Basic Chemistry Plus MasteringChemistry with eText -- Access Card Package, 3E Karen Timberlake Test

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Basic Chemistry Plus MasteringChemistry with eText -- Access Card Package

Edition:

3rd Edition

Author(s):

Karen C. Timberlake

Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 1 Chemistry in Our Lives 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Water, H2O, is an example of a(n) ________.

A) chemical B) solid C) wave D) electric charge E) element Answer: A 2) In this list, which substance can be classified as a chemical?

A) salt B) sleep C) cold D) heat E) temperature Answer: A 3) One example of a chemical used in toothpaste is ________.

A) chlorine B) sulfur C) carbon dioxide D) calcium carbonate E) sugar Answer: D 4) Which of the following is not a chemical?

A) salt B) water C) light D) carbon dioxide E) sugar Answer: C 5) Sodium fluorophosphate is a chemical used in toothpaste to ________.

A) make the paste white B) disinfect the toothbrush C) keep the paste from spoiling D) remove plaque E) strengthen tooth enamel Answer: E

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6) Chlorofluorocarbons are broken down in the atmosphere by ________.

A) nitrogen dioxide B) ozone C) iron D) oxygen E) sunlight Answer: E 7) When a part of the body is injured, substances called ________ are released.

A) aspirins B) pain relievers C) nitrogen oxides D) chlorofluorocarbons E) prostaglandins Answer: E 8) The production of smog from the chemical NO requires ________.

A) nitrogen B) chlorine C) water D) oxygen E) CFCs Answer: D 9) When scientific information is used for industrial purposes, the discipline is known as ________.

A) the scientific method B) marketing C) commercial D) hypothetical E) technology Answer: E 10) Employing scientific information to develop new materials to benefit society is an example of ________.

A) technology B) philosophy C) marketing D) sociology E) politics Answer: A 11) DDT is a type of ________.

A) herbicide B) poison gas C) plant D) insecticide E) metal Answer: D Page 2 ..

12) Chlorofluorocarbons are destructive to the ________.

A) ozone produced at ground level in traffic B) water in the upper atmosphere C) nitrogen dioxide in smog D) ozone layer in the upper atmosphere E) copper in telephone wiring Answer: D 13) Titanium dioxide is a chemical used in toothpaste to ________.

A) make the paste white B) disinfect the toothbrush C) keep the paste from spoiling D) remove plaque E) strengthen tooth enamel Answer: A 14) The first step in the scientific method is ________.

A) using technology B) making observations C) forming a hypothesis D) doing experiments E) proposing a theory Answer: B 15) DDT was a good pesticide because ________.

A) it had low toxicity to animals B) it was cheap to prepare C) it was toxic to many insects D) it had low toxicity to humans E) all the above Answer: E 16) One way to enhance your learning in chemistry is to ________.

A) study a little every day B) form a study group C) go to office hours D) be an active learner E) all the above Answer: E

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17) You notice that there is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning. This would be a(n) ________.

A) observation B) hypothesis C) experiment D) theory E) all the above Answer: A 18) There is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning because most people start work at 9. This would be a(n) ________.

A) observation B) hypothesis C) experiment D) theory E) all the above Answer: B 19) In order to enhance your learning in chemistry, you should not ________.

A) study a little every day B) form a study group C) go to office hours D) be an active learner E) wait until the night before the exam to study Answer: E 20) Which of the following is a chemical?

A) sugar B) heat C) light D) noise E) a wave Answer: A 1.2 True/False Questions 1) The reddish-brown color of smog is due to NO2.

Answer: TRUE 2) Chloroflourocarbons are broken down in the upper atmosphere to produce oxygen, O2.

Answer: FALSE 3) DDT is effective against poison ivy.

Answer: FALSE 4) The first step in using the scientific method is usually the observation of some natural event.

Answer: TRUE Page 4 ..

5) In the scientific method, a hypothesis has more data to support it than a theory.

Answer: FALSE 6) Titanium dioxide in toothpaste is used as a mild abrasive.

Answer: FALSE 7) A theory is confirmed after one experiment is performed.

Answer: FALSE 8) Alchemists believed there were four components of nature: earth, fire, air, and water.

Answer: TRUE 9) Working with a group of students can help you learn chemistry.

Answer: TRUE 10) Paracelsus was a Greek philosopher.

Answer: FALSE 11) DDT was banned because it breaks down quickly in the environment.

Answer: FALSE 12) Organic chemistry is the study of substances that contain carbon.

Answer: TRUE 13) Geochemistry is the study of the chemical reactions that take place in the body.

Answer: FALSE 1.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A type of matter that has the same composition and properties wherever it is found is a ________.

Answer: chemical 2) The brown color of smog is caused by ________.

Answer: nitrogen dioxide 3) The use of observation and hypothesis are important steps in the ________ method.

Answer: scientific 4) DDT is a effective against ________.

Answer: insects 5) A test performed to determine if a hypothesis is valid is called a(n) ________.

Answer: experiment 6) A hypothesis can be tested by performing a(n) ________.

Answer: experiment Page 5 ..

7) Any material used in or produced by a chemical reaction is a ________.

Answer: chemical 8) An observation takes place when a(n) ________ is noted.

Answer: natural phenomenon 9) Name the steps in the scientific method.

Answer: observation, hypothesis, experiment, theory 10) When scientific principles are used to produce consumer goods, the discipline is termed ________.

Answer: technology 11) An abrasive used in toothpaste is ________.

Answer: calcium carbonate 12) When a hypothesis is supported by many experiments is becomes a ________.

Answer: theory 13) The science that studies the properties and composition of substances is called ________.

Answer: chemistry 14) In the scientific method, after data is collected, a ________ is proposed which gives a possible explanation.

Answer: hypothesis 15) The substance the alchemists thought could turn metals into gold was called ________.

Answer: the philosopher's stone 16) The substances released when tissues are injured are ________.

Answer: prostaglandins 17) Substances which prevent spoilage are called ________.

Answer: antioxidants 18) The chemical used to make cans and foil is ________.

Answer: aluminum

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 2 Measurements 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) 5.21 cm is the same distance as ________.

A) 0.0521 m B) 52.1 dm C) 5.21 mm D) 0.000 521 km E) 5210 m Answer: A 2) How many centimeters are there in 57.0 in?

A) 22 cm B) 0.0445 cm C) 145 cm D) 22.4 cm E) 140 cm Answer: C 3) The measurement of the gravitational pull on an object is its ________.

A) volume B) weight C) mass D) length E) size Answer: B 4) The amount of space occupied by a substance is its ________.

A) mass B) density C) weight D) length E) volume Answer: E 5) Which of the following is the basic unit of volume in the metric system?

A) liter B) kilogram C) meter D) centimeter E) gram Answer: A

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6) Which of the following is the SI unit of mass ?

A) milliliter B) centimeter C) kilogram D) Celsius E) meter Answer: C 7) A value of 25 °C is a measurement of ________.

A) distance B) volume C) temperature D) mass E) density Answer: C 8) The measurement 0.000 043 m, expressed correctly using scientific notation, is ________.

A) 4.3 × 10-7 m B) 4.3 × 10-6 m C) 4.3 × 106 m D) 4.3 × 10-5 m E) 4.3 m Answer: D 9) The number 680 000 000 expressed correctly using scientific notation is ________.

A) 6.8 B) 0.68 × 106 C) 6.8 × 108 D) 68 × 107 E) 680 × 106 Answer: C 10) Which of the following numbers is the smallest?

A) 4.0 × 10-6 B) 4.0 × 10-8 C) 4.0 × 10-2 D) 4.0 × 1015 E) 4.0 × 10-12 Answer: E

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11) Which of the following numbers is the largest?

A) 2.05 ×103 B) 2.05 × 10-12 C) 2.05 × 105 D) 2.05 × 108 E) 2.05 Answer: D 12) Which of the following conversion factors involves a measured number?

A) 10 cm/dm B) 12 in/ft C) 16 oz/lb D) 25 miles/gallon E) 12 eggs/dozen Answer: D 13) Significant figures are important because they indicate ________.

A) a counted number B) the number of digits on a calculator C) the number of measurements D) the number of digits in a measurement E) the accuracy of the conversion factor Answer: D 14) Which of the following measurements has three significant figures?

A) 0.005 m B) 510 m C) 0.510 m D) 0.051 m E) 5100 m Answer: C 15) Which of the following numbers contains the designated CORRECT number of significant figures?

A) 0.043 00 5 significant figures B) 0.00302 2 significant figures C) 156 000 3 significant figures D) 1.04 2 significant figures E) 3.0650 4 significant figures Answer: C

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16) The number of significant figures in the measurement of 45.030 mm is ________.

A) none B) three C) four D) five E) six Answer: D 17) How many significant figures are in the number 0.00208?

A) six B) two C) three D) four E) five Answer: C 18) Which of the following examples illustrates a number that is correctly rounded to three significant figures?

A) 4.05438 grams to 4.054 grams B) 0.03954 grams to 0.040 grams C) 103.692 grams to 103.7 grams D) 109 526 grams to 109 500 grams E) 20.0332 grams to 20.0 grams Answer: E 19) A calculator answer of 423.6059 must be rounded off to three significant figures. What answer is reported?

A) 423 B) 424 C) 420 D) 423.6 E) 423.7 Answer: B

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20) Which of the answers for the following conversions contains the correct number of significant figures?

39.37 in.

A) 2.543 m × = 100.1942 in 1m 1.057 qt B) 2 L × = 2.12 qt 1L 1h C) 24.95 min × = 0.4158 h 60 min 12 in.

2.54 cm D) 12.0 ft × x = 370 cm 1 ft 1 in.

1 lb E) 24.0 kg × = 11 lb 2.205 kg Answer: C 21) What is the correct answer for the calculation of a volume (in mL) with measured numbers 28.58 ?

16  8.02 A) 0.22 mL B) 0.223 mL C) 57 mL D) 14 mL E) 14.3 mL Answer: A 22) A researcher needed three samples of sodium chloride solution, each with a volume of 0.03510 mL. The total volume needed, if the three volumes are added together, should be reported as ________.

A) 0.105 mL B) 0.0105 mL C) 0.10 mL D) 0.10530 mL E) 0.1053 mL Answer: D 23) What is the answer, with the correct number of significant figures, for this problem?

4.392 g + 102.40 g + 2.51 g = A) 109.302 g B) 109 g C) 109.3 g D) 109.30 g E) 110 g Answer: D

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24) The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g is ________.

A) 13.071 g B) 13 g C) 13.0 g D) 10 g E) 13.1 g Answer: B 25) Which of the following measurements are NOT equivalent?

A) 25 mg = 0.025 g B) 183 L = 0.183 kL C) 150. msec = 0.150 sec D) 84 cm = 8.4 mm E) 24 dL = 2.4 L Answer: D 26) In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation?

A) microgram / mg B) milliliter / mL C) centimeter / km D) kilogram / cg E) gram / gm Answer: B 27) Which of the following is the largest unit?

A) millimeter B) micrometer C) meter D) decimeter E) kilometer Answer: E 28) What is the metric relationship between grams and micrograms?

A) 1 g = 100 μg B) 1 g = 1 000 000 μg C) 1 g = 0.000001 μg D) 1 g = 1000 μg E) 1 g = 0.001 μg Answer: B 29) What is the conversion factor for the relationship between millimeters and centimeters?

A) 1 mm/1 cm B) 10 mm/1 cm C) 1 cm/1 mm D) 100 mm/1 cm E) 10 cm/1 mm Answer: B Page 6 ..

30) Which of the following is the smallest unit?

A) gram B) milligram C) kilogram D) decigram E) microgram Answer: E 31) The cubic centimeter (cm3 or cc) has the same volume as a ________.

A) cubic inch B) cubic liter C) milliliter D) centimeter E) cubic decimeter Answer: C 32) 9.31 g is the same mass as ________.

A) 931 μg B) 931 kg C) 93.1 cg D) 9 310 mg E) 0.0931 dg Answer: D 33) According to the United States Food and Drug Administration, the recommended daily requirement of protein is 44 g. This is ________ oz of protein.

A) 1248.5 B) 320 000 C) 1.6 D) 0.0605 E) 150 000 Answer: C 34) Which of the following setups would convert centimeters to feet?

2.54 in.

1 ft A) cm × × 1 cm 12 in.

2.54 cm 12 in.

B) cm × × 1 in.

1 ft 1 ft 1 in.

C) cm × × 2.54 cm 12 in.

1 in.

12 in.

D) cm × × 2.54 cm 1 ft 2.54 cm 1 ft E) cm × × 1 in.

12 in.

Answer: C Page 7 ..

35) A conversion factor set up correctly to convert 15 inches to centimeters is ________.

A) 100 cm/1 m B) 1 inch/2.54 cm C) 1 cm/10 mm D) 2.54 cm/1 inch E) 10 cm/1 inch Answer: D 36) How many pounds are in 3.5 kg?

A) 7.7 lb B) 1.59 lb C) 0.629 lb D) 1.6 lb E) 7.70 lb Answer: A 37) How many liters of soft drink are there in 5.25 qt?

A) 4950 L B) 55.7 L C) 4.97 L D) 5.57 L E) 5.0 L Answer: C 38) What is 6.5 m converted to inches?

A) 1700 in B) 1651 in C) 39 in D) 260 in E) 255.9 in Answer: D 39) How many kilograms are in 30.4 lb?

A) 13.8 kg B) 14 kg C) 67 kg D) 66.88 kg E) 66.9 kg Answer: A 40) A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0 mL. What is the density of the gold?

A) 10.4 g/mL B) 6.77 g/mL C) 1.00 g/mL D) 0.0518 g/mL E) 19.3 g/mL Answer: E Page 8 ..

41) A dose of aspirin of 5.0 mg per kilogram of body weight has been prescribed to reduce the fever of an infant weighing 8.5 pounds. The number of milligrams of aspirin that should be administered is ________.

A) 19 mg B) 53 mg C) 1.6 mg D) 5.0 mg E) 0.59 mg Answer: A 42) A solution has a density of 1.22 g/mL. What volume of the solution has a mass of 48.2 g?

A) 0.00253 mL B) 58.8 mL C) 39.5 mL D) 49.4 mL E) 1.22 mL Answer: C 43) Which one of the following substances will float in gasoline, which has a density (d) of 0.66 g/mL? A) table salt (d = 2.16 g/mL) B) balsa wood (d = 0.16 g/mL) C) sugar (d = 1.59 g/mL) D) aluminum (d = 2.70 g/mL) E) mercury (d = 13.6 g/mL) Answer: B 44) What is the mass of 2.00 L of a solution with a density of 1.15 g/mL? A) 0.023 kg B) 2.30 kg C) 1.15 kg D) 0.015 kg E) 0.58 kg Answer: B 45) Mercury has a density of 13.6 g/mL. How many milliliters of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg?

A) 0.0257 mL B) 0.026 mL C) 25.7 mL D) 26 mL E) 4760 mL Answer: D

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46) What is the density of a substance with a mass of 45.00 g and a volume of 26.4 mL? A) 1.70 g/mL B) 1.7 g/mL C) 0.59 g/mL D) 0.587 g/mL E) 45.0 g/mL Answer: A 47) What is the mass of 53 mL of ethyl alcohol, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL? A) 67.1 g B) 41.9 g C) 42 g D) 67 g E) 53 g Answer: C 48) The density of a solution is 1.18 g/mL, and its volume is 25.0 mL. The mass of the sample is ________.

A) 29.5 g B) 21.2 g C) .0472 g D) 1.18 g E) 25.0 g Answer: A 49) Diamond has a density of 3.52 g/mL. What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a diamond with a mass of 15.1 g?

A) 4.3 cm3 B) 4.29 cm3 C) 0.233 cm3 D) 53 cm3 E) 53.2 cm3 Answer: B 50) The ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume is its ________.

A) specific gravity B) density C) buoyancy D) weight E) conversion factor Answer: B

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51) A 50.0 mL liquid sample has a mass of 50.7 g. The density of the sample is ________.

A) 1.01 g/mL B) 0.986 g/L C) 1.01 D) 0.986 E) 50.7 Answer: A 52) An alloy of iron contains 75.0% iron and 25.0% other elements. How many grams of iron are present in 150. g of the alloy?

A) 37.5 g B) 113 g C) 11 300 g D) 3 750 g E) 2.00 g Answer: B 53) One form of stainless steel contains 18.0% nickel. How much nickel is present in 200. g of this alloy?

A) 36.0 g B) 164 g C) 11.1 g D) 0.0122 g E) 18.0 g Answer: A 54) A 100.0 g sample of eighteen karat gold is contains 75.0 g of gold and 25.0 g of other metals.

What is the percent of gold in the sample?

A) 125% B) 50% C) 100.0% D) 25.0% E) 75.0% Answer: E 55) An sample of hamburger had a total mass of 200. g, of which 30.0 g was found to be fat. What is the percent of fat in this hamburger sample?

A) 30.0% B) 6.00% C) 15.0% D) 6.67% E) 13.3% Answer: C

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56) If 5.00 lbs of potatoes costs $3.60, how much would 1.30 kilograms of potatoes cost?

A) $2.06 B) $10.30 C) $0.43 D) $3.97 E) $0.86 Answer: A 57) If a car travels 23 miles on 1.0 gal of gas, how many liters of gasoline are needed for a 135 mile trip?

A) 14 L B) 5.9 gal C) 22 L D) 25 L E) 32 L Answer: C 58) The mercury level in cod was measured at 0.11 ppm. How many mg of mercury are present in a 150 g serving of cod?

A) 0.11 mg B) 0.17 mg C) 0.017 mg D) 0.14 mg E) 150 mg Answer: C 59) The herbicide level in the soil in a corn field was measured at 3.0 ppb. How many μg of herbicide are present in 1.0 lb of soil?

A) 0.14 μg B) 1.4 μg C) 3.0 μg D) 4.5 μg E) 0.44 μg Answer: B

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2.2 Matching Questions Are the numbers in each of the following statements measured or exact?

A) measured B) exact 1) In the U.S. system there are 5280 feet in one mile.

2) A lab test showed a blood sugar level is 350 mg/dL. 3) There are 452 pages in a book.

4) The rabbit weighs 2.5 pounds.

5) There are 100 aspirin in a bottle.

6) You feel ill and your temperature is 100.1 °F. Answers: 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) A Match the type of measurement to the unit given below.

A) distance B) density C) mass D) volume E) temperature 7) milliliter 8) mm 9) gram 10) 125 K 11) kilometer Answers: 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) E 11) A

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Select the correct prefix to complete the equality.

A) 100 B) 0.001 C) 10 D) 1000 E) 1 12) 1 g = _____ kg 13) 1 m = _____ mm 14) 1 cm = _____ mm 15) 1 dL = _____ mL 16) 1 mL = _____ cc Answers: 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) E 2.3 True/False Questions 1) A kilogram is a unit of volume.

Answer: FALSE 2) A microgram is larger than a gram.

Answer: FALSE 3) A 1-cup measuring cup holds about 240 mL. Answer: TRUE 4) Water (density = 1.00 g/mL) will float on hexane (density = 0.95 mL).

Answer: FALSE 5) The measurement 1.230 cm has 4 significant figures.

Answer: TRUE 6) The number 1.2 × 10-5 is larger than the number 1.2 × 10-4.

Answer: FALSE 7) The measurement 0.03550 has 4 significant figures.

Answer: TRUE 8) The number 1.3 × 104 is smaller than the number 1.3 × 105.

Answer: TRUE

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9) The mass of 10.0 mL of water is approximately 10.0 kg.

Answer: FALSE 10) A liter is a unit of volume.

Answer: TRUE 2.4 Short Answer Questions Round off each of the following to three significant figures.

1) 504.85 Answer: 505 2) 8.3158 Answer: 8.32 3) 25 225 Answer: 25 200 4) 58.5422 Answer: 58.5 5) 0.003 408 8 Answer: 0.00341 Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.

6) 351 000 000 000 Answer: 3.51 × 1011 7) 0.000 860 Answer: 8.60 × 10-4 8) 5 207 000 Answer: 5.207 × 106 9) 0.000 000 050 Answer: 5.0 × 10-8 State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.

10) 0.705 m Answer: 3 11) 680 000 km Answer: 2 12) 28.050 km Answer: 5 Page 15 ..

13) 0.0005 L Answer: 1 14) 75.00 m Answer: 4 15) 2.043 × 104 mm Answer: 4 16) 6.1 × 10-5 mL Answer: 2 17) 9.00 x 106 g Answer: 3 18) The unit of volume in the SI system is the ________.

Answer: cubic meter 19) The unit of mass in the metric system is the ________.

Answer: gram 20) To calculate the density of a solid object, two measurements are needed, its ________ and ________.

Answer: mass, volume 21) The number 0.000 056 can be expressed in scientific notation as ________.

Answer: 5.6 × 10-5 22) Ten karat gold is 41.7% gold. How many grams of pure gold are there in a ring made of 70.0 g of ten karat gold?

Answer: 29.2 g 23) Rubbing alcohol (isopropyl alcohol) has a density of 0.79 g/mL. How many mL of isopropyl alcohol contain 45 g of alcohol?

Answer: 57 mL 24) The density of gold is 19.3 g/mL. How many grams of gold are in a medal that has a volume of 15.0 mL? Answer: 290. g of gold

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 3 Matter and Energy 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A pure substance is matter that consists of matter with a composition that ________.

A) is fixed in a definite proportion at all times B) varies according to the amount of water present C) depends on the temperature D) always contains oxygen E) always contains two or more substances Answer: A 2) Compounds are pure substances that by definition consist of ________.

A) a single element B) oxygen and hydrogen C) two or more elements in combination D) solids E) gases Answer: C 3) Compounds can be broken down into their elements by ________.

A) physical processes B) melting C) evaporation D) cooling E) chemical processes Answer: E 4) Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

A) sand mixed with oil B) salt dissolved in water C) table sugar D) gasoline mixed with water E) ball bearings in a box Answer: B 5) Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?

A) sand mixed with oil B) salt dissolved in water C) air D) coffee E) vinegar Answer: A

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6) Which of the following is a chemical change?

A) wood burning in a fireplace B) ice melting to water C) chopping wood for a fire D) sewing a button on a shirt E) pouring water into a glass Answer: A 7) Which of the following is a physical change?

A) wood burning in a fireplace B) water freezing C) iron rusting D) digesting food E) milk souring Answer: B 8) Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

A) grinding pepper B) melting candle wax C) freezing water D) digesting a hot dog E) cracking an egg Answer: D 9) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

A) grinding pepper B) burning a candle C) converting hydrogen and oxygen to water D) digesting a hot dog E) frying an egg Answer: A 10) When gold is melted and formed in a mold to make a piece of jewelry, what type of change is taking place?

A) a chemical change B) a change of size C) evaporation D) boiling E) a physical change Answer: E 11) When an egg is fried, what type of process is happening?

A) condensation B) evaporation C) a physical change D) a chemical change E) melting Answer: D Page 2 ..

12) When you observe the formation of fog on a cool, humid day, what type of event are you observing?

A) a chemical change in oxygen B) a physical change in air C) a physical change in water D) a chemical change in water E) a combination of nitrogen and oxygen Answer: C 13) When a firecracker explodes, giving off light and heat, and breaking the wrapper into many pieces, ________.

A) a physical change takes place B) a chemical change takes place C) both a physical and a chemical change are taking place D) the wrapper evaporates into a gas E) the fuse undergoes a physical change only Answer: C 14) Identify the chemical change in the following list.

A) Gold metal is formed from gold chloride in solution.

B) Wax is melted out of a mold in a kiln.

C) Plaster of paris is ground to a powder for making a mold.

D) A gold ring is resized to fit a new owner.

E) A diamond is set into a gold ring.

Answer: A 15) Identify the physical change in the following list.

A) A candle is burned to give light.

B) A silver candlestick tarnishes in the presence of air.

C) The chemical silver nitrate produces a dark brown stain on skin.

D) A piece of copper placed in a solution of silver nitrate develops a coating of silver metal.

E) Silver is melted and formed into a candlestick.

Answer: E 16) Identify the physical change in the following list.

A) Yarn is decomposed by a lighted cigarette.

B) Yarn is knitted into a cape.

C) Cotton can be converted to a new substance by the addition of nitric acid.

D) Linen produces a black, charred substance when treated with sulfuric acid.

E) Silk fibers can be digested by moths.

Answer: B

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17) When saccharine dissolves in water, this event is an example of a ________.

A) physical change B) chemical change C) change of shape D) change of state E) change of size Answer: A 18) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

A) grinding coffee beans B) baking a cake C) converting water to hydrogen and oxygen D) digesting a cheeseburger E) burning coal Answer: A 19) Identify the chemical change in the following list.

A) A shoelace breaks.

B) A house burns.

C) A cat meows.

D) A crayon melts in the sun.

E) Water falls from the sky as hail.

Answer: B 20) Which of the following would NOT be a physical change?

A) freezing water to make ice cubes B) tearing a piece of aluminum foil C) boiling water for soup D) burning gasoline in a lawnmower E) melting gold to make jewelry Answer: D 21) Which of the following is a chemical change?

A) cutting a rope B) bending a steel rod C) making a snowman D) burning sugar E) melting gold Answer: D 22) Which of the following is a physical change?

A) baking a cake B) dry ice subliming C) fermenting grapes to produce wine D) digesting a meal E) a tomato ripening Answer: B Page 4 ..

23) Which is the chemical change in the following list?

A) grinding of wheat to make flour B) digestion of bread C) using modeling clay to make a toy horse D) drying clothes in the sunshine E) mixing sand and water to make mud Answer: B 24) The physical state of copper at 25 °C (room temperature) is ________.

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) wire Answer: B 25) The temperature of liquid nitrogen is -196 °C. What is the corresponding reading on the Kelvin scale?

A) 77 K B) -127 K C) -91 K D) 48 K E) 146 K Answer: A 26) A temperature of 41 °F is the same as ________°C. A) 5 B) 310 C) -9 D) 16 E) 42 Answer: A 27) Absolute zero is ________.

A) the freezing point of water using the Celsius scale B) the boiling point of liquid nitrogen C) the temperature on the Kelvin scale corresponding to 32 °F D) the coldest temperature possible E) the freezing point of liquid nitrogen Answer: D 28) On a hot day, the thermometer reads 95 °F. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

A) 77 °C B) 113 °C C) 35 °C D) 63 °C E) 178 °C Answer: C Page 5 ..

29) In the winter, the outdoor temperature is -12 °F. What is the temperature in the Kelvin scale?

A) 249 K B) 262 K C) 284 K D) 273 K E) 178 K Answer: A 30) A patient has a temperature of 38.5 °C. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

A) 70.5 °F B) 311.0 °F C) 126.95 °F D) 101.3 °F E) 11.7 °F Answer: D 31) If the temperature is 20. °C, what is the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?

A) -22 °F B) 68 °F C) 43 °F D) 239 °F E) 94 °F Answer: B 32) A temperature of 41 °F is the same as ________°C. A) 5 B) 310 C) -9 D) 16 E) 42 Answer: A 33) An example of kinetic energy is ________.

A) a coiled spring B) running water C) a tree D) natural gas E) chemical energy Answer: B 34) The energy associated with the motion of particles in a substance is called ________.

A) temperature B) electrical energy C) heat D) chemical energy E) potential energy Answer: C Page 6 ..

35) Which of the following is an example of potential energy?

A) chewing food B) water stored in a reservoir C) burning wood D) a fan blade turning E) riding an exercise bike Answer: B 36) The phrase "ability to do work" is a definition of ________.

A) specific heat B) energy C) calorie D) heating E) cooling Answer: B 37) The energy of 3600 cal is equal to ________ kJ. A) 0.86 B) 15 C) 15 000 D) 3.6 E) 4.184 Answer: B 38) The energy of 4.72 kJ is the same as ________ cal.

A) 8.86 B) 4.184 C) 19 800 D) 1.13 E) 1130 Answer: E 39) The energy stored in the chemical bonds of a molecule is ________.

A) specific heat B) kinetic energy C) potential energy D) work E) a calorie Answer: C 40) The energy of motion is referred to as ________.

A) work B) freezing C) specific heat D) potential energy E) kinetic energy Answer: E Page 7 ..

41) When an electric oven is used, electrical energy is converted to ________ energy.

A) heat B) magnetic C) solar D) radiant E) potential Answer: A 42) Global warming is believed to result from all of the following except ________.

A) burning of fossil fuels B) increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C) deforestation D) movement of the earth closer to the sun E) carbon dioxide trapping the heat produced by the sun Answer: D 43) In which of the following would the particles move most rapidly?

A) ice at -20 °C B) water at 20 °C C) steam at 110 °C D) boiling water E) ice at 0 °C Answer: C 44) The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat needed to A) change 1 g of the substance from the solid to the liquid state.

B) raise the temperature of 1 g of the substance by 1 °C. C) change 1 g of the substance from the liquid to the solid state.

D) convert 1 g of a liquid to gas.

E) convert 1 g of a solid to a gas.

Answer: B 45) A calorie is required to raise the temperature of A) 1 g of water by 1.0 °C. B) 1 g of water by 10.0 °C. C) 10.0 g of water by 1.0 °C. D) 100.0 g of water by 1.0 °C. E) 100.0 g of water by 10.0 °C. Answer: A 46) How many joules are required to raise the temperature of a 35.0 g sample of iron from 25 °C to 35 °C? Iron has a specific heat of 0.450 J/g °C. A) 10. J B) 16 J C) 35 J D) 160 J E) 350 J Answer: D Page 8 ..

47) How many kilojoules are required to raise the temperature of a 150. g sample of silver from 25 °C to 135 °C? Silver has a specific heat of 0.235 J/g °C. A) 35.3 kJ B) 110. kJ C) 3.88 kJ D) 0.0353 kJ E) 16.5 kJ Answer: C 48) How many calories are required to increase the temperature of 13.0 g of ethanol from -11.0 °C to 23.6 °C? The specific heat of ethanol is 2.46 J/g °C. A) 1110 cal B) 403 cal C) 264 cal D) 96.3.9 cal E) 170. cal Answer: C 49) How many kilocal are required to increase the temperature of 15.6 g of iron from 122 °C to 355 °C? The specific heat of iron is 0.450 J/g °C. A) 1.64 kcal B) 1640 kcal C) 3.91 kcal D) 15.2 kcal E) 29.2 kcal Answer: C 50) Which of the following quantities is NOT required to calculate the amount of heat energy required to heat water from 25 °C to 55 °C? A) the mass of the water sample B) the initial temperature C) the final temperature D) the specific heat of water E) the heat of vaporization for water Answer: E 51) Raising the temperature of 10.0 g of water from 10.0 °C to 20.0 °C requires 418 J, while raising the temperature of 10.0 g of aluminum from 10.0 °C to 20.0 °C requires 89.7 J. More joules are required to heat the water because A) water is a liquid and aluminum is a solid at 10.0 °C. B) ten grams of water occupies a larger volume than 10.0 g of aluminum.

C) water has a greater potential energy than aluminum.

D) water has a larger specific heat than aluminum.

E) 10.0 °C is closer to the melting point of water than to the melting point of aluminum.

Answer: D

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52) The number of joules needed to raise the temperature of 32 g of water from 12 °C to 54 °C is ________.

A) 1300 J B) 1.3 J C) 5600 J D) 1 700 J E) 130 J Answer: C 53) The number of kilojoules needed to raise the temperature of 125 g of water from 20 °C to 95 °C is ________. The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g °C. A) 10. kJ B) 50. kJ C) 39 kJ D) 9.4 kJ E) 180 kJ Answer: C 54) A 2.5 g sample of french fries is placed in a calorimeter with 500.0 g of water at an initial temperature of 21 °C. After combustion of the french fries the water has a temperature of 48 °C. What is the caloric value (kJ/g) of the french fries?

A) 100 kJ/g B) 40. kJ/g C) 0.14 kJ/g D) 56 kJ/g E) 23 kJ/g Answer: E 55) A potato contains 20 g of carbohydrate. If carbohydrate has a caloric value of 4 kcal/g, how many kcal are obtained from the carbohydrate in the potato?

A) 5 kcal B) 20 kcal C) 40 kcal D) 60 kcal E) 80 kcal Answer: E 56) A cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant contains 19 g of fat, 20. g of carbohydrate, and 28 g of protein. How many kcal of energy does the cheeseburger contain? (The accepted caloric values for foods are 4 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 9 kcal/g for fat, and 4 kcal/g for protein.) Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

A) 70. kcal B) 360 kcal C) 17 kcal D) 630 kcal E) 280 kcal Answer: B Page 10 ..

57) A serving of fish contains 50. g protein and 4.0 g of fat. If the caloric value of protein is 4 kcal/g and fat is 9 kcal/g, how many kcal are in the serving? Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

A) 240 kcal B) 54 kcal C) 470 kcal D) 220 kcal E) 490 kcal Answer: A 58) A diet has a total caloric intake of 1400 kcal. The diet consists of 50.% carbohydrate, 35% protein, and 15% fat. The number of kcal of protein in the diet is ________.

A) 700 kcal B) 490 kcal C) 210 kcal D) 460 kcal E) 1200 kcal Answer: B 59) Which of the following is a property of a solid?

A) It takes the shape of the container.

B) It fills the volume of the container.

C) The particles move at a rapid rate.

D) The interactions between its particles are very weak.

E) The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

Answer: E 60) Which one of the following properties describes a liquid?

A) It has its own shape.

B) Its particles are close together and move randomly.

C) Its particles move very rapidly.

D) It fills the entire volume of the container.

E) There is essentially no interaction between the particles.

Answer: B 61) The physical state(s) present when a substance is melting is (are) ________.

A) solid B) liquid C) gas D) solid + liquid E) liquid + gas Answer: D

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62) One cup of kidney beans contains 15 g of protein, 1 g of fat, and 42 g of carbohydrate. How many kilocalories, to two significant figures, does this sample contain?

A) 60 kcal B) 88 kcal C) 230 kcal D) 240 kcal E) 520 kcal Answer: D 63) The specific heat of copper is 0.385 J/g °C, and the specific heat of silver is 0.235 J/g °C. If the same amount of heat is added to one g of each metal at 25 °C, what is the expected result?

A) The copper will reach a higher temperature.

B) The silver will reach a higher temperature.

C) The two samples will reach the same temperature.

D) The copper will reach a temperature lower than 25 °C. E) The silver will soften.

Answer: B 64) The dietary calorie (Cal) is equal to ________.

A) 1 000 kilocalories B) 100 kilocalories C) 100 calories D) 10 calories E) 1 kilocalorie Answer: E 3.2 Bimodal Questions 1) When ice melts, the change that takes place is ________.

A) fusion B) evaporation C) an exothermic process D) a chemical change E) a physical change Answer: E 2) A temperature of 54.0 °C is ________°F. A) 97.2 B) 65.2 C) 129.2 D) 62.0 E) 35.6 Answer: C

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3) A temperature of 85 °F is ________K. A) 29 B) 188 C) 394 D) 358 E) 302 Answer: E 4) A kilojoule is required to raise the temperature of how much water by 10.0 °C? A) 239 g B) 418 g C) 4180 g D) 23.9 g E) 0.0239 g Answer: D 5) How many kilojoules are required to raise the temperature of a 25.0 g sample of iron from 25.0 °C to 35.0 °C? Iron has a specific heat of 0.452 J/g °C. A) 0.113 kJ B) 113 kJ C) 1 130 kJ D) 11.3 kJ E) 1.13 kJ Answer: A 6) The number of kilojoules needed to raise the temperature of 32.0 g of water from 12.0 °C to 54.0 °C is ________.

A) 20.7 kJ B) 4 280 kJ C) 5.62 kJ D) 1 700 kJ E) 245 kJ Answer: C 7) A 2.50 g sample of french fries is placed in a calorimeter with 500.0 g of water at an initial temperature of 21.0 °C. After combustion of the french fries the water has a temperature of 48.0 °C. What is the heat content in kJ/g of the french fries?

A) 70.9 kJ B) 2.63 kJ C) 282 kJ D) 22 600 kJ E) 22.6 kJ Answer: E

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3.3 Matching Questions Match the state of matter with each of the following descriptions of a substance.

A) solid B) liquid C) gas 1) This substance has a definite shape and volume.

2) This substance has a definite volume but indefinite shape.

3) This substance completely fills its container.

4) Water at room temperature.

Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) B Identify each of the following transformations as a chemical or physical change.

A) chemical B) physical 5) water boiling 6) a button falling off of a shirt 7) silver tarnishing 8) cutting the grass 9) a nail rusting 10) baking a cake 11) placing photographs in a scrapbook 12) formation of green leaves on a plant Answers: 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) A

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3.4 True/False Questions 1) Fat has a higher caloric value than protein.

Answer: TRUE 2) Ice melting is a chemical change.

Answer: FALSE 3) Oxidation of iron in the air is a chemical change.

Answer: TRUE 4) When a marshmallow is toasted over an open fire, the brown, charred surface shows evidence of a chemical change in the sugar in the marshmallow.

Answer: TRUE 5) Ice melts at 273 K. Answer: TRUE 6) To change from Celsius temperature to Kelvin, add 100.

Answer: FALSE 7) Water vapor is a gas.

Answer: TRUE 8) There are 100 °C between the freezing and boiling points of water.

Answer: TRUE 9) Carbohydrates and proteins have the same caloric value per gram.

Answer: TRUE 10) Fats have the same caloric value as proteins.

Answer: FALSE 11) Heat flows from a cooler to a hotter body.

Answer: FALSE 12) The unit of specific heat is the Calorie.

Answer: FALSE 13) Changes in heat content of a solid are measured in °C. Answer: FALSE 14) One kilojoule is equal to one Calorie.

Answer: FALSE

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3.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Is air a pure substance?

Answer: No. 2) Matter that has a fixed and definite composition is classified as a pure ________.

Answer: substance 3) A sample of matter that consists of two or more elements combined in a set ratio is a sample of a ________.

Answer: compound 4) Properties of a substance that can be observed or measured without affecting its identity are its ________ properties.

Answer: physical 5) Mixtures can be separated by ________ methods; chemical changes are not necessary.

Answer: physical 6) A mixture of sand and water is an example of a ________ mixture.

Answer: heterogeneous 7) During a ________ change, the original substances are converted to new substances with different properties.

Answer: chemical 8) When rust spots appear on the body of a car, they show that a ________ change is taking place at that site.

Answer: chemical 9) Melting and boiling are both examples of ________ changes.

Answer: physical 10) When water in a tea kettle is converted to steam, the change taking place is a ________ change.

Answer: physical 11) Is burning a log an example of a chemical or a physical change?

Answer: chemical 12) A substance with a definite volume, that takes the shape of its container is a ________.

Answer: liquid 13) A substance that has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume can be classified as a ________.

Answer: gas 14) A substance that has a definite shape and volume is a ________.

Answer: solid Page 16 ..

15) Name the three states of matter.

Answer: solid, liquid, and gas 16) The value of absolute zero in the Celsius temperature scale is ________.

Answer: -273 °C 17) The boiling point of water on the Celsius scale is ________.

Answer: 100 °C 18) Will the caloric value of 100. g of butter be higher or lower than the caloric value of 100. g of sugar?

Answer: higher 19) Will the caloric value of 100.0 g of hamburger be higher or lower than the caloric value of 100.0 g of cooking oil?

Answer: lower

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 4 Atoms and Elements 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions Select the correct symbol for the element named.

1) aluminum A) Al B) Am C) Au D) Sn E) Ag Answer: A 2) iron A) Ir B) Fs C) Fe D) In E) FE Answer: C 3) sodium A) So B) Na C) No D) Sm E) Au Answer: B 4) potassium A) P B) Po C) Pt D) K E) Ko Answer: D 5) silver A) S B) Si C) Ag D) Au E) AG Answer: C

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6) Ca is the symbol for ________.

A) calcium B) carbon C) cobalt D) copper E) cadmium Answer: A 7) What elements are in hydroxyapatite, Ca5(PO4)3)OH , a major compound in human bones and teeth?

A) carbon, potassium, oxygen, hydrogen B) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, hydrogen C) carbon, phosphorus, oxygen, helium D) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, helium E) carbon, potassium, oxygen, helium Answer: B 8) Which of the following is a characteristic of the modern periodic table?

A) A group is a horizontal row on the periodic table.

B) A period is a column on the periodic table.

C) The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.

D) The B groups contain the representative elements.

E) The A groups contain the transition elements.

Answer: C 9) Which of the following properties is NOT a characteristic of the Group 1A(1) elements (alkali metals)?

A) They are shiny.

B) They are good conductors of heat.

C) They react vigorously with water.

D) Most of them are liquids at room temperature.

E) They are good conductors of electricity.

Answer: D 10) The Group 8A(18) elements A) are unreactive.

B) are good conductors of electricity.

C) melt at high temperatures.

D) are liquids at room temperature.

E) react vigorously with water.

Answer: A

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11) Which of the following elements is a metal?

A) nitrogen B) fluorine C) argon D) strontium E) phosphorus Answer: D 12) The element in this list with chemical properties similar to magnesium is ________.

A) sodium B) boron C) carbon D) strontium E) chlorine Answer: D 13) Identify the noble gas in the following list.

A) helium B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) gold E) chlorine Answer: A 14) Which of the following is a characteristic of nonmetals?

A) shiny B) malleable C) good conductors of heat D) low melting points E) good conductors of electricity Answer: D 15) Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

A) oxygen B) chlorine C) bromine D) argon E) nitrogen Answer: D 16) Which element would have physical and chemical properties similar to chlorine?

A) Ar B) Br C) S D) O E) P Answer: B Page 3 ..

17) What is the symbol of the element in Period 4 and Group 2A(2)?

A) Be B) Mg C) Ca D) C E) Si Answer: C 18) According to the Atomic Theory, A) all atoms are different.

B) atoms are created and destroyed during a chemical reaction.

C) atoms of different element combine to form compounds.

D) all matter is made up of tiny particles called electrons.

E) a compound can contain different numbers of atoms as long as it has the same kinds of atoms.

Answer: C 19) Which of the following descriptions of a subatomic particle is correct?

A) A proton has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

B) An electron has a negative charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

C) A neutron has no charge and its mass is negligible.

D) A proton has a positive charge and a negligible mass.

E) A neutron has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

Answer: A 20) In an atom, the nucleus contains ________.

A) an equal number of protons and electrons B) all the protons and neutrons C) all the protons and electrons D) only neutrons E) only protons Answer: B 21) The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of ________.

A) nuclei B) neutrons C) neutrons plus protons D) electrons plus protons E) protons Answer: E 22) The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to the ________.

A) atomic number B) mass number C) mass number + the atomic number D) mass number - the atomic number E) number of protons Answer: D Page 4 ..

23) The mass number of an atom can be calculated from the ________.

A) number of electrons B) number of protons plus neutrons C) number of protons D) number of electrons plus protons E) number of neutrons Answer: B 24) Which of the following gives the correct numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a neutral atom of 118 50 Sn ?

A) 118 protons, 50 neutrons, 118 electrons B) 118 protons, 118 neutrons, 50 electrons C) 50 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons D) 68 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons E) 50 protons, 50 neutrons, 50 electrons Answer: C 25) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have ________.

A) different atomic numbers B) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of protons C) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of electrons D) the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons E) the same atomic mass but different numbers of protons Answer: D 26) The correct symbol for the isotope of potassium with 22 neutrons is ________.

41K A) 19 B) 19 41K C) 37 15 P 15 P D) 37 E) 22 19 K Answer: A

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27) The correct symbol for the isotope of carbon with an atomic mass of 14 is ________.

A) 148 C B) 146 C C) 126 C D) 68 C E) 128 C Answer: B 28) The correct symbol for a uranium atom with a mass number of 235 is ________.

A) 235 91 U B) 327 92 U C) 143 92 U D) 235 92 U E) 235 92 Ur Answer: D 29) The atomic mass of an element is equal to ________.

A) its mass number B) its atomic number C) one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom D) a weighted average mass of all of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element E) the average mass of all of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element Answer: D 30) A sample of chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes. The isotope Cl-35 (mass 35.0 amu) makes up 75.8% of the sample, and the isotope Cl-37 (mass = 37.0 amu) makes up 24.3% of the sample. What is the average atomic mass for chlorine?

A) 36.0 amu B) 35 amu C) 36.6 amu D) 35.5 amu E) 35.521 amu Answer: D

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31) Which of the following is NOT true for the atoms 13N, 14N, and 15N? A) They all have the same mass number.

B) They are isotopes.

C) They all have the same atomic number.

D) They all have 7 protons.

E) They all have 7 electrons.

Answer: A 32) The elements lithium, sodium, and potassium ________.

A) are isotopes of each other B) are in the same period of elements C) have the same number of neutrons D) are in the same group E) have the same mass number Answer: D 33) The element that has the symbol Ti is ________.

A) tin B) potassium C) platinum D) titanium E) aluminum Answer: D 34) The element that has the symbol Pb is ________.

A) lead B) platinum C) lithium D) boron E) palladium Answer: A 35) The element that has the symbol Ni is ________.

A) neon B) tin C) nickel D) nitrogen E) sodium Answer: C 36) One distinguishing physical property of the element mercury is ________.

A) it is less dense than water B) it is soluble in water C) it does not conduct electricity D) it has a dull, blackish appearance E) it is a liquid at room temperature Answer: E Page 7 ..

37) Magnesium is an element that is one example of ________.

A) a noble gas B) an alkali metal C) a transition metal D) a metalloid E) a representative element Answer: E 38) Sodium is an example of an element that is a ________.

A) metalloid B) metal C) nonmetal D) noble gas E) transition element Answer: B 39) Chromium is an example of an element that is a ________.

A) transition element B) nonmetal C) metalloid D) noble gas E) representative element Answer: A 40) One characteristic of the element sulfur is that it is ________.

A) a good conductor B) dull grey in color C) a good insulator of electricity D) ductile E) shiny Answer: C 41) Silicon is an example of an element that is ________.

A) ductile B) a semiconductor C) less dense than water D) usable in coins E) usable in gunpowder Answer: B 42) Germanium is an example of a(n) ________.

A) metalloid B) alkali metal C) nonmetal D) noble gas E) transition element Answer: A Page 8 ..

43) Germanium is an example of a(n) ________.

A) semiconductor B) conductor C) halogen D) liquid E) gas Answer: A 44) Protons, neutrons, and electrons are examples of ________.

A) elements B) ions C) compounds D) subatomic particles E) metals Answer: D 45) The Rutherford gold foil experiment demonstrated that atoms A) consist of an almost empty nucleus surrounded by a dense cloud of electrons.

B) are homogeneous.

C) are visible to the naked eye.

D) consist of a dense nucleus surrounded by mostly empty space.

E) consist of a single type of subatomic particle.

Answer: D 46) A neutron has an electrical charge of ________.

A) 0 B) -1 C) +1 D) -2 E) +2 Answer: A 47) The lightest of the subatomic particles is the ________.

A) neutron B) electron C) nucleus D) proton E) atom Answer: B 48) The atomic number of fluorine is ________.

A) 28 B) 19 C) 9 D) 10 E) 29 Answer: C Page 9 ..

49) The atomic mass of lithium is ________.

A) 7.00 amu B) 3.00 amu C) 4.00 amu D) 6.94 amu E) 7.41 amu Answer: D 50) An atom of chlorine has an electrical charge of ________.

A) -1 B) +17 C) -17 D) +35.5 E) 0 Answer: E 51) The atomic number of iron is ________.

A) 26 B) 55.85 C) 29.85 D) 56 E) 27.78 Answer: A 52) Identify the metalloid in the following list.

A) sulfur B) fluorine C) silver D) copper E) germanium Answer: E 53) Semiconductors are located in the periodic table on (or in) the ________.

A) left side of the table B) right side of the table C) line dividing metals from nonmetals in the table D) first period of the table E) last period of the table Answer: C

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4.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The primary substances of which all other substances are composed are ________.

A) molecules B) compounds C) elements D) electrons E) protons Answer: C 2) Au is the symbol for ________.

A) gold B) silver C) argon D) aluminum E) sodium Answer: A 3) The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element is a(n) ________.

A) electron B) neutron C) proton D) atom E) nucleus Answer: D 4) What is the mass number of an atom of potassium that has 20 neutrons?

A) 15 B) 19 C) 35 D) 39 E) 59 Answer: D 5) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is ________.

A) 30 B) 32 C) 34 D) 64 E) 94 Answer: A

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6) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The mass number for this atom is ________.

A) 30 B) 32 C) 34 D) 64 E) 94 Answer: D 7) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom is ________.

A) 30 B) 32 C) 34 D) 64 E) 94 Answer: A 8) How many protons are in an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25?

A) 11 B) 14 C) 15 D) 25 E) 36 Answer: A 9) Consider an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25. The number of neutrons in this isotope of sodium is ________.

A) 11 B) 14 C) 16 D) 25 E) 36 Answer: B

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4.3 Matching Questions Do the following represent elements in a group, a period, or neither?

A) neither B) period C) group 1) Li, Na, K 2) Li, C, F 3) F, S, P 4) O, S, Se 5) He, H, I Answers: 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) A Match the correct symbols with the names of elements.

A) Ca B) C C) Cu D) Cl E) Co 6) calcium 7) copper 8) carbon 9) chlorine 10) cobalt Answers: 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) E

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Give the correct number of neutrons.

A) eight B) six C) ten D) seven E) nine 11) in a nitrogen atom with mass number 15 12) in an oxygen atom whose mass number is 15.

13) in a carbon atom with the same number of protons and neutrons 14) in a neon atom with one more proton than the number of neutrons 15) in a fluorine atom with mass number 19 Answers: 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) E 15) C Classify the following elements.

A) alkali metal B) transition element C) alkaline earth metal D) noble gas E) halogen 16) sodium 17) argon 18) bromine 19) copper 20) magnesium Answers: 16) A 17) D 1 8) E 19) B 20) C

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Classify the following elements as metals or nonmetals.

A) metal B) nonmetal 21) phosphorus 22) chlorine 23) cobalt 24) sulfur 25) nickel Answers: 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) A 4.4 True/False Questions 1) Sulfur is a non-metal.

Answer: TRUE 2) Iodine is a metal.

Answer: FALSE 3) Chromium is a metal.

Answer: TRUE 4) Radon is a metal.

Answer: FALSE 5) Mercury is a metal.

Answer: TRUE 6) Hydrogen is an alkali metal.

Answer: FALSE 7) Non-metals are poor conductors of electricity.

Answer: TRUE 8) Metals are good conductors of electricity.

Answer: TRUE 9) Semiconductors are usually metalloids.

Answer: TRUE 10) Electrons have an electrical charge of +1.

Answer: FALSE Page 15 ..

11) Neutrons are found in the nucleus of the atom.

Answer: TRUE 12) Protons are found in the nucleus of the atom.

Answer: TRUE 13) The symbol for copper is Co. Answer: FALSE 14) Noble gases are in Group 8A(18).

Answer: TRUE 4.5 Short Answer Questions 1) The number of elements that occur in nature is ________.

Answer: 88 2) A sample of matter that consists of only one type of atom is classified as a(n) ________.

Answer: element 3) The correct elemental symbol for tin is ________.

Answer: Sn 4) The correct elemental symbol for mercury is ________.

Answer: Hg 5) The term for each vertical column in the periodic table is a ________.

Answer: group 6) The term for each row in the periodic table is a ________.

Answer: period 7) The elements in the periodic table classified as Group B elements are also called ________ elements.

Answer: transition 8) In the new numbering system for the periodic table, the transition elements are the ones in groups ________ through ________.

Answer: 3, 12 9) Group 1A(1) elements are also known as the ________ metals.

Answer: alkali 10) Group 8A(18) elements are also known as the ________.

Answer: noble gases or inert gases

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11) The elements in group 7A(17) are called the ________ group.

Answer: halogen 12) The elements in group 2A(2) are known as the ________ metals.

Answer: alkaline earth

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 5 Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest particle of light is called a ________.

A) frequency B) packet C) photon D) wavelength E) velocity Answer: C 2) The visible light spectrum covers the wavelength range ________.

A) 400 to 700 nm B) 250 to 400 nm C) 700 to 900 nm D) 900 to 1400 nm E) 1400 to 2000 nm Answer: A 3) All electromagnetic radiation travels at the same ________.

A) velocity B) wavelength C) energy D) frequency E) color Answer: A 4) A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 99.0 MHz. What is this frequency in Hz? A) 9.90 x 107 Hz B) 9.90 x 10-7 Hz C) 9.90 Hz D) 9.90 x 104 Hz E) 99.0 x 107 Hz Answer: A 5) Green light has a wavelength of 510 nm. What is the wavelength in m?

A) 5.1 x 10-9 m B) 5.1 m C) 510 m D) 5.1 x 10-7 m E) 5.1 x 10-11 m Answer: D

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6) Ultraviolet radiation can be used in the treatment of ________.

A) eczema B) measles C) colds D) flu E) polio Answer: A 7) Phototherapy for cutaneous T-cell lymphoma uses ________.

A) ultraviolet light B) visible light C) x-radiation D) gamma radiation E) infrared radiation Answer: A 8) The energy of a visible photon is higher than that of ________ A) gamma radiation B) cosmic radiation C) X-radiation D) infrared radiation E) ultraviolet radiation Answer: D 9) The energy of an infrared photon is higher than that of ________.

A) an ultraviolet photon B) a microwave photon C) an X-ray photon D) a gamma ray E) a visible photon Answer: B 10) Atomic emission spectra are due to electrons A) being removed from an atom.

B) in an atom rising from one energy level to a higher one.

C) in an atom dropping from one energy level to a lower one.

D) being added to an atom.

E) changing state from solid to liquid.

Answer: C 11) When an electron drops from level 5 to level 1, a photon is emitted in the ________ region.

A) infrared B) X-ray C) ultraviolet D) visible E) microwave Answer: C Page 2 ..

12) When ultraviolet energy is absorbed by an atom, an electron A) moves from a lower to a higher energy level.

B) moves from a higher to a lower energy level.

C) is ejected from an atom completely.

D) falls into the nucleus of an atom.

E) is taken on by an atom.

Answer: A 13) The principal quantum numbers have the designation ________.

A) s, p, d....

B) 1, 2, 3...

C) α, β, γ...

D) k, m, s...

E) H, Li, He...

Answer: B 14) An s orbital can hold ________ electrons.

A) 6 B) 10 C) 18 D) 2 E) 8 Answer: D 15) Any p orbital can hold up to ________ electrons.

A) 6 B) 8 C) 18 D) 2 E) 10 Answer: A 16) Any d orbital can hold up to ________ electrons.

A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 E) 18 Answer: D 17) The number of electron levels (not sublevels) in a magnesium atom is ________.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Page 3 ..

18) The 2s orbital A) is spherical and smaller than the 1s orbital.

B) is spherical and the same size as the 1s orbital.

C) is spherical and larger than the 1s orbital.

D) is lobe shaped.

E) has no shape.

Answer: C 19) The maximum number of electrons that may occupy the third electron energy level is ________.

A) 2 B) 8 C) 10 D) 18 E) 32 Answer: D 20) According to the Pauli exclusion principle, any orbital can hold at most ________ electrons.

A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 18 E) 10 Answer: A 21) The electron configuration of an atom shows A) the number of isotopes possible.

B) a description of the shape of each electron energy level.

C) the number of electrons in each electron energy level.

D) a diagram of an atomic nucleus.

E) the maximum number of electrons each electron energy level can hold.

Answer: C 22) What electron sublevel starts to fill after completion of the 5s sublevel?

A) 5p B) 4d C) 4p D) 6s E) 4f Answer: B 23) What element has the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5?

A) Be B) Cl C) F D) S E) Ar Answer: B Page 4 ..

24) What element has the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 ?

A) Be B) Mg C) Na D) Ca E) Si Answer: B 25) What element has the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6 ?

A) Fe B) Kr C) Mn D) Ni E) Ru Answer: A 26) What is the electron configuration for aluminum?

A) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p1 B) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p3 C) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p5 D) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 E) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p8 Answer: A 27) What is the electron configuration for potassium (atomic number 19)?

A) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p7 B) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p5 3 d2 C) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p8 3 s2 3 p5 D) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 4 s1 E) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p5 4 s1 Answer: D 28) What element has the electron configuration 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s23 p2?

A) carbon B) oxygen C) sulfur D) iron E) silicon Answer: E

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29) What is the symbol of the element with the electron configuration 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 4 s23 d10 4 p5?

A) Cl B) Mn C) Br D) Se E) F Answer: C 30) What is the correct electron configuration for the lithium atom?

A) 1 s3 B) 2 s1 C) 1 s1 2 s2 D) 1 s2 2 s1 E) 1 s2 2s5 Answer: D 31) The abbreviated electron configuration for a boron atom (Atomic number = 5) is ________.

A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 B) [Ne]2s2 2p1 C) 1s2 2s2 2p1 D) [H]2s2 2p1 E) [He]2s2 2p1 Answer: E 32) The abbreviated electron configuration for the sulfur atom is ________.

A) [Ar] 3s2 3p4 B) [S] 3s2 3p4 C) [He] 3s2 3p4 D) [Ne] 3s2 3p4 E) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 Answer: D 33) The abbreviated electron configuration for the iron atom is ________.

A) 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 4 s23 d6 B) [He] 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 4 s23 d6 C) [Ne] 3 s2 3 p6 4 s23 d6 D) [Ar] 3 s23 d6 E) [Ar] 4s2 3p6 Answer: E

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34) Iron is a ________ block element.

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) g Answer: C 35) Calcium is a ________ block element.

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) g Answer: A 36) Sulfur is a ________ block element.

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) g Answer: B 37) The atomic radius of potassium is smaller than the atomic radius of ________.

A) cesium B) lithium C) fluorine D) hydrogen E) sodium Answer: A 38) The atomic radius of bromine is larger than the atomic radius of ________.

A) chlorine B) uranium C) potassium D) iodine E) xenon Answer: A 39) The number of electrons in an atom of uranium is ________.

A) 143 B) 146 C) 238 D) 235 E) 92 Answer: E Page 7 ..

40) The number of electrons in an atom of iodine is ________.

A) 127 B) 53 C) 74 D) 180 E) 35 Answer: B 41) The number of valence electrons found in an atom of a Group A element is equal to ________.

A) its atomic number B) its mass number C) its group number D) eight E) eight minus the group number Answer: C 42) Valence electrons are electrons located A) in the outermost energy level of an atom.

B) in the nucleus of an atom.

C) in the first energy level of an atom.

D) throughout the atom.

E) in the first three energy levels of an atom.

Answer: A 43) In an electron-dot structure of an element, the dots are used to represent A) all of the electrons in the atom.

B) the valence electrons.

C) the complete electron arrangement.

D) only the electrons that will participate in bond formation.

E) the electrons that the element will gain when it forms a compound.

Answer: B 44) One element that has 5 valence electrons is ________.

A) lithium B) carbon C) nitrogen D) sulfur E) neon Answer: C 45) One element that has 7 valence electrons is ________.

A) bromine B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) phosphorus E) sodium Answer: A Page 8 ..

46) Neon has ________ valence electrons.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: D 47) Calcium has ________ valence electrons.

A) 10 B) 8 C) 6 D) 4 E) 2 Answer: E 48) Potassium has ________ valence electrons.

A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 E) 9 Answer: A 49) Silicon has ________ valence electrons.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: B 50) Oxygen has ________ valence electrons.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: C 51) The correct electron dot symbol for a magnesium atom is ________.

A) . Mg .

B) : Mg C) : Mg : D) Mg .

E) Mg Answer: A Page 9 ..

52) The correct electron dot symbol for a potassium atom is ________.

A) . P B) . P .

C) . K D) . K .

E) K : Answer: C 53) The oxygen atom has the following electron dot symbol.

Answer: C 54) The sodium atom has the following electron dot symbol.

Answer: C

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55) The chlorine atom has the following electron dot symbol.

Answer: A 56) The ionization energy of rubidium is less than the ionization energy for ________.

A) lithium B) sodium C) potassium D) cesium E) fluorine Answer: D 57) The ionization energy of chlorine is lower than the ionization energy of ________.

A) sodium B) fluorine C) hydrogen D) lithium E) calcium Answer: B

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5.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Electromagnetic radiation normally travels in the form of ________.

A) beats B) circles C) waves D) cycles E) seconds Answer: C 2) The number of electromagnetic waves that travel past a certain point in a given time is the ________ of the radiation.

A) frequency B) wavelength C) speed D) color E) count Answer: A 3) the symbol for the frequency of electromagnetic radiation is ________.

A) c B) λ C) v D) ν E) γ Answer: D 4) The symbol for wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is ________.

A) λ B) ν C) β D) α E) c Answer: A 5) Infrared radiation has a shorter wavelength than ________.

A) visible light B) radio waves C) ultraviolet radiation D) X-rays E) gamma radiation Answer: B

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6) Electrons in an atom may only have certain energy. Because of this, the energy of the electrons in an atom is said to be ________.

A) quantized B) equivalent C) neutral D) high E) stepped Answer: A 7) The shape of an s electron level is ________.

A) octahedral B) dumb bell C) lobed D) square E) spherical Answer: E 8) A p orbital has ________ lobes.

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five Answer: B 9) What element has the electron configuration 1 s2 2 s22 p6 3 s2 3 p1?

A) Ga B) B C) Al D) Be E) Na Answer: C 10) What element has the electron configuration 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 4 s2 3 d3?

A) Nb B) As C) Sc D) Na E) V Answer: E

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5.3 Matching Questions Match the following.

A) s sublevel B) p sublevel C) calcium D) f sublevel E) ultraviolet light F) visible light G) bromine H) neon I) megahertz

J) p orbital K) d sublevel L) kilohertz M) ν N) carbon O) λ P) s orbital Q) iron

1) radiation of frequency 700 nm to 400 nm 2) symbol for wavelength 3) symbol for frequency 4) 106 Hertz 5) A spherically shaped orbital 6) An electron sublevel with 3 orbitals 7) An electron sublevel with 5 orbitals 8) An electron sublevel that holds up to 6 electrons 9) An electronic sublevel that holds up to 2 electrons 10) An atom with 2 valence electrons 11) An atom with 7 valence electrons 12) An atom with 4 valence electrons

Answers: 1) F 2) O 3) M 4) I 5) P 6) B 7) K 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) G 12) N

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5.4 True/False Questions 1) The symbol for the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is λ.

Answer: TRUE 2) The symbol for the frequency of electromagnetic radiation is λ.

Answer: FALSE 3) The shortest wavelength of visible light is violet light.

Answer: TRUE 4) Ultraviolet radiation has lower energy than visible radiation.

Answer: FALSE 5) Infrared radiation has lower energy than visible radiation.

Answer: TRUE 6) Ultraviolet light can be used in the treatment of cancer.

Answer: TRUE 7) A p sublevel has 5 orbitals.

Answer: FALSE 8) An s sublevel has 3 orbitals.

Answer: FALSE 9) An s sublevel is spherical.

Answer: TRUE 10) Lithium is a d block element.

Answer: FALSE 11) The atomic radius of magnesium is smaller than the atomic radius of strontium.

Answer: TRUE 12) The atomic radius of magnesium is larger than the atomic radius of chlorine.

Answer: TRUE 13) Fluorine has a higher ionization energy than sodium.

Answer: TRUE 14) The radius of magnesium is larger than the radius of the magnesium ion.

Answer: FALSE 15) The electron configuration of Cl is 1s2 2 s22 p6 3 s2 3 p5.

Answer: TRUE Page 15 ..

5.5 Short Answer Questions Write the electron configuration for the atom shown.

1) sodium Answer: 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s1 2) chlorine Answer: 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p5 3) argon Answer: 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p6 4) sulfur Answer: 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p4 5) magnesium Answer: 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 6) phosphorus Answer: 1 s2 2 s2 2 p6 3 s2 3 p3 7) The p block elements consist of the elements in which groups?

Answer: Groups 3A(3) through 8A(18) 8) The halogen with the highest ionization energy is ________.

Answer: fluorine 9) The number of electrons in the 3p sublevel of silicon is ________.

Answer: 2 10) The largest atom in period 2 of the periodic table is ________.

Answer: lithium 11) In period 2 of the periodic table, the ionization energy is lowest for ________.

Answer: lithium 12) In correct electron dot structure for Na is ________.

Answer: 13) Write the electron dot structure for the bromide ion.

Answer:

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 6 Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The octet rule indicates that A) all of the noble gases have eight total electrons.

B) all of the shells in an atom hold a maximum of 8 electrons.

C) all of the Group A elements have 8 valence electrons.

D) atoms lose, gain, or share valence electrons to have 8 valence electrons.

E) the noble gases react with other compounds to get 8 valence electrons.

Answer: D 2) In ionic compounds, ________ lose their valence electrons to form positively charged ________.

A) metals, anions B) nonmetals, cations C) metals, polyatomic ions D) nonmetals, anions E) metals, cations Answer: E 3) How many electrons will aluminum gain or lose when it forms an ion?

A) lose 1 B) gain 5 C) lose 2 D) lose 3 E) gain 1 Answer: D 4) What is the symbol for the ion with 19 protons and 18 electrons?

A) F+ B) FC) Ar+ D) KE) K+ Answer: E 5) To form an ion, a sodium atom A) gains one electron.

B) gains two electrons.

C) loses seven electrons.

D) loses one electron.

E) loses two electrons.

Answer: D

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6) An anion always A) has a positive charge.

B) contains a group of two or more atoms with a positive charge.

C) contains a metal and a nonmetal.

D) forms covalent bonds.

E) has a negative charge.

Answer: E 7) An ionic compound A) has a net positive charge.

B) has a net negative charge.

C) contains only cations.

D) contains only anions.

E) has a net charge of zero.

Answer: E 8) Which one of the following compounds contains an ion with a 3+ charge?

A) KCl B) Na2O C) FeCl3 D) CuCl E) MgCl2 Answer: C 9) What is the correct formula for the oxide ion?

A) O2B) O C) O+ D) O2+ E) O3+ Answer: A 10) The compound MgCl2 is named ________.

A) magnesium chlorine B) magnesium dichloride C) magnesium (II) chloride D) magnesium chloride E) dimagnesium chloride Answer: D

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11) Which one of the following elements forms two or more ions with different ionic charges?

A) K B) F C) Ca D) O E) Fe Answer: E 12) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a positive charge?

A) hydroxide B) cyanide C) hydrogen carbonate D) ammonium E) nitrate Answer: D 13) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a 3- ionic charge?

A) hydroxide B) nitrate C) sulfate D) phosphate E) bicarbonate Answer: D 14) What is the formula of the nitride ion?

A) N3B) NO2C) NO33D) NO32E) NO3Answer: A 15) The name of the HSO4- ion is ________.

A) sulfate B) hydrogen sulfate C) sulfite D) hydrogen sulfite E) sulfide Answer: B

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16) What is the formula of a compound that contains Na+ and PO43- ions?

A) Na3PO4 B) NaPO4 C) Na2PO3 D) Na3PO3 E) Na3P Answer: A 17) Fe2(SO4)3 is called ________.

A) iron sulfate B) iron (II) sulfate C) iron (III) sulfate D) diiron trisulfate E) iron trisulfate Answer: C 18) What is the formula for aluminum nitrite?

A) Al2NO2 B) AlNO3 C) Al(NO2)3 D) Al2(NO3)3 E) Al2(NO2)2 Answer: C 19) The correct formula for copper (II) chloride is ________.

A) Cu2Cl4 B) CuCl4 C) Cu2Cl2 D) Cu2Cl E) CuCl2 Answer: E 20) The correct formula for chromium (III) sulfate is ________.

A) Cr2(SO4)3 B) Cr3(SO4)2 C) Cr2SO4 D) (Cr2)(SO4)3 E) (Cr)2(SO4)3 Answer: A

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21) The correct name for FeS is ________.

A) iron(II) sulfate B) iron(III) sulfite C) iron(II) sulfide D) ferric sulfide E) ferrous sulfite Answer: C 22) The correct name for SnCl2 is ________.

A) tin chloride B) tin(II) chloride C) tin(IV) chloride D) antimony(II) chloride E) antimony dichloride Answer: B 23) According to the octet rule, sulfide ions should have a charge of ________.

A) 6+ B) 8+ C) 6D) 2+ E) 2Answer: E 24) Ammonium carbonate has the formula shown below.

A) NH4CO3 B) (NH4)CO3 C) (NH4)2(CO3)2 D) (NH4)2CO3 E) NH4(CO3)2 Answer: D 25) Ammonium hydrogen phosphate has the following formula.

A) (NH4)3PO4 B) NH4PO4 C) NH4(PO4)3 D) (NH4)2HPO4 E) NH4HPO4 Answer: D

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26) A sodium ion is an example of a(n) ________.

A) anion B) polyatomic ion C) nonmetal ion D) cation E) neutral atom Answer: D 27) Magnesium chloride has the following formula.

A) MgCl2 B) MnCl2 C) MgCl D) MnCl E) MgClO3 Answer: A 28) Calcium hydrogen carbonate has the following formula.

A) Ca2CO3 B) Ca(HCO3)2 C) CaCO3 D) Ca2HCO3 E) CaHCO3 Answer: B 29) The formula for the compound formed between calcium and sulfate ion is which of these?

A) CaSO3 B) (Ca)2SO4 C) CaSO4 D) Ca(SO4)2 E) Ca2(SO4)2 Answer: C 30) What is the correct name for ZnCl2?

A) zircon chloride B) zinc chloride C) zinc(II) chloride D) zinc dichloride E) zircon dichloride Answer: B

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31) Iron(III) sulfite has this formula.

A) Fe(SO3)3 B) (Fe)2SO3 C) Fe2SO3 D) Fe2(SO3)3 E) (Fe)3(SO3)3 Answer: D 32) Copper(I) chloride has the following formula.

A) CuCl B) Cu2Cl2 C) CuCl2 D) Cu2Cl E) Cu2Cl4 Answer: A 33) Lead(II) iodide has the following formula.

A) Pb2I2 B) PbI2 C) Pb2I D) Pb2I3 E) PbI Answer: B 34) Gold(III) bromide has the following correct formula.

A) Au3Br3 B) AuBr C) Au3Br D) AuBr3 E) Au3Br2 Answer: D 35) The correct name for CaSO4 is ________.

A) calcium sulfite B) calcium sulfate C) calcium sulfide D) calcium sulfur E) sulfate calcium Answer: B

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36) What is the correct name for LiBr? A) lithium bromate B) lithium monobromide C) lithium bromide D) bromolithium E) bromine lithium Answer: C 37) Give the correct name for FePO4.

A) iron(III) phosphate B) iron(II) phosphate C) iron phosphate D) iron phosphite E) phosphoiron Answer: A 38) Magnesium oxide has the following correct formula.

A) Mg2O2 B) MgO C) Mg2O D) MgO2 E) Mg2O4 Answer: B 39) Potassium phosphide has the following formula.

A) K3PO4 B) KP C) K3P D) KPO4 E) KP3 Answer: C 40) Silver chloride has the following formula.

A) SnCl B) AuCl C) SiCl D) AgCl E) SbCl Answer: D

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41) A group of covalently bonded atoms that has an overall electrical charge is called a(n) ________.

A) ionic compound B) anion C) polyatomic ion D) cation E) molecule Answer: C 42) What is the correct name of BaSO4?

A) barium(I) sulfide B) barium(II) sulfate C) barium sulfide D) barium sulfate E) barium(I) sulfate Answer: D 43) In a molecule with covalent bonding, A) oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrical attractions.

B) atoms of metals form bonds to atoms of nonmetals.

C) atoms of different metals form bonds.

D) atoms are held together by sharing electrons.

E) atoms of noble gases are held together by attractions between oppositely charged ions.

Answer: D 44) Which of the following elements forms a diatomic molecule?

A) nitrogen B) sodium C) sulfur D) iron E) neon Answer: A 45) Which of the following elements does NOT exist as a diatomic molecule?

A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) chlorine D) oxygen E) carbon Answer: E

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46) Br2 is the formula for ________.

A) the bromide ion B) the element bromine C) bromate D) dibromine E) dibromide Answer: B 47) In a covalently bonded molecule, the number of electrons that an atom shares with others is usually equal to the number of electrons ________.

A) in the atom B) in its nucleus C) in all the atoms D) in its ion E) needed to have a noble gas arrangement Answer: E 48) The formula for one molecule formed from N and Cl is ________.

A) NCl B) NCl26 C) NCl3 D) N3Cl E) NCl6 Answer: C 49) According to the IUPAC nomenclature system, the types of compound that use prefixes in their names are ________.

A) ionic compounds B) ionic compounds involving transition metals C) polyatomic ions D) covalent compounds E) compounds that contain polyatomic ions Answer: D 50) The correct name for the compound N2O3 is ________.

A) nitrogen oxide B) nitrogen trioxide C) dinitride trioxide D) dinitrogen oxide E) dinitrogen trioxide Answer: E

Page 10 ..

1) The correct formula for dinitrogen trioxide is ________.

A) NO3 B) N2O3 C) N2O2 D) N3O2 E) N2O Answer: B 52) The formula for sulfur dichloride is ________.

A) SCl2 B) S2Cl2 C) S2Cl D) S4Cl2 E) SCl Answer: A 53) The name of the compound BF3 is ________.

A) boron fluoride B) monoboron trifluoride C) boron trifluoride D) monoboronfluoride E) borofluoride Answer: C 54) The correct name for CS2 is ________.

A) carbon disulfide B) monocarbon sulfide C) carbon sulfide D) carbosulfide E) monocarbon disulfide Answer: A 55) What is the formula of carbon tetraiodide?

A) CI B) CI4 C) C4I D) CI3 E) C2I4 Answer: B

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56) How many valence electrons does carbon have?

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five Answer: D 57) Which of the following properties is most characteristic of an organic molecule?

A) contain sodium B) soluble in water C) has a high melting point.

D) has C-H bonds E) has ionic bonds Answer: D 58) The four C-H bonds of methane A) form a square.

B) form a tetrahedron.

C) are all in a line.

D) are spherical.

E) are ionic.

Answer: B 59) What is the name of this compound?

CH3- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH3 A) hexane B) heptane C) octane D) butane E) pentane Answer: B 60) What is the name of CH3- CH2- CH2- CH3?

A) ethane B) propane C) butane D) pentane E) hexane Answer: C

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61) What is the name for a four-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

A) methane B) ethane C) propane D) butane E) pentane Answer: D 62) What is the name for an eight-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

A) hexane B) heptane C) octane D) nonane E) decane Answer: C 63) What is the name for a nine-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

A) hexane B) heptane C) octane D) nonane E) decane Answer: D 64) In a condensed structural formula, each carbon atom is A) shown with all individual atoms and bonds drawn.

B) shown with only the other carbon atoms.

C) grouped with its bonded hydrogen atoms.

D) not explicitly shown.

E) written in lowercase letters.

Answer: C 65) Which of the following is true of nonane, C9H20, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL, melts at -51 °C, and boils at 157 °C? A) Nonane is soluble in water.

B) Nonane is a gas at room temperature.

C) Nonane is a solid at room temperature.

D) Nonane does not undergo combustion.

E) Nonane floats on the surface of water.

Answer: E

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6.2 Bimodal Questions 1) What is the ionic charge of an ion with 13 protons and 10 electrons?

A) 1+ B) 2+ C) 3+ D) 2E) 3Answer: C 2) The number of electrons in an ion with 16 protons and an ionic charge of 2- is ________.

A) 16 B) 2 C) 22 D) 18 E) 14 Answer: D 3) Elements in group 2A(2) of the periodic table form ions with a charge of ________.

A) 1+ B) 1C) 2+ D) 3+ E) 0 Answer: C 4) The ion of aluminum is ________.

A) Al+ B) Al2+ C) Al3+ D) Al3E) Al2Answer: C 5) How many electrons will chlorine gain or lose when it forms an ion?

A) lose 1 B) gain 1 C) lose 7 D) gain 2 E) lose 3 Answer: B

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6) What is the correct formula for the iron (II) ion?

A) Fe+ B) Fe2+ C) Fe3+ D) Fe2E) Fe3Answer: B 7) The name of the Cu+ ion is ________.

A) copper (II) B) copper (I) C) cupric D) copper E) cuprum Answer: B 8) What is the correct formula for iron(III) sulfide?

A) Fe2S2 B) Fe2S C) FeS D) FeS2 E) Fe2S3 Answer: E 9) The name of Al2(SO4)3 is ________.

A) aluminum(III) sulfate B) dialuminum trisulfate C) dialuminum sulfate D) dialuminum trisulfide E) aluminum sulfate Answer: E 10) The correct formula for a compound formed from the elements Al and O is ________.

A) AlO B) Al2O C) Al3O2 D) AlO3 E) Al2O3 Answer: E

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11) The correct formula for the compound formed from Mg and S is ________.

A) MgS B) MgS2 C) Mg2S D) Mg2S2 E) Mg2S3 Answer: A 12) The name of CCl4 is ________.

A) carbon tetrachloride B) carbonyl chloride C) carbon chloride D) carbon chlorine E) chloroform Answer: A 13) What is the name of the compound NO2?

A) nitrogen oxide B) nitroxide C) nitrogen dioxide D) nitrate E) nitrite Answer: C 14) Name the compound NBr3.

A) nitrobromide B) bromonitrogen C) nitrogen bromide D) nitrogen tribromide E) tribromonitrogen Answer: D 15) What is the name of SiO2?

A) silicon oxide B) silicide C) dioxisilicon D) oxysilicide E) silicon dioxide Answer: E

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16) Name the compound CO. A) carbon dioxide B) carbon monoxide C) carboxide D) carbonate E) carbonyl Answer: B 17) Name the compound CO2.

A) carbon dioxide B) carbon oxide C) carbonate D) carboxyoxide E) carbon monoxide Answer: A 18) What is the name of PCl5?

A) phosphorus chloride B) pentachlorophosphorus C) phosphorus pentachloride D) phosphate pentachloride E) phosphate trichloride Answer: C 19) The correct name for the compound CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3 is ________.

A) ethane B) butane C) pentane D) hexane E) heptane Answer: C 20) Which of the following is NOT typical of most organic compounds?

A) not very soluble in water B) high melting point C) low boiling point D) covalent bonding E) high flammability Answer: B

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6.3 Matching Questions Match the correct name of the polyatomic ions with the formulas given.

A) bisulfite B) sulfite C) phosphate D) sulfate E) carbonate F) nitrite G) phosphite H) carbonite I) bicarbonate J) hydroxide K) oxide L) nitrate M) bisulfate 1) NO32) CO323) SO424) SO325) PO436) NO27) HCO38) HSO49) OHAnswers: 1) L 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) F 7) I 8) M 9) J

Page 18 ..

Give the correct charge for ions of the following elements.

A) 0 B) 1+ C) 2D) 2+ E) 1F) 3+ 10) Ca 11) Cl 12) O 13) Al 14) K Answers: 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) F 14) B Match the chemical name with the correct formula.

A) MgSO4 B) Mg(HSO4)2 C) Mg(HSO3)2 D) MgS E) MgSO3 15) magnesium sulfate 16) magnesium hydrogen sulfate 17) magnesium sulfide 18) magnesium sulfite 19) magnesium hydrogen sulfite Answers: 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) E 19) C

Page 19 ..

Match the property or formula with organic or inorganic.

A) organic B) inorganic 20) NaCl 21) flammable 22) low melting point 23) soluble in water 24) CH3―CH3 Answers: 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A Match the name with the condensed structural formula.

A) CH3―CH3 B) CH4 C) CH3―CH2―CH3 D) CH3―CH2―CH2―CH3 25) ethane 26) butane 27) propane 28) methane Answers: 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) B

Page 20 ..

6.4 True/False Questions 1) Chlorine has an ionic charge of -1.

Answer: TRUE 2) Calcium has an ionic charge of +1.

Answer: FALSE 3) Chromium forms more than one positive ion.

Answer: TRUE 4) The formula of nitrogen tribromide is NBr3.

Answer: TRUE 5) The name of Al2(SO4)3 is aluminum(II) sulfate.

Answer: FALSE 6) The ion of aluminum is Al3-.

Answer: FALSE 7) The name of FeS is iron(II) sulfide.

Answer: TRUE 8) The formula of the nitrate ion is NO3-.

Answer: TRUE 9) Elements in Group 6A(16) lose 6 electrons when they form ions.

Answer: FALSE 10) The name for the compound NO2 is nitrite.

Answer: FALSE 11) Most organic compounds are not flammable.

Answer: FALSE 12) The alkane octane has eight carbons atoms.

Answer: TRUE 13) The condensed structural formula of ethane is CH3―CH3.

Answer: TRUE 14) Octane is a seven carbon continuous chain alkane.

Answer: FALSE 15) Organic compounds are always highly water soluble.

Answer: FALSE Page 21 ..

16) Most organic compounds are flammable.

Answer: TRUE 17) Organic liquids are often less dense than water.

Answer: TRUE 6.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Write the formula for calcium iodide.

Answer: CaI2 2) Write the name of MgCO3.

Answer: magnesium carbonate 3) Write the name of CuSO4.

Answer: copper(II) sulfate 4) What is the name of K3PO4?

Answer: potassium phosphate 5) What is the name of LiCl? Answer: lithium chloride 6) What is the name of Cr2O3?

Answer: chromium(III) oxide 7) What is the name of NiCO3?

Answer: nickel(II) carbonate 8) NaHCO3 is called ________.

Answer: sodium hydrogen carbonate or sodium bicarbonate 9) Al2O3 is called ________.

Answer: aluminum oxide 10) Iron(III) oxide has the formula ________.

Answer: Fe2O3 11) Gold(I) iodide has the following formula.

Answer: AuI 12) The formula for barium chloride is ________.

Answer: BaCl2

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13) N2O is called ________.

Answer: dinitrogen oxide 14) P2O5 is called ________.

Answer: diphosphorus pentoxide 15) The formula for nitrogen trichloride is ________.

Answer: NCl3 16) The formula for carbon disulfide is ________.

Answer: CS2 17) The formula for carbon tetrabromide is ________.

Answer: CBr4 18) A hydrocarbon contains only the elements ________ and ________.

Answer: carbon, hydrogen 19) The condensed structural formula of hexane is ________.

Answer: CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3 20) What is the complete structural formula for an alkane with three carbon atoms?

Answer:

21) What is the condensed structural formula for an continuous chain alkane with four carbon atoms?

Answer: CH3CH2CH2CH3 22) What is the name of the unbranched alkane with eight carbon atoms?

Answer: octane 23) What is the name for a five-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

Answer: pentane 24) What is the name for a six-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

Answer: hexane 25) What is the name for a seven-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

Answer: heptane

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 7 Chemical Quantities 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) How many moles of water, H2O, are present in 75.0 g H2O? A) 4.41 mol B) 4.16 mol C) 75.0 mol D) 7.50 mol E) 1.35 × 103 mol Answer: B 2) One mol of particles of any substance contains how many particles?

A) 106 B) 3 × 10-10 C) 3 × 1010 D) 6.022 × 1023 E) 6.022 × 10-23 Answer: D 3) How many atoms of chlorine are in 1.00 mol of chlorine gas?

A) 1.20 × 10-24 B) 1.20 × 1024 C) 6.02 × 1023 D) 6.02 × 10-23 E) 3.01 × 1023 Answer: B 4) Avogadro's number is the number of A) particles in 1 mol of a substance.

B) amu in 1 mol of a substance.

C) grams in 1 mol of a substance.

D) moles in 6.022 × 1023 grams of an element.

E) moles in 6.022 × 1023 amu of an element.

Answer: A 5) One mol of potassium has a mass of ________.

A) 19.00 g B) 30.98 g C) 6.022 × 1023 g D) 39.10 g E) 31.00 g Answer: D Page 1 ..

6) One mol of helium gas has a mass of ________.

A) 1.00 g B) 2.00 g C) 3.00 g D) 4.00 g E) 8.00 g Answer: D 7) 0.100 mol of lithium has a mass of ________.

A) 3.00 g B) 0.300 g C) 6.94 g D) 0.694 g E) 0.700 g Answer: D 8) 1.00 mol of sodium has a mass of ________.

A) 23.0 g B) 0.230 g C) 0.0230 g D) 0.00230 g E) 2.30 × 10-6 Answer: A 9) Calculate the molar mass of potassium chloride, KCl. A) 74.55 g B) 54.55 g C) 6.74 g D) 67.40 g E) 19.00 g Answer: A 10) What is the molar mass of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4?

A) 16.00 g B) 63.55.g C) 111.55 g D) 159.62 g E) 319.17 g Answer: D

Page 2 ..

11) Calculate the molar mass of magnesium chloride, MgCl2.

A) 24.31 g B) 95.21 g C) 125.91 g D) 59.81 g E) 70.01 g Answer: B 12) What is the molar mass, to three significant figures, of sodium phosphate, Na3PO4?

A) 119 g B) 308 g C) 164 g D) 226 g E) 354 g Answer: C 13) What is the mass percent of carbon in methane, CH4?

A) 74.9% B) 50.0% C) 25.2% D) 20.0% E) 12.5% Answer: A 14) Calculate the empirical formula of a compound that has a composition of 5.9% (by mass) hydrogen and 94.1% (by mass) oxygen.

A) HO2 B) H2O C) HO D) H2O4 E) H4O2 Answer: C 15) What is the formula of the compound between calcium and sulfur that has the percent composition 55.6% (by mass) calcium and 44.4% (by mass) sulfur?

A) CaS B) CaS2 C) Ca2S D) CaS4 E) Ca2S4 Answer: A

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16) How many carbon atoms are there in 1.00 mol of C2H6?

A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 1.20 × 1024 D) 3.61 × 1024 E) 4.82 × 1024 Answer: C 17) How many moles of carbon atoms are there in 0.500 mol of C2H6?

A) 0.500 mol B) 1.00 mol C) 3.00 mol D) 6.02 × 1023 mol E) 4.00 mol Answer: B 18) What is the molar mass, to three significant figures, of sucrose (C12H22O11)?

A) 29.0 g B) 50.2 g C) 210 g D) 342 g E) 182 g Answer: D 19) A sample of sodium containing Avogadro's number of atoms has a mass of A) 32.10 g B) 11.00 g C) 22.99 g D) 16.00 g E) 6.022 × 1023 g Answer: C 20) Which of the following quantities has the smallest mass?

A) 1 mol Ne B) 2 mol Al C) 3 mol C D) 4 mol He E) 5 mol H2 Answer: E

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21) 1.00 mol of neon has a mass of ________.

A) 10.0 g B) 14.0 g C) 1.00 g D) 20.2 g E) 30.2 g Answer: D 22) The molar mass of C3H8O2 (four significant figures) is ________.

A) 76.09 g B) 60.00 g C) 29.06 g D) 69.02 g E) 13.00 g Answer: A 23) The molar mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is ________.

A) 57.09 g B) 73.09 g C) 74.10 g D) 114.2 g E) 38.06 g Answer: C 24) What is the molar mass of Mg3(PO4)2, a substance formerly used in medicine as an antacid?

A) 71.32 g B) 118.3 g C) 150.3 g D) 214.3 g E) 262.9 g Answer: E 25) 4.00 mol of sodium has a mass of ________.

A) 4.60 g B) 128. g C) 23.0 g D) 44.0 g E) 92.0 g Answer: E 26) How many moles of K2SO4 are in 15.0 g of K2SO4?

A) 0.172 mol B) 2.61 × 103 mol C) 0.111 mol D) 0.0861 mol E) 0.119 mol Answer: D Page 5 ..

27) 3.00 mol of NO2 has a mass of ________.

A) 138 g B) 46.0 g C) 30.0 g D) 90.0 g E) 45.0 g Answer: A 28) How many grams of Fe2O3 are there in 0.500 mol of Fe2O3?

A) 79.9 g B) 35.9 g C) 63.8 g D) 51.9 g E) 160. g Answer: A 29) How many grams of glucose (C6H12O6) are in 3.50 mol of glucose?

A) 180. g B) 631 g C) 103 g D) 426 g E) 50.7 g Answer: B 30) Which of the quantities below has the largest mass?

A) 5 mol of aluminum metal B) 5 mol of hydrogen gas C) 6 mol of helium gas D) 2 mol of lithium metal E) 2 mol of carbon Answer: A 31) What is the mass percent oxygen in sodium carbonate, Na2CO3?

A) 54.7% B) 15.1% C) 43.4% D) 11.3% E) 56.6% Answer: C

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32) What is the % (by mass) of carbon in carbon dioxide, CO2?

A) 72.7% B) 27.3% C) 36.4% D) 33.3% E) 13.6% Answer: B 33) Calculate the percent by mass sulfur in sulfuric acid, H2SO4.

A) 16.3% B) 48.9% C) 23.4% D) 32.7% E) 8.16% Answer: D 34) How many grams of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) are there in 0.150 mol?

A) 40.0 g B) 600. g C) 150. g D) 1.50 g E) 6.00 g Answer: E 35) Calculate the number of grams of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) in 6.00 mol.

A) 588 g B) 98.1 g C) 16.3 g D) 5.00 g E) 6.00 g Answer: A 36) Fructose has the formula C6H12O6. How many moles of fructose are there in 0.100 g of fructose?

A) 5.55 mol B) 5.55 × 10-4 mol C) 0.0555 mol D) 180. mol E) 18.0 mol Answer: B

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37) The empirical formula of a compound is NO2, and its molar mass is about 92.g. What is its molecular formula?

A) N2O B) N2O4 C) N3O6 D) N4O2 E) N3O3 Answer: B 38) The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O, and its molar mass is about 180.g. What is its molecular formula?

A) C6H12O6 B) C12H22O11 C) C5H24O6 D) C7O6 E) C5H8O7 Answer: A 39) What is the percent composition (by mass) of water?

A) 11.2% H, 88.8% O B) 88.8% H, 11.2% O C) 5.6% H, 94.4% O D) 5.6% O, 94.4% H E) 33.3% H, 66.7% O Answer: A 40) A sample of a white solid contains 0.212 g of magnesium and 0.140 g oxygen. What is the empirical formula of this compound?

A) Mg2O2 B) Mg2O C) MgO2 D) MgO E) OMg Answer: D 41) The letters N-P-K on a fertilizer label stand for the nutrients ________, ________, and ________.

A) nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium B) nickel, potassium, krypton C) niobium, phosphorus, potassium D) nitrogen, potassium, argon E) nitrogen, carbon, sulfur Answer: A

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42) What is the percent by mass of chlorine in potassium chloride?

A) 52.4% B) 47.6% C) 22.8% D) 50.0% E) 77.2% Answer: B 43) Find the mass of 3.00 mol of acetic acid, C2H4O2.

A) 44.1 g B) 120. g C) 180. g D) 60.1 g E) 132 g Answer: C 44) How many moles of sodium sulfate are present in 0.1000 g of the compound?

A) 7.040 × 10-4 mol B) 7.040 mol C) 174.3 mol D) 1.743 × 102 mol E) 2.126 × 10-3 mol Answer: A 45) Find the molar mass of hexachlorobenzene, C6Cl6.

A) 107.5 g B) 47.5 g C) 4.756 g D) 284.8 g E) 28.48 g Answer: D 46) What is the mass of 0.00100 mol of caffeine, C8H10N4O2?

A) 194 g B) 87.0 g C) 0.194 g D) 0.870 g E) 1.94 g Answer: C

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47) How many atoms of potassium are in 0.250 mol of potassium carbonate, K2CO3?

A) 2.50 × 10-1 atoms B) 6.02 × 1023 atoms C) 3.01 × 1023 atoms D) 1.51 × 1023 atoms E) 4.53 × 10-1 atoms Answer: C 48) What is the mass of 2.00 mol of bromine, a liquid element?

A) 16.0 g B) 79.9 g C) 70.0 g D) 160. g E) 320. g Answer: E 49) What is the molar mass of lactic acid, C3H6O3?

A) 90.08 g B) 29.02 g C) 180.0 g D) 90.00 g E) 45.02 g Answer: A 50) What is the mass, in grams, of 6.11 mol of sulfur trioxide?

A) 80.1 g B) 48.6 g C) 391 g D) 489 g E) 801 g Answer: D 51) The empirical formula of a compound is CH2, and its molar mass is about 42.g. What is its molecular formula?

A) CH2 B) C2H4 C) C3H6 D) C4H8 E) C5H10 Answer: C

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7.2 Bimodal Questions 1) 1.00 mol of calcium hydroxide has how many oxygen atoms? The formula for calcium hydroxide is Ca(OH)2.

A) 1.20 × 1024 B) 1.20 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 6.02 × 102 E) 3.01 × 1024 Answer: A 2) 8.60 mol of water has a mass of ________.

A) 18.0 g B) 15.5 g C) 155 g D) 1000. g E) 32.0 g Answer: C 3) Oxygen gas has a molar mass of ________.

A) 8.000 g B) 48.00 g C) 16.00 g D) 32.00 g E) 64.00 g Answer: D 4) The empirical formula of glucose (C6H12O6) is ________.

A) CH2O B) CHO C) C6H12O6 D) C3H6O E) C12H22O11 Answer: A 5) Calcium chloride contains what percent calcium by mass?

A) 63.9% B) 33.3% C) 36.1% D) 53.7% E) 66.7% Answer: C

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6) Sodium hydrogen phosphate, Na2HPO4, has a molar mass of ________.

A) 141.96 g B) 118.96 g C) 71.00 g D) 117.00 g E) 94.01 g Answer: A 7) What is the mass, in grams, of 4.00 x 1022 helium atoms?

A) 0.266 g B) 0.0644 g C) 96.3 g D) 2.66 g E) 4.00 g Answer: A 8) What is the mass, in grams, of 6.022 x 1023 molecules of water?

A) 6.022 × 1025 g B) 1.802 × 1024 g C) 18.02 g D) 1.000 g E) 1.000 × 1023 g Answer: C 9) What is the mass in grams of 1.00 mol of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3?

A) 106 g B) 100. g C) 1.00 g D) 83.0 g E) 58.0 g Answer: A 10) What is the mass of 2.75 mol of sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO3?

A) 84.0 g B) 58.0 g C) 231 g D) 52.0 g E) 250. g Answer: C

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7.3 Matching Questions Match the compound formula with the correct molar mass.

A) 2.016 g B) 83.00 g C) 72.00 g D) 28.01 g E) 84.01 g F) 41.99 g G) 110.98 g H) 44.01 g I) 153.8 g J) 134.5 g K) 4.032 g L) 87.92 g M) 39.95 g N) 32.04 g 1) CuCl2 2) NaHCO3 3) Iron(II) sulfide 4) carbon dioxide 5) methanol, CH3OH 6) hydrogen gas 7) argon gas 8) sodium fluoride 9) carbon tetrachloride 10) CaCl2 Answers: 1) J 2) E 3) L 4) H 5) N 6) A 7) M 8) F 9) I 10) G

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7.4 True/False Questions 1) The atomic mass of silver is 47 amu.

Answer: FALSE 2) The molar mass of magnesium is 24.31 g.

Answer: TRUE 3) The mass of 1.00 mol of water is 18.0 g.

Answer: TRUE 4) The molar mass of chlorine gas is 35.45 g.

Answer: FALSE 5) Water is 33.3% hydrogen by mass.

Answer: FALSE 6) The molar mass of copper(II) chloride is 134.5 g.

Answer: TRUE 7) The units for molar mass are kg.

Answer: FALSE 8) One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023 particles.

Answer: TRUE 9) 0.100 mol of sodium chloride weighs 5.84 g Answer: TRUE 10) 1.00 mol of hydrogen gas weighs 4.00 g.

Answer: FALSE 11) If the molecular formula of a compound is C6H6, the empirical formula is CH. Answer: TRUE 7.5 Short Answer Questions 1) The simplest or smallest whole-number ratio of the atoms in a compound formula is known as the ________ formula.

Answer: empirical 2) The actual formula that gives the number of atoms of each type of element in a compound is the ________ formula.

Answer: molecular 3) What is the mass of 1.000 mol of argon gas?

Answer: 39.95 g Page 14 ..

4) The molar mass of sodium chloride is ________.

Answer: 58.44 g 5) A sample of sodium chloride contained 22.6 g of the compound. How many moles was that?

Answer: 0.387 mol 6) 437 g of potassium hydroxide, KOH, is how many moles of the compound?

Answer: 7.79 mol 7) What is the molar mass of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4?

Answer: 159.62 g 8) What is the molar mass of methyl salicylate (C8H8O3), also known as oil of wintergreen?

Answer: 152.14 g 9) How many atoms of sulfur are in 1.00 mol of iron(II) sulfate, FeSO4?

Answer: 6.02 × 1023 atoms 10) How many atoms of oxygen are in 0.100 mol of silicon dioxide, SiO2?

Answer: 1.20 × 1023 11) Calculate the molar mass of glucose, C6H12O6.

Answer: 180.16 g 12) What is the empirical formula of ribose, C5H10O5.

Answer: CH2O.

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 8 Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A chemical equation is balanced when A) the total number of molecules is the same in reactants and products.

B) the total number of ions is the same in reactants and products.

C) the sum of the coefficients of the reactants is equal to the sum of the coefficients of the products.

D) the number of atoms of each element is the same in reactants and products.

E) the charge on each atom is the same in reactants and products.

Answer: D 2) Which of the following gives the balanced equation for this reaction?

K3PO4 (aq) + Ca(NO3)2 (aq)→ Ca3(PO4)2 (s) + KNO3 (aq) A) KPO4 + CaNO3 + KNO3 B) K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 3 KNO3 C) 2 K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6 KNO3 D) 2 K3PO4 + 3Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6 KNO3 E) K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + KNO3 Answer: D 3) Which of the following correctly gives the best coefficients for the reaction below?

N2H4 (g)+ H2O2 (g) → N2 (g) + H2O(g) A) 1, 1, 1 ,1 B) 1, 2, 1, 4 C) 2, 4, 2, 8 D) 1, 4, 1, 4 E) 2, 4, 2, 4 Answer: B 4) What coefficient is placed in front of O2 to complete the balancing of the following equation?

C5H8 (l)+ ? O2 (g) → 5 CO2 (g) + 4 H2O (g) A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 E) 9 Answer: D Page 1 ..

5) What is the coefficient of hydrogen, H2, when the following equation is balanced?

Al (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + ? H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Pentane (C5H12) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) according to the following reaction. Answer the following questions about this reaction.

C5H12 (l)+ ? O2 (g) → ? CO2 (g) + ? H2O(g) 6) What is the coefficient for oxygen in the balanced equation?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: E 7) What is the coefficient for carbon dioxide in the balanced equation?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: C 8) What is the coefficient for water in the balanced equation?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: D 9) In a ________ reaction, two or more elements or compounds form one product.

A) decomposition B) single replacement C) combustion D) double replacement E) combination Answer: E Page 2 ..

10) The following reaction takes place when an electric current is passed through water. It is an example of a ________ reaction.

2H2O (l)

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)

A) combination B) single replacement C) combustion D) decomposition E) double replacement Answer: D 11) The following reaction is an example of a ________ reaction.

2 C2H6 (g) + 7 O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 6 H2O (g) A) displacement B) single replacement C) combustion D) decomposition E) double replacement Answer: C 12) Which products would result from the double replacement reaction between MgCl2 (aq) and Na2CO3 (aq)?

A) Na2Cl2 (aq) and MgCO3 (s) B) NaCl (aq) and MgCO3 (s) C) NaCl (aq) and Mg2CO3 (s) D) NaCl (aq) and Mg(CO3)2 (s) E) MgNa2 (aq) and CO3Cl2 (aq) Answer: B 13) Which of the following is a combination reaction?

A) CaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → CaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) B) KOH (aq) + HNO3 (aq) → HN2O (l) + KNO3 (aq) C) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) D) AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (aq) E) Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 6KOH (aq) → 2 Al(OH)3 (s) + 3 K2SO4 (aq) Answer: C

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14) In this reaction, what is the coefficient for calcium oxide?

CaO(s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A 15) In this set of chemical reactions, which is a single replacement reaction?

A) K2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2KCl (aq) B) CuSO4 (aq)+ BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + CuCl2 (aq) C) Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + H2 (g) D) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2NaCl (aq) → PbCl2 (s) + 2NaNO3 (aq) E) AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (aq) Answer: C 16) In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for sodium chloride?

Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + ? NaCl (aq) → PbCl2 (s) + ? NaNO3 (aq) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B 17) In the following reaction, what is the correct coefficient for aluminum chloride?

Al (s) + Cl2 (g) → AlCl3 (s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B

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18) What is the classification for this reaction?

SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4 (aq) A) decomposition B) combination C) replacement D) double replacement E) oxidation reduction Answer: B 19) The reaction of carbon with oxygen to produce carbon monoxide is an example of which class of reaction?

2C (s) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g) A) single replacement B) double replacement C) combination D) catalytic E) endothermic Answer: C 20) For the following reaction, what is the correct coefficient for the H2?

Fe (s) + HCl (aq) → FeCl3 (aq) + H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C 21) What is the classification for this unbalanced reaction?

Fe (s) + HCl (aq) → FeCl3 (aq) + H2 (g) A) combustion B) combination C) decomposition D) single replacement E) double replacement Answer: D

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22) Silver nitrate reacts with potassium chloride to produce solid silver chloride and what substance?

A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) potassium metal D) potassium nitrate E) potassium nitrite Answer: D 23) In any balanced chemical equation, the number of each type of atom on both sides of the equation is ________.

A) doubled B) the same C) decreased by one D) increased by one E) dependent on the temperature Answer: B 24) Magnesium reacts with oxygen gas to produce magnesium oxide, light, and heat. This reaction is A) a combination reaction.

B) a decomposition reaction.

C) a single replacement reaction.

D) a double replacement reaction.

E) a catalysis reaction.

Answer: A 25) In the reaction of silver nitrate with copper metal, metallic silver comes out of solution, and the solution turns blue. This as a ________ reaction.

A) combustion B) decomposition C) double replacement D) single replacement E) combination Answer: D 26) In the reaction of silver nitrate solution, which is colorless, with copper metal, metallic silver comes out of solution, and the solution turns blue. The blue of the new solution must be due to ________.

A) silver metal B) silver nitrate C) copper metal D) copper nitrate E) water Answer: D

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27) When barium chloride is allowed to react with silver nitrate to give barium nitrate and silver chloride, what are the coefficients for the balanced equation? ___BaCl2 (aq) + ___AgNO3 (aq) → ___AgCl (s) + ___ Ba(NO3)2 (aq) A) 1, 2, 2, 1 B) 1, 1, 1, 1 C) 1, 2, 3, 1 D) 1, 1, 1, 2 E) 1, 1, 2, 1 Answer: A 28) What are the coefficients for the balanced equation? ___Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + ___KOH (aq) → ___ Al(OH)3 (s) + ___K2SO4 (aq) A) 1, 2, 1, 2 B) 1, 1, 1, 1 C) 1, 2, 3, 1 D) 1, 2, 1, 3 E) 1, 6 , 2, 3 Answer: E 29) When lead(II) nitrate reacts with sodium iodide, what is the correct formula for the product lead(II) iodide?

A) Pb2I2 B) Pb2I C) Pb2I4 D) PbI4 E) PbI2 Answer: E 30) The reaction of carbon dioxide to form carbon monoxide and oxygen is what type of reaction?

2CO2 (g) → 2CO (g) + O2 (g) A) single replacement B) decomposition C) combination D) oxidation E) double replacement Answer: B

Page 7 ..

31) The reaction of butane with oxygen is called ________.

A) substitution B) addition C) neutralization D) combustion E) titration Answer: D 32) Name the product(s) of the complete combustion of any hydrocarbon.

A) CO only B) CO2 only C) CO + H2O D) CO2 + H2O E) H2O only Answer: D 33) A compound that contains the ring structure of benzene is called a(n) ________.

A) alkane B) cycloalkane C) alkyl group D) aromatic compound E) hydrocarbon Answer: D 34) The special feature that determines the family name and chemical reactivity of an organic compound is called its ________.

A) functional group B) organic compound C) identifying group D) ionic bond E) covalent bond Answer: A 35) An alkene is a carbon compound that contains a ________ bond.

A) single B) double C) triple D) aromatic E) hydrogen Answer: B

Page 8 ..

36) An alkyne is always a carbon compound that contains a ________ bond.

A) single B) double C) triple D) aromatic E) hydrogen Answer: C 37) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 is a(n) ________.

A) aldehyde B) alkene C) alcohol D) ketone E) ether Answer: B 38) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2COOH is a(n) ________.

A) alcohol B) carboxylic acid C) amine D) ester E) amide Answer: B 39) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2NH2 is a(n) ________.

A) alcohol B) carboxylic acid C) amine D) ester E) amide Answer: C 40) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2OH is a(n) ________.

A) alcohol B) carboxylic acid C) amine D) ester E) amide Answer: A

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41) Which one of the following compounds is an alcohol?

A)

B)

C) CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 D) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 E) CH3CH3 Answer: A 42) Which of the following compounds contains a ketone functional group?

A)

B)

C) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 D)

E)

Answer: D Page 10 ..

43) Which functional group is a carboxylic acid?

A) ⎯OH B)

C)

D)

E) ⎯CH2OH Answer: B

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44) Which compound below contains an ester functional group?

A)

B) CH3CH2 ⎯ O ⎯ CH2CH3 C)

D)

E)

Answer: C 45) The compound CH3CH2NHCH3 is classified as an ________.

A) alkane B) amine C) amide D) alkene E) ammonium Answer: B 46) What is the functional group in the following compound?

O || CH3CNHCH3 A) ketone B) carboxylic acid C) ester D) amine E) amide Answer: E Page 12 ..

47) Amines contain the element ________.

A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) sulfur D) astatine E) arginine Answer: A 48) When hydrogen is added to CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 the reaction is a(n) ________.

A) combustion B) hydrogenation C) single replacement D) decomposition E) double replacement Answer: B 49) The reaction of hydrogen (H2) and propene using a platinum catalyst is called ________.

A) combustion B) substitution C) hydrogenation D) neutralization E) condensation Answer: C 50) The addition of hydrogen to an alkene gives a(n) ________.

A) alkane B) alkene C) alkyne D) benzene E) isomer Answer: A

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51) What is the condensed structural formula for the product formed when hydrogen is added to butene using a platinum catalyst?

A) CH3CH = CH CH3 B)

Cl ∣ CH3⎯CH2⎯CH⎯CH3

C) CH3CH2CH2CH3 D)

CH3 ∣ CH3CH CH3

E)

OH ∣ CH3CHCH3

Answer: C 8.2 Bimodal Questions 1) In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for hydrogen gas? ? H2 (g) + ? O2 (g)→ ? H2O(g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B 2) In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for oxygen gas? ? H2 (g) + ? O2 (g)→ ? H2O(g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A

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3) For the unbalanced equation, what is the coefficient for CO2? ? C5H8 (l) + ? O2 (g) → ? CO2 (g) + ? H2O (g) A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 E) 9 Answer: C 4) For the unbalanced equation, what is the coefficient for O2? ? C5H10 (l)+ ? O2 (g) → ? CO2 (g) + ? H2O (g) A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 6 E) 1 Answer: C 5) For the unbalanced equation, what is the coefficient for C5H10 ? ? C5H10 (l)+ ? O2 (g) → ? CO2 (g) + ? H2O (g) A) 2 B) 4 C) 10 D) 6 E) 1 Answer: A 6) In an amine functional group, the central atom is ________.

A) chlorine B) hydrogen C) oxygen D) nitrogen E) sulfur Answer: D

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7) A hydrocarbon with a double bond is a(n) ________.

A) alkane B) alkene C) alkyne D) alcohol E) saturated compound Answer: B 8) A hydrocarbon with a triple bond is a(n) ________.

A) alkane B) alkene C) alkyne D) alcohol E) saturated compound Answer: C 9) The functional group that contains an oxygen with single bonds to two carbon atoms is a(n) ________.

A) ester B) alcohol C) alkyne D) aldehyde E) ether Answer: E 8.3 True/False Questions 1) When methane, CH4, reacts with oxygen, one product is nitrogen gas.

Answer: FALSE 2) When C2H4 reacts with oxygen, one product is water.

Answer: TRUE 3) When nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to produce ammonia, the coefficient for nitrogen in the balanced equation is 2.

Answer: FALSE 4) When balancing the equation for the formation of hydrogen gas from water, the formula for the hydrogen is H2.

Answer: TRUE 5) A balanced equation for the reaction of silver nitrate with copper metal is an example of a double replacement reaction.

Answer: FALSE

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6) A balanced equation for the reaction of silver nitrate with copper metal produces silver metal as a product.

Answer: TRUE 7) The reaction between magnesium sulfate and barium chloride to produce barium sulfate and magnesium chloride is a double replacement reaction.

Answer: TRUE 8) Carbon has six valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE 9) Functional groups are groups of atoms that act in predictable ways.

Answer: TRUE 10) Hydrogenation is used to convert alkenes and alkynes to alkanes.

Answer: TRUE 11) The functional group of amines is ‒ OH. Answer: FALSE 12) An alkyne has a carbon-carbon double bond.

Answer: FALSE 8.4 Short Answer Questions 1) When an electric current is passed through molten salt, this reaction takes place.

2NaCl (l) → 2Na (l) + Cl2 (g) It is an example of a ________ reaction.

Answer: decomposition 2) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of copper(II) chloride with sodium hydroxide to produce copper(II) hydroxide and sodium chloride.

Answer: CuCl2 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → Cu(OH)2 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) 3) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of sodium hydroxide with sulfuric acid to give water and sodium sulfate.

Answer: 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4 (aq) → Na2SO4 (aq) + H2O (l) 4) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of hydrogen chloride, HCl, with sodium carbonate, Na2CO3.

Answer: 2HCl (aq) + Na2CO3 (s) → 2NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)

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5) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of hydrogen chloride with sodium hydrogen carbonate to give sodium chloride, carbon dioxide, and water.

Answer: HCl (aq) + NaHCO3 (s) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g) 6) The conversion of calcium oxide to calcium and oxygen is an example of what type of reaction?

Answer: decomposition 7) The formation of calcium oxide from calcium and oxygen is an example of what type of reaction?

Answer: combination 8) The reaction that takes place in the carburetor of an automobile belongs to what type of reaction?

Answer: combustion 9) The reaction of carbonic acid, H2CO3, to give carbon dioxide and water belongs to what type of reaction?

Answer: decomposition 10) Copper (II) chloride can react with zinc metal to produce zinc chloride and copper metal. What is the classification of this reaction?

Answer: single replacement 11) When mercury(II) oxide is heated, mercury and oxygen are formed. What is the classification of this reaction?

Answer: decomposition 12) Copper(II) chloride can react with zinc metal to produce zinc chloride and copper metal. Write the balanced equation.

Answer: CuCl2 (aq) + Zn (s) → ZnCl2 (aq) + Cu (s) 13) Write a balanced equation for the decomposition of iron(III) sulfide into iron and sulfur.

Answer: Fe2S3 (s)→ 2Fe (s) + 3S (s) 14) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide and aluminum to give aluminum oxide and iron.

Answer: Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) → Al2O3 (s) + 2Fe (s) 15) The balanced equation for the complete combustion of C5H12 will give what products?

Answer: 5 CO2 + 6 H2O 16) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2OH is a(n) ________.

Answer: alcohol 17) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2OCH3 is a(n) ________.

Answer: ether

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18) The functional group contained in the compound (CH3)3N is a(n) ________.

Answer: amine 19) Identify the functional group in the compound CH3CH2NH2.

Answer: amine

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 9 Chemical Quantities in Reactions 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following correctly illustrates the conservation of mass for the reaction below?

4Na(s) + O2 (g) → 2 Na2O(s) A) 23.0 g Na, 16.0 g O2, 39.0 g Na2O B) 92.0 g Na, 16.0 g O2, 108 g Na2O C) 92.0 g Na, 32.0 g O2, 124 g Na2O D) 23.0 g Na, 16.0 g O2, 124 g Na2O E) 92.0 g Na, 16.0 g O2, 124 g Na2O Answer: C 2) Which of the following correctly illustrates the conservation of mass for the reaction below?

4Fe(s) + 3 O2 (g) → 2 Fe2O3 (s) A) 4.00 g Fe, 3.00 g O2, 2.00 g Fe2O3 B) 223 g Fe, 96.0 g O2, 319 g Fe2O3 C) 55.9 g Fe, 16.0 g O2, 160. g Fe2O3 D) 40.0 g Fe, 30.00 g O2, 70.0 g Fe2O3 E) 100. g Fe, 100. g O2, 200. g Fe2O3 Answer: B

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3) Given the following equation, what is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of O2 to the number of moles of Fe reacted?

4Fe(s) + 3 O2 (g) → 2 Fe2O3 (s) A)

4 mol Fe 3 mol O2

B)

4 mol Fe 2 mol Fe2O3

C)

3 mol O 2 2 mol Fe2O3

D)

2 mol Fe2O3

E)

2 mol Fe2O3

4 mol Fe

3 mol O 2

Answer: A 4) Given the following equation, what is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of O2 to the number of moles of Fe2O3 produced?

4Fe(s) + 3 O2 (g) → 2 Fe2O3 (s) A)

4 mol Fe 3 mol O2

B)

4 mol Fe 2 mol Fe2O3

C)

3 mol O 2 2 mol Fe2O3

D)

2 mol Fe2O3

E)

2 mol Fe2O3

4 mol Fe

3 mol O 2

Answer: E Page 2 ..

For the following questions, consider the following equation.

2Mg(s) + O2 (g) → 2MgO(s) 5) The number of moles of oxygen gas needed to react with 4.00 mol of Mg is ________.

A) 1.00 mol B) 2.00 mol C) 3.00 mol D) 4.00 mol E) 6.00 mol Answer: B 6) The number of moles of MgO produced when 0.200 mol of O2 reacts completely is ________.

A) 0.100 mol B) 0.200 mol C) 0.400 mol D) 0.600 mol E) 0.800 mol Answer: C 7) How many moles of magnesium are needed to react with 16.0 g of O2?

A) 0.500 mol B) 1.00 mol C) 2.00 mol D) 3.00 mol E) 4.00 mol Answer: B 8) How many grams of MgO are produced when 40.0 grams of O2 react completely with Mg? A) 30.4 g B) 50.4 g C) 60.8 g D) 101 g E) 201 g Answer: D

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For the following questions, consider the following balanced equation.

Mg3 N3 (s) + 6 H2O(l) → 3 Mg(OH)2 (s) + 2 NH3 (g) 9) What is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of H2O to the number of moles of NH3 produced?

2 mol NH3 A) 6 mol H 2O B)

6 mol H 2O 2 mol NH3

C)

1 mol Mg3 N 2

D)

18 g H 2O

E)

6 mol H 2O

1 mol H 2O 18 g H 2O 17 g NH3

Answer: A 10) When 2.50 mol of Mg3N2 are allowed to react, how many moles of H2O also react?

A) 1.25 mol B) 2.50 mol C) 6.00 mol D) 9.00 mol E) 15.0 mol Answer: E 11) When 0.600 mol Mg3N2 reacts with 4.00 mol H2O, what is the limiting reactant ?

A) Mg3N2 B) H2O C) Mg(OH)2 D) NH3 E) None of the above Answer: A

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12) When 100.g Mg3N2 reacts with 75.0 g H2O, what is the limiting reactant ?

A) Mg3N2 B) H2O C) Mg(O H)2 D) NH3 E) None of the above Answer: B 13) When 100.g Mg3N2 reacts with 75.0 g H2O, what is the maximum theoretical yield of NH3?

A) 70.8 g B) 213 g C) 25.0 g D) 23.6 g E) 1280 g Answer: D 14) When 100.g Mg3N2 reacts with 75.0 g H2O, 15.0 g of NH3 is formed. What is the % yield?

A) 21.2% B) 63.6% C) 50.0% D) 20.0% E) 15.0% Answer: B 15) When 0.440 mol of aluminum are allowed to react with an excess of chlorine gas, Cl2, how many moles of aluminum chloride are produced?

A) 0.110 mol B) 0.220 mol C) 0.330 mol D) 0.440 mol E) 0.880 mol Answer: D 16) In the reaction of silver nitrate with sodium chloride, how many grams of silver chloride will be produced from 100. g of silver nitrate when it is mixed with an excess of sodium chloride? The equation for the reaction is below.

AgNO3 (aq)+ NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3 (aq) A) 107.9 g B) 169.9 g C) 84.4 g D) 0.589 g E) 58.9 g Answer: C Page 5 ..

17) A reaction between methane and hydrogen sulfide to produce carbon disulfide and hydrogen gas was carried out.

CH4 (g) + 2 H2S(g) → CS2 (g) + 4 H2 (g) A 32.0 g quantity of methane produced 70.0 g of carbon disulfide. What was the percent yield for this reaction?

A) 22.0% B) 42.9% C) 46.1% D) 62.2% E) 92.0% Answer: C For the following questions, consider the following balanced equation.

Mg3N2 (s) + 6 H2O(l) → 3 Mg(OH)2 (s) + 2 NH3 (g) 18) When 2.00 mol of H2O react, how many grams of NH3 are produced?

A) 34.0 g B) 10.0 g C) 5.67 g D) 11.4 g E) 102 g Answer: D 19) How many grams of H2O are needed to produce 150. g of Mg(OH)2?

A) 46.3 g B) 18.0 g C) 130. g D) 92.6 g E) 58.3 g Answer: D 20) Find the mass of AlCl3 that is produced when 25.0 grams of Al2O3 react with HCl according to the following balanced equation.

Al2O3 (s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2 AlCl3 (aq) + 3 H2O(l) A) 155 g B) 72.9 g C) 65.4 g D) 32.6 g E) 16.3 g Answer: C Page 6 ..

21) How many grams of NO are required to produce 145 g of N2 in the following reaction?

4 NH3 (g)+ 6NO(g) → 5 N2 (g) + 6 H2O(l) A) 186 g B) 155 g C) 125 g D) 129 g E) 145 g Answer: A 22) In the reaction of nitrogen gas, N2, with hydrogen gas, H2, to form ammonia gas, NH3, how many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with 1.22 mol of nitrogen?

A) 1.22 mol B) 2.44 mol C) 3.66 mol D) 4.88 mol E) 6.10 mol Answer: C 23) How many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with 0.234 mol of oxygen according to this equation?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(g) A) 0.234 mol B) 0.117 mol C) 2.00 mol D) 0.468 mol E) 0.936 mol Answer: D 24) How many moles of water are produced from the reaction of 0.112 mol of oxygen according to this equation?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(g) A) 0.112 mol B) 0.224 mol C) 2.00 mol D) 0.0560 mol E) 0.448 mol Answer: B

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25) How many grams of water are produced from the reaction of 1.26 mol of oxygen according to this equation?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(g) A) 0.630 g B) 22.7 g C) 40.3 g D) 2.00 g E) 45.4 g Answer: E 26) How many grams of hydrogen are needed to produce 1.80 g of water according to this equation?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(g) A) 0.100 g B) 0.180 g C) 0.201 g D) 2.01 g E) 4.02 g Answer: C For the following questions, refer to the following reaction, which is not yet balanced.

CH4(g)+ O2 (g)→ CO2 (g)+ H2O(g) 27) When the above equation is balanced, what is the best coefficient for water?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0.5 E) 1.5 Answer: B 28) If 16.0 g of methane is allowed to react with 32.0 g of oxygen, what is the limiting reagent?

A) methane B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) water E) fire Answer: B

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29) If 0.240 mol of methane reacts completely with oxygen, what is the final yield of H2O in grams?

A) 0.480 g B) 44.0 g C) 8.64 g D) 2.00 g E) 88.0 g Answer: C 30) If 12.0 g of methane reacts completely with oxygen, what is the final yield of CO2 in grams?

A) 32.9 g B) 44.0 g C) 8.64 g D) 2.00 g E) 88.0 g Answer: A 31) How many grams of methane are required to react completely with 16.0 g of oxygen gas?

A) 32.0 g B) 16.2 g C) 12.0 g D) 4.01 g E) 2.00 g Answer: D 32) A student carried out this reaction with methane as the limiting reagent. A 12.0 g quantity of methane was used, and the student collected 22.0 g of carbon dioxide. What was the percent yield?

A) 100.% B) 66.9% C) 54.5% D) 50.0% E) 10.0% Answer: B 33) If 0.500 mol of acetylene is allowed to completely react with oxygen, what is the final yield of CO2 in moles?

2 C2H2 (g)+ 5 O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 2 H2O(g) acetylene A) 0.500 mol B) 1.00 mol C) 2.00 mol D) 4.00 mol E) 0.100 mol Answer: B

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34) If 20.0 g acetylene is allowed to completely react with oxygen, how many g of O2 are reacted?

2 C2H2 (g)+ 5 O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 2 H2O(g) acetylene A) 24.6 g B) 20.0 g C) 5.00 g D) 9.85 g E) 61.4 g Answer: E 35) If 40.0 g of acetylene is allowed to react with 40.0 g of oxygen , how many grams of CO2 are formed?

2 C2H2 (g)+ 5 O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 2 H2O(g) acetylene A) 80.0 g B) 40.0 g C) 44.0 g D) 135 g E) 55.0 g Answer: C 36) When 50.0 g of acetylene is allowed to react with excess oxygen, 75.0 g of CO2 are formed.

What is the percent yield of carbon dioxide?

2 C2H2 (g)+ 5 O2 (g) → 4 CO2 (g) + 2 H2O(g) acetylene A) 44.4% B) 100.% C) 88.8% D) 6.7% E) 150.% Answer: C 37) How many kJ are produced when 50.0 g of oxygen reacts with excess H2 (g)?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(l) +572 kJ A) 572 kJ B) 446 kJ C) 1140 kJ D) 894 kJ E) 286 kJ Answer: D

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38) When 45.0 g of H2O is produced, how many kcal are also given off?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(l) +572 kJ A) 1430 kcal B) 715 kcal C) 214 kcal D) 342 kcal E) 572 kcal Answer: C 39) When 355 kJ of heat is produced, what mass of H2O is also produced?

2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 H2O(l) +572 kJ A) 22.4 g B) 11.2 g C) 0.621 g D) 19.7 g E) 36.0 g Answer: A 40) In the reaction of aluminum and iron(III) oxide to form iron and aluminum oxide, energy is given off. This reaction is ________.

2 Al (s) + Fe2O3 (s) → 2 Fe (s) + Al2O3 (s) A) double replacement B) single replacement C) combination D) decomposition E) catalytic Answer: B 41) For the reaction of carbon dioxide to form carbon monoxide and oxygen, ΔH is + 570 kJ. This reaction is 2CO2 (g) → 2CO (g) + O2 (g)

ΔH= + 570 kJ

A) double replacement B) exothermic C) combination D) oxidation E) endothermic Answer: E Page 11 ..

42) For the reaction of carbon dioxide to form carbon monoxide and oxygen, ΔH is 570 kJ. How much heat is absorbed if 55.0 g of CO2 reacts?

2CO2 (g) → 2CO (g) + O2 (g)

ΔH= +570 kJ

A) 360 kJ B) 570 kJ C) 710 kJ D) 1100 kJ E) 230 kJ Answer: A 43) For the reaction of carbon dioxide to form carbon monoxide and oxygen, ΔH is 570 kJ. How many grams of CO2 will react if 450 kJ is absorbed?

2CO2 (g) → 2CO (g) + O2 (g)

ΔH= +570 kJ

A) 44 g B) 69 g C) 35 g D) 110 g E) 55 g Answer: B 44) In the reaction of aluminum and iron(III) oxide to form iron and aluminum oxide, ΔH is -850 kJ. How many kJ are released when 10. g of Al react?

2 Al (s) + Fe2O3 (s) → 2 Fe (s) + Al2O3 (s)

ΔH= -850 kJ

A) 1100 kJ B) 320 kJ C) 550 kJ D) 850 kJ E) 160 kJ Answer: E

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45) In the reaction of aluminum and iron(III) oxide to form iron and aluminum oxide, ΔH is -850 kJ. How many grams of aluminum oxide are formed when 350 kJ of heat are released?

2 Al (s) + Fe2O3 (s) → 2 Fe (s) + Al2O3 (s) ΔH= -850 kJ A) 30 g B) 42 g C) 11 g D) 22 g E) 84 g Answer: B 46) When 650. kJ of heat is produced, what mass of C2H6 is also produced?

C2H4 (g) + H2 (g) → C2H6 (g) + 32.5 kcal A) 21.2 g B) 601 g C) 4.78 g D) 32.5 g E) 144 g Answer: E 47) The major form of stored energy in the body is ________.

A) ADP B) protein C) carbohydrate D) fat E) vitamins Answer: D

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9.2 Bimodal Questions Barium chloride and sodium sulfate react according to the equation below. Answer the following questions about this reaction.

BaCl2 (aq)+ Na2SO4 (aq)→ BaSO4 (s)+ 2NaCl(aq) 1) How many moles of barium sulfate are produced from 0.100 mole of barium chloride?

A) 0.0100 mol B) 0.100 mol C) 0.200 mol D) 1.00 mol E) 2.00 mol Answer: B 2) How many grams of barium sulfate can be produced from 0.100 mol of barium chloride?

A) 1.37 g B) 2.33 g C) 23.3 g D) 137 g E) 233 g Answer: C 3) How many grams of sodium sulfate react with 0.100 mol of barium chloride?

A) 10.0 g B) 14.2 g C) 20.8 g D) 28.4 g E) 142 g Answer: B 4) How many grams of barium chloride are needed to make 100. grams of barium sulfate, assuming that the reaction yield is 100%?

A) 44.6 g B) 89.2 g C) 208. g D) 233. g E) 447 g Answer: B

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Answer the following questions about the following reaction.

2 H2O2 (l) → 2 H2O (g) + O2 (g) 5) How many moles of oxygen gas can 30.0 g of hydrogen peroxide produce if decomposition is complete?

A) 0.500 mol B) 0.882 mol C) 1.00 mol D) 2.00 mol E) 0.441 mol Answer: E 6) How many grams of water will 100. g of hydrogen peroxide produce?

A) 3600 g B) 360. g C) 5.88 g D) 53.0 g E) 106 g Answer: D 7) How many grams of hydrogen peroxide are needed to produce 5.00 mol of water?

A) 90.0 g B) 180. g C) 3060 g D) 306 g E) 170. g Answer: E 8) If 50.0 grams hydrogen peroxide produce 15.0 g oxygen, what is the percent yield for this reaction?

A) 30.0% B) 63.8% C) 50.0% D) 15.0% E) 94.0% Answer: B

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9) Magnesium sulfate reacts with barium chloride according to the following balanced equation.

How many moles of barium sulfate are formed from 10.0 g of magnesium sulfate?

MgSO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + MgCl2(aq) A) 1.00 mol B) 0.500 mol C) 0.200 mol D) 0.0831 mol E) 0.166 mol Answer: D 10) Magnesium sulfate reacts with barium chloride according to the following balanced equation. If 1.20 g of magnesium sulfate is allowed to react with 1.00 g of barium chloride in a water solution, what is the limiting reagent?

MgSO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + MgCl2(aq) A) barium chloride B) magnesium sulfate C) water D) barium sulfate E) magnesium chloride Answer: A 11) Magnesium sulfate reacts with barium chloride according to the following balanced equation. If 1.20 g of magnesium sulfate is allowed to react with 10.0 g of barium chloride in a water solution, what is the theoretical yield of barium sulfate?

MgSO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + MgCl2(aq) A) 1.20 g B) 2.33 g C) 2.08 g D) 23.3 g E) 10.0 g Answer: B

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12) Methane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water and heat. How many kcal are produced when 5.00 g of methane react?

CH4(g)+ 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g) + 802 kJ methane A) 250. kcal B) 958 kcal C) 59.9 kcal D) 15300 kcal E) 802 kcal Answer: C 13) In the reaction of aluminum and iron(III) oxide to form iron and aluminum oxide, ΔH is -850 kJ. How many moles of aluminum are reacted when 650 kJ of heat are released?

2 Al (s) + Fe2O3 (s) → 2 Fe (s) + Al2 O3 (s) ΔH= -850 kJ A) 1.0 mol B) 2.0 mol C) 1.5 mol D) 0.76 mol E) 3.0 mol Answer: C 14) When hydrogen and oxygen are combined in air, heat and light are given off. In terms of the energetics of this reaction, it may be classified as ________.

A) exothermic B) endothermic C) thermodynamic D) kinetic E) potential Answer: A 15) When iron oxide is heated with aluminum, one of the products is molten iron, and much smoke and light are given off. The reaction can be classified as a(n) ________ reaction.

A) exothermic B) endothermic C) decomposition D) potential E) fusion Answer: A

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16) The first step in the production of nitric acid is the formation of nitric oxide, NO, according to the following balanced equation.

4NH3(g)+ 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)

ΔH = -906 kJ

How many kJ are given off by the conversion of 34.0 g of ammonia?

A) 906 kJ B) 452 kJ C) 227 kJ D) 1 810 kJ E) 1.810 kJ Answer: B 17) The heat of reaction for the conversion of natural gas, methane, to carbon dioxide and water is 802 kJ/mol. How many kJ are given off by the combustion of 0.150 mol of methane? The reaction is: CH4(g) + 2 O2(g)→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) A) 80.2 kJ B) 40.1 kJ C) 120. kJ D) 0.0802 kJ E) 0.160 kJ Answer: C 18) The heat of reaction in the combustion of graphite is -394 kJ/mol. The balanced reaction is: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) How many kJ are given off by the combustion of 88.0 g of graphite?

A) 9.00 kJ B) 2 890 kJ C) 788 kJ D) 1 810 kJ E) 34.7 kJ Answer: B

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9.3 True/False Questions 1) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, 1.00 mol of oxygen gas can produce 2.00 mol of water, given sufficient hydrogen available.

Answer: TRUE 2) When 1.00 mol of sodium chloride reacts with 0.500 mol of silver nitrate, sodium chloride is the limiting reagent.

Answer: FALSE 3) When 1.00 mol of barium chloride reacts with 1.00 mol of silver nitrate, the theoretical yield of silver chloride is 0.500 mol of silver chloride.

Answer: FALSE 4) If 18.0 g of water is separated into hydrogen and oxygen, the theoretical yield of oxygen is 18.0 g.

Answer: FALSE 5) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, the maximum theoretical yield is 75.0 g. If 50.0 g is actually produced, the percent yield is 150%.

Answer: FALSE 6) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, 1.00 mol of oxygen and 1.00 mol of hydrogen can produce 2.00 mol of water.

Answer: FALSE 7) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, when 1.00 mol of oxygen and 1.00 mol of hydrogen react, hydrogen is the limiting reactant.

Answer: TRUE 8) When 1.00 mol of barium chloride reacts with 1.00 mol of silver nitrate, silver nitrate is the excess reactant.

Answer: FALSE 9) Most energy is stored in the body in the form of fat.

Answer: TRUE 10) ATP is an important high energy compound in the body.

Answer: TRUE 11) When 1.00 g of methane reacts, 802 kJ of energy is released.

CH4 (g)+ 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O(g) + 802 kJ methane Answer: FALSE 12) In an exothermic reaction, heat flows in.

Answer: FALSE Page 19 ..

13) The heat of reaction is the change in energy that occurs during a chemical reaction at constant pressure.

Answer: TRUE 14) In an endothermic reaction, heat energy must be added to the reactants to allow the reaction to occur.

Answer: TRUE 9.4 Short Answer Questions 1) In the reaction of nitrogen gas with hydrogen gas to make ammonia, what is the theoretical yield of ammonia in grams if a 100. g quantity of hydrogen gas is used in the reaction?

Answer: 563 g 2) The amount of product that a calculation indicates as possible for a chemical reaction is known as the ________.

Answer: theoretical yield 3) Acetylene gas, C2H2, reacts with oxygen according to the following equation. If 2.00 mol of acetylene react completely with sufficient oxygen, how many grams of carbon dioxide are produced?

2 C2H2 (g) + 5 O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) acetylene Answer: 176 g 4) What is the limiting reactant when 2.00 mol of methane reacts with 2.00 mol of oxygen? The balanced equation is CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) methane Answer: oxygen 5) What is the percent yield of the reaction when 16.0 g of methane reacts with excess oxygen to give 8.00 g of carbon dioxide? The balanced equation is CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) methane Answer: 18.2% 6) How many grams of barium sulfate can be made from 2.00 grams of barium chloride?

Answer: 2.24 g 7) How many grams of magnesium are required to make 3.00 g of magnesium oxide, MgO, assuming there is sufficient oxygen and that the theoretical yield can be obtained?

Answer: 1.81 g

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8) In the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon to give carbon dioxide and water according to the following equation, 2.00 mol of iron(III) oxide and 3.00 mol of carbon can theoretically produce how many grams of iron?

2Fe2O3(s) + 3C(s) → 3CO2(g)+ 4Fe(s) Answer: 223 g 9) Copper(II) chloride can react with zinc metal to produce zinc chloride and copper metal. How many grams of copper can be produced using 35.5 g of zinc metal and an excess of copper chloride?

Answer: 34.5 g 10) Copper(II) chloride can react with zinc metal to produce zinc chloride and copper metal. If 3.25 g of zinc is allowed to react with excess copper chloride, and 3.00 g of copper is produced, what is the percent yield for this reaction?

Answer: 94.9% 11) How many kcal of heat are produced when 10.0 g of methane reacts with excess oxygen? The balanced equation is: CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + 802 kJ methane Answer: 120. kcal 12) In the reaction of sodium hydroxide with sulfuric acid to give water and sodium sulfate , heat is released. Is this an exothermic or endothermic reaction?

Answer: exothermic 13) In the reaction of mercury(II) oxide to give mercury and oxygen, heat is absorbed. Is this an exothermic or endothermic reaction?.

Answer: endothermic

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 10 Structures of Solids and Liquids 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Double and triple bonds form because A) the atoms involved have high electronegativities.

B) single covalent bonds do not give all of the atoms in the molecule eight valence electrons.

C) one of the atoms in the molecule has more than 8 valence electrons.

D) the ions involved have charges larger than one.

E) there is at least one hydrogen atom involved in the bond.

Answer: B 2) Which of the following is the correct electron-dot structure for CS2?

A) B) C) D) E) Answer: B

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3) Which of the following is the correct electron-dot structure for C2F4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: A 4) The ability of an atom to attract the shared electrons in a covalent bond is its ________.

A) electronegativity B) bonding ability C) polarity D) ionic character E) nonpolarity Answer: A 5) Which of the following substances contains a nonpolar bond?

A) H2O B) NaCl C) NH3 D) MgF2 E) N2 Answer: E 6) Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?

A) Li B) C C) N D) O E) F Answer: A

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7) Which of the following compounds contains a polar covalent bond?

A) NaF B) HCl C) Br2 D) MgO E) O2 Answer: B 8) Which of the following compounds contains an ionic bond?

A) NH3 B) H2O C) CaO D) H2 E) CH4 Answer: C 9) If the electronegativity difference between elements X and Y is 2.1, the bond between the elements X-Y is ________.

A) ionic B) nonpolar ionic C) nonpolar covalent D) polar covalent E) impossible Answer: A 10) Ionic bonding is expected in which of these compounds?

A) Cl2 B) KF C) OF2 D) HF E) H2 Answer: B 11) A polar covalent bond is found in which of these compounds?

A) H2O B) F2 C) NaCl D) H2 E) N2 Answer: A

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12) The bond in Cl2 is a(n) ________ bond.

A) ionic B) nonpolar covalent C) metallic D) polar ionic E) polar covalent Answer: B 13) The VSEPR theory allows us to determine the ________.

A) shape of a molecule B) charge on an ion C) color of a compound D) bond type for a molecule E) formula for a compound Answer: A 14) The shape of the ammonia molecule is ________.

A) linear B) square C) trigonal pyramidal D) hexagonal E) octagonal Answer: C 15) The water molecule has a dipole with the negative portion A) localized between the hydrogen atoms.

B) pointing toward the oxygen atom.

C) localized on one of the hydrogens.

D) pointing from the oxygen through the hydrogen atoms.

E) surrounding the molecule.

Answer: B 16) The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCI4, has the shape of a ________.

A) tetrahedron B) square C) cube D) circle E) sphere Answer: A 17) Hydrogen sulfide, H2S, has a shape similar to ________.

A) carbon dioxide B) carbon monoxide C) hydrogen chloride D) water E) carbon tetrachloride Answer: D Page 4 ..

18) The number of electron lone pairs in the water molecule is ________.

A) 8 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 Answer: E 19) The lone pair of electrons in the ammonia molecule is located A) between the nitrogen atom and a hydrogen atom.

B) on a hydrogen atom.

C) in a cloud surrounding the molecule.

D) on the nitrogen atom.

E) in the nucleus of the nitrogen atom.

Answer: D 20) How many covalent bonds will a nitrogen atom normally make?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: C 21) How many covalent bonds will an oxygen atom normally make?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B 22) How many covalent bonds will a hydrogen atom normally make?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A

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23) When two or more equivalent dot structures can be written for a given molecule it is said to have ________ structures.

A) resonance B) equal C) identical D) polar E) electronegative Answer: A 24) Ozone, O3, is an example of a molecule that has ________ structures.

A) isomer B) identical C) resonance D) double E) ionic Answer: C 25) The NO3- ion is an example of a polyatomic ion with ________.

A) resonance structures B) triple bonds C) a linear shape D) a nonpolar bond E) no covalent bonds Answer: A 26) The shape of the polyatomic ammonium ion, NH4+ is ________.

A) linear B) trigonal pyramidal C) planar D) tetrahedral E) bent Answer: D 27) The element in the following list with the lowest electronegativity is ________.

A) fluorine B) hydrogen C) iodine D) cesium E) iron Answer: D

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28) The dipole in the nitrogen-hydrogen bond points A) from the nitrogen to the hydrogen.

B) at right angles to the bond.

C) from the hydrogen to the nitrogen.

D) in a circle surrounding the bond.

E) at the observer.

Answer: C 29) The difference in electronegativity between hydrogen and sulfur is 0.4. What type of bond is found in the molecule H2S? A) polyatomic B) ionic C) nonpolar covalent D) polar covalent E) double covalent Answer: C 30) The difference in electronegativity between potassium and oxygen is 2.7. What type of bond is expected in the compound K2O? A) ionic B) nonpolar covalent C) polyatomic D) polar covalent E) nonionic Answer: A 31) In the following list, which is the polar compound?

A) H2O B) CCl4 C) CO2 D) BF3 E) N2 Answer: A 32) The HF molecule can be classified as ________.

A) polar covalent B) nonpolar C) ionic D) bent E) planar Answer: A

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33) Which is the most polar bond in the following list?

A) O-H B) S-O C) C-S D) I-I E) P-H Answer: A 34) A molecule has a central atom and three identical bonds to other atoms, with no lone pairs. The shape of this molecule is ________.

A) linear B) bent C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal E) tetrahedral Answer: C 35) A molecule contains a central atom with two identical bonds to other atoms and two lone pairs.

The shape of this molecule is ________.

A) linear B) bent C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal E) tetrahedral Answer: B 36) In water, the melting point is unusually high because of A) covalent bonds in the individual molecules.

B) ionic bonds in the individual molecules.

C) hydrogen bonding between the molecules.

D) dipole-dipole attractions between the molecules.

E) the heat content of the hydrogen-oxygen bonds.

Answer: C 37) The main interactions between molecules of hydrogen chloride are examples of ________.

A) ionic bonds B) covalent bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) dipole-dipole attractions E) dispersion forces Answer: D

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38) Hydrogen bonds are a major factor in the structure of ________.

A) DNA B) hydrogen chloride C) dry ice D) air E) table salt Answer: A 39) Water has a boiling point of 100 °C, and alcohol has a boiling point of 78 °C, even though water is a smaller molecule. This large difference in boiling point is due to A) weak dipole-dipole attractions in the alcohol molecules.

B) ionic bonds between the water molecules.

C) covalent bonds in the alcohol molecules.

D) more hydrogen bonds between the water molecules.

E) more hydrogen bonds between the alcohol molecules.

Answer: D 40) The strongest forces between HF molecules are ________.

A) dispersion forces B) hydrogen bonds C) ionic bonds D) dipole-dipole attractions E) nonpolar covalent bonds Answer: B 41) When a solid is converted directly to a gas, the change of state is called ________.

A) freezing B) melting C) boiling D) condensation E) sublimation Answer: E 42) If the heat of fusion for water is 334 J/g, how many joules are needed to melt 45.0 g of ice at 0.0 °C? A) 0 J B) 1.50 × 104 J C) 7.42 J D) 334 J E) 450 J Answer: B

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43) If the heat of fusion for water is 334 J/g, how many kilojoules are lost when 45.0 g of water at 0.0 °C is converted to ice at 0.0 °C? A) 15 000 kJ B) 15.0 kJ C) 7.40 kJ D) 7 400 kJ E) 3 340 kJ Answer: B 44) How many joules are required to convert 16.5 g of ice at 0.0 °C to liquid water at 32.0 °C? The heat of fusion of water is 334 J/g.

A) 5 510 J B) 2 210 J C) 7 720 J D) 1 320 J E) 334 j Answer: C 45) If the heat of vaporization for water is 2260 J/g, how many kilojoules are required to convert 5.00 g of liquid water at 100. °C to steam at 100. °C? A) 0 kJ B) 2.26 kJ C) 11.3 kJ D) 1130 kJ E) 5.4 kJ Answer: C 46) A burn from steam at 100 °C is expected to be more severe than a burn from boiling water at 100 °C because A) the steam is hotter than the boiling water.

B) there is more steam than water.

C) the steam will give off a large amount of heat as it condenses.

D) you are more likely to come into contact with the steam than with the boiling water.

E) All of these answers are correct.

Answer: C 47) The heat of fusion for water is 334 J/g, and the specific heat of water is 4.148 Jcal/g °C. How many joules of heat are released when 20.0 g of water at 30. °C is cooled to 0.0 °C and frozen to ice at 0.0 °C? A) -600. J B) -2500 J C) -6700 J D) -9200 J E) -15000 J Answer: D

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48) How many kilojoules are required to warm 15.0 g of water from 75.0 °C to 100.0 °C and convert it to steam at 100.0 °C? The heat of vaporization of water is 2260 J/g, and the specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g °C. A) 380 kJ B) 35.5 kJ C) 1 130 kJ D) 975 kJ E) 848 kJ Answer: B 49) In order to calculate the total number of calories needed to melt 1 g of a solid and then convert it to a gas, you must know A) the specific heat of the substance.

B) the heat of fusion of the substance.

C) the heat of fusion and the specific heat of the substance.

D) the specific heat and the heat of vaporization of the substance.

E) the heat of fusion, the specific heat, and the heat of vaporization of the substance.

Answer: E 50) The heat of fusion for water is 334 J/g, and the heat of vaporization of water is 2260 J/g. How many joules are required to convert 10.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to steam at 100. °C? The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g °C. A) 22 600 J B) 3 340 J C) 4 180 J D) 30 100 J E) 309 J Answer: D 51) A heating curve illustrates A) what a substance looks like as it is heated.

B) what happens to the particles of a substance as it is heated.

C) what happens to the heat applied as the temperature is increased.

D) the changes in the temperature and physical state of a substance as it is heated.

E) the chemical changes that occur as the substance is heated.

Answer: D 52) Which of the following does NOT represent a step on the heating curve of water?

A) The temperature of steam cannot exceed 100 °C. B) The temperature of ice remains at 0 °C as it melts.

C) The temperature of liquid water increases linearly as it is heated.

D) The temperature of liquid water remains at 100 °C as it boils.

E) Both liquid water and ice are present at 0 °C. Answer: A

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53) The building blocks of proteins are A) fatty acids.

B) carbohydrates.

C) amino acids.

D) steroids.

E) not known.

Answer: C 54) Proteins are A) chains of amino acids.

B) important biological molecules.

C) transport molecules in the body.

D) part of the structural components in the body.

E) all of the above Answer: E 55) The three dimensional shape of a protein A) is important to its function.

B) is determined by the attractive forces.

C) can be lost when the protein is heated.

D) can be lost when acid is added to the protein.

E) all of the above Answer: E 10.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The diatomic molecule N2 is held together by a ________ covalent bond.

A) double B) single C) ionized D) triple E) polar Answer: D 2) The diatomic molecule Cl2 is held together by a ________ covalent bond.

A) single B) double C) ionized D) polar E) triple Answer: A

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3) The main interactions between molecules of methane, CH4, are ________.

A) ionic bonds B) dispersion forces C) hydrogen bonds D) dipole-dipole attractions E) none of the above Answer: B 4) The main interactions between molecules of ammonia, NH3, are ________.

A) ionic bonds B) dispersion forces C) hydrogen bonds D) dipole-dipole attractions E) none of the above Answer: C 5) How many kilojoules are required to convert 115.0 g of ice at 0.0 °C to liquid water at 32.0 °C? The heat of fusion of water is 334 J/g, and the heat capacity of water is 4.184 J/g °C. A) 38.4 kJ B) 481 J C) 53.8 kJ D) 15.4 kJ E) 3.68 kJ Answer: C 6) If the heat of vaporization for water is 2260 joules/g, how many kilojoules are released when 5.00 g of steam is converted to liquid at 100 °C? A) 540 kJ B) 5.0 kJ C) 113 kJ D) 11.3 kJ E) 2 260 kJ Answer: D 7) If the heat of fusion for water is 334 joules/g, how many kilojoules are needed to melt 45.0 g of ice at 0 °C? A) 0.0 kJ because no temperature change takes place.

B) 15.0 kJ C) 15 000 kJ D) 150 kJ E) Undetermined you need to know the final temperature.

Answer: B

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8) How many kilojoules are required to warm 25.0 g of water from 75.0 °C to 100.0 °C and convert it to steam at 100.0 °C? The heat of vaporization of water is 2260 joules/g, and the specific heat of water is 4.184 joules/g °C. A) 2.62 kJ B) 59.1 kJ C) 59 100 kJ D) 56 500 kJ E) 2 620 kJ Answer: B 9) The shape of a molecule of methane, CH4 , is ________.

A) linear B) tetrahedral C) bent D) pyramidal E) trigonal planar Answer: B 10) The shape of a molecule of water, H2O, is ________.

A) linear B) tetrahedral C) bent D) pyramidal E) trigonal planar Answer: C 11) Of the five elements Na, Al, S, Cl, F, the most electronegative is ________.

A) Na B) Al C) S D) Cl E) F Answer: E 12) Of the five elements Na, Al, S, Cl, F, the least electronegative is ________.

A) Na B) Al C) S D) Cl E) F Answer: A

Page 14 ..

10.3 Matching Questions Indicate the type of bonding you would expect between the following elements.

A) polar covalent B) ionic C) none D) nonpolar covalent 1) Na and F 2) N and F 3) F and F 4) He and F 5) H and F Answers: 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) A

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Match the molecule to its shape.

A) trigonal pyramidal B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) linear E) sulfur oxide F) bent 6) H2S 7) CCl4 8) H2S 9) CO 10) CO2 11) SO2 12) SO3 13) NH3 14) N2 Answers: 6) F 7) B 8) F 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) D

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Identify the physical state(s) corresponding to labeled regions on the cooling curve of water shown below.

A) solid B) gas C) liquid and gas D) solid and gas E) liquid F) liquid and solid 15) Region A 16) Region B 17) Region C 18) Region D 19) Region E

Answers: 15) B 16) C 17) E 18) F 19) A

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10.4 True/False Questions 1) Ammonia is a nonpolar molecule.

Answer: FALSE 2) The carbon-chlorine covalent bond is polar.

Answer: TRUE 3) The ammonia molecule has a lone pair of electrons located on the nitrogen atom.

Answer: TRUE 4) N2 is held together by a multiple covalent bond.

Answer: TRUE 5) The total number of valence electrons in the fluorine molecule, F2, is 14.

Answer: TRUE 6) The carbon dioxide molecule contains a triple covalent bond.

Answer: FALSE 7) Carbon dioxide is a linear, polar molecule.

Answer: FALSE 8) The molecule CCl4 is a tetrahedral molecule.

Answer: TRUE 9) The water molecule is bent in shape.

Answer: TRUE 10) The most electronegative element is fluorine.

Answer: TRUE 11) The oxygen-hydrogen bond is a polar covalent bond.

Answer: TRUE 12) Oxygen, O2, is held together by a triple ionic bond.

Answer: FALSE 13) The transition from a solid directly to a gas is termed sublimation.

Answer: TRUE 14) Water molecules are attracted to each other by hydrogen bonds.

Answer: TRUE 15) As a solid melts, its temperature does not change.

Answer: TRUE Page 18 ..

16) Steam at 100 °C holds the same amount of heat as water at 100 °C. Answer: FALSE 17) When a liquid is boiling, its temperature does not change.

Answer: TRUE 18) Fats are the building blocks of proteins.

Answer: FALSE 19) The shape of a protein is determined by attractive forces between functional groups on its side chains.

Answer: TRUE 20) The shape of a protein can be disrupted by heat, acids and bases, or agitation.

Answer: TRUE 10.5 Short Answer Questions Identify each of the following molecules as polar or nonpolar.

1) carbon tetrachloride Answer: nonpolar 2) water Answer: polar 3) carbon dioxide Answer: nonpolar 4) hydrogen sulfide Answer: nonpolar 5) hydrogen fluoride Answer: polar 6) A bond in which the electrons are shared between atoms is a ________ bond.

Answer: covalent 7) A molecule in which there are only two atoms held together by covalent bonds is a ________ molecule.

Answer: diatomic 8) The strongest attractive forces between N2 molecules are ________.

Answer: dispersion forces 9) The strongest attractive forces between HF molecules are ________.

Answer: hydrogen bonds Page 19 ..

10) A covalent bond in which one pair of electrons is shared is called a ________ bond.

Answer: single 11) A covalent bond in which two pairs of electrons are shared is called a ________ bond.

Answer: double 12) A covalent bond in which three pairs of electrons are shared is called a ________ bond.

Answer: triple 13) The building blocks of proteins are called ________.

Answer: amino acids Bromine (Br2) has a freezing point of -7 °C and a boiling point of 60 °C. Indicate the state or change of state occurring at each temperature.

14) 30 °C Answer: liquid 15) 60 °C Answer: boiling or condensing 16) -7 °C Answer: melting or melting 17) -15 °C Answer: solid 18) 70 °C Answer: gas 19) The heat of fusion is the amount of heat necessary to change one gram of a substance from the solid to the ________ state.

Answer: liquid 20) The weakest type of force between particles of a substance is termed ________.

Answer: dispersion forces 21) Are hydrogen bonds stronger or weaker than covalent bonds?

Answer: weaker 22) Are dipole-dipole attractions weak or strong compared to ionic bonds?

Answer: weak 23) The amount of heat necessary for one gram of a substance to change from the solid state to the liquid state is the ________.

Answer: heat of fusion

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 11 Gases 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT part of the kinetic molecular theory of gases?

A) A gas is composed of very small particles.

B) There is very little empty space in a gas.

C) Gas particles move rapidly.

D) Gas particles do not attract or repel one another.

E) Gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

Answer: B 2) According to the kinetic molecular theory of gases, a gas can be compressed much more than a liquid or solid because A) a gas is composed of very small particles.

B) the particles of a gas are very far apart.

C) gas particles move rapidly.

D) gas particles do not attract or repel one another.

E) gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

Answer: B 3) According to the kinetic molecular theory of gases, particles of a gas A) are very large particles.

B) are very far apart.

C) lose their valence electrons.

D) move slowly.

E) decrease in kinetic energy as temperature increases.

Answer: B 4) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, particles of a gas tend to move ________ and collisions between them are ________.

A) rapidly, rare B) slowly, rare C) rapidly, elastic D) slowly, elastic E) slowly, unusual Answer: C 5) The force of gas particles against the walls of a container is called ________.

A) pressure B) volume C) temperature D) quantity of gas E) density Answer: A

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6) Which measurement describes the pressure of a gas?

A) 315 K B) 1.2 g/L C) 2.5 L D) 725 mmHg E) 0.45 moles Answer: D 7) The unit of 1 atmosphere used to describe the pressure of a gas is equal to ________.

A) 1 mmHg B) 100 mmHg C) 200 mmHg D) 600 mmHg E) 760 mmHg Answer: E 8) A 5.00-L tank contains helium gas at 1.50 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in mmHg? A) 1.50 mmHg B) 507 mmHg C) 760 mmHg D) 1 140 mmHg E) 7.50 mmHg Answer: D 9) The boiling point of water at sea level is 100 °C. At higher altitudes, the boiling point of water will be A) lower, because temperatures are lower.

B) lower, because the atmospheric pressure is lower.

C) higher, because the altitude is greater.

D) higher, because there are fewer water molecules in the air.

E) the same, because water always boils at 100 °C. Answer: B 10) Vapor pressure can be described as A) the temperature at which bubbles of vapor appear in a liquid.

B) the pressure exerted on the earth by the particles in the air.

C) the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure.

D) the pressure exerted by a gas above the surface of its liquid.

E) the pressure within the lungs during inhalation.

Answer: D 11) An autoclave is used to sterilize surgical equipment because A) it allows water to boil at temperatures less than 100 °C. B) it allows water to boil at 100 °C at pressures less than 1 atm.

C) it allows water to boil at 100 °C at pressures greater than 1 atm.

D) it allows water to boil at temperatures above 100 °C. E) it provides very high temperatures and very low pressures.

Answer: D Page 2 ..

12) In response to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas increases as the volume decreases because A) the gas particles get bigger.

B) the kinetic energy of the gas particles increases.

C) the temperature of the gas increases.

D) the gas particles strike the walls of the container with more force.

E) the gas particles strike the walls of the container more often.

Answer: E 13) Which of the following correctly describes the process of inspiration (air entering the lungs)?

A) The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to decrease.

B) The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to increase.

C) The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to decrease.

D) The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to increase.

E) There is no change in the internal pressure in the lungs.

Answer: A 14) The volume of a gas with a pressure of 1.2 atm increases from 1.0 L to 4.0 L. What is the final pressure of the gas, assuming constant temperature?

A) 1.2 atm B) 0.30 atm C) 3.3 atm D) 4.8 atm E) 1.0 atm Answer: B 15) The pressure of 5.00 L of gas increases from 1.50 atm to 1240 mmHg. What is the final volume of the gas, assuming constant temperature?

A) 4120 L B) 5.00 L C) 0.00600 L D) 5.40 L E) 4.60 L Answer: E

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A balloon is filled with helium gas. For the following questions, select the letter of the balloon diagram that corresponds to the given change in conditions.

16) The balloon is put into a chamber whose pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure and at atmospheric temperature.

A) Balloon A B) Balloon B C) Balloon C D) Balloons A and B E) Balloons B and C Answer: C 17) The temperature is changed from 50. °C to -150 °C at constant pressure.

A) Balloon A B) Balloon B C) Balloon C D) Balloons A and B E) Balloons B and C Answer: A 18) Complete the following statement: In Charles' law, the volume of a gas ________ when the ________ decreases.

A) increases, temperature B) increases, quantity of gas C) increases, pressure D) decreases, temperature E) decreases, pressure Answer: D 19) What unit of temperature is used in gas law calculations?

A) Fahrenheit B) Celsius C) Kelvin D) either Celsius or Fahrenheit E) either Celsius or Kelvin Answer: C Page 4 ..

20) The temperature of a 500. mL sample of gas increases from 150. K to 350. K. What is the final volume of the sample of gas, if the pressure in the container is kept constant?

A) 210 mL B) 1 170 mL C) 0.0095 mL D) 0.0047 mL E) 110 mL Answer: B 21) In Gay-Lussac's law, the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because A) the molecules strike the walls of the container less often.

B) the molecules strike the walls of the container harder and more often.

C) the molecules get bigger.

D) there is a decrease in the volume of the container.

E) there is an increase in the number of gas particles.

Answer: B 22) A gas contained in a steel tank has a pressure of 1.5 atm at a temperature of 320 K. What will be the gas pressure when the temperature changes to 450 K? A) 1.5 atm B) 0.94 atm C) 0.47 atm D) 2.1 atm E) 1.1 atm Answer: D 23) When the combined gas law is rearranged to solve for V2, the following is the correct expression: V2 = A) T2T1V1 / P2P1 B) P1V1T2 / P2T1 C) P1V1T1 / P2T2 D) P2T2 / P1V1T1 E) P1V1 / T1 - P2 / T2 Answer: B 24) At 570. mmHg and 25 °C, a gas sample has a volume of 2270 mL. What is the final pressure (in mmHg) at a volume of 1250 mL and a temperature of 175 °C? A) 1560 mmHg B) 210 mmHg C) 7000 mmHg D) 690 mmHg E) 470 mmHg Answer: A

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25) According to Avogadro's law, the volume of a gas A) is inversely related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure.

B) is inversely related to the number of moles at standard temperature and pressure.

C) depends only on the temperature and pressure.

D) depends only on the number of moles in the sample.

E) is directly related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure.

Answer: E 26) At STP, temperature and pressure have the values of A) 0 K and 1 atm.

B) 273 K and 1 mmHg. C) 273 K and 760 mmHg. D) 0 K and 760 mmHg. E) 760 K and 273 atm.

Answer: C 27) A gas sample contains 4.00 g of CH4 and 2.00 g of He. What is the volume of the sample at STP? A) 132 L B) 22.4 L C) 16.8 L D) 32.0 L E) 5.64 L Answer: C 28) A diver exhales a bubble with a volume of 250. mL at a pressure of 2.42 atm and a temperature of 15 °C. What is the volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface where the pressure is 1.00 atm and the temperature is 27 °C? A) 580. mL B) 630. mL C) 110. mL D) 310. mL E) 1 100 mL Answer: B 29) How many moles of neon occupy a volume of 14.3 L at STP? A) 36.7 moles B) 32.0 moles C) 6.45 moles D) 0.638 moles E) 1.57 moles Answer: D

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30) 1 mole of a gas occupies 22.4 L at ________.

A) 0 °C and 0.50 atm B) 0 °C and 760 mmHg C) 100 °C and 1 atm D) 100 °C and 10 atm E) 0 K and 1 atm Answer: B 31) At STP conditions, 11.0 g of SO2 have a volume of ________.

A) 25.0 L B) 3.85 L C) 22.4 L D) 0.00762 L E) 130. L Answer: B 32) The total pressure in a mixture of gases is equal to the partial pressure(s) of A) the gas with the greatest number of moles.

B) the gas with the smallest number of moles.

C) the gas with the highest molecular weight.

D) the gas that occupies the largest volume.

E) all the gases added together.

Answer: E 33) A cyclopropane-oxygen mixture is used as an anesthetic. If the partial pressure of cyclopropane in the mixture is 334 mmHg and the partial pressure of the oxygen is 1.02 atm, what is the total pressure of the mixture in torr?

A) 335 torr B) 432 torr C) 760. torr D) 1.44 torr E) 1 110 torr Answer: E 34) A tank contains helium gas at 490. mmHg, nitrogen gas at 0.750 atm, and neon at 520. torr.

What is the total pressure in atm?

A) 2.08 atm B) 0.579 atm C) 1.01 × 103 atm D) 1.33 atm E) 1.60 × 103 atm Answer: A

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35) Which of the following is NOT a potential use for a hyperbaric chamber?

A) treatment for burns and infections B) counteracting carbon monoxide poisoning C) increasing the rate at which a broken bone heals D) treating a diver with the bends E) treating some cancers Answer: C 36) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the assumption is made that gas molecules A) move rapidly in random directions.

B) are attracted to each other by strong forces.

C) are close together in their container.

D) move with a kinetic energy equal to their centigrade temperature.

E) occasionally come to rest.

Answer: A 37) The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is directly proportional to A) the volume of the container.

B) the mass of the individual gas molecules.

C) the Celsius temperature of the gas.

D) the number of molecules of gas in the sample.

E) the Fahrenheit temperature of the gas.

Answer: D 38) As you rise higher in Earth's atmosphere, the atmospheric pressure ________.

A) increases B) decreases C) remains the same Answer: B 39) The air pressure on a rainy day is usually ________ air pressure on a sunny day.

A) higher than B) lower than C) the same as Answer: B 40) At constant temperature, a sample of helium at 760. torr in a closed container was compressed from 5.00 L to 3.00 L. What was the new pressure exerted by the helium on its container?

A) 800. torr B) 2 280 torr C) 15.0 torr D) 3 800 torr E) 1 270 torr Answer: E

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41) A gas sample in a closed, expandable container of initial volume 5.00 L was allowed to warm from 25 °C to 35 °C. What was its new volume?

A) 4.84 L B) 5.17 L C) 7.00 L D) 3.57 L E) 4 380 L Answer: B 42) A gas at 5.00 atm pressure was stored in a tank during the winter at 5.0 °C. During the summer, the temperature in the storage area reached 40.0 °C. What was the pressure in the gas tank then?

A) 0.625 atm B) 4.44 atm C) 5.63 atm D) 40.0 atm E) 69.5 atm Answer: C 43) A sample of nitrogen gas had a volume of 500. mL, a pressure in its closed container of 740. torr, and a temperature of 25 °C. What was the new volume of the gas when the temperature was changed to 50. °C and the new pressure was 760. torr?

A) 528 mL B) 452 mL C) 976 mL D) 244 mL E) 408 mL Answer: A 44) At STP, what is the volume of 4.50 mol of nitrogen gas?

A) 167 L B) 3 420 L C) 101 L D) 60.7 L E) 1230 L Answer: C 45) At STP, how many moles of helium would occupy 1.00 L? A) 2.24 mol B) 224 mol C) 22.4 mol D) 0.446 mol E) 0.0446 mol Answer: E

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46) If atmospheric pressure on a certain day is 749 mmHg, what is the partial pressure of nitrogen, given that nitrogen is about 78% of the atmosphere?

A) 170 mmHg B) 580 mmHg C) 600 mmHg D) 750 mmHg E) 760 mmHg Answer: B 47) The mathematical expression of the ideal gas law is ________.

A) P1V1 = P2V2 P P B) 1 = 2 T1 T2 P P C) 1 = 2 V1 V2

D) PV = nRT E) PT = P1 + P2 + P3 Answer: D 48) A sample of argon at 300. °C and 50.0 atm pressure is cooled in the same container to a temperature of 0 °C. What is the new pressure?

A) 105 atm B) 45.5 atm C) 54.9 atm D) 23.8 atm E) 42.7 atm Answer: D 49) At STP, what is the volume of 1.0 mol of carbon dioxide?

A) 1.00 L B) 44.0 L C) 273 L D) 22.4 L E) 12.2 L Answer: D

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50) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the distance between gas molecules is assumed to be ________ the diameter of the gas molecules.

A) 22.4 times B) small relative to C) dependent on D) approximately the same as E) large relative to Answer: E 51) What is the volume of 50.0 g of N2 gas at a pressure of 650. mmHg and a temperature of 15 °C? A) 0.0648 L B) 49.3 L C) 273 L D) 22.4 L E) 0.171 L Answer: B 52) A 1.26 g sample of He gas has a pressure of 0.123 atm and a volume of 32.6 L. What is the temperature of the sample, in °C? A) 118 °C B) 273 °C C) 155 °C D) -118 °C E) 300. °C Answer: D 53) A 1.00 g sample of an unknown gas has a pressure of 35.8 mmHg,a volume of 20.0 L and a temperature of 25 °C. What is the molar mass of the gas?

A) 26.0 g/mol B) 0.0385 g/mol C) 2.18 g/mol D) 52.0 g/mol E) 77.0 g/mol Answer: A 54) A 3.50 g sample of Al reacts with excess H2SO4. What volume of H2 gas is produced at a pressure of 735 mmHg and a temperature of 22 °C? 2Al(s) + 3 H2SO4 (aq)→ Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 H2 (g) A) 0.364 L B) 3.26 L C) 4.88 L D) 0.00642 L E) 67.2 L Answer: C Page 11 ..

55) A 2.35 g sample of KClO3 is reacted. How many mL of O2 gas is produced at a pressure of 740. mmHg and a temperature of 25 °C? 2KClO3 (s) → 2KCl (s) + 3O2(g) A) 722 mL B) 0.482 mL C) 482 mL D) 22.4 mL E) 60.7 m L Answer: A 56) A 5.00 g sample of Al reacts with excess H2SO4. What volume of H2 gas is produced at STP? 2Al(s) + 3 H2SO4 (aq)→ Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 H2 (g) A) 0.278 L B) 6.23 L C) 4.14 L D) 22.4 L E) 67.2 L Answer: B 11.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The pressure exerted by the particles of vapor above a liquid is called the ________ pressure.

A) vapor B) barometric C) standard D) molar E) atmospheric Answer: A 2) A barometer is a device for measuring ________.

A) atmospheric pressure B) blood pressure C) gas pressure in a container D) gas pressure in the lung E) vapor pressure Answer: A

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3) A kiloPascal is a unit of ________.

A) pressure B) temperature C) energy D) mass E) volume Answer: A 4) A container of variable volume contains oxygen gas at a pressure of 550.0 kPa. At 25.0 °C, what is the new pressure inside the container if the container is allowed to expand from an initial volume of 5.20 L to a final volume to 7.25 L? A) 13800 kPa B) 394 kPa C) 37.7 kPa D) 767 kPa E) 114 kPa Answer: B 5) A balloon at a pressure of 755 torr and a volume of 5.00 L was allowed to rise in the atmosphere to a point at which the pressure inside and outside the balloon was 697 torr. What was the volume of the balloon at that altitude, assuming the temperature was constant?

A) 4.62 liters B) 3 780 liters C) 5.42 liters D) 3 490 liters E) 104 liters Answer: C 6) A 10.0 liter balloon was taken from a temperature of 25.0 °C and placed in a freezer at a temperature of -15.0 °C. What was the new volume if pressure is constant?

A) 250. liters B) 2.50 liters C) 8.66 liters D) 11.6 liters E) 115 liters Answer: C 7) A rigid ball that contained 25.0 liters of air at 22 °C and 6.25 atm pressure was placed in an oven at a temperature of 100. °C.What was the new pressure inside the ball?

A) 550. atm B) 34.4 atm C) 28.4 atm D) 7.90 atm E) 4.94 atm Answer: D

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8) How many moles of oxygen are present in a cylinder of 25.0 liters at a temperature of 0. °C and a pressure of 1.00 atm?

A) 0.781 mol B) 25.0 mol C) 10.9 mol D) 0.896 mol E) 1.12 mol Answer: E 9) How many grams of chlorine gas are present in a 150. liter cylinder of chlorine held at a pressure of 1.00 atm and 0. °C? A) 474 g B) 6.71 g C) 53.9 g D) 150.g E) 237 g Answer: A 10) What is the density of carbon dioxide at STP? A) 1.96 g/L B) 2.05 g/L C) 0.88 g/L D) 3.92 g/L E) 22.4 g/L Answer: A

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11.3 Matching Questions Indicate the effect of each change upon the pressure of a gas.

A) no change B) decreases C) increases 1) decrease in volume (n, T constant) 2) The temperature is doubled.

3) The volume and the Kelvin temperature are reduced by one-half.

4) A leak occurs and gas escapes.

5) increase in volume, increase in temperature 6) removing some molecules of gas Answers: 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) A 6) B

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Match the correct formula with the gas law name given.

A) PT = P1 + P2 + P3 …

PV P V B) 1 1 = 2 2 T1 T2 C) mass/volume D) P1V1 = P2V2 E) PV = nRT P P F) 1 = 2 T1 T2 V V G) 1 = 2 T1 T2 V V H) 1 = 2 n1 n2

7) Boyle's law 8) Combined gas law 9) Charles' law 10) ideal gas law 11) Avogadro's law 12) Gay-Lussac's law 13) Dalton's law Answers: 7) D 8) B 9) G 10) E 11) H 12) F 13)A

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11.4 True/False Questions 1) STP stands for 0 °C and 760 mmHg. Answer: TRUE 2) The volume of 1 mole of any gas at STP is 22.4 L. Answer: TRUE 3) The air we breathe is about 21% oxygen.

Answer: TRUE 4) Carbon dioxide and water vapor together account for about 5% of the air we breathe.

Answer: FALSE 5) During inspiration, we actually make use of 100% of the oxygen in the air we breathe.

Answer: FALSE 6) In deoxygenated blood, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greater than the partial pressure of oxygen left.

Answer: TRUE 7) Gas law calculations normally require the use of the Kelvin temperature scale.

Answer: TRUE 8) At 0 K, all motion stops.

Answer: TRUE 9) The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is inversely related to its Kelvin temperature.

Answer: FALSE 10) The kinetic energy of a gas sample is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas.

Answer: TRUE 11.5 Short Answer Questions 1) The use of high-pressure chambers to control disease processes is known as ________ medicine.

Answer: hyperbaric 2) Nitrogen makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.

Answer: 78 3) A barometer is usually filled with ________.

Answer: mercury 4) One atmosphere is the same as ________ mmHg. Answer: 760

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5) The pressure unit 1 mmHg is the same as the pressure unit ________.

Answer: 1 torr 6) At 125 °C, the pressure of a sample of He gas is 345 mmHg. At what temperature (°C) will the pressure become 690. mmHg, if the volume remains constant?

Answer: 523 °C 7) The molecules of water that escape the liquid in a closed container exert a pressure called the ________.

Answer: vapor pressure 8) Magnesium reacts with sulfuric acid according to the following equation. How many liters of hydrogen gas can be made from 65.5 g of magnesium at STP? Mg(s) + H2SO4(aq)→ MgSO4(aq) + H2(g) Answer: 60.4 liters 9) Lithium reacts with water to produce hydrogen gas according to the following equation. How many liters of hydrogen can be made from 15.0 g of lithium? Assume the reaction takes place at STP. 2Li(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2LiOH(aq) + H2(g) Answer: 24.2 liters 10) Zn metal was allowed to react with hydrochloric acid, HCl, to produce hydrogen gas, and gave a total of 555 mL of gas collected over water at 20 °C and a pressure of 747 mmHg. How many moles of hydrogen were collected? The vapor pressure of water at 20 °C is 18 mmHg. Answer: 0.0221 mol 11) The standard temperature in STP is ________.

Answer: 0 °C or 273 K

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 12 Solutions 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The O-H bond in water is polar because A) it is an ionic bond.

B) oxygen is much more electronegative than hydrogen.

C) oxygen occupies more space than hydrogen.

D) hydrogen is much more electronegative than oxygen.

E) it is a hydrogen bond.

Answer: B 2) A hydrogen bond is A) an attraction between a hydrogen atom attached to N, O, or F and an N, O, or F atom.

B) a covalent bond between H and O. C) an ionic bond between H and another atom.

D) a bond that is stronger than a covalent bond.

E) the polar O-H bond in water.

Answer: A 3) In a solution, the solvent A) is a liquid.

B) can be a liquid or gas.

C) can be a solid, liquid, or gas.

D) is never a solid.

E) is the substance present in the smallest concentration.

Answer: C 4) Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds?

A) CH4 B) NaH C) H2O D) BH3 E) HI Answer: C 5) A solution is prepared by dissolving 2 g of KCl in 100 g of H2O. In this solution, H2O is the ________.

A) solute B) solvent C) solution D) solid E) ionic compound Answer: B

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6) Oil does not dissolve in water because A) oil is polar.

B) oil is nonpolar.

C) water is nonpolar.

D) water is saturated.

E) oil is hydrated.

Answer: B 7) When KCl dissolves in water A) the Cl- ions are attracted to dissolved K+ ions.

B) the Cl- ions are attracted to the partially negative oxygen atoms of the water molecules.

C) the K+ ions are attracted to Cl- ions on the KCl crystal.

D) the K+ ions are attracted to the partially negative oxygen atoms of the water molecules.

E) the K+ ions are attracted to the partially positive hydrogen atoms of the water molecules.

Answer: D 8) Water is a polar solvent and hexane (C6H14) is a nonpolar solvent. Which of the following correctly describes the solubility of the solute?

A) mineral oil, soluble in water B) CaCl2, soluble in hexane C) NaHCO3, soluble in water D) CCl4, soluble in water E) octane (C8H18), soluble in water Answer: C 9) In water, a substance that ionizes completely in solution is called a ________.

A) weak electrolyte B) nonelectrolyte C) semiconductor D) nonconductor E) strong electrolyte Answer: E 10) When some of the sugar added to iced tea remains undissolved at the bottom of the glass, the solution is ________.

A) dilute B) polar C) nonpolar D) saturated E) unsaturated Answer: D

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11) The solubility of KI is 50. g in 100. g of H2O at 20 °C. If 110. grams of KI are added to 200. grams of H2O, A) all of the KI will dissolve.

B) the solution will freeze.

C) the solution will start boiling.

D) a saturated solution will form.

E) the solution will be unsaturated.

Answer: D 12) An increase in the temperature of a solution usually A) increases the boiling point.

B) increases the solubility of a gas in the solution.

C) increases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution.

D) decreases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution.

E) decreases the solubility of a liquid solute in the solution.

Answer: C 13) When the weak electrolyte HF is dissolved in water, the solution contains ________.

A) all HF molecules B) all H+ and F- ions and no HF molecules C) nothing D) mostly HF molecules and a few H+ and F- ions E) only F- ions Answer: D 14) When the nonelectrolyte glucose is dissolved in water, the solution contains ________.

A) all glucose molecules B) all glucose ions C) nothing D) mostly glucose molecules and a few ions E) only OH- ions Answer: A 15) Which one of the following compounds will NOT be soluble in water?

A) NaOH B) PbS C) K2SO4 D) LiNO3 E) MgCl2 Answer: B

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16) Which one of the following compounds will be soluble in water?

A) NaOH B) PbS C) CaCO3 D) AgCl E) SnO Answer: A 17) The mass/mass percent concentration refers to the number of grams of solute in ________.

A) 1 kg of solvent B) 1 kg of solution C) 100 g of solvent D) 100 g of solution E) 1000 mg of solution Answer: D 18) What is the concentration, in m/m %, of a solution prepared from 50.0 g NaCl and 150.0 g of water?

A) 0.250% B) 33.3% C) 40.0% D) 25.0% E) 3.00% Answer: D 19) Rubbing alcohol is 70.0% isopropyl alcohol by volume. How many mL of isopropyl alcohol are in a full 1 pint (473 mL) container?

A) 70.0 mL B) 142 mL C) 403 mL D) 470 mL E) 331 mL Answer: E 20) What is the concentration, in m/m %, of a solution prepared from 500. g NaCl and 2.50 kg of water?

A) 0.167% B) 1.67% C) 16.7% D) 0.050% E) 20.0% Answer: C

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21) How many grams of glucose are needed to prepare 400. g of a 2.00% (m/m) glucose solution?

A) 800. g B) 0.00500 g C) 8.00 g D) 2.00 g E) 200. g Answer: C 22) What mass of a 15.0% (m/m) NaOH solution contains 125 g NaOH? A) 18.0 g B) 0.120 g C) 12.0 g D) 120. g E) 833 g Answer: E 23) What is the molarity of a solution that contains 2.35 g of NH3 in 0.0500 L of solution?

A) 27.6 M B) 2.76 M C) 47.0 M D) 0.276 M E) 1.00 M Answer: B 24) The molarity (M) of a solution refers to A) moles of solute/L of solution.

B) moles of solute/L of solvent.

C) moles of solute/100 mL of solution.

D) grams of solute/100 mL of solution.

E) grams of solute/L of solution.

Answer: A 25) What is the molarity of a solution containing 5.00 moles of KCl in 2.00 L of solution?

A) 2.50 M B) 1.00 M C) 5.00 M D) 10.0 M E) 2.00 M Answer: A

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26) What is the molarity of a solution which contains 58.4 g of sodium chloride dissolved in 500. mL of solution?

A) 0.500 M B) 1.00 M C) 1.50 M D) 2.00 M E) 4.00 M Answer: D 27) How many moles of CaCl2 are in 250. mL of a 3.00 M of CaCl2 solution?

A) 750. mol B) 1.33 mol C) 83.3 mol D) 0.750 mol E) 3.00 mol Answer: D 28) How many mL of 1.15 M KOH solution are needed to provide 0.665 mol of KOH? A) 0.578 mL B) 173 mL C) 578 mL D) 764 mL E) 222 mL Answer: C 29) During the process of diluting a solution to a lower concentration, A) the amount of solute does not change.

B) the amount of solvent does not change.

C) there is more solute in the concentrated solution.

D) the volume of the solution does not change.

E) water is removed from the concentrated solution.

Answer: A 30) According to Henry's law, the solubility of a gas in a liquid A) decreases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases.

B) increases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases.

C) remains the same as the temperature increases.

D) depends on the liquid polarity.

E) depends on the liquid density.

Answer: B

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31) When sucrose, C12H22O11, is dissolved in water, the sucrose is classified as the ________.

A) solute B) solvent C) solution D) electrolyte E) ion Answer: A 32) Vinegar is a solution of acetic acid (melting point 16.5 °C) in water. At room temperature (25 °C), vinegar is an example of a ________ solution.

A) liquid-liquid B) gas-liquid C) solid-liquid D) solid-solid E) liquid-solid Answer: A 33) Which of the following statements is not true about water?

A) Water molecules are attracted to each other by hydrogen bonds.

B) Gasoline is insoluble in water.

C) Water molecules are covalently bonded.

D) Water dissolves polar substances well.

E) The water molecule is linear.

Answer: E 34) A solution containing a large concentration of dissolved ions can be classified as a(n) ________.

A) weak solution B) suspension C) electrolyte D) unsaturated solution E) solvent Answer: C 35) A solution of an electrolyte in water will A) carry an electric current.

B) be positively charged.

C) be negatively charged.

D) dissolve in gasoline.

E) always contain CO2.

Answer: A

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36) At 26 °C, the solubility of sodium chloride is 36 g/100 mL of solution. How would you describe a solution of 10 g of sodium chloride in 100 mL of solution at room temperature?

A) saturated B) a nonelectrolyte C) nonionic D) unsaturated E) a suspension Answer: D 37) In a saturated solution, the rate at which the solute dissolves A) equals the rate of crystallization of the solute.

B) depends on the amount of material undissolved.

C) can be increased by cooling the solution.

D) depends on the number of ions the solute dissociates into.

E) cannot be changed by changing the temperature of the solution.

Answer: A 38) The solubility of carbon dioxide in soda water A) is always a fixed concentration.

B) is not affected by the temperature of the atmosphere.

C) is not affected by the pressure of the atmosphere.

D) is lower as the temperature increases.

E) depends significantly on whether the soda is flavored or not.

Answer: D 39) Ammonium chloride, NH4Cl, is ________ in water.

A) insoluble B) soluble C) a non electrolyte D) a solid E) a gas Answer: B 40) A solid that comes out of a solution as its solubility is exceeded is called a ________.

A) solvent B) solute C) molecule D) precipitate E) nonion Answer: D

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41) In the reaction of silver nitrate and sodium chloride to produce solid silver chloride, sodium ions and nitrate ions are ________.

A) spectator ions B) solvents C) molecules D) gases E) liquids Answer: A 42) Calcium chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide to form solid calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2. The balanced net ionic equation is A) Ca+2(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + 2 Na+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq) → Ca(OH)2 (s).

B) Ca+2(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → Ca(OH)2 (s).

C) Ca+2(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → Ca(OH)2 (s).

D) CaCl2(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → CaOH(s) + NaCl(aq).

E) CaCl2(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Ca(OH)2(s) + 2NaCl(aq).

Answer: C 43) Gout is due to the deposition of crystals of ________ in the joints.

A) sodium chloride B) potassium bromide C) sodium acetate D) uric acid E) aspirin Answer: D 44) What is the concentration (m/m %) of a solution of 10.0 g of sodium chloride in 100. g of solution?

A) 100.% B) 0.100 M C) 10.0 M D) 9.09% E) 10.0% Answer: E 45) 25.0 mL of alcohol is dissolved in water and the solution is diluted to a total final volume of 125 mL. What is the final concentration of ethanol?

A) 25.0% (v/v) B) 20.0% (v/v) C) 20.0% (m/m) D) 25.0% (m/m) E) 75.0% (v/v) Answer: B

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46) A solution of artificial tears is 0.090% (m/m) sodium chloride. How many grams of sodium chloride are contained in 1.00 g of this solution?

A) 9.0 × 10-4 g B) 9.0 × 104 g C) 9.0 g D) 0.090 g E) 1.0 g Answer: A 47) Calculate the molarity of 60.05 g of acetic acid, HC2H3O2, dissolved in 0.250 L of solution.

A) 1.00 M B) 4.00 M C) 0.250 M D) 15.0 M E) 0.100 M Answer: B 48) What is the molarity of the solution obtained when 0.100 mol of copper sulfate are dissolved in 0.200 liters of solution?

A) 0.500 M B) 0.200 M C) 0.100 M D) 0.0200 M E) 0.0500 M Answer: A 49) How many mL of 1.24 M H2SO4 reacts with 1.26 g of Al? 2Al (s) + 3 H2SO4 (aq) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 H2 (g) A) 37.7 mL B) 56.5 mL C) 0.565 mL D) 44.8 mL E) 22.2 mL Answer: B

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50) What volume of H2 (g) ( at 750. mmHg and 25 °C ) is produced from 50.0 mL of 0.214 M H2SO4 and 0.300 g of Al? 2Al (s) + 3 H2SO4 (aq) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 H2 (g) A) 0.265 L B) 0.413 L C) 0.565 L D) 0.448 L E) 0.222 L Answer: A 51) Calculate the molality of the solution formed when of 50.0 g of glucose (Molar mass 180.2) is dissolved in 0.250 kg of water.

A) 0.400 molal B) 1.11 molal C) 0.925 molal D) 0.200 molal E) 0.167 molal Answer: B 52) Calculate the freezing point of a 2.00 molal solution of the nonelectrolyte glucose. The freezing point constant for water is 1.86 °C/molal.

A) -2.00 °C B) 1.86 °C C) 3.72 °C D) -1.86 °C E) -3.72 °C Answer: E

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12.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Acetic acid can be classified as a(n) ________.

A) gas B) solid C) weak electrolyte D) strong electrolyte E) ionic compound Answer: C 2) The molarity of a solution of 5.00 g of KCl in 150. mL of solution is ________.

A) 0.0382 M B) 0.0667 M C) 0.447 M D) 0.132 M E) 33.3 M Answer: C 3) How many grams of sodium chloride are required to make 2.00 L of a solution with a concentration of 0.100 M? A) 0.0200 g B) 5.85 g C) 58.5 g D) 11.7 g E) 0.200 g Answer: D 4) When 25.0 g of NaCl is added to 175 g of water, the m/m % NaCl is ________.

A) 14.3% B) 7.00% C) 8.00% D) 25.6% E) 12.5% Answer: E 5) How many grams of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, are needed to make 250. mL of a 1.22 M solution?

A) 29.9 g B) 98.0 g C) 49.0 g D) 46.0 g E) 96.0 g Answer: A

Page 12 ..

6) What volume of a 2.00 M solution of sulfuric acid is needed to produce 0.0500 mol of sulfuric acid?

A) 250 L B) 0.0250 L C) 50 mL D) 2.00 mL E) 100 mL Answer: B 7) How many g Al will react with 24.0 mL of 1.22 M H2SO4?

2Al (s) + 3 H2SO4 (aq) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 H2 (g) A) 0.527 g B) 0.790 g C) 1.58 g D) 0.0439 g E) 1.26 g Answer: A 8) When 35 mL of 0.92 M H2SO4 reacts with excess Al, how many L of H2 is formed at 23 °C and a pressure of 745 mmHg? 2Al (s) + 3 H2SO4 (aq) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3 H2 (g) A) 2.4 L B) 0.062 L C) 0.80 L D) 0.104 L E) 60. L Answer: C

Page 13 ..

12.3 Matching Questions Identify the term defined in each description.

A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) hydrogen bonding D) net ionic equation E) solvent F) dissociation G) solute H) unsaturated I) ionic equation J) nonelectrolyte K) solution L) saturated 1) a solution that contains the highest amount of solute that dissolves at a given temperature 2) the major attraction between water molecules 3) a solution in which more solute can be dissolved 4) a substance that does not form ions in solution 5) a substance that ionizes completely in solution 6) one substance dissolved in another of significantly higher concentration 7) the component of a solution present in greatest amoun 8) the separation of a solute into ions when dissolved in water 9) an equation for a reaction that only shows those species undergoing chemical change Answers: 1) L 2) C 3) H 4) J 5) B 6) G 7) E 8) F 9) D

Page 14 ..

Indicate whether each of the following compounds dissolves in water to give ions, molecules, or both.

A) both ions and molecules B) ions C) molecules 10) NaCl, a strong electrolyte 11) HF, a weak electrolyte 12) CH3CH2OH, a nonelectrolyte 13) KNO3, a soluble salt 14) glucose, a nonelectrolyte 15) H2CO3, a weak electrolyte Answers: 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) A

12.4 True/False Questions 1) Lithium chloride is soluble in water.

Answer: TRUE 2) The molarity of a solution is the mass of solute divided by the solution volume.

Answer: FALSE 3) The m/m % concentration of a solution is the mass of the solution divided by its volume multiplied by 100.

Answer: FALSE 4) The m/m % concentration of a solution is the mass of the solute divided by the solution mass multiplied by 100.

Answer: TRUE 5) The m/m % concentration of a solution is the mass of the solvent divided by its volume multiplied by 100.

Answer: FALSE 6) Sodium acetate, NaC2H3O2, is soluble in water.

Answer: TRUE 7) A solution with 58.5 g sodium chloride dissolved in 500.0 mL of water is 2.00 molar.

Answer: TRUE Page 15 ..

8) Sodium acetate is a weak electrolyte.

Answer: FALSE 9) Hydrochloric acid is a strong electrolyte.

Answer: TRUE 10) A dental amalgam is an example of a solid solution.

Answer: TRUE 11) Carbon tetrachloride, CCl4, is soluble in water.

Answer: FALSE 12) Glucose is a nonelectrolyte.

Answer: TRUE 13) For most solids, solubility decreases as the temperature of the solution increases.

Answer: FALSE 14) The solubility of a gas in water decreases as the temperature increases.

Answer: TRUE 15) The higher the pressure of a gas above a liquid in a closed container, the greater the solubility of the gas.

Answer: TRUE 16) A solution of a nonelectrolyte contains only ions.

Answer: FALSE 17) An aqueous solution of NaCl has a higher freezing point than pure water.

Answer: FALSE 18) A red blood cell placed in 10% NaCl solution will shrink.

Answer: TRUE 19) If water is added to 100. mL of a 6.00 M CaCl2 solution until the volume is 200. mL, the new molarity is 3.00 M. Answer: TRUE 20) A 0.9% glucose solution is isotonic with a red blood cell.

Answer: FALSE

Page 16 ..

12.5 Short Answer Questions 1) In the following equation, ________ will precipitate from solution.

BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl Answer: BaSO4 2) The number of moles of a compound dissolved in one liter of a solution is called the ________.

Answer: molarity 3) A substance that carries an electric current when dissolved in water is called a(n) ________.

Answer: electrolyte 4) A substance that produces only a small number of ions in solution is known as a ________ electrolyte.

Answer: weak 5) Sodium hydroxide has a molar mass of 40.0 g/mole. How many grams of sodium hydroxide are needed to make 500.0 mL of a 1.00 molar solution?

Answer: 20.0 g 6) Sodium chloride has a molar mass of 58.4 g/mole. How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 500. mL of a 0.250 molar solution?

Answer: 7.30 g 7) What mass of barium sulfate will be formed from 10.0 mL of 0.400 M H2SO4 ?

BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl Answer: 0.934 g 8) A student has available 1.00 L of a 5.00 M solution of sodium hydroxide. The student needs of sodium hydroxide for a reaction. How many mL of the concentrated solution should the student use?

Answer: 10.0 mL 9) How many moles of lithium bromide are present in 25.0 mL of a 0.100 M solution?

Answer: 2.50 × 10-3 moles 10) How many grams of lithium bromide are present in 25.0 mL of a 0.100 M solution?

Answer: 0.217 g 11) If 4.55 g of NaCl is added to water to make 350. mL, what is the molarity of the solution?

Answer: 0.222 M

Page 17 ..

12) If water is added to 50.0 mL of 1.20 M KCl until the total volume is 150. mL, what is the molarity of the dilute solution?

Answer: 0.400 M

Page 18 ..

Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 13 Chemical Equilibrium 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A catalyst is A) a reactant in a chemical reaction.

B) a product in a chemical reaction.

C) a substance that speeds up a reaction without being consumed in the reaction.

D) a substance that increases the energy of the products.

E) a substance that decreases the energy of the products.

Answer: C 2) When a reaction is at equilibrium, A) all reaction stops.

B) no more reactants are converted to products.

C) the reaction is no longer reversible.

D) the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate.

E) the products and reactants have the same energy content.

Answer: D 3) For the following equilibrium reaction, which cause and effect are correctly matched?

CO(g) + 2 H2 (g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) + heat A) add heat, shift right B) add CO, shift left C) remove CH3OH, shift left D) remove heat, no change E) remove H2, shift left Answer: E 4) The activation energy of a chemical reaction is the energy that A) must be removed from the mixture.

B) must be released from the mixture.

C) initiates the reaction.

D) activates the catalyst.

E) is the difference in the energies of the starting materials and products.

Answer: C 5) A chemical reaction has reached equilibrium when A) the concentrations of reactants and products are equal.

B) all reactants have been converted to products.

C) all products have been removed from the reaction mixture.

D) the catalyst has been used up.

E) the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

Answer: E Page 1 ..

6) In a catalyzed chemical reaction, one function of a catalyst is to A) increase the number of successful reactant collisions.

B) decrease the concentration of reactants.

C) change the equilibrium concentrations of the products and reactants.

D) increase the energy given off during the reaction.

E) increase the temperature at which the reaction is carried out.

Answer: A 7) In the following reaction, what is the effect of adding more NO2 to the starting reaction mixture?

2NO2 (g)⇌ N2O4 (g) A) It would make the reaction more endothermic.

B) It would make the reaction more exothermic.

C) It would slow the reaction down.

D) It would decrease the final quantity of products.

E) It would increase the final quantity of products.

Answer: E 8) The physiological equilibrium system that keeps the temperature of the body constant is called ________.

A) stimulation B) regulation C) metabolism D) homeostasis E) catalysis Answer: D 9) When you open a bottle of a soft drink and leave it open, the drink eventually goes flat. This happens because the equilibrium between carbonic acid and carbon dioxide shifts to produce A) more carbonic acid.

B) more water.

C) more oxygen.

D) more carbon dioxide.

E) more hydrogen ions.

Answer: D 10) Iron metal reacts with oxygen gas to produce iron(III) oxide. What will be the effect of increasing the pressure of oxygen gas in a closed reaction vessel?

A) Less reaction will take place.

B) More iron oxide will be produced.

C) The reaction mixture will catch fire.

D) There is no effect; a catalyst is needed.

E) The rate of production of iron oxide will slow down.

Answer: B Page 2 ..

11) In the following reaction, what is the effect on the direction of the reaction if more SO3 is added to the reaction mixture?

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g) A) The equilibrium shifts to produce more products.

B) The position of the equilibrium remains unchanged.

C) The rate of formation of products is increased.

D) The equilibrium shifts to produce more reactants.

E) The catalyst for the reaction is used up.

Answer: D 12) In the following reaction, Kc is much less than 1. At equilibrium, which of the following statements is true?

COCl2 (g) ⇌ CO (g) + Cl2(g) A) The concentration of reactant is much greater than the concentration of products.

B) The concentration of products is much greater than the concentration of reactants.

C) The concentrations of products and reactants are approximately equal.

D) A catalyst will increase the concentration of products formed.

E) At equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products are equal.

Answer: A 13) In the reaction of nitrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce nitrogen oxide, what is the effect of adding more oxygen gas to the initial reaction mixture? The reaction is shown below.

N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) A) The equilibrium shifts to produce more N2.

B) The equilibrium shifts to produce more NO. C) The equilibrium is not affected.

D) Extra catalyst is required to reach equilibrium.

E) The temperature of the reaction mixture is raised.

Answer: B 14) The equilibrium constant for the production of carbon dioxide from carbon monoxide and oxygen is Kc = 2  1011. This means that the reaction mixture at equilibrium is likely to consist of A) mostly starting materials.

B) an equal mixture of products and reactants.

C) twice as much starting material as product.

D) twice as much product as starting material.

E) mostly products.

Answer: E

Page 3 ..

15) Which of the following equilibrium constants indicates the reaction that gives the smallest amount of product?

A) Kc = 5  10-10 B) Kc = 5 × 10-1 C) Kc = 5 × 100 D) Kc = 5 × 101 E) Kc = 5 × 1010 Answer: A 16) The reaction of hemoglobin with oxygen can be written as follows.

Hb + O2 ⇌ HbO2 If the amount of oxygen available to the blood decreases significantly, what happens to the individual involved?

A) Hypoxia results.

B) Anemia results.

C) Nitrogen narcosis results.

D) Oxygen poisoning results.

E) Acclimatization results.

Answer: A 17) What is the correct form for the equilibrium constant for this reaction?

H2 (g) + F2 (g) ⇌ 2 HF (g) A)

[HF] [H 2 ][F2 ]

B)

[HF]2 [H 2 ][F2 ]

C)

D)

E)

[H 2 ][F2 ] [HF] [H 2 ][F2 ] [HF]2

[H 2 ][F2 ]

2 [HF] Answer: B Page 4 ..

18) For any chemical reaction to occur the reactants must A) be at the same concentration.

B) collide with sufficient energy to break bonds.

C) bounce off the walls of the container.

D) be of the same chemical type.

E) be present in stoichiometric quantities.

Answer: B 19) The rate of any chemical reaction can be determined by observing A) the amount of product formed in a unit of time.

B) the ratio of product concentration to reactant concentration.

C) the percent composition of the final product.

D) the theoretical yield of the reaction.

E) the number of chemical bonds broken and remade.

Answer: A 20) In any chemical reaction, the rate of the reaction can be increased by A) decreasing the temperature.

B) changing the size of the container.

C) adding water to the reaction.

D) adding product molecules to the reaction mixture.

E) increasing the concentrations of the reactants.

Answer: E 21) Refrigerating perishable foods affects biochemical reactions by A) increasing concentrations of antioxidants.

B) removing bacteria.

C) decreasing the rate of reactions affecting spoilage.

D) catalyzing the removal of harmful chemicals from the foods.

E) improving the appearance of the foods.

Answer: C 22) In a catalytic converter in an automobile, the reaction of carbon monoxide with oxygen produces ________.

A) carbon dioxide B) carbon and more oxygen C) water D) methane E) nitrogen oxide Answer: A 23) One metal that is used as a catalyst in a catalytic converter in an automobile is ________.

A) carbon B) iron C) copper D) platinum E) plutonium Answer: D Page 5 ..

24) A reaction that can proceed in either the forward or the reverse direction as written is called a ________ reaction.

A) reversible B) miniscule C) microscopic D) solid phase E) favored Answer: A 25) For the equilibrium reaction of carbon dioxide with water, what is the appropriate equation?

A) H2O + CO ⇌ H2CO3 B) H2O + 2CO2 ⇌ H2CO3 C) H2O + CO2 ⇌ H2CO3 D) H2O + CO2 ⇌ HCO3 E) H2O + CO2 ⇌ H2CO2 Answer: C 26) What is the correct form of the equilibrium constant for the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen to form water? The equation is: 2H2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 H2O(g) A) Kc =

B) Kc =

C) Kc =

D) Kc =

E) Kc =

[H 2O] [O2 ][H 2 ]2 [H 2O] [O 2 ][H 2 ]

[H 2O] [O2 ][H 22 ] [H 2O] [O2 ][2H 2 ]

[H2O]2

[O2 ][H2 ]2 Answer: E

Page 6 ..

27) The following reaction is an example of what type of equilibrium reaction?

PbCl2(aq) + 2NaI(aq) ⇌ PbI2(s) + 2NaCl(aq) A) homogeneous B) heterogeneous C) slow D) catalyzed E) concentrated Answer: B 28) What is the correct form for the solubility product constant for lead iodide, PbI2?

A) Ksp = [Pb2+] [I-] B) Ksp = [Pb2+] [2I-]2 C) Ksp = [Pb2+] [2I-] D) Ksp = [Pb2+] [I-]2 E) Ksp = [Pb2+]2 [I-]2 Answer: D 29) The equilibrium constant for the formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is 1.6  102.

What is the form of the equilibrium constant?

[NH3 ]2 A) [N 2 ][H2 ]3 B)

C)

D)

[NH3 ] [N 2 ][H 2 ]3

[NH3 ]2 [N 2 ][H 2 ]

[NH3 ]2 [N 2 ][3H 2 ]3

[2NH3 ]2 E) [N 2 ][H2 ]3 Answer: A

Page 7 ..

30) The reaction for the decomposition of PCl5 to chlorine and PCl3 is shown below.

PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) If the equilibrium concentrations are [PCl5] = 1.0 M, [PCl3] = 0.10 M, [Cl2] = 0.10 M, what is the value of the equilibrium constant?

A) 1.0 × 10-2 B) 1.0 × 10-4 C) 10 × 10-2 D) 1.0 × 102 E) 2.0 × 10-2 Answer: A 31) The value of the equilibrium constant for the combination of nitrogen and oxygen to make NO is 2  10-9. What does this tell you about the concentrations of materials in the equilibrium mixture?

A) The concentration of products exceeds the concentration of reactants.

B) The concentrations of reactants and products are equal.

C) The reactants are solids.

D) The concentration of reactants exceeds the concentration of products.

E) The products are solids.

Answer: D 32) Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin 140 times more strongly than oxygen does. What does this tell you about the equilibrium constants for the two reactions of hemoglobin with carbon monoxide and oxygen?

A) The equilibrium constant for the binding of CO is greater.

B) The equilibrium constant for the binding of oxygen is greater.

C) The concentration of carbon monoxide at equilibrium is twice that of oxygen.

D) Oxygen and carbon monoxide have the same formula mass.

E) Oxygen and carbon monoxide react with hemoglobin in different fashions.

Answer: A 33) Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning can be accomplished by the use of pure oxygen for breathing. This is an example of the use of ________ in a clinical setting.

A) the ideal gas law B) Le Chatelier's principle C) Henry's law D) conservation of mass E) a precipitation reaction Answer: B

Page 8 ..

34) In the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to give ammonia, all the reactants and products are ________.

A) gases B) liquids C) solids D) boiling E) frozen Answer: A 35) In the reaction of carbon dioxide with water to give carbonic acid, the only gaseous component is the carbon dioxide. What will happen to the equilibrium concentration of carbonic acid if the pressure of carbon dioxide is increased in the container?

A) The concentration of carbonic acid will increase.

B) The carbonic acid concentration will decrease.

C) The carbonic acid concentration will stay the same.

D) There will be twice as much carbonic acid as carbon dioxide.

E) There will be more water available for the reaction.

Answer: A 36) Which is the correct solubility product expression for the solution of barium carbonate in water?

A) Ksp = [Ba2+] [CO3-]2 B) Ksp = [Ba2+] [CO32-]3 C) Ksp = [Ba]2 [CO3-] [CO32- ] D) Ksp = [Ba +2 ] E) Ksp = [Ba2+] [CO32-] Answer: E 37) Identify the correct form of the solubility product for silver sulfate, Ag2SO4.

A) Ksp = [Ag+] [SO42-]2 B) Ksp = [Ag+] [SO42-] C) Ksp = [Ag+]2 [SO42-] [SO42- ]2 D) Ksp = [Ag + ] [SO42- ] E) Ksp = [Ag + ] Answer: C

Page 9 ..

38) The molar solubility of calcium fluoride, CaF2, is 2.0 × 10-4 M. What is the concentration of fluoride ion in a saturated solution?

A) 2.0 × 10-4 M B) 4.0 × 10-4 M C) 1.0 × 10-4 M D) 4.0 × 10-11 M E) 8.0 × 10-12 M Answer: B 39) The molar solubility of lead sulfate, PbSO4, is 1.3 × 10-4 M. What is the numerical value of the Ksp? A) 4.0 × 10-8 B) 1.7 × 10-8 C) 1.3 × 10-8 D) 1.6 × 10-4 E) 2.6 × 10-8 Answer: B 40) The Ksp of barium sulfate, BaSO4, is 1.1 × 10-10. In a solution that has [SO4-2] = 1.0 × 10-4, what is the maximum concentration of barium ions?

A) 1.1 × 10-10 M B) 1.0 × 10-4 M C) 1.1 × 10-6 M D) 1.1 x 10-14 M E) 1.0 × 10-3 M Answer: C 41) The equilibrium for the solubility of silver sulfate is A) AgSO4 (s) ⇌ Ag+(aq) + 2SO42-(aq) B) Ag2SO4 (s) ⇌ Ag+(aq) + 2SO42-(aq) C) Ag2SO4 (s) ⇌ 2Ag+(aq) + SO42-(aq) D) Ag2SO4 (s) ⇌ 2Ag+(aq) + 2SO42-(aq) E) Ag2SO4 (s) ⇌ Ag2+(aq) + SO42-(aq) Answer: C 42) The solubility product constant is most useful when examining the behavior of ________ in water.

A) slightly soluble salts B) highly soluble salts C) covalent compounds D) plastics E) gases Answer: A Page 10 ..

43) An equilibrium in which all the components are gases is a ________ equilibrium.

A) heterogeneous B) liquid C) catalytic D) homogeneous E) reversible Answer: D 44) For the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide to make carbon monoxide, the reaction is as follows. This is an example of a ________ equilibrium.

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO (g) A) heterogeneous B) homogeneous C) gas D) catalytic E) irreversible Answer: A 45) For the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide to make carbon monoxide, the reaction is as follows. Write the form of the Kc. C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO (g) A) Kc =

[CO] [CO 2 ]

B) Kc =

[2CO]2 [CO2 ]

C) Kc =

[CO]2 [CO2 ]

D) Kc =

[CO]2 [C] [CO2 ]

E) Kc =

[2CO] [CO 2 ]

Answer: C Page 11 ..

46) For the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide to make carbon monoxide, one set of conditions produced a Kc = 1.2 × 10-1. At equilibrium at a certain temperature, the concentration of carbon monoxide was 0.60 M. What was the concentration of carbon dioxide at that temperature?

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO (g) A) 3.0 M B) 0.60 M C) 0.36 M D) 3.33 M E) 5.0 M Answer: A 47) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. If the concentration of both products is 0.10 M at equilibrium, what is the concentration of the starting material, NOBr? 2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g) A) 5.2 × 10-4 M B) 2.2 × 10-4 M C) 5.2 × 10-2 M D) 2.2 × 10-2 M E) 2.2 M Answer: D 48) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. Bromine can be liquefied easily and removed from the reaction vessel as it is formed. If this is done, how will it affect the equilibrium reaction?

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2 (g) A) More products will be made as Br2 is removed.

B) There will be a larger proportion NOBr in the vessel when equilibrium is reached.

C) Less NO will be made.

D) The pressure in the vessel will increase.

E) The equilibrium constant will change.

Answer: A

Page 12 ..

49) The Ksp of barium sulfate, BaSO4, is 1.1 × 10-10. What is the molar solubility of BaSO4?

A) 1.1 × 10-10 M B) 1.0 × 10-4 M C) 1.0 × 10-5 M D) 1.2 x 10-20 M E) 1.0 × 10-3 M Answer: C 13.2 Bimodal Questions 1) What is the value of the equilibrium constant Kc if the concentration of NO and NOBr are and the concentration of Br2 is 3.0 M? 2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g) A) 0.33 B) 9.0 C) 0.010 D) 3.0 E) 2.0 Answer: D 2) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. If the concentration of NO and NOBr are 0.10 M at equilibrium, what is the concentration of Br2 ?

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g) A) 0.10 M B) 0.50 M C) 0.010 M D) 5.0 M E) 2.0 M Answer: E

Page 13 ..

3) What is the correct form of the equilibrium constant for this reaction?

2H2O2 (g) ⇌ 2 H2O (g) + O2 (g) A)

[H 2O] [H 2O 2 ]

[O2 ] [H2O]2 B) [H 2O2 ]2

C)

D)

[H 2O]2 [H 2O2 ] [H 2O] [O2 ] [H 2O2 ]

Answer: B 4) For the following reaction, write the form of the equilibrium constant, Kc. 2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g)

A)

[Br2 ] [NO]2 [NOBr]2

B)

[Br2 ] [NO] [NOBr]2

[Br2 ] [NO]2 C) [NOBr] D)

[Br2 ] [NO] [NOBr]

E)

[Br] [NO] [NOBr]

Answer: A Page 14 ..

5) The Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10-10. What is the molar solubility of AgCl? A) 1.8 × 10-10 B) 1.3 × 10-10 C) 1.8 × 10-5 D) 1.3 × 10-5 E) 3128 × 10-5 Answer: D 13.3 True/False Questions 1) An equilibrium constant greater than 1 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors formation of the products.

Answer: TRUE 2) An equilibrium constant Kc = 1 × 107 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors product formation.

Answer: TRUE 3) If the equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 × 10-5, this means that the reaction does not proceed well to products.

Answer: TRUE 4) Collision theory states that reactions can take place between molecules of low kinetic energy.

Answer: FALSE 5) The amount of energy necessary to break the bonds in reactants is termed the heat of reaction.

Answer: FALSE 6) Activation energy is always a large amount of energy.

Answer: FALSE 7) A chemical reaction cannot occur unless the reactants collide in the proper orientation.

Answer: TRUE 8) The rate of a chemical reaction depends on temperature.

Answer: TRUE 9) The rate of a chemical reaction is not affected by the concentration of reactants.

Answer: FALSE 10) A catalyst for a chemical reaction affects the magnitude of the equilibrium constant.

Answer: FALSE 11) One of the substances acted upon by a catalytic converter in an automobile is carbon dioxide.

Answer: FALSE Page 15 ..

12) A heterogeneous equilibrium is one in which the reactants and products are found in two or more physical states.

Answer: TRUE 13) An example of a stress on an equilibrium is the increase of pressure in a closed system when the pressure of a reactant gas is increased from 1.0 atm to 2.0 atm.

Answer: TRUE 14) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE 15) The solution of silver chloride in water (Ksp = 1.8 × 10-10) is an example of a heterogeneous equilibrium.

Answer: TRUE 16) In a saturated solution of silver chloride (Ksp = 1.8 × 10-10) the [Ag+] is 1.8 × 10-10 M. Answer: FALSE 17) In a saturated solution of silver chloride (Ksp = 1.8 × 10-10) the molar solubility is 1.3 × 10-5.

Answer: TRUE 13.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The rule or principle that describes the effect of changing reaction conditions on an equilibrium is known as ________ principle.

Answer: LeChatelier's 2) The minimum energy needed to convert reactants to products is the ________.

Answer: activation energy 3) A substance that increases the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation reaction is called a(n) ________.

Answer: catalyst 4) A mixture at equilibrium that contains less product than reactant has a Kc that is ________ than 1.

Answer: less 5) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to give ammonia, NH3.

[NH3 ]2 Answer: [N 2 ][H2 ]3 6) Write the solubility product expression for calcium oxalate, CaC2O4.

Answer: Ksp = [Ca2+] [C2O42-] Page 16 ..

7) Write the solubility product expression for calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2.

Answer: Ksp = [Ca2+] [OH-]2 8) The Ksp for barium sulfate, BaSO4, is 1.1 × 10-10. What is its molar solubility in water?

Answer: 1.0 × 10-5 M 9) The molar solubility of calcium sulfate, CaSO4, is 4.9 × 10-3 M. What is the numerical value of its Ksp? Answer: 2.4 × 10-5 10) Ksp for silver bromide, AgBr, is 5.0 × 10-13. Show the form of the Ksp and calculate the numerical value of the molar solubility of AgBr. Answer: Ksp = [Ag+] [Br -] = 5.0 × 10-13 molar solubility = 7.1 × 10-7 M 11) The equilibrium between hemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin in the blood can be represented by the following reaction. Write the form of the equilibrium constant expression.

Hb + O2 ⇌ HbO2 Answer: Kc =

[HbO2 ] [Hb][O2 ]

Page 17 ..

Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 14 Acids and Bases 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) According to the Arrhenius concept, if HNO3 were dissolved in water, it would act as ________.

A) a base B) an acid C) a source of hydroxide ions D) a source of H- ions E) a proton acceptor Answer: B 2) The name given to an aqueous solution of HBr is ________.

A) hydrogen bromide B) hydrobromic acid C) bromic acid D) bromous acid E) hypobromous acid Answer: B 3) The name of HClO is ________.

A) hydrogen chloride B) hydrochloric acid C) chloric acid D) perchloric acid E) hypochlorous acid Answer: E 4) The IUPAC name of CH3COOH is ________.

A) carbonic acid B) acetic acid C) methanoic acid D) ethanoic acid E) formic acid Answer: D 5) The common name of HCOOH is ________.

A) carbonic acid B) acetic acid C) methanoic acid D) ethanoic acid E) formic acid Answer: E

Page 1 ..

6) The common name of the compound O || CH3 CH2 CH2 C OH is ________.

A) acetic acid B) propanoic acid C) propionic acid D) butanoic acid E) butyric acid Answer: E 7) The common name of the compound O || CH3 CH2 C OH is ________.

A) acetic acid B) propanoic acid C) propionic acid D) butanoic acid E) butyric acid Answer: C 8) The IUPAC name of the compound O || CH3 CH2 C OH is ________.

A) acetic acid B) propanoic acid C) propionic acid D) butanoic acid E) butyric acid Answer: B

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9) According to the Bronsted-Lowry definition, A) an acid is a proton acceptor.

B) a base produces H+ ions in aqueous solutions.

C) a base is a proton donor.

D) a base is a proton acceptor.

E) an acid acts as the solvent.

Answer: D 10) Identify the Bronsted-Lowry acid in the following reaction.

H2O + CO32-(aq) → HCO3-(aq) + OH- (aq) A) H2O B) CO32C) HCO3D) OHE) H2CO3 Answer: A 11) For Kw, the product of [H3O+] and [OH-] is ________.

A) 1 × 10-14 B) 1 × 107 C) 1 × 10-1 D) 1 E) 1 × 1014 Answer: A 12) What is the [H3O+] in a solution with [OH-] = 1.0 × 10-12 M? A) 1.0 × 10-12 M B) 1.0 × 102 M C) 1.0 × 10-7 M D) 1.0 × 10-8 M E) 1.0 × 10-2 M Answer: E 13) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-6 M? A) 1.0 × 10-2 M B) 1.0 × 10-6 M C) 1.0 × 10-8 M D) 1.0 × 10-10 M E) 1.0 × 10-12 M Answer: C Page 3 ..

14) A solution with a pH of 4 is A) extremely acidic.

B) moderately acidic.

C) neutral.

D) slightly basic.

E) extremely basic.

Answer: B 15) The [H3O+] of a solution with pH = 2.0 has a concentration of ________.

A) 10 M B) -10 M C) 1 × 102 M D) 1 × 10-2 M E) 1 × 10-12 M Answer: D 16) In which of the following are the pH values arranged from the most basic to the most acidic?

A) 1, 3, 6, 8, 11, 14 B) 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11 C) 14, 10, 7, 4, 3, 1 D) 14, 10, 7, 1, 3, 5 E) 7, 10, 14, 4, 3, 1 Answer: C 17) Which of the following is the strongest acid?

A) H3PO4 B) NH4+ C) NaOH D) H2CO3 E) HCl Answer: E 18) Which of the following is correctly identified?

A) NH3, strong acid B) NaOH, strong base C) HCl, weak acid D) H2CO3, strong acid E) Ca(OH)2, weak base Answer: B

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19) Ammonia is a weak base because A) it is a dilute solution.

B) it is only slightly soluble in water.

C) it cannot hold on to its hydroxide ions.

D) it produces few hydroxide ions in water.

E) it is completely ionized in aqueous solution.

Answer: D 20) An acid and base react to form a salt and water in a(n) ________ reaction.

A) ionization B) dissociation C) oxidation D) neutralization E) reduction Answer: D 21) In a neutralization reaction, A) two acids react to form water.

B) water and a salt react to form an acid and a base.

C) an acid and a salt react to form water and a base.

D) a base and a salt react to form water and an acid.

E) an acid and a base react to form a salt and water.

Answer: E 22) Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?

A) KCl + NaNO3 → KNO3 + NaCl B) HNO3 + KOH → H2O + KNO3 C) H2O + SO3 → H2SO4 D) 4Na + O2 → 2 Na2O E) 2 NO2 → 2NO + O2 Answer: B 23) The function of a buffer is to A) change color at the end point of a titration.

B) maintain the pH of a solution.

C) be a strong base.

D) maintain a neutral pH. E) act as a strong acid.

Answer: B

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24) In a buffer system of HF and its salt, NaF, A) the HF neutralizes added acid.

B) the HF neutralizes added base.

C) the HF is not necessary.

D) the F- neutralizes added H2O. E) the F- neutralizes added base.

Answer: B 25) Which of the following is a buffer system?

A) NaCl and NaNO3 B) HCl and NaOH C) H2CO3 and KHCO3 D) NaCl and NaOH E) H2O and HCl Answer: C 26) Which of the following could be a buffer?

A) NaF B) HF + NaF C) HF + H2O D) NaF + H2O E) NaCl + HF Answer: B 27) What is the molarity of a KOH solution if 24.6 mL neutralizes 44.0 mL of a 0.211 M HCl? A) 0.377 M B) 0.118 M C) 0.200 M D) 6.67 M E) 0.100 M Answer: A 28) A 25.0 mL sample of H3PO4 requires 50.0 mL of 1.50 M NaOH for complete neutralization.

What is the molarity of the acid?

H3PO4 + 3NaOH → Na3PO4 + 3 H2O A) 0.333 M B) 3.00 M C) 1.50 M D) 1.00 M E) 0.750 M Answer: D

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29) How many milliliters of 0.100 M Ba(OH)2 are required to neutralize 20.0 mL of 0.250 M HCl? A) 100. mL B) 50.0 mL C) 25.0 mL D) 0.250 mL E) 0.50 mL Answer: C 30) The Ka for hydrofluoric acid is 7.2 × 10-4. This means that HF is A) neutral in water solution.

B) able to react with HCl. C) a weak acid.

D) a strong acid.

E) ionic.

Answer: C 31) In a hydrochloric acid solution, where the [HCl] is 0.010 M, what is the pH? A) pH = 12.0 B) pH = 2.0 C) pH = 3.0 D) pH = 11.0 E) pH = 5.0 Answer: B 32) The salt that contains the anion from a weak acid and the cation from a strong base should give a solution of A) high concentration.

B) low concentration.

C) pH > 7.

D) pH < 7 E) pH = 7.

Answer: C 33) If 2.00 g of Mg reacts completely with 50.0 mL of HCl solution, what is the molarity of the HCl solution?

Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2(g) A) 1.65 M B) 80.0 M C) 8.00 M D) 0.823 M E) 3.29 M Answer: E

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34) If 26.5 mL of 0.222 M HCl reacts with excess Mg, how many mL of hydrogen gas are produced at STP? Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) A) 132 mL B) 65.9 mL C) 26.5 mL D) 22 400 mL E) 165 mL Answer: B 35) Acetic acid is an example of ________.

A) a weak acid B) a strong acid C) an oxo acid D) an inorganic compound E) a polyprotic acid Answer: A 36) One example of an Arrhenius base is ________.

A) NaCl B) KOH C) H2SO4 D) C2H4O2 E) H2O2 Answer: B 37) Water is an example of a(n) ________ compound.

A) amphoteric B) nonpolar C) ionic D) Arrhenius E) elemental Answer: A 38) In water solution, the conjugate base of HF is ________.

A) FB) H+ C) OHD) H2O E) H2 Answer: A

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39) The conjugate acid of NO2- is ________.

A) H2O B) HNO2 C) H+ D) HNO3 E) OHAnswer: B 40) The conjugate base of H2CO3 is ________.

A) CO32B) HCO3C) H2O D) OHE) H3O+ Answer: B 41) The conjugate base of H2S is ________.

A) OHB) H2O C) HOS D) HSE) HS2 Answer: D 42) Bicarbonate ion, HCO3-, is an example of a(n) ________ substance.

A) neutral B) amphoteric C) strongly acidic D) strongly basic E) gaseous Answer: B 43) Bicarbonate ion, HCO3-, is an example of a(n) ________.

A) weak base B) strong acid C) gas D) Arrhenius acid E) Arrhenius base Answer: A

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44) When F- ,the anion of the weak acid HF is dissolved in water, the resulting solution is ________.

A) weakly basic B) strongly basic C) weakly acidic D) strongly acidic E) neutral Answer: A 45) The conjugate acid of NH3 is ________.

A) OHB) H3O+ C) H2O D) NH4+ E) NH2Answer: D 46) The Ka for acetic acid, CH3COOH, is ________.

[OH- ][CH3COO- ] A) Ka = [CH3COOH]

B) Ka =

C) Ka =

D) Ka =

E) Ka =

[H + ][CH3COOH] [CH3COOH] [CH3COOH] [H+][CH3COO- ]

[H + ][CH3COO- ] [CH3COOH] [CH3COOH] [H + ]2[CH3COO- ]

Answer: D

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47) The pH of a 0.05 M solution of potassium hydroxide, KOH, is ________.

A) 1.3 B) 13.5 C) 5.0 D) 12.7 E) 9.0 Answer: D 48) The pH of a solution of a solution is 4.50. The pOH of this solution is ________.

A) 2.00 B) 4.50 C) 7.00 D) 9.50 E) 14.00 Answer: D 49) Calculate the acid concentration of a sample of acid rain with a pH of 4.20.

A) 1.0 × 10-4 M B) 6.3 × 10-5 M C) 7.7 × 10-9 M D) 4.2 × 10-1 M E) 0.62 M Answer: B 50) What is the pOH of a solution with a pH of 3.7?

A) 14.0 B) 2.5 C) 10.3 D) 0.115 E) 0.25 Answer: C 51) Stomach acid consists mainly of what substance dissolved in water?

A) HCl B) HBr C) CH3COOH D) H2SO4 E) NH3 Answer: A

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52) When hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate, what gas results?

A) CH3COOH B) CO C) CO2 D) NaOH E) H2O Answer: C 53) When potassium hydroxide reacts with sulfuric acid, one product is ________.

A) NaCl B) KCl C) H2O D) KOH E) H2SO4 Answer: C 54) When zinc metal reacts with hydrochloric acid, one product is ________.

A) Zn(OH)2 B) ZnSO4 C) H2 D) H2O E) H2O2 Answer: C 55) The Ka for acetic acid, CH3COOH, is 1.8 × 10-5. A buffer, made from 0.10 M CH3COOH and 0.10 M CH3COO- has a pH of ________.

A) 14.00 B) 4.74 C) 7.00 D) 9.26 E) 1.00 Answer: B

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14.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The correct formula for sulfuric acid is ________.

A) H2SO4 B) H2SO3 C) H2SO4D) H2SO3E) SO42Answer: A 2) What is the pH of a solution with [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-9 M? A) 1.0 × 10-5 B) -9.0 C) 5.0 D) -5.0 E) 9.0 Answer: E 3) What is the pH of a solution with [OH-] = 1.0 × 10-4 M? A) 10.0 B) -10.0 C) 4.0 D) -4.0 E) 1.0 × 10-10 Answer: A 4) Write the correctly balanced equation for the complete neutralization of H3PO4 with Ca(OH)2.

A) H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHPO4 + 2 H2O B) 3 H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 5 H2O C) H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + H2O D) 2 H3PO4 + 3Ca(OH)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6 H2O E) 4 H3PO4 + 6Ca(OH)2 → 2 Ca3(PO4)2 + 12 H2O Answer: D

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5) The neutralization reaction between Al(OH)3 and HNO3 produces the salt with the formula ________.

A) H2O B) AlNO3 C) AlH2 D) Al(NO3)3 E) NO3OH Answer: D 6) How many moles of H2O are produced when 1 mol of Mg(OH)2 reacts with 1 mol of H2SO4?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B 7) What volume of a 0.124 M KOH solution neutralizes 23.4 mL of 0.206 M HCl solution?

A) 15.9 mL B) 38.9 mL C) 31.8 mL D) 1.00 × 104 mL E) 5.00 × 102 mL Answer: B 8) A 32.4 mL sample of H2SO4 requires 20.0 mL of 0.368 M NaOH for complete neutralization.

What is the molarity of the acid?

H2SO4+ 2 NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2 H2O A) 0.114 M B) 0.228 M C) 0.298 M D) 0.596 M E) 1.25 M Answer: A

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9) How many milliliters of 0.400 M NaOH are required to completely neutralize 20.0 mL of 0.200 M HCl? A) 50.0 mL B) 40.0 mL C) 0.100 mL D) 20.0 mL E) 10.0 mL Answer: E 10) How many milliliters of 0.200 M NaOH are required to completely neutralize 5.00 mL of 0.100 M H3PO4?

A) 7.50 mL B) 2.50 mL C) 0.833 mL D) 5.00 mL E) 15.0 mL Answer: A 14.3 Matching Questions Identify each of the following compounds as an acid, a base, or neither.

A) neither B) base C) acid 1) HCl 2) NaOH 3) NH3 4) H2SO4 5) CO326) NaCl 7) CN8) H2CO3 Answers: 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) C

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In the following solutions, is the [OH-] greater than, less than, or equal to the [H3O+]?

A) less than B) greater than C) equal to 9) acid 10) base 11) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-6 M 12) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-10 M 13) [H3O+] = 1 × 10-7 M 14) pH = 2 15) pH = 9 Answers: 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B

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Identify the following solutions as acid, base, or neutral.

A) base B) neutral C) acid 16) has a sour taste 17) has a pH = 4.5 18) turns blue litmus red 19) contains more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions 20) H2O 21) [H3O+] = 3.4 × 10-5 M 22) [OH-]= 2.8 x 10-2 M 23) Ca(OH)2 24) pH = 9.0 25) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-7 M Answers: 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) B 14.4 True/False Questions 1) A buffer is a solution that tends to maintain a neutral pH. Answer: FALSE 2) A solution of NaOH will turn phenolphthalein pink.

Answer: TRUE 3) A solution of NaOH will feel slippery.

Answer: TRUE 4) A solution of HCl will taste bitter.

Answer: FALSE 5) In any water solution, [H3O+] [OH-] = 1 × 10-7.

Answer: FALSE Page 17 ..

6) An ammonium chloride solution should have an acidic pH. Answer: TRUE 7) Magnesium metal does not react with sulfuric acid solutions.

Answer: FALSE 8) Sodium carbonate gives a basic solution in water.

Answer: TRUE 9) For most reactions of acids with bases, the resulting products are a salt and water.

Answer: TRUE 10) A solution of sodium chloride in water is neutral.

Answer: TRUE 11) The pH of a 0.0010 M solution of sodium hydroxide is 3.00.

Answer: FALSE 12) In a titration, when the number of moles of sulfuric acid equals the number of moles of sodium hydroxide, the pH is 7.0.

Answer: FALSE 13) Sulfurous acid is one example of an oxo acid.

Answer: TRUE 14) The correct name of HNO3 is nitric acid.

Answer: TRUE 15) A solution with a pH of 6.00 has a pOH of 6.00.

Answer: FALSE 16) A solution with a pH of 10.00 is basic.

Answer: TRUE 17) A solution containing NaCl and Cl-is a buffer.

Answer: FALSE 18) The common name of CH3COOH is acetic acid.

Answer: TRUE

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14.5 Short Answer Questions 1) The conjugate acid of HPO42- is ________.

Answer: H2PO42) A solution that turns litmus blue is ________.

Answer: basic 3) Write the proper Ka expression for the ionization of acetic acid, CH3COOH. Answer: Ka = [CH3COO-][H3O+] / [CH3COOH] 4) If an acid has a Ka << 1, is it classified as a weak acid or a strong acid?

Answer: a weak acid 5) Is a solution of sodium phosphate in water acidic or basic?

Answer: basic 6) What is the pH of a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.010 M sodium acetate?

Answer: 3.74 7) In a titration experiment, a student used 24.13 mL of 0.111 M sodium hydroxide to neutralize 20.00 mL of a hydrochloric acid solution. What was the molarity of the acid solution?

Answer: 0.134 M 8) If 35.0 mL of 0.210 M HCl reacts with excess Mg, how many mL of hydrogen gas are produced at STP? Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) Answer: 82.3 mL 9) What is the pOH of a 0.0050 M solution of HCl? Answer: 11.70 10) Find the pH of a solution that has an HCl concentration of 0.0030 M. Answer: 2.52 11) If the pOH of a water solution is 12.0, what is the pH? Answer: 2.0 12) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of sulfuric acid with sodium hydroxide.

Answer: H2SO4 + 2 NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 15 Oxidation and Reduction 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is oxidized and what is reduced in the following reaction?

2Al + 3 Br2 → 2 AlBr3 A) Al is oxidized and Br2 is reduced.

B) AlBr3 is reduced and Br2 is oxidized.

C) Al is reduced and Br2 is oxidized.

D) AlBr3 is reduced and Al is oxidized.

E) AlBr3 is oxidized and Al is reduced.

Answer: A 2) Which of the following describes an oxidation?

A) loss of electrons or loss of oxygen B) loss of electrons or gain of oxygen C) loss of electrons or gain of hydrogen D) gain of electrons or gain of oxygen E) gain of electrons or loss of H atoms Answer: B 3) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance oxidized always A) takes on oxygen atoms.

B) shows a loss of electrons.

C) gives up hydrogen atoms.

D) shows a gain of electrons.

E) becomes a charged species.

Answer: B 4) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance reduced always A) takes on oxygen atoms.

B) shows a loss of electrons.

C) gives up hydrogen atoms.

D) shows a gain of electrons.

E) becomes a charged species.

Answer: D

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5) In this reaction, what is the substance reduced?

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) water D) heat E) Reduction does not take place.

Answer: B 6) In this set of chemical reactions, which reaction is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

A) K2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2KCl B) CuSO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + CuCl2 C) Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 D) Pb(NO3)2 + 2NaCl → PbCl2 + 2NaNO3 E) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3 Answer: C 7) In the following list, which situation shows reduction?

A) Copper metal precipitates out of a solution of copper sulfate.

B) Copper sulfate dissolves in water.

C) Silver chloride precipitates from a solution to which sodium chloride is added.

D) Dry ice sublimes until no solid is left.

E) An atom of sodium metal loses an electron to become a sodium ion.

Answer: A 8) In the following reaction, what substance is oxidized?

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O A) carbon in the glucose, C6H12O6 B) hydrogen in the glucose C) oxygen from the air D) oxygen from the water E) oxygen from the carbon dioxide Answer: A 9) Which of the following situations represents reduction?

A) the formation of bromine molecules from bromine atoms B) the formation of calcium ions from calcium metal C) the formation of O2- from oxygen gas D) the precipitation of barium sulfate from a solution of barium chloride and sodium sulfate E) the dissolving of sodium chloride crystals in water Answer: C Page 2 ..

10) In the following reaction, what substance is oxidized?

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO A) oxygen B) water C) magnesium D) magnesium oxide E) air Answer: C 11) In the following reaction, what happens to the aluminum metal?

Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe A) It is oxidized.

B) It is reduced.

C) It becomes soluble in water.

D) It becomes shiny in appearance.

E) It combines with oxygen from the air.

Answer: A 12) When chlorine gas, Cl2, is reduced to Cl- ions, how many electrons does each chlorine molecule take on?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: B 13) What type of reaction is represented by the following half-reaction?

Na+(aq) + e- → Na(s) A) reduction B) dissociation C) oxidation D) replacement E) combination Answer: A

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14) In the following half reaction, what class of reaction is shown?

2O2-(aq) → O2 (g) + 4eA) oxidation B) reduction C) dissociation D) decomposition E) replacement Answer: A 15) In the following reaction, which is the oxidizing agent?

Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe A) iron in the iron(III) oxide B) oxygen in the iron(III) oxide C) aluminum metal D) aluminum in the aluminum oxide E) iron metal Answer: A 16) In the following reaction, what substance is the reducing agent?

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) A) Zn(s) B) Cu2+(aq) C) Cu(s) D) Zn2+(aq) E) H2O Answer: A 17) In the following reaction, which substance gains electrons?

2Li + F2 → 2LiF A) Li B) LiF C) O2 D) F2 E) H2O Answer: D

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18) In the following reaction, what substance loses electrons?

2Fe3+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq) A) Fe3+(aq) B) Sn4+(aq) C) Fe2+(aq) D) Sn2+(aq) E) H2O Answer: D 19) In the following reaction, what substance gains electrons?

2Fe3+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq) A) Fe3+(aq) B) Sn2+(aq) C) Fe2+(aq) D) Sn4+(aq) E) H2O Answer: A 20) What is the oxidation state of the atoms in chlorine gas?

A) -8 B) -7 C) -5 D) -1 E) 0 Answer: E 21) What is the oxidation state of oxygen in the oxide ion?

A) 0 B) +2 C) -2 D) +6 E) -6 Answer: C 22) What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in NCl3?

A) 1B) 3C) 0 D) 3+ E) 5Answer: D Page 5 ..

23) What is the oxidation number of phosphorus in H3PO4?

A) 3B) 5C) 0 D) 3+ E) 5+ Answer: E 24) What is the oxidation number of chromium in dichromate ion, Cr2O72-?

A) 2B) 3+ C) 6+ D) 3E) 2+ Answer: C 25) In the ion MnO4-, the oxidation number of manganese is ________.

A) 2+ B) 7+ C) 8+ D) 6+ E) 4+ Answer: B 26) In the compound aluminum phosphate, AlPO4, what is the oxidation number of oxygen?

A) 3+ B) 3C) 2D) 2+ E) 5+ Answer: C 27) The oxidation number of silicon in silicon dioxide is ________.

A) 2+ B) 4+ C) 6+ D) 5+ E) 8+ Answer: B

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28) In the following reaction, what substance is reduced?

2Na(s) + 2H2O (l) → 2Na+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + H2(g) A) Na(s) B) H2O (l) C) Na+(aq) D) OH- (aq) E) H2 (g) Answer: B 29) In the reaction below, what substance is oxidized?

2K(s) + 2H2O (l) → 2K+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + H2(g) A) K(aq) B) H2O (l) C) K+(aq) D) OH-(aq) E) H2(g) Answer: A 30) For the following oxidation-reduction reaction, the coefficients in the balanced equation are ________.

Mg + O2 → MgO A) 2, 1, 1 B) 2, 2, 2 C) 1, 1, 1 D) 1, 2, 2 E) 2, 1, 2 Answer: E 31) In the following redox reaction, the appropriate coefficients are ________.

Al(s) + H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + H2 (g) A) 1, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 3, 1, 3 C) 2, 1, 1, 1 D) 1, 2, 1, 2 E) 1, 2, 1, 3 Answer: B

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32) Tin reacts with nitric acid according to the following equation. What is the oxidation number of the nitrogen in the product NO2?

Sn(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → SnO2(s) + 4NO2(g) + 2H2O(g) A) 3B) 4+ C) 5+ D) 5E) 4Answer: B 33) Tin reacts with nitric acid according to the following equation. What is the oxidation number of the oxygen in the product H2O? Sn(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → SnO2(s) + 4NO2(g) + 2H2O(g) A) 2+ B) 2C) 6+ D) 6E) 8Answer: B 34) Tin reacts with nitric acid according to the following equation. What substance is the reducing agent?

Sn(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → SnO2(s) + 4NO2(g) + 2H2O(g) A) Sn(s) B) H in HNO3 C) N in HNO3 D) O in HNO3 E) H2(g) Answer: A 35) The correct coefficients for the oxidation-reduction reaction shown below are ________.

CH4(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g) A) 1, 2, 2, 2 B) 1, 2, 2, 1 C) 1, 2, 1, 2 D) 1, 1, 1, 1 E) 1, 1, 2, 2 Answer: C Page 8 ..

36) Identify the correct coefficients for the following oxidation-reduction reaction.

H2 + O2 → H2O A) 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 2 D) 2, 2, 2 E) 2, 1, 1 Answer: B 37) What is the correct coefficient for Sn4+ in the following oxidation-reduction reaction?

Sn2+(aq) + IO4-(aq) + H+(aq) → Sn4+(aq) + I-(aq) + H2O(l) A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 12 Answer: D 38) Identify the correct coefficient for NO3-(aq) in the oxidation-reduction reaction shown below.

S(s) + NO3-(aq) + H+(aq) → SO2(g) + NO(g) + H2O(l) A) 4 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 E) 12 Answer: A 39) Identify the correct coefficient for H+(aq) in the oxidation-reduction reaction shown below.

S(s) + NO3-(aq) + H+(aq) → SO2(g) + NO(g) + H2O(l) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: D

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40) To balance the half-reaction, S(s) → SO2(g), which takes place in acidic solution, you should A) add 2 H2O(l) to the reactant side and 4H+(aq) plus 4e- to the product side.

B) add 2 H2O(l) to the reactant side and 4H+(aq) to the product side.

C) add 4H+(aq) plus 4e- to the reactant side and 2 H2O(l) to the product side.

D) add 4e- to the product side.

E) add 4H+(aq) to the reactant side and 2 H2O(l) to the product side.

Answer: A 41) To balance the half-reaction, which takes place in acidic solution, you should NO3-(aq) → NO2(g) A) add H2O(l) to the reactant side and 2H+(aq) plus 1e- to the product side.

B) add 2H+(aq) to the reactant side and H2O(l) plus 1e- to the product side.

C) add 2H+(aq) to the reactant side and H2O(l) to the product side.

D) add 1e- to the reactant side.

E) add 2H+(aq) plus 1e-to the reactant side and H2O(l) to the product side.

Answer: E 42) What is the correct coefficient for water in the reaction shown below?

ClO-(aq) + Al(s) + H+(aq) → Cl-(aq) + Al3+(aq) + H2O(l) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C 43) What is the correct coefficient for H+(aq) in the reactions shown below?

Sn2+(aq) + IO4-(aq) + H+(aq) → Sn4+(aq) + I-(aq) + H2O(l) A) 2 B) 14 C) 6 D) 8 E) 3 Answer: D

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44) When an oxidation-reduction reaction generates electrical energy spontaneously, the cell is called a(n) ________ cell.

A) spontaneous B) thermodynamic C) exothermic D) voltaic E) activated Answer: D 45) In a voltaic cell, a zinc anode in a zinc sulfate solution is one half-cell, and a copper cathode in a copper sulfate solution is the other half-cell. The two half-cells must be connected by a ________ to complete the circuit.

A) hot plate B) beaker C) fuse D) battery E) salt bridge Answer: E 46) In a voltaic cell, a zinc anode in a zinc sulfate solution is one half-cell, and a copper cathode in a copper sulfate solution is the other half-cell. In this cell, when the circuit is completed, electrons are given up by the ________.

A) copper metal B) copper sulfate C) zinc metal D) zinc sulfate E) water Answer: C 47) In a voltaic cell, a zinc anode in a zinc sulfate solution is one half-cell, and a copper cathode in a copper sulfate solution is the anode. When the circuit is completed, the proper shorthand notation for the cell is ________.

A) Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s) B) Zn2+(aq)|Zn(s)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s) C) Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu(s)|Cu2+(aq) D) Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s)||Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq) E) Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s)||Zn2+(aq)|Zn(s) Answer: A 48) Iron coated with zinc to prevent corrosion is known as ________ iron.

A) protected B) cathode iron C) cast D) galvanized E) molten Answer: D Page 11 ..

49) The green color of copper exposed to air is due to ________ of the surface of the copper.

A) oxidation B) reduction C) galvanization D) decomposition E) vulcanization Answer: A 50) The battery used in a car is known as a ________.

A) cell B) galvanic C) thermodynamic D) lead storage E) endothermic Answer: D 51) In the activity series, silver is below hydrogen, and magnesium is above hydrogen. This means that ________.

A) silver can give electrons to hydrogen B) magnesium can give electrons to silver C) hydrogen can give electrons to magnesium D) hydrogen ions can give electrons to silver E) silver ions can give electrons to magnesium Answer: B 52) Zinc is above gold in the activity series. This means that ________.

A) gold ions will give electrons to zinc B) zinc can oxidize gold C) gold can reduce zinc D) neither metal can react with hydrogen ions E) zinc will give electrons to gold ions Answer: E 53) Silver is below chromium in the activity series. A spontaneous half reaction will take place under what conditions?

A) Chromium metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate.

B) Silver nitrate solution is mixed with chromium(III) chloride solution.

C) Silver metal is placed in a beaker of water.

D) Chromium(III) nitrate solution is mixed with silver metal powder.

E) Powdered chromium metal is mixed with powdered silver metal.

Answer: A

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54) Chromium is above iron in the activity series. In order to chrome plate a hubcap, what type of electrolytic cell is needed?

A) an anode B) a cathode C) a voltaic cell D) an electrolytic cell E) a spontaneous cell Answer: D 55) When a primary alcohol is oxidized, the product is a(n) ________.

A) alcohol B) ketone C) aldehyde D) there is no reaction E) alkene Answer: C 56) A secondary alcohol has ________ carbon groups attached to the carbon atom bonded to the hydroxyl.

A) zero B) one C) two D) three E) four Answer: C 57) A ketone is the product when a(n) ________ alcohol is oxidized.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) small Answer: B 58) In the oxidation of an alcohol to a ketone, there is ________.

A) a loss of two hydrogen atoms B) a loss of one oxygen atom C) a loss of one carbon atom D) a gain of two hydrogen atoms E) a gain of one oxygen atom Answer: A

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59) Which of the following compounds is a secondary alcohol?

A)

B)

CH3⎯OH

C)

D)

E)

Answer: E 60) In a tertiary alcohol, how many alkyl groups are attached to the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group?

A) none B) one C) two D) three E) four Answer: D

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61) What is the product when this compound undergoes oxidation?

A) hexanal B) 2,2-dimethylbutanal C) 2,2-dimethyl-4-butanone D) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butanone E) 3,3-dimethylbutanal Answer: E 62) What class of alcohol undergoes oxidation to yield a ketone?

A) primary alcohol B) both primary and secondary alcohols C) secondary alcohol D) all classes of alcohols E) both secondary and tertiary alcohols Answer: C 63) Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ________.

A) carboxylic acids B) ketones C) aldehydes D) esters E) ethers Answer: B 64) Tertiary alcohols are oxidized to ________.

A) secondary alcohols B) ketones C) aldehydes D) carboxylic acids E) none of the above Answer: E

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15.2 Bimodal Questions 1) In this reaction, what is the substance oxidized?

Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 A) chlorine B) zinc chloride C) hydrogen D) zinc E) oxygen Answer: D 2) In the following reaction, oxidation occurs on which type of atom?

3Mg + N2 → Mg3 N2 A) magnesium B) nitrogen C) oxygen Answer: A 3) In the following reaction, what substance is reduced?

2Fe2O3 + 3C → CO2 + 4Fe A) oxygen in the iron oxide B) iron in the iron(III) oxide C) elemental carbon D) carbon in the carbon dioxide E) oxygen from the air Answer: B 4) When zinc metal is oxidized, how many electrons does one atom of zinc give up?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B

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5) In the sulfite ion, SO32-, what is the oxidation number of sulfur?

A) 2B) 6+ C) 6D) 4+ E) 2+ Answer: D 6) What is the oxidation number of hydrogen in H2?

A) 0 B) 1+ C) 1D) 2+ E) 2Answer: A 7) In the ammonium ion, NH4+, what is the oxidation number of hydrogen?

A) 1+ B) 4+ C) 1D) 4E) 3Answer: A 8) In chromate ion, CrO42-, the oxidation number of chromium is ________.

A) 3+ B) 6C) 6+ D) 2E) 8+ Answer: C 9) In nitrate ion, NO3-, the oxidation number of nitrogen is ________.

A) 1+ B) 3+ C) 5+ D) 1E) 3Answer: C

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10) In the ammonium ion, NH4+, what is the oxidation number of nitrogen?

A) 1+ B) 4+ C) 1D) 4E) 3Answer: E 11) To balance the half-reaction, IO4-(aq) + 8H+(aq) → I-(aq) + 4H2O(l) A) Add 7e- to the reactant side.

B) Add 7e- to the product side.

C) Add 8e- to the reactant side.

D) Add 8e- to the product side.

E) Do nothing, it is already balanced.

Answer: A 12) When CH3OH is oxidized, the product is a(n)________.

A) ketone B) alcohol C) aldehyde D) alkane E) alkene Answer: C 13) In a voltaic cell, a zinc electrode in a zinc sulfate solution is one half-cell, and a silver electrode in a silver nitrate solution is the other half-cell. In this cell, when the circuit is completed, electrons are given up by the ________.

A) silver metal B) silver nitrate C) zinc metal D) zinc sulfate E) water Answer: C

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15.3 Matching Questions Match the oxidation number with the correct species.

1) calcium ion A) +5 2) I2

B) 0

3) chromium(III)

C) +3

4) nitrogen in NH3

D) +1

5) chlorine in Cl2O

E) +4

6) hydrogen in H2O F) +2 7) sodium in sodium chloride G) -1 8) chlorine in carbon tetrachloride, CCl4

H)

I) -3 19) carbon in carbon dioxide 10) phosphorus in phosphate ion, PO4311) iron in Fe2O3 12) iron in FeCl2 13) manganese in MnO2 14) chromium in Cr2O3 15) tin in SnCl4 Answers: 1) F 2) B 3) C 4) H 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) G 9) E 10) A 11) C 12) F 13) E 14) C 15) E

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15.4 True/False Questions 1) A substance is oxidized when it loses electrons.

Answer: TRUE 2) A substance is reduced if it gains electrons.

Answer: TRUE 3) When manganese metal forms manganese ion, Mn2+, it is reduced.

Answer: FALSE 4) When copper ion is used to form copper metal, the copper ion is reduced.

Answer: TRUE 5) When oxygen is in its elemental form, O2, it has an oxidation number of 0.

Answer: TRUE 6) When carbon monoxide is converted to carbon dioxide, the carbon is oxidized.

Answer: TRUE 7) When hydrogen and oxygen are converted to water, the hydrogen is reduced.

Answer: FALSE 8) When lead oxide, PbO, is converted to lead metal, the lead is reduced.

Answer: TRUE 9) In the compound Fe2O3, the oxygen has an oxidation number of -2.

Answer: TRUE 10) When calcium oxalate precipitates from a solution of sodium oxalate and calcium chloride, the calcium is reduced.

Answer: FALSE 11) When a tertiary alcohol is oxidized, a ketone is produced.

Answer: FALSE 12) A secondary alcohol can be oxidized to an aldehyde.

Answer: FALSE 13) Secondary alcohols can be oxidized to ketones.

Answer: TRUE 14) For the half-reaction S(s) → SO2(g) , which takes place in an acidic solution, H2O(l) is added to the reactant side.

Answer: TRUE

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15) For the half-reaction NO3-(aq) +2H+(aq) → NO(g) + H2O(l), 2eare added to the reactant side.

Answer: FALSE 16) If a strip of Sn metal is placed in a Zn(NO3)2 solution, a reaction takes place.

Answer: FALSE 17) Electrical energy is generated in a voltaic cell.

Answer: TRUE 18) In the reaction: Zn(s) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l), Zn(s) is the oxidizing agent.

Answer: FALSE 15.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Is the combustion of carbon an example of an oxidation or a reduction reaction?

Answer: oxidation 2) An oxidation-reduction reaction that takes place spontaneously when the two half-reactions are connected by a wire is called a(n) ________.

Answer: electrochemical reaction 3) When an electrochemical cell spontaneously generates an electric current, the cell is called a ________ cell.

Answer: voltaic 4) In an electrolytic cell, ________ must be put into the cell to allow the oxidation-reduction reaction to occur.

Answer: electrical energy 5) In an electrolytic cell, reduction takes place at the ________.

Answer: cathode 6) In an electrochemical cell, the electrode at which oxidation takes place is called the ________.

Answer: anode 7) The portion of the electrochemical cell that is used to maintain electrical neutrality in the two separated half-cells is called the ________.

Answer: salt bridge 8) In an electrochemical cell, the electrons in the electrical circuit flow from the ________ to the ________.

Answer: anode, cathode 9) Write the oxidation-reduction reaction for the electrochemical reaction of zinc with mercuric oxide, HgO. Answer: Zn(s) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l) Page 21 ..

10) Rusting of iron is due to the formation of what chemical when iron is exposed to air and water?

Answer: Iron(III) oxide or Fe2O3 11) Paint is a useful way to prevent ________ on many metal objects.

Answer: corrosion 12) Galvanized iron is coated with a layer of ________ to prevent corrosion.

Answer: zinc 13) Iron structures underground are sometimes protected from corrosion by attachment to a piece of magnesium. This method of protection is referred to as ________ protection.

Answer: cathodic 14) In a lead storage battery, lead is required in two forms for the oxidation-reduction reaction to occur. These two forms are ________ and ________.

Answer: Pb(s), PbO2(s) 15) In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, hydrogen as H2 is converted into ________ with the release of electrons.

Answer: H+ or hydrogen ions 16) Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation in acidic solution.

Zn(s) + NO3-(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + NH4+(aq) Answer: 4Zn(s) + NO3-(aq) + 10H+(aq) → 4Zn2+(aq) + NH4+(aq) + 3H2O(l) 17) Balance the following oxidation-reduction reaction in acidic solution.

Cu(s) + NO3-(aq) → NO(g) + Cu2+(aq) Answer: 3Cu(s) + 2NO3-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 2NO(g) + 3Cu2+(aq) + 4H2O(l) 18) Balance the following oxidation-reduction reaction in acidic solution.

MnO4-(aq) + Fe2+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + Fe3+(aq) Answer: MnO4-(aq) + 5 Fe2+(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 5 Fe3+(aq) + 4H2O(l) 19) In the following reaction in acidic solution, what atom is oxidized?

CuS(s) + NO3-(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + NO(g) Answer: S

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20) In the following reaction in acidic solution, what atom is reduced?

CuS(s) + NO3-(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + NO(g) Answer: N 21) What is the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4-?

Answer: 7 22) In a tertiary alcohol, there are ________ carbon groups bonded to the carbon which is attached to the -OH. Answer: 3 23) When a secondary alcohol is oxidized, the product is a(n) ________.

Answer: ketone 24) In the following reaction, ________ is the reducing agent.

Zn(s) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l) Answer: Zn(s)

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Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 16 Nuclear Radiation 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the isotopes of elements with atomic numbers of 84 and higher are radioactive because A) strong repulsions between their electrons make them unstable.

B) strong repulsions between the protons make their nuclei unstable.

C) strong repulsions between their nuclei make them unstable.

D) their mass number is larger than their atomic number.

E) strong repulsions between the neutrons make their nuclei unstable.

Answer: B 2) What is the nuclear symbol for a radioactive isotope of copper with a mass number of 60?

A) 60 29 Cu B) 29 60 Cu C) Cu-29 D) 60 31Cu 31Cu E) 29 Answer: A 3) The product from the alpha decay of 235 92 U is A) 235 93 Np B) 239 94 Pu C) 231 90Th D) 233 80 Ra E) 236 92 U Answer: C 4) The nuclear symbol of helium, 4 2 He , is also the symbol for designating a(n) ________.

A) proton B) neutron C) gamma ray D) beta particle E) alpha particle Answer: E

Page 1 ..

0 e is a symbol used for a(n) ________.

5) The symbol -1 A) proton B) neutron C) gamma ray D) beta particle E) alpha particle Answer: D 6) Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy?

A) α-particles B) β-particles C) γ-rays D) visible light E) All of these have the same energy.

Answer: C 7) The damaging effects of radiation on the body are a result of A) the formation of unstable ions or radicals.

B) the formation of radioactive atoms in the body.

C) transmutation reactions in the body.

D) extensive damage to nerve cells.

E) the production of radioactive sodium ions in the body.

Answer: A 8) Which of the following is suitable as a minimum shielding for beta particles?

A) air B) 1 m of water C) gloves D) 1 m of concrete E) 1 cm of lead Answer: C 9) For 85 38 Sr , there are A) 85 protons and 38 neutrons.

B) 47 protons and 38 neutrons.

C) 38 protons and 47 neutrons.

D) 38 protons and 85 neutrons.

E) 85 protons and 47 neutrons.

Answer: C

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10) Which is NOT a way to minimize your exposure to radiation?

A) wearing a lead apron B) keeping a good distance C) standing behind a thick concrete wall D) wearing lead-lined gloves E) staying a longer time Answer: E 11) The process in which a nucleus spontaneously breaks down by emitting radiation is known as ________.

A) transmutation B) transformation C) fusion D) a chain reaction E) radioactive decay Answer: E 12) A nuclear equation is balanced when A) the same elements are found on both sides of the equation.

B) the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation.

C) the same particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation.

D) different particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation.

E) the charges of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation.

Answer: B 13) The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of process?

224 Th → 220 Rn + 4 He 88 90 2 A) fusion B) fission C) translation D) alpha emission E) beta emission Answer: D 14) In the nuclear equation for decay of a beta emitter, the new nucleus A) contains 2 fewer protons.

B) contains 2 more protons.

C) has a mass number 4 less than that of the original nucleus.

D) contains 1 more proton.

E) contains 1 less proton.

Answer: D

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15) Nitrogen-17 is a beta emitter. What is the isotope produced in the radioactive decay?

A) 18 6C B) 13 5B C) 18 7N D) 13 9F E) 178 O Answer: E 16) The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of nuclear reaction?

126 Sn → 126 Sb + ?

50 51 A) fusion B) fission C) transmutation D) alpha emission E) beta emission Answer: E 17) What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?

90 Sr → 90 Y + ?

38 39 A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) gamma ray D) proton E) neutron Answer: B 18) What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?

159 W → 155 Hf + ?

74 72 A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) gamma ray D) proton E) neutron Answer: A

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19) The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of reaction?

10 B + 4 He → 13 N + 1n 5 2 0 7 A) gamma emission B) fission C) transmutation D) alpha emission E) beta emission Answer: C 20) The process of changing one element into another is called ________.

A) transmutation B) fission C) fusion D) precipitation E) neutralization Answer: A 21) What is the radiation particle used below in the bombardment of nitrogen-14?

14 N + ? → 14 C + 1H 1 6 7 A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) gamma ray D) proton E) neutron Answer: E 22) When aluminum-27 is bombarded with a neutron, a gamma ray is emitted and a single new isotope is produced. What radioactive isotope is produced?

A) silicon-27 B) silicon-28 C) aluminum-28 D) magnesium-27 E) magnesium-28 Answer: C

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23) The unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by a gram of material is called the ________.

A) rad B) RBE C) curie D) rem E) MPD Answer: A 24) A sample of technetium-99m has an activity of 1.5 Ci. How many disintegrations occur in the technetium-99m sample in 5.0 sec?

A) 5.6 × 1010 B) 2.8 × 1011 C) 1.1 × 1010 D) 7.5 E) 2.0 × 10-10 Answer: B 25) Why is it important that radioisotopes used in diagnostic tests have short half-lives?

A) These radioisotopes have a greater activity so they are easier to monitor.

B) This minimizes the harmful side effects of the radiation.

C) This is necessary so the radioisotopes will have high energy.

D) These radioisotopes are less expensive.

E) These radioisotopes are more abundant in nature.

Answer: B 26) A positron is a particle emitted from the nucleus that has the same mass as a(n) ________.

A) electron B) neutron C) alpha particle D) hydrogen atom E) proton Answer: A 27) A patient receives 3.0 mL of a solution containing technetium-99m for a breast image. If the activity of the technetium-99m is 9.5 mCi/mL, what is the dose received by the patient?

A) 3.2 mCi B) 29 mCi C) 320 μCi D) 9.5 mCi E) 28.5 mCi Answer: B

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28) Sodium-24 has a half-life of 15 hours. How many hours is three half-lives?

A) 5.0 hours B) 45 hours C) 30 hours D) 15 hours E) 7.5 hours Answer: B 29) A sample of I-131 has an initial activity of 64 μCi. After 24 days, the activity of the sample is 8.0 μCi. What is the half-life of I-131?

A) 72 days B) 24 days C) 16 days D) 12 days E) 8.0 days Answer: E 30) The half-life of a radioisotope is A) one-half of the time it takes for the radioisotope to completely decay to a nonradioactive isotope.

B) the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half of the atomic weight of the original radioisotope.

C) the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half the atomic number of the original radioisotope.

D) the time it takes for the radioisotope to lose one-half of its neutrons.

E) the time it takes for one-half of the sample to decay to a new isotope.

Answer: E 31) Iodine-123, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 hours. If 50.0 mg of I-123 were prepared at 8:00 A.M. on Monday, how many mg would remain at 10:00 A.M. on the following day?

A) 50.0 mg B) 25.0 mg C) 12.5 mg D) 6.25 mg E) 3.13 mg Answer: C 32) A wooden object from a prehistoric site has a carbon-14 activity of 10 counts per minute (cpm) compared to 40 cpm for new wood. If carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years, what is the age of the wood?

A) 1430 yr B) 5730 yr C) 11 500 yr D) 17 200 yr E) 22 900 yr Answer: C

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33) Krypton-79 has a half-life of 35 hours. How many half-lives have passed after 105 hours?

A) 1 half-life B) 2 half-lives C) 3 half-lives D) 4 half-lives E) 5 half-lives Answer: C 34) The half-life of bromine-74 is 25 min. How much of a 4.0 mg sample is still active after 75 min?

A) 0.50 mg B) 1.0 mg C) 2.0 mg D) 0.25 mg E) 4.0 mg Answer: A 35) When an atom of uranium-235 is bombarded with neutrons, it splits into smaller nuclei and produces a great amount of energy. This nuclear process is called ________.

A) fission B) fusion C) decomposition D) chain reaction E) ionization Answer: A 36) In the sun, nuclei of hydrogen combine to form a larger nucleus and release a great amount of energy. The process is known as ________.

A) fission B) fusion C) metathesis D) chain reaction E) ionization Answer: B 37) When a positron is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, what effect does this have on the nuclear mass?

A) It increases by two units.

B) It decreases by one unit.

C) It increases by one unit.

D) It decreases by two units.

E) It remains the same.

Answer: E

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38) Gamma rays require the heaviest shielding of all the common types of nuclear radiation because gamma rays have the ________.

A) highest energy B) most intense color C) lowest energy D) largest particles E) heaviest particles Answer: A 39) If absorbed internally, alpha particle emitters are the most damaging because alpha particles A) have the largest charge.

B) have the greatest energy.

C) have the greatest mass.

D) consist of high energy electrons.

E) consist of pure energy.

Answer: C 40) Radium-226 decays by alpha emission to ________.

A) barium-131 B) cobalt-60 C) carbon-14 D) polonium-218 E) radon-222 Answer: E 41) A sample of cerium-141 is available in a solution with an activity of 4.5 millicuries/mL. If 10.0 millicuries are needed for a test , how much of the solution should be measured out?

A) 45 mL B) 0.45 mL C) 2.2 mL D) 22 mL E) 4.5 mL Answer: C 42) One symptom of mild radiation sickness is A) a lowered white cell count.

B) a raised white cell count.

C) a lowered red blood cell count.

D) a raised red blood cell count.

E) a white cell count of zero.

Answer: A

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43) The radiation particle with 0 mass and a charge of 1+ is called a(n) ________.

A) electron B) proton C) neutron D) positron E) beta particle Answer: D 44) Thallium-201 has the nuclear symbol 210 81Tl . What is the number of protons in this nucleus?

A) 81 B) 210 C) 201 D) 129 E) 291 Answer: A 45) According to the following equation, radon decays into what atom?

222 Rn → ? + 4 He 86 2 A) 226 84 Po B) 308 86 Rn C) 218 84 Po D) 308 88 Ra E) 226 88 Ra Answer: C 46) Manganese-49 emits a positron to form ________.

A) 49 24 Cr 73 In B) 49 C) 50 25 Mn 73 Pd D) 46 E) 218 73Ta Answer: A

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47) The isotope 13 7 N decays by positron emission to what isotope?

A) 13 6C B) 126 C C) 146 C D) 19 7N E) 15 7N Answer: A 48) Alpha particles can be used to bombard beryllium-9 to give carbon-12 and what other particle?

A) a positron B) a neutron C) an electron D) a helium nucleus E) a proton Answer: B 49) When a nucleus of U-238 captures a neutron in a bombardment reaction, what atom is produced?

A) U-235 B) Po-227 C) Rn-222 D) U-239 E) U-237 Answer: D 50) One common consumer item that takes advantage of radioactive decay is the ________.

A) gas stove B) furnace C) smoke detector D) carburetor E) air conditioner Answer: C 51) In a discussion of radiation poisoning or other toxicities, the amount of exposure that leads to the death of 50% of the population is called the ________.

A) LD50 B) ED50 C) LA50 D) DOA50 E) FDA50 Answer: A

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16.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The radioactive atom 40 19 K emits a beta particle to produce what new atom?

41K A) 19 B) 39 19 K

41Ar C) 18 D) 40 20 Ca E) 40 18 Ar Answer: D 2) The radioactive atom 210 88 Ra is an alpha emitter. What nucleus does its decay produce?

A) 206 86 Rn B) 208 86 Rn C) 207 88 Ra D) 206 90Th E) 202 90Th Answer: A 3) To complete the following nuclear equation, the starting atom is ________.

0e ? → 48 Be + -1 A) 74 Be B) 8 5B C) 83 Li D) 24 12 Mg E) 73 Li Answer: C

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126 4) The isotope 126 50 Sn decays to 51Sb . What type of radiation does it emit in this process?

A) 4 2 He B) -1 0e

0e C) -1 D) 01n E) γ Answer: C 5) The isotope Ga-68 has a half-life of 68 minutes. If a diagnostic test is begun with 15 mCi of this isotope, how much is left after a test that runs approximately 2 hr and 15 min?

A) 6.8 mCi B) 68 μCi C) 3.8 mCi D) 7.5 mCi E) 3.8 μCi Answer: C 6) Technetium-99m has a half-life of 6 hr. How long will it take for the activity of a sample of this isotope to decay from an activity of 50 mCi to an activity of 25 mCi? A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 4 hr D) 6 hr E) 12 hr Answer: D 7) A sample of P-32 (half-life = 4.3 days) has an activity of 100. mCi/mL. If a researcher needs 25.0 mCi to run an experiment, how many mL should the researcher use?

A) 1.0 mL B) 2.50 mL C) 0.500 mL D) 0.250 mL E) 0.750 mL Answer: D 8) One disintegration per second of radioactivity is called a ________.

A) rem B) rad C) equivalent D) Curie E) becquerel Answer: E

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9) A unit of biological radiation damage equivalent to 100 rems is a ________.

A) sievert B) rad C) becquerel D) gray E) curie Answer: A 10) A radioactive form of an element is called a ________.

A) positron B) gamma ray C) radioisotope D) stable nucleus E) rad Answer: C

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16.3 Matching Questions Indicate whether each of the following is characteristic of the fission or fusion process.

A) fission B) fusion C) both fission and fusion 1) A large nucleus is split into smaller nuclei.

2) Very high temperatures must be achieved to initiate the reaction.

3) This nuclear process provides the energy of the sun.

4) This process produces radioactive by-products.

5) Large amounts of energy are released.

6) Two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus.

Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) B Choose the type of radiation from Column 2 that best matches each item in Column 1.

A) alpha particle B) neutron C) proton D) gamma ray E) beta particle 7) α 8) β 9) γ 10) 11He 11) 01n Answers: 7) A 8) E 9) D 10) C 11) B

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16.4 True/False Questions 1) Exposure to radiation is unavoidable because some radioactive elements occur naturally.

Answer: TRUE 2) One symptom of radiation sickness is an increased production of red blood cells.

Answer: FALSE 3) If the half-life of hydrogen-3 is 11.8 years, after two half-lives the radioactivity of a sample will be reduced to one-half of the original amount.

Answer: FALSE 4) The correct symbol for hydrogen-3 is 23 He .

Answer: FALSE 5) One mCi of a radioactive substance emits more radiation than one μCi of the same substance.

Answer: TRUE 6) One type of radiation that is not usually used for medical procedures is the cosmic ray.

Answer: TRUE 7) X rays are generated by the nucleus during radioactive decay.

Answer: FALSE 8) Irradiation of food for sterilization is usually carried out using gamma irradiation.

Answer: TRUE 9) Nuclear fission as used in nuclear power plants produces radioactive waste with long half-lives.

Answer: TRUE 10) The production of nitrogen-13 and a neutron from boron-10 by bombardment with a helium-4 nucleus is an example of radioactive decay.

Answer: FALSE 16.5 Short Answer Questions 1) One symbol for the β particle is -10 . Another symbol for the same particle is ________.

0e Answer: -1 2) A sample of phosphorus-32 with an activity of 2.0 mCi produces ________ disintegrations per second. (1 Ci = 3.7  1010 disintegrations/sec.)

Answer: 7.4 × 107 3) The common unit of radioactivity which is used to measure biological damage is the ________.

Answer: rem Page 16 ..

4) The time needed for a radioactive sample to decay to one-half of its original activity is called the ________.

Answer: half-life

91 1 1 5) 235 92 U + 0 n → ________ + 36 Kr + 3 0 n + energy Answer: 142 56 Ba 6) The radiation dose required to produce death in one-half of the exposed subject animals is termed the ________.

Answer: LD50

99 7) 99m 43Tc → 43Tc + ________ Answer: γ

Page 17 ..

Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 17 Organic Chemistry 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms are called ________.

A) isomers B) isotopes C) indicators D) isozymes E) isometrics Answer: A 2) What is the name of the alkyl group CH3-CH2-CH2-?

A) propane B) methyl C) ethane D) ethyl E) propyl Answer: E 3) What is the IUPAC name of this alkane?

A) 4-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane B) 2-ethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane C) 2,2,4-trimethylhexane D) 2-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane E) 3,5,5-trimethylhexane Answer: C

Page 1 ..

4) Which of the following is the condensed structural formula for 3-ethyl-2,4,5-trimethlyhexane?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: B

Page 2 ..

5) What is the name of

A) pentane B) methylpentane C) 2-methylpentane D) 4-methylpentane E) hexane Answer: C 6) What is the name of

A) hexane B) dimethylbutane C) 3,3-dimethylbutane D) 2,2-dimethylbutane E) 2-dimethylbutane Answer: D 7) The IUPAC name for CH3CH2C ≡ CCH3 is ________.

A) 3-pentyne B) 2-pentyne C) pentyne D) 1-methylbutyne E) 2-propene Answer: B 8) The compound 1-butyne contains ________.

A) all single bonds B) a double bond C) a triple bond D) a ring structure E) a bromine atom Answer: C 9) Long-chain molecules that consist of many repeating units are called ________.

A) polymers B) monomers C) organic compounds D) alkenes E) alkanes Answer: A Page 3 ..

10) Small molecules that make up the repeat unit in polymers are called ________.

A) monomers B) alkenes C) alkynes D) minipolymers E) synthetic polymers Answer: A 11) The structural formula of benzene is often represented as a ________.

A) ring of five carbon atoms B) ring of six carbon atoms with six double bonds C) ring of six carbon atoms with a circle in the center D) alkene with six carbons E) alkyne with six carbons Answer: C 12) Insects communicate with chemicals called ________.

A) markers B) isomers C) signals D) pheromones E) scents Answer: D 13) What is the IUPAC name of this compound?

OH | CH3⎯C⎯CH3 ∣ CH3 A) butanol B) propanol C) 2-propanol D) 2-methylbutanol E) 2-methyl-2-propanol Answer: E

Page 4 ..

14) What is the name for this compound?

A) benzene alcohol B) hexanol C) benzenol D) phenol E) glycerol Answer: D 15) The common name for the compound CH3⎯CH2⎯CH2⎯O⎯CH2⎯CH3 is ________.

A) 3-pentanol B) ethyl propyl ether C) 3-hexanol D) 3-ether pentane E) ethyl propyl ketone Answer: B 16) The common name of CH3⎯CH2⎯O⎯CH2⎯CH3 is ________.

A) dimethyl ether B) diethyl ether C) 2-etherbutane D) butyl ether E) dibutyl ether Answer: B 17) In the IUPAC naming system, a ketone is named by replacing the -e in the corresponding alkane name with ________.

A) -yne B) -ene C) -al D) -one E) -ol Answer: D 18) In the IUPAC naming system, an aldehyde is named by replacing the -e of the name of the corresponding alkane with ________.

A) -yne B) -ene C) -al D) -one E) -ol Answer: C Page 5 ..

19) The common name for 2-butanone is ________.

A) methyl acetone B) ethyl methyl ketone C) 3-butanone D) butyl ketone E) butyl ether Answer: B 20) What is the name of this compound?

O || CH3⎯C⎯O ⎯CH23⎯CH3 A) ethyl methyl ester B) diethyl ester C) ethyl methanoate D) 2-ether-2-butanone E) ethyl acetate Answer: E 21) The reactants that will form an ester in the presence of an acid catalyst are ________.

A) two carboxylic acids B) two alcohols C) a carboxylic acid and an alcohol D) an aldehyde and an alcohol E) two aldehydes Answer: C

Page 6 ..

22) Which of these compounds is the ester formed from the reaction of acetic acid and 1-propanol?

A)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯C⎯O⎯ CH2⎯ CH3

B)

OH | CH3 ⎯C⎯ OH ∣ O⎯CH2⎯ CH2⎯ CH3

C)

OH | CH3⎯CH2⎯COH | OCH2- CH3

D)

O || CH3C⎯O⎯CH2⎯ CH2⎯ CH3

E)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯ CH2⎯O⎯ CH2⎯COH

Answer: D 23) The alcohol and carboxylic acid required to form propyl ethanoate are ________ and ________.

A) methanol, propionic acid B) ethanol, propionic acid C) propanol, propanoic acid D) 1-propanol, ethanoic acid E) 2-propanol, ethanoic acid Answer: D 24) A carboxylic acid is named in the IUPAC system by replacing the -e in the name of the parent alkane with ________.

A) -oic acid B) -oic C) -carboxylic acid D) acid E) -oate Answer: A

Page 7 ..

25) What is the name of this compound?

CH3⎯NH⎯CH2⎯ CH3 A) methylethylamine B) diethylamine C) ethylmethylamide D) ethylmethylnitride E) ethylmethylamine Answer: E 26) When acetic acid reacts with ammonia, NH3, the reaction called amidation yields ________.

A) acetamine B) ammonium acetate C) ethylammonium hydroxide D) amino acetate E) acetamide Answer: E 27) Physiologically active nitrogen-containing compounds produced by plants are called ________.

A) aromatics B) alkaloids C) esters D) polymers E) ethers Answer: B 17.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The compound below is named ________.

A) hexane B) hexene C) hexyne D) benzene E) toluene Answer: D

Page 8 ..

2) The name of the compound shown below is ________.

A) 1-ethyl-2-methylbenzene B) 1-ethyl-4-methylbenzene C) 2-ethyltoluene D) 3-ethyltoluene E) 4-ethyltoluene Answer: D 3) What classification of alcohol is resistant to oxidation?

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) none Answer: C 4) What is the product when the following compound is oxidized?

OH | CH3⎯CH2⎯CH⎯CH2⎯CH3 A) diethyl ketone B) 2-pentene C) pentanal D) diethyl ether E) pentane Answer: A

Page 9 ..

5) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

O || CH3⎯CH A) methyl aldehyde B) 1-ethanaldehyde C) 1-ethanone D) ethanal E) methanal Answer: D 6) What is the name of this compound?

O || CH3⎯C⎯CH⎯CH3 ∣ CH3 A) 2-pentanone B) methyl propyl ketone C) 3-methyl-2-butanone D) 2-methyl-3-butanone E) 2-methyl-3-ketone butane Answer: C 7) What is the IUPAC name of this compound?

O || Cl⎯CH2⎯C⎯OH A) chloro acetic acid B) 2-chloroethanoic acid C) 1-chloroethanoic acid D) 2-chloropropanoic acid E) 2-chloroacetic acid Answer: B

Page 10 ..

17.3 Matching Questions Match the following organic structures with the appropriate family name.

A) alkane B) ketone C) ester D) alkene E) ether F) aromatic compound G) amine H) carboxylic acid I) amide J) aldehyde K) alkyne L) alcohol 1)

CH3⎯CH2⎯CH⎯CH2

2)

O || CH3⎯C⎯ CH3

3)

CH3⎯OH

4)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯C⎯OH

5)

CH3⎯CH2⎯O⎯ CH2⎯CH3

6)

O || CH3⎯C⎯O⎯ CH2⎯CH3

7)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯ CH

8)

HC⎯C⎯ CH3

9)

CH3⎯CH2⎯ NH2

Page 11 ..

10)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯ C⎯NH2

11)

12)

CH3⎯CH2⎯ CH2⎯ CH3

Answers: 1) D 2) B 3) L 4) H 5) E 6) C 7) J 8) K 9) G 10) I 11) F 12) A

Identify the product, if any, that would form in each of the following reactions.

A)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯CH

B)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯C⎯CH3

13)

CH3⎯CH2⎯ CH2⎯OH

14)

CH3⎯CH2⎯CH⎯OH | CH3

Answers: 13) A 14) B

Page 12 ..

Identify the family for each of the following compounds.

A) carboxylic acid B) ether C) ester D) ketone E) amide F) aldehyde G) amine

15)

CH3⎯CH2⎯O⎯CH3

16)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯CH

17)

O || CH3⎯C⎯CH3

18)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯C ⎯OH

19)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯C⎯O⎯ CH3

20)

CH3⎯CH2⎯NH⎯ CH3

21)

O || CH3⎯CH2⎯C⎯NH⎯ CH3

Answers: 15) B 16) F 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) G 21) E

Page 13 ..

17.4 True/False Questions 1) Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of carbon compounds.

Answer: TRUE 2) When naming an alkane, the main chain is the longest continuous carbon chain regardless of bends.

Answer: TRUE 3) Polymers are large molecules consisting of repeating units.

Answer: TRUE 4) The suffix -one indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.

Answer: FALSE 5) The suffix -al indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.

Answer: TRUE 6) Esters are formed from the reaction of an ether with a carboxylic acid.

Answer: FALSE 7) An ester is derived from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.

Answer: TRUE 8) An amide is derived from an alcohol and an amine.

Answer: FALSE 9) Benzene is usually represented as a hexagon with a circle in the middle.

Answer: TRUE 10) An ether always has a carbon-nitrogen bond.

Answer: FALSE

Page 14 ..

17.5 Short Answer Questions 1) What is the IUPAC name for this alkane?

Answer: 3,4-dimethylhexane

Page 15 ..

Basic Chemistry, 3e (Timberlake/Timberlake) Chapter 18 Biochemistry 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A carbohydrate that gives two molecules when it is completely hydrolyzed is known as a ________.

A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) polysaccharide D) starch E) trisaccharide Answer: B 2) Which group of carbohydrates cannot be hydrolyzed to give smaller molecules?

A) monosaccharides B) disaccharides C) trisaccharides D) oligosaccharides E) polysaccharides Answer: A 3) A monosaccharide that consists of 5 carbon atoms, one of which is in a ketone group, is classified as a(n) ________.

A) aldotetrose B) aldopentose C) aldohexose D) ketotetrose E) ketopentose Answer: E 4) A monosaccharide that contains 4 carbon atoms, one of which is in an aldehyde group, is classified as a(n) ________.

A) aldopentose B) aldohexose C) ketopentose D) aldotetrose E) ketotetrose Answer: D

Page 1 ..

5) Ribulose has the following structural formula. To what carbohydrate class does ribulose belong?

CH2OH ∣ C O ∣ H C OH ∣ H C OH ∣ CH2OH A) aldotetrose B) aldopentose C) ketotetrose D) ketopentose E) ketohexose Answer: D 6) Maltose is a ________.

A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) trisaccharide D) polysaccharide E) phosphosaccharide Answer: B 7) Which of the following contains α-1,6-branches?

A) amylose B) glycogen C) cellulose D) sucrose E) maltose Answer: B 8) Cellulose is not digestible by humans because it contains glucose units linked by ________-glycosidic bonds.

A) α-1,2 B) α-1,4 C) α-1,6 D) β-1,2 E) β-1,4 Answer: E

Page 2 ..

9) Amylose is a form of starch which has A) only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.

B) only α-1,4-bonds between glucose units.

C) both α-1,4-and β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.

D) glycosidic links joining glucose units.

E) carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units.

Answer: B 10) Humans cannot digest cellulose because they A) lack the necessary enzymes to break β-1,6-glycosidic bonds.

B) are allergic to β-1,6-glycosidic bonds.

C) are poisoned by β-1,6-glycosidic bonds.

D) have intestinal flora which use up β-1,6-glycosidic bonds.

E) cannot digest chlorophyll.

Answer: A 11) Galactose has the structure shown below. It can be classified as a(n) ________.

A) ribose B) ketose C) disaccharide D) monosaccharide E) ketone Answer: D 12) When starch is broken into monosaccharides, the carbohydrate formed is ________.

A) glucose B) xylose C) maltose D) galactose E) fructose Answer: A

Page 3 ..

13) The cyclic structure of ribose is shown below. It can be classified as a(n) ________.

A) pentose B) hexose C) ketose D) aldehyde E) acetal Answer: A 14) Fructose does not break apart into smaller units because it is a(n) ________.

A) aldose B) hexose C) polysaccharide D) monosaccharide E) disaccharide Answer: D 15) Galactose is a product of breakdown of ________.

A) lactose B) glucose C) maltose D) erythrose E) sucrose Answer: A 16) Lipids are compounds that are soluble in ________.

A) distilled water B) normal saline solution C) glucose solution D) organic solvents E) oxygen Answer: D 17) A polyunsaturated fatty acid contains more than one ________.

A) carboxyl group B) hydroxyl group C) carbonyl group D) long carbon chain E) double bond Answer: E

Page 4 ..

18) Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids because A) they have fewer hydrogen atoms.

B) they have more hydrogen atoms.

C) their molecules fit closely together.

D) the cis double bonds give them an irregular shape.

E) the trans double bonds give them an irregular shape.

Answer: D 19) Commercially, liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid fats such as margarine by ________.

A) hydrogenation B) hydrolysis C) hydration D) oxidation E) saponification Answer: A 20) The products of the base catalyzed breakdown of a fat are A) the esters of fatty acids.

B) fatty acids and glycerol.

C) salts of fatty acids.

D) salts of fatty acids and glycerol.

E) steroids.

Answer: D 21) Which of the following is a lipid?

A) cholesterol B) nicotine C) aniline D) lactose E) collagen Answer: A 22) Compared to an uncatalyzed reaction, an enzyme-catalyzed reaction A) uses less substrate.

B) produces different products.

C) occurs at a faster rate.

D) requires more energy.

E) requires a higher temperature.

Answer: C 23) The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is the ________ step in enzyme action.

A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) last Answer: A Page 5 ..

24) The active site of an enzyme A) is remote from the site of substrate attachment.

B) is converted to a product.

C) catalyzes the reaction.

D) increases the energy of reaction.

E) includes the entire enzyme.

Answer: C 25) The general function of an enzyme in the body is to A) catalyze chemical reactions.

B) maintain a neutral pH. C) act as a reactant in carbohydrate storage.

D) maintain homeostasis.

E) eliminate waste products from the blood.

Answer: A 26) In any reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the reacting molecule is called the ________.

A) substrate B) cofactor C) coenzyme D) isozyme E) allostere Answer: A 27) When a substance bonds to an enzyme for reaction, its place of binding is the ________.

A) top of the enzyme B) primary pocket C) end pocket D) primary site E) active site Answer: E 28) In the lock-and-key model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site is thought of as A) a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly.

B) an area of the enzyme that can adjust to fit the substrate shape.

C) a key-like shape that fits into a pocket of the substrate surface.

D) a hydrophilic area on the enzyme surface.

E) a lock that bars a noncompetitive inhibitor from reacting.

Answer: A 29) In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site A) stays the same shape during substrate binding.

B) adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate.

C) stays the same shape while causing a change in the shape of the substrate.

D) uses an inhibitor to adjust its shape for the substrate.

E) uses a cofactor to change the shape of a substrate.

Answer: B Page 6 ..

30) The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway that A) lowers the energy of the products.

B) lowers the energy of the substrate.

C) changes the concentration of the substrate.

D) lowers the activation energy for the reaction.

E) changes the possible product formed.

Answer: D 31) A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base and a sugar.

A) nucleoside B) base pair C) nucleotide D) complementary base E) pyrimidine Answer: A 32) A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.

A) nucleoside B) base pair C) nucleotide D) complementary base E) purine Answer: C 33) The bonds that link the base pairs in the DNA double helix are ________ bonds.

A) ionic B) peptide C) hydrogen D) hydrophobic.

E) ester bonds Answer: C 34) The base sequence of the strand of DNA complementary to the segment -T-G-G-C-A-A-C- is: A) -T-G-G-C-A-A-CB) -A-C-C-G-T-T-GC) -A-C-C-G-U-U-GD) -U-C-C-G-T-T-GE) -A-C-G-C-T-U-GAnswer: B 35) The two new DNA molecules formed in replication A) are complementary to the original DNA. B) both contain only two new daughter DNA strands.

C) both contain only the parent DNA strands.

D) contain one parent and one daughter strand.

E) are identical, with one containing both parent strands and the other containing both daughter strands.

Answer: D Page 7 ..

36) What is the process in which the DNA double helix unfolds and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand?

A) transcription B) complementation C) translation D) replication E) restriction Answer: D 37) When DNA duplicates itself, the correct placement of the nucleotides is accomplished by ________.

A) complementary base pairing B) polymerase C) enzyme matching D) base matching E) transcription Answer: A 38) Translation is the process whereby A) DNA is synthesized from DNA. B) DNA is synthesized from mRNA. C) protein is synthesized from DNA. D) protein is synthesized from mRNA. E) mRNA is synthesized from DNA. Answer: D 39) In transcription, A) the mRNA produced is identical to the parent DNA. B) a double helix containing one parent strand and one daughter strand is produced.

C) uracil pairs with thymine.

D) both strands of the DNA are copied.

E) the mRNA contains the genetic information from DNA. Answer: E 40) Which of the following is a section of mRNA produced from the DNA template below?

-A-T-A-G-C-T-AA) -A-T-A-G-C-T-AB) -A-U-A-G-C-U-AC) -U-A-U-C-G-A-UD) -U-U-U-G-C-U-UE) -T-A-T-C-G-A-TAnswer: C

Page 8 ..

41) Which one of the following base pairs is found in DNA? A) adenine-thymine B) adenine-guanine C) cytosine-thymine D) adenine-uracil E) guanine-uracil Answer: A 42) Which one of these base pairs is found in RNA? A) guanine-cytosine B) adenine-cytosine C) adenine-thymine D) adenine-guanine E) guanine-thymine Answer: A 43) In the synthesis of mRNA, an adenine in the DNA pairs with ________.

A) uracil B) adenine C) guanine D) thymine E) cytosine Answer: A 44) A DNA template having the base sequence A-G-A-T-G-A would produce a mRNA with a base sequence of ________.

A) A-G-A-T-G-A B) U-C-U-A-C-U C) T-C-T-U-C-T D) T-C-T-A-C-A E) A-C-A-U-C-A Answer: B 45) The two strands of the double helix of DNA are held together by ________.

A) hydrogen bonds B) covalent bonds C) dipole-dipole interactions D) ionic bonds E) sugar-to-phosphate bonds Answer: A 46) When two protein chains combine to form an active protein, the structural level is ________.

A) pleated B) primary C) secondary D) tertiary E) quaternary Answer: E Page 9 ..

47) Hydrophobic interactions help to stabilize the ________ structure(s) of a protein.

A) primary B) secondary C) secondary and tertiary D) tertiary and quaternary E) secondary and quaternary Answer: D 48) The three base sequence in mRNA that specifies the amino acid is called a ________.

A) codon B) tRNA C) rRNA D) translation E) transcription Answer: A 18.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Cholesterol belongs to the ________ group of lipids.

A) saccharides B) steroid C) prostaglandin D) triacylglycerol E) wax Answer: B 2) In a simple model of atherosclerosis and heart disease, the compound that forms plaques that adhere to the walls of the blood vessels is ________.

A) cholesterol B) protein C) stearic acid D) glycerol E) glucose Answer: A 3) The name of the reaction that occurs when a fat reacts with sodium hydroxide and water is ________.

A) hydrogenation B) reduction C) hydration D) oxidation E) saponification Answer: E

Page 10 ..

4) In an enzyme, the polypeptide chain folds into a compact shape known as the ________ structure.

A) pleated B) primary C) secondary D) tertiary E) quaternary Answer: D 5) What amino acids have polar side chains that are attracted to water?

A) hydrophilic B) hydrophobic C) nonpolar D) aromatic E) hydrocarbon Answer: A 6) Consider the R groups of the following amino acids: cysteine: - CH2SH; alanine: - CH3; serine: - CH2OH The abbreviation for the dipeptide shown below is ________.

CH3 O CH2OH | || | NH2 ⎯ CH ⎯ C ⎯ NH ⎯ CH ⎯ COOH A) Ala-Cys B) Ala-Ser C) Ser-Ala D) Ser-Cys E) Cys-Ser Answer: B 7) A biological catalyst is called a(n) ________.

A) lipid B) enzyme C) active site D) carbohydrate E) substrate Answer: B 8) The three elements found in all carbohydrates are ________, ________, and ________.

A) carbon, hydrogen, water B) nitrogen, oxygen, carbon C) nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen D) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen E) carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen Answer: D Page 11 ..

18.3 Matching Questions Select the correct carbohydrate for each description.

A) cellulose B) glycogen C) sucrose D) lactose E) fructose F) galactose G) amylose 1) a carbohydrate that cannot be digested by humans 2) a carbohydrate that stores energy in the human body 3) a carbohydrate that is used to build cell walls in plants 4) a monosaccharide that combines with glucose to form lactose 5) a disaccharide found in milk and milk products 6) a disaccharide consisting of glucose and fructose 7) a monosaccharide found in fruit juices and honey, the sweetest carbohydrate 8) an unbranched carbohydrate that stores glucose in plants Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) A 4) F 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) G

Page 12 ..

Match the following.

A) unsaturated B) lower C) soluble in water D) animals E) insoluble in water F) plants G) saponification H) higher I) ester J) hydrogenation 9) the functional group of triacylglycerols 10) a fatty acid with at least one double bond 11) the process of converting unsaturated fats into saturated fats 12) the melting points of saturated fats compared to unsaturated fats 13) a source of most saturated fats 14) a characteristic common to most lipids Answers: 9) I 10) A 11) J 12) H 13) D 14) E Identify the structural level in each protein.

A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) quaternary D) tertiary 15) The protein folds into a compact structure stabilized by interactions between R groups.

16) the combination of two or more protein molecules to form an active protein 17) pleated sheet 18) the peptide bonds between the amino acids 19) the structural level achieved when hydrogen bonds form between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a different amino acid Answers: 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B

Page 13 ..

Classify each protein by function.

A) catalytic B) contractile C) structural D) protection E) transport 20) trypsin for the hydrolysis of protein 21) lipoproteins in the blood 22) collagen in tendons and cartilage 23) antibodies 24) actin in muscle Answers: 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) D 24) B Match the correct term in enzyme action with each description.

A) active site B) enzyme-substrate complex C) lock-and-key theory 25) the temporary combination of an enzyme with the compound on which it acts 26) the portion of an enzyme molecule where catalytic activity occurs 27) one theory that accounts for the unusual specificity of an enzyme Answers: 25) B 26) A 27) C

Page 14 ..

18.4 True/False Questions 1) Sucrose is a disaccharide.

Answer: TRUE 2) Sucrose is made up of glucose units only.

Answer: FALSE 3) Amylopectin is a straight-chain polysaccharide.

Answer: FALSE 4) Hydrogenation of a double bond in a triacylglycerol requires a catalyst.

Answer: TRUE 5) Most plant lipids are saturated lipids.

Answer: FALSE 6) A nucleotide consists of only a base and a sugar.

Answer: FALSE 7) Messenger RNA carries protein synthesis information from the nucleus to the ribosomes.

Answer: TRUE 8) The DNA complement of the sequence GCCAT is GCCAT. Answer: FALSE 9) DNA is a protein.

Answer: FALSE 10) RNA contains no phosphate.

Answer: FALSE 11) DNA differs from RNA in the sugar it contains.

Answer: TRUE 12) Uracil is found in both DNA and RNA. Answer: FALSE 13) Codons are found in mRNA. Answer: TRUE 14) Protein synthesis takes place in the ribosomes.

Answer: TRUE 15) The STOP codon signals the end of protein synthesis.

Answer: TRUE

Page 15 ..

16) The quaternary structural level of proteins involves two or more subunits.

Answer: TRUE 18.5 Short Answer Questions 1) The protein that transports oxygen in the blood is ________.

Answer: hemoglobin 2) Circle the peptide bond in this structure.

Answer:

3) Starch is composed of many ________ units.

Answer: glucose

Page 16 ..

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 1: Chemistry in our Lives

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 1. General chemistry is the study of: A. substances that contain the element carbon.

B. the composition, properties, and reactions of matter.

C. the physical nature of chemical systems.

D. substances that do not contain carbon.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 1. General chemistry is the study of: A. substances that contain the element carbon.

B. the composition, properties, and reactions of matter.

C. the physical nature of chemical systems.

D. substances that do not contain carbon.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 2. Which of the following is not commonly found in toothpaste?

A. Calcium carbonate B. Sorbitol C. Triclosan D. Salicylic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 2. Which of the following is not commonly found in toothpaste?

A. Calcium carbonate B. Sorbitol C. Triclosan D. Salicylic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 3. All of the following are steps in the Scientific Method except: A. Observations B. Hypothesis C. Experiments D. Law

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 3. All of the following are steps in the Scientific Method except: A. Observations B. Hypothesis C. Experiments D. Law

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 4. Information determined by noting and recording a natural phenomenon describes which step in the Scientific Method?

A. Hypothesis B. Observation C. Theory D. Experiment

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 4. Information determined by noting and recording a natural phenomenon describes which step in the Scientific Method?

A. Hypothesis B. Observation C. Theory D. Experiment

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 5. When a hypothesis is confirmed by many scientists, it may become a: A. law B. theory C. procedure D. result

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 5. When a hypothesis is confirmed by many scientists, it may become a: A. law B. theory C. procedure D. result

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 6. Which of the following represents a hypothesis?

A. Peg read the chapter, Al did not.

B. Peg did the homework, Al did not.

C. Peg got an A in the class, Al got a D. D. Students who read the chapter and do the homework get A’s, while students who do not get D’s.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 6. Which of the following represents a hypothesis?

A. Peg read the chapter, Al did not.

B. Peg did the homework, Al did not.

C. Peg got an A in the class, Al got a D. D. Students who read the chapter and do the homework get A’s, while students who do not get D’s.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 7. Which pair of scientists are both from England?

A. Volta and Dalton B. Fleming and Pasteur C. Newton and Priestley D. Marie and Pierre Curie

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 7. Which pair of scientists are both from England?

A. Volta and Dalton B. Fleming and Pasteur C. Newton and Priestley D. Marie and Pierre Curie

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 8. Which of the following scientists is not responsible for the determination of the DNA structure?

A. Rosalind Franklin B. Francis Crick C. James Salk D. James Watson

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 8. Which of the following scientists is not responsible for the determination of the DNA structure?

A. Rosalind Franklin B. Francis Crick C. James Salk D. James Watson

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 9. Which of the following would most likely help you to successfully learn chemistry?

A. Reading the chapter to be discussed before lecture B. Staying up all night before an exam C. Doing the problems after the exam D. Sleeping during the lecture

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 9. Which of the following would most likely help you to successfully learn chemistry?

A. Reading the chapter to be discussed before lecture B. Staying up all night before an exam C. Doing the problems after the exam D. Sleeping during the lecture

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 10. Features of this text that may help you be successful in your study of chemistry include: A. Learning Goals B. Concept Checks C. Sample Problems with Study Checks D. All of the above

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 – Chemistry in Our Lives 10. Features of this text that may help you be successful in your study of chemistry include: A. Learning Goals B. Concept Checks C. Sample Problems with Study Checks D. All of the above

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 2: Measurements

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 1. Which SI unit is not matched correctly to its measurement?

A. Kilogram = mass B. Fahrenheit = temperature C. Meter = length D. Milliliter = volume

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 1. Which SI unit is not matched correctly to its measurement?

A. Kilogram = mass B. Fahrenheit = temperature C. Meter = length D. Milliliter = volume

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 2. Which of the following conversions is false?

A. 2.54 cm = 1 inch B. 1 L = 1000 mL C. 1 kg = 1/1000 g D. 0ºC = 32ºF

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 2. Which of the following conversions is false?

A. 2.54 cm = 1 inch B. 1 L = 1000 mL C. 1 kg = 1/1000 g D. 0ºC = 32ºF

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 3. The number, 0.000001, is written in scientific notation as: A. 1 X 10–5 B. 1 X 10–6 C. 1 X 10–7 D. 1 X 10–8

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 3. The number, 0.000001, is written in scientific notation as: A. 1 X 10–5 B. 1 X 10–6 C. 1 X 10–7 D. 1 X 10–8

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 4. How many significant figures are in the number, 1,000,000?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 7

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 4. How many significant figures are in the number, 1,000,000?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 7

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 5. Answer the following equation using the proper number of significant figures: 15 + 10.2 + 0.2 = A. B. C. D.

25 25.2 25.4 26

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 5. Answer the following equation using the proper number of significant figures: 15 + 10.2 + 0.2 = A. B. C. D.

25 25.2 25.4 26

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 6. Answer the following equation using the proper number of significant figures: 4.7 x 834.78 A. 4000 B. 3923 C. 3920 D. 3900

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 6. Answer the following equation using the proper number of significant figures: 4.7 x 834.78 A. 4000 B. 3923 C. 3920 D. 3900

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 7. Which one of the following prefixes expresses the smallest size?

A. Kilo B. Mega C. Giga D. Nano

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 7. Which one of the following prefixes expresses the smallest size?

A. Kilo B. Mega C. Giga D. Nano

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 8. How many milligrams are there in 10 centigrams?

A. 1 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1000

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 8. How many milligrams are there in 10 centigrams?

A. 1 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1000

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 9. If the density of a substance is 8 g/mL, what volume would 40 g of the substance occupy?

A. 0.5 mL B. 2 mL C. 5 mL

D. 20 mL

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 9. If the density of a substance is 8 g/mL, what volume would 40 g of the substance occupy?

A. 0.5 mL B. 2 mL C. 5 mL D. 20 mL

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 10. Which of the following has the largest density?

A. Air B. Water C. Oxygen D. Milk

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2 - Measurements 10. Which of the following has the largest density?

A. Air B. Water C. Oxygen D. Milk

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 3: Matter and Energy

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 1. Which of the following is not a heterogeneous mixture?

A. Carbonated beverage B. Pizza C. Air D. Oil and Vinegar

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 1. Which of the following is not a heterogeneous mixture?

A. Carbonated beverage B. Pizza C. Air D. Oil and Vinegar

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 2. Which of the following is not a physical property?

A. Color B. Smell C. Flammability D. Volume

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 2. Which of the following is not a physical property?

A. Color B. Smell C. Flammability D. Volume

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 3. All of the following are examples of a chemical change except: A. Formation of rust B. Burning wood C. Boiling water D. Staining wood

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 3. All of the following are examples of a chemical change except: A. Formation of rust B. Burning wood C. Boiling water D. Staining wood

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 4. Which is the most compact state of matter?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Amorphous

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 4. Which is the most compact state of matter?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Amorphous

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 5. Which of the following statements is correct to obtain Kelvin degrees?

A. Convert Fahrenheit to Celsius and add 273.15 B. Add 273.15 to Fahrenheit C. Add –273.15 to Celsius D. Add –273.15 to Fahrenheit

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 5. Which of the following statements is correct to obtain Kelvin degrees?

A. Convert Fahrenheit to Celsius and add 273.15 B. Add 273.15 to Fahrenheit C. Add –273.15 to Celsius D. Add –273.15 to Fahrenheit

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 6. A temperature of 98.6°F is the same as: A.

212°C

B. C. D.

100°C 37°C 32°C

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 6. A temperature of 98.6°F is the same as: A.

212°C

B. C. D.

100°C 37°C 32°C

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 7. The battery used to start a car is an example of which of the following?

A. Electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy B. Chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy C. Electrical energy is converted to chemical energy D. Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 7. The battery used to start a car is an example of which of the following?

A. Electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy B. Chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy C. Electrical energy is converted to chemical energy D. Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 8. A cola that contains 150 Calories also contains: A. 1500 cal B. 1.5 kcal C. 15 kcal D. 150 kcal

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 8. A cola that contains 150 Calories also contains: A. 1500 cal B. 1.5 kcal C. 15 kcal D. 150 kcal

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 9. Which of the following elements has the highest specific heat?

A. Gold B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Silver

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 9. Which of the following elements has the highest specific heat?

A. Gold B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Silver

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 10. If 40 calories of energy are added to 10 g of water originally at 50°C, the final temperature of the water will be: A. B. C.

46°C 54°C 60°C

D.

90°C

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 – Matter and Energy 10. If 40 calories of energy are added to 10 g of water originally at 50°C, the final temperature of the water will be: A. B. C.

46°C 54°C 60°C

D.

90°C

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 4: Atoms and Elements

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 1. Which element has the symbol Co? A. Chlorine B. Chromium C. Copper D. Cobalt

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 1. Which element has the symbol Co? A. Chlorine B. Chromium C. Copper D. Cobalt

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 2. Which element is not an alkali earth metal?

A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Barium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 2. Which element is not an alkali earth metal?

A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Barium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 3. How many elements are classified as metalloids?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 3. How many elements are classified as metalloids?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 4. Which element would you expect to be chemically similar to sulfur, S? A. Na B. O C. C D. Ar

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 4. Which element would you expect to be chemically similar to sulfur, S? A. Na B. O C. C D. Ar

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 5. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of a bromine atom that has a mass number of 80 is: A. B. C.

35 neutrons 40 neutrons 45 neutrons

D.

80 neutrons

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 5. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of a bromine atom that has a mass number of 80 is: A. B. C.

35 neutrons 40 neutrons 45 neutrons

D.

80 neutrons

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 6. What does the mass number refer to in an atom?

A. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons B. The sum of the number of protons and electrons C. The number of protons D. The number of electrons

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 6. What does the mass number refer to in an atom?

A. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons B. The sum of the number of protons and electrons C. The number of protons D. The number of electrons

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 7. How many electrons and neutrons are in a neutral atom of 123Sb? A. 50, 23 B. 51, 72 C. 50, 73 D. 38, 85

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 7. How many electrons and neutrons are in a neutral atom of 123Sb? A. 50, 23 B. 51, 72 C. 50, 73 D. 38, 85

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 8. Which of the following facts does not fit Dalton’s atomic theory?

A. All atoms of oxygen are different from all atoms of nitrogen.

B. Atoms are not destroyed in chemical reactions.

C. Combinations of atoms rearrange during a chemical reaction.

D. All oxygen atoms have the same number of protons but may have different atomic masses.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 8. Which of the following facts does not fit Dalton’s atomic theory?

A. All atoms of oxygen are different from all atoms of nitrogen.

B. Atoms are not destroyed in chemical reactions.

C. Combinations of atoms rearrange during a chemical reaction.

D. All oxygen atoms have the same number of protons but may have different atomic masses.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 9. An atom of calcium has an atomic number of 20. What is the electron arrangement for calcium?

A. 2e- 6e- 6e- 6eB. 2e- 6e- 10e- 2eC. 2e- 8e- 8e- 2eD. 2e- 8e- 10e-

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 9. An atom of calcium has an atomic number of 20. What is the electron arrangement for calcium?

A. 2e- 6e- 6e- 6eB. 2e- 6e- 10e- 2eC. 2e- 8e- 8e- 2eD. 2e- 8e- 10e-

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 10. There are four isotopes of sulfur: 32S, 33S, 34S, and 35S. Based upon the atomic mass listed in the periodic table, which isotope is the most abundant?

A.

32S

B. C. D.

33S 34S 35S

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 4 – Atoms and Elements 10. There are four isotopes of sulfur: 32S, 33S, 34S, and 35S. Based upon the atomic mass listed in the periodic table, which isotope is the most abundant?

A.

32S

B. C. D.

33S 34S

35S

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 5: Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 1. Which of the following is not considered to be a long wavelength?

A. X-rays B. Infrared light C. Radio waves D. Television waves

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 1. Which of the following is not considered to be a long wavelength?

A. X-rays B. Infrared light C. Radio waves D. Television waves

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 2. Which of the following statements is true?

A. A photon is directly proportional to its frequency B. A photon is inversely proportional to its frequency C. A photon is directly proportional to its wavelength D. A photon is directly proportional to the speed of light

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 2. Which of the following statements is true?

A. A photon is directly proportional to its frequency B. A photon is inversely proportional to its frequency C. A photon is directly proportional to its wavelength D. A photon is directly proportional to the speed of light

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 3. How many orbitals are there in the 3d sublevel?

A.

One

B. C. D.

Three Five Seven

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 3. How many orbitals are there in the 3d sublevel?

A.

One

B. C. D.

Three Five Seven

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 4. Give the symbol of the element that has the following electron configuration: [Ar] 4s13d6 A. Mn B. Fe C. Ni D. Cu

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 4. Give the symbol of the element that has the following electron configuration: [Ar] 4s13d6 A. Mn B. Fe C. Ni D. Cu

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 5. The electron configuration for calcium is: A.

1s22s22p63s23p64s2

B. C. D.

1s22s22p63s23p64s13d1 1s22s22p63s23p63d2 1s22s22p63s23p54s13d2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 5. The electron configuration for calcium is: A.

1s22s22p63s23p64s2

B. C. D.

1s22s22p63s23p64s13d1 1s22s22p63s23p63d2 1s22s22p63s23p54s13d2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 6. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?

A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 6. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?

A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 7. What is the maximum number of electrons possible in energy level 4?

A. B. C.

34 32 18

D.

16

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 7. What is the maximum number of electrons possible in energy level 4?

A.

34

B. C. D.

32 18 16

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Ionization energy decreases going down a group B. Ionization energy increases going across a period from left to right C. Ionization energy is low for metals and high for non-metals D. Ionization energy is high for metals and low for non-metals © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Ionization energy decreases going down a group B. Ionization energy increases going across a period from left to right C. Ionization energy is low for metals and high for non-metals D. Ionization energy is high for metals and low for non-metals © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 9. Arrange Sn, Sr, and  in order of increasing ionization energy.

A. B. C.

Sn, , Sr Sr, Sn,  , Sr, Sn

D.

, Sn, Sr

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 9. Arrange Sn, Sr, and  in order of increasing ionization energy.

A.

Sn, , Sr

B. C. D.

Sr, Sn,  , Sr, Sn , Sn, Sr

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 10. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?

A. Barium B. Strontium C. Calcium D. Magnesium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 5 – Electronic Structure and Periodic Trends 10. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?

A. Barium B. Strontium C. Calcium D. Magnesium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 6: Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 1. The charge on the silver ion is: A. Ag+1 B. Ag–1 C. Ag+3 D. Ag–3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 1. The charge on the silver ion is: A. Ag+1 B. Ag–1 C. Ag+3 D. Ag–3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 2. All of the following polyatomic ions have a charge of 2– except: A. Carbonate B. Sulfate C. Phosphate D. Chromate

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 2. All of the following polyatomic ions have a charge of 2– except: A. Carbonate B. Sulfate C. Phosphate D. Chromate

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 3. The correct formula for sodium bicarbonate is: A. NaCO3 B. Na4(CO3)2 C. Na2CO3 D. NaHCO3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 3. The correct formula for sodium bicarbonate is: A. NaCO3 B. Na4(CO3)2 C. Na2CO3 D. NaHCO3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 4. Which of the following is not an ionic compound?

A. Na3P B. CO2 C. CaCO3 D. MgSO4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 4. Which of the following is not an ionic compound?

A. Na3P B. CO2 C. CaCO3 D. MgSO4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 5. Which of the following is not a covalent compound?

A. PCl3 B. N2 C. Na3PO4 D. SiO2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 5. Which of the following is not a covalent compound?

A. PCl3 B. N2 C. Na3PO4 D. SiO2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 6. The name of the ion CN- is: A. acetate B. carbonate C. cyanide D. nitrate

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 6. The name of the ion CN- is: A. acetate B. carbonate C. cyanide D. nitrate

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 7. Which is the correct formula for a compound of aluminum and oxygen?

A. AlO B. Al3O C. AlO3 D. Al2O3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 7. Which is the correct formula for a compound of aluminum and oxygen?

A. AlO B. Al3O C. AlO3 D. Al2O3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 8. Calcium sulfate is the name of: A. CaSO4 B. Ca2SO4 C. Ca(SN)2 D. Ca (SO3)2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 8. Calcium sulfate is the name of: A. CaSO4 B. Ca2SO4 C. Ca(SN)2 D. Ca (SO3)2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 9. The simplest alkane is: A. C2H4 B. C2H6 C. CH3 D. CH4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 9. The simplest alkane is: A. C2H4 B. C2H6 C. CH3 D. CH4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 10. The one element present in every organic compound is: A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. carbon D. nitrogen

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 6 – Inorganic and Organic Compounds: Names and Formulas 10. The one element present in every organic compound is: A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. carbon D. nitrogen

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 7: Chemical Quantities

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 1. What is the formula mass for aspirin, C9H8O4?

A. 144.13 amu B. 179.15 amu C. 180.16 amu D. 181.17 amu

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 1. What is the formula mass for aspirin, C9H8O4?

A. 144.13 amu B. 179.15 amu C. 180.16 amu D. 181.17 amu

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 2. How many moles of lactic acid, C3H6O3, are present in 175.0 g of lactic acid?

A. 1.67 mol B. 1.76 mol C. 1.85 mol D. 1.94 mol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 2. How many moles of lactic acid, C3H6O3, are present in 175.0 g of lactic acid?

A. 1.67 mol B. 1.76 mol C. 1.85 mol D. 1.94 mol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 3. How many molecules of aspirin, C9H8O4, are present in 1.5 mol of aspirin?

A. 9.03 X 1022 molecules aspirin B. 9.03 X 1023 molecules aspirin C. 9.03 X 1024 molecules aspirin D. 9.03 X 1025 molecules aspirin

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 3. How many molecules of aspirin, C9H8O4, are present in 1.5 mol of aspirin?

A. 9.03 X 1022 molecules aspirin B. 9.03 X 1023 molecules aspirin C. 9.03 X 1024 molecules aspirin D. 9.03 X 1025 molecules aspirin

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 4. Calculate the molar mass for isopropyl alcohol, C3H7OH. A. 59.09 g B. 60.00 g C. 60.10 g D. 61.10 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 4. Calculate the molar mass for isopropyl alcohol, C3H7OH. A. 59.09 g B. 60.00 g C. 60.10 g D. 61.10 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 5. Calculate the percent composition by mass for glucose, C6H12O6.

A. 40.00% C, 6.15% H, 53.84% O B. 40.00% C, 6.71% H, 53.28% O C. 40.00% C, 7.27% H, 52.72% O D. 40.00% C, 7.83% H, 52.16% O

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 5. Calculate the percent composition by mass for glucose, C6H12O6.

A. 40.00% C, 6.15% H, 53.84% O B. 40.00% C, 6.71% H, 53.28% O C. 40.00% C, 7.27% H, 52.72% O D. 40.00% C, 7.83% H, 52.16% O

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 6. How many moles are there in 120 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?

A. 0.5 moles B. 0.67 moles C. 1.0 moles D. 1.2 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 6. How many moles are there in 120 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?

A. 0.5 moles B. 0.67 moles C. 1.0 moles D. 1.2 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 7. How many molecules of water are in 9 g of H2O? A. 18 x 1023 B. 9 x 1023 C. 6 x 1023 D. 3 x 1023

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 7. How many molecules of water are in 9 g of H2O? A. 18 x 1023 B. 9 x 1023 C. 6 x 1023 D. 3 x 1023

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 8. What is the sum of the coefficients of the equation describing the complete combustion of propane gas?

C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A. 6 B. 8 C. 13 D. 15 © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 8. What is the sum of the coefficients of the equation describing the complete combustion of propane gas?

C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A. 6 B. 8 C. 13 D. 15 © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 9. How many grams of CO2 are produced from the complete combustion of 100 g of propane?

A. 100 g B. 200 g C. 300 g D. 400 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 9. How many grams of CO2 are produced from the complete combustion of 100 g of propane?

A. 100 g B. 200 g C. 300 g D. 400 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 10. How many grams of water are produced from the complete combustion of 100 g of propane?

A. 327 g B. 222 g C. 164 g D. 123 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 – Chemical Quantities 10. How many grams of water are produced from the complete combustion of 100 g of propane?

A. 327 g B. 222 g C. 164 g D. 123 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 1. Which of the following is not a physical change?

A. Pulverizing an aspirin B. Boiling water C. Freezing water D. Digesting food

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 1. Which of the following is not a physical change?

A. Pulverizing an aspirin B. Boiling water C. Freezing water D. Digesting food

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 2. The coefficients needed to balance the following equation are respectively: C2H5OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O A. 1, 2, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 2, 3 C. 2, 2, 4, 2 D. 2, 3, 4, 5

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 2. The coefficients needed to balance the following equation are respectively: C2H5OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O A. 1, 2, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 2, 3 C. 2, 2, 4, 2 D. 2, 3, 4, 5

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 3. What type of reaction describes the following equation?

CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g) A. Single replacement B. Combustion C. Decomposition D. Double replacement

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 3. What type of reaction describes the following equation?

CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g) A. Single replacement B. Combustion C. Decomposition D. Double replacement

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 4. Predict the product(s) from the following reactants.

HCl (aq) + NaHCO3 (aq) → A. NaCl (aq) + H2CO3 (aq) + H2 (g) B. NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g) C. NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2 (g) + O2 (g) D. NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + O2 (g)

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 4. Predict the product(s) from the following reactants.

HCl (aq) + NaHCO3 (aq) → A. NaCl (aq) + H2CO3 (aq) + H2 (g) B. NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g) C. NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2 (g) + O2 (g) D. NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + O2 (g)

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 5. All of the following are exothermic processes except: A. Melting of ice B. Combustion of gasoline C. H is negative D. Metabolism of fat

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 5. All of the following are exothermic processes except: A. Melting of ice B. Combustion of gasoline C. H is negative D. Metabolism of fat

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 6. What is the coefficient of water in the following reaction?

(NH4)Cr2O7 → Cr2O3 + N2 + H2O A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 6. What is the coefficient of water in the following reaction?

(NH4)Cr2O7 → Cr2O3 + N2 + H2O A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 7. Which of the following is not one of the major types of chemical reactions?

A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Replacement D. Combustion

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 7. Which of the following is not one of the major types of chemical reactions?

A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Replacement D. Combustion

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 8. The formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen gas is what type of reaction?

A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Single Replacement D. Double Replacement

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 8. The formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen gas is what type of reaction?

A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Single Replacement D. Double Replacement

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 9. The name of the functional group of aldehydes and ketones is: A. hydroxyl group B. double bond C. carbonyl group D. carboxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 9. The name of the functional group of aldehydes and ketones is: A. hydroxyl group B. double bond C. carbonyl group D. carboxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 10. The –COOH group is called a(n): A. carboxyl group B. carbonyl group C. aldehyde group D. hydroxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions of Inorganic and Organic Compounds 10. The –COOH group is called a(n): A. carboxyl group B. carbonyl group C. aldehyde group D. hydroxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 1. Calculate the total mass of the reactants for the following equation.

3H2 (g) + N2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) A. 30.03 g B. 31.04 g C. 32.15 g D. 34.06 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 1. Calculate the total mass of the reactants for the following equation.

3H2 (g) + N2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) A. 30.03 g B. 31.04 g C. 32.15 g D. 34.06 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 2. Water is produced by the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l). How many moles of water form when 3 mol O2 reacts?

A. 2 mol B. 4 mol C. 6 mol D. 8 mol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 2. Water is produced by the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l). How many moles of water form when 3 mol O2 reacts?

A. 2 mol B. 4 mol C. 6 mol D. 8 mol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 3. How many grams of water are produced from 1.00 g of glucose, C6H12O6?

C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) → 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (l) A. 0.06 g B. 0.60 g C. 6.00 g D. 60.00 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 3. How many grams of water are produced from 1.00 g of glucose, C6H12O6?

C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) → 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (l) A. 0.06 g B. 0.60 g C. 6.00 g D. 60.00 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 4. Hydrogen and oxygen react to form water: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l). If you have 5.0 mol H2 and 3.0 mol O2, determine the number of moles of O2 needed to react with all the H2.

A. 1.5 mol B. 2.0 mol C. 2.5 mol D. 3.0 mol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 4. Hydrogen and oxygen react to form water: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l). If you have 5.0 mol H2 and 3.0 mol O2, determine the number of moles of O2 needed to react with all the H2.

A. 1.5 mol B. 2.0 mol C. 2.5 mol D. 3.0 mol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 5. How many grams of water are produced from 1.25 moles of methane?

1 CH4 + 2 O2 → 2 H2O + 1 CO2

A. 11.25 grams B. 22.5 grams C. 45 grams D. 90 grams

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 5. How many grams of water are produced from 1.25 moles of methane?

1 CH4 + 2 O2 → 2 H2O + 1 CO2

A. 11.25 grams B. 22.5 grams C. 45 grams D. 90 grams

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 6. How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced from 50 grams of methane?

1 CH4 + 2 O2 → 2 H2O + 1 CO2 A. 0.78 moles B. 1.57 moles C. 3.13 moles D. 6.26 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 6. How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced from 50 grams of methane?

1 CH4 + 2 O2 → 2 H2O + 1 CO2 A. 0.78 moles B. 1.57 moles C. 3.13 moles D. 6.26 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 7. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Actual yield is the amount of product collected when the reaction ends B. Theoretical yield is the amount of product when the reaction does not go to completion C. Actual yield is always more than the theoretical yield D. Theoretical yield is always less than the actual yield

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 7. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Actual yield is the amount of product collected when the reaction ends B. Theoretical yield is the amount of product when the reaction does not go to completion C. Actual yield is always more than the theoretical yield D. Theoretical yield is always less than the actual yield

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 8. What is the percent yield if 100 g of C3H8 combusts to produce 200 g CO2?

A.

50%

B. C. D.

67% 75% 100%

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 8. What is the percent yield if 100 g of C3H8 combusts to produce 200 g CO2?

A.

50%

B. C. D.

67% 75% 100%

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 9. The enthalpy of solution for ammonium nitrate is 25.7 kJ/mole, making the reaction: A. B.

endothermic exothermic

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 9. The enthalpy of solution for ammonium nitrate is 25.7 kJ/mole, making the reaction: A. endothermic B. exothermic

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 10. The energy yield in ATP molecules associated with the complete combustion of glucose is: A. 6 ATP B. 12 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 9: Chemical Quantities in Reactions 10. The energy yield in ATP molecules associated with the complete combustion of glucose is: A. 6 ATP B. 12 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 1. What is the electron configuration for Al3+?

A. [He] 2s22p6 B. [Ne] 3s23p1 C. [Ne] 3s23p3 D. [Ne] 3s23p4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 1. What is the electron configuration for Al3+?

A. [He] 2s22p6 B. [Ne] 3s23p1 C. [Ne] 3s23p3 D. [Ne] 3s23p4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 2. What is the total number of valence electrons in H2SO4?

A. 24 valence electrons B. 26 valence electrons C. 28 valence electrons D. 32 valence electrons

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 2. What is the total number of valence electrons in H2SO4?

A. 24 valence electrons B. 26 valence electrons C. 28 valence electrons D. 32 valence electrons

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 3. According to the VSEPR theory, the shape of NH3 is: A. Trigonal planar B. Bent C. Trigonal pyramidal D. Tetrahedral

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 3. According to the VSEPR theory, the shape of NH3 is: A. Trigonal planar B. Bent C. Trigonal pyramidal D. Tetrahedral

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 4. According to the VSEPR theory, the shape of CF4 is: A. Linear B. Bent C. Trigonal pyramidal D. Tetrahedral

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 4. According to the VSEPR theory, the shape of CF4 is: A. Linear B. Bent C. Trigonal pyramidal D. Tetrahedral

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 5. Which of the following would have the most polar bond?

A. B. C. D.

Cl - Cl F - Cl F-I I - Br

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 5. Which of the following would have the most polar bond?

A.

Cl - Cl

B. C. D.

F - Cl F-I I - Br

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 6. Which of the following is not a polar molecule?

A. HF B. NH3 C. HCl D. CCl4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 6. Which of the following is not a polar molecule?

A. HF B. NH3 C. HCl D. CCl4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 7. Which of the following intermolecular forces are weakest?

A. ion-ion B. dipole-dipole C. dispersion D. hydrogen bonding

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 7. Which of the following intermolecular forces are weakest?

A. ion-ion B. dipole-dipole C. dispersion D. hydrogen bonding

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 8. Which compound would you expect to have the highest melting point?

A. C3H8 B. C8H18 C. C12H26 D. C18H38

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 8. Which compound would you expect to have the highest melting point?

A. C3H8 B. C8H18 C. C12H26 D. C18H38

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 9. If you start with 1 g of ice at 0°C and add 120 cals of energy, the temperature of the water will be: A. 40°C B. 30°C C. 20°C D. 10°C

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 9. If you start with 1 g of ice at 0°C and add 120 cals of energy, the temperature of the water will be: A. 40°C B. 30°C C. 20°C D. 10°C

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 10. What is the reverse process of sublimation called?

A. Condensation B. Deposition C. Evaporation D. Vaporization

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 10: Structures of Solids and Liquids 10. What is the reverse process of sublimation called?

A. Condensation B. Deposition C. Evaporation D. Vaporization

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 11: Gases

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 1. All of the following equal 1 atm except: A. 101.325 kPa B. 760 mm Hg C. 760 torr D. 760 Pa

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 1. All of the following equal 1 atm except: A. 101.325 kPa B. 760 mm Hg C. 760 torr D. 760 Pa

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 2. How many torr are in 1.15 atm?

A. 850 torr B. 874 torr C. 892 torr D. 908 torr

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 2. How many torr are in 1.15 atm?

A. 850 torr B. 874 torr C. 892 torr D. 908 torr

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 3. According to Boyle’s Law, all of the following statements are true except: A. As pressure increases, volume decreases B. As pressure decreases, volume increases C. At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is inversely proportional to the pressure it exerts D. At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is inversely proportional to the pressure it exerts

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 3. According to Boyle’s Law, all of the following statements are true except: A. As pressure increases, volume decreases B. As pressure decreases, volume increases C. At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is inversely proportional to the pressure it exerts D. At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is inversely proportional to the pressure it exerts

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 4. At constant volume, the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature describes whose gas law?

A. Boyle’s law B. Charles’ law C. Dalton’s law D. Gay-Lussac’s law © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 4. At constant volume, the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature describes whose gas law?

A. Boyle’s law B. Charles’ law C. Dalton’s law D. Gay-Lussac’s law © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 5. If a gas occupies 2 L at 3 atm, how many liters will it occupy at 6 atm if the temperature isn’t changed?

A. 1 L B. 2 L C. 4 L D. 6 L

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 5. If a gas occupies 2 L at 3 atm, how many liters will it occupy at 6 atm if the temperature isn’t changed?

A. 1 L B. 2 L C. 4 L D. 6 L

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 6. The universal gas constant, R, is equal to: A. 22.4 L

B. 0.0821 L•atm per mol•K C. 760 mm Hg D. 273.0 K

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 6. The universal gas constant, R, is equal to: A. 22.4 L

B. 0.0821 L•atm per mol•K C. 760 mm Hg D. 273.0 K

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 7. What is the volume of 2 moles of an ideal gas at 278 K and 0.97 atm?

A. 52.25 L B. 55.35 L C. 50.42 L D. 58.19 L

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 7. What is the volume of 2 moles of an ideal gas at 278 K and 0.97 atm?

A. 52.25 L B. 55.35 L C. 50.42 L D. 58.19 L

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 8. How many moles of an ideal gas are contained in a volume of 9 L at standard temperature and pressure?

A. 1.15 moles B. 1.29 moles C. 1.34 moles D. 1.41 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 8. How many moles of an ideal gas are contained in a volume of 9 L at standard temperature and pressure?

A. 1.15 moles B. 1.29 moles C. 1.34 moles D. 1.41 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 9.

A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases has a total pressure of 9 atm. The pressure of the hydrogen is 5 atm. What is the volume of the oxygen gas at 298 K if there are 4 moles present?

A. 1.15 moles B. 1.29 moles C. 1.34 moles D. 1.41 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 9.

A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases has a total pressure of 9 atm. The pressure of the hydrogen is 5 atm. What is the volume of the oxygen gas at 298 K if there are 4 moles present?

A. 1.15 moles B. 1.29 moles C. 1.34 moles D. 1.41 moles

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 10. The amount of oxygen carried by each red blood cell depends on the partial pressure of oxygen.

The lower the partial pressure of oxygen is, the less oxygen each cell can carry so at higher altitudes you need more red blood cells. Whose law does this describe?

A. Dalton’s law B. Charles’ law C. Boyle’s law D. Avogadro’s law © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 11 - Gases 10. The amount of oxygen carried by each red blood cell depends on the partial pressure of oxygen.

The lower the partial pressure of oxygen is, the less oxygen each cell can carry so at higher altitudes you need more red blood cells. Whose law does this describe?

A. Dalton’s law B. Charles’ law C. Boyle’s law D. Avogadro’s law © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 12: Solutions

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 1. Which of the following acids is not a strong electrolyte?

A. Sulfuric acid B. Hydrochloric acid C. Acetic acid D. Nitric acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 1. Which of the following acids is not a strong electrolyte?

A. Sulfuric acid B. Hydrochloric acid C. Acetic acid D. Nitric acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 2. The process of water molecules being attracted to and surrounding solute particles is called: A. Solventation B. Hydrogenation C. Hydrolysis D. Solvation

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 2. The process of water molecules being attracted to and surrounding solute particles is called: A. Solventation B. Hydrogenation C. Hydrolysis D. Solvation

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 3.

Which of the following statements best describes Henry’s Law? A. The amount of a solute that can dissolve in a given amount of solvent B. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid C. A solution that contains just as much solute as can be dissolved in the solvent by ordinary means D. The volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles of a gas when the temperature and pressure are not changed

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 3.

Which of the following statements best describes Henry’s Law? A. The amount of a solute that can dissolve in a given amount of solvent B. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid C. A solution that contains just as much solute as can be dissolved in the solvent by ordinary means D. The volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles of a gas when the temperature and pressure are not changed

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 4. Salts that are soluble in water contain at least one of the following ions except: A. Na+ B. Ag+ C. K+ D. Cl–

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 4. Salts that are soluble in water contain at least one of the following ions except: A. Na+ B. Ag+ C. K+ D. Cl–

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 5. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be soluble in water?

A. CaCO3 B. PbSO4 C. HgS D. (NH4)3PO4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 5. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be soluble in water?

A. CaCO3 B. PbSO4 C. HgS D. (NH4)3PO4

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 6. The equation for molarity is: A. moles of solute liters of solution

B. mass of solute

X 100

mass of solution

C. molarity x volume (initial) = molarity x volume (final) D. volume of solute X 100 volume of solution

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 6. The equation for molarity is: A. moles of solute liters of solution

B. mass of solute

X 100

mass of solution

C. molarity x volume (initial) = molarity x volume (final) D. volume of solute X 100 volume of solution

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 7. If the concentration of NaOH is 10%, then the amount of NaOH in 200 mL of solution is: A. 2 g B. 5 g C. 20 g D. 50 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 7. If the concentration of NaOH is 10%, then the amount of NaOH in 200 mL of solution is: A. 2 g B. 5 g C. 20 g D. 50 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 8. What is the formula weight of a compound if 20 g of the compound in 500 mL of solution gives a 0.5 M solution?

A. 20 g B. 40 g C. 60 g D. 80 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 8. What is the formula weight of a compound if 20 g of the compound in 500 mL of solution gives a 0.5 M solution?

A. 20 g B. 40 g C. 60 g D. 80 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 9. How many grams of (NH4)2SO4 are needed to prepare 100 mL of a 2.5 M solution?

A. 13.2 g B. 26 g C. 33 g D. 66 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 9. How many grams of (NH4)2SO4 are needed to prepare 100 mL of a 2.5 M solution?

A. 13.2 g B. 26 g C. 33 g D. 66 g

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 10. The molarity of 1 mole of glucose, C6H12O6, dissolved in enough water to prepare 2.0 L of solution is: A. 0.5 M B. 1.0 M C. 1.5 M D. 2.0 M

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 - Solutions 10. The molarity of 1 mole of glucose, C6H12O6, dissolved in enough water to prepare 2.0 L of solution is: A. 0.5 M B. 1.0 M C. 1.5 M D. 2.0 M

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 13: Chemical Equilibrium

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 1. All of the following are factors that affect the rate of a reaction except: A. Changes in temperature B. Changes in orientation of the reactants C. Changes in concentration of the reactants D. Addition of catalysts

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 1. All of the following are factors that affect the rate of a reaction except: A. Changes in temperature B. Changes in orientation of the reactants C. Changes in concentration of the reactants D. Addition of catalysts

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 2. All of the following statements about reversible reactions are true except: A. Consist of both a forward and a reverse reaction B. The forward reaction begins as collisions occur between the reactant molecules C. Are always complete D. Begin once there are sufficient product molecules to undergo collisions

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 2. All of the following statements about reversible reactions are true except: A. Consist of both a forward and a reverse reaction B. The forward reaction begins as collisions occur between the reactant molecules C. Are always complete D. Begin once there are sufficient product molecules to undergo collisions

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 3. Which one of the following is the equilibrium constant expression?

A. Kc = B. Kc = C. Kc = D. Kc =

reactants/products reactants x products products/reactants [reactants]2 x [products]2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 3. Which one of the following is the equilibrium constant expression?

A. Kc = reactants/products B. Kc = reactants x products C. Kc = products/reactants D. Kc = [reactants]2 x [products]2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 4. A certain reaction has an equilibrium constant of 0.5. Calculate the constant for the reverse reaction.

A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. 2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 4. A certain reaction has an equilibrium constant of 0.5. Calculate the constant for the reverse reaction.

A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. 2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 5. What effect would increasing the amount of CO have on the products of the following reaction?

CuO + CO → Cu + CO2 A. It would raise the amount of both products.

B. It would raise the amount of Cu. C. It would raise the amount of CO2.

D. It wouldn’t have any effect on the products.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 5. What effect would increasing the amount of CO have on the products of the following reaction?

CuO + CO → Cu + CO2 A. It would raise the amount of both products.

B. It would raise the amount of Cu. C. It would raise the amount of CO2.

D. It wouldn’t have any effect on the products.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 6. Write the equilibrium equation for the following reaction: 2 ZnS + 3 O2 → 2 ZnO + 2 SO2 A. K = [ZnS]2[O]2 [ZnO]2[SO2]2

C. K = [ZnS]2[O2]3 [ZnO]2[SO2]2

B. K = [ZnO]2[SO2]2 [ZnS]2[O]2

D. K = [ZnO]2[SO2] [ZnS]2[O2]3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 6. Write the equilibrium equation for the following reaction: 2 ZnS + 3 O2 → 2 ZnO + 2 SO2 A. K = [ZnS]2[O]2 [ZnO]2[SO2]2

C. K = [ZnS]2[O2]3 [ZnO]2[SO2]2

B. K = [ZnO]2[SO2]2 [ZnS]2[O]2

D. K = [ZnO]2[SO2] [ZnS]2[O2]3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 7. What is the type of equilibrium when the reactants and products are in two or more states?

A. Equilibrium with a small Kc B. Homogeneous equilibrium C. Equilibrium with a large Kc D. Heterogeneous equilibrium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 7. What is the type of equilibrium when the reactants and products are in two or more states?

A. Equilibrium with a small Kc B. Homogeneous equilibrium C. Equilibrium with a large Kc D. Heterogeneous equilibrium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 8. All of the following would increase the rate of the reaction except: 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 A. B. C. D.

Adding SO2 Raising the temperature Adding a catalyst Removing some SO2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 8. All of the following would increase the rate of the reaction except: 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 A.

Adding SO2

B. C. D.

Raising the temperature Adding a catalyst Removing some SO2

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 9. The tendency for a system to adjust itself to compensate for stresses upon the system is known as: A. B. C. D.

Non-equilibrium Le Châtlier’s Principle Heterogeneous equilibrium Activation energy

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 9. The tendency for a system to adjust itself to compensate for stresses upon the system is known as: A. B. C. D.

Non-equilibrium Le Châtlier’s Principle Heterogeneous equilibrium Activation energy

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 10. According to Le Châtelier’s Principle, the only condition that has no effect on the reaction to remove stress is: A. Catalysts B. Temperature C. Concentration D. Volume

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13 – Chemical Equilibrium 10. According to Le Châtelier’s Principle, the only condition that has no effect on the reaction to remove stress is: A. Catalysts B. Temperature C. Concentration D. Volume

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 14: Acids and Bases

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 1. All of the following are strong acids except: A. Sulfuric acid B. Nitric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Acetic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 1. All of the following are strong acids except: A. Sulfuric acid B. Nitric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Acetic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 2. All of the following are strong bases except: A. Sodium hydroxide B. Calcium hydroxide C. Aluminum hydroxide D. Potassium hydroxide

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 2. All of the following are strong bases except: A. Sodium hydroxide B. Calcium hydroxide C. Aluminum hydroxide D. Potassium hydroxide

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 3. Which of the following juices is least acidic?

A. Tomato B. Apple C. Orange D. Lemon

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 3. Which of the following juices is least acidic?

A. Tomato B. Apple C. Orange D. Lemon

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 4. Which of the following metals does not react with an acid?

A. Calcium B. Copper C. Magnesium D. Zinc

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 4. Which of the following metals does not react with an acid?

A. Calcium B. Copper C. Magnesium D. Zinc

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 5. Determine the Ka for an acid HX if the pH of a 0.100 M solution of HX is 4.5.

A. 1.0 x 10-8 B. 3.0 x 10-7 C. 2.5 x 10-8 D. 4.5 x 10-9

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 5. Determine the Ka for an acid HX if the pH of a 0.100 M solution of HX is 4.5.

A. 1.0 x 10-8 B. 3.0 x 10-7 C. 2.5 x 10-8 D. 4.5 x 10-9

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 6. The [H+] of a 1.0 M acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 x 105) solution is: A. 1.0 M B. 0.3 M C. 0.0042 M D. 1.8 x 10-5 M

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 6. The [H+] of a 1.0 M acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 x 105) solution is: A. 1.0 M B. 0.3 M C. 0.0042 M D. 1.8 x 10-5 M

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 7. What is the pH of a 0.00167 M HCl solution?

A. 0.60 B. 1.67 C. 2.78 D. 3.0

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 7. What is the pH of a 0.00167 M HCl solution?

A. 0.60 B. 1.67 C. 2.78 D. 3.0

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 8. What is the pH of a 0.04 M KOH solution?

A. 9.6 B. 10.4 C. 11.7 D. 12.6

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 8. What is the pH of a 0.04 M KOH solution?

A. 9.6 B. 10.4 C. 11.7 D. 12.6

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 9. What is the [H+] of a solution at pH 3.5?

A. 5.3 x 10-5 B. 6.0 x 10-4 C. 3.16 x 10-4 D. 8.84 x 10-3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 9. What is the [H+] of a solution at pH 3.5?

A. 5.3 x 10-5 B. 6.0 x 10-4 C. 3.16 x 10-4 D. 8.84 x 10-3

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 10.

Which of the following statements best describes a buffer?

A. An acid on the product side of an equation describing an acid-base reaction B. A solution that contains substantial amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base and resists changes in pH C. A base on the product side of an equation describing an acid-base reaction D. Any substance that can act as an acid or base, depending on the nature of the solution

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 14 – Acids and Bases 10.

Which of the following statements best describes a buffer?

A. An acid on the product side of an equation describing an acid-base reaction B. A solution that contains substantial amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base and resists changes in pH C. A base on the product side of an equation describing an acid-base reaction D. Any substance that can act as an acid or base, depending on the nature of the solution

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 15: Oxidation and Reduction

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 1. The oxidation number for chlorine in ClO3– is: A. +7 B. +6 C. +5 D. –5

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 1. The oxidation number for chlorine in ClO3– is: A. +7 B. +6 C. +5 D. –5

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 2. All of the following can have an oxidation number of +4 except: A. Carbon B. Iron C. Lead D. Tin

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 2. All of the following can have an oxidation number of +4 except: A. Carbon B. Iron C. Lead D. Tin

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 3. The oxidation number of an element in the free or uncombined state is always: A. 0 B. +1 C. –1 D. Same as its ionic charge

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 3. The oxidation number of an element in the free or uncombined state is always: A. 0 B. +1 C. –1 D. Same as its ionic charge

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 4. What element is oxidized in the following equation, and what element is reduced?

I2 + 2 Br – → 2 I – + Br2 A. iodine, I, is oxidized, while the bromine ion, Br–, is reduced.

B. iodine, I, is reduced, while the bromine ion, Br–, is oxidized.

C. both the iodine, I, and the bromine ion, Br–, are reduced.

D. both the iodine, I, and the bromine ion, Br–, are oxidized.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 4. What element is oxidized in the following equation, and what element is reduced?

I2 + 2 Br – → 2 I – + Br2 A. iodine, I, is oxidized, while the bromine ion, Br–, is reduced.

B. iodine, I, is reduced, while the bromine ion, Br–, is oxidized.

C. both the iodine, I, and the bromine ion, Br–, are reduced.

D. both the iodine, I, and the bromine ion, Br–, are oxidized.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 5.

What element behaves as the oxidizing agent in the following equation, and what element behaves as the reducing agent?

I2 + 2 Br – → 2 I – + Br2

A. The I2 is the oxidizing agent, while the Br– is the reducing agent.

B. The I2 is the reducing agent, while the Br– is the oxidizing agent.

C. The I- is the oxidizing agent, while the Br2 is the reducing agent.

D. The I- is the reducing agent, while the Br2 is the oxidizing agent.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 5.

What element behaves as the oxidizing agent in the following equation, and what element behaves as the reducing agent?

I2 + 2 Br – → 2 I – + Br2

A. The I2 is the oxidizing agent, while the Br– is the reducing agent.

B. The I2 is the reducing agent, while the Br– is the oxidizing agent.

C. The I- is the oxidizing agent, while the Br2 is the reducing agent.

D. The I- is the reducing agent, while the Br2 is the oxidizing agent.

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 6. In a lead storage battery (car battery), the electrolyte is: A. Lead B. Hydrogen C. Lead (IV) oxide D. Sulfuric acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 6. In a lead storage battery (car battery), the electrolyte is: A. Lead B. Hydrogen C. Lead (IV) oxide D. Sulfuric acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 7. Which of the following uses spontaneous oxidation-reduction reactions to produce electrical energy?

A. Voltaic cell B. Electroplating C. Electrolytic cell D. Electrolysis

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 7. Which of the following uses spontaneous oxidation-reduction reactions to produce electrical energy?

A. Voltaic cell B. Electroplating C. Electrolytic cell D. Electrolysis

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 8. What set of coefficients is necessary to balance the following chemical equation? __Ce4+ + __Cl– → __Ce3+ + __Cl2

A. 2, 2, 2, 1 B. 1, 4, 1, 2 C. 1, 2, 1, 1 D. 3, 4, 3, 2 © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 8. What set of coefficients is necessary to balance the following chemical equation? __Ce4+ + __Cl– → __Ce3+ + __Cl2

A. 2, 2, 2, 1 B. 1, 4, 1, 2 C. 1, 2, 1, 1 D. 3, 4, 3, 2 © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 9. Describe the following reaction in a battery: Zn(s) + 2 OH-(aq) → ZnO(s) + H2O(l) + 2e-

A. Zinc is oxidized at the anode B. Zinc is oxidized at the cathode C. Zinc is reduced at the anode D. Zinc is reduced at the cathode

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 9. Describe the following reaction in a battery: Zn(s) + 2 OH-(aq) → ZnO(s) + H2O(l) + 2e-

A. Zinc is oxidized at the anode B. Zinc is oxidized at the cathode C. Zinc is reduced at the anode D. Zinc is reduced at the cathode

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 10. Describe the following reaction in a battery: 2 MnO2(s) +H2O(l) + 2e- → Mn2O3(s) + 2 H2O(aq)

A. MnO2 is oxidized at the anode B. MnO2 is oxidized at the cathode C. MnO2 is reduced at the anode

D. MnO2 is reduced at the cathode

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 15 – Oxidation and Reduction 10. Describe the following reaction in a battery: 2 MnO2(s) +H2O(l) + 2e- → Mn2O3(s) + 2 H2O(aq)

A. MnO2 is oxidized at the anode B. MnO2 is oxidized at the cathode C. MnO2 is reduced at the anode

D. MnO2 is reduced at the cathode

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 16: Nuclear Radiation

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 1. Which of the following is similar to x-rays?

A. Alpha particle B. Beta particle C. A positron D. Gamma rays

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 1. Which of the following is similar to x-rays?

A. Alpha particle B. Beta particle C. A positron D. Gamma rays

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 2. All of the following radiations have a mass number of zero except: A. Beta B. Positron C. Gamma D. Neutron

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 2. All of the following radiations have a mass number of zero except: A. Beta B. Positron C. Gamma D. Neutron

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 3. Which of the following radioactive elements occurs naturally?

A. Plutonium B. Uranium C. Americium D. Curium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 3. Which of the following radioactive elements occurs naturally?

A. Plutonium B. Uranium C. Americium D. Curium

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 4. If the half-life of a radioactive element is 8 years, what percentage of the original sample would be left after 64 years?

A. 2.25% B. 1.56% C. 0.39% D. 0.064%

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 4. If the half-life of a radioactive element is 8 years, what percentage of the original sample would be left after 64 years?

A. 2.25% B. 1.56% C. 0.39% D. 0.064%

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 5.

222 Rn decays to 218 Po through what 86 84

process?

A. Beta decay B. Alpha decay C. Positron emission D. Gamma emission

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 5.

222 Rn decays to 218 Po through what 86 84

process?

A. Beta decay B. Alpha decay C. Positron emission D. Gamma emission

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 6.

56 Fe decays to 56 Mn through what 26 25

process?

A. Beta decay B. Alpha decay C. Positron emission D. Gamma emission

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 6.

56 Fe decays to 56 Mn through what 26 25

process?

A. Beta decay B. Alpha decay C. Positron emission D. Gamma emission

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 7. Which of the following processes is accompanied by the emission of a gamma ray?

A. Positron emission B. Electron capture C. Gamma Emission D. Spontaneous Fission

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 7. Which of the following processes is accompanied by the emission of a gamma ray?

A. Positron emission B. Electron capture C. Gamma Emission D. Spontaneous Fission

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 8. The unit used to describe the actual damage done to tissue by a given amount of radiation is the: A. roentgen B. rad C. gray D. rem

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 8. The unit used to describe the actual damage done to tissue by a given amount of radiation is the: A. roentgen B. rad C. gray D. rem

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 9. Which one of the following radioisotopes has the shortest half-life and is used in PET scans?

A. Sodium-24 B. Fluorine-18 C. Technetium-99 D. Strontium-85

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 9. Which one of the following radioisotopes has the shortest half-life and is used in PET scans?

A. Sodium-24 B. Fluorine-18 C. Technetium-99 D. Strontium-85

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 10. By far, the most important radioactive isotope used in medical imaging of the brain, heart, thyroid, stomach, liver, lung, bone marrow, spleen, and kidney is: A. Iodine-123 B. Selenium-75 C. Technetium-99 D. Xenon-133

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 16 – Nuclear Radiation 10. By far, the most important radioactive isotope used in medical imaging of the brain, heart, thyroid, stomach, liver, lung, bone marrow, spleen, and kidney is: A. Iodine-123 B. Selenium-75 C. Technetium-99 D. Xenon-133

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 17: Organic Chemistry

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 1. The name of the following compound is: CH3 l CH3CCH2CHCH3 l l CH3 CH2CH3

A. 2,2,4–Trimethylhexane B. 4–Ethyl–2,2–dimethylpentane C. 2–Ethyl–4,4–dimethylpentane D. 3,5,5–Trimethylhexane

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 1. The name of the following compound is: CH3 l CH3CCH2CHCH3 l l CH3 CH2CH3

A. 2,2,4–Trimethylhexane B. 4–Ethyl–2,2–dimethylpentane C. 2–Ethyl–4,4–dimethylpentane D. 3,5,5–Trimethylhexane

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 2. Compounds comprised of the same number and kinds of atoms but different in their atomic arrangement are known as: A. isotopes B. isomers C. homologs D. allotropes

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 2. Compounds comprised of the same number and kinds of atoms but different in their atomic arrangement are known as: A. isotopes B. isomers C. homologs D. allotropes

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 3. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain: A. Only single bonds B. Single and/or double bonds C. Single and/or triple bonds D. Double and/or triple bonds

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 3. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain: A. Only single bonds B. Single and/or double bonds C. Single and/or triple bonds D. Double and/or triple bonds

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 4. The IUPAC name for isopropyl alcohol is: A. 1–propanol B. 2–phenol C. 2–propanol D. 1,2,3–propanetriol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 4. The IUPAC name for isopropyl alcohol is: A. 1–propanol B. 2–phenol C. 2–propanol D. 1,2,3–propanetriol

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 5. The correct name of CH3-O-CH2CH3 is: A. diethyl ether B. ethyl ether C. methyl ethyl ether D. ethyl methyl oxide

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 5. The correct name of CH3-O-CH2CH3 is: A. diethyl ether B. ethyl ether C. methyl ethyl ether D. ethyl methyl oxide

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 6. The name of the functional group of aldehydes and ketones is: A. carbonyl group B. carboxyl group C. double bond D. hydroxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 6. The name of the functional group of aldehydes and ketones is: A. carbonyl group B. carboxyl group C. double bond D. hydroxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 7. The carbon of a carbonyl group bonded to two alkyl groups or aromatic rings is found in a(n): A. Aldehyde B. Ester C. Ketone D. Carboxylic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 7. The carbon of a carbonyl group bonded to two alkyl groups or aromatic rings is found in a(n): A. Aldehyde B. Ester C. Ketone D. Carboxylic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 8. The –COOH group is called a(n): A. carboxyl group B. carbonyl group C. aldehyde group D. hydroxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 8. The –COOH group is called a(n): A. carboxyl group B. carbonyl group C. aldehyde group D. hydroxyl group

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 9. Amines are compounds that would be classified as: A. neutral salts B. weak acids C. weak bases D. strong bases

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 9. Amines are compounds that would be classified as: A. neutral salts B. weak acids C. weak bases D. strong bases

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 10. All of the following are amines except: A. Epinephrine B. Vanilin C. Caffeine D. Benzedrine

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17 – Organic Chemistry 10. All of the following are amines except: A. Epinephrine B. Vanilin C. Caffeine D. Benzedrine

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Basic Chemistry, 3/e Chapter 18: Biochemistry

Karen Timberlake © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 1. Fructose is a(n): A. aldohexose B. aldopentose C. ketohexose D. ketopentose

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 1. Fructose is a(n): A. aldohexose B. aldopentose C. ketohexose D. ketopentose

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 2. All of the following are disaccharides except: A. Lactose B. Galactose C. Sucrose D. Maltose

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 2. All of the following are disaccharides except: A. Lactose B. Galactose C. Sucrose D. Maltose

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 3. Which of the following is not an unsaturated fatty acid?

A. Linolenic acid B. Oleic acid C. Linoleic acid D. Stearic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 3. Which of the following is not an unsaturated fatty acid?

A. Linolenic acid B. Oleic acid C. Linoleic acid D. Stearic acid

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 4. Saponification refers to the reaction of lipids with: A. an enzyme B. hydrogen C. phosphate D. sodium hydroxide

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 4. Saponification refers to the reaction of lipids with: A. an enzyme B. hydrogen C. phosphate D. sodium hydroxide

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 5. How many different amino acids are usually present in human proteins?

A. 6 B. 9 C. 15 D. 20

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 5. How many different amino acids are usually present in human proteins?

A. 6 B. 9 C. 15 D. 20

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 6. If we say that a protein contains an -helix, we are describing its: A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 6. If we say that a protein contains an -helix, we are describing its: A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 7. Enzymes belong to which biochemical class of compounds?

A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Phospholipids

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 7. Enzymes belong to which biochemical class of compounds?

A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Phospholipids

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 8. All of the following are types of RNA molecules except: A. Transfer B. Ribosomal C. Translation D. Messenger

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 8. All of the following are types of RNA molecules except: A. Transfer B. Ribosomal C. Translation D. Messenger

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 9. Base pairing is accomplished through the formation of: A. hydrogen bonds B. phosphate linkages C. hemiacetal linkages D. disulfide bonds

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 9. Base pairing is accomplished through the formation of: A. hydrogen bonds B. phosphate linkages C. hemiacetal linkages D. disulfide bonds

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 10. Which contains the codon?

A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. the protein molecule

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18 - Biochemistry 10. Which contains the codon?

A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. the protein molecule

© 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.