoglutarate?

A) Arginine B) Proline C) Histidine D) Alanine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 61) Which of these amino acids is NOT ketogenic?

A) Leucine B) Lysine C) Phenylalanine D) Valine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 62) Which amino acid's metabolization requires both the cofactors pyridoxal phosphate and tetrahydrofolate?

A) Glycine B) Alanine C) Leucine D) Cysteine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 63) Which of these gases are released upon metabolism of cysteine?

A) H2S B) NO C) O2 D) CO2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 13 .

64) Which bond is broken during the conversion of asparagine to aspartate by asparaginase enzyme?

A) Cα-N B) Cβ-C C) Cγ-N D) C-C Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 65) Histamine is created from histidine by its PLP dependent ________.

A) Methylation B) Formylation C) Decarboxylation D) Acetylation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 66) Which cofactor is required in the degradation of phenylalanine and tyrosine?

A) Tetrahydrofolate B) Tetrahydrobiopterin C) Tetramethylcarbon D) Carbontetrachloride Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 67) Which of this is NOT a byproduct of a metabolized phenylalanine upon the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase?

A) Phenylpyruvate B) Phenyllactate C) Phenylacetate D) Tyrosine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 68) What enzyme deficiency leads to development of dark urine disease or alkaptonuria?

A) Dihydropteridine reductase B) Homogentisate dioxygenase C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase D) Glutamate dehydrogenase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.6 14 .

69) What are the three chemical conversion steps that occurs in the conversion of 3phosphoglycerate to serine?

A) Oxidation, transamination and dephosphorylation B) Oxidation, reduction and decarboxylation C) Methylation, sulfurization and phosphorylation D) Decarboxylation, dephosphorylation and dehydrogenation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.7 70) Which of the following compounds is considered to a universal methyl donor?

A) L-Methionine B) S-adenosyl-L-methionine C) Methylphenidate D) Methylfolate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.8 71) What enzyme deficiency leads to development of homocystinuria?

A) Cystathionine β-synthase B) Homocysteine transsulfurylase C) Tetrahydrofolate reductase D) Cystathionine β-reductase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.8 72) Arginine is the precursor to which neurotransmitter?

A) NO B) H2S C) Epinephrine D) γ-Aminobutyric acid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.8 73) What chemical functional group is transferred from arginine to glycine to create creatine?

A) Amino B) Guanidine C) Guanidino D) Carboxylic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.8 15 .

74) What amino acid is derived from tryptophan?

A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Epinephrine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.8 75) Which of these neurotransmitters are NOT derived from tyrosine?

A) Catecholamines B) γ-Aminobutyric acid C) Dopamine D) Norepinephrine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 18.8

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 19 Nucleotide Metabolism 1) Which of these is a purine nucleoside?

A) Uridine B) Thymidine C) Cytosine D) Guanosine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 2) What is the difference between de novo and salvage pathway of nucleotides?

A) The former relates to synthesis of nucleotide from its precursor molecule and later involves in synthesis of nucleotide from nucleobases.

B) There is no significant difference.

C) The de novo pathway occurs only in microbes.

D) The salvage pathway occurs only in microbes.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 3) Which of the following does NOT result in nucleic acid degradation?

A) Unstable mRNA species B) UV damage to DNA C) Cell death D) Replication during cell division Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 4) Which of these enzymes cleaves the glycosidic bond between nitrogen base and sugar of a nucleoside?

A) Phosphodiesterase B) Nucleotidases C) Nucleoside phosphorylase D) Pyrophosphate synthetase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1

1 .

5) What enzyme acts in opposite to nucleoside phosphorylase?

A) Nucleoside synthetase B) Nucleoside kinase C) Nucleoside pyrophosphatase D) Nucleoside dismutase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 6) What molecule acts as an activated sugar-phosphate donor to utilize a nucleobase in the synthesis of nucleotide?

A) Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate B) Adenosine monophosphate C) Phosphoglycosyl pyrophosphate D) Adenosine diphosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 7) PRPP synthetase activates ________ of ribose-5-phosphate by transferring to it the pyrophosphate moiety of ATP. A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 8) What enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a free nitrogen base to phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)?

A) Phosphoribosyltransferase B) Phosphoribosylesterase C) Phosphoribosylaldolase D) Phosphoribosyltransketolase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.1 9) What is the purine base on inosine monophosphate?

A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Xanthine D) Hypoxanthine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 2 .

10) How many steps pathway lead from PRPP to form guanine nucleotide?

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 11) Which of theses molecules are the oxidized form of purine?

A) Uric acid B) Urea C) Amide D) Ceramide Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 12) What makes the amide nitrogen of glutamine active to be used as a substrate for glutamine amidotransferase?

A) GTP breakdown B) ATP breakdown C) Pyrophosphate transfer D) Carboxylic group transfer Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 13) What carbon of ribose-5-phosphate accepts the amide nitrogen of glutamine?

A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 14) What nitrogen atoms of the purine ring is contributed by glutamine?

A) N3 and N9 B) N1 C) N3 D) N9 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 3 .

15) What does glycine and phosphoribosylamine contribute to the purine ring?

A) N7, C4 and C5 B) N7 and C5 C) N7 and C4 D) N1 and C6 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 16) The carbons C2 and C8 is incorporated by ________ to the growing purine ring.

A) Formyl transferase B) Formyl tetrahydrofolate C) Formyl decarboxylase D) Formyl synthetase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 17) What nitrogen of the purine ring is added by an amino group of aspartate?

A) N1 B) N7 C) N9 D) N3 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 18) What carbon is attached to growing purine ring by CO2 dependent carboxylation?

A) C2 B) C4 C) C5 D) C6 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 19) How many proteins associate noncovalently and reversibly to form the multienzyme complex purinosome?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2

4 .

20) Inosine monophosphate reacts with ________ to yield adenosine monophosphate.

A) Glutamate B) Glutamine C) Aspartate D) Asparagine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 21) Inosine monophosphate (IMP) yields xanthine monophosphate after hydration and dehydrogenation of hypoxanthine by ________ linked reaction.

A) NAD+ B) FAD+ C) Cytochrome b D) Cytochrome a3 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 22) What is the energy source for conversion of IMP to AMP? A) ATP B) GTP C) cAMP D) Diacylglycerol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 23) What is the energy source for conversion of IMP to GMP? A) ATP B) GTP C) cAMP D) Diacylglycerol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 24) What enzyme is required by ATP to convert GDP, UDP and CDP to its respective triphosphate state?

A) Nucleoside kinase B) Nucleoside diphosphate kinase C) Nucleotide kinase D) Nucleotide diphosphate kinase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.2 5 .

25) Which of these purine nucleosides is NOT a substrate for nucleoside phosphorylase?

A) Adenosine B) Guanosine C) Inosine D) Xanthine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 26) Oxidation of xanthine to uric acid requires a(n) ________ center.

A) Molybdopterin B) Aminopterin C) Methylopterin D) Biopterin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 27) In conversion of allantoic acid to urea what is released as a byproduct?

A) Glycolate B) Glyoxylate C) Urate D) Glucose Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 28) What property of uric acid makes it a health implication to human health?

A) Insolubility B) Solubility C) High pH D) Acidity Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 29) What enzyme converts uric acid to allantoin?

A) Allantoinase B) Urate oxidase C) Allantoicase D) Urease Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3

6 .

30) Sodium crystals of uric acid in synovial joints of a human results in a condition called ________.

A) Gout B) Mumps C) Hysteria D) Osteoporosis Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 31) Which of these is NOT a reason for hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) deficiency resulting in the formation of gout?

A) Increased levels of PRPP B) Increased levels of cytosine C) Increased levels of IMP D) Increased levels of guanine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 32) Which of these compounds is used in the successful treatment of gout?

A) Allopurinol B) Purinol C) Xanthine D) Inosine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 33) Why is allopurinol (analog) considered as an example of suicide inhibition?

A) The enzyme converts the analog to an active inhibitor.

B) The analog acts as the potent inhibitor.

C) The enzyme converts the analog to precursor protein.

D) The analog actively blocks the active site on the enzyme.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 34) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome results due to the null mutation in the gene for the enzyme ________.

A) PRPP transferase B) HGPRT C) ADA D) THFR Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 7 .

35) The enzyme deficiency of adenosine deaminase (ADA) results in the accumulation of ________ at high levels causing severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).

A) dATP B) dGTP C) dUTP D) dCTP Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 36) dATP is an allosteric inhibitor for enzyme ________.

A) Deoxyribonucleotide reductase B) Ribonucleotide reductase C) Deoxyribonucleotide oxidase D) Ribonucleotide oxidase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 37) The deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase results in the accumulation of ________ resulting in SCID. A) dATP B) dGTP C) dCTP D) dUTP Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3 38) The deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase affects the proliferation of ________ cells.

A) B B) T C) B and T D) Plasma Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.3

8 .

39) Which of these molecules acts as a precursor to formation of pyrimidine ring?

A) Aspartate B) Asparagine C) Glutamate D) Glutamine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.4 40) The pyrimidine synthesis begins with the synthesis of ________ phosphate.

A) Adenine B) Carbene C) Carbamoyl D) Guanine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.4 41) Aspartate is attached by its alpha amino group and activated carboxylic group on carbamoyl phosphate to yield carbamoyl aspartate by the enzyme ________.

A) Aspartate carbamoylase B) Aspartate ciscarbamoylase C) Aspartate transcarboxylase D) Aspartate transcarbamoylase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.4 42) In a cell where does the conversion of dihydroorotate to orotate takes place?

A) Cytosol B) Golgi body C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.4 43) Hereditary orotic aciduria is caused by the deficiency of enzyme ________.

A) Dihydroorotase B) UMP kinase C) UMP synthase D) Dihydroorotate reductase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.4

9 .

44) What is a typical intracellular ATP concentration?

A) 2 to 5 nM B) 2 to 5 µM C) 2 to 5 mM D) 2 to 5 M Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 45) The replacement of ribonucleotide hydroxyl group at C2 with hydrogen is catalyzed by enzyme ________.

A) Ribonucleotide reductase B) Ribonucleotide oxidase C) Ribonucleotide transcarboxylase D) Ribonucleotide decarboxylase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 46) What is the essential catalytic free radical for class I ribonucleotide reductase (RNR)?

A) Tyrosine-2Fe-O B) Tyrosine-Fe-O C) Tyrosine-O D) Tyrosine-Fe Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 47) Class II RNR requires ________ coenzyme to generate the catalytic radical.

A) B2 B) B6 C) B8 D) B12 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 48) Class III RNR requires ________ to generate a specific glycine radical.

A) S-adenosylmethionine B) Coenzyme Q C) B12 D) Histidine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5

10 .

49) Which of these molecule acts as an inhibitor for RNR? A) Urea B) Allantoin C) Hydroxyurea D) Riboflavin Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 50) What constitutes the step 1 of deoxyribonucleotide formation?

A) Formation of thiyl radical B) Removal of hydroxyl ion on C2 C) Removal of hydroxyl group on C3 D) Reduction of C2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 51) What causes the formation of substrate radical in deoxyribonucleotide synthesis?

A) Abstraction of hydroxide ion from C3 B) Abstraction of hydrogen atom from C3 C) Abstraction of hydroxide ion from C2 D) Abstraction of hydrogen atom from C2 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 52) The ultimate source of electrons for reduction of ribonucleotide is ________.

A) FADH B) NADH C) NADPH D) FADPH Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 53) Which of these molecules is NOT an electron source for ribonucleotide reduction?

A) Thioredoxin B) Glutaredoxin C) NADPH D) NAD+ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5

11 .

54) Which of these nucleotides bind in activity site of ribonucleotide reductase?

A) dATP B) dTTP C) dGTP D) dCTP Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 55) The binding of dTTP in the specificity site and ATP in activity site results in the activation of reduction of ________.

A) CDP B) UDP C) GDP D) ADP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 56) The binding of ________ to the activity site blocks the reduction of deoxyribonucleotide by RNR. A) dATP B) dGTP C) dTTP D) dCTP Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 57) SAMDH1 catalyzes the hydrolysis of dNTP to ________.

A) dNDP and inorganic phosphate B) dNMP and pyrophosphate C) Deoxyribonucleoside and inorganic triphosphate D) Ribonucleotide Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 58) What molecule serves as a immediate precursor for the synthesis of dTTP? A) dCMP B) dAMP C) dGMP D) dUMP Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 12 .

59) What molecule acts as the one carbon donor during the synthesis of dTTP? A) 5-methyl-THF B) 5,10-methylene-THF C) 5-formyl-THF D) Pyridoxal phosphate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 60) Thymidine kinase 1, a salvage enzyme is available what part of a cell?

A) Cytoplasm B) Mitochondria C) Golgi complex D) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 61) Why the triphosphate form of zidovudine, a HIV drug has a side effect of being cardiotoxicity?

A) Substrate to mitochondrial DNA polymerase B) Inhibitor to mitochondrial DNA polymerase C) Activator to mitochondrial DNA polymerase D) Coenzyme to mitochondrial DNA polymerase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 62) Fluorodeoxyuridine monophosphate acts as an inhibitor for enzyme ________ to act as therapy against cancer cells.

A) Thymidylate synthetase B) Thymidylate synthase C) Thymidylate reductase D) Thymidylate oxidase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 63) The metabolites used as an analog to treat HIV and cancer are termed as ________.

A) Prodrug B) Preprodrug C) Apodrug D) Exodrug Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 13 .

64) Which of these cancer drug candidates is NOT a thymidylate synthase inhibitor?

A) Pemetrexed B) Raltitrexed C) Nolatrexed D) Allopurinol Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 65) What is the peculiar characteristic of microbial thymidylate synthase?

A) It utilizes NADH as the electron donor.

B) It utilizes FADH as the electron donor.

C) It utilizes NADPH as the electron donor.

D) It utilizes ferredoxin as the electron donor.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.5 66) Which of these viruses is NOT a bacteriophage?

A) T2 B) T4 C) T6 D) Herpes simplex virus Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.6 67) What alteration to nucleotide in bacteria xanthomonas oryzae are caused by viruses?

A) Cytosine to methylcytosine B) Cytosine to hydroxymethylcytosine C) Uracil to thymine D) Uracil to hydroxymethyluracil Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.6 68) How acyclovir and ganciclovir help in the treatment of herpes virus infection?

A) Inhibit viral DNA replication B) Affects the viral enzyme function C) Alters the substrate of viral metabolism D) Alters the viral translational machinery Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.6

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69) Which of these drugs acts as a substrate for HGPRT? A) 3'-thiacytidine B) 2',3'-dideoxycytidine C) 2',3'-dideoxyinosine D) 6-mercaptopurine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.7 70) Which of these compounds is NOT a part of three-drug cocktail for long-term remissions of HIV infections?

A) Protease inhibitors B) 3'-thiacytidine C) Zidovudine D) 6-mercaptopurine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.7 71) Which of these nucleotide analogs is NOT used for the treatment of HIV-AIDS? A) 3'-thiacytidine B) 2',3'-dideoxycytidine C) 2',3'-dideoxyinosine D) 6-mercaptopurine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.7 72) How is 3'-thiacytidine useful in treatment of HIV-AIDS? A) It blocks the DNA chain extension by absence of 3' hydroxyl group.

B) It inhibits thymidylate synthase.

C) It activates purine deaminase.

D) It acts as a cytosine analog.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 19.7

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 20 Mechanism of Signal Transduction 1) Which of these molecules is NOT a type of secondary messenger?

A) cAMP B) cGMP C) Diacylglycerol D) Pyrophosphate Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 2) What is NOT true about hormones?

A) They act directly on target enzymes.

B) They bind to cell receptors.

C) Not all enzymes require second messenger.

D) The hormones belong to chemical class of peptides, steroids and amino acid derivatives.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 3) Which of these is NOT a chemical class for hormones?

A) Polypeptides B) Steroids C) Carbohydrates D) Amino acid derivatives Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 4) Which of these is NOT a hormonal mechanism?

A) Programmed cell death B) Activation or inhibition of enzymes C) Synthesis of specific protein D) Altering membrane permeability Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 5) Which of these hormones do NOT bind to an intracellular receptor?

A) Steroids B) Thyroid hormones C) Insulin D) Calciferol Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 1 .

6) Where is the hormone binding site on a transmembrane receptor?

A) Cytosol B) Extracellular C) Inner layer of plasma membrane D) Nuclear lamina Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 7) For most of the signal transduction mechanism, what is the end result in terms of chemical modification?

A) Acetylation or deacetylation of proteins B) Methylation or demethylation of proteins C) Phosphorylation or dephosphorylation of proteins D) Carboxylation or decarboxylation of proteins Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 8) What part of human brain is regarded as the master coordinator for hormonal control?

A) Cerebellum B) Thalamus C) Hypothalamus D) Pineal gland Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 9) What does a tropic hormone mean?

A) Pituitary hormone that acts on an exocrine gland B) Pituitary hormone that acts on an endocrine gland C) Pituitary hormone that acts on a paracrine gland D) Pituitary hormone that acts on pineal gland Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 10) What pituitary hormone stimulate the islet cells of the pancreas to release insulin or glucagon?

A) Prolactin B) Luteinizing hormone C) Somatostatin D) Somatotropin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 2 .

11) What is the size of preproinsulin in terms of amino acid residues?

A) 105 B) 80 C) 60 D) 45 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.1 12) Which of these proteins is NOT a part of the three-protein system used in G protein-coupled signaling?

A) Receptor B) Transducer C) Effector D) Activator Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 13) What is the term used for an analog of a hormone which acts similarly as the hormone itself?

A) Antagonist B) Agonist C) Isohormone D) Analog Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 14) What are the basic four adrenergic receptors?

A) α1, α2, β1, β2 B) α1, β1, γ1, δ1 C) α1, α2, γ1, γ2 D) β1, β2, δ1, δ2 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 15) Which receptors are affected by propranolol, an epinephrine antagonist?

A) α receptor B) β receptor C) γ receptor D) δ receptor Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

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16) On an average, what is the size of a β2 adrenergic receptor in terms of amino acid residues?

A) 315-380 B) 415-480 C) 515-580 D) 615-680 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 17) Generally, how many transmembrane helices are found in a β2 adrenergic receptor?

A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 18) What are the two best characterized family of G proteins?

A) Ga and Gd B) Gs and Gi C) Gx and Gy D) Gt and Gi Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 19) What signaling allows the G protein to exchange its GDP with a GTP? A) Binding of hormone to a receptor B) Binding G protein to an effector C) Binding of hormone to an effector D) Binding of G protein to receptor Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 20) Which of the following summarizes the sequence of signal transduction pathway?

A) Hormone-G protein-receptor-adenylate cyclase-cAMP-phosphorylation B) Hormone-receptor-G protein-adenylate cyclase-cAMP-phosphorylation C) G protein-receptor-hormone-cAMP-adenylate cyclase-phosphorylation D) cAMP-adenylate cyclase-G protein-hormone-receptor-phosphorylation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

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21) Where is the G protein found to be associated in a cell?

A) Cytosol B) Membrane C) Mitochondrial matrix D) Nucleoplasm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 22) What protein assists in the exchange of GDP with GTP in G protein, upon hormone receptor binding?

A) Guanine nucleotide exchange factor B) GTP activating protein C) GTP recycling protein D) GDP phosphorylating factor Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 23) The hydrolysis of bound GTP on an active G protein is assisted by protein called ________.

A) GTP dephosphorylating factor B) GTPase-activating protein C) GTP hydrolyzing protein D) GDP recycling protein Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 24) What subunit of G protein is involved in binding of a GTP molecule?

A) α B) β C) γ D) δ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 25) Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding G proteins?

A) It has a heterotrimeric structure.

B) Its α-subunit binds to GTP or GDP. C) α-GTP dissociates itself from βγ subunit of a G protein.

D) α-subunit is prenylated at N terminal cysteine.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

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26) What mechanism of G protein signaling is affected by cholera and pertussis toxins?

A) Exchange of GDP to GTP B) Dissociation of α-GTP from βγ subunits C) Slow hydrolysis of GTP to GDP D) Activation of adenylate cyclase by α-GTP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 27) How many types of G protein can be synthesized from 24 different α proteins, 5β and 6γ proteins?

A) 240 B) 480 C) 720 D) 960 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Learning Outcome: 20.2 28) What is the name of the G protein utilized in the process of visual generation?

A) Transducin B) Rhodopsin C) Opsin D) Cathepsin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 29) What molecule acts as the second messenger in case of visual signal generation?

A) cAMP B) cGMP C) Nitrous oxide D) Diacyl glycerol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 30) What hydroxyl group of ATP is activated by adenylate cyclase to create cAMP? A) 2' B) 3' C) 4' D) 5' Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

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31) What cAMP activated protein helps in regulating transcription of genes?

A) cAMP binding protein B) cAMP element binding protein C) cAMP response binding protein D) cAMP response element binding protein Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 32) Which of these proteins account for differential effects of cAMP within the same cell?

A) A kinase anchoring protein B) A phosphatase anchoring protein C) A kinase binding protein D) A phosphatase binding protein Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 33) What amino acid results in the production of nitric oxide?

A) Histidine B) Arginine C) Asparagine D) Glutamine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 34) What enzyme is inhibited by sildenafil to increase the half-life of cGMP? A) cGMP phosphatase B) cGMP phosphorylase C) cGMP kinase D) cGMP phosphodiesterase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 35) Which of these gaseous molecules do NOT act as a secondary messenger?

A) NO B) O2 C) CO D) H2S Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

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36) What enzyme is activated upon G protein signaling in the phosphoinositide system?

A) Phospholipase A B) Phospholipase B C) Phospholipase C D) Phospholipase D Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 37) What is the substrate for an activated phospholipase C in phosphoinositide system?

A) Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate B) Inositol 4,5-bisphosphate C) Phosphatidylinositol 2,3-bisphosphate D) Inositol 2,3-bisphosphate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 38) What is the active form of DAG required for signal transduction?

A) sn-1,2-DAG B) sn-1,3-DAG C) sn-2,3-DAG D) sn-2-DAG Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 39) Besides DAG, what is the other product formed by cleaving of phosphatidylinositol 4,5bisphosphate by phospholipase C? A) Inositol trisphosphate B) Inositol bisphosphate C) Inositol phosphate D) Inositol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 40) What metal ion inhibits the hydrolysis of inositol monophosphate to inositol?

A) Iron B) Lithium C) Magnesium D) Copper Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2

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41) What group of natural products which resembles a part of DAG are called tumor promoters?

A) Phorbol ester B) Phorbol ketol C) Phorbol phosphate D) Phorbol aldol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.2 42) What is the name for the structure that is formed to stabilize the asymmetric dimer formed in the cytoplasmic side of receptor tyrosine kinases?

A) Juxtamembrane hook B) Juxtamembrane key C) Juxtamembrane loop D) Juxtamembrane latch Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 43) Which of these is NOT a characteristic of receptor tyrosine kinase family?

A) A single membrane-spanning domain.

B) Ligand binding site on extracellular side.

C) Protein tyrosine kinase activity on cytoplasmic side.

D) ATP dependent phosphorylation.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 44) Which of these factors have their receptors with serine/threonine kinase activity?

A) Nerve growth factor B) Fibroblast growth factor C) Colony-stimulating factor D) Transforming growth factor β Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 45) ________ factor has a guanylate cyclase activity at its receptor.

A) Platelet-derived growth factor B) Insulin-like growth factor 1 C) Atrial natriuretic factor D) Epidermal growth factor Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3

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46) What domains of receptor tyrosine kinase allows incorporation of different proteins to receptor tyrosine kinase?

A) SH2 and PTB B) SH1 and GTB C) Src2 and LTB D) Src2 and PTB Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 47) The phosphorylation of ________ by protein kinase B upon downstream effect of insulin receptor substrate-1 binding to insulin receptor kinase.

A) Glycogen synthase kinase B) Glycogen synthase C) Glycogen synthetase D) Glycogen esterase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 48) Protein kinase B promotes the relocalization of ________ to increase the glucose uptake by cell surface.

A) GLUT1 B) GLUT2 C) GLUT3 D) GLUT4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3 49) The phosphorylation of ________ a protein kinase upon downstream signaling by phosphorylated insulin receptor substrate-1 is responsible to promote cell division and growth.

A) PKB B) ERK C) PKA D) PKC Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.3

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50) What are the specific sites on DNA called which binds the hormone receptor complex?

A) Protein-binding elements B) Hormone-binding elements C) Hormone-responsive elements D) Histone-binding elements Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4 51) What metal ion is found in the nuclear receptors for hormone-based regulation of transcription?

A) Zinc B) Copper C) Iron D) Manganese Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4 52) Which of these drugs are used an anti-tumor agent for estrogen based development of breast cancer?

A) Tamoxifen B) Goserelin C) Leuprolide D) Exemestane Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4 53) Which of these chemical compounds binds to progesterone receptors and block the implantation of a fertilized ovum?

A) RU456 B) RU466 C) RU476 D) RU486 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.4

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54) Genes responsible for altered forms or levels of proteins involved in signal transduction are called ________.

A) Tumogenes B) Oncogenes C) Sulfogene D) Protogene Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 55) The enzyme responsible to synthesize DNA from single-stranded RNA template are called ________.

A) Transcriptase B) RNA polymerase C) Reverse transcriptase D) DNA polymerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 56) What is the gene called which acts as a precursor to oncogene?

A) Proto-oncogene B) Prepro-oncogene C) Pre-oncogene D) Pro-oncogene Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 57) Which of these functions is NOT performed by p53 protein?

A) Retard cell cycle from G1 to S phase to repair damage B) Cell signaling to apoptosis C) Cell signaling for cell proliferation and cytokinesis D) Essential for senescence response to short telomeres Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 58) What function is altered in the protein encoded by the cancerous ras genes?

A) Unable to bind GTP B) Unable to dissociate GDP C) Unable to hydrolyze GTP D) Unable to bind GDP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 12 .

59) What is the size of p53 protein A) 53 daltons B) 53 kilodaltons C) 53 megadaltons D) 53 millidaltons Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 60) Most frequent mutations leading to colorectal cancer are in the genes encoding proteins Ras, p53 and ________.

A) Protein kinase A B) Phosphoinositide 3-kinase C) Receptor tyrosine kinase D) Glycogen synthase kinase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 61) What two oncogenes are fused together in 90% case of chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A) kit and sis B) myc and ras C) bcr and c-abl D) myc and bcr Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 62) Which of these drugs have been successful in treating the chronic myelogenous leukemia caused by linking of portion of chromosome 9 and 22?

A) Gleevec B) Evista C) BuMel D) Ceritinib Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.5 63) How much is the width of synaptic cleft?

A) 20 nm B) 20 μm C) 20 mm D) 20 pm Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 13 .

64) The influx of what ions causes the vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse in to membrane of the bulb in presynaptic cleft?

A) Calcium B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Iron Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 65) The ________ allows the exchange of neurotransmitter with protons from neurotransmitter transporter protein to fill the vesicles with neurotransmitters.

A) Cellular ATPase B) Synaptic ATPase C) Vacuolar ATPase D) Vesicular ATPase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 66) The organ called ________ is used by eels to electrocute its prey, which has densely packed nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.

A) Electropore B) Electroderm C) Electroplaque D) Electroplate Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 67) What is the target of the nerve gas 'sarin' in the process of neurotransmission?

A) Acetylcholine B) Acetylcholine receptor C) Acetylcholinesterase D) Vacuolar ATPase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 68) γ-Aminobutyric acid is the principal ________ neurotransmitter.

A) Excitatory B) Inhibitory C) Activational D) Dampening Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 14 .

69) The defects in what neurotransmitter results in the disorder of Parkinsonism?

A) Acetylcholine B) γ-Aminobutyric acid C) Dopamine D) Epinephrine Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 70) Parkinsonism involves the death of nerve cells producing dopamine in a portion of brain called ________.

A) Pons B) Medulla C) Substantia nigra D) Cerebellum Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 71) Which of these enzymes catabolize catecholamines in the synaptic cleft?

A) Monoamine oxidase B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Dopaminase D) Glutamase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 72) Prozac helps in antidepressant by blocking the reuptake of ________.

A) Melatonin B) Serotonin C) Dopamine D) Glutamate Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 73) Which of this is NOT a peptide neurotransmitter?

A) Somatostatin B) Neurotensin C) Enkephalins D) Ritalin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6 15 .

74) What neurotransmitter release is promoted by drug Ritalin, used to treat ADHD? A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Neurotensin D) Enkephalins Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 20.6

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 21 Genes, Genomes and Chromosomes 1) Approximately how many genes are transcribed by E.coli?

A) 2400 B) 3400 C) 4400 D) 5400 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1 2) Which of these nucleic acid forms contain modified form of nucleotides?

A) mRNA B) tRNA C) DNA D) rRNA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1 3) Which of theses viruses are known for their large genome content?

A) Simian virus 40 B) Bacteriophage M13 C) Influenza virus D) Mimivirus Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1 4) Which of these is a characteristic of pandoraviruses?

A) Large genome B) Single stranded + RNA genome C) Double stranded RNA genome D) Single stranded — RNA genome Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1 5) What is the average size of a supercoiled DNA loop bound to a protein in bacteria?

A) 10kbp B) 25kbp C) 50kbp D) 100kbp Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1 1 .

6) The compacted form of DNA in a bacterium is called a ________.

A) Nucleosome B) Solenoid fiber C) Nucleoid D) Relaxosome Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.1 7) How many chromosomes are present in a bacterial and archaeal cell?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 23 D) 46 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 8) In a density gradient experiment, what are the low density bands observed around main-band DNA called?

A) Orbit DNA B) Satellite DNA C) Planetary DNA D) Extra orbital DNA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 9) What DNA base pairs are present in the satellite DNA? A) A-T B) G-C C) A-C D) G-T Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 10) Of all the total genome present in a higher eukaryote, what percentage is occupied by the satellite DNA? A) 1-5% B) 10-20% C) 30-40% D) 70-80% Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 2 .

11) Satellite DNA is found to be concentrated near the ________ of dividing cells.

A) Spindle fibers B) Centromere C) Chromatids D) Astral microtubules Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 12) Which of these gene products do NOT have multiple duplication copies to meet the cell's demand?

A) rRNA B) Histones C) tRNA D) Catalase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 13) Which of these is a type of Alu sequence?

A) Short interspersed elements B) Medium interspersed elements C) Mega interspersed elements D) Nano interspersed elements Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 14) Why are the repeated DNA sequences called Alu sequence?

A) Single exonuclease site for AluI B) Multiple exonuclease site for AluI C) Single restriction endonuclease site for AluI D) Multiple restriction endonuclease site for AluI Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 15) What is the term used for Alu sequence with size as long as 10kbp?

A) Short interspersed elements B) Medium interspersed elements C) Long interspersed elements D) Mega interspersed elements Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2

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16) The genomic DNA which does NOT have its counterpart in the mRNA forms a structure called ________.

A) P loops B) Q loops C) R loops D) S loops Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 17) What is the term form a genetic recombination which allows functional parts of proteins to be interchanged in evolution?

A) Exon interchange B) Intron shuffling C) Exon shuffling D) Intron interchange Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 18) The variants of protein can be created from a single gene by process called ________.

A) Differential splicing B) Alternative splicing C) Contiguous splicing D) Repetitive splicing Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 19) In early embryo stages in human what form of globin gene is expressed?

A) α B) β C) µ D) ε Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 20) What form of globin gene is expressed at the time of birth in humans?

A) ζ B) β C) µ D) ε Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 4 .

21) What cells retain the expression of globin genes, despite of them being available in all human cells?

A) Hepatic B) Nephrotic C) Neuronal D) Erythropoeitic Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 22) What are the genes called whose gene products are non-functional?

A) Pseudogenes B) Mimicgenes C) Allogenes D) Apogenes Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 23) What was the project consortium called which worked to assign function to the junk DNA concluded by the Human Genome Project?

A) ENCODE B) CODETHEJUNK C) JUNKAID D) JUNKPRO Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 24) What does ENCODE project stands for?

A) Encyclopedia of DNA Elements B) Entire Code of DNA expression C) Enclosed sequence of entire DNA D) Consortium of DNA elements Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.2 25) What is the pore size of nuclear pores?

A) 3 micron B) 6 micron C) 9 micron D) 12 micron Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 5 .

26) What is the large multiprotein assembly called at the nuclear pore?

A) Nuclear pore assembly B) Nuclear pore complex C) Nuclear pore chamber D) Nuclear pore core Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 27) The chromosomes are held in nucleus by ________.

A) Nuclear membrane B) Nuclear sheath C) Nuclear envelope D) Nuclear lamina Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 28) The chromosomes are present in nucleus as an entangled mass of DNA-protein complex called ________.

A) Chromatin B) Chromonema C) Chromoplasm D) Chromatid Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 29) Which of these protein is a part of nuclear pore complex?

A) Nucleoporin B) Lamin C) Fimbrin D) Fibrin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 30) Which of these statements is TRUE about the mRNA? A) mRNA has to be transported to cytoplasm for it to be translated to protein.

B) mRNA is heavily modified in the cytoplasm.

C) mRNA is transcribed and translated in the nucleus itself.

D) mRNA is only translated in the nucleus.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3

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31) What are the structure at the end of the eukaryotic chromosomes called?

A) Centromere B) Telomere C) Metamere D) Anamere Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 32) What is the repeated sequence present in human telomeres?

A) TTAAGA B) TTAGGG C) GGGGAA D) GCGGCA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 33) The dGMP residues often form a ________ structure in telomeres.

A) G—triplex B) G-duplex C) G-quadruplex D) G-hexaplex Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 34) What are the strongly basic proteins present in chromatin the helps in packing of DNA in to chromatin?

A) Histone B) Solenoid C) Nucleosome D) Globin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 35) Which of these histone proteins are NOT present in the chromatin of humans?

A) H1 B) H2 C) H3 D) H4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3

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36) How many grams of histones are found per gram of DNA in nuclei?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 37) Which statement is TRUE about the H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 histone proteins?

A) They are not present in equimolar concentration.

B) They are present in equimolar concentration.

C) They are present as a tetramer.

D) They are present as a hexamer with two units each of H3 and H4.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 38) Other than histones which of these proteins is NOT found majorly in the chromatin?

A) Cohesins B) Condensins C) Topoisomerases D) Kinases Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 39) Which of these proteins is essential in chromosomal condensation to prepare cell for mitosis?

A) Cohesins B) Colamins C) Condensins D) Connexins Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 40) What is the repeating element in a chromatin structure?

A) Solenosome B) Nucleosome C) Chromosome D) Histone Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3

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41) How many base pairs of DNA are found to be wrapped around the nucleosome histone core?

A) 146 B) 246 C) 346 D) 446 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 42) Nucleosome has histones in the form of a(n) ________.

A) Dimer B) Tetramer C) Hexamer D) Octamer Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 43) How many turns are made by DNA in a histone octamer core?

A) 1.3 B) 1.5 C) 1.7 D) 1.9 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 44) What is the directional folding of DNA in a nucleosome?

A) Left-handed B) Right-handed C) Bidirectional D) Clockwise Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 45) The ________ DNA are found in between the two nucleosomes.

A) Connector B) Linker C) Adjoiner D) Cohesive Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3

9 .

46) What is the histone protein associated with the linker DNA? A) H1 B) H2A C) H3 D) H4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 47) What does 'me3' in 'H3K27me3' signify?

A) Trimethyl B) Trimethylene C) Trimethane D) Trimethanol Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 48) What does 'K27' signify in 'H3K27me3'?

A) Potassium at position 27 B) Lysine at position 27 C) Keratin at position 27 D) Kinesin at position 27 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 49) What does 'H3' in H3K27me3 signify?

A) Histone 3 B) Hydrogen 3 C) Histidine 3 D) Hexin 3 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 50) Which of these histone modification is associated with inactive transcribed region of DNA? A) H3K4me3 B) H3Kac C) H3K36me3 D) H3K27me3 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3

10 .

51) Which of these histone modification is associated with inactive transcribed region of DNA? A) H3K9me3 B) H3K27me3 C) H4K20me3 D) H3K36me3 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 52) What is the transcriptionally active form of chromatin in interphase nuclei?

A) Euchromatin B) Truchromatin C) Prechromatin D) Prochromatin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 53) What is the transcriptionally inactive form of chromatin in interphase nuclei?

A) Exchromatin B) Pseudochromatin C) Prechromatin D) Heterochromatin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.3 54) What is the second component of restriction-modification system apart from DNA endonuclease?

A) DNA acetylase B) DNA methylase C) DNA polymerase D) DNA isomerase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 55) Which statement is FALSE about epigenetic changes?

A) Restriction of DNA is an epigenetic change.

B) Methylation of DNA is an epigenetic change.

C) Epigenetic changes are heritable.

D) Epigenetic changes involve in changing the sequence of DNA. Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4

11 .

56) Which of these statements is NOT true about the restriction maps?

A) It is created from restriction digest of DNA molecules.

B) It gives the physical location of the restriction sites.

C) The restriction fragment size is resolved by electrophoresis.

D) It gives the map for single nucleotide polymorphism.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 57) Which of these is NOT a type of restriction-modification system?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 58) Which of these restriction enzyme system does cleave at the target site?

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 59) Which of these sequences is a restriction site for EcoRI? A) GGCC B) GGATCC C) GAATTC D) CCCGGG Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 60) Which of these sequences is a restriction site for HindIII? A) AAGCT B) CCCGGG C) CTGCAG D) GCGC Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4

12 .

61) Which of these techniques was employed to yield the complete genome sequence of human genome in 2000?

A) Shotgun sequencing B) Pyro454 sequencing C) NexGen sequencing D) SOLid sequencing Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 62) What is the technique called which utilizes unique fluorescently labelled oligonucleotide to map large genomes?

A) Fluorescence in situ hybridization B) Flow cytometry C) Fluorescence loss after photobleaching D) Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 63) What does restriction fragment length polymorphism signify?

A) Differential length of restriction fragments due to polymorphism of restriction site B) Same restriction fragment lengths C) Does not help in genome mapping D) Not useful in genome wide screening of sequence Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 64) ________ is a set of single-nucleotide polymorphism that are associated statistically.

A) Genotype B) Haplotype C) Phenotype D) Diplotype Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 65) ________ is used in Southern blot process to blot the DNA bands from the electrophoretic gels.

A) Nitrocellulose B) Paraffin C) Glycerol D) Whatman paper Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 13 .

66) What technique allows the amplification of DNA from small amount of DNA sample?

A) FISH B) PCR C) Western blot D) Flow cytometry Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 67) Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)?

A) YAC has a centromere.

B) YAC has an origin for DNA replication.

C) YAC has telomeres.

D) YAC has gag, pol and env gene.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 68) Which of these electrophoretic techniques utilizes alternating voltage gradients?

A) Agarose gel electrophoresis B) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis C) Capillary gel electrophoresis D) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 69) According to recent knowledge of human genome, any two humans are ________ genetically similar despite its ethnic origin.

A) 90% B) 80% C) 99.9% D) 100% Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4 70) What is the difference in bases between two humans?

A) 1 in 10 B) 1 in 100 C) 1 in 1000 D) 1 in 10000 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 21.4

14 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 22 DNA Replication 1) Which of these statements is TRUE regarding the semiconservative nature of DNA? A) The two strands of newly replicated daughter DNA is of parental nature.

B) One strand of newly replicated daughter DNA is of parental nature.

C) Replication creates novel daughter DNA. D) Daughter DNA digests the parental strand during replication.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1 2) What is the site called where the replication fork begins?

A) Replication origin B) Replication novum C) Replication promoter D) Replication starter Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1 3) How long is the circular DNA of E. coli?

A) 1.3mm B) 1.3µm C) 1.3nm D) 1.3cm Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1 4) In general, the replication of DNA is ________ in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A) Unidirectional B) Bidirectional C) Random D) Circular Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1 5) A typical mammalian cell has around ________ replication origins.

A) 1-100 B) 1000-10000 C) 100000-1000000 D) 10000000-100000000 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1 1 .

6) Individual DNA chains in eukaryotic cells grow at the rate of ________ nucleotides per second.

A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1000 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.1 7) How many energy rich phosphates are expended per nucleotide incorporated to the primer during replication?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 8) The 3' hydroxyl group of the primer terminus has ________ attack on the α-phosphate of the nucleotide substrate.

A) Electrophilic B) Nucleophilic C) Ionic D) Hydrophilic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 9) Which of these is NOT required for DNA polymerase activity?

A) Primer B) DNA strand C) dNTPs D) Fe+3 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2

2 .

10) What is the process called where a single-stranded flap of DNA is generated due to a nick on the DNA strand?

A) Strand flap synthesis B) Strand displacement synthesis C) Stand nick synthesis D) Strand separation synthesis Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 11) The reaction of digesting the single stranded flap of DNA at the site of nick is called nick ________.

A) Transition B) Transcription C) Transmutation D) Translation Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 12) Which of these is NOT an active site on DNA polymerase I? A) Polymerase B) 3' exonuclease C) 5' exonuclease D) 3 endonuclease Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 13) Which active site of DNA polymerase I has the DNA proofreading capacity?

A) Polymerase B) 3' exonuclease C) 5' exonuclease D) 3 endonuclease Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 14) What active site is present in the small 35 kDa part of DNA polymerase I? A) Polymerase B) 3' exonuclease C) 5' exonuclease D) 3 endonuclease Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 3 .

15) The large ________ fragment of DNA polymerase I contains both polymerase and proofreading active sites.

A) Stahl B) Crick C) Watson D) Klenow Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 16) How far is the 3' exonuclease active site from the polymerase active site on DNA polymerase I? A) 1 nm B) 2 nm C) 3 nm D) 4 nm Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 17) What is the size of the large C terminal fragment of DNA polymerase I? A) 103 kDa B) 35 kDa C) 65 kDa D) 68 kDa Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 18) Which of these DNA polymerases have been assigned the major role of nucleotide incorporation during replication?

A) DNA polymerase II B) DNA polymerase III C) DNA polymerase IV D) DNA polymerase V Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 19) Which of these statement is FALSE about DNA polymerase III? A) Vmax is 250-1000 nucleotides per second.

B) Ten or less DNA polymerase III molecule per cell.

C) polC is the gene for catalytic subunit.

D) Bmax is 10-100 nucleotides per second.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 4 .

20) Which of these DNA polymerases is induced by DNA-damaging events?

A) DNA polymerase I B) DNA polymerase II C) DNA polymerase III D) DNA polymerase VI Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 21) What metal ion is required for the catalytic action of DNA polymerase?

A) Manganese B) Magnesium C) Calcium D) Sodium Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 22) The DNA near the primer terminus adopts a conformation of ________ form rather than B form in the polymerase-DNA complex.

A) A B) L C) C D) S Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.2 23) What enzyme does DnaG gene codes for?

A) Isomerase B) Ligase C) Primase D) Topoisomerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 24) What is the parental DNA strand allowing the uninterrupted replication of DNA? A) Lagging strand B) Leading stand C) Prime strand D) Sub-prime strand Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 5 .

25) What is the direction of the leading strand?

A) Random B) 5' to 3' C) 3' to 5' D) 3' to 3' Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 26) In phage T4, DNA ligase is encoded by gene ________.

A) 30 B) 32 C) 61 D) 62 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 27) What primer is required for the initiation of Okazaki fragments?

A) DNA primer B) RNA primer C) Nucleoside D) Mononucleotide Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 28) DNA ligase is activated by ________ of a lysine residue in the active site of the enzyme.

A) Methylation B) Adenylation C) Phosphorylation D) Carboxylation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 29) Eukaryotic DNA utilizes ________ to adenylate the DNA ligase.

A) GTP B) ATP C) NAD+ D) FAD+ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3

6 .

30) Bacterial DNA utilizes ________ to adenylate the DNA ligase.

A) GTP B) ATP C) NAD+ D) FAD+ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 31) In E. coli how long is the RNA primer length?

A) 5 nucleotides B) 11 nucleotides C) 17 nucleotides D) 22 nucleotides Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 32) Which of these enzymes help hydrolyzing RNA-DNA base pairs?

A) Primase B) Ribonuclease H C) Ligase D) Isomerase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 33) What active site of DNA polymerase I helps in the removal of ribonucleotides on the lagging strand?

A) 3' exonuclease B) 5' exonuclease C) Polymerase D) 3' endonuclease Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 34) In T4 DNA replication how long is the RNA primer length?

A) 5 nucleotides B) 11 nucleotides C) 17 nucleotides D) 22 nucleotides Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3

7 .

35) What enzyme helps in the unwinding of the parental starnd?

A) Primase B) Isomerase C) Helicase D) Topoisomerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 36) What protein helps in keeping DNA parental in single stranded form to allow its replication by polymerase?

A) Single stranded binding protein B) Zinc finger C) DNA binding protein D) Nucleosome Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 37) What protein helps in introducing negative supercoiling in to the newly replicated DNA? A) Topoisomerase B) Isomerase C) Primase D) Helicase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 38) Which of these statements is NOT true about the replisome?

A) Replisome is dynamic.

B) Replisome is static.

C) Replisome moves along the replication fork.

D) Replisome allows the replication of parental strand.

Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 39) What is the size of E. coli DNA polymerase III enzyme?

A) 110 kDa B) 120 kDa C) 130 kDa D) 140 kDa Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3

8 .

40) DNA polymerase III holoenzyme contains ________ different polypeptide chains.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 41) Which of these subunit is NOT the part of the core polymerase part of DNA polymerase III holoenzyme?

A) α B) ε C) θ D) λ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 42) What subunit of DNA polymerase III holoenzyme has the 3' exonuclease activity?

A) α B) ε C) θ D) λ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 43) The ________ protein dimerizes the DNA polymerase II holoenzyme, holding leading and lagging strand polymerases together.

A) α B) ε C) θ D) τ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 44) ________ subunit mediates the switch from RNA primers to DNA. A) α B) ε C) χ D) τ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 9 .

45) What subunit of DNA polymerase III holoenzyme holds the DNA polymerase bound to its template through many cycles of nucleotide addition?

A) α B) β C) χ D) τ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 46) β is a ________ molecule with ________ nm opening to house the double stranded DNA. A) Trigonal, 1.5 B) Square, 2.5 C) Circular, 3.5 D) Pentagonal, 4.5 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 47) Which of these subunits is NOT a part of clamp loader complex?

A) γ B) δ C) δ' D) ε Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 48) How many time the cycle of clamp loader complex loading and unloading occurs on the lagging strand?

A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1000 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 49) Single stranded binding protein reduces the melting temperature of DNA by ________C. A) 10∘ B) 20∘ C) 30∘ D) 40∘ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 10 .

50) Which of these statements is FALSE about single stranded binding proteins?

A) They bind to DNA cooperatively.

B) They lower the melting temperature of DNA. C) They keep the DNA in single stranded form.

D) They keep the DNA in double stranded form.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 51) Which of these two protein pairs form the primosome complex?

A) Helicase and isomerase B) Helicase and primase C) Primase and isomerase D) Isomerase and topoisomerase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 52) What is the directionality of defective helicase in the Werner's syndrome?

A) 5'- 3' B) 3'- 5' C) Random D) 5'- 5' Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 53) What enzyme helps in the relief of the torsional stress created due to unwinding of DNA during replication of DNA? A) Isomerase B) Helicase C) Primase D) Topoisomerase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 54) Type II topoisomerase of E. coli catalyzes a variety of topological interconversion of circular DNA EXCEPT one of the following.

A) Knotting B) Catenation C) Decatenation D) Twisting Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 11 .

55) Which of these drugs bind to the B subunit of DNA gyrase to inhibit DNA replication?

A) Camptothecin B) Nalidixic acid C) Novobiocin D) Apothecia Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.3 56) In eukaryotes what DNA polymerase is induced during DNA repair process?

A) α B) β C) γ D) δ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4 57) What DNA polymerase is used for mitochondrial DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A) α B) β C) γ D) δ Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4 58) Which of these DNA polymerases is NOT involved in nuclear DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A) α B) δ C) ε D) θ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4 59) What is the other enzyme used in the removal of RNA primers besides 5' exonuclease activity of Pol δ in eukaryotes?

A) PCNA B) FEN1 C) Pol α D) Replication factor C Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4 12 .

60) What class of proteins facilitates the association of histones with nascent DNA? A) Histone dismantlers B) Histone chaperones C) Histone assemblers D) Histone reducers Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.4 61) What is FALSE about the DNA replication origin?

A) The origin has inverted repeats.

B) The origin has direct repeats.

C) The origin has sequence that binds initiation proteins.

D) The origin has sequence susceptible for strand generation.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.5 62) The origin of replication in E. coli has a sequence which is ________ base pairs.

A) 145 B) 245 C) 345 D) 445 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.5 63) Which of the protein complexes associated with DNA represents the coordination between DNA replication and membrane growth?

A) DnaA with ATP B) DnaB with ATP C) DnaC with ATP D) DnaD with ATP Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.5 64) Binding of what basic proteins facilitates the bending of DNA at origin of replication?

A) HU and IHF B) H2A and H2B C) H1 and H2 D) H3 and H4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.5 13 .

65) What is the process by which initiation of replication at origin is regulated to occur once per cell cycle?

A) Active B) Rationing C) Licensing D) Firing Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.5 66) What consensus sequence is available on autonomously replicating sequences?

A) 5'-TTTTATATTTT-3' B) 5'-AAATAATATAT-3' C) 5'-TTTTTTTTTTT-3' D) 5'-AAAATTTTAAA-3' Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.5 67) Why does the telomerase do NOT require DNA primer to add nucleotides at the telomere?

A) Telomerase has an essential complementary RNA oligonucleotide.

B) Telomerase has magnesium ion to initiate the telomeric extension.

C) Telomerase has exonuclease activity.

D) Telomerase has endonuclease activity.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.6 68) Telomeres ________ with age, both in organisms and cell culture.

A) Extends B) Shortens C) Loosens D) Hardened Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.6 69) What is the observed error frequency of DNA polymerase for nucleotide incorporations?

A) 10-5 B) 10-6 C) 10-7 D) 10-8 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.7

14 .

70) The Km for chain extension from a mismatch is about ________ fold higher than extension from correctly matched terminus.

A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10000 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.7 71) How many residues of glutamines are present in huntingtin protein in a person having Huntington's disease?

A) 6 B) 15 C) 31 D) 80 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.7 72) What sort of mismatch base pair is enforced in person suffering from mitochondrial neurogastrointestinal encephalomyopathy?

A) A-T B) G-C C) G-T D) A-C Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.7 73) What disorder in humans is associated with deficiency of RNase H2?

A) Aicardi-Goutières syndrome B) Alzheimer's Disorder C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob's syndrome D) Beri beri Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.7

15 .

74) The rapid mutation rates of RNA viruses are largely due to RNA replicases lack the ________ activity.

A) Proofreading B) Priming C) Single strand synthesis D) Nick translation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.8 75) The RNA strand of viruses which can be directly translated into protein is called ________ strand RNA. A) Plus B) Minus C) Asterisk D) Antisense Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.8 76) During reverse transcription the partial degradation of RNA is performed by ________ in RNA viruses.

A) RNase B B) RNase C C) RNase H D) RNase L Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 22.8

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 23 DNA Repair, Recombination and Rearrangement 1) Since the information content of DNA must be passed virtually intact from one cell to another during cell division, the DNA requires ________.

A) Mechanical stability B) Metabolic stability C) Osmotic stability D) Regulatory stability Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 2) What provides the metabolic stability to DNA? A) Highly accurate DNA replication process.

B) Recombination events during cell division.

C) Regulation of DNA transcription.

D) Regulation of mRNA translation.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 3) Depurination involves the cleavage of the ________ bond between deoxyribose and a purine base.

A) Phosphodiester B) Glycosidic C) Phosphate D) Glucosidic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 4) ________, usually is the hydrolytic conversion of a DNA-cytosine residue to uracil.

A) Deamination B) Depurination C) Decarboxylation D) Dehydrogenation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

1 .

5) Oxidation of guanine to ________ is one of the DNA-damaging reactions.

A) 2-oxoguanine B) 4-oxoguanine C) 6-oxoguanine D) 8-oxoguanine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 6) DNA-damaging of thymine to thymine glycol occurs through ________.

A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Deamination D) Depurination Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 7) Cisplatin acts as an environmental DNA-damaging leading by acting as a ________ reagent.

A) DNA methylating B) DNA cross-linking C) DNA oxidizing D) DNA depurination Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 8) ________ is one of the DNA methylating agents.

A) Methyl-nitro-nitrosoguanidine B) Cisplatin C) Benzo[a]pyrene D) Alkene Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 9) Benzo[a]pyrene is one of the ________ agents leading to damage to DNA. A) Mutagenic B) Carcinogenic C) Methylating D) Deaminating Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

2 .

10) What is the absorption maxima for DNA? A) 240 nm B) 260 nm C) 280 nm D) 300 nm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 11) ________ thymine dimers are the most lethal photoproduct in UV light irradiated DNA. A) Cyclomethane B) Cyclobutane C) Cyclopentane D) Cyclohexane Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 12) Thymine dimer formed at carbon ________ is the most mutagenic.

A) 3-2 B) 4-3 C) 6-4 D) 6-3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 13) What is the resultant effect of lethal thymine dimers on structure of DNA? A) Large major grooves B) Large minor grooves C) Alters the DNA base pairing D) Distorts the helix Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 14) Photoreactivation repairs DNA damage directly by visible light irradiation at ________.

A) 270 nm B) 370 nm C) 470 nm D) 570 nm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

3 .

15) Photoreactivation process involves the action of enzyme ________.

A) DNA photolase B) DNA photonase C) DNA photase D) DNA photolyase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 16) What tetrahydrofolate acts as the chromophore in the photolyase enzyme?

A) 5,10 methenyl-tetrahydrofolate B) 5,10 methylene-tetrahydrofolate C) 5,10 methyl-tetrahydrofolate D) 5,10 methene-tetrahydrofolate Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 17) Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the enzyme DNA photolyase?

A) They are abundantly found in human and frogs.

B) They are absent in human and frogs.

C) They are activated in the visible light of 370 nm.

D) They resolve the photoproduct of thymine dimer.

Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 18) DNA alkylating agents primarily reacts with the ________ in DNA. A) Purines B) Pyrimidines C) Phosphate D) Sugar Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 19) Which of these DNA alkylating agents is the most lethal of them all?

A) Methylnitrosourea B) Ethylmethanesulfonate C) Methyl-nitro-nitrosoguanidine D) O6-methylguanine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

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20) O6-methylguanine can form the base pair with ________ when the modified strand replicates.

A) Thymine B) Guanine C) Adenine D) Cytosine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 21) What enzyme works to remove the alkyl group from O6-methylguanine to repair the base pair mismatch?

A) O6-alkylguanine alkyltransferase B) O6-alkylthymine alkyltransferase C) O6-alkyladenine alkyltransferase D) O6-alkylcytosine alkyltransferase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 22) What amino acid residue in the active site of O6-alkylguanine alkyltransferase accepts the alkyl group from O6-alkylguanine?

A) Threonine B) Glutamine C) Asparagine D) Cysteine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 23) Which of these genes is NOT a part of nucleotide excision repair enzyme system in E. coli?

A) uvrA B) uvrB C) uvrC D) uvrE Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

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24) Nucleotide excision repair enzyme system in E. coli cleaves the damaged base by excising ________.

A) Eleven nucleotides to 5' end and two nucleotides to 3' end of the damaged base B) Five nucleotides to 5' end and four nucleotides to 3' end of the damaged base C) Seven nucleotides to 5' end and four nucleotides to 3' end of the damaged base D) Seven nucleotides to 5' end and two nucleotides to 3' end of the damaged base Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 25) What is the product of gene uvrD in the E. coli nucleotide excision repair system?

A) Helicase B) Gyrase C) Primase D) Isomerase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 26) What is the other term used for nucleotide excision repair system?

A) Excinuclease B) Exonuclease C) Endonuclease D) Nuclease Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 27) Human excinuclease cleaves DNA at positions ________ relative to thymine dimer.

A) -22 and +3 B) -11 and +6 C) -22 and +6 D) -11 and +3 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 28) Which of these human diseases is caused by a defective excinuclease system?

A) Cushing's syndrome B) Alzheimer's disease C) Melanoma D) Xeroderma pigmentosa Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

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29) ________ may initiate when a transcribing RNA polymerase becomes stalled at the site of DNA lesion.

A) Translation-coupled repair B) Transition-coupled repair C) RNA-coupled repair D) DNA-coupled repair Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 30) Which of these cancer genes have a defective transition-coupled repair?

A) BRCA1 B) STK11 C) TP53 D) CDH1 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 31) What oxidized product of benzo[a]pyrene is highly reactive with DNA? A) Benzo[a]pyrene-dihydrodiol-epoxide B) Benzo[a]pyrene-epoxide C) Benzo[a]pyrene-estradiol D) Benzo[a]pyrene-oxide Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 32) What electron carrier protein carries out the oxidation of benzo[a]pyrene?

A) Cytochrome a B) Cytochrome b C) Cytochrome P450 D) Cytochrome P350 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 33) What enzyme helps in removal of dUMP pool from DNA? A) Uracil DNA N-glycosylase B) Uracil DNA C-glycolase C) Uracil DNA N-glucolase D) Uracil DNA C-lyase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

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34) Uracil DNA N-glycosylase (Ung) cleaves the glycosidic bond between ________ and ________ of deoxyribose.

A) N1; C1 B) N2; C2 C) N1; C2 D) N2; C1 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 35) Ung yield a free uracil and leaves DNA with a(n) ________ site.

A) Anitrogenic B) Apurinic C) Apyrimidinic D) Abasic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 36) Uracil residues in DNA also arise through spontaneous ________ of cytosine residues.

A) Deamination B) Demethylation C) Dethylation D) Decarboxylation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 37) The cytosine-oxoguanine mispair can be an intermediate in a ________ mutation.

A) Transition B) Transversion C) Frame shift D) Photolytic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 38) Which of these genes in E. coli do NOT contribute to minimize oxidative mutagenesis?

A) mutM B) mutY C) mutT D) mutH Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

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39) Which of these genes in E. coli does NOT contribute to mismatch repair?

A) mutH B) mutL C) mutS D) mutM Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 40) What is the CORRECT sequence for assembly of protein for mismatch correction system in E. coli?

A) MutS-MutH-MutL B) MutH-MutS-MutL C) MutS-MutL-MutH D) MutL-MutS-MutH Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 41) What is the sequence for DNA adenine methylase or called 'dam' site?

A) -GATAB) -GATTC) -GATCD) -GAATAnswer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 42) How many base-pair range is recognized by mismatch correction system from a 'dam' site in either direction?

A) 1 kbp B) 2 kbp C) 3 kbp D) 4 kbp Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 43) How many times the double strand break occurs during a single mammalian cell cycle?

A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 9 .

44) Which of these processes help in double strand break repair?

A) Homologous end joining B) Non-homologous end joining C) MutHLS system D) Lesion joining Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 45) At what phases in cell cycle does the homologous recombination can occur?

A) S or G1 B) S or G0 C) G1 or G2 D) S or G2 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 46) Which of these proteins in vertebrates, helps to repair double strand breaks?

A) Protein kinase A B) Ataxia telangiectasia mutated C) Phosphokinase D) Ataxia mutated Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 47) In bacteria, daughter-strand gap repair requires a multifunctional protein called ________.

A) RecA B) RecX C) RecY D) RecZ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 48) The ________ in bacteria is a metabolic alarm system that helps the cell to save itself from a lethal stress.

A) SOS system B) MutHLS system C) RecBCD system D) LSD system Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1

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49) Which of these eukaryotic polymerases can replicate past thymine dimer?

A) Pol η B) Pol ι C) Pol κ D) Pol α Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 50) Which of these eukaryotic polymerases cannot replicate past DNA damage?

A) Pol η B) Pol ι C) Pol κ D) Pol δ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.1 51) A phage whose chromosome is integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called a(n) ________.

A) Lytic B) Lysogenic C) Inert D) Assertive Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 52) Phage T4 is a(n) ________ phage A) Lytic B) Lysogenic C) Inert D) Assertive Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 53) Lysogenic phage remains in a quiescent stage for many generations hence called a(n) ________.

A) Aphage B) Prophage C) Prephage D) Senesphage Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 11 .

54) Short single-stranded tails at each 5' end of λ phage genome are called ________ ends.

A) Cohesive B) Adhesive C) Friction D) Binding Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 55) What is the corresponding site for attB on bacterial genome to λ phage genome?

A) attP B) attR C) attS D) attT Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 56) The lysogenizing of λ phage to E. coli is catalyzed by enzyme ________.

A) Helicase B) Gyrase C) Isomerase D) Integrase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 57) What is the crossed-strand intermediate called during the process of recombination?

A) Stahl junction B) Holliday junction C) Weigle junction D) Crick junction Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 58) Which of these proteins are NOT involved in homologous recombination?

A) DNA polymerase B) DNase C) DNA ligase D) Single-strand DNA binding protein Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2

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59) What is the molecular weight of the RecA protein?

A) 18 kDa B) 28 kDa C) 38 kDa D) 48 kDa Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 60) What nucleotide sequence acts as the crossover hotspot instigator in the E. coli recombination event?

A) GCTCCTCC B) CGTAAGCA C) GCTGGTCC D) GGGGGCCC Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 61) RAD51 in eukaryotes have the similar function to that of ________ in bacteria.

A) RecA B) RecB C) RecC D) RecD Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 62) Which of these protein acts as ATP-dependent motors to resolve the Holliday junction?

A) RuvA B) RuvB C) RuvC D) RuvD Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.2 63) It is estimated that a human is capable of synthesizing more than ________ million distinct antibodies.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 13 .

64) Besides antibodies which of these have a greater diversity in humans?

A) B-cell receptors B) MHC complex C) T-cell receptors D) Cytokine cell receptors Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 65) Which of these DNA sequences do NOT contribute to the coding of light chain in an antibody?

A) Variable B) Diverse C) Constant D) Joining Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 66) Which of these enzymes helps in establishing somatic hypermutation in antibody sequence?

A) Activation induced deoxycytidine deaminase B) DNA hypermutalase C) DNA photolyase D) DNA lyase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 67) The complementary regions on V and J sequence to allow the recombination event are called ________.

A) Recombination signal sequences B) Recognition signal sequences C) Variable signal sequences D) Joining signal sequences Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 68) Transposition involves the ________ of the target site.

A) Inverted repeats B) Duplication C) Quadrupling D) Removal Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 14 .

69) What enzyme catalyzes the site-specific recombination event to allow a copy of transposon copied to a new and another copy at the original site?

A) Gyrase B) Resolvase C) Transposase D) Helicase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 70) The tandem duplication of the DNA segment generating a giant chromosome with multiple gene copies is called ________.

A) Homogeneously staining region B) Heterogeneously staining region C) Similar banding region D) Homologously staining region Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 71) Methotrexate results in the development of drug-resistant cell population with amplified levels of the enzyme ________.

A) Dihydrofolate reductase B) Dihydrofolate oxidase C) Dihydrofolate carboxylase D) Dihydrofolate dehydrogenase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3 72) A DNA segment containing the DHFR gene can be excised, apparently by a recombinational process, to form mini chromosomes called ________.

A) Single-minute chromosomes B) Double-minute chromosomes C) Triple-minute chromosomes D) Quadruple-minute chromosomes Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 23.3

15 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 24 Transcription and Post-transcriptional Processing 1) ________ is the enzyme which hydrolyzes lactose.

A) Lactate hydrolase B) β-galactosidase C) Lactate dehydrogenase D) α-galactosidase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) Which of these molecules binds to the operator site of the gene to inhibit the transcription of the gene?

A) Activator B) Oppressor C) Repressor D) Inhibitor Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 3) A set of contiguous genes along with its regulatory elements is termed as ________.

A) Acton B) Exon C) Intron D) Operon Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 4) Which of these statements were not the part of a hypothetical mRNA as predicted by Jacob and Monod?

A) High-rate of mRNA synthesis and degradation B) mRNA accumulate rapidly but not to high steady-state levels.

C) mRNA has nucleotide sequence similar to a portion of its complementary DNA. D) mRNA is expected to be a very fairly small molecule.

Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1

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5) Which of these molecules is larger in size based on its sedimentation co-efficient?

A) 4S B) 16S C) 23S D) 27S Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 6) What does 'S' in 16S rRNA stands for?

A) Sedimentation B) Svedberg units C) Stahl factor D) Spiegelman units Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 7) On an average what is the lifetime for an mRNA molecule?

A) 0.5-1 minutes B) 2-3 minutes C) 4-5 minutes D) 6-7 minutes Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 8) Single-stranded DNA can bind to nitrocellulose membrane ________.

A) Reversibly B) Irreversibly C) Absorbingly D) Temporarily Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 9) What is the classic experiment called, which was performed by Spiegelman and his colleagues on DNA-RNA hybridization experiment?

A) Pulse-chase experiment B) Density gradient centrifugation C) Sucrose density gradient D) Radiolabeling experiment Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1

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10) What blotting techniques utilizes the binding property of DNA to nitrocellulose to DNADNA hybrids?

A) Western blot B) Eastern blot C) Southern blot D) Northern blot Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 11) What is the absorbance maxima for RNA molecule?

A) 240 nm B) 260 nm C) 280 nm D) 300 nm Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.1 12) What is the enzyme called, which does NOT require template to produce polynucleotide sequence?

A) RNA polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) Polynucleotide polymerase D) Nucleotide polymerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 13) What is the substrate required for the polynucleotide phosphorylase?

A) Deoxyribonucleoside diphosphates B) Ribonucleoside diphosphates C) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates D) Ribonucleotide triphosphates Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 14) The enzyme ________ copies the complementary sequence from DNA to its RNA form.

A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Nucleotide phosphorylase D) Polynucleotide phosphorylase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 3 .

15) Which of these antibiotics inhibits the activity of RNA polymerase in vitro?

A) Kanamycin B) Penicillin C) Cephalosporin D) Rifampicin Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 16) Which of these RNA polymerases catalyze the synthesis of rRNA in eukaryotes?

A) RNA polymerase I B) RNA polymerase II C) RNA polymerase III D) RNA polymerase IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 17) Which of these RNA polymerases catalyze the synthesis of mRNA in eukaryotes?

A) RNA polymerase I B) RNA polymerase II C) RNA polymerase III D) RNA polymerase IV Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 18) Which of these RNA polymerases catalyze the synthesis of small RNA in eukaryotes?

A) RNA polymerase I B) RNA polymerase II C) RNA polymerase III D) RNA polymerase IV Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 19) What is the toxin that inhibits the activity RNA polymerase II in low concentrations?

A) Amanitin B) Botulin C) Ricin D) Abrin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2

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20) What is the error rate for RNA polymerase?

A) 10-1 B) 10-3 C) 10-5 D) 10-7 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 21) Approximately, what is the kcat for purified RNA polymerase?

A) 12.5 B) 25 C) 37.5 D) 50 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 22) What is the molecular weight of E. coli RNA polymerase holoenzyme?

A) 150kDa B) 250kDa C) 350kDa D) 450kDa Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 23) Which of these subunits represents the E. coli RNA polymerase?

A) α2,β,β',σ,ω B) α,β,ω,σ,µ2 C) σ,σ',α,β,ω D) α,β2,σ,ω,µ Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 24) The ________ subunit is easily dissociated from RNA polymerase holoenzyme.

A) α B) β C) ω D) σ Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2

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25) RNA polymerase holoenzyme without its σ subunit is called ________.

A) Isozyme B) Proenzyme C) Core polymerase D) Batch polymerase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 26) The proper site for initiation of gene transcription is called ________.

A) Promoter B) Operator C) Repressor D) Insulator Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 27) How many subunits are present in yeast RNA polymerase II? A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 28) What are the molecules called which have the role of σ subunit from E. coli in eukaryotic RNA polymerase?

A) Transcription operators B) Transcription initiator C) Transcription promoter D) Transcription factor Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2 29) Which of these RNA polymerases are involved in RNA-directed DNA methylation in plants?

A) RNA polymerase I B) RNA polymerase II C) RNA polymerase III D) RNA polymerase IV Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.2

6 .

30) Which of these is NOT a phase in the process of transcription?

A) Initiation B) Annealing C) Elongation D) Termination Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 31) What consensus sequence is found on -10 nucleotides upstream of the transcription initiation site in E. coli?

A) TTTTTA B) TATAAT C) TATATA D) TATTTT Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 32) What biochemical technique confirmed that RNA polymerase binds to DNA at -10 and -35 boxes?

A) Chromatin Immunoprecipitation B) Fluorescence in situ hybridization C) Sothern blot technique D) DNA footprinting Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 33) The initial encounter between RNA polymerase holoenzyme and a promoter generates a(n) ________ complex.

A) Open-promoter B) Closed-promoter C) Bound-promoter D) Initial-promoter Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3

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34) What is the binding constant for the open-promoter complex of RNA polymerase and DNA strands?

A) 103 M-1 B) 106 M-1 C) 109 M-1 D) 1012 M-1 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 35) What metal ions are required in the catalytic site of the RNA polymerase?

A) Iron B) Calcium C) Copper D) Magnesium Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 36) The transcript is bound ________ during the first several phosphodiester bond-forming reactions during DNA transcription to RNA. A) Stably B) Unstably C) Cooperatively D) Actively Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 37) ________ initiation in transcription of DNA to RNA is NOT fully understood.

A) Replicative B) High fidelity C) Translative D) Abortive Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 38) After the incorporation of first 10 nucleotides, the ________ subunit dissociates from the RNA polymerase in the transcription complex.

A) σ B) α C) µ D) β Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 8 .

39) What protein loop in yeast RNA polymerase II limits the length of RNA hybridized to DNA? A) Jaw B) Rudder C) Lid D) Clamp Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 40) What is the termination factor used in bacteria to terminate transcription?

A) α B) σ C) ρ D) β Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 41) Which of these features is required for factor independent termination of RNA transcription?

A) Two symmetrical G-C rich region B) Two symmetrical A-T rich region C) Two symmetrical A-C rich region D) Two symmetrical G-T rich region Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 42) Which of these features is required for factor independent termination of RNA transcription?

A) 4-8 A residues B) 4-8 G residues C) 4-8 C residues D) 4-8 T residues Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 43) What enzymatic property does ρ protein possess which aids in termination of RNA transcription?

A) DNA helicase B) RNA helicase C) DNA-RNA helicase D) RNase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 9 .

44) What protein besides ρ protein is involved in the termination of RNA transcription?

A) NusA B) RasA C) BasA D) MycA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.3 45) Where the rRNA transcription and processing does occurs in a cell?

A) Golgi complex B) Nucleus C) Nucleolus D) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 46) What rRNA comprises of the small subunit of ribosome?

A) 12S B) 14S C) 16S D) 18S Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 47) Which of these rRNA is NOT a part of large subunit of ribosome?

A) 5S B) 5.8S C) 28S D) 26S Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 48) How many nucleotides are discarded in the process of rRNA transcription in eukaryotes?

A) 2800 B) 4800 C) 6800 D) 8800 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4

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49) Which of these transcription factor is utilized specifically for the transcription of 5S rRNA? A) TFIIIA B) TFIIIB C) TFIIIC D) TFIIID Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 50) What motif in transcription factor allow its binding to 5S rRNA gene?

A) Zinc finger B) Leucine zipper C) Histidine tail D) Glutamate neck Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 51) A typical transcription initiation complex in eukaryotes contains ________ proteins besides RNA polymerase.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 52) The initiator sequence in a eukaryotic promoter is ________, where Y is a pyrimidine residue, W is either A or T and N is the initiation site.

A) YYWANYY B) YANWYAY C) WYYYANA D) YYANWYY Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 53) Which of these sequences represents the CAAT box in the eukaryotic control site for transcription?

A) GGCCAATCT B) GCAATCGAT C) CAATGCCCT D) GCCCAATTA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 11 .

54) Which of these sequences represent the GC box in the eukaryotic control site for transcription?

A) GGGGGC B) GGGCGG C) CGGGGG D) GCCCCG Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 55) ATTTGCAT is the ________, which is one of the eukaryotic control sites for transcription.

A) TATA box B) Octamer C) GC box D) GCAT box Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 56) Which of these transcription factors are NOT involved in the structural gene transcription by RNA polymerase II? A) TFIIA B) TFIIB C) TFIIC D) TFIIH Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 57) What transcription factor is pivotal in converting the closed promoter complex to open promoter complex in transcription of gene by RNA polymerase II? A) TFIIA B) TFIIB C) TFIIC D) TFIID Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4

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58) The phosphorylation of what subunit in RNA polymerase II is essential for the formation of an elongation complex?

A) Rpb I B) Rpb II C) Rpb III D) Rpb IV Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 59) What heptapeptide sequence in RNA polymerase II is the target for phosphorylation to allow RNA polymerase to escape the promoter sequence?

A) YSSTTSP B) YSALMSA C) YSMNYWA D) YSPTSPS Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 60) The subunit of what transcription factor catalyzes the phosphorylation of RNA polymerase II? A) TFIIB B) TFIIE C) TFIIF D) TFIIH Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 61) What multiprotein complex allows the communication between upstream control elements and proteins bound at the promoter sequence?

A) Activator B) Repressor C) Mediator D) Inducer Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4

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62) High levels of histone ________ have been correlated with high transcriptional activity.

A) Acetylation B) Methylation C) Carboxylation D) Phosphorylation Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 63) What signal sequence aids in the termination of eukaryotic transcription by recruiting a specific endonuclease?

A) AAAAUU B) AUAAAA C) AAUAAA D) UAUUUA Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 64) The ________ tails are added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA for its transport and stabilization from nucleus to cytoplasm.

A) Poly(A) B) Poly(U) C) Poly(G) D) Poly(C) Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.4 65) Which of these proteins is NOT a part of degradosome complex in bacteria for RNA turnover activity?

A) RNase E B) RNA helicase C) Polynucleotide phosphorylase D) Excinuclease Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 66) Which of these is NOT a component of bacterial rRNA? A) 5S B) 5.8S C) 16S D) 23S Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 14 .

67) Which of these nuclease is specific for double-stranded RNA? A) RNase I B) RNase II C) RNase III D) RNase IV Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 68) Which of these nuclease is involved in processing of 5S rRNA? A) RNase A B) RNase B C) RNase D D) RNase E Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 69) The 5' end and 3' end of tRNA are created by the ribonuclease ________ and ________ respectively.

A) A; B B) P; D C) C; P D) E; P Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 70) Which of these base modifications is NOT involved in the stabilization of tRNA molecule?

A) Pseudouridine B) Thiouridine C) Methylguanosine D) Selenocysteine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 71) Which of these small nuclear ribonucleoprotein is NOT involved in the splicing of introns in eukaryotic pre-mRNA? A) U1 B) U2 C) U3 D) U4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 15 .

72) What chemical reaction is involved in the splicing of introns from eukaryotic pre-mRNA? A) Transaldolation B) Transketolation C) Transcarboxylation D) Transesterification Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 73) The presence of ________ donor splicing site results in the truncated lamin A, leading to Hutchinson-Gilford progeria.

A) Pseudo B) False C) Hetero D) Cryptic Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5 74) ________ splicing allows different combinations of exons from the same gene to synthesize different proteins.

A) Alternative B) Cooperative C) Successive D) Passive Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 24.5

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 25 Information Decoding: Translation and Post-translational Protein Processing 1) How many nucleotides at a time on mRNA is occupied by an active site on ribosome complex?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) How many possible trinucleotide sequences are available to code for an amino acid?

A) 61 B) 62 C) 63 D) 64 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 3) Which of these molecules represents the hypothesized adaptor molecule by Francis Crick?

A) mRNA B) Ribosome C) rRNA D) tRNA Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 4) What type of chemical bonds results in the three-looped structure of tRNA? A) Covalent B) Ionic C) Hydrogen D) Hydrophobic Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1

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5) What enzyme is responsible to charge tRNA with an amino acid?

A) Amino-tRNA synthetase B) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase C) Amino-tRNA synthase D) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 6) A trinucleotide sequence which is complimentary to the appropriate trinucleotide codon on mRNA is called ________.

A) Anticodon B) Procodon C) Apocodon D) Decodon Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 7) What is the directionality for the protein translation on mRNA by ribosomes?

A) 5'-3' B) 3'-5' C) 5'-5' D) 3'-3' Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.1 8) Some protozoans can translate the stop codon UAA to amino acid ________.

A) Asp B) Glu C) Val D) Ile Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 9) Various archaea can translate the stop codon UAG to amino acid ________.

A) Selenocysteine B) Pyrrolysine C) Threonine D) Asparagine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2

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10) The genetic code is ________ since a specific trinucleotide encodes one and only one amino acid.

A) Ambiguous B) Unambiguous C) Universal D) Undifferentiated Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 11) Which of these codons is a sense codon?

A) AUG B) UAA C) UAG D) UGA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 12) Which of these codons is a nonsense codon?

A) UAA B) UCU C) UAC D) UCA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 13) Substitution of GAA codon to ________ codon results in sickle-cell hemoglobin.

A) GGA B) GUA C) GCA D) GAA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 14) What significant change in the mitochondrial code for AUA isoleucine occurs?

A) Methionine B) Serine C) Threonine D) Selenocysteine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2

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15) Which of these amino acid is designated as the 21st amino acid?

A) Selenocysteine B) Pyrrolysine C) Methyllysine D) Hydroxyproline Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 16) Which of these amino acids is annotated as the 22nd amino acid?

A) Selenocysteine B) Pyrrolysine C) Methyllysine D) Hydroxyproline Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 17) What special sequence is required to charge the serine t-RNA with selenocysteine?

A) SECIS B) SERIS C) PROIS D) PYRIS Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 18) Where is the special sequence located on an mRNA to incorporate selenocysteine on serine tRNA? A) 5' untranslated region B) 3' untranslated region C) 5' long terminal repeats D) 3' long terminal repeats Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 19) Which of these amino acids is NOT encoded by UGA stop codon?

A) Tryptophan B) Cysteine C) Selenocysteine D) Glutamine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2

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20) What base of anticodon is responsible to form non-Watson-Crick hydrogen bonding leading to wobble hypothesis?

A) 3' base B) 5' base C) Center base D) No wobble base Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 21) Which of these nucleotides cannot base pair with inosine at 5' base in an anticodon?

A) A B) U C) C D) G Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 22) What are the tRNAs called which accepts and translates same amino acid?

A) Isotransferring tRNAs B) Isoaccepting tRNAs C) Euaccepting tRNAs D) Eutransferring tRNAs Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 23) Which of these codons for arginine is rarely utilized in E. coli bacterial cells?

A) AGA B) CGU C) CGA D) CGG Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 24) Apart from AUG, which of these codons are used occasionally used as initiator codons in bacteria?

A) GUG B) GUU C) UGU D) UCU Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.2 5 .

25) The mRNAs which can code for two or more polypeptides in bacteria, are called ________ mRNA. A) Monocistronic B) Polycistronic C) Multicistronic D) Heterocistronic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 26) What is the term used to annotate the sequence of mRNA bounded by a start codon and stop codon?

A) Reading frame B) Open reading frame C) Closed reading frame D) Enclosed reading frame Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 27) Which of these genes are NOT present on a E. coli lac operon?

A) lacX B) lacZ C) lacY D) lacA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 28) ________ sequence help align mRNAs on ribosomes to properly start translation in bacteria.

A) Watson-Crick B) Shine-Dalgarno C) Rainbow D) McClintock Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 29) ________ rRNA base-pair with SD sequence to properly align mRNA on ribosome to initiate translation.

A) 5S B) 5.8S C) 16S D) 28S Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 6 .

30) How many different tRNA genes is available on E. coli?

A) 28 B) 48 C) 68 D) 88 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 31) Which of these structures is NOT a part of tRNA? A) Variable loop B) D loop C) Anticodon loop D) Constant loop Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 32) What part of tRNA allows the attachment of amino acid to tRNA? A) Anticodon loop B) Acceptor arm C) D loop D) TψC loop Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 33) What is the CORRECT sequence for acceptor arm of tRNA? A) 5'-ACC-3' B) 5'-UCC-3' C) 5'-CCA-3' D) 5'-CAC-3' Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 34) Which of these modified bases is NOT present in a tRNA molecule?

A) Selenocysteine B) Pseudouridine C) Ribothymidine D) Dihydrouridine Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3

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35) Which of these statements is FALSE regarding aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (aaRS)?

A) They catalyze the binding of carboxylate group on amino acid to 3'OH on acceptor arm of tRNA. B) There are two classes of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

C) The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase activates amino acid by ATP coupled adenylation.

D) There is only one class of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 36) The identity elements which helps aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase to identify the correct tRNA on the basis of its anticodon are found to be clustered in the anticodon loop and ________.

A) TψC loop B) D loop C) Acceptor stem D) Variable loop Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 37) What is the error frequency for protein synthesis contributes by aminoacyl-tRNAs? A) 10-1 B) 10-2 C) 10-3 D) 10-4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 38) What protein structural motif is found in the active site of the class I aminoacyl tRNA synthetase?

A) αβα motif B) Dinucleotide motif C) Leucine zipper D) PEVK domain Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3

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39) The polypeptide representing the catalytic domains of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase are called ________.

A) Apozymes B) Abzymes C) Urzymes D) Polyzymes Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 40) In higher eukaryotes, most aaRS are ________ proteins that evolved from initial function of protein synthesis to multi variant purposes.

A) Moonlighting B) Multivariate C) Sunlighting D) Polyfunct Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 41) Ribosomes represent approximately ________ % of E. coli dried cell mass.

A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 42) What is the sedimentation coefficient of prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes, respectively?

A) 50S and 60S B) 60S and 70S C) 70S and 80S D) 80S and 90S Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.3 43) Which of these factors is NOT involved in the process of protein translation from mRNA? A) Initiation factor B) Elongation factor C) Release factor D) Termination factor Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 9 .

44) Which of these charged tRNA can bind the 30S subunit of ribosome on its own?

A) met-tRNAmet B) mmet-tRNAmmet C) fmet-tRNAfmet D) amet-tRNAamet Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 45) Which of these initiation factor acts as a G protein during initiation of translation?

A) IF1 B) IF2 C) IF3 D) IF4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 46) What sequence in 16S rRNA is complementary to Shine-Dalgarno sequence on mRNA? A) 5'..CCUCCU..3' B) 5'..CGUCGU..3' C) 5'..UUCUUC..3' D) 5'..CGGCGG..3' Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 47) Which of these sites is NOT present on ribosome to bind tRNA? A) P site B) E site C) A site D) T site Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 48) What enzyme is responsible to transfer peptide chain from P site to amino acid in the A site?

A) Peptidylesterase B) Peptidyltransferase C) Peptidylsynthase D) Peptidylaldolase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4

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49) During a cycle of elongation step of translation how many GTP molecules are hydrolyzed to provide the required energy?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 50) What stop codon is recognized by RF1 factor in bacteria to terminate the translation of mRNA? A) UAA B) UGA C) UAG D) UUA Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 51) Which of these release factors in bacteria acts as a GTPase?

A) RF1 B) RF2 C) RF3 D) RF4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4 52) Mutated tRNAs which correct missense mutations, or which contain two or four bases acting as the anticodon can therefor serve as ________.

A) Transversion suppressors B) Transition suppressors C) Frameshift suppressors D) Transmutation suppressors Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.4

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53) Which of these antibiotics interferes with normal pairing between aminoacyl-tRNAs and message codons?

A) Tetracycline B) Streptomycin C) Puromycin D) Chloramphenicol Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.5 54) What antibiotic is responsible of premature polypeptide chain termination?

A) Tetracycline B) Streptomycin C) Puromycin D) Chloramphenicol Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.5 55) What is the effect of erythromycin on the process of translation?

A) Premature chain termination B) Blocks binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs to ribosome C) Interferes with translocation step D) Competes with peptidyltransferase complex Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.5 56) What antibiotic acts as a competitive inhibitor for the peptidyltransferase complex?

A) Tetracycline B) Streptomycin C) Puromycin D) Chloramphenicol Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.5 57) In eukaryotes virtually all mRNAs are ________.

A) Monocistronic B) Polycistronic C) Multicistronic D) Heterocistronic Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.6

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58) What toxin inhibits the translocation activity in eukaryotic translation?

A) Cycloheximide B) Ethidium bromide C) Diphtheria toxin D) Ricin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.6 59) Which of the eukaryotic translation factors is affected by the diphtheria toxin?

A) eEF1 B) eEF2 C) eRF D) eIF1 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.6 60) A single ribosome passes through approximately ________ codons in a second.

A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.7 61) What ribosomal protein in bacteria interacts with RNA polymerase to physically couple the process of transcription and translation?

A) NusE B) NusF C) NusG D) NusH Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.7 62) What component of RNA polymerase in bacteria, allows the coupling for the process of transcription and translation?

A) NusE B) NusF C) NusG D) NusH Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.7 13 .

63) What enzyme allows the removal of formyl group from the initial fmet of a bacterial protein?

A) Deacylase B) Deformylase C) Demethylase D) Deethylase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.8 64) What protein prevents in the premature folding of protein in the cytoplasm?

A) Chaperone B) Actin C) Tubulin D) Myosin Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.8 65) What aids in targeted delivery of proteins to their respective organelle from endoplasmic reticulum?

A) Signal sequence B) Signal recognition sequence C) Peptide sequence D) Peptide signal sequence Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9 66) What complex allows the transport of mitochondrial protein from cytoplasm to mitochondrial intermembrane space?

A) TOM B) TIM C) MPP D) NPP Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9 67) What complex allows the transport of mitochondrial protein from mitochondrial intermembrane space to mitochondrial matrix?

A) TOM B) TIM C) MPP D) NPP Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9 14 .

68) What protein transports the nuclear protein through the nuclear pore complex in to the nucleus?

A) Actin B) Importin C) Exportin D) Myosin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9 69) What monomeric G protein, provides the energy required to transport the protein through the nuclear pore complex?

A) Ras B) Ran C) Ram D) Ray Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9 70) What is the docking protein on rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) that allows the transport of protein from cytoplasm to RER? A) Sec59 complex B) Sec60 complex C) Sec61 complex D) Sec62 complex Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9 71) Vesicles from the RER enter at the ________ face of the Golgi apparatus.

A) cis B) trans C) exo D) endo Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9

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72) What protein complex aids in the fusion of vesicle and target membrane?

A) Soluble N-ethylmaleimide sensitive factor attachment protein receptors B) Soluble N-methylmaleimide sensitive factor attachment protein receptors C) Soluble N-ethylmethylmaleimide sensitive factor attachment protein receptors D) Soluble N-formylmaleimide sensitive factor attachment protein receptors Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 25.9

16 .

Biochemistry: Concepts and Connections, 2e (Appling et al.)

Chapter 26 Regulation of Gene Expression 1) What gene expresses the enzyme β-galactosidase in lac operon of E. coli?

A) lacA B) lacB C) lacZ D) lacY Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 2) What enzyme is expressed by lacY gene in lac operon of E. coli?

A) β-galactosidase B) β-galactosidase permease C) Thiogalactoside transacetylase D) β-galactosidase carboxylase Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) What enzyme is expressed by lacA gene in lac operon of E. coli?

A) β-galactosidase B) β-galactosidase permease C) Thiogalactoside transacetylase D) β-galactosidase carboxylase Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 4) What is the TRUE intracellular inducer for the lac operons in E. coli?

A) Lactose B) Glucose C) Alloglucose D) Allolactose Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 5) What is the synthetic inducer used for the lac operon in a laboratory setup?

A) Isopropyl β-thiogalactoside B) X-galactose C) β-galactose D) Lactose Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 1 .

6) What was the mutant phenotype of E. coli called, which could express all the three gene products of lac operon even in the absence of an inducer?

A) Noninducible B) Constitutive C) Noninitiative D) Nonconstitutive Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 7) What was the mutant phenotype of E. coli called, which has low expression of all the three gene products of lac operon even in the presence of an inducer?

A) Noninducible B) Constitutive C) Noninitiative D) Nonconstitutive Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 8) What gene expresses for the repressor protein for the lac operon in E. coli system?

A) lacA B) lacB C) lacI D) lacO Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 9) Of all the genes comprising the lac operon, which is the longest and expresses a larger protein?

A) lacA B) lacI C) lacZ D) lacY Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 10) What type of mutations results from lacI repressor gene?

A) Cis-recessive B) Cis-dominant C) Trans-dominant D) Trans-recessive Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 2 .

11) What type of mutations results from lacO operator gene?

A) Cis-recessive B) Cis-dominant C) Trans-dominant D) Trans-recessive Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 12) Which of this is NOT one of the major modification to the operon model put forward by Jacob and Monod?

A) Promoter is distinct from operator elements.

B) Repressor was a protein and not an RNA. C) Transcription regulation was exclusively negative.

D) Transcription regulation is both positive and negative.

Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 13) How long amino acid long is the repressor protein?

A) 120 B) 240 C) 360 D) 480 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 14) What is the dissociation constant for repressor protein to the lac operon?

A) 10-13 M B) 10-15 M C) 10-17 M D) 10-19 M Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 15) Which of these sites is NOT a lac repressor binding site on a lac operon?

A) -82 B) +11 C) +432 D) -432 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1

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16) The lac repressor is a(n) ________ protein.

A) Allosteric B) Aposteric C) Apostolic D) Allostolic Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 17) What protein helps in the activation of lac operon under low level glucose conditions?

A) cAMP receptor protein B) cAMP repressor protein C) cAMP operator protein D) cAMP activator protein Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 18) What structural motif allows the binding of catabolite activating protein to DNA? A) Helix-β-Helix B) Helix-turn-Helix C) Zinc finger D) Leucine zipper Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 19) Which of these protein is a repressor for the bacteriophage λ system?

A) cI B) cA C) cR D) cO Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 20) Which of these site is NOT a binding sites for the repressor protein in the bacteriophage λ system?

A) OR1 B) OR2 C) OR3 D) OR4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1

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21) Which helix of the repressor protein acts as a recognition helix to bind DNA in bacteriophage λ system?

A) α-1 B) α-2 C) α-3 D) α-4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 22) What helix contacts primarily with DNA phosphates in the repressor protein of the bacteriophage λ system?

A) α-1 B) α-2 C) α-3 D) α-4 Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 23) The cI repressor establishes specificity through a contact in OR1 with a unique ________ residue.

A) Valine B) Leucine C) Isoleucine D) Alanine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 24) Cro can contact with three specific base pairs in OR3 with unique asparagine and ________ residue.

A) Threonine B) Serine C) Histidine D) Lysine Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1

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25) Which of these genes express one of the control elements for the SOS regulon in E. coli?

A) lacC B) lexA C) recY D) bacZ Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 26) What gene is induced for cell division control after inactivation of LexA protein?

A) umuC B) sulA C) recA D) lexA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 27) Which of these genes is a part of DNA polymerase II structure?

A) dinA B) lexA C) dinB D) recA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 28) Which of these genes is a part of error prone DNA polymerase IV structure?

A) dinA B) lexA C) dinB D) recA Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 29) What is the molecular weight of trp repressor for trp operon?

A) 38 kDa B) 46 kDa C) 58 kDa D) 66 kDa Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1

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30) What is the role played by tryptophan in the trp operon system?

A) Inducer B) Coinducer C) Repressor D) Corepressor Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 31) How long nucleotide residues is the trp mRNA? A) 1000 B) 3000 C) 5000 D) 7000 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 32) The attenuator site is ________ nucleotides from the 5' end of the trpL sequence.

A) 111 B) 122 C) 133 D) 144 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 33) The pairing of what regions in the trp operon resembles the factor independent terminator structure?

A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 and 4 D) 1 and 4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 34) How many proteins control the transcription of sodA for Mn-superoxide dismutase?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1

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35) nrdA and nrdB are the structural genes for ribonucleotide ________ subunits.

A) Reductase B) Synthase C) Carboxylase D) Dismutase Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.1 36) How many transcription factors are encoded by a human genome?

A) 1000 B) 2000 C) 3000 D) 4000 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 37) Which of these elements add to the complexity in an organism?

A) miRNA B) DNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase D) Chaperones Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 38) Linker or Spacer DNA is linked by, what histone protein in the chromosome of an eukaryotic cell?

A) H1 B) H2 C) H3 D) H4 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 39) What protein aids in recruiting histone deacetylase to nucleosomes?

A) Unicomb repressive complex B) Multicomb repressive complex C) Polycomb repressive complex D) Bicomb repressive complex Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2

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40) Methylation of what amino acid residue in H3 results in a transcriptionally active gene?

A) H3K9 B) H3K27 C) H3K119 D) H3K4 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 41) Which modified form of histone H2A, binds at the transcription initiation site?

A) H2A.W B) H2A.X C) H2A.Y D) H2A.Z Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 42) Which modified form of histone H3, binds at the transcription initiation site?

A) H3.1 B) H3.2 C) H3.3 D) H3.4 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 43) Which of these protein families is NOT a chromatin remodeler?

A) SWI/SNF B) INO80/SWR1 C) CHD D) SH1 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 44) Which of these proteins breaks DNA-histone bonds completely, to modify the chromatin?

A) RISC B) RSC C) MISC D) MSC Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2

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45) Which of these chromatin remodelers have a chromodomain?

A) SWI B) CHD C) SWR1 D) ISWI Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 46) Which of these chromatin remodelers acts in the repression of transcription?

A) ISWI B) SWI C) INO80 D) CHD Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 47) ________ phosphorylates the second serine in each of the heptapeptide carboxy terminal repeats in RNA polymerase II. A) P-TEFa B) P-TEFb C) P-TEFc D) P-TEFd Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 48) Serine kinases are classified as ________ in the CTD phosphorylation code.

A) Writers B) Erasers C) Readers D) Speakers Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2 49) Which of these proteins acts as an 'eraser' in the CTD phosphorylation code?

A) Serine kinase B) Serine phosphorylase C) Serine ATPase D) Serine phosphatase Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.2

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50) De novo methylation is carried out by Dnmt3a and ________.

A) Dnmt3b B) Dnmt3c C) Dnmt3d D) Dnmt3e Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 51) What are the regions in DNA, where cytosine undergoes rapid methylation?

A) GpC islands B) CpG islands C) CpC islands D) GpG islands Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 52) How much percent of GC content is available in the CpG islands?

A) 25 B) 35 C) 45 D) 55 Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 53) What is the heritable transmission of gene expression without the change in DNA sequence?

A) Cytogenetic B) Epigenetic C) Genetic D) Plasmogenetic Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 54) What analog of cytidine activates the earlier repressed gene?

A) Azacytidine B) Zebularine C) Gemcitabine D) KP-1461 Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3

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55) Which of these is an example of gene silencing by DNA cytosine methylation?

A) Gene silencing B) X chromosome inactivation C) Y chromosome inactivation D) Pseudogene activation Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 56) Gene ________ is a permanent gene inactivation during embryonic development.

A) Silencing B) Imprinting C) Activation D) Deletion Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 57) Prader-Willi syndrome is due to deletion in the chromosome 15 of the ________ derived genetic material.

A) Maternal B) Paternal C) Both paternal and maternal D) Novel Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 58) ________ delaminate cytosine to uracil to allow the study of DNA methylome of an organism.

A) Sodium dodecyl sulfate B) Sodium azide C) Sodium hydroxide D) Sodium bisulfite Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 59) Besides 5- methyl modification of cytosine, which of these modifications do NOT contribute to alteration in gene expression?

A) 5-hydroxymethyl B) 5-formyl C) 5- carboxyl D) 5-butyl Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 12 .

60) Which of these is NOT an active mode of regulation of translation in bacterial system?

A) Ribosome occlusion B) Translational repression C) Regulatory RNA binding to mRNA D) Degradosome Answer: D Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 61) What mRNA base pairs with ompF gene to block its translation in bacteria?

A) micA B) micE C) micF D) micD Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 62) What RNA analog has been utilized for the knockdown of selective gene?

A) Dendrimer B) Morpholino C) Abzymes D) Spermine Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.3 63) ________ of initiation factors is commonly used for translation-level control in eukaryotes.

A) Ubiquitinylation B) Carboxylation C) Phosphorylation D) Aldolation Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.4 64) Which of these small RNA molecules is involved in gene regulation?

A) miRNA B) ncRNA C) piRNA D) lnRNA Answer: A Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5

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65) What is the CORRECT progression for development of miRNA? A) Pre-miRNA, Pri-miRNA and miRNA B) Pro-miRNA, Pri-miRNA and miRNA C) Pri-miRNA, Pre-miRNA and miRNA D) Prepro-miRNA, Pro-miRNA and miRNA Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5 66) What protein forms a complex with miRNA to be utilized by RNA induced silencing complex?

A) Drosha B) Argonaute C) Importin D) Desmin Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5 67) What site in the cell is associated with ultimate degradation of all mRNA molecules?

A) D-body B) P-body C) L-body D) X-body Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.5 68) What is an mRNA called that has a specific binding site for a metabolic end product?

A) Ribomer B) Riboswitch C) Ribopin D) Ribosocket Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.6 69) Which RNA helps in the editing of the mRNA to be translated in to a protein?

A) snoRNA B) guide RNA C) shRNA D) miRNA Answer: B Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.7

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70) What apolipoprotein B is expressed in intestine by editing of CAA to UAA in the mRNA of the gene?

A) Apo B-100 B) Apo B-50 C) Apo B-48 D) Apo B-38 Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.7 71) RNA editing in lymphocytes, involves heavily deamination of CMP to ________ to combat against the HIV infection.

A) AMP B) TMP C) UMP D) GMP Answer: C Bloom's Level: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Learning Outcome: 26.7

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