Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions An Interactive Journey, 2E Bruce J Colbert Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions An Interactive Journey

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

Bruce J. Colbert Jeff J. Ankney Karen T. Lee

TEST BANK CHAPTER 1 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question ________.

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1. Gross Anatomy is also known as a. Microscopic Anatomy b. Pathologic Anatomy c. Macroscopic Anatomy d. Diagnostic Anatomy 2. An example of Gross Anatomy would be ________. a. Viewing an x-ray b. Using a microscope c. Performing a complete cellular blood count d. Determining the etiology of a disease 3. The study of Physiology deals with ________. a. Disease b. Genetics c. Structures d. Functions 4. The potential outcome of a disease is the ________. a. Etiology b. Diagnosis c. Prognosis d. Treatment 5. The study of disease is known as ________. a. Neurology b. Pathophysiology c. Microbiology d. Cytology 6. The three basic parts of a medical term include ________. a. Prefix, word root, suffix b. Suffix, base, meaning c. Prefix, stem, ending d. Base, word root, stem 7. What system is known as the mathematical language of Anatomy and Physiology?

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a. Abbreviation system b. Metric system c. English system d. Customary system Which of the following is not a vital sign? a. Heart Rate b. Temperature c. Pain d. Respiratory rate When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he will be able to make a(n) ________. a. Prognosis b. Etiology c. Cytology d. Diagnosis A recording of the electrical activity of a skeletal muscle is a(n) ________. a. electrocardiogram b. electromyogram c. mamogram d. mammogram The adjustments that maintain a stable environment within the body are known as ________. a. Homeostasis b. Metabolism c. Syndrome d. Pathology Taking an MRI of the knee is considered gross anatomy because it is ________. a. Difficult b. Visually unpleasant c. Has 144 steps d. Is large scale The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________. a. Depressing feedback loop b. Negative feedback loop c. Positive feedback loop d. Affirmative feedback loop Positive feedback is necessary in which of the following situations? a. Blood pressure b. Coughing c. Bleeding d. Childbirth Vital signs include all of the following except ________. a. Coloring b. Heart rate

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c. Respirations d. Temperature RBC is the abbreviation for ________. a. Really bad cut b. Red and blue circulation c. Red blood cells d. Ruptured blood clot The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following except ________. a. Coloring b. Heart rate c. Respirations d. Temperature Which is not a definition for disease? a. Not at ease b. A condition in which the body fails to function normally c. Anything that is a normal structure or function d. Anything that upsets normal structure or function The term tachycardia means ________. a. Fast heart rate b. Slow heart rate c. Rhythmic heart rate d. Study of the heart rate Which is not a symptom of metabolic syndrome? a. High triglycerides b. Low HDL level c. High blood pressure d. Vomiting and diarrhea A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________. a. Fruity flavored chewing gum b. Clay or starchy paste c. Sweat d. Maple The prefix hyper means ________. a. Small b. Above normal c. Below normal d. Within The suffix oma means ________. a. Cutting into b. Enlargement of c. Surgically forming an opening d. Tumor The suffix algia means ________. a. Inflammation

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b. Cell c. Pertaining to d. Pain The abbreviation for a stroke is ________ and the letters stand for ________. a. CPR, cardiopulmonary resuscitation b. CAD, coronary artery disease c. CVA, cerebrovascular accident d. CVA, cardiovascular accident Most fevers are the body’s way of ________. a. Killing all pathogens b. Breaking up the cells of the pathogens c. Making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive d. Preventing pathogens from reproducing Sweating at night may indicate ________. a. Tuberculosis b. Hodgkin’s disease c. Riboflavin deficiency d. Skin cancer According to the rules of medical terminology, hepatitis is defined as ________. a. Liver failure b. Inflammation of the liver c. Cirrhosis d. Blood clotting The abbreviation used for twice a day is ________. a. TAD b. TID c. p.r.n d. BID Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________. a. Metric system b. English system c. Scientific notation d. International system The diagnostic procedure is begun by first determining the ________. a. Prognosis b. Syndrome c. Chief complaint d. Laboratory tests ________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease. a. Anatomy b. Physiology c. Pathology d. Ornithology

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

33. The term osteoma can be defined as ________. a. Cutting of the skin b. Tumor of the bone c. Tumor of the eye d. Cutting into the eye 34. The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute. a. 10–30 b. 70–120 c. 90–170 d. 60–100 35. The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease. a. Prognosis b. Diagnosis c. Acute determination d. Syndrome 36. Disease-producing microorganisms that invade the body are known as ________. a. Neogenic b. Aerobic c. Cytophrenic d. Pathogenic 37. A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________. a. Disease b. Physiology c. Nosocomial d. Epidemiology 38. The cause of a disease is called its ________. a. Disease b. Pathology c. Nosocomial d. Etiology 39. A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known by which of the following names? a. Diagnosis b. Chief complaint c. Syndrome d. Relapse 40. A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions? a. High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL b. High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides c. Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides d. Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL 41. A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following except ________. a. Diabetes

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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b. Heart attack c. Horner’s Syndrome d. Stroke ________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium. a. Homeostasis b. Negative feedback loop c. Positive feedback loop d. Metabolism ________ is a mechanism in our body that continually senses the internal and external environment and the body makes adjustments to maintain homeostasis. a. Homeostasis b. Negative feedback loop c. Positive feedback loop d. Metabolism ________ is known as a “vicious cycle.” In most cases, this is harmful if the vicious cycle cannot be broken; sometimes it is necessary for a process to run to completion. a. Homeostasis b. Negative feedback loop c. Positive feedback loop d. Metabolism Which of the following are examples of a sign? a. Temperature b. Pulse c. Pain d. a and b All of the following are symptoms except ________. a. Pain b. Respiratory rate c. Dizziness d. Itchiness

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. ____________ or macro anatomy represents the study of the structures visible to the unaided or naked eye.

2. The study of cellular structure is called ____________.

3. ____________ is the study of structure.

4. ____________ is the study of how structures work.

5. The study of disease is called pathology or ____________.

6. The word root in pericarditis is ____________.

7. A record of the breast is a(n) ____________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

8. ____________ are the combining forms for nose.

9. The process of recording the electrical activity of the heart is a(an) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).

10. ____________ means “fear of.”

11. Forming a surgical opening in the colon is called ____________.

12. One who studies nerves is a(n) ____________.

13. A group of signs and symptoms is known as a(n) ____________.

14. If blood sugar falls, the body uses negative feedback to ____________ blood sugar.

15. The ideal normal value of a variable is known as the _______________.

16. Breath that smells fruity may be an indication of ________ mellitus.

17. Spoon-shaped finger nail beds may indicate a(n) ________ deficiency in the body.

18. If a patient has had a “nose job” you would say in medical terms that they had a(n) ________, which means surgical repair of the nose.

19. The combining form for ________ is gastro and adding the suffix itis (which means inflammation) makes the medical term gastritis.

20. Changes in objective measurable values such as temperature (________) and subjective patient perceptions (symptoms) can indicate disease is present.

21. The suffix tomy means ________ into.

22. The prefix ________ indicates “above normal.”

23. The cycle of ever-increasing uterine contractions due to an ever-increasing release of oxytocin is an example of ________.

24. The word ________ is constructed using the definition “one who studies cells.”

25. The area of biology that focuses on the function and vital processes of the various structures making up the human body is ________.

26. The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.

27. Syndrome X is essentially a syndrome that is created as a result of poor diet and lack of ________.

28. Another name for Syndrome X is the ___________ syndrome.

29. The artery found near the elbow is called the _________ artery.

30. The average ________ body temperature in centigrade is thirty seven degrees.

31. The body temperature is controlled by the _______________.

32. The abbreviation for immediately is ________.

33. The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is _____________ 34. The abbreviation for the technique to be performed on a pulseless and nonbreathing patient is ______.

35. ACLS stands for __________ 36. The study of tissue samples is known as ________.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. .

Anatomy in Greek means to cut apart.

-Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body.

Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

____ 3. Macro means small. ____ 4. -A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a Staph infection. ____ 5. -Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal. ____ 6. Tachycardia means a slow heart rate. ____ 7. Glyc/o is the combining form for sugar. ____ 8. Leuk/o is the combining form for cell. ____ 9. Hyp/o means above normal. ____10. -An appendectomy means the surgical removal of the appendix. ____11. Stat means right away or immediately. ____12. A telescope views small objects. ____13. -Cutting into a vein is called phlebotomy. ____14. -Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally. ____15. Pain is a vital sign.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Discuss how using abbreviations can either help or hinder communication among health care professionals. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Discuss how behaviors and environmental factors can contribute to disease. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Define homeostasis. How is a control center important in maintaining homeostasis? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. What are “vital signs” and why are they called “vital?” _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

5. Discuss positive and negative feedback loops. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 2 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Knowing the exact body region of a sign or symptom can help a health care worker determine the a. Proper diagnosis b. Patient’s size c. Extent of injury d. Proper medication 2. A body in the prone position is a. Face up b. On left side c. On right side d. Face down 3. A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into a. Squares b. Sections c. Organs d. Tissues 4. Directional terms are used as ____________ within the body. a. Vertical points b. Horizontal points c. Lateral points d. Reference points 5. The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts? a. Superior and inferior b. Internal and external c. Right and left d. Anterior and posterior 6. If –emia means ”blood” then this term means high blood glucose. a. hyperglycemia b. hypercholesterolemia c. hyperlipidemia d. hyperbacteremia

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

7. What directional term would you use to indicate the ankle if the knee is your point of reference? a. External b. Distal c. Internal d. Proximal 8. A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she is complaining of severe tibial pain. Where is her pain? a. Her foot b. Her lower leg c. Her knee d. Her thigh 9. The heart and lungs are located in the ____________ cavity. a. Posterior b. Abdominal c. Pelvic d. Thoracic 10. Dorsal cavities contain which organs? a. Diaphragm b. Brain and spinal cord c. Stomach d. Pancreas 11. The hypochondrial region is located beneath the __________? a. Ribs b. Heart c. Stomach d. Liver 12. A woman involved in a high speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one? a. Cranial b. Spinal c. Thoracic d. Abdominal 13. The space within the mouth is known as the ____________ cavity a. Nasal b. Orbital c. Cranial d. Oral 14. The belly button is located in which region? a. Epigastric b. Umbilical c. Iliac d. Hypogastric 15. Pain in the ____________ quadrant can be a sign of appendicitis.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a. RUQ b. LUQ c. RLQ d. LLQ Which test gives the greatest detail of tissue structures? a. MRI b. EKG c. Blood test d. X-ray Cyanosis is a condition that is usually a result of low levels of ________ within the body. a. Blood b. Oxygen c. Saline d. Calcium The cervical spine contains how many vertebrae? a. 12 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ? a. Spleen b. Kidney c. Lung d. Brain The type of scan that provides a series of cross-sectional slices of the body is ________. a. MRI b. Ultrasound c. CT scan d. Sonography Blood is most commonly drawn from ________. a. Deep veins b. Central veins c. Superficial veins d. Deep arteries Jugular venous distention is visible in the ________ area. a. Neck b. Chest c. Brain d. Lungs The Fowlers’ position facilitates ________. a. Sleeping b. All treatments c. Dizziness

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Breathing An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to ________. a. The brain b. The heart c. Spleen d. The sternum A patient with peripheral cyanosis needs ___. a. Oxygen b. White blood cells c. Insulin d. Potassium The danger of a hernia is ________. a. Internal bleeding b. Blood flow is restricted to the portion of the organ protruding c. When an umbilical hernia becomes an inguinal hernia d. When the muscle protrudes through an organ The supine position ________. a. Describes the body lying face upward b. Is also called the anatomical position c. Describes the body lying face downward d. Both a and b Because humans stand and move upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term ________. a. Inferior b. Posterior c. Anterior d. Distal A ________ section would divide the eyes from the back of the head. a. Sagittal b. Frontal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal ________ devices use a narrowly focused X-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body. a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. X-ray c. Ultrasound d. Computed tomography (CT) scanning The prone position ________. a. Describes the body lying face upward b. Is also called the anatomical position c. Describes the body lying face downward d. Both b and c The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels. a. Thoracic cavity

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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b. Abdominopelvic cavity c. Cranial cavity d. Spinal cavity The skin is ________ to the bones. a. Superficial b. Medial c. Inferior d. Deep The opposite of superficial is ________. a. Deep b. Inferior c. Posterior d. Medial A section that would divide the body into mirror images would be ________. a. A frontal section b. A cross section c. A midsagittal section d. A transverse section The liver can be found ________. a. In the right upper quadrant (RUQ) b. In the epigastric region c. In the hypogastric region d. Both a and b The ankle is a ________ structure. a. Central b. Peripheral c. Thoracic d. Superior If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position. a. Supine b. Prone c. Orthoptic d. Abdominal The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck. a. Sacral b. Thoracic c. Cervical d. Cranial The lungs are ________ to the heart. a. Medial b. Lateral c. Superficial d. Infraorbital A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane. a. Sagittal

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b. Coronal c. Midsagittal d. Transverse Trendelenburg position may be contraindicated in patients with ________. a. Cerebral injury b. Hypertension c. Skin disease d. None of the above Cyanosis causes what coloration of the skin? a. Red b. Blue c. Black d. White Cyanosis is usually the result of low levels of ________ in the blood. a. Carbon dioxide b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Carbon monoxide Which of the following is much more serious than the other conditions? a. Acrocyanosis b. Central cyanosis c. Peripheral cyanosis d. None of the above The most common type of radiologic diagnostic modality is the ________. a. X-ray b. CT scan c. MRI d. Ultrasound The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated by the ________. a. Ribs b. Spinal cord c. Diaphragm d. Sternum The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________. a. Circulation b. Digestion c. Reproduction d. Breathing A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the pain located? a. RUQ b. RLQ c. LUQ d. LLQ

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

50. Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located? a. LUQ b. LLQ c. RUQ d. RLQ 51. The doctor has ordered a study to look at the action of heart valves. Which procedure has he ordered? a. X-ray b. CT Scan c. MRI d. Ultrasound 52. A patient is scheduled to undergo a test and has stated that she has had surgery for a valve replacement. Which procedure could be contraindicated in this situation? a. X-ray b. CT Scan c. MRI d. Ultrasound

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. The ____________ position is lying with the head lower than the feet.

2. The ____________ position is with the bed or examination table elevated 45-60 degrees.

3. The transverse (horizontal) plane divides the body into superior and ____________ areas.

4. ____________ refers to body parts located away from the midline.

5. The frontal or____________ plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections.

6. Posterior or ____________ means towards the back of the body.

7. ____________ refers to body parts close to a point of reference on the body.

8. ____________ means on the outside.

9. The word meaning at or towards the body surface is ____________.

10. The opposite of dorsal is anterior or ____________.

11. The nose is ____________ to the eyes and ____________ to the mouth.

12. If your hands and feet are swollen with fluid, you are said to have ____________ or pedal edema.

13. Death of tissue is called ____________.

14. The anterior surface of the elbow is called ____________.

15. Antiperspirant sprays are used in the ____________ region.

16. The ________ position is laying face upward.

17. The wrist is ________ to the hand and ________ to the elbow.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

18. When the head is lower than the heart, gravity increases the blood flow and therefore increases the cerebral or ________ pressure.

19. Left and right always refers to the ________ left and right.

20. Digital oxygen sensors would be placed on a(n) __________.

21. Patients are more prone to aspirate vomitus into their lungs in the Trendelenburg position and therefore should not ________ within two to four hours of being placed in that position.

22. The ______________region of the arm is usually where blood pressures are taken.

23. Pain in the general stomach area can indicate a variety of problems, including an ulcer, heart attack, appendicitis, ________ , or liver problems.

24. One of the problems with an X-ray film is that it is a two ________ view of a specific area.

25. A(n) ________ is a tear in the muscle wall that can allow a structure (usually an organ) to protrude through it.

26. The ________ regions are located on either side of the epigastric region and contain the lower ribs.

27. The ________ position is sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 60 degrees.

28. Placing patients with secretions in the bases of their lungs in the ________ position helps drain those segments of the lungs.

29. ________ imagers use magnetic energy to produce cross sectional images of body structures.

30. A patient is placed in a supine position and instructed to raise his or her right leg while the practitioner places a hand on the patient’s right thigh and gives a slight opposing downward force. This procedure is known as the ________ test.

31. ________ is a condition of bluish colored skin that is usually the result of low levels of oxygen in the blood.

32. The ________ region is where the thigh meets the trunk and is also called the groin region.

33. The Psoas test is used to test for _______________.

34. Death of the tissue is termed ____________.

35. Heart failure can cause the back-up of fluid into the venous system thus causing the neck or ________ veins to become engorged with extra blood.

36. A hernia of the “belly button” would be termed an _____________ hernia.

37. The opposite of distal is ___________________.

38. The opposite of deep is ______________.

39. Cyanosis found in the hands and feet would be called peripheral or __________ 40. A(n) ________ is a two dimensional view of a specific area.

41. A(n) ________ scan creates a three dimensional view of structures in the body.

42. A patient is in the Intensive Care Unit, has just had brain surgery and is suffering from an increased intracranial pressure. The ________ position is contraindicated in this situation.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -The anatomical position is a human being standing erect facing forward with feet parallel and arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward. ____ 2. -The Fowler’s position is the best position for patients having trouble breathing. ____ 3. -The prone position is best for the pelvic exam. ____ 4. Cranial means superior. ____ 5. Medial means to the side. ____ 6. -Computed tomography (CT) scanning uses a narrowly focused x-ray beam that circles rapidly around the body. ____ 7. -A CT scan can show the true depth of a quarter-sized tumor shown on regular x-ray. ____ 8. Peripheral refers to the torso and head. ____ 9. The opposite of superficial is lateral. ____10. The cranial cavity houses the brain. ____11. -An orbital injury can cause damage to sight. ____12. -The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. ____13. Digital means fingers and toes. ____14. Cervical means relating to the knee. ____15. Brachial means lower leg.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. List two organs or structures found in each of the RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, and LLQ. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. List and explain the major body planes and sections. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. If a patient complains of pain, what questions should you ask? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

4. Give the common name for the following body regions: femoral, gluteal, lumbar, antebrachial and cervical. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Give the opposite of: caudal, distal, external, superficial, and posterior. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 3 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) ________. a. Atom b. Molecule c. Element d. Ion 2. Atoms or molecules which carry a charge are called ________. a. Elements b. Protons c. Neutrons d. Ions 3. In a person with diabetes, blood may often become acidic. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes? a. 7.4 b. 10.5 c. 6.0 d. 13.2 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of an covalent bond? a. Electrons are shared b. Electrons are donated c. The molecule is always polar d. Protons are involved in the bond 5. The molecule paraffin has the formula C20H44. What does that tell you about the molecule? a. It is a protein

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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b. It is hydrophobic c. It is a nucleic acid d. It is polar In a solution, the ______________ is dissolved in the _________________. a. molecule, element b. solute, solvent c. solvent, solute d. element, molecule Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________. a. Polysaccharide b. Disaccharide c. Monosaccharide d. Saccharin This type of lipid molecule is important in the structure and function of cell membranes ________. a. Wax b. Phospholipid c. Triglyceride d. Estrogen The building blocks of proteins are ________. a. Nucleic acids b. Amino acids c. Oleic acids d. Lewis acids The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________. a. Dehydration synthesis b. Hydrolysis c. Hydration d. Hydrogen bonding What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication? a. Destroy tissue b. Fight infection c. Build up tissue d. Increase fertility These molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions ________. a. Proteins b. Enzymes c. Antibodies d. ATP During this series of reactions, your cells use glucose to make energy ________. a. Metabolism b. Enzyme catalyzed c. Cellular respiration d. Blood clotting

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

14. This high energy molecule is made and spent by cells during metabolism ________. a. ATP b. ADP c. AMP d. A&P 15. Which of the following has the highest energy? a. ATP b. ADP c. AMP d. A&P 16. A dietary source for iodine is ________: a. celery b. sea food c. beef d. pork 17. A symptom of fluorine deficiency is ________: a. acne b. hair loss c. dental cavities d. low blood pressure 18. A lack of the ability of the body to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________: a. iron b. copper c. zinc d. gold 19. The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________: a. glucose b. glycogen c. hemoglobin d. lipids 20. Glucose is used by the cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________: a. krebs cycle b. cellular ventilation c. cellular perfusion d. cellular respiration

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. Two or more elements joined together is a compound or __________________.

2. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and _______________.

3. The _____________ scale is used to measure the strength of acids and bases.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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A molecule that will mix with water is called ___________________.

A molecule with the molecular formula CH2O is a(n) ________________. ____________________ are lipid molecules arranged in rings. ____________________ molecules may be used for energy storage, movement and protection against infection. _________________ are the types of molecules involved in cell control and genetics.

All the chemical reactions in a cell are collectively referred to as _________________.

Enzymes can only take particular substrates through particular reactions, because enzymes are ___________________.

Cellular respiration requires both glucose and ________________. _____________________ molecules have nitrogen in their backbone.

The fluid in your body is mainly _________________.

To digest food your body needs special molecules called ___________ that help break down large molecules. ______________ molecules have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____10. ____11. ____12. ____13. ____14. ____15.

Ions are hydrophobic.

-Physiologically important ions are called trace elements.

-Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties.

Lead is a biological molecule.

Covalent bonds are polar.

A solution with pH 8 is basic.

Water can store more heat than air.

Disaccharides are a type of lipid.

All steroids are unhealthy.

-Many carbohydrates are energy storage molecules.

Proteins have peptide bonds.

-Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature.

Enzymes can be inhibited.

-During cellular respiration, no ATP is made.

-Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Distinguish between the major types of chemical bonds. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Explain the function of enzymes. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Explain the molecular differences between carbohydrates, lipids and proteins. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Explain the structure of an atom. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Explain metabolism. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 4 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The organelles that provide 95% of the body’s energy are ________. a. Ribosomes b. Mitochondria c. Adenosines d. Cytoplasma 2. Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion by the use of ____________. a. Centrioles b. Cilia

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c. Vesicles d. Flagella The molecule made by mitochondria that provides the power to the cell is ________. a. ATP b. RNA c. ADP d. DNA A series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane is ________. a. Golgi apparatus b. Facilitated diffusion c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Cell membrane Given that they have lots of golgi, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)? a. Lipid synthesis b. DNA synthesis c. Protein synthesis d. Secretion and storage The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out by ________. a. Lysosomes b. Lipids c. Filaments d. Ribosomes The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the ________. a. Cytoskeleton b. Endoskeleton c. Exoskeleton d. Microskeleton ____________ are short, hair-like projections found on the outer surface of specific cells. a. Capsids b. Vesicles c. Cilia d. Flagella The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are ________. a. Proteins b. Phospholipids c. Cholesterol d. ATP When all the carrier molecules are full and no more molecules can be carried across the cell membrane, this is called ________.

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a. Inhibition b. Saturation c. Competition d. Specificity Which microorganism has the ability to become part of the cell and is then much harder to destroy? a. Virus b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Protozoa Which molecule is least likely to be able to pass through a cell membrane without help? a. H2O b. CH4 c. C6H12O6 d. C7H16 The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled by the ________. a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane c. Lysosomes d. Golgi apparatus The cells that make up the human body are called ________. a. Mitotic cells b. Meiotic cells c. Eukaryotic cells d. Chromosomal cells What section of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division? a. Interphase b. Cellphase c. Duophase d. Mitosis phase When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________. a. RNA b. ADP c. DNA d. ATP An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________. a. Organelle b. Pathogen c. Magnetosome d. Centriole Which microorganism is spread by the release of spores? a. Bacteria

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b. Virus c. Fungi d. Protozoa Which disease is caused by a protozoan? a. Candidiasis b. Shingles c. Malaria d. Strep The substance commonly transported during facilitated diffusion is ________. a. Glucose b. Sodium c. Cytoplasm d. Potassium All of the following can reproduce asexually except ________. a. Animal cells b. Plant cells c. Viruses d. Bacteria The mitosis phase has four divisions; when do the chromosomes split? a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Telephase Cancer is diagnosed by a variety of techniques, including all of these except ________. a. Biopsy b. Blood test c. Chemotherapy d. Imaging Micro-organisms that live within or on us normally are collectively called ________. a. Cancer cells b. Normal flora c. Epithelial cells d. White blood cells Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________. a. Chromatin b. Eukaryosis c. Interphase d. Binary fission Which of these is not a function of the cell membrane? a. Protein synthesis b. Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell c. Identifying the cell

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d. Holding the cell together These are called the “power plants” of the cell ________. a. Ribosome b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Lysosomes Which of these is not part of a cell? a. The plasma membrane b. The interstitial fluid c. The cytoplasm d. The nucleus e. All of the above are part of the cell These organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste ________. a. Ribosomes b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondria d. Lysosomes This is the site of protein synthesis in the cell ________. a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Ribosomes d. Golgi apparatus This organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell ________. a. Ribosome b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Lysosome These are extremely fine hair-like structures on the surface of the cell ________. a. Cilia b. Microvilli c. Flagella d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum This is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher concentration through a membrane ________. a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Filtration d. Dialysis During this phase of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart ________. a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase

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d. Interphase During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell ________. a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Prophase This general process is utilized by the cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane ________. a. Pinocytosis b. Endocytosis c. Exocytosis d. Phagocytosis ________ are unique because they cannot grow, “eat,” or reproduce by themselves. a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Protozoans d. Viruses Ninety percent of the cell’s life is spent in which phase during the cell cycle ________. a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Anaphase d. Metaphase e. Telophase An example of fungal infection is ________. a. Athlete’s foot b. Thrush c. Common cold d. a and b only Malaria is caused by which of the following types of infections? a. Viral b. Bacterial c. Protozoan d. Fungal Signs and symptoms of bacterial infection may include ________. a. High fever b. Rapid pulse c. Pain and swelling d. All of the above

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

1. Parts of the cell are called ____________.

2. Because all substances cannot pass easily through it, cell membranes are known as selectively permeable or _______________________ membranes.

3. ____________ is the process in which a substance travels from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

4. The process of blocking a carrier is called ______________________.

5. _______________ is a process in which water will travel across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.

6. When a cell membrane actively surrounds a solid substance and forms a vesicle which moves into the cell, this is called ____________.

7. The ____________ is the control center of the cell.

8. ____________ act as power plants in the cell.

9. ____________ are whip-like tails that help cells move.

10. Normal ____________ are bacteria that are normal in the body.

11. ____________ are pathogens that are surrounded by capsids.

12. When cells make copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, it is called ____________.

13. The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all the genetic material is called ____________.

14. The phase in which the chromosomes become visible is ____________.

15. The word for non-cancerous is ____________.

16. ________ are tiny building blocks of all matter which combine to form molecules.

17. ________ is the process in which water travels through a selectively permeable membrane to equalize concentrations of a solute.

18. ________ involves using pressure to force water and its solutes through a membrane.

19. The ________ is a series of channels in the cytoplasm.

20. ________ are microscopic, hair-like projections on the outer surface of some cells.

21. A(n) ________ packages and delivers proteins.

22. Any time a new cell is made, it is made by a process of ________.

23. The brief portion of the cell cycle that is devoted to actual cell division is the ________ phase.

24. The phase in which the chromosomes split and the spindles pull apart is ________.

25. Viruses cannot grow, eat, or reproduce by themselves, but must enter another ________ to do its cellular activities.

26. Bacteria, which are prokaryotes, grow rapidly and reproduce by splitting in ________.

27. Following the analogy in your book, consider ribosomes the manufacturing plant for building materials used for ________ and repair.

28. The breaking off and spreading of malignant cells is called ________.

29. Benign tumors typically grow slowly, and push ________ cells out of the way.

30. Without mitosis, your body would not be able to grow, or replace old or ________ cells.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

31. Viruses can stay dormant in the body and become ________ once again, later in life.

32. Examples of fungal infections are athlete’s foot and a mouth fungus called ________ or candidiasis.

33. The ability of a substance to “pull” water toward an area of higher concentration of the solute is called ________.

34. Mitosis is the division and sorting of the genetic material, while ________ is the division of the cytoplasm.

35. An organism that produces disease is called a(n) ________.

36. Viruses have their genetic material surrounded by a protective protein coat called a(n) ________.

37. Bacterial infections are treated with ________, chemicals that can kill the prokaryotic bacteria without harming eukaryotic cells.

38. ________ differs from osmosis in that pressure is applied to force water and dissolved materials across a membrane.

39. A spherical body made up of dense fibers called the ________ is found within the cell nucleus.

40. The ________ is a network of microtubules and interconnected filaments that provide shape to the cell and allow the cell and its contents to be mobile.

41. Fungi can spread through the release of ________.

42. ________ are bacteria that live within or on us and are normally harmless.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. The stomach is an organelle. ____ 2. -Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes. ____ 3. -The ability of a substance to pull water towards an area of higher concentration of the solute is filtration. ____ 4. -Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product. ____ 5. -If water is transported across a cell, it is known as phagocytosis. ____ 6. -Cytoplasm is composed of water, nutrients, and electrolytes. ____ 7. Chromatin is found in the nucleus. ____ 8. All cells have cell membranes. ____ 9. -The centriole is a whip-like organelle used for cell movement. ____10. -The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris. ____11. Lysis means to break down. ____12. -Metastasis is spreading of benign cancer cells. ____13. Some bacteria are not pathogenic. ____14. -The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. ____15. -Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Compare and contrast active and passive transport. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Describe how isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic salt solutions affect osmotic pressure. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Discuss the characteristics of carrier mediated transport. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Discuss the levels of organization in the human body from smallest to largest. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Discuss how cancer is mitosis run amok. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 5 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Cells that are arranged in several layers are called ____________ cells. a. Cuboidal

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b. Stratified c. Columnar d. Squamous The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of cell? a. Simple squamous b. Transitional c. Simple cuboidal d. Simple columnar This connective tissue has cells in lacunae in a gel-like matrix ________. a. Cartilage b. Areolar c. Regular d. Reticular Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________. a. Swell b. Mutate c. Shorten d. Strengthen This connective tissue has cells in a mineral matrix ________. a. Cartilage b. Reticular c. Bone d. Blood Which membrane is the largest organ of the integumentary system? a. Cutaneous b. Mucous c. Parietal d. Visceral The colon is an organ included in which body system? a. Gastrointestinal b. Cardiovascular c. Integumentary d. Reproductive Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ? a. Heart b. Gallbladder c. Lung d. Liver The production of blood cells occurs within which body system? a. Cardiovascular b. Muscular c. Endocrine d. Skeletal Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body? a. Rough

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b. Glia c. Smooth d. Striated Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D Processing and interpreting information, motor functions and sensory functions are responsibilities of which body system? a. Muscular b. Nervous c. Sensory d. Endocrine Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ? a. Ear b. Eye c. Nose d. Throat What is the first step in wound healing? a. Regeneration b. Inflammation c. Organization d. Scarring Which of the following tissues regenerates well? a. Cardiac muscle b. Nervous Tissue c. Smooth Muscle d. Bone An example of a synovial joint would be the ________. a. Axis b. Brachial c. Temporal d. Knee The movement of food is a function of ________ muscles. a. Involuntary b. Sensory c. Cardiac d. Striated Maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the blood is carried out by which body system? a. Skeletal b. Respiratory c. Musculoskeletal d. Integumentary

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

19. T-Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function? a. Producing red blood cells b. Genetic reproduction c. Saliva production d. Fighting infection 20. Mucous is ________. a. The type of membrane b. The material that collects in the corner of the eye c. The actual substance secreted by membranes d. The substance secreted by synovial membranes 21. Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced by the ________ system. a. Cardiovascular b. Lymphatic c. Integumentary d. Endocrine 22. A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system. a. Nervous b. Urinary c. Reproductive d. Cardiovascular 23. One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced by ________. a. Trauma b. Dizziness c. Sleeplessness d. Nausea 24. The term tachypnea means ________. a. Fast breathing b. Fast heart rate c. Fast blood pressure rise d. Fast spike in temperature 25. The body’s largest organ is ________. a. The liver b. The brain c. The large intestine d. The skin 26. The skeletal system includes all but which of the following? a. Bones b. Cartilage c. Ligaments d. All of the above are included in the skeletal system 27. This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach ________. a. Skeletal b. Voluntary

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c. Smooth d. Cardiac This type of muscle tissue is found in the heart ________. a. Skeletal b. Voluntary c. Smooth d. Cardiac Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system? a. Thyroid b. Pituitary c. Hypothalamus d. Salivary Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Small intestine d. Both a and c This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body ________. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body ________. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form ________. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body ________. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous This type of tissue can be classified by the shape and arrangement of its cells ________. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle

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d. Nervous The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances necessary for life to the cells, and transports waste products away from the cells. a. Cardiovascular b. Urinary c. Digestive d. Respiratory When cells are arranged in a scale-like or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________. a. Squamous b. Cuboidal c. Columnar d. Transitional Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system? a. cutaneous b. parietal c. visceral d. mucous Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs? a. parietal b. mucous c. visceral d. cutaneous Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity? a. cutaneous b. parietal c. mucous d. visceral

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. When similar cells act together to perform a function, they are called a(n) ____________.

2. Any avascular tissue with no extracellular matrix and an obvious top surface is __________________ tissue.

3. The ______________ tissue is a single layer of plate-like cells.

4. Muscle tissue that is striated is called skeletal or ____________.

5. A torn ligament involves damage to ________________ connective tissue.

6. Membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord are called ____________.

7. The membrane layer that wraps around individual organs is called ____________.

8. Nervous tissue has two types of cells _______________ and glia.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

9. Adipose tissue is more commonly known as _______________.

10. Tissue healing begins with cells called ______________________ which draw the edges of the wound together.

11. The ____________ system delivers oxygen to the bloodstream.

12. The ____________ system acts as a storm drain and protects the body.

13. The ____________ system is the main storage for calcium.

14. The sensory or ____________ system provides sensory information from the external world.

15. The ____________ system rids the body of carbon dioxide.

16. In a serous membrane, the membrane layer that lines cavities is called ________.

17. The combining form for joints is ________.

18. The combining form for vein is ven/o, veni/i and ________.

19. The limbs are part of the ________ skeleton.

20. The skin and hair are parts of the ________ system.

21. ________ are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue.

22. Special structures called lymph nodes act as filters to capture unwanted particles or ________.

23. Hormones produced by the ________ system help you to deal with general stress and stress produced by infection and trauma.

24. The ________ system helps regulate the number of red blood cells and the acidbase and electrolyte balance of blood.

25. The ________ layer lines the wall of the cavities in which organs reside.

26. A membrane associated with connective tissue is the ________ membrane.

27. Skeletal muscle is described as ________ because of its striped appearance.

28. ________ are conscious (and unconscious) feelings or an awareness of conditions that occur inside and outside of the body.

29. The membranes associated with covering the brain and spinal cord are called ________.

30. The branchlike formations that receive sensory information are called ________.

31. The ________ layer, which also produces serous fluids, wraps around the individual organs.

32. The body’s first line of protection is its ________.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. Squamous cells are column-like. ____ 2. -Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional. ____ 3. Mucus lubricates tissue. ____ 4. -Connective tissue is the most common tissue. ____ 5. Blood is a connective tissue. ____ 6. -Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle. ____ 7. -Swelling is always a negative symptom which should be prevented at all costs.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

____ 8. Nervous tissue regenerates well. ____ 9. -A mucous membrane is a double layered membrane with a potential space between the layers. ____10. The liver is part of the urinary system. ____11. -The cardiovascular system is one of the body’s control systems. ____12. Veins carry blood away from the heart. ____13. -The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system. ____14. -Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system. ____15. -Hormones are chemicals which circulate in the bloodstream.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain the relationship between cells, tissues, organs and systems. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Choose one system and list the parts of that system. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Distinguish between connective and epithelial tissue. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Explain the steps in wound healing. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Compare and contrast cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscle. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

CHAPTER 6 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance? a. Short b. Long c. Regular d. Irregular 2. The ends of long bones are known as the ____________. a. Medulla b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Epiphyses 3. A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ____________. a. Crest b. Head c. Spine d. Condyle 4. A ____________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone. a. Facet b. Sinus c. Fossa d. Meatus 5. An ____________ is a mature bone cell. a. Osteoprogenitor b. Osteoblast c. Osteoclast d. Osteocyte 6. Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone by ____________. a. Osteoprogenitors b. Osteoclasts c. Osteons d. Osteoblasts 7. Bone growth will continue for as long as the ____________ plate exists. a. Diaphyseal b. Epiphyseal c. Osteon d. Medullary 8. ____________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones. a. Spongy bone b. Cartilage

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c. Bone marrow d. Synovium This type of joint is held together by connective tissue strands ________. a. Gliding b. Synovial c. Cartilaginous d. Fibrous What type of joint is formed when an oval shaped bone fits into an elliptical cavity? a. Pivot b. Gliding c. Hinge d. Ellipsoidal The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ____________ joints. a. Pivot b. Fibrous c. Ball and socket d. Saddle This movement occurs when you turn your foot toward the other foot ________. a. Eversion b. Inversion c. Pronation d. Flexion The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________. a. Epiphyses b. Diaphysis c. Articular cartilage d. Central Canal The bone disease ____________ is a degenerative disorder, characterized by thinning bones. a. Osteoporosis b. Osteitis c. Osteomyelitis d. Osteosarcomas The last stage in bone repair is ________. a. Remodeling b. Bony callus formation c. Soft callus formation d. Hematoma formation Which mineral is included in the composition of bone? a. Iodine b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Iron The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton.

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a. Superior b. Axial c. Inferior d. Appendicular Lordosis is a(n) ________ curvature of the lower back and is commonly called ________. a. Left lateral, swayback b. Posterior, swayback c. Anterior, swayback d. Anterior, hunchback Your textbook lists eight causative agents for bone and joint disorders other than osteoporosis and arthritis. Which of these is not one of them? a. Nutritional disorders b. Degenerative disorders c. Tumors d. Osteomalacia ________ is a nutritional disorder caused by a vitamin D deficiency. a. Osteomalacia b. Rickets c. Scurvy d. Both a and b Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders? a. Infection b. Congenital c. Trauma d. Secondary If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to ________. a. Kyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Lordosis d. All of the above Which of these is not a type of arthritis? a. Rheumatoid b. Osteo c. Septic d. Cruciate A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton. a. Thoracic b. Appendicular c. Axial d. Spinal This refers to the shaft of a long bone ________. a. Epiphyses

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b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone ________. a. Epiphyses b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum This term refers to the ends of a long bone ________. a. Epiphyses b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum This membrane lines the spongy bone ________. a. Epiphyses b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum This is the location in the bone where hemopoiesis occurs ________. a. Epiphyses b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Medullary cavity The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called ________. a. The endosteum b. The cancellous c. The osteon d. The trabeculae The bar and plate-like tissue of spongy bone are called ________. a. Flagellite b. Osteocytes c. Osteon d. Trabeculae Bone-building cells are called ________. a. Osteoblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteocytes d. Hemopoietics The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________. a. Haversian system b. Diaphysis c. Epiphyseal plate d. Chondrocytes An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called ________. a. Lordosis

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b. Kyphosis c. Scoliosis d. Convexities The number of pairs of true ribs is ________. a. 12 b. 14 c. 5 d. 7 These joints permit the widest range of movement ________. a. Hinge b. Pivot c. Saddle d. Ball and socket This bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies ________. a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Paget’s disease Ensuring that young children had a sufficient amount of vitamin D would prevent ________. a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Paget’s disease Another name for a compound fracture is ________. a. An open fracture b. A closed fracture c. A comminuted fracture d. An impacted fracture ________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints. a. Arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. Gout d. Bursitis ________ is a degenerative condition that is a result of simple “wearing out” of a joint from a sports injury, trauma, repetitive motion, obesity, or just the aging process. a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. Gout d. Bursitis ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.

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a. Gout b. Bursitis c. Septic arthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis ________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint from a penetrating wound or a blood-borne pathogen. a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Gout c. Septic arthritis d. Arthritis A cleft palate is an example of which of the following? a. Congenital disorder b. Degenerative disorder c. Infection d. Nutritional disorder Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following? a. Congenital disorder b. Infection c. Degenerative disorder d. Nerve disorder Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis include which of the following? a. Joint develops a crooked deformation b. Greater range of motion c. Painful swelling of affected joint d. a and c only This is a common sports injury caused by twisting of the leg, or an anterior or posterior blow when the leg is planted or bearing weight ________. a. Cruciate ligament tears b. Gout c. Osteomalacia d. Osteoporosis

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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The hollow region in the bone is the ____________ cavity.

Tarsals are examples of ____________ bones.

Vertebrae are examples of ____________ bones.

Spongy bone tissue is arranged in bars and plates called ____________.

The production of red blood cells is known as erythropoiesis or____________.

An articulating end of a bone that is rounded and enlarged is called a(n) ____________.

7. A hollow area is a(n) ____________.

8. A tube or tunnel-like passageway through bone is a canal or____________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

9. The larger version of a tubercle located only on the femur is the ____________.

10. Ossification or ____________ is the term used to describe the formation of bone in the body.

11. Broken bones will not knit together unless they are touching or ___________.

12. The clavicle and skull bones form via __________________ ossification.

13. The tissue making up most of your skeleton until embryonic week 8 is known as ________________.

14. When joints become inflamed, this is called ____________.

15. ____________ means to move away.

16. The end of the bone is called the ________.

17. A special form of connective tissue that can withstand a fair amount of flexing, tension, and pressure is ________ or ligaments and tendons.

18. When joints become inflamed, it is called ________, .

19. When two or more bones meet, we have an ________.

20. ________ describes increasing the angle of a joint.

21. Cruciate ligament tears are treated with rest, immobilization, and/or ________ intervention.

22. Pain medication can include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen and ibuprofen. These drugs reduce ________, thus reducing pain and swelling.

23. Because of the continual breakdown of old and creation of new bone, adults actually need more calcium in their diets than do ________.

24. Osteoporosis is a metabolic problem with slow, progressive decrease in bone ________.

25. A compound or ________ fracture is particularly nasty because deep tissue has the potential to be exposed to bacteria once the bone is set into place, increasing the chance for infection.

26. A patient should see the doctor for any obvious bone deformity or misalignment of a(n) ________.

27. Very tough, whitish bands that connect from bone to bone are called ________.

28. Another term for the production of red blood cells is ________.

29. ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.

30. ________ bones are fairly equal sized in width and length, similar to a cube, and are mostly found in your wrists and ankles.

31. ________ joints are found in your knees and elbows.

32. If a bone is crushed to the point that it becomes fragmented or splintered, that is classified as a ________ fracture.

33. The ________ in women is different than in men. This fact can be used to identify the sex of a skeleton, such as in a murder case or an archeological find.

34. Osteoporosis research is showing that ________, especially weight bearing and impact forms, improves bone density.

35. ________ is a condition in which the upper portion of the spine exhibits a posterior curve, producing what is commonly called a humpback or hunchback.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

36. ________ is a lateral curvature of the spine.

37. ________ is an anterior curve of the lower back and is commonly called swayback.

38. A fine fracture that does not completely break or displace the bone is a(n) ________ fracture.

39. A(n) ________ or closed fracture is a break without a puncture to the skin.

40. An individual in an accident who has a bone that is severely twisted may receive a(n)________ fracture.

41. ________ fractures are incomplete breaks, which more often occur in children because they have softer, more pliable bone than adults.

42. A fracture in which the bone is pushed through the skin is referred to as a(n) ________ or open fracture.

43. Tendonitis or tendinitis often occurs in conjunction with ________.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -Bending your knee is an example of joint extension. ____ 2. -The deltoid muscle moves the arm away from the body. It is a flexor. ____ 3. Supination turns the palm downward. ____ 4. -One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton. ____ 5. -The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of the middle ear, and skull. ____ 6. The tarsals are the toe bones. ____ 7. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae. ____ 8. The skull has mainly synovial joints. ____ 9. -Once you reach puberty bone stops regenerating. ____10. -The heel of the foot is known as the acromion process. ____11. The patella is the kneecap. ____12. Bone is covered by endosteum. ____13. -The lining of a freely moving joint is cartilage only. ____14. Fibrous joints are not freely moving. ____15. -Arthritis is mainly caused by cracking your knuckles and slouching.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain the microanatomy of compact bone. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Describe how the body makes new bone.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. List five types of bone disorders. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. List three types of joint disorders. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Explain the steps in bone repair. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 7 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Thin myofilaments are called ________. a. Z bars b. Myosin c. Myofibril d. Actin 2. Muscles may be named using ________. a. Speed b. Action c. Age d. Myofilament type 3. When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract ____________ ion channels open. a. Phosphorus b. Sodium c. Myosin

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d. Actin Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ____________ as we sit. a. Strength b. Vasodilation c. Vasoconstriction d. Posture The _____________________ is the prime elbow flexor. a. Biceps femoris b. Biceps brachii c. Triceps brachii d. Flexor digitorum The _____________________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg. a. Gastrocnemium b. Latissimus dorsi c. Tibialis anterior d. Hamstrings Which type of muscle will not regenerate once it is severely damaged? a. Smooth b. Visceral c. Cardiac d. Skeletal Which term is used to designate muscle pain? a. Myalgia b. Ataxia c. Paralysis d. Spasm Which disorder affects the peripheral nervous system usually with ascending paralysis starting in the feet? a. Muscular dystrophy b. Guillain-Barré syndrome c. Myasthenia gravis d. Tetanus Striated muscles, which appear to have stripes, are in which type of muscle? a. Skeletal b. Internal c. Visceral d. Smooth Blood is pumped through the heart by which type of muscle? a. Skeletal b. Smooth c. Cardiac d. Visceral The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ____________. a. Point of movement

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b. Point of insertion c. Point of control d. Point of origin The only muscle that possesses both voluntary and involuntary abilities is the ________. a. Heart b. Lung c. Diaphragm d. Brain Rotation occurs when you have movement around a(n) ________. a. Axis b. Vessel c. Vertebrae d. Ball and socket The muscle movement that enables a joint to bend is the ________. a. Flexion b. Flexor c. Extension d. Extensor Muscle cells are made up of ________. a. Z bars b. Myosin c. Myofibrils d. Actin The myofilaments used during muscle contractions will return to their resting state when the ________ relax. a. Sarcomeres b. Myosin c. Actin d. Z Bars When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract, the ________ ion channels open. a. Phosphorus b. Sodium c. Myosin d. Actin Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle. a. 20 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 Approximately ________ percent of the body’s weight comes from its muscles. a. 15 b. 50 c. 65

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d. 80 The part of the muscle that attaches to the bone that is stationary is called the ________. a. Point of movement b. Point of insertion c. Point of control d. Point of origin The symptom of shin splints is ________. a. Patellar displacement b. Swelling in the wrist c. Pain in the tibia d. Bruising of the shins Myasthenia gravis is a(n) ________ disorder. a. Malignant b. Genetic c. Myosin d. Autoimmune The etiology of fibromyalgia is ________. a. Unknown b. Acute injury c. Sudden, involuntary muscle spasms d. Bacterial infection Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ defect in muscle protein a. Autoimmune b. Genetic c. Unknown d. Acute The bacteria clostridium tetani release a toxin that ________. a. Relaxes muscles and tightens ligaments b. Causes intermittent muscle spasms c. Causes the patient to go into shock d. Keeps muscles constantly contracted Which of the following is not a symptom of myopathy? a. Weakness b. Genetics c. Stiffness d. Spasm Atrophy means muscles ________. a. Have increased growth b. Waste away c. Will be scarred d. Develop excessively in childhood The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________. a. Botulinum toxin b. Clostridium tetani

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c. Staph d. Acetylcholine A severe muscle strain can cause all of the following symptoms except ________. a. Complete loss of movement b. Swelling c. Severe pain d. Fever The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________. a. Muscular dystrophy b. Tetanus c. Myasthenia gravis d. Fibromyalgia Another name for a voluntary muscle is ________. a. Striated muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Skeletal muscle d. Both a and c This type of muscle tissue contains striations. a. Voluntary muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Smooth muscle d. Both a and b Another name for visceral muscle is ________. a. Cardiac muscle b. Voluntary muscle c. Smooth muscle d. Striated muscle Strength training causes ________. a. Muscle atrophy b. A decrease in blood vessels to a muscle c. Muscle hypertrophy d. A decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell In the bending of the elbow ________. a. The triceps brachii is the synergist b. The biceps brachii is the prime mover c. The biceps brachii is the antagonist d. The brachialis is the prime mover The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________. a. Are synergistic for each other b. Both have their origin in the forearm c. Are antagonist to each other d. Both have their insertions in the shoulder Intercalated discs are found in ________. a. Striated muscle b. Cardiac muscle

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c. Smooth muscle d. All of the above Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________. a. Hypertrophy b. Ankylosis c. Atrophy d. Myositis ________ is an injury that is the result of overuse, overstretching, or forcible stretching of a muscle beyond its functional capacity. It sometimes involves a tendon or ligament. a. Avulsion b. Sprain c. Shin splints d. Strain A strong, tough strand or cord of dense connective tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________. a. A ligament b. Cartilage c. Adipose tissue d. A tendon Endurance training results in ________. a. Muscle atrophy b. An increase in blood vessels to a muscle c. Muscle hypertrophy d. An increase in muscle fibers The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________. a. Abduction b. Rotation c. Extension d. Supination ________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with actin. a. ATP b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Vitamin D All of the following can be used in naming a muscle except ________. a. Location of attachments b. Size c. Action d. Shape e. Color Pectoralis major is located in or near the ________. a. Elbow b. Chest

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c. Upper portion of the thigh d. Front of lower leg Symptoms of tendinosis include which of the following? a. Pain b. Tenderness c. Stiffness d. All of the above A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________. a. Shin splints b. Tendinitis c. Muscle sprain d. Myopathy The majority of fibromyalgia patients are ________. a. Men b. Women c. Children d. Elderly This bacteria releases a toxin that keeps muscles constantly contracted and causes tetanus. a. Meningitis b. E. Coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium tetani Which of the following conditions can be the result of prolonged physical activity, excessive fluid/electrolyte loss, or menstruation? a. Tetanus b. Fibromyalgia syndrome c. Cramps/spasms d. Strains/tendinitis Progressive fluctuating muscle weakness, often starting in the facial or eye muscles are signs and symptoms of which disease? a. Mitochondrial myopathy b. Fibromyalgia syndrome c. Myasthenia gravis d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Progressive descending muscle spasm, rigidity, stiffness and pain, especially in the jaw are signs and symptoms of which disease? a. Tetanus b. Fibromyalgia syndrome c. Cramps/spasms d. Strains/tendinitis

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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The 3 types of muscle are cardiac, skeletal, and ____________. ____________ attach bone to bone.

The end of the muscle that is attached to the moving bone is the ____________.

Muscles that cause movement in the opposite direction of the prime mover when they contract are called ____________.

The muscle that controls breathing is the ____________.

A muscle that bends a joint is called a(n) ____________ muscle.

The sternocleidomastoid is attached at the sternum, mastoid process and ____________ Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.

During muscle contraction myosin heads bind to ______________.

Increased muscle growth is called ____________.

Muscles convert ____________ to glucose. ____________ means muscle pain or tenderness. ____________ is a condition of muscle wasting. ____________ is a bacterial infection that causes rigid paralysis. ____________ describes increasing the angle of a joint. ________ is the study of muscles and movement.

When blood vessels get larger in diameter, it is called ________.

When the body dies, excess calcium remains in the muscles and causes the ________ fibers to shorten and stiffen the body.

During an asthma attack, the smooth muscles in the airways of the lungs ________, causing the patient to have difficulty getting air in and out.

Tetanus is a muscle disease caused by an untreated bacterial infection of a(n) ________.

The majority of fibromyalgia syndrome patients are ________.

Vasoconstriction can cause blood pressure to ________.

Vasodilation can cause the blood pressure to ________.

Some muscular diseases can cause ________, which is a condition of irregular muscle movement and lack of muscle coordination.

The main skeletal muscle that controls our breathing is the ________.

A(n) ________ is a test in which a muscle group is stimulated with an electrical impulse that causes a contraction.

When excess calcium remains in the muscles throughout the body and causes the muscle fibers to shorten (contract) and stiffen the whole body, ________ has set in. ________ are donut-shaped muscles that act as doorways to let materials in and out by alternately contracting and relaxing.

A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding tissues of the lower legs is called ________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

30. ________ or tendinitis is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons, that appears to be caused by the failure of tendons to repair themselves after injury.

31. The sarcomere has the actin and myosin filaments arranged in repeating units separated from each other by dark bands called Z________.

32. ________ (also known as lock jaw) is a muscle disorder caused by an untreated bacterial infection of a wound.

33. Muscle strains are injuries caused by overstretching the ________ or the muscles themselves.

34. ________ is a degenerative disease leading to breakdown and scarring of tendons.

35. Cramps or ________ are a sudden, severe involuntary muscle contraction.

36. ________ cause pain in the tibia region.

37. ________ is a potentially deadly disease caused by food poisoning with the Clostridium botulinum bacteria.

38. Strains (tears) or ________ can be caused by an acute injury or chronic overuse or disease.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____10. ____11. ____12. ____13. ____14. ____15.

Smooth muscle is found in the stomach.

Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

The rectus femoris is in the arm.

-Abduction moves a muscle away from midline.

-Extension decreases the angle between 2 bones.

Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller.

-Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart.

Hypertrophy is muscle wasting.

-Ataxia is partial or total loss of the ability to move muscles.

Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments.

-Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.

-An electromyograph records electrical activity in muscles.

-A hernia is caused when tendons become inflamed.

-The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action.

Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain the steps underlying skeletal muscle contraction. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

_____________________________________________ 2. Explain why corpses become stiff. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. List the rules for naming muscles _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Explain the structure of a sarcomere. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Compare and contrast myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barré Syndrome and tetanus. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 8 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the layer of skin that we can see? a. Subcutaneous fascia b. Epidermis c. Stratum basale d. Dermis 2. Patches of melanin found on the skin form ____________. a. Melanocytes b. Freckles c. Bilirubin d. Carotene

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

3. The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess a. Carotene b. Melanin c. Bilirubin d. Freckles 4. Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ____________ make it possible for the skin to flex with movement of the body. a. Dermis b. Subcutaneous c. Epidermis d. Fascia 5. ____________ sweat glands become active at puberty. a. Sebaceous b. Apocrine c. Salivary d. Eccrine 6. The skin is attached to the muscles of the body by the ____________ layer. a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous 7. Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ____________. a. Melanocytes b. Fibroblasts c. Collagen d. Fascia 8. What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been destroyed and the victim feels no pain? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth 9. The “rule of ____________” is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected by a burn. a. Injury b. Nines c. Many d. Five 10. After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ____________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area. a. Antibacterial patch b. Heterograft c. Donor site d. Autograft 11. Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________.

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a. Basal layer b. Clear layer c. Horny layer d. Dermal layer Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ____________ form your nails. a. Root b. Cells c. Bed d. Base What color would you expect to see at a healthy nail bed? a. Blanche b. White c. Pink d. Tan By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis they are filled with ________. a. Keratin b. Carotene c. Lunula d. Granulosa The integumentary system plays an important role in regulating the body’s ____________. a. Environment b. Composition c. Elasticity d. Temperature Medication placed into the skin is called ________. a. Intravascular b. Intramuscular c. Intracutaneous d. Intraspinal ________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities. a. PVD b. Jaundice c. Dermatitis d. RBC Which of the following is not a fungal infection? a. Tinea pedis b. Tinnitus corporis c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea corporis Fourth degree burns penetrate ________. a. To the muscle b. To the subcutaneous tissue

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c. To the skin d. To the bone Jaundice is caused by a build-up in the body of ________. a. Carotene b. Bilirubin c. Melanin d. Bile Pubic lice are often called ________. a. Bugs b. Sex bugs c. Nits d. Crabs Treatment for Herpes is ________. a. Antivirals b. Antibiotics c. Steroids d. Medicated cream Diabetes is a disease that may cause reduced blood flow to the extremities. This condition is known as ________. a. Keloid b. Folliculitis c. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) d. Dermatitis Plantar warts are found ________. a. On children’s hands and fingers b. Around the mouth and nose c. On the genitals d. On the sole of the foot A lesion can include all of the following except ________. a. Wound b. Injury c. Single patch of skin d. Infected follicle A condition that has a “bulls-eye” macule/papule is ________. a. Scabies b. General warts c. Acne d. Lyme disease Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused by ________. a. Bacteria b. Mites c. Fungi d. Ringworms Causes of alopecia (baldness) include ______. a. Chemotherapy and other medications

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b. Aging and heredity factors c. Scalp infections d. All of the above Which statement is not true of the epidermis? a. It is a stratified squamous epithelium. b. It is composed mostly of connective tissue. c. It is the outermost layer of skin. d. It contains the stratum corneum.

The stratum corneum ________. a. Is composed of mostly dead cells b. Is the innermost layer of the epidermis c. Contains melanocytes which give the skin color d. Both b and c The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________. a. Keratin b. Melanin c. Sebum d. Collagen ________ is a chronic skin condition marked by thick, flaky, red patches of various sizes, covered with white, silvery patches. a. Psoriasis b. Atopic dermatitis (eczema) c. Herpes zoster d. Seborrheic dermatitis ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a band-like pattern along the course of a spinal nerve pathway. a. Scabies b. Pediculosis c. Herpes zoster d. Acne vulgaris The treatment of cellulitis includes ________. a. Incision and drainage b. Antibiotics c. Antifungal medications d. All of the above Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin? a. Connective tissue b. Nerve endings c. Melanocytes, which give the skin color d. Sweat glands The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called ________. a. The nail body b. The cuticle c. The lunula

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d. The nail bed This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair. a. A sebaceous gland b. A sudoriferous gland c. An eccrine gland d. An apocrine gland Burns that are characterized by blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ________. a. First-degree burns b. Second-degree burns c. Third-degree burns d. Fourth-degree burns The rule of nines is used to ________. a. Determine the depth of burns b. Determine the color of burns c. Determine the body surface area burned d. Both a and b This skin infection is also called furuncles. a. Tinea b. Impetigo c. Warts d. Boils This skin infection is caused by a papilloma virus. a. Tinea b. Impetigo c. Warts d. Boils Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin? a. Blue b. Red c. Yellow d. Bronze Folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and is usually caused by what type of bacteria? a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. Mycobacterium d. E. Coli Chicken pox is caused by the ________ virus. a. Herpes varicella b. Herpes zoster c. Herpes simplex type 1 d. Herpes simplex type 2 Fever blisters or cold sores are caused by the ________ virus. a. Herpes varicella

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b. Herpes zoster c. Herpes simplex type 1 d. Herpes simplex type 2 Genital herpes is caused by the ________ virus. a. Herpes varicella b. Herpes zoster c. Herpes simplex type 1 d. Herpes simplex type 2 Shingles is caused by the ________ virus. a. Herpes varicella b. Herpes zoster c. Herpes simplex type 1 d. Herpes simplex type 2 ________ are normally found on children’s hands and fingers. a. Plantar warts b. Common warts c. Genital warts d. None of the above ________ are found on the sole of the foot and tend to grow inward exhibiting a smooth surface. a. Plantar warts b. Common warts c. Genital warts d. None of the above ________ are highly contagious and sexually transmitted. a. Plantar warts b. Common warts c. Genital warts d. None of the above ________ is the most common type of fungal skin infection and is highly contagious. a. Tinea corporis b. Tinea unguium c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea pedis ________ is a fungal infection of the groin and scrotal areas that mainly affects men. a. Tinea corporis b. Tinea unguium c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea pedis ________ is incorrectly called ringworm. a. Tinea corporis b. Tinea unguium c. Tinea cruris

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

d. Tinea pedis 54. ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails. a. Tinea corporis b. Tinea unguium c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea pedis 55. Cellulitis is an inflammatory condition of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused by what bacteria? a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. Mycobacterium d. E. Coli 56. A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room and you are helping to assess the extent of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, right leg, and the front of the torso.

You determine that the patient has burns over ________ % of their body. a. 45 b. 63 c. 54 d. 36

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The layer in which epidermal cells are born is known as the ____________.

The outermost surface of the skin is known as the ____________. _________ are responsible for your skin color. ____________ glands secrete oil.

Fat cells are known as ____________.

Cells which can develop into connective tissue are called ____________.

Two factors when assessing burns are ____________ and area damaged.

A first degree burn penetrates through the _________________.

Sublingually means under the ____________.

Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ____________. ________ or bilirubin is the substance that gives skin a yellow hue.

Hair stands on end in an attempt to regulate ________________.

A(n) ____________ is a crack or groove in the skin.

This __________________ layer of the skin regenerates easily after injury.

A boil is also called a(n) ____________.

The basal layer of the epidermis is known as ________.

The front of the ________ is considered to be 18% of the skin surface area.

Hair is composed of fibrous protein called ________.

When blood vessels get larger in diameter it is known as ________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

20. When blood vessels get smaller in diameter it is known as ________.

21. A(n) ________ or hive is a small, raised, round area on the skin that sometimes itches.

22. Warts, or ________, are caused by the papilloma virus.

23. Alopecia is the term for any type of ________ loss.

24. Lyme disease involves multiple body systems as a result of a bacterial ________ that is spread by the bite of a deer tick.

25. Severe burns require healing at an intensity the body ________ normally achieve on its own.

26. Trapped sebum can stagnate and dry out, becoming darkened. This is called a(n) ________.

27. Ideally a wound heals from the inside, working its way toward the outside or ________.

28. When accessing burns, there are two factors: the ________ of the burn and the size of the area burned.

29. Initially the patient with third degree burns will feel no ________.

30. Herpes is a lifelong virus that produces skin inflammation (lesions) in the form of ________.

31. As bilirubin builds up in the body, ________ occurs, giving the skin a deeper yellow color.

32. ________ is characterized by the “bull’s eye” rash as a result of a bacterial infection that is spread via the bite of the deer tick.

33. ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.

34. A mass of excessive scar tissue that has a raised and firm, irregular shape is called a(n) ________.

35. The hair that you see is called the shaft, and the root extends down into the dermis to the ________.

36. The sebaceous gland secretes ________, an oily substance that coats the follicle and works its way to the skin’s surface.

37. Tiny mites that burrow into the skin to lay eggs cause a condition known as ________.

38. ________ is the body’s attempt to get as much “hot” blood exposed to a cooler surrounding environment so the heat radiates away from the body.

39. Turning and padding are important in the prevention of decubitus ________.

40. Excessive bruising could indicate skin, ________, or circulatory problems as well as physical abuse.

41. Folliculitis presents with formations of small ________ that surround the follicle.

42. Warts or ________ are caused by the papilloma virus, which causes a hypertrophy of the keratin cells in the skin.

43. Cellulitis, if left untreated, can lead to life threatening conditions such as ________.

44. A first-degree burn has damaged only the ________ layer of skin, the epidermis, and is classified as a partial-thickness burn.

45. A fourth-degree burn goes all the way to the ________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

46. A second-degree burn involves the entire depth of the ________ and a portion of the dermis and can cause blistering.

47. A third-degree burn affects all three of the skin ________ and is classified as a full-thickness burn.

48. A(n) ________ is a classic example of a first-degree burn.

49. ________ is the term for an infestation with lice that is the result of direct contact with a person infested with lice or sharing objects that may be infested.

50. ________ is the term for any type of hair loss, and can be acute or chronic.

51. A(n) ________ is a pathologically altered piece of tissue that can include a wound or injury of a single infected patch of skin.

52. ________ or hives are itchy wheals surrounded by a red inflamed area.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -The stratum basale is the outermost surface of the skin. ____ 2. Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin. ____ 3. -Second degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis. ____ 4. -First degree burns affect all three of the skin layers. ____ 5. -Each upper limb is considered 9% of the body skin surface area. ____ 6. Keratinization softens cells. ____ 7. -The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle. ____ 8. -The white, half-moon shaped area of your finger nail is called the cuticle. ____ 9. An infected blackhead is a pustule. ____10. -As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict. ____11. -Muscles in your skin are called arrector pili. ____12. -The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma. ____13. A polyp is a small tumor with a stem. ____14. -A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin. ____15. -Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Distinguish between first, second and third degree burns. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Explain the journey of an epidermal cell from birth to death.

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_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Describe how transdermal medication works. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. How do we assess peripheral perfusion? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. How is hair used in forensics? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 9 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The part of the nervous system which is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the ____________ system. a. Endocrine b. Central nervous c. Sensory d. Peripheral nervous 2. The autonomic system is divided into which two systems? a. Somatic, autonomic b. Sympathetic, parasympathetic c. Motor, sensory d. Input, output 3. Myelin is a lipid insulation produced by the ________. a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocytes

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c. Astrocytes d. Ependymal cells Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism? a. Body b. Dendrite c. Axon d. Synapse Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ____________ neurons. a. Accessory b. Motor c. Sensory d. Output Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents by changing the ____________ of their membranes. a. Composition b. Shape c. Pathway d. Permeability If a cell is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________. a. Refractory b. Repolarized c. Depolarized d. Polarized A cell which is more negatively charged than at rest is ________. a. Polarized b. Hyperpolarized c. Depolarized d. Refractory Impulses are conducted rapidly if ____________ is present. a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Myelin d. Spinal fluid Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed ________. a. Multiple sclerosis b. Muscular dystrophy c. Guillain-Barré’ syndrome d. Myasthenia gravis The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ____________ region. a. Cervical b. Thoracic

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c. Lumbar d. Sacral The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________. a. Dura mater b. Arachnoid mater c. Pia mater d. Epidural mater Medication is often injected into the ____________ space to alleviate pain. a. Vertebral b. Epidural c. Subdural d. Subarachnoid Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information? a. Commissure b. Ventral root c. Column d. Dorsal root Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information? a. Superficial b. Ventral c. Ascending d. Inferior Acute treatment for spinal cord injury includes ________. a. Ice b. Heat c. Immobilization d. Physical therapy Which of the following is not one of the three broad categories of causes in peripheral neuropathy? a. Trauma b. Paralysis c. Systemic d. Infection/autoimmune A quadriplegic with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that the patient cannot ________ on his own. a. Breathe b. Swallow food c. Close their eyes d. Speak The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________. a. Central nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Peripheral nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system Dendrites ________.

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a. Are usually highly branched b. Carry impulses away from the cell body c. Are usually surrounded by myelin d. All of the above Sensory neurons are also called ________. a. Interneurons b. Input neurons c. Output neurons d. Glia cells Neurons that carry information between neurons are called ________. a. Interneurons b. Efferent neurons c. Motor neurons d. Afferent neurons This type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain ________. a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocytes c. Astrocytes d. Interneurons Inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________. a. Encephalitis b. Meningitis c. Blepharitis d. Polyneuritis This type of glia cell attacks microbes and removes debris. a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocyte c. Astroglia d. Neurilemma Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis? a. It is considered a myelin disorder. b. Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement. c. Most patients are initially diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS, but at least 50% of them will progress to the chronic progressive form. d. It affects 2,000–4,000 people in the United States.

When a cell becomes stimulated (excited) ________. a. The interior of the neuron becomes more negative b. Sodium gates in the cell membrane close c. Sodium gates in the cell membrane spring open d. The entire neuron remains at rest The outermost of the meninges is the ________. a. Pia mater b. Choroid plexus c. Arachnoid mater

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d. Dura mater Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes __________. a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Quadriplegia c. Paraplegia d. A slipped disk This disease is characterized by ascending paralysis ________. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Polio c. Guillain Barré syndrome d. Charcot Marie Tooth disorder This disease is characterized by progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial or eye muscles ________. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Polio c. Guillain Barré syndrome d. Charcot Marie Tooth disorder Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are known as ________. a. Paraplegics b. Quadriplegics c. Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome d. None of the above Patients with injuries to the thoracic spinal cord segment with two paralyzed legs are said to be ________. a. Paraplegics b. Quadriplegics c. Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome d. None of the above A potentially fatal condition is an infection of the meninges called ________. a. Polio b. Meningectomy c. Meningitis d. All of the above This inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm and fingers ________. a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. meningitis c. myasthenia gravis d. botulism An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________. a. epiphysis b. epidural c. subdural

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

d. cutaneous 37. Spinal root directional terms are ________: a. anterior and posterior b. superior and inferior c. Dorsal and ventral d. distal and proximal

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. The ____________ or parasympathetic branch of the nervous system deals with maintenance of homeostasis.

2. The glial cells which remove debris are called ____________.

3. The ___________ horn contains motor neurons.

4. There are twelve pairs of ________ nerves.

5. The spinal ____________, projecting from both sides of the spinal cord in pairs, fuse to form spinal nerves.

6. Branches and recombinations of nerves are called ____________.

7. ____________ are the simplest form of motor output.

8. During ______________ of the action potential, sodium ions are flowing into a cell.

9. The ________________ tract carries pain and temperature information.

10. The input side of the nervous system is known as ____________.

11. The period when a cell is unable to accept another stimulus is the ____________ period.

12. Bare spots between adjacent cells are called nodes of ____________.

13. Tiny sacs at nerve terminals, called ____________, release contents from the cell when calcium flows in.

14. ____________ inhibit the release of pain neurotransmitters.

15. The membrane that is like a spider web is called ____________.

16. The lipid ________ increases action potential conduction speed.

17. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rapid onset paralysis caused by inflammation of ________ nerves.

18. Repetitive motion can cause ________ syndrome in the wrists.

19. A(n) ________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS. 20. Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ________ (Do not use the abbreviation).

21. Following a spinal cord injury, the difference between being able to breathe on your own or requiring a(n) ________ is literally a matter of centimeters.

22. Bruises to the spinal cord may resolve with time and rehabilitation, but a severed, or crushed spinal cord is usually a(n) ________ injury.

23. A very common form of peripheral neuropathy caused by repetitive motion is ________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

24. Epidural injections of steroids are sometimes prescribed for patients with chronic lower back injuries to relieve pain, and ________.

25. The most common systemic disorder that causes peripheral neuropathy is ________.

26. The whole series of permeability changes within the cell and the resultant changes in charge across the cell membrane is called the ________.

27. Between adjacent glial cells on axons are tiny bare spots called ________.

28. The neurotransmitter group ________ inhibit release of pain neurotransmitters.

29. The ________ is located in a hollow tube running inside the vertebral column from the foramen magnum to the second lumbar (L2) vertebrae.

30. ________ is caused by an autoimmune attack on the myelin in the central nervous system.

31. Guillain Barré syndrome is the autoimmune destruction of the ________ nervous system myelin and often occurs after a viral infection.

32. ________ is an autoimmune attack of the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction.

33. ________ is caused by destruction of ventral horn motor neurons by poliomyelitis virus.

34. ________ is usually mechanical injury to spinal cord tissue.

35. ________ damage to peripheral nerves may be due to injury or illness.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -The autonomic system controls voluntary movement. ____ 2. Oligodendrocytes make myelin. ____ 3. -Potassium ions move across neurons during depolarization. ____ 4. There are eight cervical nerves. ____ 5. -The segments of the spinal cord are named for their function. ____ 6. Guillain-Barré’ syndrome is incurable. ____ 7. -SSRIs prevent the clean up of a neurotransmitter. ____ 8. -The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord. ____ 9. -Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and destroys acetylcholine receptors. ____10. -A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier. ____11. -Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells. ____12. -Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells. ____13. Action potentials are “all or none.” ____14. Cell bodies are myelinated. ____15. Myelinated axons are white.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain how multiple sclerosis affects the body. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. List the steps in chemical synaptic transmission. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Define the purpose of the following cells: microglia, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, Schwann cells, and ependymal cells. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. List the three phases of the action potential. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. List the meninges and explain their anatomy. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 10 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the largest part of the brain? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum

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c. Brain stem d. Hypothalamus The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ____________. a. Hemispheres b. Lobes c. Convolutions d. Meninges Heart beat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled by the ____________. a. Medulla oblongata b. Midbrain c. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure? a. White matter only b. White matter surrounded by gray matter c. Gray matter only d. Gray matter surrounded by white matter The right and left hemisphere of the cerebrum are connected by the ____________. a. Postcentral gyrus b. Precentral gyrus c. Corpus callosum d. Ventricles Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum? a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Pineal body d. Pituitary gland What cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements? a. Olfactory b. Facial c. Hypoglossal d. Oculomotor What number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve? a. X b. II c. VIII d. XII To what sense does somatic sensation refer? a. Taste b. Touch c. Smell d. Vision Which tract carries fine touch and vibration to the cerebral cortex? a. Dorsal column tract

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b. Spinothalamic tract c. Spinocerebellar tract d. Ventral column tract Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ____________ area. a. Sensory association relay b. Ganglionic association c. Somatic sensory cortex d. Somatic sensory association After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ____________ and connects with neurons in the thalamus. a. Nuclei b. Limbic system c. Motor cortex d. Spinal tract Where are the neurons for the autonomic system located? a. Corpus callosum b. Spinal cord and brain stem c. Cerebral cortex d. Inside neurotransmitters A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital paralyzed on the right side and unable to speak. Where is her injury? a. Spinal cord b. Temporal lobe c. Frontal lobe d. Brainstem During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ____________, causing unconsciousness in the patient. a. Reticular system b. Basal nuclei c. Limbic system d. Hypothalamus Which of these is a type of paralysis? a. Spastic b. Bivalvular c. Reflexive d. Radical Some patients with a severe case of ________ must be kept on a ventilator until the paralysis resolves. a. Guillain Barré syndrome b. Muscular dystrophy c. Multiple sclerosis d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis A subdural hematoma would be between the ________. a. Arachnoid mater and subarachnoid

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b. Dura mater and the arachnoid mater c. Dura and vertebral column d. Arachnoid and pia mater A brain injury with swelling and bleeding with possible severe hemorrhaging (hematoma) is known as a ________. a. Concussion b. Contusion c. TIA d. CVA Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum? a. It is considered the “little brain.” b. It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum. c. It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance. d. It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.

The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________. a. Cardiac muscle tissue b. Skeletal muscles c. Smooth muscles d. All of the above A mild brain injury is commonly known as a ________. a. Contusion b. Hemorrhage c. Hematoma d. Concussion A ________, which is swelling and bleeding at the site of injury, is more serious than a concussion. a. Convulsion b. Hemorrhage c. Hematoma d. None of the above A ________ is caused by disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot. a. Cerebrovascular accident b. Stroke c. a and b only d. None of the above A mini stroke is known as a ________. a. TIA b. Transient necrotic attack c. Stroke d. a and b only A ________ is a pool of blood between any of the layers of meninges and the skull. a. Contusion

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b. Hemorrhage c. Hematoma d. Concussion This is the most common cause of dementia among people 65 years or older ________. a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Dementia d. Travis’ disease Which fissure divides the brain into a left and right hemisphere? a. transverse b. longitudinal c. medial d. sagittal The lobe responsible for vision ________: a. occipital b. frontal c. parietal d. medial The lobe responsible for taste ________: a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital This structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin ________. a. pituitary gland b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. pineal body Hydocephalus is a result of an excess of what fluid? a. blood b. CSF c. CNS d. ALS A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a ________. a. ganglion b. glia c. dendrites d. axons The system that controls mood ________. a. reticular b. somatic c. sympathetic d. limbic A non-progressive movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis

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muscular dystrophy Huntington’s disease cerebral palsy CVA

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The _______ is divided into two hemispheres.

The ____________ lobes are responsible for conscious thought.

Damage to the _____________ lobes leads to sensory perception problems.

Heartbeat is controlled in the ____________.

The size of the map of a body part in the postcentral gyrus is determined by the _____________ of the body part.

Hydrocephalus is treated by medication and by inserting a(n) ____________.

Cross communication between the right and left sides of the brain is through the ____________.

The diencephalon includes the ____________, hypothalamus, pineal body, and pituitary gland.

The pineal body secretes the hormone ____________.

Dizziness is one symptom of damage to the _________________ cranial nerve.

The XII cranial nerve, the ____________, is under the tongue.

A(n) ____________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS. Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.

A stroke is also known as a(n) ____________ (Do not use abbreviation).

An accumulation of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid space is called a(n)____________.

Emotions are integrated in the ________ lobes.

Brain cavities are called ________.

The X cranial nerve is the ________ nerve.

Brain damage similar to that caused by traumatic brain injury is caused by a lack of oxygen, strokes, or brain ________.

The ventricles of the brain, the central canal of the spinal cord, and the subarachnoid space, surrounding both parts of the CNS, are all filled with ________(CSF).

The ________ nerve is sensory cranial nerve, responsible for hearing and balance.

The ________ is an anatomical/physiologic protective structure of the brain believed to consist of walls of capillaries in the CNS and surrounding glial membranes. ________(CP) is a permanent, non-progressive set of motor deficits diagnosed in infants and young children, generally thought to be due to damage to the motor cortex.

The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system controls the flight-orfight response.

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25. ________ is a condition of excess CSF in brain due to trauma, birth defects, tumors, etc.

26. Damage to brain tissue due to mechanical injury, lack of oxygen, or brain hemorrhage causes ________ brain injury.

27. Risk factors for ________ include premature birth, low birth weight, developmental abnormalities, and perinatal brain injury.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions. ____ 2. Parietal lobes are responsible for vision. ____ 3. -The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata. ____ 4. -The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brainstem. ____ 5. -The diencephalon controls hormone levels. ____ 6. Thirst is regulated in the thalamus. ____ 7. -Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall. ____ 8. The optic nerve controls smell. ____ 9. Pain is perceived in the skin. ____10. -The limbic system controls emotions and moods. ____11. -The parasympathetic system controls the “fight or flight” response. ____12. -A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality. ____13. -Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement. ____14. -Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50. ____15. Ministrokes are called “TIAs.”

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain why cerebral spinal fluid balance is important in the brain. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. List the twelve cranial nerves. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Explain how we interpret touch.

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_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Explain why hands, lips, and head have so many neurons. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. List five common effects of a stroke. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 11 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is listed as one of our visceral senses? a. Touch b. Pain c. Hunger d. Heat 2. The ____________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera. a. Eyelid b. Lens c. Cornea d. Iris 3. Your tears act as a lubricant and ____________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms. a. Antiseptic b. Moisture c. Bath d. Glaze 4. The cornea is found within the ____________ of the eye.

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a. Sclera b. Choroid c. Retina d. Conjunctiva The eye receives most of its nourishment from the vessels within the ____________. a. Retina b. Sclera c. Conjunctiva d. Choroid The vision center of the brain is located in the ____________ lobe. a. Optic b. Occipital c. Temporal d. Hypothalamus Light passes to the eye through what opening? a. Eyeball b. Lens c. Pupil d. Iris To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep? a. REM b. Myopia c. PERLA d. Amblyopia What are the three tiny bones located in the middle ear? a. Pinnas b. Cerumen c. Ossicles d. Cochleas The ____________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium. a. Cochlea b. Semicircular canals c. Vestibule d. Incus The bony labyrinth is another name for the ____________. a. Auditory nerve b. Outer ear c. Middle ear d. Inner ear The process of sound waves traveling to the brain is known as ____________ conduction. a. Sound b. Sensorineural c. Bone

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d. Neural ____________ is the name given for the distinct taste of glutamates. a. Gustatory b. Umami c. Meniere d. Tinnitus Tactile corpuscles is the name given to the receptors for which sense? a. Taste b. Smell c. Hearing d. Touch Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ____________ pain. a. Referred b. Disguised c. Phantom d. Pseudo Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________. a. Adults b. Children c. Patients with astigmatism d. The elderly A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of ear wax could be said to have too much ________. a. Cerumen b. Fluid c. Eustachian d. Cochlea Clouding of the eye lens caused by protein clumping is called ________. a. Blepharitis b. A cataract c. Clouding d. Astigmatism Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea. a. Visceral b. Cutaneous c. Accommodation d. Labyrinthitis Cataract formation is attributed to all of these except ________. a. Aging b. Gender c. Congenital defects d. Trauma In diabetic retinopathy, increased blood sugar damages the ________ in the retina of the eye.

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a. Sclera b. Lens c. Conjunctiva d. Blood vessels All of the following are symptoms of otitis media except ________. a. Sinus infection b. Pus c. Edema d. Pain Sight can be considered ________. a. A general sense b. A special sense c. A chemoreceptor d. Both b and c Which of the following is not associated with the retina? a. Rods b. Lens c. Cones d. Photopigments The external ear ends at the ________. a. Auricle b. Tympanic membrane c. External auditory canal d. Tragus Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear? a. Cochlea b. Stapes c. Incus d. Malleus Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing? a. Bony labyrinth b. Semicircular canal c. Vestibule d. Cochlea A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color and fine detail. a. Lens b. Cones c. Rods d. Cones and rods The sense of touch can be considered ________. a. A general sense b. A special sense c. A chemoreceptor d. Both b and c

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

30. Receptors used to locate body parts are considered ________. a. A special sense b. A chemoreceptor c. A thermoreceptor d. A proprioceptor 31. Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball? a. Conjunctiva b. Sclera c. Choroid d. Retina 32. The sensor receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and enable night vision are the ________. a. Iris b. Pupil c. Rods d. Cones 33. An inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids results in ________. a. Conjunctivitis b. Choroiditis c. Cornea abrasion d. Lens distortion 34. A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________. a. Stye b. Detachment c. Cataract d. None of the above 35. Vision impairment as a result of old age and the loss of elasticity in the lens is called ________. a. Astigmatism b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Diplopia 36. A chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss is called ________. a. Cholesteatoma b. Otosclerosis c. Meniere’s disease d. Mastoiditis 37. Which of the following is attributed to the development of cataracts? a. Trauma b. Congenital defects c. Aging d. All of the above

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

38. If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what? a. Blindness b. Presbyopia c. Myopia d. Hyperopia 39. Farsightedness is also known as ________. a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Amblyopia 40. Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________. a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Amblyopia 41. Nearsightedness is also known as ________. a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Amblyopia 42. Lazy eye is also known as ________. a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Amblyopia 43. Swimmer’s ear is also known as ________. a. External otitis b. Otitis Media c. Internal otitis d. None of the above 44. Symptoms of otitis media include all of the following except ________. a. Pus b. Arthralgia c. Edema d. Pain 45. A feeling of dizziness and or whirling in space is called ________. a. Vertigo b. Purulence c. Eczema d. Tinnitus 46. Ringing in the ears is also known as ________. a. Vertigo b. Purulence c. Eczema d. Tinnitus

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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Skin is the location of receptors for your sense of _________________.

The ____________ is the colored part of the eye.

The vitreous humor is in the ____________ chamber of the eye.

The globe-shaped organ of vision is the ____________.

The ____________ is the opening through which light passes into the eye. ____________ is a disease characterized by increased pressure in the eye.

The _______________ contains light-sensitive neurons.

Lazy eye is called ____________.

The signals from the eye are carried on the cranial nerve known as __________________.

Pink eye is called ____________.

What you perceive as taste is mainly affected by the sense of ____________________.

The bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and ____________.

The ____________ or auricle is the external part of the ear.

The eardrum is also called the ____________ membrane.

The tubes that connect the middle ear to the pharynx are called ____________ tubes.

Nearsightedness is called ________.

If the eye cannot focus on nearby objects, the condition is called ________ or hyperopia.

A clouded lens is called a(n)________.

There are times when an optometrist needs to dilate the pupils for better ________ of inner eye parts during the exam.

Acute conjunctivitis is commonly called ________ aureus.

In glaucoma, peripheral vision is reduced, which eventually progresses to ________ vision and then blindness.

Otitis media can perforate the ________ membrane (eardrum).

Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the ________ ear and is usually caused by infections and can cause vertigo.

Hyperopia is when the eye cannot focus properly on ________ objects.

Tinnitus can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud ________.

The ________ or colored part of the eye helps regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.

The projecting part of the ear which collects and directs sound waves into the auditory canal is called the pinna or ________. ________ (farsightedness) occurs when the eye cannot focus properly on nearby objects.

The ________ begins in the inner ear and carries the amplified vibrations from the tympanic ossicles.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

30. Continued sensory stimulation causes some sensors to desensitize in an interesting phenomenon called ________.

31. Pain receptors are also called ________.

32. Pain is felt for as long as the stimulus is there that is c.ausing it or unless a person is under ________.

33. The ________ glands produce tears, spread over the eye surfaces by blinking, which are needed for constant cleansing and lubrication.

34. The sclera contains a specialized portion called the ________, which is transparent to allow light rays to pass into the eye.

35. ________ is caused by increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.

36. ________ is an inflammation of the membrane that lines the eye characterized by pink or red swollen eyes.

37. The acute infective phase of conjunctivitis is commonly called ________.

38. A(n) ________ is a condition in which the lens loses its flexibility and transparency and light cannot pass through the clouded lens.

39. ________ is caused by increased pressure in the fluid of the eye, which interferes with optic nerve functioning.

40. ________ is an acute infection of the middle ear, commonly caused by a bacteria or virus, and is frequently found in infants and young children.

41. ________ is frequently associated with an upper respiratory infection such as the common cold.

42. If left untreated, otitis media can cause a perforation of the ________ or eardrum.

43. ________ is an inflammation of the inner ear and is usually caused by infections.

44. ________ is a chronic condition that affects the labyrinth and leads to progressive hearing loss and vertigo.

45. ________ can be either partial or complete and is caused by a variety of conditions, ranging from inflammation and scarring of the tympanic membrane to auditory nerve and brain damage.

46. Clinically, ________ can occur as a result of chronic exposure to loud noises, Meniere’s disease, some medications, wax build-up, or various disturbances to the auditory nerve.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8.

The malleus is the outer ear.

The sense of smell is called gustatory.

-Sound is transmitted to the brain by hair cells.

-The signal is carried from the ear to the brain by the optic nerve.

-Bacteria from the nasal cavity can travel to the ear.

Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands.

-Tears act as an antiseptic to decrease germs in the eyeball.

The vitreous humor is watery.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

____ 9. ____10. ____11. ____12. ____13. ____14. ____15.

Rods are active in dim light.

-Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them.

-The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea.

-Ciliary muscles surround the lens in the eye.

The lens is located behind the pupil.

-PERLA stands for pupils, equal, rotating to the light, and accommodating.

REM sleep refers to rapid eye movement.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. List the five senses and their organs. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Describe how your eye is like a camera. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Follow the path of sound from air to the brain. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Describe why children get otitis media. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Describe referred and phantom pain. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

CHAPTER 12 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the endocrine organs can effectively control the pituitary gland? a. Pancreas b. Hypothalamus c. Thyroid d. Pineal 2. Chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream, with the ability to affect cells for hours or days, are called ________. a. Neurotransmitters b. Dendrites c. Hormones d. Sensory cells 3. A specific type of hormone, called ____________, has the ability to interact directly with the cell’s DNA. a. Adrenaline b. Protein c. Sebum d. Steroids 4. A standard level, known as the ____________, is necessary to maintain the body’s homeostasis. a. Set point b. Target level c. Norm d. Quotient 5. When a patient is experiencing a fever, the ____________ resets the body’s temperature set point. a. Brain b. Hypothalamus c. Adrenal gland d. Pituitary gland 6. Which of the following hormones are directly controlled by the nervous system? a. Oxytocin b. Cortisol c. Epinephrine d. Insulin 7. One way in which the body will cope with increased stress is to increase the secretion of a. Cortisol b. Norepinephrine c. Oxytocin

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Prolactin Which hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, is responsible for decreased urination? a. Prolactin b. Antidiuretic hormone c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone d. Luteinizing hormone The ____________ is part of the diencephalon and is commonly called the “master gland.” a. Adrenal b. Pineal c. Thyroid d. Pituitary The ____________ is divided into a posterior and anterior segment. a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Adrenal A stature disorder in which the body produces either too much or too little growth hormone is a disorder of which endocrine gland? a. Anterior pituitary b. Posterior pituitary c. Adrenal medulla d. Adrenal cortex Thyroxin and triiodothyronine, hormones necessary for cell metabolism, are produced in the ____________ gland. a. Pituitary b. Adrenal c. Thymus d. Thyroid ____________ gland is important in regulating the blood glucose. a. Thymus b. Pancreas c. Pineal d. Thyroid The ____________ glands are located above each kidney. a. Thyroid b. Adrenal c. Pineal d. Ovaries What is the name of the condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus c. Dwarfism

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Hyperthyroidism ________ steroids are a class of molecules that cause an increase in muscle mass. a. Anti-inflammatory b. Anabolic c. NSAIDs d. Metabolic Cushings’ disease causes weight ________ and Graves’ causes weight ________. a. Gain, loss b. Loss, loss c. Loss, gain d. Gain, gain The release of norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood stream increases all of these except ________. a. Respiration b. Saliva c. Pulse or heart rate d. Blood pressure Prednisone can be used as an anti-inflammatory drug to treat ________. a. Severe allergies b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Other chronic conditions d. All of the above The typical onset of type I diabetes is before ________. a. Puberty b. Age 40 c. Age 5–6 d. Age 10 A woman is in labor but the uterine contractions stop. This could be caused by insufficient ________ (a hormone). a. Oxytocin b. ADH c. Pituitary hormone d. Melatonin A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) by the posterior pituitary gland causes ________. a. Hypoglycemia b. Dwarfism c. Diabetes insipidus d. None of the above Treatment of diabetes mellitus includes ________. a. A controlled diet and exercise b. Insulin administration if needed c. Blood and urine testing d. All of the above

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

24. Hypersecretion of GH that causes overgrowth of the hands and feet, abnormal thickening of the bones of the face, and excessive overgrowth of soft tissue, occurring in adulthood, is called ________. a. Acromegaly b. Gigantism c. Dwarfism d. All of the above 25. Damage to the pituitary gland, which causes hypopituitarism, can result from ________. a. Radiation b. Surgical removal c. Tumors d. All of the above 26. The master gland of the endocrine system is the ________. a. Thyroid gland b. Pituitary gland c. Adrenal gland d. None of the above 27. Insulin and glucagon are produced by the ________. a. Pancreas b. Thymus c. Adrenal cortex d. None of the above 28. Hypersecretion of cortisol causes ________. a. Addison’s disease b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Myxedema d. None of the above 29. Insufficient secretion of PTH by the parathyroid gland is called ________. a. Hyperpituitarism b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypopituitarism 30. The syndrome caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, muscular weakness, and changes in body appearance is called ________. a. Cushing’s syndrome b. Hashimoto thyroiditis c. Addison’s disease d. None of the above 31. Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system? a. The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body. b. All organs in the endocrine system are glands. c. Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities. d. Endocrine glands produce hormones.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

32. Dwarfism can be caused by a ________. a. Hypersecretion of ACTH b. Hyposecretion of ACTH c. Hypersecretion of growth hormone d. Hyposecretion of growth hormone 33. Which of the following is not true of oxytocin? a. It is produced in the thyroid gland. b. It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor. c. It is one of the few hormones that is regulated by a positive feedback loop. d. It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers.

34. Which of the following is true of the adrenal medulla? a. It responds to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system. b. It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response. c. It releases epinephrine. d. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.

35. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland? a. It is located in the neck. b. It is an endocrine gland. c. It produces thymosin. d. It is important in the body’s immune system.

36. Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland? a. It is located in the brain. b. It produces melatonin. c. It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.” d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland.

37. A condition that is characterized by the production of large amounts of very dilute urine is called? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes mellitus c. Gestational diabetes d. Juvenile diabetes 38. A condition that is characterized by a decrease in pituitary function caused by tumors, surgery, radiation, or head injury is called ________. a. Hyperpituitarism b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Hypopituitarism d. Addison’s disease 39. Which of the following hormones are not affected by hypopituitarism? a. ACTH b. LH c. GH d. Oxytocin 40. An overproduction of pituitary hormones is called ________. a. Cushing’s syndrome b. Addison’s disease

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c. Hyperpituitarism d. Hypopituitarism An over-production of cortisol causes ________. a. Cushing’s syndrome b. Addison’s disease c. Graves’ disease d. Hyperpituitarism All of the following are symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome except ________. a. Upper body obesity b. Round face c. Easy bruising d. Hypoglycemia Fatigue, feeling cold, dry skin, brittle nails, and leg cramps are all symptoms of which disease? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Addison’s disease d. Cushing’s syndrome Sweating, muscle tremors, tachycardia, and irritability are symptoms of which disease? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Addison’s disease d. Cushing’s syndrome Which of the following is an early symptom of hypoglycemia? a. Nervousness b. Weakness c. Difficulty speaking d. All of the above Symptoms of Addison’s disease include all of the following except ________. a. Low blood pressure b. High blood pressure c. Weight loss d. Excessive skin pigmentation In children, failure to attain normal height or abnormally slow growth are symptoms of ________. a. Gigantism b. Dwarfism c. Type II diabetes d. None of the above

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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The liver breaks down glycogen into ____________.

If a diabetic checks her blood sugar and is ________ she should take some sugar. ____________ hormone stimulates tissue growth.

The pancreas secretes insulin and ____________.

A patient experiences agitation, increased heart rate and blood pressure. She thinks she is going insane. She has a hormone imbalance called _____________________.

Chemical messengers released by endocrine glands are called ____________. ____________ moves calcium into bones. ____________ feedback increases the magnitude of change.

The ideal value for a body characteristic is called a(n) ____________.

If a person is dehydrated they will secrete less ________________ hormone from the posterior pituitary. ____________ hormone stimulates sperm production.

Uterine contractions are increased by the hormone ____________.

The ____________ gland is located in the upper thorax.

The ___________________ secretes several vital steroid hormones.

The ____________ within the brain controls hormone levels, but is not called the master gland. ________ mellitus is due to a decrease in insulin secretion or decreased sensitivity to insulin.

The ________ gland secretes thyroxine. ________ tissue uses glucose from blood to form fat.

Addison’s disease is caused by insufficient production of ________ corticosteroids.

Appropriate blood glucose levels are vital for cellular ________.

If GH secretion is insufficient during childhood, children do not grow to the standard height. This is a type of ________.

If stress becomes chronic, the secretion of ________ and cortisol, becomes pathological.

Hypopituitarism causes loss of any or all anterior ________ hormones, including ACTH, GH, LH, and TSH, causing a variety of symptoms.

Stature disorders result in well-below average height (called ________ ) or wellabove normal height (called gigantism).

Cushing’s syndrome is caused by over-secretion of ________.

The adrenal cortex makes dozens of steroid hormones known collectively as ________.

Glucagon puts glucose into the bloodstream mainly by directing the liver to release glucose stored in the form of ________.

The ________ is largely responsible for maintaining blood sugar (glucose) levels at or near a set point.

The adrenal glands are split into two regions: the adrenal cortex, an outer layer, and the ________, the middle of the gland. ________ triggers our sleep by peaking at night and causing drowsiness.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

31. The ________ gland, located in the anterior portion of your neck, is responsible for secreting the hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), under orders from the pituitary gland 32. If any of the body’s dozens of homeostatic values become seriously disrupted, the control systems work to bring them back to set point. This process is called ________.

33. One special class of hormones, ________, is particularly powerful because they can bind to sites inside cells by passing easily through the target cell membrane.

34. The male gonad is responsible for secreting the hormone ________.

35. ________, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, is also an autoimmune disorder.

36. Hypopituitarism is characterized by the loss of any or all ________ pituitary hormones.

37. Stature disorders that result in well-below-average height are called ________.

38. Oversecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, after bones have stopped growing, causes ________.

39. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is ________.

40. A common symptom of hyperthyroidism is ________.

41. A(n) ________ is the enlargement of the thyroid and can be the result of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.

42. ________ is the primary side effect of insulin therapy.

43. ________ is caused by insufficient production of adrenal corticosteroids.

44. ________ causes excess cortisol in response to stressors.

45. ________ levels are increased during periods of stress.

46. Chronic stress causes both physiological and ________ changes.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____10. ____11. ____12. ____13. ____14. ____15.

Sweat glands are endocrine glands.

-Melatonin is released by the pineal gland.

Ovaries secrete estrogen.

Glucagon lowers blood sugar.

-Hormonal targets are distant from secretion in the endocrine system.

-Follicle Stimulating Hormone is secreted in the ovaries.

Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal gland.

-Renin is secreted by the anterior pituitary.

Prolactin stimulates milk production.

-Restlessness is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.

Hypoglycemia is high blood sugar.

-Left untreated, diabetes mellitus can be fatal.

Epinephrine is also known as adrenalin.

-Norepinephrine is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

-Prednisone is used to prevent organ rejection.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain how one endocrine gland is controlled by another. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Explain the control of blood sugar by pancreatic hormones. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Why is the use of injected steroids so dangerous? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. What is the purpose of a set point in the body? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Describe how the thyroid and parathyroid glands interact. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 13 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________. a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Veins

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Capillaries Blood is pumped to the body during this part of the cardiac cycle ________. a. Atrial systole b. Atrial diastole c. Ventricular systole d. Ventricular diastole What is the name of the structure that separates the lower chambers of the heart? a. Atrial mitral valve b. Ventrical SA node c. Interatrial septum d. Interventricular septum What is the vessel that brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region? a. Superior vena cava b. Inferior vena cava c. Superior aorta d. Inferior artery What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve? a. Atrial valve b. Bicuspid valve c. Tricuspid valve d. Semilunar valve Which section of the heart receives blood from the right coronary artery? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle The group of pacemaker cells near the entrance of the superior vena cava form the ____________. a. Bundle of His b. Atrioventricular node c. Myocardium d. Sinoatrial node Which cranial nerve releases a neurotransmitter that can decrease the pulse and force of contraction? a. Abducens b. Vagus c. Hypoglossal d. Trochlear If heart rate decreases, what happens to blood pressure? a. nothing b. It depends on other conditions c. It increases d. It decreases If a patient has been infected by parasites, which white blood cell would be elevated in the bloodstream?

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a. Eosinophil b. Basophil c. Neutrophil d. Monocyte Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies? a. Monocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Platelets Jill is Rh negative. Her first baby was Rh negative. She is pregnant again, but the baby is Rh positive. Without medical treatment, will her antibodies attack the baby’s blood? a. yes b. no c. probably not since her first child is Rh negative d. probably yes since her first child is Rh negative Capillary beds are fed by the a. Capillaries b. Venules c. Arterioles d. Platelets If the innermost wall of a vessel is damaged, the ____________ begin the repair by attaching to the damaged site. a. Fibrin b. Platelets c. Fibrinogen d. Thrombin What clotting protein, produced by the liver, begins the clotting process? a. Thrombin b. Prothrombin c. Fibrin d. Fibrinogen What color will blood exhibit if it has a high oxygen content? a. Blue b. Colorless c. Bright red d. Purple The pH value measures the levels of ________. a. WBCs and RBCs b. Electrolytes c. Antigens and antibodies d. Acidity and alkalinity Which WBC is effective in defending the body against parasites? a. Eosinophil b. Basophil

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c. Neutrophil d. Monocyte What is the most common blood type among Americans? a. A b. B c. O d. AB Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is caused by ________. a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Angina d. Atherosclerosis Leukemia is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and creates a higher number of ________ than normal. a. WBCs b. Platelets c. RBCs d. Thrombocytes Which of the following is not a cause of thrombocytopenia? a. Vitamin K deficiency b. Bone marrow cancer c. Liver dysfunction d. Proper spleen function Ischemia of the myocardium causes ________. a. Myocardial infarction b. Angina c. Heart failure d. A murmur The term for the stoppage of blood flow is ________. a. Homeostasis b. Hemosclerosis c. Hemothrombus d. Hemostasis A substance that decreases the body’s ability to clot is ________. a. Aspirin b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin A d. Enzyme The ________ nervous system signals blood vessels to constrict. a. Parasympathetic b. Central c. Sympathetic d. Peripheral In terms of their location or movement, an embolus is a ________ clot, and a thrombus is a ________ clot.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a. Stationary, stationary b. Floating/moving, stationary c. Floating/moving, floating/moving d. Stationary, floating/moving The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________. a. Between the left atrium and left ventricle b. That opens from the right ventricle into the artery c. Between the right atrium and right ventricle d. That opens from the left ventricle into the artery Which of the following is not a white blood cell? a. Neutrophil b. Thrombocyte c. Lymphocyte d. All of the above are white blood cells This is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter of blood. a. 1 million b. 3 million c. 5 million d. 7 million The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to ________. a. Carry oxygen b. Carry carbon dioxide c. Carry hormones d. Both a and b above This clotting disorder is an inherited disorder. a. Thrombosis b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hemophilia d. Embolism This is a condition where an artery has become abnormally widened because of a localized weakness in the arterial wall. a. An aneurysm b. Ischemia c. Gangrene d. Phlebitis Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is ________. a. Angina pectoris b. Myocardial infarction c. Arteriosclerosis d. Embolism This is a condition usually found in the legs where blood pools in the veins because the veins have become dilated and distorted. a. An aneurysm b. Phlebitis c. Varicose veins

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Gangrene A heartbeat that is below 60 beats per minute is called ________. a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia c. Sinus dysrhythmia d. Fibrillation A person with type A blood ________. a. Has anti-A antibodies b. Has A antigens c. Has anti-B antibodies d. Both b and c above The blood type considered the universal donor is type ________. a. A b. B c. O d. AB The condition in which the patient experiences chest pain with exertion is ________. a. Angina pectoris b. Coronary artery disease c. Myocardial infarction d. Congestive heart failure The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or hemoglobin exists is ________. a. Anemia b. Thrombocytopenia c. Leukemia d. Polycythemia Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include all of the following except ________. a. Jugular vein distention b. Pulmonary edema c. Edema or swelling of hands and feet d. Splenomegaly Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left-sided heart failure? a. Jugular vein distention b. Edema or swelling of hands and feet c. Pulmonary edema d. Hepatomegaly Cardiac tamponade may result from ________. a. Pericarditis b. Endocarditis c. Heart failure d. Hypertension Congestive heart failure is now called ________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a. Pericarditis b. Endocarditis c. Heart failure d. Hypertension This drug commonly reduces or eliminates angina pectoris due to its ability to increase blood flow to the cardiac muscles by dilating coronary blood vessels. a. Epinephrine b. Lasix c. Oxygen d. Nitroglycerin Abnormal heart rhythms are called ________. a. Arrhythmias b. Sinus rhythm c. Bradycardia d. Tachycardia ________ is a condition in which chronic low levels of oxygen (due to lung disease or living in high altitudes) cause the body to produce more than normal amounts of erythrocytes to transport more efficiently the smaller amounts of available oxygen. a. Primary polycythemia b. Primary erythrocytopenia c. Secondary polycythemia d. Secondary erythrocytopenia ________ is caused by bone marrow cancer stimulating an over-production of erythrocytes. a. Primary polycythemia b. Primary erythrocytopenia c. Secondary polycythemia d. Secondary erythrocytopenia ________ is a blood condition in which there is a less than normal number of red blood cells or there is abnormal or deficient hemoglobin. a. Sickle cell anemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Anemia ________ is an inherited condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin molecules do not form properly. a. Sickle cell anemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Anemia ________ is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and is a condition in which a higher than normal number of white blood cells are produced. a. Sickle cell anemia b. Leukemia

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

c. Leukocytosis d. Anemia 52. ________ also exhibits as a situation in which there is a higher than normal number of white blood cells. In this case, the cause is often an infection that is being fought. a. Sickle cell anemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Anemia

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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The ____________ is the tip of the heart, distal to the head.

The bicuspid valve is also called the ____________ valve.

Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and __________________.

The ____________ side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs.

During a severe hemorrhage, blood vessels will ______________ causing an increase in peripheral resistance in an attempt to raise blood pressure.

Red blood cells are called ____________.

Type ____________ is the universal recipient of blood donations.

The middle layer of the vessel is the tunica ____________.

After leaving the AV node, the electrical impulse spreads to the _________________.

In an EKG, the __________________ wave corresponds to atrial depolarization. ____________ is the process in which neutrophils surround and ingest invaders. ____________ or clotting is the prevention of bleeding.

The smallest arteries are ____________.

During ventricular systole, the __________________ valves are closed.

The epicardium is also the ________________________.

The sinoatrial node is also called the ________. ________ is the chemical symbol for mercury. ________ defend against parasites.

A lower number of white cells than normal is ________.

Tissue death is called ________ or necrosis.

Extremely low blood pressure, as in shock, can affect blood profusion to vital organs and cause tissue damage and ________.

Peripheral vascular disease is a condition caused by plaque buildup called atherosclerosis in the ________ arteries.

In a blood transfusion, if the patient receives blood of the wrong blood type, the donor’s antigens and the recipient’s antibodies ________ and cause serious harm or death.

The medication nitroglycerin increases blood flow to cardiac muscle by vasodilation of the ________ blood vessels.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

25. Women who smoke and use oral contraceptives are at a higher risk of formation of thrombi in the blood vessels, which can break off to become ________.

26. ________ is a type of blood cancer that can cause increased WBCs. 27. When an infection occurs, the body produces a(n) ________ than normal number of neutrophils, which are one type of WBC. 28. The first hour of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) is critical, so emergency services should be called immediately even if the patient ________ they are having a heart attack.

29. Anemia is a blood condition in which there are fewer than normal RBCs or there is an abnormality or deficiency of ________.

30. Antibodies often react with the antigens that caused them to form, and the antigens stick together, or ________, in little clumps.

31. A high-fat and high-salt diet, age, obesity, smoking, stress, and decreasing flexibility of the blood vessels can all contribute to ________.

32. A type of clot called a(n) ________ or emboli can partially or totally block blood flow to a portion of the heart, resulting in a coronary thrombosis, which can cause a heart attack.

33. ________ is a condition in which there are fewer than normal circulating platelets.

34. Since type AB doesn’t contain plasma anti-A antibodies or anti-B antibodies, it can’t clump with any donated blood that contains A or B antigens. Because of this, a type AB person is labeled a(n) ________.

35. Basophils are important because they secrete the chemical ________, which helps to keep blood from clotting as it courses through blood vessels.

36. A(n) ________ is a result of blood leaking backward due to a faulty heart valve or a narrowed valve opening.

37. ________ is a narrowing of a valve and can be caused by rheumatic fever, congenital origin, or the aging process.

38. A(n) ________ is a weakening and distortion of the walls of an artery and can be caused by hypertension or trauma.

39. ________ is often called chest pain and is caused by ischemia of the myocardium, as a result of poor blood perfusion of the heart tissue.

40. Coronary artery disease or CAD is an insufficient blood flow to the heart tissue. It is usually due to ________ but may be due to clot(s) in a coronary artery.

41. A(n) ________ is a clot that has moved or traveled and can be caused by thrombophlebitis, venous stasis, or contraceptives.

42. ________ is a chronic increase in pressure and can be caused by heredity, diet, or smoking.

43. ________ can be caused by conditions or situations that lead to a decreased blood flow to the heart tissue, and leads to ischemia or necrosis (Do not use the abbreviation).

44. ________ veins are dilated and distorted blood veins that are normally found superficially in the legs but can also be found in the rectum.

45. ________ may be caused by decreased red blood cell (RB) production.

46. ________ is an inherited bleeding disorder.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

47. ________ is a less than normal level of platelets, that may be due to leukemia, or bone marrow aplasia.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____10. ____11. ____12. ____13. ____14. ____15.

All arteries carry oxygenated blood.

Arteries have thinner walls than veins.

-It is called systole when the heart contracts.

The vagus nerve increases heart rate.

-The ventricles are contracted during the QRS interval of the EKG. Plasma is a yellowish fluid.

Monocytes are erythrocytes.

Type AB has no antigens.

-The innermost layer of the blood vessel is the tunica interna.

-During the final stage of clotting the clot becomes water soluble.

-During severe dehydration, blood pressure rises.

A floating embolus is a thrombus.

-Decreased blood flow to tissues is called ischemia.

Atherosclerosis is caused by plaque.

-Heart valves close when their tissue is depolarized.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Draw the ECG tracing and describe what P, QRS, and T indicate. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Trace the flow of blood through the heart from superior and inferior vena cave to aorta. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Discuss why an O negative mother should be concerned about her second pregnancy. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

_____________________________________________ 4. Explain the clotting process. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Explain the factors that influence blood pressure. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 14 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. During metabolism, your body produces the waste product ____________. a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen c. Carbon monoxide d. Carbon dioxide 2. The process of gas exchange between air and blood is called a. Ventilation b. External respiration c. Internal respiration d. Respiration 3. The respiratory system terminates at the a. Alveoli b. Bronchus c. Bronchioles d. Lungs 4. What region contains the coarse nasal hairs? a. Pharyngeal b. Vestibular c. Olfactory d. Laryngeal 5. ____________ cells are responsible for the production of mucus. a. Goblet b. Epithelial c. Cilia

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d. Basal The vocal cords are located in the ____________. a. Nasal cavity b. Larynx c. Oropharynx d. Laryngopharynx The trachea extends from the larynx to the ____________ vertebrae. a. 2nd cervical b. 1st thoracic c. 6th thoracic d. 4th lumbar Type II cells that line the alveoli are responsible for the production of a. Carina b. Surfactant c. Carbon dioxide d. Nitrogen The diaphragm is covered by a serous membrane called the ____________. a. Visceral membrane b. Visceral pleura c. Musculo-serous membrane d. Parietal pleura The area of the left lung that corresponds to the right middle lobe is ____________. a. Lingula b. Hilum c. Carina d. Sternum Which region of the brain controls breathing? a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebrum c. Medulla oblongata d. Occipital All of these muscles aid ventilation except _______________ . a. Abdominal b. Pleural c. Accessory d. Respiratory _____________________ is the amount of gas moved during normal ventilation. a. Inspiratory reserve volume b. Vital Capacity c. Tidal Volume d. Expiratory reserve volume When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume ______________________. a. Decreases b. Increases

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c. Stays the same d. Changes depending on circumstances The _______________ nerve carries impulses to the diaphragm. a. Phrenic b. Vagus c. Diaphragmatic d. Thoracic Due to the structure of the ________, a large amount of moisture is added to the respiratory system every day. a. Nares b. Trachea c. Conchae d. Eustachian tube The “clean-up” cells are located in the ________ layer of alveolar membrane. a. Surfactant b. Epithelial c. Interstitial space d. Capillary endothelium The kidneys attempt to increase hemoglobin levels in the body by the release of ________. a. Iron b. Oxygen c. Erythrocytes d. Erythropoietin The diaphragm receives help from the ________ muscles in the activity of breathing. a. Pleural b. Thoracic c. Accessory d. Respiratory Pleural effusion with pus is a(n) ________. a. Hydrothorax b. Empyema c. Emphysema d. Eczema A lack of lung surfactant causes ________ lungs that resist expansion. a. Floppy b. Inflamed c. Infected d. Stiff The majority of cases of chronic bronchitis are caused by a. Asthma b. Allergies c. Smoking d. Fungi

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

23. Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Larynx c. Pharynx d. Nose 24. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Larynx c. Bronchi d. Lungs 25. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx? a. Tracheopharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Oropharynx d. Laryngopharynx 26. This structure is not a part of the larynx ________. a. Thyroid cartilage b. Vocal cords c. Epiglottis d. Eustachian tubes 27. The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue are ________. a. Primary bronchi b. Secondary bronchi c. Bronchioles d. Alveolar ducts 28. The movement of air into and out of the lung is called ________. a. Evacuation b. Perspiration c. Respiration d. Ventilation 29. The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________. a. Evacuation b. Perspiration c. Respiration d. Ventilation 30. The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called ________. a. Tidal volume b. Residual volume c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Expiratory reserve volume 31. A collection of air or gas in the thoracic cavity, as the result of a stab wound or gunshot wound to the chest describes a condition called ________. a. Emphysema

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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b. Bronchiectasis c. Pneumoconiosis d. Pneumothorax ________ is a destructive disease of the alveoli and the adjacent capillary walls resulting in chronic dyspnea, cough, and the characteristic barrel chest. a. Emphysema b. Bronchiectasis c. Pneumoconiosis d. Pneumothorax Which of the following is not a respiratory structure? a. Larynx b. Esophagus c. Bronchi d. Nose The two most important respiratory control centers are located in this part of the brain ________. a. Medulla oblongata b. Pons c. Cerebral cortex d. Cerebellum Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found ________. a. In the medulla oblongata b. In the carotid artery c. In the aorta d. Both b and c Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as ________. a. Apnea b. Dyspnea c. Eupnea d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration Shortness of breath is called ________. a. Dyspnea b. Eupnea c. Orthopnea d. Wheezing ________ is a condition in which there is air inside the thoracic cavity and outside of the lungs. a. Pleuritis b. Pleurisy c. Pneumothorax d. Hemothorax ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura. a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c. Pulmonary edema d. Empyema ________ is pus in the pleural space. a. Hemothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Hydrothorax d. Empyema ________ is blood in the pleural space. a. Hemothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Hydrothorax d. Empyema ________ is distinguished by having reversible airway narrowing and airway hyperreactivity; and is most commonly characterized as an inflammatory process. a. Asthma b. Emphysema c. Chronic bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis ________ is characterized anatomically as the permanent, abnormal enlargement of distal airway spaces and destruction of the alveolar walls. a. Asthma b. Emphysema c. Chronic bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis ________ is associated with a chronic productive cough, enlargement of mucous glands, and hypertrophy of the airway smooth muscle ________. a. Asthma b. Emphysema c. Chronic bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis The inability to get air out of the lungs is known as ________. a. Hyperinflation b. Bronchospasm c. COPD d. Gas trapping Which of the following drugs has as its basic purpose to reduce the work of breathing, increase the oxygen content of the blood, and reduce the work of the heart? a. Antivirals b. Insulin c. Oxygen d. Antibiotics Which drug provides rapid relief of an acute situation of airway narrowing? a. Bronchodilators b. Steroids

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

c. d.

Oxygen Antibiotics

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. The trachea branches into mainstem ____________.

2. The bronchi branch into ____________.

3. The part of the respiratory system that carries air but has no gas exchange capability is called the ____________________ zone.

4. The process of gas exchange is known as ____________.

5. Air filled cavities in the facial bones are known as ____________.

6. Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the ____________.

7. The windpipe is known as the ____________.

8. The site of bifurcation in the bronchi is called the ____________.

9. Premature infants are often in danger due to a lack of __________________ in the lungs.

10. As CO2 levels rise, pH decreases and ____________ rate increases.

11. The alveoli consists of _____________ cells.

12. The oropharynx is lined with _________________ epithelium.

13. A young woman dives into the surf, hitting her head and causing a spinal cord injury. She is in respiratory arrest. Her injury is most likely above the ___________________ spinal cord segment.

14. The motor neurons for ventilation are in the brain region known as the ______________________.

15. Red blood cell numbers are controlled by a hormone released by the _______________.

16. Oxygen is abbreviated as the chemical sign ________.

17. Carbon dioxide is abbreviated as ________.

18. The smallest blood vessels are known as ________.

19. Producing sound is known as ________.

20. Olfaction is the sense of ________.

21. The vocal cords are found in the ________.

22. The liquid ________ layer lines the alveoli.

23. Red blood cells are known as ________.

24. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a global term for the conditions of emphysema, and chronic ________.

25. In pleural effusion, if the fluid in the pleural space has pus, it is known as ________.

26. There has been recent concern about a multi drug-________ form of TB that does not respond to the usual TB drugs and that has a high mortality rate.

27. The terms iron-poor blood or tired blood come from the fact that a patient with low levels of iron tires easily due to low ________ or hemoglobin levels.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

28. Excessive secretions and fluid, such as in pneumonia, act as barriers and reduce the ________ in the blood.

29. Bloody fluid found in the pleural cavity/space is called a(n) ________.

30. In susceptible individuals, ________ causes recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough, particularly at night and in the early morning.

31. The lungs reside in the thoracic cavity and are separated by a region called the ________, which contains the esophagus, heart, great vessels, and trachea.

32. Swallowed materials pass through the ________ to get to the stomach.

33. A(n) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and the visceral pleura.

34. The ________, or breastbone, is centrally located on the anterior portion of the thoracic cage and is comprised of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process.

35. During increased physical activity or in disease states in which more oxygen is required, ________ are used to help pull up your rib cage to make an even larger space in the thoracic cavity.

36. ________ is a respiratory infection causing pressure, pain and often a headache.

37. The nasopharynx contains lymphatic tissue of the immune system, called the ________, and passageways to the middle ear called eustachian tubes.

38. The major pathology of the upper airways include ________ or allergies of the sinuses, nose, or throat.

39. ________, or sore throat, causes discomfort especially when swallowing.

40. ________, or an inflamed voice box, is characterized by hoarseness and loss of speech.

41. ________ is a condition in which the alveoli of the lungs are either partially or totally collapsed.

42. ________ is a lung infection that can be caused by a virus, fungus, bacterium, aspiration, or chemical inhalation.

43. ________ is defined as the presence of productive cough during 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years, provided that other causes of chronic sputum production are excluded.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8.

-The upper respiratory tract begins at the nares and ends at the trachea.

-The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves by a septum.

-The pontine respiratory group is the chief respiratory center.

-Respiratory mucosa is ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells.

The oropharynx is behind the mouth.

-The major type of alveolar cell is Type II, or granular pneumocytes.

-The hormone erythropoietin is released in the lungs.

-Inspired objects usually lodge in the left lung.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

____ 9. -The thoracic cavity and the upper side of the diaphragm are lined with the visceral pleura. ____10. -The hilum is the area where the root of each lung is attached. ____11. -The thoracic cage consists of twelve pairs of elastic arches of bone called ribs. ____12. The cerebrum controls breathing. ____13. -The dome-shaped muscle that acts to ventilate is the diaphragm. ____14. -The portion of the sternum where CPR is performed is the xiphoid process. ____15. -Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. List the changes in the layers of the wall of the respiratory system from conducting zone to respiratory zone. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Why do we breathe through our noses? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Discuss how the angle of branching of the bronchi makes a difference in which lung receives aspirations. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Explain the mechanism of ventilation. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Discuss the effect of surfactant. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

_____________________________________________

CHAPTER 15 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In addition to storage of white blood cells the lymphatic system is also responsible for a. Producing pathogens to fight infections b. Producing fluids to supplement the cardiovascular system c. Production of some types of white blood cells d. Maturation of some types of red blood cells 2. Lymph nodes can be described as a. Small encapsulated bodies b. Patches of cytokines c. Immature antibodies d. Organelles of immunity 3. Lymphatic trunks from the lumbar region empty into the a. Left lymphatic duct b. Right lymphatic duct c. Sacral duct d. Thoracic duct 4. Which structure will sometimes disappear in adults? a. Sinus b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Pancreas 5. Unique molecules found on the outer surface of cell membranes are called a. Antigens b. Antibodies c. Interferon d. Cytokines 6. Innate immunity triggers a series of mechanisms that target specific pathogens; the mechanisms are called a. Passive immunity b. Helper cells c. Activation cells d. Adaptive immunity 7. The body has both physical and chemical ____________ to prevent invaders from entering. a. Cells b. Barriers

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c. Nodes d. Cytes The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of damage are the a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Mast cells d. Dendrite cells The ____________ cells release antibodies to destroy cells that carry non-self antigens. a. Mast b. B-lymphocytic c. T-lymphocytic d. Natural killer What is the cytokine which is produced to stimulate macrophages and cause death of cancer cells? a. Interferon b. Interleukin c. Cytokinase d. Tumor necrosis factor What name is given to the series of reactions responsible for activation of twenty normally inactive proteins? a. Complement cascade b. Inflammatory response c. Margination selection d. Differentiation process For your body to launch an effective response to invading pathogens, innate immunity must join forces with the a. Lymphatic system b. Cardiovascular system c. Adaptive immunity d. Hypothalamus There are two types of proliferation, one for ____________ and one for all other types of lymphocytes. a. Natural killer cells b. B-cells c. Helper T-cells d. Dendritic cells ____________ are essential for the reproduction of B cells and other types of cells. a. Memory B-cells b. Helper T-cells c. Cytotoxic T-cells d. Regulatory T-cells Once the threat of invasion is over, the ____________ are responsible for “turningoff” the response. a. Memory B-cells

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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b. Regulatory T-cells c. Cytotoxic T-cells d. Helper B-cells The HIV virus targets ________ cells. a. Natural killer cells b. B-cells c. Helper T-cells d. Dendritic cells It is because of adaptive ________ that people normally get chicken pox only once. a. Immunity b. WBCs c. Antibodies d. Antigens Barriers include all of the following except ________. a. Mucous membranes b. Skin c. Sebaceous glands d. Nails Which stage of cancer would mean it had spread to nearby tissues? a. Stage four b. Stage seven c. Stage two d. Stage five Which of the following is not one of the immune system’s components? a. Barrier b. NSAID c. Inflammation d. Chemical The ________ gland is larger in children because they are exposed to many new infections. a. Thymus b. Thyroid c. Thalamus d. Tinnitus In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the ________. a. Pleural membrane b. Mucous membrane c. Synovial membrane d. Myelin membrane The ________ in the chest is part of the lymphatic system and helps T lymphocytes mature. a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Spleen c. Palatine tonsils

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Thymus The spleen is a lymph organ that filters blood and also acts as a reservoir for ________. a. Water b. Fat c. Interstitial fluid d. Blood Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of ________. a. Natural passive immunity b. Natural active immunity c. Artificial active immunity d. Artificial passive immunity The fetus receives antibodies from the mother which last several weeks after birth.

This is an example of ________. a. Natural passive immunity b. Natural active immunity c. Artificial active immunity d. Artificial passive immunity If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of ________. a. Natural passive immunity b. Natural active immunity c. Artificial active immunity d. Artificial passive immunity If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of ________. a. Natural passive immunity b. Natural active immunity c. Artificial active immunity d. Artificial passive immunity A cytokine produced by cells in response to invasion by a virus is ________. a. Complement b. Interferon c. Interleukin d. Mucus The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the body’s own cells is ________. a. Immunodeficiency diseases b. Autoimmune diseases c. Immunocompetent diseases d. Diseases of the reticuloendothelial system The activated lymphocytes must make thousands of copies of themselves in order to fight off the thousands of pathogens reproducing in the body. This reproduction of lymphocytes is called ________. a. Lymphocyte proliferation

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b. Lymphocyte activation c. Differentiation d. Immunization HIV infection and subsequently AIDS, is characterized by severe decrease in immune function, particularly ________. a. Memory B-cells b. Neutrophils c. Helper T-cells d. Plasma cells If the body is exposed to the same pathogen in the future, memory cells allow the body to mount a much faster response to the invasion known as the ________ response. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary What kind of cells produce antibodies? a. T cells b. B cells c. NK cells d. Neutrophils Which of these is an autoimmune disease? a. c and d only b. Influenza c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) In this stage of cancer, spread to distant tissues and organs is present ________. a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV In this stage of cancer, no spread from the origin is present ________. a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV In this stage of cancer, spread to nearby lymph nodes is present ________. a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV This stage of cancer is often terminal ________. a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

d. Stage IV 40. The signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ________. a. Cold b. Pain c. Swelling d. Redness 41. Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include ________. a. Joint stiffness b. Symmetrical joint damage c. Decreased range of motion d. All of the above 42. Signs and symptoms of allergies can include all of the following except ________. a. Weight loss b. Wheezing c. Upper respiratory infections d. Hives

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. The ____________ system is the transport system for pathogens and white blood cells.

2. Lymph capillaries empty into lymphatic ____________.

3. The ____________ is a lymphatic organ that destroys red blood cells.

4. The ____________ is the soft organ between the aortic arch and sternum.

5. Any organism that invades your body and causes disease is a(n) ____________.

6. ____________ immunity is your body’s inborn ability to fight infection.

7. ____________ are molecules on the outer surface of cells.

8. ____________, or white blood cells, defend the body.

9. ____________, and mast cells, release chemicals to promote inflammation.

10. Vaccination triggers ________________________ immunity.

11. Ultimately the cause of death in AIDS patients is ___________________.

12. Walling off an infected area is called ____________.

13. Selection of lymphocytes which react to antigens is called _______________ selection.

14. Redness, heat, swelling and pain are signs of ____________.

15. The reproduction of activated B cells is called _____________________.

16. ________ fight parasitic worms.

17. ________ means to break down or destroy.

18. Cancers that are diagnosed after they have already spread to other organs are much more likely to be ________.

19. There are several different types of leukemia based on the ________ of WBCs and the nature of the patient’s symptoms.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

20. When the hypothalamus causes a rise in body temperature during an illness, it is purposely trying to destroy the invading ________.

21. Symptoms of leukemia are caused by decreased function of WBCs (if the cells are immature) and decreased ________ of RBCs and platelets.

22. In ________ disorders, the body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue.

23. The inflammatory response is the same, whether it is a mechanical injury, a wound infection, damage due to a pathogen, or ________ throat.

24. A rise in body temperature is one way the immune system deliberately tries to kill a(n) ________.

25. The lumbar, intestinal, and intercostal trunk all empty into the ________ duct, a large duct that runs from the abdomen up through the diaphragm and into the left subclavian vein.

26. Cells have molecules on the outer surface of their membranes to distinguish whether they are friend or foe. These molecules are called ________.

27. Complement ________ is a complex series of reactions that activate 20 proteins that are usually inactive in the blood unless activated by a pathogen invasion.

28. If an invader has an opportunity to enter the body, white blood cells, or ________, are responsible for defending the body against invaders.

29. ________ are proteins produced by damaged tissues and white blood cells that stimulate immune response in a variety of ways, including increasing inflammation, stimulating lymphocytes, and enhancing phagocytosis.

30. ________ is characterized by four cardinal signs: swelling, pain, heat, and redness.

31. The destruction of self-recognizing lymphocytes is known as ________.

32. ________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of a patient’s joints.

33. Cytotoxic T cells release a cytokine called ________, which causes infected cells to develop holes in their membranes and die.

34. ________ is staged and prognosis is determined by the amount of metastasis, tumor characteristics, and lymph node involvement.

35. ________ is a cancer of the bone marrow and blood, characterized by the overproduction of white blood cells.

36. Inflammation that becomes systemic and is caused by allergic reactions to insect stings, nuts, or shellfish is called ________.

37. ________ is the rise in body temperature as a deliberate attempt by the immune system to destroy the pathogens that have invaded the body.

38. ________ disorders occur when the immune system attacks some part of the body.

The body fails to recognize “self” and destroys its own tissue as if it were an invader.

39. ________ arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the synovial membrane of patient’s joints.

40. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is a(n) ________ disorder in which the immune system attacks a variety of structures in the body.

41. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is an immune ________ disorder caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

42. ________ are caused by the overreaction of the immune system to typically harmless antigens, like mold, pollen, or animal fur.

43. ________ is caused by the uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ’F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -Antigen displaying cells are infected by pathogens so they can display the antigens. ____ 2. -Fever is caused by neurotransmitters released by pathogens. ____ 3. -Innate immunity improves with experience. ____ 4. -Antigens are the body’s weapons against disease. ____ 5. -Lymph nodes contain blood sinuses, and red and white pulp. ____ 6. -All lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity. ____ 7. -Macrophages are part of innate immunity. ____ 8. Memory B cells remember pathogens. ____ 9. -An increase in cell number is called proliferation. ____10. -The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets CD-2 cells. ____11. -Natural immunity is acquired during vaccination. ____12. Macrophages ingest invaders. ____13. -Autoimmune disorders are the opposite of immunodeficiency disorders. ____14. -A hypersensitivity reaction is also called an allergy. ____15. -T lymphocytes are responsible for adaptive immunity known as antibody mediated immunity.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Describe why nodes are located near lungs, digestive, and reproductive organs. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Discuss how cancer is staged. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. How does self vs. non-self recognition affect the immune system? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Compare and contrast innate vs. adaptive immunity. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Explain why HIV causes severe immune deficiency by attacking one type of cell. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 16 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The digestive tract begins at the oral cavity and ends at the ________. a. Pharynx b. Colon c. Anus d. Appendix 2. Which of the following is a function of the oral cavity? a. Starch digestion b. Protein digestion c. Peristalsis d. Nutrient absorption 3. An abnormally formed ____________ will interfere with the development of clear speech. a. Molar b. Frenulum c. Vermiform d. Duodenum 4. The smallest of the salivary glands are the ________. a. Sublinguals b. Submandibulars c. Parotids d. Subbuccals 5. The ____________ teeth are blade shaped and used for cutting food. a. Incisor

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b. Canine c. Bicuspid d. Molar The ____________ is used by both the digestive and respiratory systems. a. Epipharynx b. Oropharynx c. Nasopharynx d. Larynx The esophagus differs from the rest of the alimentary tract in that it possesses no ________. a. Adventitia b. Muscularis c. Mucosa d. Serosa The stomach has four regions, the area that connects with the small intestine is called the a. Fundus b. Body c. Pylorus d. Cardiac region The stomach releases the hormone ____________ to aid in digestion. a. Pepsin b. HCL c. Secretin d. Gastrin What is the last section of the small intestine, before it empties into the large intestine, called? a. Duodenum b. Stomach c. Jejunum d. Ileum Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting the release of gastric juice? a. SIP b. Pepsin c. CCK d. Gastrin This organ has an extra layer of muscle ________. a. Stomach b. Colon c. Liver d. Spleen The appendix is attached at which area? a. Colon b. Anus c. Cecum

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d. Rectum Which organ is responsible for the production of bile? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine Hepatocytes receive blood from both the hepatic artery and the _______________ a. Hepatic vein b. Hepatic portal vein c. Hepatic portal artery d. Hepatic capillaries The ________ is the base, or floor of the mouth. a. Tongue b. Soft palate c. Labia d. Hard palate The structure responsible for the absorption of excess water is the ________. a. Stomach b. Large intestine c. Liver d. Spleen Enzymes are necessary for digestion; ________ is produced to break down fats. a. Nuclease b. Lipase c. Carbohydrase d. Maltase The type of hernia where the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity is ________. a. Hiatal b. Hepatic c. Cholecystic d. Celiac Pancreatitis can be caused by all but which one of the following? a. Gallbladder disease b. Excessive pancreatic enzyme activation c. Lithotripsy d. Excessive alcohol consumption Which of these is not one of the causes of dental caries? a. Carbohydrate-rich diet b. LDL c. Poor dental hygiene d. Lack of regular dental visits Lactose intolerant patients cannot digest the ________ in milk. a. Protein b. Sugar

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c. Fat d. Cholesterol Hepatitis can be caused by any of the following except ________. a. The common cold b. An infectious agent c. A toxin d. Shared needles A colostomy may be the appropriate treatment for ________. a. Hyperactive peristalsis b. Allowing healing after surgery c. Chronic constipation d. None of the above ________ is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease. a. Gastroenteritis b. Irritable bowel syndrome c. Crohn’s disease d. Peritonitis ________ is caused by a viral and/or bacterial infection and/or inflammation of the stomach and small intestine. a. Gastroenteritis b. Peritonitis c. Irritable bowel syndrome d. Crohn’s disease Polyposis is a small tumor with a pedicle in the mucous membrane of the ________. a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Duodenum d. Colon The punching bag-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the ________. a. Frenulum b. Papillae c. Uvula d. Palatine tonsil This type of tooth is responsible for crushing and grinding. a. Incisor b. Canine c. Premolar d. Molar This substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown. a. Cementum b. Enamel c. Dentin d. Pulp

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31. Most of the interior of the tooth is made of this substance. a. Cementum b. Enamel c. Dentin d. Gingiva 32. This condition is the cracking and associated inflammation found on the lips and corners of the mouth are not caused by cancer, but rather can be traced to infections, allergies, or even to nutritional deficiency. a. Periodontitis b. Dental caries c. Gingivitis d. Cheilitis 33. Which of the following is not a salivary gland? a. Sublingual gland b. Submandibular gland c. Submaxillary gland d. Parotid gland 34. This enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates ________. a. Salivary amylase b. Salivary maltase c. Salivary sucrase d. Salivary lactase 35. The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following? a. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum b. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum c. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum d. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum 36. This structure increases the surface area of the lining of the small intestine ________. a. Peptase b. Lacteals c. Villi d. Chyle 37. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest ________. a. Carbohydrates b. Fats c. Proteins d. All of the above 38. The order in which material passes through the large intestine is ________. a. Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum b. Ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon c. Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon d. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

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39. The process of carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________. a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine 40. Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion? a. Fatty acids b. Glycerol c. Simple sugars d. Amino acids 41. Protein digestion begins in the ________. a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine 42. Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion? a. Amino acids b. Glycerol c. Simple sugars d. Both a and b 43. An acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach is called ________. a. Colitis b. Stomatitis c. Gastritis d. Gastric ulcer 44. A ________ is an ulcer occurring in the lower portion of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum caused by the breakdown of the mucosal membrane by the acid of gastric juices and pepsin. a. Duodenal ulcer b. Stomatitis c. Gastritis d. Peptic ulcer 45. ________ is/are varicose veins of the rectum. a. Rectitis b. Hemorrhoids c. Colostomy d. None of the above 46. A hernia or out-pouching of intestines into the inguinal region of the body is called a(n) ________ a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Umbilical hernia c. Inguinal hernia d. Hiatal hernia 47. ________ is inadequate absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract. It is caused by a variety of diseases and disorders of the pancreas and gallbladder.

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a. Cystic fibrosis b. Malabsorption syndrome c. Pancreatitis d. Hepatitis 48. ________ is an infectious or inflammatory process of the peritoneum. a. Colitis b. Hepatitis c. Pancreatitis d. Peritonitis 49. ________ are small growths that contain a pedicle or foot-like attachment in the mucous membranes of the large colon. a. Diverticulitis b. Ulcerative colitis c. Polyps d. Inflammatory bowel disease

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The gastrointestinal system takes in, or ____________, raw materials.

The gastrointestinal system breaks down, or ____________, materials.

Another name for the digestive tract is the ____________ (GI) tract.

During swallowing, the _______________ prevents food from entering the nasal cavity.

The action of chewing is known as ____________.

Materials are eliminated from the digestive tract by ____________.

The small intestine has projections on the surface of its epithelial cells known as ______________ which increase surface area.

Internally, the teeth are made of ____________.

The ____________ is a flap of tissue that covers the airway to the lungs.

Deciduous teeth are commonly called ____________ teeth, because they fall out.

The rhythmic, muscular contraction of the digestive system is known as ____________.

Partially digested food is known as ____________.

The chief digestive enzyme in the stomach is ____________.

The _____________________ phase of gastric activity begins when you see or smell food.

The peritoneum has drapes of membrane known as ____________________.

The digestive tract begins in the mouth and ends at the ________.

Inflammation of the appendix is called ________. ________ is the muscle action that mixes chyme with digestive juices.

The condition of stones in the gallbladder is ________.

The esophagus does not have a mucus barrier to protect it. Chronic acid ________ causes inflammation and then ulceration, and if left untreated, can progress to esophageal cancer.

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21. A gallstone can lodge in the bile ________, causing extreme pain that may radiate to the right shoulder (an example of referred pain).

22. Excessive consumption of alcohol can cause ________.

23. Periodontal disease is the major cause of tooth loss in ________.

24. When fluids in the small intestine are rushed through the large intestine before the water is adequately re-absorbed, ________ is the result.

25. Heartburn occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter doesn’t close properly, allowing gastric juices back into the ________.

26. Stomach ulcers are likely due to defective gastric mucosa or a weak pyloric ________.

27. Stones can form from substances in the bile while it is stored in the gallbladder.

This condition is called ________.

28. ________, also known as dental cavities, is the gradual decay of teeth that can result in inflamed tissue.

29. The tongue pushes the food into a ball-like mass called a(n) ________ so it can be passed on to the pharynx.

30. A large ________ salivary gland is found slightly inferior and anterior to each ear.

These are the ones that swell up and make you look like a chipmunk when you get the mumps.

31. The first set of teeth are called ________ (baby) teeth, and they fall out in time.

32. ________ is an acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach due to infection, spicy foods, excess acid production, stress, alcohol, aspirin consumption, or heavy smoking.

33. The nasopharynx is blocked by the soft palate, and a flap of tissue called the ________, a part of the larynx, covers the airway to the lungs as the trachea rises during swallowing.

34. Dental ________ (cavities) are a result of microorganisms attacking tooth enamel.

35. ________ disease is the major cause of tooth loss in the adult population.

36. ________ is the term for a loss of appetite.

37. ________ is the inflammation of the gallbladder.

38. ________ is the formation of stones or calculi in the gallbladder or common bile duct.

39. ________ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the liver, leading to irreversible scarring and destruction of active liver tissue.

40. ________ disease is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the ileum and/or colon.

41. ________ reflux disease is the erosion of the esophageal lining due to acid reflux, often due to a weakened lower esophageal sphincter.

42. ________ is the inflammation of the gums that may lead to tooth loss.

43. ________ is the discharge of purulent material from dental tissue.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

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____ 1. -The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. ____ 2. Canine teeth are transitional teeth. ____ 3. -The hardest biologically manufactured substance is enamel. ____ 4. -The oropharynx is lined with respiratory mucosa. ____ 5. -The stomach can increase its diameter because of rugae. ____ 6. -Directly after leaving the stomach, materials go to the jejunum. ____ 7. -Pepsin is one of very few enzymes which are active at very low pH. ____ 8. -The final door of the stomach that needs to open for chyme to travel to the small intestine is the fundus. ____ 9. -The descending colon is the first part of the large intestine. ____10. -The liver stores Vitamins A, B12, K, and C. ____11. The pH of chyme is usually 7.5-8.8. ____12. Cholelithiasis means high cholesterol. ____13. -Cirrhosis A, B, C, D, and E are viruses that damage the liver. ____14. Salivary amylase digests proteins. ____15. -Gastrin is released when chyme enters the duodenum.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. List the organs of the alimentary canal in order from mouth to anus. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Explain the hormonal control of digestion. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Define and describe GERD. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Discuss the function of each of the parts of the alimentary canal. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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5. Describe the anatomy of the peritoneum. How is peritoneum different from other serous membranes? _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 17 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Without functioning kidneys, fluid and ion ___________ would kill you in a matter of days. a. Imbalance b. Equilibrium c. Reactions d. Impurities 2. The kidneys are covered by a layer of connective tissue called the ________. a. Renal pelvis b. Renal sinus c. Renal capsule d. Renal hilum 3. What are the vessels that lead to the glomeruli? a. Arcuate arteries b. Afferent arterioles c. Efferent arterioles d. Renal arterioles 4. Blood leaves the kidney through the ________. a. Efferent arterioles b. Hepatic vein c. Renal nephron d. Renal vein 5. Glomerular filtrate is chemically most similar to ________. a. Urine b. Plasma c. Lymph d. Cytoplasm 6. The first section of the nephron loop glomerular filtrate encounters is the ________. a. Ascending loop b. Distal tubule c. Descending loop

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d. Proximal tubule What is the most common cause of prolonged vasoconstriction in the kidney? a. Increased blood pressure b. Decreased blood pressure c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Diabetes mellitus What are the three processes necessary for the formation of urine? a. Intake, concentration, and output b. Chemical, muscular, and neural action c. Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion d. Arterioles, nephrons, and venules If blood pressure drops below normal range, what should happen to glomerular filtration rate, to compensate? a. It should decrease b. It should increase c. It should stay the same d. It depends on the situation ____________ is the mechanism used to protect the glomerulus from minor changes in blood pressure. a. Filtration b. Saturation c. Autoregulation d. Selection Anything that will affect reabsorption and secretion in the kidney will affect urine ________. a. Chemistry b. Flow c. Accumulation d. Filtration Hormones that regulate blood pressure also affect a. Number of nephrons b. Permeability of glomerular capsule c. Reabsorption and secretion d. Ureters and urethra Which steroid is secreted by the adrenal cortex to increase reabsorption of sodium ions? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Adrenalin d. Angiotensin New research has shown that urination is actually controlled by the ________. a. Kidney b. Bladder c. Pons d. Ureters

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15. Urinary tract infections are often caused by ____________ bacteria in the urinary tract. a. Symbiotic b. Fecal c. Abdominal d. Intestinal 16. Bowman’s capsule, the renal membrane that surrounds the glomerulus, is also called the ________. a. Renal corpuscle b. Glomerular capsule c. Renal tubule d. Glomerular filtrate 17. Substances are moved through a filter by differences in ________ across the filter. a. Pressure b. Openings c. Tubules d. Vessels 18. Which part of the renal tubular system reabsorbs or secretes the most substances? a. Distal Tubule b. Collecting duct c. Proximal Tubule d. Descending loop 19. Substances that are reabsorbed or secreted in the ascending loop include ________. a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. All of the above 20. The patient with diabetes insipidus will have copious amounts of ________ urine. a. Toxic b. Concentrated c. Cloudy d. Dilute 21. One of the most important risk factors for kidney disease is ________. a. Hypertension b. ACE inhibitors c. Hypotension d. Vasodilation 22. Kidney stones can be caused by any of the following except ________. a. Kidney infection b. Calcium c. Uric acid d. Potassium 23. The only cure for end-stage renal disease is ________. a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Lithotripsy

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c. Blood transfusion d. Kidney transplant Ischemia of the kidneys (as well as any other organ) is tissue injury from too little ________ to the tissues. a. Hormones b. Oxygen c. Glucose d. Water Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? a. Removing waste products from the blood b. Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood c. Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood d. All of the above are functions of the urinary system Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys? a. The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney. b. The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity. c. The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat. d. The kidneys are affected by blood pressure.

The outermost layer of the kidney is called the ________. a. Renal pelvis b. Renal medulla c. Renal cortex d. Calyx The innermost layer of the kidney is called the ________. a. Renal pelvis b. Renal medulla c. Renal cortex d. Calyx Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter? a. Renal pelvis b. Renal medulla c. Renal cortex d. Calyx Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules? a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Collecting tubule Which of the following structures drains into the collecting ducts? a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Loop of Henle

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32. Even though this structure is part of the circulatory system, it is included in the discussion of the urinary system ________. a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Renal pelvis d. Loop of Henle 33. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release a hormone ________. a. Called antidiuretic hormone b. That dilates blood vessels c. That causes vasoconstriction d. That increases the absorption of chloride from the filtrate 34. The process by which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called ________. a. Filtration b. Reabsorption c. Secretion d. Micturition 35. This hormone would tend to decrease the amount of urine produced. a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Atrial natriuretic hormone d. Both a and b 36. This hormone would tend to increase the amount of urine produced ________. a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Atrial natriuretic hormone d. Both a and b 37. The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the ________. a. Urethra b. Collecting tube c. Ureter d. Bladder 38. The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the ________. a. Urethra b. Collecting tube c. Trigone d. Ureter 39. The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called ________. a. Urination b. Voiding c. Mastication d. Both a & b 40. Severe pain, hematuria, fever, chills, nausea, and urinary urgency are symptoms of ________. a. Kidney stones

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b. Polycystic kidney disease c. Ischemic nephropathy d. Diabetic nephropathy Enlarged cystic kidneys, hypertension, UTI, dilute urine, liver cysts, pain, hematuria, and aneurysm are symptoms of ________. a. Kidney stones b. Polycystic kidney disease c. Ischemic nephropathy d. Diabetic nephropathy This condition is caused by chronic hyperglycemia ________: a. Kidney stones b. Polycystic kidney disease c. Ischemic nephropathy d. Diabetic nephropathy Copious, dilute urine is a symptom of ________. a. Uremia b. Renal failure c. Diabetes insipidus d. Urinary tract infection Painful urination, urinary frequency, nighttime urination, and foul smelling, cloudy urine are symptoms of ________. a. Uremia b. Renal failure c. Diabetes insipidus d. Urinary tract infection Frequent urination without pain or infection is a symptom of ________. a. An overactive bladder b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome c. Urinary tract infection d. Uremia High blood pressure is a common disease that can affect the kidneys. One way of treating high blood pressure is to decrease blood volume by decreasing body water.

This can be accomplished by using what kind of drug? a. Blood thinners b. ACE stimulators c. Diuretics d. Dopamine Urine leaves the kidneys through the ________. a. Urethra b. Ureters c. Bladder d. None of the above Urine leaves the bladder through the ________. a. Urethra b. Ureters

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c. d.

Kidneys None of the above

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The ____________ carries urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder.

The space inside the kidney is called the renal ____________.

The collecting ducts empty into _________________.

Blood enters the renal corpuscle via the ____________.

There are no __________________ veins in the kidney.

The ________________are striped areas of the renal medulla.

All of the ___________________ in glomerular filtrate is typically reabsorbed and won’t be in urine.

Long term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs causes ____________ nephropathy. ____________ is an endocrine disorder characterized by too little anti-diuretic hormone or the insensitivity of the kidney to ADH. The ____________ is the functional unit of the kidney.

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone ___________ system is a series of chemical reactions that regulate blood pressure. ____________ means to crush stones.

The ascending nephron loop is permeable only to _________________.

Sympathetic output causes _________________ glomerular filtration.

PKD stands for ____________ disease. ________ moves fluid and chemicals into the nephron. ________ is the movement of molecules from high to low concentrations. ________ is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

Blood flows to the glomerulus via the ________ arteriole.

Blood flows from the glomerulus into the ________ arteriole.

In both glomerulosclerosis and glomerulonephritis, there is decreased waste product removal and the electrolyte ________ is abnormal.

An infection with the bacteria E. Coli , usually from eating undercooked ________, can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome.

Renal failure is also known as ________ disease, kidney disease, or kidney failure.

When blood flow to the nephrons decreases for a period of time, the oxygen being delivered to the nephron also decreases leading to tissue injury. This injury is classified as ________.

Nephropathy is a term for kidney disease especially when there is damage to the nephron’s ________ apparatus.

There is no cure for PKD except kidney ________.

It is not uncommon for trauma patients to ________ a trauma only to sustain organ damage due to ischemia.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

28. The glomerulus is protected from minor changes in blood pressure by a mechanism called ________.

29. ________ is a general term for kidney disease particularly damage to the filtering apparatus of the nephrons.

30. The second factor that affects tubular reabsorption and secretion is a special type of circulation around the nephron loop, called ________ circulation.

31. ________(ADH) is made by the hypothalamus and secreted from the posterior pituitary when blood pressure decreases or blood ionic concentration increases.

32. ________ is inflammation of the glomerulus.

33. ________ is a common condition with symptoms of urinary urgency, nighttime urination, and urinary frequency with or without incontinence, but without pain or obvious urinary pathology such as hematuria or UTI. 34. The indentation that gives the kidney its bean-shaped appearance is called the ________.

35. Each afferent arteriole leads to a ball of capillaries called a(n) ________.

36. Renal pyramids are separated by narrow ________, which are extensions of the cortical tissue.

37. Kidney stones are caused by increased urine concentration, infection, and kidney disease. They can be made of ________ and uric acid crystals.

38. ________ kidney disease is a genetic disorder that causes large cysts to form in the kidney.

39. ________ nephropathy is caused by decreased blood flow to the kidneys.

40. Diabetic ________ is a type of kidney disease caused by diabetes mellitus.

41. Drug-induced ________ is a type of kidney disease caused by drugs toxic to kidney tissue, especially contrast dyes and NSAIDs. 42. ________ is scarring of the glomerulus.

43. ________ is a blood condition that accompanies kidney disease and appears to be due to the accumulation of organic wastes in the blood stream.

44. ________ uremic syndrome is a disorder caused by an infection with the bacteria E. Coli , typically from undercooked meat.

45. Acute renal failure is a rapid decrease in kidney function, as measured by blood urea and ________ levels, that develops over minutes or days.

46. ________ renal failure is defined as an ongoing, progressive kidney disease of three months or more.

47. ________ is the inability to control urination.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5.

Medulla means inner portion.

-The functional unit of the kidney is the neuron.

-More than 40 gallons of blood are filtered every 24 hours.

-Filtration is controlled by changing pressure.

-A sphincter controls the release of urine.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

____ 6. -The ureter is the tubing that transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. ____ 7. -Diabetes mellitus is caused by production of too little insulin or by insensitivity to insulin. ____ 8. -The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is made of specialized cells called podocytes. ____ 9. -The urge to urinate is caused by skeletal muscle contraction. ____10. -Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the kidneys. ____11. Aldosterone is a steroid. ____12. -Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop. ____13. -Caffeine promotes the working of antidiuretic hormone. ____14. -Atrial natriuretic peptide has the opposite affect of ADH ____15. -The urinary bladder serves as a reservoir for urine.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Explain how blood loss affects the kidney. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. List and explain three hormones which can regulate kidney function. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Describe how filtration is regulated. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. Explain how diabetes mellitus affects the kidneys. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. Describe how kidney stones are caused. _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

_____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 18 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which pair of chromosomes would result in the birth of a male? a. XX b. XY c. YY d. XZ 2. In the human life cycle, the fertilized egg is called a(n) ________. a. Zygote b. Gonad c. Embryo d. Fetus 3. Which of the following is an example of primary genitalia in a female? a. Oviducts b. Vagina c. Ovaries d. Testes 4. The outermost layer of the uterus is called the ________. a. Perimetrium b. Myometrium c. Endometrium d. Exometrium 5. The glands that are responsible for the production of milk are called the ________. a. Skenes glands b. Mammary glands c. Lacteal glands d. Myometrial glands 6. What are the primary genitalia in a male? a. Epididymis b. Ureter c. Seminal vesicles d. Testes 7. Menstruation is the term given to the actual shedding of the ________. a. Perimetrium b. Myometriun c. Endometrium

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. Exometrium The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called ________. a. Ovulation b. Fertilization c. Menses d. Menopause How many chromosomes will you find in a successfully fertilized egg? a. 21 pairs b. 46 pairs c. 23 pairs d. 16 pairs Of the hormones necessary for menstruation, which one comes from the ovary? a. Follicle stimulating hormone b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Testosterone In utero, the fetus is nourished by the ________. a. Umbilical cord b. Amniotic fluid c. Placenta d. Amnion Labor is divided into stages; in which stage will the baby actually be delivered? a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th Sperm mature in the ________. a. Seminal Vesicles b. Epididymis c. Testes d. Seminiferous tubles Prior to puberty, testosterone _______________ FSH and LH. a. Inhibits b. Releases c. Has no effect on d. Catalyzes The movement of semen out of the penis is known as ________. a. Erection b. Arousal c. Ejaculation d. Semen ejection Females have all the eggs they will ever have by the age of ________. a. 4 months in utero b. 8 months c. Puberty

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. 13 years Breast cancer occurs in the ________ glands. a. Genital b. Mammary c. Vulvar d. Endocrine The reproductive cells are called ________. a. Ova b. Sperm c. Gametes d. All of the above This coiled tube is a comma-shaped structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis ________. a. Seminiferous tubule b. Ductus deferens c. Ejaculatory duct d. Epididymis The gonads include ________. a. The ova in the female and sperm in the male b. The penis in the male and the vulva in the female c. The testes in the male and the ovaries in the female d. Both a and c are gonads After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called the ________. a. Corpus luteum b. Antrum c. Graafian follicle d. Granulose cells Which of the following is not a function of estrogen? a. Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs b. Initiation of the first menstrual cycle c. Appearance of pubic hair and breast development d. All of the above are functions of estrogen The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________. a. Endometrium b. Fundus c. Cervix d. Myometrium The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the ________. a. Body b. Cervix c. Fundus d. Myometrium The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the ________.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a. Body b. Cervix c. Fundus d. Myometrium Which of the following is not true of the vagina? a. It is part of the female external genitalia. b. It receives sperm during intercourse. c. It is the last part of the birth canal. d. All of the above are true of the vagina.

The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called ________. a. The secretory phase b. The proliferative phase c. Menses d. Menarche Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone The absence of normal menstruation is called ________. a. Dysmenorrhea b. Amenorrhea c. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding d. Endometriosis Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called ________. a. Hydrocele b. Cryptorchidism c. Prostatitis d. None of the above An abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is called ________. a. Hydrocele b. Cryptorchidism c. Prostatitis d. None of the above This blood test is for prostate cancer ________. a. PAP b. SAP c. PSA

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. ASP This type of cancer is the most common non-skin form of cancer that affects American men ________. a. Testicular cancer b. Breast cancer c. Melanoma d. Prostate cancer This disorder increases with age and is relatively common, with 50% of men between the ages of 40 and 70 having some degree of this disorder ________. a. Erectile dysfunction b. Incontinence c. Prostatitis d. Melanoma A baby born before 37 weeks gestation is considered ________. a. Full-term b. Late c. Premature d. None of the above One of the most important procedures to detect breast cancer at an early, more treatable stage is regular ________. a. Pap tests b. Breast self-examinations c. Testicular self-examinations d. None of the above Signs and symptoms of PMS include all of the following except ________. a. Constipation b. Fatigue c. Mental confusion d. Feeling of euphoria Signs and symptoms of breast cancer include which of the following? a. Bloody, brown or serous nipple discharge b. Noticeable lump c. Changes in breast tissue d. All of the above Signs and symptoms of postpartum depression include ________. a. Fatigue b. Anxiety c. Feeling of worthlessness d. All of the above A procedure in which the amniotic sac is punctured and fluid is withdrawn is called a(n) ________. a. Amniocentesis b. Abdominocentesis c. Thoracentesis d. None of the above

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

42. This syndrome is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male reproductive system, from complete lack of external or internal male genitalia to patients with ambiguous genitalia to patients who have typical male genitalia but are sterile. a. Testosterone deficiency b. Androgen insensitivity syndrome c. BPH d. ED

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

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In animals, females produce eggs and males produce ____________. ________________ stimulates ovulation.

After ovulation, estrogen _______________ GnRH secretion.

During the _____________ phase, the endometrium is building up.

Reproductive organs are called ____________.

Another name for oviducts is ____________ tubes.

The ruptured follicle left behind in the ovary during ovulation will become the ____________ and secrete hormones to help maintain the thickened endometrium.

The ____________ gland surrounds the urethra. ____________ is the most important male hormone.

The ____________________ are posterior to the bladder in males. ______________ is a mixture of sperm, sugar, water and electrolytes.

The final stage of labor is the _____________ stage.

The developing embryo secretes the hormone _______________ telling the woman’s body that she is pregnant.

The implantation of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus is called _______________.

The most common cause of male urinary symptoms is _______ (Use the Abbreviation).

Patients with ____________ have an extra copy of chromosome 21.

The female gonads are the ________.

The fertilized egg is known as the ________.

The breasts are also known as ________ glands.

A(n) ________ is an abnormal collection of fluid in the testes.

Down Syndrome patients have a wide range of ________ abilities.

A common blood test called prostate-specific antigen, (PSA) can help detect ________ cancer.

Erectile dysfunction medications such as Viagra and Levitra increase the likelihood of erection by increasing ________ accumulation in the erectile tissue.

Women have some natural ________ hormone, and males have some natural estrogen hormone.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

25. The possibility of having a baby with Down Syndrome increases dramatically in females over ________ years of age (Use the numeral).

26. Prostate cancer is the most common cancer (of non-skin cancers) affecting ________ in this country.

27. When menstrual disorders lessen a woman’s quality of life, they may be diagnosed with ________.

28. Treatment of erectile dysfunction depends on the ________ cause.

29. Vaginitis is the inflammation of the vagina, usually caused by microorganisms such as bacteria or ________.

30. There is a testes-blood barrier to prevent the ________ system from destroying sperm, which the white blood cells would recognize as invaders.

31. ________ is the expulsion of semen (sperm and assorted chemicals) from the urethra.

32. Following birth, the baby is often fed with breast milk. One of the complications is ________ which is an inflammation of the breast.

33. When cells make identical copies of themselves without the involvement of another cell, the process is called ________.

34. The external female genitalia are known as the ________.

35. The uterine tubes, which are about 4 inches long and not attached to the ovaries, begin as a large funnel, the infundibulum, surrounded by ciliated projections, the ________.

36. The process of sorting the chromosomes so that each new cell gets the right number of copies of all of the genetic material is called ________.

37. The ________ layer of the uterus sheds about every 28 days when a woman has her period.

38. ________ is the continued proliferation, decay and bleeding of endometrial tissue in the abdominal and pelvic cavities that can cause scarring and damage to the organs.

39. The ________ is the area between the vagina and the rectum.

40. The ________ glands are milk production glands housed in the breasts.

41. ________ is the absence of menstruation.

42. ________ is painful menstruation.

43. The exact cause of PMS is not determined but may be due to irregular levels of estrogen or ___________ 44. Signs and symptoms of ________ include hematuria, dysuria, painful intercourse, and excessive menstrual bleeding.

45. ________ cancer is the most common malignancy among women and the leading cause of death between ages 40–55.

46. ________ cancer may have a genetic predisposition, and current research shows a connection with the HPV and early and frequent sexual activity.

47. ________ is an inflammation of the vagina caused by infection, irritation, or menopause.

48. ________ is a condition in which the placenta separates from the uterus.

49. ________ pregnancy is also known as a tubal pregnancy.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

50. Benign prostatic hyperplasia or________ is the non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate and is the most common cause of lower urinary tract symptoms in men.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____10. ____11. ____12. ____13. ____14. ____15.

-Just before ovulation, estrogen levels drop.

-Normally, an adult human has 23 chromosomes.

GnRH is released by the pituitary gland.

-The union of genetic material is called fertilization.

-The external genitalia of the female are known as the uvula.

HCG is secreted by the ovary.

-The functional layer of endometrium is shed when a woman has her period.

-The prepuce is a small erectile structure in women.

The epididymis is superior to the testis.

-LH and FSH stimulate sperm production and maturation.

-Erection is caused by muscle contraction in the penis.

-The spermatic cord consists of the seminal vesicles and seminiferous tubules.

-The testes are outside of the abdominopelvic cavity.

-The female reproductive system is hospitable to sperm.

-An egg may be fertilized by more than one sperm.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Trace the path of a sperm during ejaculation. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 2. Discuss endometriosis. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. List and briefly explain the function of hormones controlling female reproduction. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

4. Explain the role of testosterone in male reproduction. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. List the phases of the female reproductive cycle and briefly define them. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

CHAPTER 19 Multiple Choice Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Forensic science is the application of science to ________. a. Medicine b. Biology c. Crime d. History 2. What part of long bones contain high levels of oxygen? a. Medulla b. Ends c. Shaft d. Marrow 3. What common food reacts with pewter and was once thought to be poisonous? a. Tomatoes b. Apples c. Figs d. Bananas 4. The male and female skeleton differ in what manner? a. Females have a wider pelvis b. Males have a wider pelvis c. Females have fewer rib bones d. Males have more rib bones 5. A timeline containing substances someone ingests, or becomes exposed to, can be found in the ________. a. Hair b. Bones c. Teeth d. Eyes

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

6. Fingerprints were first suggested to be an aid in solving various crimes in ________. a. 1910 b. 1782 c. 1604 d. 1880 7. DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner? a. Blotting digits on paper b. Splitting DNA molecules c. Dusting the scene with powder d. Dusting cells for very small prints 8. Patients between the ages of 76 and 84 are classified as ________. a. Elite old b. Younger old c. Older old d. Beginning old 9. The hallmark sign of aging is the body’s decreased ability to ________. a. Adapt to stressors b. Maintain homeostasis c. Maintain hair color d. Maintain skin elasticity 10. What is a common food that may taste metallic to the geriatric patient? a. Tomato juice b. Orange juice c. Apple juice d. Grape juice 11. What are some of the potential behavior changes related to pain? a. Euphoria b. Increased mobility c. Increased energy d. Agitation and confusion 12. A healthy human brain will continue to develop until the approximate age of ________. a. 50 b. 60 c. 25 d. 35 13. A decrease in the function of the ____________ can lead to accumulation of medication in the geriatric patient. a. Kidneys b. Heart c. Lungs d. Vessels 14. Seeing multiple doctors at the same time can lead to ________. a. Loss of insurance

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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b. Carcinoma c. Polypharmacy d. Increased agitation Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of damage to the ____________ nerve. a. Carpal b. Lateral c. Median d. Radial Disease processes, along with aging, will ________ the loss of body reserves affecting recovery after surgery. a. Accelerate b. Decrease c. Slow d. Diminish The elderly are increasingly more difficult to medically evaluate due to the three major changes in the patients. Which of the following is not one of them? a. Worsening vision b. Decreased hearing c. Increased memory d. Possible mental abilities Which lifestyle choice adversely affects the cardiovascular system, as well as other systems? a. Illegal drug use b. Smoking c. Drinking alcohol d. All of the above The best way to protect yourself and others from spreading or getting infections is to ________. a. Wear gloves for every patient encounter b. Wash hands before and after each patient c. Take large doses of vitamin C d. Wear a lab coat over your clothes or uniform when with patients If a fetus does not get enough calcium in the mother’s diet, the fetus ________. a. Gets it from converting other nutrients b. Breaks down his/her own bones that had developed so far c. Does not get enough calcium and may not develop properly because of the lack d. Gets it from the mother’s bones and teeth, weakening them Which of these is not a common behavioral change due to pain? a. Being grumpy b. Swearing c. Having a loss of appetite d. Increased social interaction Smoking mothers have a tendency toward ________. a. Babies of lower birth weights b. Premature births

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c. A higher rate of SIDS d. All of the above For several hundred years it was believed that ________ were poisonous. a. Grapes b. Poppy seeds c. Tomatoes d. Watermelons A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at this settlement provided evidence that skull surgery had been performed on a patient ________. a. Mexico City, Mexico b. Cairo, Egypt c. Beijing, China d. Jamestown, Virginia Currently, the geriatric patient group called the older old are identified as ________. a. Age 55 to 64 b. Age 65 to 75 c. Age 76 to 84 d. Age 85 and older ________ can reveal the race of an individual. a. Hair b. Eyes c. Digestive organs d. Clothing Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________. a. 35 b. 45 c. 55 d. 65 Interest in fingerprints has been around for a long period of time. Their uniqueness was discovered in the ________. a. 1200s b. 1500s c. 1600s d. 1800s A technique called video skull–face superimposition was used to identify ________. a. Josef Mengele b. Tutankhamen, “King Tut” c. Both a and b d. None of the above An older patient may lose up to ________ neurons a day. a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d. 100,000 Proof that the ancient Egyptians were stricken with ________ was discovered by examining their skeletons. a. Tuberculosis b. Anthrax c. Cancer d. Parkinson’s disease Often, geriatric patients are undermedicated for ________. a. Pain b. Hypertension c. Diabetes d. Osteoporosis One common occupational condition related to repetitive motion, such as typing on a keyboard, playing a piano, or hammering, is known as ________. a. Lock jaw b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Incontinence d. Osteoporosis DNA fingerprinting techniques have been used to identify ________. a. Victims of the World Trade Center b. Thomas Jefferson’s children c. Josef Mengele d. All of the above As an individual ages, he or she may lose which of the following? a. Muscle mass b. Neurons c. Bone density d. All of the above The number of taste buds decreases by about ________ percent as the body ages. a. 20 b. 50 c. 30 d. 40 Which of the following is a barrier to proper nutrition? a. Tooth loss b. Difficulty swallowing c. Decreased saliva d. All of the above Which of the following can be a trigger to make a cell cancerous? a. Genes b. Radiation c. Sunlight exposure d. All of the above Between the ages of 20 and 80, we lose about ________ percent of our renal function.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a. 25 b. 50 c. 40 d. 30 The aging process affects the integumentary system in all of the following ways except ______. a. Increased skin elasticity b. Increased skin delicacy c. Multiple skin lesions d. Increases in skin cancer Aging can affect the rates of drug ________. a. Absorption b. Metabolism c. Excretion d. All of the above Approximately ________ percent of all lung cancers can be traced to smoking. a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90 Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper night vision and helps to resist infections? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote strong bones and teeth? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote healthy muscular growth? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D Which of the following vitamins is needed to aid in absorption of iron? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper blood clotting? a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin E

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

d. Vitamin D 48. Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote muscle growth, and may reduce the risk of Parkinson’s disease? a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin D

Short Answer Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1. Tuberculosis is detectable in the lungs, brain, kidneys, and the ends of long ____________.

2. The female pelvis, in general, has a pubic angle of ____________ degrees or greater (Use the numeral).

3. Since hair grows relatively slowly, it can contain a(n) ____________ of substances that an individual ingested or was exposed to.

4. Forensic scientists can use the molecule found in the nucleus of our cells, ____________, to identify individuals.

5. The use of multiple medications by the elderly is known as ____________.

6. Integumentary problems can be reduced by not ____________ and limiting exposure to the ____________.

7. There is a(n) ____________% decrease in the function of most body systems each year, beginning around the age of thirty (Use the numeral).

8. In the absence of disease, the brain continues to mature up to the age of ____________ (Use the numeral).

9. Repetitive motion can lead to a condition called ____________.

10. Approximately 80% of all lung cancers can be traced to ____________.

11. ____________ is the most deadly form of skin cancer.

12. Vitamin ____________ is needed for proper blood clotting.

13. The human papilloma virus causes genital ____________.

14. The metal ____________ has been detected in the bones of medieval skeletons and can be traced to eating from pewter plates.

15. Whether skeletal remains are of a man or a woman can be determined by examining the ____________.

16. The hallmark sign of aging is the decreasing ability to maintain ________.

17. A drug taken by a patient with impaired renal function, such as an elderly person, may not be metabolized correctly by the kidneys. This may cause a(n) ________ of the drug.

18. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common occupational condition that is related to ________ movements.

19. Analgesics are stronger and last ________ in the elderly patients.

20. The lung’s initial response to an inhaled irritant is to ________ or restrict the airway and minimize the inhalation of more irritant, even though this makes breathing difficult.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

21. Aging affects the rates of a drug’s absorption, its distribution through the body, the metabolism of the medication, and the ________ of the drug from the body.

22. Many triggers can make a cell cancerous, such as exposure to sunlight, radiation, and ________.

23. Cancer treatment often involves ________ as much of the cancer as possible, and then following up with radiation and/or chemotherapy to kill any cancer or cancer cells remaining in the body.

24. ________ is the treatment of cancer with chemicals that kill rapidly dividing cells.

25. ________ cause(s) cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.

26. ________, the administration of many drugs at the same time, is a major concern for the elderly.

27. Many types of cancer can be prevented or managed with a healthy diet and ________.

28. The congenital condition of ________ can be prevented by a dietary supplement of a member of the vitamin B complex, folic acid.

29. Fingerprints are actual ________ that form a pattern on the anterior surface of the hands and also on the plantar surface of the feet.

30. The ________ pelvis is more funnel shaped and is heavier and stronger, with a pubic angle of 90 degrees or less.

31. Bone scouring is the destruction of the smooth bone surface as a result of colonization by the tuberculosis ________.

32. During the aging process, there is a decrease in the total body water for both males and females. The clinical significance of this is that older patients have a tendency to ________ more rapidly.

33. The senses of taste and smell ________ as a natural process of aging.

34. Within the cardiovascular system, the aging process causes such changes as ________ of heart valves, which decreases their efficiency.

35. Within the cardiovascular system, we also see a lessening in the ________ of blood vessels, which leads to increased blood pressures.

36. There is an increase of ________, which is the loss of bladder control, in the elderly population.

37. ________ is the administration of many drugs at the same time.

38. Smoking affects the heart by reducing the availability of ________ to the heart muscle.

39. Smoking with alcohol consumption leads to a(n) ________ in stomach and mouth cancers.

40. ________ steroids are used to increase strength and endurance rapidly and to build muscle mass.

41. Smoking mothers tend to have babies of ________ birth weights, a tendency toward premature births, and a higher rate of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

42. The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of fluid-filled vesicles on the penis and blisters in and around the vagina.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

43. The sexually transmitted disease ________ has symptoms of purulent discharge from the urethra, dysuria, and urinary frequency in males; and purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal menstrual bleeding, and possible sterility in females.

44. The sexually transmitted disease ________ can be asymptomatic.

45. The sexually transmitted disease ________ is a systemic disease that can lead to lesions, lymph node enlargement, nervous system degradation, and chancre sores.

46. This sexually transmitted disease ________ creates cauliflower-like growths on the penis and vagina.

True/False Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false. ____ 1. -Forensic science is the application of science to law. ____ 2. -The infamous Nazi Mengele has never been found. ____ 3. -Forensic DNA evidence is the only way to identify the sex of the victim. ____ 4. -The race of the individual can be determined by examining their hair. ____ 5. -In children is it nearly impossible to tell the sex of a skeleton. ____ 6. -The most common cause of respiratory illness is genetic disorders. ____ 7. -Identical twins will have the same fingerprints. ____ 8. -Forensic science has conclusively proved that Thomas Jefferson did not father children with his slave, Sally Hemmings. ____ 9. -From ages 20 to 70 we see a loss of lean body mass due to up to 30% loss in the number of muscle cells, atrophy of muscle cells, and a general decrease in muscle strength. ____10. -As we age, our gustatory senses become stronger to compensate for hearing and vision loss. ____11. -Often geriatric patients are under-medicated for pain. ____12. -A diet rich in sodium and vitamins helps to maintain good bone growth and development. ____13. It is important to stay well-hydrated. ____14. -Due to its sterile nature, urine can be used to clean a wound. ____15. -Spina bifida can be prevented by adequate ascorbic acid ingestion during pregnancy.

Essay Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

1. Discuss how forensic scientists solve mysteries. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

2. Discuss how vitamin deficiencies affect health. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 3. Explain how DNA is used to solve crimes or identify remains. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 4. List five symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ 5. List five behavioral choices to improve health. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

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Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

Test Bank

Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

Test Bank

Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

Test Bank

Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

Test Bank

Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

Test Bank

Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

Test Bank

Copyright © 2011 by Pearson Education, Inc., Upper Saddle River, New Jersey

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

ANSWER KEY CHAPTER 1 Multiple Choice 1.

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c a d c b a b c d b a d b d a c a c a d a b d d c c a b d b

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

31.

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c c b d a d a d c b c a b c d b

Short Answer 1.

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Gross Cytology Anatomy Physiology Pathophysiology Cardi Mammogram Rhin/o Electrocardiography Phobia Colostomy Neurologist Syndrome Raise Set point Diabetes Iron Rhinoplasty Stomach Signs

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

21.

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Cutting Hyper Positive feedback Cytologist Physiology Prognosis Exercise Metabolic Brachial Internal Hypothalamus STAT NPO CPR Advanced Cardiac Life Support Histology

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True False False False False False True False False True True False True True False

Essay 1. Using abbreviations saves space and time; however, if all health care professionals do not interpret the abbreviations in the same way, it can cause confusion.

2. Behaviors such as smoking or overeating can cause lung disease or obesity.

Environmental factors such as nuclear waste can cause cancer.

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3. Homeostasis is the body’s ability to maintain an ideal normal value of a variable (set point). The control center stores the value and sends out orders to change the value when necessary.

4. Blood pressure, pulse, respirations, and temperature are vital signs. They are called vital signs because measuring them gives indication of vital, or life sustaining, processes in the body.

5. Positive feedback loops enhance any change, and negative feedback loops return the body to normal set points.

CHAPTER 2 Multiple Choice 1.

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a d b d c a b b d b a c d b c a b b c c c a d c a b

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

27.

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a b b d c a a a c d b b c b d a b c b a c d b c d c

Short Answer 1.

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Trendelenburg Fowler’s Inferior Lateral Coronal Dorsal; Posterior Proximal External Superficial Ventral

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

11.

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Inferior; Superior Peripheral Necrosis Antecubital Axillary Supine Proximal; distal Intracranial Patient’s Finger Eat Brachial Indigestion Dimensional Hernia Hypochondriac Fowler’s Trendelenburg Magnetic resonance Psoas Cyanosis Inguinal Appendicitis Necrosis Jugular Umbilical Proximal Superficial Acrocyanosis X-ray CT Trendelenburg

True/False 1.

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False True False True

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

5.

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False True True False False True True False True False False

Essay 1. Answers may vary. RUQ = liver, right kidney, colon, pancreas, gallbladder. LUQ = liver, spleen, left kidney, stomach, colon, pancreas. RLQ = colon, small intestine, major artery and vein to the right leg, ureter, appendix. LLQ = colon, small intestine, major artery and vein to the left leg, and ureter.

2. The frontal (coronal) plane is a lengthwise section that divides the body into anterior (ventral) and posterior (dorsal) sections. The sagittal plane is a lengthwise division that divides the body into right and left sections. A midsagittal plane divides the body into right and left halves. A transverse (horizontal) plane is a cross section that divides the body into inferior and superior sections.

3. Location, type, frequency, what causes it, what relieves it and duration.

4. femoral: thigh; gluteal: buttocks, lumbar: lower back, antebrachial: forearm and cervical: neck.

5. Cranial (cephalic), proximal, internal, deep, and anterior.

CHAPTER 3 Multiple Choice 1.

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c d c a b b c b b

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

10.

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b c b c a a b c a b d

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Molecule Neutrons PH Hydrophilic Carbohydrate Steroids Proteins Nucleic acids Metabolism Specific Oxygen Protein Water Enzymes Phospholipids

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False False True False False True True False

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

9.

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False True True False True False False

Essay 1. In an ionic bond, one atom donates electrons to the other, the resulting molecule is polar. In a covalent bond, the atoms share electrons. If the electrons are shared equally, the resulting molecule is non-polar. If one atom holds more tightly to the electrons than the other, the molecule will be polar. That type of bond is called a polar covalent bond.

2. Enzymes speed up the rate of chemical reactions. The reactants bind to the active site of the enzyme. This makes the reactants more likely to react. They react and products are produced. The enzyme simply carries the reactants through the reaction. The enzyme is unchanged. When the reaction is over, the enzyme releases the products and picks up more reactants and the reaction continues.

3. Carbohydrates contain one oxygen and two hydrogens for every carbon in the molecule. Lipids contain several hydrogens for every carbon in the molecule but very little oxygen. Proteins are long chains of amino acids. When the amino acids are linked together, they form a special bond called a peptide bond which contains nitrogen. All proteins have several nitrogens.

4. An atom has a nucleus with neutrons (neutral) and protons (positive). Electrons (negative) surround the nucleus.

5. Metabolism consists of all the chemical reactions taking place in your cells.

Anabolic reactions make large molecules from small usually via dehydration synthesis. Catabolic reactions break down large molecules into small usually via hydrolysis.

CHAPTER 4 Multiple Choice 1.

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b d a c d a

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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a c b b a c b c d d b c c a c a c b d a b b d c c a a b c b d a d c d

Short Answer 1.

Organelles

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

2.

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Semipermeable Diffusion Inhibition Osmosis Phagocytosis Nucleus Mitochondria Flagella Flora Viruses Asexual reproduction Mitosis Prophase Benign Atoms Osmosis Filtration Endoplasmic reticulum Cilia Golgi apparatus Cellular reproduction Mitotic Anaphase Cell Half Remodeling Metastasis Healthy Damaged Active Thrush Osmotic pressure Cytokinesis Pathogen Capsid Antibiotics Filtration Nucleolus Cytoskeleton

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

41. Spores 42. Normal flora

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False False False True False True True True False False True False True True False

Essay 1. Active transport requires energy to begin the process, while passive transport happens without energy use—for example, filtration.

2. Water will move, through osmosis, from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. Thus, an isotonic salt solution would be stable, but water would move into the hypertonic salt solution and out of the hypotonic solution.

3. Carrier mediated transport involves a protein aiding a substance across the cell membrane. The protein has a binding site into which the substance must fit, it is specific. Because the substance must bind to the carrier, the carrier can be saturated if there are more substances than there are available carriers. Substances can compete for the limited number of carriers and other substances can block, or inhibit carriers, preventing them from bringing substances across the membrane.

These systems may be either passive or active.

4. An organelle is a part of the cell that does a specific job. Cells are the fundamental living unit. Tissues are groups of similar cells working together. Organs are different types of tissues working together. An organ system is a group of organs and other structures that work together. An organism is a living thing typically containing a number of different organ systems.

5. Cells which divide too rapidly or at inappropriate times form masses called tumors.

Cancer cells are cells that divide without any breaks and so rapidly that they form

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

misshapen primitive cells. They disrupt the normal function of tissue and can threaten life.

CHAPTER 5 Multiple Choice 1.

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b b a c c a a b d c d b a b d d a b d a b c a a d d c d d c d a

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

33.

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b c a a a a c b

Short Answer 1.

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Tissue Epithelial Simple squamous Voluntary Dense regular Meninges Visceral Neurons Fat Fibroblast Respiratory Lymphatic Skeletal Nervous Respiratory Parietal Arthr/o Phleb/o Appendicular Integumentary Capillaries Pathogens Endocrine Urinary Parietal Synovial Striated Sensations

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

29.

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Meninges Dendrites Visceral Skin

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False True True True True False False False False False False False True False True

Essay 1. Cells are the fundamental living unit. Tissues are groups of similar cells working together. Organs are different types of tissues working together. An organ system is a group of organs and other structures that work together.

2. Muscular—skeletal muscles. Integumentary—skin, hair follicles, sweat glands, nails, sensory receptors. Nervous—central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and peripheral nervous system (nerves). Cardiovascular—heart, blood vessels (arteries, veins, and capillaries), blood. Respiratory—nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli. Lymphatic—lymphatic vessels and nodes, spleen, thymus. Gastrointestinal—salivary glands, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, large intestine. Urinary—kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra. Male reproductive—testes, epididymis, ductus defens, seminal vesicles, prostate, urethra, genitalia (penis and scrotum). Female reproductive—ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, clitoris, labia, mammary glands. Endocrine—pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal and thymus glands, kidneys, pancreas, testes/ovaries.

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3. Connective tissue has cells in an extracellular, non-living matrix. It is found underlying other types of tissue. Epithelial tissue has no extracellular matrix and generally has a free surface and an obvious top and bottom.

4. When tissue is injured it releases chemicals which promote inflammation -redness, heat, swelling and pain. If bleeding occurs, then clotting will stop the bleeding.

Fibroblasts begin to lay down collagen which brings the edges of the wound together, and a delicate pink tissue is formed (organization). Once the wound has sealed, either the collagen will be replaced by the original tissue (regeneration) or it will not and a scar will form.

5. Skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle. It is striated, cylindrical in shape and has many nuclei in each cell. Smooth muscle is involuntary. It is spindle shaped and has no striations. Cardiac muscle, in the heart, is involuntary, but is striated. It is branched and is interlocking.

CHAPTER 6 Multiple Choice 1.

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a d a c d d b b d d c b b a a b b c d d b d

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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d b c b a d d c d a c c d d c a a a b d c a c d a

Short Answer 1.

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Medullary Short Irregular Trabeculae Hemopoiesis Head Sinus Meatus Trochanter Osteogenesis Reduced

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Intramembranous Cartilage Arthritis Abduction Epiphysis Cartilage Arthritis Articulation Extension Surgical Inflammation Children Density Open Joint Ligaments Hemopoiesis Rheumatoid arthritis Short Hinge Comminuted Pelvic girdle Exercise Kyphosis Scoliosis Lordosis Hairline Simple Spiral Greenstick Compound Bursitis

True/False 1.

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False False False True

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

5.

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False False True False False False True False False True False

Essay 1. Compact bone is composed of osteons, cylinders of bone surrounding a central canal. The central canal contains blood vessels. Surrounding the central canal are rings of bone matrix (lamellae). On the edge of each lamella are lacunae containing osteocytes (mature bone cells). Osteocytes are connected to each other by canaliculi and each adjacent central canals are connected to each other by perforating canals.

2. Bones can be made in two ways, intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. In endochondral ossification cartilage turns to bone. A cartilage model is replaced by bone in a series of steps, starting first with the diaphysis and then moving to the epiphyses. In Intramembranous ossification a membrane turns to bone from the center out.

3. Congenital, degenerative, infection, nutritional, secondary, trauma, and tumors.

4. Degenerative, infection, inflammation, secondary, and trauma.

5. When bone is injured the tissue becomes inflamed. Since bone is so vascular, hemorrhage results and so a hematoma, or collection of clotted blood, happens next. The hematoma is replaced by cartilage. A soft or fibrocartilage callus results.

The fibrocartilage callus is replaced, via endochondral ossification , with a bone (hard) callus. Eventually the bone will be remodeled.

CHAPTER 7 Multiple Choice 1.

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d b b d b

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c c a b a c d c a b c a b c b d c d a b d b b a d d d d c c b c b c d d b c a

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

45.

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e b d a b d c c a

Short Answer 1.

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Smooth Ligaments Insertion Antagonists Diaphragm Flexor Clavicle Acetylcholine Actin Hypertrophy Glycogen Myalgia Atrophy Tetanus Extension Kinesiology Vasodilation Muscle Constrict Wound Women Increase Decrease Ataxia Diaphragm Electromyogram Rigor mortis

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Sphincters Shin splints Tendinosis Lines Tetanus Tendons Tendinosis Spasms Shin splints Botulism Tendinitis

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True False False True False True True False False True True True False False False

Essay 1. Acetylcholine is released from motor neurons and binds to sodium channels on muscle, opening the channels. Sodium flows into the muscle exciting it. The excitation releases calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing myosin to bind repeatedly to actin. This causes the sarcomere to shorten and the muscle to contact. ATP provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the cross bridges with actin.

2. Calcium is stored in the muscles and cause them to stiffen and shorten. Also, ATP is not available to break the attachment of myosin heads.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

3. Muscles may be named by size, shape, action, attachments, location, direction of fibers, number of origins or any combination of these rules.

4. A sarcomere unit has two types of myofilaments; thick (myosin) and thin (actin).

The actin and myosin filaments are arranged in repeating units separated from each other by bands called Z lines, which give the striated appearance to skeletal muscle.

5. All are neuromuscular diseases, but they are also different. Myasthenia Gravis is a disease of gradually increasing profound muscle weakness—especially in the face—but tendon reflexes remain, and is an autoimmune disorder. Muscular Dystrophy is an inherited disease with degenerative and progressive muscle weakness. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system that causes limp muscles and loss of reflexes, in an ascending manner. Tetanus creates rigid paralysis and is due to a bacterial infection.

CHAPTER 8 Multiple Choice 1.

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b b c a b c b c b d c a c a d c a b d b d a

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c d d d c d b a b a c b c d a b c d c d b a c d b b a c d c a b b c

Short Answer 1. Stratum basale 2. Stratum corneum 3. Melanocytes .

Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

4.

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Sebaceous Lipocytes Fibroblasts Depth Epidermis Tongue Keratin Carotene Temperature Fissure Epidermal Furuncle Stratum basale Trunk Keratin Vasodilation Vasoconstriction Wheal Verruca Hair Infection Cannot Blackhead Surface Depth Pain Vesicles Jaundice Lyme disease Tinea unguium Keloid Follicle Sebum Scabies Vasodilation Ulcers Blood Pustules Verruca

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Septicemia Outer Bone Epidermis Layers Sunburn Pediculosis Alopecia Lesion Urticaria

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False False True False True False False False True False True False True True False

Essay 1. First—only the outer layer of skin, the epidermis, is damaged. Skin is red, with pain but no blistering. Second—the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis is damaged. This condition is characterized with pain, redness, and blistering. Third degree burns affect all three layers. The colors may include black, brown, tan, red, or white. There is no pain as the pain receptors have been destroyed.

2. Cells are born in the basal layer. As they are pushed toward the surface, they die and fill up with the protein keratin and are sloughed off from the horny layer.

3. Medicines cross the skin from adhesive patches into the bloodstream.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

4. The pink color of the nail bed is clinically significant in aiding in the assessment of perfusion. Capillary refill tests how quickly the perfusion returns to the nailbed after being pinched off.

5. Trace amounts of ingested substances can become part of the hairs’ composition and can be analyzed by forensic pathologists to determine what was consumed by that individual over a long period of time.

CHAPTER 9 Multiple Choice 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. c .

Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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c a b a c a b c

Short Answer 1. Autonomic 2. Microglia 3. Ventral 4. Thoracic 5. Roots 6. Plexuses 7. Reflexes 8. Depolarization 9. Spinothalamic 10. Sensory 11. Refractory 12. Ranvier 13. Vesicles 14. Endorphins 15. Arachnoid mater 16. Myelin 17. Peripheral 18. Carpal tunnel 19. Ganglion 20. Acetylcholine 21. Ventilator 22. Permanent 23. Carpal tunnel syndrome 24. Inflammation 25. Diabetes mellitus 26. Action potential 27. Nodes of Ranvier 28. Endorphins 29. Spinal cord .

Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

30.

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Multiple sclerosis Peripheral Myasthenia gravis Polio Spinal cord injury Peripheral neuropathy

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False True False True False False True True True False False False True False True

Essay 1. Myelin is destroyed in this disease process. Bare spots short circuit the flow of charged ions, decreasing current. This can disturb vision, speech, balance, and movement.

2. The action potential flows to the axon terminal depolarizing it. Voltage gated channels open and calcium flows into the terminal. The calcium flowing in causes exocytosis of neurotransmitter. The neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic cell, causing a permeability change. The neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft and the cells return to rest.

3. Microglia remove debris. Oligodendrocytes make CNS myelin. Astrocytes are metabolic and structural support cells. Ependymal cells cover and line cavities.

Schwann cells make PNS myelin.

4. Depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization.

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5. The dura mater is a thick, protective layer. The arachnoid mater is a delicate layer that acts as a shock absorber. The pia mater contains blood vessels that serve the brain and spine.

CHAPTER 10 Multiple Choice 1.

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b c a b c a d a b a d c b c a a a b a d b d c c a c a b a c d

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b a d c

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Cerebrum Frontal Parietal Medulla oblongata Sensitivity Shunt Corpus callosum Thalamus Melatonin Vestibulococchlear Hypoglossal Ganglion Acetylcholine Cerebral vascular accident Subdural hematoma Temporal Ventricles Vagus Hemorrhage Cerebrospinal fluid Vestibulocochlear Blood brain barrier Cerebral Palsy Sympathetic Hydrocephalus Traumatic Cerebral palsy

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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True True False False False False True False True True False True

Essay 1. The brain is a delicate organ that requires a delicate fluid balance. Increased CSF can compress the brain. This is known as hydrocephalus.

2. I-Olfactory, II-Optic, III-Oculomotor, IV-Trochlear, V-Trigeminal, VI-Abducens, VII-Facial, VIII-Vestibulocochlear, IX-Glossopharyngeal, X-Vagus, XIAccessory, XII-Hypoglossal.

3. Sensory information goes to the thalamus, cerebellum, and cerebral cortex for processing. The somatic sensory association area in the cerebral cortex adds meaning to the sensation. Then the sense of touch is actually understood.

4. They need to perform more finely coordinated movements.

5. Blindness, memory loss, paralysis, muscle weakness, and lack of sensation on the contralateral (opposite) side of the stroke.

CHAPTER 11 Multiple Choice 1.

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c d a a d b c a c b

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d b b d a b a b a b d a b b b a d b a d a c a c c c d a a c b d a b a d

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Short Answer 1.

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Touch Iris Posterior Eyeball Pupil Glaucoma Retina Amblyopia Optic (II) Conjunctivitis Smell Stirrups Pinna Tympanic Eustacian Myopia Presbyopia Cataract Visualization Pinkeye Tunnel Tympanic Inner Nearby Noises Iris Auricle Hyperopia Oval window Adaptation Nociceptors Anesthesia Lacrimal Cornea Glaucoma Conjunctivitis Pinkeye

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Cataract Glaucoma Otitis media Otitis media Tympanic membrane Labyrinthitis Meniere’s disease Deafness Tinnitus

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False False True False True False True False True True False True True False True

Essay 1. Sight—eye. Taste—tongue. Smell—nose. Touch—skin. Hearing—ears.

2. Images are brought in through a small hole called a pupil. The image moves through a lens and an imprint is made on the retina. Your brain almost immediately processes the impulse and registers the image.

3. Sound waves enter the external canal and vibrate the eardrum, or tympanic membrane, which vibrates the ossicles. The last ossicle (stapes) vibrates the oval window membrane. This causes cochlear fluid to vibrate hair cells on the organ of Corti. A nerve impulse is sent to the temporal lobe of the brain, where it is interpreted as sound.

4. The Eustacian tubes are smaller in children and can harbor diseases. Further, some parents prop bottles of milk or formula, so that milk accumulates in the tubes.

Milk provides a good breeding ground for microbes.

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5. Sometimes pain is not felt at the location of trauma or illness. Sometimes pain is referred to another area. For example, liver pain can be felt in the shoulder.

Phantom pain is pain that is felt in a body part that has been removed.

CHAPTER 12 Multiple Choice 1.

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b c d a b c a b d c a d b b a b a b d b a c d a d b a b b a c

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d a d a d a c d c a d b a d b b

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Glucose Hypoglycemic Growth Glucagon Hyperthyroidism Hormones Calcitonin Positive Set point Antidiuretic Luteinizing Oxytocin Thymus Adrenal cortex Hypothalamus Diabetes Thyroid Adipose Adrenal Respiration

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Dwarfism Epinephrine Pituitary Dwarfism Cortisol Adrenal corticosteroids Glycogen Pancreas Adrenal medulla Melatonin Thyroid Negative feedback Steroids Testosterone Graves’ disease Anterior Dwarfism Acromegaly Hashimoto’s thyroiditis Graves’ disease Goiter Hypoglycemia Addison’s disease Chronic stress Cortisol Psychological

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False True True False True False True False True True

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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False True True True True

Essay 1. Some hormones are part of a hierarchy of hormonal control in which one gland is controlled by the release of hormones from another gland higher in the chain, which is controlled by another gland’s release of hormones yet higher in the chain.

Negative feedback controls the flow of orders via hormones.

2. When blood sugar rises, the pancreas secretes insulin. Insulin helps move glucose into cells and promotes storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver, thus lowering blood sugar. If blood sugar drops, the pancreas releases glucagon. Glucagon causes the release of stored glucose from the liver, thus raising blood sugar.

3. Steroids are very powerful hormones which are tightly regulated. If steroids are injected, the levels of steroid secretion from the adrenal cortex will drop, causing an imbalance. If steroids are discontinued, then the adrenal cortex may not “gear up” quickly enough and a series of steroid deficits will occur. In addition, just the addition of steroids to the body causes many side effects because the hormones are so powerful.

4. The set point gives a balance to the body by establishing a homeostasis level.

These values are considered “normal” values and the hypothalamus seeks to maintain the body’s blood pressure, temperature, etc. at these set points.

5. The parathyroid glands are located on the thyroid. The thyroid secretes calcitonin, which places calcium from the blood into the bones, and the parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone which draws calcium from the bones into the blood.

CHAPTER 13 Multiple Choice 1.

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a c d b b c d b d

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a b c c b b c d a a d a d b d a c b a b c d c a c c b d c a a b c a c d a c a

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49.

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d a b c

Short Answer 1.

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Apex Mitral Stroke volume Right Constrict Erythrocytes AB Media AV bundle P Phagocytosis Hemostasis Arterioles Atrioventricular Visceral pericardium Pacemaker Hg Eosinophils Leukopenia Infarction Death Leg Agglutinate Coronary Emboli Leukemia Higher Denies Hemoglobin Agglutinate Hypertension Thrombus

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Thrombocytopenia Universal recipient Heparin Murmur Stenosis Aneurysm Angina Atherosclerosis Embolism Hypertension Myocardial Infarction Varicose Erythrocytopenia Hemophilia Thrombocytopenia

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False False True False True True False False True False False False True True False

Essay 1. P = atrial depolarization. QRS = atrial repolarization and ventricle depolarization.

T = ventricular repolarization.

2. Superior and inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary artery, pulmonary arterioles, lung

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(capillaries), pulmonary venules, pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, aorta.

3. If an Rh negative mother conceives an Rh positive child, she may create antibodies against positive blood. In the second pregnancy, these antibodies may attack her second child if the child is positive. She may need to consider a vaccination to prevent this problem 4. Approximately 15 seconds from the time of initial injury, the actual clotting of blood begins. One of the clotting proteins, prothrombin, converts to thrombin.

Thrombin transforms fibrinogen into fibrin. Fibrin forms a net which patches the injury site and snags more blood cells and platelets to form a clot.

5. The factors that influence blood pressure are blood volume, cardiac output, blood viscosity and peripheral resistance. Blood volume is the amount of blood in the system. Less blood generally causes lower blood pressure. Cardiac output is the amount of blood being pumped by the heart each minute. Again, lower output causes lower pressure. Blood viscosity is the thickness of the blood. Higher viscosity causes higher pressure. Peripheral resistance is the resistance in the blood vessels to blood flow. Constricted blood vessels have higher resistance and also higher pressure. Anything that influences these factors will also influence blood pressure such as body temperature or dehydration for examples.

CHAPTER 14 Multiple Choice 1.

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d b a b a b c b d a c b c b a c b

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d c b d c a b a d c d c c d a b a d b a c b d a a b c d c a

Short Answer 1.

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Bronchi Bronchioles Conduction Respiration Sinuses Epiglottis

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Trachea Carina Surfactant Respiration Simple squamous Stratified squamous C4 Medulla oblongata Kidney O2 CO2 Capillaries Phonation Smell Larynx Surfactant Erythrocytes Bronchitis Empyema Resistant Oxygen Oxygen Hemothorax Asthma Mediastinum Esophagus Pleural effusion Sternum Accessory muscles Sinusitis Adenoids Infections Pharyngitis Laryngitis Atelectasis Pneumonia Chronic bronchitis

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

True/False 1.

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False True False False True False False False False True True False True False True

Essay 1. The walls of the respiratory system change from conducting zone to respiratory zone. There is abundant cartilage in the walls of the trachea and bronchi but no cartilage in the alveoli. The type of epithelium changes. The trachea is lined with respiratory mucosa the bronchioles with simple cuboidal and the alveoli with simple squamous. The amount of smooth muscle also changes. The trachea has only posterior smooth muscle, the bronchioles have full layers, and the alveoli have none.

2. The nose and nasal cavity are designed to warm, moisten and filter air and trap particles. The mucus and ciliated mucosa in your nasal cavity trap particles and remove them from the respiratory system. The hairs around the nares prevent larger particles from entering the nose. The nasal conchae increase surface area to trap particles and warm and moisten air. The oral cavity is not set up to do any of the things the nasal cavity can do.

3. The right mainstem branches off at a 20-30 degree angle from the midline and the left at a 40-60 degree angle. Thus aspiration is more likely into the right lung.

4. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts, the volume of the thoracic cavity and the lungs increases. This decreases the pressure inside the lungs (lower than atmospheric pressure) and air flows down the pressure gradient and into the lungs.

Expiration is the reverse.

5. Surfactant lowers the surface tension when the alveoli are small, thus preventing alveoli collapse, but when you take a deep breath your alveoli get larger and the surfactant layer thins and becomes less effective, thus starting to increase surface tension. This prevents over-expansion or rupture of the alveoli. Surfactant

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develops late in pregnancies, so premature babies may not have sufficient levels when born. Surfactant replacement therapy can instill surfactant into the lungs to maintain their function until the babies mature and produces it on their own.

CHAPTER 15 Multiple Choice 1.

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c a d c a d b a b d a c c b b c a d c b a c d d c a b d b b a

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32.

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c b b a d a c d a d a

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Lymphatic Vessels Spleen Thymus Pathogen Innate Antigens Leukocytes Basophils Artificial acquired active Infection Margination Positive Inflammation Proliferation Eosinophils Lysis Fatal Type Pathogens Numbers Autoimmune Strep/sore Pathogen Thoracic

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Antigens Cascade Leukocytes Cytokines Inflammation Negative selection Rheumatoid Perforin Cancer Leukemia Anaphylaxis Fever Autoimmune Rheumatoid Autoimmune Deficiency Allergies Lymphoma

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False False False False False False True True True False False True True True False

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

Essay 1. Microbes frequently enter the body through the lungs, reproductive, and digestive organs, so nodes are located at high-risk areas.

2. Cancer is staged and prognosis and treatment is determined by the amount of metastasis (spread). Stage 1, no spread from origin; Stage 2, spread to nearby tissues; Stage 3, spread to nearby lymph nodes; Stage 4, spread to distant tissues and organs. Stage 4 cancers are usually terminal.

3. The body needs to recognize its own tissues as “self.” If not, the immune system will attack the body’s cells, thinking they are non-self, and an auto-immune disorder develops.

4. Both innate and adaptive immunity defend the body against antigens. However, innate immunity is inborn and adaptive immunity comes from developing immunities as a result of encounters with antigens or vaccinations. Adaptive immunity remembers pathogens and improves with experience.

5. HIV selectively attacks helper T cells. The job of helper T cells is to activate T cells and B cells. As helper T cell numbers drop, fewer cytotoxic T cells and B cells are activated, decreasing adaptive immune response.

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a c b b a b c a d c d b c d c a d c d d a d b b c d b c b d c

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Ingests Digests Alimentary Uvula Mastication

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Defecation Microvilli Dentin Epiglottis Baby Peristalsis Chyme Pepsin Cephalic Mesentery Anus Appendicitis Segmentation Cholelithiasis Reflux Ducts Hepatitis Adults Diarrhea Esophagus Sphincter Cholelithiasis Caries Bolus Parotid Deciduous Gastritis Epiglottis Caries Periodontal Anorexia Cholecystitis Cholelithiasis Cirrhosis Crohn’s Gastroesophageal Gingivitis Pyorrhea

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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True False True False True False True False False False False False False False False

Essay 1. Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus.

2. Three hormones are primarily responsible for controlling digestion. Gastrin stimulates stomach activity and is released mainly when food enters the stomach (though some is released before then). CCK and secretin are released when food enters the duodenum. They decrease stomach activity and increase secretion from the pancreas and liver, and bile release from the gallbladder.

3. GERD is GastroEsophageal Reflux Disease. The lower esophageal sphincter does not properly seal off and allows the acidic stomach contents to reflux into the esophagus, giving a burning sensation. If left untreated, it can cause serious damage to the esophagus.

4. The mouth mechanically breaks down food, tastes it, moistens it and begins starch digestion. The pharynx controls the swallowing reflex. The esophagus moves food to the stomach. The stomach stores food, breaks it down by mixing it with hydrochloric acid and begins protein digestion. The stomach also absorbs a small amount of nutrients. The small intestine does the bulk of absorption and digestion of food. The large intestine makes and stores feces and absorbs water and electrolytes. The anus allows defecation.

5. The peritoneum, like all serous membranes, has a visceral layer covering the organs, a parietal layer, lining the abdominal cavity, and a potential space between the layers. It is different from other serous membranes because some abdominal organs are not covered by the membrane (retroperitoneal organs) and because the peritoneum has large sheets projecting from it that drape over the organs (mesentery).

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

CHAPTER 17 Multiple Choice 1.

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Ureter Sinus Minor calyces Afferent arteriole Segmental Pyramids Glucose Analgesic Diabetes insipidus Nephron Blood pressure Lithotripsy Ions Decreases Polycystic kidney Filtration Diffusion Osmosis Afferent Efferent Balance Meat Renal

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Ischemia Filtering Transplant Survive Autoregulation Nephropathy counter current Antidiuretic hormone Glomerulonephritis Overactive bladder Renal hilum Glomerulus Renal columns Calcium Polycystic Ischemic Nephropathy Nephropathy Glomerulosclerosis Uremia Hemolytic Creatinine Chronic Incontinence

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

13. False 14. True 15. True

Essay 1. Decreased blood flow to the kidney results in ischemia to the nephrons, and decreased oxygen delivery to the nephrons. The body will desperately fight to get blood pressure back to normal, causing widespread vasoconstriction. The afferent arterioles get smaller and smaller, decreasing blood supply to the nephrons.

Eventually the kidneys will be damaged and kidney failure will result.

2. Antidiuretic Hormone-released by the posterior pituitary (made by hypothalamus), decreases urination.

Aldosterone-released by the adrenal cortex, increases sodium reabsorption, decreases urination.

Atrial natriuretic peptide-released by the heart, increases urination.

Epirephrine-decreases filtration.

Norepinephrine-same as epinephrine.

3. Just like screens and nets keep larger insects out of the house, filters are selective—allowing only smaller substances to go through the openings in the filter. Differences in pressure control the rate of filtration. The greater the pressure, the faster the filtration.

4. In an attempt to rid the body of high amounts of blood sugar, the kidneys are forced to filter sugar, overworking the kidneys. This can lead to kidney failure.

5. The kidney filters many chemicals. Substances in the urine crystallize in the renal tubule, often because the concentration of the molecule is higher than normal in the renal tubule. Stones can be made of many different chemicals including calcium or uric acid, or can be caused by kidney infection.

CHAPTER 18 Multiple Choice 1.

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b a c a b d c a c

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b c b b a c a b d d c a d d c b a b c d b b a c d a c b d d d a b

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Sperm LH Inhibits

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Proliferation Genitalia Fallopian Corpus luteum Prostate Testosterone Seminal vesicles Semen Placental HCG Endometriosis BPH Down Syndrome Ovaries Zygote Mammary Hydrocele Intellectual Prostate Blood Testosterone 35 Men PMS Underlying Yeast Immune Ejaculation Mastitis Asexual reproduction Vulva Fimbria Mitosis Functional Endometriosis Perineum Mammary Amenorrhea Dysmenorrhea

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Progesterone Endometriosis Breast Cervical Vaginitis Abruptio placenta Ectopic Hypertrophy

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False False True True False False True False True True False False True False False

Essay 1. Sperm move from the epididymis into the vas deferens, which then carries the sperm into the pelvic cavity. Semen enters the ejaculatory duct. The semen then enters the urethra and is carried outside the body. (Keep in mind that a number of glands are passed on this journey as well.)

2. Each month, women of child-bearing age shed and replace the endometrium.

Sometimes endometrial tissue gets outside the uterus and builds up and decays each month with the hormonal cycle. Women with endometriosis have abdominal and back pain around their period. Untreated endometriosis can lead to infertility.

3. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH): stimulates follicle development. Luteinizing hormone (LH): stimulates ovulation. Progesterone: inhibits LH and FSH, maintains uterine lining. Estrogen: Stimulates development of endometrium and release of LH and FSH prior to ovulation.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

4. Testosterone secretion in utero usually develops the typical male genitalia. If the fetus is insensitive to the androgens, he may have typical male genitalia but be sterile.

5. Menses: time during which menstruation occurs. Lining decays and leaves the uterus. Follicular or proliferative phase: endometrium is building up, follicle is maturing, between menses and ovulation. Luteal or secretory phase: corpus luteum forms, between ovulation and menses.

CHAPTER 19 Multiple Choice 1.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Bones 100 Timeline DNA Polypharmacy Smoking, sun 1 50 Carpal tunnel syndrome Smoking Melanoma K Warts Lead Pelvis Homeostasis

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Accumulation Repetitive Longer Constrict Excretion Smoking Removing Chemotherapy Genital warts Polypharmacy Exercise Spina bifida Friction ridges Male Bacilli Dehydrate Deteriorate Calcification Flexibility Incontinence Polypharmacy Oxygen Increase Anabolic Lower Herpes Gonorrhea Chlamydia Syphilis Genital warts

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition

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Essay 1. Answers may vary, but might include examination of hair, DNA, fingerprints, and skeletal remains.

2. Answers might include Vitamin A for vision; Vitamin B for cell and muscle growth; Vitamin C for iron absorption, bone and wound healing, and to bolster the immune system; Vitamin D for strong bones and teeth; Vitamin E for muscle and RBC growth; and Vitamin K for clotting.

3. If tissue or fluid is left at a crime scene or on a suspect’s personal items, that fluid may contain DNA. If it does, the DNA can be spilt into fragments and the fragments compared to the suspect’s and victim’s DNA. This procedure is called DNA fingerprinting. DNA fingerprinting can also be used to discover paternity or identify remains. As long as there is DNA available and a known sample for comparison, DNA fingerprinting is a reliable way to identify biological samples.

4. Vesicles/blisters, urinary pain and frequency, purulent discharge, abnormal menstrual bleeding, abdominal tenderness, genital burning and itching, swollen testes, bladder inflammation, pelvic pain, inflamed cervix, chancre sores, nervous system degradation, lymph node enlargement, and lesions/ growths.

5. Answers may vary, but might include not smoking, eating sensibly, exercising, avoiding sunlight overexposure, practicing safe sex, etc.

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Colbert, Ankney, Lee, Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 2nd Edition