Behavior Modification Principles and Procedures, 6th Edition Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Behavior Modification Principles and Procedures

Edition:

6th Edition

Author(s):

Raymond G. Mitenberger

True / False 1. Behavior modification places emphasis on current environmental events as important causes of behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Behavior modification treatments are implemented by persons in everyday life. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Behavior modification emphasizes past events as important causes of behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Behavior modification emphasizes hypothetical underlying causes of behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. In behavior modification, measurement of behavior before and after treatment is important. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Behavior modification is also referred to as applied behavior analysis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Pavlov did experiments in operant behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. A behavior does not have an impact on the environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Behavior is defined as what people do and say. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

10. All behavior is overt or observable by others. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. In behavior modification, what a person says and does is referred to as: a. behavior b. effort c. motivated acts d. intention ANSWER: a 12. Behavior is defined as: a. traits of a person b. what a person says and does c. a person’s mental processes d. attitudes and beliefs that lead to action ANSWER: b 13. The subject matter behavior modification concerns itself with is/are: a. past events b. human characteristics c. internal motivation d. human behavior ANSWER: d 14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of behavior? a. behavior has dimensions b. behavior is lawful c. behavior can be observed, described, and recorded d. behavior is always overt ANSWER: d 15. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of behavior? a. frequency b. impact c. duration d. intensity ANSWER: b 16. Frequency, duration, intensity, and latency are __________________ of behavior. a. states b. dimensions

c. phases d. qualities ANSWER: b 17. During a basketball game, John made 10 baskets. The number of baskets John made is an example of: a. latency. b. intensity. c. duration. d. frequency.

ANSWER: d 18. The amount of time it takes a student to complete a test would be an example of what dimension of behavior? a. frequency b. intensity c. duration d. latency ANSWER: c 19. What dimension of behavior is a measure of how long the behavior occurred? a. latency b. frequency c. duration d. intensity ANSWER: c 20. Mary’s parents are concerned about her screaming. If the loudness of Mary’s screams is what they are interested in, this would be an example of: a. latency b. frequency c. intensity d. duration ANSWER: c 21. Tommy’s teacher observes him purposely shove another student. Tommy’s observable act of shoving would be an example of: a. covert behavior b. overt behavior c. frequency d. duration ANSWER: b 22. An example of covert behavior would be: a. thinking b. writing c. running d. frowning

ANSWER: a 23. Mark’s parents are trying to figure out why he hits his little brother. The process of trying to identify the functional relationship between a behavior and the environment is referred to as: a. targeting b. analysis c. modification d. exploration ANSWER: b 24. With training from a behavior analyst, Mark’s parents take steps to help him change his behavior of hitting his little brother. The process of developing and implementing techniques to influence behavior is known as: a. assessment b. observation c. modification d. analysis ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of behavior modification? a. focus on behavior b. procedures based on behavioral principles c. emphasis on past events d. precise description of procedures ANSWER: c 26. Behavior modification procedures are designed to change: a. behavior b. characteristics of people c. traits d. all of these ANSWER: a 27. Cindy bites her nails but wants to stop. The behavior she wants to change (biting her nails) is called the: a. negative behavior b. target behavior c. controlling variable d. independent variable ANSWER: b 28. A behavior excess is a behavior that: a. occurs too much b. annoys other people c. occurs at the wrong time d. needs to be increased ANSWER: a

29. Alex likes to drive faster than the speed limit. Alex’s behavior of driving too fast is an example of a: a. behavioral risk b. behavioral deficit c. behavioral excess d. behavioral intention ANSWER: c 30. Sam gets poor grades in school because he rarely studies. Sam’s lack of studying is an example of: a. avoidance b. poor motivation c. a behavioral excess d. a behavioral deficit ANSWER: d 31. An event in the immediate environment that controls a behavior is referred to as: a. a dependent variable b. a reactive variable c. a controlling variable d. an extraneous variable ANSWER: c 32. In behavior modification, measurement of behavior is taken: a. before intervention b. during intervention c. following intervention d. all of these ANSWER: d 33. Which of the following was an important figure in the development of behavior modification who demonstrated that a reflex could be conditioned to a neutral stimulus? a. Freud b. Pavlov c. Thorndike d. Skinner ANSWER: b 34. Thorndike demonstrated that a behavior which produces a favorable effect on the environment will likely be repeated.

This is known as the: a. law of effect b. law of causation c. law of behavior d. law of replication ANSWER: a 35. Watson started a movement in psychology known as: a. psychoanalysis b. experimental psychology

c. behaviorism d. existentialism ANSWER: c 36. Who is credited with laying the foundation of behavior modification? a. Freud b. Skinner c. Watson d. Pavlov ANSWER: b 37. In which area has the most behavior modification research been conducted? a. mental illness b. clinical psychology c. community psychology d. developmental disabilities ANSWER: d 38. In what area(s) can behavior modification procedures be used? a. education b. rehabilitation c. business and industry d. all of these ANSWER: d 39. In which area do individuals use behavior modification procedures on their own behaviors? a. mental illness b. developmental disabilities c. gerontology d. self-management ANSWER: d 40. Behavior modification: a. has a limited number of applications b. has a broad number of applications c. is mostly used with children d. is rarely used these days ANSWER: b Completion 41. Behavior is defined as _________________________________________________________.

ANSWER: what people say and do 42. Frequency, duration, intensity, and latency are called _________________________ of behavior.

ANSWER: dimensions

43. Behavior has an impact on the ________________________ and/or __________________________environment.

ANSWER: social, physical; physical, social 44. A(n) _______________________ behavior can be observed and recorded by another individual.

ANSWER: overt 45. A(n) ________________________ behavior, also called a private event, is not observable to others.

ANSWER: covert 46. Behavior modification is the field of psychology concerned with the ____________________________ and _____________________________ of human behavior.

ANSWER: analysis, modification; modification, analysis 47. A behavioral excess is defined as _______________________________________________.

ANSWER: too much of a particular behavior 48. A behavioral deficit is defined as _______________________________________________.

ANSWER: too little of a particular behavior 49. Another term for behavior modifications is _______________________________.

ANSWER: applied behavior analysis 50. (Theorists) ______________ first described the conditioned reflex. ______________ demonstrated the law of effect. ______________ conducted research on basic principles of operant behavior that laid the foundation for behavior modification.

ANSWER: Pavlov; Thorndike; Skinner Subjective Short Answer 51. Identify five areas of application of behavior modification.

ANSWER: Areas of application of behavior modification are developmental disabilities, education, community psychology, business, industry and human services, self-management, prevention, health-related behaviors, mental illness, rehabilitation, clinical psychology, child-management, sports psychology, and gerontology.

52. What are four dimensions of behavior that can be observed?

ANSWER: Four dimensions of behavior that can be observed are frequency, duration, intensity, and latency.

53. What does it mean to say that behavior is lawful?

ANSWER: To say that behavior is lawful is to say that its occurrence is systematically influenced by environmental events.

54. What is the difference between overt and covert behavior?

ANSWER: An overt behavior is an action of an individual that can be observed and recorded by an individual other than the one engaging in the behavior. Covert behaviors are not observable to others.

55. Why does behavior modification focus on changing current environmental variables rather than past events to change behavior?

ANSWER: Although information of past events is useful, knowledge of current controlling variables will be most useful for developing effective behavior modification interventions because you can only change events in the current environment as part of a behavior modification intervention.

True / False 1. A good behavioral definition requires you to make inferences about internal states or motivation of the individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. In interval recording procedures, the behavior is recorded in consecutive periods of time within the observation period. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Frequency, duration, intensity, and latency are dimensions of behavior that can be measured in a continuous recording procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Reactivity of observation often occurs with self-monitoring, but never when recording is done by an observer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Interobserver agreement must be 100% to be acceptable. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Recording how long it takes for a person to come up with an answer to a question after the question is asked is an example of a duration measure. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Interobserver agreement involves an observer recording the person’s behavior in another observation period to see if the behavior is the same. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Recording a person’s behavior without the person knowing that recording is taking place, is one way to decrease reactivity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. In time sample recording, the behavior is recorded in consecutive periods of time within the observation period.

a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Recording how long a person studies is an example of intensity recording. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. In behavior modification, measurement of the target behavior is called: a. a behavioral indicator b. behavioral assessment c. observation d. supervision ANSWER: b 12. The measurement of behavior is important because: a. measurement can determine if treatment is necessary b. measurement can determine the best treatment c. measurement can determine if the treatment is working d. all of these ANSWER: d 13. Which of the following is NOT used in indirect assessment? a. interviews b. questionnaires c. direct observation d. rating scales ANSWER: c 14. Which of the following is NOT used in direct assessment? a. questionnaires b. frequency recording c. time sample recording d. duration recording ANSWER: a 15. A teacher observes and records instances of misbehavior by a student. This is an example of: a. indirect assessment b. direct assessment c. covert observation d. participant recording ANSWER: b

16. Which of the following is NOT a step in developing a behavior recording plan? a. defining the target behaviordefining the target behavior b. applying procedures to change the target behavior c. determining the logistics of recording d. choosing a recording method ANSWER: b 17. A teacher wants to develop a behavior recording plan that she intends to use with one of her students. The teacher’s first step would be: a. deciding who will do the recording b. determining where and when the recording will occur c. defining the target behavior d. choosing a recording method ANSWER: c 18. A behavioral definition: a. is ambiguous b. is subjective c. involves identifying traits d. describes specific behaviors ANSWER: d 19. Julie and Beth independently observe (hear) a child swear, and each records that swearing occurred. This is called: a. independent agreement b. interobserver agreement c. independent observation d. agreement recording ANSWER: b 20. Jerry wants to improve his studying. He observes and records the times when he studies. Observing and recording your own behavior is called: a. private observation b. self-monitoring c. independent recording d. direct recording ANSWER: b 21. Dawn’s parents record her hair pulling behavior for a specific period of time. The time during which Dawn’s parents observe and record her behavior is called the: a. modification period b. monitoring period c. observation period d. viewing period ANSWER: c 22. What is involved in determining the logistics of recording? a. who will do the recording

b. when the recording will occur c. where the recording will occur d. all of these ANSWER: d 23. Zach’s behavior of pushing other children typically occurs on the playground. The playground would be a(n) ________________ setting for Zach’s behavior. a. analogue b. manipulated c. natural d. controlled ANSWER: c 24. Which observation setting will provide the most representative sample of the target behavior? a. analogue setting b. manipulated setting c. natural setting d. controlled setting ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an analogue setting? a. it is easier to control the situation during observation b. it is easier to manipulate variables that affect behavior c. it provides a more representative sample of the target behavior d. all of these ANSWER: c 26. A psychologist wants to observe the tantrum behavior of a child. The tantrums usually occur in the classroom, but the psychologist does not have access to the classroom so she observes the child in a room that resembles a classroom. This would be an example of a(n) ___________ setting. a. natural b. manufactured c. analogue d. isolated ANSWER: c 27. Brian’s parents are interested in recording his stuttering behavior. They record each instance in which Brian stutters.

This is an example of _____________ recording. a. product b. intervalinterval c. continuous d. time sample ANSWER: c 28. Which dimensions of behavior is NOT recorded using continuous recording? a. frequency b. duration

c. intensity d. time sample ANSWER: d 29. A teacher records each instance of a student swearing in class. The teacher is recording which dimension of behavior? a. latency b. intensity c. frequency d. duration ANSWER: c 30. A parent records how loudly her child screams. The parent is recording the ____________ of the screams. a. frequency b. duration c. intensity d. latency ANSWER: c 31. Bill keeps track of the amount of time he studies each day. Which dimension of behavior is Bill recording? a. frequency b. duration c. intensity d. latency ANSWER: b 32. A track coach records the amount of time it takes a sprinter to start running once the gun has been sounded. The coach is recording the dimension of ____________. a. latency b. frequency c. duration d. intensity ANSWER: a 33. A track coach records how long it takes a sprinter to run 100 meters. The track coach is recording what dimension of behavior? a. latency b. frequency c. duration d. intensity ANSWER: c 34. A teacher records the number of math homework problems a student has correctly completed in order to determine the student’s performance. The teacher is using ____________ recording. a. continuous b. interval c. product d. time sample

ANSWER: c 35. An observer divides an observation period into a number of consecutive time periods, and then records whether the target behavior occurred during each period. This is called: a. product recording b. interval recording c. continuous recording d. time sample recording ANSWER: b 36. If an observation period is divided into a number of time periods, and the behavior is recorded during only part of each interval it is called _____________ recording. a. interval b. continuous c. product d. time sample ANSWER: d 37. Which of the following can be used as a recording instrument? a. paper and pencil b. golf stroke counter c. stopwatch d. all of these ANSWER: d 38. Matthew frequently hits other children during class. However, he never hits other kids when he knows the teacher is observing him. This is an example of: a. self-monitoring b. reactivity c. behavior modification d. controlled behavior ANSWER: b 39. What is the minimally acceptable level of interobserver agreement in research? a. 100% b. 90% c. 80% d. 55% ANSWER: c 40. Which method will NOT reduce reactivity of observation? a. observe through a one-way observation window b. tell the person you are observing his/her behavior c. wait until the person you are observing is accustomed to your presence d. use participant observers ANSWER: b

Completion Below are the results of interval recording by two observers, A and B. Observer A

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Observer B 41. What is the percentage of intervals scored by observer A? ______________ ANSWER: 7/10; 70% 42. Based on the previous question’s scenario, what percentage is scored by observer B? _______________ ANSWER: 8/10; 80% 43. Calculate interobserver agreement for the interval recording of observer A and B. ___________ ANSWER: 7/7+3=70%; 70% 44. Assessment that relies on information from interviews and questionnaires is called _________________________ assessment.

ANSWER: indirect 45. Merlin counted the number of times that he picked his nose each day. What dimension of behavior was he recording? _____________________________ ANSWER: frequency 46. What is it called when two observers record the same behavior of the same person during the same time period and compare the results of their recording? _________________________ ANSWER: interobserver agreement; IOA 47. Perry’s watch beeped every 5 minutes and he recorded whether he was slouched over (bad posture) at the time the watch beeped. This is an example of ___________________ recording.

ANSWER: time sample 48. Bernie recorded how long he studied each day. What dimension of behavior was he recording? ____________________________ ANSWER: duration 49. Sherry had throat surgery and could not talk for days. She worked with a speech therapist to increase her voice loudness. The therapist used an instrument to measure increases in the loudness of her voice. What dimension of behavior was the speech therapist recording? __________________________ ANSWER: intensity

50. Recording behavior in brief observation intervals each separated by longer periods of time is called ___________________________ recording.

ANSWER: time sample Subjective Short Answer 51. What are two ways to reduce reactivity of observation?

ANSWER: Two ways to reduce reactivity are to wait until the individuals who are being observed become accustomed to the observer, or to have the observer record the behavior without the individuals knowing that they are being observed.

52. Identify two of the reasons why behavioral assessment is an important part of behavior modification.

ANSWER: Behavioral assessment is an important part of behavior modification because it provides information that can help you decide whether treatment is necessary, provides information that helps you choose the best treatment, and measurement of the target behavior during and after treatment will allow you to determine whether the behavior changed following the implementation of treatment.

53. Provide an example of frequency recording, duration recording, and latency recording.

ANSWER: Examples: Frequency recording: recording the number of head slaps exhibited by a self-injurious child.

Duration recording: recording the amount of time a person engages in physical exercise. Intensity: using a decibel meter to measure the intensity or loudness of someone’s speech. Latency recording: recording how long it takes a child to pick up her toys after the parents ask her to do so.

54. Provide an example of time sample recording and interval recording.

ANSWER: Examples: Time sample recording: a teacher using time sample recording to measure the on-task behavior of a child with ADHD might set his watch to beep every five minutes and will record whether or not the child was on task when the watch beeped. Interval recording: an observer may record whether or not an individual engages in aggressive behavior during each 10-minute interval of the observation period.

55. Describe how you would conduct real-time recording.

ANSWER: Real time recording engages in aggressive behavior during each 10-minute interval of the observation period.

While observing a child’s tantrum behavior, the observer would indicate the exact time each tantrum started and stopped so that information would be available on frequency, duration, and the timing of the behavior in the observation period.

True / False 1. The units of behavior are labeled on the Y axis of a graph. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Data points should be connected across phase lines. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. A-B designs are frequently used in behavior modification research. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. In the A-B-A-B reversal design, baseline and treatment are implemented twice for one behavior of one subject. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Phase labels on a graph are typically put below the X axis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. In a multiple baseline across behaviors design, treatment is first implemented for one behavior of the subject and is then implemented later for a second behavior of the same subject. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A functional relationship between the treatment and the behavior is demonstrated in a multiple baseline across subjects design when the behavior of each subject changes only after the treatment is implemented for that subject. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. In an alternating treatments design, the baseline is implemented for a long period of time and then the treatment is implemented for a long period of time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Each data point on a graph shows you the level of the behavior at a particular point in time. a. True

b. False ANSWER: True 10. When you demonstrate that a behavior modification procedure caused a behavior to change, you are demonstrating a functional relationship. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. In behavior modification, the main way to document behavior change is through the use of a(n): a. graph b. questionnaire c. interview d. statistical analysis ANSWER: a 12. The two variables represented on a graph are: a. the independent and dependent variables b. time and behavior c. the extraneous and controlling variables d. frequency and outcome ANSWER: b 13. A data point on a graph tells you: a. when the behavior was recorded b. the level of behavior c. what is causing the behavior d. A and B ANSWER: d 14. The horizontal axis in a graph is used to record: a. behavior b. time c. change d. duration ANSWER: b 15. The level of the target behavior is recorded on the: a. horizontal axis b. vertical axis c. x-axis d. abscissa ANSWER: b

16. There are ________ components necessary for a graph to be complete. a. four b. six c. eight d. ten ANSWER: b 17. On a graph ___________ is indicated on the Y axis and ________________ is indicated on the X axis. a. time, behavior b. behavior, time c. frequency, duration d. time, treatment ANSWER: b 18. Which of the following is NOT necessary for a graph to be complete? a. phase lines b. data points c. x-axis and y-axis d. behavior change ANSWER: d 19. A vertical line on a graph indicating a change in treatment is called a: a. baseline b. time line c. phase line d. treatment line ANSWER: c 20. Which dimension(s) of behavior can be graphed? a. frequency b. duration c. intensity d. all of these ANSWER: d 21. In behavior modification, a research design is used to: a. determine if the treatment changed the behavior b. control the target behavior c. make it easier to change the behavior d. A and B ANSWER: a 22. Billy has trouble sitting still in class, so his teacher implements a program in which she praises Billy for staying in his seat. Billy’s sitting behavior increases, and the teacher concludes her praise was responsible. The teacher does not realize Billy has started taking medication that causes fatigue. The medication would be an example of a(n) __________ variable. a. independent

b. extraneous c. dependent d. behavioral ANSWER: b 23. An A-B design does not demonstrate a functional relationship between the treatment and the target behavior because there is no: a. change in the target behavior b. statistical test of significance c. replication d. validation ANSWER: c 24. A researcher demonstrates that receiving gold stickers for completing math problems increases the number of problems that a student finishes. The researcher has demonstrated a _____________ relationship between receiving gold stickers and completing math problems. a. correlational b. functional c. perfect d. two-way ANSWER: b 25. In behavior modification, a research design involves: a. estimation b. treatment implementation c. replication d. B and C ANSWER: d 26. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an A-B design? a. it is used to compare baseline and treatment b. it is used in applied settings c. it demonstrates a functional relationship d. it is the simplest type of design ANSWER: c 27. A teacher records the biting behavior of a child before and after treatment is implemented. This is an example of a(n) ____________ design. a. A-B-A-B b. A-B c. Multiple-baseline d. Alternating treatments ANSWER: b 28. Which research design is referred to as a reversal design? a. A-B b. A-B-A-B

c. Multiple-baseline d. Changing-criterion ANSWER: b 29. In an A-B-A-B design, B refers to ______________ and A refers to _________________. a. baseline; assessment b. baseline; treatment c. treatment; baseline d. dependent variable; independent variable ANSWER: c 30. What should be taken into account before using an A-B-A-B design? a. Is it ethical to remove treatment? b. Can treatment be removed? c. Will the level of behavior reverse? d. all of these ANSWER: d 31. Which of the following is a type of multiple-baseline design? a. across-subjects b. across- staff c. across-time d. all of these ANSWER: a 32. A researcher records the hair pulling behavior of three different children in a classroom and implements treatment at a different time for each child. The researcher is using a(n) _____________ design. a. multiple-baseline-across-behaviors b. multiple-baseline-across-subjects c. alternating-treatments d. changing-criterion ANSWER: b 33. A researcher is interested in measuring the hitting and screaming behaviors of a child, treating the hitting first, and treating the screaming later. To do this, the researcher would use a(n) ____________ design. a. multiple-baseline-across-settings b. multiple-baseline-across-behaviors c. A-B-A-B d. alternating treatments ANSWER: b 34. A researcher records a child’s crying behavior when the child is at school and when the child is at home and provides treatment at school then at home. The researcher is using a(n) _____________ design. a. A-B-A-B b. multiple-baseline-across-settings c. changing-criterion d. multiple-baseline-across-behaviors

ANSWER: b 35. A critical feature of multiple-baseline designs is that: a. baselines differ in length b. treatment is staggered over time c. A and B d. none of these ANSWER: c 36. In a(n) _____________ research design, baseline and treatment conditions are conducted in rapid succession and compared to each other. a. A-B-A-B b. multiple-baseline c. changing-criterion d. alternating-treatments ANSWER: d 37. The research design in which there are increasing (or decreasing) goal levels for the target behavior is referred to as a(n) ____________ design. a. alternating-treatments b. changing-criterion c. multiple-baseline d. A-B-A-B ANSWER: b 38. Which research design does NOT control for the effect of confounding variables? a. A-B b. A-B-A-B c. changing-criterion d. multiple-baseline ANSWER: a 39. To determine whether a new drug decreases self-injurious behavior, the researcher measures self-injurious behavior while giving a subject the drug on even numbered days and giving a placebo on odd numbered days for two weeks. This is an example of a(n) ____________________ design. a. multiple baseline across settings b. changing criterion c. multiple baseline across behaviors d. alternating treatments ANSWER: d 40. To determine whether a new drug decreases self-injurious behavior, the researcher measures the self-injurious behavior of 3 children, and then gives the drug to the first child after one week. After two weeks of baseline, the second child gets the drug and after 3 weeks of baseline, the third child gets the drug. This is an example of a(n)___________ design. a. multiple baseline across subjects b. changing criterion

c. multiple baseline across behaviors d. alternating treatments ANSWER: a Completion 41. A ________ is a visual representation of the occurrence of a behavior over time.

ANSWER: graph 42. On a graph in behavior modification, the _____ axis shows the level of the behavior.

ANSWER: Y 43. On a graph in behavior modification, the _____ axis shows the units of time.

ANSWER: X 44. In an A-B design, A= _________ and B= __________.

ANSWER: baseline; treatment 45. In a multiple baseline across subjects design, there is a baseline and treatment phase for __________ behavior(s) of __________ subject(s).

ANSWER: one; two or more 46. In a multiple baseline across behaviors design, there is a baseline and treatment phase for __________ behavior(s) of __________ subject(s).

ANSWER: two or more; one 47. In a multiple baseline across settings design, there is a baseline and treatment phase for ________ behavior(s) of _________ subject(s) in __________ setting(s).

ANSWER: one; one; two or more 48. In a __________________ research design, baseline and treatment sessions occur in rapid succession.

ANSWER: alternating treatment 49. In a(n) __________________ research design, there is a baseline phase followed by a treatment phase and then another baseline and treatment phase.

ANSWER: A-B-A-B 50. In a(n) ___________________ research design, there is a baseline and a treatment phase and, in the treatment phase, there are different criterion levels for the behavior.

ANSWER: changing criterion Subjective Short Answer 51. Prior to treatment, Jenny smoked the following number of cigarettes on consecutive days; 15, 15, 16, 14, 20, 15, 16, 17, 14, 20. After treatment, Jenny smokes the following number of cigarettes on consecutive days; 10, 10, 8, 8, 6, 5, 4, 2, 2, 0, 0, 0, 0. Draw the graph that shows the frequency of Jenny’s cigarette smoking before and after treatment. Be sure to include all of the essential components of a complete graph.

ANSWER: See Figure 3.10 for an example of an A-B design.

52. Does the A-B design demonstrate a functional relationship? Why or why not?

ANSWER: No. You determine that a functional relationship exists when the target behavior changes if and only if the procedure is implemented and the process is repeated one or more times. There is no replication in an AB design.

53. Draw an example of a graph of an A-B-A-B reversal design.

ANSWER: See Figure 3.11 for an example of an A-B-A-B reversal design.

54. What does it mean to say that treatment is staggered in a multiple baseline design?

ANSWER: When treatment is implemented at different times in a multiple-baseline design, we say that treatment is “staggered” over time.

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55. Dr. Allen evaluated the effects of the drug, Ritalin, on the aggressive behavior of a 6-year-old boy using an alternating treatments design. He measured the number of aggressive behaviors (hits) each day. He alternated days in which the drug was given with days in which the drug was not given. The drug was given on even numbered days and the drug was not given on odd numbered days. The results were as follows.

ANSWER:

True / False 1. A reinforcer works best when it follows the behavior immediately. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Negative reinforcement decreases a behavior in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. An establishing operation is an event that makes a reinforcer more potent at a particular time. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. A conditioned reinforcer is a reinforcer that is effective without any prior learning or conditioning. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. An unconditioned reinforcer is a reinforcer that is effective without any prior learning or conditioning. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. If an aversive stimulus is removed following the behavior, the behavior is less likely to occur in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. If a positive reinforcer is delivered following the behavior, the behavior is more likely to occur in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. In a Fixed Interval schedule, a reinforcer is delivered after a period of time has elapsed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. In a Fixed Ratio schedule, a reinforcer is delivered after X number of responses on the average. a. True b. False ANSWER: False

10. In negative reinforcement, an aversive stimulus is removed following the behavior and the behavior is more likely to occur in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. A behavior occurs and is immediately followed by a consequence that results in the increased likelihood of the behavior occurring in the future. This process is called: a. reinforcement b. conditioning c. a reinforcer d. operant behavior ANSWER: a 12. Andy answers a question in class, and is praised by the teacher. As a result, Andy is more likely to answer questions in class. Andy’s behavior of answering questions in class is referred to as ____________ behavior. a. controlled b. natural c. operant d. situational ANSWER: c 13. Mary takes out the garbage and, as a result, her parents let her watch her favorite television show. Mary is then more likely to take out the garbage when asked. Being able to watch her favorite television show is a ____________ for her behavior of taking out the garbage. a. reinforcer b. reinforcement c. contingency d. dependent variable ANSWER: a 14. Which of the following processes strengthen a behavior? a. positive reinforcement b. punishment c. negative reinforcement d. A and C ANSWER: d 15. Tommy pets a strange dog and is immediately bitten. In behavior modification, getting bitten is referred to as the ______________ for the behavior of petting the dog. a. punishment b. reinforcement c. consequence d. antecedent

ANSWER: c 16. Barry throws the football into the stands after scoring a touchdown, and is cheered by the fans. As a result, Barry is more likely to throw the ball into the stands whenever he scores a touchdown. This is an example of: a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. punishment d. satiation ANSWER: b 17. Timmy swears whenever his mom makes broccoli for dinner. Timmy’s mom always sends him to his room without dinner when he swears. As a result, Timmy is more likely to swear when his mom makes broccoli. This is an example of: a. positive reinforcement b. punishment c. negative reinforcement d. extinction ANSWER: c 18. An object or event that can be detected by the senses is referred to as a: a. reinforcer b. punisher c. stimulus d. behavior ANSWER: c 19. The stimulus presented following the behavior in positive reinforcement is called: a. a conditioned stimulus b. a negative reinforcer c. a positive reinforcer d. an aversive stimulus ANSWER: c 20. The stimulus removed or avoided following the behavior in negative reinforcement is referred to as the ___________ stimulus. a. natural b. unconditioned c. aversive d. conditioned ANSWER: c 21. In which of the following processes is the behavior more likely to occur in the future? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative punishment d. A and C ANSWER: a

22. In behavior modification, reinforcement is defined by its effect on behavior. This is referred to as: a. the Premack Principle b. an operational definition c. a functional definition d. a unique relationship ANSWER: c 23. Which of the following is NOT a question to ask when trying to decide whether a situation represents positive or negative reinforcement? a. what is the behavior? b. did the stimulus appear to be pleasant? c. was the stimulus added or removed? d. was the behavior more likely to occur?

ANSWER: b 24. On weekends, Laura comes home on time so that she is not grounded by her parents. Coming home on time in order to avoid being grounded is an example of: a. positive reinforcement b. escape behavior c. avoidance behavior d. punishment ANSWER: c 25. Andrew wants to play baseball with his friends. Before Andrew can play, his parents tell him that he has to clean his room, which he hates to do. Requiring Andrew to clean his room before he can play baseball with his friends is an example of: a. punishment b. the Premack Principle c. escape behavior d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: b 26. Whenever Matt makes a 3 point shot, his basketball coach makes him run one less lap in practice. As a result Matt is more likely to hit 3 point shots. This is an example of: a. the Premack Principle b. respondent behavior c. negative reinforcement d. positive reinforcement ANSWER: c 27. Which of the following is NOT an example of an unconditioned reinforcer? a. food b. water c. money d. escape from extreme heat ANSWER: c

28. Money is an example of a(n): a. conditioned reinforcer b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned reinforcer d. unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: a 29. Which of the following influences the effectiveness of reinforcement? a. immediacy b. contingency c. establishing operations d. all of these ANSWER: d 30. Whenever Tony puts money into a pop machine, he gets a can of pop. Tony never gets pop out of the machine when he does not put money in. This is an example of __________ existing between putting money in the machine and getting pop out. a. an establishing operation b. a contingency c. a negative relationship d. a functional definition ANSWER: b 31. Beth has been hiking in the desert all day and, as a result, is dying for a glass of water. The increase in the reinforcing value of water due to hiking in the desert is referred to as: a. satiation b. deprivation c. conditioning d. reinforcement ANSWER: b 32. John just ate a big Thanksgiving dinner. When John is offered a piece of his favorite pie he declines. The decrease in the reinforcing value of pie for John is an example of: a. deprivation b. satiation c. reinforcement d. extinction ANSWER: b 33. Which of the following are factors that influence the effectiveness of reinforcement? a. different reinforcers work for different people b. larger reinforcers are generally more effective c. A and B d. none of the above ANSWER: c 34. Nicole’s teacher praises her for every math problem that she completes. This is an example of a(n) _____________

reinforcement schedule. a. intermittent b. fixed c. continuous d. interval ANSWER: c 35. Tim is just learning to read. Which reinforcement schedule would be the most effective for him? a. continuous b. intermittent c. fixed d. interval ANSWER: a 36. An intermittent schedule of reinforcement is most effective for _____________ a behavior. a. learning b. maintaining c. changing d. all of these ANSWER: b 37. Tom’s supervisor tells him that for every 10 cars Tom sells he will get a $500 bonus. This is an example of a _______________ reinforcement schedule. a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio ANSWER: b 38. A telemarketer has to make a certain number of calls before a sale is made. However, the telemarketer does not know the exact number of calls that will be required in order to make a sale. This is an example of a _________ schedule of reinforcement: a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval ANSWER: b 39. In a ____________ reinforcement schedule, the reinforcer is delivered for the first response following an average of X amount of time. a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: b 40. Which schedule of reinforcement produces high, steady rates of responding with very little interruption after delivery

of the reinforcer? a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval ANSWER: c 41. All the reinforcement schedules that are in effect for a person’s behavior at one time are referred to as ______________ schedules of reinforcement. a. concurrent b. overlapping c. simultaneous d. mixed ANSWER: a Completion 42. __________ is the researcher who first demonstrated the Law of Effect.

ANSWER: Thorndike 43. In Skinner’s experiments, a rat pressed a lever and received food. This process strengthened lever pressing. The food is a(n) __________. The lever pressing is a(n)__________. The process is called ______________.

ANSWER: reinforcer; behavior/operant behavior; reinforcement 44. A(n) _________ is a behavior strengthened through the process of reinforcement.

ANSWER: operant 45. The consequence that strengthens an operant behavior is a(n) __________.

ANSWER: reinforcer 46. In the Premack principle, the opportunity to engage in a(n) ____________ is used as a reinforcer for a low probability behavior.

ANSWER: high probability behavior 47. A(n) _________________ increases the potency of a reinforcer.

ANSWER: establishing operation 48. A(n) _________________ schedule of reinforcement is used when a person is learning a new behavior.

ANSWER: continuous reinforcement 49. In _________________ reinforcement, a stimulus is removed following the behavior to strengthen the behavior.

ANSWER: negative 50. In _________________ reinforcement, a stimulus is presented following the behavior to strengthen the behavior.

ANSWER: positive 51. When a person has just had a large amount of a reinforcer, will the reinforcer be more or less effective at that time?

_______________________ What is this process called? ____________________ ANSWER: less; satiated 52. When a person has not experienced a reinforcer for a long time, will the reinforcer be more or less effective? ____________________ What is this process called? _____________________ ANSWER: more; deprivation 53. A schedule of reinforcement in which the reinforcer is delivered after X number of responses is __________________.

ANSWER: fixed ratio 54. A schedule of reinforcement in which the reinforcer is delivered for the first response occurring after X amount of time is _______________________.

ANSWER: fixed interval 55. A schedule of reinforcement in which the reinforcer is delivered for the first response occurring after X amount of time on the average is _______________________.

ANSWER: variable interval 56. A schedule of reinforcement in which the reinforcer is delivered after X number of responses on the average is __________________.

ANSWER: variable ratio Subjective Short Answer 57. Define reinforcement.

ANSWER: Reinforcement is defined as a process in which a behavior is strengthened by the immediate consequences that reliably follows its occurrence.

58. In positive reinforcement, what happens immediately following the occurrence of the behavior?

ANSWER: In positive reinforcement, a behavior is followed by the addition of a stimulus or an increase in intensity of a stimulus which results in the strengthening of the behavior.

59. In negative reinforcement, what happens immediately following the occurrence of the behavior?

ANSWER: In negative reinforcement, a behavior is followed by the removal of a stimulus or a decrease in the intensity of a stimulus which results in the strengthening of a behavior.

60. What is an aversive stimulus?

ANSWER: In negative reinforcement, the stimulus that is removed or avoided following the behavior is called an aversive stimulus.

61. How does escape behavior differ from avoidance behavior?

ANSWER: In escape behavior, the occurrence of the behavior results in the termination of an aversive stimulus that was already present when the behavior occurred. In avoidance behavior, the occurrence of the behavior prevents the presentation of an aversive stimulus.

62. Draw a frequency graph showing the effect of reinforcement on the frequency of a behavior.

ANSWER: See Figure 4.2 in the book for an example of a graph showing the effects of reinforcement on the frequency of a behavior.

63. What are a couple examples of unconditioned reinforcers?

ANSWER: A couple examples of unconditioned positive reinforcers are food, water, and sexual stimulation. A couple examples of unconditioned negative reinforcers are pain, cold, heat, or discomforting or aversive stimulation.

64. What are three examples of generalized conditioned reinforcers?

ANSWER: Examples of generalized conditioned reinforcers are parent’s attention, money, and grades.

65. Identify the five factors that influence the effectiveness of reinforcement.

ANSWER: The five factors that influence the effectiveness of reinforcement are immediacy, consistency of the consequence, motivating operations, individual differences, and magnitude of the reinforcer.

True / False 1. Ignoring is the same as extinction. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. When extinction is used following intermittent reinforcement, the behavior will be more resistant to extinction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. When extinction is used following continuous reinforcement, the behavior will decrease more quickly. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Extinction and negative reinforcement both decrease a behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. For extinction to work most quickly, it is best to reinforce the behavior once extinction is initiated. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Spontaneous recovery is when the behavior occurs again after extinction has decreased the behavior to zero. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. During an extinction burst, novel behaviors or emotional behaviors may occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Extinction works following positive reinforcement, but does not work following negative reinforcement. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Extinction is when a behavior is no longer reinforced and as a result, the behavior stops occurring. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

10. In an extinction burst, the behavior temporarily increases before it decreases. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. A behavior that has been previously reinforced no longer results in reinforcing consequences and, as a result, stops occurring in the future. This process is referred to as: a. positive reinforcement b. extinction c. negative reinforcement d. punishment ANSWER: b 12. Extinction occurs when a previously reinforced behavior is ____________ reinforced. a. continuously b. intermittently c. no longer d. A and B ANSWER: c 13. _________ occurs when a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced _________ occurs when a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced_________ occurs when a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced a. punishment b. conditioning c. extinction d. B and C ANSWER: c 14. Timmy takes out the garbage and his mother praises him when he does it. When his mother stops praising him, Timmy stops taking out the garbage. Timmy’s behavior of taking out the garbage has been: a. punished b. extinguished c. reversed d. negatively reinforced ANSWER: b 15. Sarah presses her mouse button while using her computer but nothing happens (the mouse is broken). Sarah presses the mouse button longer and harder before eventually giving up. Sarah’s behavior of temporarily pressing the mouse button longer and harder before giving up is an example of a(an): a. contingency b. establishing operation c. novel behavior d. extinction burst

ANSWER: d 16. During an extinction burst, the unreinforced behavior can increase in: a. frequency b. duration c. intensity d. all of these ANSWER: d 17. During ___________, the unreinforced behavior can increase in frequency, duration, or intensity a. spontaneous recovery b. an extinction burst c. punishment d. all of these ANSWER: b 18. In addition to an increase in the frequency, duration, or intensity of the unreinforced behavior during an extinction burst, _____________________ may also occur. a. the occurrence of novel behaviors b. aggressive behavior c. emotional behaviors d. all of these ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an extinction burst? a. unreinforced behavior may briefly increase b. emotional responses may occur c. behavior becomes resistant to reinforcement d. novel behaviors may occur ANSWER: c 20. Extinction of a positively reinforced behavior involves removal of the _________ following the behavior: a. behavior b. aversive stimulus c. positive reinforcer d. A and C ANSWER: c 21. Randy stopped putting money into a candy machine because he stopped getting candy out. After a couple months Randy put money into the candy machine again, but when no candy came out, he stopped putting money in. Randy’s behavior of putting money into the candy machine after a couple months is an example of: a. punishment b. spontaneous recovery c. delayed extinction d. reinforcement ANSWER: b

22. When a behavior occurs again after it had not occurred for some time due to extinction, the process is called a. operant behavior b. extinction burst c. resurgence d. spontaneous recovery ANSWER: d 23. Extinction of a negatively reinforced behavior involves continuation of the _______ following the behavior. a. aversive stimulus b. reinforcer c. conditioned stimulus d. negative stimulus ANSWER: a 24. In order to extinguish a negatively reinforced behavior, the ____________ is no longer removed or avoided following the behavior. a. aversive stimulus b. positive reinforcer c. reinforcer d. prompt ANSWER: a 25. Whenever Matt is told to run laps during basketball practice, he complains to the coach that he is too tired in order to get out of running. The coach starts making him run the laps anyway, and eventually Matt stops complaining about being too tired when he is told to run. This is an example of: a. extinction of a negatively reinforced behavior b. spontaneous recovery c. extinction of a positively reinforced behavior d. punishment ANSWER: a 26. Robert dances in the end zone whenever he scores a touchdown, because the fans give him a standing ovation for doing so. When the fans no longer give him a standing ovation for his dancing, Robert stops dancing in the end zone.

This is an example of: a. punishment b. extinction of a negatively reinforced behavior c. a latency period d. extinction of a positively reinforced behavior ANSWER: d 27. A common misconception people have about extinction, is that it: a. means ignoring the behavior b. increases the behavior c. is the same as reinforcement d. decreases the behavior ANSWER: a

28. Ignoring the behavior amounts to extinction only when the behavior is: a. occurring excessively b. negatively reinforced c. reinforced by attention d. not severe ANSWER: c 29. Which of the following factors influence the extinction process? a. punishment prior to extinction b. reinforcement after extinction c. A and B d. none of these ANSWER: b 30. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the extinction process? a. the schedule of reinforcement before extinction b. reinforcement after extinction c. the frequency of the behavior d. B and C ANSWER: c 31. In comparison with a behavior that has been intermittently reinforced, a behavior that has been continuously reinforced will ____________ when reinforcement is stopped. a. decrease more rapidly b. decrease at the same rate c. decrease more slowly d. remain at about the same level ANSWER: a 32. In comparison to a behavior that has been continuously reinforced, a behavior that has been intermittently reinforced will _____________ when reinforcement is stopped a. decrease more rapidly b. decrease at the same rate c. decrease more slowly d. remain at about the same level ANSWER: c 33. Greg shakes the apple tree to get an apple to fall for him to eat. Now when he shakes the tree, no apples fall so he runs into the tree with his shoulder to get an apple to fall. Running into the tree with his shoulder is an example of: a. an extinction burst b. spontaneous recovery c. resistance to extinction d. an establishing operation ANSWER: a 34. If reinforcement for the behavior occurs during the process of extinction, the behavior will: a. decrease more rapidly

b. be unaffected by the reinforcement c. decrease less rapidly d. immediately become extinguished ANSWER: c 35. Which of the following processes weakens operant behavior? a. negative reinforcement b. extinction c. positive reinforcement d. respondent conditioning ANSWER: b 36. Bobby’s parents used extinction to get him to stop crying when he had to eat vegetables, by making him eat vegetables despite his crying. One night Bobby has a babysitter, and she does not make him eat his vegetables when he starts crying. As a result, Bobby’s behavior of crying when told to eat vegetables: a. has not been reinforced b. has been intermittently reinforced c. has been continuously reinforced d. A and B ANSWER: b 37. Extinction works best when: a. it follows continuous reinforcement b. it follows intermittent reinforcement c. reinforcement occurs during extinction d. A and C ANSWER: a 38. Extinction will be least effective when: a. it follows continuous reinforcement b. it follows intermittent reinforcement c. reinforcement occurs after extinction d. B and C ANSWER: d 39. When the behavior occurs, the reinforcer is no longer delivered. This is a definition of extinction of: a. negatively reinforced behavior b. an intermittently reinforced behavior c. a positively reinforced behavior d. a continuously reinforced behavior ANSWER: c 40. When the behavior occurs, the aversive stimulus is no longer removed. This is a definition of extinction of: a. negatively reinforced behavior b. an intermittently reinforced behavior c. a positively reinforced behavior

d. a continuously reinforced behavior ANSWER: a Completion 41. In extinction, the __________________ is eliminated following the occurrence of the behavior.

ANSWER: reinforcer 42. When a behavior is no longer reinforced, the behavior _______________________ in the future.

ANSWER: decreases, stops 43. During an extinction burst, the unreinforced behavior may temporarily increase in ____________, ____________, or _____________.

ANSWER: frequency, duration, intensity (any order) 44. In extinction of a behavior that was positively reinforced, the _____________________ is no longer delivered following the behavior.

ANSWER: positive reinforcer 45. In extinction of a negatively reinforced behavior, the _____________________ is no longer removed following the behavior.

ANSWER: aversive stimulus 46. When extinction begins and the behavior temporarily increases in frequency, duration, or intensity, this phenomenon is called a(n) _____________________________.

ANSWER: extinction burst 47. ___________________________ is the name of the phenomenon that happens when the behavior occurs again in the future after it had been eliminated with extinction.

ANSWER: spontaneous recovery 48. A common misconception is that extinction simply means ____________________ the behavior.

ANSWER: ignoring 49. ____________________ reinforcement prior to extinction makes the behavior more resistant to extinction.

ANSWER: intermittent 50. ____________________ reinforcement prior to extinction makes the behavior less resistant to extinction.

ANSWER: continuous Subjective Short Answer 51. Define spontaneous recovery following extinction.

ANSWER: Spontaneous recovery occurs after extinction has decreased in a behavior. It is the natural tendency for the behavior to occur again in situations that are similar to situations in which the behavior occurred prior to extinction.

52. Define extinction (be sure to include all three components of the definition).

ANSWER: Extinction occurs when a behavior which has been previously reinforced no longer results in reinforcing consequences and, therefore, the behavior stops occurring in the future.

53. What are three things that may happen during an extinction burst?

ANSWER: An extinction burst is when an unreinforced behavior temporarily increases in frequency, duration, or intensity during the extinction process. An extinction burst may also involve an increase in novel behavior and an increase in emotional behavior or aggressive behavior.

54. A child cries at the grocery store and the parent gives the child candy. As a result, the child frequently cries at the store. (a) What is the reinforcer for the child’s behavior of crying at the store? (b) How would the parent use extinction for the child’s behavior of crying in the store?

ANSWER: (a) Candy; (b) When the child cries in the grocery store, the parent will not give the child candy.

55. What are the two factors that influence extinction?

ANSWER: The two factors that influence extinction are the reinforcement schedule prior to extinction and the occurrence of reinforcement after extinction.

True / False 1. Punishment can be defined by whether the consequence appears unfavorable or unpleasant. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The behavior modification definition of punishment can be quite different than a nonprofessional definition of punishment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Punishment can sometimes increase behavior in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Punishment does not involve an extinction burst. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. For punishment to be most effective, the consequences must follow the behavior immediately. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. For punishment to be most effective, the behavior should be followed by a punisher every time it occurs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Punishment is a process that decreases or weakens a behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Positive punishment involves the removal of a positive stimulus following the behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Negative punishment involves the delivery of a negative stimulus following the behavior. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 10. The word “no” is an unconditioned punisher for most people. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. A more intense punisher will be less effective. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 12. If a behavior occurs and it is immediately followed by a consequence that makes the behavior less likely to occur in the future it is called: a. negative reinforcement b. extinction c. punishment d. none of these ANSWER: c 13. Bill spits on an umpire during a baseball game and is suspended for ten games. As a result of being suspended, Bill never spits on an umpire again. Being suspended for his behavior of spitting is referred to as a: a. reinforcer b. punisher c. punishment d. conditioned response ANSWER: b 14. In behavior modification, a punisher is defined by its: a. effect on the behavior it follows b. intended purpose c. effect on the behavior it precedes d. severity ANSWER: a 15. A consequence can be considered a punisher if the: a. consequence appears unfavorable b. behavior decreases temporarily c. behavior decreases in the future d. consequence is extreme ANSWER: c 16. In behavior modification, the term punishment is used to refer to a process in which the consequence of a behavior results in: a. retribution for the behavior

b. a weakening of the behavior c. retaliation for the behavior d. all of these ANSWER: b 17. Andrew was removed from class because he swore at his teacher. As a result of being removed from class activities, Andrew never swears at his teacher again. This is an example of: a. positive punishment b. extinction c. negative punishment d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: c 18. Which procedure(s) decreases a behavior or makes it less likely to occur? a. positive punishment b. positive reinforcement c. negative reinforcement d. A and C ANSWER: a 19. Andrew was removed from class because he swore at his teacher. As a result of being removed from class activities, Andrew continues to swear at his teacher. This is an example of: a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. none of the above ANSWER: d 20. Nicole is caught lying to her parents and loses her driving privileges. As a result, Nicole no longer lies to her parents.

This is an example of: a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. negative punishment d. extinction ANSWER: c 21. Nikki interrupts her parents when they are talking and her parents scold her and explain why interrupting is rude. As a result, Nikki continues to interrupt her parents when they are talking. This is an example of: a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. none of these ANSWER: c 22. The difference between punishment and reinforcement is that in punishment: a. a stimulus is removed following behavior b. a stimulus is presented following behavior

c. the behavior decreases in the future d. the behavior increases in the future ANSWER: c 23. Sam skips school so that he can play video games at the arcade. Sam’s parents find him there and make him mow the lawn when they get home. As a result of having to mow the lawn, Sam doesn’t skip school to go to the arcade anymore.

Having to do something he dislikes as punisher for the problem behavior is an example of: a. extinction b. negative punishment c. negative reinforcement d. the Premack Principle ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following is an example of negative punishment? a. time-out from positive reinforcement b. time-out from negative reinforcement c. response cost d. A and C ANSWER: d 25. Time-out from positive reinforcement and response cost both: a. involve the loss of access to reinforcers b. strengthen a behavior c. involve the presentation of an aversive stimulus d. are examples of negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 26. In behavior modification, negative punishment involves removal of a reinforcer that: a. was maintaining the behavior b. the client doesn’t like c. the person had already acquired d. none of these ANSWER: c 27. If following the behavior, the reinforcer that was maintaining the behavior is removed and the behavior decreases it is called ____________. If a positive reinforcer the person had already acquired is removed following the behavior and the behavior decreases it is called ____________. a. extinction; negative punishment b. negative punishment; extinction c. negative reinforcement; negative punishment d. extinction; negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 28. Extreme cold and extreme levels of auditory stimulation are examples of: a. conditioned punishers b. conditioned reinforcers c. unconditioned punishers

d. unconditioned reinforcers ANSWER: c 29. A conditioned punisher is established by a. pairing a neutral stimulus with a reinforcer b. following the behavior with a punisher c. pairing a neutral stimulus with a punisher d. removing a reinforcer for the behavior ANSWER: c 30. If a stimulus needs to be paired with an established punisher in order to function as a punisher it is referred to as a(n): a. conditioned punisher b. conditioned reinforcer c. unconditioned punisher d. unconditioned reinforcer ANSWER: a 31. Which of the following can become a conditioned punisher? a. the word “no” b. threats c. facial expressions d. all of these ANSWER: d 32. The principles of reinforcement and punishment are alike in that: a. behavior is followed by a consequence b. the consequence influences future behavior c. behavior is strengthened d. A and B ANSWER: d 33. Zach comes home past his curfew and is yelled at by his parents. If, as a result of being yelled at, Zach never comes home late again it would be an example of ____________. a. positive punishment b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 34. Which of the following factors influences the effectiveness of punishment? a. immediacy b. contingency c. motivating operations d. all of these ANSWER: d

35. In behavior modification, if a stimulus is presented following the behavior and it influences the future probability of the behavior, the process is either ____________ or ____________. a. negative reinforcement ; negative punishment b. positive reinforcement ; positive punishment c. positive reinforcement ; negative reinforcement d. positive punishment ; negative punishment ANSWER: b 36. The removal of a stimulus following the behavior that influences the future probability of the behavior is a process that is either ____________ or ____________. a. positive punishment ; positive reinforcement b. negative punishment ; negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement ; negative punishment d. negative reinforcement ; positive punishment ANSWER: b 37. In order for punishment to be effective, the consequence should follow the behavior closely in time. This factor is referred to as: a. immediacy b. contingency c. characteristics of the consequences d. time delay ANSWER: a 38. Whenever Tommy hits his little brother, he loses his television privileges. Tommy never loses his television privileges for any other behavior. This is an example of a(an) ____________ existing between hitting his little brother and losing his television privileges. a. establishing operation b. contingency c. schedule d. correlation ANSWER: b 39. Which of the following may function as a motivating operation? a. deprivation b. satiation c. instructions d. all of these ANSWER: d 40. Individual differences in the effectiveness of punishment refers to the fact that: a. punishers vary from person to person b. a more intense stimulus will be more effective c. A and B d. none of these ANSWER: a

41. Which of the following is NOT a problem with using punishment in behavior modification? a. it can lead to escape behaviors b. it may evoke emotional reactions c. it may be negatively reinforcing d. it is used to harm individuals ANSWER: d Completion 42. Punishment is defined as .

ANSWER: behavior that results in a consequence that weakens the behavior in the future 43. A is a consequence that follows a behavior, making the behavior less likely to occur in the future.

ANSWER: punisher or aversive stimulus 44. The difference between positive and negative punishment is whether the consequence of the behavior involves the or of a stimulus.

ANSWER: delivery, removal; removal, delivery 45. The Premack principle applied to punishment is defined as _______________.

ANSWER: low probability behavior contingent on a high probability behavior 46. Time out is an example of ANSWER: negative

punishment.

47. Nicholas used to come home late for supper until his parents started to take away a dollar of his allowance every time he was late. Nicholas’ behavior of coming home late decreased to zero. This is an example of what form of negative punishment? .

ANSWER: response cost 48. An unconditioned punisher is ANSWER: a naturally punishing stimulus

.

49. A conditioned punisher is .

ANSWER: a stimulus that is punishing because it was paired with another punisher 50. When a punisher is delivered following a target behavior, the target behavior will __________ in the future.

ANSWER: decrease 51. _______________ is the process in which a stimulus is delivered following a behavior and the behavior decreases in the future.

ANSWER: positive punishment 52. _______________ is the process in which a stimulus is removed following a behavior and the behavior decreases in the future.

ANSWER: negative punishment 53. Punishment by application is another name for _______________ punishment.

ANSWER: positive 54. Punishment by withdrawal is another name for _______________ punishment.

ANSWER: negative Subjective Short Answer 55. List 4 factors that influence the effectiveness of punishment.

ANSWER: Four factors that influence the effectiveness of punishment are immediacy, consistency of the consequence, motivating operations, and characteristics of the consequence.

56. Describe how the use of punishment can be negatively reinforcing.

ANSWER: When punishment is used, it results in an immediate decrease in the problem behavior. If the behavior that is decreased by punishment is aversive to the person using punishment, the use of punishment is negatively reinforced by the termination of the aversive behavior. As a result, the person is more likely to use punishment in the future in similar circumstances.

57. Provide an example of positive punishment and an example of negative punishment.

ANSWER: An example of positive punishment is Donny pulled Susie’s hair and Susie smacked Donny. As a result, Donny did not pull Susie’s hair in the future. An example of negative punishment is Taren threw her favorite toy across the room, and her mother took the toy and locked it up. As a result, Taren is less likely to throw her toys in the future.

58. Describe the difference between negative punishment and extinction.

ANSWER: In negative punishment, the occurrence of a behavior is followed by the removal of a stimulus, and as a result, the behavior is less likely to occur in the future. Negative punishment involves removal of a reinforcer that was not maintaining the behavior. Extinction occurs when a behavior which has been previously reinforced no longer results in reinforcing consequences and, therefore, the behavior stops occurring in the future. Extinction involves withholding a reinforcer that was maintaining the behavior.

59. Define punishment.

ANSWER: Punishment is when a particular behavior occurs, a consequence immediately follow the behavior, and as a result, the behavior is less likely to occur again in the future (behavior is weakened).

60. How does positive punishment differ from negative punishment?

ANSWER: Positive punishment involves the presentation of a stimulus whereas negative punishment involves the removal of a stimulus following the behavior. Both result in the weakening of the behavior in the future

True / False 1. The effects of reinforcement, extinction and punishment are relatively situation specific. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Behaviors usually occur at random and are rarely under stimulus control. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Stimulus control is developed by stimulus discrimination training. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The presence of a discriminative stimulus causes a behavior to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Stimulus discrimination training may also occur with punishment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. A behavior is less likely to occur in the presence of the SD. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. A behavior is more likely to occur in the presence of the SD. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A behavior is less likely to occur in the presence of the S-delta. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A behavior is more likely to occur in the presence of the S-delta. a. True b. False ANSWER: False

10. Generalization is associated with broad stimulus control. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. In behavior modification, the stimulus that is present when a behavior occurs is referred to as a(n): a. antecedent b. consequence c. cause d. reinforcer ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following is NOT one of the ABCs of operant behavior? a. cause b. consequence c. antecedent d. behavior ANSWER: a 13. Understanding the antecedents of operant behavior provides information on the circumstances in which the behavior was: a. reinforced b. not reinforced c. punished d. all of these ANSWER: d 14. If the effects of reinforcement, extinction, and punishment occur in some situations but not in others, the effects are said to be: a. generalized b. situation-specific c. isolated d. intermittent ANSWER: b 15. Bill drives faster than the speed limit only when his friends are in the car with him because they tell him he is cool.

Bill’s behavior of driving over the speed limit only when his friends are with him is said to be under ____________ control. a. situational b. operant c. isolated d. stimulus ANSWER: d

16. A group of stimuli having the same functional effect on a certain behavior are said to belong to a stimulus: a. group b. class c. category d. contingency ANSWER: b 17. Bill drives faster than the speed limit only when his friends are in the car with him because they tell him he is cool. He doesn’t speed when his parents or girlfriend are in the car because they don’t say it’s cool. What is the SD in this example? a. parents b. girlfriend c. friends d. parents and girlfriend ANSWER: c 18. Bill drives faster than the speed limit only when his friends are in the car with him because they tell him he is cool. He doesn’t speed when his parents or girlfriend are in the car because they don’t say it’s cool. What is the S-delta in this example? a. parents b. girlfriend c. friends d. parents and girlfriend ANSWER: d 19. Whenever Tommy has a babysitter and asks to stay up past his bedtime, the babysitter lets him. Whenever Tommy asks his parents to let him stay up past his bedtime, they do not let him. As a result, Tommy only asks the babysitter if he can stay up past his bedtime. The presence of the babysitter at bed time is referred to as a(n) __________ for asking to stay up late: a. stimulus class b. S-delta c. reinforcer d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: d 20. Whenever Tommy has a babysitter and asks to stay up past his bedtime, the babysitter lets him. Whenever Tommy asks his parents to let him stay up past his bedtime, they do not let him. As a result, Tommy only asks the babysitter if he can stay up past his bedtime. The presence of the parents at bed time is referred to as a(n) __________ for asking to stay up late: a. stimulus class b. S-delta c. reinforcer d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: b 21. When Mary asks her Mom to take her to the shopping mall, her Mom usually takes her. Whenever Mary asks her Dad to take her to the mall he refuses. As a result, Mary only asks her Mom to take her to the mall. The process that has resulted in Mary only asking her Mom to take her to the mall is called: a. classical conditioning

b. stimulus discrimination training c. respondent conditioning d. reinforcement ANSWER: b 22. When the family dog licks the faces of the children in the family, they laugh and give the dog a treat. When the dog licks the faces of the parents, they scold the dog. As a result, the dog no longer licks the faces of the parents, but continues to lick the faces of the children. The parents’ faces would be an example of a(n)_________ for the dog licking their faces: a. negative reinforcer b. S-delta c. unconditioned stimulus d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: b 23. When the family dog licks the faces of the children in the family, they laugh and give the dog a treat. When the dog licks the faces of the parents, they scold the dog. As a result, the dog no longer licks the faces of the parents, but continues to lick the faces of the children. The children’s faces would be an example of a(n) ________ for the dog licking their faces: a. negative reinforcer b. S-delta c. unconditioned stimulus d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following is involved in stimulus discrimination training? a. when the discriminative stimulus is present the behavior is reinforced b. when the S-delta is present the behavior gets reinforced c. the discriminative stimulus controls the behavior d. all of these ANSWER: a 25. As a result of stimulus discrimination training, the presence of the discriminative stimulus: a. signals that the behavior will be reinforced b. signals that the behavior will not be reinforced c. causes an alternative behavior to occur d. A and C ANSWER: a 26. Which of the following is developed through discrimination training? a. reading b. spelling c. obeying traffic signals d. all of these ANSWER: d 27. When Mark swears around his friends they laugh, but when he swears around his parents they ground him. As a

result, Mark is less likely to swear when his parents are around. Mark’s behavior of not swearing around his parents is a result of: a. discrimination training b. generalization c. reinforcement d. A and C ANSWER: a 28. In behavior modification, a three-term contingency involves a(n): a. antecedent- behavior-consequence b. all behavioral consequences c. antecedent- behavior -contingency d. all of these ANSWER: a 29. Stimulus discrimination training can occur as a result of: a. reinforcement b. punishment c. extinction d. all of these ANSWER: d 30. Which of the following shows the correct sequence in a three-term contingency? a. discriminative stimulus, response, consequence b. consequence, response, discriminative stimulus c. response, consequence, discriminative stimulus d. discriminative stimulus, consequence, response ANSWER: a 31. In behavior modification, when a certain behavior occurs in the presence of stimuli that are similar to the discriminative stimulus during stimulus discrimination training, ____________ has occurred. a. expansion b. refinement c. discrimination d. generalization ANSWER: d 32. A behavior is more likely to occur in the presence of stimuli that are more similar to the discriminative stimulus than it is in the presence of stimuli that are less similar to the discriminative stimulus. This is called a: a. stimulus class b. generalization gradient c. cause-effect relationship d. discrimination gradient ANSWER: b 33. Generalization is associated with ____________ stimulus control. a. strong

b. unique c. broad d. specific ANSWER: c 34. Darin cheers at a football game when his hometown team scores, and his Dad gives him a high five. Darin later begins cheering with his Dad at basketball, baseball, and hockey games when his hometown teams score. This is an example of Darin’s cheering behavior ____________ to other situations. a. discriminating b. generalizing c. narrowing d. expanding ANSWER: b 35. When you tell jokes and your friends laugh, you are more likely to tell jokes to your friends. Your friends are _______ for telling jokes. a. discriminative stimuli b. S-deltas c. punishers d. conditioned stimuli ANSWER: a 36. The relationship between an antecedent, behavior, and consequence is referred to as a(n): a. three term contract b. three term contingency c. stimulus control d. three way interaction ANSWER: b 37. ___________ takes place when a behavior is more likely to occur in the presence of stimuli that are similar to the discriminative stimulus. a. reinforcement b. generalization c. discrimination training d. discrimination ANSWER: b 38. _____________ develops as a result of stimulus discrimination training. a. reinforcement b. punishment c. stimulus control d. expectancy ANSWER: c 39. Stimulus control develops as a result of a. classical conditioning b. stimulus discrimination training

c. stimulus differentiation d. conditioned stimulus training ANSWER: b 40. What happens when a discriminative stimulus is present? a. it has no influence over the behavior b. it makes the behavior less likely to occur c. it inhibits the behavior d. it makes the behavior more likely to occur ANSWER: d Completion 41. A stimulus that precedes a behavior is referred to as a(n) ________________.

ANSWER: antecedent 42. When a behavior is more likely to occur only when a specific antecedent stimulus is present, the behavior is under .

ANSWER: stimulus control 43. When the stop light turns green, you go and when it is red, you don’t go. The red light acts as a(n) __________ for going and the green light acts as a(n) ________________ for going.

ANSWER: S-delta; SD or SD 44. A three-term-contingency involves a relationship between ANSWER: antecedent, behavior, consequence

,

, and

45. _____________ occurs when a behavior occurs in the presence of stimuli that are similar to the SD. ANSWER: generalization 46. When a(n) ____________ is present the behavior is more likely to occur.

ANSWER: SD, SD 47. When a(n) _____________ is present the behavior is less likely to occur.

ANSWER: S-delta 48. A(n) ________________ is the stimulus that is present when a behavior is reinforced.

ANSWER: SD, SD 49. A(n) ________________ is the stimulus that is present when the behavior is not reinforced.

ANSWER: S-delta 50. _____________________ is the process in which the behavior is reinforced in the presence of the SD and not reinforced in the presence of the S-delta.

ANSWER: Stimulus discrimination training

.

Subjective Short Answer 51. What is a discriminative stimulus?

ANSWER: Discriminative stimulus is the antecedent stimulus that is present when a behavior is reinforced.

52. What are the 2 steps involved in stimulus discrimination training?

ANSWER: The following two steps are involved in stimulus discrimination training: a) When the discriminative stimulus (SD) is present, the behavior is reinforced; and b) When any other antecedent stimuli are present except SD, the behavior does not get reinforced.

53. What is an S-delta?

ANSWER: Any antecedent stimulus that is present when the behavior does not get reinforced is an S-delta.

54. How is stimulus control developed?

ANSWER: Through stimulus discrimination training. Stimulus control is the increased probability that the behavior will occur in the presence of the SD. 55. Provide an example of stimulus discrimination training. Identify the SD and the S-delta.

ANSWER: When Kelley’s cousin (SD) is working at the ice cream stand, Kelley gets free ice cream (reinforcer). When anyone else (S-delta) is working, Kelley does not get free ice cream (extinction). As a result, Kelley only stops at the ice cream stand when her cousin is working.

True / False 1. Unconditioned responses have survival value for the individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Ideally, the US should occur immediately before the onset of the NS. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Backward conditioning is most likely to result in respondent conditioning. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. During spontaneous recovery, the magnitude of the CR is usually smaller than the magnitude of the CR that occurred prior to extinction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Respondent and operant behaviors cannot occur together in the same situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. One pairing between a neutral stimulus and a US is often sufficient to establish the neutral stimulus as a CS. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. CERs are always negative. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. A neutral stimulus becomes a CS by being paired with a US. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. In respondent extinction, the target behavior is no longer reinforced. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 10. In respondent extinction, the CS occurs without the US and eventually the CS no longer elicits a CR. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. A less intense stimulus will be a more effective US. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 12. In behavior modification, operant conditioning involves the manipulation of ____________ and respondent conditioning involves the manipulation of ____________. a. consequences; antecedent stimuli b. antecedent stimuli; consequences c. causes; effects d. effects; causes ANSWER: a 13. Responses that are elicited by antecedent stimuli without any conditioning or learning taking place are referred to as ____________ responses. a. automatic b. uncontrolled c. conditioned d. unconditioned ANSWER: d 14. Which of the following is NOT an example of an unconditioned response? a. an eye blink in response to a puff of air in the eye b. pupil constriction due to bright light in the eye c. salivation in response to food in the mouth d. salivation in response to the sound of a dinner bell ANSWER: d 15. Which of the following is NOT an example of a conditioned response? a. a positive emotional response when a man smells his girlfriend’s perfume b. startle response in response to the sight of a gun c. fear response (autonomic arousal) when walking down a dark street d. startle response in response to loud noise ANSWER: d 16. Stimulation that is painful to the body is as example of a(n) ____________ stimulus. a. neutral

b. conditioned c. unconditioned d. environmental ANSWER: c 17. If a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response similar to the unconditioned response as a result of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus, ____________ conditioning has occurred. a. respondent b. operant c. instrumental d. all of these ANSWER: a 18. Another name for respondent conditioning is a. instrumental conditioning b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. verbal conditioning ANSWER: b 19. A response elicited by the conditioned stimulus is referred to as a(n) ____________ response. a. learned b. conditioned c. unconditioned d. automatic ANSWER: b 20. A previously neutral stimulus that is able to elicit a response similar to the unconditioned response as a result of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus is called a ____________ stimulus. a. paired b. secondary c. dependent d. conditioned ANSWER: d 21. When a neutral stimulus is paired with a CS, the neutral stimulus will become a CS and elicit a CR. This process is called. a. spontaneous recovery b. respondent extinction c. higher-order conditioning d. operant-respondent interaction ANSWER: c 22. The behavior that is elicited by the presence of an unconditioned or conditioned stimulus is referred to as __________ behavior. a. respondent b. operant

c. automatic d. learned ANSWER: a 23. What will happen if the CS is presented many times in the absence of the US? a. the CS will elicit a CR b. the CS will no longer elicit the CR c. The US will no longer elicit a UR d. B and C ANSWER: b 24. In behavior modification, who was the first person to demonstrate the process of respondent conditioning? a. Freud b. Watson c. Pavlov d. Skinner ANSWER: c 25. Which of the possible temporal relationships between the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus is least likely to be effective? a. delay conditioning b. backward conditioning c. trace conditioning d. simultaneous conditioning ANSWER: b 26. Which type of conditioning is it if the unconditioned stimulus is presented before the neutral stimulus ends? a. delay b. trace c. backward d. concurrent ANSWER: c 27. In which temporal relationship between the unconditioned stimulus and the neutral stimulus is the unconditioned stimulus presented after the neutral stimulus ends? a. delay conditioning b. simultaneous conditioning c. trace conditioning d. backward conditioning ANSWER: c 28. When the neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus are presented at the same time it is called ____________ conditioning. a. trace b. simultaneous c. delay d. backward

ANSWER: b 29. If the unconditioned stimulus is presented before the neutral stimulus it is referred to as ____________ conditioning. a. backward b. forward c. delay d. trace ANSWER: a 30. Which type(s) of respondent conditioning is(are) generally most effective? a. trace b. delay c. simultaneous d. A and B ANSWER: d 31. When a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus due to pairing with an already established conditioned stimulus, it is called ____________ conditioning. a. first-order b. higher-order c. operant d. instrumental ANSWER: b 32. Which of the following is an example of a conditioned emotional response? a. fear b. anger c. happiness d. all of these ANSWER: d 33. As a result of being paired with a loud noise, a flashing light has come to elicit a startle reflex. When the flashing light is repeatedly presented without the loud noise, the startle reflex eventually stops occurring. This process in which a conditioned stimulus is no longer able to elicit a conditioned response is referred to as: a. respondent extinction b. secondary conditioning c. operant extinction d. reverse conditioning ANSWER: a 34. Following extinction, a conditioned stimulus is presented and the conditioned response occurs. This process is referred to as: a. backward conditioning b. reverse extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. reinforcement ANSWER: c

35. Which of the following can develop through the process of respondent conditioning? a. generalization b. discrimination c. A and B d. none of these ANSWER: c 36. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the strength of respondent conditioning? a. temporal relationship between the NS and US b. contingency between the NS and US c. number of pairings of the NS and US d. formal relationship between the NS and US ANSWER: d 37. The ____________ pairing of the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus has the single strongest effect on respondent conditioning. a. initial b. final c. second d. next to last ANSWER: a 38. Spontaneous recovery occurs when a. the behavior is no longer reinforced b. a CS elicits a CR in the future after respondent extinction had taken place c. a neutral stimulus can elicit a CR after one pairing with a US d. the CS is no longer paired with the US ANSWER: b 39. In order for respondent conditioning to be most effective, the neutral stimulus should occur ____________ the unconditioned stimulus occurs. a. after b. at the same time c. before d. more often than ANSWER: c 40. In ____________ conditioning, a response is elicited by an antecedent stimulus, and conditioning involves the pairing of two stimuli. a. operant b. respondent c. instrumental d. none of these ANSWER: b 41. In ____________ conditioning a response is emitted, and conditioning involves a contingency between the response

and the consequence. a. respondent b. classical c. Pavlovian d. operant ANSWER: d Completion 42. An unconditioned stimulus elicits a(n) ANSWER: UR; unconditioned response

.

43. Respondent conditioning occurs when a(n) ANSWER: neutral stimulus; US, unconditioned stimulus 44. As a result respondent conditioning, the .

ANSWER: neutral stimulus; CR, conditioned response

is paired with a(n)

.

becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a(n)

45. When a neutral stimulus (NS) is paired with an already established CS and the NS becomes a CS, this is called .

ANSWER: higher-order conditioning 46. When Pavlov presented the sound of the metronome repeatedly without putting the meat powder in the dog’s mouth, the dog quit salivating to the metronome. What is this process? ___________________ ANSWER: respondent extinction 47. After respondent extinction occurred in which the dog no longer salivated to the sound of the metronome, later Pavlov presented the metronome and the dog began to salivate (to a lesser extent). This is called .

ANSWER: spontaneous recovery 48. For respondent conditioning to be most effective, the US should _____________ (precede / follow) the NS. ANSWER: follow 49. Respondent conditioning is not likely to occur when the NS ______________ (precedes / follows) the US. ANSWER: follows 50. _______________ is an example of a conditioned emotional response.

ANSWER: Fear; Anger; Happiness; Love A. delay conditioning

51.

B. trace conditioning

C. simultaneous conditioning D. backward conditioning

The NS precedes the US and the presentation of the US does not overlap with the presentation of the NS.

ANSWER: b 52.

The US is presented prior to the NS. ANSWER: d

53.

The NS is presented and the US is then presented before the termination of the NS. ANSWER: c 54.

The NS and the US are presented at the same time.

ANSWER: a Subjective Short Answer 55. Define respondent extinction.

ANSWER: Respondent extinction involves the repeated presentation of the CS without the presentation of the US. 56. In respondent conditioning, how is discrimination developed? How is generalization developed?

ANSWER: Discrimination develops in respondent condition in the following manner: When a particular stimulus (S1) is paired with the US, but similar stimuli (S2, S3, S4, etc.) are presented without the US, only S1 will elicit a CR. Generalization develops in respondent conditioning in the following manner: If S1 is paired with the US but similar stimuli (S2, S3, S4, etc.) are never presented in the absence of the US, the CR is more likely to generalize to these other stimuli.

57. List 5 factors that influence respondent conditioning.

ANSWER: The following 5 factors influence respondent conditioning: a) the nature of the US and CS intensity; b) contingency between the NS and the US; c) previous exposure to the NS; d) temporal relationship between the NS and US; and e) number of pairings.

58. If Pavlov occasionally (1 out of 10 times) gave the dogs the meat powder following the sound of the metronome, the dogs would be more or less likely to salivate to the metronome.

ANSWER: Less 59. John is playing in the front yard when a big dog starts running and barking towards him. The dog attack makes John’s heart beat faster and John runs into the house to get away from the dog. Identify both the respondent and operant behaviors that occurred.

ANSWER: The respondent behavior is the autonomic arousal (heart beating faster). The operant behavior is running into the house.

60. Provide 3 examples of unconditioned responses (identify the US and UR in each example.

ANSWER: Three examples of unconditioned responding are as follows (see Table 8.1): a) eye blink (UR) in response to a bright light (US); b) rapid withdrawal (UR) from a painful stimulus (US); and c) startle reflex (UR) to a loud noise (US).

True / False 1. Shaping is a procedure that can help a person engage in a new behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Shaping involves reinforcement of a closer approximation and extinction of a previous approximation of a target behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. When using shaping, timing is not very important. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. If the individual already engages in the target behavior at least occasionally, shaping is the best procedure to use. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. People are often well aware of how shaping can develop problem behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. An extinction burst is valuable in shaping because it may lead to the next approximation to the target behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Shaping would not be used if a person could benefit from instructions or modeling. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Reinforcement and punishment are the two principles involved in shaping. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Reinforcement and extinction are the two principles involved in shaping. a. True b. False

ANSWER: True 10. Intermittent reinforcement is used during shaping. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. Which of the following strategies is used when a target behavior is not occurring at all? a. differential reinforcement b. respondent conditioning c. punishment d. shaping ANSWER: d 12. In _______________ successive approximations of the target behavior are differentially reinforced until the individual engages in the target behavior. a. conditioning b. prompting c. shaping d. positive reinforcement ANSWER: c 13. In shaping: a. the target behavior is reinforced more and more over time b. successive approximations of the target behavior are reinforced c. the target behavior is reinforced when it occurs closer and closer to the discriminative stimulus d. all of these ANSWER: b 14. Which of the following behavioral principles is (are) involved in shaping? a. extinction b. punishment c. reinforcement d. A and C ANSWER: d 15. In shaping, the steps that are used on the way to developing the target behavior are referred to as: a. tasks b. behavior gradients c. successive approximations d. intervals ANSWER: c 16. The starting behavior that is used in shaping is:

a. a behavior that is already occurring b. an approximation of the target behavior c. A and B d. none of the above ANSWER: c 17. When reinforcement for each approximation of the target behavior is eliminated ____________ occurs, and a ____________ behavior is then reinforced. a. an extinction burst; novel b. spontaneous recovery; desirable c. punishment; desirable d. conditioning; prior ANSWER: a 18. When using shaping, each step should be ____________ to the target behavior. a. identical b. a closer approximation c. irrelevant d. B and C ANSWER: b 19. Conditioned reinforcers are useful when using shaping because they: a. enable rapid delivery of reinforcers b. are more powerful than unconditioned reinforcers c. prevent satiation from occurring d. A and C ANSWER: d 20. ______________ reinforcers are used during shaping because they enable rapid delivery of the reinforcer and prevent satiation from occurring. a. unconditioned b. tangible c. conditioned d. edible ANSWER: c 21. In which of the following instances can shaping be used? a. to reinstate a previous behavior b. to develop a novel behavior c. to change a dimension of an existing behavior d. all of these ANSWER: d 22. Jerry is a professional football player who injured his knee while running during a game. Jerry has had surgery and his knee is fully healed, but he is afraid to put pressure on it because he doesn’t want to re-injure it. The trainer implements a plan in which he first differentially reinforces standing, then walking, then jogging, and finally running at full speed. This is an example of using shaping to:

a. reinstate a previous behavior b. change a dimension of an existing behavior c. generate a novel behavior d. increase an existing behavior ANSWER: a 23. Sara wants to teach her cat Fluffy to use his paw to turn on the television. Sara differentially reinforces Fluffy’s behavior of being within one foot of the television, being within one foot and facing the television, when Fluffy touches the television with his paw, when he touches the on button with his paw, and finally when Fluffy hits the on button with his paw. This is an example of using shaping to: a. change a dimension of an existing behavior b. generate a novel behavior c. increase an existing behavior d. reinstate a previous behavior ANSWER: b 24. A teacher uses shaping to increase the loudness of a withdrawn child’s voice. This would be an example of using shaping to: a. reinstate a previous behavior b. change a dimension of an existing behavior c. generate a new topography of behavior d. create a new behavior ANSWER: b 25. In which of the following situations would it be appropriate to use shaping? a. the target behavior is already occurring b. instruction or demonstration would be effective c. acquisition of a novel behavior is the goal d. A and B ANSWER: c 26. Shaping would NOT be an appropriate procedure to use when a. instructions would be successful b. the target behavior is not occurring c. the person is nonverbal d. A and C ANSWER: a 27. What is the first thing that should be done before implementing shaping? a. choose the shaping steps b. identify the starting behavior c. define the target behavior d. choose the reinforcer ANSWER: c 28. Which of the following is NOT a guideline involved in shaping? a. identifying the starting behavior

b. choosing the shaping steps c. choosing the reinforcer d. choosing the unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: d 29. Differential reinforcement of each successive approximation involves: a. punishing the previous approximation b. extinguishing the previous approximation c. reinforcing the new approximation d. B and C ANSWER: d 30. Which of the following is true regarding shaping steps? a. each step should be a closer approximation to the target behavior b. a moderate behavior change between steps is best c. mastering one step facilitates behavior in the next step d. all of these ANSWER: d 31. Which of the following behaviors cannot be developed through shaping? a. self-injurious behaviors b. arguments between spouses c. animal tricks d. startle response to loud noise ANSWER: d 32. When Tommy’s Mom asks him to stop playing video games he ignores her. When she asks him a second, third, and fourth time in a louder voice Tommy continues to ignore her. By the fifth time, Tommy’s Mom screams at him to stop playing video games, and he finally stops. Eventually, Tommy’s Mom has to yell at him ten times before he quits playing video games. In this example, whose behavior has been shaped? a. Tommy’s b. Mom’s c. Tommy’s and Mom’s d. neither Tommy’s nor Mom’s ANSWER: c 33. Which of the following indicates it is time to move from one shaping step to the next? a. the individual is successfully engaging in the behavior b. the individual is having difficulty with the approximation c. the individual asks to move to the next step ANSWER: a 34. Which of the following is (are) involved in the process of learning language? a. reinforcement b. successive approximations c. extinction d. all of these

ANSWER: d 35. In shaping language in a young child, what is typically the starting behavior? a. words b. nouns and verbs c. babbling d. sentences ANSWER: c 36. Extinction is used in shaping to a. reduce interfering behavior b. stop the occurrence of a previous approximation c. promote the target behavior d. stop the person from engaging in novel behavior ANSWER: b 37. During shaping what is responsible for the emergence of novel behaviors? a. respondent conditioning b. extinction burst c. instructions d. successive approximations ANSWER: b 38. Using shaping to get a person to increase the strength of her grip would be an example of shaping a(n): a. novel behavior b. a new dimension of an existing behavior c. undesirable behavior d. respondent behavior ANSWER: b 39. The extinction burst is valuable in shaping because a. it leads to novel behaviors that may be an approximation to the target behavior b. it is an indication that the shaping steps are too large c. it is an indication that the shaping steps are too small d. it is an indication that the person is trying to learn ANSWER: a 40. Which of the following behavior is least likely to be developed through shaping? a. driving a car b. a child showing off to his friends c. a child engaging in long and loud tantrum behavior d. a spouse arguing loudly ANSWER: a Completion

41. With shaping you can get a new behavior to start so that you can keep it going with ______________.

ANSWER: differential reinforcement 42. Shaping is a behavioral procedure in which ______________ of a target behavior are ______________ until the person eventually engages in the target behavior.

ANSWER: successive approximations; differentially reinforced 43. A behavior that a person already exhibits that is an approximation to the target behavior is called ____________.

ANSWER: starting behavior 44. Shaping can be used to develop a behavior, reinstate a(n) ______________ behavior or change some dimension of a(n) ______________ behavior.

ANSWER: previous; existing 45. ______________ is the starting behavior in the process of using shaping to develop language in a young child.

ANSWER: Babbling 46. ______________ and _______________ are the two behavioral principles involved in shaping.

ANSWER: Reinforcement, extinction 47. _______________ (conditioned / unconditioned) reinforcers are typically used in shaping procedures.

ANSWER: Conditioned 48. Shaping ________ (is / is not) the appropriate procedure to use if you want to strengthen an existing behavior.

ANSWER: is not 49. _________________________, or shaping steps, are behaviors that are closer and closer to the target behavior.

ANSWER: successive approximations 50. What dimension of the target behavior would you be shaping if you used shaping to get a person to talk louder _________________________?

ANSWER: intensity Subjective Short Answer 51. A young child has just learned to say “ball” as a result of shaping. How do you bring the child’s behavior of saying “ball” under stimulus control of a ball?

ANSWER: By providing a reinforcer when the child says “ball” only when a ball is present and not providing a reinforcer when the child says “ball” when a ball is not present.

52. Why is it important to move from reinforcing one approximation to the next approximation at a proper pace?

ANSWER: Reinforcing one approximation too many times make it difficult to move to the next step; the individual may continue to engage in the previous approximation. At the same time, if the person does not master one approximation, it may be impossible or at least difficult to progress to the next step.

53. Describe how shaping might be used to develop a problem behavior. Provide an example.

ANSWER: Joey is a 25-year-old make with severe mental retardation who works in a sheltered workshop for individuals with developmental disabilities. At times Joey starts to sing loudly during working times, at which point staff

immediately go over to Joey and explain why he can’t sing during work. A psychologist was consulted to address Joey’s problem behavior. Upon identifying that the problem behavior was being maintained by staff attention, the psychologist recommended that the staff ignore Joey’s singing. When the staff ignored Joey’s singing, an extinction burst occurred in which Joey escalated to screaming loudly and running around the room. At that point staff approached Joey and tried to calm him down by talking to him and patting him on the back (attention). As a result, the staff has shaped a more severe problem behavior.

54. Provide an example of how shaping could be used to change a dimension of an existing behavior.

ANSWER: Shaping a new dimension of a behavior occurs when shaping is used to get a person to gradually engage in more and more exercise until he reaches 40 minutes per day when he is currently exercising only 10 minutes a day.

55. Define shaping. Provide an example.

ANSWER: Shaping is defined as the differential reinforcement of successive approximations of a target behavior until the target behavior is exhibited by the individual. A doorknob rusts over time and you must put more and more effort into turning it to open the door, thereby shaping the intensity of the behavior.

True / False 1. Prompts are used to get the correct behavior to occur so it can be reinforced. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Teaching is complete when prompts are no longer being used to get the behavior to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Ultimately, the discriminative stimulus must have stimulus control over the behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Response prompts are intrusive. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Prompt delay is the most commonly used method of transferring stimulus control. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. If a person who used to engage in a behavior now refuses to, prompting and transfer of stimulus control is an appropriate procedure to get the person to engage in the behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The learning trial always starts with the presentation of the discriminative stimulus. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Verbal, gestural, modeling and physical prompts are stimulus prompts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. In the prompt delay procedure, you provide the prompt, wait 4 seconds and then present the SD. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 10. Fading involves the abrupt removal of a prompt after the learner starts to make the correct response. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. Matt’s Dad is teaching him to shoot a basketball. His Dad takes the ball and demonstrates to Matt how to shoot it through the hoop. The use of antecedent stimuli by his Dad in order to get Matt to engage in the right behavior at the right time is called: a. fading b. prompting c. shaping d. stimulus control ANSWER: b 12. A teacher used prompting in order to get a student to pronounce written words correctly. When the student begins pronouncing the words correctly just by seeing them, the teacher begins to remove the prompts. The gradual removal of prompts while the behavior is occurring in the presence of the discriminative stimulus is called: a. prompt withdrawal b. shaping c. fading d. reduction ANSWER: c 13. The procedures of prompting and fading are used to: a. develop stimulus control b. get existing behavior to occur at the correct time c. develop new behaviors d. all of these ANSWER: d 14. In order for prompting and fading to lead to stimulus control, the prompts must be presented in the presence of: a. the target behavior b. the discriminative stimulus c. the S-delta d. the reinforcer ANSWER: b 15. Prompting and transfer of stimulus control is used by: a. coaches b. teachers c. parents d. all of these ANSWER: d

16. Which of the following is (are) necessary for prompting and transfer of stimulus control to be considered complete? a. prompts have been completely removed b. behavior is under control of the natural discriminative stimulus c. behavior consistently occurs when the prompt is presented d. A and B ANSWER: d 17. When using prompting and transfer of stimulus control, the use of ____________ gets the correct behavior to occur, and the use of ____________ transfers stimulus control to the natural discriminative stimulus. a. fading ; prompting b. reinforcement ; extinction c. prompting ; fading d. reinforcement ; punishment ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following is a major category of prompts? a. response b. stimulus c. behavioral d. A and B ANSWER: d 19. When the behavior of one individual leads to the desired behavior of another individual in the presence of the discriminative stimulus it is called a ____________ prompt. a. antecedent b. stimulus c. behavioral d. response ANSWER: d 20. A change in a stimulus or the addition of a stimulus in order to get the behavior to occur is called a ____________ prompt. a. behavioral b. stimulus c. response d. antecedent ANSWER: b 21. A prompt should be delivered ____________ the discriminative stimulus and ____________ a. after ; before b. before; after c. before; before d. after; after ANSWER: a

the behavior.

22. When using prompting and transfer of stimulus control, a reinforcer should be delivered when the behavior occurs:

a. in the presence of the discriminative stimulus b. following removal of a prompt c. following a prompt d. all of these ANSWER: d 23. Which of the following is NOT a type of response prompt? a. verbal b. modeling c. within-stimulus d. gestural ANSWER: c 24. Tammy’s Dad is teaching her to drive. As they approach a stop sign, Tammy’s Dad tells her to step on the brake and slow down. This is an example of a ____________ prompt. a. stimulus b. gestural c. verbal d. modeling ANSWER: c 25. Tony’s basketball coach just put him into the game, but Tony does not know which player on the opposing team he is supposed to guard on defense. The coach points to the player that Tony is to guard. This is an example of a ____________ prompt. a. modeling b. physical c. gestural d. stimulus ANSWER: c 26. Jennifer’s Mom is teaching her how to ride a bicycle. Her Mom gets on the bike and rides it around the yard. By demonstrating the entire behavior, Jennifer’s Mom is using a ____________ prompt. a. modeling b. gestural c. physical d. stimulus ANSWER: a 27. Paul’s shop teacher is teaching him how to use an electric sander. The shop teacher places his hands over Paul’s and guides Paul through the correct motions. Hand-over-hand guidance is an example of a ____________ prompt. a. gestural b. modeling c. physical d. extra-stimulus ANSWER: c 28. A ____________ prompt is the least intrusive and a ____________ prompt is the most intrusive.

a. verbal ; physical b. gestural ; modeling c. modeling ; physical d. gestural ; verbal ANSWER: a 29. Brian is teaching his son to shoot a basketball. Initially, Brian lowers the backboard and uses a smaller ball in order to make it more likely that his son will correctly shoot the ball. This is an example of a(an) ____________ prompt. a. response b. within-stimulus c. extra-stimulus d. B and C ANSWER: b 30. When a student uses flash cards with questions on one side and answers on the other side to study for a test, it is an example of a(an) ____________ prompt. a. within-stimulus b. extra-stimulus c. physical d. response ANSWER: b 31. Which of the following is NOT a method of transferring stimulus control? a. prompt fading b. prompt satiation c. prompt delay d. stimulus fading ANSWER: b 32. A coach is using verbal and modeling prompts to teach John how to swing a golf club properly. As John begins to swing the club correctly, the coach provides fewer and fewer prompts. This is an example of: a. stimulus delay b. prompt fading c. prompt delay d. stimulus fading ANSWER: b 33. When only one type of prompt is faded it is called ____________ fading and when fading occurs across different types of prompts it is called ____________ fading. a. within prompt ; across prompts b. first order ; higher order c. one-dimensional ; multidimensional d. isolated ; generalized ANSWER: a 34. Which method of prompting and fading is used when it is believed the learner does not need a physical prompt to engage in the correct behavior?

a. primary b. least-to-most c. most-to-least d. secondary ANSWER: b 35. Amy’s Mom is using flash cards to help Amy study for a history test. Amy’s Mom shows her the question on one side of the card and, if Amy does not give the correct answer in a certain period of time, her Mom shows her the answer on the other side. This is an example of: a. prompt fading b. prompt delay c. stimulus fading d. stimulus delay ANSWER: b 36. When using prompt delay, the period of time between the presentation of the discriminative stimulus and the prompt can be: a. constant b. progressive c. increased d. A and B ANSWER: d 37. Brian has been teaching his son to shoot a basketball correctly. Initially, Brian lowered the backboard and used a smaller ball to increase the chances his son would shoot the ball correctly. Once his son begins having success, Brian begins to raise the backboard and use a larger ball. This is an example of: a. stimulus delay b. stimulus fading c. prompt delay d. prompt fading ANSWER: b 38. In which of the following situations would it be appropriate to use prompting and transfer of stimulus control? a. the person has not learned the behavior b. the person has learned the behavior but refuses to do it c. the person does not do the behavior in the correct situation d. A and C ANSWER: d 39. When a novel behavior is being taught it is best to use ____________ prompts, and when you want a person to make a correct discrimination ____________ prompts are best. a. response ; stimulus b. more intrusive ; less intrusive c. stimulus ; response d. less intrusive ; more intrusive ANSWER: a

40. Which of the following is a guideline for using prompting and transfer of stimulus control correctly? a. present the discriminative stimulus and the appropriate prompt b. transfer stimulus control to the natural discriminative stimulus c. reinforce the correct behavior d. all of these ANSWER: d Numeric Response a. b. c. d.

verbal prompt gestural prompt modeling prompt physical prompt

41. Motioning how to swing a bat.

ANSWER: b 42. Telling the correct way to swing a bat.

ANSWER: a 43. Hand over hand assistance in swinging a bat.

ANSWER: d 44. Having a child watch you swing a bat.

ANSWER: c Completion 45. Prompting and transfer of stimulus control are used in the process of ___________ to develop appropriate __________ over a particular behavior.

ANSWER: stimulus discrimination training; stimulus control 46. What is used to increase the likelihood that an individual will engage in the correct behavior at the correct time? _____________ ANSWER: prompts 47. Once prompts have been faded, the behavior should be under the ___________ of the natural ___________.

ANSWER: stimulus control; SD 48. The two major categories of prompts are ___________ prompts and ___________ prompts.

ANSWER: response, stimulus; stimulus, response 49. Verbal, gestural, modeling and physical prompts are all examples of what category of prompts? ___________ ANSWER: response 50. ___________ prompts are least intrusive and ___________ prompts are most intrusive.

ANSWER: Verbal; physical

51. If a baseball coach throws slower pitches to his players at first to help them hit the ball, this is called a(n) ___________- stimulus prompt. Plastic outlet covers to prevent children from playing with outlets, is a(n) ___________stimulus prompt.

ANSWER: within; extra 52. When the correct behavior occurs at the right time without any assistance, ___________ has occurred.

ANSWER: transfer of stimulus control 53. In the prompt delay procedure, you present the ____________, wait 4 seconds and present the prompt.

ANSWER: SD Subjective Short Answer 54. Identify four types of response prompts.

ANSWER: Four types of response prompts are verbal prompt, gestural prompt, modeling prompt, and physical prompt.

55. What is fading?

ANSWER: Fading is the gradual removal of a response prompt across learning trials until the prompt is no longer provided.

56. Describe how you would use flash cards to learn psychology terms using prompting and fading.

ANSWER: You could make flashcards which had the term on one side (SD) and the definition on the other (stimulus prompt). You would be using stimulus fading when you looked at the definitions less and less as you went through the flashcards. Once you knew the meanings of all the terms and no longer looked at the back of the cards for the definitions, stimulus control will have transferred from the written definition (stimulus prompt) to the term (the SD).

57. What is a stimulus prompt?

ANSWER: Stimulus prompt involves some change in a stimulus or the addition or removal of a stimulus to make a correct response more likely.

58. What are the 3 types of procedures to transfer stimulus control?

ANSWER: Three types of procedures to transfer stimulus control are prompt fading, prompt delay, and stimulus fading.

59. What is least-to-most prompting and fading?

ANSWER: Least-to-most prompting is defined as providing the least intrusive prompt first and using more intrusive prompts only as necessary to get the correct behavior to occur. Least-to-most prompting is a method of fading across prompts. With least-to-most prompting, the least intrusive prompt is provided first and the most intrusive prompts provided only as necessary, from verbal prompts to gestural prompts to modeling prompts to physical prompts. The same sequence is subsequently repeated until eventually no prompts are needed.

60. What is most-to-least prompting and fading?

ANSWER: With most-to-least prompting, the most intrusive prompt is used first and is then faded to less intrusive prompts. With most-to-least prompting, a physical prompt together with a verbal prompt would first be provided. The physical prompt would then be faded as the learner successfully executed the behavior. Once the physical prompt was faded, a v4erbal and gestural prompt would be provided. As the learner continued to be successful, the gestural prompt would be faded and only the verbal prompt would be provided. Finally, the verbal prompt would be faded as the learner successfully executed the behavior.

True / False 1. The occurrence of a component behavior in a behavioral chain depends on the occurrence of the previous component behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Each response in a behavioral chain creates the stimulus situation that is the discriminative stimulus for the next response. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. In task analysis, the 1st step is to identify the discriminative stimulus associated with each behavior in the chain. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. It is important to use as many steps in a task analysis as possible. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Backward chaining procedures are mostly used with individuals who have severe intellectual disabilities. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The difference between forward chaining and backward chaining is where you begin training. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Total task presentation teaches one component of the chain at a time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Graduated guidance involves verbal and modeling prompts to lead the learner through the task. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Total task presentation works best for long and complex tasks. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 10. Behavioral chaining procedures are used to teach an individual to engage in a complex task. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. In behavior modification, a complex behavior made up of a number of component behaviors occurring in a sequence is referred to as a: a. behavioral chain b. behavioral sequence c. stimulus-response pattern d. A and C ANSWER: a 12. The individual component behaviors that occur in a behavioral chain are called ____________ components. a. overlapping b. contingency c. antecedent d. stimulus-response ANSWER: d 13. The outcome of each response in the behavioral chain serves as the ________ for the next response in the chain. a. prompt b. discriminative stimulus c. S-delta d. B and C ANSWER: b 14. Which of the following is true concerning a behavioral chain? a. each subsequent response depends on the preceding response b. the entire stimulus-response chain is under stimulus control c. each subsequent response is independent of the preceding response d. A and B ANSWER: d 15. In order for the behavioral chain to continue to occur, the last behavior in the chain must be: a. reinforced b. prompted c. generalized d. extinguished ANSWER: a 16. When using a behavioral chain, a(an) ____________ makes the outcome of the chain more reinforcing.

a. prompt b. establishing operation c. larger number of component behaviors d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: b 17. A researcher is going to use a behavioral chaining procedure to teach an individual with developmental disabilities to stuff brochures into envelopes. The researcher first goes through the process of identifying all the individual stimulusresponse components in the chain. This process is called: a. component analysis b. stimulus-response analysis c. task analysis d. behavioral analysis ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following is necessary when conducting a task analysis? a. identify all responses necessary to perform the task b. identify the discriminative stimulus associated with each behavior c. list the individual component behaviors in the proper sequence d. all of these ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following strategies can be used to conduct a task analysis? a. observe a competent individual engage in the task and record each S-R component b. ask a person who performs the task well to explain all the S-R components c. perform the task yourself and record each S-R component d. all of these ANSWER: d 20. Each step in the behavioral chain consists of a: a. discriminative stimulus b. S-delta c. response d. A and C ANSWER: d 21. When prompting and fading are systematically applied to each component in the stimulus-response chain in order to teach the entire behavior, it is referred to as a ____________ procedure. a. chaining b. sequencing c. behavioral d. response ANSWER: a 22. Which of the following is NOT a chaining procedure? a. backward chaining b. forward chaining

c. total task presentation d. contingency chaining ANSWER: d 23. Andrew just got a new puppy, and his Mom is going to use a chaining procedure to teach Andrew all the steps involved in feeding the puppy. If his Mom teaches him the last behavior in the chain first and then teaches him each previous behavior she would be using: a. forward chaining b. total task presentation c. backward chaining d. B and C ANSWER: c 24. Doug’s Mom is going to teach him how to make his bed. Doug’s Mom conducts a task analysis to identify all the individual components involved in the task, and decides to teach the first behavior in the chain first, and then teach each subsequent behavior. Doug’s Mom is using: a. forward chaining b. backward chaining c. total task presentation d. graduated guidance ANSWER: a 25. When you provide a reinforcer after each response in backward and forward chaining the outcome of that response becomes a: a. conditioned stimulus for the next response b. S-delta for the next response c. conditioned reinforcer d. A and C ANSWER: c 26. Forward chaining and backward chaining both involve: a. teaching one component of the behavioral chain at a time b. the use of prompting and fading c. the use of reinforcers after each response in the chain d. all of these ANSWER: d 27. Forward chaining and backward chaining differ in terms of: a. which component is taught first b. whether the terminal step in the chain is completed on every learning trial c. whether the learner receives the natural reinforcer on every learning trial d. all of these ANSWER: d 28. A researcher is teaching an adult with developmental disabilities how to stuff brochures into envelopes. The researcher teaches the entire behavioral chain as a single unit, and the individual completes the entire task on every learning trial. Which chaining procedure is the researcher using?

a. backward chaining b. forward chaining c. total task presentation d. primary chaining ANSWER: c 29. What type of prompt is most often used with total task presentation? a. verbal b. gestural c. stimulus d. physical ANSWER: d 30. A teacher uses hand-over-hand guidance to teach a child to write his name. As the child begins to successfully complete the task, the teacher provides less and less assistance as she shadows the student’s hand. This type of physical prompting and fading is referred to as: a. guided compliance b. directed assistance c. graduated guidance d. modeling ANSWER: c 31. What needs to be considered before using total task presentation? a. complexity of the task b. ability of the teacher c. ability of the learner d. all of these ANSWER: d 32. Which of the following is true concerning the similarities between forward and backward chaining and total task presentation? a. all are used to teach chains of behaviors b. all require completion of a task analysis c. all involve the use of prompting and fading d. all of these ANSWER: d 33. Mark just got a computer. He follows the step by step written instructions in order to hook his computer up. This is an example of: a. textual prompts b. forward chaining c. a pictorial task analysis d. A and C ANSWER: a 34. A basketball coach uses a series of drawings in order to teach Tommy the proper sequence of behaviors necessary to successfully carry out a play from the play book. This is an example of using:

a. picture prompts b. total task presentation c. forward chaining d. graduated guidance ANSWER: a 35. Every time Mary uses her DVR to record a television show, she verbally recites each step that she must go through in order to program the DVR. Mary is using: a. self-generated stimulus prompts b. self-instructions c. total task presentation d. A and B ANSWER: b 36. In which of the following situations would it be inappropriate to use chaining? a. behavioral acquisition b. an individual is currently not capable of completing a task c. noncompliance d. A and B ANSWER: c 37. Which of the following is a guideline for using chaining? a. choose an appropriate chaining procedure b. develop a task analysis c. use intermittent reinforcement when training is started d. a and b ANSWER: d 38. In the ____________________ method of baseline assessment, the initial discriminative stimulus is presented and the learner’s ability to complete the chain is assessed, and in the ___________________ method the learner’s ability to complete each individual component in the chain is assessed. a. single-opportunity; multiple-opportunity b. multiple-opportunity; single-opportunity c. primary; secondary d. first-order; higher-order ANSWER: a 39. Graduated guidance is typically used with: a. backward chaining b. forward chaining c. total task presentation d. all of these ANSWER: c 40. In which chaining procedure is the behavioral chain completed in every trial? a. backward chaining b. forward chaining

c. total task presentation d. all of these ANSWER: c Completion 41. A complex behavior that is made up of many component behaviors that occur together in a sequence is called a(n) _____________.

ANSWER: stimulus response chain 42. Each behavioral chain consists of a number of individual ___________ components that occur together in a sequence.

ANSWER: stimulus-response 43. Chaining procedures involve the systematic use of ___________ and ___________ procedures applied to each component in the chain.

ANSWER: prompting, fading; fading, prompting 44. To use forward chaining, you present the first ___________, ___________ the correct response, and provide a(n) ___________ following the correct behavior.

ANSWER: SD; prompt; reinforcer 45. What type of prompt is most often used to guide the learner through the chain of behaviors in total task presentation? ___________ ANSWER: graduated guidance (physical prompt) 46. ___________involves illustrations or photos of the outcome of each behavior in the task.

ANSWER: Picture prompts 47. To use backward chaining, you present the last ___________, ___________ the correct response, and provide a(n) ___________ following the correct behavior.

ANSWER: SD; prompt; reinforcer 48. ___________ involve a list of each component behavior in their proper sequence.

ANSWER: Textual prompts or Written task analysis 49. In the ___________________________ procedure, the learner completes every stimulus-response component of the chain in every learning trial.

ANSWER: total task presentation 50. _________________________ is a prompting strategy in which physical prompts are faded to shadowing and the shadowing is eventually faded when the learner completes the task independently.

ANSWER: Graduated guidance Subjective Short Answer 51. What is a task analysis?

ANSWER: Task analysis is the process of analyzing a behavioral chain by breaking it down into its individual stimulus-

response components.

52. List 3 different ways to conduct a task analysis.

ANSWER: Three ways to conduct a task analysis are to observe a competent person engaging in the task, to ask an expert, a person who performs the task well, and to perform the task yourself and record each of the component responses.

53. You need to train an individual with intellectual disability to fold towels for his new job at the hotel. He will stand at a table with a pile of unfolded towels on his left, pick up a towel, fold it in half twice and place the folded towel on another table to his right.

What is the 1st step you would train in a backward chaining procedure?

What is the 1st step you would train in a forward chaining procedure?

ANSWER: In a backward chaining procedure, I would present the person with a towel in his hand and have him place it on the table on his right. In a forward chaining procedure, I would have the person pick up a towel from the table in front of him.

54. Provide an example of how you would use self-instructions to guide your behavior in an everyday situation.

ANSWER: For preparing a meal, I talk myself through the steps in the recipe.

55. Describe the difference between the single opportunity method and the multiple opportunity method of assessing the mastery level of a learner.

ANSWER: In the single-opportunity method of baseline assessment, the initial discriminative stimulus is presented and the learner’s ability to complete the chain is assessed, and in the multiple-opportunity method the learner’s ability to complete each individual component in the chain is assessed.

56. What is a behavioral chain? Provide an example.

ANSWER: A behavioral chain, also called a stimulus-response chain, consists of a number of stimulus-response components that occur together in a sequence. For example, making a telephone call: To make a telephone call, you walk to the telephone, remove the receiver from the unit, put the receiver to your ear, and dial the desired telephone number.

57. Provide an example of the use of textual prompts and picture prompts.

ANSWER: To use picture prompts, you take a clear picture of each completed step in the bed making task analysis. Post the pictures in the correct order on the bulletin board next to the bed. During training prompt the client to look at each picture and engage in the behavior depicted in the picture. Praise the client for completing each step depicted in the pictures. Fade the prompts until the client is looking at the pictures and engaging in the bedmaking behaviors without assistance. A textual prompt (written task analysis) could be used only with clients who can read the textual prompts and follow the instructions. To use textual prompts, you make a list that describes the behaviors in each of the task analysis. Post the list of behaviors on the bulletin board next to the client’s bed. During training, prompt the client to look at the list and do the first behavior, then to look at the list and do the second behavior, and do so until the bed is made. Fade the prompts until the client is reading the list and making the bed without any assistance.

1. Which of the following is a component of the behavioral skills training procedure? a. instructions and modeling b. feedback c. rehearsal d. all of these ANSWER: d 2. Behavioral skills training procedures are used: a. to teach new behaviors b. when learners cannot imitate models c. to eliminate problem behaviors d. all of these ANSWER: a 3. BST procedures are NOT used to: a. teach new behaviors b. overcome behavioral deficits c. decrease a problem behavior d. B and C ANSWER: c 4. The components of the behavioral skills training procedure are generally used: a. together in a training session b. with individuals who have severely limited abilities c. individually to teach different behaviors d. A and B ANSWER: a 5. A teacher shows students a film demonstrating what they should do in case of a fire. Which component of behavioral skills training involves demonstrating the correct behavior for the learner? a. rehearsal b. instruction c. modeling d. feedback ANSWER: c 6. A teacher wants to teach fire safety skills. What should the teacher do immediately after telling the students what to do when there is a fire and showing them what to do in a fire situation? a. discuss the behaviors further b. provide the opportunity to rehearse the skills in a simulated fire situation c. ask them what they would do in a fire situation d. ask them what they would do in a fire situation and provide feedback for their answers ANSWER: b 7. Which of the following is (are) true concerning the component of modeling? a. the learner must have an imitative repertoire b. it is usually sufficient to produce long term change

c. it may be live or symbolic d. A and C ANSWER: d 8. The use of modeling is more likely to be effective when the: a. model’s behavior is reinforced b. the model is dissimilar to the learner c. model has low status d. all of these ANSWER: a 9. Which procedure is NOT used to enhance generalization following BST? a. using a variety of role plays in training b. using real-life situations in training c. using assignments for the learner to practice the skills outside of the training sessions d. using continuous reinforcement for correct responses in the training session ANSWER: d 10. A parent describes to a child what she should say if a stranger asks the child to get into his car. Which behavioral skills training component involves describing the correct behavior to the learner? a. rehearsal b. explanation c. instructions d. discrimination ANSWER: c 11. What is the behavioral procedure called that involves the use of instructions, modeling, rehearsal, and feedback? a. behavioral skills training procedure b. behavioral acquisition procedures c. functional, nonaversive procedures d. all of these ANSWER: a 12. In order to increase their effectiveness, instructions should be: a. understandable to the learner b. delivered by a credible person c. repeated by the learner d. all of these ANSWER: d 13. A psychologist is helping a student improve his social skills. After instructing him on how to carry on a conversation with other students, the psychologist has the student practice. Practicing the behavior after receiving instructions is referred to as: a. modeling b. feedback c. rehearsal d. testing

ANSWER: c 14. Rehearsing the behavior is an important part of behavioral skills training because it: a. demonstrates whether the learner has learned the behavior b. provides the chance for reinforcement of the behavior c. provides the opportunity to correct errors d. all of these ANSWER: d 15. Which of the following factors increases the effectiveness of modeling? a. reinforcement of the model’s behavior b. the opportunity for imitation after observing the model c. the use of models who are older than the learners d. A and B ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following factors increases the effectiveness of rehearsal? a. the context in which the behavior is rehearsed b. a delay between the rehearsal and reinforcement c. immediate criticism for errors d. all of these ANSWER: a 17. A psychologist instructs parents how to deal with their disobedient son, and then the parents practice. Following the rehearsal, the psychologist praises them for what they did correctly and gives them further instruction for things they did incorrectly. Delivering praise and further instruction following rehearsal is referred to as: a. evaluation b. feedback c. explanation d. analysis ANSWER: b 18. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of feedback? a. feedback should be given immediately after the behavior b. feedback should involve praise for some aspect of the behavior c. corrective feedback should be given before praise d. feedback should be descriptive ANSWER: c 19. Which component of the behavioral skills training procedure is an antecedent strategy? a. instructions b. modeling c. rehearsal d. A and B ANSWER: d

20. Which behavioral skills training component functions as the behavioral aspect of a three-term contingency? a. modeling b. instructions c. rehearsal d. feedback ANSWER: c 21. Feedback functions as a (an) ____________ following rehearsal of the correct behavior, and as a (an) __________ when feedback is provided as instructions to improve performance in the next rehearsal. a. antecedent; consequence b. punisher; antecedent c. reinforcer; antecedent d. B and C ANSWER: c 22. Which of the following is an advantage of using BST in groups? a. receiving substantial attention from the trainer b. watching other members rehearse and receive feedback c. receiving criticism from other group members following behavioral rehearsal d. B and C ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using behavioral skills training in a group? a. watching other members rehearse and receive feedback b. receiving reinforcement from other group members c. receiving individual attention from the trainer d. enhanced generalization ANSWER: c 24. Generalization from training sessions to natural situations is more likely to occur if: a. training situations are similar to natural situations b. training occurs in a different context c. the learner practices in relatively easy situations d. all of these ANSWER: a 25. Behavioral skills training procedures will be more effective if you: a. use instructions, modeling, rehearsal, and feedback together in each training session b. begin with the most difficult skill c. provide instructions and modeling separately from rehearsal and feedback d. start with rehearsal and feedback and use modeling and instructions only as necessary ANSWER: a 26. Which of the following is NOT true concerning behavioral skills training? a. new behavior is unlikely to continue unless it is reinforced b. it is used with individuals who do not need more intensive training procedures (e.g., chaining)

c. it is used with individuals and groups d. modeling and instructions are usually sufficient for long term change ANSWER: d 27. In BST, modeling will have the greatest influence if it occurs a. in isolation so that it is salient b. in the context of a role play that simulates the real situation c. in conjunction with instructions that describe the desirable behavior d. B and C ANSWER: d 28. Once a learner observes a model, what factor will make it most likely that the learner will continue to engage in the observed behavior? a. if the model’s behavior is reinforced b. if the model has high status c. if the model is similar to the learner d. if the learner’s behavior is reinforced once it occurs ANSWER: d 29. Which of the following is an example of symbolic modeling? a. observing a cartoon character engage in the target behavior b. observing your teacher engage in the target behavior c. observing a video of a peer engaging in the target behavior d. A and C ANSWER: d 30. Which of the following is the best way to provide feedback during BST? Immediately after the learner rehearses the behavior: a. correct any behavior that was incorrect b. provide praise for correct behavior and correct any behavior that was incorrect c. provide praise for correct behavior d. provide praise for correct behavior and criticism for errors ANSWER: b 31. The use of a videotape, audiotape or cartoon is an example of ___________ modeling.

ANSWER: symbolic 32. To increase the effectiveness of modeling, there should be ___________ between the model and the learner or the model should have high ___________.

ANSWER: similarity; status 33. The learner should have an opportunity to ___________ the behavior as soon as possible after observing the model.

ANSWER: rehearse 34. Rehearsal is important because it provides an opportunity for ___________ of the behavior.

ANSWER: reinforcement

35. In behavioral skills training procedures, feedback is defined as ___________ for correct performance and ___________ for improving performance.

ANSWER: praise; instructions 36. The use of instructions, modeling, rehearsal, and feedback to teach skills is called _____________________.

ANSWER: behavioral skills training 37. Having someone demonstrate the correct behavior for the learner is called _________________.

ANSWER: modeling 38. Telling the learner how to engage in the correct behavior is called ___________________.

ANSWER: instructions 39. Having the learner practice the correct behavior after receiving instructions and modeling is called ____________.

ANSWER: rehearsal 40. Providing praise for correct performance and instructions for improvement following rehearsal is called _______________.

ANSWER: feedback 41. Each BST procedure is most often used separately to teach skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 42. A modeled behavior must occur in response to the relevant discriminative stimulus. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 43. To be most effective, instructions should be general. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 44. It is reinforcing for the learner to engage in complex rehearsals first. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 45. After a person rehearses a behavior, it is best to immediately criticize some aspect of the person’s performance so that the person learns what he/she did wrong. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 46. BST in groups is most effective with large groups.

a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. After every rehearsal, the trainer should praise some aspect of the learner’s performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. To be most effective, the model should have high status or similarity to the learner. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. A benefit of BST in groups is that group members can observe other members rehearse the behavior and receive feedback on their performance a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. BST procedures are valuable when the learner cannot benefit from being told what to do or from observing the correct behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 51. What are 4 components of behavioral skills training procedures?

ANSWER: The 4 components of the behavioral skills training are modeling, instructions, rehearsal, and feedback.

52. Why is it important for the learner to repeat instructions?

ANSWER: The learner should repeat the instructions so the teacher can be certain the learner heard the instructions correctly.

53. Describe how modeling, instructions, rehearsal and feedback are a part of a three-term-contingency.

ANSWER: The modeling and instructions are antecedent strategies used to evoke the correct behavior; rehearsal involves the execution of the behavior or described in the instructions; feedback is the consequence of rehearsal (when the behavior is rehearsed correctly, feedback involves a reinforcing consequence for the correct behavior that strengthens the behavior; when the behavior is partly incorrect, corrective feedback is provided in the form of instructions to improve performance).

54. Provide 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of group behavioral skills training.

ANSWER: Advantages of group behavioral skills training are: • • • •

It can be more efficient than individual behavioral skills training, because instructions and modeling are presented to the whole group.

Each group member learns by watching other group members rehearse the skills and receive feedback on their performance.

Group members learn by evaluating the performance of other group members and providing feedback.

With a variety of group members participating in role-plays, generalization may be enhanced.

•

The magnitude of reinforcement for successful rehearsal is increased when praise comes from other group members as well as the trainer.

Disadvantages are: • •

Each individual does not have the trainer’s undivided attention.

Some members may not actively participate or may dominate and limit the participation of other members.

55. You are using BST procedures to teach children to say “no” and walk away when someone offers them a cigarette.

Describe the steps involved in the BST procedure that you will use to teach the children this skill.

ANSWER: You will teach students to say “no” or otherwise refuse an offer to smoke cigarettes, to ask other students not to smoke around them, to continue to refuse if a peer persists or tries to apply pressure in some way, and to leave the situation or ask the peer to leave if the pressure continues. With the input of students, you will identify all the ways that peers try to talk their fellow students into smoking and the various ways they apply pressure. These will be the situations around which you will develop the role-play. You will have the students sit in a circle or sit close to the front of the room, so that they can all see and hear the instructions and modeling and observe each other in the role-plays. You will put together ten role-plays reflecting the most common situations that the students face as their peers try to get them to smoke cigarettes. For each role-play, first describe the situation and the best response the student can make in that situation (instructions). Next, have a student come up to the front of the room and, in a role-play, ask you to smoke a cigarette; you refuse the request (modeling). Have the students in the class describe what was good about the modeled behavior.

Now have the student rehearse the behavior in the same role-play and have the class provide feedback on the performance. You will show the class how to provide descriptive praise for good aspects of the performance and how to provide suggestions for improvement (feedback). Repeat this process with all of the students in all of the role-play situations that you developed. During training, to enhance generalization of the skills, you will use as many different situations as possible that the students might encounter at school or away from school.

1. The identification of antecedent events that evoke a behavior and reinforcing consequences that maintain a behavior is referred to as: a. direct observation b. functional analysis c. experimental manipulation d. functional assessment ANSWER: d 2. What should be the first step when using behavior modification procedures to decrease a behavior? a. choosing reinforcers for the desired behavior b. choosing punishers for the problem behavior c. conducting a functional assessment d. conducting a task analysis ANSWER: c 3. Conducting a functional assessment will provide information concerning: a. dimensions of the behavior b. antecedent events c. consequences of the behavior d. all of these ANSWER: d 4. Which of the following is NOT a method used in conducting a functional assessment? a. experimental manipulation b. indirect assessment c. direct observation d. systematic assessment ANSWER: d 5. How is information gathered in an indirect functional assessment method? a. recording antecedents, behaviors, and consequences as they occur b. interviews c. questionnaires d. B and C ANSWER: d 6. Which of the following is recorded when using direct observation methods to conduct a functional assessment? a. behaviors b. consequences c. antecedents d. all of these ANSWER: d 7. The use of experimental methods in conducting a functional assessment involves the manipulation of: a. behavior b. consequences

c. antecedents d. B and C ANSWER: d 8. A psychologist is working with a child who is disruptive in the classroom. The psychologist interviews the child’s teacher to learn more about the disruptive behavior and the events that immediately precede and follow the behavior.

Which method of conducting a functional assessment is the psychologist using? a. experimental manipulations b. indirect methods c. direct observation d. ABC observation ANSWER: b 9. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of indirect functional assessment methods? a. they are relatively easy to conduct b. they do not require a lot of time c. interview formats and questionnaires are available d. they rely on the memory of informants ANSWER: d 10. Which of the following questions could be asked in an indirect functional assessment method to obtain information about the antecedents of the behavior? a. when does the behavior occur b. what happens after the behavior c. what events precede the behavior d. A and C ANSWER: d 11. What question in an indirect functional assessment method might be asked to generate information about the consequences of a behavior? a. what do other people do when the behavior occurs b. what happens before the behavior occurs c. what changes precede the occurrence of the behavior d. all of these ANSWER: a 12. Direct observation and indirect methods of functional assessment are used to: a. develop a hypothesis about antecedents and consequences of a behavior b. manipulate antecedents and consequences of a behavior c. gather information on the three-term contingency d. A and C ANSWER: d 13. A teacher is working with a child who frequently engages in fighting with other children on the playground. The teacher observes and records the events that immediately precede and follow the child’s behavior of fighting. Which method of conducting a functional assessment is the teacher using? a. functional analysis

b. direct observation c. indirect methods d. experimental manipulation ANSWER: b 14. Which of the following is NOT true concerning direct observation methods of functional assessment? a. the observer can be the person exhibiting the behavior b. observation and recording take place in the natural environment c. the information obtained demonstrates a functional relationship d. information is likely to be more accurate than information from indirect methods ANSWER: c 15. A parent is trying to decrease the frequency of a child’s swearing behavior. The parent observes the child and writes down a description of the behavior, antecedents, and consequences each time the child swears. In this example, the parent is using the ____________ method of ABC observation. a. indirect b. checklist c. interval recording d. descriptive ANSWER: d 16. Which method of ABC observation is typically used after the behavior, antecedents, and consequences have already been identified? a. checklist method b. descriptive method c. interval recording method d. A and C ANSWER: d 17. Which of the following is referred to as a descriptive assessment, due to the fact that antecedents and consequences are described rather than manipulated? a. indirect methods b. direct observation c. experimental analysis d. A and B ANSWER: d 18. A psychologist is trying to determine why Paul frequently hits his younger brother. The psychologist forms a hypothesis that teasing by his brother and attention from his Mom influence Paul’s hitting behavior. The psychologist then arranges conditions in which these environmental variables are either present or absent to determine their effect on Paul’s hitting behavior. Which functional assessment method is the psychologist using? a. direct observation b. functional analysis c. ABC observation d. indirect methods ANSWER: b

19. Which of the following is true concerning the use of experimental methods in conducting a functional assessment? a. a functional relationship can be demonstrated b. antecedents and consequences are not manipulated c. an A-B design is typically used to demonstrate a functional relationship d. all of these ANSWER: a 20. When is it necessary to conduct a functional analysis? a. when information from interviews and ABC observations is consistent b. when information from interviews and direct observations leads to a clear hypothesis c. to show a functional relationship between behavior, antecedents, and consequences d. all of these ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following is an essential feature of a functional analysis? a. accurate recording of behavior in the experimental conditions b. manipulating antecedents and consequences while holding other variables constant c. repeating experimental conditions to demonstrate experimental control over behavior d. all of these ANSWER: d 22. Which functional assessment method(s) demonstrates a functional relationship? a. interview b. functional analysis c. A-B-C observation d. all of these ANSWER: b 23. When a problem behavior is reinforced by attention, this is an example of: a. social negative reinforcement b. automatic positive reinforcement c. social positive reinforcement d. automatic negative reinforcement ANSWER: c 24. When a problem behavior is reinforced by a teacher terminating a task, this is an example of: a. social negative reinforcement b. automatic positive reinforcement c. social positive reinforcement d. automatic negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 25. When an autistic child engages in repetitive tapping of his pencil and this behavior is reinforced by the sound of the pencil hitting the table, this is an example of: a. social negative reinforcement b. automatic positive reinforcement

c. social positive reinforcement d. automatic negative reinforcement ANSWER: b 26. When a person engages in a problem behavior (taking drugs) and this behavior is reinforced by decreasing tension or anxiety that the person is feeling, this is an example of: a. social negative reinforcement b. automatic positive reinforcement c. social positive reinforcement d. automatic negative reinforcement ANSWER: d 27. The term functional analysis is synonymous with (means the same as): a. functional assessment b. experimental analysis c. descriptive analysis d. A and B ANSWER: b 28. If a child engages in a problem behavior in a store (e.g., a tantrum) and the parent gives the child candy, the child is more likely to engage in problem behavior in the store. This is an example of: a. automatic positive reinforcement b. social positive reinforcement c. automatic negative reinforcement d. social negative reinforcement ANSWER: b 29. If student lies to his teacher about being sick and the teacher lets the student out of doing his class project, the student is more likely to lie about being sick when a class project is due. This is an example of: a. automatic positive reinforcement b. social positive reinforcement c. automatic negative reinforcement d. social negative reinforcement ANSWER: d 30. If a person strums his guitar a certain way and it makes a great sound, the person is more likely to strum the guitar that way again. His is an example of: a. automatic positive reinforcement b. social positive reinforcement c. automatic negative reinforcement d. social negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 31. A functional assessment involves the identification of what variables? ___________ ANSWER: ABCs 32. Respondent behavior is controlled by ___________ stimuli and operant behavior is controlled by ___________ and

___________.

ANSWER: antecedent; antecedents; consequences 33. Interviews and questionnaires are examples of ___________ assessment methods.

ANSWER: indirect 34. Manipulation of antecedents and consequences is involved in ___________.

ANSWER: functional analysis 35. When an observer records the three-term-contingency, this is called ___________.

ANSWER: ABC observation 36. Direct observation assessment is also referred to as ___________.

ANSWER: ABC observation 37. In direct assessment, it is important for the observer to be present in the client’s ___________ when the problem behavior is most likely to occur.

ANSWER: natural environment 38. Experimental methods, also known as ___________ analysis, or ___________ analysis.

ANSWER: experimental, functional; functional, experimental 39. A functional analysis demonstrates a ___________ between the antecedents/consequences and the problem behavior.

ANSWER: functional relationship 40. If a problem behavior is reinforced by attention, it is an example of ___________________ positive reinforcement.

ANSWER: social 41. If a problem behavior produces stimulation that is reinforcing, this is an example of _______________________ positive reinforcement.

ANSWER: automatic 42. A functional assessment should be conducted prior to treatment for a problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 43. A treatment plan can be derived from a functional assessment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 44. Behavior is lawful. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

45. Functional assessments tell you the antecedents and consequences that maintain a problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. Indirect assessment methods are the least commonly used. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. When conducting an interview, it is important to rely on inferences made by the informant. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 48. The person exhibiting the problem behavior cannot conduct a direct observation assessment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 49. A functional analysis is actually a brief experiment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. Indirect assessment involves interviews and questionnaires. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 51. Direct observation assessment demonstrates a functional relationship between the problem behavior and the antecedents and consequences. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 52. You have just conducted a functional assessment for Larry’s problem behaviors of hitting, screaming and kicking.

You hypothesize that when Larry’s dad is busy and Larry throws a tantrum, his dad reinforces his problem behaviors by sitting down and talking with him. What would you do to determine your hypothesis is correct?

ANSWER: I would run two conditions of a functional analysis. One condition in which when Larry’s dad is busy, and Larry throws a tantrum, his dad reinforces his problem behavior by sitting down and talking with him. The other condition would be one in which Larry’s dad provides frequent attention, and if Larry throws a tantrum, his dad continues to work and does not reinforce his problem behavior by sitting down and talking with him.

53. What is an advantage and a disadvantage of indirect assessment methods?

ANSWER: Advantages of indirect assessment methods are that they are easy to conduct and do not require a substantial amount of time. Disadvantages of indirect assessment methods are that the informants must rely on their memory of the events, thus information may be incorrect as a result of forgetting or memory biases.

54. Provide 3 questions that can generate information about the antecedents and consequences of a problem behavior.

ANSWER: Antecedents: When does the problem behavior usually occur?

Where does the problem usually occur?

Who is present when the problem occurs?

What activities or events precede the occurrence of the problem behavior?

Consequences: What happens after the problem occurs?

What do you do when the problem occurs?

What do other people do when the problem occurs?

What changes after the problem occurs?

55. List and describe the 3 ways to conduct an ABC observation.

ANSWER: Descriptive method in which the observer writes a brief description of the behavior and of each antecedent and consequent event each time the behavior occurs. Checklist method involves a checklist with columns for possible antecedents, behaviors, and consequences. Interval recording method involves you dividing an observation period into brief intervals of time and marking a data sheet at the end of each interval to record whether or not the behavior occurred in that interval.

56. What are descriptive assessments?

ANSWER: Descriptive assessment methods (interview, and observation) document all antecedent and consequence events that were observed in conjunction with a problem behavior, but do not demonstrate a functional relationship between the antecedents/consequences and the problem behavior because the antecedents and/or consequences are not manipulated.

57. Identify and describe three methods for conducting a functional assessment of a problem behavior.

ANSWER: The three major methods for conducting a functional assessment of a problem behavior are as follows: Indirect assessment methods - information is gathered from retrospective reports from the individual exhibiting the problem behavior (the client) or from others who know the individual well.

Direct observation methods - an individual observes and records the antecedents and consequences of the problem behavior each time it occurs.

Experimental methods - antecedent and/or consequent variables are manipulated to demonstrate their influence on the problem behavior.

1. Terminating reinforcement for a behavior so that the behavior decreases is referred to as: a. antecedent control b. punishment c. negative reinforcement d. extinction ANSWER: d 2. Which of the following is NOT involved in the use of extinction? a. eliminating the reinforcer that is maintaining the behavior b. implementing punishment to decrease the behavior c. identifying the reinforcer that is maintaining the behavior d. data collection in all relevant situations ANSWER: b 3. Extinction involves: a. providing negative reinforcers for the behavior b. providing punishers for the behavior c. withholding the reinforcer for the behavior d. A and C ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following is necessary in order to determine the effects of extinction? a. a rough estimate of the behavior before treatment b. data collection limited to the treatment setting c. a baseline assessment d. a label for the problem behavior ANSWER: c 5. Which of the following is NOT a reason for collecting data on the problem behavior when using extinction? a. to demonstrate change in the behavior following treatment b. to determine the level of behavior before treatment c. to identify aversive stimuli that can be used to decrease the behavior d. to assess maintenance of behavior change ANSWER: c 6. Conducting a functional assessment is an important step in the use of extinction, because it will allow you to identify the: a. antecedents and consequences of the behavior b. unconditioned responses c. punisher to use for the behavior d. all of these ANSWER: a 7. You identify the reinforcer to withhold in an extinction procedure by first conducting a: a. task analysis b. functional assessment

c. scatter plot assessment d. B and C ANSWER: b 8. A problem behavior can be maintained by all of the following except: a. the presentation or removal of a stimulus event b. the behavior of another person c. an antecedent event d. a change in a physical stimulus ANSWER: c 9. Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the use of extinction? a. maintaining consistency b. ability to tolerate an extinction burst c. eliminating the reinforcer for the behavior d. presenting the reinforcer for the behavior ANSWER: d 10. Extinction should only be implemented when: a. it is unsafe to eliminate the reinforcer b. punishment has been ineffective c. the change agent controls the reinforcer d. all of these ANSWER: c 11. In an extinction burst: a. the behavior may increase in frequency, intensity, or duration b. novel behaviors may occur c. emotional behaviors may occur d. all of these ANSWER: d 12. The increase in the problem behavior at first when extinction is used is referred to as: a. generalization b. an extinction burst c. spontaneous recovery d. behavioral escalation ANSWER: b 13. Which of the following is (are) true concerning an extinction burst? a. the behavior increases in frequency, duration, and intensity b. novel and emotional behaviors may occur c. it is a permanent change in behavior d. A and B ANSWER: d

14. When there is a possibility of an extinction burst, you should determine whether: a. punishment can be implemented for novel behaviors b. the extinction burst is desirable c. the change agent can withhold the reinforcer d. A and C ANSWER: c 15. Extinction of a problem behavior will be more rapid when the behavior had been reinforced on a(an) ____________ reinforcement schedule. a. fixed interval b. continuous c. variable interval d. intermittent ANSWER: b 16. A problem behavior will be more resistant to extinction when the behavior has been maintained on a(an) ____________ reinforcement schedule. a. intermittent b. continuous c. concurrent d. negative ANSWER: a 17. Extinction of a problem behavior will be more gradual when the behavior was reinforced on a ___________ schedule. a. intermittent b. continuous c. concurrent d. negative ANSWER: a 18. A problem behavior will be less resistant to extinction when it is reinforced on a ______________ schedule prior to extinction. a. fixed interval b. continuous c. variable interval d. intermittent ANSWER: b 19. An extinction procedure should always be used in conjunction with: a. behavioral skills training b. a punishment procedure c. respondent conditioning d. a reinforcement procedure ANSWER: d 20. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of extinction and reinforcement together? a. the problem behavior decreases

b. the probability of spontaneous recovery decreases c. extinction is generally more effective when it is used alone d. alternative behavior increases ANSWER: c 21. When the problem behavior no longer occurs in all relevant circumstances following extinction, ___________ is said to have occurred. a. discrimination b. fading c. shaping d. generalization ANSWER: d 22. The continued change in the problem behavior following the use of extinction is referred to as: a. generalization b. maintenance c. spontaneous recovery d. chaining ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following is NOT true concerning sensory extinction? a. it is used when the reinforcer for the behavior is social b. it is used when the reinforcer involves sensory stimulation c. it involves changing or eliminating sensory stimulation d. it has been used with children with autism and developmental disabilities ANSWER: a 24. A teacher decides to use extinction on a child’s behavior of complaining when he is asked to work on assignments.

The teacher conducts a functional assessment to determine which events might be maintaining the behavior. In this case the teacher is considering whether she can: a. eliminate the reinforcer b. maintain consistency c. identify the reinforcer d. tolerate an extinction burst ANSWER: c 25. A teacher determines that Mark frequently fights with other children, because his friends praise him when he fights.

The teacher would like to use extinction on his behavior, but she has no control over how Mark’s friends react to his fighting. Which consideration in the use of extinction is being addressed? a. ability to maintain consistency b. ability to eliminate the reinforcer c. whether it is safe to use extinction d. whether an extinction burst is tolerable ANSWER: b 26. A parent is considering the use of extinction on her child’s tantrum behavior. Before she begins to use extinction, the parent considers whether she can handle the initial increase in the behavior that may occur. In this example, the parent is

considering her ability to: a. maintain consistency b. identify the reinforcer c. tolerate an extinction burst d. A and B ANSWER: c 27. Tommy’s parents used extinction to decrease his behavior of crying when he had to eat vegetables by making him eat them despite his crying. When Tommy is going to be with his grandparents or a babysitter, his parents tell them to make sure Tommy eats his vegetables even if he cries. Which consideration in the use of extinction is being addressed? a. eliminating a reinforcer b. maintaining consistency c. whether it is safe to use extinction d. ability to tolerate an extinction burst ANSWER: b 28. Two year old Roscoe pushes the off button on the remote control while the family is watching TV and the family gets upset and scolds him. He continues to push the off button on the remote when they are watching TV. How would the family use extinction in this case? a. grab the remote from him before he can hit the off button b. refrain from getting upset and scolding him when he pushes the off button c. take away a favorite toy when he pushes the off button d. A and B ANSWER: b 29. The snack machine is broken so that people can get all of the snacks that are lined up in a row after they put their money in the machine for an item. How would you use extinction for stealing items from this snack machine? a. have a person observe who steals and make them pay for all the items they steal b. turn off the machine so that people cannot use it any longer c. fix the machine so people can only get the item they pay for d. B and C ANSWER: c 30. If a behavior is maintained by social positive reinforcement, extinction will involve a. terminating sensory stimulation for the behavior b. no longer delivering the reinforcer when the behavior occurs c. no longer terminating the aversive stimulus when the behavior occurs d. providing attention for desirable behavior ANSWER: b 31. To use extinction, you must eliminate the ___________ that is maintaining the problem behavior.

ANSWER: reinforcer 32. You conduct a(n) ___________________________ to identify the reinforcer maintaining the problem behavior before using extinction.

ANSWER: functional assessment

33. When the problem behavior is maintained by a(n) ANSWER: continuous reinforcement

schedule, extinction will be more rapid.

34. The problem behavior will decrease less rapidly during extinction if it was maintained by a(n) ___________ schedule prior to extinction.

ANSWER: intermittent reinforcement 35. An extinction procedure should be used in conjunction with a(n) ___________ procedure.

ANSWER: reinforcement 36. When an extinction procedure is used, the behavior will ____________________________ in the future.

ANSWER: decrease 37. Ignoring the target behavior will function as an extinction procedure if ____________________________ is the reinforcer maintaining the behavior.

ANSWER: attention 38. When extinction is implemented, the target behavior may temporarily increase in frequency, duration, or intensity.

This is known as a(n) ______________________________.

ANSWER: extinction burst 39. __________________________ is a procedure that involves removing the sensory reinforcer maintaining the target behavior in an attempt to decrease the target behavior.

ANSWER: sensory extinction 40. If a target behavior is maintained by negative reinforcement, extinction involves __________________________ escape from the aversive stimulus when the problem behavior occurs.

ANSWER: eliminating 41. Extinction should only be considered when all else has failed to decrease a problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 42. Assuming a particular reinforcer is maintaining a problem behavior is usually necessary. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 43. A behavior may serve different functions in different contexts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 44. Extinction is by far the easiest behavior modification procedure to use. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 45. There are problem behaviors in which the change agent has no control over the reinforcer, making extinction impossible to be used. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. It is always safe to remove the reinforcer for a problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. Behaviors maintained by an intermittent reinforcement schedule are resistant to extinction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. Extinction is more rapid following continuous reinforcement. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. When a problem behavior is maintained by escape, extinction involves preventing escape following the problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. When a problem behavior is maintained by escape, extinction involves ignoring the problem behavior a. True b. False ANSWER: False 51. Define extinction and provide an example.

ANSWER: Extinction is the elimination of the reinforcing consequences for a behavior resulting in a decrease in the frequency of the behavior in the future. For example, it was determined that Johnny engages in the problem behavior of screaming in order to get attention from others. When, as treatment for the behavior, those in his environment withheld attention when Johnny screamed, the screaming gradually decreased and eventually stopped altogether.

52. Sally whines for candy every time she is at the grocery store with mom. Sally’s mom gets sick of listening to the whining and usually ends up buying Sally a candy bar. What is the reinforcer for Sally’s whining? How should her mom implement extinction to decrease Sally’s whining in the store?

ANSWER: The reinforcer for Sally’s whining is a candy bar. To implement extinction, her mother would need to not give Sally candy when Sally whines in the grocery store.

53. Jesse is constantly going into mom’s purse to get gum. Mom finds this behavior annoying and inappropriate and

decides if she ignores Jesse the behavior will stop. What is most likely to happen to Jesse’s purse rummaging behavior?

What would you tell Jesse’s mother to do to eliminate this behavior?

ANSWER: Jesse is most likely going to continue to rummage in his mother’s purse for gum. To eliminate Jesse rummaging in his mother’s purse, his mother would need to stop carrying gum in her purse so that Jesse’s behavior would not be reinforced.

54. Jeremy hits his little sister in order to get mom’s attention. When this happens, mom sets Jeremy aside and gives him a long explanation of why he shouldn’t hit his sister. Jeremy continues to hit his sister. Is extinction a good procedure to use in this case? Why or why not?

ANSWER: In this example, extinction would not be a good procedure to use because Jeremy’s mom is not able to protect Jeremy’s sister from being hit. If she wanted to continue to use extinction, mom would need to make certain that Jeremy’s sister would not continue to be hit.

55. What is sensory extinction? When would you use a sensory extinction procedure?

ANSWER: Sensory extinction involves a change in or elimination of the sensory stimulation that reinforces the behavior.

You would use a sensory extinction procedure when a functional analysis has been done and it was found that the behavior is being maintained by an automatic positive reinforcer (sensory reinforcer).

1. Bobby’s Mom is trying to increase the number of times that Bobby shares his toys with his younger brother. When Bobby shares his toys, his Mom praises Bobby and plays with him, but when Bobby refuses to share his toys his Mom does not praise him or play with him. As a result, Bobby increases the number of times he shares his toys with his younger brother. This is an example of: a. DRO b. shaping c. DRL d. DRA ANSWER: d 2. DRA involves using ____________ for desirable behaviors and ___________ for undesirable behaviors. a. reinforcement; extinction b. reinforcement; punishment c. extinction; reinforcement d. extinction; punishment ANSWER: a 3. Which of the following conditions is(are) necessary in order for DRA to be used? a. the goal is to increase desirable behavior b. you have access to a reinforcer you can use c. the behavior already occurs d. all of these ANSWER: d 4. Matthew frequently screams when he wants attention from his Mom. In order to decrease Matthew’s screaming behavior, his Mom does not pay attention to him when he screams. When Matthew quietly asks for attention, his behavior is reinforced with attention from his Mom. Which differential reinforcement procedure is Matthew’s Mom using? a. DRL b. DRO c. DRH d. DRA ANSWER: d 5. When using a DRA procedure, the alternative behavior must: a. be functionally equivalent to the problem behavior b. require more response effort than the problem behavior c. be reinforced on an intermittent reinforcement schedule d. A and C ANSWER: a 6. The amount of effort required to engage in the alternative behavior together with the schedule of reinforcement for the alternative behavior is referred to as: a. response cost b. response efficiency c. an establishing operation d. a behavioral contingency ANSWER: b

7. Which type of differential reinforcement is most likely to lead to an increase in an alternative behavior? a. DRO b. DRL c. DRM d. DRA ANSWER: d 8. An individual with mental retardation frequently engages in aggressive behavior when he wants a break from a task at work. When he engages in aggressive behavior, he is required to continue working on the task, but if he asks for a break his behavior is reinforced with a break from the task. Which variation of DRA is being used in this example? a. DRL b. DRI c. DRO d. Functional communication training ANSWER: d 9. Mary frequently blurts out answers to questions without waiting to be called on because she likes attention from the teacher. When Mary raises her hand, the teacher calls on her, but when Mary blurts out an answer the teacher ignores her and calls on another student. As a result, Mary’s behavior of raising her hand increases, and her behavior of blurting out answers decreases. The teacher used ____________ for Mary’s behavior of raising her hand and ____________ for her behavior of blurting out answers. a. reinforcement ; extinction b. reinforcement ; punishment c. extinction ; punishment d. extinction ; reinforcement ANSWER: a 10. How can a reinforcer for an individual be identified? a. ask the individual b. observe the individual c. test potential reinforcers d. all of these ANSWER: d 11. In order for differential reinforcement to be most effective, the desirable behavior should be reinforced: a. immediately b. intermittently c. randomly d. A and B ANSWER: a 12. Julie’s parents used DRA at home in order to get Julie to increase her behavior of speaking clearly and reduce her behavior of mumbling. As a result, Julie now speaks clearly at home, at school, and at church. Julie’s behavior of speaking clearly is said to have ____________ to other relevant stimulus situations. a. expanded b. generalized

c. transferred d. broadened ANSWER: b 13. When a desirable behavior results in escape or avoidance of an aversive stimulus, it is referred to as differential: a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. positive punishment ANSWER: a 14. Differential reinforcement of a low probability behavior with the opportunity to engage in a high probability behavior is referred to as: a. conditioning b. characteristics of the consequence c. an establishing operation d. the Premack principle ANSWER: d 15. The desirable and undesirable behaviors involved in differential reinforcement have schedules of reinforcement that exist at the same time. Behaviors that have reinforcement schedules existing at the same time are referred to as: a. concurrent operants b. overlapping behaviors c. simultaneous operants d. interfering behaviors ANSWER: a 16. Which of the following is NOT a type of differential reinforcement? a. DRO b. DRA c. DRL d. DRB ANSWER: d 17. A parent is trying to decrease a child’s swearing behavior. For every hour that the child goes without swearing, the parent reinforces the absence of swearing by reading to the child. If the child swears, the parent does not give the child attention and the child has to wait another hour for a story. Which differential reinforcement procedure is the parent using? a. DRA b. DRL c. DRO d. DRI ANSWER: c 18. In order to implement DRO successfully you need to: a. deliver the reinforcer when the alternative behavior occurs b. deliver the reinforcer for the absence of the problem behavior

c. deliver the punisher when the problem behavior occurs d. A and C ANSWER: b 19. Which of the following is NOT a strategy used in identifying the reinforcer to use in the DRO procedure? a. experimental manipulation of potential reinforcers b. observing individuals to determine their preferences c. selecting a stimulus that is reinforcing for most people d. choosing the reinforcer that is maintaining the problem behavior ANSWER: c 20. The initial time interval that is selected for the DRO procedure should be: a. one that is challenging for the individual to meet b. based on the baseline rate of the behavior c. long enough so that it does not have to be adjusted d. all of these ANSWER: b 21. At what point during the implementation of DRO is the time interval increased? a. when the problem behavior continues to occur at a high level b. when the reinforcer is being delivered after most intervals c. the time interval is not increased in DRO d. A and B ANSWER: b 22. What is the result if the problem behavior occurs during the DRO interval? a. the reinforcer is delivered b. the interval length is increased c. the interval for the reinforcer is reset d. B and C ANSWER: c 23. A teacher is trying to decrease a child’s screaming behavior. If the child does not scream for an entire 30-minute interval, the absence of screaming is reinforced with attention from the teacher. Which differential reinforcement procedure is the teacher using? a. momentary DRO b. full-session DRL c. whole-interval DRO d. DRA ANSWER: c 24. In which DRO variation is the reinforcer delivered when the problem behavior is absent at the end of the interval? a. whole-interval DRO b. spaced-responding DRO c. partial DRO d. momentary DRO

ANSWER: d 25. Which of the following will increase the effectiveness of DRO? a. delivering the reinforcer when the behavior is absent only at the end of the interval b. delivering the reinforcer when the behavior is absent for the entire interval c. selecting an initial interval length longer than the baseline rate of the behavior d. B and C ANSWER: b 26. Mary’s parents are trying to decrease the number of times that she feeds the family dog during the day. Mary’s parents set a criterion level for the maximum number of times that she can feed the dog in a day, and if Mary achieves this level she gets a story read to her at bedtime. Which type of differential reinforcement are Mary’s parents using? a. DRO b. DRA c. DRL d. DRC ANSWER: c 27. Nicole’s parents are trying to decrease the number of phone calls that she makes in a day. If Nicole makes fewer than 5 calls in a day, she is allowed to have a friend over the next day. In which DRL variation is the reinforcer delivered if the number of responses that occur in a period of time is less than a specified level. a. full-session DRL b. spaced-responding DRL c. whole-interval DRL d. response DRL ANSWER: a 28. Tommy is frequently asking his parents questions, and they want to decrease his behavior to an acceptable level.

Tommy’s parents tell him that they will answer a question only if it has been at least 10 minutes since his last question. If Tommy asks a question before the 10-minute interval is up, his parents do not reinforce his behavior with an answer to the question? Which DRL variation are Tommy’s parents using? a. full-session DRL b. interval DRL c. spaced-responding DRL d. secondary DRL ANSWER: c 29. How do the procedures of whole-interval DRO and spaced-responding DRL differ? a. DRO reinforces absence of behavior and DRL reinforces decreased rate of behavior b. DRO resets the interval if the behavior occurs but DRL does not c. DRO is used to decrease behavior and DRL is used to eliminate behavior d. A and B ANSWER: a 30. When you are most interested in decreasing the overall rate of a behavior you should use ____________ DRL, but if the timing of the behavior is most important you should use ____________ DRL. a. full-session; spaced-responding

b. spaced-responding; full-session c. response; delay d. whole-interval; momentary ANSWER: a 31. The two principles involved in DRA are ___________ and ___________.

ANSWER: reinforcement, extinction 32. Three ways to identify an appropriate reinforcer are ___________, ___________, and ___________.

ANSWER: ask, observe, test 33. To program for generalization with DRA, the ___________ should be differentially reinforced in as many relevant situations as possible and by as many relevant people as possible.

ANSWER: alternative behavior 34. In a DRO procedure, the reinforcer is contingent on ___________.

ANSWER: the absence of the problem behavior 35. When identifying a reinforcer to use in a DRO procedure, one consequence event that will function as a reinforcer for the person is ___________.

ANSWER: reinforcer for the problem behavior 36. Sally is on a DRO 10 min. schedule for screaming. If after 5 min. Sally screams, what happens next? ______ ANSWER: the interval is reset 37. In the DRL procedure, you reinforce a(n) ___________ of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: lower rate 38. Reinforcement delivered when fewer than a specified number of responses occurs in a period of time is referred to as ___________ DRL. ANSWER: full-session; full session 39. If you are trying to get a child with intellectual disability to drink his milk slower and you want 10 sec. to elapse between each gulp, then ___________ DRL is most appropriate.

ANSWER: spaced responding 40. In a DRA procedure, when the alternative behavior results in the same reinforcer as the problem behavior, we say that the alternative behavior is ___________ to the problem behavior.

ANSWER: functionally equivalent 41. The alternative behavior in a DRA procedure should require ___________ response effort than the problem behavior.

ANSWER: less 42. Identify the examples below as DRO, DRA, or DRL. ___________ Tony, a four year old boy, frequently squirmed in church and disrupted the people sitting near him. Dad decided to use differential reinforcement. When they first got to church, Dad told Tony if he didn’t squirm, he could earn stickers. Once church started, Dad gave Tony a sticker after every 10 minutes that he did not squirm.

___________ Mary was supposed to do her homework at the kitchen table in the evening. Frequently Mary talked to Mom while she was supposed to be studying. Mom usually talked to Mary for a few minutes each time Mary spoke to her. Mom decided on a plan to get Mary to talk less while studying. Whenever Mary was studying, Mom would praise her, but when Mary tried to talk to Mom, Mom would walk out of the room without responding to Mary. ___________ Claire, a woman with intellectual disability working in a workshop, got up and went to the bathroom 5 or 6 times each morning and 5 or 6 times each afternoon. She recently had a physical, so there was no medical problem. The supervisor implemented a program in which Claire earned a token if she went to the bathroom no more than 2 times in the morning and not more than 2 times in the afternoon. She later traded her tokens in for back-up reinforcers.

ANSWER: DRO; DRA; DRL 43. DRA is an effective way to increase a desirable behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 44. It is not necessary to define both the desirable and the undesirable behaviors when using DRA a. True b. False ANSWER: False 45. The same reinforcers will be effective for most people. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 46. Utilizing the same reinforcer that is maintaining an undesirable behavior is an effective way to increase a desirable behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 47. Continuous reinforcement should be used throughout the process of using DRA. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 48. In the DRO procedure, you reinforce other behavior to take the place of the problem behavior you want to decrease. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 49. Extinction of the problem behavior is a component of the DRO procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

50. DRO intervals should be gradually shortened over time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 51. Momentary DRO procedures are more effective than whole interval DRO procedures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 52. In spaced responding DRL, the reinforcer is delivered for the absence of a behavior after a time interval has passed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 53. In a DRA procedure, starting with a continuous schedule of reinforcement for the alternative behavior works best. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 54. What is the difference between spaced responding DRL and DRO? ANSWER: DRO is used when you want to eliminate a problem behavior and spaced responding DRL is used when you want to decrease the rate of a behavior that occurs too frequently.

55. What happens in a DRA procedure?

ANSWER: DRA is the application of reinforcement and extinction to increase the occurrence of a desirable target behavior while decreasing the occurrence of behaviors that interfere with the target behavior.

56. What is the difference between a whole interval DRO procedure and a momentary DRO procedure?

ANSWER: In the whole interval DRO procedure, the problem behavior must be absent for the whole interval for the reinforcer to be delivered. In momentary DRO, the problem behavior must be absent at the end of the interval for the reinforcer to be delivered.

57. Jeff is a boy with autism who grabs and squeezes his face when the teacher asks him to complete a task. The teacher allows Jeff to leave the room when this occurs because he will stop hurting himself. After 5 minutes, Jeff usually returns to the classroom and completes at least some of the requested task. Describe how you would implement a DRA procedure to increase Jeff’s completing schoolwork and decrease his self injurious behavior.

ANSWER: I would teach Jeff to ask for a break. Then whenever Jeff asks for a break, his asking will be reinforced by being allowed to leave the room and take a break. If however, Jeff squeezes his face, he would not be allowed to leave the room and take a break.

58. Provide an example of full session DRL. ANSWER: An example of full session DRL is if Jacob raises his hand no more than 3 times per class period, the teacher calls on him as a reinforcer. Note that Jacob can raise his hand 3 times at any point in the interval and still be called on, as long as he does not raise his hand more than 3 times.

59. Provide an example of DRO. ANSWER: An example of DRO is Aimee is given a sticker as a reinforcer at the end of every ten minutes in which she does not talk out in class.

1. The manipulation of antecedent stimuli to increase the probability of desirable behavior and decrease the probability of competing behavior is referred to as: a. respondent conditioning b. antecedent control procedures c. shaping d. chaining ANSWER: b 2. Antecedent control procedures are used along with ___________ so that desired behaviors are more likely to occur and competing behaviors are less likely to occur. a. punishment b. differential reinforcement c. chaining d. shaping ANSWER: b 3. Antecedent control procedures involve the manipulation of: a. discriminative stimuli and cues b. establishing operations c. response effort d. all of these ANSWER: d 4. Presenting the discriminative stimulus and cues for a behavior make the behavior ____________ likely to occur, and removing the discriminative stimulus and cues for the behavior make the behavior ____________ likely to occur. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: a 5. A behavior that requires ____________ response effort is more likely to occur than a behavior that requires ____________ response effort. a. less; more b. more; less c. less; less d. more; more ANSWER: a 6. The presence of an establishing operation makes the consequence of a behavior ____________, and the presence of an abolishing operation makes the consequence of a behavior ____________. a. more reinforcing; less reinforcing b. less reinforcing; more reinforcing c. more punishing; less punishing d. aversive; desirable ANSWER: a

7. Antecedent control procedures are used when: a. the goal is to increase a desirable behavior b. the goal is to decrease competing behaviors c. a behavior is already in the person’s repertoire d. all of these ANSWER: d 8. When identifying and defining the desirable and competing behaviors you need to determine whether you can: a. reduce the response effort for the desired behavior b. decrease the response effort for the competing behaviors c. increase the response effort for the desired behavior d. A and B ANSWER: a 9. Analyzing antecedent situations related to the desired and competing behaviors involves identifying: a. the discriminative stimulus and cues for each behavior b. the reinforcers for each behavior c. the distinguishing stimulus for each behavior d. all of these ANSWER: a 10. Bill wants to increase the amount of water that he drinks each day, so he keeps a filled water bottle on his desk at work. Bill also sets his watch to beep every hour to remind him to take a drink of water. Which antecedent control strategy is Bill using to increase his desired behavior of drinking water? a. removing the discriminative stimulus and cues b. presenting the discriminative stimulus and cues c. arranging establishing operations d. increasing response effort ANSWER: b 11. When Matt goes to bed at night he is unable to fall asleep because he usually takes a nap in the evening. Matt stops taking naps so that he is able to get more sleep at night. Which antecedent control strategy is Matt using to increase his desired behavior of getting more sleep at night? a. arranging establishing operations b. presenting the discriminative stimulus c. decreasing response effort d. removing the discriminative stimulus ANSWER: a 12. Nicole wants to increase the amount of exercise that she gets. Nicole purchases a treadmill so that she will not have to drive all the way across town to exercise at the health club. Having a treadmill in her home so that she exercises more often is an example of: a. decreasing response effort b. increasing response effort c. arranging establishing operations d. eliminating establishing operations ANSWER: a

13. Bill wants to increase the amount of water that he drinks each day, but is having difficulty because he drinks too much pop instead. Bill gets rid of all the pop in his apartment and no longer goes down the pop aisle in the supermarket.

Removing the pop and avoiding the pop aisle in the supermarket is an example of ____________ for his competing behavior. a. removing the discriminative stimulus and cues b. presenting the discriminative stimulus and cues c. decreasing response effort d. eliminating establishing operations ANSWER: a 14. Andrea wants to start eating a healthier diet, but she is having problems because she likes to eat junk food while studying. Andrea starts eating regular meals so that she is never hungry and less likely to want junk food. Eating regular meals in order to make junk food less desirable is an example of ____________ for competing behaviors. a. arranging an establishing operation b. presenting an abolishing operation c. increasing response effort d. removing the discriminative stimulus ANSWER: b 15. Paul wants to increase the amount of time he studies, but is having trouble because he usually ends up playing his favorite video game instead. Paul has his roommate hide the game so that, if he wants to play the game instead of studying, he will first have to spend a lot of time looking for it. This is an example of ____________ for competing behaviors. a. eliminating establishing operations b. arranging establishing operations c. decreasing response cost d. increasing response cost ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is NOT a functional approach to decrease problem behaviors? a. punishment b. extinction c. antecedent manipulations d. differential reinforcement ANSWER: a 17. Antecedent control procedures are said to be ____________ because they are based on information gathered through functional assessment, and involve altering the environmental variables that control a behavior. a. complex b. experimental c. functional d. environmental ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following is NOT manipulated in antecedent control procedures? a. reinforcers b. response effort

c. discriminative stimuli d. establishing operations ANSWER: a 19. A desirable behavior can be increased through the use of antecedent control procedures by ____________ for the desirable behavior. a. creating establishing operations b. removing the discriminative stimulus c. increasing response effort d. A and B ANSWER: a 20. Tony wants to decrease his behavior of smoking, so he gets rid of all the cigarettes in his home. Tony also gets rid of his ashtrays and cigarette lighter, and stops going to outdoor bars that are full of people who smoke. Which antecedent control strategy for decreasing a problem behavior is Tony using? a. arranging establishing operations b. removing establishing operations c. presenting the discriminative stimulus and cues d. removing the discriminative stimulus and cues ANSWER: d 21. Julie wants to replace drinking coffee with the alternative behavior of drinking water. Julie keeps a filled water bottle on her desk at work, and has her co-workers remind her to drink more water. In this example, Julie is using the antecedent control strategy of ____________ for desirable alternative behaviors. a. increasing response effort b. presenting the discriminative stimulus and cues c. arranging establishing operations d. eliminating establishing operations ANSWER: b 22. A student engages in disruptive behavior in the classroom in order to get attention from the teacher. In order to decrease the disruptive behavior, the teacher gives the student frequent attention so that receiving attention by engaging in disruptive behavior is less reinforcing. Which antecedent control strategy is the teacher using to decrease the student’s disruptive behavior? a. removing cues for the problem behavior b. decreasing response effort c. removing the discriminative stimulus d. presenting an abolishing operation ANSWER: d 23. Paul’s parents frequently give him money whenever he asks. When his parents offer to pay him to help out in the family business Paul is not interested, stating that he does not need the money. In order to make it more reinforcing to receive money for working, Paul’s parents stop giving him money whenever he asks. Which antecedent control strategy are Paul’s parents using? a. creating an establishing operation b. presenting the discriminative stimulus c. decreasing response effort d. removing the discriminative stimulus

ANSWER: a 24. When Eric is at home, he spends most of his time on the Internet instead of studying. Eric disconnects his Internet access at home, so that he has to go to the campus computer cluster in order to get on the Internet. Which antecedent control strategy involves making it more difficult to engage in the problem behavior? a. arranging establishing operations b. eliminating establishing operations c. decreasing response effort d. increasing response effort ANSWER: d 25. Pam wants to replace eating junk food with the alternative behavior of eating fruit. Pam makes sure that she always has fruit in her house, so that when she wants something to eat it is easy for her to have fruit. In addition, Pam buys fresh fruit because it does not require any preparation before eating. Which antecedent control strategy is Pam using? a. decreasing response effort b. increasing response effort c. removing the discriminative stimulus d. arranging establishing operations ANSWER: a 26. Antecedent control procedures are used when: a. punishment procedures have proven ineffective b. practical considerations make it impossible to manipulate antecedent events c. the change agent has control over relevant antecedent events d. all of these ANSWER: c 27. In behavior modification, an event that alters the value of a stimulus as a reinforcer is referred to as a (an): a. extinction burst b. three-term contingency c. discriminative stimulus d. motivating operation ANSWER: d 28. Presenting the SD, decreasing response effort, and presenting an establishing operation are ways to: a. make a behavior less likely b. make a behavior more likely c. both of these d. none of these ANSWER: b 29. Removing the SD, arranging abolishing operations, and increasing response effort are ways to: a. make a behavior less likely b. make a behavior more likely c. both of these d. none of these

ANSWER: a 30. When would you consider the use of antecedent control strategies? a. after you have found punishment procedures to be ineffective b. after you have conducted a functional assessment of the behavior to be modified c. when your goal is to increase or decrease a target behavior d. B and C ANSWER: d 31. Antecedent control procedures involve a change in the ___________ that evoke the occurrence of a problem behavior or the occurrence of competing behaviors to replace the problem behavior.

ANSWER: antecedents 32. To determine which antecedent control procedures to use in any given situation, it is helpful to understand the situation by analyzing the contingencies of reinforcement related to both the ___________ and ___________ behaviors.

ANSWER: desirable, competing problem 33. Antecedent control procedures involve a change in the antecedents that evoke the occurrence of a problem behavior or the occurrence of _________________________ to replace the problem behavior.

ANSWER: desirable behavior 34. To determine which antecedent control procedures to use in any given situation, it is helpful to understand the situation by analyzing the _______________________ related to both the problem behavior and competing behaviors.

ANSWER: three term contingency; 3 term contingency 35. Decreasing response effort for a behavior will make the behavior _______________ likely to occur.

ANSWER: more 36. Antecedent control procedures are often used in conjunction with ___________.

ANSWER: differential reinforcement 37. After choosing appropriate antecedent control procedures, you then ___________ the antecedents that are most likely to influence the behavior.

ANSWER: alter 38. Increasing response effort will make a behavior ____________ likely to occur.

ANSWER: less 39. Presenting the SD for a behavior will make the behavior ____________ likely to occur.

ANSWER: more 40. Presenting an EO for the outcome of the behavior will make the behavior ____________ likely to occur.

ANSWER: more 41. Antecedent manipulations involve the use of aversive procedures. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 42. Antecedent manipulation strategies are one of the more time consuming, effortful, and costly procedures to reduce the occurrence of a problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 43. If the establishing operation increases the value of the reinforcer for a desirable alternative behavior, the problem behavior is more likely to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 44. It is important to collect data before and after an antecedent manipulation procedure is used. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 45. It is not necessary to conduct a functional assessment when considering antecedent strategies. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 46. Decreasing response effort makes a behavior more likely to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 47. Presenting an SD for a behavior makes a behavior more likely to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. Antecedent control procedures are rarely used in combination with other procedures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 49. Extinction is an antecedent control procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 50. Extinction and differential reinforcement are used in conjunction with antecedent control procedures. a. True

b. False ANSWER: True 51. How are extinction, differential reinforcement and antecedent manipulations functional?

ANSWER: They are based on functional assessment information and alter the antecedent and consequence variables that control the problem behavior.

52. List 6 categories of antecedent manipulations that are used to both increase desirable behaviors and decrease problem behaviors.

ANSWER: Antecedent manipulations that are used to both increase desirable behaviors and decrease problem behaviors are: Eliminating the SD or cues for the problem behavior Providing the SD or cues for desirable alternative behaviors Arranging an abolishing operation for the reinforcer that is maintaining the problem behavior Creating or enhancing an establishing operation for the reinforcer that is maintaining desirable alternative behaviors Increasing response effort for the problem behavior Decreasing response effort for desirable alternative behaviors 53. Zach likes to sit in the back of the classroom so he can talk to his friend Elizabeth while the teacher is instructing. The teacher finds this behavior very disruptive. What would you do to eliminate the cues for Zach’s talking behavior?

ANSWER: Place Zach in the front of the room next to another student (not Elizabeth).

54. Mr. B has recently been told by the doctor that he needs to cut down on his intake of junk food. However, Mr. B’s kitchen cupboards and refrigerator are full of potato chips, candy bars, and ice cream. He also has 3 candy dishes set out all over the house. What would you tell Mr. B to do to increase the response effort for his eating junk food?

ANSWER: Get rid of the junk food in the house.

55. You are always finding excuses not to exercise. Identify 3 different steps you could take to increase your chances of exercising on a regular basis: How would you present the cues for exercising? How would you decrease response effort of exercising? How would you arrange an establishing operation for the outcome of exercising?

ANSWER: Keep a bag with exercise clothes handy (in car, by the door at home), plan to work out when you are already out (on the way to work or after work on the way home), plan to shower after the work out.

56. Judy wants to keep her apartment clean on a regular basis, however, she is often watching TV, talking on the phone or going to parties. Therefore, her apartment usually remains unkempt. What are the competing behaviors for Judy cleaning her apartment? To make these competing behaviors less likely to occur: How would you remove the discriminative stimulus? How would you present an abolishing operation? How would you increase response effort?

ANSWER: The competing behaviors are watching TV, talking on the telephone, and going to parties. To remove the discriminative stimulus, you could hide the remote for the TV, possibly hiding the telephone, and asking friends not to invite her out until her apartment is clean. To present an abolishing operation, you could have her watch 30 minutes of TV so she doesn’t want to watch any more, talk on the telephone for 15 minutes so she doesn’t feel like talking on the phone, and socializing with friends so that she won’t feel like going out.

To increase the response effort, you could hide the remote so it would take more effort to watch TV, hide the telephone so it would take more effort to talk on the telephone, and live farther away from friends so that going to parties is more effortful.

1. When a behavior occurs and is followed by a consequence that results in a decrease in the behavior in the future, it is referred to as: a. extinction b. antecedent control c. negative reinforcement d. punishment ANSWER: d 2. When a behavior occurs and is followed by the presentation of a stimulus that results in a decrease in the behavior in the future, it is referred to as: a. negative punishment b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. extinction ANSWER: b 3. When a behavior occurs and is followed by the removal of a stimulus that results in a decrease in the behavior in the future, it is referred to as: a. negative punishment b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. extinction ANSWER: a 4. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of punishment in behavior modification? a. it can involve the presentation of a stimulus event b. it typically involves the use of a painful stimulus c. its use can be controversial d. it can involve the removal of a stimulus event ANSWER: b 5. Punishment procedures are typically used ____________ functional nonaversive procedures. a. before b. after c. instead of d. A and C ANSWER: b 6. In behavior modification, an aversive stimulus is defined in terms of: a. how painful it is b. its effect on behavior c. how unpleasant it is d. all of these ANSWER: b 7. Negative punishment procedures involve the ____________ following the occurrence of a problem behavior. a. removal of an aversive stimulus

b. removal of a reinforcing stimulus c. presentation of a reinforcing stimulus d. presentation of an aversive event ANSWER: b 8. Positive punishment procedures involve the ____________ following the occurrence of a problem behavior. a. removal of an aversive stimulus b. removal of a reinforcing stimulus c. presentation of a reinforcing stimulus d. presentation of an aversive ANSWER: d 9. Which of the following is a negative punishment procedure? a. overcorrection b. guided compliance c. negative reinforcement d. response cost ANSWER: d 10. When Timmy hits his little brother while they are playing video games, his Mom removes him from the game and he has to sit in a chair by himself for five minutes. As a result, Timmy is less likely to hit his brother in the future. Which punishment procedure is involved in this example? a. time-out b. isolation c. overcorrection d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 11. Matthew gets upset and throws one of his toys against the wall. His Dad then removes him from the toy room and puts him in the hallway for a brief period of time. As a result, the probability of Matthew throwing his toys against the wall decreases. Which negative punishment procedure is Matthew’s Dad using with him? a. response cost b. restitution c. nonexclusionary time-out d. exclusionary time-out ANSWER: d 12. While coloring with other children, Sarah begins to use her crayons to mess up the other children’s pictures. Sarah is removed from the table for a brief period of time, and can only watch the other children coloring. In which punishment procedure does the individual remain in the room, but is removed from access to positive reinforcers? a. exclusionary time-out b. nonexclusionary time-out c. negative reinforcement d. response cost ANSWER: b 13. Nonexclusionary time-out is used when:

a. the individual’s continued presence in the room is disruptive to others b. access to positive reinforcers can be removed while the individual is in the room c. it is important to maintain interactions with the individual during the time-out d. A and C ANSWER: b 14. Nonexclusionary time-out is not used when a. the individual’s continued presence in the room is disruptive to others b. access to positive reinforcers can be removed while the individual is in the room c. participating in the activities in the classroom was reinforcing for the individual d. A and C ANSWER: a 15. Punishment procedures should be used in conjunction with ____________ procedures. a. chaining b. extinction c. shaping d. reinforcement ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of punishment in conjunction with DRA? a. an alternative behavior is reinforced b. the problem behavior will decrease c. the absence of the problem behavior is reinforced d. an alternative behavior will increase ANSWER: c 17. Which of the following occur(s) when DRO is used in conjunction with a punishment procedure? a. the absence of the problem behavior is reinforced b. an alternative behavior is reinforced c. the problem behavior increases d. A and B ANSWER: a 18. When a time-out procedure is used, the ____________ environment must consist of positively reinforcing activities or interactions. a. time-out b. time-in c. adjacent d. distal ANSWER: b 19. The complete name for time-out is: a. time-out for behavior reduction b. time-out from reinforcement c. time-out from positive reinforcement

d. time-out from reinforcing activities ANSWER: c 20. In order for time-out to be implemented, the time-out area should: a. contain positive reinforcers b. have a lock on the door to prevent escape c. be free from sharp or breakable objects d. all of these ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the use of time-out? a. is time-out practical in the circumstances? b. can interactions be maintained throughout the time-out period? c. can escape be prevented? d. is it safe to use time-out?

ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following is true concerning the time-out period? a. the time-out period should be brief b. the period is extended if the problem behavior is occurring at the end of the time-out c. there should be a delay between the behavior and removal from the environment d. A and B ANSWER: d 23. The extension of the time-out period when the individual is engaging in the problem behavior at the end of the timeout period is referred to as: a. contingent delay b. overcorrection c. response cost d. secondary time-out ANSWER: a 24. Nicole comes home past her curfew, and is not allowed to use the car for a week. As a result, Nicole no longer comes home past her curfew. Which punishment procedure is illustrated in this example? a. extinction b. time-out c. negative reinforcement d. response cost ANSWER: d 25. The procedures of extinction, response cost, and time-out are similar in that they all: a. are used to decrease problem behaviors b. involve removing the individual from access to reinforcement following the behavior c. involve removing the reinforcer that is maintaining the behavior d. all of these ANSWER: a

26. The use of response cost involves the consideration of: a. whether interactions can be avoided b. which reinforcer to remove and when the loss will occur c. whether escape can be prevented d. when the punishing stimulus will be presented ANSWER: b 27. Which of the following can be used in response cost procedures? a. activity punishers b. tangible reinforcers c. conditioned responses d. aversive stimuli ANSWER: b 28. Time-out should be used when: a. the reinforcer for the problem behavior is escape from a task b. the time-in environment is not reinforcing c. functional procedures have not been implemented d. none of these ANSWER: d 29. Time-out duration is typically a. less than 1 minute b. 1 to 10 minutes c. 10 to 20 minutes d. at least 20 minutes ANSWER: b 30. What behavioral principle(s) is involved in response cost? a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. negative punishment d. negative punishment and extinction ANSWER: c 31. If the problem behavior does not result in a loss of ___________, the time-out procedure will be ineffective.

ANSWER: positive reinforcement 32. Time-out is not appropriate to use with problem behaviors maintained by ___________ or ___________.

ANSWER: escape, sensory stimulation 33. Two common negative punishment procedures are ___________ and ___________.

ANSWER: time-out, response cost; time out, response cost 34. ___________ involves removal of a child from a reinforcing situation in which the child loses access to reinforcing

activities or interactions.

ANSWER: Time-out; Time out 35. In ______________________ time out, the child is taken to another room contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: exclusionary 36. In _______________________ time out, the child is moved to another part of the room contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: non-exclusionary 37. In __________________________, a specified amount of a reinforcer is removed contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: response cost 38. Time-out will be successful only if the time-in environment is _________________________.

ANSWER: positively reinforcing 39. Time-out is a _______________________ punishment procedure.

ANSWER: negative 40. Response cost is a ________________________ punishment procedure.

ANSWER: negative 41. Punishment procedures should be one of the first procedures considered to decrease problem behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 42. Whenever you use time-out, you should always incorporate a reinforcement procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 43. The “time-in” environment must be more reinforcing than the time-out environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 44. A time-out room should have a lock on the door so the client is unable to escape back to the reinforcing environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 45. Time-out should be brief. a. True b. False

ANSWER: True 46. Sitting down and talking with a child to prevent escape from time-out is acceptable. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. A differential reinforcement procedure should be used with response cost. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. Taking away a child’s dessert is an appropriate loss of a reinforcer in a response cost procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. Taking a meal away from a child in a response cost procedure is an acceptable strategy. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. In response cost, the reinforcer that is lost is sometimes returned to the child after a period of time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 51. When should punishment procedures be considered?

ANSWER: Functional nonaversive treatment approaches should always be used prior to considering the use of punishment, and reinforcement procedures should always be used in conjunction with punishment.

52. When is nonexclusionary time-out most likely to be used?

ANSWER: Nonexclusionary time-out is most likely to be used when (a) the individual can be removed from the reinforcing activities or interactions while still remaining in the room and (b) the presence of the individual in the room will not be disruptive to others in the environment.

53. Beth’s teacher is frequently putting Beth in the time-out chair at the back of the classroom. While Beth is in time-out, she makes funny faces and noises which make the other children laugh. Beth continues her behaviors that end her up in the time-out chair throughout the day. What might work better to decrease Beth’s problem behaviors?

ANSWER: Exclusionary time-out in which Beth is removed from the room during time-out may work better.

54. Describe exclusionary time-out.

ANSWER: In exclusionary time-out the individual is removed from the room (reinforcing environment) where the problem behavior took place and is taken to another room.

55. Describe nonexclusionary.

ANSWER: In nonexclusionary time-out the individual remains in the room while being removed from access to positive reinforcers.

56. Define response cost.

ANSWER: Response cost is defined as the removal of a specified amount of a reinforcer contingent on the occurrence of a problem behavior.

57. How are response cost, time-out and extinction different?

ANSWER: Different processes are involved in extinction, time-out, and response cost. With extinction, the problem behavior is no longer followed by the reinforcing event that previously maintained the problem behavior.

With time-out, the individual is removed from access to all sources of reinforcement contingent on the problem behavior. With response cost, a specific amount of a reinforcer (but not the reinforcer for the problem behavior) is removed following the problem behavior.

1. In ____________ procedures, a reinforcer is removed following the occurrence of the behavior and the behavior decreases in the future, and in ____________ procedures a punisher is applied following the occurrence of the behavior and the behavior decreases in the future. a. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement b. negative punishment; positive punishment c. positive punishment; negative punishment d. negative punishment; negative reinforcement ANSWER: b 2. Which of the following procedures would be implemented last in an effort to decrease a problem behavior? a. extinction b. differential reinforcement c. punishment d. antecedent manipulations ANSWER: c 3. One form of positive punishment procedures involves the application of ____________ contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior. a. aversive activities b. reinforcing stimulation c. conditioned stimuli d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 4. Requiring an individual to engage in a low probability behavior contingent on the occurrence of a high probability behavior is a form of punishment that is based on: a. differential reinforcement b. the Premack Principle c. response cost d. antecedent manipulation ANSWER: b 5. Which form of positive punishment is based on the Premack Principle? a. exclusionary time-out b. response cost c. application of aversive activities d. application of aversive stimulation ANSWER: c 6. When using the punishment procedure of application of aversive activities, ____________ is used as a punisher for engaging in the problem behavior. a. performance of a behavior b. removal of a positive reinforcer c. aversive stimulation d. removal of an aversive stimulus ANSWER: a

7. The use of ____________ is often necessary in order to get an individual to engage in the aversive activity when using positive punishment. a. reinforcement b. antecedent manipulation c. physical guidance d. shaping ANSWER: c 8. The application of aversive activities includes all of the following procedures except: a. overcorrection b. response cost c. contingent exercise d. guided compliance ANSWER: b 9. When John shoots a free throw incorrectly in basketball practice, his coach requires him to continue shooting until he has shot the ball correctly a number of times. In which type of punishment does the individual have to engage in the correct behavior contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior? a. positive practice b. restitution c. contingent exercise d. guided compliance ANSWER: a 10. The positive punishment procedure that requires an individual to engage in an effortful behavior for an extended period of time following the occurrence of the problem behavior is referred to as: a. aversive exercise b. guided compliance c. overcorrection d. response cost ANSWER: c 11. Which of the following is a form of overcorrection? a. negative practice b. restitution c. contingent exercise d. guided compliance ANSWER: b 12. Billy has a tantrum and dumps puzzle pieces on the floor. Billy not only has to pick up the puzzle pieces, but he also has to clean up the entire toy room. Which punishment procedure involves restoring the environment to a condition better than it was prior to the problem behavior? a. positive practice b. response cost c. guided compliance d. restitution ANSWER: d

13. Greg shows up late for football practice, and has to run five laps around the field. As a result, Greg no longer shows up late for practice. Which punishment procedure requires the individual to engage in physical exercise following the occurrence of the problem behavior? a. guided exercise b. contingent practice c. restitution d. contingent exercise ANSWER: b 14. The punishment procedure of ____________ involves the application of aversive activity related to the problem behavior, and the procedure of ____________ involves aversive activity unrelated to the problem behavior. a. overcorrection; contingent exercise b. contingent exercise; overcorrection c. response cost; positive practice d. negative practice; positive practice ANSWER: a 15. Bobby’s Mom asks him to clean up his room, but he complains that he is too tired and continues to lie on his bed reading comic books. Bobby’s Mom then physically guides him through the activity of picking up his clothes from the floor and placing them in the hamper, until Bobby starts to pick up the clothes on his own. Which punishment procedure is Bobby’s Mom using? a. contingent exercise b. guided compliance c. restitution d. positive practice ANSWER: b 16. Which of the following procedures is NOT involved in the use of guided compliance? a. negative punishment b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. extinction ANSWER: a 17. When Kevin starts hitting his brother, his Dad takes Kevin’s arms and holds them immobile so that Kevin cannot continue to hit his brother. Which punishment procedure is Kevin’s Dad using? a. overcorrection b. guided compliance c. contingent exercise d. physical restraint ANSWER: d 18. Preventing an individual from engaging in a problem behavior by physically blocking the response is referred to as: a. behavioral prevention b. contingent restraint c. response blocking

d. response prevention ANSWER: c 19. The delivery of an aversive stimulus contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior is referred to as: a. negative punishment b. negative reinforcement c. application of aversive stimulation d. application of aversive activities ANSWER: c 20. In behavior modification, ____________ procedures are the least likely to be used to decrease problem behaviors. a. functional, nonaversive b. negative punishment c. positive punishment d. antecedent control ANSWER: c 21. The punishment procedure of time-out is used for problem behaviors that are maintained by ____________, and guided compliance is used for problem behaviors that are maintained by ____________. a. attention; escape b. escape; attention c. positive punishers; negative punishers d. negative reinforcers; positive reinforcers ANSWER: a 22. Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the use of punishment? a. implementing differential reinforcement in conjunction with punishment b. using functional nonaversive procedures prior to the use of punishment c. selecting a punishment procedure that will gradually decrease the problem behavior d. choosing an appropriate aversive stimulus ANSWER: c 23. When an individual understands and willingly agrees to the punishment procedure it is referred to as: a. informed consent b. a behavioral contract c. informed participation d. voluntary agreement ANSWER: a 24. Which of the following is NOT an ethical issue to be considered in the use of punishment? a. problem severity b. implementation guidelines c. accountability d. covert implementation ANSWER: d

25. In positive practice overcorrection, what must the learner do following the problem behavior? a. correct the environment damaged by the behavior b. comply with the task that was requested prior to the problem behavior c. repeatedly engage in the correct behavior d. engage in an effortful behavior that is not related to the problem behavior.

ANSWER: c 26. In restitutional overcorrection, what must the learner do following the problem behavior? a. correct the environment damaged by the behavior b. comply with the task that was requested prior to the problem behavior c. repeatedly engage in the correct behavior d. engage in an effortful behavior that is not related to the problem behavior.

ANSWER: a 27. In guided compliance, what must the learner do following the problem behavior? a. correct the environment damaged by the behavior b. comply with the task that was requested prior to the problem behavior c. repeatedly engage in the correct behavior d. engage in an effortful behavior that is not related to the problem behavior.

ANSWER: b 28. In contingent exercise, what must the learner do following the problem behavior? a. correct the environment damaged by the behavior b. comply with the task that was requested prior to the problem behavior c. repeatedly engage in the correct behavior d. engage in an effortful behavior that is not related to the problem behavior.

ANSWER: d 29. Which category of behavioral intervention is the treatment of last resort? a. negative punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. time-out ANSWER: c 30. Which punishment by the application of aversive activities procedure involves positive punishment for the problem behavior and negative reinforcement for engaging in requested behavior? a. overcorrection b. contingent exercise c. physical restraint d. guided compliance ANSWER: d 31. Two major categories of aversive events used in positive punishment procedures are ___________ and ___________.

ANSWER: aversive activities, aversive stimuli

32. A 10 year old boy puts paint on the tile on the kitchen floor. His mom has him clean the two tiles he painted as well as clean the entire kitchen floor. What positive punishment procedure is she using? ___________ ANSWER: restitution 33. Application of aversive activities is based on what principle? ___________ ANSWER: positive punishment 34. What is appropriate to do if an individual attempts to avoid or escape from the performance of an aversive activity? ___________ ANSWER: use guided compliance 35. ___________ requires an individual to engage in an effortful behavior for an extended period of time contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: Overcorrection; Contingent exercise 36. In the positive practice procedure, the client has to engage in ___________.

ANSWER: a correct form of behavior 37. A student with an intellectual disability often engages in finger chewing. As soon has the student brings his hand up to his mouth, the teacher puts her hand in front of the student’s mouth to prevent the finger chewing behavior. This variation of physical restraint is called _________________________.

ANSWER: response blocking 38. Punishment by ___________ involves the delivery of an aversive stimulus following the problem behavior.

ANSWER: application of aversive stimulation 39. In punishment by application of _________________________ the individual has to engage in aversive behaviors contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: aversive activities 40. Three types of punishment by the application of aversive activities are _________________________, _________________________, and _________________________.

ANSWER: overcorrection, contingent exercise, guided compliance 41. For most people, physical guidance in a noncompliance situation is an aversive event. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 42. The person applying physical restraint should always interact with the client while using restraint. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 43. Physical restraint may be a reinforcer for some individuals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

44. The application of aversive activities should be used only when the change agent has the physical ability to provide physical guidance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 45. Electric shock has been used as a punisher for self-injurious behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. Positive punishment procedures are being used more and more often. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. Positive punishment procedures are often seen as treatments of last resort by professionals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. Guided compliance involves positive punishment for noncompliance and negative reinforcement for compliance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. Restitution and positive practice are two types of overcorrection. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. SIBIS is a type of positive punishment procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 51. Erica tends to rush through her arithmetic problems on her homework assignments and ends up making numerous errors. How could Erica’s teacher implement a positive practice procedure to decrease math errors?

ANSWER: When Erica rushes through her arithmetic problems and makes numerous errors, the teacher could have Erica do more arithmetic problems until she had completed a number of them correctly.

52. A 9 year old boy has a behavioral outburst while unloading the dishwasher at home. While putting away a plastic cup, he knocks over a stack of cups already in the cupboard. How could his mom implement a restitution procedure with her son?

ANSWER: When the boy knocks over the cups, the mother could have him set the cups and any other cups that have been knocked over up. She could have him straighten more of the dishes contingent on his behavior as well.

53. What is the difference in terms of the aversive activity between contingent exercise and overcorrection?

ANSWER: Overcorrection and contingent exercise require the individual to engage in effortful behavior for an extended period of time contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior. In overcorrection, the effortful behavior is a relevant behavior related to the problem behavior. In contingent exercise, the effortful behavior is unrelated to the problem behavior.

54. How is compliance negatively reinforced in a guided compliance procedure?

ANSWER: In guided compliance, the individual is physically guided through the requested activity contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior. It is used when an individual is engaging in a problem behavior in a compliance situation (the individual is instructed or requested to engage in an activity). Because physical guidance is aversive and physical guidance is terminated contingent on compliance, compliance is negatively reinforced.

55. List 3 different aversive stimuli that have been used in positive punishment procedures.

ANSWER: Shock, water mist, lemon juice, reprimands, noise, aromatic ammonia.

1. In order to increase the probability that the target behavior will occur in all relevant situations following training, you should: a. use punishment on competing behaviors b. reinforce the behavior in the presence of the S-delta c. program for generalization d. conduct a task analysis ANSWER: c 2. Which of the following is true concerning generalization? a. behavior occurs in the presence of stimuli similar to the discriminative stimulus b. a class of stimuli develops stimulus control over the behavior c. behavior occurs in the presence of relevant stimuli outside the training situation d. all of these ANSWER: d 3. In behavior modification, the discriminative stimulus and other stimuli that are present during a training situation are referred to as ____________ stimuli. a. target b. generalized c. criterion d. training ANSWER: d 4. A psychologist is teaching a woman with intellectual disabilities the skills that she needs to clean her apartment.

Training sessions are conducted in the woman’s apartment, and the psychologist provides reinforcers when the woman demonstrates the proper cleaning skills. Which strategy for promoting generalization is the psychologist using? a. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses b. reinforcing occurrences of generalization c. training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement d. incorporating common stimuli into the training session ANSWER: b 5. Which strategy for promoting generalization involves teaching skills that will lead to reinforcement in relevant situations in the natural environment? a. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training b. training skills that contact natural contingencies c. reinforcing occurrences of generalization d. incorporating common stimuli ANSWER: b 6. A teacher is helping a withdrawn child to increase his interaction with other students. The teacher has the other children in the classroom smile and compliment the child when he talks to them. The teacher also instructs the other children not to laugh when the withdrawn child has problems speaking. Which strategy for promoting generalization is the teacher using? a. modifying contingencies of reinforcement and punishment in the natural environment b. training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement c. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training d. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses

ANSWER: a 7. Which of the following strategies for promoting generalization does NOT focus on reinforcing the target behavior outside the training situation? a. reinforcing occurrences of generalization b. modifying natural contingencies c. incorporating common stimuli d. training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement ANSWER: c 8. Strategies for promoting generalization of behavior change that involve arranging stimulus situations during training include: a. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations b. reinforcing occurrences of behavior c. incorporating common stimuli d. A and C ANSWER: d 9. Matthew’s baseball coach is helping him improve his hitting. During practice the coach has the pitcher throw fast balls, curve balls, and sliders so that Matthew experiences a variety of pitches, and will be more likely to hit the ball successfully during a game. Which strategy for promoting generalization is the coach using? a. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training b. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses c. reinforcing occurrences of generalization d. incorporating self-generated mediators of generalization ANSWER: a 10. Promoting generalization through the use of multiple training examples that sample from the range of relevant stimulus situations and response variations is referred to as ____________ programming. a. higher order b. multiple case c. situational d. general case ANSWER: d 11. A teacher is working with a student to help him improve his public speaking skills. The teacher has the student practice his speech in the room where he will be giving it to the rest of the class. Which strategy for promoting generalization utilizes some aspect of the target situation during training? a. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses b. incorporating self-generated mediators of generalization c. incorporating common stimuli d. modifying natural contingencies of reinforcement and punishment ANSWER: c 12. Eric’s basketball coach is helping him improve his passing skills. The coach teaches Eric how to throw a one-handed pass, a two-handed pass, and a bounce pass so that Eric will have a variety of passes he can throw when he is being guarded during a game. Which strategy for promoting generalization is the coach using with Eric? a. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses

b. incorporating common stimuli c. reinforcing occurrences of generalization d. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training ANSWER: a 13. Joe attends a class in order to learn to use a computer. Joe takes notes during the class, and uses the notes to operate his own computer when he gets home. Using the notes from the computer class to use his computer at home is an example of which strategy for promoting generalization? a. incorporating common stimuli b. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses c. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training d. self-generated mediators of generalization ANSWER: d 14. Which of the following is an example of self-generated mediators of generalization? a. self-instructions b. using notes to cue appropriate behavior c. self-recording d. all of these ANSWER: d 15. When should generalization of a behavior change be considered? a. before training b. during training c. after training d. all of these ANSWER: d 16. Identifying target stimulus situations and natural contingencies of reinforcement for the target behavior should take place: a. prior to training b. after training is complete c. once training has begun d. only if training is unsuccessful ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following factors can be manipulated in promoting generalization? a. contingencies of reinforcement b. stimuli used during training c. range of responses trained d. all of these ANSWER: d 18. What does it mean to say that the treatment for a problem behavior has generalized? a. the problem behavior is maintained over time b. the problem behavior occurs in a number of similar situations c. the problem behavior does not occur in all relevant situations

d. the problem behavior no longer occurs in the treatment setting ANSWER: c 19. The first step in the treatment of a problem behavior is to: a. eliminate the reinforcer for the problem behavior b. conduct a functional assessment c. select a punisher that will be effective in decreasing the problem behavior d. remove the antecedents that are increasing the likelihood of the behavior occurring ANSWER: b 20. Functional intervention strategies that are used to decrease problem behaviors include all of the following except: a. extinction b. differential reinforcement c. punishment d. antecedent manipulations ANSWER: c 21. A child frequently engages in tantrums when requests are made of him by his parents and teachers. In order to promote a generalized reduction in the problem behavior, the child’s behavior of complying with requests without engaging in tantrums is reinforced at home, in school, and in all other settings. Which strategy for promoting generalization is being used with the child? a. incorporating common stimuli in training b. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses c. incorporating a wide range of stimulus situations in training d. reinforcing instances of generalization ANSWER: d 22. Tommy frequently grabs toys from other children when he wants them. A psychologist is working with Tommy in order to get him to politely ask for toys when he wants them, and to get Tommy to share his toys with other children. As a result, Tommy is learning to interact with other children in a more appropriate way, and his behavior is more likely to be reinforced. Which strategy for promoting generalization is being used? a. incorporating a range of relevant stimulus situations in training b. training skills that tap into natural contingencies of reinforcement c. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses d. incorporating common stimuli ANSWER: b 23. The strategy of modifying natural contingencies of reinforcement and punishment is used when: a. it is possible to reinforce instances of generalization b. instances of generalization can be punished c. there are no existing natural contingencies to promote generalization d. the behavior will be naturally reinforced in relevant situations ANSWER: c 24. A psychologist is working with a child who becomes aggressive when he is teased by other children. The psychologist uses role plays involving examples of the problem situations that the child may face, in order to teach the child the appropriate skills necessary to deal with any situation that may arise. Which strategy for promoting generalization is being used?

a. modifying natural contingencies of reinforcement and punishment b. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training c. incorporating self-generated mediators of generalization d. training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement ANSWER: b 25. In order to teach a child to interact in an appropriate way with other children, a psychologist involves other children in the training sessions. Which strategy for promoting generalization utilizes some aspect of the target situation in training? a. incorporating common stimuli b. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training c. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses d. training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement ANSWER: a 26. Teaching individuals a variety of different ways in which they can achieve the same outcome is referred to as teaching: a. self-generated mediators of generalization b. skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement c. instances of generalization d. a range of functionally equivalent responses ANSWER: c 27. The strategy for promoting generalization that uses self-instructions as a cue to engage in the appropriate behavior is referred to as: a. incorporating a variety of relevant stimulus situations in training b. training skills that contact natural contingencies of reinforcement c. incorporating self-generated mediators of generalization d. teaching a range of functionally equivalent responses ANSWER: c 28. Which of the following should you focus on when trying to achieve a generalized reduction in a problem behavior? a. minimizing positive reinforcement for alternative behaviors b. training in situations that are different from the generalized environment c. implementing punishment procedures to decrease the problem behavior d. developing functionally equivalent alternative behaviors ANSWER: d 29. The constructional approach to the treatment of problem behaviors involves: a. focusing on the development of functionally equivalent alternative behaviors b. eliminating reinforcement for replacement behaviors c. focusing on the implementation of punishment to decrease a problem behavior d. eliminating the problem behavior in only one setting in which it occurs ANSWER: a 30. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for promoting a generalized reduction in problem behaviors? a. focusing on functionally equivalent alternative behaviors b. conducting a functional assessment for the problem behavior

c. planning for generalization once treatment has been successful d. maintaining extinction or punishment contingencies ANSWER: c 31. Enhancing the likelihood that a behavior change will occur in all relevant situations in the person’s life is called ___________.

ANSWER: promoting generalization 32. When reinforcing a behavior that occurs outside the training situation in the presence of relevant stimuli, the relevant stimuli develop ___________ over the behavior.

ANSWER: stimulus control 33. What is the most straightforward approach to promoting generalization? ___________ ANSWER: reinforce occurrences of generalization 34. Another way to promote generalization if reinforcing the behavior outside of training sessions is not feasible, is to ___________.

ANSWER: modify contingencies of reinforcement and punishment in the natural environment 35. Different responses that achieve the same outcome are called ___________.

ANSWER: functionally equivalent responses 36. An elementary school teacher attends a conference on child management and takes several notes. When she returns to her classroom she looks over her notes before implementing some of the techniques she learned. The teacher’s notes are an example of a ___________.

ANSWER: self-generated mediator of generalization 37. One particular outcome that defines successful treatment for problem behaviors is the ___________ of the behavior change across all situations.

ANSWER: generalization 38. What is a functionally equivalent response for the behavior of screaming to get a teacher’s attention? ___________ ANSWER: raising your hand to get a teacher’s attention 39. Generalized reductions in problem behaviors are best achieved when there are generalized increases in ___________.

ANSWER: alternative behaviors 40. If ___________ contingencies are discontinued prematurely, there is a risk that the problem behavior may begin to occur more frequently.

ANSWER: extinction; punishment 41. If a child learns to hit a baseball from several different pitchers, standing in several different positions during practice, generalization has occurred. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 42. One way to promote generalization is to only reinforce the behavior in the training sessions.

a. True b. False ANSWER: False 43. It is important to only focus on one particular relevant situation when training an individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 44. One cannot determine in advance how many stimulus exemplars are sufficient for generalization to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 45. Self recording may be an example of a self-generated mediator of generalization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. The only desired outcome in a behavior modification treatment is elimination of the problem behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. It is appropriate to use children as change agents responsible for the implementation of a behavior modification program as long as it is with another child. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 48. When an intervention consists only of an extinction or punishment procedure, a generalized reduction in the problem is unlikely to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. To promote a generalized reduction in a problem behavior, it is best to plan for generalization in advance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. There is often no history of reinforcement for problem behaviors prior to the beginning of a behavior modification intervention. a. True b. False ANSWER: False

51. Describe general case programming.

ANSWER: General case programming is defined as the use of multiple training examples that sample the range of relevant stimulus situations and response variations.

52. You are training an adolescent with an intellectual disability how to use soft drink machines. What are some relevant stimulus situations you can incorporate into the training sessions?

ANSWER: Some relevant stimulus situations you can incorporate into the training session are the different ways and places to insert money (coins, dollar bills, on the right side), where to make the selection (pushing a button next to the sign, pushing the sign), where to get the soft drink from (at the bottom of the machine, in the middle of the machine), and where to get the change (by the soft drink dispenser, under the money slot).

53. Improvement in functioning following treatment for a problem behavior is defined in what 3 ways?

ANSWER: Improvement in functioning is defined not only by a decrease in or elimination of the problem behavior but, more importantly, by (a) the development and maintenance of new skills and/or the strengthening of existing alternative behaviors, (b) an increase in the quantity of positive reinforcement, and c)the generalization of the behavior change across all relevant situations and over time after treatment is discontinued.

54. Provide 2 examples of self generated mediators to promote generalization.

ANSWER: Examples of self-generated mediators to promote generalization are notes, self-recording, and photos that exert stimulus control over the behavior in the natural environment.

55. What does it mean to incorporate common stimuli?

ANSWER: If the training and generalization situations have some features or stimuli in common, generalization is more likely to take place. In this strategy, some aspect of the target situation is utilized in the training situation.

56. What is a generalized reduction in a problem?

ANSWER: A generalized reduction in a problem behavior refers to the generalization of the behavior changes (decrease in problem behavior) across all relevant situations and over time after treatment is discontinued.

57. What is likely to happen to the problem behavior if functionally equivalent alternative behaviors aren’t used to replace the problem?

ANSWER: The problem behaviors will continue to occur.

1. When individuals use behavior modification procedures to change their own behavior it is referred to as: a. contingency control b. functional control c. self-monitoring d. self-management ANSWER: d 2. For what type of behavior are self-management strategies used? a. excess behavior b. deficit behavior c. alcoholism d. A and B ANSWER: d 3. The delayed outcome for a behavioral deficit is _________ while the immediate outcome is __________. a. positive; negative b. negative; positive c. positive; positive d. negative; negative ANSWER: a 4. A desirable behavior may NOT be occurring for all of the following reasons except: a. the behavior is not immediately reinforced when it occurs b. the behavior involves an increased response effort c. the behavior is negatively reinforced when it does occur d. competing behavior interferes with its occurrence ANSWER: c 5. Which of the following is NOT a reason why an undesirable behavior continues to occur? a. the behavior is immediately reinforced b. competing behaviors do not exist c. the behavior requires decreased response effort d. the behavior is immediately punished ANSWER: d 6. One reason for the existence of self-management problems is that the occurrence of excess and deficit behavior is influenced by: a. immediate contingencies b. long-term outcomes c. delayed contingencies d. B and C ANSWER: a 7. The goal of self-management strategies is to decrease __________ and to increase __________. a. controlling behavior; controlled behavior b. excess behavior; deficit behavior

c. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement d. respondent behavior; operant behavior ANSWER: b 8. Self-management problems often involve a conflict between: a. positive and negative reinforcement b. operant and respondent conditioning c. positive and negative punishment d. short-term and long-term contingencies ANSWER: d 9. In self-management, the behavior that an individual engages in to influence the future occurrence of the target behavior is referred to as __________ behavior. a. respondent b. controlling c. controlled d. functional ANSWER: b 10. Self-management involves the modification of __________ to make the target behavior more likely to occur. a. antecedents b. consequences c. alternative behavior d. all of these ANSWER: d 11. Brian plans to use antecedent manipulations to increase the amount of exercise he gets. To increase behavior through antecedent manipulation you can __________ the discriminative stimulus and cues for the desirable behavior, __________ an establishing operation for the desirable behavior, and __________ the response effort for the desirable behavior. a. present; arrange; decrease b. remove; arrange; increase c. present; eliminate; decrease d. remove; eliminate; increase ANSWER: a 12. Jeff wants to decrease the number of cigarettes that he smokes. Jeff writes an agreement with his roommate stating a specific level of the behavior that must be met, and the consequences for meeting and not meeting the goal. What type of self-management strategy is Jeff using? a. self-monitoring b. social support c. behavioral contract d. behavioral arrangement ANSWER: c 13. Which of the following should be used in ALL self-management procedures? a. arranging reinforcers

b. antecedent manipulation c. behavioral contract d. social support ANSWER: d 14. Andrew wants to increase the time that he studies each week, and he writes a behavioral contract in which he will be the one to implement the contingencies. The contract states that he can go to a party on the weekend if he studies 15 hours during the week. Andrew studies for only 10 hours during the week, but still goes to a party on the weekend. This is referred to as: a. modifying the contingencies b. short-circuiting the contingencies c. consequence avoidance d. consequence delay ANSWER: b 15. Lori wants to decrease the amount of pop that she drinks, and she arranges a contingency for meeting her goal. If she drinks more than two cans of pop during the day, she cannot watch television in the evening. What type of contingency has Lori arranged? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 16. Tom wants to decrease his behavior of swearing. He arranges a contingency in which he will pay five dollars to his parents every day that he swears. What type of contingency has Tom arranged? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 17. Larry wants to increase the amount of exercise that he gets. Larry arranges for significant others in his life to help influence his target behavior by having them exercise with him and give him encouragement and praise. This selfmanagement strategy is referred to as: a. social support b. behavioral assistance c. peer assistance d. environmental support ANSWER: a 18. Nicole is using a self-management strategy to increase the amount of water that she drinks. When Nicole walks by a water fountain or her refrigerator, she covertly tells herself to drink some water. After she has had a drink, Nicole silently gives herself a positive evaluation. Which self-management strategy is Nicole using? a. covert conditioning b. self-instructions c. self-praise d. B and C

ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following is NOT true concerning goal setting? a. goal setting is usually effective by itself as a self-management strategy b. goal setting involves a criterion level and a time frame c. the goals that are set should be achievable d. goal setting is often used in conjunction with self-monitoring ANSWER: a 20. What is the first step in a self-management plan? a. goal setting b. functional assessment c. making the decision to engage in self-management d. defining the target behavior and competing behaviors ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the maintenance of the target behavior at desired levels? a. goal setting should continue once the target behavior has reached the desired level b. natural contingencies are usually sufficient to maintain the behavior change c. self-monitoring should continue in order to provide information on the behavior’s occurrence d. periodic implementation of self-management procedures may be necessary to maintain the change ANSWER: b 22. At what point in time do you reevaluate a self-management procedure? a. once the goal has been achieved b. before the procedures are implemented c. if the target behavior is not changing in the desired direction d. if the target behavior is changing as expected ANSWER: c 23. Which of the following is NOT a self-management strategy? a. arranging punishing contingencies b. self-instructions c. goal setting d. respondent conditioning ANSWER: d 24. The use of consequence manipulations to increase a target behavior involves all of the following except: a. providing reinforcers for alternative behavior b. eliminating reinforcers for alternative behavior c. providing reinforcers for the target behavior d. eliminating punishers for the target behavior ANSWER: a 25. In order to decrease a target behavior using consequence manipulations, you should __________ for the target behavior and __________ for the alternative behavior.

a. provide punishers; eliminate punishers b. provide reinforcers; eliminate reinforcers c. eliminate reinforcers; provide reinforcers d. A and C ANSWER: d 26. The process of generating information on the antecedents and consequences of the target behavior and the competing behaviors is referred to as: a. environmental review b. self-monitoring c. functional assessment d. contingency assessment ANSWER: c 27. In order to implement a self-management plan correctly, you must first: a. select appropriate self-management strategies b. define the target behavior c. eliminate competing behaviors d. set an achievable goal ANSWER: b 28. Which of the following is NOT true concerning self-monitoring? a. self-monitoring involves recording each instance of the target behavior b. self-monitoring in conjunction with goal setting may change the behavior in the desired direction c. self-monitoring is stopped once the behavior reaches the desired level d. self-monitoring provides information on whether additional self-management strategies are required ANSWER: c 29. In short-circuiting the contingencies you arrange a reinforcer for desirable behaviors. However, when you fail to engage in the desirable behavior, you: a. reinforce the undesirable behavior b. allow yourself to have the reinforcer anyway c. withhold the reinforcer until you engage in the desirable behavior d. A and B ANSWER: b 30. In short-circuiting the contingencies you arrange a punisher for the occurrence of an undesirable behavior. However, when you engage in the undesirable behavior, you: a. provide a reinforcer for the behavior b. deliver the punisher c. deliver the punisher for the desirable behavior d. fail to deliver the punisher ANSWER: d 31. When behavior modification procedures are used by an individual to change his or her own behavior, the process is called ___________.

ANSWER: self-management

32. In self-management, the ___________ are self-management strategies and the ___________ is the target behavior to be modified.

ANSWER: controlling behavior; controlled behavior 33. Larry wrote a contract with himself that says he cannot watch his favorite TV show on Saturday until he has mowed the lawn. Saturday rolls around and Larry watches his TV show even though he hasn’t mowed the lawn. This is called _______________________.

ANSWER: short-circuiting the contingencies 34. Goal setting involves writing down the ___________ of the target behavior and the ___________ for the occurrence of the behavior.

ANSWER: desirable level; time periods 35. When the act of self monitoring results in a change in the target behavior that is being recorded, self monitoring is said to be ___________.

ANSWER: reactive 36. When choosing appropriate self-management strategies, you should choose one or more strategies that manipulate relevant ___________ and relevant ___________.

ANSWER: antecedents; consequences 37. A target behavior that is occurring too little that you would like to increase is called a ____________________.

ANSWER: behavior deficit 38. A target behavior that is occurring too much that you would like to decrease is called a___________________.

ANSWER: behavior excess 39. Presenting an SD for the target behavior or arranging an EO for the target behavior are examples of ____________________ manipulations.

ANSWER: antecedent 40. ___________________ occurs when significant others naturally provide cues for the target behavior or provide reinforcing consequences for the target behavior.

ANSWER: Social support 41. The fact that exercise provides health benefits in the future is often enough to get people to exercise in the present time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 42. A behavioral contract written without the assistance of a contract manager in a self-management program is more effective than a contract written with a contract manager. a. True b. False ANSWER: False

43. Whenever possible, it is a good idea to include a social support component in a self-management program. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 44. Self-management programs cannot involve other individuals implementing reinforcers or punishers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 45. Goal-setting is often implemented in conjunction with self monitoring. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. Maintenance strategies are not a necessary part of self-management programs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. The long term outcome of a behavior determines whether the behavior will occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 48. The immediate consequence of a behavior determines whether the behavior occurs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. Self-management involves the individual developing will power to get a behavior to occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 50. An individual can change his own behavior by arranging antecedents and consequences to influence the occurrence of the behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 51. List the steps involved in developing a self-management plan.

ANSWER: The steps involved in developing a self-management program are: Make the decision to engage in self-management Define the target behavior and competing behaviors Goal-setting

Self-monitoring Functional assessment Choosing appropriate self-management strategies Evaluate change Reevaluate self-management strategies 52. What does it mean to short circuit the contingencies in a self-management project?

ANSWER: To short-circuit the contingencies in a self-management project means that you would not follow through with the contingencies for a self-management project if you were in control of the consequences for your behavior.

53. What are 2 reasons why a behavioral deficit would fail to occur even though the future outcome of the behavior is positive?

ANSWER: Reasons why a behavioral deficit would fail to occur even though the future outcome of the behavior is positive are because it is not reinforced immediately when it occurs and/or because competing behavior that is immediately reinforced interferes with its occurrence.

54. Although smoking has its negative effects on a person’s life in the future, why do people continue to smoke?

ANSWER: People continue to smoke because it is immediately reinforcing, not smoking is not reinforced immediately, and the health risks for smoking are not an immediate problem.

55. What are the short term and long term contingencies for overeating?

ANSWER: The short term contingencies for overeating are feeling full, and feeling sleepy or relaxed. The long term contingencies for overeating are weight gain, and other health problems.

56. Identify 3 antecedent manipulations a pregnant woman could use to increase the likelihood that she would eat healthier foods.

ANSWER: 3 antecedent manipulations that a pregnant woman could do to increase the likelihood that she would eat healthier foods are: Get rid of unhealthy food in the house.

Have healthy food on hand in the house.

Decrease the response effort for eating healthy foods by having them washed and easily available.

57. When does social support become a self-management strategy?

ANSWER: Social support is a self-management strategy when you specifically arrange for social support to influence the target behavior.

1. Which of the following is NOT true concerning habit reversal procedures? a. they are implemented by the individual with the problem behavior b. they are used to decrease the frequency of undesirable behavior c. they are used for behaviors that generally do not interfere with social functioning d. they are implemented by the person engaging in the habit behavior ANSWER: c 2. A habit behavior becomes a habit disorder when: a. the individual has no control over the behavior b. the behavior is distressing to the individual c. the frequency of the behavior is extreme d. B and C ANSWER: d 3. Which of the following is NOT a type of habit behavior? a. nervous habits b. stuttering c. face slapping d. motor tics ANSWER: c 4. Joe repetitively taps his pencil on his desk before a test in order to relieve tension. Which type of habit behavior is Joe engaging in? a. vocal tic b. negative habit c. motor tic d. nervous habit ANSWER: d 5. Nervous habits are characterized by: a. repetitive and manipulative behaviors b. behaviors that serve a social function c. behaviors that get negative attention d. behaviors that a person cannot control ANSWER: a 6. A nervous habit most often involves: a. oral behavior b. twisting of the neck c. use of the hands d. facial grimacing ANSWER: c 7. All of the following are examples of nervous habits except: a. nail biting b. cracking knuckles

c. stuttering d. jingling money in a pocket ANSWER: c 8. When Tom goes to the free-throw line during a basketball game, he engages in a repetitive jerky movement of his neck before he shoots the ball. Tom’s behavior is an example of a(an): a. motor tic b. nervous habit c. innate reflex d. unconditioned response ANSWER: a 9. Sam engages in repetitive throat-clearing behavior even though he does not have a cold or any problem with his throat.

Sam’s behavior of repetitive throat-clearing is an example of a: a. nervous habit b. vocal tic c. motor tic d. stuttering ANSWER: b 10. A tic disorder that is characterized by multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic is referred to as: a. a multiple-component disorder b. a parallel disorder c. Tourette’s disorder d. multiple tic disorder ANSWER: c 11. Which type of habit behavior is NOT related to heightened muscle tension? a. stuttering b. motor tics c. nervous habits d. none of these ANSWER: d 12. When Nicole has to answer a question in class, she experiences tension and gets stuck on a word and repeats it several times before she is able to answer the question. Which habit behavior is Nicole exhibiting? a. nervous habit b. vocal tic c. stuttering d. motor tic ANSWER: c 13. In a habit reversal procedure, teaching an individual to identify each instance of the habit behavior is referred to as ____________ training. a. discrimination b. awareness c. recognition

d. contingency ANSWER: b 14. Habit reversal procedures include all of the following components except: a. awareness training b. motivational strategies c. avoidance training d. competing response training ANSWER: c 15. A psychologist teaches Matt to put his hand in his pocket whenever his habit of cracking knuckles occurs or is about to occur. Training an individual to engage in a behavior that is incompatible with the habit behavior is referred to as ____________ training. a. contingent response b. awareness c. operant d. competing response ANSWER: d 16. A therapist instructs a parent to prompt a child to make a fist whenever the child starts to suck his thumb, and to praise the child for doing so. In which habit reversal component are significant others involved? a. motivational strategies b. awareness training c. competing response training d. social support ANSWER: d 17. In order to increase the probability that a competing response will be used, a psychologist reviews with Amy all the situations in which her habit of nail-biting occurs, and the problems it may have caused. Which component of a habit reversal procedure is being used? a. awareness training b. environmental review c. functional assessment d. a motivational strategy ANSWER: d 18. Habit reversal training sessions are used to teach an individual to: a. ignore each instance of the habit behavior b. use a competing response when the habit behavior occurs c. implement antecedent manipulations d. develop alternative habit behaviors ANSWER: b 19. When using habit reversal procedures, the competing response should be: a. the same for different types of habit behaviors b. incompatible with the habit behavior c. easily identifiable by others

d. more effortful than the habit ANSWER: b 20. The components of ____________ and ____________ are most responsible for the success of habit reversal procedures in decreasing habit behaviors. a. awareness training ; competing response training b. awareness training ; motivational strategies c. social support ; motivational strategies d. competing response training ; social support ANSWER: a 21. What function does a competing response serve when habit behaviors involve nervous habits and muscle tics? a. the habit behavior is inhibited b. an alternative behavior is provided to replace the habit c. a punisher is presented when the habit occurs d. all of these ANSWER: d 22. When the habit behavior involves stuttering, the competing response: a. is used only when stuttering occurs b. provides an alternative behavior to replace stuttering c. serves as a punisher for stuttering d. is functionally equivalent to stuttering ANSWER: b 23. What does the social support person do as part of the habit reversal procedure? a. remind the person to use her competing response when the habit behavior is not occurring b. remind the person to use her competing response when the habit behavior is occurring c. have daily discussions with the person about the negative impact of the habit behavior d. A and B ANSWER: b 24. What is the competing response for a vocal tic? a. learning to say acceptable words to replace the tic b. learning to stop talking for 5 minutes each time a vocal tic occurs c. slow, rhythmic breathing through the nose while keeping the mouth closed d. all of these ANSWER: c 25. For whom is habit reversal least likely to be effective? a. older adults b. young children c. individuals with motor tics d. A and B ANSWER: b

26. When the habit reversal procedure is applied to stuttering, the procedure is called a. stuttering reversal b. speech therapy c. regulated breathing d. stuttering regulation ANSWER: c 27. In addition to habit reversal which of the following procedures have been found to be effective in decreasing habit behaviors? a. DRO and response cost b. DRO and social disapproval c. DRO, response interruption and brief restraint d. all of these ANSWER: d 28. When using habit reversal with children, what might the parent need to do to make the procedure successful? a. add time out to the procedure b. use physical guidance to get the child to use the competing response c. provide a firm verbal reprimand each time the child engages in the habit behavior d. A and C ANSWER: b 29. What type of habit behavior might also be called a body-focused repetitive behavior? a. motor tics b. vocal tics c. nervous habits d. stuttering ANSWER: c 30. Prolonging the sound of a syllable or word while speaking is an example of: a. a vocal tic b. a vocal habit c. stuttering d. a competing response that is used for treating a vocal tic ANSWER: c 31. Habit disorders are ________________ behaviors.

ANSWER: repetitive 32. An example of a nervous habit is ________________.

ANSWER: nail biting 33. An example of a motor tic is ________________.

ANSWER: head jerking 34. Stuttering may involve ________________, ____________________, and ________________ words or syllables.

ANSWER: repeating, prolonging, blocking on 35. It is believed that nervous habits serve to diminish ________________.

ANSWER: nervous tension 36. If nervous habits decreased nervous tension they would serve a ________________ reinforcement function.

ANSWER: negative 37. Tourette’s disorder is diagnosed when ________________ and ________________ tics occur.

ANSWER: motor, vocal 38. A behavior that is incompatible with the habit behavior is called a ________________.

ANSWER: competing response 39. ________________ is the involvement of significant others in a habit reversal procedure.

ANSWER: social support 40. The __________________ component of habit reversal teaches the client to become aware of each occurrence of the habit behavior.

ANSWER: awareness training 41. The competing response in the habit reversal procedure for stuttering is called ________________.

ANSWER: regulated breathing 42. Habit reversal procedures are most often implemented by another person acting as a change agent. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 43. Habit behaviors do not usually interfere with the social functioning of the individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 44. Nervous habits typically serve a social function for the individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 45. Motor tics can develop out of an injury to a particular muscle. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. Most children who stutter as they learn to use language, continue to stutter throughout adolescence. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 47. A client usually engages in a competing response for 10-15 minutes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 48. Awareness training and the use of a competing response are most responsible for the habit reversal procedure’s effectiveness. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. The use of a competing response probably serves the same functions for habits, tics and stuttering. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 50. Awareness, competing response training, and social support procedures are components of the habit reversal procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 51. Habit reversal works for nervous habits but not for tics. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 52. What is involved in the awareness training component of a habit reversal procedure?

ANSWER: In awareness training, the individual with the habit (or tic or stuttering) is first taught to describe the behaviors that are involved in the habit. After learning the behavioral definition of the habit, the individual learns to identify when the habit occurs or when it is about to occur.

53. How does the therapist increase the likelihood that the client will use the competing response to control the habit outside of treatment sessions?

ANSWER: The therapist reviews with the client all the situations in which the habit occurs and how the habit may have caused some inconvenience or embarrassment. This review is a motivation strategy, which increases the likelihood that the client will use the competing response outside of the treatment session to control the habit.

54. What 2 basic skills does the client learn from a habit reversal program?

ANSWER: In the habit reversal therapy session, the client learns two basic skills: to discriminate each occurrence of the habit and to use the competing response contingent on the occurrence of the habit or in anticipation of the occurrence of the habit.

55. What is the main way in which the habit reversal procedure varies across the different types of habit disorders?

ANSWER: The main difference between the habit reversal procedures for different types of habit disorders is the nature of

the competing response. A different competing response must be chosen specifically for the particular habit, tic, or stuttering problem that the client exhibits.

56. Provide an example of a competing behavior for hair-pulling.

ANSWER: An example of a competing behavior for hair pulling is making a fist.

57. What are the two possible functions served by the competing response?

ANSWER: The use of the competing response then serves two possible functions. One function is to inhibit the habit behavior and provide an alternative behavior to replace it. A second is that the competing response may serve as a punisher.

1. A teacher wants to increase the academic performance of the students in her class. The children receive stickers each time they complete an academic task, and when they have accumulated a certain number of stickers they can exchange them for 15 minutes of playing computer games. This program that uses conditioned reinforcers to strengthen a desirable behavior is referred to as: a. differential reinforcement b. respondent conditioning c. behavioral skills training d. a token economy ANSWER: d 2. A conditioned reinforcer that is used in a token economy to increase desirable behavior is referred to as a(an): a. backup reinforcer b. establishing operation c. token d. primary reinforcer ANSWER: c 3. In a token economy, a token is delivered to an individual immediately ____________ occurs. a. before the problem behavior b. after the problem behavior c. before the desirable behavior d. after the desirable behavior ANSWER: d 4. A token becomes a conditioned reinforcer because it is paired with: a. establishing operations b. backup reinforcers c. the occurrence of desirable behavior d. A and B ANSWER: b 5. When an individual accumulates a specified number of tokens in a token economy, the tokens are exchanged for ____________ reinforcers. a. conditioned b. backup c. secondary d. negative ANSWER: b 6. Which of the following components is NOT always used in a token economy? a. implementing response cost b. determining the reinforcement schedule c. establishing the token exchange rate d. identifying backup reinforcers ANSWER: a 7. A researcher plans to implement a token economy with a group of juvenile offenders in a treatment program. What is

the first step in planning a token economy? a. identifying items to use as tokens b. deciding on the schedule of reinforcement c. defining the target behavior d. identifying backup reinforcers ANSWER: c 8. A behavioral definition of the desirable behavior is important in a token economy for all of the following reasons except: a. individuals will know what is expected of them b. the desirable behavior can be assigned a label c. change agents can reliably deliver the tokens d. the occurrence of the desirable behavior can be recorded ANSWER: b 9. The tokens that are selected for use in a token economy must be: a. intangible b. convenient to dispense c. difficult to accumulate d. available from outside sources ANSWER: b 10. A researcher is trying to identify items that could be used as tokens to improve the academic performance of hyperactive students. Which of the following items would be good to use as tokens in the token economy? a. pennies b. snacks c. toys d. all of these ANSWER: a 11. Which of the following is NOT true concerning backup reinforcers? a. they can interfere with the ability of a token to become a conditioned reinforcer b. they may include activity reinforcers and privileges c. they cannot involve things that an individual has a basic right to access d. they should only be available to individuals through token exchange ANSWER: a 12. At the beginning of a token economy a (an) ____________ reinforcement schedule is often used, and when the desirable behavior begins to occur more frequently a(an) ____________ schedule of reinforcement is used to maintain the behavior. a. intermittent; continuous b. continuous; intermittent c. continuous; intermittent d. variable interval; fixed interval ANSWER: b 13. In a token economy, the token exchange rate refers to the number of tokens:

a. received for each instance of the desirable behavior b. lost for each instance of undesirable behavior c. required to obtain backup reinforcers d. A and C ANSWER: c 14. Which of the following is true concerning establishing the time and place for exchanging tokens? a. individuals should always have access to the token store b. individuals in the token economy should determine the time and place c. the time and place for token exchange should be planned in advance d. a specific time and place is only important when a large number of people are involved ANSWER: c 15. A response cost component might be implemented in a token economy if: a. undesirable behaviors do not compete with desirable behaviors b. the problem behaviors are not socially significant c. the change agent can get the tokens back d. there are no competing behaviors ANSWER: c 16. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of response cost in a token economy? a. it should be implemented at the beginning of the program b. clients should be aware of the number of tokens lost for undesirable behavior c. it involves the loss of tokens for engaging in undesirable behavior d. the number of tokens lost should depend on the severity of the problem ANSWER: a 17. Training is necessary in the implementation of a token economy so that change agents are able to consistently: a. discriminate each instance of the target behavior b. delay the delivery of tokens after the target behavior occurs c. implement response cost immediately before the problem behaviors occur d. A and C ANSWER: a 18. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of praise in a token economy? a. praise is a natural conditioned reinforcer for most people b. praise is faded once the desirable behavior begins to occur regularly c. praise is continued after the use of tokens has been discontinued d. praise will become more potent when paired with tokens ANSWER: b 19. Fading is implemented in a token economy: a. once the individual leaves the treatment program b. to decrease the probability that the behavior change will generalize c. because the components of the program are found in most everyday situations d. when natural reinforcement contingencies can be used to maintain the desired behavior

ANSWER: d 20. Which of the following is NOT true concerning a token economy? a. desirable behavior can be immediately reinforced b. tokens are easy to dispense and accumulate c. a token economy is easy to implement in terms of time and effort d. response cost is easier to implement in a token economy ANSWER: c 21. A ____________ that is used in a token economy to increase desirable behavior is referred to as a token a. unconditioned reinforcer b. conditioned stimulus c. conditioned reinforcer d. unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: c 22. The tokens that are selected for use in a token economy must be all of the following except: a. easy to dispense b. easy to accumulate c. easy to spend d. easy to duplicate ANSWER: d 23. Which of the following is true concerning backup reinforcers? a. they may include activity reinforcers and privileges b. they cannot involve things that an individual has a basic right to access c. they should only include one or two powerfully reinforcing items d. A and B ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following is true concerning the use of response cost in a token economy? a. it should be implemented at the beginning of the program b. clients should not be aware of the number of tokens lost for undesirable behavior c. it involves the loss of tokens for engaging in undesirable behavior d. the number of tokens lost should not depend on the severity of the problem ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following is true concerning the use of praise in a token economy? a. praise is a not natural conditioned reinforcer for most people b. praise is faded once the desirable behavior begins to occur regularly c. praise is continued after the use of tokens has been discontinued d. praise will become more potent if it is only occasionally paired with tokens ANSWER: c 26. Which of the following is true concerning a token economy? a. desirable behavior can be immediately reinforced

b. tokens are not easy to dispense and accumulate c. a token economy is easy to implement in terms of time and effort d. A and C ANSWER: a 27. How are back-up reinforcers obtained in a token economy? a. by paying for them with tokens b. in a response cost program c. they are delivered following appropriate behavior d. A and C ANSWER: a 28. Why would you not want to use money (e.g., quarters) as tokens in a token economy for juvenile delinquents in a residential treatment program? a. they may not know the value of money b. theft may become a problem c. counterfeiting may become a problem d. they might lose it easily ANSWER: b 29. A wide variety of back-up reinforcers is best to use in a token economy because: a. satiation is more likely to occur b. satiation is less likely to occur c. it is more likely that there will be something that is reinforcing for everybody in the program d. B and C ANSWER: d 30. Fading the use of tokens in a token economy: a. is started shortly after the person begins the program b. increases the chance that the behavior change will generalize from the token economy to the natural environment c. should be avoided because it make the token economy less effective d. A and B ANSWER: b 31. In a token economy, tokens may be taken away following a problem behavior to decrease the behavior. This is a called a(n) ________________ procedure.

ANSWER: response cost 32. Provide 3 examples of items that can be used as tokens. ________________ ANSWER: stickers, poker chips, buttons 33. A change agent should always deliver the tokens ________________ the desirable behavior.

ANSWER: immediately after 34. The change agent should provide ________________ to the individual while delivering the tokens for appropriate behavior.

ANSWER: praise 35. In a token economy tokens are exchanged for _________________________.

ANSWER: backup reinforcers 36. In a token economy, a(n) __________________ is delivered immediately after the occurrence of a desirable target behavior.

ANSWER: token 37. In a token economy, a token should be delivered immediately after the occurrence of ____________________.

ANSWER: desirable behaviors 38. In a response cost component of a token economy, a token is ____________________ after the occurrence of an undesirable target behavior.

ANSWER: taken away 39. Tokens are _______________ reinforcers.

ANSWER: conditioned 40. Tokens are conditioned reinforcers because they are paired with ___________________ reinforcers.

ANSWER: backup 41. A __________________ is a behavior modification procedure in which conditioned reinforcers called tokens are used to strengthen desirable behaviors in individuals.

ANSWER: token economy 42. A token must be tangible, practical, and convenient to carry and dispense. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 43. Clients may accumulate tokens but not keep them in their possession. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 44. The effectiveness of a token as a reinforcer depends on the back-up reinforcers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 45. Nutritious meals and training activities are good examples of back-up reinforcers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 46. Most often the token exchange rate remains stagnant throughout the token economy program.

a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. Token economies always use a response cost procedure. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 48. When a response cost procedure is included, it should be introduced before the token economy has been in place for a period of time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 49. When a response cost procedure is included, it should be introduced after the token economy has been in place for a period of time. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. There is typically a delay between when the target behavior occurs and when the tokens are given. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 51. A specific time and place is chosen for exchanging tokens for back up reinforcers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 52. What is the purpose of a token economy?

ANSWER: The purpose of a token economy is to strengthen individuals’ desirable behavior that occurs too infrequently and to decrease their undesirable behaviors in a structured treatment environment or educational setting.

53. How does a token become a conditioned reinforcer?

ANSWER: A token is an object that is paired with other reinforcers, and therefore becomes a conditioned reinforcer.

54. Why wouldn’t the use of pencils in a school setting be an acceptable item for a token?

ANSWER: Because the tokens should not be available from any other source other than the change agent.

55. Why is it important for clients to earn enough tokens to exchange for back-up reinforcers in the early phases of the token economy?

ANSWER: It is important to ensure that the individuals earn enough tokens in the early phases of the token economy so that they can exchange them for the backup reinforcers on a regular basis. In this way, the tokens acquire their value as a conditioned reinforcer quickly.

56. Why is it important for a response cost procedure to not result in a loss of all tokens?

ANSWER: The loss of all tokens through response cost will negate the positive reinforcement of the desirable behaviors, because the individual does not have tokens to exchange for backup reinforcers. In addition, if an individual loses all of the accumulated tokens through response cost, problem behaviors may continue because the individual has nothing to lose.

57. Describe 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages involved in the use of a token economy.

ANSWER: The advantages of a token economy are that: Tokens can be used to reinforce the target behavior immediately after it occurs A token economy is highly structured, therefore, desirable target behaviors are often reinforced on a more consistent basis Tokens are generalized conditioned reinforcers because they are paired with a variety of other reinforcers Tokens are easy to dispense and easy for the recipients to accumulate Token reinforcement can be quantified easily and, thus, different behaviors can receive a greater or lesser magnitude of reinforcement Response cost is easier to implement in a token economy because the recipient has accumulated token that may be removed contingent on the occurrence of the problem behavior The recipient can learn the skills involved in planning for the future by saving tokens for larger purchases.

The disadvantages involve the use of a token economy include the time and effort involved in organizing and conducting the program and the cost of purchasing the backup reinforcers. Staff training and management are also issues, especially when the token economy has complex components or when it is conducted on a large scale.

True / False 1. Sometimes a behavioral contract is rewritten on a frequent basis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. It is not necessary to use operational definitions for the target behavior in a one party behavioral contract. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Each behavioral contract must state the time frame in which the target behavior must or must not occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. A contract necessarily involves two parties. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. In a one party contract, the contract manager often stands to gain from the contract contingencies. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. A family member is usually best suited to serve as contract manager. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Parallel contracts are used with one party behavioral contracts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Behavioral contracts cannot produce behavior change through a simple reinforcement or punishment process. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A quid pro quo contract is an example of a two party contract. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

10. Rule governed behavior is a likely reason that behavioral contracts are effective. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Bob’s doctor wants him to increase the amount of exercise that he gets. They write an agreement stating the level of exercise Bob will get each week, and the consequences for meeting and not meeting the goal. Which behavior modification procedure is being used? a. token economy b. shaping c. behavioral skills training d. behavioral contract ANSWER: d 12. A behavioral contract involves the application of ____________ contingencies in order to help an individual achieve the desired level of the target behavior. a. punishment b. reinforcement c. extinction d. A and B ANSWER: d 13. What is another name for a behavioral contract? a. participant contract b. modification contract c. contingency contract d. agreement contract ANSWER: c 14. Which of the following is NOT stated in a behavioral contract? a. hypotheses concerning the target behavior b. the specific level of the target behavior c. consequences that will occur d. the time frame of the agreement ANSWER: a 15. The first step in writing a behavioral contract is to: a. identify the contingency b. define the target behavior c. determine how the target behavior will be measured d. establish the time frame for the target behavior ANSWER: b 16. The target behavior in a behavioral contract can include ____________ behaviors.

a. desirable b. undesirable c. deficit or excess d. all of these ANSWER: d 17. Which of the following is used in a behavioral contract to determine whether the target behavior occurred or did not occur? a. subjective evidence b. objective evidence c. verbal reports by the contractee d. all of these ANSWER: b 18. Brian entered into a behavioral contract with his math tutor, in which he agreed to complete a specific number of math problems during the week. Each week Brian brings his completed math problems to his tutoring session to show that he engaged in the target behavior. Which method for measuring the target behavior is being used? a. direct observation b. written documentation c. permanent product d. primary verification ANSWER: c 19. In order to increase the amount of exercise that she gets, Andrea writes a behavioral contract with a fitness trainer.

The trainer is always around when Andrea exercises, and measures whether Andrea meets her exercise level each week.

Which method of measuring the target behavior is being used? a. direct observation b. direct verification c. primary assessment d. permanent product ANSWER: a 20. Tom writes a behavioral contract with his parents stating that he will be able to use the family car on weekends if he has completed a specific number of chores during the week. Tom and his parents have written a behavioral contract involving a ____________ contingency. a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: c 21. Kim writes a behavioral contract with her psychologist that states she will keep her appointments. Kim makes out checks for organizations she dislikes, and if she misses an appointment the psychologist will mail one check. By keeping appointments, Kim is able to avoid this consequence. This is a ____________ contingency for Kim’s desirable behavior of keeping appointments. a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement

d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: d 22. Sarah writes a behavioral contract with her parents that states she will clean the house if she comes home past her curfew. Which contingency in a behavioral contract involves providing a consequence when an undesirable behavior occurs? a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 23. Mark writes a behavioral contract with his roommate stating that Mark will tear up one baseball card from his prized collection each week that his television viewing exceeds the level in the contract. Which contingency in a behavioral contract involves the loss of a reinforcer when an undesirable behavior occurs? a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 24. Melissa is trying to increase the number of classes that she attends each week, so she writes a behavioral contract with the school counselor. An agreement between one person who is attempting to change a target behavior and a contract manager who implements the contingencies is referred to as a ____________ contract. a. two-party b. one-way c. bilateral d. one-party ANSWER: d 25. Which of the following is NOT true concerning a one-party behavioral contract? a. it is used to increase and decrease behaviors b. no personal relationship between contract manager and contractee is best c. the contractee implements the contingencies d. the contract manager should not gain from the contract contingencies ANSWER: c 26. John and Sue are trying to get their house painted, but neither of them put much time into it. They write a behavioral contract to increase the amount of time they each spend painting. If John spends less than 15 hours painting during the week he cannot watch sports on the weekend, and if Sue spends less than 15 hours painting she cannot go shopping on the weekend. This is an example of a ____________ contract. a. quid pro quo b. two-party c. unilateral d. one-party ANSWER: b 27. A behavioral contract in which the behavior change of one individual functions as the reinforcer for the behavior

change of another individual is called a: a. quid pro quo contract b. functional agreement c. parallel contract d. two-party contingency ANSWER: a 28. Which of the following is true concerning a parallel contract? a. one person’s target behavior is the consequence for the other person’s target behavior b. the target behavior of one person is dependent on the target behavior of another person c. a separate contingency exists for each individual’s target behavior d. A and B ANSWER: c 29. The negotiation of a behavioral contract involves agreement by the parties on the: a. time frame b. consequences c. level of the target behavior d. all of these ANSWER: d 30. In a behavioral contract, the negotiated consequences of the target behavior are: a. immediate b. delayed c. non-contingent d. nonspecific ANSWER: b 31. Which of the following is NOT true concerning a behavioral contract? a. it is a type of antecedent manipulation b. it serves as a public commitment c. it is also referred to as a contingency contract d. it produces behavior change through simple reinforcement and punishment processes ANSWER: d 32. Tommy writes a behavioral contract with his parents which states he can go to a movie on weekends if he completes his school assignments. During the week Tommy tells himself, “Do your assignments so you can go to a movie on the weekend.” When Tommy makes this statement, it cues him to do his assignments. This is an example of ____________ behavior. a. self-directed b. rule-governed c. guided d. functional ANSWER: b 33. Rule-governed behavior influences the target behavior in a behavioral contract by ____________ the target behavior. a. punishing

b. positively reinforcing c. cuing d. B and C ANSWER: c 34. A behavioral contract produces change in the target behavior through all of the following ways except: a. public commitment b. rule-governed behavior c. punishment d. reactivity ANSWER: d 35. Which of the following is used in a behavioral contract to determine whether the target behavior occurred or did not occur? a. verbal reports of the client b. permanent products of the behavior c. self-monitoring by the client d. all of these ANSWER: b 36. Sally writes a behavioral contract with the school counselor in which she commits to studying 2 hours per evening. If she does (as verified by her mother), she avoids the loss of $10 that she deposited with the counselor. This is an example of a: a. one party contract b. quid pro quo contract c. parallel contract d. two party contract ANSWER: a 37. In what type of behavioral contract does the behavior change of one party serve as the reinforcer for the behavior change of the other party and vice versa? a. parallel contract b. dual contract c. status quo contract d. quid pro quo contract ANSWER: d 38. Why doesn’t a behavioral contract produce behavior change through a simple reinforcement or punishment process? a. because the consequences for the behavior occur long after the behavior has occurred or failed to occur b. because rule governed behavior replaces reinforcement or punishment processes c. because social support replaces reinforcement or punishment processes d. B and C ANSWER: a 39. Which of the following is a type of two party contract? a. quid pro quo contract b. parallel contract

c. both of these d. none of these ANSWER: c 40. In addition to reinforcement or punishment processes, what other processes may influence the target behavior in a behavioral contract? a. rule governed behavior b. social support c. respondent conditioning d. A and B ANSWER: d Numeric Response Matching - Identify the types of contingencies in a behavioral contract.

A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. positive punishment D. negative punishment 41. ________________ Jerry gets to pick out his dessert if he makes his bed every morning.

ANSWER: a 42. ________________ Allison loses $.25 of her allowance every time she uses a swear word.

ANSWER: d 43. ________________ If Mrs. R is late for work her supervisor gives her an extra task to complete that day.

ANSWER: c 44. ________________ If Miranda does a job task on time, she avoids being written up by the shift supervisor.

ANSWER: b Completion 45. A behavioral contract states the ________________ that will be administered contingent on the occurrence of the behavior.

ANSWER: consequence 46. Two party contracts are written between people who have some ________________ with each other.

ANSWER: relationship 47. Quid pro quo and parallel contracts are two types of _________________ contracts.

ANSWER: two party 48. Two types of two party contracts are ________________________ and __________________________.

ANSWER: quid pro quo, parallel

49. When one individual writes a contract with a contract manager, it is called a(n)________________ party contract.

ANSWER: one; 1 50. When two individuals desire behavior change and write a contract to change their respective behaviors, it is called a(n) ____________________ party contract.

ANSWER: two; 2 Subjective Short Answer 51. List the 5 components of a behavioral contract.

ANSWER: 5 components of a behavioral contract are: Identifying the target behaviors.

Stating how the target behaviors will be measured.

Stating when the behavior must be performed.

Identifying the reinforcement and/or punishment contingency.

Identifying who will implement the contingency.

52. Define a two party contract.

ANSWER: A two party contract is one that is written between two parties, each of whom wants to change a target behavior.

53. How is a behavioral contract a form of public commitment?

ANSWER: A public commitment is a public statement of the behavior change goal. A public commitment may be involved in the success of a behavioral contract in the following way: If the contractee has a history of reinforcement of correspondence between saying and doing, then the act of stating the target behavior should increase the likelihood of engaging in the target behavior. In addition, other individuals who are aware of the contract commitment may then prompt or cue the individual to engage in the target behavior at the appropriate times, or providing reinforcing or punishing consequence when they observe the contractee engaging in the behavior.

54. What are 2 ways in which a rule-governed behavior can operate to influence the target behavior?

ANSWER: Rule-governed behavior may play a role in the effectiveness of behavioral contracts in the following ways: The contract establishes a rule that the contractee states later in the appropriate circumstances as a prompt or self-instruction to engage in the target behavior. Another way that rule-governed behavior may operate to influence the target behaviors is this: When the contractee states the rule, it may create an aversive physiological state (anxiety). Then when the contractee engages in the target behavior, it results in escape from this aversive state.

55. Define a one party contract.

ANSWER: In a one party contract one individual seeks to change a target behavior and arranges reinforcement or punishment contingencies with a contract manager who implements the contingencies.

56. Provide an example of a one party contract and a two party contract.

ANSWER: An example of a one party contract is as follows: Bob wants to increase the number of days per week he goes jogging. Joanie, his wife, is the contract manager. Whenever Bob completes his goal of jogging 4 days per week, he is rewarded with his favorite home cooked meal prepared by Joanie. An example of a two party contract is as follows: Rich and Tony are classmates who are working on a research project together.

Although they have already decided who will perform which tasks on the project, both are progressing slowly and not much is being accomplished. As a result, Rich and Tony enter into a two party contract which states that if either individual does not devote at least 10 hours per week to the research project, he will not be able to go out on Friday night (a potent reinforcer for both).

1. Fear and anxiety reduction procedures are used to treat ____________ behavior. a. operant b. respondent c. autonomic d. all of these ANSWER: d 2. Whenever Amy sees a dog, she experiences unpleasant bodily responses (rapid heart beat, upset stomach, and sweaty hands) and engages in escape behavior (runs away). In behavior modification, Amy’s operant and respondent behavior is referred to as: a. fear b. reactivity c. alarm d. behavioral excess ANSWER: a 3. Bill experiences autonomic nervous system arousal whenever he is in an airplane. In behavior modification, autonomic nervous system arousal in response to a particular stimulus is labeled: a. aversion b. excitation c. anxiety d. reactivity ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following behaviors may function as an establishing operation in fear and anxiety problems? a. escape behavior b. respondent behavior c. avoidance behavior d. operant behavior ANSWER: b 5. Whenever Cindy sees a mouse, she experiences rapid heart rate, sweaty hands, and an upset stomach. The presence of the mouse is a(an) ____________, and the unpleasant bodily response is a(an) ____________. a. conditioned stimulus; conditioned response b. establishing operation; operant response c. unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response d. conditioned stimulus; operant response ANSWER: a 6. John experiences anxiety whenever he is in a crowded room, and he leaves the crowded room to decrease his anxiety.

John’s behavior of leaving the crowded room to decrease his autonomic nervous system arousal is: a. positively punished b. negatively punished c. positively reinforced d. negatively reinforced ANSWER: d

7. The respondent behavior in fear and anxiety problems involves ____________, and the operant behavior involves ____________. a. autonomic nervous system arousal; escape or avoidance behavior b. escape or avoidance behavior; autonomic nervous system arousal c. autonomic nervous system arousal; autonomic nervous system arousal d. escape or avoidance behavior; escape or avoidance behavior ANSWER: a 8. Which of the following is NOT true concerning fear? a. respondent behavior is a component of fear b. operant behavior is a component of fear c. it is not always known how the fear developed d. it must be known how the fear was conditioned to overcome the fear ANSWER: d 9. All of the following procedures are used to reduce fear and anxiety problems except: a. systematic desensitization b. punishment c. relaxation training d. in vivo desensitization ANSWER: b 10. Relaxation training procedures are used to: a. produce bodily responses similar to autonomic arousal b. decrease autonomic arousal c. enhance autonomic arousal d. A and C ANSWER: b 11. Which relaxation procedure involves teaching an individual to systematically tense and relax each major muscle group in the body until a relaxed state has been achieved? a. diaphragmatic breathing b. in vivo desensitization c. attention-focusing exercises d. progressive muscle relaxation ANSWER: d 12. A therapist teaches an individual to decrease autonomic arousal by breathing deeply in a slow rhythmic fashion. This type of breathing is referred to as ____________ breathing. a. diaphragmatic b. focused c. systematic d. progressive ANSWER: a 13. What function does the use of a cue word serve in progressive muscle relaxation? a. the cue word reinforces the use of progressive muscle relaxation

b. the cue word develops into a conditioned stimulus that elicits relaxation c. the cue word helps the individual avoid anxiety producing thoughts d. all of these ANSWER: b 14. Zach sees a therapist to overcome his fear of heights. Zach learns to relax by focusing his attention on a pleasant stimulus, in order to remove his attention from the anxiety producing situation. In this example, Zach is using ____________ to produce relaxation. a. behavioral relaxation training b. attention-focusing exercises c. systematic desensitization d. in vivo desensitization ANSWER: b 15. Which of the following is NOT an attention-focusing procedure? a. guided imagery b. meditation c. diaphragmatic breathing d. hypnosis ANSWER: c 16. Wendy is seeing a psychologist for an anxiety problem and learns to relax all the major muscle groups in her body by assuming relaxed postures. Which relaxation training procedure is being used? a. progressive muscle relaxation b. behavioral relaxation training c. diaphragmatic breathing d. attention-focusing exercises ANSWER: b 17. Which of the following is a component of behavioral relaxation training? a. focusing on muscle tension b. attention focusing c. learning to breathe correctly d. all of these ANSWER: d 18. Barb is seeing a therapist to overcome her fear of flying. The therapist has Barb practice relaxation while imagining progressively greater anxiety situations involved in flying. What procedure is the therapist using to decrease Barb’s fear of flying? a. exposure training b. contact training c. in vivo desensitization d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: d 19. The key to systematic desensitization is to: a. maintain relaxation while being exposed to the fear-producing stimulus

b. maintain relaxation while imagining the fear-producing stimulus c. rapidly progress through the fear hierarchy d. teach an individual to avoid the fear-producing stimulus ANSWER: b 20. Helen experiences so much anxiety when she is in public that she no longer leaves her house. When the level of anxiety and avoidance behavior severely disrupts an individual’s life it is called a(an): a. conditioned disorder b. phobia c. generalized disorder d. avoidance disorder ANSWER: b 21. Which of the following is NOT a step in the use of systematic desensitization? a. learning relaxation skills b. practicing relaxation skills c. developing a hierarchy d. exposure to the fear-producing stimulus ANSWER: d 22. The procedure of systematic desensitization is complete when: a. relaxation is maintained while being exposed to each step of the hierarchy b. relaxation is maintained while imagining each scene from the hierarchy c. the entire fear hierarchy has been developed d. the client has learned relaxation skills ANSWER: b 23. In ____________ desensitization an individual maintains relaxation while imagining the fear-producing stimulus, and in ____________ desensitization an individual maintains relaxation while being exposed to the fear-producing stimulus. a. in vivo; systematic b. contact; in vivo c. systematic; in vivo d. in vivo; contact ANSWER: c 24. Matt is working with a psychologist to overcome his fear of heights. They develop a fear hierarchy and Matt is exposed to progressively greater fear-producing situations while maintaining relaxation. Which procedure is being used to help Matt overcome his fear of heights? a. systematic desensitization b. in vivo desensitization c. environmental desensitization d. experimental desensitization ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following is NOT true concerning in vivo desensitization? a. the individual makes actual contact with the feared stimulus b. there is not a problem with generalization

c. it does not require a lot of time to implement d. relaxation training is not always used ANSWER: c 26. The advantage of systematic desensitization is that: a. there is not a problem with generalization b. it is easier and more convenient than contact desensitization c. desirable behavior can be reinforced in a real life situation d. the individual is exposed to the actual feared stimulus ANSWER: b 27. Progressive muscle relaxation involves: a. deep, rhythmic breathing b. tensing and relaxing each of the major muscle groups in the body c. focusing on a therapist who provides images of relaxing scene d. assuming relaxed postures with all parts of the body supported in a recliner of comfortable chair ANSWER: b 28. Attention focusing exercises involve: a. deep, rhythmic breathing b. tensing and relaxing each of the major muscle groups in the body c. focusing on a therapist who provides images of relaxing scene d. assuming relaxed postures with all parts of the body supported in a recliner of comfortable chair ANSWER: c 29. Diaphragmatic breathing involves: a. deep, rhythmic breathing b. tensing and relaxing each of the major muscle groups in the body c. listening to a therapist who provides images of relaxing scenes d. assuming relaxed postures with all parts of the body supported in a recliner of comfortable chair ANSWER: a 30. Behavioral relaxation training involves: a. deep, rhythmic breathing b. tensing and relaxing each of the major muscle groups in the body c. listening to a therapist who provides images of relaxing scenes d. assuming relaxed postures with all parts of the body supported in a recliner of comfortable chair ANSWER: d 31. Fear and anxiety reduction procedures are based on principles of ________________ and ________ conditioning.

ANSWER: operant, respondent 32. Ellen is afraid of snakes. Whenever she sees a picture of a snake or sees one on TV her heart races and she immediately turns her head. The operant behavior involved in Ellen’s fear of snakes is ________________.

ANSWER: turn head

33. The respondent behavior involved in Ellen’s fear is ________________.

ANSWER: heart races 34. In the case of Ellen’s fear, identify the CS _____________and the CR ____________.

ANSWER: snake; heart racing 35. In the case of Ellen’s fear, identify the reinforcement for turning her head. ________________ ANSWER: avoid sight of snake 36. In helping an individual overcome a fear, it is important to identify all ________________ that currently function to elicit the ________________.

ANSWER: CS; CR 37. Progressive muscle relaxation involves systematically ________________ and ________________ major muscle groups in the body.

ANSWER: tensing, relaxing 38. What procedures for treating fears involve the use of a fear hierarchy? _________________________________ ANSWER: in vivo and systematic desensitization 39. __________________ desensitization involves actual contact with the feared stimuli in the hierarchy.

ANSWER: In vivo 40. __________________ desensitization involves imaginal contact with the feared stimuli in the hierarchy.

ANSWER: Systematic 41. Most treatment programs for anxiety and fear disorders only involve components to address the operant behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 42. A therapist does not have to know how a fear was conditioned in order to help the individual overcome the fear. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 43. PMR must be done with a trained therapist. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 44. In diaphragmatic breathing, if the shoulders move on an inhale, the procedure is being done properly. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 45. Systematic desensitization involves relaxing while in the presence of fear or anxiety provoking stimuli.

a. True b. False ANSWER: False 46. There is a greater chance of generalization occurring with the use of systematic desensitization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. In vivo desensitization involves relaxing while in the presence of the actual fear producing stimuli. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. Diaphragmatic breathing is a form of relaxation training. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 49. Hypnosis is not a form of relaxation training. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 50. Flooding is the preferred method for treating fears in most cases. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 51. List 3 procedures used to help people overcome problems of fear or anxiety.

ANSWER: Three procedures used to help people overcome problems with fear or anxiety are relaxation training, systematic desensitization, and in vivo desensitization.

52. Relaxation training procedures produce bodily responses that are opposite of autonomic arousal. What are the bodily responses involved in autonomic arousal?

ANSWER: Bodily responses involved in autonomic arousal are tense muscles, rapid heart rate, cold hands, and rapid breathing.

53. How does diaphragmatic breathing decrease autonomic arousal?

ANSWER: Because anxiety or autonomic arousal most often involves shallow rapid breathing, diaphragmatic breathing decreases anxiety by replacing this breathing pattern with a more relaxed pattern.

54. How does focusing attention on the sensations of breathing help a person alleviate anxiety?

ANSWER: By focusing attention on these sensations (feeling the lungs expanding and contracting, the air flowing in and out, and the movement of the abdomen), the individual is less likely to think anxiety provoking thoughts.

55. What are the 3 steps in the use of systematic desensitization?

ANSWER: Teach relaxation skills; develop the fear hierarchy; imagine each scene in the hierarchy while maintaining relaxation.

56. List one advantage and one disadvantage of systematic desensitization.

List one advantage and one disadvantage of in vivo desensitization.

ANSWER: The advantage of systematic desensitization is that it is easier and more convenient for the client to imagine the feared stimulus than to come into actual contact with it. The disadvantage of systematic desensitization is that the results may not fully generalize to the actual fear-producing situation. The advantage of in vivo desensitization is that the client makes actual contact with the feared stimulus, therefore, there is no problem with generalization from imagination to the actual fear situation. A disadvantage of in vivo desensitization is that it is more difficult and possibly more time consuming and costly than systematic desensitization.

1. The primary focus of behavior modification is on __________ behavior. a. private b. covert c. overt d. cognitive ANSWER: c 2. A behavior that is not observable by other individuals is referred to as __________ behavior. a. operant b. covert c. overt d. functional ANSWER: b 3. In behavior modification, the behaviors of thinking, imagining, and talking to yourself are labeled as __________ behaviors. a. overt b. cognitive c. respondent d. internal ANSWER: b 4. In order to use behavior modification procedures to change a cognitive behavior, the behavior must be: a. assigned a label b. readily observable to others c. operationally defined d. overt ANSWER: c 5. When cognitive behavior is involved, who identifies and records the occurrence of the behavior? a. the individual engaging in the behavior b. independent observers c. significant others d. A and B ANSWER: a 6. Which of the following is a behavioral definition of cognitive behavior? a. self-esteem b. self-confidence c. self-efficacy d. none of these ANSWER: d 7. An undesirable cognitive behavior that an individual wants to decrease is referred to as a (an) __________ behavior, and a desirable cognitive behavior that an individual wants to increase is referred to as a (n) __________ behavior. a. operant; respondent b. excess; deficit

c. overt; covert d. dysfunctional; functional ANSWER: b 8. Cognitive behavior can function as all of the following except: a. a conditioned stimulus that elicits a conditioned response b. a discriminative stimulus for desirable behavior c. a punishing consequence for a behavior d. an unconditioned stimulus that elicits an unconditioned response ANSWER: d 9. Mary thinks about an upcoming speech that she has to give and she experiences anxiety. In this example, Mary’s cognitive behavior is functioning as a (an): a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. discriminative stimulus d. punishing consequence ANSWER: a 10. When Bill is driving faster than the speed limit, he covertly tells himself to slow down or he will get a ticket. He then slows down. Bill’s cognitive behavior of telling himself to slow down is functioning as a: a. conditioned stimulus b. punishing consequence c. reinforcing consequence d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: d 11. Paul shares his toys with other children and covertly tells himself, “Good job! You’re a good person.” These statements make it more likely that he will share his toys. In this example, Paul’s cognitive behavior is functioning as a (n): a. discriminative stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. reinforcing consequence d. unconditioned response ANSWER: c 12. Which of the following is a cognitive behavior modification procedure? a. cognitive restructuring b. behavioral skills training c. cognitive adaptation training d. A and C ANSWER: a 13. In the case of excess cognitive behavior, __________ procedures are used to decrease the behavior, and when deficit cognitive behavior is involved, __________ procedures are used to increase the behavior. a. avoidance training; cognitive therapy b. aversion therapy; cognitive adaptation

c. cognitive coping skills training; cognitive restructuring d. cognitive restructuring; cognitive coping skills training ANSWER: d 14. Amy is seeing a psychologist because she has distressing thoughts that lead to anxiety. The psychologist helps Amy to identify the distressing thoughts and the emotional response that follows, and to get rid of the distressing thoughts.

Which cognitive behavior modification procedure is being used? a. cognitive restructuring b. problem-solving therapy c. cognitive coping skills training d. self-monitoring ANSWER: a 15. The cognitive restructuring procedure involves helping an individual to do all of the following except: a. identify distressing thoughts and situations b. avoid situations in which distressing thoughts occur c. identify the response that follows the thoughts d. decrease the distressing thoughts ANSWER: b 16. What type of information is included in a data sheet that is used in cognitive restructuring procedures? a. information about the situation b. information about emotions and behavior c. information about thoughts that occur d. all of these ANSWER: d 17. What is involved in cognitive behavior modification procedures used to treat depression? a. getting the individual to engage in fewer activities b. teaching the person to use cognitive distortions c. helping the individual change distorted thinking d. A and B ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following questions is NOT used to challenge an individual’s distorted thinking? a. where is the evidence? b. what are the implications? c. are there alternative explanations? d. can you change the way others react to you?

ANSWER: d 19. A psychologist is working with Tony to help him control his anger when he disagrees with his boss. The psychologist teaches Tony specific self-statements that he can use in the situation, so that Tony is less likely to get angry and argue with his boss and more likely to walk away. Which cognitive behavior modification procedure is being used? a. cognitive coping skills training b. cognitive adaptation training c. cognitive restructuring

d. systematic rational restructuring ANSWER: a 20. Which of the following is NOT a step in self-instructional training? a. identifying the problem situation b. using shaping to teach self-instructions c. defining the behaviors involved d. identifying the instructions that will be used ANSWER: b 21. Which behavior modification procedure is used to teach the self-instructions that are used in cognitive coping skills training? a. shaping b. chaining c. respondent conditioning d. behavioral skills training ANSWER: d 22. Which of the following is NOT a type of cognitive distortion? a. overgeneralization b. magnification c. procrastination d. personalization ANSWER: c 23. Which cognitive behavior modification procedure helps a person talk to himself to make desirable behavior more likely to occur? a. cognitive therapy b. cognitive restructuring c. self-instructional training d. A and B ANSWER: c 24. Billy completes an assignment and says positive things about his work and praises himself. As a result, Billy is more likely to complete assignments. Billy’s self-talk functions as: a. a discriminative stimulus b. a conditioned stimulus c. an establishing operation d. a reinforcer ANSWER: d 25. Which cognitive behavior modification procedure helps a person identify distressing thoughts and to get rid of the distressing thoughts? a. acceptance based therapies b. cognitive restructuring c. self-instructional training d. cognitive coping skills training

ANSWER: b 26. In cognitive therapy, the therapists asks three questions to challenge the client’s distorted thinking: Where is the evidence? Are there any alternative explanations? And _______________________ a. Why do you think that way? b. What are the implications? c. How can you prevent those thoughts from occurring? d. What have you done to control those thoughts?

ANSWER: b 27. In cognitive therapy for depression, the therapist first a. gets the client to stop focusing on negative events b. gets the client to engage in more reinforcing activities c. gets the client to engage in fewer activities so the client is not so easily disappointed with failure d. asks the client a series of questions to challenge the client’s distorted thinking ANSWER: b 28. Which of the following is not a type of cognitive coping skills training procedure? a. self-instructional training b. stress inoculation training c. problem solving therapy d. cognitive restructuring ANSWER: d 29. Which of the following is a type of cognitive coping skills training procedure? a. self-instructional training b. stress inoculation training c. cognitive restructuring d. A and B ANSWER: d 30. Which of the following is true regarding acceptance-based therapies? a. the client learns to change her thinking to change her negative feelings b. the client learns to accept her negative feelings because meaningful behavior change is impossible c. the client learns to guide her own behavior through self talk d. none of these ANSWER: d 31. Provide 2 examples of cognitive behavior. ________________ ANSWER: thinking, imagining 32. Who identifies and records the occurrence of cognitive behaviors? ________________ ANSWER: the individual 33. Cognitive behavior may be distressing when it functions as a(n) ________________ that elicits an unpleasant ________________.

ANSWER: CS; CR 34. Alyssa repeats her grocery list to herself while shopping and is able to buy the correct items. What is the function of this cognitive behavior? It is a(n) ________________________________ for buying correct items in the store.

ANSWER: discriminative stimulus 35. Jamey tells herself “good job” when she completes all of her homework at night and is more likely to complete her homework. What is the function of this cognitive behavior? It is a(n) ________________ for completing her homework.

ANSWER: positive reinforcer 36. Cognitive restructuring occurs when a client ________________ distorted thoughts with ________________ that don’t lead to distressing moods or behaviors.

ANSWER: replaces; more desirable thoughts 37. Cognitive behavior modification for depression involves first getting the person to engage in more ________________.

ANSWER: reinforcing activities 38. If self instructional training is effective, the ________________ should be a discriminative stimulus for the ________________.

ANSWER: problem situation, self-instruction; self-instruction, appropriate behavior 39. Cognitive behavior may function as a(n) __________________________ when it elicits a conditioned response such as autonomic arousal.

ANSWER: CS 40. _______________________ teaches a person to make verbal statements or provide instructions to himself to influence his own behavior ANSWER: Cognitive coping skills training 41. Cognitive behaviors cannot be directly observed and recorded by an independent observer. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 42. “Low self esteem” is an operational definition of a cognitive behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 43. Cognitive restructuring is typically done by parents trying to help their children. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 44. Modeling and role plays are not a part of self -instructional training procedures. a. True b. False

ANSWER: False 45. A cognitive behavior may function as an EO for another behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 46. Cognitive behaviors cannot function as reinforcers or punishers for the person exhibiting the behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 47. Cognitive therapy is often used to treat people with depression. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 48. Cognitive behavior modification procedures do not work with children. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 49. Overgeneralization is an example of a label for a cognitive distortion. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 50. In cognitive therapy, the therapist asks the client questions in an attempt to get the client to change her distorted thinking. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 51. List the 3 steps in cognitive restructuring.

ANSWER: 3 steps in cognitive restructuring are identifying distressing thoughts and situations, identifying emotional responses or behaviors that follow the thoughts, and working to decrease the distressing thoughts and increase more rational or desirable thoughts.

52. Provide 3 examples of “cognitive distortions.”

ANSWER: Examples of cognitive distortions: All or nothing thinking Overgeneralization Disqualifying the positive Jumping to conclusions Magnification or minimization Labeling and mislabeling Personalization

53. What 3 types of questions are typically asked when challenging a person’s distorted thinking?

ANSWER: 3 types of questions typically asked when challenging a person’s distorted thinking are: Where is the evidence?

Are there any alternative explanations?

What are the implications?

54. What is involved in cognitive coping skills training?

ANSWER: In cognitive coping skills training, the therapist teaches clients specific self-statements that they can make in a problem situation to improve their performance or influence their behavior in the situation.

55. What are acceptance-based therapies?

ANSWER: In acceptance-based therapies, the client learns to accept her negative thoughts or feelings. Once the client accepts her negative thoughts and feelings, they lose the ability to disrupt her life and she can work toward valued behavior change.