Advertising Research Theory & Practice, 2E Joel J Davis Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Advertising Research Theory & Practice

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

Joel J. Davis

Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 1 The Nature and Process of Advertising Research 1) Successful advertising planning always builds upon a research-driven analysis of the marketplace.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) The question: "What are key trends in the competitive environment?" is most related to what type of research?

A) Market B) Consumer C) Creative D) Media E) Domain-centered Answer: A Page Ref: 3 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 3) The question: "What are changes in teen attitudes over the past five years?" is most related to what type of research?

A) Market B) Consumer C) Creative D) Media E) Domain-centered Answer: B Page Ref: 3 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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4) The question: "How do perceptions of our brand differ among users and nonusers?" is most related to what type of research?

A) Market B) Consumer C) Creative D) Media E) Domain-centered Answer: B Page Ref: 3 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 5) The question: "Which ad has the greatest potential to turn nonusers into users?" is most related to what type of research?

A) Market B) Consumer C) Creative D) Media E) Domain-centered Answer: C Page Ref: 6 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) The question: "How much are our competitors spending on their social media campaigns?" is most related to what type of research?

A) Market B) Consumer C) Creative D) Media E) Domain-centered Answer: D Page Ref: 7 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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7) The text refers to segmentation research conducted by Forrester Research. This segmentation divided the population in terms of ________.

A) use of mobile phone applications B) amount of time spent exclusively on Facebook C) number of Twitter followers D) engagement with social technologies and media E) amount of advertising exposure Answer: D Page Ref: 5 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 8) Mary is just becoming engaged with social media. She has a Facebook page and she regularly visits social networking sites. Forrester Research would classify Mary as a ________.

A) critic B) collector C) joiner D) spectator E) creator Answer: C Page Ref: 5 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9) A ________ statement presents the agency's and client's views of the marketplace niche they believe the product can most successfully fill.

A) creativity B) proactive message C) positioning D) motivational E) expositional Answer: C Page Ref: 6 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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10) What type of activity clearly presents key research information in a way that allows advertisers to understand not only the "what" but also the "why" of interrelated research findings and insights?

A) Synthetic analysis B) Signal detection C) Synthesis D) Scientia analysis E) Discriminative analysis Answer: C Page Ref: 7 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) Milward Brown's "Dynamic Tracking Study" helps advertisers understand the strengths and weaknesses of an advertising campaign ________ .

A) before it is placed in the marketplace B) while it is running in the marketplace C) after it has run in the marketplace D) in its early stages of development E) from the client's perspective Answer: A Page Ref: 6 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 12) The synthesis of research findings leads to a determination of ________.

A) tactics and actions B) the research budget C) research timing D) the selection of a field service E) questionnaire length Answer: A Page Ref: 8 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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13) At an advertising agency, only individuals in the research department are concerned with research findings.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 9 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 14) John works in the NewWave Advertising Agency research department. John has been asked to design a very sophisticated research study using a design and questioning technique with which he is unfamiliar. John is most likely to turn to a ________ for assistance.

A) media consulting company B) research specialist C) field service D) trade organization E) research advocate Answer: B Page Ref: 9 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) John works in the NewWave Advertising Agency research department. John has been asked to prepare a presentation for senior management that focuses on how individuals respond to rich media advertising. John is most likely to turn to a ________ for assistance.

A) media consulting company B) research specialist C) field service D) syndicated research company E) proprietary research company Answer: A Page Ref: 10 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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16) The Interactive Advertising Bureau is an example of a ________.

A) media consulting company B) research specialist C) field service D) trade organization E) syndicated research company Answer: D Page Ref: 10 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) Which of the following is most likely to provide research data on a subscription basis?

A) Custom research supplier B) Syndicated research supplier C) Internal research supplier D) External research supplier E) All of the above are equally likely Answer: B Page Ref: 9 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 18) Imagine that the AAA agency needs to survey 500 individuals. Which of the following could the agency turn to for data collection?

A) Field service B) Field analyst C) Media company D) Syndicated research company E) All of the above are equally appropriate choices Answer: A Page Ref: 10 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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19) The first stage in the process of advertising research is ________.

A) preliminary discussions and agreements B) planning and data collection C) analysis D) synthesis E) tactics and actions Answer: A Page Ref: 12 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 20) When creating the complete problem statement, which step takes place at the same time as "Define problem?"

A) Select field service B) Justify research C) Set research timing D) Set research budget E) Select individual to have primary responsibility for project Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 21) Your client comes to you and says: "We need research to determine changes in consumers' attitudes toward our brand and our three primary competitors." The first question you should ask the client is: A) Who are your three primary competitors?

B) How long do we have to collect this information?

C) How is this information going to be used?

D) What is the budget?

E) Who do you think is the best person to plan the research?

Answer: C Page Ref: 14 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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22) The creation of a complete problem statement is an optional part of the research planning process.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 13 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 23) Research-related problem statements arise from different research needs. How many of the statements shown below reflect a type of problem statement?

- there is a need to evaluate the "goodness" of alternative actions - there is a need to compare the current research budget to prior, similar studies - there is a need to identify problems and opportunities - there is a need to broaden understanding of the consumer or marketplace A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 14-15 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 24) Problem definitions reflect the difference between what is known and what needs to be known in order to reduce uncertainty and increase confidence in decisions reached.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 15 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 25) A complete problem statement contains a problem definition, a justification for the research and ________.

A) the cost of the research B) the timing of the research C) the client or agency approval to conduct the research D) the specification of informational needs E) the name of the person supervising the research Answer: D Page Ref: 16 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 8 ..

26) ________ research examines data gathered by others for a research need other than the current one.

A) Primary B) Secondary Answer: B Page Ref: 17 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 27) When you use library resources to answer a client need you are conducting ________ research.

A) primary B) seconday Answer: B Page Ref: 17 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 28) All primary research is quantitative.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 18 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking 29) A determination of research cost and timing estimates should always come after the selection of the data collection method.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 18 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 30) What is the first step in the "Research Planning and data Collection" process?

A) Specify type of research B) Determine sampling plan C) Select data collection method D) Estimate cost and timing E) Obtain approvals Answer: A Page Ref: 18 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 9 ..

31) Sample size is only a consideration in quantitative research.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 32) What type of research primarily uses open-ended probing questions?

A) Qualitative B) Quantitative Answer: A Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 33) In-depth personal interviews and focus groups are representative of what type of research?

A) Qualitative B) Quantitative Answer: A Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 34) Physiological and survey research are representative of what type of research?

A) Qualitative B) Quantitative Answer: B Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 35) Quantitative research is best used to collect background information in an area where little is already known.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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36) ________ research is the recording of objects, events, situations, or people's behaviors.

A) Observation B) Physiological C) Survey Answer: A Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 37) What type of sample includes individuals who are not selected strictly by chance from the universe of interest?

A) Probability B) Nonprobability Answer: B Page Ref: 20 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 38) The advertising research budget should always be set prior to determination of sample size.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 18 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 39) Which part of the research proposal contains a brief synopsis of the key points from each of the more detailed sections of the proposal?

A) Executive Summary B) Background C) Problem Statement D) Appendix E) Methodology Answer: A Page Ref: 22 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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40) Which part of the research proposal contains a brief statement of the situational and informational needs that led to the decision to conduct the research?

A) Executive Summary B) Background C) Problem Statement D) Appendix E) Methodology Answer: B Page Ref: 22 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 41) The research proposal provides an important last opportunity for management to contribute their thoughts to the research process.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 22 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 42) When conducting data analysis, it is always more important to focus on the details rather than the larger patterns and trends.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 23 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application 43) The VERB campaign was a communication campaign designed to increase ________ physical activity.

A) teens' B) adults' C) tweens' D) only girls' E) only boys' Answer: B Page Ref: 24 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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44) Research played only a limited role in the development of the VERB campaign.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 25 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 45) Explain the importance of the "synthesis" step in the research process.

Answer: The synthesis of research information is important because it allows an advertiser to better see the interrelationships among diverse types and sources of information.

Page Ref: 7 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking 46) Why does one have to be cautious in using research obtained from a trade association?

Answer: The research may be biased because trade organizations are advocacy groups.

Page Ref: 10 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking 47) List three different types of problem statements.

Answer: (1) the selection of alternatives and evaluation of alternative actions. (2) the identification and evaluation of problems and opportunities, and (3) the need to broaden knowledge Page Ref: 14-15 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 48) Provide an example of where qualitative research would be appropriate prior to the conduct of survey research.

Answer: When there is little known about the topic of interest, focus groups or in-depth interviews would help to inform areas that should be pursued via the survey.

Page Ref: 19 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application

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49) Qualitative research typically uses nonprobability samples. Why? Answer: The goal of qualitative sampling is to locate individuals who can provide important insights. Qualitative research does not seek to generalize the results to the broader population from which the sample was drawn.

Page Ref: 20-21 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking 50) Jane is planning research to determine which of three commercials is the strongest. There is considerable debate at the agency regarding how to define "strongest." Time is short, as the commercial needs to be produced within the next two weeks. Jane decides to go ahead with the research, and then hold meetings at the agency to define "strongest" before data analysis begins.

Is Jane's plan acceptable?

Answer: No. All key variables need to be defined prior to the start of the research.

Page Ref: 16 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 2 Research Ethics 1) ________ are moral principles that help determine when a course of action is either right or wrong.

A) Platitudes B) Metaphors C) Ethics D) Analogies E) Syllogisms Answer: C Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) ________ have been written to help advertisers determine the most appropriate course of action.

A) Codes of situations B) Codes of ethics C) Statements of situational ethics D) Ethical metaphors E) Ethical syllogisms Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) Consider the groups shown below.

- respondents - management and clients - society as a whole - research suppliers Researchers have an ethical responsibility to how many of these groups?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: E Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 1 ..

4) Codes of ethics are written by members of a specific trade or profession.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 5) Research codes of ethics incorporate the principles of autonomy, nonmaleficence, and ________.

A) beneficial planning B) beneficence C) parity D) modesty E) synchronicity Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 6) The ethical principal of autonomy means that all individuals involved in the research have ________.

A) the right to be paid for participation in the research B) the right to know why the research is being conducted C) the right to know who is conducting the research D) the option to review the research results prior to dissemination E) free deliberation and decision power regarding their participation in the research Answer: E Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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7) The ethical principal of beneficence states that one has an obligation to ________.

A) remove all identifying information from the survey or questionnaire B) provide detailed information on the research findings C) remove existing harms, to confer benefits, and to minimize risks wherever and whenever possible D) conduct the research in a timely manner E) conduct the research within the budget Answer: C Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 8) The ethical principal of nonmaleficence states that one has an obligation to ________.

A) remove all identifying information from the survey or questionnaire B) complete the research project within the agreed upon time frame C) remove existing harms, to confer benefits, and to minimize risks wherever and whenever possible D) avoid intentionally inflicting harm on others E) conduct the research within within the budget Answer: D Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 9) Informed consent is required ________.

A) only for quantitative research B) only for qualitative research C) both qualitative and quantitative research D) neither qualitative nor quantitative research Answer: C Page Ref: 32 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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10) Karl wants to conduct research. Consider the following situations.

I. The research uses a survey to obtain information on television viewing habits.

II. The research uses observation of individuals in a park.

For which (if any) situations is informed consent required?

A) I only requires informed consent B) II only requires informed consent C) Both I and II require informed consent D) Neither I nor II require informed consent Answer: A Page Ref: 32, 36 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) Jason wants to conduct research. Consider the following situations.

I. The research uses a survey to obtain information on the use of social networking sites.

II. The research uses observation to track brand comments in Tweets.

For which (if any) situations is informed consent required?

A) I only requires informed consent B) II only requires informed consent C) Both I and II require informed consent D) Neither I nor II require informed consent Answer: A Page Ref: 32, 36 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application

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12) Betty wants to conduct research. Consider the following situations.

I. The research uses a observation to track brand comments in online blogs.

II. The research uses focus groups to learn about brand perceptions.

For which (if any) situations is informed consent required?

A) I only requires informed consent B) II only requires informed consent C) Both I and II require informed consent D) Neither I nor II require informed consent Answer: B Page Ref: 32, 36 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) Under what circumstances is informed consent required?

A) Only when private information is being collected B) Only when public information is being collected C) When both public and private information are being collected D) Informed consent is never required, it is always optional Answer: A Page Ref: 32, 36 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 14) Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent?

A) Making it clear you are asking for participation in a research study B) Explaining the purpose of the research C) Noting who is conducting the research D) Explaining research timing and budget E) Explaining what is required to participate in the research Answer: D Page Ref: 32 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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15) A well written informed consent statement makes it clear that participation in the research is voluntary.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 32 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) It is unethical to design or conduct a research study in a way that prevents a respondent from exercising his or her right to withdraw or refuse to answer at any stage of the interview.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) You pay respondents $10 at the start of a research study to increase participation. Vern, a respondent, wants to quit half-way through the survey. What is the appropriate course of action?

A) Allow Vern to quit and keep the $10 B) Allow Vern to quit but take back the $10 C) Try to talk Vern out of quitting, and tell him you will give him another $10 to continue D) Try to talk Vern out of quitting, but provide no additional monetary incentive E) Tell Vern that if he quits, he will need to pay a penalty of $5 Answer: A Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 18) Which of the following is NOT a requirement of informed consent?

A) Telling respondents what is required for them to participate B) Telling respondents how long the interview will take C) Telling respondents the name of the person in charge of the research D) Telling respondents what will be done with the data E) Telling respondents what they are expected to do Answer: C Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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19) Think about the guidelines for creating an informed consent document. According to the text, how many of the guidelines shown below apply to this document?

- use 14 point fonts - present the study purpose early in the document - use words that are familiar to the reader - organize the text into just a few large blocks of text A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 20) How many of the characteristics below are appropriate for a written informed consent form?

- words and terminology are consistent throughout the document - sentences are short, simple and direct - avoid the use of personal pronouns - verbs are in active voice A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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21) You ask respondents to view a commercial, after which you ask them their opinions. This aspect of their participation in the research was fully explained as part of informed consent. At the end of the survey, you give each respondent three bottles of shampoo as a "thank you" for participating and no further explanation is provided. These bottles are also part of the research as you plan to call each respondent a week later to get his/her reactions to the shampoo. Which of the following best describes this situation?

A) This situation would be considered ethical because respondents are getting products for free.

B) This situation would be considered ethical because respondents could decide not to take the shampoo.

C) This situation would be considered unethical because respondents were not fully informed with regard to this portion of the research.

D) This situation would be considered unethical because not all respondents will eventually use the shampoo.

E) There is not enough information to determine the ethics of this situation.

Answer: C Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 22) Think about the criteria that indicate respondent mistreatment. According to the text, how many of behaviors shown below would be considered respondent mistreatment?

- frequent, repeated attempts to contact the respondent - overly long surveys not described as such - asking personal questions for "information's sake" A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: D Page Ref: 34 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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23) Jean is writing the informed consent form for a research study. She puts in her contact information in case respondents have questions. Then she adds the line: "If you leave the survey to contact the principal researcher, Susan Jones, then you will not be able to return to the survey and participate in the prize drawing." This additional detail makes the conditions of the research: A) Acceptable B) Unacceptable Answer: B Page Ref: 34 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 24) Respondents' expectations that their responses will be treated confidentially are absolute unless they are explicitly informed otherwise.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 35 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) You inform respondents that all their information will be treated confidentially. Under which (if any) circumstances can the explicit assurance of data confidentiality be broken?

A) It can never be broken.

B) It can be broken after the data is more than a year old.

C) It can be broken in order to maintain good client relations.

D) It can be broken if the data released is not personal in nature.

E) It can be broken if no harm is done to the respondents.

Answer: A Page Ref: 35 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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26) Kelly puts invisible (to the respondent) identifiers on the survey to keep track of who has or has not responded. After the research has concluded, the client asks to see the questionnaires.

What should Kelly do?

A) Keep and refuse to send the questionnaires B) Shred the questionnaires C) Send the questionnaires without any modification D) Send the questionnaires after the identifiers have been removed E) Send the questionnaires without any modification, but only if the client pays associated costs Answer: D Page Ref: 35 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 27) Your client pays to conduct research among his franchisees, who were promised confidentiality. At the conclusion of the research the client asks to see the actual questionnaires with identifying information. Because the client paid for the research, it is not necessary to remove each respondent's name or other identifying information from the questionnaires.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 35 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) Tom is conducting research with children. Some of the children recruited for the research are very hesitant to participate once they hear what they must do. Tom promises these children a toy if they change their minds. Tom's actions would be considered ethical.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 36 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 29) Pete is monitoring blogs to determine attitudes toward his company. Informed consent requires that he obtain informed consent from the blog owners prior to conducting this research.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 37 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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30) According to Bruckman, when faced with a trade-off between the needs of subjects and the integrity of the research, priority should be given to the integrity of the research.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 37 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 31) There are clear and explicit ethical guidelines for conducting research in online communities.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 37 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 32) There are clear and explicit legal guidelines for conducting research in online communities.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 37 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 33) Think about Stanton's "Bill of Rights" for virtual world research. How many of the following are part of this "Bill of Rights?"

- the right to know that I am a subject - the right to learn the benefits of the research - the right to participate as my avatar - the right to teleport A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: E Page Ref: 38-39 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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34) Stanton takes the point of view that conducting research in virtual worlds is unethical and should be avoided.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 38-39 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 35) How many of the behaviors shown below reflect ethical responsibilities toward clients?

- research recommendations should be appropriate - clients should be kept informed of all study changes - research budgets should be kept to less than $10,000 - all gathered information is proprietary A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 39 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 36) How many of the behaviors shown below indicate a misleading or unethical data presentation practice?

- only a partial set of the data is reported - the data has been manipulated to accentuate positive outcomes - the axes of data graphs use very small increments - the data is rounded to one decimal point A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 39 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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37) Jeff is supervising a research project. Over the weekend he realizes that a change needs to be made in the questionnaire because respondents are having a difficult time answering several questions. His client, for whom the research is being conducted, cannot be reached until Monday.

What should Jeff do?

A) Allow the project to continue as is and then talk with the client on Monday B) Stop the research and then talk with the client on Monday about solutions C) Change the questionnaire and inform the client of the changes on Monday Answer: B Page Ref: 39 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 38) How many of the practices below reflect unethical behaviors with research suppliers?

- issuing a call for bids after a supplier has been selected - using the proposal process to obtain free advice - making false promises to lower costs - issuing a call for more than three proposals A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 43 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 39) Larry has just completed work on a client-sponsored research project. After the research is concluded, Larry receives a call from a local newspaper. During the interview Larry realizes that the client's research would provide important insights. What should Larry do?

A) Because of the good publicity, Larry should feel free to discuss the research results with the reporter.

B) Contact the client and ask for permission to share the results prior to providing the data.

Answer: B Page Ref: 40 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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40) Consider the chart below.

This chart ...

A) is totally acceptable as shown B) exhibits a problem only with the "Y-Axis" - the test scores C) exhibits a problem only with the "X-Axis" - the names of the schools D) exhibits problems with both axes Answer: B Page Ref: 42 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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41) Consider the chart below.

This chart ...

A) is totally acceptable as shown B) exhibits a problem only with the "Y-Axis" - the number of hurricanes C) exhibits a problem only with the "X-Axis" - the years for which the data is presented D) exhibits problems with both axes Answer: C Page Ref: 43 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 42) Larry is soliciting proposals from seven research suppliers. What is the ethical course of action in this situation?

A) Inform all companies that theirs is one of seven proposals being solicited.

B) Inform none of the companies that other proposals are being solicited.

C) Inform only the losing companies that theirs was one of seven proposals solicited.

D) Inform only the winning company that theirs was one of seven proposals solicited.

Answer: A Page Ref: 44 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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43) It is unethical to falsely say to a research supplier "If you give us a break on this research, I know that I can throw a lot of business your way later this year."

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 44 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 44) Peter is working on a press release for a research study his agency has just conducted. The press release notes that a full report is available. John plans to only include in the report the data that is favorable to his agency. Is this an ethical practice?

Answer: This is not ethical. Ethical standards require that all data released to the public be complete and properly interpreted.

Page Ref: 45 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 45) Carey, the agency researcher, conducts research to determine consumers' reactions to the client's latest advertising campaign. Carey remembers that the selection of the campaign's spokesperson was a controversial decision, with the client only grudgingly going along with the agency recommendation. The results show that consumers are very positive toward the campaign with one exception: they absolutely hate the spokesperson. Cary asks: "Since overall reactions are so positive, why don't I eliminate from the full report the survey questions that explore reactions to the spokesperson? Why bring up a controversial issue that everyone agrees is settled?"

Is Carey acting ethically?

Answer: No, ethics require that all data be reported in a fair and complete manner.

Page Ref: 40-43 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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46) You hire a firm to contact individuals about water quality. When contacted by phone, each individual is invited to participate in what you are calling the "National Water Quality Attitude Survey." When people agree to participate they are asked six questions. Based on their answers, those who indicate that they are concerned about water quality are asked, at the end of the interview, if they would like see a demonstration of a home water purification system, available only to them because they answered the survey questions. This approach to promoting the water purification system would be considered ethical.

Answer: This is not an ethical practice as it is using research as a guise for sales.

Page Ref: 45-46 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 47) John is an advertising researcher planning a new project. He looks at the legal requirements and constraints for the project. John's point of view is that so long as the project is legal, then it is also ethical. Do you agree or disagree with John?

Answer: Disagree. A project can be legal and still violate one of the ethical principles of autonomy, nonmaleficence, or beneficence.

Page Ref: 31 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 48) John wants to report the research findings as "Our advertising awareness increased 200%."

Mary wants to say "Our advertising awareness increased from 3% to 6%." Provide a point of view on which approach is the preferred approach.

Answer: Mary's approach is better, as it is always recommended that actual data be used. In addition, John's approach is likely to lead to the impression that the gain in awareness is much larger than it actually is, given the low number of individuals initially aware.

Page Ref: 45 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 49) Marge wishes to conduct an observation study of individuals eating meals at McDonald's.

Does she need to obtain informed consent from those being observed?

Answer: No, informed consent is not required when the data is being collected in a public space.

Page Ref: 32 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 50) Mary has written a long telephone survey and, because of the length, many respondents are 17 ..

hanging up before the survey is completed. Mary has asked her interviewers to try to talk respondents out of quitting by referring to their "obligation" to complete the survey. Would Mary's actions be consistent with the criteria for the ethical treatment of respondents? Why or why not?

Answer: Not consistent. Respondents have the right to discontinue participation at any time without coercion.

Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 51) Mary is the moderator for a focus group. The group consists of many shy individuals. Mary wants to avoid making these individuals feel uncomfortable, so she decides not to mention that the groups are being filmed and that individuals are watching the group from behind a one-way mirror. Would Mary's omission of this information be considered ethical?

Answer: No, the omission of this information violates informed consent.

Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 3 Secondary Research 1) What types of research help advertisers make better informed decisions?

A) Primary only B) Secondary only C) Both primary and secondary Answer: C Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) Which type of data provides information that has been collected by the researcher specifically for the current research project?

A) Syndicated data B) Primary data C) Secondary data D) Evaluative data Answer: B Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) ________ information is information that has already been collected for purposes other than the current information need.

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary Answer: B Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) Which type of data provides information that has been collected by other than the researcher for a purpose other than the current research project?

A) Syndicated data B) Primary data C) Secondary data D) Evaluative data Answer: C Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 1 ..

5) Think about the U.S. Census. When this information is used by Congress, it is considered to be ________ research.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) proprietary E) confidential Answer: A Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) Think about the U.S. Census. When this information is used by an advertising agency to better understand demographic trends, it is considered to be ________ research.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) proprietary E) confidential Answer: B Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 7) Think about the U.S. Census. When an advertising agency obtains this information from the U.S. Census Bureau, it is obtaining it from the ________ source.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary Answer: A Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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8) Think about the U.S. Census. When an advertising agency obtains this information from a long, analytical article in the New York Times, it is obtaining it from a ________ source.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary Answer: B Page Ref: 54 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9) It is always better to obtain secondary information from a ________ source.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary Answer: A Page Ref: 55 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 10) An advertiser is likely to obtain information that is more complete and accurate when it is obtained from the ________ source.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary Answer: A Page Ref: 55 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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11) Consider the two statements shown below regarding the potential contribution of secondary research.

I.

Secondary research can contribute to questionnaire development.

II. Secondary research can never, on its own, answer an advertiser's information needs.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 56-59 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) Consider the two statements shown below.

I.

Secondary research can help to clarify, redefine, or refocus a planned primary research study.

II. Secondary research obtained from multiple sources typically requires a synthesis of findings before it is useful.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 55 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) Primary data should be the starting point in the search for secondary data.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 57 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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14) Consider the three statements shown below. How many of these statements correctly describe the contribution of secondary research to a planned primary research study?

- Secondary research can answer some of the questions originally addressed in the primary research study, making the explorations of these areas unnecessary.

- Secondary research can identify new areas to explore.

- Secondary research can cause a change in the primary research study's hypotheses.

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: D Page Ref: 59 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of secondary research compared to primary research?

A) is generally quick to obtain B) is always timely C) is relatively inexpensive Answer: B Page Ref: 59 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) Bonnie is unsure of how to probe and explore some key attitudes in an upcoming research study. Bonnie's first step should be to ________.

A) hold focus groups B) talk informally with target audience respondents C) conduct a search of secondary information to see what others have done D) eliminate the problem areas from the primary research study Answer: C Page Ref: 59 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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17) Secondary research has two significant advantages over primary research. These advantages relate to greater efficiencies in terms of ________.

A) cost and quality B) quality and time C) time and cost Answer: C Page Ref: 59 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 18) The text noted limitations of secondary research. How many of the following were noted as limitations?

- availability - relevance - cost A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Page Ref: 60, 61 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 19) Which, if any, of the statements shown below are true?

I.

The relevance of secondary information increases when there is a high correspondence between the units of measurement used in the secondary research and the advertiser's desired units of measurement.

II. The relevance of secondary information increases when there is a high correspondence between how an advertiser defines the unit of analysis and how the unit of analysis is defined in the secondary research.

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II is true Answer: C Page Ref: 56 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 6 ..

20) The manufacturer of Huggies Diapers conducts research that finds that disposable diapers are not an environmental problem. Since Huggies is a name brand owned by a major corporation, this research should be accepted as credible.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 61 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 21) Imagine you want to evaluate the credibility and "goodness" of secondary research. In this context, which, if any, of the following statements is (are) true?

I. The credibility and "goodness" of secondary research increases when authors and their affiliations are explicitly provided.

II. The credibility and "goodness" of secondary research increases when author contact information is provided.

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II is true Answer: C Page Ref: 61 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 22) Two secondary sources each address the issue of teen's use of social media. The first source provides the entire data set in its report, while the second source provides a summary of data it finds the "most interesting" for advertisers. Which secondary source is considered to be the better source?

A) The first source B) The second source C) Both sources are equal Answer: A Page Ref: 55 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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23) In evaluating the appropriateness of secondary information, it is important to be able to distinguish opinion from fact.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 62 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 24) The text notes three main sources of secondary information: indexed online, non-indexed online and ________.

A) offline experts B) offline print C) online social media D) mobile applications Answer: B Page Ref: 62 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 25) Slideshare and Scribd are examples of ________.

A) offline print sources B) online indexed sources C) online non-indexed sources Answer: C Page Ref: 62 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 26) The Harrison Research Company has just completed a study of senior citizens' use of social media. They want the report to be disseminated as much as possible. In addition to posting the study's report on its web site, the company is likely to upload the report to ________.

A) Google B) Flickr C) Slideshare D) YouTube Answer: C Page Ref: 62 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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27) Which of the following describes itself as the "world's largest collection of public records, unpublished opinions, forms, legal, news, and business information?"

A) Google B) LexisNexis C) Microsoft Scholar's Resource D) Slideshare Answer: B Page Ref: 62 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 28) The first step in an online search strategy is to "state your information need in the form of one or more declarative sentences."

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 63 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 29) The goal of an online search is to locate information on how individuals over the age of 65 relate to and use mobile apps for their banking needs. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to state an information need in the first step of an online search?

A) What's happening with seniors and banks?

B) What are the trends regarding seniors' use of mobile banking?

C) Seniors and banking D) What are current developments in the areas of banking and how are senior citizens using and responding to these banking trends?

Answer: B Page Ref: 63 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 30) ________ should be added to the original search phrase in order to increase the chances of locating additional secondary information.

A) Metaphors B) Syllogisms C) Analogies D) Synonyms Answer: D Page Ref: 63 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 9 ..

31) The search phrases "trends + yogurt" and "trend + yogurt" provide identical results.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 64 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 32) The search phrase "trends + yogurt" will return identical results when used on Google and Bing.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 64 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 33) The process of online search described in the text recommends that after a number of searches are completed, you then systematically read key findings and reflect on results before proceeding with additional, more refined, searches.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 65 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 34) Imagine that you want to search for all sources that mention teens and diets. Which of the following search phrases would be most appropriate?

A) teens with diets B) dieting teens C) teens - diet D) teens + diet Answer: D Page Ref: 66 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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35) Imagine that you want to search just for PowerPoint presentations that relate to mothers and blogs. Which of the following search phrases would be most appropriate?

A) mothers + blogs:ppt B) mothers - blogs:ppt C) blogging mothers:powerpoint D) mothers who blog:powerpoint Answer: A Page Ref: 66 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 36) Imagine that you want to search for mentions of social media, but are not interested in any mentions of advertising. Which of the following search phrases would be most appropriate?

A) "social media" + advertising B) "social media" but not "advertising" C) "social" + "media" - "advertising" D) "social media" - advertising Answer: D Page Ref: 66 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 37) Imagine that you want to search for web sites that have the term "milk" in their URL. Which of the following search phrases would be most appropriate?

A) inurl: milk B) milk "in" url C) url + milk D) intitle: milk Answer: A Page Ref: 67 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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38) You are searching for relevant web sites and have found a very relevant and informative site.

The URL of this site is "www.seniorsandmobileads.com" You want to find other sites that link to this site. Which of the following search phrases would be most appropriate?

A) what sites link to "seniorsandmobileads.com" B) destinations: www.seniorsandmobileads.com C) link: www.seniorsandmobileads.com D) outto: www.seniorsandmobileads.com Answer: C Page Ref: 68 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 39) Which of the following allows you to locate books containing content that matches your search terms?

A) Google Scholar B) Google Book Search C) Yahoo! Finder D) Yahoo! InPrint Answer: A Page Ref: 69 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 40) Ad Age and Clickz are examples of ________ publishers.

A) print newsletter B) online newsletter C) online social media D) print social media Answer: B Page Ref: 70 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 41) Online white papers and research reports typically present perspectives and research findings related to a company's area of focus and expertise.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 72 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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42) Imagine that you are looking for a white paper related to digital marketing technology and services. Which of the companies listed below would be the most appropriate?

A) Ad Age B) Doubleclick C) Gannett Media D) New Media Research Inc. E) OneStop Answer: B Page Ref: 72 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 43) Imagine that you are looking for a newsletter named "Smartbrief." Which of the companies listed below would be the most likely source?

A) Ad Age B) Doubleclick C) Gannett Media D) New Media Research Inc. E) Interactive Advertising Bureau Answer: E Page Ref: 71 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 44) Imagine that you are looking for information regarding new television advertising campaigns. Which of the companies listed below would be the most appropriate?

A) Ad Age B) Doubleclick C) Gannett Media D) New Media Research Inc. E) OneStop Answer: A Page Ref: 70 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 45) Media-focused associations are an excellent source for research focused on one specific medium.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 74 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 13 ..

46) You wish to obtain some secondary information. Is it better to obtain this information from the primary or a secondary source? Why? Answer: Secondary data, whenever possible, should be obtained from the primary source. This source is more likely to provide data that is more complete, more accurate and of higher quality.

Page Ref: 55 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking 47) The text provided an example of the Luckie Snacking Industry report. Why would an advertiser subscribe to this type of report rather than collecting the information for him/herself?

Answer: The cost (in terms of dollars, time, and personnel) would be significantly higher if an advertiser collected this information by him/herself, assuming that the advertiser could be as thorough as Lucke, a company which specializes in the collection of this information.

Page Ref: 55-59 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking 48) Imagine that you have come across a web site with information relevant to your secondary information search. List three criteria that can be used to determine the accuracy of the provided information.

Answer: Any three of the following are acceptable: - Has the page or publication provided external sources to verify presented information through footnotes, bibliographies, or links to external (and trustworthy) locations?

- Has the page or publication been reviewed by external sources?

- Is original data presented whenever possible to support arguments or conclusions?

- Does supporting data appear to be unaltered and not fabricated?

- Do facts or data appear to be unfairly manipulated to support a point of view?

- Does the presentation of data appear to be complete and not "cherry-picked?"

- If data is presented in table or graph form, are the tables and graphs clearly and appropriately labeled?

-If data is presented, was the underlying methodology appropriate and unbiased?

Page Ref: 61-62 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 49) Briefly explain why it is important to conduct an online search using several different search engines.

Answer: Different search engines will return different results, even when the exact same search term is used.

Page Ref: 64 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 14 ..

50) Secondary information can often provide assistance prior to the conduct of primary research.

Describe a situation in which this might occur.

Answer: Any of the following is acceptable: - In some instances, information obtained from secondary research can completely satisfy and resolve an advertiser's or marketer's informational needs, thereby eliminating the need for any primary research.

- Secondary research information can help to clarify, redefine, or refocus a planned primary research study.

- Secondary research can contribute to an improved questionnaire by alerting a researcher to problems that might be encountered in the planned primary research, or it can provide examples of ways to probe and explore specific areas addressed in primary research.

Page Ref: 55-56 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Synthesis

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 4 Sampling 1) The text described Mary and John's sampling of opinion in Dr. Newson's class. Mary obtained more accurate results than John. This is because Mary used ________ sampling while John used ________ sampling.

A) random, haphazard B) random, convenience C) census, convenience D) census, haphazard Answer: B Page Ref: 80 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 2) Only ________ sampling allows you to make valid generalizations about the population from which the sample was drawn.

A) random B) judgment C) nonrandom D) snowball E) quota Answer: A Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 3) Another name for probability sampling is ________ sampling.

A) random B) judgment C) nonrandom D) snowball E) quota Answer: A Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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4) Probability sampling is ________ research.

A) most frequently used in qualitative B) most frequently used in quantitative C) equally frequent in qualitative and quantitative Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 5) The first step in the sampling process focuses on determining ________.

A) sample size given the research budget B) absolute required sample size C) if a sample or census should be used D) the amount of time required to contact the sample E) if a quota sample is needed Answer: C Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 6) A subset of the population that represents the entire group from which it is drawn is known as a ________.

A) population B) sample unit C) census D) sample E) respondent Answer: D Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 7) Krispy Kreme has 1,251 franchisees in the United States. Lance wants to conduct interviews with every one of the franchisees. This would result in a ________ of the franchisees.

A) sample B) census Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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8) The vast majority of research uses a sample of the population of interest.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 9) Consider the statements shown below. How many of these statements describe situations in which a census is preferable to a sample?

- when the population of interest is small and identifiable - when sampling might eliminate important cases from the study - when the client has unlimited funds to conduct the research - when the research results will be published in newspapers or other media A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 10) Once it is determined that a sample (versus a census) is needed, the next step in the sampling planning process is to ________.

A) determine the project budget B) determine the project timing C) describe the correct sample frame D) define the target population E) determine whether to use a probability or nonprobability approach to sample selection Answer: E Page Ref: 83 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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11) According to the text, a well written target definition ________ describes the group of interest and clearly differentiates those things or individuals of interest from those which are not of interest.

A) ambiguously B) unambiguosly C) creatively D) inventively E) fashionably Answer: B Page Ref: 83 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) With regard to target audience definitions, the text notes that populations of individuals are typically defined in some combination of ________, geographic and behavioral characteristics.

A) geoattitudinal B) geopsychographic C) demographic D) physiological E) democratic Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) The ________ components of a target audience definition typically specify age, gender, income, or other related characteristics.

A) geoattitudinal B) geopsychographic C) demographic D) physiological E) democratic Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 14) The demographic component of a target audience definition relates to respondent characteristics such as social media usage and levels of technology adoption.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 84 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 4 ..

15) The ________ component of a target audience definition relates to respondent characteristics such as usage of Flickr and brand purchase patterns.

A) behavioral B) demographic C) democratic D) geodemographic E) attitudinal Answer: A Page Ref: 84 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 16) The quality and validity of generalizations drawn from a research study are only minimally influenced by its target definition.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 86 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) The text discussed the Pew Research Center exploration of the relationship between target audience definition estimates of Muslim American demographics. This research found that demographic estimates were affected by differences in target audience definitions.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 86 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 18) Once the target population is defined, the next step ________.

A) selects the sampling method B) determines the project budget C) identifies the questions to be used on the survey D) sets parameters for study timing E) determines the appropriate procedures for data analysis Answer: A Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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19) A probability sample is one in which the members of the target population ________.

A) can easily be found for survey purposes B) all have an equal chance of being included in the sample C) have participated in similar research studies D) have agreed to accept an incentive to participate in the research E) can be found in malls and other high-traffic areas Answer: B Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 20) In which type of sample does each individual, household, or item in the target universe have an equal chance of being selected for participation in the research?

A) Probability B) Snowball C) Quota D) Nonprobability E) Judgment Answer: A Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 21) When you use a table of random numbers or flip a coin to select members of the sample, you are using a form of ________ sampling.

A) random B) snowball C) judgment D) nonprobability E) quota Answer: A Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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22) Only ________ samples allow you to determine the sample size required for a specified degree of confidence.

A) snowball B) nonprobability C) probability D) judgment E) quota Answer: C Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 23) Which type of sampling process allows you to confidently generalize the research findings to the population from which the sample was drawn?

A) Convenience sampling B) Probability sampling C) Nonprobability sampling D) Snowball sampling E) Quota sampling Answer: B Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 24) Focus groups are a form of nonprobability sampling. It is acceptable to generalize the results of focus groups to the broader population from which the participants were drawn.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 25) A(n) ________ sample frame occurs when there is an exact correspondence between the sample frame and target population.

A) over-registered B) under-registered C) perfect Answer: C Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 7 ..

26) A(n) ________ sample frame contains all of the elements in the target population, plus additional elements.

A) over-registered B) under-registered C) perfect Answer: A Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 27) A(n) ________ sample frame occurs when elements of the target population are excluded from potential participation in the research.

A) over-registered B) under-registered C) perfect Answer: B Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 28) A screener is used to eliminate unwanted individuals from potential participation in the research. The screener is likely being used because of over-registration in the sample frame.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 88 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 29) Three types of sampling discussed in the text are: simple random, systematic random, and ________ random.

A) cooperative B) symbiotic C) stratified D) reflective E) strategic Answer: A Page Ref: 88 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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30) Which approach to sampling might use a coin toss or a table of random numbers to select members of the population for participation in the research study?

A) simple B) systematic C) stratified D) synergistic E) symbiotic Answer: A Page Ref: 89 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 31) Imagine that you wish to obtain a simple random sample of four individuals from a population of twenty. Individuals 3, 5 and 7 are selected. The chance of individual 6 being selected is ________ the chance of individual 20 being selected.

A) less than B) the same as C) greater than Answer: B Page Ref: 90 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 32) Imagine that you have a population of 60 individuals and that you want to take a systematic random sample of 12 members of the population. The skip interval would be ________.

A) 5 B) 8 C) 12 D) 15 Answer: A Page Ref: 91 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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33) When drawing a systematic random sample, it is always necessary to begin counting with respondent #1.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 91 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 34) Which form of random sampling works best when the target population is not homogeneous with respect to what is being measured?

A) simple B) systematic C) stratified D) snowball E) judgment Answer: C Page Ref: 93 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 35) ________ random sampling is the better choice whenever you have a situation where you think that a large variation in what you are studying is due to specific respondent characteristics.

A) Simple B) Systematic C) Stratified Answer: C Page Ref: 93 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 36) In stratified random sampling, once each strata is defined then independent random samples are drawn from each strata.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 94 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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37) The first step in stratified random sampling is to identify one or more classification criteria, each of which defines one strata.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 94 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 38) Imagine that you have three strata, the size of each is shown below.

Stratum 1: 100 individuals Stratum 2: 200 individuals Stratum 3: 700 individuals You wish to draw a final sample of 100 individuals. Proportionate stratified sampling would result in how many individuals selected from Strata 3?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 33 D) 70 Answer: D Page Ref: 95 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 39) Imagine that you have three strata, the size of each is shown below.

Strata 1: Strata 2: Strata 3:

200 individuals 300 individuals 500 individuals

You wish to draw a final sample of 100 individuals with at least 25 individuals selected from each strata. Which sampling method would be used?

A) proportionate stratified sampling B) disproportionate stratified sampling C) simple random sampling D) systematic random sampling Answer: B Page Ref: 95 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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40) A confidence interval is an estimate, plus or minus, of the range in which we believe the true ________ estimate lies.

A) sample B) census C) population D) random E) target Answer: C Page Ref: 96 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 41) You conduct a research study where 75% of the sample agrees with a particular statement.

The confidence interval is +/- 5%. This means that the true percentage of those agreeing is likely to be no less than ________.

A) 5% B) 65% C) 70% D) 80% Answer: C Page Ref: 96 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 42) Consider the two statements regarding the confidence level shown below.

I. The confidence level is the mathematical expression of our confidence that the population estimate lies within the confidence interval.

II. The confidence level is the range into which the true population parameter will fall, assuming a given level of confidence.

How may, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 96 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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43) In quantitative research, sample size is determined in light of confidence intervals and confidence ________.

A) restraints B) length C) limitations D) levels E) intensity Answer: D Page Ref: 97 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 44) Imagine that a sample size of 300 provides a confidence interval of +/- 4%. If you wanted to change the confidence interval to +/- 2% you would need to ________ the sample size.

A) reduce B) increase Answer: B Page Ref: 98 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 45) The goal in determining sample size is to estimate the ________ sample size that will provide the desired level of confidence.

A) minimal B) maximum Answer: A Page Ref: 98 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 46) When designing a research study, the number of contacts must always ________ the number of required completed interviews.

A) be less than B) be equal to C) be more than Answer: C Page Ref: 99 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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47) Sample selection bias occurs when members of the population of interest are selected in violation of the rule of equal chance of selection.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 99 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 48) Consider the two statements below with regard to online panels.

I.

"Opt-in" panels are preferred over invitation-only panels.

II. Panels should aggressively identify and eliminate "professional respondents."

Which, if any, statement is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 102 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 49) Which form of nonprobability sampling selects study participants just because they are readily accessible?

A) Convenience B) Judgment C) Quota D) Snowball Answer: A Page Ref: 102 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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50) Which form of nonprobability sampling selects study participants based on an expert's expertise regarding who might be best to interview?

A) Convenience B) Judgment C) Quota D) Snowball Answer: B Page Ref: 103 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 51) Which form of nonprobability sampling uses current study participants to recruit new participants?

A) Convenience B) Judgment C) Quota D) Snowball Answer: D Page Ref: 104 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 52) Which of the following is the best way to determine sample size in nonprobability samples?

A) Unaided judgment B) Budget considerations C) Frame of reference D) Analytical requirements Answer: D Page Ref: 107 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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53) Nancy is the researcher at the JKO Advertising Agency. She has been asked to test two different advertising campaigns. The "winning" campaign will be supported by $20MM in media. Each campaign will be shown to a group of consumers in the brand's target audience.

Nancy decides to use a series of focus groups to select the "winning" campaign, as she believes that this form of sampling (convenience) will allow her to generalize to the broader population from which the focus group participants were drawn. Do you agree or disagree with Nancy's point of view? Why? Answer: Nancy is incorrect. Since focus groups are a form of convenience sampling, the results cannot be generalized. Only random sampling would allow this generalization to take place.

Page Ref: 87 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 54) You have just completed a 12-month advertising test within the city limits of Boston and wish to determine levels of advertising and product awareness as well as brand perceptions. You decide to use random digit dialing among prefixes that are identified as "Atlanta." These prefixes, as a result, will include individuals living within the Boston city limits as well as suburban Boston. First, identify the type of registration this sample frame represents. Next, if the frame has a problem, propose a remedy.

Answer: The frame suffers from over-registration. A screener would alleviate this problem.

Page Ref: 88 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 55) Propose two ways in which you could take a systematic random sample of your class.

Answer: (1) Obtain a class roster. (2) Sample on a day in which all students attend (for example, test day).

Page Ref: 91 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application 56) Explain sample selection bias.

Answer: Sample bias occurs when members of the population of interest are selected in violation of the basic principle of random sampling, that is, where each observation has an equal chance of being selected for inclusion in the sample.

Page Ref: 99 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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57) You are conducting research on college students' engagement with brands via social media.

You want to use purposive (nonrandom sampling). List two ways in which individuals might be selected.

Answer: Any two of the following are acceptable: - select extreme or deviant cases - select typical cases - select highly intense or passionate individuals - select confirming or disconfirming cases Page Ref: 106-107 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 5 Collecting Qualitative Insights 1) Consider the two descriptions of qualitative research below.

I. Qualitative research is characterized by relatively small sample sizes.

II. Qualitative research is characterized by the use of standardized, closed-ended questions.

Which, if any, of the prior statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 119 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 2) Consider the two descriptions of qualitative research shown below.

I. The goal of qualitative research is to get "beneath the surface" and obtain in-depth insights into a respondent's attitudes, beliefs, motivations , and lifestyles.

II. Qualitative research is very appropriate for situations in which preliminary or background information is scarce and little is known about the topic of interest.

Which, if any, of the prior statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 120 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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3) Qualitative research is very appropriate when there is a need to better define an advertising problem after quantitative research has been conducted.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 120 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) One limitation of qualitative research is that it does not allow researchers to "get close to the data" and see/hear respondents express their thoughts in their own words.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 120 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 5) Qualitative research is typically less flexible versus quantitative research.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 6) Focus groups are a form of qualitative research. As a result, the generalizations from a focus group cannot be generalized to the population from which the focus group participants were drawn.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 123 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 7) Focus groups are a form of qualitative research. You hold 13 focus groups, all with the same type of respondent. Given the large number of focus groups, which of the following is correct?

A) You can generalize the results of the groups to the broader population from which the focus group respondents were drawn B) You cannot generalize the results beyond the small group of individuals who participated in the groups.

Answer: B Page Ref: 123 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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8) Consider the two descriptions of qualitative research shown below.

I. Qualitative research should always be interpreted as "directional" rather than "definitive."

II. Qualitative research is appropriate when numeric descriptions of the results are important.

Which, if any, of the prior statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neiher I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 9) Consider the two descriptions of a qualitative interview shown below.

I. A qualitative interviewer must cover the same topics, in the same order, using the same questions, with each respondent participating in a personal interview.

II. A qualitative personal interview is a free-flowing, yet structured conversation between the interviewer and the respondent.

Which, if any, of the prior statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neiher I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 10) Which type of qualitative interview works best when extensive, detailed probing of attitudes, beliefs, motivations or needs is required?

A) Personal interviews B) Focus groups Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3 ..

11) Which type of qualitative interview works best when there is a risk of social pressure influencing responses?

A) Personal interviews B) Focus groups Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 12) Which type of qualitative interview works best when there is a need to stimulate greater depth and detail of discussion?

A) Personal interviews B) Focus groups Answer: B Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 13) Which type of qualitative interview is generally more stimulating and exciting for participants?

A) Personal interviews B) Focus groups Answer: B Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 14) Which type of qualitative interview is generally quicker to conduct and analyze?

A) Personal interviews B) Focus groups Answer: B Page Ref: 121 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 15) The potential for moderator-introduced bias is greater in focus groups versus personal interviews.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 123 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4 ..

16) How many of the following are examples of direct question types?

- Specification - Grand tour - Third-person - Sentence completion A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 123 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) The question "What are the most important reasons why you read your school newspaper?" is an example of a(n) ________ question.

A) specification B) grand tour C) structural D) idealization E) hypothetical-interaction Answer: A Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 18) It is often advantageous to ask "why" questions when formulating specification questions.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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19) The question "What are all the different criteria you use to evaluate music blogs?" is an example of a(n) ________ question.

A) specification B) grand tour C) structural D) idealization E) hypothetical-interaction Answer: C Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 20) A(n) ________ question asks a respondent to reconstruct a routine, procedure, activity or event that took place at a particular time in his or her life.

A) specification B) grand tour C) structural D) idealization E) hypothetical-interaction Answer: B Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 21) A(n) ________ question allows you to move beyond a discussion of content into one of process.

A) specification B) grand tour C) structural D) idealization E) hypothetical-interaction Answer: B Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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22) Think about grand tour questions. How many of the suggestions shown below specifically apply to the use of this type of question?

- Keep the focus on the past - Keep the time spent on this question to under 10 minutes - Don't lose focus on the process - Don't allow the respondent to ask any questions about what is expected A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 125 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 23) A question that asks respondents to compare the ideal brand to a specific brand is a(n) ________ question.

A) specification B) grand tour C) structural D) idealization E) hypothetical-interaction Answer: D Page Ref: 126 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 24) The question "What suggestions would you have for Facebook if Jeff Zuckerberg were sitting across the table from you?" is an example of a(n) ________ question.

A) disjunctive B) hypothetical-interaction C) third-person D) elaborative E) structural Answer: B Page Ref: 126 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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25) What type of questioning technique is particularly useful at circumventing conscious resistance to direct questioning?

A) direct questions B) sympathetic questions C) metaphorical techniques D) projective techniques E) structural questions Answer: D Page Ref: 128 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 26) The interpretation of projective techniques requires that we take an individual's responses at face value.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 128 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 27) Projective techniques can only be used in personal, face-to-face interviews.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 128 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 28) ________ asks an individual to quickly respond to the presentation of words or phrases with the first thing or things that come to mind.

A) Picture projection B) Quick response C) Word association D) Word magnet E) Word guessing Answer: C Page Ref: 128 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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29) Which projective technique is considered by many researchers to be the most useful and reliable of all projective techniques?

A) word association B) sentence and story completion C) picture projection D) mood boarding Answer: A Page Ref: 129 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 30) Personification is a technique that asks individuals to take a leap of imagination in order to relate a brand or company to a well-known person or fictional character.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 130 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 31) You ask a respondent this question: "If Pepsi were a famous person who would it be?" This is an example of ________.

A) personification B) anthropomorphism C) role-playing D) sensitization E) word association Answer: A Page Ref: 130 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 32) You ask a respondent this question: "If Pepsi were an animal what animal would it be?" This is an example of ________.

A) personification B) anthropomorphism C) role-playing D) sensitization E) word association Answer: B Page Ref: 130 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9 ..

33) You ask a respondent this question: "What do you think your friends would do if they could no longer use Facebook?" This is an example of ________.

A) personification B) anthropomorphism C) role-playing D) sensitization E) word association Answer: C Page Ref: 130 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 34) You show a respondent a picture of an individual in front of his computer and then ask: "Tell me what you think is going through this person's mind as he tries to find information on new smart phones?" This is an example of ________.

A) story completion B) role-playing C) personification D) picture projection E) word association Answer: D Page Ref: 131 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 35) You give a respondent a number of pictures and ask her to make two piles: one pile containing pictures of people who are loyal to a specific brand and the second pile containing pictures of those who actively avoid the same brand. This technique is called ________.

A) story completion B) projective pictures C) picture sorts D) picture projection E) word association Answer: C Page Ref: 131 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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36) The repertory grid and laddering are examples of ________ techniques.

A) literal B) process C) proprietary D) outdated E) unreliable Answer: B Page Ref: 134 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 37) The repertory grid helps identify the attributes and benefits consumers use to differentiate between brands and products.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 134 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 38) The repertory grid is based on the notion that consumers use ________ to help reduce the complexity of attitudes which guide consumer behavior.

A) tri-bonded dimensions B) bipolar constructs C) biannual evaluations D) prefatory constructs Answer: B Page Ref: 134 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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39) Consider the following two statements regarding the repertory grid.

I. According to the repertory grid, construct systems are static and unchanging once they are formed.

II. According to the repertory grid, construct systems have very little influence on consumers' expectations and perceptions.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 40) An advertiser wants to use both the repertory grid and laddering. Which technique should be used first?

A) Repertory grid B) Laddering Answer: B Page Ref: 136 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 41) Mood boards and ad creation are primarily verbal projective techniques.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 137 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 42) The qualitative interview guide does not indicate the initial order in which questions are to be asked.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 141 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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43) During a qualitative interview the interviewer says "Can you tell me more about why you think the brand is only average." According to the text, this is an example of ________.

A) active listening B) planned stimuli C) extroverted commenting D) simple listening E) creative commenting Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 44) During a qualitative interview the interviewer says "Yes, I see." According to the text, this is an example of ________.

A) active listening B) planned stimuli C) extroverted commenting D) simple listening E) creative commenting Answer: D Page Ref: 142 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 45) According to the text, using probes to add depth during a qualitative interview is an example of ________.

A) active listening B) planned stimuli C) extroverted commenting D) simple listening E) creative commenting Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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46) During a qualitative interview it is acceptable for an interviewer to interject his or her own opinions and judgments.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 143 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 47) The quality of information obtained through a qualitative interview increases as rapport becomes better established between interviewer and interviewee.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 143 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 48) According to the text, how many of the ways below were presented as good ways to establish rapport between interviewer and interviewee?

- pay attention and followup on what is said - offer a large cash incentive for participation - provide a positive compliment after every question is answered - let the respondent choose the chair he or she wants to sit in A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Page Ref: 144 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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49) You wish to learn all you can about the role that advertising plays in the developing selfimage of adolescent girls. This is likely to be a topic in which rapport between interviewee and interviewer is of great importance. It is also likely to be a topic that will require a great deal of conversation before the "real" issues emerge. Given this situation, would you recommend focus groups or personal interviews as the data collection procedure? Why? Answer: Personal interviews are better. This approach will allow for rapport to be developed in a one-on-one way and will allow ample time for the preliminary conversation to take place. Also, it is likely, given the topic, that participants will be more comfortable and provide better information without the potential peer pressure of focus groups.

Page Ref: 121-123 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 50) Paul is writing a set of specification questions for an upcoming research project. The project is designed to uncover the role mobile phones play in the lives of college students. One of Paul's questions is: "Why did you buy your current phone?" Is this question acceptable? Why? If not, propose an alternative.

Answer: The text recommends not asking "why" questions because some respondents might interpret these questions as threatening. A better question would be of the form: "What are some of the reasons for your selection of your current mobile phone?"

Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 51) You are conducting research among a group of senior citizens who have just purchased their first cell phone. The purchase was made after a visit to the mobile phone company's store. Write a grand tour question to learn about the purchase process.

Answer: Responses should be of the following general form: I understand that you just purchased your first mobile phone last week. Can you please describe for me your reactions and feelings? Let's start at the time you first entered the store. What was going through your mind? [After response continue with ...] Let's keep going. Can you describe for me all of the events that came next, up until you purchased your phone?

Page Ref: 124 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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52) You are conducting a personal interview and the respondent says: "I think this brand is just average." What probe would be appropriate at this point?

Answer: Any of the following are acceptable: - Average compared to which brands?

- Which brands do you feel are better?

- Which brands do you feel are worse?

- What about this brand makes it average?

- Which other brands do you feel are average?

Page Ref: 141-142 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 53) You are observing a personal interview and the following exchange takes place: Respondent: I don't believe that to be the case.

Interviewer: Well, in this case you're wrong. I know that it is , in fact , the case.

Is the interviewer's comment acceptable? Why or why not?

Answer: Not acceptable. It is confrontational, negatively affects rapport, and inappropriately injects the interviewer's point of view.

Page Ref: 143 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 6 Focus Groups 1) Consider the two statements below.

I. Focus groups are appropriate whenever it is believed that interaction among respondents is necessary for obtaining depth of insights.

II. Focus groups are often a good substitute for more complex quantitative research.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 150 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) According to the text, how many (if any) of the following situations are an appropriate use of focus groups?

- determining the percentage of individuals who use a particular product - exploring reactions to current approaches to brand and category advertising - determining if there are statistical differences in attitudes between groups of consumers - developing and refining hypotheses regarding consumer motivations A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 151 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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3) Focus groups typically consist of about ________ individuals.

A) 1 to 3 B) 4 to 6 C) 2 to 6 D) 7 to 12 E) 13 to 19 Answer: B Page Ref: 151 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) The PLK Advertising Agency has created three new ads for its client. Research is needed to determine the strongest of the three ads, which will be the only one produced and placed into media. Focus groups would be a good method for selecting the one ad to produce.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 151 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 5) Consider the following two situations: I. Your ad agency is in the initial stages of developing an advertising campaign and has developed several concepts that might be used for the advertising. The creative team wants to better understand the target audience's views of each concept's strengths and weaknesses.

II. Your ad agency has just finished filming two commercials and wants to determine which commercial to select and then actually air on television.

Which of the following best describes these situations?

A) Only I is appropriate for focus groups B) Only II is appropriate for focus groups C) Both I and II are appropriate for focus groups D) Neither I nor II is appropriate for focus groups Answer: A Page Ref: 151 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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6) Which one of the following is NOT an appropriate objective for focus groups?

A) generate ideas regarding new product ideas B) understand how consumers talk about a product C) uncover unexpected consumer needs D) project the quantity of a new product likely to be sold Answer: D Page Ref: 220 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 7) Focus groups begin with the same planning and decisions as other types of research.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 152 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 8) The specific planning for focus groups begins with two simultaneous sets of activities. The first set relates to moderator selection while the second set relates to ________.

A) the research budget B) research timing C) group characteristics and facility selection D) selection of a focus group facility E) creation of the discussion guide Answer: C Page Ref: 153 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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9) The text discusses characteristics of excellent focus group moderators. How many (if any) of the statements below describe these characteristics?

- active listeners - inquisitive about "what makes people tick" - at least five years of experience conducting groups - aware of and able to control their own biases A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 152-153 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) Consider the two questions below regarding focus group moderators.

I.

When choosing a moderator for a set of groups, it is important to make certain that the moderator is an expert in the area being explored.

II. When considering the selection of a group moderator, it is important to find a moderator whose demographic characteristics match those of the group participants.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 152 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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11) The moderator briefing takes place ________ the first set of focus groups.

A) well before B) immediately before C) immediately after Answer: A Page Ref: 153 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) The purpose of the moderator briefing is to try to make the moderator an expert in the area being researched.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 154 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) The AAA agency is conducting focus groups on behalf of its client, Microsoft. The ________ typically has primary responsibility for the drafting of the discussion guide.

A) field service B) focus group facility C) AAA research supervisors D) Microsoft brand manager E) focus group moderator Answer: E Page Ref: 154 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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14) The two statements below refer to the focus group discussion guide.

I.

The focus group discussion guide presents the questions and topic areas to be addressed, noting the order of presentation and any required probes.

II. Once a moderator drafts the discussion guide, no additions or modifications are allowed.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) correct?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 154 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) The draft discussion guide should be presented to the client and agency ________ the first set of focus groups.

A) in enough time for feedback and revision prior to B) immediately before the start of C) during Answer: B Page Ref: 154 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) A focus group discussion guide should list both the questions to be explored and the specific probes to be used during group discussion.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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17) You are holding two focus groups to discuss college savings plans with parents of teenagers.

You want to talk with individuals whose income ranges from $20,000 to over $100,000 annually.

What would be the best course of action with regard to group composition?

A) Have the first group consist of individuals with incomes between $20,000 and $30,000; have the second group consist of individuals with incomes between $90,000 and $100,000.

B) Have both groups consist of a mix of individuals who have incomes between $20,000 and $100,000.

C) Have the first group consist of individuals with incomes between $20,000 and $50,000; have the second group consist of individuals with incomes between $60,000 and $100,000.

D) Have both groups consist of individuals who have incomes between $85,000 and $100,000.

Answer: C Page Ref: 156 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 18) When thinking about focus group member compatibility, demographics are always the most important consideration.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 157 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 19) Decisions related to focus group characteristics and the logistics of the research are carried out ________.

A) at the same time the moderator is being briefed B) before the moderator is selected C) after the discussion guide has been created D) after focus groups respondents have been recruited E) after the field service has been selected Answer: A Page Ref: 156 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 20) When thinking about focus group member compatibility, attitudes are always the most important consideration.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 157 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 7 ..

21) Consider the two statements below with regard to focus group planning.

I.

When planning for the number of groups to be held, it is generally unwise to hold only one group per city.

II. The number of locations selected for a set of focus groups reflects the extent to which it is believed that geographic differences affect salient attitudes and behaviors.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 157 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 22) Geographic diversity for focus groups become ________ important when the groups are designed to assist in questionnaire development.

A) more B) less Answer: B Page Ref: 157 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 23) Consider the two statements below with regard to focus group administration.

I. Most focus groups are held at the agency's or client's office.

II. Regardless of where they are held, most focus group facilities use the conference room setting.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 158 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Communication Abilities 8 ..

24) Most focus group facilities can also assist with participant recruitment.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 158 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25) Think about the screener used to recruit focus group participants. How many (if any) of the following describe a function of the screener?

- identify desired respondents - assign respondents to a specific group - identify and eliminate "undesirable" respondents - identify individuals who would be good candidates for future groups A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 159 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 26) Consider the two statements below with regard to focus group participants.

I.

An "undesirable" focus group participant would be one who attended seven focus groups in the past month.

II. Focus group participants are almost always paid for their participation.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 160 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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27) A well-written focus group screener increases the probability that only those individuals of interest will be recruited for the groups.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 160 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 28) Focus group respondents are typically screened and recruited a week prior to the groups.

Once respondents show up for the groups it is recommended that they all be rescreened.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 160 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 29) With regard to focus group stages, prefatory comments are followed by ________.

A) projective techniques B) payment of the incentive C) an introduction to individuals viewing in the back room D) group participant introductions and personal information E) a break for participants to select their snacks and drinks Answer: D Page Ref: 161 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 30) In which phase of the focus group does the moderator explain the purpose of the group, discuss rules for participating, and note any taping or observers?

A) Prefatory remarks B) Introductions and personal information C) Setting the context for discussion D) General discussion Answer: A Page Ref: 161 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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31) In which phase of the focus group is there a short series of questions that probe attitudes and behaviors specific to the group topic?

A) Prefatory remarks B) Introductions and personal information C) Setting the context for discussion D) General discussion Answer: C Page Ref: 161 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 32) In which phase of the focus group does each member of the group briefly say something about himself or herself?

A) Prefatory remarks B) Introductions and personal information C) Setting the context for discussion D) General discussion Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 33) If the focus groups are running "long" the best thing to do is ________.

A) Shorten the discussion, but leave time for the summary B) Keep the discussion going, but eliminate the summary Answer: A Page Ref: 161 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 34) A moderator should never leave the focus group room until the group is completely over and respondents have been sent home.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 162 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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35) Once the discussion guide is used in the first set of groups, it should not be changed until it has been used in at least half of the groups.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 162 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 36) The text provides recommendations for viewing focus groups. How many of the recommendations below were discussed in the text?

- Form opinions early - Listen to everyone - Don't be distracted by the buffet - Don't be biased by dominant personalities A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 163 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 37) Online focus groups are always a poor substitute for real (traditional) focus groups.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 164 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 38) Which of the following type of online focus group is the closest to traditional focus groups?

A) Synchronous B) Asynchronous C) Hybrid Answer: A Page Ref: 164 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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39) ________ online focus groups build the discussion over time because all group participants are not required to be online at the same time.

A) Synchronous B) Asynchronous C) Hybrid Answer: B Page Ref: 164 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 40) Hybrid online focus groups begin as ________ groups and then shift into the ________ mode.

A) synchronous, asynchronous B) asynchronous, synchronous Answer: B Page Ref: 165 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 41) Research suggests that the quantity and quality of information obtained in online focus groups ________ that obtained in the traditional group setting.

A) in most cases greatly exceeds B) is rarely comparable to C) can often be comparable to Answer: C Page Ref: 166 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 42) Research suggests that the self-disclosure of sensitive information tends to be greater in the ________ setting.

A) traditional focus group B) online focus group Answer: B Page Ref: 166 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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43) Which of the following is not an advantage of online focus groups over traditional focus groups?

A) no physical set up is necessary B) participants do not all have to be from the same location C) participants are comfortable in their homes/offices D) participants' "body language" can be easily observed Answer: D Page Ref: 218 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 44) The visual anonymity of online focus groups may reduce social desirability bias, allowing participants to feel more comfortable to voice their opinions.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 166 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 45) The discussion of the sleepy driver focus groups pointed out that as group characteristics and research goals change ________.

A) the same discussion guide can nevertheless be used for all groups B) the discussion guide needs to be customized for different groups Answer: B Page Ref: 166-167 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 46) List the major stages of a focus group and briefly describe what happens during each stage.

Answer: - Prefatory remarks: welcome, moderator introduction, explain focus group setting and rules - Introductions and personal information: groups members introduce themselves and, if appropriate, share relevant demographic information - Setting the context for discussion: short series of questions that probe attitudes and behaviors specific to the group topic - Discussion: main portion of group - Summary: moderator summarizes key insights - Final questions: viewing room questions Page Ref: 161-162 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 14 ..

47) Your client has never before attended focus groups. List three guidelines that you would discuss with the client to enhance the viewing experience.

Answer: Any three of the following are acceptable: - Come prepared - Start watching from the beginning - Focus on the big picture - Listen to everyone - Listen to all comments - Don't jump to premature conclusions - Don't let character judgments affect how comments are evaluated - Don't be biased by dominant personalities Page Ref: 163-164 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 48) You are debating whether to conduct groups online or in person. The groups will address adolescent sexual and drug-related behaviors. The participants will be adolescents aged 12-15.

Which approach would you recommend?

Answer: Online is likely better, as research has shown that this format works best for the discussion of highly personal information and this setting reduces the chances for socially desirable/acceptable responses.

Page Ref: 164-166 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 49) You receive a draft discussion guide from your selected focus group moderator. The moderator says "The guide is perfectly complete. There is no need for client or agency review."

You've used this moderator before, and trust her judgment. Do you follow the moderator's advice? Why? Answer: Don't follow moderator's advice. All discussion guides need to be reviewed by the client and agency prior to use. This allows for all to contribute and "buy-in" as well as identify any areas that need to be added/deleted/revised prior to the groups.

Page Ref: 154-155 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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50) List two circumstances in which geographic diversity becomes relatively less important for focus group planning.

Answer: Any two of the following are acceptable: - The groups are designed to provide preliminary creative guidance - The groups are designed to confirm or extend actions based on more extensive prior research - The research is designed to support questionnaire development - Sales data suggest that there are no regional variations in product purchase behaviors - Prior quantitative data suggest that there are no regional variations in relevant perceptions or attitudes.

Page Ref: 157 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 7 Analysis of Qualitative Data 1) Consider the two statements below regarding qualitative data analysis.

I. Qualitative data analysis is guided by a set of well-agreed upon, externally objective techniques and rules.

II. The goal of qualitative data analysis is the identification of underlying patterns and themes.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II is true Answer: B Page Ref: 174 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 2) Statistical tests are ________ for use in qualitative data analysis.

A) inappropriate B) appropriate Answer: A Page Ref: 174 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) The quality of a quantitative data analysis is generally most influenced by ________.

A) the skills of the analyst conducting the research B) the absolute research budget C) the quantity of transcribed pages D) the extent of client involvement E) the professional fee of the qualitative analyst Answer: A Page Ref: 174 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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4) Patton notes that guidelines and procedural suggestions for the analysis of qualitative data must be followed in the same way by each qualitative analyst in every instance of qualitative data analysis.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 174 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 5) Two important activities take place in the initial stage of qualitative data analysis. One of these activities is ________ .

A) an evaluation of the study sample B) a review of the research cost and timing C) an evaluation of the services provided by the field service D) an examination of audio and/or video tapes Answer: A Page Ref: 174 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 6) Two important activities take place in the initial stage of qualitative data analysis. One of these activities is ________.

A) a cost/benefit analysis of the research project B) a review of the moderator's performance C) an evaluation of the screener used to identify respondents D) a review of the problem definition Answer: D Page Ref: 174 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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7) The two statements below refer to the problem definition review phase of qualitative data analysis.

I. The problem definition review only involves the moderator and the individual supervising the research.

II. The outcome of the problem definition review is a list of areas that the analysis will address and the types of information the analysis will provide.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 175 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 8) When time is short, the review of informational needs can generally be skipped without much harm to the overall analysis.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 175 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9) Notes and documents from the client meeting held prior to the research are examined as part of the ________.

A) data immersion process B) reflection process C) metatheme identification process D) problem definition review E) synthesis process Answer: D Page Ref: 175 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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10) The two statements below refer to the sample evaluation phase of qualitative data analysis.

I. The goal of sample evaluation prior to qualitative data analysis allows the analyst to make certain that characteristics of the planned sample were actually present in the recruited sample.

II. Discrepancies between the planned and recruited samples in a qualitative study need to be communicated to all involved with the research.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 175 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) You conduct a comparison of the desired sample with the actual sample from a set of qualitative personal interviews. You find that the actual sample was slightly older than intended.

What is the recommended next step?

A) Stop the analysis and discard all the data.

B) Ask for a refund from the field service that performed the recruiting.

C) Continue with the analysis but note this discovery in the presentation of the findings.

D) Prepare a poor performance evaluation for the interviewer.

E) Prepare a proposal for a new research study.

Answer: C Page Ref: 175 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application

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12) The two statements below refer to the data examination phase of qualitative data analysis.

I. The data examination phase of qualitative analysis requires the analyst to finalize specific comment codes and classifications.

II. Data coding should always be the first step in the process of data examination.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 176 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) When beginning the data examination process, it is important not to have any preconceived notions about key patterns of findings.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 176 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 14) Which of the following is NOT relevant to the data examination process?

A) identify areas that coincide with the client's point of view B) understand the "why" of respondent comments C) infer respondents' attitudes from the explicit words and analogies used D) understand the intensity of respondents' feelings Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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15) Tom is thinking about the focus group he just viewed. Mary, a group member, provided many interesting insights, but nevertheless, often provided an inconsistent point of view. Tom should ________.

A) ignore Mary's comments because of these inconsistencies B) try to understand Mary as a person, rather than focusing on each specific comment C) only pay attention to the first things Mary said D) only pay attention to the last things Mary said Answer: B Page Ref: 178 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 16) The two statements below refer to the process of qualitative data analysis.

I.

An analyst examining the responses of focus group participants should always take the comments at face value.

II. An analyst examining the responses of focus group participants should always try to understand the intensity of respondents' feelings and points of view.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 177 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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17) The statements below refer to the outcomes of qualitative data analysis.

I. Qualitative data analysis often seeks to uncover areas in which consensus of opinion does or does not exist among the sample of respondents.

II. Successful qualitative data analysis will uncover the strength of conviction with which expressed views are held.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 18) Inferences of respondents' belief intensity can be drawn from the manner in which the belief is expressed.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 177 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) A respondent expresses an opinion in clear, unambiguous, forceful language. This is typically an instance of a respondent expressing a ________ opinion.

A) strongly held B) confused C) weakly held D) nonsensical E) short-term Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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20) Respondents may signal a ________ belief through the use of irony, metaphor, or derisive humor.

A) strongly held B) confused C) weakly held D) nonsensical E) long-term Answer: C Page Ref: 177 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 21) In a focus group, a self-contradiction might occur when ________.

A) group participants ask the moderator to express her opinion B) the moderator challenges Mary to better express her opinion C) Kelly says she likes the brand early in the group, and then later in the group says that she does not like the brand D) Jane challenges Mary about an issue of disagreement E) group members decide to end discussion of one topic and move onto the next topic Answer: C Page Ref: 178 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 22) The following two statements refer to the analysis of focus groups.

I. The analyst should always pay more attention to comments made toward the end in the groups.

II. Distinguishing between the truth and falsity of respondents' comments is one of the easier aspects of qualitative data analysis.

Which, if any, of these statements is true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 178 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 8 ..

23) During the initial phases of qualitative data analysis, the analyst should only pay attention to comments and statements explicitly appearing in the tapes or transcripts.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 179 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 24) The following two statements refer to the analysis of qualitative data.

I.

There are times when respondents do not spontaneously mention or comment on a topic. This may happen because they assume that the topic is so important it is unnecessary to mention.

II. There are times when respondents do not spontaneously mention or comment on a topic. This may happen when the topic is highly personal or sensitive.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 179 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) The process of ________ comes after all themes have been identified.

A) self-analysis B) refraction C) comment coding D) reflection E) report writing Answer: D Page Ref: 179 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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26) With regard to qualitative data analysis, a ________ is defined as the expression of a consistent and recurring idea found either explicitly or implicitly in the data.

A) comment B) summarization C) theme D) corpus Answer: C Page Ref: 179 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 27) The following two statements refer to the creation of themes during qualitative data analysis.

I.

The development of themes is a circular process entailing continuous data examination and revision.

II. Once a theme is identified it is static and not subject to revision upon further review of the data.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 179 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) A collection of themes can be used to form a ________.

A) supratheme B) metatheme C) master theme D) controlling theme E) maxitheme Answer: B Page Ref: 180 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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29) There are two different approaches to theme identification. Which one of the approaches shown below is recommended by the text?

A) data → theme → evaluation → revision B) theme → data → evaluation → revision C) theme → theme → revision → evaluation D) data → evaluation → theme → revision Answer: B Page Ref: 180 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 30) At the beginning of theme identification, the analyst should not have any themes in mind.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 180 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 31) According to the text, a ________ represents the analyst's intuitive and informed judgment as to the content and pattern of findings in each topic area.

A) topical B) testimonial C) transition D) theme E) token Answer: D Page Ref: 181 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 32) The circular process of theme identification and creation is ________.

A) a process that is only used by novice qualitative analysts B) optional and can be used or not, at the discretion of the qualitative analyst C) time consuming and should be avoided D) intentional and important E) only of value for the analysis of focus group data Answer: D Page Ref: 180 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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33) Once a theme is identified, then specific comments are located and coded as being either in support of or in opposition to that theme.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 181 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 34) The two statements below address theme development.

I. Once all themes have been written and made explicit, the analyst then examines and codes all data that is in support of or in opposition to the theme.

II. Once all comments relevant to a theme have been recorded, the analyst should then begin to write the report. No further evaluation of the theme is necessary.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 182 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 35) A ________ helps one understand the relationships between individual themes.

A) metatheme B) metaphor C) metacomment D) megatheme Answer: A Page Ref: 183 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 36) Once metathemes have been created, serendipitous discoveries should be ignored.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 183 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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37) When recording individual comments, it is important that these comments be ________.

A) paraphrased B) recorded verbatim C) longer than seven words D) made by the dominant personalities from among those interviewed E) made by more than one person Answer: B Page Ref: 182 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 38) Crabtree and Miller propose criteria for evaluating the "goodness" of a qualitative analysis.

Which criteria below was NOT recommended by Crabtree and Miller?

A) Are the background, training, and preconceptions of the investigators described?

B) Was an iterative process of collecting and analyzing data used and data saturation achieved?

C) Did the cost and timing of the research correspond to that stated in the research proposal?

Answer: C Page Ref: 184 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 39) Crabtree and Miller propose criteria for evaluating the "goodness" of a qualitative analysis.

A) Was a thorough analysis presented?

B) Does the principal analyst have at least three years experience in conducting and analyzing qualitative research?

C) Was the appropriate method used to answer the questions motivating the research?

Answer: B Page Ref: 184 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 40) ________ means that everyone reading the analysis understands how themes were created.

A) Signal analysis B) Triangulation C) Transparency D) Systemic analysis Answer: C Page Ref: 185 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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41) Think about the presentation of qualitative findings. Which situation described below does NOT increase transparency.

A) When it is clear that there is an absence of bias in data selection.

B) When it is clear that there is an absence of bias in the selection of themes.

C) When there is proof that analysts read all of the transcripts.

D) When it is clear that there is sufficient evidence to support each theme.

E) When it is clear that there is rigor in the way the analysis was carried out.

Answer: C Page Ref: 185 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 42) CAQDAS stands for Computer Assisted ________.

A) Qualitative Display of Analytical Statements B) Qualitative Data Analysis Software C) Quality Data Analytical System D) Question Demand Analysis Software E) Quote Documentation Analytical Shareware Answer: B Page Ref: 185 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 43) One of the criticisms of CAQDAS noted in the text relates to its ________ literal content.

A) high cost to code B) awkward data bases used to store coded C) lack of speed in analyzing D) inability to code E) emphasis on Answer: E Page Ref: 185 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application 44) Advocates of CAQDAS note that this software is best used as a tool rather than as a replacement for analyst skill and judgment.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 186 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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45) Below are sources of qualitative information.

- verbal text - written text - pictures - video How many, if any, of these is QUADAS able to code and analyze?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: E Page Ref: 186 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 46) Describe the relationship between themes and metathemes.

Answer: A metatheme helps us understand the interrelationships among individual themes.

Page Ref: 183 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 47) Why is it important to examine sample characteristics prior to beginning data examination?

Answer: Sometimes in research, the actual sample deviates from the ideal or planned sample.

When these discrepancies exist, it is important to keep them in mind during data analysis and findings presentation.

Page Ref: 175 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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48) Imagine that you hold two focus groups with the same number and type of individuals.

Everyone in the first group preferred Commercial A over Commercial B. Everyone in the second group preferred Commercial B over Commercial A. Is the analyst correct in presenting the finding that "Equal numbers of people preferred each commercial. No real preference emerged."?

Answer: The analyst did not go far enough in the analysis. It is important to note the intensity of feeling associated with each commercial preference.

Page Ref: 176-179 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 49) The theme development process has been described as "circular." What does this mean?

Answer: Themes presented at the start of data analysis are tentative, subject to revision as evidence in support of and in opposition to that theme is collected. Based on this evidence, themes are revised and the newly revised theme goes through the same process. The new theme can also be revised, as needed.

Page Ref: 175-176 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 50) Why is transparency in qualitative data analysis important?

Answer: Transparency is important because qualitative data analysis reflects, in great part, the analytical skills and perspective of the analyst. The absence of numeric, externally-objective data makes it important that all understand how the analysis was conducted and how the findings were arrived at.

Page Ref: 185 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 8 Observation Research: Human and Automated 1) ________ observation uses a researcher to observe other people's behaviors. All of the data is collected by a(n) ________ observer.

A) Regulated B) Human C) Automated D) Biometric Answer: B Page Ref: 191 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) ________ observation uses computers or other tracking devices to observe people's behaviors.

A) Regulated B) Human C) Automated D) Biomechanical Answer: B Page Ref: 191 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) The text identifies the most appropriate situations for human observation. Consider the situations shown below. How many of these situations represent appropriate situations for human observation?

- Where observations of behavior are more insightful than descriptions of behavior - When the timing of a research study is very limited - Where individuals may not be able to verbalize their feelings - When respondents are unavailable to participate in survey research A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 191 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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4) Human observation research is ________ in nature.

A) always quantitative B) always qualitative C) either qualitative or quantitative Answer: C Page Ref: 192 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 5) A researcher observes children in a playground and takes notes about each child's play as well as his or her own thoughts about the types of activities the children engage in. This is a ________ approach to human observation.

A) qualitative B) quantitative Answer: A Page Ref: 192 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) A researcher observes children in a playground and records the childrens' activities on a precoded sheet which lists the range of activities and provides a space to record the time spent on each activity. This would most likely be a ________ approach to human observation.

A) qualitative B) quantitative Answer: B Page Ref: 192 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 7) Qualitative approaches to human observation are always preferable to quantitative approaches.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 192 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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8) The text identifies several characteristics of human observation research. Consider the characteristics shown below. How many of these characteristics accurately describe the dimensions of human observation research?

- Situation: Natural vs. Artificial - Observer Obtrusiveness: Open vs. Disguised - Observer Participation: Active vs. Passive - Data Recording: Structured vs. Unstructured A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 191 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 9) The ________ observation of individuals takes place as behaviors unfold at their own pace.

A) artificial B) planned C) natural D) deterministic Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 10) The observation of individuals as they read the labels of canned goods in a grocery store would be an example of ________ observation.

A) artificial B) planned C) natural D) deterministic Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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11) The ________ observation of individuals is appropriate when the target behaviors are repetitive, frequent and/or occur within a reasonably short time frame.

A) artificial B) planned C) natural D) deterministic Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) The ________ observation of individuals records target behaviors or events in the context of a fabricated situation.

A) artificial B) planned C) natural D) deterministic Answer: A Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) The ________ observation of individuals permits a researcher to speed up the data gathering process by initiating the observational situation rather than waiting for it to occur.

A) artificial B) planned C) natural D) deterministic Answer: A Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 14) Mystery shopper research is an example of ________ observation.

A) artificial B) planned C) natural D) deterministic Answer: A Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 4 ..

15) ________ observation occurs when the presence of the observer is explicitly known.

A) Disguised B) Closed C) Transparent D) Open Answer: D Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) Bias in terms of respondent behaviors is generally reduced when the observation is ________.

A) disguised B) closed C) transparent D) open Answer: D Page Ref: 193 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) Mystery shopper research utilizes a(n) ________ observer.

A) active B) passive Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 18) A passive observer typically takes part in the activities being observed.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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19) A(n) ________ observer has the ability to interact with those being observed.

A) active B) passive C) dynamic D) sensitive Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 20) ________ observation requires the observer to take events as they come.

A) Active B) Passive C) Dynamic D) Socratic Answer: B Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 21) ________ data recording is best used when the researcher knows the specific types of behaviors to be observed in advance of the observation.

A) Unstructured B) Passive C) Structured D) Serendipitous Answer: C Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 22) ________ data recording encourages the observer to record his or her observations in the form of a narrative.

A) Unstructured B) Passive C) Structured D) Serendipitous Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6 ..

23) ________ data recording provides the greatest opportunity for making discoveries in the field while observation is taking place.

A) Unstructured B) Passive C) Structured D) Serendipitous Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 24) Unstructured data recording can ________.

A) only be analyzed qualitatively B) only be analyzed quantitatively C) can be analyzed both qualitatively and quantitatively Answer: C Page Ref: 194 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) The text discussed the use of observation in the case of Green Globe 21. This was an example of using observation research when ________.

A) there appears to be a disconnect between attitudes and behaviors B) self-reported data regarding attitudes and behaviors may not be accurate C) behavioral rather than attitudinal change is the focus.

Answer: A Page Ref: 196-198 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application 26) The text discussed the use of observation related to safe food preparation. This was an example of using observation research when ________.

A) there appears to be a disconnect between attitudes and behaviors B) self-reported data regarding attitudes and behaviors may not be accurate C) behavioral rather than attitudinal change is the focus.

Answer: C Page Ref: 196-198 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 7 ..

27) The test discussed the use of observation related to alcohol shopping behaviors. This was an example of using observation research when ________.

A) there appears to be a disconnect between attitudes and behaviors B) self-reported data regarding attitudes and behaviors may not be accurate C) behavioral rather than attitudinal change is the focus.

Answer: B Page Ref: 196-198 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 28) The following two statements refer to automated observation.

I. One form of automated observation is to use technology to directly monitor consumer behaviors.

II. One form of automated observation is to use technology to monitor the products of consumer behaviors.

Which, if any, of these statements is true.

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 199 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 29) ________ are the most common way that advertisers observe online behaviors.

A) Snapshots B) Cookies C) Viral videos D) Facebook postings Answer: B Page Ref: 199 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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30) Two individuals visiting the same web site at exactly the same time (but from different computers) will always see exactly the same advertising.

A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 199 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 31) ________ are used in an attempt to match advertising shown to an individual with that individual's interests.

A) Memes B) Phantom pixels C) Cookies D) Icons E) Ghosts Answer: C Page Ref: 200 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 32) DoubleClick's DART is an example of an ad serving service that tries to increase the relevance of the advertising which individuals see as they visit different web sites.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 200 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 33) Advertisers have learned that increasing ad relevance ________ ad response.

A) decreases B) increases C) does not affect Answer: B Page Ref: 200 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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34) It is not yet possible for advertisers to track and merge the same individual's online and offline behaviors.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 201 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 35) According to the Atlas Institute and Coremetrics, the best way to evaluate an online advertising campaign is to ________.

A) assign 100% of the influence for conversion to the last ad seen B) assign 100% of the influence for conversion to the first ad seen C) assign 50% of the influence for conversion to the last ad seen and assign 50% of the influence for conversion to the first ad seen D) assign a percentage of influence to all advertising seen prior to conversion Answer: D Page Ref: 201 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 36) It is illegal for stores to use loyalty cards to monitor and track shoppers behaviors.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 203 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 37) How many of the following would be considered an example of CGM? - posting a product review - responding to a blog entry - posting your family pictures to Flickr - a Facebook page maintained by Pepsi A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 204 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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38) According to Nielsen-Online, ________ is the single-most important gauge of a brand's growth potential.

A) consumer advocacy B) brand spending C) the number of Facebook followers D) the number of Twitter followers E) brand pricing Answer: A Page Ref: 204 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 39) CGM stands for ________.

A) consumer grandstanding media B) confidence gained (from) media C) consumer generated media D) creative guidelines (for ) media Answer: C Page Ref: 204 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 40) According to the text, how many types of information shown below are typically provided as part of the observation of consumer generated media?

-the number of times a brand is mentioned - the amount of brand detail - the advertising value of the posting - the sentiment associated with the posting A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 204 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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41) The two statements below refer to CGM monitoring.

I. Evaluating consumers' response to an advertising campaign is one way in which advertisers use CGM monitoring.

II. CGM monitoring allows advertisers to monitor their own brand's image and track any changes in image versus key competitive brands.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 206, 207 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 42) Advertisers often find it very difficult to relate the trends and shifts in consumer-generated media to their communication program.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 206 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 43) CGM monitoring can provide insights into consumers' mindsets, attitudes and beliefs.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 209 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 44) The case of Whole Foods discussed in the text is an example of using the monitoring of consumer generated media for ________.

A) product pricing B) crisis management C) identifying competitive stores D) product selection Answer: B Page Ref: 212-213 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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45) The Video Consumer Mapping Study is an example of ________ observation.

A) automated B) human Answer: B Page Ref: 213 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 46) The Video Consumer Mapping Study had affective, cognitive and behavioral observer training goals.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 214-215 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 47) The Amnesty UK social media campaign used multiple criteria to evaluate the impact and effectiveness of the campaign.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 216 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 48) The KLOP Advertising Agency has produced and aired a series of commercials aimed at reducing bullying in elementary schools. Betty, the agency CEO, suggests that the agency should use a survey to determine the success of the campaign. Jack, the agency researcher, recommends observation as the means for data collection. Who do you think has the better recommendation?

Why? Answer: Jack has the better recommendation. The research must acknowledge the strong possibility that students' opinions expressed on a survey may not reflect their behaviors. This is an instance in which observation is the preferred data collection technique.

Page Ref: 191, 197-198 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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49) The KPLKY Advertising Agency has produced and aired a series of commercials aimed at encouraging healthy eating choices in elementary schools. It has been decided that observation (specifically food choice in the lunch room) would be used to collect data to evaluate the campaign's impact. Think about the four dimensions of observation research. Use these dimensions to describe your recommended approach. Provide a brief rationale for each recommendation.

Answer: The SITUATION should be natural. Allowing lunch room behaviors to unfold at their own pace will provide a significant amount of data as this setting will be filled with children.

The observer should be DISGUISED as children are highly likely to alter their behaviors if they know an adult is watching them.

The observer should be PASSIVE. There is no need to interact with the children as there is ample opportunity to observe food choice.

Data recording should be STRUCTURED as it is known in advance what constitutes healthy and unhealthy food choices.

Page Ref: 193-194 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 50) The Video Consumer Mapping Study used observation rather than survey data collection.

Why was observation chosen as the better data collection technique?

Answer: Prior research showed that people generally cannot report accurately how much time they spend with various media.

Page Ref: 213 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 51) Within the context of online advertising, explain what is meant by "the last ad model is an inappropriate way to evaluate the impact of various elements and media used in a campaign.

Attributing 100% of conversion influence to the last ad seen is very misleading."

Answer: This approach ignores the contribution of any previous ads that led the consumer down the road to conversion. It measures only the bottommost touchpoint in the sales funnel.

Page Ref: 201 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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52) Nielsen-Online argues that consumer advocacy is the single-most important gauge of a brand's growth potential. Paraphrase their point of view as to why they believe this is so.

Answer: Nielsen-Online's point of view is: " Great brand and product experiences, amplified by advocates, power today's consumer-driven environment. Advocacy convinces consumers to visit your Web site, write positive things about you in the Web's public arena, try your products or services and tell others about your experience.

Page Ref: 204 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 53) List the four key dimensions of information typically provided by CGM observation. Briefly define each.

Answer: Coverage - the number of times a brand is mentioned Depth - the amount of brand detail Content - the posting's objective Sentiment - positive, negative or neutral emotion associated with the posting Page Ref: 204 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 9 Observation Research: Biometrics 1) ________ research can be defined as the monitoring and analysis of physiological responses to advertising or other visual/verbal stimuli.

A) Biometric B) Biological C) Biodemographic D) Biotic E) Bionic Answer: A Page Ref: 221 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) Biometric observation is able to collect ________ physiological responses.

A) only voluntary B) only involuntary C) both voluntary and involuntary Answer: C Page Ref: 222 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) Eye tracking is the ________ controversial form of biometric research.

A) most B) least Answer: B Page Ref: 222 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) Current approaches to eye tracking are unobtrusive and allow the respondent to act in a natural manner.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 222 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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5) Eye tracking data uses a stop motion camera to record a respondent's gaze ________.

A) once per second B) 10 times per second C) 50 times per second D) 100 times per second E) continuously throughout the test Answer: E Page Ref: 222 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 6) Eye tracking records where an individual looks, for how long, and the order in which items are looked at.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 222 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 7) The collection of eye tracking data ________.

A) is fully under human control B) is a combination of automation and human control C) is fully automated Answer: C Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 8) With regard to eye tracking data, ________ identifies the visual element that attracts the greatest amount of initial attention.

A) first fixation B) most fixation C) total gaze time D) individual gaze time Answer: A Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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9) With regard to eye tracking data, ________ identifies the visual element(s) that maintain attention.

A) first fixation B) most fixation C) total gaze time D) individual gaze time Answer: B Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 10) With regard to eye tracking data, ________ is the sum of all gaze times and reflects how engaged an individual is with the stimulus overall.

A) first fixation B) most fixation C) total gaze time D) individual gaze time Answer: C Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 11) With regard to eye tracking data, ________ is the amount of time spent looking at each specific element.

A) first fixation B) most fixation C) total gaze time D) individual gaze time Answer: D Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) After an advertising-related eye tracking study, an advertiser is only able to identify the elements of the ad which are looked at. Elements which were ignored cannot be identified.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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13) With regard to eye tracking reporting, a(n) ________ shows each individual search path through a visual stimulus.

A) gaze path B) heatmap C) opacity chart Answer: A Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 14) With regard to eyetracking reporting, a(n) ________ uses colors to represent the amount of time spent viewing specific areas of the visual stimulus.

A) gaze path B) heatmap C) opacity chart Answer: B Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 15) With regard to eyetracking reporting, a(n) ________ uses "openings" to represent the amount of time viewing specific areas of the visual stimulus.

A) gaze path B) heatmap C) opacity chart Answer: C Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) Eye tracking can help advertisers make more informed decisions with regard to media selection and ad placement within a specific medium.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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17) The eye tracking research that named "Google's Golden Triangle" identified the areas of Google search results most likely to be ________.

A) viewed B) ignored C) found confusing D) from brand name products E) in full color Answer: A Page Ref: 226 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 18) The areas of viewing within Google's Golden Triangle most resemble the letter ________.

A) B B) T C) F D) C E) K Answer: C Page Ref: 226 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) The search results at the top of Google's Golden Triangle were viewed by ________ % of viewers.

A) 20 B) 50 C) 90 D) 100 Answer: D Page Ref: 227 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application

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20) The search results at the bottom of the search page (beneath Google's Golden Triangle) were viewed by ________% of viewers.

A) 20 B) 50 C) 90 D) 100 Answer: A Page Ref: 227 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application 21) Think about the paid search results on the right hand side of the Google results page. The top ad was viewed by ________% of participants while the ad in the sixth position was viewed by ________% of participants.

A) 20, 10 B) 50, 10 C) 100, 20 D) 100, 50 Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application 22) Eyetracking research is well suited to determining an ad's strengths and weaknesses and for providing direction for revision.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 228 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 23) The "Magic Face" case study discussed in the text used two important measures. One was "time to first fixation" while the second was ________.

A) time to initial gaze B) time to final fixation C) average gaze time D) average time between fixations Answer: C Page Ref: 229 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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24) Eye tracking used in the "Magic Face" case study showed that consumers spent very little time looking at either the product image or ________.

A) model's eyes B) model's face C) brand name D) headline Answer: C Page Ref: 229 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 25) The revised ad in the "Magic Face" case study was stronger than the original because more time was spent looking at the ________.

A) model's eyes B) model's face C) brand name D) tagline Answer: C Page Ref: 230 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 26) In the original "Magic Face" ad, the last thing looked at was the ________ A) model's face and body B) headline C) brand name D) product image E) tagline Answer: E Page Ref: 230 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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27) Bartels presents the idea of an Action Review Interview where eye tracking and a personal interview both take place. Bartels suggests that the personal interview be conducted ________.

A) before the eye tracking data is collected.

B) at the same time the eye tracking data is being collected.

C) after the eye tracking data has been collected.

Answer: C Page Ref: 231 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 28) With regard to eye tracking and facial coding, researchers believe that ________.

A) when both techniques are used, only one technique should be used at a time B) if eye tracking is used, then facial coding is unnecessary C) important insights can be obtained when eye tracking and facial coding are used simultaneously Answer: C Page Ref: 231 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 29) Facial ________ records the degree of emotional response generated by a stimulus as reflected in the use and movement of facial muscles.

A) recognition B) coding C) implant D) referencing E) modeling Answer: B Page Ref: 231 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 30) ________ is the label given to the use of brain observation for marketing purposes.

A) Neurotracking B) Mental tracking C) Mind mapping D) Neuroadvertising E) Neuromarketing Answer: E Page Ref: 232 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 8 ..

31) The fMRI is the only approach to monitoring brain activity during advertising exposure.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 232 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 32) The rationale for neuromarketing is that consumer buying decisions are made in split seconds in the ________ part of the brain.

A) conscious rather than subconscious B) subconscious rather than conscious C) inhibited rather than uninhibited D) uninhibited rather than inhibited Answer: B Page Ref: 232 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 33) Consider the two statements below with regard to neuromarketing.

I. Neuromarketing is no longer considered a "fringe" research technique.

II. Mainstream companies such as Google are now exploring neuromarketing applications.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 233 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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34) The two principal techniques for measuring brain wave patterns are ________.

A) fMRI and EKG B) FMRI and EEG C) fMPRand EEG D) fMPR and EKG Answer: B Page Ref: 233 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 35) Consider the two statements below regarding fMRI. I. An fMRI uses magnetic resonance scanners to produce sets of cross-sections of the brain during exposure to an ad or other stimulus.

II. An fMRI measures and records the brain's electrical activity during exposure to an ad or other stimulus.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 233 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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36) Consider the two statements below regarding EEG. I. An EEG uses magnetic resonance scanners to produce sets of cross-sections of the brain during exposure to an ad or other stimulus.

II. An EEG measures and records the brain's electrical activity during exposure to an ad or other stimulus.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 233 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 37) Which brain monitoring technique can pinpoint the specific areas being activated during exposure to an ad or other stimulus?

A) EEG B) fMRI Answer: B Page Ref: 233 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 38) With regard to neuromarketing, there is widespread agreement that the EEG is a superior approach to brain monitoring versus fMRI. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 233 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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39) Neuromarketers using fMRI assume that activation of the brain area known for "reward" would be a ________ outcome of advertising exposure.

A) positive B) negative C) unanticipated D) low priority Answer: A Page Ref: 234 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 40) Brain researchers have been able to demonstrate the sequence of brain activity that precedes a decision to buy (or not buy) a product.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 234 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 41) MindSign is a company that re-edits advertising to reflect ________ test results.

A) EEG B) eye tracking C) fMRI D) facial coding E) survey Answer: C Page Ref: 235 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 42) The overall goal of EEG brain monitoring is an estimate of overall brain engagement.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 236 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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43) Research has shown that the addition of physiological measures (such as heart rate) to EEG data provides ________ important additional insights.

A) few, if any B) a significant number of C) only limited D) unanticipated but not Answer: B Page Ref: 236 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 44) Sands Research is an example of a company that uses ________ plus physiological measures in its approach to neuromarketing data collection.

A) survey questionnaire B) eye tracking C) fMRI D) EEG Answer: D Page Ref: 236 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 45) One of the major criticisms of neuromarketing is its lack of ________ validity.

A) external B) internal C) logical D) spontaneous E) physical Answer: A Page Ref: 238 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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46) The research conducted by One to One Insight showed a direct relationship between engagement (as measured by a range of physiological plus brain measurements) and brand ________.

A) sales B) purchase intent C) recall D) perceptions E) social media presence Answer: C Page Ref: 237 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 47) There is ________ consensus that neuromarketing is an ethical approach to the use of technology for advertising and marketing purposes.

A) extensive B) limited C) unknown Answer: B Page Ref: 238 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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48) There are six important measures used in eye tracking research. Name and briefly describe two of these measures.

Answer: Any two of the following are acceptable: First fixation: the visual element that attracts the greatest amount of initial attention.

Time to first fixation: the amount of time that has elapsed from the start of visual processing until a specific element in the stimulus is viewed.

Most fixation: identifies the visual element(s) that maintain attention.

Individual gaze time: the amount of time spent looking at individual element(s) in the ad.

Total gaze time: the sum of all individual gaze times.

Movement between elements: indicates how the stimulus was processed.

Page Ref: 223 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 49) You conduct an eye tracking evaluation of a print ad. The ad has five key components. The key components and the time to first fixation is shown in the chart below.

Ad Component Model Face and Body Headline Brand Name Product Image Tagline

Time to First Fixation (seconds) 4.3 1.38 .36 1.10 6.14

What recommendation(s) for revision would you make based on this data?

Answer: The headline and product image do well to attract initial attention. It takes very long for reader to attend to either the tagline or the brand name. The ad should be revised so that these elements attract attention sooner.

Page Ref: 228-230 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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50) You want to determine consumers' subconscious reactions to, and processing of, a trailer to a new film. Would you recommend eye tracking or fMRI for data collection.

Answer: Eye tracking measures consumers' conscious eye movements. Neuromarketing techniques, such as fMRI, are more adept at measuring unconscious reactions to visual stimuli.

Page Ref: 223,232 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 51) Briefly discuss the three objections raised in opposition to neuromarketing.

Answer: Lack of external validity - there is no accepted link (yet) between neurological response and brand-related actions ethics - is the collection of this type of information (and potential manipulations that it might lead to) ethical and reasonable?; distraction - shifts advertisers' efforts from creating great advertising to advertising that "moves the needle" Page Ref: 238-239 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 52) Briefly explain the importance of Google's Golden Triangle for advertising planning.

Answer: An advertiser must try to maximize the appearance of his/her ads within the triangle.

Ads outside of the triangle have only a very slight chance of being seen and, as a result, being clicked-on.

Page Ref: 225-227 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 10 Data Collection Through Surveys 1) Surveys provide a "point in time" snapshot of respondents' attitudes, beliefs and behaviors.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) Consider the methods shown below. How many of these methods can be used to collect information via surveys?

- telephone - mail or paper, self-completed - personal, face-to-face - online A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 3) For any given research situation, the preferred approach to collecting survey data is the approach that has the greatest likelihood of providing the most accurate information in the shortest time at the lowest cost.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 4) ________ interviews must always occur in a face-to-face setting.

A) Personal B) Periodic C) Focus group D) Hybrid E) Dynamic Answer: A Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 1 ..

5) The two types of personal interviews are: pre-recruited and ________.

A) online B) preplanned C) intercept D) interrogation Answer: C Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 6) A(n) ________ interview recruits respondents "on the spot."

A) online B) pre-recruited C) intercept D) interrogation Answer: C Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 7) You are walking through the mall and an interviewer from a survey company asks you to participate in a research study. This would be an example of a(n) ________ interview.

A) pre-recruited B) preplanned C) intercept D) interrogation Answer: C Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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8) Intercept approaches to data collection work well to find ________ individuals.

A) low-incidence B) high-incidence C) hard to locate D) random samples of E) generalizable samples of Answer: B Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 9) You wish to conduct personal interviews among doctors. You would most likely use a(n) ________ interview.

A) pre-recruited B) preplanned C) intercept D) interrogation Answer: A Page Ref: 247 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 10) The text discusses several advantages of personal interviews. Which of the following is noted as one of the advantages versus other data collection methods?

A) lower in cost B) quicker to collect data C) works well with long or complex questionnaires D) easy to obtain nationally representative samples Answer: C Page Ref: 248 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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11) CATI stands for ________.

A) Computer Aided Telecommerce Interviewing B) Computer Assisted Teleconferenced Interviews C) Computer Aided Teleconferenced Interviews D) Computer Assisted Telephone Interviewing Answer: D Page Ref: 248 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) An interviewer using a CATI system manually determines the next question to ask in a survey, particularly when skip patterns are involved.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 248 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) The text discusses several advantages of telephone versus personal interviews. Which of the following is NOT noted as an advantage of telephone versus personal interviews as a data collection method?

A) lower marginal costs B) easier to incorporate visual stimuli into the interview C) easier to administer complex skip patterns D) easier to obtain nationally representative samples Answer: B Page Ref: 248 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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14) The two statements below refer to the research conducted by the Pew Research Center.

I.

The Pew Research Center's approach to sample selection for telephone interviews takes the point of view that a landline only sample is always preferable to a sample with a mix of landline and cell phone users.

II. The approach to telephone sampling used by the Pew Research Center is labeled a "Full Dual Frame Sample Design."

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 250 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) A ________ panel is a continuing group of prerecruited individuals who have agreed to participate in survey research studies.

A) synergistic B) personalized C) focus group D) hybrid E) mail Answer: E Page Ref: 251 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) Imagine that you are planning to conduct a survey via the mail. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a mail panel versus a mailing to a random sample of the population.

A) response rates tend to be higher B) respondents are "fresh" and have never before participated in a survey research study C) cost efficiencies tend to be greater D) pre-screening of low incidence populations can be efficiently conducted Answer: B Page Ref: 251 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 5 ..

17) The following two statements refer to conducting research via the mail.

I.

One strength of mail surveys is their high response rate.

II. Mail surveys should be avoided when the questionnaire is long and/or complex.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 251 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 18) A self-administered paper survey is commonly used to measure customer satisfaction.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 252 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) Online surveys can be administered over the Internet and taken on one's computer.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 253 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) An online survey contains three components: ________, questionnaire design/posting, and data collection.

A) invitation B) standardization C) cookie development D) HTML coding Answer: A Page Ref: 253 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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21) The following two statements refer to online data collection.

I. Online data collection is especially appropriate when the questionnaire has one or more complex skip patterns.

II. Online data collection costs are relatively higher than other methods when one needs to interview members of rare or hard to locate populations.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and Ii are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 253 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 22) What is the name given to a research design that combines two or more approaches to data collection, for example, collecting data through both online and telephone interviews.

A) Composite B) Metacombined C) Hybrid D) Heterogeneous Answer: C Page Ref: 253 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 23) Multi-modal designs have the potential to increase data quality through ________.

A) increased response rate B) lower cost per respondent C) higher percentages of target audience selection Answer: A Page Ref: 254 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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24) The text discusses criteria for selecting a data collection method. How many of the criteria shown below are recommended criteria?

- cost - timing requirements - client preference - field service expertise A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 254 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25) The text discusses factors which can influence the cost of a survey. How many of the factors noted below were noted as influencers of cost.

- the cost of long distance telephone calls - required response rate - sample characteristics - degree of client participation in research planning A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 254 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 26) When faced with comparable parameters, personal interviews (versus other approaches to data collection) tend to be the most expensive form of data collection.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 254 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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27) When planning a research study, a researcher should always select the data collection method that has the absolute lowest cost.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 254 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 28) Telephone and ________ surveys generally require the least amount of time to collect the data.

A) online B) personal, face-to-face C) mail Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 29) Personal interviews are almost always the ________ form of data collection.

A) slowest B) least expensive C) least interesting D) most complex Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 30) ________ control refers to the extent to which a researcher can control who responds to a survey.

A) Administrative B) Survey C) Sample D) Interview Answer: C Page Ref: 255 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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31) ________ control refers to the extent to which a researcher has control over the circumstances in which a respondent provides his or her answers to a survey.

A) Administrative B) Survey C) Sample D) Interview Answer: D Page Ref: 255 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 32) Consider the two statements below.

I. Personal and telephone interviews provide the greatest degree of interview control.

II. Mail and online surveys provide weak sample control.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) correct?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 33) ________ control refers to the degree to which a researcher is able to monitor interviewer quality.

A) Administrative B) Survey C) Sample D) Interview Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 34) The concept of administrative control is only appropriate for online surveys.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 256 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 10 ..

35) The best method for collecting complete and considered responses is ________ interviews.

A) personal, face-to-face B) telephone C) mail D) online Answer: A Page Ref: 256 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 36) ________ interviews are most appropriate when both the topic and questionnaire are complex.

A) Personal, face-to-face B) Telephone C) Mail D) Online Answer: A Page Ref: 256 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 37) ________ interviews are most appropriate for relatively simple topics with or without questionnaire complexity.

A) Personal, face-to-face B) Telephone C) Mail D) Online Answer: D Page Ref: 256 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 38) Personal contact is essential for longer surveys.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 257 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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39) ________ refers to the percentage of the valid sample who completed an interview or survey.

A) Survey ratio B) Response rate C) Response ratio D) Rating completes E) Respondent ratio Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 40) A response rate is calculated by dividing the number of respondents ________ by the number of respondents in the valid sample.

A) contacted B) completing the survey C) in the sample frame D) in the population of interest Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 41) A research study has a response rate of 75%. The nonresponse rate would be: A) 15% B) 20% C) 25% D) cannot be determined with the information provided Answer: C Page Ref: 258 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 42) Nonresponse error has the potential to distort the findings of survey research.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 258-260 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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43) The two main sources of nonresponse error are: ________ and not-at-homes.

A) refusals B) lack of a landline C) inability to use mobile apps D) rise of social media Answer: A Page Ref: 260 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 44) The following two statements refer to response rate.

I. Suggestions for increasing the response rate in mail interviews include using incentives at appropriate levels and using advance notification.

II. A long, detailed screener is likely to increase response rate in mall intercept interviews.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 45) When thinking about an e-mail invitation to an online survey, which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline?

A) reassure people regarding privacy and confidentiality B) make certain the survey link is clickable C) avoid personalization or the use of real names in the "From" field D) keep it short Answer: C Page Ref: 263 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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46) You want to test three advertising concepts in order to identify the strengths and weaknesses of each. You are not concerned about obtaining a random sample as this research is diagnostic in nature. The questionnaire is long, and several questions have typically been difficult for respondents to answer. Would you recommend conducting this research via telephone, online, or in-person?

Answer: In-person is the best choice. This approach would ensure that all individuals were exposed to the advertising concept and, in addition, the presence of a personal interviewer is recommended whenever the questionnaire is long or contains complex questions (as is the case here.)

Page Ref: 247-253 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 47) You want to conduct a telephone survey among college students. Would you recommend the use of a landline only sample, a cell phone only sample, or a dual frame design?

Answer: A dual frame design, such as that used by the Pew Center, is the best design as it would include a cell phone sample without biasing the total sample. The cell phone sample is important because this is the primary phone for many college students, but it would be biasing to exclude a sample from this population.

Page Ref: 250 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 48) Provide three examples of ways to increase response rate in personal interviews and telephone surveys.

Answer: Any three of the following are acceptable: - explicitly mention the interview topic and describe why the topic is important and relevant to the respondent - effectively and accurately describe the purpose and goal of the research, noting the importance of the individual's responses to achieving the goal - make certain that respondents do not feel threatened by participation in the research or by how their responses will be used - use incentives at levels appropriate to the demands of the survey - use advance notification.

Page Ref: 260-261 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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49) Calculate the response rate given the data shown below.

Number in original sample: 1,250 Number not valid: 200 Failed to meet sample definition: 50 Refusals: 50 Not at home: 200 Answer: The response rate is 75%.

Page Ref: 258 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 50) Explain "hybrid design." Provide an example of how this design might be used.

Answer: A hybrid design occurs when two different data collection techniques are used in the same research study. An example might be using both online and telephone data collection methods to reach and obtain data from two different groups within the sample target population.

Page Ref: 253-254 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 11 Measurement 1) Measurement is the way in which concrete observable concepts are linked to ________ events.

A) observable B) unobservable C) fictional D) psychological E) social Answer: B Page Ref: 269 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) A systematic approach of moving from a concept to an observable event increases the likelihood that conclusions drawn from the research are appropriate, reliable, and valid.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 269 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) The three broad steps in the measurement process are: (1) identify and define the concept of interest, (2) specify an observable event, and (3) ________.

A) pre-test the survey instrument B) evaluate reliability C) evaluate and revise the observable event D) evaluate validity Answer: C Page Ref: 269 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) A ________ is an invented name for a property of an object, person, state, or event.

A) production B) metaphor C) syllogism D) concept E) fallacy Answer: D Page Ref: 269 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 1 ..

5) Concepts such as ________ provide few measurement problems or challenges.

A) age and gender B) love and hate C) attitude toward the ad D) brand loyalty E) social media engagement Answer: A Page Ref: 269 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 6) Easily observable concepts present ________ measurement challenges.

A) large B) minimal C) unknown D) unanticipated E) synergistic Answer: B Page Ref: 270 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 7) A(n) ________ definition expresses a concept's central or core idea.

A) operational B) observable C) conceptual D) syllogistic E) intrinsic Answer: C Page Ref: 270 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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8) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a conceptual definition?

A) states the major characteristics of the concept B) distinguishes the target concept from similar, but different, concepts C) needs to be less than 15 words in length Answer: C Page Ref: 270 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 9) For any particular identified concept, there ________ conceptual definition(s).

A) is only one B) are four or less C) are a large number of Answer: C Page Ref: 271 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 10) The following two statements refer to conceptual definitions.

I. When faced with multiple conceptual definitions, a researcher should use consensus to determine the "best" definition.

II. A conceptual definition directly leads to decisions regarding how the concept of interest will actually be measured.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 271 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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11) The text's discussion of the operational definitions of "attitude toward the advertisement" illustrates that every conceptual definition should move to one and only one operational definition.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 273 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application 12) The text discusses a four-step process for moving from a conceptual definition to an operational definition. The first step is "explicitly specify the concept of interest." The second step is ________.

A) narrow alternative operational definitions to the three best B) evaluate and select the best operational definition C) explicitly state what can be observed D) explore different aspects of the concept's meaning Answer: D Page Ref: 273 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) For any operational definition there is one, and only one, method for data collection.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 274 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 14) There is (are) ________ levels of measurement.

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five Answer: D Page Ref: 274 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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15) Which level(s) of measurement can be used for "classifying"?

A) ratio only B) interval and ratio C) ordinal, interval, and ratio D) all four levels: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio Answer: D Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 16) Which level(s) of measurement can be used for "putting things in order"?

A) ratio only B) interval and ratio C) ordinal, interval, and ratio D) all four levels: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio Answer: C Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 17) Which level(s) of measurement can be used for "determining differences"?

A) ratio only B) interval and ratio C) ordinal, interval, and ratio D) all four levels: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio Answer: B Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 18) Which level(s) of measurement can be used for "determining ratios"?

A) ratio only B) interval and ratio C) ordinal, interval, and ratio D) all four levels: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio Answer: A Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 5 ..

19) Ordinal level measures are best used when the measurement goal is to ________ .

A) determine averages B) put things in order C) classify D) determine the distance between measured objects Answer: B Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) At what level of measurement is the question below written?

Would you like to register for our e-mail newsletter?

Yes No A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: A Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 21) At what level of measurement is the question below written?

What is your gender?

Male Female A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: A Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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22) At what level of measurement is the question below written?

What is your year in school?

Freshman Sophomore Junior Senior A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: A Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 23) Nominal level measures have ________ defining characteristics.

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five Answer: C Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 24) Which of the following is NOT a defining characteristic of nominal level measures?

A) response categories are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive B) response options must be four or less C) for purposes of data analysis numbers are merely a way to distinguish categories D) there is internal category equivalence Answer: B Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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25) Consider the question shown below.

What is your gender?

Male (1) Female (2) The data coding in this question reflects the researcher's belief that men are superior to women.

A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 26) Consider the question shown below.

What is your year in school?

Freshman Sophomore Junior The lack of "Senior" on this list of responses violates the rule of ________.

A) response exclusivity B) response exhaustiveness C) response latency D) response attribution Answer: B Page Ref: 275 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 27) Ordinal level measures arrange characteristics or attributes according to their magnitude in an ordered relationship along an explicit dimension, for example, from greater to lesser.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 276-277 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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28) A rank order question represents what level of measurement?

A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: B Page Ref: 276 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 29) The two statements below refer to ordinal level measures.

I. Numbers used to classify responses to an ordinal level question have some mathematical meaning.

II. Ordinal level measures provide insights into both the relative standing of ordered objects and the relative distance between these objects.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 276 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 30) You ask respondents to rank order three television programs. You then average the rankings for each program and report that: LostAverage ranking: FringeAverage ranking: Grey's AnatomyAverage ranking:

1.5 2.0 2.5

Assuming the math is correct, this is an appropriate way to report ordinal level data.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 277 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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31) Eye-tracking data which reports the order in which elements in an ad are observed are an example of ________ level measurement.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: B Page Ref: 277 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 32) On the interval level of measurement, it is assumed that the distance between response options is ________.

A) subject to individual interpretation B) equivalent C) dependent upon the length of the question D) reflects the question writer's biases E) minimal Answer: B Page Ref: 278 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 33) Consider the question shown below.

How much do you agree or disagree with the statement "Political advertising is too negative."?

Strongly agree Slightly agree Slightly disagree Strongly disagree In this question, it is assumed that the distance between strongly agree and ________ is the same as the distance between slightly agree and slightly disagree.

A) slightly agree B) slightly disagree C) strongly disagree Answer: A Page Ref: 278 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 10 ..

34) The numbers used to code responses on the ________ level of measurement have real meaning and may be averaged.

A) nominal level B) nominal and ordinal level C) ordinal and interval D) interval and ratio Answer: D Page Ref: 278 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 35) The ________ level of measurement has a true zero point.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: D Page Ref: 281 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 36) A constant sum question is an illustration of a question written on the ________ level of measurement.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: D Page Ref: 281 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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37) When presented with the option of collecting respondents' age on either the nominal or ratio level of measurement, a researcher should collect the data on the ________ level.

A) nominal B) ratio Answer: A Page Ref: 282 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 38) With regard to data analysis, data collected on the ordinal level of measurement is more limiting than data collected on the ________ level.

A) nominal B) interval Answer: B Page Ref: 282 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 39) ________ questions allow an individual or observer to reply in his or her own words without the use of a fixed, predetermined set of answers.

A) Closed-ended B) Constant sum C) Ranking D) Open-ended E) Rating scale Answer: D Page Ref: 284 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 40) The question "Why have you stopped visiting your Facebook page?" is an example of an ________ question.

A) closed-ended B) constant sum C) ranking D) open-ended E) rating scale Answer: D Page Ref: 284 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12 ..

41) What type of question is a good way to introduce a new topic area in a survey or interview?

A) closed-ended B) constant sum C) ranking D) open-ended E) rating scale Answer: D Page Ref: 284 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 42) Open-ended questions tend to provide ________ variability in response versus closed-ended questions.

A) more B) less C) about the same Answer: A Page Ref: 284 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 43) Consider the holes shown on the target below.

If the holes represent repeated measures, these measures would be considered to be ________.

A) reliable, but not valid B) valid, but not reliable C) neither valid nor reliable D) both valid and reliable Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 13 ..

44) Consider the holes shown on the target below.

If the holes represent repeated measures, these measures would be considered to be ________.

A) reliable, but not valid B) valid, but not reliable C) neither valid nor reliable D) both valid and reliable Answer: B Page Ref: 286 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 45) Consider the holes shown on the target below.

If the holes represent repeated measures, these measures would be considered to be ________.

A) reliable, but not valid B) valid, but not reliable C) neither valid nor reliable D) both valid and reliable Answer: C Page Ref: 286 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 14 ..

46) Consider the holes shown on the target below.

If the holes represent repeated measures, these measures would be considered to be ________.

A) reliable, but not valid B) valid, but not reliable C) neither valid nor reliable D) both valid and reliable Answer: D Page Ref: 286 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 47) "Test-Retest" and "Alternative Form" are ways to assess a measure's ________.

A) validity B) reliability C) definition D) criteria E) creativity Answer: B Page Ref: 285,286 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 48) Which approach uses judgment and personal expertise to assess a measure's validity?

A) face validity B) concurrent validity C) predictive validity Answer: A Page Ref: 288 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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49) Which type of validity is estimated by determining the extent to which performance on one variable (measured today) accurately predicts performance on another variable (to be measured in the future).

A) face validity B) concurrent validity C) predictive validity Answer: C Page Ref: 288 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 50) Provide two conceptual definitions for "brand loyalty."

Answer: Answers will vary, but should be of the following form: - A consumer's commitment to repurchase the brand across repeated buying occasions.

- A consumer's predisposition to consistently speak positively about the brand to friends and others.

-A disposition toward a brand that is so favorable that it creates a "barrier to exit," making it difficult for other brands to compete.

Greater consumption of a particular brand versus consumers' average level of consumption.

Page Ref: 271 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 51) You want to measure respondents' "engagement" with Facebook. Provide two operational definitions.

Answer: Answers will vary but should be of the following form: - The amount of time spent daily on Facebook - The number of daily visits - The number of "likes" - The amount of time discussing Facebook with friends in a typical day - The number of postings Page Ref: 274 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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52) Write a question to collect information on a respondent's age on both the nominal and ratio levels. Which question type is preferred?

Answer: Nominal: Into which of the following groups does your age fall?

Under 18 18 to 34 35 to 54 55 and over Ratio: What is your age? ________ The ratio level question is preferred because it is written at the higher level of measurement.

Page Ref: 275, 281 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 53) List and briefly describe the four levels of measurement.

Answer: Nominal: to classify Ordinal: classify and to put things in order Interval: classify, put things in order, determine differences Ratio: classify, put things in order, determine differences, determine ratios Page Ref: 275-281 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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54) Explain what is means to "collect data at the highest level of measurement." Why is this important?

Answer: All things being equal, data collection at the ratio level is preferred over the other levels; data collection at the interval level is preferred over the ordinal level, etc. Collecting data at the highest level is important because this data: - is less limiting - can always be turned into lower level data - can be analyzed with more powerful statistical techniques Page Ref: 281 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 55) Define reliability and validity.

Answer: Reliability is an assessment of the extent to which a measure consistently provides the same results. A reliable measure is considered to be stable, that is, free from random error in yielding comparable results over multiple administrations. Validity is an assessment of the "goodness" of the measure. A valid measure is one that accurately measures what we think it is measuring.

Page Ref: 285 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 12 Writing Survey Questions 1) A(n) ________ question gives the respondent a predefined set of response options from which he or she can choose.

A) closed-ended B) open-ended Answer: A Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) Which of the following is NOT a nominal level measurement?

A) dichotomous questions B) multiple choice questions C) rating scales D) checklists Answer: C Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 3) Which type of nominal measure is used to classify individuals, attitudes, or other responses into one of two exhaustive, mutually exclusive groups?

A) dichotomous questions B) multiple choice questions C) rating scales D) checklists Answer: A Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

1 ..

4) Consider this question: Did you like the pizza?

Yes No What type of question is this?

A) dichotomous question B) multiple choice question C) rating scale D) checklist Answer: A Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 5) The response options to dichotomous questions must always be "yes" and "no."

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) The text describes several advantages of dichotomous questions. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as an advantage of this type of question?

A) simple to analyze B) efficient way to enact skip logic C) simple to edit and tabulate D) less costly than other types of questions Answer: D Page Ref: 293 - 294 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

2 ..

7) Consider the two questions shown below.

I. Have you seen more or less than three commercials in the past hour?

II. How many commercials did you see in the past hour?

Which, if any, is the preferred method for collecting information related to commercial viewing?

A) I is preferred over II B) II is preferred over I C) The questions are interchangeable and either one can be used; neither is preferred Answer: B Page Ref: 294 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 8) Consider this question: Into which of the following age groups do you fall?

Under 18 18 to 49 50 to 64 65 and older What type of question is this?

A) dichotomous question B) multiple choice question C) rating scale D) checklist Answer: B Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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9) What type of nominal level question presents three or more exclusive and exhaustive categories of response?

A) dichotomous question B) multiple choice question C) rating scale D) checklist Answer: B Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) Consider the question shown below.

How many pets do you have?

1 to 2 3 to 4 4 or more This question is ....

A) exhaustive but not exclusive B) not exhaustive but exclusive C) not exhaustive, not exclusive D) exhaustive and exclusive Answer: C Page Ref: 295 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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11) Consider the question shown below.

How many computers do you own?

0 1 2 3 or more This question is ....

A) exhaustive but not exclusive B) not exhaustive but exclusive C) not exhaustive, not exclusive D) exhaustive and exclusive Answer: D Page Ref: 295 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 12) When writing multiple choice questions, it is important that the question either be exhaustive or exclusive. It is not necessary for both characteristics to be present at the same time.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 295 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) Consider the question shown below.

Which brand of laundry detergent did you buy on your last shopping trip?

All Cheer Tide Other This question is ....

A) exhaustive but not exclusive B) not exhaustive but exclusive C) not exhaustive, not exclusive D) exhaustive and exclusive Answer: A Page Ref: 295 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 5 ..

14) Multiple choice questions provide much of the same flexibility as open ended-questions but without asking respondents to verbalize their thoughts and express themselves.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 296 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 15) You are using a multiple choice question to identify where an individual last ordered a takeout pizza. It is important to put the list of pizza company names in ________.

A) random order B) alphabetical order C) order from shortest to longest name Answer: B Page Ref: 296 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) The text provided recommendations for the writing of multiple choice questions. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for the proper writing of multiple choice questions?

A) keep the number of response options to five or less B) provide a "zero" option when addressing behaviors C) keep the response categories balanced D) keep the "typical" behavior in the center of the list of response options Answer: A Page Ref: 296 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 17) Dichotomous questions should be used when ________.

A) there are only two known reasonable responses B) the full range of reasonable responses is known to be three or more C) the full range of reasonable responses is unknown Answer: A Page Ref: 297 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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18) Consider the two questions shown below.

I. What is your highest level of education?

High school or less Some college or beyond II. What is your highest level of education?

Less than high school High school graduate Some college College degree or higher Which, if any, is the preferred method for collecting information related to the respondent's education?

A) I is preferred over II B) II is preferred over I C) The questions are interchangable and either one can be used; neither is preferred Answer: B Page Ref: 294 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 19) A ________ combines a series of related dichotomous questions into a single question.

A) constant sum question B) multiple choice question C) rating scale D) checklist Answer: D Page Ref: 293 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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20) The following two statements refer to checklist questions.

I.

It important for a checklist question to explicitly explain the criteria on which items on the checklist are to be selected.

II. When writing a checklist question, it is important to point out that the respondent must check at least one of the items.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 298 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 21) Think about creating a checklist question to assess reactions to a commercial. There are eight items on the checklist: four negative and four positive. It is important that all the positive items be grouped together and that all the negative items be grouped together.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 298 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 22) You are creating a checklist question to assess reactions to a test commercial. You are reasonably certain that respondents will like the commercial. As a result, it is appropriate and acceptable to have twice as many positive as negative items on the checklist.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 298 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application

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23) ________ level questions ask respondents to order a list of items in terms of a prespecified characteristic.

A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: B Page Ref: 299 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 24) A(n) ________ question informs a researcher as to the relative ordering of items, although no inferences as to the distances between items can be drawn.

A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio Answer: B Page Ref: 299 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the respondent instructions in a rank order question?

A) explicitly state the respondent's task B) explicitly state the characteristic the ranking should reflect C) explicitly state the method that should be used to perform the ranking D) explain that once a ranking is recorded it cannot be changed Answer: D Page Ref: 300 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 26) ________ provide information on the rank order of items and an estimate of the relative distance between items.

A) Classification questions B) Rating scales C) Rank order questions D) Checklist questions Answer: B Page Ref: 300 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 9 ..

27) Consider the following directions for a rating scale.

I.

How much do you agree or disagree that ....?

II. How much do you agree that ...?

Which, if any, is the preferred method for the lead-in to a rating scale?

A) I is preferred over II B) II is preferred over I C) The lead-ins are interchangable and either one can be used; neither is preferred Answer: A Page Ref: 300 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) The two statements below refer to rating scale questions.

I. Rating scales should never use more than five response options.

II. The list of response options appearing on a rating scale must always be balanced.

Which, if any, of these statements, is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 301 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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29) Consider the following rating scale question: How believable or unbelievable was the commercial you just saw?

Strongly agree Slightly agree Neither agree nor disagree Slightly disagree Strongly disagree Is this question acceptably written?

A) Yes B) No Answer: B Page Ref: 301 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 30) The list of rating scale response options must always contain a neutral option, for example, "neither agree nor disagree."

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 302 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 31) Consider the response options for the rating scale shown below.

Strongly agree Slightly agree ?

Slightly disagree Strongly disagree With what should the ? be replaced?

A) "Neither agree nor disagree" B) "No opinion" C) Either option A or option B is acceptable Answer: A Page Ref: 302 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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32) The question "How much did you like this advertisement when compared to other car ads?" provides a ________.

A) frame of analysis B) frame of reference C) code for data analysis D) casual reference Answer: B Page Ref: 302 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 33) A semantic differential question asks a respondent to rate multiple objects on a single fivepoint scale.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 305 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 34) Questions on the ________ level measure objects, beliefs and behaviors on a continuum that has a fixed, zero origin.

A) interval B) ratio C) ordinal D) nominal Answer: B Page Ref: 305 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 35) A constant sum question takes measurements on the ________ level of measurement.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: D Page Ref: 305 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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36) A ________ question is a ratio measure that requires a respondent to divide a preset quantity among two or more objects or attributes in a way that reflects the respondent's relative preference for each object.

A) checklist B) rating scale C) constant sum D) ranking Answer: C Page Ref: 305 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 37) The amount to be divided in a constant sum question ________ .

A) should always be 20 times greater than the number of items listed B) should always have a value of 100 C) should always have a value of 25 D) is variable, but should be easily divisible by the number of items Answer: D Page Ref: 306 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 38) The question: "Can you please tell me about your feelings toward environmental product claims?

PROBE FOR DETAIL" is an acceptably written open-ended question.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 306 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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39) All open-ended questions should be ________.

A) single-minded B) less than 15 words C) written to allow less than three likely responses D) vague and diffuse in the request for information E) written to provide direction for the single correct answer Answer: A Page Ref: 306 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 40) The question: "How many children do you have and what are their ages?

PROBE FOR DETAIL" is an acceptably written question.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 306 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 41) It is acceptable when writing an open-ended question to include an opinion or point of view, for example: "Many people believe that saving for retirement is important. What is your point of view?"

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 307 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 42) The response to questions requesting personal information is improved when such requests are ________.

A) placed at the very beginning of the questionnaire B) explained and justified C) written to communicate the interviewer's bias D) kept to under 10 words E) scattered throughout the questionnaire Answer: B Page Ref: 308 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 14 ..

43) When writing any type of question asking about behaviors it is important to provide a reasonable time frame.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 309 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 44) Which of the following would be the best way to ask about visits to Facebook?

A) How often do you visit Facebook?

B) How often did you visit Facebook in the last 30 days?

C) How often did you visit Facebook in the last 7 days?

D) How often did you visit Facebook yesterday?

Answer: D Page Ref: 309 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 45) When writing any type of question, it is important to avoid response options such as "frequently" or "sometimes."

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 308 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 46) Explain the concepts of "mutually exhaustive" and "mutually exclusive." Provide an example that illustrates each concept.

Answer: Answers will vary, but should resemble the following: Example: Are you ...

Male Female The question's responses are exhaustive because all possible answers are accounted for. The question's responses are exclusive because every individual fits into one, and only one, response category.

Page Ref: 295 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 15 ..

47) Write the introduction to a checklist question designed to measure reactions to a commercial.

Answer: Wording may vary, but should be of the following form: Think about the commercial you just saw. Which of the following words or phrases describe how you feel about the commercial? You can check as many or as few (or even no items) as apply.

Page Ref: 298 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 48) Write the introduction to a rank order question designed to measure soft drink preferences.

The brands are: Coke, Pepsi, Dr. Pepper, and Sprite.

Answer: Wording may vary, but should be of the following form: You have just tasted four soft drinks: Coke, Dr. Pepper, Pepsi, and Sprite. Please rank each brand's taste with regard to its overall appeal to you. Place a "1" next to the brand that has the greatest appeal, a "2" by the brand with the next most appeal, through "4" which you would place next to the site whose taste you found least appealing. There can be no ties and please use each number only once.

Page Ref: 299 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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49) You have been asked to write an agree-disagree rating scale. Write the response options for a four-point scale and for a five-point scale.

Answer: Four point: Strongly agree Slightly agree Slightly disagree Strongly disagree Five point: Strongly agree Slightly agree Neither agree nor disagree Slightly disagree Strongly disagree Page Ref: 300-303 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 50) Is it acceptable to use words like "frequently" and "often" in questions designed to measure frequency of behavior? Why or why not?

Answer: It is not acceptable. These terms are ambiguous and, as a result, are open to different interpretations by different people.

Page Ref: 308 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 13 Questionnaire Design 1) The best way to avoid errors in constructing a questionnaire is to take a ________ approach.

A) controlled B) pragmatic C) systematic D) realistic Answer: C Page Ref: 324 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 2) The process of questionnaire development starts with two simultaneous tasks. One is to determine the data collection method. The second is to determine ________.

A) sample characteristics B) the need for disguise C) the process which will be used to pre-test the questionnaire D) the schedule for internal and client review Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 3) It is not necessary to customize a questionnaire for the specific method which will be used for data collection; a questionnaire written for a telephone interview will work just as well when used as a self-administered questionnaire.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 325 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) Questionnaire ________ refers to the extent to which the purpose and/or sponsor of the research is known to the respondent.

A) disguise B) format C) bias D) integration E) observation Answer: A Page Ref: 325 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 1 ..

5) A(n) ________ questionnaire hides the purpose and/or sponsor of the research from the respondent.

A) constrained B) undisguised C) pragmatic D) disguised Answer: D Page Ref: 325 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) A(n)________ questionnaire allows the respondent to discern the purpose and/or sponsor of the research.

A) constrained B) undisguised C) pragmatic D) disguised Answer: B Page Ref: 325 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 7) The decision whether or not to disguise a questionnaire is primarily influenced by the extent to which it is believed that a respondent will provide biased answers if the research sponsor and/or purpose is known.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 325 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 8) The first section of a questionnaire contains the main body of information questions.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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9) Which of the following is NOT a main component of a questionnaire?

A) directions for data analysis B) screener C) main body of information questions D) classification questions Answer: A Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 10) The questionnaire ________ explains the purpose and goals of the research and asks for respondent participation.

A) screener B) introduction C) classification questions D) synopsis Answer: B Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 11) The statement "Your responses will be kept confidential." is most likely to be found in the questionnaire ________.

A) screener B) introduction C) addendum D) closing E) title section Answer: B Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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12) The statement "We would greatly appreciate you sharing your thoughts and opinions." is most likely to be found in the questionnaire ________.

A) screener B) introduction C) addendum D) closing E) title section Answer: B Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) According to the text, which of the following is NOT part of a questionnaire introduction?

A) an implicit or explicit reference to the importance of the research B) reassurance that the task of participating will not be difficult C) a request for truthful answers D) an explanation of the incentive if one is being used Answer: D Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 14) In which type of questionnaire is the introduction likely to be longer and more detailed?

A) Mail B) Telephone Answer: A Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 15) The best way to describe a screener is that it works like a(n) ________.

A) gate B) train C) stadium D) apartment Answer: A Page Ref: 327 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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16) The two statements below refer to a questionnaire screener.

I. The primary function of a screener is to distinguish between those who should be included in the research from those who should not be included.

II. The end result of the screener is an invitation to participate in the research for all those who qualify.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 329 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 17) If the screener is relatively short, then it is allowable to include additional questions of interest, even if these questions do not distinguish target from nontarget individuals.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 330 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 18) The two statements below refer to questionnaire organization.

I. When thinking about the main body of questions in a questionnaire, it is always best to get the hardest questions out of the way first.

II. When thinking about the main body of questions in a questionnaire, all of the questions on the same topic should be grouped together.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 330 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 5 ..

19) The statements below refer to the main body of questions in a questionnaire.

I.

When thinking about the main body of questions in a questionnaire, within a specific topic it is best to begin with the most general questions moving later to the more specific questions.

II. When thinking about the main body of questions in a questionnaire, sensitive questions should generally be asked earlier in the questionnaire.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 330 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) When thinking about the main body of questions in a questionnaire, the most important questions should be addressed ________ the questionnaire.

A) earlier in B) later in C) in the middle of Answer: A Page Ref: 330 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 21) ________ questions typically conclude the questionnaire and collect relevant demographic, brand usage or behavioral questions not collected as part of the screener or main body of the questionnaire.

A) Category B) Clarifying C) Classification D) Clique Answer: C Page Ref: 331 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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22) Questions related to a respondents age, gender and income (if not collected on the screener) would be placed in the ________ of the questionnaire.

A) beginning B) end C) middle Answer: B Page Ref: 331 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 23) The text identifies three issues which must be considered when a researcher begins to physically construct the questionnaire. These issues relate to: (1) visual appearance, (2) transitions, and (3) ________.

A) interviewer/respondent instructions B) the paper the questionnaire will be printed on C) client approval D) procedures for determining layout reliability and validity Answer: A Page Ref: 331 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application 24) A researcher needs to be very concerned about the visual appearance of ________ questionnaires.

A) self-administered B) telephone C) interviewer-administered Answer: A Page Ref: 331 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 25) The text presents several recommendations for self-administered questionnaires. Which of the following was NOT a recommendation?

A) Use 14# paper or heavier paper stock B) Keep response coding unobtrusive C) Be certain to distinguish questions from responses D) Do not continue questions across columns or pages Answer: A Page Ref: 332, 333 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 7 ..

26) In an online questionnaire, pictures can be used to add visual appeal even if they do not have a real and meaningful link to the question being asked.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 334 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 27) Witte conducted research to determine views toward endangered species. Respondents' views were more supportive of endangered species protection when pictures of ________.

A) animals were not present B) non-endangered species were present C) endangered species were present Answer: C Page Ref: 334 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 28) The following two statements refer to online questionnaires.

I.

When creating an online questionnaire, all of the questions should appear on the same web page when the questionnaire is relatively short.

II. On relatively long online questionnaires, the dropout rate increases dramatically after the third page.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 334 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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29) The following two statements refer to online questionnaires.

I.

When using an open-ended question on an online questionnaire, the length of a respondent's answer is generally unrelated to the size of the space provided for typing the answer.

II. With regard to online questionnaires, there is a significant relationship between how input boxes are labeled and the quality of data provided.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: B Page Ref: 334 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 30) With regard to online surveys, all response formats for closed-ended questions are equivalent and will provide identical data.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 335 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 31) Couper recommends avoiding ________ in online surveys.

A) radio buttons B) scrolling drop down boxes C) drop boxes for well-known target answers (for example, your country of residence) Answer: B Page Ref: 335 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 32) All online survey companies present the same question type in the same way.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 335 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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33) Which question type is not likely to be available at all online survey companies?

A) single-selection multiple choice B) checklist C) rating scale D) constant sum Answer: D Page Ref: 335 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 34) ________ are the conversational, connective material that provide a sense of flow and continuity to the questionnaire.

A) Transitions B) Transparent statements C) Lucid statements D) Declaratory statements Answer: A Page Ref: 335 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 35) Consider the two questions with interviewer instructions shown below.

I.

What are your feelings toward the advertisement you just saw?

Interviewer: Make certain to probe responses

II. What are your feelings toward the advertisement you just saw?

Interviewer: PROBE responses.

III. What are your feelings toward the advertisement you just saw?

PROBE RESPONSES Which, if any, is/are the recommended way(s) to provide instructions to the interviewer?

A) I B) II C) III D) All three approaches (I, II and III) are equally acceptable Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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36) You are creating a skip pattern for a series of questions. Those who answer "yes" to Q1 continue with Q2. Those who answer "no" to Q1 skip to Q3. The recommended way to show the skip pattern for Q1 is: 1. Did you eat any pizza yesterday?

Yes No ----------> SKIP TO Q3 Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 337 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 37) When developing several online questionnaires, it is possible to skip from one questionnaire to another.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 338 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 38) Questionnaire review by the client prior to pretesting is a(n) ________ step in the questionnaire development process.

A) unrecommended B) important and recommended C) optional, but not recommended D) time-consuming and unnecessary Answer: B Page Ref: 339 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 39) Pretesting is a(n) ________ step in the questionnaire development process.

A) unrecommended B) important and recommended C) optional, but not recommended D) time-consuming and unnecessary Answer: B Page Ref: 339 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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40) The text discusses areas of focus for a questionnaire pretest. How many of the areas shown below are problems that should be noted during pretesting?

- Problems with administration - Problems with type font and paper stock - Problems related to response options - Problems related to question demands A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 340 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 41) ________ interviews are suggested by the text as the best way to pretest a questionnaire.

A) Creative B) Cognitive C) Compulsory D) Complex Answer: B Page Ref: 340 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 42) The "think-aloud" method is a form of ________ interview.

A) Creative B) Cognitive C) Compulsary D) Complex Answer: B Page Ref: 340 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 43) Materials sent to a field service should always be accompanied by a cover letter that provides detailed information on the research, commitments, agreements, and particulars of the methodology.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 342 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 12 ..

44) The VERB campaign was able to use the same questionnaire for both their child and parent samples.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 342 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 45) Describe the difference between a disguised and undisguised questionnaire. Provide an example of when each type of questionnaire is best used.

Answer: Undisguised questionnaires make the purpose and sponsor of the research explicit to the respondent, often through the questionnaire's introduction or the wording and focus of specific questions. Disguised questionnaires provide a general overview of the research but hide more detailed information on research goals and sponsor from the respondent.

Research focused on attitudes toward deep sea oil drilling sponsored by BP would likely use a disguised questionnaire. The same research sponsored by the U.S. government would likely use an undisguised questionnaire.

Page Ref: 325 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 46) List three components of a questionnaire introduction.

Answer: Any three of the following are acceptable.

- an explicit or implicit reference to importance.

- general information on the rationale and goals of the research.

- an explicit request for participation.

- reassurance that the task of participating is not too burdensome or time-consuming.

- the need for truthful answers.

- the promise of confidentiality.

- the reassurance that this is real, legitimate research Page Ref: 326 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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47) You want to only interview men and women who are aged 18 to 24 earning less than $15,000 annually. Write the screener.

Answer: 1. What is your age?

Under 18 .............. DISCONTINUE 18 - 24 .................. CONTINUE WITH Q. 2 25 and older ........ DISCONTINUE What is your annual income (rounded to thousands)?

Under $15,000 ...... INVITE TO INTERVIEW $15,000 or over ..... DISCONTINUE Page Ref: 327-330 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 48) You wish to interview the following sample using mall intercept: Men who are aged 25 to 34 Women who are full-time students Write the screener.

Answer: 1. Gender (from visual inspection) Male ................ CONTINUE WITH Q. 2 Female ............ SKIP TO Q.3 2. What is your age?

Under 25 ......... DISCONTINUE 25 - 34 ............. INVITE TO INTERVIEW 35 and over .... DISCONTINUE 3. Are you a student?

Yes ................... CONTINUE WITH Q. 4 No .................... DISCONTINUE 4. Is your student status part-time or full-time?

Part-time ........ DISCONTINUE Full-time ......... INVITE TO INTERVIEW Page Ref: 327-330, 336-339 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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49) Explain why questionnaire pretesting is important.

Answer: A pretest is important because it offers the insights needed for improving the questionnaire's wording, structure, format, and organization.

Page Ref: 340 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 50) List two areas in which pretesting can identify problem areas on a questionnaire.

Answer: Any two of the following are acceptable.

- problems with administration.

- problems related to question comprehension.

- problems related to question demands.

- problems related to response options.

- problems related to organization and question sequencing.

Page Ref: 340 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 14 Experimentation 1) Which of the following type(s) of data collection allow(s) a researcher to determine causality?

A) surveys B) experiments C) both surveys and experiments work equally well to determine causality Answer: B Page Ref: 361 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) ________ allows a researcher to determine the effect of changes in one area on one or more other areas.

A) Causality B) Correlation C) Creativity D) Brainstorming E) Synergy Answer: A Page Ref: 361 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) Which of the following best illustrates the concept of causality?

A) show a respondent an ad and then ask questions about reactions to the ad B) give a respondent a sample product and then conduct an interview to determine satisfaction C) vary the amount of advertising exposure to determine changes in sales Answer: C Page Ref: 361 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 4) Experiments allow researchers to bypass the recall of behavior and actually observe behaviors in response to a stimulus of interest.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 361 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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5) The following statements refer to the use of survey results.

I. Survey results become less reliable and less valuable for decision making when individuals are asked to use memory to attribute cause and effect.

II. Survey results become less reliable and less valuable for decision making when there are believed to be complex, multiple, or interrelated influences on behavior.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 364 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) The first step in conducting an experiment is to ________.

A) identify what you need to learn B) begin the experiment by taking the relevant actions C) determine the research budget D) hire a field service to collect the data Answer: B Page Ref: 364 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 7) Survey results become more reliable and valuable for decision making when individuals are asked for introspection in areas of behavior they do not normally think about.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 364 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 8) Every experiment has at least one manipulation.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 365 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2 ..

9) The text describes Peter's pizza experiment. In this experiment the amount of water was the ________ variable.

A) dependent B) independent C) causative D) categorical Answer: B Page Ref: 364, 365 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 10) The text describes Peter's pizza experiment. In this experiment the quality of crust texture was the ________ variable.

A) dependent B) independent C) causative D) categorical Answer: A Page Ref: 364, 365 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 11) John is a waiter. He wants to determine if how he greets his customers (specifically whether or not he introduces himself by name) affects his tips. In this situation, the independent variable would be ________ A) the size of John's tips B) the number of repeat customers C) the presence or absence of John's name in his greeting D) whether or not John's customers address him by name Answer: C Page Ref: 365 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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12) John is a waiter. He wants to determine if how he greets his customers (specifically whether or not he introduces himself by name) affects his tips. In this situation, the dependent variable would be ________ A) the size of John's tips B) the number of repeat customers C) the presence or absence of John's name in his greeting D) whether or not John's customers address him by name Answer: A Page Ref: 365 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 13) It is always the case that an experiment seeks to determine the effect of changes in the dependent variable on the independent variable.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 365 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 14) The following two statements refer to experimental causality.

I. In order for causality to be accepted in an experiment, changes in the independent variable must precede changes in the dependent variable.

II. In order for causality to be accepted in an experiment, only one alternative explanation of the outcome must be eliminated.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II is true Answer: A Page Ref: 366 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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15) In order for causality to be accepted in an experiment, the cause and effect relationship must be supported and verified by significant outcomes from appropriate statistical tests.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 366 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 16) An experiment's ________ refers to the extent to which one can eliminate alternative explanations for the observed experimental results.

A) internal validity B) external validity C) external reference D) internal reference Answer: B Page Ref: 366 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 17) Premeasurement is a threat to internal validity that is related to problems associated with ________.

A) a pretest survey B) variation in data collection procedures C) the sample D) the study context E) the researcher Answer: A Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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18) Instrumentation is a threat to internal validity that is related to problems associated with ________.

A) a pretest survey B) variation in data collection procedures C) the sample D) the study context E) the researcher Answer: B Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 19) Maturation is a threat to internal validity that is related to problems associated with ________.

A) a pretest survey B) variation in data collection procedures C) the sample D) the study context E) the researcher Answer: C Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) History is a threat to internal validity that is related to problems associated with ________.

A) a pretest survey B) variation in data collection procedures C) the sample D) the study context E) the researcher Answer: D Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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21) Premeasurement is closely related to what other threat to internal validity?

A) Interaction B) Instrumentation C) Mortality D) History E) Researcher bias Answer: A Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 22) Maturation is closely related to what other threat to internal validity?

A) Instrumentation B) Interaction C) History D) Mortality E) Researcher bias Answer: D Page Ref: 370 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 23) ________ threats to internal validity occur whenever an interview given before the start of an experiment has a direct effect on a respondent's responses during the experiment.

A) Premeasurement B) Historical C) Interaction D) Selection E) Researcher bias Answer: A Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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24) ________ threats to internal validity occur whenever an interview administered before the start of an experiment affects a respondent's sensitivity or responsiveness to the independent variable.

A) Premeasurement B) Historical C) Interaction D) Selection E) Researcher bias Answer: C Page Ref: 367 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) Premeasurement threats to internal validity occur after exposure to the independent variable.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 368 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 26) ________ threats to internal validity can result from repeated administrations of the same survey, when the survey is given once before the treatment and once again after the treatment.

A) Interaction B) Testing C) Instrumentation D) Historical E) Researcher bias Answer: B Page Ref: 368 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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27) ________ threats to internal validity refer to data outcomes that are not the result of the experimental manipulation, but are instead the result of changes in the data collection instrument.

A) Interaction B) Testing C) Instrumentation D) Historical E) Researcher bias Answer: C Page Ref: 368 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) Peg gives everyone participating in an experiment a pretest which measures attitudes toward the brand. When she examines this data, she notices problems with several of the questions. She revises these questions prior to their use on the post-test. This change could result in ________ threats to internal validity.

A) Interaction B) Testing C) Instrumentation D) Historical E) Researcher bias Answer: C Page Ref: 368 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 29) At the start of an experiment everyone is excited about their participation. Everyone takes a great deal of care in completing the pretest survey. The experiment takes five hours to complete.

At the end of the experiment, a post-test questionnaire is administered. Many of the respondents just want to get home, and so give only superficial answers to the post-test questions. This situation reflects a ________ threat to internal validity.

A) maturation B) selection C) mortality D) testing E) researcher bias Answer: A Page Ref: 370 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9 ..

30) ________ threats to internal validity occur whenever, at the start of the experiment, the test and control groups differ in terms of relevant demographics, attitudes, or behaviors.

A) Testing B) Mortality C) Researcher bias D) Selection E) Premeasurement Answer: D Page Ref: 370 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 31) ________ threats to internal validity arise when respondents drop out of the research between the pretest and the post-test and, as a result, it cannot be determined if differences between the two tests are the the result of the experimental treatment or are the result of different group characteristics at the two stages of measurement.

A) Mortality B) Researcher bias C) Selection D) Testing E) Premeasurement Answer: A Page Ref: 370 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 32) ________ threats to internal validity refer to any events or influences beyond those of the researcher that occur during the experiment and have the potential to affect the experimental outcome.

A) Testing B) Researcher bias C) Premeasurement D) Historical E) Mortality Answer: D Page Ref: 371 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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33) ________ are a poor attempt to uncover causal relationships.

A) True experimental designs B) Quasi-experimental designs Answer: B Page Ref: 372 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 34) The diagram shown below illustrates what type of experimental design?

A) quasi-experimental: one group post-test only B) quasi-experimental: one group pretest to post-test C) experimental: one group post-test only D) experimental: simulated pretest to post-test Answer: A Page Ref: 374 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 35) The diagram below illustrates what type of experimental

design A) quasi-esperimental: one group post-test only B) quasi-experimental: one group pretest to post-test C) experimental: one group pretest to post-test D) experimental: simulated pretest to post-test Answer: B Page Ref: 374 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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36) The diagram below illustrates what type of experimental design?

A) quasi-esperimental: two group post-test only B) quasi-experimental: two group post-test with control C) experimental: two group post-test only D) experimental: two group simulated pretest to post-test Answer: B Page Ref: 376 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 37) Consider the diagram shown below.

Assume that 50 people were assigned to each group. Which of the following would result in the best improvement to this design?

A) Increase sample size to 200 per group B) Use random assignment to place individuals in each group C) Decrease the time lag between pretest and post-test D) Restrict the group composition to include individuals of only one gender Answer: B Page Ref: 376 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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38) True experimental designs differ from quasi-experimental designs in that ________ designs use random assignment to groups.

A) true experimental B) quasi-experimental Answer: A Page Ref: 377 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 39) The random assignment of individuals to test and control groups is important because this procedure ________.

A) eliminates the possibility of problems associated with data collection B) guarantees the same number of men and women in each group C) reduces many of the threats to external validity D) reduces many of the threats to internal validity Answer: D Page Ref: 377 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 40) The diagram below illustrates what type of experimental

design?

A) simulated pretest - post-test B) post-test only with control C) pretest to post-test with control D) factorial design Answer: A Page Ref: 378 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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41) The diagram below illustrates what type of experimental design?

A) simulated pretest - post-test B) post-test only with control C) pretest to post-test with control D) factorial design Answer: C Page Ref: 379 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 42) The diagram below illustrates what type of experimental design?

A) simulated pretest - post-test B) post-test only with control C) pretest to post-test with control D) factorial design Answer: B Page Ref: 379 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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43) Which true experimental design is both the most powerful and the most resource-intensive?

A) Solomon four group B) pretest to post-test with control C) simulated pretest - post-test D) post-test only with control Answer: A Page Ref: 380 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 44) Which true experimental design controls for all internal threats to internal validity?

A) Solomon four group B) pretest to post-test with control C) simulated pretest - post-test D) post-test only with control Answer: A Page Ref: 380 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application 45) The following two statements refer to the structure of experiments.

I. An experiment can only manipulate one aspect or level of the independent variable at a time.

II. An experiment can only have one independent variable.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 380 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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46) Max and Tom have heard that if you drop Mentos into bottles of Diet Coke an explosion occurs. They conduct an experiment in which they vary the number of Mentos dropped into a bottle and the size (in ounces) of the Diet Coke bottle. This would be an example of a ________ experiment.

A) simulated pretest - post-test B) Solomon four group C) factorial D) pretest to post-test with control Answer: C Page Ref: 383 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking 47) Krathwohl notes that internal validity is greater when a change in the "cause" is followed by large changes in the "effect."

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 386 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 48) Krathwohl notes that internal validity is greater when the "effect" reinforces rather than reverses a prevailing tendency or condition.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 386 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 49) ________ validity is concerned with the extent to which the experimental results can legitimately be generalized beyond the narrow confines of the experiment itself.

A) External B) Internal C) Modified D) Correlational E) Statistical Answer: A Page Ref: 386 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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50) ________ experiments tend to have relatively high internal validity but relatively low external validity.

A) Laboratory B) Field Answer: A Page Ref: 387 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 51) What are the four primary steps in conducting an experiment?

Answer: -identify what you need to learn - take the relevant actions (conduct the experiment by manipulating one or more variables) - observe the effects and consequences of those actions on other variables, and then - determine the extent to which the observed effects can be attributed to actions taken Page Ref: 364 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 52) Define "independent" and "dependent" variable.

Answer: An independent variable is what the experiment manipulates. The dependent variable is what the researcher is interested in explaining.

Page Ref: 355 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 53) Why are random assignment and the use of control groups requirements for more powerful true experimental designs?

Answer: Random assignment allows the researcher to have confidence that test and control groups are equivalent prior to the start of the experiment. The presence of a control group eliminates many threats to internal validity.

Page Ref: 377 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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54) Imagine that the YTR advertising agency wants to conduct an experiment to determine the effect of increased advertising exposure on consumers' purchase intent. What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of conducting this experiment in a laboratory or in the field?

Answer: The lab experiment will have relatively higher internal validity but lower external validity. The reverse is true for the field experiment. The field experiment will have higher external validity but lower internal validity.

Page Ref: 387 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 55) Pete wants to determine whether changing the form of a paid search ad affects click-through.

He wants to change both wording and type color. He plans to run one experiment focusing on just the change in wording and a second experiment focusing on just the change in type color.

What is the better alternative to this plan?

Answer: A factorial design is the better alternative. This design would allow Pete to examine changes in both factors in a single experiment, as well as to determine whether there is a significant interaction between factors.

Page Ref: 383 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 15 Descriptive Statistics 1) Danny's teacher assigns grades as follows: 90% and over: A 80% to 89%: B 70% to 79%: C 69% or below: D Danny answers 41 questions correctly out of 50 possible. What is Danny's grade?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Page Ref: 396 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 2) On his last exam, Dennis answered 44 questions correctly out of 50 possible. What percentage of the questions did Dennis answer correctly?

A) 44 B) 64 C) 88 D) 94 Answer: C Page Ref: 396 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 3) On his last exam, Dennis missed 12 questions out of 50 possible. What percentage of the questions did Dennis answer correctly?

A) 24 B) 62 C) 72 D) 76 Answer: D Page Ref: 396 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 1 ..

4) The data below shows the distribution of men and women responding to a survey.

What percentage of the respondents were women?

A) 17 B) 33 C) 34 D) 66 Answer: C Page Ref: 396 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 5) Fifty individuals responded to a survey. The percentage of men and women is shown below.

How many survey respondents were men?

A) 10 B) 35 C) 45 D) 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 396 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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6) Francis has taken two exams in her advertising class. Both exams consisted of 100 questions.

On the first exam, Francis answered 57 questions correctly. On the second exam, she answered 93 questions correctly. What is Francis' overall average?

A) 70 B) 75 C) 93 D) 150 Answer: B Page Ref: 397 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 7) The following question was asked on an advertising test:

Ten people answer this question with the following responses: 1,2,3,2,3,3,2,1,5,5. What is the average relevance rating?

A) 2.0 B) 2.7 C) 10.0 D) 27.0 Answer: B Page Ref: 397 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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8) Consider the responses to a question measuring commercial believability (shown below).

What is the average believability rating?

A) 1.5 B) 2.5 C) 2.8 D) 28.0 Answer: C Page Ref: 397 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9) The ________ is the number that appears in the middle of an ordered set of data.

A) median B) mode C) standard score Answer: A Page Ref: 398 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) The ________ is the number in a set of scores that appears most often.

A) median B) mode C) standard score Answer: B Page Ref: 398 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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11) Eleven individuals respond to a survey question. They are asked to rate commercial relevance on a scale of 1 to 5. Their responses are: 2,3,5,4,2,4,2,2,1,1,2. The median in this set of scores is ________.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 398 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 12) Eleven individuals respond to a survey question. They are asked to rate commercial relevance on a scale of 1 to 5. Their responses are: 1,3,1,4,2,4,1,2,1,1,2. The mode in this set of scores is ________.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Page Ref: 398 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 13) Which of the measures shown below is most sensitive to extreme values?

A) Mean B) Median C) Mode Answer: A Page Ref: 399 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application

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14) The mean and mode, versus an average, are better descriptors of a distribution when ________.

A) the sample is not randomly selected.

B) the survey question has fewer than five options.

C) there are over 2,000 respondents in the sample.

D) the distribution is highly skewed.

Answer: D Page Ref: 399 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) A ________ distribution results in the same value for the mean, median and mode.

A) symmetrical B) left-skewed C) right-skewed Answer: A Page Ref: 400 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 16) A ________ distribution results in a median and mean higher than the mode.

A) symmetrical B) left-skewed C) right-skewed Answer: B Page Ref: 400 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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17) Tom is trying to summarize the housing values in his neighborhood. There are ten houses in total which fall into the following value ranges:

Which summary measure is most appropriate to summarize this data?

A) mean B) median or mode Answer: B Page Ref: 399 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 18) The ________ is a measure of a set of scores' dispersion.

A) mean B) median C) mode D) standard deviation Answer: A Page Ref: 399 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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19) Consider the survey question shown below.

One hundred people answer the question after seeing Commercial A and a different 100 people answer this question after seeing Commercial B. The average relevance for Commercial A was 3.0 and the average relevance for Commercial B was 3.0.

This means that the percentage of individuals selecting "Extremely relevant" was identical for the two commercials.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 401 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 20) Three groups of individuals each see an ad (labeled Ad1, Ad2, and Ad3 below). Consider the responses (shown below) to a question that asks whether a respondent was positive or negative toward the ad viewed.

The mean on this measure for all three commercials is the same. This means that the standard deviation for all three commercials is also the same.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 401 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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21) Three groups of individuals each see an ad (labeled Ad1, Ad2, and Ad3 below). Consider the responses (shown below) to a question that asks whether a respondent was positive or negative toward the ad viewed..

Which commercial, if any, will have the largest standard deviation?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) The standard deviation for all three commercials will be the same.

Answer: B Page Ref: 401 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 22) Consider the survey question shown below.

One hundred people answer the question after seeing Commercial A and a different 100 people answer this question after seeing Commercial B. The mean response on this measure for both commercials is 2.3. The standard deviation for Commercial A is 1.1 and the standard deviation for Commercial B is 1.9.

This means that dispersal of scores for Commercial B is larger than the dispersal of scores for Commercial A. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 401 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 9 ..

23) Two commercials are tested. Commercial A uses a five-point scale to measure believability while Commercial B uses a seven-point scale to measure believability. The different number of scale options prevents a comparison of the two scales' standard deviations.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 402 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 24) A key component of the formula used to compute standard deviation is the subtraction of the overall mean from each individual score.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 403 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 25) The first step in preparing data for analysis is to compute the mean for each appropriate measure.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 404 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 26) An initial review of data quality entails examining the percentage distribution for each question to see if there is anything "odd" in the pattern of response.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 404 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 27) You are examining the patterns of response on a survey prior to data analysis. You find one question where 100% of the respondents indicated that they "strongly agreed" that the commercial just viewed was entertaining. Since this is a positive finding, no further examination of the responses to this question is necessary.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 404 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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28) You are examining the patterns of response on a survey prior to data analysis. As a general rule of thumb, you should closely examine any question that has a relatively low overall completion rate.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 406 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 29) You are examining the pattern of response on a survey prior to data analysis. The examination of the data on the question level should be followed by a review of each individual respondent's pattern of response.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 406 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 30) After examining each individual's responses to a survey, you find that one respondent has failed to answer most of the questions. What is your best course of action?

A) Substitute the mean response on each question for the missing data B) Recontact the respondent and obtain the missing information C) Eliminate the respondent from the sample Answer: C Page Ref: 406 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 31) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for checklist questions?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine checklist data Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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32) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for nominal level measures?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine nominal level measures Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 33) At the end of your survey, you ask a classification question regarding respondent gender.

The response options are "male (coded 1)" and "female (coded 2)." Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for this question?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine responses to this question Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 34) Consider the data shown in the table below. The table shows responses to a classification question.

What percent of the sample is not enrolled in any school?

A) 9% B) 11% C) 55% D) cannot be calculated from the data shown Answer: B Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 12 ..

35) Consider the data shown in the table below. The table shows responses to a classification question.

What percent of the sample is currently enrolled in college at the undergraduate or advanced degree level?

A) 45% B) 64% C) 320% D) cannot be calculated from the data shown Answer: B Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

13 ..

36) Consider the data shown in the table below. The table shows responses to a checklist question.

What percent of the respondents found the commercial valuable?

A) 29% B) 49% C) 145% D) cannot be determined from the data provided Answer: A Page Ref: 411 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 37) There are three patterns of response for a series of checklist items. A respondent can check: (1) all positive items, (2) all negative items, or (3) a mix of both positive and negative items.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 412 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 38) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for ordinal level measures?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine ordinal level measures Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application

14 ..

39) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for ranking questions?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine responses to ranking questions Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 40) The table below shows the responses to a ranking question.

What percentage should replace the question mark?

A) 6 B) 66 C) 76 D) cannot be determined from the data provided Answer: A Page Ref: 414 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

15 ..

41) Consider the ranking data shown in the table below.

What is the "net best ranking" for Sprint?

A) -30% B) -2% C) 2% D) 30% Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 42) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for interval level measures?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine interval level measures Answer: D Page Ref: 415 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 43) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for rating scales?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine responses to a rating scale Answer: D Page Ref: 415 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

16 ..

44) When presenting rating scale data, it is never permissible to combine several response options, that is, to create a new category "agree" composed of those who "strongly agree" and "slightly agree."

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 416 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 45) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for constant sum questions?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine responses to a constant sum Answer: D Page Ref: 417 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 46) Which of the following descriptive statistics is (are) appropriate for ratio level measures?

A) percentages B) averages C) standard deviation D) all three are appropriate ways to examine responses to ratio level measures Answer: D Page Ref: 415 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 47) Think about a constant sum question. When determining the average number of points allocated to a particular object, you divide the total number of points given to that object (by all respondents) by the number of respondents answering the question.

A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 417 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

17 ..

48) The following two statements refer to subgroup analysis.

I.

Subgroup analyses are not necessary when the overall research findings are positive or reinforce pre-existing beliefs.

II. An analysis of subgroup data often provides deeper insights into data trends.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II is true Answer: B Page Ref: 418 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

18 ..

49) An advertiser conducts a taste test of Cherry Coke versus Cherry Pepsi and Dr. Pepper.

Ten respondents rate Coke and another ten rate Pepsi and another 10 rate Dr. Pepper. The scale used is: Excellent taste (1) Good taste (2) Neither good nor bad taste (3) Poor taste (4) Very poor taste (5) The ratings are shown below.

Brand:

Average;

Cherry Coke 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 3.0

Cherry Pepsi 1 2 3 4 3 4 4 4 2 2 3.0

Dr. Pepper 1 1 1 5 5 5 1 1 5 5 3.0

Denny, the researcher, concludes that reactions to Cherry Pepsi and Dr. Pepper are identical.

Is this conclusion correct? Why? Answer: No, this conclusion is not correct. Even though the overall means are the same, the underlying distributions are very different. All of the ratings for Cherry Pepsi are in the middle of the rating scale while the ratings for Dr. Pepper all lie at the extremes.

Page Ref: 418-419 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

19 ..

50) Below are responses to six checklist questions. An "x" indicates an item was checked.

Directions to the respondent said "Check all items that complete this sentence for you: The commercial made me feel …"

The first three items are considered negative, the second three items are considered positive.

Respondent # Sad Nervous Angry Uplifted Happy Special 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

x

x x

x

x x

x

x

x

x x x

x

x

What percentage of respondents expressed some opinion about the commercial?

Answer: 80% Page Ref: 408-411 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

20 ..

51) Below are responses to six checklist questions. An "x" indicates an item was checked.

Directions to the respondent said "Check all items that complete this sentence for you: The commercial made me feel …"

The first three items are considered negative, the second three items are considered positive.

Respondent # Sad Nervous Angry Uplifted Happy Special 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

x

x x

x

x x

x

x

x

x x x

x

x

What percentage of respondents expressed some negative sentiment toward the commercial?

Answer: 70% Page Ref: 408-411 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

21 ..

52) The data below shows ratings after viewing a commercial. All measures are measured on a scale of "1" being the most positive to "5" being the least positive.

Respondent Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Believability 1 2 4 5 2 4 5 2 1 4

Uniqueness 5 4 2 1 5 1 2 4 5 2

Relevance 2 1 5 4 4 4 5 4 2 4

What percent of the sample found the commercial to be both Believable and Relevant?

Answer: 30% (respondents 1, 2, and 9) Page Ref: 415-416 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 53) Why is it important to examine the data prior to starting formal data analysis?

Answer: "Bad" data can skew the analysis and distort the findings. It is important to base decisions on the best data available. "Bad" data therefore needs to be eliminated prior to the start of formal data analysis.

Page Ref: 404-406 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

22 ..

Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 16 Inferential Statistics 1) One group of individuals watches Commercial A. A different group of individuals watches Commercial B. After viewing the commercial, each group rates its intent to purchase the advertised product using a five-point scale where "5" is the best response. The average for Commercial A is 3.2 while the average for Commercial B is 4.4. Because there is more than a one-point difference between the two averages, no further statistical analyses are required to verify that the difference is not due to chance.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 2) What type(s) of statistics provide the basis for objectively determining the amount of confidence you can have in drawing conclusions about differences and relationships observed in a set of data?

A) Descriptive B) Inferential C) Both descriptive and inferential Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) ________ statistics help a researcher determine whether the observed difference between two or more measures is real and meaningful.

A) Inferential B) Descriptive C) Nomadic D) Synergistic E) Multimodal Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

1 ..

4) ________ statistics help a researcher determine whether the observed relationship between two or more measures is not due to chance.

A) Nomadic B) Inferential C) Synergistic D) Descriptive E) Multimodal Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 5) Statistical significance is expressed as a number between ________.

A) - 1 and 0 B) -1 and +1 C) 0 and +1 D) - 10 and 0 E) -10 and 10 Answer: C Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 6) Statistical significance is reported using the Greek letter ________.

A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) psi E) delta Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

2 ..

7) The level of ________ reflects the estimate that the observed difference or relationship between two variables is due to chance.

A) differential significance B) mathematical significance C) statistical significance D) statistical consequence E) differential consequence Answer: C Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 8) A .02 level of statistical significance indicates a ________ probability that the observed difference or relationship is due to chance.

A) 1% B) 2% C) 98% D) 100% Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 9) A .02 level of statistical significance indicates that we can be ________ certain that the observed difference or relationship is real and not due to chance.

A) 1% B) 2% C) 98% D) 100% Answer: C Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

3 ..

10) The two statements below refer to an alpha level. Which statement is TRUE? I.

An alpha level of .05 must always be used as the cut-off for determining statistical significance.

II. An alpha level of .05 is a well-accepted, yet arbitrary level for determining statistical significance.

A) I is true B) II is true Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) The data shown in the table below reports the attitudes of two groups of individuals toward Mustang. One group was exposed to Mustang advertising while the other was not. How many measures show a statistically significant impact of advertising exposure?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 435 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

4 ..

12) The following two statements refer to comparing a sample average to a population average.

I. You want to compare a sample average to a population average. The test you select depends upon the size of the sample population.

II. You are comparing a sample average to a population average. A Z-score of 2.08 is obtained. This means that the observed difference between the two averages is real and meaningful and not due to chance.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 437 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 13) You are comparing a sample average to a population average. A Z-score of 1.22 is obtained.

This means that the observed difference between the two averages is real and meaningful and not due to chance.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 437 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application 14) You are comparing a sample average to a population average. A Z-score of at least ________ is needed in order to conclude that the observed difference between the two averages is real and meaningful and not due to chance.

A) .05 B) 1.01 C) 1.96 D) 2.56 Answer: C Page Ref: 438 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application

5 ..

15) You want to compare a sample average to a population average. There are 140 people in the sample. You would use a ________ to determine statistical significance.

A) t-test B) r-test C) stat-test D) Z-test Answer: D Page Ref: 438-439 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) You want to compare a sample average to a population average. There are 25 people in the sample. You would use a ________ to determine statistical significance.

A) t-test B) r-test C) stat-test D) Z-test Answer: A Page Ref: 438-439 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) You want to compare a sample average to a population average. The sample population size is 130. The data table is shown below.

How many of the question marks represent required pieces of data?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 439 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

6 ..

18) Ford always asks consumers "Is Ford a quality vehicle?" after seeing a Ford commercial. The proportion saying "yes" is then compared to the proportion saying "yes" in the population of all Ford commercials. In order to determine statistical significance, a ________ would be used.

A) g-test B) stat-test C) Z-test D) r-test Answer: C Page Ref: 437 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) You show a group of individuals a commercial after which you ask "Which of the following auto manufacturers do you think has the highest quality?" A ________ would be used to examine the pattern of response to this question.

A) t-test B) chi-square test C) Z-test D) r-test Answer: A Page Ref: 438 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) Imagine that you have developed two ads that are to be placed into rotation in Google Adwords. While both ads will be shown in response to the same search terms, the ads differ in the benefit they offer the consumer: the first ad stresses customer service while the second ad stresses low prices. Adwords lets you monitor the purchase amount resulting from the clickthrough for each of the ads. What statistical test is appropriate for determining whether one ad is statistically superior to the other?

A) F-test B) t-test C) Chi-square D) Z-test Answer: A Page Ref: 440-441 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

7 ..

21) When the data being examined is at the interval or ratio level of measurement a(n) ________ can be used to determine if the responses of different subgroups are statistically significant.

A) F-test B) r-test C) Chi-square D) Z-test Answer: A Page Ref: 440-445 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 22) The two statements below refer to factorial designs.

I.

A factorial design allows you to make judgments about the simultaneous influence of two or more variables.

II. Factorial designs allow you to determine if there is an interaction between the variables.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 445 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 23) A significant interaction indicates that variables work independently while a nonsignificant interaction indicates that the combined impact of one or more variables is greater (or less) than the influence of each variable individually.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 445 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

8 ..

24) When planning a factorial study, one factor always needs to have exactly two levels.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 445 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) You are planning a factorial research study. There are three variables. One variable, tone, uses either a humorous or a serious approach. A second variable, length, uses either a 30 second or a 60 second message. A third variable, music, uses either a classical, pop, or rap soundtrack in the background. This study would be considered a ________ design.

A) 2 x 2 B) 2 x 2 x 2 C) 3 x 2 D) 2 x 2 x 3 Answer: D Page Ref: 446 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

9 ..

26) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The data and results of the F-test are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) neither factor is significant, no interaction between factors B) one factor is significant, no interaction between factors C) one factor is significant, with an interaction between factors D) two factors are significant, no interaction between factors Answer: A Page Ref: 446-447 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

10 ..

27) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

A chart of the data and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) neither factor is significant, no interaction between factors B) one factor is significant, no interaction between factors C) one factor is significant, wth an interaction between factors D) two factors are significant, no interaction between factors Answer: A Page Ref: 447 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

11 ..

28) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The data and results of an F-test are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) neither factor is significant, no interaction between factors B) a male spokesperson is more effective versus a female, humor does not make a difference C) a female spokesperson is more effective versus a male, humor does not make a difference D) types of spokesperson and humor both affect commercial effectiveness Answer: B Page Ref: 448 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

12 ..

29) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The data and results of the F-test are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) neither factor is significant, no interaction between factors B) a male spokesperson is more effective versus a female, humor does not make a difference C) a female spokesperson is more effective versus a male, humor does not make a differencce D) types of spokesperson and humor both affect commercial effectiveness Answer: B Page Ref: 449 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

13 ..

30) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The data and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) When humor is present, the gender of the spokesperson does not affect reactions to the commercial, but when humor is absent, reactions are much more positive when the commercial uses a male versus female spokesperson.

B) A female spokesperson is always more effective versus a male. There is an interaction between factors.

C) When humor is absent, the gender of the spokesperson does not affect reactions to the commercial, but when humor is present, reactions are much more positive when the commercial uses a male versus female spokesperson.

D) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female. There is an interaction between factors.

Answer: A Page Ref: 449 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

14 ..

31) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The data and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) When humor is present the gender of the spokesperson does not affect reactions to the commercial, but when humor is absent, reactions are much more positive when the commercial uses a male versus female spokesperson.

B) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female. There is no interaction between factors.

C) When humor is absent, the gender of the spokesperson does not affect reactions to the commercial, but when humor is present, reactions are much more positive when the commercial uses a male versus female spokesperson.

D) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female. There is an interaction between factors.

Answer: A Page Ref: 450 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

15 ..

32) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The findings and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) A female spokesperson is always more effective versus a male; the presence or absence of humor does not make a difference.

B) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female; the presence or absence of humor does not make a difference.

C) A female spokesperson is always more effective versus a male; the presence of humor results in more effective commercials versus those where humor is absent.

D) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female; the presence of humor results in more effective commercials versus those where humor is absent.

Answer: C Page Ref: 451 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

16 ..

33) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The findings and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) A female spokesperson is always more effective versus a male; the presence or absence of humor does not make a difference.

B) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female; the presence or absence of humor does not make a difference.

C) A female spokesperson is always more effective versus a male; the presence of humor results in more effective commercials versus those where humor is absent.

D) A male spokesperson is always more effective versus a female; the presence of humor results in more effective commercials versus those where humor is absent.

Answer: C Page Ref: 452 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

17 ..

34) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The findings and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) neither factor is significant, no interaction between factors B) one factor is significant, no interaction between factors C) two factors are significant, with a significant interaction between factors D) neither factor is significant, with a significant interaction between factors Answer: D Page Ref: 452 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

18 ..

35) You conduct a factorial research study which has two variables with two aspects of each variable. The variables and their aspects are: gender of spokesperson (male or female) and humor (present or absent). The goal of all four ads is to improve attitudes toward the brand, using the measure "How much do you agree or disagree with the statement: This is a brand for me" as the key measure. A five point-scale was used where higher scores indicate more agreement.

The findings and F-test results are shown below.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from this data?

A) neither factor is significant, no interaction between factors B) one factor is significant, no interaction between factors C) two factors are significant, wth a significant interaction between factors D) neither factor is significant, with a significant interaction between factors Answer: D Page Ref: 453 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 36) A correlation is a measure of the covariance between two or more variables.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 453 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

19 ..

37) A correlation coefficient between "commercial believability" and "brand purchase intent" is +1. This means that high ratings of commercial believability cause increased purchase intent.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 455 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 38) The range of a correlation coefficient is ________.

A) 0 to +1 B) - 1 to 0 C) .01 to 1 D) - 1 to +1 Answer: D Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 39) The correlation between "commercial relevance" and "message importance" is +.63. This means that ratings of commercial relevance and message importance rise or fall together, as one increases (or decreases) so does the other.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 40) The correlation between "message believability" and "commercial liking" is -.73. This means that ratings of message believability and commercial liking rise or fall together, as one increases (or decreases) so does the other.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 41) The correlation between "commercial relevance" and "message importance" is -.89. The negative sign indicates that this is a weak correlation that can be ignored.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

20 ..

42) It is not possible to determine the statistical significance of a correlation coefficient.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 455 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 43) A statistically significant correlation indicates causation.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 44) Statistical significance does not always imply practical or meaningful significance.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 457 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

21 ..

45)

What is the best estimate of the correlation shown in the graph?

A) -1 B) -.3 C) 0 D) +.2 E) +.9 Answer: C Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

22 ..

46) The correlation matrix below provides the results of a recent commercial test. A * indicates a statistically significant correlation.

Age

Income

Rating of ad believability

Rating of ad liking

Age Income

1.0 .57*

1.0

Rating of ad believability

-.38

.02

1.0

Rating of ad liking

.09

-.05

.87*

1.0

Purchase intent

-.15

.04

.83*

.57*

Purchase intent

1.0

What conclusions can you draw about (1) age and (2) ratings of ad believability?

Answer: (1) Age is significantly related to income. As age goes up so does income; as age decreases so does income. Age is not related to any of the commercial ratings. (2) Ad believability is significantly related to both ad liking and purchase intent. As ad believability rises so do the other two measures; commercial liking and purchase intent decline as believability declines.

Page Ref: 456 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

23 ..

47) The correlation matrix below provides the results of a recent commercial test. A * indicates a statistically significant correlation.

Age

Income

Rating of ad believability

Rating of ad liking

Age

1.0

Income

.57*

1.0

Rating of ad believability

-.38

.02

1.0

Rating of ad liking

.09

-.05

.87*

1.0

Purchase intent

-.15

.04

.83*

.57*

Purchase Intent

1.0

The researcher concludes: "This is good news. The more we increase the commercial's believability the more we can cause purchase intent to rise."

Do you agree or disagree with this conclusion?

Answer: The conclusion is wrong. We cannot infer causation from correlation.

Page Ref: 454 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 48) Explain the concept of "statistical significance."

Answer: Statistical significance helps you to decide whether the differences you see in the averages (or percentages) between two or more groups are "real" or whether they are due to chance. Similarly, statistical significance tells you whether the relationship you see between two variables is real or due to chance. Statistical significance is expressed as a number between 0 and 1. The level of significance represents the probability that the difference you see is due to chance. The lower the number the less chance plays in the results and, as a consequence, the more the confidence you can have that the difference is a real one.

Page Ref: 434 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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49) What is a factorial design? What is the primary advantage of conducting an experiment using a factorial design versus simultaneous or sequential experiments with single factor manipulations in each experiment?

Answer: A factorial design manipulates two or more variables at the same time where each variable has two or more levels. A factorial design, versus multiple single factor experiments, allows you to discover the interaction (if any) between factors.

Page Ref: 445 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 50) Explain the statement "let statistical tests guide, not replace, your judgment."

Answer: Levels of statistical significance are accepted, but arbitrary. Don't confuse statistical significance with practical significance. Don't confuse the lack of significance with the lack of importance.

Page Ref: 457 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 17 Segmentation 1) A consumer ________ study seeks to break down a population of individuals into smaller subgroups where individuals in a specific subgroup are similar to each other in terms of important characteristics and possess characteristics different from individuals in other groups.

A) response B) reduction C) segmentation D) insights E) selection Answer: C Page Ref: 469 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) A successful segmentation study results in groups which are internally ________.

A) homogeneous B) heterogeneous C) homological D) heterological Answer: A Page Ref: 469 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) A successful segmentation study is ________ across groups.

A) homogeneous B) heterogeneous C) homological D) heterological Answer: B Page Ref: 469 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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4) Because each segment is homogeneous with respect to the basis for the segmentation, advertisers expect individuals in a segment to respond in a similar way to the same communication plan and messages.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 471 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 5) Advertisers conducting segmentation expect the same message to appeal to multiple segments.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 471 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) Segmentation permits advertisers to increase the relevance and potential impact of their messages.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 471 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 7) The use of segmentation to increase message relevance is particularly true of messages communicated via e-mail.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 472 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 8) Segmentation contributes to more effective communications planning because it is usually easier to create and take advantage of new versus pre-existing segments.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 472 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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9) As discussed in the text, Jello is an example of an advertiser using segmentation to identify and take advantage of a small, but untapped, consumer segment.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 472 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 10) Consider the criteria shown below. How many of these criteria does the text recommend be used to evaluate a segment's characteristics for communication targeting?

- size - use of social media - technological sophistication - potential message responsiveness A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 473 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) When conducting segmentation research, ________ variables represent the basis for segment formation.

A) evaluative B) separation C) descriptive D) classification E) articulation Answer: D Page Ref: 474 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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12) When conducting segmentation research, ________ variables are used to describe the internal characteristics of each segment after they are formed.

A) evaluative B) explanatory C) descriptive D) classification E) articulation Answer: D Page Ref: 474 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 13) The following two statements refer to the types of variables used in a segmentation study.

I. When conducting a segmentation study, demographics must always be used as a classification variable.

II. When conducting a segmentation study, psychographics must always be used as a descriptive variable.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 474 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 14) Variables used in segmentation research fall into one of four broad categories. These categories are: demographics, geography, psychographics, and relevant attitudes/behaviors.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 474 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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15) Age and gender are types of ________ variables.

A) demographic B) psychographic C) geographic D) relevant attitude/behavior Answer: A Page Ref: 474-475 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 16) The text discussed the Pew generational segmentation study. In this research, age was used as the sole ________ variable.

A) evaluative B) explanatory C) descriptive D) classification E) examination Answer: D Page Ref: 469-470 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 17) The text discussed the Pew generational segmentation study. In this research, online and related behaviors/attitudes were used as ________ variables.

A) evaluative B) explanatory C) descriptive D) classification E) examination Answer: C Page Ref: 469-470 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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18) Consider the different types of variables shown below. How many would be considered demographic variables?

- age - marital status - household composition - life stage A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 474-475 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 19) The text states that "Marketers who understand regional differences in product preferences can make certain that the characteristics of their products respond to the needs and desires of a particular region." Marketers who engage in this type of practice are most likely to use ________ segmentation.

A) demographic B) geographic C) psychographic D) life stage E) exploratory Answer: B Page Ref: 477 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 20) The term ________ describes an individual's general attitudes, motivations, values, and lifestyle.

A) pseudographic B) psychogeneral C) psychographic D) segraphic Answer: C Page Ref: 477 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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21) ________ segmentation assumes that what people think, how they are motivated, and how they lead their lives are often strong determinants or predictors of their use of specific types of goods and services as well as their choice to participate (or not participate) in certain behaviors.

A) Pseudographic B) Psychogeneral C) Psychographic D) Segraphic Answer: C Page Ref: 477 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 22) Imagine that you conduct a segmentation study for McDonald's. Individuals are assigned to different segments based on the amount of fast food they consume in an average week. This would be an example of segmentation based on ________.

A) product-related attitudes B) life stage C) psychographics D) product usage Answer: D Page Ref: 480 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 23) Imagine that you conduct a segmentation study for McDonald's. Individuals are assigned to different segments based on the percentage of all their fast food consumption which takes place at McDonald's in an average week. This would be an example of a segmentation based on ________.

A) product-related attitudes B) brand loyalty C) psychographics D) motivations Answer: B Page Ref: 480 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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24) Imagine that you conduct a segmentation study for McDonald's. Individuals are assigned to different segments based on the reasons why they eat at fast food restaurants. This would be an example of a segmentation based on ________.

A) product-related attitudes B) brand loyalty C) needs or benefits D) psychographics Answer: C Page Ref: 481 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 25) The first step in original segmentation research is to explicitly state the research question(s).

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 482 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 26) Imagine that in preparation for a segmentation study, Mary identified 178 potential variables.

She should incorporate all of these variables into the final questionnaire without any additional analysis.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 484 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 27) Questionnaire pilot or pretesting is not recommended for segmentation research.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 484 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 28) When forming segments, it is important that responses to the classification variables be similar within segments and different across segments.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 485 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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29) Think about presenting the results of a segmentation study. A ________ can be created for each individual segment. This document typically names a segment, provides a picture of that segment's typical member and then lists the key characteristics, values, behaviors, and beliefs of the segment.

A) summary sheet B) persona C) narrative D) spec sheet Answer: A Page Ref: 487 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 30) Think about presenting the results of a segmentation study. A ________ can be created for each individual segment. This document provides a "literary" description of the segment and its defining characteristics, values, behaviors, and beliefs.

A) summary sheet B) persona C) narrative D) spec sheet Answer: C Page Ref: 487 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual 31) Think about presenting the results of a segmentation study. A ________ can be created for each individual segment. This document names and describes the typical individual in a segment, communicating all segment characteristics as a reflection of that single individual within the segment.

A) summary sheet B) persona C) narrative D) spec sheet Answer: B Page Ref: 487 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Conceptual

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32) The three primary approaches to syndicated segmentation are: psychographic, product usage, and ________.

A) residential geographic B) geopsychographic C) geopolitical D) geodemographic Answer: D Page Ref: 491 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 33) VALS is an example of a syndicated ________ segmentation.

A) psychographic B) demographic C) geodemographic D) life stage Answer: A Page Ref: 492 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 34) VALS divides the U.S. population into ________ individual segments.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: A Page Ref: 493 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 35) VALS divides the U.S. adult population using two primary dimensions. One dimension is motivation. The second dimension is ________.

A) literacy level B) technological sophistication C) resources D) brand loyalty Answer: C Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual

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36) VALS includes three primary motivations that matter for understanding consumer behavior: ideals, achievement, and ________.

A) self-expression B) selflessness C) self-determination D) self-indulgence Answer: A Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 37) Energy, self-confidence, intellectualism, novelty seeking, innovativeness, impulsiveness, leadership, and vanity (along with demographics) are used by VALS to determine an individual's ________.

A) literacy level B) technological sophistication C) resources D) brand loyalty Answer: C Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 38) According to VALS, ________ with many resource constraints, (e.g., little money, poorer health, low tolerance for risk) consume little and are motivated mostly by low cost and brand familiarity.

A) Strivers B) Believers C) Innovators D) Survivors E) Thinkers Answer: D Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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39) According to VALS, ________ are successful, sophisticated, take-charge people with high self-esteem. Because they have such abundant resources, they exhibit all three primary motivations in varying degrees.

A) Innovators B) Believers C) Strivers D) Thinkers E) Makers Answer: A Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 40) According to VALS, the Ideals group consists of the Thinkers and ________ segments.

A) Innovators B) Strivers C) Achievers D) Believers E) Experiencers Answer: D Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 41) According to VALS, the Achievement-oriented group consists of the Strivers and ________ segments.

A) Achievers B) Strivers C) Experiencers D) Believers E) Makers Answer: A Page Ref: 495 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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42) According to VALS, the Self-Expression group consists of the Experiencer and ________ segments.

A) Believers B) Makers C) Strivers D) Achievers E) Thinkers Answer: A Page Ref: 495 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 43) According to VALS, ________ are motivated by ideals. They are mature, satisfied, comfortable, and reflective people who value order, knowledge, and responsibility. They tend to be well-educated and actively seek out information in the decision-making process. They are well-informed about world and national events and are alert to opportunities to broaden their knowledge. They have a moderate respect for the status quo institutions of authority and social decorum, but are open to consider new ideas. Although their incomes allow them many choices, they are conservative, practical consumers. They look for durability, functionality, and value in the products they buy.

A) Achievers B) Thinkers C) Strivers D) Makers E) Experiencers Answer: B Page Ref: 495 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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44) According to VALS, ________ are motivated by ideals. They are conservative, conventional people with concrete beliefs based on traditional, established codes: family, religion, community, and the nation. Many express moral codes that are deeply rooted and literally interpreted. They follow established routines, organized in large part around home, family, community, and social or religious organizations to which they belong. As consumers, they are predictable; they choose familiar products and established brands. They favor American products and are generally loyal customers.

A) Believers B) Makers C) Strivers D) Experiencers E) Achievers Answer: A Page Ref: 495 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 45) According to VALS, ________ are motivated by self-expression. As young, enthusiastic, and impulsive consumers, they quickly become enthusiastic about new possibilities, but are equally quick to cool. They seek variety and excitement, savoring the new, the offbeat, and the risky.

Their energy finds an outlet in exercise, sports, outdoor recreation, and social activities. They are avid consumers and spend a comparatively high proportion of their income on fashion, entertainment, and socializing. Their purchases reflect the emphasis they place on looking good and having "cool" stuff.

A) Innovators B) Believers C) Experiencers D) Achievers E) Thinkers Answer: C Page Ref: 496 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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46) According to VALS, ________ are motivated by self-expression. They express themselves and experience the world by working on it - building a house, raising children, fixing a car, or canning vegetables - and have enough skill and energy to carry out their projects successfully.

They are practical people who have constructive skills and value self-sufficiency. They live within a traditional context of family, practical work, and physical recreation and have little interest in what lies outside that context. They are suspicious of new ideas and large institutions such as big business. They are respectful of government authority and organized labor, but resentful of government intrusion on individual rights. They are unimpressed by material possessions other than those with a practical or functional purpose. Because they prefer value to luxury, they buy basic products.

A) Thinkers B) Strivers C) Achievers D) Makers E) Believers Answer: D Page Ref: 496 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 47) According to VALS, ________ have goal-oriented lifestyles and a deep commitment to career and family. Their social lives reflect this focus and are structured around family, their place of worship, and work. They live conventional lives, are politically conservative, and respect authority and the status quo. They value consensus, predictability, and stability over risk, intimacy, and self-discovery. With many wants and needs, they are active in the consumer marketplace. Image is important to them. They favor established, prestige products and services that demonstrate success to their peers. Because of their busy lives, they are often interested in a variety of time-saving devices.

A) Achievers B) Experiencers C) Makers D) Thinkers E) Believers Answer: A Page Ref: 495 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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48) According to VALS, ________ are trendy and fun loving. They are concerned about the opinions and approval of others. Money defines success for those in this segment, who don't have enough of it to meet their desires. They favor stylish products that emulate the purchases of people with greater material wealth. Many see themselves as having a job rather than a career, and a lack of skills and focus often prevents them from moving ahead. They are active consumers because shopping is both a social activity and an opportunity to demonstrate to peers their ability to buy. As consumers, they are as impulsive as their financial circumstances will allow.

A) Believers B) Strivers C) Makers D) Innovators E) Experiencers Answer: B Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 49) Consider the Mediamark (MRI) data shown below.

Which brand(s) have an average proportion of women in their user base?

A) Tresbon B) TresBon and Fident C) Fident and Islands D) Islands Answer: A Page Ref: 498 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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50) Consider the Mediamark (MRI) data shown below.

What percent of Fident users are women?

A) 6.1% B) 63.2% C) 121% Answer: B Page Ref: 498 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 51) Consider the Mediamark (MRI) data shown below.

What percent of all women use Islands?

A) 1.6% B) 6.1% C) 74.4% D) 143% Answer: A Page Ref: 498 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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52) Mediamark and Experian Simmons both report an index as part of their data base. An index of ________ and above is considered to be an indication of above average group composition.

A) 90 B) 100 C) 110 D) 115 E) 135 Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 53) Mediamark and Experian Simmons both report an index as part of their data base. An index of below ________ is considered to be an indication of below average group composition.

A) 70 B) 80 C) 85 D) 100 E) 115 Answer: C Page Ref: 499 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual 54) ________ segmentation is an analysis of people in terms of where they live. It accomplishes this analysis by dividing the United States into very small geographic areas and then describing the individuals who live in that area in terms of demographics, media usage, lifestyle choices, possessions, and purchase behaviors. The core premise of this segmentation is that similar people live in similar places, partake in similar activities, share common beliefs, and live similar lifestyles, in other words, that "birds of a feather flock together."

A) Urban B) Geodemocratic C) Neighborhood D) Geodemographic Answer: D Page Ref: 502 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Conceptual

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55) Briefly describe two reasons why advertisers use segmentation.

Answer: Any two of the following are acceptable: - Segmentation permits advertisers to increase the relevance (and thus potential impact) of their messages. In this regard, segmentation provides the information required for the planning and presentation of advertising communications that exactly fit and respond to the characteristics, needs, attitudes, and lifestyles of a unique segment of a broader target audience.

- Segmentation permits an advertiser to respond to the current structure and realities of the marketplace. It is usually easier to take advantage of market segments that already exist than to try to create new segments.

- Segmentation helps refine and increase the efficiency of communication plans. The identification of a specific segment's media preferences helps a media planner better match media selection with target audience media habits.

- Segmentation helps an advertiser uncover new opportunities in secondary, but typically smaller, segments.

Page Ref: 471 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 56) Briefly describe four criteria that advertisers use to select segments .

Answer: Any four of the following are acceptable. _ Size. Is the segment of sufficient size to justify the expenditures of time and energy required to develop a customized communication program?

- Media Accessibility. Can members of the segment be efficiently reached though traditional and new media vehicles?

- Message Availability. Can a communication message or appeal be created that responds to the unique attitudes, needs, and behaviors of segment members?

- Responsiveness. If a communication message can be developed, to what extent are members of the segment likely to pay attention and respond to this message in the desired way?

- Sustainability. Is the segment stable or likely to grow for the long term, or is the segment likely to disappear or merge with other segments?

- Evaluation. Can efforts toward the segment be measured in order to determine the strengths, weaknesses, and outcomes of the communication campaign?

- Profitability. If the communication campaign is successful, will this result in sufficient increases in sales to justify the campaign?

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- Competition. To what extent do competitive brands have an interest in the segment? Will communication efforts have to combat heavily entrenched brands?

- Defendability. If the communication campaign is successful, is there likely to be a significant competitive response? Can such a response be defended against?

- Compatibility. Are members of the segment, and the types of products they desire, compatible with existing or desired company goals, perspectives, and objectives?

Page Ref: 473 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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57) A segmentation study was conducted to explore attitudes toward classical music and symphony attendance. Responses to key attitude questions are shown below.

ANY SCORE 4.0 OR OVER IS SIGNIFICANTLY HIGHER THAN THE OVERALL AVERAGE INDICATING MORE AGREEMENT. ANY SCORE 2.0 OR LESS IS SIGNIFICANTLY BELOW THE OVERALL AVERAGE INDICATING LESS AGREEMENT.

Which group is best named "Snobby Sally and Sam"? Why? Answer: Group 1. This group is much more likely than average to agree with "Classical music is an acquired taste," "It takes a refined person to enjoy classical music" and "A symphony concert is a place to think and reflect." They are less likely to agree with "There are too many snobs at symphony concerts."

Page Ref: 485-487 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO5 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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58) Explain the role of motivation and resources in the creation of VALS segments.

Answer: Motivation. The concept of primary motivation explains consumer attitudes and anticipates behavior. VALS includes three primary motivations that matter for understanding consumer behavior: ideals, achievement, and self-expression. Consumers who are primarily motivated by ideals are guided by knowledge and principles. Consumers who are primarily motivated by achievement look for products and services that demonstrate success to their peers.

Consumers who are primarily motivated by self-expression desire social or physical activity, variety, and risk.

Resources. A person's tendency to consume goods and services extends beyond age, income, and education. Energy, self-confidence, intellectualism, novelty seeking, innovativeness, impulsiveness, leadership, and vanity play a critical role. These psychological traits in conjunction with key demographics determine an individual's resources. Various levels of resources enhance or constrain a person's expression of his or her primary motivation Page Ref: 494 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO6 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 18 Brand Mapping 1) ________ maps provide a visual representation of consumers' attitudes, typically in terms of the perceived strengths and weaknesses of brands that compete in the same category.

A) Perceptual B) Personification C) Symbolic D) Judgment E) Picture Answer: A Page Ref: 516 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) Perceptual maps inform advertisers with regard to the ________ consumers use to evaluate brands.

A) numeric criteria B) scale C) dimensions D) scope E) range Answer: C Page Ref: 516 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) A dimension is a broad descriptor which represents a group of related, individual product ________.

A) signs B) attributes C) symbols D) names E) enhancements Answer: B Page Ref: 516 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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4) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

Which is the best quadrant for a brand to be in?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: B Page Ref: 516-518 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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5) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

Which is the worst quadrant for a brand to be in?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: D Page Ref: 516-518 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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6) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

Which quadrants represent a mix of brand strengths and weaknesses?

A) I and II B) I and IV C) I and III D) II and III E) II and IV Answer: C Page Ref: 516-518 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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7) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

Which brand is in the strongest competitive position?

A) Bebo B) Facebook C) Myspace D) Zanga Answer: B Page Ref: 518-519 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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8) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

What needs to be added to this map in order to determine the single brand that is in the strongest competitive position?

A) average brand ratings B) additional brands in the upper left quadrant C) additional brands in the lower left quadrant D) the ideal brand E) additional brands in the lower right quadrant Answer: D Page Ref: 518 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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9) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

Which brand is in the weakest competitive position?

A) Myspace B) Bebo C) Zanga D) Zorpia E) Yahoo! 360 Answer: E Page Ref: 518 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) The creation of a perceptual map begins with a list of specific category attributes.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 518 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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11) Data collection underlying the creation of a perceptual map requires that every brand be evaluated on every attribute.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 520 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 12) What type of measure collects the data used to create a perceptual map?

A) multiple choice questions B) dichotomous questions C) rating scale D) constant sum questions E) semantic differential Answer: C Page Ref: 520 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) ________ is used to determine the number of dimensions consumers use to evaluate brands.

A) Factor analysis B) Chi-square C) Analysis of variance D) Multi-modal analysis E) Hybrid analysis Answer: A Page Ref: 520 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 14) You conduct a factor analysis leading to the creation of perceptual maps. Four factors have been identified. How many perceptual maps, in total, need to be created in order to plot all combinations of factors?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: D Page Ref: 520 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 8 ..

15) You conduct a perceptual mapping study. The following data is obtained from the initial factor analysis.

What would be the most appropriate number of factors to select for the next step of the analysis.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 521 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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16) You conduct a perceptual mapping study. The following data is obtained from the initial factor analysis.

The question mark should be replaced with ________.

A) 0.0 B) 7.8 C) 8.9 D) 11.1 E) cannot be determined from the information provided Answer: C Page Ref: 521 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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17) You conduct a perceptual mapping study for shampoo and decide that it is a three-factor solution. The computer then determines the extent to which each attribute is associated with each factor. The data is shown below.

Which factor(s) contain three attributes?

A) Factor 1 B) Factor 2 C) Factor 3 D) Both Factors 1 and 2 E) Both Factors 2 and 3 Answer: B Page Ref: 522-523 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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18) You conduct a perceptual mapping study for shampoo and decide that it is a three-factor solution. The computer then determines the extent to which each attribute is associated with each factor. The data is shown below.

The attribute "untangles hair" is most closely related to which other attribute (from the list below)?

A) Repairs split ends B) Makes hair easy to style C) Revitalizes hair D) One bottle lasts a long time E) Renews hair's natural vitamins Answer: B Page Ref: 522-523 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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19) You conduct a perceptual mapping study for shampoo and decide that it is a three-factor solution. The computer then determines the extent to which each attribute is associated with each factor. The data is shown below.

Which factor is best labeled "Best/worst for healthy hair?"

A) Factor 1 B) Factor 2 C) Factor 3 Answer: B Page Ref: 522-523 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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20) A perceptual mapping study was conducted to explore consumers' perceptions of various brands of television sets. Two dimensions were discovered: Picture Quality and Sound. The average ratings for different brands, as well as the Ideal brand, on each dimension is shown below. The scale range is from + 3 to -3.

The brand that is best positioned to meet consumers' preferences is brand ________.

A) A B) B C) D D) F E) H Answer: B Page Ref: 523-524 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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21) A perceptual mapping study was conducted to explore consumers' perceptions of various brands of television sets. Two dimensions were discovered: Picture Quality and Sound. The average ratings for different brands, as well as the Ideal brand, on each dimension is shown below. The scale range is from + 3 to -3.

In order to move closer to the Ideal, Brand E needs to primarily generate more positive perceptions of its ________.

A) picture quality only B) sound quality only C) both picture quality and sound quality Answer: B Page Ref: 523-524 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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22) A perceptual mapping study was conducted to explore consumers' perceptions of various brands of television sets. Two dimensions were discovered: Picture Quality and Sound. The average ratings for different brands, as well as the Ideal brand, on each dimension is shown below. The scale range is from + 3 to -3.

Which brand has the least developed brand image?

A) A B) D C) E D) G E) H Answer: A Page Ref: 523-524 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 23) When thinking about advertising strategy, the brand closest to the Ideal brand would most likely try to defend and maintain its competitive position.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 525 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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24) You conduct a perceptual mapping study and decide that three dimensions are required.

Then, as part of data analysis, you divide the sample into two groups: younger men and older men. The ratings of both groups for your brand, as well as the Ideal brand, are shown below. The scale range is +3 to -3.

The two groups of men ________ that all three dimensions are important in the purchase decision.

A) agree B) disagree Answer: B Page Ref: 523 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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25) You conduct a perceptual mapping study and decide that three dimensions are required.

Then, as part of data analysis, you divide the sample into two groups: younger men and older men. The ratings of both groups for your brand, as well as the Ideal brand, are shown below. The scale range is +3 to -3.

Consider the following two statements: I.

The two groups of men have similar images of your brand.

II. You could improve your brand's position in the marketplace for both groups of men if you improve your brand's image on Dimension 3.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 523 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 26) Correspondence maps, similar to perceptual maps, provide explicit insights into the dimensions consumers use to evaluate brands.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 529 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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27) The creation of correspondence maps requires that data be collected at the ________ level of measurement.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

19 ..

28) Consider the correspondence map shown below.

Which brand most closely competes with Brand A? A) Brand B B) Brand C C) Brand E D) Brand F Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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29) Consider the correspondence map shown below.

Which attribute shown below is the most valued by consumers?

A) Excellent selection B) Reliable phones C) Excellent service D) Knowledgeable salespeople Answer: C Page Ref: 530 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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30) Consider the correspondence map shown below.

Your client, who does not appear on the map, asks if the company should stress the reliability of their phones or excellent value. What is your recommendation?

A) stress reliability B) stress excellent value C) either attribute is equally good to stress Answer: B Page Ref: 530 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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31) Consider the correspondence map shown below.

You have been hired as a consultant to Company G. Which of the following would be the best recommendation to make?

A) Continue to stress the reliable phones and knowledgeable salespeople B) Shift emphasis to billing accuracy C) Shift emphasis to value and works anywhere Answer: C Page Ref: 530 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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32) Brand concept maps focus on ________ brand(s).

A) only one B) exactly two C) three or more Answer: A Page Ref: 531 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 33) The first step in the creation of a brand concept map is ________.

A) aggregation B) mapping C) elicitation Answer: C Page Ref: 531 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 34) The last step in the creation of a brand concept map is ________.

A) aggregation B) mapping C) elicitation Answer: A Page Ref: 531 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 35) Think about the creation of a brand concept map. The ________ step identifies the most important brand associations.

A) aggregation B) mapping C) elicitation Answer: C Page Ref: 532 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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36) Think about the creation of a brand concept map. Only quantitative research can be used in the elicitation state.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 531 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 37) Think about the creation of a brand concept map. It is advantageous to have different types of individuals in the mapping and elicitation stages of data collection.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 532 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 38) Think about the creation of a brand concept map. The ________ step is where a researcher codes the maps created by each individual respondent and then, based on the data obtained, uses a set of decision rules to combine the individual maps in one master exemplar map.

A) aggregation B) mapping C) elicitation Answer: A Page Ref: 532 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 39) The end goal of brand concept map creation is a set of maps, each of which represents the perceptions of a single individual.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 532 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 40) In a brand concept map, the ________ the number of lines linking two attributes the greater the association.

A) greater B) fewer C) larger Answer: A Page Ref: 533 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25 ..

41) A brand concept map allows an advertiser to see important brand associations and how these associations are connected in the consumers' mind.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 533 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 42) Perceptual maps for the same brands often change across different consumer segments.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 538 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 43) Consider the following two statements with regard to the use of perceptual maps.

I. Plotting current and potential customers on the same map can make an important contribution to strategic decision making.

II. The use of before and after perceptual maps can track advertising impact.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 538 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 44) Research using perceptual maps has shown that advertising has the power to change the dimensions consumers use to evaluate brands.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 540 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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45) You conduct a perceptual mapping study for automobiles and decide that it is a three-factor solution. The label assigned to each factor is shown in the Table below. The table also shows the average rating of each brand (plus the Ideal brand) on each factor using a scale of -5 to +5.

Which brand is in the strongest competitive position? Which brand is in the weakest competitive position? Why? Answer: Brand E is in the strongest position, being the closest to the Ideal brand. Brand F is in the weakest position. This brand is the furthest from Ideal and is the only brand to be placed in Quadrant IV (reflecting the complete absence of any positive perceptions.)

Page Ref: 522 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 46) You conduct a perceptual mapping study for automobiles and decide that it is a three-factor solution. The label assigned to each factor is shown in the Table below. The table also shows the average rating of each brand (plus the Ideal brand) on each factor using a scale of -5 to +5.

How does the Ideal brand help you better understand consumers' desires in this product category?

Answer: The Ideal brand is rated near the positive end on all three dimensions. This indicates that consumers simultaneously want all three benefits.

Page Ref: 522 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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47) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

Yahoo!360 wants to move closer to the Ideal, but realizes that it is best to address only one dimension at a time. With regard to Yahoo!360's first actions, would you recommend that it try to improve perceptions of it's "cutting-edge" new web site, or instead focus on the new web site's "ease of use?"

Answer: A focus on "ease of use" would probably be better. This would move Yahoo!360 into a quadrant with only one other brand, while an emphasis on "cutting-edge" would move the brand into a very crowded quadrant.

Page Ref: 528-529 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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48) Consider the perceptual map shown below.

What are three options open to Facebook should it want to improve its competitive position.

Answer: (1) Move itself closer to the Ideal, leave Zanga alone. (2) Degrade perceptions of Zanga. (3) Do not move Facebook, but move the Ideal closer to Facebook.

Page Ref: 524-525 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 49) Think about brand concept maps. What actions are likely for an advertiser in an instance where their desired positioning matches consumers' perceptions?

Answer: Defend and reinforce the current positioning. Protect core brand associations for dilution or erosion.

Page Ref: 535-536 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 19 Advertising Testing: Concept and Communications Tests 1) Concept and communication tests take place during the final stages of the advertising development process.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) A ________ focuses on messages and message evaluation outside of the context of actual executions.

A) creativity B) concept C) communication D) construction E) centrality Answer: B Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 3) A ________ focuses on how well messages are conveyed and reactions to the message, both within the context of alternative executions.

A) creativity B) concept C) communication D) construction E) centrality Answer: C Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 4) The purpose of concept and communication tests is to ________.

A) select a "winner" B) identify the "losers" C) collect diagnostic information on strengths and weaknesses Answer: C Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking 1 ..

5) A(n) ________ is a simple, written expression of a positioning, benefit, reason for being or unique communication proposition.

A) ad sketch B) communique C) creative D) concept E) ad outline Answer: D Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 6) Which of the following is NOT recommended when writing a concept?

A) use puffery B) avoid exaggeration C) avoid salesmanship D) present the core idea simply E) present the core idea realistically Answer: A Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 7) Consider the two statements shown below.

I. Concept tests can be used to identify and then compare the strengths and weaknesses of alternative benefits or positionings.

II. Concept tests can be used to identify the strengths and weaknesses of alternative approaches to communicating a selected positioning.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 549 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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8) The use of visuals and headlines are important, required components of a concept.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 551-552 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 9) Which of the following is NOT an important consideration in writing the body copy for a concept?

A) use short paragraphs B) use active, declarative sentences C) keep all word length to seven letters or less D) avoid sentence fragments E) keep overall length short Answer: C Page Ref: 551 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) When preparing body copy for a concept it is important to ________.

A) keep the copy focused and single-minded B) try and communicate as many product benefits as possible C) keep each paragraph focused on a different benefit D) use copy that closely resembles final advertising copy Answer: A Page Ref: 551 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) A concept test ________ succinctly summarizes the main communication idea and provides an explicit lead-in to the body copy.

A) visual B) tag line C) lead paragraph D) headline Answer: D Page Ref: 551 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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12) A concept test headline should closely resemble the headline that will be used in the final advertisement.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 551 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) The following may or may not describe acceptable practice in writing a concept test headline.

- Use catchy phrases - Use sentence fragments - Use simple declarative statements - Use provocative questions How many, if any, of these recommendations are allowable when writing a concept test headline?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 551 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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14) The following may or may not describe acceptable practice in the writing of concept test tag lines.

- Be highly focused - Use a brief phrase - Be single-minded - Be believable How many, if any, of these recommendations are allowable when writing a concept test tag line?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: E Page Ref: 552 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) Consider the two statements below which refer to concept test visuals.

I.

Visuals can be used when they are an essential part of the intended communication.

II. Visuals can be used when they are needed for brand, service, or other identification purposes.

Which, if any, of these guidelines should be followed when preparing a concept?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II should both be followed D) Neither I nor II should be followed Answer: C Page Ref: 552 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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16) Another name for communication testing is ________ research.

A) copy development B) creative decision C) advertising development D) institutional E) copy change Answer: A Page Ref: 552 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 17) Communication testing typically ________ concept testing.

A) is conducted at the same time as B) comes before C) follows Answer: C Page Ref: 552 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 18) Advertisements in communication research are tested in a rough stage of development.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) The following statements refer to the format of print ads used in a communication test.

I.

Print ads should be actual size.

II. Print ads can use drawings instead of photographs.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6 ..

20) Which of the following is NOT a recommended format for the communication testing of television ads?

A) storyboard B) animatic C) photomatic Answer: A Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 21) A (n) ________ is a storyboard on film or tape accompanied by a rough soundtrack.

A) storyboard B) animatic C) photomatic Answer: B Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 22) A (n) ________ is the recommended choice for a television ad communication test whenever a drawing is an inadequate representation, such as showing appetizing food.

A) storyboard B) animatic C) photomatic Answer: C Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 23) The body copy in a communication test should be identical to that proposed for the finished advertisement.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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24) Think about data collection for either a concept or communication test. It is appropriate to ________.

A) only use a qualitative approach to data collection B) only use a quantitative approach to data collection C) use either qualitative or quantitative approach to data collection Answer: C Page Ref: 555 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25) Concept and communication tests ________ A) can only be be conducted by specialized research companies B) can only be conducted by the advertising agency C) can be conducted either by the advertising agency or by a specialized research company Answer: C Page Ref: 556 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 26) A concept or communication test begins with ________.

A) an explanation of the task and stimulus materials B) payment of the incentive C) identification of the research sponsor D) the collection of information regarding respondents' media habits E) the collection of information regarding respondents' attitudes toward advertising Answer: A Page Ref: 557 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 27) A concept or communication test gives respondents ________ to initially read the stimulus.

A) five minutes or less B) up to ten minutes C) up to fifteen minutes D) an unlimited amount of time Answer: D Page Ref: 567 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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28) When a concept or communication test involves four or more stimuli, these stimuli are ________ .

A) presented one at a time, and each is fully discussed before proceeding to the next B) presented in pairs, with discussion of both stimuli in the pair taking place at the same time C) presented all at the same time, and each is discussed in turn D) presented all at the same time, and all are discussed at the same time Answer: A Page Ref: 567 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking 29) In a concept or communication test, after the stimulus is presented and read, it is then removed prior to the start of the interview or group discussion.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 567 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 30) Think about concept and communication tests. ________ approaches to data collection begin the interview with open-ended questions.

A) Only qualitative B) Only quantitative C) Both qualitative and quantitative Answer: C Page Ref: 567 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 31) Think about concept and communication tests. An investigation of message recall is carried out through the use of a(n) ________.

A) open-ended question B) rating scale C) dichotomous question D) semantic differential E) constant sum question Answer: A Page Ref: 557 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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32) Think about concept and communication tests. ________ precedes the collection of affective reactions.

A) Reactions to the graphic design B) Reactions to the message C) Reactions to the interviewer D) The answering of any respondent questions Answer: B Page Ref: 568 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 33) Think about concept and communication tests. In quantitative approaches, reactions to the message are collected via ________.

A) only closed-ended questions B) only open-ended questions C) a combination of both open- and closed-ended questions Answer: C Page Ref: 568 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 34) Think about concept and communication tests. Initial questions probing reactions to the message focus on the extent to which respondents feel that the message is important and ________.

A) creative B) interesting C) relevant D) motivating E) inspiring Answer: C Page Ref: 568 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 35) Think about concept and communication tests. The areas explored in reactions to the message probe the extent to which respondents feel the message is believable, unique and easy to understand.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 568 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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36) Think about concept and communication tests. In quantitative approaches, affective reactions are collected via ________.

A) only closed-ended questions B) only open-ended questions C) a combination of both open- and closed-ended questions Answer: C Page Ref: 569 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 37) Think about concept and communication tests. Questions related to affective reactions primarily try to identify respondents' likes and dislikes.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 569 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 38) Think about concept and communication tests. When exploring affective reactions, it is recommended that a respondent always be asked "What did you like?" prior to asking "What did you dislike?"

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 569 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 39) Think about concept and communication tests. When exploring message or execution specific issues it is recommended that ________ questions be used.

A) open-ended B) rating scale C) multiple choice D) constant sum E) semantic differential Answer: A Page Ref: 569 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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40) Think about concept and communication tests. At the end of the test, you want to explore attitudinal or behavior impact. In this regard, consider the two questions shown below.

I. Based on what you read, how likely are you to recycle?

II. Based on what you read, would you say that you are now more or less likely to recycle?

According to the text, which would be the preferred approach?

A) I is preferred B) II is preferred C) Either approach is acceptable Answer: C Page Ref: 569 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 41) The analysis of concept and communication test data requires data summarization and the uncovering of underlying relationships.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 571 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application 42) Data summarization in concept and communication tests should include an analysis of total sample responses as well as the responses of specific subgroups of individuals.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 571 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Application

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43) Think about data analysis for a concept or communication test. The statements below refer to exploring the relationship between two measures.

I.

Correlation is an appropriate statistical technique.

II. It is acceptable to cross-tabulate an open-ended question with a closed-ended question.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 573 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 44) The Healthy Eating research discussed in the text was designed to select the "winning" concept. This winning concept would then be produced without modification.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 579 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 45) The Secondhand Smoke research discussed in the text used ________ to collect the required data.

A) only qualitative methods B) only quantitative methods C) both qualitative and quantitative methods Answer: C Page Ref: 580 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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46) What role does a communication test play in the advertising development process?

Answer: Once advertisers know what they want to say there are still multiple options with regard to how to communicate that message. An advertiser could, for example, use a celebrity spokesperson, slice-of-life, or other creative approach. A communication test allows an advertiser to identify the strengths and weaknesses of each approach prior to determining the final approach to use.

Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 47) What role does a concept test play in the advertising development process?

Answer: Early in the advertising planning process, advertisers must determine the message that should be selected and communicated. This is often a difficult decision as more than one message may be relevant and motivating to the target audience. Concept tests help guide this decision by identifying the relative strengths and weaknesses of alternative messages, allowing advertisers to subsequently craft a message that capitalizes on identified strengths and eliminates identified weaknesses.

Page Ref: 547 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 48) Why is it important to be single-minded in concept test body copy?

Answer: The rule of "one idea-one concept" is important because it reduces ambiguity in data interpretation. Successful concept test research allows one to determine the relationship between the core idea expressed in the concept and consumer response. When the concept body copy single-mindedly focuses on one core idea, positive or negative consumer response can reasonably be attributed to the relative appeal of the concept's core idea and expressed product benefit. On the other hand, placing multiple ideas or benefits in the concept's body copy confuses the interpretation of the results. An overall neutral response to the concept might reflect an overall blase consumer response, or it might reflect the average of two extremes - strong positive response to one core idea and a strong negative response to a second core idea in the same concept.

Page Ref: 551 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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49) Briefly list two important considerations to keep in mind when communication research is done in a focus group setting.

Answer: Any two of the following are acceptable.

Individuals in group settings are typically reluctant to admit liking advertising. As a result, negative reactions to executions need to be probed to distinguish true unfavorable responses from "knee-jerk" negative responses.

Complex concepts and executions take time to process, especially in group settings. The more complex the stimulus, the greater the amount of time that should be allowed for reflection prior to response.

"Group-think" can be a problem. Initial negative responses can bias the entire group.

Group members may have a tendency to "speak first" and then post-rationalize their comments.

Respondents should be given time to think and formulate the rationale for their comments before the start of discussion.

The presentation of multiple concepts or executions runs a risk of bias, where reactions to the initial stimuli influence reactions to later stimuli.

Page Ref: 556 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 50) Why are the initial questions in a concept or communication test asked in an open-ended way?

Answer: Initiating the interview with this type of question works well for two reasons: it begins the interview in a nonthreatening way, and it provides a respondent with the opportunity to describe in his or her own words the thoughts and feelings associated with the stimulus before the moderator or questionnaire more narrowly focuses the interview. Since the topics mentioned by respondents are those most "top of mind," issues raised here tend to be significant.

Page Ref: 567 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 20 Post-Production Advertising Testing and Optimization 1) Copy testing research is ________ in nature.

A) evaluative B) diagnostic C) serialized D) synergistic E) symbolic Answer: A Page Ref: 594 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) The following criteria refer to aspects of copy testing of television advertising.

- the naturalness of the viewing situation - the number of advertising exposures - the amount paid to respondents - the timing of data collection According to the text, how many of these criteria are valuable in distinguishing different approaches to copy testing?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 594 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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3) There are two main approaches to how respondents are exposed to a commercial in a copy test. One way is via a VHS or DVD that contains a prerecorded television program in which the test commercial has been inserted. What is the second approach?

A) Show the test commercial in the context of an actual television broadcast.

B) Show the test commercial over a private ROKU channel.

C) Upload and show the commercial on a dedicated YouTube channel.

D) Invite the respondents to a central facility for viewing.

E) Email the commercial for home viewing.

Answer: A Page Ref: 594 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 4) The two statements below refer to copy testing methodologies.

I. All copy testing companies collect the exact same set of measurements.

II. All copy testing companies collect data immediately after commercial viewing.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 594 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 5) The name of Gallup & Robinson's copy testing service is: A) Inteletest B) Copy Test 1000 C) Copy Intelligence D) CreativeSelect E) SmartChoice Answer: A Page Ref: 594 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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6) Gallup & Robinson's copy testing methodology shows the test commercial ________ A) in the context of an actual television broadcast B) over a private ROKU channel C) in the context of a prerecorded program distributed via VHS or DVD D) via a dedicated YouTube channel E) after a password protected link is clicked on the Gallup & Robinson website Answer: C Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 7) Individuals participating in a Gallup & Robinson copy test are aware that the goal of the research is to collect information on commercial effectiveness.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 8) Gallup & Robinson define commercial ________ as the commercial's ability to break through the clutter and communicate an advertiser or brand name.

A) congruity B) relevance C) intrusiveness D) salience E) appeal Answer: C Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 9) According to Gallup & Robinson, levels of recall are the key measures associated with commercial ________.

A) persuasion B) believability C) intrusiveness D) relevance E) appeal Answer: C Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 3 ..

10) According to Gallup & Robinson, "favorable buying attitude" is a key measure of commercial ________.

A) persuasion B) believability C) intrusiveness D) relevance E) appeal Answer: A Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 11) Commercial copy testing companies provide norms to help advertisers interpret their results.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 595, 597 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 12) Gallup & Robinson asks respondents how much they agree or disagree with the statement "This commercial is one of the best I've seen recently." This is a measure of commercial ________.

A) excellence B) relevance C) persuasion D) clutter E) recall Answer: A Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 13) Mapes and Ross' copy testing methodology shows the test commercial ________.

A) in the context of an actual television broadcast B) over a private ROKU channel C) in the context of a prerecorded program distributed via VHS or DVD D) via a dedicated YouTube channel E) after a password protected link is clicked on the Gallup & Robinson website Answer: A Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 4 ..

14) Mapes and Ross' copy testing methodology is named ________.

A) Natural Exposure B) Copy Exposure C) NaturalResponse D) Native Exposure E) RealTest Answer: A Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 15) The primary metric in Mapes and Ross' copy testing methodology is ________.

A) liking B) communication C) persuasion D) recall Answer: C Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) Mapes and Ross defines commercial ________ as the ad's ability to change or maintain preference and interest toward the advertised brand.

A) liking B) communication C) persuasion D) recall Answer: C Page Ref: 595 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 17) According to Mapes and Ross, ________ is a measure of respondents' ability to link the advertised brand to the commercial from a category description.

A) unaided recall B) aided recall C) unaided persuasion D) aided persuasion E) unaided communication Answer: A Page Ref: 596 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 5 ..

18) Mapes and Ross' copy testing methodology does not collect any measures related to commercial communication.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 596 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) Mapes and Ross' copy testing methodology collects data ________ commercial viewing.

A) immediately after B) 12 hours after C) the day after D) two days after E) one week after Answer: C Page Ref: 596 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 20) Mapes and Ross' copy testing methodology measures commercial persuasion by comparing pre-exposure brand preferences to post-exposure brand preferences.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 596 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 21) The text notes that the closer a copy testing methodology is to "real world" exposure, the more accurately the results will reflect "real world" advertising performance and consumer response. Which copy testing company's methodology is closest to the "real world."

A) Gallup & Robinson B) Mapes and Ross Answer: A Page Ref: 596 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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22) Mapes and Ross and Gallup & Robinson measure commercial persuasion in the same way.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 595-596 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 23) ________ allow advertisers to compare reactions to their test commercial to an objective, external criterion.

A) Paradigms B) Calibration C) Criteria D) Norms E) Research rules Answer: D Page Ref: 597 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 24) Split-run and A/B tests permit an advertiser to compare a current approach to advertising to one or more potential alternatives.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 597 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25) A ________ test permits an advertiser to compare a current approach to print advertising to one or more potential alternatives.

A) A/B B) Split-run C) Bi-modal D) Multi-modal E) Split-synergy Answer: B Page Ref: 597 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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26) A(n) ________ test permits an advertiser to compare a current approach to online advertising to one or more potential alternatives.

A) A/B B) Split-run C) Bi-modal D) Multi-modal E) Split-synergy Answer: A Page Ref: 597 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 27) A split-run test is a variation of the ________ research design.

A) pretest - post-test B) post-test only C) Solomon four group D) factorial Answer: B Page Ref: 599 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) You want to compare the performance of your current banner ad against the performance of a potential new ad. You would use a(n) ________ methodology.

A) split-run B) A/B C) multivariate D) multi-modal Answer: B Page Ref: 600 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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29) The following are potential considerations for A/B testing.

- the length of the test - rotation of test and control ads - Characteristics of current and test ads How many of these are mentioned by the text as important considerations in the planning of an A/B test?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: D Page Ref: 602 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 30) The following two statements refer to the length of an A/B test.

I. The length of an A/B test should reflect the amount of time required for participants to take action.

II. The length of an A/B test should reflect the amount of time required for a sufficient sample size to be obtained.

How many, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 603 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 31) When planning an A/B test, an advertiser has only one option: to have the test ad reflect a single, incremental change versus the current ad.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 604 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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32) The following statements refer to potential limitations of A/B testing.

I. When single changes are instituted sequentially, A/B testing takes a significant amount of time in order to continuously test and compare modified ads to the current "best" ad.

II. When multiple changes are made all at once, it is impossible to say which specific changes affected the outcome.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 605 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 33) ________ designs are appropriate whenever an advertiser needs to determine the simultaneous effect of relatively few manipulations that have multiple levels (or aspects) of each manipulation.

A) Quasi-experimental B) Solomon four-group C) Full factorial D) Multivariate Answer: C Page Ref: 605 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 34) Imagine that you are conducting research to explore the effects of different manipulations on responses to online advertising. You are using a 2 x 2 x 3 design. How many different versions of the ad would be needed?

A) 4 B) 6 C) 7 D) 12 Answer: D Page Ref: 606 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 10 ..

35) Imagine the following research study: The research manipulates two factors: ad placement on the page and ad shape. "Placement" has three manipulations: absolute top of page above all content, integrated with content in center of page, standing alone on right-hand side of page.

"Shape" has three manipulations: rectangular, small square and large square. What type of factorial design is this?

A) 2 x 2 B) 3 x 3 C) 2 x 2 x 2 D) 3 x 2 x 3 Answer: B Page Ref: 606 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 36) ________ research provides a solution to situations in which full factorial designs are not practical due to a large number of factors and levels. Multivariate testing uses a subset of all possible combinations in order to estimate the effects of all combinations.

A) Quasi-experimental B) Solomon four-group C) Exploded factorial D) Multivariate Answer: D Page Ref: 608 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 37) An advertiser is considering a multivariate test. The test will manipulate eight characteristics with two aspects (or levels) of each characteristic. In total, the advertiser needs to create ________ different stimuli.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: E Page Ref: 610 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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38) One advantage of multivariate testing over A/B and full factorial designs is that multiple changes in communication stimuli can be tested and evaluated all at once, reducing the amount of time and cost associated with other approaches.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 610 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 39) ________ campaign evaluation is common for advertising placed in media where continuous data collection is possible. Data gathered in concurrent evaluations is typically behavioral and is collected throughout the campaign.

A) Systematic B) Tracking C) Concurrent D) Sequential E) Multi-modal Answer: C Page Ref: 612 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 40) ________ campaign evaluation might monitor and collect data on the number of Web site visits generated by a campaign, track the number of banner ad click-throughs, or monitor the number of "forwards" of the viral videos comprising a communication campaign.

A) Systematic B) Tracking C) Concurrent D) Sequential E) Multi-modal Answer: C Page Ref: 612 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual

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41) ________ campaign evaluation is a "point-in-time" evaluation of advertising effects for advertising typically placed in traditional media.

A) Systematic B) Tracking C) Concurrent D) Sequential E) Multi-modal Answer: B Page Ref: 612 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 42) ________ campaign evaluation typically requires a reference group in order to adequately evaluate campaign effects.

A) Systematic B) Tracking C) Concurrent D) Sequential E) Multi-modal Answer: B Page Ref: 612 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual 43) How many of the criteria shown below are part of the FTC's determination of advertising deception?

- The ad makes a representation, has an omission, or uses a practice that is likely to mislead the consumer.

- The representation, omission, or practice is misleading when examined from the perspective of a reasonable consumer.

- The advertiser must admit that the advertisement has the potential to deceive.

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Page Ref: 625 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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44) The following two statements refer to the sampling in deceptive advertising copy testing research.

I. The FTC requires a minimum sample size of 250.

II. The FTC requires nonprobability samples.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 626 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 45) The FTC has responded favorably to copy test designs that use control groups to help distinguish prior knowledge from knowledge acquired as the direct result of advertising exposure.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 627 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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46) List and briefly describe the four dimensions that distinguish between different company's approaches to television advertising copy testing.

Answer: - The naturalness of the viewing situation. Research companies generally take one of two approaches to advertising exposure. Some companies expose respondents to the test commercial in the context of an actual television broadcast. Other companies provide respondents with a VHS tape or DVD that contains a prerecorded television program in which the test commercial has been inserted.

- The number of advertising exposures. Data collection can take place after one or more exposures to the advertising.

- The timing of data collection. Companies vary with regard to the amount of time elapsed between commercial exposure and data collection. Some approaches collect data immediately after commercial exposure, while other may wait one or more days.

- The types of data collected. Available measures vary among copy testing companies. For any particular copy testing company, normative measures can include one or more of the following: advertising recall, message communication, brand attitude shift, buying intention, pre-post brand preference, attitudes toward the advertising, attitude toward the message.

Page Ref: 594 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills 47) Provide a brief description of a yellow pages split run test.

Answer: The test ad and control (current) ad are each printed in half of the directories, for example, the test ad is printed in each even numbered directory and the control ad is printed in each odd numbered directory. Directories are distributed in a market in a way that assures comparable distribution for the test and control ad.

Each yellow pages ad in a split-run test would contain a telephone number unique to that ad; that is, the telephone number appearing in the ad would not be available from any other source. The unique telephone number in each ad is then monitored by a specialized research company hired by the directory publisher or advertiser. When a consumer places a call (using the special number in the yellow pages ad), the call is seamlessly transferred to the regular business number of the advertiser, and is handled in the usual way. Neither the consumer calling in nor the person at the business answering the call is aware that the call is being measured. However, in the process of transferring the call, call-specific information is recorded and compiled with regard to: (a) time of the call, (b) length of the call, (c) time the call ended, and (d) where available, the name and address of the caller.

Page Ref: 599 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15 ..

48) What are the two limitations of A/B testing?

Answer: When single changes are instituted sequentially, A/B testing takes a significant amount of time in order to continuously test and compare modified ads to the current "best" ad. When multiple changes are made all at once, it is impossible to say which specific changes affected the outcome.

Page Ref: 605 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 49) Imagine that a multivariate e-mail test has been conducted by the American Savings Association (ASA). The results are shown below. The five manipulations appear as the column headers while the data beneath each column notes the contribution (to click-through) made by that manipulation when it is present or absent.

Which manipulation has the greatest overall effect on click-through? Which manipulation has the least overall effect? Why? Answer: "Recipient personalization" exerts the greatest effect. Click-through is greatly enhanced when it is present and greatly diminished when it is absent. The "from address" has minimal impact. It makes little difference if the from address is personalized or just noted as "from ASA." Page Ref: 609 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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50) Imagine that a multivariate e-mail test has been conducted by the American Savings Association (ASA). The results are shown below. The five manipulations appear as the column headers while the data beneath each column notes the contribution (to click-through) made by that manipulation when it is present or absent.

Mary and Peter look at the results. Mary says that "Our next e-mail should not have recipient personalized, but should have images, a short subject line, a personalized from address, and be short in length." Peter says that "Our new e-mail should have recipient personalization, and it should not have images. In addition, the e-mail should have a long subject line, a personalized from address, and be long in length." Who is making the better recommendation? Why? Answer: Peter's recommendation is better. Peter's recommendation will result in a +2.3% above average click-through rate while Mary's recommendation will result in a -1.5% click-through rate when compared to the average.

Page Ref: 609 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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Advertising Research: Theory and Practice, 2e (Davis) Chapter 21 Reporting Research 1) Clarity and conciseness are important attributes of a well-prepared research report.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 636 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 2) Tom uses the phrase "due to the fact that" in a report. It would have been better to say ________ .

A) significantly noting that B) instead of C) because D) allowing for the fact that E) as a consequence of Answer: C Page Ref: 636 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 3) Amy uses the phrase "in accordance with the preponderance of the analytical results" in a report. It would have been better to say ________ A) the planned analysis shows an overwhelming trend toward B) the results indicate C) the data and subsequent analyses provide insights into D) the significant and key insights provided by the data are Answer: B Page Ref: 636 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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4) Calvin wrote the following in a research report: "The identified factor which has been determined to exert a significance influence." It would have been better for Calvin to say ________ A) an unrelated factor B) a factor of known influence C) an influential factor D) a factor which the research determined to be influential Answer: C Page Ref: 636 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 5) The suggestions below refer to increasing report clarity and conciseness.

- eliminate unnecessary words - use formal language; don't write like you talk - avoid long run-on sentences How many of these suggestions should be followed when writing a research report?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Page Ref: 637 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) The ________ voice in report writing increases interest, brevity, and clarity.

A) formal B) active C) passive D) technical Answer: B Page Ref: 637 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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7) It is recommended that research reports be written in the ________ voice.

A) formal B) active C) passive D) technical Answer: B Page Ref: 637 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 8) Jargon and technical terminology hinder communication when they are used with audiences who are not specialists and who, therefore, do not understand what the terms mean.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 637 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 9) The need for clarity and conciseness in report preparation apply ________.

A) only to the written portion of the report B) only to the visuals used in the report C) to both the written and visual portions of the report Answer: C Page Ref: 638 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) ________ refers to the smooth flow of thoughts in a research report.

A) Systemics B) Congruence C) Synchronization D) Harmony E) Coherence Answer: E Page Ref: 638 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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11) The text recommends that a draft research report go through ________ separate reviews.

A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: B Page Ref: 639 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual 12) The text suggests that the first (initial) review of a research report focus on ________.

A) content and material B) mechanics and organization C) spelling, grammar and sentence structure D) fonts and margins E) layout and visual appeal Answer: A Page Ref: 639 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) The text suggests that the second review of a research report focus on ________.

A) content and material B) mechanics and organization C) spelling, grammar and sentence structure D) fonts and margins E) layout and visual appeal Answer: B Page Ref: 639 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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14) The text suggests that the third review of a research report focus on ________.

A) content and material B) mechanics and organization C) spelling, grammar and sentence structure D) fonts and margins E) layout and visual appeal Answer: C Page Ref: 639 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) The ________ page is a research report's first or cover page.

A) heading B) focus C) inscription D) title E) ownership Answer: D Page Ref: 640 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 16) How many of the following belong on a research report's title page?

- research project title - date report was prepared - restrictions related to distribution or confidentiality - the research budget - the names of primary agency and client personnel involved in the research project A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Page Ref: 640 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking

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17) A research report title page can incorporate graphics or other visuals if appropriate.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 640 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 18) All but the shortest research reports require a table of contents.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 640 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 19) A research report's executive summary should contain information related to how many of the following?

- study background and purpose - study budget - methodology - client and agency personnel involved in the research A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 641 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) In a research report, the ________ section provides a context for approaching and using the information gathered by the research. It presents the research objectives and rationale for the research project in greater detail than that presented in the executive summary.

A) background B) primary findings C) action item D) accomplishment E) foundation Answer: A Page Ref: 643 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 6 ..

21) In a research report, the ________ section summarizes the specific decisions related to sampling and data collection. There is a description of: who participated in the research, why these individuals were selected for participation, key questions asked, how the data was collected, and when the research took place.

A) background B) primary findings C) methodology D) outcomes E) planning Answer: C Page Ref: 645 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 22) When presenting research findings, it is important that the presentation of findings follows the order of the survey questions, that is, present the results of Question 1, followed by Question 2, etc.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 646 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 23) After an examination of all of the findings, a researcher must decide which of the findings provide important insights and which are merely interesting. The former should be in the findings section; the latter should be placed in ________.

A) a separate report B) the appendix C) the cover memo D) a follow-up e-mail Answer: B Page Ref: 646 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual

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24) A research report's ________ contains material that is too complex, too detailed, or otherwise inappropriate for the main sections of the report.

A) appendix B) letter of transmittal C) cover memo D) supplement Answer: B Page Ref: 646 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 25) A research report should exclusively focus on the findings. A discussion of recommendations and next steps should be placed in a separate document.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 647 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Conceptual 26) The two statements below refer to the use of PowerPoint for research presentations.

I. PowerPoint slides should be used as the jumping-off point for more detail and should not be viewed as the complete communication.

II. The use of PowerPoint forces a reconsideration of your argument in the same way as a written document does.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 648 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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27) The two statements below refer to the use of PowerPoint for research presentations.

I.

When preparing PowerPoint slides, it is important that each slide focus on a single idea.

II. Use the "build" function to control information flow and focus attention.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: C Page Ref: 648-649 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) The two statements below refer to the use of PowerPoint for research presentations.

I.

No more than five fonts should be used.

II. A picture or other visual/graphic should appear on every slide.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 648-649 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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29) The two statements below refer to the researcher as presenter.

I. The presenter shows respect for the audience by being prepared and knowing the material.

II. The presentation should be paced in a way that is best for the presenter.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: A Page Ref: 650 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 30) The two statements below refer to the effective use of tables and charts.

I. It is appropriate for one table or chart to communicate multiple ideas.

II. One important criteria for evaluating the "goodness" of a chart is that it looks pretty.

Which, if any, of these statements is (are) true?

A) I only B) II only C) I and II are both true D) Neither I nor II are true Answer: D Page Ref: 651-652 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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31) Consider the two charts shown below.

These charts are examples of ________.

A) acceptable, visually interesting charts B) junk charts Answer: B Page Ref: 653 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 32) ________ are most appropriate for providing exact figures on either a single topic or multiple related topics.

A) Numeric tables B) Bar charts C) Pie charts D) Line charts Answer: A Page Ref: 654 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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33) The following may or may not be a required component of a numeric table.

- a descriptive title on the top of the table - the number of respondents in each group is shown - all numbers are rounded to the same level of precision - decimal points are aligned How many of the prior are actual requirements for a properly prepared numeric table?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: E Page Ref: 654 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 34) ________ are most appropriate whenever the goal is to compare changes over time.

A) Numeric tables B) Bar charts C) Pie charts D) Line charts Answer: B Page Ref: 654 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 35) When using a bar chart to present nominal or ordinal level data, it is typically best to order the bars from lowest to highest (or highest to lowest) rather than following the order of the response options as they appeared on the questionnaire.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 656 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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36) ________ are most appropriate whenever you need to visually represent a share or segment of the whole, for example, a proportion or a percentage.

A) Numeric tables B) Bar charts C) Pie charts D) Line charts Answer: C Page Ref: 657 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 37) An ________ pie chart does not draw visual emphasis to any one specific segment.

A) unexploded B) articulated C) exploded D) unarticulated E) integrated Answer: A Page Ref: 659 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 38) ________ are most appropriate for displaying data trends, especially trends over time.

A) Numeric tables B) Bar charts C) Pie charts D) Line charts Answer: D Page Ref: 659 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 39) When constructing a line chart, it is generally not recommended to create the chart so that the two vertical axes each represent different measures and each line is read against a different axis.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 660 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual

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40) ________ in a qualitative report indicate the extent to which members of the sample agreed or disagreed with regard to a particular point.

A) Statistical findings B) Summaries of consensus C) Individual respondent comments Answer: B Page Ref: 661 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 41) The use of numeric data (for example, 90%) is appropriate ________.

A) only in quantitative reports B) only in qualitative reports C) in both qualitative and quantitative reports Answer: A Page Ref: 661 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills 42) The two options below report a focus group finding.

I. 90% of the respondents agreed.

II. Almost all respondents agreed.

Which option, if any, is the correct way to report the finding?

A) I only B) II only C) Either I or II can be used Answer: A Page Ref: 661 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual

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43) In a qualitative report ________ are only useful if they can be quickly and successfully related to the appropriate report content.

A) numeric charts and tables B) statistical analyses C) quotations Answer: C Page Ref: 662 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 44) When presenting a quotation in a qualitative report, it is important to provide the full range of identifying information, for example, age, gender, occupation, and marital status.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 662 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 45) When presenting a quotation in a qualitative report, the name of the quoted individual should never be used.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 662 Difficulty: Easy Learning Obj.: LO4 Classification: Conceptual 46) The text lists five criteria for excellence in research report presentation. List these criteria.

Answer: Excellence can be achieved when the writer is clear, concise, complete, coherent, and careful in the preparation of all areas of the report.

Page Ref: 636 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Obj.: LO1 Classification: Conceptual AACSB Standard: Reflective Thinking Skills

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47) Consider the research report title page shown below.

Identify the elements that are missing from this title page.

Answer: The page is missing: (a) a specific project title, (2) the date the report was prepared, and (3) the names of the principal researchers involved in the preparation of the report.

Page Ref: 640 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO2 Classification: Critical Thinking AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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48) You conduct research which tests reactions to two commercials (labeled "Commercial A" and "Commercial B"). One group of 30 individuals saw Commercial A while a different group of 30 individuals saw commercial B. After viewing each commercial, respondents were asked to rate the commercial on a four point believability scale. The number of people selecting each option is shown below.

Commercial A

Commercial B

10 5 7 8

11 9 4 6

Very believable Slightly believable Slightly unbelievable Very unbelievable

Create a numeric table that best presents this data.

Answer: An acceptable answer will contain all of the information in the table shown below.

Distribution of Believability Scores After Commercial Viewing (Total Sample) Commercial A Commercial B (Base = 30) (Base = 30) Scale Options Very believable 33.3% 36.7% Slightly believable 16.7 30.0 Slightly unbelievable 23.3 13.3 Very believable 27.6 20.0 TOTAL 100.0% 100.0% Page Ref: 654 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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49) You ask 100 individuals what brand of auto they most recently purchased. The results were: Ford Chevy Toyota Nissan Hundai Honda Chrysler

30 22 41 10 28 32 37

Present a bar chart that presents this data.

Answer: The chart should resemble the one shown below, which contains all required information.

Page Ref: 657 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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50) You ask 100 individuals what brand of auto they most recently purchased. The results were: Ford 30 Chevy 22 Toyota 41 Nissan 10 Hundai 28 Honda 32 Chrysler 37 Present a pie chart that presents this data.

Answer: The correct answer will resemble the pie chart below, which contains all required information.

Page Ref: 659 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Synthesis AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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51) You conduct research in January, June and December. At each point in time you ask respondents to rate their cell phone company on a 1 (very poor) to 5 (superior) scale. The average ratings are shown below.

Sprint AT&T Verizon

January

June

December

3.3 3.6 3.0

4.4 3.2 3.0

4.6 3.0 2.2

Prepare a line chart that presents this information.

Answer: Correct answers will resemble the chart below, which contains all required information.

Page Ref: 659 Difficulty: Difficult Learning Obj.: LO3 Classification: Application AACSB Standard: Analytic Skills

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