Abnormal Psychology, 2nd Edition by James H Hansell and Lisa K Damour , Test Bank

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Abnormal Psychology

Edition:

2nd Edition

Author(s):

James Hansell Lisa Damour

Chapter 1 Test Bank Page 1

Hansell/Damour Abnormal Psychology

Chapter: 01, Chapter 1: Defining Abnormality: What is Psychopathology?

Multiple choice

1. Abnormal psychology is the study of: A) how abnormal behavior can be defined, classified, explained, and treated B) the abnormalities that exist within social and political organizations.

C) the variations in normal thought content, behaviors, and emotions.

D) how genes and the environment influence physical health and diseases.

Ans: A Section reference: Abnormal psychology: The core concepts Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 3 of your text.

2. When defining and understanding abnormal behavior, it is important to consider context for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) the context in which abnormality occurs can help us explain it.

B) abnormal behavior is influenced by demographic context categories.

C) the context must be changed in order to treat abnormal behavior.

D) understanding context is essential to defining whether behavior is abnormal.

Ans: C Section reference: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

3. Demographic context includes: A) gender B) age C) culture D) all of the above Ans: D Section reference: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 23

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Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

4. Understanding context is necessary for: A) explaining abnormal behavior B) defining abnormal behavior C) understanding abnormal behavior D) all of the above Ans: D Section reference: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

5. Julie feels pressured by society to be thin; this pressure contributes to the development of an eating disorder. This example demonstrates which core concept?

A) the continuum between normality and abnormality B) the advantages and limitations of diagnoses C) the importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality D) the connection between mind and body in abnormality Ans: C Section reference: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

6. Bart is active and does not like to sit still for long; his behavior is considered normal for a 4-year-old, but not for a 24-year-old) This example demonstrates which core concept?

A) the importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality B) the connection between mind and body in abnormality C) the principle of multiple causality D) the role of cultural and historical relativism in defining abnormality Ans: A Section reference: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 2 of 23

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Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

7. Which of the following best explains the continuum between normality and abnormality?

A) abnormal behavior is uncommon and normal behavior is common.

B) abnormal behavior is an exaggeration of normal behavior.

C) abnormal behavior breaks societal norms but normal behavior does not.

D) abnormal behavior is categorically different from normal behavior.

Ans: B Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

8. Which core concept relies upon the idea that abnormal behavior is an exaggeration of normal behavior?

A) the principle of multiple causality B) the role of cultural and historical relativism C) the advantages and limitations of diagnoses D) the continuum between normality and abnormality Ans: D Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

9. Occasionally, Orlando feels anxious in social situations, but the anxiety does not last for very long and it does not interfere with his life. Orlando’s friend Carlos regularly feels anxious in social situations. This anxiety has become so prevalent that it impairs Carlos’ relationships and his ability to function in school. This example demonstrates which core concept?

A) the connection between mind and body in abnormality B) the advantages and limitations of diagnoses C) the principle of multiple causality D) the continuum between normality and abnormality Ans: D Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 3 of 23

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Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

10. In the U.S., homosexuality was classified as a mental illness until 1973; today it is considered a normal variant of human sexuality. This example demonstrates which core concept?

A) the principle of multiple causality B) the role of cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality C) the importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality D) the connection between mind and body in abnormality Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

11. In some cultures, it is considered normal to fall into a trance during religious ceremonies, but other cultures would consider this abnormal at all times. This example demonstrates which core concept?

A) the principle of multiple causality B) the role of cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality C) the importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality D) the connection between mind and body in abnormality Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of diagnostic categories?

A) They allow professionals to communicate more easily about particular types of abnormal behavior.

B) They make it easier to study abnormal behavior.

C) They make it easier to treat abnormal behavior.

D) They prove that certain types of behavior are abnormal.

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Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

13. Diagnostic categories: A) reflect the unique qualities of each person B) demonstrate the continuum between normality and abnormality C) make it easier for researchers to study abnormal behavior D) are not used by psychologists in the United States Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

14. The degree to which a measurement or categorization is consistent is: A) classification B) diagnosis C) reliability D) validity Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

15. The degree to which a measurement or categorization is accurate is: A) classification B) diagnosis C) reliability D) validity Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 5 of 23

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Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

16. Stanley is diagnosed with panic disorder. If panic disorder is the accurate diagnosis for him, then the classification system used to diagnosis Stanley is: A) reliable B) valid C) both reliable and valid D) neither reliable nor valid Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

17. If a diagnosis accurately reflects the problem that the person is faced with, then that diagnosis is: A) relativistic B) reductionistic C) reliable D) valid Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

18. Stella is diagnosed with somatization disorder, but that diagnosis does not accurately capture what is happening with Stella) Therefore, this diagnosis is not: A) relativistic B) reductionistic C) reliable D) valid Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 6 of 23

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Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

19. Dr. Thompson diagnoses Kelly with major depressive disorder. Using the same classification system, Dr. Arnold also diagnoses Kelly with major depressive disorder.

This suggests that the classification system is: A) reliable B) valid C) both reliable and valid D) neither reliable nor valid Ans: A Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

20. Shantay visits two psychologists. The first psychologist diagnoses her with social phobia, and the second psychologist diagnoses her with social phobia. Based on this information alone, what do we know about Shantay’s diagnosis of social phobia?

A) It is accurate.

B) It is reliable.

C) It is valid.

D) It is stigmatizing.

Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

21. In order for a diagnostic classification system to be useful, it must be: A) reliable B) valid C) both reliable and valid D) neither reliable nor valid Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 7 of 23

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Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

22. What are the disadvantages of diagnostic classification?

A) Classification oversimplifies the people behind the diagnostic labels.

B) Diagnoses can be stigmatizing and demoralizing to diagnosed people.

C) It is challenging to develop reliable and valid diagnostic categories.

D) All of the above.

Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

23. Gary’s girlfriend broke up with him on Tuesday. On Wednesday, Gary became depressed. It is likely that the break up: A) is a precipitating cause of the depression.

B) is a predisposing cause of the depression.

C) was caused by the depression.

D) was completely unrelated to the depression.

Ans: A Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

24. When Seth was a child, his dad sold drugs and robbed banks and was eventually sent to prison. As an adult, Seth robs banks and sells drugs. It is likely that Seth’s dad’s behaviors: A) acted as a precipitating cause for Seth’s criminal behavior.

B) acted as a predisposing cause for Seth’s criminal behavior.

C) acted as a genetic cause for Seth’s criminal behavior.

D) acted as a triggering cause for Seth’s criminal behavior.

Ans: B Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

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25. The oversimplication or unnecessary narrowing of a complex concept is called A) classification B) predisposition C) reductionism D) reliability Ans: C Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

26. Dr. Smith tries to explain all of his patients’ diverse disorders using only one particular favorite theory. This is an example of: A) continuity B) reductionism C) relativism D) reliability Ans: B Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

27. Shayla’s eating disorder was caused by a variety of factors, including media messages promoting thinness, her tendency to be a perfectionist, and conflict within her family. This example demonstrates which core concept?

A) the continuum between normality and abnormality B) the connection between mind and body in abnormality C) the principle of multiple causality D) the advantages and limitations of diagnoses Ans: C Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

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28. The somatoform disorders involve real physical symptoms that are caused by psychological problems. This is an example of which core concept?

A) the principle of multiple causality B) the role of cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality C) the importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality D) the connection between mind and body in abnormality Ans: D Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

29. John makes an appointment with a therapist to discuss a problem he’s been having. John must have a psychological disorder according to which of the following definitions?

A) deviance B) emotional distress C) help seeking D) irrational/dangerous Ans: C Section reference: Help seeking Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

30. Why is the “help seeking” definition of abnormality problematic?

A) Many people with psychological disorders do not seek treatment.

B) Many people with psychological disorders want help from others.

C) Many people who seek psychotherapy do not have a psychological disorder.

D) A & C E. All of the above Ans: D Section reference: Help seeking Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

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31. Rosenhan’s pseudopatient study showed the misleading use of which definition of abnormality?

A) deviant B) emotional distress C) help seeking D) irrational/dangerous Ans: C Section reference: Help seeking Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

32. What is the connection between irrational or dangerous behavior and mental disorders?

A) Most people with mental disorders behave in a highly irrational or dangerous manner.

B) Self-destructive behaviors, which are irrational and dangerous, are common in most mental disorders.

C) The majority of people with mental disorders are not dangerous and they are not highly irrational.

D) Most violent crimes, which are irrational and dangerous, are committed by mental ill people.

Ans: C Section reference: Irrationality/Dangerousness Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

33. Which of the following is NOT true of Rosenhan’s 1973 study?

A) Rosenhan concluded that the label “mentally ill” is misleading because it cannot be accurately identified even by professionals.

B) Rosenhan concluded that the social environment in mental hospitals encourages the behaviors of patients that they are trying to eliminate.

C) In Spitzer’s view, the study only proved that pseudopatients were not detected as faking mental illness and nothing more.

D) In Spitzer’s view, the study proved that psychiatrists are readily able to distinguish real symptoms from faked mental illness.

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Ans: D Section reference: Irrationality/Dangerousness Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

34. Behavior that is uncommon or statistically unusual is considered to be: A) deviant B) distressing C) irrational D) maladaptive Ans: A Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

35. Which of the following is true about the use of “deviance” as a definition of abnormality?

A) Deviant behavior is never considered to be good or healthy.

B) Many people who are eccentric or unusual are mentally healthy.

C) Mental health is equivalent to conformity and conventionality.

D) Deviant behavior is always a sign of mental illness.

Ans: B Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 12 of your text.

36. Sharla is a successful college basketball player who is one of 10 in the nation being considered for a place on a professional team. In addition, she recently won a scholarship for graduate school, beating the other 3000 students who competed for this award) Sharla would be considered abnormal if we used which of the following definitions?

A) deviant B) emotional distress C) irrational D) none of the above definitions would define her as abnormal Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 12 of 23

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Ans: A Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

37. What would be the major limitation of using deviance as the criterion for mental illness?

A) Everyone is deviant in some way so every person would be labeled as mentally ill.

B) People would be considered abnormal for expressing views outside of the mainstream.

C) Deviance would no longer be viewed as a positive characteristic, so unusual talent would diminish.

D) Conformity and conventionality would increase and everyone would become exactly like everyone else.

Ans: B Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

38. What is a limitation of using “emotional distress” as a criterion for mental disorder?

A) Many people with a mental disorder do not seek treatment.

B) Some people with disorders do not appear to be noticeably different.

C) Some disorders cause little or no distress to the person.

D) Many disorders do not involve irrational or dangerous behaviors.

Ans: C Section reference: Emotional distress Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

39. Maria is very sad and upset because her brother just died in a car accident. Which definition would consider her feelings to be abnormal? Which definition would consider her to be abnormal if she did not feel sad and upset right now?

A) deviant; emotional distress B) emotional distress; deviant Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 13 of 23

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C) help seeking; irrational D) irrational; deviant Ans: B Section reference: Emotional distress Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

40. Which type of disorder typically involves little or no emotional distress for the person with the disorder?

A) anxiety disorders B) mood disorders C) personality disorders D) somatoform disorders Ans: C Section reference: Emotional distress Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

41. Which definition of abnormality is considered to be the best?

A) deviant B) emotional distress C) help seeking D) irrational/dangerous E. significant impairment Ans: E Section reference: Significant impairment Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 13 of your text.

42. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of using “significant impairment” as the definition of abnormality?

A) Psychological impairments are sometimes caused by physical problems.

B) It is difficult to define “impairment in functioning.”

C) Functional impairments are relatively slight in some emotional disorders.

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D) All of the above are limitations of this definition.

Ans: D Section reference: Significant impairment Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 13 of your text.

43. _______ means that what is considered normal or abnormal differs widely across cultures and over time.

A) Reductionism B) Culture-bound C) Relativism D) Continuity Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 15 of your text.

44. In the U.S., a man would be considered abnormal if he believes he is possessed by a spirit that causes him to shout and laugh uncontrollably, but in some cultures he would be considered abnormal. This example demonstrates: A) cultural sensitivity B) cultural relativism C) historical relativism D) historical reductionism Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 15 of your text.

45. Until 1973, homosexuality was considered to be a psychological disorder, but now it is recognized by psychologists as one variation in normal sexual functioning. This example demonstrates: A) cultural relativism B) cultural revolution Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 15 of 23

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C) historical relativism D) historical reductionism Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 15 of your text.

46. If you are a West African student feeling mentally and physically exhausted after final exams, then you are experiencing: A) amok B) brain fag C) dhat D) hwa-hyung Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 16 of your text.

47. If you are a Korean person who is experiencing insomnia, fatigue, and indigestion as a result of suppressing your anger, then you are experiencing: A) ataque de nervios B) dhat C) hwa-byung D) sin-byung Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 16 of your text.

48. If you are a Japanese person with hypersensitivity to sudden fright, then you are experiencing: A) amok B) latah C) qi-gong Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 16 of 23

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D) taijin kyofusho Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 16 of your text.

49. If you are a person from the Caribbean who believes that a frightening event caused your soul to leave your body, then you are experiencing: A) ataque de nervios B) mal de ojo C) susto D) zar Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 16 of your text.

50. The currently accepted definition of abnormality is a(n) ________ definition in that it is designed to be useful in practical or research situations even though it is subject to many limitations.

A) relativistic B) operational C) normative D) standardized Ans: B Section reference: Working definitions of psychopathology Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 19 of your text.

51. Which phrase is NOT an accurate ending to the following sentence? The definition of mental disorder given in the DSM-IV-TR: A) contains many qualifications and undefined phrases.

B) focuses mostly on the criteria of distress and impairment.

C) is close to Wakefield’s definition of mental illness.

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D) is overly narrow and only applies to very few people.

Ans: D Section reference: Working definitions of psychopathology Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 19 of your text.

52. What percentage of Americans meet DSM criteria for a mental disorder at some time in their life?

A) 12% B) 27% C) 31% D) 46% Ans: D Section reference: Working definitions of psychopathology Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 19 of your text.

True/False

53. Behavior can be easily divided into either the “normal” category or the “abnormal” category.

Ans: false Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

54. Current definitions of abnormality are the same as the definitions used 50 years ago.

Ans: false Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 23

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

55. Some behaviors that are considered abnormal in the United States are believed to be normal in other countries.

Ans: true Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

56. Each type of abnormal behavior has only one cause.

Ans: false Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 6 of your text.

57. Researchers have proven that only one theory, cognitive-behavioral, provides an accurate explanation of the causes of abnormal behavior.

Ans: false Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

58. Abnormal behavior has multiple causes.

Ans: true Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

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59. Emotional experiences can alter brain chemistry and brain chemistry can change emotional experiences.

Ans: true Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

60. The philosophy of the “dualists” provides an accurate understanding of psychological disorders.

Ans: false Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 7 of your text.

61. Rosenhan’s 1973 study showed that staff at a psychiatric hospital can be fooled into thinking that someone is mentally ill simply because that person seeks help.

Ans: true Section reference: Help seeking Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

62. Most people with mental disorders behave in a highly irrational or dangerous manner.

Ans: false Section reference: Irrationality/Dangerousness Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

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63. In certain contexts, dangerous behavior is considered normal.

Ans: true Section reference: Irrationality/Dangerousness Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 10 of your text.

64. People who are strange, weird, or bizarre have a mental disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

65. People with mental disorders are strange, unusual, and noticeably different than other people.

Ans: false Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

66. Some people with deviant or statistically unusual behavior are mentally healthy.

Ans: true Section reference: Deviance Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

67. Emotional distress is always a sign of abnormality.

Ans: false Section reference: Emotional distress Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 21 of 23

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 12 of your text.

68. Ideas about what are normal and abnormal vary over time and across cultures.

Ans: true Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 15 of your text.

69. Abnormal behaviors and feelings are often exaggerations of normal states.

Ans: true Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

70. Every human being experiences at least mild versions of the feelings and behaviors that are found in mental disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 5 of your text.

Essay

1. Explain the advantages and limitations of psychological diagnoses.

2. Name and briefly describe the six core concepts in abnormal psychology.

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3. Describe the five commonly used criteria for defining abnormality, indicate which one is considered best and explain why.

4. Explain the role of cultural and historical relativism in defining abnormality. Give at least one example of each type of relativism.

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Chapter: 02, Chapter 2: Explaining Abnormality: What Causes Psychopathology?

Multiple choice

1. If you believe that evil spirits cause mental disorders, then you believe in: A) humours B) the power of suggestion C) animism D) psychoanalysis Ans: C Section reference: “Primitive” explanations: Animism and spiritual theories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 26 of your text.

2. Which of the following treatments was consistent with animistic beliefs?

A) bloodletting B) trephination C) dietary changes D) placing sweet smelling flowers on the abdomen Ans: B Section reference: “Primitive” explanations: Animism and spiritual theories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 26 of your text.

3. The practice of trephination was intended to A) treat brain infections B) relieve pressure on the brain C) allow the release of evil spirits D) restore the balance among the four humours Ans: C Section reference: “Primitive” explanations: Animism and spiritual theories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 27

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Page reference: See page 26 of your text.

4. When did the care of mentally ill individuals shift to state and private institutions?

A) Greek and Roman times B) Renaissance C) 18th and 19th centuries D) 20th century Ans: B Section reference: A brief history of the treatment of mental illness Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 27 of your text.

5. The moral treatment movement began at what time, led by what person?

A) 16th century, Dix B) Renaissance, King Henry VIII C) 18th & 19th centuries, Pinel D) 20th century, Freud Ans: C Section reference: A brief history of the treatment of mental illness Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 27 of your text.

6. Which of the following is NOT true about the deinstitutionalization movement in the United States?

A) It began in the 1960s.

B) Hospital conditions dramatically improved.

C) It was partly driven by new psychiatric medications.

D) It led to an increase in hospitalized patients.

Ans: D Section reference: A brief history of the treatment of mental illness Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 28 of your text.

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7. Which of the following is NOT associated with early biological theories?

A) animism B) humours C) hysteria D) Hippocrates Ans: A Section reference: The ancient Greeks: Early biological theories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 26 of your text.

8. The ancient Greeks first identified symptoms that appear neurological in nature but are not caused by a neurological problem. They called these symptoms: A) conversion disorder B) hysteria C) humours D) suggestion Ans: B Section reference: The ancient Greeks: Early biological theories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 29 of your text.

9. Hippocrates believes that four bodily fluids controlled health and disease. These fluids were called: A) waters B) humours C) elements D) platelets Ans: B Section reference: The ancient Greeks: Early biological theories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 29 of your text.

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10. Jan’s left arm repeatedly went numb, and she had episodes of confusion and temporary paralysis. Her physician was unable to find a physical cause of these problems. Jan is apparently suffering from what ancient Greek physicians called: A) dementia B) hysteria C) neurosis D) paresis Ans: B Section reference: The ancient Greeks: Early biological theories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 29 of your text.

11. Overall scientific worldviews are called: A) hypotheses B) paradigms C) schema D) theories Ans: B Section reference: The ancient Greeks: Early biological theories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 29 of your text.

12. Humanities and English professor Elaine Showalter says that contemporary hysterical patients: A) blame external sources for psychological problems.

B) are treated by current physicians as having psychological problems.

C) do not exist.

D) are not recognized by the DSM-IV-TR. Ans: A Section reference: New forms for an old disorder?

Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 30 of your text.

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13. Explaining a disorder or other complex phenomenon by using only a single idea or perspective is: A) monism B) dualism C) reductionism D) transcendentalism Ans: C Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

14. Reductionism is contrary to which of the following core concepts?

A) the importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality B) the continuum between normality and abnormality C) the role of cultural and historical relativism in defining abnormality D) the principle of multiple causality Ans: D Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 31 of your text.

15. The _____ model asserts that a person must have a biological, psychological, or sociocultural predisposition to a disorder and then be subjected to a form of psychological stress to develop the disorder.

A) diathesis-stress B) predisposition C) stress-ideographic D) vulnerability Ans: A Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 32 of your text.

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16. For many years during childhood, Claudia was abused by her father. As an adult, she developed posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Claudia’s childhood abuse was most likely: A) a precipitating cause of the PTSD. B) a predisposing cause of the PTSD. C) the stress in the diathesis-stress explanation for the PTSD. D) a biological cause of the PTSD. Ans: B Section reference: The principle of multiple causality Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 32 of your text.

17. Which of the following theories is NOT part of the psychological paradigm for explaining mental disorders?

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) genetic D) humanistic Ans: C Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 32 of your text.

18. The core concept related to the connection between mind and body in abnormality is consistent with: A) animism B) dualism C) monism D) theism Ans: C Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

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19. Both biology and psychology are involved in the manifestation and form of a disorder. This belief is consistent with the: A) biopsychosocial model B) humanistic model C) medical model D) psychodynamic model Ans: A Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 34 of your text.

20. What is different about the way the text authors view the various theoretical perspectives?

A) They view the psychological perspectives as the only ones that have merit.

B) They view the various perspectives as complementary and overlapping.

C) They view the various perspectives as competing and contradictory.

D) They view the integrative perspective as the least valid of all theories.

Ans: B Section reference: The theoretical perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 35 of your text.

21. An individual nerve cell is called a __________.

A) mitochondria B) neuron C) protein D) glial cell Ans: B Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 36 of your text.

22. What part of the brain is divided into 2 cerebral hemispheres and 4 lobes?

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B) cerebellum C) cortex D) hindbrain Ans: C Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 38 of your text.

23. What part of the brain is a relay station for routing and filtering sensory input?

A) basal ganglia B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus Ans: D Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 38 of your text.

24. Chemicals that carry messages between neurons are called: A) hormones B) neurotransmitters C) receptors D) synapses Ans: B Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 39 of your text.

25. Which of the following accurately conveys the direction of a nerve impulse?

A) synaptic cleft, terminal buttons, axon, cell body, dendrites B) dendrites, axon, synaptic cleft, terminal buttons, receptors C) cell body, axon, terminal buttons, synaptic cleft, receptors D) dendrites, receptors, synaptic cleft, terminal buttons, cell body

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Ans: C Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 39 of your text.

26. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have what effect in the synaptic cleft?

A) increase serotonin B) decrease serotonin C) increase serotonin and dopamine D) decrease serotonin and norepinephrine Ans: A Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 39 of your text.

27. What part of the nervous system is involved in the “fight or flight” response?

A) central nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division Ans: C Section reference: The peripheral nervous system Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality and 6 Page reference: See page 40 of your text.

28. The body’s calming and energy-conserving functions are controlled by the: A) endocrine system B) sympathetic division C) parasympathetic division D) somatic nervous system Ans: C Section reference: The peripheral nervous system Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 9 of 27

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Page reference: See page 40 of your text.

29. To determine whether a psychological disorder runs in families, a researcher could conduct: A) a genogram B) a family pedigree study C) an endocrine profile D) a genetic linkage study Ans: B Section reference: Genetics Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality and 6 Page reference: See page 41 of your text.

30. If the concordance rate for Disorder X is 10% in monozygotic twins and 20% in dizygotic twins, this suggests: A) The development of Disorder X is influenced by genes.

B) Disorder X should be treated with drugs.

C) Disorder X is not caused by faulty genes.

D) The prenatal environment influences Disorder X. Ans: C Section reference: Genetics Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality and 6 Page reference: See page 41 of your text.

31. What kind of research method looks for the specific genetic material that may be responsible for the genetic influence on a particular disorder?

A) adoption study B) genetic linkage study C) genogram research D) twin study Ans: B Section reference: Genetics Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality and 6 Page reference: See page 41 of your text.

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32. The most common current biological treatment for psychological disorders is: A) electroconvulsive therapy B) insulin coma C) lobotomy D) psychotropic medication Ans: D Section reference: Biological treatment interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality and 6 Page reference: See page 42 of your text.

33. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are _______ for serotonin.

A) agonists B) antagonists C) neither agonists nor antagonists D) both agonists and antagonists Ans: A Section reference: Biological treatment interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality and 6 Page reference: See page 42 of your text.

34. What theoretical perspective is associated with unconscious mental processes, emotional conflict, and the influence of childhood on adult life?

A) behavioral B) biological C) humanistic D) psychodynamic Ans: D Section reference: Freud’s early model Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 43 of your text.

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35. Mental contents that are outside of awareness are in the: A) preconscious B) unconscious C) conscious D) working memory Ans: B Section reference: Freud’s early model Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 44 of your text.

36. If you are so horrified or embarrassed by an event that you push it out of your consciousness, then you are exhibiting: A) displacement B) fixation C) projection D) repression Ans: D Section reference: Psychodynamic terms and concepts Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 45 of your text.

37. According to Freud’s psychosexual stages of development, issues of competence and competition are relevant during what stage?

A) adolescence B) oral C) phallic D) anal Ans: C Section reference: Psychodynamic terms and concepts Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 46 of your text.

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A) displacement B) sublimation C) undoing D) reversal Ans: B Section reference: Psychodynamic terms and concepts Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 45 of your text.

39. Freud’s original theory of mind was _______, but he replaced it with a newer theory of mind known as ______.

A) psychosexual; defense mechanisms B) topographic; the structural model C) objection relational; psychosexual D) structural; the topographic model Ans: B Section reference: Freud’s later model Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 45 of your text.

40. Unconscious, automatic mental processes that are used to cope with intolerable thoughts and feelings are: A) id functions B) psychosexual functions C) dissociative mechanisms D) defense mechanisms Ans: D Section reference: Freud’s later model Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 46 of your text.

41. Which of the following is NOT true about defense mechanisms?

A) They are only used by people with mental disorders.

B) They are used to reduce anxiety caused by emotional conflict.

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C) They are a strategy used by the ego to manage tensions.

D) They are unconscious and automatic) Ans: A Section reference: Freud’s later model Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 46-47 of your text.

42. Which school of psychodynamic thought emphasizes problems in the child’s primary relationship attachments?

A) Freudian B) Kleinian C) object-relational D) humanistic Ans: C Section reference: Contemporary psychodynamic perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 4 7of your text.

43. Which school of psychodynamic thought emphasizes the role of unempathic parenting in the development of psychopathology?

A) object-relational B) self-psychology C) Freudian D) Kleinian Ans: B Section reference: Contemporary psychodynamic perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 48 of your text.

44. The primary goal of psychodynamic interventions is to help the client: A) have healthier and more realistic automatic thoughts.

B) achieve a better mastery of his or her emotional conflicts.

C) recognize psychosexual fixations that developed early in life.

D) experience and work through transference and countertransference.

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Ans: B Section reference: Psychodynamic treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 48 of your text.

45. Psychodynamic therapists believe that therapeutic change is achieved through: A) insight and the therapeutic relationship B) journaling and homework exercises C) re-creating the parent-child relationship D) open-ended questions and active listening Ans: A Section reference: Psychodynamic treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 48 of your text.

46. Which of the following is NOT true about the humanistic and existential theories?

A) They developed partly in reaction to the reductionistic aspects of early psychodynamic theory.

B) They emphasize the importance of interpersonal connection, human freedom, and personal choice.

C) They offer more specific ideas about the causes of mental disorders than about the treatment of them.

D) They believe that psychopathology is rooted in an individual’s overall personality and approach to living.

Ans: C Section reference: Humanistic and existential perspectives Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 49 of your text.

47. In humanistic theory, self-actualization refers to: A) growing and pursuing one’s needs and aspirations.

B) the process of becoming selfless and focused on others.

C) giving children unconditional positive regard.

D) deciding upon and pursuing a career choice.

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Ans: A Section reference: Humanistic explanations and treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 49 of your text.

48. Which of the following individuals is or was a humanistic theorist?

A) Melanie Klein B) Victor Frankl C) Carl Rogers D) Heinz Kohut Ans: C Section reference: Humanistic explanations and treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 49 of your text.

49. What is the name of the humanistic treatment approach developed by Carl Rogers?

A) client-centered therapy B) free association C) mirroring therapy D) reality therapy Ans: A Section reference: Humanistic explanations and treatment interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 49 of your text.

50. Existentialists view mental health as all of the following EXCEPT: A) the ability to face the fact that life has no inherent meaning.

B) the ability to face the fact that death is inescapable.

C) the ability to create a meaningful life for onself.

D) the ability to recognize that others are responsible for our lives.

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Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 50 of your text.

51. Which of the following is NOT associated with behaviorism?

A) The belief that most behavior is learned.

B) The belief that behavior is strongly determined by prior life experiences.

C) An emphasis on classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and modeling.

D) An emphasis on unobservable and immeasurable causes of behavior.

Ans: D Section reference: Behavioral perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 50 of your text.

52. Amy was in a serious car accident during a thunderstorm. Following that experience, she became very scared to drive during thunderstorms. Behaviorists would say that her fear developed from: A) modeling B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning D) negative reinforcement Ans: B Section reference: Classical conditioning Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 52 of your text.

53. In order for classical conditioning to occur: A) there must be temporal contiguity between the UCS and CS. B) the UCS must begin and end several seconds before the CS. C) the CS must automatically elicit a particular response.

D) someone must model the CR. Ans: A Section reference: Classical conditioning Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 52 of your text.

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54. Billy can only watch television after he completes his chores. Billy’s chorecompleting behavior is being: A) classically conditioned B) operantly conditioned C) systematically conditioned D) vicariously conditioned Ans: B Section reference: Operant conditioning Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 54 of your text.

55. A young girl repeatedly watches her mother respond to compliments with a smile and pleasant “thank you.” One day, an adult tells the young girl that her dress is pretty, and the girl responds with a smile and pleasant “thank you.” The girl’s response is an example of: A) genetic programming B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning D) vicarious conditioning Ans: D Section reference: Modeling/social learning Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 55 of your text.

56. Which of the following treatment techniques is NOT based on classical conditioning principles?

A) aversion therapy B) contingency management C) exposure D) systematic desensitization Ans: B Section reference: Behavioral treatment interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 27

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Page reference: See page 56 of your text.

57. The treatment of abnormal behaviors using operant conditioning: A) is not something that is done.

B) focuses on eliminating reinforcements for unhealthy behaviors.

C) focuses on finding aversive consequences for healthy behaviors.

D) emphasizes acceptance and reinforcement of abnormal behavior.

Ans: B Section reference: Behavioral treatment interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 56 of your text.

58. Using reinforcements and punishments to shape behavior in adaptive directions is: A) counterconditioning B) extinction C) contingency management D) systematic desensitization Ans: C Section reference: Behavioral treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 56 of your text.

59. What treatment approach combines behavioral, psychodynamic, and humanistic principles?

A) client-centered therapy B) functional analytic psychotherapy C) contingency management D) social skills training Ans: B Section reference: Behavioral treatment interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 56 of your text.

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60. Cognitive theorists believe that humans are different from other animals because we: A) interpret the world rather than simply react to it.

B) choose our actions based on societal norms.

C) are influenced by early relationships with others.

D) are capable of thinking about our own needs.

Ans: A Section reference: Cognitive perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 57 of your text.

61. The therapeutic approach that focuses on changing irrational and problematic thoughts is called __________.

A) systematic desensitization B) reciprocal inhibition C) prompting and fading D) cognitive restructuring Ans: D Section reference: Cognitive perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 57 of your text.

62. If you blame your criminal behavior on the bad influence of your friends, then you are making a(n): A) stable explanatory style B) internal attribution C) maladaptive thought D) external attribution Ans: D Section reference: Cognitive perspectives Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 57 of your text.

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63. Which of the following is NOT an accurate word-definition pairing?

A) attributions = beliefs about the causes of events B) cognitive schemas = mental models of the world C) explanatory styles = patterned ways of perceiving and explaining causes of events D) cognitive distortions = assumptions about one’s physical functioning Ans: D Section reference: Cognitive perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 57 of your text.

64. A Consumer Reports survey of psychotherapy consumers found all of the following EXCEPT: A) psychotherapy is generally effective B) the use of psychodynamic strategies is associated with greater success C) the longer a person stays in therapy, the greater the benefit D) psychologists were rated as more effective than marriage counselors Ans: B Section reference: Focus on research: Is psychotherapy effective?

Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 62 of your text.

65. Research has shown that the best predictor of good therapy outcome is: A) the use of medication in addition to psychotherapy B) the use of behavioral techniques C) a good therapeutic alliance D) a year or more of therapy Ans: C Section reference: Focus on research: Is psychotherapy effective?

Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 62 of your text.

66. According to the ______ perspective, individuals learn behaviors on the basis of the societal and cultural role models, ideals, pressures, and stresses that they encounter.

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B) behavioral C) sociocultural D) existential Ans: C Section reference: Sociocultural and family systems perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concepts: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 60 of your text.

67. What is the name of the movement advocating that mental disorders should be covered by health insurance on par with physical disorders?

A) fee-for-service movement B) equality in health movement C) mental health parity D) psychologists for insurance Ans: C Section reference: The mental health parity movement Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 63 of your text.

68. Which theoretical approach focuses on the importance of family dynamics in understanding and treating mental disorders?

A) sociocultural B) object-relations C) self-psychology D) family systems Ans: D Section reference: Family systems perspectives Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 65 of your text.

69. Family systems theorists believe that a change in any part of a family will cause disruption to the system and trigger a counter-reaction to reestablish familiar patterns.

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B) parity C) conditioning D) homeostasis Ans: D Section reference: Family systems perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 65 of your text.

70. In family systems theory, recurrent family patterns are described in terms of: A) the maturity and social skills of the highest functioning member B) the interpersonal boundaries and the roles within the family C) early object-relations between each parent and each child D) the healthy and unhealthy schemas shared by the whole family Ans: B Section reference: Family systems perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 61 of your text.

71. How is family systems therapy similar to psychodynamic therapy?

A) Both emphasize the central role of family relationships in an individual’s emotional life.

B) Both emphasize the importance of viewing the family as the “real” patient.

C) Both emphasize the need to treat the whole family rather than an individual person within the family.

D) Both view the family’s healthy and unhealthy patterns in terms of homeostasis.

Ans: A Section reference: Family systems treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 65 of your text.

True/False

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72. Philosopher of science Thomas Kuhn believes that paradigms radically shift at various points in history.

Ans: true Section reference: Thomas Kuhn’s The Structure of Scientific Revolutions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 26 of your text.

73. According to Thomas Kuhn, science proceeds by a steady accumulation of new observations and facts.

Ans: false Section reference: Thomas Kuhn’s The Structure of Scientific Revolutions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

74. According to Thomas Kuhn, scientific facts can be easily and clearly distinguished from unscientific superstitions.

Ans: false Section reference: Thomas Kuhn’s The Structure of Scientific Revolutions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

75. Most mental disorders have both psychological and biological causes.

Ans: true Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

76. General paresis is an example that shows how psychological symptoms can be caused solely by physical problems.

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Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

77. Psychosocial dwarfism demonstrates that psychological processes can cause profound physical symptoms.

Ans: true Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

78. If a disorder can be treated with medication, that disorder must be caused by a physical problem.

Ans: false Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 33 of your text.

79. Every emotion and behavior has both a psychological and a biological aspect.

Ans: true Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 34 of your text.

80. If two variables are correlated, then one of them causes the other.

Ans: false Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 34 of your text.

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81. Abnormalities in brain structure can play a role in abnormal behavior, but brain function is unrelated to abnormal behavior.

Ans: false Section reference: The connection between mind and body Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 39 of your text.

82. Imaging techniques such as positron emission tomography can take photographs of the living brain that document structural changes.

Ans: true Section reference: The central nervous system Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 39 of your text.

83. According to a recent meta-analysis, short-term psychodynamic therapy is effective in the treatment of depression, anxiety disorders, and eating disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: Psychodynamic treatment interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 38 of your text.

84. Cognitive therapy is based on the belief that problematic emotions and behaviors can be changed by modifying negative thoughts.

Ans: true Section reference: Cognitive perspectives Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 57 of your text.

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85. Albert Ellis believes that cognitive therapies succeed by improving clients’ selfefficacy.

Ans: false Section reference: Cognitive perspectives Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 58 of your text.

Essay

1. Describe Freud’s original and revised theories of mind.

2. Compare and contrast psychodynamic, humanistic, and existential theories.

3. Compare and contrast the behavioral and psychodynamic perspectives.

4. Describe the research approaches used to evaluate genetic influences on psychological disorders.

5. Compare and contrast family systems therapy and psychodynamic psychotherapy.

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Chapter: 03, Chapter 3: Classifying abnormality: Diagnosis, Assessment, and Research

Multiple choice

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about classifying abnormality?

A) The different categories of psychopathology are known as diagnoses.

B) Assessment is the process of gathering information in order to make is diagnosis.

C) Diagnosis involves distinguishing different syndromes from each other.

D) The word diagnosis comes from Greek roots meaning “the same problem.”

Ans: D Section reference: none (introductory text) Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 71 of your text.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of classification?

A) It allows clinicians, researchers, and teachers to communicate more effectively about their work.

B) It facilitates research on the causes of disorders.

C) It takes into consideration unique variations across individuals.

D) It facilitates research on the effectiveness of various treatments.

Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 71 of your text.

3. Thomas Szasz argues that classification of psychopathology: A) assists clinicians and researchers in communicating with each other about the nature of psychopathology.

B) is more harmful than helpful people no classification system can capture the uniqueness of individuals’ emotional problems C) is problematic if the classification system does not yield reliable and valid categories.

D) is particularly helpful for conducting and replicating research on the causes of abnormal behavior.

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Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 72 of your text.

4. Which of the following is NOT true of classification?

A) Classification of mental disorders is useful even if the classification system is not reliable or valid.

B) Classification allows professionals to communicate more clearly and effectively about their work.

C) Classification facilitates decisions about which treatments are most likely to be helpful for disorders.

D) Classification facilitates research on the causes of disorders.

Ans: A Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 72 of your text.

5. DSM is the abbreviation for: A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders B) Disorders of Systems and Minds Classification C) Diagnoses and Syndromes of the Mind D) Disorders and Symptoms Manual for Psychology Ans: A Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 72 of your text.

6. Which of the following is NOT true about mental health professionals?

A) Psychologists in many states are seeking the right to prescribe psychotropic drugs.

B) Nurses may specialize in abnormal behavior and become psychiatric nurses.

C) Psychiatrists have doctoral degrees in the academic discipline of psychology.

D) Mental health professionals from any discipline can train to become psychoanalysts.

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Ans: C Section reference: The mental health professions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 72 of your text.

7. _______ refers to the stability and consistency of a classification system.

A) Diagnosis B) Reliability C) Validity D) Variability Ans: B Section reference: Reliability Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 73 of your text.

8. Why is it harder to reliably diagnose mental disorders than to reliably diagnose a medical problem like strep throat?

A) Mental disorders are more complex and difficult to understand.

B) There are no methods for evaluating mental disorders.

C) There are no objective biological markers for mental disorders.

D) Mental disorders have multiple causes.

Ans: C Section reference: Reliability Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 73 of your text.

9. Sarah is interviewed by a psychologist on Monday, and is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. On Thursday, Sarah is interviewed by a psychiatrist; he also diagnoses her with major depressive disorder. Based on this information, the diagnosis of major depressive disorder for Sarah has: A) predictive validity B) discriminant validity C) interjudge reliability D) test-retest reliability

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Ans: C Section reference: Reliability Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 73 of your text.

10. On Tuesday, John is given a test related to substance use; according to the test, his diagnosis is alcohol abuse. One week later, John is given the same test, and again the results show a diagnosis of alcohol abuse. Based on this information, the test given to John shows: A) predictive validity B) discriminant validity C) interjudge reliability D) test-retest reliability Ans: D Section reference: Reliability Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 73 of your text.

11. When comparing the first administration of a test with its second administration, researchers found a very high correlation between the test and retest results. This suggests that the test is: A) reliable B) valid C) variable D) accurate Ans: A Section reference: Reliability Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 73 of your text.

12. Many experts question whether IQ tests truly measure intelligence; however, they agree that such tests consistently give the same results over time. If these experts are right, IQ tests have: A) questionable validity and good interrater reliability B) questionable validity and good test-retest reliability Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 4 of 24

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C) good validity and poor interrater reliability D) good validity and poor test-retest reliability Ans: B Section reference: Reliability AND Validity Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 73 of your text.

13. What approach to classification is used in the DSM system?

A) categorical B) dimensional C) prototypal D) standardized Ans: A Section reference: Validity Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 75 of your text.

14. What approach to classification seems to best represent reality?

A) categorical B) dimensional C) prototypal D) standardized Ans: B Section reference: Validity Difficulty level: difficult Core concepts: 2 and 4 Page reference: See pages 75 of your text.

15. Who was the French psychiatrist who initiated the “moral treatment” movement?

A) Sigmund Freud B) Emil Kraepelin C) Philippe Pinel D) Thomas Szasz Ans: C Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 5 of 24

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Section reference: The history of diagnostic systems for psychopathology Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 75 of your text.

16. Philippe Pinel divided abnormal behavior into four categories. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories?

A) melancholia B) psychosis C) dementia D) idiocy Ans: B Section reference: The history of diagnostic systems for psychopathology Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 75 of your text.

17. Emil Kraepelin’s diagnostic categories were based on: A) his personal experience with family members B) his theory about the origin of abnormal behavior C) a division of Pinel’s categories into more detailed groupings D) his study of the case histories of hospitalized patients Ans: D Section reference: The history of diagnostic systems for psychopathology Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 76 of your text.

18. Which of the following is true about the classification of mental disorders?

A) The first DSM was an expansion of the psychiatric section of the ICD. B) Each edition of the DSM has included fewer and fewer diagnostic categories.

C) The first DSM was published in 1932; 6 editions have been published since then.

D) The current edition of DSM is DSM-VI-TR. Ans: A Section reference: The history of diagnostic systems for psychopathology Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 6 of 24

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Page reference: See page 76 of your text.

19. The current edition of the DSM is: A) II B) III-R C) IV D) IV-TR Ans: D Section reference: The history of diagnostic systems for psychopathology Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 76 of your text.

20. The current edition of the DSM includes approximately ___ separate disorders.

A) 108 B) 182 C) 265 D) 300 Ans: D Section reference: The history of diagnostic systems for psychopathology Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 72 of your text.

21. McHugh criticizes DSM-IV and societal views on disorders by saying: A) society tends to view certain personality traits as problems that can be changed by drugs.

B) using behaviors to classify mental disorders is problematic because it is difficult to distinguish between normal and abnormal behavior.

C) using behaviors to classify mental disorders is problematic because identical symptoms often have different causes or need different treatments.

D) all of the above Ans: D Section reference: A critic looks at the pathologizing of everyday life Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 77 of your text.

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22. DSM-III included many major changes compared to the previous edition. Which of the following is NOT one of these changes?

A) The diagnostic categories were designed to be more reliable.

B) The diagnostic categories were no longer based on unobservable symptoms.

C) The diagnostic categories were based on scientifically proven theories.

D) The diagnostic categories did not rely upon psychodynamic assumptions.

Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-III revolution and controversy Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 78 of your text.

23. Which edition of DSM defined the approach to classification that has been used in all subsequent editions?

A) DSM-I B) DSM-II C) DSM-III D) DSM-IV Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-III revolution and controversy Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 78 of your text.

24. Which of the following is NOT one of the major advantages of the DSM-III approach to classification?

A) It provided a common language for clinicians and researchers.

B) It increased the number of researchers studying psychopathology.

C) It has much better reliability and validity than previous editions.

D) It increased clinicians’ awareness of the importance of diagnosis.

Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-III revolution and controversy Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See pages 79 of your text.

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25. Which of the following is NOT one of the major criticisms of the DSM-III approach to classification?

A) It sacrificed too much validity in the pursuit of greater reliability.

B) It has a theoretical bias toward the biological perspective.

C) It is culturally insensitive and biased.

D) It is based too much on unobservable, unconscious symptoms.

Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-III revolution and controversy Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See pages 80 of your text.

26. Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of the modern DSM approach?

A) the reliability and validity of the diagnoses is nearly perfect B) it has increased clinicians’ awareness of the importance of diagnosis C) it has helped make the field of abnormal psychology more scientifically rigorous D) it provides a common language for clinicians and researchers Ans: A Section reference: Advantages of the modern DSM approach Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 80 of your text.

27. Critics have argued that DSM-IV-TR: A) is culturally biased B) implies that mental disorders are like medical disorders C) decreases validity because classifications rely on observable, descriptive criteria D) has all of the above problems Ans: D Section reference: Limitations of the modern DSM approach Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 81 of your text.

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28. In contrast to DSM-IV-TR, the Psychodynamic Diagnostic Manual classifies clients on the basis of their: A) personality patterns B) profile of mental functioning C) symptoms patterns D) A & B E. A, B, & C Ans: D Section reference: The Psychodynamic Diagnostic Manual Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 82 of your text.

29. According to the DSM-IV-TR classification system, a complete diagnosis involves an evaluation of a person on how many different axes?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Ans: D Section reference: Making a multiaxial diagnosis Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 82 of your text.

30. A diagnosis of narcissistic personality disorder would be made on: A) Axis I B) Axis II C) Axis III D) Axis IV Ans: B Section reference: Axis I and Axis II Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 83 of your text.

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31. A disorder such as panic disorder, which involves unpleasant and unwanted forms of anxiety, distress, and impairment, is considered a _____ disorder and would be diagnosed on Axis ___.

A) personality; I B) personality; II C) symptom; I D) symptom; II Ans: C Section reference: Axis I and Axis II Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 83 of your text.

32. A schizotypal person has extreme and rigid traits that cause impairment. This is a ______ disorder and would be diagnosed on Axis ____.

A) personality; I B) personality; II C) symptom; I D) symptom; II Ans: B Section reference: Axis I and Axis II Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 83 of your text.

33. If a person has a symptom disorder but not a personality disorder, then which of the following is most likely to be true about this person’s disorder?

A) It is pervasive.

B) It is chronic.

C) It is episodic.

D) It is ego-syntonic.

Ans: C Section reference: Axis I and Axis II Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 83 of your text.

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34. If a person has a personality disorder but not a symptom disorder, then which of the following is most likely to be true about this person’s disorder?

A) It is ego-dystonic.

B) It is chronic.

C) It is time-limited.

D) It is episodic.

Ans: B Section reference: Axis I and Axis II Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 83 of your text.

35. Symptoms that are experienced by an individual as distressing and unwelcome are called: A) pathological B) abnormal C) ego-syntonic D) ego-dystonic Ans: D Section reference: Axis I and Axis II Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 83 of your text.

36. Axis III includes: A) disorders characterized by unpleasant and unwelcome forms of distress and/or impairment.

B) stressors in the person’s life that may affect the diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of their disorders.

C) a rating made by the clinician of the person’s overall current level of functioning.

D) medical conditions that may be relevant to the diagnosis or treatment of their disorders.

Ans: D Section reference: Axes III, IV, and V Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 84 of your text.

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37. Which of the following is an accurate pairing?

A) Axis I: personality disorders B) Axis III: global functioning C) Axis V: medical conditions D) Axis IV: life stressors Ans: D Section reference: Axes III, IV, and V Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 84 of your text.

38. Knowing a person’s current or recent stressors may affect all of the following EXCEPT: A) deciding if their medications interact B) making the most appropriate diagnosis C) choosing the best treatment for the person D) understanding the likely prognosis Ans: A Section reference: Axes III, IV, and V Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 84 of your text.

39. Axis V is useful for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) It acknowledges life stressors that may impact the person’s Axis I or II diagnosis.

B) It provides an indication of how severely the individual is affected by his diagnoses.

C) It can be used to monitor the person’s progress over the course of treatment.

D) It can provide diagnostic information such as decline in functioning over time.

Ans: A Section reference: Axes III, IV, and V Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See pages 86 of your text.

40. A psychologist talks to a woman in order to gather clinical information about her.

This psychologist is using which assessment method?

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A) physical exam B) interview C) test D) observation Ans: B Section reference: Interviews Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 88 of your text.

41. Which assessment method involves the clinician asking a brief series of questions in order to determine whether a client has major problems with cognitive functions and orientation to reality?

A) unstructured interview B) psychological test C) biological test D) mental status exam Ans: D Section reference: Interviews Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 88 of your text.

42. The purpose of the Mental Status Exam is to assess whether a client is experiencing problems with: A) basic cognitive functions and orientation to reality.

B) inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity.

C) interpersonal relationships.

D) rigid and inflexible personality characteristics.

Ans: A Section reference: Interviews Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 88 of your text.

43. Which of the following is true of unstructured interviews but untrue of structured interviews?

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A) The purpose of the interview is to arrive at a diagnosis and understanding of the client.

B) The clinician gathers information about how, when, and why a client says what he or she says.

C) The clinician must be skilled at making clients feel safe and comfortable enough to talk openly.

D) The clinician asks a series of questions about a variety of topics in a pre-determined order.

Ans: B Section reference: Interviews Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See pages 89 of your text.

44. The major advantage of structured interviews over unstructured interviews is that structured interviews: A) are more valid B) are more reliable C) are easier to conduct D) increase client comfort Ans: B Section reference: Interviews Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 89 of your text.

45. In order to be useful, psychological tests must have several characteristics, including all of the following EXCEPT: A) The test has standard administration procedures.

B) The test has statistical norms for various demographic groups.

C) The test assesses multiple symptom disorders.

D) The test is reliable and valid.

Ans: C Section reference: Symptom and personality questionnaires Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 89 of your text.

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46. A checklist that asks parents to check boxes to indicate the presence or absence of several behaviors in their child would be considered a: A) biological test B) cognitive test C) projective test D) symptom questionnaire Ans: D Section reference: Symptom and personality questionnaires Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 90 of your text.

47. The most widely used personality questionnaire is the: A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory B) Personality Assessment Inventory C) Millon Multiaxial Clinical Inventory D) California Personality Inventory Ans: A Section reference: Symptom and personality questionnaires Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 90 of your text.

48. What is the primary advantage of symptom and personality questionnaires?

A) They are reasonably reliable and valid.

B) They are flexible tools for collecting information.

C) They provide a lot of information with few questions.

D) They can be interpreted by non-professionals.

Ans: A Section reference: Advantages and limitations of symptom and personality questionnaires Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 90 of your text.

49. What is the primary disadvantage of symptom and personality questionnaires?

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A) They take a long time to complete.

B) They are difficult to understand.

C) They are not flexible.

D) They are very unreliable.

Ans: C Section reference: Advantages and limitations of symptom and personality questionnaires Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 90 of your text.

50. A psychologist asks a client to draw pictures of himself and his family. This is an example of what form of assessment?

A) Observation B) Projective test C) Personality questionnaire D) Cognitive test Ans: B Section reference: Projective tests Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 91 of your text.

51. What aspect of projective tests makes them less reliable and valid than other tests?

A) They generate qualitative data that is hard to convert to quantitative data.

B) Their administration and scoring cannot be standardized.

C) They are not accepted by the general public and most professionals.

D) They assess personality traits rather than specific symptoms.

Ans: A Section reference: Projective tests Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 91 of your text.

52. The basis of ______ is that people’s responses to and interpretations of ambiguous stimuli reveal a great deal about how their personalities operate in general.

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B) cognitive tests C) biological tests D) projective tests Ans: D Section reference: Projective tests Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 91 of your text.

53. Intelligence tests, achievement tests, and neuropsychological tests are all examples of: A) symptom and personality questionnaires B) cognitive tests C) biological tests D) projective tests Ans: B Section reference: Cognitive tests Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 91 of your text.

54. Which of the following is a good indicator of the validity of intelligence tests?

A) IQ test scores are relatively good predictors of academic achievement.

B) IQ test performance correlates with measures of personality traits.

C) An individual’s IQ test score tends to be the same when tested repeatedly.

D) IQ tests measure both verbal and visual-perceptual abilities.

Ans: A Section reference: Intelligence tests Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 93 of your text.

55. Why would a clinical psychologist want to administer an intelligence test as part of an assessment of psychopathology?

A) One disorder in DSM-IV-TR (mental retardation) is defined by very low intelligence.

B) Knowledge of IQ aids in the diagnosis of disorders like learning disabilities.

C) Knowledge of IQ is helpful for understanding a person’s overall functioning.

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D) All of the above Ans: D Section reference: Intelligence tests Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 94 of your text.

56. _________ tests measure what a person has learned in a particular subject area.

A) achievement B) biological C) intelligence D) neuropsychological Ans: A Section reference: Achievement tests Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 94 of your text.

57. __________ tests assess brain deficits as they affect psychological functions such as perception, attention, memory, and problem solving.

A) achievement B) biological C) intelligence D) neuropsychological Ans: D Section reference: Neuropsychological tests Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 95 of your text.

58. Why would a clinical psychologist use neuropsychological tests during an assessment of psychopathology?

A) To determine the biological origin of a symptom because this information cannot be obtained any other way.

B) To determine whether symptoms might be due to neurological deficits rather than psychological factors.

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C) To determine whether brain damage is causing the person’s psychological disorder or symptoms.

D) To determine whether medication would be appropriate to help relieve the person’s symptoms.

Ans: B Section reference: Neuropsychological tests Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 95 of your text.

59. What type of test is helpful in designing psychophysiological treatments for anxiety?

A) symptom questionnaire B) biological test C) cognitive test D) neuropsychological test Ans: B Section reference: Biological tests Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 99 of your text.

60. A client systematically observes herself for one week. She is using what form of assessment?

A) symptom questionnaire B) controlled setting observation C) self-monitoring D) functional analysis Ans: C Section reference: Behavioral observation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 99 of your text.

61. A psychologist watches a child in the classroom, and systematically analyzes the behavioral context of the child’s problematic behaviors. This psychologist is using what form of assessment?

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B) projective test C) controlled setting observation D) functional analysis Ans: D Section reference: Behavioral observation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 99 of your text.

62. What is the major advantage of behavioral observation?

A) It allows the assessor to obtain a more in-depth understanding of the person.

B) It provides information about the brain bases of a person’s behavior.

C) It assesses behaviors that cannot be evaluated in an interview or test.

D) It is the most reliable and valid form of assessment currently available.

Ans: C Section reference: Behavioral observation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 101 of your text.

63. In most outpatient evaluations, the assessment process consists of: A) interview and projective tests B) interview, neuropsychological tests, observation C) some type of test and observation D) interview and symptom or personality questionnaires Ans: D Section reference: Classifying and understanding Dave Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 102 of your text.

True/False

64. A classification system is only useful when its categories consistently and accurately fit the phenomena being classified.

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Ans: true Section reference: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 71 of your text.

65. A classification system is only useful when its categories are reliable and valid.

Ans: true Section reference: Reliability Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 71 of your text.

66. The approach used in DSM-II has been used in all subsequent editions.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-II revolution and controversy Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 78 of your text.

67. According to the humanistic model, classifying a person’s problems can sometimes interfere with understanding that person.

Ans: true Section reference: Limitations of the modern DSM approach Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 80 of your text.

68. The main advantage of personality questionnaires is that they assess deeper, less observable emotional and personality patterns.

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Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 92 of your text.

69. Most efforts to find biological indicators of specific mental disorders have yielded reliable and valid tests for disorders.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological tests Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 96 of your text.

70. Brain imaging is used more for research purposes than for diagnosing psychological disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: Brain imaging may detect schizophrenia in early stages Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 96 of your text.

Essay

1. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the classification of abnormal behavior, and then draw a conclusion about whether classification is useful for the field of abnormal psychology.

2. The DSM system uses a categorical approach to classification. What are the advantages and disadvantages of this approach?

3. Explain the changes made when the DSM system was updated from edition II to edition III. What are the advantages and limitations of the DSM-III approach?

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4. Name and define the four types of tests. Explain the primary advantage and limitation of each type.

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Chapter: 04, Chapter 4: Anxiety and the Anxiety Disorders

Multiple choice

1. What emotion is characterized by a general sense of danger, dread, and physiological arousal?

A) anger B) anxiety C) fear D) obsession Ans: B Section reference: Defining anxiety and anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 115 of your text.

2. Anxiety is to fear as: A) immediate is to future B) future is to immediate C) general is to specific D) specific is to general Ans: C Section reference: Defining anxiety and anxiety disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 116 of your text.

3. What are the components of anxiety?

A) emotional and cognitive B) behavioral and physical C) both a and b D) neither a nor b Ans: C Section reference: Defining anxiety and anxiety disorders Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 25

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 112 of your text.

4. The text authors suggest that anxiety and fear are normal because: A) they are adaptive responses to threatening or dangerous situations.

B) they are common responses to a variety of everyday situations.

C) they produce physiological sensations that are normal and common.

D) they occur on a daily basis in most children and adults in the U.S. Ans: A Section reference: Defining anxiety and anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 116 of your text.

5. Ben sees a snake in his yard. Instantly, he feels scared; he thinks that the snake will bite him. Ben runs into the house. Ben exhibits which components of anxiety?

A) behavioral, physical, emotional B) emotional, cognitive, behavioral C) cognitive, physical, emotional D) cognitive, physical, behavioral Ans: B Section reference: Defining anxiety and anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 116 of your text.

6. Shari is experiencing intense feelings of anxiety. What factor determines whether Shari is showing normal anxiety or symptoms of an anxiety disorder?

A) whether she is experiencing physical symptoms B) whether she recognizes that she is anxious C) the context she is in when she feels anxious D) whether other people feel anxious at the same time Ans: C Section reference: The importance of context in defining anxiety disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 116 of your text.

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7. _______ is the degree to which an individual is predisposed to respond to a variety of situations with more or less anxiety.

A) State anxiety B) Characteristic anxiety C) Trait anxiety D) Continuous anxiety Ans: C Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 117 of your text.

8. A transitory emotional experience that occurs in response to a specific external threat is called ______ _______.

A) State anxiety B) Characteristic anxiety C) Trait anxiety D) Continuous anxiety Ans: A Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal anxiety Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 117 of your text.

9. Julie feels very anxious most of the time, in a wide variety of situations. Based on this information alone, which of the following best describes Julie?

A) Low state anxiety B) High state anxiety C) Low trait anxiety D) High trait anxiety Ans: D Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal anxiety Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 117 of your text.

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10. Marcus rarely feels anxious, even when faced with actual danger. However, when he has to speak in public, he becomes extremely anxious. Which of the following best describes Marcus?

A) Low state anxiety, low trait anxiety B) High state anxiety, low trait anxiety C) Low state anxiety, high trait anxiety D) High state anxiety, high trait anxiety Ans: B Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal anxiety Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 117 of your text.

11. Abnormal anxiety is defined as anxiety that: A) occurs in response to a true threat or danger.

B) occurs in an inappropriate context or is overly intense.

C) occurs in an inappropriate context and is overly intense.

D) occurs in response to a true danger but is not intense.

Ans: B Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal anxiety Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality and 2 Page reference: See page 117 of your text.

12. Which of the following is true about the category of psychological disorders known as anxiety disorders?

A) This category includes all disorders in which anxiety is the main symptom.

B) Approximately 15% of people in the U.S. have an anxiety disorder in any given year.

C) This category includes six main anxiety disorders.

D) All of the above are true.

Ans: D Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 117 and 119 of your text.

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13. People with anxiety disorders are to high risk-takers as: A) normal is to abnormal B) adventurous is to avoidant C) high anxiety is to low anxiety D) criminal is to prosocial Ans: C Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 118 of your text.

14. Very low levels of anxiety are associated with: A) High levels of risk taking behavior B) Low levels of substance-related disorders C) Low levels of criminal behavior D) High levels of obesity and eating disorders Ans: A Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 118 of your text.

15. What group of people has been shown to have usually low levels of anxiety?

A) People with antisocial personality disorder B) Convicted criminals C) People training to be police officers D) All of the above Ans: D Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 118 of your text.

.

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16. How does anxiety relate to high risk-taking?

A) High risk takers experience intense anxiety, which is “burned off” by taking risks.

B) High risk takers have learned that it is healthy to do things that are frightening.

C) Underaroused people with little anxiety take risks in order to increase arousal.

D) Underaroused people take risks in order to experience pathological anxiety.

Ans: C Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 118 of your text.

17. Georgia worries excessively about her finances, the performance of her children in school, and about the health of her parents. She has had such worries pretty much every day for the past 8 months, and she feels that she cannot control her worries. She is tired all the time, has difficulty concentrating, and has trouble sleeping. Based on these symptoms, what disorder does Georgia seem to have?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) posttraumatic stress disorder Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 119 of your text.

18. On a regular basis for the past year, a man has experienced fatigue, irritability, and restless sleep, along with persistent worries about a number of different issues in his life. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) dysthymia B) generalized anxiety disorder C) major depressive disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 119 of your text.

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19. How does panic disorder differ from generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A) Panic disorder involves chronic but mild anxiety, whereas GAD involves acute episodes of extreme anxiety.

B) GAD involves chronic but mild anxiety, whereas panic disorder involves acute episodes of extreme anxiety.

C) Panic disorder includes a variety of non-anxiety related symptoms, whereas GAD includes only anxiety and nervousness.

D) GAD causes impairment in functioning whereas people with panic disorder experience no impairment from the disorder.

Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 120 of your text.

20. Nate was riding the bus home one day when he suddenly felt hot and sweaty, and short of breath. He realized that his heart was racing and he felt dizzy. Nate feared that he was dying or going crazy. He got off the bus, went to the emergency room and was told that he was fine. Which of the following best describes this experience?

A) true alarm response B) phobic reaction C) panic attack D) anxious apprehension Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Panic disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 120 of your text.

21. In panic disorder, the feared object or situation is: A) being in wide open spaces B) being embarrassed C) catching a disease D) having a panic attack Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Panic disorder Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 7 of 25

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 121 of your text.

22. Stella is so afraid of panic attacks that she has become housebound; this condition is known as ___________.

A) agoraphobia B) claustrophobia C) panic phobia D) social phobia Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Panic disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 121 of your text.

23. Which of the following is NOT true about panic disorder?

A) The feared object or situation is a panic attack.

B) Avoidance associated with panic disorder is called agoraphobia.

C) People with panic disorder are less sensitive to bodily sensations than other people.

D) Effective treatment for this disorder involves a technique called interoceptive exposure.

Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Panic disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 121 of your text.

24. What type of anxiety disorder has the highest lifetime prevalence rate?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) phobias D) obsessive-compulsive disorder Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Phobias Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 119 of your text.

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25. _______ is an intense, persistent, and irrational fear of a specific object or situation.

A) Agoraphobia B) A panic attack C) A phobia D) A situational fear Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Phobias Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 121 of your text.

26. A man experiences recurrent panic attacks in elevators, rooms without windows, and other small places, and regularly avoids such places, despite the fact that his job requires use of an elevator. In those places listed, he experiences extreme shortness of breath, dizziness, and fear of dying from suffocation. These symptoms don’t scare him, but the situations do. What is his most likely diagnosis?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) posttraumatic stress disorder D) specific phobia Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Phobias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 122 of your text.

27. Scott is intensely afraid of talking to women he does not know. Specifically, he is afraid that he will say or do something to humiliate himself, and that the woman will think that he is an idiot. This fear causes Scott to avoid talking to women he does not know, even in work situations; his ability to be promoted is limited by this avoidance. In addition, he has never had a date, even though he is 32. Which of the following best fits Scott?

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Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Phobias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 122 of your text.

28. People with agoraphobia are afraid of: A) being embarrassed or humiliated in front of others B) being in a public place C) having a panic attack where it might be difficult to escape or get help D) having anxiety or a panic attack in a closed place Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Phobias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 123 of your text.

29. Which of the following is NOT one of DSM-IV-TR types of specific phobia?

A) animal type B) clown and doll type C) natural environment type D) situational type Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Phobias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 123 of your text.

30. LaToya has experienced several discrete episodes of intense terror during which she feared that she was having a heart attack. She worries constantly about having more episodes like this, so she has begun to avoid the situations in which she previously had them. Which of the following best fits LaToya?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) panic disorder D) posttraumatic stress disorder

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Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 120 of your text.

31. Unwanted and upsetting thoughts or impulses are: A) anxieties B) compulsions C) obsessions D) schemas Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 123 of your text.

32. An irrational ritual that is repeated over and over again in an effort to control or neutralize the anxiety brought on by an unwanted, upsetting thought or impulse is a(n): A) compulsion B) obsession C) schema D) worry Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 123 of your text.

33. Julie constantly worries that her house will burn down if she does not unplug and check all of her electrical appliances before she leaves the house. She has developed a routine of unplugging and checking that takes her about 1 hour to complete before she can leave the house. After performing this routine, she feels a little less anxious, although her anxiety quickly returns after she leaves the house. Even though Julie recognizes that her actions are excessive, she feels like she has no control over these behaviors. Based on these symptoms, what problem does Julie seem to have?

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C) panic disorder D) specific phobia Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 124 of your text.

34. A woman is very scared that she will contract a horrible disease so she cleans her house very carefully. She also avoids touching surfaces in public, such as door knobs.

She spends about three hours each day cleaning her house and is often late for work because of this. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) hypochrondriasis C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) specific phobia Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 124 of your text.

35. How is acute stress disorder (ASD) different from posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) ASD occurs in response to a relatively common stressor, whereas PTSD occurs in response to a trauma.

B) ASD is considered to be a chronic disorder, whereas PTSD is thought to be an acute disorder.

C) ASD symptoms last for 2 days to one month, whereas PTSD symptoms last longer than one month.

D) ASD symptoms are much more severe than the symptoms of PTSD, which are relatively mild.

Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 125 of your text.

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36. After being raped, Joyce experienced difficulty sleeping and trouble concentrating.

She became detached from others, and disinterested in the things she used to enjoy.

She also avoided all thoughts about the rape, and she refused to have sex with her husband. Whenever she saw anyone resembling her rapist, her heart started to pound, she began to sweat, and she developed a panicky feeling. All of these symptoms began immediately after the rape and lasted for two months. Which of the following best describes Joyce’s symptoms?

A) acute stress disorder B) posttraumatic stress disorder, acute type C) posttraumatic stress disorder, chronic type D) posttraumatic stress disorder with delayed onset Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 125 & 128 of your text.

37. Which of the following experiences is least likely to lead to acute stress disorder or posttraumatic stress disorder?

A) being in a serious car accident B) being raped C) being a prisoner of war D) being a concentration camp survivor Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 125 of your text.

38. The Disaster Response Network was created in response to the discovery that: A) many trauma survivors do not have access to mental health professionals in their community.

B) large-scale disasters (e.g., earthquakes) can lead to epidemics of PTSD affecting entire communities.

C) mental health professionals need a network of assistance in order to cope with secondary trauma.

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D) chronic exposure to dangerous situations produces unusually high levels of PTSD and other problems.

Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Post-traumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 127 of your text.

39. What is the primary advantage of the DSM-IV-TR anxiety disorder diagnoses?

A) The anxiety disorders are frequently comorbid with other DSM-IV-TR disorders.

B) Anxiety disorder symptoms can be used to describe anyone with a mental disorder.

C) The DSM-IV-TR anxiety disorder diagnoses are reliable and they are valid.

D) The DSM-IV-TR categories neatly divide complex “real life” clinical conditions.

Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and Historical Relativism in Defining and Classifying Anxiety Disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 128 of your text.

40. Adults typically experience anxiety ____________, whereas children experience anxiety ______________.

A) emotionally and behaviorally; behaviorally and cognitively B) physiologically and emotionally; emotionally, behaviorally, and physically C) behaviorally and physically; cognitively and emotionally D) cognitively, emotionally, and physiologically; behaviorally and physically Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 130 of your text.

41. How do children and adults experience anxiety?

A) They experience anxiety in exactly the same way.

B) Children experience anxiety in their behaviors and thoughts and adults experience anxiety physically.

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C) Children are often not distressed by their own anxious behavior, but adults tend to be distressed by their anxiety.

D) Adults experience fewer symptoms of anxiety disorders but the symptoms last longer than in children.

Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 130 of your text.

42. Which anxiety disorder is equally common among men and women?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) panic disorder D) social phobia Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 131 of your text.

43. The text provides possible explanations for a gender difference in anxiety disorders.

Which of the following is NOT one of those explanations?

A) Many women are not taught to be assertive and self-sufficient.

B) Menstruating women have fluctuating hormones.

C) Women are less likely to be victims of violence.

D) Women may be genetically predisposed to anxiety.

Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 131 of your text.

44. What proportion of women experience domestic violence at some point in their lives?

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C) one-third D) one-half Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 131 of your text.

45. Which of the following increases the likelihood of developing a stress disorder following a traumatic experience?

A) living in a poor urban environment B) experiencing high levels of psychological stress prior to the trauma C) lacking social support after a trauma D) all of the above Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 128 of your text.

46. A person in Latin America who has been experiencing headaches, irritability, stomach aches, and difficulty sleeping or concentrating for the past month would be described as having: A) generalized anxiety disorder B) nervios C) ataque de nervios D) ataque de loco Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 133 of your text.

47. Panic attack is to the United States as: A) Shenjing shuairuo is to China B) Taijin kyofusho is to Japan Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 16 of 25

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C) Ataque de nervios is to Latin America D) PTSD is to Vietnam Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 133 of your text.

48. A person in Japan who excessively worries that their body odor is offensive to others is likely to have: A) Ataque de nervios B) Taijin kyofusho C) Shenjing shuairuo D) Jin Shuafusho Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 133 of your text.

49. Why was PTSD excluded from DSM until 1980?

A) PTSD symptoms were viewed as signs of cowardice rather than disorder.

B) PTSD symptoms were considered to be normal rather than pathological.

C) PTSD symptoms were not recognized or documented prior to that time.

D) PTSD symptoms were easily and quickly treated before that time.

Ans: A Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 134 of your text.

50. Joey’s parents brought a puppy home for the first time on the same day of a big thunderstorm. As lightening struck near their home and hail hit the windows of the house, Joey’s parents encouraged him to play with the puppy. Instead, Joey was scared Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 17 of 25

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of the puppy and refused to go near it, even after the storm had passed; his parents were forced to give away the puppy. Joey continued to be scared of dogs for many years after that. Which of the following best explains Joey’s fear of dogs?

A) classical conditioning B) genetic predisposition C) modeling D) operant conditioning Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 142 of your text.

51. When she was a child, Mary lived with her parents in the Arizona desert. They frequently found tarantulas and other large spiders in the home; Mary’s mom shrieked in fear whenever she saw one. As an adult, Mary refused to go places, such as basements or forests, where she might encounter a spider. Which of the following best explains Mary’s fear of spiders?

A) classical conditioning B) genetic predisposition C) modeling D) operant conditioning Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Behavioral components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 144 of your text.

52. According to the prepared conditioning theory, which of the following phobias would be most likely?

A) gun phobia B) computer phobia C) knife phobia D) snake phobia Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 25

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 143 of your text.

53. Juan, who is afraid of dogs, works with his therapist to gradually get closer and closer to a dog, until he eventually can be close to a dog without experiencing fear.

Which therapy technique is being used with Juan?

A) modeling B) in vivo desensitization C) covert desensitization D) flooding Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Behavioral interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 145 of your text.

54. Which intervention technique involves gradual exposure to physiological sensations?

A) in vivo exposure B) prolonged imaginal exposure C) exposure and response prevention D) interoceptive exposure Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Panic disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 145 of your text.

55. Covert response prevention is most likely to be used to treat: A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) obsessive compulsive disorder D) posttraumatic stress disorder Ans: C

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Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Obsessivecompulsive disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 145 of your text.

56. Research by Mogg, Miller, and Bradley (2000) showed that people with GAD are more likely than other people to: A) look at threatening faces before other faces.

B) look at pleasant scenes and avoid unpleasant scenes.

C) feel angry in response to viewing threatening faces.

D) feel relaxed after viewing threatening material.

Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Cognitive components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 146 of your text.

57. Which of the following is responsible for the physiological changes (heart beating faster, pupils dilating, muscles tensing) associated with anxiety?

A) central nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) somatic nervous system Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Autonomic nervous system Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 136 of your text.

58. What group of GABA-enhancing drugs is currently used to treat anxiety disorders?

A) barbiturates B) benzodiazepines C) beta blockers D) SSRIs

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Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating anxiety and anxiety disorders: Neurotransmission Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 139 of your text.

True/False

59. People with anxiety disorders experience anxiety when there is little or no danger.

Ans: true Section reference: The importance of context in defining anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 116 of your text.

60. Anxiety disorders are the least common type of psychological disorder in the U.S. Ans: false Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 117 of your text.

61. A person can experience too little anxiety.

Ans: true Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 118 of your text.

62. For most people who suffer from GAD, the anxiety is not limited to a specific situation.

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Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 120 of your text.

63. Compulsive behaviors are always logical (but excessive) attempts to reduce the anxiety associated with obsessive thoughts.

Ans: False Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 126 of your text.

64. Trauma survivors who avoid thoughts and feelings associated with the trauma are likely to recover quickly.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: PTSD and acute stress disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 130 of your text.

65. Anxiety disorders are highly comorbid with other anxiety disorders and mood disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR anxiety disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 129 of your text.

66. Anxiety disorders are 2 to 3 times more common in men than in women.

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 131 of your text.

67. Acute stress disorder or PTSD develops in the majority of rape victims.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 130 of your text.

68. Men are more likely to be victims of violence.

Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 130 of your text.

69. After experiencing a trauma, women are more likely than men to experience PTSD. Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 132 of your text.

70. People who live in poor urban areas are at increased risk for developing PTSD. Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 132 of your text.

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71. People who live in poor urban areas are less likely then people living in other areas to experience trauma.

Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 132 of your text.

72. Anxiety disorders have universally agreed upon features.

Ans: false Section reference: Classifying anxiety disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 132 of your text.

73. Behavior treatment for PTSD involves avoidance of all feelings, thoughts, and images associated with the trauma.

Ans: false Section reference: Behavioral components: Posttraumatic stress disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 143 of your text.

Essay

1. Explain why anxiety is normal at one end of the continuum but pathological at the other.

2. Explain the differences in anxiety disorders across at least 3 different cultures.

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3. Describe the relationship between classical conditioning and flooding (as a treatment for anxiety disorders).

4. Evaluate the behavioral explanations for anxiety disorders.

5. Compare the behavioral and psychodynamic explanations for phobias.

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Chapter: 05, Chapter 5: Mood and the Mood Disorders

Multiple choice

1. Which of the following is NOT true about mood?

A) Mood includes cognitive, motivational, and physical aspects.

B) Fluctuations in mood are considered to be abnormal.

C) Pathologically elevated mood is called mania.

D) Depression is the term used to describe abnormally low mood.

Ans: B Section reference: Defining mood and mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 164 of your text.

2. The text authors state that pathological mood states can be defined as: A) emotional extremes that do not seem appropriate to the context B) sudden changes in mood C) mood changes that have a clear precipitating event D) emotional states that last for a long time Ans: A Section reference: The importance of context in defining mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 165 of your text.

3. The earliest references to pathological depression come from: A) Hippocrates’ writings B) Sumerian and Egyptian documents C) the Bible D) documents from the Middle Ages Ans: B Section reference: Classifying mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 29

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Page reference: See page 165 of your text.

4. Hippocrates believed that depression is caused by: A) the position of the planets B) committing adultery C) insufficient mental activity D) too much black bile Ans: D Section reference: Classifying mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 165 of your text.

5. Who was the first to classify schizophrenia separately from bipolar disorder?

A) Hippocrates B) Kraepelin C) Leonhard D) Bleuler Ans: B Section reference: Classifying mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 165 of your text.

6. What contribution did Karl Leonhard make to our understanding of mood disorders?

A) He was the first to distinguish between bipolar disorder and schizophrenia.

B) He recognized the role of neurotransmitters in the maintenance of depression.

C) He argued that unipolar mood disorders are distinct from bipolar mood disorders.

D) He developed the first successful treatment for depression, electroconvulsive therapy.

Ans: C Section reference: Classifying mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 165 of your text.

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7. In DSM-IV-TR, there are ____ different mood episodes, which form the basis for the ____ different mood disorders.

A) 2; 4 B) 2; 5 C) 3; 4 D) 3; 5 Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 166 of your text.

8. How does DSM-IV-TR distinguish between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode?

A) The symptoms are much more severe in a manic episode.

B) A hypomanic episode lasts 4 or more days and a manic episode lasts one week or more.

C) A manic episode causes impairment in functioning, but a hypomanic episode does not.

D) All of the above.

Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 166 of your text.

9. Georgia has been feeling really sad for the past 3 months, ever since her divorce.

She does not want to do anything that she used to enjoy. She has trouble forcing herself to get out of bed in the morning, and a couple of times a week, she has just stayed in bed all day and called in sick to work. Georgia is unable to sleep for more than an hour without waking. She has also lost her appetite; as a result, she has lost 20 pounds in the past 3 months, without trying. She worries about her life and believes that her future is hopeless. She is thinking about killing herself. What type of mood episode does Georgia seem to be experiencing?

A) hypomanic episode B) major depressive episode C) manic episode D) normal mood episode

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Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 167 of your text.

10. For the past few weeks, Steve has been feeling down. Nothing seems to interest him, including his hobbies and sports. He has been sleeping close to 12 hours a night (he used to sleep 7 or 8), plus a nap after work, and yet he is still tired all the time.

Steve has been eating a lot more than usual, and has gained 10 pounds in the past few weeks. Which of the following best describes Steve?

A) dysthymic episode B) hypomanic episode C) major depressive episode D) normal mood episode Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 167 of your text.

11. All of the following are common features of a major depressive episode EXCEPT: A) cognitive distortions B) loss of motivation C) racing thoughts D) pessimism Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 167 of your text.

12. Which of the following accurately shows how loss of motivation, a symptom of depression, enhances feelings of depression?

A) Loss of motivation is viewed as a sign of low personal value → feelings of worthlessness and guilt → increased depression B) Loss of motivation → too much time without distractions → excessive focus on negative aspects of life → increased depression Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 4 of 29

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C) Loss of motivation → tendency for others to pass judgment on depressed person → increased depression D) Loss of motivation is accepted as part of personality → self-concept changes → anger at self for allowing self-concept to change → increased depression Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 168 of your text.

13. In most cases, an untreated major depressive episode lasts for: A) 2 weeks B) 4 months C) 6 months D) 2 years Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 168 of your text.

14. Which of the following is NOT true about suicide risk?

A) People who have previously attempted suicide have a higher risk than anyone else.

B) People who have a medical illness are at a much higher risk than those with psychological disorders.

C) People with depression are at a higher risk than people with manic depression.

D) People who abuse opiates or alcohol are at higher risk than the general population.

Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Suicide Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 168 of your text.

15. Which of the following is NOT true about suicide attempts?

A) Men are more likely than women to attempt suicide.

B) Single people are more likely than married people to attempt suicide.

C) People with criminal records are at increased risk for repeated attempts.

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D) Poverty is associated with increased risk of suicide attempts.

Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Suicide Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See pages 169-170 of your text.

16. Which of the following is NOT true about completed suicides?

A) The highest rate of completed suicide is in people over 75 years of age.

B) Suicide is the leading cause of death among adolescents in the U.S. C) Compared to women, men use more lethal methods to commit suicide.

D) Native Americans have a higher suicide rate than other ethnic groups in the U.S. Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Suicide Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 170 of your text.

17. Which of the following is a myth (i.e., not true) about suicide?

A) Occasional thoughts about suicide are common in the general population.

B) Most individuals who attempt suicide have told someone about their intentions.

C) Many people have accidentally killed themselves in what was intended to be a nonlethal attempt.

D) Talking with a suicidal individual about their feelings will increase the likelihood of an attempt.

Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Suicide Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 170 of your text.

18. For the past 10 days, Kate has been much more talkative than usual. She has not gone to work because she believes that she is “too good for it,” and that they (her employers) “do not deserve [her] talent.” During this time, Kate has been extremely active, working on a number of projects at home. She has also gone on several shopping trips, spending much more money than she can afford to spend. Which of the following best describes Kate?

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A) cyclothymia B) hypomanic episode C) manic episode D) normal behavior Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Manic Depressive Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 171 of your text.

19. A hypomanic episode is: A) a DSM diagnostic category B) a kind a mood episode C) a more severe version of mania D) not relevant to any disorders Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Hypomanic Episode Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 172 of your text.

20. Larry has felt unusually sociable, talkative, and self-confident over the past week.

He has also been much more productive at work, finishing several projects that he was previously unable to complete. He has also needed much less sleep than usual. Which of the following seems to best fit Larry?

A) cyclothymia B) hypomanic episode C) manic episode D) normal mood episode Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories: Hypomanic Episode Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 172 of your text.

21. How does dysthymia differ from major depressive disorder (MDD)?

A) Dysthymia involves more symptoms than MDD, but the symptoms are milder.

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B) Dysthymia symptoms last 2+ years, whereas MDD is diagnosed after 2 weeks.

C) Dysthymia is much more common than MDD. D) Dysthymia has several subtypes but MDD does not have any subtypes.

Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Mood Disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 175 of your text.

22. Which of the following involves one or more manic episodes?

A) cyclothymia B) bipolar I disorder C) bipolar II disorder D) A & C Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Mood Disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 176 of your text.

23. Which of the following involves hypomania and major depressive episodes?

A) cyclothymia B) dysthymia C) bipolar I disorder D) bipolar II disorder Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Mood Disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 176 of your text.

24. For the past few weeks, Marcus has felt depressed and does not feel like doing anything. He is tired all the time, and has trouble sleeping. He eats very little, compared to his normal appetite. He feels hopeless and that life is not worth living. Based on these symptoms, what disorder does Marcus seem to have?

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C) major depressive disorder D) no disorder Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Mood Disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 173 of your text.

25. Marcus (from the last question) stops feeling depressed after a few weeks and instead, experiences elevated mood. His self-esteem becomes very inflated, he needs much less sleep than normal, and he has an increase in goal-directed activity. These symptoms last for 5 days, and they are noticeable to others, but they do not cause severe impairment. Based on this information, what disorder does Marcus seem to have?

A) bipolar I disorder B) bipolar II disorder C) cyclothymia D) major depressive disorder with psychotic features Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Mood Disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 176 of your text.

26. Simon is experiencing major depressive disorder. His symptoms include loss of pleasure in most activities, significant weight loss, early morning awakening, worse feelings of depression in the morning, and excessive guilt. Which subtype of depression is Simon experiencing?

A) atypical B) catatonic C) melancholic D) seasonal Ans: C Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 174 of your text.

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27. LaKeisha is experiencing major depressive disorder. Her symptoms include significant weight gain, sleeping a lot more than usual, and interpersonal rejection sensitivity. Which subtype of depression is LaKeisha experiencing?

A) atypical B) melancholic C) post-partum D) psychotic Ans: B Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 174 of your text.

28. Psychotic features are most common in what subtype of depression?

A) atypical B) melancholic C) postpartum D) seasonal Ans: C Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 174 of your text.

29. Once a person has experienced a major depressive episode, subsequent major depressive episodes are: A) unlikely to occur.

B) more likely to occur after every major life stressor.

C) less likely to be precipitated by major life stressors.

D) likely to be more intense and to last longer.

Ans: C Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 173 of your text.

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30. Gabriela has been feeling down and depressed for most days over the past three years. During this time, she has also had little energy, poor concentration, and difficulty making decisions. Which of the following best describes her?

A) depressive disorder not otherwise specified B) dysthymia C) major depressive disorder D) normal variation in mood Ans: B Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 166 of your text.

31. A mood episode in which both manic and depressive symptoms are both present is called: A) cyclothymic mood episode B) major depressive episode C) manic episode D) mixed episode Ans: D Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 175 of your text.

32. A person with the rapid cycling subtype of bipolar I disorder has at least ____ or more mood episodes in one year.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 Ans: A Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 177 of your text.

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33. As time goes on, between ________ percent of people with bipolar II disorder develop __________.

A) 15-25; cyclothymia B) 25-50; cyclothymia C) 5-15; bipolar I disorder D) 35-50; bipolar I disorder Ans: C Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 176 of your text.

34. Jorge experiences recurrent episodes of depression that is not severe enough to be categorized as major depression episodes (he has never met criteria for major depression). He also experiences recurrent hypomanic episodes, and has never had a manic or mixed episode. Which of the following best describes Jorge?

A) cyclothymia B) dysthymia C) bipolar I disorder D) bipolar II disorder Ans: A Section reference: Subtypes of major depressive disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 176 of your text.

35. Which of the following is NOT true about depressive disorders?

A) About one-quarter of all women in the U.S. will have major depressive disorder at some time.

B) About one-quarter of all men in the U.S. will have major depressive disorder at some time.

C) Children and adolescents exhibit signs and symptoms of depression in different ways than adults.

D) Depression can occur at any age, even during infancy, but bipolar disorders typically begin later.

Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 12 of 29

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Page reference: See page 179 of your text.

36. Compared to other children, school-aged children who are depressed: A) have none of the symptoms of adult depression B) complain of stomachaches and headaches C) frequently skip school or stop going altogether D) are less aggressive toward peers and adults Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 178 of your text.

37. Which of the following is NOT associated with adolescent depression?

A) irritability and argumentativeness B) sexual promiscuity and other risky behaviors C) drug and alcohol abuse D) preoccupation with appearance Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 178 of your text.

38. Which of the following is NOT true about gender differences in depression?

A) Genetic factors are primarily responsible for gender differences in depression.

B) Women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with depression.

C) Women who pursue traditional female roles are at increased risk for depression.

D) Husbands who help around the home at not at increased risk for depression.

Ans: A Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 179 of your text.

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39. Which of the following correctly identifies relative prevalence rates for depression in the U.S., from highest to lowest prevalence?

A) African Americans, Caucasians (whites), Latinos B) African Americans, Latinos, Caucasians (whites) C) Caucasians (whites), Latinos, African Americans D) Latinos, African Americans, Caucasians (whites) Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 180 of your text.

40. Rates of depression correlate with all of the following EXCEPT: A) poverty B) low levels of education C) long work hours D) unemployment Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 180 of your text.

41. Genetic research on depression shows that: A) distant relatives of depressed people are at increased risk for depression B) mild depression has a stronger genetic component than severe depression C) biological relatives of depressed adoptees are at increased risk for suicide D) the concordance rate is higher in dizygotic twins than in monozygotic twins Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 181 of your text.

42. Among people with histories of exposure to severe stress, risk of depression was much higher among those with: A) abnormally low serotonin levels Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 14 of 29

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B) a third chromosome 21 C) two long forms of the 5-HTT gene D) two short forms of the 5-HTT gene Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 184 of your text.

43. After taking antidepressant medication for several weeks, increased concentrations of monoamines in the synaptic cleft seems to lead to: A) an increased likelihood of a manic episode B) depletion of serotonin and an increase in dopamine C) growth of more monoamine receptor sites D) chronic down-regulation of monoamine receptors Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 184 of your text.

44. A significant percentage of people who are severely depressed have high blood levels of: A) cortisol B) cortisone C) dopamine D) serotonin Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 184 of your text.

45. Which of the following is NOT an accurate antidepressant - action pairing?

A) MAOI – inhibits monoamine oxidase B) SSRI – inhibit reuptake of serotonin C) tricyclics – block reuptake of dopamine Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 15 of 29

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D) MAOI – enhance transmission of norepinephrine Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Biological Intervention Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 183 of your text.

46. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using MAOIs to treat depression?

A) MAOIs increase the body’s ability to metabolize tyramine.

B) MAOIs have to be taken several weeks before they are effective.

C) MAOIs can be fatal if the person takes too much.

D) MAOIs have more side effects than other antidepressants.

Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Biological Intervention Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 182 of your text.

47. SSRIs have several advantages compared to MAOIs and tricyclics. Which of the following is NOT one of those advantages?

A) less lethal in overdose B) fewer side effects C) less expensive D) show effects more quickly Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Biological Intervention Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 183 of your text.

48. ECT is typically only administered to: A) highly aggressive individuals who do not improve with behavioral therapy B) suicidal people who are not depressed but who have a history of depression C) severely depressed people who do not benefit from antidepressants D) people with bipolar disorder who prefer not to take medication Ans: C Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 16 of 29

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Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Biological Intervention Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 188 of your text.

49. Which of the following is NOT true about lithium?

A) It is not effective at treating bipolar disorder in about 30-40% of individuals who try it.

B) It is a naturally occurring mineral salt whose mechanism of action is not well understood.

C) It is a safe drug that is only lethal if the person takes about 100 times the normal dose.

D) Half of the people who stop taking it when they feel better experience a mood episode within 5 months.

Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Biological Intervention Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 188 of your text.

50. What is the negative cognitive triad?

A) negative beliefs about personal control, goals, and destiny B) depressive beliefs about yesterday, today, and tomorrow C) all-or-nothing thinking, overgeneralization, and catastrophizing D) negative thoughts about the self, the future, and the world Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 191 of your text.

51. According to Beck’s theory, negative self-schemas produce: A) irrational ideals B) internal locus of control C) negative automatic thoughts D) learned helplessness Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 17 of 29

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 191 of your text.

52. After seeing his failing grade on the 1st exam, John exclaimed, “I’ll never be able to pass a college class!” This is an example of: A) arbitrary inference B) selective abstraction C) over-generalization D) all-or-none thinking Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 191 of your text.

53. After learning that her boyfriend no longer loves her, Erika says, “If he doesn’t love me, no one will!” Erika is exhibiting: A) arbitrary inference B) selective abstraction C) over-generalization D) all-or-none thinking Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 191 of your text.

54. After being repeatedly beaten by her husband, Martha no longer tries to escape from his grasp, and she does not call the police afterward) She silently tolerates the beatings until he is finished. According to Seligman, Martha is exhibiting: A) over-generalization B) learned helplessness C) negative self-schemas D) dissociative escapism Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 29

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 192 of your text.

55. Four students leave for abnormal psychology class at the usual time. However, because of road work on campus, they are 15 minutes late for the exam. Which of the following students’ thoughts is associated with the greatest risk for depression?

A) “Those stupid road workers – I can’t believe they made me late for an exam!”

B) “I’m usually in class early so I’m certain that the professor will understand)” C) “Because that road work made me late for the exam, I’m certain to fail this class!”

D) “It’s a good thing that they don’t usually do road work right before my exams!”

Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 192 of your text.

56. According to Seligman, what thinking pattern is associated with depression?

A) negative cognitive triad B) pessimistic explanatory style C) dysfunctional self-schemas D) external locus of control Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 192 of your text.

57. Each therapy approach is based on one or more assumptions. Some possible assumptions are: (1) negative thinking can be eliminated by increasing serotonin levels, (2) negative thinking contributes to depression, (3) changing negative thinking will improve mood, (4) negative thinking can be monitored and changed using directive, logical methods. Which of these assumptions actually underlie cognitive interventions for depression?

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Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 193 of your text.

58. What is the first step in Sacco & Beck’s cognitive intervention for depression?

A) identify and alter dysfunctional assumptions B) identify and monitor dysfunctional automatic thoughts C) evaluate the reasonableness of negative automatic thoughts D) recognize the connections between thoughts, emotions, behaviors Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 193 of your text.

59. What is one purpose of the fifth step in Sacco & Beck’s cognitive intervention for depression?

A) Help the client recognize that she makes internal, global, and stable attributions.

B) Help the client compare his dysfunctional thoughts to rational responses.

C) Help the client identify the assumptions that promote negative self-schemas.

D) Help the client associate negative thoughts with depressed mood and behavior.

Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Cognitive Interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 193 of your text.

60. According to B. F. Skinner, depression results from: A) negative thoughts about oneself, the world, and the future B) imbalances in the monoamine neurotransmitters C) unresolved childhood experiences of loss and mourning D) interruption of reinforcements from the environment Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Behavioral Components Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 20 of 29

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 194 of your text.

61. According to Lewinsohn, several conditions increase the likelihood of depression.

Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?

A) decreased sensitivity to negative events (punishment) B) poor social skills C) environment with low reinforcement potential and high punishment potential D) diminished capacity to enjoy positive events (reinforcements) Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Behavioral Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 195 of your text.

62. Clients with bipolar disorders show the most improvement: A) when treated with lithium alone B) when treated with antidepressants alone C) when treated with lithium and cognitive-behavioral therapy D) when treated with lithium and psychodynamic therapy Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Behavioral Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 196 of your text.

63. According to Freud, depression results from: A) unacknowledged anger at a lost or disappointing person B) excessive mourning for a parent who died in childhood C) internalized guilt for early misbehaviors or aggression D) shame related to unconscious sexual feelings Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Psychodynamic Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 21 of 29

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Page reference: See page 196 of your text.

64. According to Freud’s structural theory, which part of the personality is most involved in the development of depression?

A) unconscious B) id C) ego D) superego Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Psychodynamic Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 197 of your text.

65. Sociocultural interventions to reduce depression focus on: A) resolving childhood traumatic experiences B) changing irrational thinking patterns C) improving self-esteem and social support D) enhancing one’s understanding of the country Ans: C Section reference: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 199 of your text.

66. Inpatient family intervention involves: A) identifying family members’ disorders and treating them B) helping families understand and accept their relative’s disorder C) assisting families in filing for permanent or temporary disability D) medicating and treating all members of the family Ans: B Section reference: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality and 5 Page reference: See page 199 of your text.

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67. Family systems approaches to depression are especially helpful when: A) the depression has been proven to have a genetic basis B) a child or adolescent in the family is depressed C) the depressed person is unmarried and childless D) negative thoughts are responsible for depression Ans: B Section reference: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 199 of your text.

68. Interpersonal psychotherapy incorporates aspects of all of the following approaches EXCEPT: A) behavioral B) biological C) cognitive D) psychodynamic Ans: B Section reference: Multiple causality of mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 200 of your text.

69. Which treatment for depression assumes that there is a circular relationship between mood and relationships?

A) cognitive therapy B) family systems therapy C) interpersonal psychotherapy D) psychodynamic psychotherapy Ans: C Section reference: Multiple causality of mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 200 of your text.

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70. Chantay is struggling with her boss over job responsibilities. She needs help understanding her part in this struggle and how she can change the relationship with her boss. According to the IPT model, Chantay is experiencing what type of interpersonal problem?

A) interpersonal loss B) interpersonal role dispute C) interpersonal role transition D) interpersonal deficit Ans: B Section reference: Multiple causality of mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 200 of your text.

71. Margie has four children; since the birth of the first child, Margie has been a fulltime homemaker. Recently, the youngest child left for college. For the first time in 25 years, there are no children in the house. Margie is struggling to adjust to this new situation, and what it means to her. According to the IPT model, Margie is experiencing what type of interpersonal problem?

A) interpersonal loss B) interpersonal role dispute C) interpersonal role transition D) interpersonal deficit Ans: C Section reference: Multiple causality of mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 201 of your text.

72. Trevor has poor social skills and needs encouragement to try out new relationships and behavior patterns. According to the IPT model, what type of interpersonal problem is Trevor experiencing?

A) interpersonal loss B) interpersonal role dispute C) interpersonal role transition D) interpersonal deficit Ans: D Section reference: Multiple causality of mood disorders Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 24 of 29

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 201 of your text.

73. Lawrence was married for 15 years to a woman who died 4 years ago. He wants to pursue another romantic relationship and eventually get married again, but he has been unable to appropriately grieve the death of his former wife. According to the IPT model, what type of interpersonal problem is Lawrence experiencing?

A) interpersonal loss B) interpersonal role dispute C) interpersonal role transition D) interpersonal deficit Ans: A Section reference: Multiple causality of mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 201 of your text.

74. Research has shown that the most effective depression treatment, particularly for preventing relapse, is: A) antidepressant medication B) cognitive therapy C) interpersonal psychotherapy D) medication and psychotherapy Ans: D Section reference: Case Discussion: major depressive disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 202 of your text.

True/False

75. Psychologists are able to clearly distinguish between mood that is normal and mood that is abnormal.

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Section reference: Defining mood and mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 164 of your text.

76. By definition, people who attempt suicide have a mood disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 167 of your text.

77. During a manic episode, the manic person is much more active than usual.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 171 of your text.

78. A person in a manic episode performs much better work than usual.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 171 of your text.

79. Without treatment, a person with bipolar I disorder is likely to experience more frequent mood cycles over time.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 177 of your text.

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80. Without treatment, a person with bipolar I disorder is likely to experience less intense mood episodes over time.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR mood disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 177 of your text.

81. Fifteen to 50% of people with cyclothymia eventually develop bipolar I or bipolar II disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR mood disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 176 of your text.

82. Depression is the most common psychiatric disorder among older adults.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 178 of your text.

83. Older people are generally more depressed than younger people.

Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 178 of your text.

84. Women tend to externalize psychological distress, whereas men tend to internalize.

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Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 180 of your text.

85. Rates of bipolar disorder are consistent across cultures.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Culture Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 180 of your text.

86. Although researchers have established a connection between altered monoamine levels and abnormal mood, they do not know whether the altered monoamine levels are a cause or effect of abnormal mood.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Brief Summary Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 184 of your text.

87. Research suggests that the genes which predispose a person to bipolar illness contribute to creativity.

Ans: true Section reference: Are mood disorders and creativity linked?

Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 186 of your text.

88. Artists and writers with bipolar disorder or severe depression are less productive and creative when their mood disorder is treated.

Ans: false Section reference: Are mood disorders and creativity linked?

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Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 186 of your text.

89. Behavioral interventions are thought to be appropriate for even the most severe levels of depression.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating mood disorders: Behavioral interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 195 of your text.

Essay

1. Compare and contrast major depressive disorder and dysthymia.

2. Compare and contrast bipolar I disorder, bipolar II disorder, and cyclothymia.

3. Name and describe the three major classes of antidepressants. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of each class.

4. Evaluate the biological, cognitive, and psychodynamic explanations of depression.

Using aspects of these explanations, create your own theory to explain depression.

5. Describe the interpersonal psychotherapy model and how it exhibits the principle of multiple causality.

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Chapter: 6, Chapter 6: Psychological Stress and Physical Disorders

Multiple choice

1. A person’s subjective perception of a stressful event is referred to as that person’s: A) cognitive appraisal B) objective viewpoint C) core belief D) coping self-statement Ans: A Section reference: Cognitive appraisal of stress Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 206 of your text.

2. Cognitive appraisals of a potentially stressful event generally focus on: A) whether the event would be perceived as stressful to others B) whether the event poses a threat to one’s own well-being C) whether adequate resources are available for managing D) A & B E. B & C Ans: E Section reference: Cognitive appraisal of stress Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 206 of your text.

3. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a person to perceive an event as stressful?

A) The person is unable to control the outcome of the event.

B) The event requires a significant amount of adaptation.

C) The process and outcome of the event are predictable.

D) The person views that type of event as negative.

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 206 of your text.

4. A stressful event could also be called a: A) stressor B) perception C) context D) attribute Ans: A Section reference: Categorizing stressors Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 207 of your text.

5. Changes that require adaptation are called: A) catastrophic events B) chronic stressors C) daily hassles D) life events Ans: D Section reference: Categorizing stressors Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 207 of your text.

6. According to the Holmes-Rahe Social Readjustment Rating Scale, which of the following would be the most stressful life event?

A) getting divorced B) getting pregnant C) having a sibling die D) having trouble with in-laws Ans: A Section reference: Categorizing stressors Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 208 of your text.

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7. What was the major contribution of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale to the study of stress?

A) It highlights the importance of family-related life changes.

B) It points out that positive life events can be very stressful.

C) It is the first universally accepted rating scale for stress.

D) It categorizes stressful life events according to cause.

Ans: B Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Life events Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 209 of your text.

8. According to the text authors, the Holmes-Rahe Social Readjustment Rating Scale does NOT: A) account for the fact that everyone experiences stressful events differently.

B) take into consideration the fact that positive life events can be very stressful.

C) make any contributions to the study of stress or stressful life events.

D) include any life events that would typically be considered negative.

Ans: A Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Life events Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 209 of your text.

9. Research studies have found connections between chronic stress and all of the following EXCEPT: A) compromised immune functioning B) higher cardiovascular reactivity C) overall worse physical health D) significantly reduced cortisol levels Ans: D Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Chronic stress Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 209 of your text.

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10. When studying daily hassles, researchers are primarily concerned with: A) counting the occurrence of objective daily hassles B) determining which daily hassles are objectively stressful C) measuring the degree to which daily hassles feel stressful D) completely eliminating all daily hassles from life Ans: C Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Daily hassles Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 209 of your text.

11. One study found that major life events present at the beginning of the study were more likely to result in emotional difficulty at follow-up when what was also present?

A) catastrophic events B) daily hassles C) frustrations D) traumatic events Ans: B Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Daily hassles Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 209 of your text.

12. A person who experiences a catastrophic event is most likely to experience this event as traumatic if: A) the event lasts for a few hours B) the person did not experience the event but knows people who did C) the person lacks social support after the event D) the person has been emotionally stable and healthy Ans: C Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Catastrophic events Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 210 of your text.

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13. A nation-wide survey conducted in the week after the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001 found that ___ adults reported one or more symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder.

A) 14% B) 20% C) 35% D) 44% Ans: D Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Catastrophic events Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 210 of your text.

14. Psychological stress can contribute to physical disease by: A) increasing unhealthy behaviors B) causing adverse physiological reactions C) creating unpleasant personality traits D) A & B E. B & C Ans: D Section reference: Explaining stress and health: Psychophysiological disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 211 of your text.

15. Which branch of the nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response?

A) central nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) sympathetic nervous system Ans: D Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 212 of your text.

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16. According to Selye’s conception of the General Adaptation Syndrome, during what stage does the body attempt to adapt to the external stressor?

A) alarm B) challenge C) exhaustion D) resistance Ans: D Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: General adaptation syndrome Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 212 of your text.

17. Viral challenge studies have shown that: A) higher levels of preinfection stress predicted increased severity of viral infection B) higher levels of preinfection stress predicted decreased severity of viral infection C) higher levels of postinfection stress predicted decreased severity of viral infection D) acute, brief stressors are more likely than chronic stressors to lead to viral infection Ans: A Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: General adaptation syndrome Difficulty level: easy Core concepts: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 213 of your text.

18. Dangerous foreign substances in the body are called: A) antibodies B) antigens C) killer cells D) T cells Ans: B Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and the immune system Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 214 of your text.

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19. Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to excessive cholesterol deposits is called: A) atherosclerosis B) arteriosclerosis C) myocardial infarction D) coronary deposit disease Ans: A Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and coronary heart disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 215 of your text.

20. Even when other coronary risk factors are taken into account, what personality trait constitutes a significant risk factor for developing coronary heart disease?

A) competitiveness B) hard working C) hostility D) persistence Ans: C Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and coronary heart disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 215 of your text.

21. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between asthma and psychological stress?

A) There is no connection between asthma and psychological stress.

B) Asthma is not a real physical problem; it is just symptoms of stress.

C) Psychological stress exacerbates asthma in people with this condition.

D) Psychological stress causes asthma in healthy individuals.

Ans: C Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and other medical disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 216 of your text.

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22. Pessimists attribute negative events to all of the following types of factors EXCEPT: A) global B) internal C) specific D) stable Ans: C Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Pessimism and optimism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 217 of your text.

23. Repressive coping style is identified by: A) low anxiety scores and low social desirability scores B) low anxiety scores and high social desirability scores C) high anxiety scores and low social desirability scores D) high anxiety scores and high social desirability scores Ans: B Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Repressive coping Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 218 of your text.

24. Relaxation training has been shown to do all of the following EXCEPT: A) lower heart rate B) increase sympathetic nervous system activity C) enhance T-helper cell activity D) heighten natural killer cell activity Ans: B Section reference: Reducing stress and treating psychophysiological disorders: Relaxation and meditation Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 219 of your text.

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25. Cognitive retraining interventions attempt to change: A) thoughts that traumatic events are always bad B) unhealthy behaviors that result from negative thinking C) pessimistic explanatory styles related to negative events D) personality traits associated with coronary heart disease Ans: C Section reference: Reducing stress and treating psychophysiological disorders: Cognitive retraining Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 220 of your text.

26. A friend who helps an ill friend by cooking meals and paying bills is providing: A) emotional support B) informational support C) instrumental support D) health support Ans: C Section reference: Reducing stress and treating psychophysiological disorders: Social support Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 221 of your text.

27. Which of the following accurately describes the connection between writing and stress?

A) Venting emotions through writing always increases stress and reduces the quality of physical health.

B) Venting emotions through writing is sufficient to decrease stress and improve physical health.

C) Reliving stressful events through writing is sufficient to decrease stress and improve physical health.

D) Writing strengthens immune functioning when used to learn from stressful experiences.

Ans: D Section reference: Reducing stress and treating psychophysiological disorders: Critical thinking question Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 9 of 24

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Page reference: See page 224 of your text.

28. Symptoms are intentionally produced in: A) conversion disorder B) factitious disorder C) hypochondriasis D) somatization disorder Ans: B Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 225 of your text.

29. What disorder involves the self-induction of disease symptoms by ingesting toxic substances, misusing medications, or using similar methods?

A) Conversion disorder B) Hypochondriasis C) Munchausen’s syndrome D) Somatization disorder Ans: C Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders: Factitious disorders and malingering Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 226 of your text.

30. What disorder involves inducing disease symptoms in another person?

A) Conversion disorder by proxy B) Hypochondriasis by proxy C) Munchausen’s by proxy D) Pain disorder by proxy Ans: C Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders: Factitious disorders and malingering Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 226 of your text.

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31. What is the difference between factitious disorder and malingering?

A) Symptoms are intentional in factitious disorder but unintentional in malingering.

B) Symptoms are intentional in malingering but unintentional in factitious disorder.

C) The incentive in factitious disorder is external but in malingering it is attention.

D) The incentive in factitious disorder is attention but in malingering it is external.

Ans: D Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 226 of your text.

32. Wendy learned at an early age that she receives a lot of attention if she is sick.

Therefore, whenever she feels depressed and that she is not getting enough attention from her boyfriend, she pretends to be sick. Which of the following best fits Wendy?

A) conversion disorder B) factitious disorder C) malingering D) somatization disorder Ans: B Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 225 of your text.

33. Greg fell off a ladder at work. Even though doctors could not find anything physically wrong with him other than a few scrapes and bruises, he complains of intense head and back pain. He says the pain is so bad that he cannot work, and he has filed for worker’s compensation. While off from work, several co-workers have observed Greg waterskiing, motorcycling, and engaging in strenuous exercise. He was overheard saying that he feels fine, but needed a vacation. Which of the following best fits Greg?

A) conversion disorder B) factitious disorder C) malingering D) pain disorder Ans: C Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 11 of 24

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Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 226 of your text.

34. Somatoform disorders were distinguished as a separate, independent diagnostic category in: A) DSM-I B) DSM-II C) DSM-III D) DSM-IV Ans: C Section reference: Classifying somatoform disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 227 of your text.

35. For centuries, the term “hysteria” was used to describe the disorder that is now known as: A) conversion disorder B) factitious disorder C) hypochondriasis D) somatization disorder Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Conversion disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 227 of your text.

36. Zach served in the first Persian Gulf War. His National Guard unit was recently put on alert, and told that they are likely to ship out to Iraq soon. Unexpectedly, Zach woke up yesterday morning and was unable to move his legs. They were completely paralyzed. Tests confirmed that he was not faking, yet no physical cause has been found for this paralysis. Which of the following best fits Zach?

A) conversion disorder B) hypochondriasis C) pain disorder D) somatization disorder Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 12 of 24

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Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Conversion disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 227 of your text.

37. Which somatoform disorder involves a specific functional deficit that occurs in the midst of a psychological conflict or stressor?

A) conversion disorder B) hypochondriasis C) pain disorder D) somatization disorder Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Somatization disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 227of your text.

38. 28-year-old Tara has suffered from numerous health problems during the past 10 years. She has stomach ulcers, frequent nausea, irregular menstrual periods, dizziness, double vision, and pain in her back, legs, knees, and head. She frequently seeks the advice of her doctor, who has never been able to find anything medically wrong with her. What disorder does Tara seem to have?

A) conversion disorder B) hypochondriasis C) pain disorder D) somatization disorder Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Somatization disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 229 of your text.

39. Compared to people without the disorder, people with somatization disorder spend how much more money on health care services?

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C) five times as much D) nine times as much Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Somatization disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 229 of your text.

40. In the first two editions of DSM, the term “Briquet’s syndrome” was used to describe: A) conversion disorder B) hypochondriasis C) pain disorder D) somatization disorder Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Somatization disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

41. Gordon had a bad car accident several years ago that crushed his collarbone and pelvis and shattered two vertebrae in his neck; the accident also killed his wife. Over time, Gordon’s physical damage healed but his pain persisted. Currently, Gordon experiences significant pain that makes it difficult for him to sleep or to enjoy much of anything. His doctor continues to prescribe pain medication, but cannot find a specific physical cause for the continued pain. Which of the following best fits Gordon?

A) conversion disorder B) hypochondriasis C) pain disorder D) somatization disorder Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Pain disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

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42. Marci constantly worries that she has a serious disease of some kind. Every day, she experiences little aches, pains, or sensations that convince her that her worst fears are true; for example, if she feels a pain in her stomach, she is certain that she has stomach cancer. What disorder does Marci seem to have?

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) conversion disorder C) hypochondriasis D) somatization disorder Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Hypochondriasis Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

43. David believes that his hands are abnormally small, and that other people frequently notice the small size of his hands. He thinks that other people associate hand size with genital size, and that other people will see his hands, think they are small, and assume that his penis is small. David thinks that both men and women will instantly dislike him for this reason. David hides his hands in his pockets whenever possible. He has investigated various methods of “hand enlargement,” and has actually considered amputation, thinking that no hands are better than small hands. Which of the following best describes David?

A) body dysmorphic disorder B) conversion disorder C) malingering D) somatization disorder Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories: Body dysmorphic disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 231 of your text.

44. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is similar in many ways to: A) conversion disorder B) hypochondriasis C) pain disorder D) somatization disorder Ans: B

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Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR somatoform diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

45. Which of the following disorders occurs significantly more often in women than men?

A) body dysmorphic disorder B) conversion disorder C) hypochondriasis D) none of the above Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 234 of your text.

46. Which of the following is NOT true about age and the somatoform disorders?

A) Somatoform disorders usually begin in adolescence or early adulthood.

B) Body dysmorphic disorder usually begins during adolescence.

C) Hypochondriasis begins in adulthood and persists throughout the person’s life.

D) Conversion disorder is rare before age 10 and is most common after 35.

Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See pages 235 of your text.

47. When working with clients suffering from somatoform disorders, a psychodynamic therapist is watchful for the workings of defense mechanisms like: A) amplification B) catastrophizing C) repression D) transference Ans: C Section reference: Psychodynamic components: Psychodynamic interventions Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 16 of 24

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 236 of your text.

48. Cognitive-behavioral theorists argue that conversion, somatization, and pain disorder are most likely to develop in children whose parents: A) had frequent illnesses B) reinforced somatic expressions of distress C) provided harsh, uncaring discipline D) had a pessimistic explanatory style Ans: B Section reference: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 237 of your text.

49. Cognitive explanations of hypochondriasis emphasize the role of: A) amplification B) catastrophizing C) overgeneralization D) A & B E. B & C Ans: D Section reference: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 237 of your text.

50. What cognitive-behavioral technique used to treat body dysmorphic disorder involves confronting a frightening thought or situation without engaging in anxietyreducing behaviors?

A) cognitive restructuring B) exposure and response prevention C) interoceptive exposure D) systematic desensitization Ans: B Section reference: Cognitive-behavioral components: Cognitive-behavioral interventions Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 17 of 24

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 238 of your text.

51. What therapy technique identifies, evaluates, and changes harmful negative thoughts?

A) cognitive restructuring B) exposure and response prevention C) interoceptive exposure D) systematic desensitization Ans: A Section reference: Cognitive-behavioral components: Cognitive-behavioral interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 239 of your text.

52. Many people with somatoform disorders also experience comorbid: A) anxiety disorders B) dissociative disorders C) depression D) substance abuse Ans: C Section reference: Biological components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 240 of your text.

53. Hypnosis and conversion symptoms appear to involve activation of what part of the brain?

A) anterior frontal lobe B) hypothalamus C) limbic system D) posterior parietal lobe Ans: A Section reference: The connection between mind and body in somatoform disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 24

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Page reference: See page 241 of your text.

True/False

54. An event that is stressful to one person will be stressful to any other person.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychophysiology: Defining psychological stress Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 206 of your text.

55. Researchers have found evidence that daily hassles mediate the relationship between major life events and physical or emotional symptoms.

Ans: true Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Daily hassles Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page X of your text.

56. Research related to the Oklahoma City bombing showed that watching media coverage of the event was associated with posttraumatic stress symptoms two years after the bombing.

Ans: true Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Catastrophic events Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 209 of your text.

57. A nationwide survey conducted after the September 11 terrorist attacks found that residents of Manhattan and people who knew a victim of the attacks were the only people who showed posttraumatic stress symptoms.

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Section reference: Categorizing stressors: Catastrophic events Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 210 of your text.

58. Psychological stress decreases health-promoting behaviors, such as exercising and getting enough sleep.

Ans: true Section reference: Psychological stress and unhealthy behaviors Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 211 of your text.

59. Stomach ulcers are caused by psychological stress alone.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and the immune system Difficulty level: moderate Core concepts: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 214 of your text.

60. Acute stress leads to immunosuppression.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and the immune system Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 214 of your text.

61. People high in cardiovascular reactivity have much higher blood pressure and heart rate than people low in cardiovascular reactivity, even during non-stressful times.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and cardiovascular disorders Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 20 of 24

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 214 of your text.

62. Prospective studies have shown a connection between a particular personality profile and cancer.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Stress and other medical disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 217 of your text.

63. Pessimists and optimists are equally likely to be in poor physical health.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Pessimism and optimism Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 217 of your text.

64. Suppressing anger and other negative emotions is connected to better physical health.

Ans: false Section reference: Psychological stress and adverse physiological reactions: Repressive coping Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 218 of your text.

65. Cognitive-behavioral stress management techniques improve the physical health status of people who have already been diagnosed with an illness.

Ans: true

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Section reference: Reducing stress and treating psychophysiological disorders: Cognitive retraining Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 220 of your text.

66. Research has shown that people with the highest levels of emotional support were least likely to develop heart disease.

Ans: true Section reference: Reducing stress and treating psychophysiological disorders: Social support Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 221 of your text.

67. The somatoform disorders are all caused by the same factors.

Ans: false Section reference: Defining the somatoform disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

68. People in different cultures seem to use the same physical pathways for expressing psychological distress.

Ans: false Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying somatoform disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

69. Body dysmorphic disorder has virtually identical features regardless of the culture in which it occurs.

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Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying somatoform disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 234 of your text.

70. Cognitive-behavioral and psychodynamic theorists agree that conversion, somatization, and pain disorder result when emotional distress finds expression in physical symptoms.

Ans: true Section reference: Cognitive-Behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 237 of your text.

71. Somatization disorder among adults is strongly correlated with having experienced childhood sexual abuse.

Ans: true Section reference: Sociocultural components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 240 of your text.

Essay

1. Describe the conditions that determine whether an event is perceived as being stressful.

2. Describe and give examples of the three pathways by which stress can contribute to physical illness.

3. Create an intervention program to address the negative effects of John Henryism.

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4. Compare and contrast malingering, factitious disorder, and the somatoform disorders.

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Chapter: 07, Chapter 7: Dissociation and the Dissociative Disorders

Multiple choice

1. A significant disruption in one’s conscious experience, memory, and/or sense of identity is: A. depersonalization B. derealization C. dissociation D. unconsciousness Ans: C Section reference: Defining dissociation and dissociative disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 246 of your text.

2. As a symptom, dissociation can best be understood as a: A. defense mechanism B. pathological mental state C. brain malfunction D. maladaptive response to stress Ans: A Section reference: Defining dissociation and dissociative disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 246 of your text.

3. Elaine feels detached from her own body and from her thoughts, like she is observing herself from outside her body. She is particularly likely to detach and ‘space out’ when she is under a lot of stress. Elaine is distressed by these symptoms, which are preventing her from being effective in her job and at home. What is Elaine experiencing?

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Ans: A Section reference: Depersonalization disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 247 of your text.

4. Which of the following is NOT true of depersonalization?

A. Most people have experienced mild symptoms of depersonalization.

B. Depersonalization can be brought on by a stressful event or from fatigue.

C. Depersonalization disorder has a known prevalence rate of 16%.

D. Symptoms of depersonalization are often present in acute stress disorder.

Ans: C Section reference: Depersonalization disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 248 of your text.

5. Carl drives the same route to work every day. One day, he arrives at work and realizes that he doesn’t remember anything about the drive there because he was “spaced out” the whole time. Based on this information alone, which of the following best describes Carl’s experience?

A. dissociative fugue B. depersonalization C. depersonalization disorder D. dissociative amnesia (selective) Ans: B Section reference: Depersonalization disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 248 of your text.

6. If a person literally forgets basic information about their identity or recent past, they are likely to be suffering from: A. depersonalization disorder B. dissociative amnesia C. dissociative fugue D. dissociative identity disorder Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 2 of 24

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Ans: B Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 248 of your text.

7. After his wife Jan left him, Henry claimed to have no memories of Jan or of being married to her. He remembers everything else in his life, past and present, except for Jan. This sounds most like: A. localized amnesia B. selective amnesia C. generalized amnesia D. systematized amnesia Ans: D Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

8. Susan was in a bank when it was robbed. Even though it has been six weeks since the bank robbery, Susan still cannot remember anything about the day on which the robbery occurred. Her memory of the days before and after the robbery is fine. This sounds most like: A. localized amnesia B. selective amnesia C. generalized amnesia D. systematized amnesia Ans: A Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

9. Celia was severely abused as a child. She does not remember anything about the 4 years in which the abuse occurred. Which of the following best describes Celia?

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B. dissociative amnesia (localized) C. dissociative amnesia (selective) D. dissociative identity disorder Ans: B Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 199 of your text.

10. Gerald was kidnapped and tortured during the war. Although he remembers his captors, where they held him, and what he did when he was locked up by himself, he does not remember the specific incidents of torture. Which of the following best describes Gerald?

A. dissociative amnesia (generalized) B. dissociative amnesia (localized) C. dissociative amnesia (selective) D. dissociative fugue Ans: C Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

11. Luis wakes up one morning without any memory of his name, his job, or his past.

He does know the date and what is happening in the world in general, but he cannot remember any details about his own life. Which of the following best describes Luis?

A. dissociative amnesia (generalized) B. dissociative amnesia (localized) C. dissociative amnesia (selective) D. dissociative fugue Ans: A Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

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12. Inez fell asleep while driving and crashed into another car. She was uninjured, but a child in the other car was killed. Inez learned of the child’s death shortly after the accident, and she does not remember anything else that happened after she learned this. Which of the following best describes Inez?

A. organic amnesia B. continuous amnesia C. systematized amnesia D. generalized amnesia Ans: B Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

13. Carey was abused by her step-father when she was a child. Although she remembers most things about her childhood, she does not remember the abuse itself, and she does not remember anything about her step-father, who died several years ago. Which of the following best describes Carey?

A. generalized amnesia B. continuous amnesia C. systematized amnesia D. localized amnesia Ans: C Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

14. A difference between organic amnesia and dissociative amnesia is that people with organic amnesia: A. rarely confabulate.

B. forget both personal and general information.

C. experience retrograde amnesia.

D. suffer from a psychological disorder.

Ans: B Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

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15. Kim wakes up one morning in a hotel room in a strange city. She does not recognize where she is, and she does not remember how she got there. She also does not remember anything about her past and she is uncertain about who she is. Which of the following best describes what Kim is experiencing?

A. dissociative amnesia (selective) B. dissociative fugue C. dissociative identity disorder D. dissociative amnesia (localized) Ans: B Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 250 of your text.

16. Dissociative fugue involves the experience of dissociative amnesia plus: A. the person leaves their regular life to travel to a new area.

B. the person does not remember the life he/she has left behind.

C. the person assumes a new identity.

D. all of the above Ans: D Section reference: Dissociative fugue Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 250 of your text.

17. Dissociative fugue may be more likely to occur in individuals who have: A. past incidents of amnesia.

B. a history of substance abuse.

C. few friends and family members.

D. a history of head injuries.

Ans: A Section reference: Dissociative fugue Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 251 of your text.

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18. Multiple personality disorder is currently called: A. dissociative amnesia B. dissociative fugue C. dissociative identity disorder D. split personality disorder Ans: C Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 251 of your text.

19. Nick is a shy, non-assertive man. Nick tells his new therapist that when he is faced with an interpersonal conflict, “another part of me takes over…I call this assertive, confident part of me ‘Mark’.” After a thorough evaluation, Nick’s therapist identifies his diagnosis. What is it likely to be?

A. schizophrenia B. dissociative amnesia C. dissociative fugue D. dissociative identity disorder Ans: D Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 251 of your text.

20. Which of the following is NOT true of dissociative identity disorder (DID)?

A. Two to four personalities usually exist at the time of diagnosis.

B. The personalities often have very different characteristics.

C. Amnesia between certain personalities leads to a sense of lost time.

D. The protector personalities act out aggressive and hostile impulses.

Ans: D Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 252 of your text.

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21. Research suggests that the different personalities in a person with DID: A. show the same pattern of brain waves on an EEG. B. are determined by a pattern in the person’s chromosomes.

C. have different patterns of autonomic nervous system activity.

D. reflect the personalities of the person’s close family members.

Ans: C Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 253 of your text.

22. In dissociative identity disorder, the personality that retains the person’s legal name and identity is the: A. host personality B. protector personality C. persecutory personality D. self personality Ans: A Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 252 of your text.

23. In contrast to non-disordered children with imaginary playmates, children with dissociative identity disorder: A. are less likely to have imaginary companions or less likely to reveal them to adults B. are more likely to talk to and engage in active play with their imaginary companions C. are more likely to feel that their imaginary companion is in charge of their behavior D. are less likely to be influenced by the imagined actions of their companions Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 255 of your text.

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24. Which of the following is NOT true about dissociative identity disorder (DID) and gender?

A. Most of the people diagnosed with DID are female.

B. Prevalence rates may underestimate the number of males with DID. C. Researchers have found high rates of DID among male sex offenders.

D. Among victims of sexual abuse, men are more likely to develop DID. Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 255 of your text.

25. When Yeni is with her family and friends in her home country (Ethiopia), she attends religious ceremonies in which she and other women experience a temporary alteration in their state of consciousness. During this time, the women shout and make other noises; this behavior is considered to be out of their control. The experience of Yeni and her family and friends is a pleasant one, and one that seems normal to her when she is home. Which of the following best describes Yeni’s experience?

A. depersonalization disorder B. dissociative amnesia C. dissociative fugue D. possession trance Ans: D Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying dissociative disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 256 of your text.

26. Derreck, an African American college student who lives in the southern U.S., said he experienced an episode of “falling out.” What most likely happened to Derreck during this episode?

A. he developed another personality B. he fell down and was unable to move C. he went on a homicidal rampage D. he believed he was taken over by a spirit Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying dissociative disorders Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 9 of 24

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 256 of your text.

27. How do advocates of the posttraumatic model of DID explain this disorder?

A. Dissociation develops as a survival strategy to cope with overwhelming and severe child abuse.

B. Dissociation develops after the child repeatedly observed a parent cope with stress by using dissociation.

C. Dissociation develops after undergoing hypnosis with a therapist who believes the client has DID. D. Dissociation develops when a person recognizes that DID may be a legally helpful diagnosis.

Ans: A Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 257 of your text.

28. A predisposing cause of dissociative identity disorder is: A. family history of the disorder B. severe childhood trauma C. attention deficit disorder D. a parent with depression Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 257 of your text.

29. What is the basic idea of the sociocognitive model of DID? A. DID develops when a child witnesses chaotic behavior in parents that suggests that the way to deal with stress is to act like a different person.

B. Therapists unintentionally induce DID by suggesting the existence of alters to a traumatized person who is suggestible.

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C. People with the tendency to perceive the world in a negative way develop DID after having a traumatic experience.

D. DID is caused by a combination of genes, social learning, thinking errors, and the tendency to be suggestible.

Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 257 of your text.

30. A(n) _________ disorder is one that is unintentionally caused by a treatment.

A. hysterical B. iatrogenic C. malingering D. psychogenic Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 257 of your text.

31. All of the following support the sociocognitive model of dissociative identity disorder EXCEPT: A. College-aged students can convincingly enact multiple identities and other DID characteristics.

B. Cultural fascination with DID has encouraged therapists to look for evidence of DID in their clients.

C. Most individuals with DID report that they experienced severe abuse during childhood.

D. Culture-bound examples of dissociative experiences show that DID-like symptoms are influenced by culture.

Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See pages 257-263 of your text.

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32. The validity of repressed memories is supported by: A. Freud’s discovery that most of his hysterical patients had experienced sexual abuse during their childhood B. Case studies of many clients who recall childhood sexual abuse for the first time during psychotherapy C. Research showing that many documented cases of sexual abuse are not remembered by the victims D. Research showing that memories of childhood events can be retrospectively altered or implanted Ans: C Section reference: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 264 of your text.

33. What defense mechanism involves pushing upsetting thoughts, feelings, or events out of one’s consciousness?

A. denial B. identification C. repression D. splitting Ans: C Section reference: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 264 of your text.

34. According to the psychodynamic model, dissociation is a type of: A. conflict B. defense mechanism C. id impulse D. sexual fixation Ans: B Section reference: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 12 of 24

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Page reference: See page 264 of your text.

35. Which of the following defense mechanisms is NOT related to dissociative identity disorder?

A. identification B. repression C. splitting D. sublimation Ans: D Section reference: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 264 of your text.

36. The primary goal of psychodynamic therapy for dissociative identity disorder is: A. to determine exactly what happened during the person’s childhood B. to help the client improve his or her overall emotional functioning C. to analyze the client’s unconscious conflicts related to aggression D. to evaluate the person’s guilt about having the disorder Ans: B Section reference: Psychodynamic interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 265 of your text.

37. A person who dissociates in response to trauma usually experiences a sense of relief. This feeling of relief serves as a ________ for the dissociation.

A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. positive punishment D. negative punishment Ans: B Section reference: Behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 265 of your text.

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38. From the behavioral perspective, dissociation allows a person to: A. enjoy positive memories B. avoid emotional pain C. benefit from psychotherapy D. gain insight into problems Ans: B Section reference: Behavioral components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 265 of your text.

39. With regard to treating pathological dissociation, behavioral interventions: A. are useful for treating all aspects of dissociation B. are best for reducing dangerous or risky behaviors C. are more effective than any other treatment type D. are most useful after past traumas have been discussed Ans: B Section reference: Behavioral interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 265 of your text.

40. Which cognitive perspective suggests that people who dissociate are putting themselves in a hypnotic trance to mentally remove themselves from emotionally painful experiences?

A. operant conditioning theory B. schema-focused theory C. self-hypnosis theory D. state-dependent learning theory Ans: C Section reference: Cognitive components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 265 of your text.

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41. A person who only pays attention to information that confirms a dysfunctional core belief is engaging in: A. schema avoidance B. schema compensation C. schema maintenance D. schema therapy Ans: C Section reference: Schema-focused cognitive therapy Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 267 of your text.

42. What therapy approach focuses on changing reality-distorting core beliefs about the self in people with dissociative identity disorder?

A. psychodynamic therapy B. hypnotic trance therapy C. schema-focused cognitive therapy D. cognitive restructuring Ans: C Section reference: Schema-focused cognitive therapy Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 267 of your text.

43. A person with dissociative identity disorder who has strong feelings of helplessness might develop a tough and aggressive personality. This is an example of: A. schema avoidance B. schema compensation C. schema maintenance D. schema therapy Ans: B Section reference: Schema-focused cognitive therapy Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 267 of your text.

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44. In the treatment of dissociative disorders, hypnosis is used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT: A. to facilitate cognitive restructuring B. to gain control over dissociation C. to recover forgotten traumatic memories D. to enhance behavioral techniques Ans: D Section reference: Hypnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 267 of your text.

45. Which of the following drugs has NOT been found to consistently produce dissociative states in healthy subjects?

A. cocaine B. ketamine C. LSD D. marijuana Ans: A Section reference: Biological components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 268 of your text.

46. Which of the following is NOT one of the receptors that seems to be involved in dissociative experiences?

A. G-protein-coupled receptors B. dopamine-3 receptors C. serotonin-2 receptors D. glutamate receptors Ans: B Section reference: Biological components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 268 of your text.

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47. Recent research has shown that the _____ is 31.6% smaller in women suffering from dissociative identity disorder, compared to those without the disorder.

A. amygdala B. basal ganglia C. hippocampus D. thalamus Ans: A Section reference: Biological components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 268 of your text.

48. The use of medication to promote therapeutic remembering is called: A. ECT B. narcosynthesis C. truth detector therapy D. none of the above Ans: B Section reference: Biological interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 268 of your text.

49. Research suggests that a certain type of ____ medication, when used in combination with antidepressants, can aid in the treatment of depersonalization disorder.

A. sleep-inducing B. anti-anxiety C. anti-seizure D. anti-psychotic Ans: B Section reference: Biological interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 269 of your text.

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50. In Kluft’s integrated approach for treating dissociative identity disorder, when would medication be most useful?

A. right away – in stage 1 B. early in treatment – in stage 2 C. late in treatment – in stage 8 D. after treatment ends – in stage 9 Ans: B Section reference: The multiple causality of dissociative disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 269 of your text.

51. In Kluft’s integrated approach for treating dissociative identity disorder, when does integration of the personalities occur?

A. Immediately – in stage 1 B. Early in treatment – in stages 2 and 3 C. In the middle of treatment – in stages 5 and 6 D. At the end of treatment – in stages 7 and 8 Ans: C Section reference: The multiple causality of dissociative disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 269 of your text.

True/false

52. All episodes of dissociation are considered pathological.

Ans: false Section reference: Defining dissociation and dissociative disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 246 of your text.

53. Even if it helps a person function in a particular situation, dissociation is abnormal.

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Ans: false Section reference: Defining dissociation and dissociative disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 247 of your text.

54. In certain contexts, dissociation is an adaptive response.

Ans: true Section reference: The importance of context in defining dissociative disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 247 of your text.

55. Dissociation may be characterized as a profound detachment from normal consciousness.

Ans: true Section reference: The importance of context in defining dissociative disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 248 of your text.

56. It is rare for people to experience times when they feel disconnected from themselves and the world around them.

Ans: false Section reference: Depersonalization disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 248 of your text.

57. Dissociative amnesia has a biological cause.

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Page reference: See page 249 of your text.

58. People with dissociative amnesia typically only forget personal information.

Ans: true Section reference: Dissociative amnesia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 248 of your text.

59. Dissociative fugues most often last for a few days or hours.

Ans: true Section reference: Dissociative fugue Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 250 of your text.

60. After a person with dissociative fugue recovers, she or he is usually able to remember all details about the fugue state.

Ans: false Section reference: Dissociative fugue Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 250 of your text.

61. Most people with schizophrenia meet diagnostic criteria for dissociative identity disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 251 of your text.

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62. Researchers have found unique profiles of cardiovascular response among different subpersonalities in individuals with dissociative identity disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 253 of your text.

63. The disproportionate diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder in women may be due to the fact that girls are far more likely to be the victims of sexual abuse.

Ans: true Section reference: Dissociative identity disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 255 of your text.

64. Hypnosis can change a person’s physiological activity.

Ans: true Section reference: Hypnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 267 of your text.

65. Many dissociative behaviors that are pathological in adults are considered normal in children.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 255 of your text.

66. Dissociative disorders are known to be more common in white, upper-middle-class individuals.

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Ans: false Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying dissociative disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 254 of your text.

67. The experience and description of dissociative phenomena are culturally relative.

Ans: true Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying dissociative disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 254 of your text.

68. The fact that child abuse is highly correlated with the diagnosis of DID in adulthood proves that child abuse causes DID. Ans: false Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 257 of your text.

69. Narcosynthesis is a common treatment for dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 268 of your text.

70. Experts agree that an integrated approach is ideal for treating dissociative disorders.

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Section reference: The multiple causality of dissociative disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 269 of your text.

71. Experts agree that the sociocognitive model is the best model to explain the development of dissociative identity disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR dissociative disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 269 of your text.

72. Different theoretical approaches agree that trauma is a primary cause of dissociation, but they differ in their views on how and why traumatic events contribute to dissociative phenomena.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating dissociation and the dissociative disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 269 of your text.

Essay

1. Describe and compare dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization disorder, and dissociative fugue.

2. Evaluate the posttraumatic model and sociocognitive model of dissociative identity disorder. Which model is more convincing? Why?

3. Explain the relationship between dissociation and trauma.

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4. Compare the self-hypnosis and state-dependent learning theories for explaining dissociative disorders.

5. Describe Kluft’s integrated approach for treating dissociative identity disorder.

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Chapter: 08, Chapter 8: Eating, Weight, and the Eating Disorders

Multiple choice

1. What proportion of models meet criteria for being severely underweight?

A. one-fifth B. one-fourth C. one-third D. one-half Ans: C Section reference: Defining eating disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Page reference: See page 276 of your text.

2. Which of the following is NOT true about the continuum between normal and abnormal eating?

A. Up to 6% of American women suffer from anorexia or bulimia.

B. Not everyone with an eating-related problem has anorexia or bulimia.

C. Many American women suffer from “subclinical” eating disorders.

D. A person who is underweight is at the “normal pole” in the continuum.

Ans: D Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal eating Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 277 of your text.

3. How many American adults are on a diet at any given time?

A. one-tenth B. one-third C. one-half D. three-quarters Ans: B Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal eating Difficulty level: moderate Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 1 of 24

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Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 277 of your text.

4. Which of the following most accurately describes members of “low weight” subcultures, such as dancers, models, gymnasts, and jockeys?

A. Almost all of them have an eating disorder.

B. Almost none of them have an eating disorder.

C. Eating disorders remain even if they leave the subculture.

D. Some have eating disorders and others do not.

Ans: D Section reference: The importance of context in defining abnormal eating Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Page reference: See page 278 of your text.

5. Susan worries constantly that she is going to become fat. She carefully monitors her food intake and eats much less than everyone in her family. When someone notices her thinness, Susan feels valuable and worthwhile. When she is hungry or eats more than she intends to eat, she feels fat and like a failure. Susan went to the doctor for help in losing more weight, but the doctor was quite alarmed by this request, and suggested that she needs to gain at least 20 pounds. Susan was surprised by this, and assumed her doctor must be stupid not to see how fat she is. The doctor also learned that Susan is tired much of the time and has not had her menstrual period for close to one year.

Which of the following seems to best describe Susan?

A. anorexia nervosa B. bulimia nervosa C. eating disorder NOS D. no disorder Ans: A Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 279 of your text.

6. Which of the following is NOT a psychological symptom or trait associated with anorexia?

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C. histrionic personality traits D. insomnia Ans: C Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 280 of your text.

7. DSM-IV-TR criteria for anorexia specify that a person diagnosed with this disorder must weigh less than ____ of expected weight for their age and height.

A. 50% B. 75% C. 85% D. 90% Ans: C Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 279 of your text.

8. Which of the following is NOT true about psychological symptoms associated with anorexia?

A. An “anorexic personality” has been identified to describe almost all with anorexia.

B. Mood disturbances may be a cause of anorexia, or may be caused by anorexia.

C. At least half of the people with anorexia experience depression and anxiety.

D. The severe weight loss associated with anorexia can cause psychological symptoms.

Ans: A Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 280 or your text.

9. DSM-IV-TR criteria for anorexia specify that women diagnosed with this disorder must have missed at least ____ consecutive menstrual cycles.

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D. 6 Ans: B Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 279 of your text.

10. Which of the following is NOT a physical problem associated with anorexia?

A. heart attack B. hypertension C. electrolyte imbalances D. reproductive system damage Ans: B Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 280 of your text.

11. Geraldine is intensely afraid of gaining weight and becoming fat. Although she is actually quite underweight, she believes that she is overweight. Geraldine’s self-esteem revolves around her appearance – when she believes that she is thin, she also believes that she is a valuable person, but when she “feels fat,” she thinks that she is a failure. A few times per week, Geraldine binges. Following these binges, she vomits and then exercises for a few hours. Geraldine feels tired most of the time, and has difficulty sleeping. In the past 4 months, she has not had her menstrual period. Based on this information, which of the following diagnoses seems to fit Geraldine?

A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. bulimia, non-purging type D. bulimia, purging type Ans: A Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 280 of your text.

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12. Tiffany thinks constantly about food and her weight. Although height-and-weight charts show that she is underweight for her height, she wants to lose more weight because she “feels fat.” Tiffany eats very little each day – usually two salads and nothing else – and she works out for 3 or 4 hours each day. When she “slips” and eats something besides vegetables, she is angry with herself. Similarly, if the scale shows that she gained even a tenth of a pound, she feels terrible about herself. Tiffany has not had her menstrual period for 3 months. Which of the following best describes Tiffany?

A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. bulimia, non-purging type D. bulimia, purging type Ans: B Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 280 of your text.

13. DSM-IV-TR distinguishes between two subtypes of anorexia nervosa based on: A. method of weight loss B. degree of weight loss C. self-perceptions D. type of compensatory behavior Ans: A Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 280 of your text.

14. A person is underweight, very afraid of gaining weight, restricts food intake and exercises excessively. This person is most likely to have: A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. bulimia, purging type D. bulimia, non-purging type Ans: B Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 280 of your text.

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15. A person is underweight, very afraid of getting fat, restricts food intake most of the time but occasionally binges and vomits afterward. This person is most likely to have: A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. bulimia, purging type D. bulimia, non-purging type Ans: A Section reference: Anorexia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 280 of your text.

16. Suzanne worries that others will think bad things about her if she gains any weight.

Suzanne is very concerned about her appearance, and tries hard to lose weight (she is normal weight for her height and age, although she does not think so). She gets stressed out about trying to lose weight and when she feels unsuccessful, she buries her worries in food. At such times, which have occurred about 4 times a week for the past 6 months, Suzanne will eat a lot of food. For example, once she ate a bag of chips, a package of raw cookie dough, a box of doughnuts, and half a can of peanuts in about a half hour. While eating, Suzanne feels out of control. After these episodes, Suzanne feels tremendously guilty. Although she used to exercise for a couple of hours afterward, she has recently (in the past 3 months) begun vomiting afterward. Which of the following best describes Suzanne?

A. anorexia nervosa B. bulimia nervosa C. eating disorder NOS D. no disorder Ans: B Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 281 of your text.

17. Eating an excessive amount of food in a very short period of time is called: A. purging B. dieting C. compensating Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 6 of 24

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D. bingeing Ans: D Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 281 of your text.

18. Engaging in behaviors to compensate for extreme food intake and to avoid weight gain is called: A. purging B. dieting C. fixing D. bingeing Ans: A Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 230 of your text.

19. Which of the following is NOT a physical symptom associated with bulimia?

A. corrosion of dental enamel B. development of lanugo C. dehydration and anemia D. electrolyte imbalances Ans: D Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 281 of your text.

20. Julie is normal weight, but she worries about her appearance and wants to lose weight. When she worries about this, she tends to overeat and sometimes takes in 1500-2000 calories in a half hour to an hour. Afterward, she tries to burn off the calories by exercising for several hours. Which of the following is most likely to fit Julie?

A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. bulimia, purging type Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 7 of 24

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D. bulimia, non-purging type Ans: D Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 281 of your text.

21. Samantha is a mildly overweight person who consumes large quantities of food in a short period of time and then takes laxatives and diuretics in an attempt to get rid of the calories. Samantha is most likely to meet criteria for: A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. bulimia, purging type D. bulimia, non-purging type Ans: C Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 281 of your text.

22. Once a week for the last month, Erik sits in his living room and eats non-stop for about a 1/2 hour; in this time, he usually consumes a half-gallon of ice cream, a package of Oreos, and a bag of Fritos. Afterward, he feels guilty and ashamed for being unable to control his eating. In response, he fasts for a day or two and exercises 2 or 3 hours a day. Erik also worries about his appearance and weight, and believes that he must be thinner in order for people to like him. Based on this information, which of the following best describes Erik?

A. anorexia nervosa B. bulimia nervosa C. eating disorder NOS D. no disorder Ans: C Section reference: Eating disorder not otherwise specified Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 283 of your text.

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23. A person who engages in recurrent episodes of binge eating, but does not engage in any compensatory behaviors, is most likely to have: A. anorexia nervosa B. binge eating disorder C. bulimia nervosa D. binge-purging disorder Ans: B Section reference: Eating disorder not otherwise specified Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 283 of your text.

24. Which of the following is NOT true about binge eating disorder?

A. It is much more common among women than men.

B. It occurs at roughly equal rates among Caucasians and African-Americans.

C. Cognitive-behavioral interventions seem to be effective in treating it.

D. It is associated with obesity, depression, and anxiety.

Ans: A Section reference: Eating disorder not otherwise specified Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 283 of your text.

25. Eating disorders are most common among females between the ages of: A. 8 and 15 B. 12 and 18 C. 15 and 25 D. 21 and 29 Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

26. Some researchers have found that as many as ____ of college women suffer from an eating disorder.

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B. 10% C. 20% D. 50% Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

27. Which of the following is NOT true about male eating disorders?

A. Men may use anabolic steroids to promote muscle development.

B. Reverse anorexia involves the belief that one is small and weak.

C. Males with eating disorders tend to be satisfied with their bodies.

D. Competitive male bodybuilders tend to be preoccupied with food.

Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

28. Mike, who is normal weight and has a low percentage of body fat, worries that his muscles are too small and underdeveloped. As a result, he spends 3 hours a day lifting weights, and he recently begun taking steroids to increase his muscle mass. Which of the following best describes Mike?

A. anorexia, binge-eating/purging type B. anorexia, restricting type C. reverse anorexia D. bulimia Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

29. Among male NCAA athletes, eating disordered behaviors are common in: A. golfers B. cross country runners Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 10 of 24

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C. football players D. wrestlers Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

30. Female athletes in certain sports are at high risk for eating disorders. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to be at high risk?

A. ballet dancers B. cross country runners C. gymnasts D. tennis players Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

31. Eating disorders are most likely to occur in minority women with all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. well-educated B. involved with middle-class white culture C. heavy or overweight D. born outside the U.S. Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Culture Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 286 of your text.

32. Which of the following accurately shows the limitations of the DSM-IV-TR eating disorder diagnoses?

A. Between 25-60% of eating disorder cases are categorized as eating disorder NOS. B. Up to 75% of overweight individuals meet criteria for binge eating disorder.

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D. Approximately 90% of eating disorder diagnoses are given to women and girls.

Ans: A Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR eating disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 288 of your text.

33. Which of the following is NOT true of obesity?

A. Obesity is a DSM-IV-TR eating disorder.

B. Obesity is defined as being 20% or more over ideal weight.

C. One in three American adults are significantly overweight or obese.

D. Obesity involves prominent behavioral and psychological factors.

Ans: A Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR eating disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 288 of your text.

34. Carla is 25% over her ideal body weight. This seems to be related to chronic overeating (often related to stress) and lack of exercisE. She does not binge. Which of the following best describes Carla, from the perspective of DSM-IV-TR? A. anorexia B. bulimia C. eating disorder NOS D. no disorder Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR eating disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 288 of your text.

35. Research has shown a variety of connections between family characteristics and eating disorders. Which of the following is NOT one such research finding?

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A. Families of women with eating disorders tend to value perfectionism and control more than most families.

B. Mothers of girls with eating disorders are more disordered in their own eating than other mothers.

C. Compared to other mothers, mothers of eating disordered girls think their daughters should lose more weight.

D. Mothers of eating disordered girls rate their daughters as more attractive than the girls rate themselves.

Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 292 of your text.

36. Which of the following is NOT a psychodynamic explanation for eating disorders?

A. A client with bulimic symptoms may reenact a sexual trauma by overwhelming herself with food and then undoing this “trauma” by vomiting.

B. A girl who inaccurately believes she is fat and that being overweight makes her a bad person may restrict her food intake to lose weight.

C. Anorexia may provide the sufferer with the opportunity to retain a childlike physical form and therefore avoid sexual anxieties of growing up.

D. A sexually abused girl may aim to regain control of her own body by ridding herself of sexual characteristics such as menses, hips, or breasts.

Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 296 of your text.

37. A study at the University of London found psychodynamic treatment of anorexia to be: A. less effective than antidepressant medication B. less effective than cognitive behavioral therapy C. more effective than cognitive behavioral therapy D. more effective than family systems therapy Ans: C

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Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 294 of your text.

38. According to Minuchin, a teenager may become anorexic in order to: A. exert independence in an enmeshed family B. gain attention from uninvolved parents C. punish parents for early abuse or neglect D. please controlling, perfectionist parents Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Family systems components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 294 of your text.

39. What type of intervention is often employed to help hospitalized clients gain weight when they are dangerously thin?

A. behavioral B. cognitive C. family systems D. psychodynamic Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Family systems components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 296 of your text.

40. According to the cognitive-behavioral perspective, what is the relationship been behaviors, emotions, and thoughts in eating disorders?

A. emotions trigger dysfunctional behaviors and those lead to negative thoughts B. disordered behaviors trigger emotions which lead to dysfunctional thoughts C. dysfunctional thoughts trigger disordered behaviors which lead to emotions D. disordered behaviors trigger dysfunctional thoughts which lead to emotions

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Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 296 of your text.

41. With regard to eating disorders, the cognitive-behavioral perspective is believed to be best for explaining: A. predisposing causes of eating disorders B. the connection between genes and disordered eating C. maintenance of eating disordered behavior D. the influence of enmeshment on eating disorders Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 296 of your text.

42. According to the cognitive-behavioral model of bulimia, binge eating is most likely to be triggered by: A. fear of gaining weight and being fat B. concerns about physical problems C. extreme hunger due to dieting practices D. dysfunctional attitudes about weight Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 296 of your text.

43. According to the cognitive-behavioral model of bulimia, what is the typical immediate effect of purging?

A. guilt and depression B. anxiety reduction and physical relief C. dysfunctional attitudes about weight Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 15 of 24

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D. decreased self-esteem Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 297 of your text.

44. A group of friends has dinner together. Afterward, several order dessert. One person does not, thinking to herself, “if I eat dessert tonight, I’ll get fat!” This person’s thinking shows what distortion?

A. magnification B. dichotomous thinking C. over-generalization D. selective abstraction Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 297 of your text.

45. Which of the following is NOT a typical aspect of cognitive-behavioral treatment for eating disorders?

A. the client records what, where, and when they eat B. the client free associates about family attitudes about weight C. the therapist points out the client’s cognitive distortions D. the therapist “prescribes” a pattern of regular eating Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 298 of your text.

46. Research by Agras and colleagues found that cognitive-behavioral therapy for bulimia is: Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 16 of 24

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A. more effective than interpersonal therapy B. more effective than psychodynamic therapy C. less effective than family systems therapy D. less effective than interpersonal therapy Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 299 of your text.

47. Naomi Wolf argues that women are subjected to increasingly restrictive standards for beauty because: A. they own more businesses that sell beauty products B. they are increasingly losing their political and social power C. they are achieving economic independence from men D. they truly embrace these changing beauty standards Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Sociocultural components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 300 of your text.

48. Which theoretical approach asserts that eating disordered behavior has increased in the U.S. as a result of media messages that equate thinness with other desirable characteristics?

A. cognitive-behavioral B. family systems C. psychodynamic D. sociocultural Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Sociocultural components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 300 of your text.

49. Which of the following is NOT a research finding related to eating disorders?

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A. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate for eating disorders than dizygotic twins.

B. Eating disorders often co-occur with depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

C. Individuals with anorexia have unusually high levels of the hormones produced by the hypothalamus.

D. Individuals with bulimia have abnormally low levels of norepinephrine and serotonin.

Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Biological components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 302 of your text.

50. Huebner suggests that the purging and/or self-starvation behaviors associated with anorexia and bulimia may be reinforced by: A. reductions in serotonin B. activation of the amygdala C. release of endorphins D. activation of the satiety signal Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Biological components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 302 of your text.

51. Research by Walsh and colleagues suggests that the best treatment for bulimia is: A. cognitive-behavioral treatment alone B. SSRI treatment alone C. cognitive-behavioral treatment and SSRI treatment combined D. SSRI treatment and family systems therapy Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Biological interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 303 of your text.

52. Weight gain in an anorexic client is important for: A. improving health and enhancing self-esteem Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 18 of 24

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B. restoring cognitive flexibility and improving health C. restoring cognitive flexibility and reducing cognitive distortions D. reducing cognitive distortions and improving self-esteem Ans: B Section reference: The connection between mind and body in eating disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 303 of your text.

True/False

53. Less than 1% of models and Playboy centerfolds are severely underweight.

Ans: false Section reference: Defining eating disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 276 of your text.

54. Eating disorders are extremely rare in the United States.

Ans: false Section reference: Defining eating disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 276 of your text.

55. All underweight models, dancers, gymnasts, and jockeys have an eating disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: The importance of context in defining eating disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in defining and understanding abnormality Page reference: See page 278 of your text.

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56. Large percentages of people with anorexia have suffered from bulimia at some point, and vice versa.

Ans: true Section reference: Bulimia nervosa Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 286 of your text.

57. Compared to people without eating disorders, people with anorexia and bulimia are equally likely to have problems with sexual functioning.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 303 of your text.

58. Eating disorders do not occur in older adults.

Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 284 of your text.

59. Approximately 10% of eating disorders occur in men.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

60. Weight standards for men are typically lower than what most men naturally weigh.

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Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

61. Women believe that men prefer much thinner women than they actually do.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 285 of your text.

62. In the United States, eating disorders are most common in the higher socioeconomic classes.

Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 286 of your text.

63. Eating disorders are most common in affluent, developed countries.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Culture Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 287 of your text.

64. When non-Western cultures are exposed to Western media and its glorification of thinness, rates of eating disorders rise.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Culture Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 287 of your text.

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65. In the United States, rates of eating disorders among minority women are decreasing.

Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Culture Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 287 of your text.

66. Contemporary family theorists view enmeshment as a possible cause or an effect of eating disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Family systems components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 294 of your text.

67. Contemporary family theorists are more concerned about what causes eating disorders than about what maintains them.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Family systems components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 294 of your text.

68. Family therapy for eating disorders is most useful for families that feel highly critical of their eating-disordered child.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Family systems components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 22 of 24

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Page reference: See page 294 of your text.

69. Research has shown that cognitive-behavioral interventions are far more effective than any other treatment for anorexia.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 296 of your text.

70. Educational programs that describe the techniques used to create “perfect” media images produce a short-term reduction in body image disturbances in women.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating eating disorders: Sociocultural interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 301 of your text.

Essay

1. Explain the differences between the two subtypes of anorexia.

2. Compare and contrast the subtypes of bulimia.

3. Evaluate the limitations of the DSM-IV-TR eating disorder categories.

4. Describe and evaluate two theoretical explanations for the development of eating disorders.

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5. Based on what you have learned about the effectiveness of various interventions for eating disorders, what type of program could be used on a college campus to reduce the incidence of eating disordered behaviors?

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Chapter: 09, Chapter 9: Drug Use and the Substance Use Disorders

Multiple choice

1. What percentage of the U.S. population will meet criteria for a substance use disorder sometime in their life?

A) 5% B) 10% C) 25% D) 35% Ans: C Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 310 of your text.

2. Which of the following is NOT true about substance use?

A) Substances contribute to 25% of all deaths in the U.S. each year.

B) Binge drinking for a man is 5 or more drinks in a row.

C) The annual cost of substance-related disorders in the U.S. is $300 billion.

D) The term “drug” refers only to illegal psychoactive substances.

Ans: D Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 311 of your text.

3. _______ is a defense mechanism common among individuals with substance misuse problems.

A) denial B) reaction formation C) repression D) sublimation Ans: A Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 28

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 310 of your text.

4. Dependence rate among users is highest for: A) alcohol B) cocaine C) heroin D) tobacco Ans: D Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 310 of your text.

5. In DSM-I and DSM-II, substance abuse and dependence were classified as: A) anxiety disorders B) mood disorders C) personality disorders D) somatoform disorders Ans: C Section reference: The importance of context in defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 311 of your text.

6. What is the primary disadvantage of the quantitative approach to assessing substance misuse?

A) It fails to consider multiple causes.

B) It disregards the importance of context.

C) It emphasizes quantity over quality.

D) It ignores where the drugs are bought.

Ans: B Section reference: The importance of context in defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 313 of your text.

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7. Which of the following is NOT true about the current DSM-IV-TR method for defining substance use disorders?

A) This method can be used to provide an absolute definition of abnormal drug use.

B) Abnormal drug use is a pattern of drug use that causes distress or impairment.

C) Abnormality is defined based on the relationship between the user and the drug.

D) This method recognizes the continuum between normal and abnormal drug use.

Ans: A Section reference: The importance of context in defining substance use disorders AND The continuum between normal and abnormal substance use Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality AND The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See pages 314 of your text.

8. In contrast to substance dependence, substance abuse only involves: A) tolerance and withdrawal B) continued use despite negative costs C) loss of control of use D) compulsive use Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 314 of your text.

9. Tolerance and withdrawal are signs of: A) substance abuse B) psychological dependence C) physiological dependence D) binge drinking Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR substance use disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 314 of your text.

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10. David drinks beer with his fraternity brothers every weekend. He spends most of each weekend drunk, leaving little or no time to do homework or study. As a result, his grades have dropped significantly. In addition, David’s girlfriend has complained that he drinks too much. He disagrees, saying that he is “in control” of his behavior and that means he does not have a problem. Based on this information, which of the following best describes David?

A) alcohol abuse B) alcohol dependence C) binge drinking D) normal behavior Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR substance use disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 314 of your text.

11. When Taylor came to college, she felt drunk after 2 alcoholic drinks. Now, three months later, she has to have 5 or more drinks before she feels drunk. Taylor is experiencing: A) substance abuse B) loss of control C) tolerance D) withdrawal Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR substance use disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 314 of your text.

12. The likelihood of physical dependence is very low or nonexistent with: A) depressants B) hallucinogens C) opiates D) stimulants Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 4 of 28

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 332 of your text.

13. Which drug-class pairing is NOT correct?

A) marijuana-opiates B) peyote-hallucinogens C) alcohol-depressants D) amphetamines-stimulants Ans: A Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 324 of your text.

14. Which of the following does NOT have any medical uses?

A) morphine B) amphetamines C) ecstasy D) benzodiazepines Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 237 of your text.

15. The likelihood of psychological dependence is very high for: A) alcohol B) heroin C) marijuana D) morphine Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 316 of your text.

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16. John uses cocaine several times a week, and has developed tolerance to its effects. Although he believes that the cocaine makes him more productive at work, his boss and coworkers have noticed that he has become more careless and hostile. He has also been in three accidents while high on cocaine, and recently had his license suspended. About once a week, John drinks alcohol, although he rarely gets drunk and he is careful not to drink and drive. He smokes marijuana about once a month. Based on this information, which of the following best describes John?

A) cocaine abuse B) cocaine dependence C) polysubstance dependence D) no diagnosis Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR substance use disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 314 of your text.

17. Four or five times per week, Emily goes out with her friends and gets high. She uses cocaine, ecstasy, and amphetamines to get high, and she also frequently drinks alcohol. Most nights, she uses cocaine and ecstasy for several hours, and then starts drinking. Emily often drives home when she is under the influence, or is driven home by a friend who has been using drugs. She usually oversleeps and misses work or her college classes. Emily often says that she’s going to stop “partying” so much, but she has been unable to quit or cut down. Which of the following best describes Emily?

A) alcohol abuse B) cocaine dependence C) stimulant dependence D) polysubstance dependence Ans: D Section reference: Diagnostic criteria for substance abuse Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 315 of your text.

18. Which of the following is NOT an action of depressants?

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Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 320 of your text.

19. ____% of Americans will meet DSM-IV-TR criteria for alcohol abuse at some time in their lives, and ____% will meet criteria for alcohol dependence.

A) 5, 10 B) 10, 25 C) 25, 10 D) 10, 5 Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 320 of your text.

20. Alcohol has all of the following effects on neurotransmitters EXCEPT: A) increases serotonin B) decreases glutamate C) increases dopamine D) decreases GABA Ans: D Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 320 of your text.

21. Impaired judgment begins to occur at what blood alcohol concentration?

A) .005% B) .05% C) .10% D) .15% Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 7 of 28

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 321 of your text.

22. Chronic alcohol use is known to cause all of the following EXCEPT: A) Wernicke’s encephalopathy B) muscular dystrophy C) cirrhosis of the liver D) cardiomyopathy Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 321 of your text.

23. Sedative-hypnotic drugs are used to treat all of the following EXCEPT: A) attention deficit disorders B) anxiety disorders C) seizure disorders D) sleep disorders Ans: A Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 323 of your text.

24. After taking Xanax for a month, Liz found that the effect was not as strong as it initially was. Her doctor switched her to Valium, but she also needed a higher dose than usual to get the typical response for this drug. Liz is most likely experiencing: A) depressant abuse B) drug sensitization C) withdrawal D) cross-tolerance Ans: D Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 8 of 28

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Page reference: See page 324 of your text.

25. Taking alcohol and Valium together is dangerous because these drugs in combination exert A) cross-tolerance B) synergistic effects C) down-regulation D) stimulant effects Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 324 of your text.

26. Which substances are natural opioids?

A) codeine and heroin B) heroin and morphine C) codeine and morphine D) codeine, heroin, and morphine Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 325 of your text.

27. Which of the following routes of administration produces the most rapid effects for opiates?

A) oral (swallowing) B) intranasal (snorting) C) inhalation (smoking) D) transdermal (through skin) Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 325 of your text.

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28. Opioids activate what type of receptor sites?

A) GABA B) endogenous disinhibitors C) endogenous pain relievers D) serotonin Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 325 of your text.

29. What opioid was once included in cough suppressants, but is no longer legally available for any medical purpose?

A) codeine B) heroin C) morphine D) all of the above Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 325 of your text.

30. Cocaine produces increased neurotransmission of all of the following EXCEPT: A) dopamine B) GABA C) norepinephrine D) serotonin Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 326 of your text.

31. Until 1906, Coca-Cola contained: Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 10 of 28

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A) caffeine B) cocaine C) heroin D) morphine Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 327 of your text.

32. Prior to the 1800s, how was cocaine used?

A) Powdered cocaine dissolved in water was injected.

B) Crystals of cocaine (crack) were smoked.

C) Leaves of the coca plant were chewed.

D) Alkaloid cocaine was dried and snorted.

Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 327 of your text.

33. Currently, amphetamines are considered to be most appropriate for treating A) obesity B) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder C) insomnia and other sleep disorders D) depression and dysthymia Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 327 of your text.

34. Smoking causes _____ of all deaths in the United States.

A) one-twentieth B) one-tenth C) one-fifth D) one-fourth Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 11 of 28

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Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 329 of your text.

35. Kathy drinks two pots of coffee per day. Before she has her first cup of coffee, she feels sluggish, non-alert, and irritable. Once she has started drinking coffee, she feels alert, happy, and productive. Kathy has tried to cut down her intake of coffee, but each time she does, she gets headaches. Drinking coffee again relieves the headaches.

Which of the following best describes Kathy?

A) caffeine abuse B) caffeine dependence C) caffeinism D) none of the above Ans: D Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 330 of your text.

36. LSD increases the activity of the A) somatic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) peripheral nervous system Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 332 of your text.

37. LSD is structurally similar to A) dopamine B) GABA C) norepinephrine D) serotonin Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 12 of 28

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Ans: D Section reference:Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 332 of your text.

38. What illegal drug is legal in some states when used by Native Americans religious purposes?

A) LSD B) marijuana C) peyote D) psilocybin Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 333 of your text.

39. Why is hashish more potent than marijuana?

A) Hashish is prepared in a way that makes it more potent.

B) Hashish tends to be smoked or eaten.

C) Hashish comes from a part of the cannabis plant with more THC. D) Hashish binds more easily with serotonin and dopamine receptors.

Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 337 of your text.

40. The psychoactive chemical in ecstasy is: A) ketamine B) MDMA C) mescaline D) THC Ans: B Section reference: Commonly abused substances Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 13 of 28

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 237 of your text.

41. Ecstasy is most similar to: A) anxiolytics and sedative-hypnotics B) depressants and hallucinogens C) hallucinogens and stimulants D) stimulants and opioids Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 337 of your text.

42. PCP and ketamine produce: A) anesthesia and hallucinations B) stimulation and euphoria C) depression and aggression D) anxiety relief and delusions Ans: A Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 338 of your text.

43. Even though GHB is often called “liquid ecstasy,” it has many differences from ecstasy. Which of the following is NOT one of these differences?

A) GHB acts primarily on the serotonin system & ecstasy mainly affects dopamine.

B) GHB is usually taken in liquid form & ecstasy is typically taken in a pill form.

C) GHB produces depressant effects & ecstasy has more stimulant effects.

D) GHB was developed as an anesthetic & ecstasy was originally used by the army.

Ans: A Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 338 of your text.

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44. What type of drug is abused, but not for the purpose of getting high or feeling good?

A) opioids B) ecstasy C) anabolic steroids D) GHB Ans: C Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 339 of your text.

45. Which of the following is NOT true about anabolic steroids?

A) Use of these drugs causes a decrease in aggression.

B) Ongoing use can cause serious health problems.

C) Regular use does not cause tolerance.

D) Overdose is not a common danger with these drugs.

Ans: A Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 339 of your text.

46. During colonial times, alcoholism was viewed as A) a disease B) a problem caused by trauma C) a moral problem D) a conditioned problem Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 341 of your text.

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47. According to the symptom model of alcoholism A) alcoholism is a disease and abstinence is the only cure B) alcoholism is caused by moral weakness C) alcoholism is caused by underlying psychological problems D) alcoholism is caused by mass marketing by alcohol makers Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 341 of your text.

48. Which of the following is NOT a factor supporting the disease model?

A) Hundreds of scientific studies have proven that it is valid.

B) The alcohol industry prefers it because it does not blame alcohol.

C) People with addictions feel less ashamed and stigmatized by it.

D) The recovery movement is based on the ideas of this model.

Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See pages 343 of your text.

49. The powerful reinforcing effects of many abused substances seems related to these drugs’ effects on: A) sympathetic nervous system functioning B) the dopamine neurotransmitter system C) genetic vulnerabilities for addiction D) endogenous opioid receptor sites Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 344 of your text.

50. What research finding provides the strongest evidence for a genetic basis for alcoholism?

A) One-quarter of the sons of alcoholics become alcoholics themselves.

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B) The adopted-out daughters of alcoholics are more likely than other adopted daughters to become alcoholic.

C) Adopted-out sons of alcoholics are 3-4 times more likely than other adopted-out sons to become alcoholic.

D) The concordance rate for alcoholism is 58% for identical twins and 28% for fraternal twins.

Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 345 of your text.

51. What theory proposes that after using a drug for a prolonged period, a person crosses a biologically based threshold from controlled use to addiction?

A) disease model B) flipped switch theory C) maintenance theory D) threshold theory Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 345 of your text.

52. How does disulfiram work in the treatment of alcoholism?

A) Due to its cross-tolerance with alcohol, it eases withdrawal symptoms.

B) It has the same effects as alcohol but is safer and more mild.

C) It prevents the breakdown of alcohol by inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase.

D) It decreases depression and anxiety and other psychological problems.

Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 346 of your text.

53. The practice of providing heroin addicts with a safer and milder opioid in a medically monitored situation is called Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 17 of 28

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A) aversive conditioning B) maintenance therapy C) network therapy D) detoxification Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 346 of your text.

54. Nicotine patches and gums are used to: A) eliminate cravings for nicotine B) create an aversion to nicotine C) avoid health risks of smoking D) increase tolerance to nicotine Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 347 of your text.

55. What type of therapy approach to addictions is most likely to involve the client’s friends and family in treatment?

A) aversion therapy B) behavioral therapy C) inpatient detox D) network therapy Ans: D Section reference: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 357 of your text.

56. The negative reinforcement aspect of drug use is called A) behavioral tolerance B) codependency C) social learning Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 28

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D) tension reduction Ans: D Section reference: Multiple causality, and the connection between mind and body, in substance abuse disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 348 of your text.

57. The familial transmission of drug addiction is partially due to A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) aversive conditioning D) social learning Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse: Behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 351 of your text.

58. Which of the following is NOT an intervention for addiction based on classical conditioning?

A) exposure to drug use cues without using the drug B) contingency management C) covert sensitization D) relaxation training Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse: Behavioral interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 348 of your text.

59. What drug addiction treatment focuses on helping clients identify and avoid highrisk situations in order to prevent future drug use?

A) contingency management B) covert sensitization C) relapse prevention D) self-control training Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 19 of 28

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Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating substance abuse: Cognitive components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 349 of your text.

60. The psychodynamic explanation of substance misuse is most similar to the: A) biological perspective B) disease model C) moral perspective D) symptom model Ans: D Section reference: Multiple causality and the connection between mind and body in substance use disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 351 of your text.

61. According to current psychodynamic theory, clients with ________ may need to numb intense emotions through substance misuse.

A) alexithymia B) anxiety C) denial D) negative self-schemas Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating substance use disorders: Psychodynamic components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 351 of your text.

62. Alcoholics Anonymous adheres most closely to the A) behavioral model B) disease model C) family systems model D) symptom model

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Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating substance use disorders: The twelve-step approach Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 354 of your text.

63. According to the results of Project MATCH, which alcoholism treatments were effective?

A) rational recovery and AA B) cognitive behavioral and motivational enhancement C) rational recovery, cognitive behavioral, and psychodynamic D) motivational enhancement, AA, and cognitive behavioral Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating substance use disorders: The twelve-step approach Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 354 of your text.

64. During the civil war in the U.S., opiate addicts who sought treatment were: A) forced to remain hospitalized until withdrawal symptoms ended B) given another opiate to substitute for the substance of addiction C) taught methods to manage stress without resorting to drug use D) psychoanalyzed to determine the root causes of the addiction Ans: B Section reference: Appendix: Histories of some commonly abused substances Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 358 of your text.

65. Freud’s interest in the use of cocaine decreased after: A) a colleague published a research paper related to cocaine before Freud could publish his own B) a friend became addicted to cocaine after Freud gave it to him to treat morphine addiction C) his fiancée encouraged him to pursue other professional interests, including psychoanalysis Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 21 of 28

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D) the medical community criticized cocaine as a recreational drug with no medicinal purposes Ans: B Section reference: Appendix: Histories of some commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 360 of your text.

66. By 1990, an estimated ___% of Americans aged 25 to 30 years had used cocaine.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50 Ans: D Section reference: Appendix: Histories of some commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 360 of your text.

68. The most important cash crop of the American colonies was: A) cannabis B) coca C) coffee D) tobacco Ans: D Section reference: Appendix: Histories of some commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 362 of your text.

69. In the 1920s and 1930s, marijuana became illegal in many places due to the belief that it caused A) cancer B) criminal behavior C) laziness D) learning problems

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Ans: B Section reference: Appendix: Histories of some commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See pages 362 of your text.

True/False

70. Substance use disorders are the most common of all mental disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 256 of your text.

71. The term “drugs” refers only to illegal substances.

Ans: false Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 310 of your text.

72. Most people use psychoactive substances on a daily basis.

Ans: true Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 311 of your text.

73. The fact that substances increase feelings of pleasure and decrease feelings of pain explains why some people become pathological substance users.

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Ans: false Section reference: Defining substance use disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 311 of your text.

74. Sexual addiction and pathological gambling are classified in the DSM-IV-TR as addictive disorders.

Ans: false Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR diagnosis Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 311 of your text.

75. Alcohol’s stimulant effects can cause an intoxicated person to become louder and more impulsive.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 320 of your text.

76. Having an alcoholic parent or spouse puts a person at increased risk for psychological problems.

Ans: true Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 318 of your text.

77. The decrease in the use of barbiturates occurred primarily because more effective sedative-hypnotics were developed.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 24 of 28

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Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 323 of your text.

78. The relatively mild withdrawal from cocaine proves that cocaine is not addictive.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 326 of your text.

79. Amphetamines are as potent as cocaine, and the high lasts longer.

Ans: true Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 327 of your text.

80. Half of the amount of nicotine in a typical cigar is enough to kill a person within minutes.

Ans: true Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 329 of your text.

81. At high doses, caffeine may decrease mental performance.

Ans: true Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 330 of your text.

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82. Experts agree that caffeine is safe for everyone, including pregnant women.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 330 of your text.

83. Marijuana use cannot lead to physical dependence.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 336 of your text.

84. Chronic marijuana use has no negative effects on memory or learning.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 336 of your text.

85. One marijuana joint is as toxic as five cigarettes.

Ans: true Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 336 of your text.

86. Inhalant use is safe if only done once or twice.

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Page reference: See page 337 of your text.

87. Anabolic steroids have been proven to significantly increase muscle mass and enhance athletic performance.

Ans: false Section reference: Commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 329 of your text.

88. Twin studies of alcoholism prove that alcohol dependence is caused entirely by genetic abnormalities.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating substance use disorders: Biological components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 344 of your text.

89. Social stresses and cultural pressures play a partial role in causing substance use disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating substance use disorders: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Reference: See page 351 of your text.

90. Shedler and Block’s longitudinal study showed that substance misuse develops from underlying emotional problems.

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Page reference: See page 342 of your text.

91. Shortly after its creation, heroin was marketed as a nonaddictive substitute for codeine.

Ans: true Section reference: Appendix: History of some commonly abused substances Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 360 of your text.

Essay

1. Explain the importance of context in assessing substance use disorders.

2. Compare alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines in terms of their effects, uses, and dangers.

3. Compare and evaluate the moral explanation, disease model, and symptom model of addiction. Which one makes the most sense? Explain.

4. Develop and describe an integrative model for substance dependence.

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Chapter: 10, Chapter 10: Sex, Gender, and the Sexual Disorders

Multiple choice

1. In the 19th century, Graham and Kellogg addressed the alleged dangers of masturbation by: A) developing genital cages that sounded an alarm when a boy had an erection.

B) designing a device that put carbolic acid on girls’ genitals to stop masturbation.

C) manufacturing bland foods in an effort to decrease excitability and masturbation.

D) hospitalizing and heavily medicating any patients who admitted to masturbation.

Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 368 of your text.

2. The diagnosis of homosexuality was removed from DSM-II based on: A) the belief that homosexuality is a normal variation in sexuality.

B) scientific proof that homosexuality is outside of one’s control.

C) the idea that it is a social problem rather than psychological one.

D) a nationwide vote showing that most citizens wanted it removed.

Ans: A Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 368 of your text.

3. The diagnosis of homosexuality was removed from DSM-II in 1973 and replaced by the diagnosis of A) abnormal sexual orientation B) ego-dystonic homosexuality C) gender identity disorder D) sexual disorder not otherwise specified

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Ans: B Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 368 of your text.

4. Which of the following is NOT true about cultural variations in beliefs about sexuality?

A) China deleted homosexuality as a psychiatric diagnosis in 2001.

B) Among the Sambia, male homosexuality is normal before fatherhood.

C) Dhat is a syndrome in Australia involving anxiety about losing semen.

D) Disorders such as exhibitionism are found primarily in Western societies.

Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 369 of your text.

5. Prior to the 1800s, unusual sexual behavior was viewed as: A) a medical disease B) a variation of normal sexual behavior C) a type of sin or vice D) a crime Ans: C Section reference: Classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 370 of your text.

6. According to Freud, abnormal sexuality is caused by: A) the use of defense mechanisms to resist one’s perverse wishes B) a developmental fixation related to expressing perverse wishes C) sexual trauma during childhood that is not resolved adequately D) repression of normal sexual desires during early development Ans: B Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 2 of 26

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Section reference: Classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 372 of your text.

7. Persistent problems involving one or more components of the sexual response cycle are categorized as: A) gender disorders B) paraphilias C) sexual dysfunctions D) sexual response disorders Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 372 of your text.

8. Disorders that Freud called “perversions” would now be classified as: A) gender identity disorders B) paraphilias C) sexual dysfunctions D) none – they would not be considered disorders Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

9. Disorders involving persistent sexual desires or preferences that are considered abnormal are: A) gender identity disorders B) paraphilias C) sexual dysfunctions D) all of the above Ans: b Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 3 of 26

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

10. A man who feels that he has the body of the wrong sex, and that he wants to be a woman, is most likely to have: A) gender identity disorder B) paraphilia C) sexual dysfunction D) no disorder Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

11. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of the normal sexual response cycle?

A) arousal B) desire C) foreplay D) orgasm Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

12. Which of the following gives the correct sequence of the sexual response cycle?

A) resolution, desire, foreplay, orgasm B) desire, arousal, orgasm, resolution C) arousal, desire, orgasm, resolution D) foreplay, arousal, desire, orgasm Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

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13. Which sexual response stage does NOT have a dysfunction associated with it?

A) resolution B) orgasm C) desire D) arousal Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

14. According to Masters and Johnson, sexual dysfunctions can be caused by: A) spectatoring and sexual fixation B) performance anxiety and disinterest C) performance anxiety and spectatoring D) disinterest and sexual fixation Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

15. The term “spectatoring” refers to: A) being sexually excited by watching other people have sex B) worries about sexual competence and ability to perform C) anxious, detached self-observation during sexual activity D) dysfunctions that develop as a result of being watched Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

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16. Ellie and Bill have been married for 15 years. Since the birth of their youngest child, Ellie has not been interested in having sex. When Bill tries to initiate sex, she is not interested. Because she still loves Bill and feels close to him, she will occasionally have sex with him. Ellie’s lack of interest has become a source of major conflict between her and Bill. Which of the following best describes Ellie’s symptoms?

A) dyspareunia B) female sexual arousal disorder C) hypoactive sexual desire D) sexual aversion Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 375 of your text.

17. Which of the following is not classified as an orgasmic disorder?

A) female orgasmic disorder B) male orgasmic disorder C) male erectile disorder D) premature ejaculation Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 317 of your text.

18. Juliet refuses to have sex with her husband Roland. She says that she is not interested and that sex is disgusting. Whenever Roland tries to initiate sex, Juliet becomes quite upset. Which of the following best describes Juliet’s symptoms?

A) female sexual arousal disorder B) hypoactive sexual desire C) sexual aversion D) vaginismus Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 376 of your text.

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19. Common consequences of female arousal disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: A) painful intercourse B) relationship difficulties C) sexual aversion D) vaginal infections Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 376 of your text.

20. This disorder involves a persistent inability to attain or maintain an adequate lubrication-swelling response.

A) hypoactive desire disorder B) female sexual arousal disorder C) female orgasmic disorder D) vaginismus Ans: B Section reference: Diagnostic criteria for the sexual dysfunctions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 376 of your text.

21. Ralph is unable to maintain an erection during sexual activity. This has been happening since he first became sexually active, and it has happened with every sexual partner. Which of the following best fits this type of problem?

A) sexual arousal disorder, generalized subtype B) sexual arousal disorder, lifelong subtype C) erectile disorder, lifelong subtype D) erectile disorder, situational subtype Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 376 of your text.

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22. Viagra is one medication used to treat: A) hypoactive sexual desire B) female orgasmic disorder C) male erectile disorder D) premature ejaculation Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 376 of your text.

23. Viagra works by: A) increasing muscle size in the penis B) normalizing blood flow to the penis C) raising testosterone levels D) enhancing water retention in the penis Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 376 of your text.

24. During sexual activity with her husband, Susie becomes sexually excited, but she never achieves orgasm. She and her husband have tried various methods, and she believes that she is being stimulated adequately; nonetheless, she does not reach orgasm. Which of the following best describes Susie’s complaints?

A) normal sexual functioning B) orgasmic disorder C) vaginismus D) sexual arousal disorder Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 377 of your text.

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25. The most common male sexual dysfunction is thought to be: A) erectile disorder B) premature ejaculation C) orgasmic disorder D) dispareunia Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 377 of your text.

26. A widely used technique for treating premature ejaculation is: A) sensate focus B) nondemand pleasuring C) stop-start method D) snap gauge Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 378 of your text.

27. During intercourse with her husband, Marsha experiences involuntary muscle spasms in her vagina. These spasms make intercourse difficult and painful. Marsha is most likely experiencing: A) dyspareunia B) female arousal disorder C) hypoactive desire D) vaginismus Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 378 of your text.

28. Female circumcision is associated with the symptoms of: Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 9 of 26

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A) dyspareunia B) female arousal disorder C) hypoactive desire D) vaginismus Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality and 5 Page reference: See page 378 of your text.

29. Phil experiences recurrent genital pain during intercourse. He is most likely to have: A) erectile disorder B) dyspareunia C) orgasmic disorder D) vaginismus Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 378 of your text.

30. Paraphilias can be distinguished from normal sexual practices in a number of ways.

Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about this difference?

A) The sexual behavior in a paraphilia varies over time.

B) The sexual behavior in a paraphilia causes distress or impairment.

C) The sexual behavior in a paraphilia is necessary for arousal.

D) The sexual behavior in a paraphilia is compulsive.

Ans: A Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 379 of your text.

31. Which of the following is NOT a reason given by the text authors to explain the exclusion of rape from the DSM-IV-TR paraphilias?

A) Men who rape can be more consistently characterized as antisocial than paraphiliac.

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B) Rape is motivated more by hostility toward women than by aberrant sexual arousal patterns.

C) Rape is best described as a normal courtship behavior that has become disordered D) There is a fear that if rape was a diagnosis, it could be used by rapists as a legal defense.

Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 381 of your text.

32. A person who is sexually excited by rubbing against a stranger on a bus is most likely to have: A) exhibitionism B) frotteurism C) sadism D) voyeurism Ans: B Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

33. A person who is sexually excited by the physical or psychological suffering of another person is most likely to have: A) cannibalism B) fetishism C) masochism D) sadism Ans: D Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

34. A person who is sexually excited by being made to suffer is most likely to have: A) fetishism Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 11 of 26

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B) paraphilia not otherwise specified C) masochism D) sadism Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

35. A person who is sexually aroused by prepubescent children is most likely to have: A) fetishism B) frotteurism C) pedophilia D) transvestic fetishism Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

36. A heterosexual male who is sexually aroused by cross-dressing has: A) latent homosexuality B) pedophilia C) exhibitionism D) transvestic fetishism Ans: D Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

37. Tom likes to sit on a bench in a park by his home, dressed in a long coat with no clothes on underneath. When a woman sits on the bench next to him, Tom stands up, faces the woman, and opens his coat. He stays there long enough to watch the surprised expression on the woman’s face, and then he runs his home. Once he arrives home, Tom masturbates to the mental image of the woman’s surprise. Which of the following best describes Tom? Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 12 of 26

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A) exhibitionism B) fetishism C) frotteurism D) pedophilia Ans: A Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

38. George lives in a high-rise apartment building in a city. He recently discovered that he can watch women undress and watch people have sex in the nearby hotel if he uses binoculars. George gets very sexually excited by observing people in the hotel. Which of the following best describes George?

A) exhibitionism B) fetishism C) frotteurism D) voyeurism Ans: D Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

39. Terrence regularly asks his wife to wear high heeled shoes while they are having sex; if she does not, Terrence is unable to maintain an erection. When his wife is not home or does not feel like having sex, Terrence rubs his wife’s shoes while he masturbates. Over time, Terrence has become more excited by women’s high heeled shoes, to the extent that he cannot become aroused without them. Which of the following best describes Terrence?

A) exhibitionism B) fetishism C) frotteurism D) transvestic fetishism Ans: B Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

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40. Which of the following is an inaccurate myth about exhibitionists?

A) Exhibitionists are old men who expose themselves to young girls.

B) Elderly exhibitionists are usually disinhibited due to dementia) C) Pedophiles are more likely than exhibitionists to expose themselves to children.

D) Exhibitionists rarely seek out contact with the victims of their exposure.

Ans: A Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 381 of your text.

41. Sexual arousal related to amputees is a type of: A) fetish B) masochism C) sadism D) voyeurism Ans: A Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 383 of your text.

42. A man who is sexually aroused by wearing women’s clothing, but does not actually want to be a woman, is most likely to be exhibiting: A) gender identity disorder B) homosexuality C) transvestism D) voyeurism Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 383 of your text.

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43. Adam, an actor, dresses as a woman every night as part of his role in a Broadway play. He enjoys playing this part, although he is not aroused by dressing “in drag.”

Adam is comfortable with who he is, and does not wish to be a woman. Based on this information, which of the following best describes Adam?

A) gender identity disorder B) homosexuality C) transvestism D) no disorder Ans: D Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

44. Frank enjoys “playing rough” with his wife. For years, with his wife’s consent, Frank slapped and whipped her and occasionally burned her. Frank’s wife grew tired of this, and asked for a change. Frank said no, because he cannot become aroused otherwise.

Recently, Frank’s wife refused to have sex with him any more if he will not stop the rough behavior; since then, Frank has been going to an S&M club. Frank and his wife are now having marital troubles. Which of the following best describes Frank?

A) fetishism B) masochism C) sadism D) no disorder, just marriage problems Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 383 of your text.

45. What percentage of children in the U.S. experience sexual abuse by the time they are 18 years of age?

A) 1-5% B) 5-10% C) 10-20% D) 20-30% Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 15 of 26

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 384 of your text.

46. According to Freud, an exhibitionist shows his penis in order to: A) watch the surprised reaction of the person he exposes himself to B) receive symbolic oral gratification that was not obtained during childhood C) reassure himself that his genitals and masculinity are intact D) ease the ego’s anxiety about the id’s sexual desires and impulses Ans: C Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 391 of your text.

47. A person who becomes sexually excited by making obscene phone calls is exhibiting telephone: A) fetishism B) sadism C) scatologia D) voyeurism Ans: C Section reference: Other paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 387 of your text.

48. According to Robert Stoller’s psychodynamic view, a person with a paraphilia is exhibiting what type of defense mechanism?

A) denial B) identifying with the aggressor C) reaction formation D) sublimation Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating sexual disorders: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 391 of your text.

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49. Which theoretical perspective would view a paraphilia as the result of an accidental connection between sexual arousal and an inappropriate stimulus?

A) biological theory B) classical conditioning theory C) psychodynamic theory D) social learning theory Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating sexual disorders: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 392 of your text.

50. A penile plethysmograph is used: A) to treat male orgasmic disorder B) to measure penile responses C) to deliver shock treatment D) for sado-masochistic activities Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating sexual disorders: The paraphilias Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 392 of your text.

51. Which of the following is NOT a method for de-conditioning deviant sexual arousal patterns?

A) aversion therapy B) cognitive restructuring C) covert sensitization D) masturbatory satiation Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating sexual disorders: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 393 of your text.

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52. Chemical and surgical castration are thought to be effective at reducing paraphilia behaviors by A) increasing androgen levels B) increasing progesterone levels C) decreasing testosterone levels D) decreasing progesterone levels Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating sexual disorders: The paraphilias Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 394 of your text.

53. Gender identity disorder is diagnosed when: A) a person shows gender nonconformity B) a person’s gender and sex are inconsistent C) a person has an intersex condition D) a person is sexually aroused by cross-dressing Ans: B Section reference: Gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 394 of your text.

54. In normal development, a relatively stable and unchangeable gender identity as either female or male is well established by the age of: A) 2 or 3 B) 3 or 4 C) 6 or 7 D) 12 or 13 Ans: B Section reference: Gender identity disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 400 of your text.

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A) a girl with masculine traits B) a girl with gender identity disorder C) a boy with feminine traits D) a boy with gender identity disorder Ans: A Section reference: Explaining gender identity disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 400 of your text.

56. Psychodynamic theories of gender identity disorder (GID) emphasize the role of: A) overly masculine and hostile fathers in the development of GID in boys B) disturbed mother-son relationships in the development of GID in boys C) submissive, dependent mothers in the development of GID in girls D) overly powerful and dominant fathers in the development of GID in girls Ans: B Section reference: Explaining gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 401 of your text.

57. Behavioral theorists argue that gender identity disorder develops through: A) response generalization B) classical conditioning C) modeling D) operant conditioning Ans: D Section reference: Explaining gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 401 of your text.

58. Which of the following is NOT a factor in the biopsychodevelopmental explanation for gender identity disorder in boys?

A) high levels of anxiety and insecurity among immediate family members B) fathers who are uncomfortable with male aggressiveness C) passive withdrawal of the mother leading to boy’s separation anxiety Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 19 of 26

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D) boy’s passive temperament and sensitivity to parents’ emotions Ans: B Section reference: The principle of multiple causality of gender identity disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 401 of your text.

59. The primary treatment for children with gender identity disorder is: A) not giving treatment because the child is likely to simply grow out of it B) trying to readjust the child’s gender identity to fit their biological sex C) sex reassignment surgery D) antidepressant medication Ans: B Section reference: Explaining gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 402 of your text.

60. A man who wishes to undergo sex reassignment would most likely follow which sequence of changes?

A) living as a woman, hormone therapy, sex change surgery, voice therapy B) hormone therapy, living as a woman, voice therapy, sex change surgery C) living as a woman, hormone therapy, voice therapy, sex change surgery D) hormone therapy, voice therapy, living as a woman, sex change surgery Ans: C Section reference: The principle of multiple causality in gender identity disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 403 of your text.

True/False

61. Among today’s experts, it is common to view the absence of masturbation as abnormal and the occurrence of masturbation as normal.

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Ans: true Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal sexuality Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 368 of your text.

62. Homosexuality is a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR. Ans: false Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 368 of your text.

63. Freud believed that human beings are born with a bisexual disposition.

Ans: true Section reference: Classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 372 of your text.

64. Freud viewed homosexuality as a disorder that could be treated by intensive psychoanalysis.

Ans: false Section reference: Classifying sexual disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 372 of your text.

65. Sexual disorders are classified together because they all have a sexual cause.

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Page reference: See page 372 of your text.

66. Occasional problems with sexual response are extremely common and not considered dysfunctions.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 372 of your text.

67. Sexual dysfunctions are very difficult to treat and often do not show any improvement after treatment.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 373 of your text.

68. Substance use, including cigarette smoking, can contribute to sexual dysfunctions.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Reference: See page 374 of your text.

69. Medications like Viagra are only useful in erectile disorder is caused by a medical problem.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 376 of your text.

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70. Difficulty in achieving orgasm is only considered a dysfunction if it occurs persistently despite adequate sexual stimulation.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 377 of your text.

71. For the purpose of defining sexual dysfunction, intercourse is assumed to provide adequate sexual stimulation for women.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 377 of your text.

72. Most people with paraphilias voluntarily seek treatment.

Ans: false Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 379 of your text.

73. It is relatively common for people to include mildly exhibitionistic, voyeuristic, and sado-masochistic practices in their sex lives.

Ans: true Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 379 of your text.

74. Paraphilias are found almost exclusively in men.

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Ans: true Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

75. Rape is included as a DSM-IV-TR paraphilia.

Ans: false Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 381 of your text.

76. Watching people have sex in a movie is a sign of the disorder called voyeurism.

Ans: false Section reference: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 381 of your text.

77. Certain injuries or illnesses, such as brain tumors, can cause paraphilias.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating sexual disorders: The paraphilias Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 380 of your text.

78. A girl who is described as a tomboy most likely has gender identity disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: Gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 394 of your text.

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79. The majority of boys with gender identity disorder no longer have the disorder when they are adults.

Ans: true Section reference: Gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 397 of your text.

80. Most boys who “outgrow” gender identity disorder have developed a heterosexual orientation.

Ans: false Section reference: Gender identity disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 397 of your text.

Essay

1. Compare historical views of sexuality to historical views of substance use disorders.

2. Describe the four main categories of sexual dysfunction, and their relationship to the sexual response cycle. Briefly describe one disorder within each category.

3. Explain the differences between a paraphilia and normal sexual practices.

4. Compare the psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and biological explanations of paraphilias.

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5. Explain the similarities and differences of gender identity disorder and transvestic fetishism.

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Chapter: 11, Chapter 11: Personality and Personality Disorders

Multiple choice

1. ______ are stable over time, whereas ______ come and go.

A) signs, symptoms B) signs, traits C) traits, symptoms D) symptoms, traits Ans: C Section reference: Defining personality and the personality disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 409 of your text.

2. In contrast to symptom disorders, personality disorders are: A) classified on Axis I B) ego-syntonic C) not long lasting D) ego-dystonic Ans: B Section reference: Defining personality and the personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 410 of your text.

3. Behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that are experienced by an individual as distressing and unwelcome are called: A) personality disorders B) psychotic C) ego-dystonic D) ego-syntonic Ans: C Section reference: Defining personality and the personality disorders Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 30

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 410 of your text

4. Which of the following best describes a personality disorder?

A) The typical way in which a person behaves across a variety of situations.

B) A pattern of inflexible, maladaptive thoughts and behaviors that occur in various situations and lead to impairment or distress.

C) The symptoms or characteristics exhibited by a person that cause him to feel anxious, depressed, or guilty.

D) The problems experienced by a person that do not fit into a DSM-IV-TR diagnostic category.

Ans: B Section reference: Defining personality and the personality disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 410 of your text.

5. When deciding whether personality traits are abnormal or normal, which of the following would be most likely to indicate that the traits are abnormal?

A) the person is distressed by the traits B) the person notices their own traits C) the traits are rigid and extreme D) the traits are constantly changing Ans: C Section reference: The continuum between normal and abnormal personality Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 410 of your text.

6. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic personality disorders are categorized as: A) Cluster A B) Cluster B C) Cluster C D) personality disorder NOS Ans: B Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 2 of 30

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 412 of your text.

7. Personality disorders involving anxious or fearful traits are categorized as: A) Cluster A B) Cluster B C) Cluster C D) personality disorder NOS Ans: C Section reference: Classifying, explaining and treating personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 412 of your text.

8. Personality disorders characterized by odd or eccentric traits are categorized as: A) Cluster A B) Cluster B C) Cluster C D) personality disorder NOS Ans: A Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 412 of your text.

9. Compared to people with paranoid schizophrenia, people with paranoid personality disorder: A) are more likely to be hospitalized for long periods of time B) tend to recognize that their symptoms are problematic C) are sufficiently in touch with reality to function in daily life D) voluntarily take antipsychotic medication all their lives Ans: C Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating personality disorders: Paranoid personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 411 of your text.

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10. Which of the following personality disorders is the most common?

A) avoidant B) narcissistic C) obsessive-compulsive D) schizotypal Ans: D Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating personality disorders: The DSM-IV-TR personality disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 411 of your text.

11. Martin frequently suspects that his wife, his co-workers, and his neighbors are cheating him, talking about him behind his back, and are in other ways disloyal or untrustworthy. Martin’s characteristics sound most like what personality disorder?

A) antisocial B) narcissistic C) obsessive-compulsive D) paranoid Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating paranoid personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 412 of your text.

12. Fixed thought patterns that shape interpersonal behavioral strategies, and influence how people perceive and interpret all subsequent experiences are called: A) automatic thoughts B) cognitive schemas C) discriminatory beliefs D) distorted perceptions Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating personality disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 4 of 30

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Page reference: See page 414 of your text.

13. Maladaptive cognitive schemas often persist throughout life. Which of the following is NOT a reason for this?

A) People give greater attention to schema-consistent experiences.

B) People perceive their experiences as being schema-consistent.

C) People act in ways that elicit schema-consistent reactions and experiences.

D) People change their schemas when their behavior is self-defeating.

Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating personality disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 414 of your text.

14. According to the cognitive-behavioral perspective, a person with paranoid personality disorder is guarded and uncomfortable being close to others because: A) he had repeated childhood experiences of humiliation, criticism, & ridicule B) he learned these paranoid behaviors from his parents when he was a child C) he has maladaptive cognitive schemas that lead him to act in these ways D) he has unresolved trust issues with his parents that are projected on others Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating personality disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 414 of your text.

15. Cognitive interventions for people with paranoid personality disorder aim to: A) alter the client’s fundamental assumptions that people cannot be trusted B) help the client evaluate the threat posed by particular situations C) improve the client’s social skills and assertiveness in threatening situations D) replace maladaptive defense mechanisms with healthier alternatives Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating personality disorders: Cognitive-behavioral components Difficulty level: difficult Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 5 of 30

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Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 414 of your text.

16. According to the psychodynamic perspective, all of the following are true of people with paranoid personality disorder EXCEPT: A) they focus on their own strengths and how they might be exploited by others B) they had repeated childhood experiences of humiliation, criticism, & ridicule C) they have a distorted view of others due to their frequent use of projection D) they show a combination of feelings of inferiority and self-centeredness Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating personality disorders: Brief summary Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 414 of your text.

17. Jennifer spends most of her time alone. She has few people she can really talk to.

Since graduating from high school, she has tried to find jobs that allow her to work alone. When asked about her solitary lifestyle, she replied, “I don’t have any interest in other people, and have felt this way for as long as I can remember.” What is Jennifer’s most likely diagnosis?

A) antisocial personality disorder B) avoidant personality disorder C) schizoid personality disorder D) schizotypal personality disorder Ans: C Section reference: Schizoid personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 416 of your text.

18. George likes to be alone and typically chooses to do things alone rather than with others. He is not anxious in social situations; instead, he does not enjoy relationships with others, including sexual relationships. He has few friends, and that is fine with him.

George does not care what others think of him. George has the characteristics of what personality disorder?

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D) Schizotypal personality disorder Ans: C Section reference: Schizoid personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 416 of your text.

19. Research suggests that schizoid personality disorder may develop due to the combination of: A) a difficult temperament and too active or intrusive caregivers B) a difficult temperament and aloof and uninvolved caregivers C) an easy temperament and neglectful or abusive caregivers D) an easy temperament and loss of a caregiver early in life Ans: A Section reference: Schizoid personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 416 of your text.

20. According to the psychodynamic perspective, what defense mechanisms are associated with schizoid personality disorder?

A) denial and intellectualization B) intellectualization and withdrawal C) withdrawal and repression D) repression and denial Ans: B Section reference: Schizoid personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 417 of your text.

21. A person with schizoid personality disorder would be most likely to think: A) Relationships can be valuable but most people are not trustworthy.

B) I want to be close to others but I am afraid of being criticized or hurt.

C) Relationships are overly complicated and unlikely to be gratifying.

D) I want relationships but I do not know how to act normal around others.

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Ans: C Section reference: Schizoid personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 416 of your text.

22. Danielle is very suspicious and mistrustful of others. When she sees other people talking, she usually assumes they are talking about her. She is also quite anxious in social situations; often in these situations, she laughs when it is inappropriate to do so.

She has very few close friends. She usually dresses in strange ways, and other people tend to think that she is odd. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A) avoidant personality disorder B) paranoid personality disorder C) schizoid personality disorder D) schizotypal personality disorder Ans: D Section reference: Schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 418 of your text.

23. Genetic and biological evidence strongly suggests that what personality disorder may be a mild form of schizophrenia?

A) antisocial B) paranoid C) schizoid D) schizotypal Ans: D Section reference: Schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 418 of your text.

24. How does schizotypal personality disorder differ from both paranoid and schizoid personality disorders?

A) People with schizotypal PD are suspicious of others and distrusting of their motives.

B) People with schizotypal PD lack an interest in or understanding of close relationships.

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C) People with schizotypal PD have strange or eccentric thinking, appearance, and behavior.

D) People with schizotypal PD fail to develop close relationships, even with people they know well.

Ans: C Section reference: Schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 419 of your text.

25. When Margaret is outside and it starts to rain, she assumes that God is telling her that she needs to take a bath. Margaret’s belief is: A) a cognitive distortion B) an idea of reference C) magical thinking D) a schema Ans: B Section reference: Schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 419 of your text.

26. Ralph believes that he can make it rain by washing his car. This is an example of: A) a cognitive accuracy B) an idea of reference C) magical thinking D) a schema Ans: C Section reference: Schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 419 of your text.

27. Biological treatment for schizotypal personality disorder most often involves: A) antidepressant medication B) antipsychotic medication C) electroconvulsive therapy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 9 of 30

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D) frontal lobectomy Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 420 of your text.

28. Cognitive-behavioral interventions for schizotypal personality disorder typically focus on: A) reducing magical thinking and odd beliefs B) eliminating ideas of reference C) improving social problem solving D) improving range of affect Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating schizotypal personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 420 of your text.

29. 22-year-old Sean has been arrested several times in the past few years for public drunkenness, passing bad checks, and petty theft. He often drives drunk, even if other people are in the car; he has little concern for the safety of himself of others. He is often irritable and aggressive. Sean has not been able to keep a job more than a few weeks at a time. Sean seems to meet criteria for: A) antisocial personality disorder B) avoidant personality disorder C) borderline personality disorder D) narcissistic personality disorder Ans: A Section reference: Antisocial personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 420 of your text.

30. According to the psychodynamic perspective, people with antisocial personality disorder show: A) underactive id functioning Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 10 of 30

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B) abnormal ego functioning C) abnormal superego functioning D) fixation at the genital stage Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating antisocial personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 422 of your text.

31. Which of the following has NOT been implicated as a contributing cause for antisocial personality disorder?

A) deficiency in normal anxiety reactions B) prenatal drug exposure C) abnormally large prefrontal cortex D) chronic under-stimulation Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating antisocial personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 422 of your text.

32. A woman had been dating a man for about three months when he broke up with her. She told him that she loved him a lot and begged him not to leave. She also threatened to kill herself, and went as far as making cuts on her arm that bled a little.

The day after they broke up, she said she hated him. She also regularly has eating binges and drinks too much wine. She also experiences mood swings. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A) borderline personality disorder B) dependent personality disorder C) eating disorder NOS D) histrionic personality disorder Ans: A Section reference: Borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Reference: See page 424 of your text.

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33. If a person frantically tries to avoid losing romantic relationships, has very unstable and intense relationships, is impulsive in a variety of situations, feels empty, and makes suicide threats when things do not go well, what would you conclude about this person?

A) This person has borderline personality disorder.

B) This person has histrionic personality disorder.

C) This person has narcissistic personality disorder.

D) This person does not have a personality disorder.

Ans: A Section reference: Borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 424 of your text.

34. The name “borderline” personality disorder is appropriate because: A) People with the disorder are usually neurotic but sometimes psychotic.

B) People with the disorder vacillate between love and hate in relationships.

C) People with the disorder move quickly from one emotional extreme to the other.

D) All of the above.

Ans: D Section reference: Borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 425 of your text.

35. Much of the “acting out” behavior associated with borderline personality disorder is an attempt to: A) gain attention B) control painful feelings C) gain others’ respect D) improve self-esteem Ans: B Section reference: Borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 426 of your text.

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36. Which of the following childhood factors has NOT been shown to be associated with borderline personality disorder?

A) exposure to trauma B) unempathic parents C) prenatal drug exposure D) chaotic environment Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 427 of your text.

37. Cognitive-behavioral explanations of borderline personality disorder focus on what thinking error?

A) catastrophizing B) dichotomous thinking C) over-generalization D) selective abstraction Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Reference: See page 427 of your text.

38. Which of the following has been highly effective in treating borderline personality disorder clients who have not improved with other forms of therapy?

A) cognitive behavioral therapy B) dialectical behavior therapy C) interpersonal psychotherapy D) psychoanalytic psychotherapy Ans: B Section reference: Dialectical behavior therapy Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Reference: See page 428 of your text.

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39. Which personality disorder involves a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking?

A) borderline PD B) histrionic PD C) narcissistic PD D) psychopathy Ans: B Section reference: Histrionic personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 430 of your text.

40. Julie is very flamboyant and tends to dress seductively; she is quite concerned about her appearance. Most of her statements lack in detail but are excessively emotional. She is self-centered and is uncomfortable if she is not the center of attention.

Julie’s characteristics sound most like: A) antisocial personality disorder B) borderline personality disorder C) histrionic personality disorder D) narcissistic personality disorder Ans: C Section reference: Histrionic personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 430 of your text.

41. From a modern psychodynamic perspective, histrionic personality disorder is caused by: A) repressed feeling of aggression aimed at abusive parents B) conflicts about sexuality and insecurity in relationships C) denial of one’s powerlessness over other people’s behavior D) excessive indulgence by parents who are superficial Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating histrionic personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 431 of your text.

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42. According to cognitive theorists, people with histrionic personality disorder believe that: A) they are better, smarter, and more successful than other people B) they will be alone forever if even one person does not like them C) they cannot care for themselves and must seek others’ approval D) they should not rely upon other people who are mostly irresponsible Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating histrionic personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 431 of your text.

43. A man dresses flamboyantly and behaves in other ways that draw attention to him.

He feels a strong need to have others admire him. Despite the fact that he has not yet succeeded in business, he believes himself to be a brilliant businessman, and believes that “other people constantly look up to me for advice.” He thinks constantly about what his life will be like when he “strikes it rich,” which he is confident will occur soon. He believes that, in order to succeed, he sometimes must “take advantage of stupid people.” He says, “if someone is stupid, they deserve what they get.” What is his most likely diagnosis?

A) antisocial personality disorder B) borderline personality disorder C) histrionic personality disorder D) narcissistic personality disorder Ans: D Section reference: Narcissistic personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 434 of your text.

44. Which of the following is NOT a cause of narcissistic personality disorder from the psychodynamic perspective?

A) The person’s parents gave in to whatever the child wanted.

B) The parents implied that only perfect children are lovable.

C) The parents loved the child regardless of the child’s behavior.

D) The parents valued the child for the child’s external qualities.

Ans: C Section reference: Narcissistic personality disorder Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 15 of 30

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 435 of your text.

45. What defense mechanisms seem to be most common in narcissistic personality disorder?

A) denial and repression B) identification with the aggressor and splitting C) escape into fantasy and regression D) idealization and devaluation Ans: D Section reference: Narcissistic personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 435 of your text.

46. With a narcissistic client, a cognitive therapist is most likely to focus on: A) tolerating grandiosity and providing empathy so the client feel understood B) treating the presenting problem and ignoring the personality disorder C) helping the client to take a more realistic view of himself and others D) challenging the client to prove that his self-belief are accurate and realistic Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating narcissistic personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 436 of your text.

47. Which personality disorder involves social isolation due to interpersonal anxiety and fear of rejection?

A) antisocial personality disorder B) avoidant personality disorder C) dependent personality disorder D) schizoid personality disorder Ans: B Section reference: Avoidant personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 16 of 30

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Page reference: See page 436 of your text.

48. A man spends most of his time alone or with his mother. He has few people he can really talk to. Since graduating from high school, he has tried to find jobs that allow him to work alone. When asked about his solitary lifestyle, he replied, “I feel so inadequate around others, and have felt this way for as long as I can remember.” What is his most likely diagnosis?

A) avoidant personality disorder B) paranoid personality disorder C) schizoid personality disorder D) schizotypal personality disorder Ans: A Section reference: Avoidant personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 436 of your text.

49. The problems experienced by people with avoidant personality disorder are most similar to the symptoms of what Axis I disorder?

A) major depressive disorder B) post traumatic stress disorder C) social phobia D) schizophrenia Ans: C Section reference: Avoidant personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 437 of your text.

50. Avoidant personality disorder can be distinguished from social phobia because, unlike people with social phobia, people with avoidant PD: A) feel anxious in circumscribed social situations such as giving a speech B) respond much more quickly to cognitive-behavioral interventions C) feel anxious and inadequate in almost all social situations over many years D) are not interested in relationships and would prefer to be left alone Ans: C Section reference: Avoidant personality disorder Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 17 of 30

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 437 of your text.

51. According to the psychodynamic perspective, people with avoidant personality disorder rely heavily on what defense mechanisms?

A) identification with the aggressor and sublimation B) idealization and devaluation C) withdrawal and escape into fantasy D) denial and repression Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating avoidant personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 438 of your text.

52. People with avoidant personality disorder have what kind of information processing bias?

A) They only pay attention to details that confirm their negative self-assumptions.

B) They over-emphasize the importance of positive information about themselves.

C) They scan the environment, looking for evidence that others cannot be trusted) D) They interpret information to be consistent with their own positive self-schemas.

Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating avoidant personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 438of your text.

53. What biological factor is associated with avoidant personality disorder?

A) difficult temperament B) slow-to-warm-up temperament C) first degree relatives with schizophrenia D) abnormally low levels of dopamine Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating avoidant personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 30

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Page reference: See page 438 of your text.

54. Carmen likes to ask her parents for advice before making major decisions, such as deciding which car or house to buy. Even if she disagrees with them, she considers their opinions carefully before making a final decision based on what she thinks is best.

When she is working on a project around the house, she likes to have her mom’s help, or the help of a friend; she finds that she is more motivated to work on projects when others are around to help. If no one else is around, though, she will work on projects alone. Which of the following best describes Carmen?

A) avoidant personality disorder B) dependent personality disorder C) personality disorder NOS D) no diagnosis Ans: D Section reference: Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 446 of your text.

55. Skip graduated from college 3 years ago. Although he has a job with a good salary, he has asked his parents to continue to keep track of his finances; his mother pays his bills for him. Skip’s girlfriend helps him figure out what to wear and what to eat every day. They spend all of their time together; when his girlfriend has to be someplace else, Skip feels helpless to care for himself. Skip’s characteristics sound most like: A) avoidant PD B) dependent PD C) depressive PD D) schizoid PD Ans: B Section reference: Dependent personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 438 of your text.

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C) punished assertive behaviors D) overindulged the child’s wishes Ans: C Section reference: Dependent personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 439 of your text.

57. Psychodynamic theorists propose that people with dependent personality disorder use which defense mechanism in an attempt to avoid anxieties associated with independent, adult roles?

A) devaluation B) escape into fantasy C) regression D) withdrawal Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating dependent personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 440 of your text.

58. A person whose rigidity, stubbornness, perfectionism, and moral inflexibility interferes with their life is likely to have: A) avoidant personality disorder B) dependent personality disorder C) narcissistic personality disorder D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Ans: D Section reference: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 440 of your text.

59. Donald is very concerned with being organized. Every day, he spends several hours perfecting his “to do” list, organizing his calendar, and straightening his desk.

When he works on a project, he spends so much time trying to get it “just right” that he frequently misses the deadline. Donald spends most of his time working. He is quite Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 20 of 30

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focused on rules and is very rigid about morals and values. Donald’s characteristics sound most like: A) narcissistic PD B) obsessive-compulsive PD C) paranoid PD D) schizoid PD Ans: B Section reference: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 441 of your text.

60. According to Freud, a person with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is fixated at which stage of psychosexual development?

A) oral B) anal C) genital D) phallic Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 442 of your text.

61. Contemporary psychodynamic theorists connect the maladaptive use of certain defense mechanisms with the characteristics of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. From this perspective, which of the following is NOT an accurate defense mechanism-characteristic pairing?

A) isolation of affect → hyper-rational, emotionless characteristics B) idealization → perfectionism C) undoing → compulsive traits D) reaction formation → excessive organization Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 444 of your text.

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62. What research design uses standardized research measures to evaluate treatment success in individual clients?

A) controlled outcome research B) experimental clinical design C) single-case design D) uncontrolled clinical reports Ans: C Section reference: Evaluating the treatment of personality disordes Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 443 of your text.

63. From the psychodynamic perspective, many personality disorders involve maladaptive use of defense mechanisms. Psychodynamic theorists pair certain defense mechanisms with specific disorders. Which of the following is NOT one of these pairings?

A) splitting – borderline PD B) escape into fantasy – avoidant PD C) regression – histrionic PD D) undoing – obsessive-compulsive PD Ans: C Section reference: Personality prominent defense disorder childhood experiences mechanisms Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 444 of your text.

64. In order to be diagnosed with a personality disorder, the person must be at least how old?

A) 12 years B) 16 years C) 18 years D) 21 years Ans: C Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 446 of your text.

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65. From the cognitive-behavioral perspective, people with personality disorders have certain underdeveloped and overdeveloped behavioral strategies. Which of the following is NOT a correct pairing of underdeveloped behavioral strategies with personality disorders?

A) trust – paranoid PD B) empathy – antisocial PD C) control – obsessive-compulsive PD D) self-assertion – avoidant PD Ans: C Section reference: Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 445 of your text.

66. From the cognitive-behavioral perspective, people with personality disorders have certain underdeveloped and overdeveloped behavioral strategies. Which of the following is NOT a correct pairing of overdeveloped behavioral strategies with personality disorders?

A) autonomy – schizoid PD B) manipulation – borderline PD C) expressiveness – histrionic PD D) spontaneity – dependent PD Ans: D Section reference: Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 445 of your text.

67. Controlled outcome studies have demonstrated the effectiveness of cognitivebehavioral interventions for: A) avoidant PD B) dependent PD C) narcissistic PD D) paranoid PD Ans: A

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Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 449 of your text.

68. A childhood or adolescent diagnosis of _____ often precedes antisocial personality disorder?

A) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder B) conduct disorder C) major depressive disorder D) narcissistic personality disorder Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 446 of your text.

69. Which personality disorder occurs disproportionately among members of lower socioeconomic classes?

A) antisocial PD B) dependent PD C) paranoid PD D) schizotypal PD Ans: A Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 447 of your text.

70. Shaman or mystics in some societies engage in behaviors that are considered normal in their societies but might be mistaken as part of what personality disorder in other places?

A) avoidant PD B) histrionic PD C) paranoid PD D) schizotypal PD

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Ans: D Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 448 of your text.

71. What group of people show culturally normative traits that are associated with histrionic personality disorder?

A) young Latino males B) Asian and Arctic societies C) Tchambuli males D) Buddhist monks Ans: C Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 448 of your text.

72. Which of the following is NOT true about DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses?

A) They have weaker reliability than Axis I disorders.

B) They rely on polythetic criteria sets.

C) They have weak validity.

D) They are classified in dimensional terms.

Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 451 of your text.

73. Approximately what percentage of people with personality disorder diagnoses meet criteria for more than one personality disorder?

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D) 95% Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 449 of your text.

74. Which of the following is NOT true about polythetic criteria sets?

A) A certain number of criteria in the set must be met to get the diagnosis.

B) These sets enhance the reliability of a personality disorder diagnosis.

C) No one criterion is necessary for receiving the overall diagnosis.

D) DSM criteria sets use a dimensional classification method for diagnosis.

Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 451 of your text.

75. A diagnostic system in which individuals are rated for the degree to which they exhibit traits is: A) categorical B) dimensional C) polythetic D) prototypal Ans: B Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 451 of your text.

True/False

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76. All criminals have antisocial personality disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: Antisocial personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 420 of your text.

77. All people with antisocial personality disorder are criminals.

Ans: false Section reference: Antisocial personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 420 of your text.

78. Behavioral interventions seem to be more effective than cognitive therapy for treating antisocial personality disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating antisocial personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 423 of your text.

79. Narcissistic personality disorder is caused by too much self-esteem.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating narcissistic personality disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 434 of your text.

80. The nature of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder makes it easy for clients with this disorder to embrace the therapeutic technique of cognitive restructuring.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 27 of 30

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 441 of your text.

81. A lot of research has been done to examine the effectiveness of psychotherapy for treating personality disorders.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating personality disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 443 of your text.

82. Adolescents who experience identity crises are at a much higher risk than other adolescents to develop borderline personality disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating borderline personality disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 446 of your text.

83. Researchers have found that clinicians are more likely to give a stereotypically female personality disorder diagnosis to a woman than to a man, even if both individuals meet diagnostic criteria for the disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 447 of your text.

84. Most of the personality disorders occur evenly across different socioeconomic groups.

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Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 447 of your text.

85. Personality disorders involve extreme and maladaptive personality traits that do not fit universal, cross-cultural standards of acceptable behavior.

Ans: false Section reference: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying personality disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 448 of your text.

86. When making a diagnosis based on a polythetic criteria set, two individuals could receive the same diagnosis even though they do not share a single trait of the disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR personality disorder diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 451 of your text.

Essay

1. Describe the general characteristics that would cause a personality disorder to be categorized in Cluster A, Cluster B, or Cluster C.

2. Explain the similarities and differences among avoidant, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders.

3. Explain how maladaptive cognitive schemas can contribute to personality disorder characteristics.

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4. Describe how dialectical behavior therapy combines 4 perspectives into one intervention.

5. Describe and evaluate the potential gender bias in diagnosing personality disorders.

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Chapter: 12, Chapter 12: Psychosis and Schizophrenia

Multiple choice

1. If “psychosis” is on the abnormal end of a continuum, what would be on the normal end?

A) correct sensory perceptions B) happiness that is not extreme C) accurate sense of reality D) normal personality traits Ans: C Section Reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 455 of your text.

2. Delusion is to hallucination as A) mild is to severe B) symptom is to disease C) belief is to sensory perception D) biological is to psychological Ans: C Section reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 455 of your text.

3. A fixed, false, and often bizarre belief is a: A) hallucination B) pseudobelief C) cognitive distortion D) delusion Ans: D Section reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: easy Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 1 of 26

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 455 of your text.

4. Abnormal sensory experiences such as hearing or seeing nonexistent things are: A) hallucinations B) delusions C) pseudoperceptions D) illusions Ans: A Section reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 455 of your text.

5. What percentage of people diagnosed with schizophrenia attempt suicide at some point in their lives?

A) 1-2% B) 5-10% C) 15-20% D) 20-40% Ans: D Section reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 456 of your text.

7. Which of Kraepelin’s classes of psychosis was an early classification for schizophrenia?

A) dementia praecox b) psychotic madness c) manic-depressive psychosis d) split personality Ans: A Section Reference: Classifying psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 458 of your text.

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8. Bleuler described 4 primary symptoms of schizophrenia) Which of the following is NOT one of these?

A) extreme ambivalence B) autism C) disturbed motor activity D) abnormal associations Ans: C Section reference: Classifying psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 458 of your text.

9. Which of the following is NOT an accurate contrast between Kraepelin and Bleuler?

A) Bleuler was more optimistic about the prognosis of schizophrenia.

B) Bleuler felt that Kraepelin’s description of schizophrenia was too narrow.

C) Bleuler used the term schizophrenia and Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox.

D) Bleuler believed that schizophrenia is one disorder instead of a group of related disorders.

Ans: D Section Reference: Classifying psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See pages 459 of your text.

10. According to the text, what change occurred in the 1930s, particularly in the U.S., due to the use of Bleuler’s diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia?

A) Fewer people were diagnosed with schizophrenia, leading to inadequate treatment for many individuals.

B) The diagnosis of schizophrenia became less reliable, and many more people were diagnosed with the disorder.

C) The diagnosis of schizophrenia became much more reliable, such that people with this disorder could get the help they needed.

D) Researchers were able to study schizophrenia for the first time because the symptoms were so clearly defined.

Ans: B Section reference: Classifying psychosis and schizophrenia Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 3 of 26

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Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 459 of your text.

11. The type I symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT: A) delusions B) hallucinations C) grossly disorganized behavior D) flat affect Ans: D Section Reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 460 of your text.

12. Bizarre actions, extreme agitation, uncontrollable childlike silliness, and dishevelment are all forms of: A) grossly disorganized behavior B) inappropriate affect C) delusional behavior D) type II symptoms Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 460 of your text.

13. Which of the following is NOT a typical sign or symptom of schizophrenia?

A) social withdrawal B) memory deficits C) disorganized speech D) loss of motivation Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 461 of your text.

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14. Which schizophrenia symptom=definition pair is NOT accurate?

A) hallucinations = false sensory perceptions B) loose associations = logically disconnected thoughts C) delusions = confusion about personal boundaries D) disrupted volition = interruption in goal directed activity Ans: C Section Reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 460-466 of your text.

15. Which schizophrenia symptom=definition pair is NOT accurate?

A) hallucinations = false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary B) inappropriate emotions = emotions that don’t fit the situation C) anhedonia = lack of interest in previously pleasurable activities D) echopraxia = repeating the movements of others Ans: A Section Reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 460-466 of your text.

16. Bill believes that when a traffic light turns green it is a secret message directed personally at him. He is suffering from: A) loose associations B) poverty of content C) delusions of reference D) paranoid hallucinations Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 461 of your text.

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17. John paces up and down the street, carrying a sign that says, “Prepare! The world is ending tomorrow!” John seems to have: A) delusions of grandeur B) delusions of reference C) nihilistic delusions D) hypochondriacal delusions Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 461 of your text.

18. What type of hallucination is most common in schizophrenia?

A) auditory B) gustatory C) olfactory D) visual Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 462 of your text.

19. The most common themes in hallucinations are all of the following EXCEPT: A) hypochondria B) grandiosity C) sexuality D) persecution Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 462 of your text.

20. A seemingly random collection of disorganized words is called: A) echolalia B) neologisms Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 6 of 26

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C) word salad D) clang associations Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 463 of your text.

21. Made up words, like “footbox” for shoe, are called: A) clang associations B) neologisms C) word salad D) echolalia Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 463 of your text.

22. Which of the following is an example of a psychomotor symptom of schizophrenia?

A) inappropriate affect B) waxy flexibility C) delusions D) avolition Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 464 of your text.

23. Bizarre motoric symptoms of schizophrenia are known as: A) catatonic symptoms B) avolition C) negative symptoms D) alogia Ans: A Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 7 of 26

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Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 464 of your text.

24. The inability to talk despite trying to do so is known as: A) avolition B) alogia C) thought blocking D) affective flattening Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 466 of your text.

25. The decline in socioeconomic status of individuals with schizophrenia relative to their families of origin is known as: A) anhedonia B) poverty of speech C) downward drift D) financial risk Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 466 of your text.

26. Which of the following is TRUE about people with schizophrenia?

A) Sixty to seventy percent of them marry and have long, stable marriages.

B) Most have a socioeconomic status below that of their family of origin.

C) Rates of separation and divorce are lower than among the general population.

D) About 10% of people with schizophrenia also have a substance abuse disorder.

Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 8 of 26

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Page reference: See page 466 of your text.

27. Joe is a person with schizophrenia who alternates between periods of time in which he is hyperactive, impulsive, and speaks loudly and rapidly, and periods of time in which he loses all animation and movement. What subtype of schizophrenia seems to fit best for Joe? A) catatonic B) disorganized C) paranoid D) undifferentiated Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 467 of your text.

28. Juliet is a person with schizophrenia who shows a severe disintegration of her personality. Her emotional expressions are typically inappropriate and bizarre, and her behavior in general is bizarre. Her speech contains many loose associations and she often speaks in word salad. What subtype of schizophrenia seems to best describe Juliet?

A) catatonic B) disorganized C) paranoid D) undifferentiated Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 467 of your text.

29. George is a person with schizophrenia who believes that he is a former government spy whose memory was erased by enemies of the government. He also believes that he is in danger of being killed by the government or the government’s enemies. He shows significantly impaired judgment, and unpredictable behavior. Which subtype of schizophrenia seems to best describe George?

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C) paranoid D) undifferentiated Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 467 of your text.

30. If a person meets criteria for schizophrenia, but does not have one of the three primary subtypes, the person’s disorder is considered: A) disorganized B) residual C) undifferentiated D) type III Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 467 of your text.

31. For about three weeks, Terry experienced hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and inappropriate affect and no other symptoms. Then, in addition to these symptoms, she also developed the symptoms of mania. All of these various symptoms continued for several months. Which of the following diagnoses seem most appropriate for Terry?

A) delusional disorder B) schizoaffective disorder C) schizophreniform disorder D) schizophrenia Ans: B Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 468 of your text.

32. Jose has been functioning normally all of his life. Suddenly, his behavior became odd and he developed several symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 10 of 26

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disorganized speech, and inappropriate affect. He showed no symptoms of a mood disorder or substance-related disorder. His symptoms lasted 2 months and then stopped and have not returned. What disorder seems to best fit with Jose’s symptoms?

A) brief psychotic disorder B) schizoaffective disorder C) schizophreniform disorder D) schizophrenia Ans: C Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 468 of your text.

33. Noah believes that he has a special relationship with the actress Jennifer Aniston, and that she is secretly in love with him. Noah thinks that her marriage to Brad Pitt is just a way to hide the fact that she really loves Noah. Noah’s beliefs have persisted for over a year despite the fact that he has never actually met Jennifer Aniston. Noah does not have any other symptoms. Which of the following best fits him?

A) delusional disorder B) schizoaffective disorder C) schizophreniform disorder D) schizophrenia Ans: A Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 468 of your text.

34. Nan and Tom have been married for 10 years. For many years, Tom has believed that other people are trying to harm him and Nan; these beliefs have persisted even though there’s no real evidence of their accuracy. In the past few years, Nan developed these beliefs as well. What is Nan experiencing?

A) brief psychotic disorder B) delusional disorder C) schizophreniform disorder D) shared psychotic disorder Ans: D Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 11 of 26

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Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 468 of your text.

35. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for schizophrenia?

A) having a biological relative with schizophrenia B) being very low in socioeconomic status C) being born in an urban area D) having several siblings born before you Ans: A Section Reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 470 of your text.

36. What is true about the age of onset of schizophrenia?

A) It typically begins during childhood (before puberty).

B) It begins much earlier in women than in men.

C) It usually begins during the late teens or 20’s.

D) The onset is during middle age for most people.

Ans: C Section Reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See pages 471 of your text.

37. Which of the following variables is NOT associated with better prognosis for schizophrenia?

A) early detection of the disorder and early treatment B) family history of schizotypal personality disorder C) normal neuropsychological findings D) relatively acute onset in the context of stressful events Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 470 of your text.

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38. What neurotransmitter problem has been associated with schizophrenia?

A) excess serotonin B) excess dopamine C) deficits in norepinephrine D) deficits in GABA Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 474 of your text.

39. Several pieces of evidence support the dopamine theory of schizophrenia. Which of the following is NOT one of these pieces of supporting evidence?

A) Effective antipsychotic drugs partially block the actions of dopamine in the brain.

B) Amphetamines, which activate dopamine, make psychotic symptoms worse.

C) Antipsychotics block dopamine immediately but symptoms decrease days or weeks later.

D) The drug L-dopa, which increases dopamine, produces schizophrenia-like symptoms.

Ans: C Section Reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 474 of your text.

40. Which of the following is associated with type I symptoms of schizophrenia?

A) hypofrontality B) excess D2 receptors C) enlarged ventricles D) none of the above Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 475 of your text.

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41. Several pieces of evidence contradict the dopamine theory of schizophrenia. Which of the following is NOT one of these contradictory pieces of evidence?

A) Many people with schizophrenia are not helped by using dopamine antagonists.

B) The drug L-dopa, which increases dopamine, produces schizophrenia-like symptoms.

C) Effective antipsychotic drugs affect other neurotransmitters aside from dopamine.

D) Antipsychotics block dopamine immediately but symptoms decrease days or weeks later.

Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 474 of your text.

42. You have performed a post-mortem analysis of brain tissue and found enlarged ventricles. This abnormality is particularly associated with: A) Type I symptoms of schizophrenia B) Type II symptoms of schizophrenia C) schizoaffective disorder D) bipolar disorder Ans: B Section Reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 475 of your text.

43. What neuroanatomical factor has been associated with schizophrenia?

A) Poorly fused spinal cord B) Small sinus cavities C) Enlarged brain ventricles D) Dysfunction of the thyroid Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 475 of your text.

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44. Which of the following neuroanatomical factors has been associated with schizophrenia?

A) decreased neuron mass in the hippocampus B) abnormalities in the corpus collusum C) cell membrane degradation in the prefrontal cortex D) all of the above Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 478 of your text.

45. What is Paul Meehl’s term for the midpoint on the continuum between normality and schizophrenia?

A) schizotypal B) schizotypie C) schizotaxia D) schizotoid Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 480 of your text.

46. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder share several possible risk factors. Which of the following is NOT one of these shared factors?

A) Slow reaction times and abnormal brain waves.

B) Perinatal virus vaccinations.

C) Being born in the winter or spring.

D) Pregnancy and birth complications.

Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 480 of your text.

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47. Your risk for developing schizophrenia would be highest if which of the following people had schizophrenia?

A) your first cousin B) your brother C) your niece D) your mom Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 480-482 of your text.

48. Of the following, the strongest evidence for a genetic component in schizophrenia comes from: A) the fact that schizophrenia runs in families B) studies of concordance rates of identical versus non-identical twins C) the fact that schizophrenia is universally present at a prevalence of about 1% D) studies of concordance rates of ordinary siblings versus non-identical twins Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 481 of your text.

49. Twin studies are used to draw conclusions about the genetic basis of a disorder, but their use for this purpose has several limitations. Which of the following does NOT limit the genetic conclusions that can be drawn from twin studies of schizophrenia?

A) MZ twins often imitate each other and are treated similarly.

B) MZ twins have 100% genetic similarity.

C) MZ twins may share the same placenta.

D) The concordance rate for MZ twins is 48% Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 481 of your text.

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50. Non-identical twins have been found in some studies to show higher concordance rates for schizophrenia than ordinary siblings. This difference supports the view that: A) genetic factors contribute to schizophrenia B) twins have a lower incidence of schizophrenia C) genetic factors are the only cause of schizophrenia D) environmental factors contribute to schizophrenia Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 481 of your text.

51. Which of the following is NOT true about the cause of schizophrenia?

A) There is evidence of a genetic predisposition and it is likely to involve multiple genes.

B) Twin and adoption studies suggest a genetic component.

C) Environmental factors such as stress seem to be triggering causes.

D) Intrusive, critical parents are at a much higher risk of having schizophrenic kids.

Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 480-484 of your text.

52. Which of the following is NOT true about the cause of schizophrenia?

A) Three abnormal genes have been found to be responsible for schizophrenia.

B) Excessive life stress often triggers the initial onset or relapse of the disorder.

C) Disruption in the body’s dopamine system may be a symptom or cause.

D) Concordance rate for identical twins is much higher than for fraternal twins.

Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 480-484 of your text.

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53. Adoption studies of schizophrenia have shown that adopted-away children of schizophrenic mothers, compared to adopted-away children of non-schizophrenic mothers, have: A) higher rates of psychological disorders B) lower rates of schizophrenia C) higher intelligence level D) equal educational attainment Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 483 of your text.

54. By 1980, many people had become disillusioned about the use of phenothiazines to treat schizophrenia. Why? A) Up to 40% of people with schizophrenia did not improve on these medications.

B) These medications did little to reduce the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

C) These medications had numerous problematic side effects, some potentially fatal.

D) all of the above Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 485 of your text.

55. It is believed that typical antipsychotic medications work in treating schizophrenia by: A) decreasing the activity of dopamine B) increasing the activity of dopamine C) stabilizing the negative symptoms D) increasing the activity of several neurotransmitters Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 485 of your text.

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56. Which chain seems to capture the relationship found in schizophrenia and its treatment?

A) more phenothiazine, lower dopamine activity, fewer schizophrenia symptoms, more Parkinsonian symptoms B) more phenothiazine, lower dopamine activity, more schizophrenia symptoms, fewer Parkinsonian symptoms C) more phenothiazine, higher dopamine activity, fewer schizophrenia symptoms, fewer Parkinsonian symptoms D) less phenothiazine, lower dopamine activity, fewer schizophrenia symptoms, fewer Parkinsonian symptoms Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 485 of your text.

57. What are the major disadvantages of using Clozapine to treat schizophrenia?

A) It has more side effects than other drugs and is less effective.

B) It requires regular blood tests due to a rare side effect and it is expensive.

C) A common side effect may be fatal and it is not available as a generic drug.

D) It makes some people worse and it causes schizophrenia in healthy people.

Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 485 of your text.

58. What are the primary advantages of using Clozapine to treat schizophrenia?

A) It reduces both positive and negative symptoms.

B) It has fewer side effects that other antipsychotics.

C) It is less expensive than other antipsychotics.

D) A & B E. A & C Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 485-486 of your text.

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59. Atypical antipsychotics alter levels of: A) dopamine B) dopamine and serotonin C) serotonin and glutamate D) dopamine and glutamate Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Biological Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 486 of your text.

60. Which of the following is NOT true about treatment for schizophrenia?

A) Antipsychotic medication cures schizophrenia so that no more treatment is needed.

B) Medication noncompliance is a common problem among schizophrenics taking antipsychotics.

C) At any given time, 40% of people with schizophrenia are not receiving treatment.

D) In most jurisdictions, people cannot be forced to take medication unless they are dangerous.

Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Patients’ Rights Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See pages 485-486 of your text.

61. The process by which an individual is hospitalized against their will is called: A) insanity defense B) civil commitment C) criminal commitment D) incompetence hearing Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Patients’ Rights Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 489 of your text.

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62. A person found incompetent to stand trial may be hospitalized against his will until he is competent to stand trial. This forced hospitalization is called: A) civil commitment B) criminal commitment C) incompetence decision D) insanity defense Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Patients’ Rights Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 489 of your text.

63. George is found not guilty by reason of insanity because he was unable to distinguish right from wrong at the time of his crime. The rule used to determine insanity in this case must have been: A) M’Naghten B) Brawner C) Durham D) irresistible impulse Ans: A Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Patients’ Rights Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 490 of your text.

64. Cognitive theorists suggest all of the following about schizophrenia EXCEPT: A) The positive symptoms may be related to an inability to screen out irrelevant stimuli.

B) Impaired sensory gating leads to difficulties coping with stress and possibly delusions.

C) The negative symptoms may be related to underattention to important stimuli.

D) The negative symptoms relate to excessive orienting responses to novel stimuli.

Ans: D Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See pages 490-491 of your text.

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65. Which of the following schizophrenia treatment = description pairings is NOT accurate?

A) personal therapy = adjunctive therapy that helps clients solve practical problems of daily life B) cognitive rehabilitation = therapy method used to challenge clients’ delusional beliefs C) token economy = behavioral approach that provides rewards to clients for engaging in desired behaviors D) social skills training = therapy method that educates clients about appropriate interpersonal behavior Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 491 of your text.

66. People with schizophrenia take an active responsibility for decisions about the management of their environment in: A) token economies B) cognitive rehabilitation C) milieu treatment D) psychodynamic treatment Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Cognitive Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 492 of your text.

True/False

67. People with schizophrenia attempt suicide at a rate that is much higher than the suicide rate among the general population.

Ans: true Section Reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 456 of your text.

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68. Schizophrenia is the same as “split personality.”

Ans: false Section reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 456 of your text.

69. Research supports the idea that schizophrenia is not a single disorder, but a group of related disorders.

Ans: true Section reference: Defining psychosis and schizophrenia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 465 of your text.

70. The content of schizophrenic delusions and hallucinations is usually negative.

Ans: true Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 461of your text.

71. In his book Madness and Modernism, Louis Sass argues that modernist culture causes schizophrenia.

Ans: false Section reference: The DSM-IV-TR Categories Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 465 of your text.

72. Schizophrenia is much more prevalent among females than males.

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Ans: false Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See pages 471 of your text.

73. Current treatments for schizophrenia cure the disorder.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 472 of your text.

74. Dr. Daniel Fisher’s primary argument about schizophrenia treatment is that psychotherapy is ineffective and only medication should be used.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 412 of your text.

75. Research suggests that schizophrenia is a neurodevelopmental disorder rather than a neurodegenerative disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 473 of your text.

76. The introduction and use of phenothiazines in the 1950s and 1960s led to the deinstitutionalization of many people with schizophrenia.

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 485 of your text.

77. Freud believed that schizophrenia has a substantial biological basis.

Ans: true Section Reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Family Systems Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 494 of your text.

78. Fromm-Reichmann’s concept of a schizophrenogenic mother has been proven to be an accurate and relevant cause of schizophrenia.

Ans: false Section Reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Family Systems Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 495 of your text.

79. High levels of criticism and over-involvement in families are associated with schizophrenia relapse.

Ans: true Section Reference: Explaining and treating schizophrenia: Family Systems Components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 493 of your text.

Essay

1. Explain the contributions of Emil Kraepelin and Eugen Bleuler to our understanding of schizophrenia.

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2. Compare and contrast type I and type II symptoms of schizophrenia.

3. Summarize the findings of family, twin, and adoption studies of schizophrenia.

4. Explain this statement: Schizophrenia is a neurodevelopmental disorder.

5. Describe the likely set of treatments that would be used with a person with schizophrenia. Compare the likely inpatient and outpatient treatment choices.

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Chapter: 13, Chapter 13: Lifespan Development: Disorders of Childhood

Multiple choice

1. Which of the following is NOT a reason that it is harder to define abnormality in children than in adults?

A) Children are more likely to act out psychological distress than to seek help for it.

B) It is normal for children to show some degree of deviant and irrational behavior.

C) Some psychological disorders in children cause little or no conscious distress.

D) Children are more aware of their psychological problems but tend to accept them.

Ans: D Section reference: Defining disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See pages 499-502 of your text.

2. When defining childhood psychopathology, what must be considered?

A) stereotypical feminine and masculine behaviors for children B) developmentally appropriate behaviors for the child’s age C) the standards for defining psychopathology in adulthood D) whether the child is aware of the potentially abnormal behavior Ans: B Section reference: Defining disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 500 of your text.

3. What psychology subfield considers abnormal behavior in light of developmental processes?

A) abnormal growth psychology B) child clinical psychology C) developmental psychology D) developmental psychopathology Ans: D

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Section reference: The importance of context in defining and understanding childhood disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 502 of your text.

4. Who believed that children’s minds were blank slates at birth, which were shaped entirely by external experiences?

A) Arnold Gesell B) G. Stanley Hall C) John Locke D) Jean Jacques Rousseau Ans: C Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 502 of your text.

5. What theory of child development argues that children progress through developmental stages in a natural and predictable fashion?

A) behaviorism B) cognitive development C) maturationist D) tabula rasa Ans: C Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: easy Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 503 of your text.

6. The first edition of DSM contained how many diagnostic categories for childhood disorders?

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Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 503 of your text.

7. An 8-year-old child who repeatedly wets his bed is most likely to receive a diagnosis in which of the following categories?

A) communication disorders B) elimination disorders C) feeding and eating disorders D) motor skills disorders Ans: B Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 504 of your text.

8. Which of the following is least common?

A) attention deficit and hyperactivity disorder B) learning disorders C) pervasive developmental disorders D) separation anxiety disorder Ans: C Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 504 of your text.

9. Why is mental retardation listed on Axis II? A) It is present at birth.

B) It is a chronic problem.

C) It causes impaired functioning.

D) It is biologically-based.

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Page reference: See page 504 of your text.

10. Which of the following is NOT true of the mild range of mental retardation?

A) Most mentally retarded people are classified in this range.

B) People in this range usually cannot live independently.

C) People in this range typically have adequate communication skills.

D) Adults in this range can usually work in simple jobs.

Ans: B Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 505 of your text.

11. People in the moderate range of mental retardation: A) have an IQ of 20 to 35 B) can reach a sixth-grade education level C) often live in supervised settings D) cannot take care of any personal needs Ans: C Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 505 of your text.

12. People in the severe range of mental retardation: A) usually cannot read B) have an IQ of 35 to 50 C) often live independently D) can use complex sentences in speech Ans: A Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 505 of your text.

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13. Which of the following is NOT true of the profound range of mental retardation?

A) Approximately 2% of mentally retarded people fall in this range.

B) People in this range have an IQ of less than 20.

C) People in this range can support themselves in unskilled jobs.

D) People in this range have an identifiable neurological disorder.

Ans: C Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 505 of your text.

14. Which of the following is NOT true of Down syndrome?

A) It is the most common cause of mental retardation.

B) It is caused by having two copies of chromosome 21.

C) It occurs in 1 out of every 1000 births.

D) Children with this disorder have distinctive physical features.

Ans: B Section reference: Mental retardation: Biological components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 506 of your text.

15. Which of the following is NOT a genetic or metabolic problem that can cause mental retardation?

A) Down syndrome B) fetal alcohol syndrome C) Fragile X syndrome D) Tay-Sachs disease Ans: B Section reference: Mental retardation: Biological components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 506 of your text.

16. What metabolic disorder results when the liver fails to produce an enzyme which breaks down the amino acid phenylalanine?

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B) Fragile X syndrome C) Phenylketonuria D) Tay-Sachs disease Ans: C Section reference: Mental retardation: Biological components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 506 of your text.

17. What genetic disorder leads to the progressive degeneration of the nervous system and usually results in childhood death?

A) Down syndrome B) Fragile X syndrome C) Phenylketonuria D) Tay-Sachs disease Ans: D Section reference: Mental retardation: Biological components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 506 of your text.

18. What is the most common childhood physical trauma associated with permanent brain damage?

A) Exposure to lead or mercury B) Fetal alcohol syndrome C) Car accidents D) Shaken baby syndrome Ans: D Section reference: Mental retardation: Biological components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 506 of your text.

19. What intervention approach for mental retardation attempts to improve functioning by teaching academic, language, social, and daily living skills?

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C) mainstreaming D) warehousing Ans: B Section reference: Mental retardation: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 507 of your text.

20. Angelica has above average IQ, but her achievement test scores in reading comprehension are well below average. Although she is in the 4th grade, she is reading at the first grade level. Which of the following is most likely to fit Angelica?

A) communication disorder B) mental retardation C) reading disorder D) disorder of written expression Ans: C Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 509 of your text.

21. Which of the following is NOT classified as a learning disorder in DSM-IV-TR? A) disorder of written expression B) expressive language disorder C) mathematics disorder D) reading disorder Ans: B Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 509 of your text.

22. The learning disorder in which the person’s achievement in written expression is substantially below expectations is: A) dyscalculia B) dysgraphia C) dyslexia Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 7 of 25

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D) dystaxia Ans: B Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 509 of your text.

23. Compared to non-reading disordered children, those with reading disorders show abnormal functioning in what brain area?

A) frontal left hemisphere B) frontal right hemisphere C) posterior left hemisphere D) posterior right hemisphere Ans: C Section reference: Learning disorders: Biological components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 509 of your text.

24. What theory proposes that families and schools can interact with each other to promote the development of learning disorders?

A) biological theory B) connectionist theory C) interactivity theory D) psychodynamic theory Ans: C Section reference: Learning disorders: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 510 of your text.

25. What type of intervention for learning disorders helps children identify their problem areas and develop techniques for approaching specific academic problems?

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Ans: B Section reference: Learning disorders: Cognitive and behavioral components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 511 of your text.

26. What is the pervasive developmental disorder in which social and communication skills are impaired, and the person shows rigid and repetitive patterns of behavior? a) Asperger’s disorder b) Autism c) Childhood disintegrative disorder d) Rett’s disorder Ans: B Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 512 of your text.

27. In autism, impaired social interaction is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A) disinterest in developing age-appropriate friendships with peers B) lack of social or emotional exchange with others C) paranoid delusions about the intentions of others D) absence of nonverbal behaviors Ans: C Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders: Diagnostic criteria for autism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 512 of your text.

28. In autism, rigid and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, and activities include all of the following EXCEPT: A) catatonia and rigid motoric posturing B) preoccupation with parts of objects C) inflexible adherence to meaningless routines D) abnormally intense and narrow patterns of interest

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Ans: A Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders: Diagnostic criteria for autism Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 512 of your text.

29. What pervasive developmental disorder involves normal development for the first six months of life, followed by a slowing of head growth and the loss of previously acquired social skills, motor skills, and physical coordination?

A) Asperger’s disorder B) Autism C) Childhood disintegrative disorder D) Rett’s disorder Ans: D Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 513 of your text.

30. Boys and girls with what pervasive developmental disorder develop normally for at least two years, but then abruptly lose language abilities, social skills, and motor skills?

A) Asperger’s disorder B) Autism C) Childhood disintegrative disorder D) Rett’s disorder Ans: C Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 513 of your text.

31. As stated in the text, Temple Grandin was diagnosed with autism, but some experts believe that her correct diagnosis is Asperger’s disorder. What about her suggests that Asperger’s is the more accurate diagnosis?

A) Her social skills are normal.

B) She makes odd and repetitive movements.

C) Her language and cognitive skills are normal.

D) She has intense and narrow patterns of interest.

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Ans: C Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders: The tale of Temple Grandin Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 516 of your text.

32. Which of the following is NOT true about the genetic basis of autism?

A) The concordance rate for monozygotic twins is at or above 90%.

B) The concordance rate for dizygotic twins is 0% C) People with autism have unusually high rates of genetically based disorders.

D) In non-concordant MZ twins, the nonautistic twin shows no autistic qualities.

Ans: D Section reference: Pervasive disorders: Biological components Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 517 of your text.

33. The most effective and widely used interventions for autism are: A) behavioral B) biological C) cognitive D) psychodynamic Ans: A Section reference: Pervasive disorders: Behavioral components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 519 of your text.

34. When teaching autistic children to perform a certain behavior, they are rewarded for each successive approximation of the desired behavior until the target behavior is achieved. This technique is called: A) chaining B) classical conditioning C) modeling D) shaping Ans: D Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 11 of 25

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Section reference: Pervasive disorders: Behavioral components Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 519 of your text.

35. For the past two years, 7-year-old Brian has been having trouble at school.

Specifically, he misses important details when working, he has trouble paying attention in class, he doesn’t seem to listen, he forgets instructions, and he is very disorganized and often loses things. His mother has noticed similar symptoms at home, ever since Brian was very young. Which of the following best fits Brian?

A) ADHD, combined type B) ADHD, predominantly inattentive type C) ADHD, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type D) no diagnosis Ans: B Section reference: Attention deficit and disruptive behavior disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 521 of your text.

36. Since she started school three years ago, 8-year-old Tonya has been disruptive in class. She is frequently out of her chair when she is supposed to be seated, and when she is in her seat, she moves around and fidgets. In addition, Tonya blurts out answers to questions, she interrupts the teacher and other students, she talks constantly, and she has difficult waiting her turn. Tonya also has difficulty paying attention for more than a couple of minutes at a time, and she does not listen well. Which of the following seems to best describe Tonya?

A) ADHD, combined type B) ADHD, predominantly inattentive type C) ADHD, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type D) no diagnosis Ans: C Section reference: Attention deficit and disruptive behavior disorders Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 521 of your text.

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37. Longitudinal studies have shown that children with ADHD are more likely than their peers to have certain difficulties as adults. Which of the following is NOT one of those difficulties?

A) antisocial behavior B) financial problems C) social difficulties D) substance abuse Ans: B Section reference: Attention deficit and disruptive behavior disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 522 of your text.

38. Studies of brain waves during attentional tasks indicate that the prefrontal and striate regions of the brain among people with ADHD may be: A) lacking in serotonin B) overfilled with blood C) under-responsive D) hyperactive Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 522 of your text.

39. Giving stimulant medication to a child with ADHD may seem paradoxical. Why does it make sense?

A) The stimulant increases hyperactivity and eventually the child wears out and is able to pay attention.

B) The stimulant increases activity in brain areas that were previously under-active and this promotes attention.

C) The stimulant decreases serotonin and dopamine production, which indirectly leads to greater attention.

D) The stimulant improves the child’s mood which makes it easier to pay attention and remain calm.

Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder Difficulty level: difficult Section reference: Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 13 of 25

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 523 of your text.

40. Behavioral interventions for ADHD work well in the short term, but what is the limitation of this type of treatment?

A) The reduction in ADHD symptoms is followed by a rapid increase in symptoms after treatment ends.

B) Neither parents nor children tend to like this type of treatment, which decreases its effectiveness over time.

C) Treatment success does not usually last beyond the period of the intervention and does not generalize.

D) The treatment works well for boys but not for girls, and is better at reducing hyperactivity than impulsivity.

Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 525 of your text.

41. In the Multimodal Treatment Study of Children with ADHD, who showed the greatest reduction in ADHD symptoms?

A) Children on medication B) Children on medication who also received behavioral interventions C) Children who received behavioral interventions alone D) A & B E. B & C Ans: D Difficulty level: moderate Section reference: Explaining and treating attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See pages 526 of your text.

42. In the MTA study of children with ADHD, who showed the greatest reduction in anxiety and oppositional symptoms?

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D) A & B E. B & C Ans: B Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 526 of your text.

43. A child who consistently shows negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior is most likely to have: A) ADHD, combined type B) conduct disorder C) oppositional defiant disorder D) normal childhood responses Ans: C Section reference: Oppositional defiant disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 527 of your text.

44. How many children with oppositional defiant disorder eventually develop conduct disorder?

A) 5% B) 25% C) 50% D) 80% Ans: B Section reference: Oppositional defiant disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 528 of your text.

45. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the diagnosis of conduct disorder?

A) It places a mental health label on a social and legal problem.

B) Some children may fit the diagnosis without having an underlying mental disturbance.

C) Conduct disordered behavior may be adaptive in some settings, such as inner city areas.

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D) The diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder describe an extremely narrow range of behaviors.

Ans: D Section reference: Conduct disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 528 of your text.

46. An adolescent who consistently violates the rights of others and violates significant age-appropriate norms is most likely to have: A) ADHD, hyperactive-impulsive type B) Conduct disorder C) Oppositional defiant disorder D) no disorder Ans: B Section reference: Conduct disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 528 of your text.

47. Which discipline practice has NOT been associated with conduct disorder?

A) Inconsistent discipline B) Overindulgence C) Failure to use positive change strategies D) Harsh discipline Ans: B Section reference: Conduct disorder: Sociocultural and family systems components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 530 of your text.

48. Which of the following family factors has NOT been associated with conduct disorder? a) Parental anxiety disorders B) Parental marital dissatisfaction C) Lack of parental involvement D) Poor parental supervision Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 16 of 25

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Ans: A Section reference: Conduct disorder: Family factors consistently associated with CD Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 530 of your text.

49. Parents of children with oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder do all of the following EXCEPT: A) ignore prosocial behaviors B) abuse children and otherwise model aggressive behavior C) accept children regardless of their behavior D) reward disruptive behavior with attention and compliance Ans: C Section reference: Conduct disorder: Family factors consistently associated with CD Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 530 of your text.

50. Which of the following is NOT one of the cognitive errors that conduct disordered children tend to make?

A) They assume that other kids like them more than they do.

B) They respond aggressively to interpersonal problems.

C) They do not consider the consequences of their actions.

D) They make hostile attributions about others’ behaviors.

Ans: A Section reference: Conduct disorders: Cognitive components Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 530 of your text.

51. An intervention program that focuses on kids who are at high risk for disruptive behavior disorders is most likely to be a: A) primary prevention B) secondary prevention C) tertiary prevention D) treatment

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Ans: A Section reference: Primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 531 of your text.

52. An intervention program that works with kids who were sentenced to a juvenile detention center is most likely to be a: A) primary prevention B) secondary prevention C) tertiary prevention D) medical intervention Ans: C Section reference: Primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 531 of your text.

53. Research evidence suggests that children with conduct disorder may have: A) excess serotonin levels B) impaired behavioral inhibition system C) deficiencies in neuroleptic levels D) overly large thyroid gland Ans: B Section reference: Primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 532 of your text.

54. From a psychodynamic perspective, children with conduct disorder are relying on what defense mechanism?

A) escape in fantasy B) identification with the aggressor C) reaction formation D) sublimation Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating ODD and CD Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 18 of 25

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 533 of your text.

55. What anxiety disorder is only diagnosed in children and adolescents?

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder without agoraphobia C) separation anxiety disorder D) specific phobia Ans: C Section reference: Separation anxiety disorder Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 533 of your text.

56. Two-year-old Jessie is being left with a babysitter for the first time. When her parents say that they are going out for the evening, Jessie starts crying and does not stop until about 15 minutes later, when the babysitter is able to distract her with a game.

For the rest of the evening, Jessie has fun playing with the babysitter, although she twice asks when her mom and dad are coming home. Jessie shows no other symptoms.

Which of the following best describes Jessie?

A) autism B) oppositional defiant disorder C) separation anxiety disorder D) no diagnosis Ans: D Section reference: Separation anxiety disorder Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 534 of your text.

57. From a psychodynamic perspective, children with separation anxiety disorder are using the defense mechanism: A) denial B) projection C) regression D) withdrawal

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Ans: B Section reference: Separation anxiety disorder Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 535 of your text.

58. Which of the following is NOT described in the text as a limitation of the DSM childhood diagnoses?

A) Academic problems should not be classified as mental disorders.

B) The reliability of diagnoses depends upon the child’s age and sex.

C) The DSM-IV-TR childhood disorders have high rates of comorbidity.

D) There are not enough different diagnoses for children in DSM-IV-TR. Ans: D Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR childhood diagnoses Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 536 of your text.

59. Classification systems that use statistical techniques to identify clusters of behaviors usually associated with child psychopathology are called: A) categorical cluster systems B) developmental profile systems C) empirically derived systems D) standard prototype systems Ans: C Section reference: The advantages and limitations of the DSM-IV-TR childhood diagnoses Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 536 of your text.

60. Which of the following disorders is much more likely to occur in girls than in boys?

A) ADHD B) conduct disorder C) learning disorders D) separation anxiety disorder

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Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 538 of your text.

True/False

61. The same psychological problem may be marked by a different set of symptoms depending on the child’s age.

Ans: true Section reference: Defining disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 500 of your text.

62. The first attempts to systematically describe and classify the distinct psychological disorders of childhood did not occur until the beginning of the 20th century.

Ans: true Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 503 of your text.

63. All of the DSM-IV-TR childhood disorders existed in the same form in DSM-I. Ans: false Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 503 of your text.

64. True or False: A child who shows abnormal development in one area, such as social development, has problems in all areas of development.

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Ans: false Section reference: Classifying, explaining, and treating disorders of childhood Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 502 of your text.

65. The only criteria necessary for a diagnosis of mental retardation is subaverage intellectual functioning.

Ans: false Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 441 of your text.

66. Mental retardation is the most poorly understood form of childhood psychopathology.

Ans: false Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 503 of your text.

67. A physically healthy child may fail to develop intellectually without an adequately stimulating home environment.

Ans: true Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 505 of your text.

68. Some children develop mental retardation due to cultural and familial factors and not due to biological factors.

Ans: true Section reference: Mental retardation Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 22 of 25

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 505 of your text.

69. Inclusion classrooms have been shown to be much more effective than special education classrooms for educating mentally retarded children.

Ans: false Section reference: Mental retardation Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 507 of your text.

70. Children with learning disorders typically have below average intellectual functioning.

Ans: false Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 508 of your text.

71. Children diagnosed with the same learning disorder tend to be a very homogeneous group.

Ans: false Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 509 of your text.

72. Children with learning disorders often develop psychosocial and motivational problems as a result of their learning disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D) Page 23 of 25

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Page reference: See page 510 of your text.

73. The most common interventions for learning disorders use behavioral principles.

Ans: true Section reference: Learning disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 448 of your text.

74. About half of all people with autism fail to develop useful speech.

Ans: true Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 511 of your text.

75. Most people with autism are savants.

Ans: false Section reference: Pervasive developmental disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 513 of your text.

76. Experts have identified a precise prenatal biological factor that is responsible for the development of autism.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating pervasive developmental disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 517 of your text.

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77. ADHD is a disorder in which psychologically based cases may be treated by biological interventions and biologically based cases may respond to psychotherapy.

Ans: true Section reference: Attention deficit and disruptive behavior disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 521 of your text.

78. In the MTA study of children with ADHD, parents and teachers expressed greater satisfaction with interventions that included medical treatment.

Ans: false Section reference: Attention deficit and disruptive behavior disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 526 of your text.

Essay

1. Explain why it is much harder to define psychopathology in children than in adults.

2. Compare the three subtypes of ADHD.

3. Describe the familial factors that are associated with conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder.

4. Describe and evaluate three criticisms of the conduct disorder diagnostic category.

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Chapter: 14, Chapter 14: Cognitive Disorders

Multiple choice

1. Which of the following disorders occurs primarily among older adults?

A. delirium B. dysthymia C. eating disorder NOS D. schizophrenia Ans: A Section reference: Defining and classifying cognitive disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

2. Over the course of a few hours, Bob began to experience memory loss, disorientation, and language problems. He had trouble focusing and sustaining attention. Bob’s experience is most consistent with: A. normal aging B. delirium C. dementia D. dissociative fugue Ans: B Section reference: Delirium Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

3. Delirium is caused by all of the following EXCEPT: A. exposure to toxins B. electrolyte imbalances C. high body temperatures D. normal aging Ans: D Section reference: Delirium Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 1 of 22

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Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

4. What is a danger associated with untreated delirium?

A. It eventually develops into dementia.

B. Memories become permanently impaired.

C. It will eventually kill the person.

D. The person becomes vulnerable to illness.

Ans: B Section reference: Delirium Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

5. A typically short-lived cognitive disorder involving disruptions in attention and changes to cognitive capacity is: A. delirium B. dementia C. dysgraphia D. Parkinson’s Ans: A Section reference: Delirium Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

6. Delirium and dementia are similar in the following ways except that delirium: A. is associated with memory loss.

B. involves symptoms that are quite serious.

C. is temporary if the underlying cause is treated.

D. causes a disruption in the person’s functioning.

Ans: C Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

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7. What disorder involves a progressive and permanent decline in cognitive functioning, including significant memory impairment?

A. aphasia B. delirium C. dementia D. dyscalculia Ans: C Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

8. Impairment in expressive and receptive language skills is called: A. agnosia B. aphasia C. apraxia D. dementia Ans: B Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

9. Georgia frequently has trouble remembering words like “food” and “cat.” She also mixes up her words so that others have difficulty understanding her. She sometimes has trouble comprehending what someone is trying to say to her. Georgia seems to be experiencing: A. agnosia B. aphasia C. apraxia D. executive dysfunction Ans: B Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

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10. The loss of the ability to recognize familiar objects or people is called: A. agnosia B. aphasia C. apraxia D. executive dysfunction Ans: A Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

11. Vernon’s arms and hands work properly, but he cannot remember how to work the zipper on his jacket, or tie his shoes. Vernon seems to be experiencing: A. agnosia B. aphasia C. apraxia D. executive dysfunction Ans: C Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

12. Roger’s family came to visit him in the hospital. Although he has known his grandchildren for over 30 years, he did not recognize them. Roger seems to be experiencing: A. agnosia B. aphasia C. apraxia D. executive dysfunction Ans: A Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

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13. Difficulty executing common physical actions due to impairments in the brain’s ability to signal specific physical movements is called: A. agnosia B. aphasia C. apraxia D. executive dysfunction Ans: C Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

14. The ability to create and carry out plans and other complex behaviors is known as: A. abstract reasoning B. executive functioning C. problem solving D. rational planning Ans: B Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

15. Organic amnesia typically involves: A. working memory impairments B. semantic memory impairments C. inability to recall new information D. retrograde amnesia Ans: C Section reference: Amnesia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

16. Anterograde amnesia involves impairments in: A. learning new information B. memory for the past Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 5 of 22

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C. working memory D. remembering factual knowledge Ans: A Section reference: Amnesia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

17. What percentage of people over the age of 65 are delirious when admitted to the hospital for a general medical condition?

A. 2% B. 5% C. 10% D. 25% Ans: C Section reference: Explaining and treating cognitive disorders: Delirium Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 548 of your text.

18. The single most frequent cause of delirium is: A. an adverse drug reaction B. exposure to environmental toxins C. malnutrition D. high blood pressure Ans: A Section reference: Delirium: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 548 of your text.

19. The first intervention for delirium involves: A. administering antipsychotic medication B. exposing the person to bursts of bright light C. treating the underlying medical condition D. observation for 24 hours or more

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Ans: C Section reference: Delirium: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 549 of your text.

20. If a delirious person is extremely agitated, a physician may prescribe low doses of: A. tranquilizers B. antipsychotics C. antidepressants D. mood stabilizers Ans: B Section reference: Delirium: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 549 of your text.

21. Some delirious patients become more agitated and cognitively impaired as the day goes on; this phenomenon results from: A. psychological stress B. disruption in the sleep-wake cycle C. living in a dark and rainy climate D. alterations in body temperature Ans: B Section reference: Delirium: Other interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

22. The rate and length of delirium episodes in older hospitalized patients has been decreased by minimizing all of the following EXCEPT: A. psychological stress B. sensory overload C. sleep deprivation D. medical treatment Ans: D Section reference: Delirium: Other interventions Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 7 of 22

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Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

23. Which of the following is NOT true about depression, anxiety, and dementia?

A. Neuroanatomical changes related to dementia may cause depression & anxiety.

B. The depression and anxiety associated with dementia should not be treated.

C. Depression and anxiety are understandable reactions to having dementia.

D. Symptoms of depression and anxiety can be early signs of dementia.

Ans: B Section reference: Explaining and treating cognitive disorders: Dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

24. The most common cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Huntington’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Pick’s disease Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

25. The prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease among 85-year-olds is: A. 1-5% B. 15-25% C. 20-30% D. 40-50% Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

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26. Which of the following is NOT a form of brain pathology associated with Alzheimer’s dementia?

A. high levels of amyloid proteins B. neuritic plaques C. neurofibrillary tangles D. temporal lobe damage Ans: D Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concepts: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 551 of your text.

27. Abnormal protein deposits surrounded by clusters of degenerated nerve endings are called: A. amyloid pockets B. granulovacuoles C. neuritic plaques D. neurofibrillary tangles Ans: C Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 552 of your text.

28. When the fibers that normally make up a cortical cell’s internal skeleton become mixed up, the result is: A. amyloid pockets B. granulovacuoles C. neuritic plaques D. neurofibrillary tangles Ans: D Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 552 of your text.

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29. Alzheimer’s disease is sometimes confused with this rare degenerative disorder that damages the frontal and temporal lobes.

A. Huntington’s disease B. Lewy body disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Pick’s disease Ans: D Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 551 of your text.

30. Researchers who study the development of Alzheimer’s dementia seem to be focusing their efforts on what substance?

A. acetylcholine B. beta amyloid C. macrophages D. genes Ans: B Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

31. First-degree relatives of people with Alzheimer’s dementia have a __% lifetime chance of developing the disorder.

A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 80 Ans: C Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

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32. Drugs that prevent the breakdown of what neurotransmitter have shown promise in reducing the symptoms of Alzheimer’s dementia?

A. acetylcholine B. GABA C. norepinephrine D. serotonin Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

33. Research suggests that the regular use of _____ may slow the progression or postpone the onset of Alzheimer’s disease.

A. antidepressant drugs B. anti-inflammatory drugs C. antipsychotic drugs D. benzodiazepines Ans: B Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

34. What dietary supplement has been shown to reduce cognitive impairment in people suffering from mild to moderate dementia?

A. ginkgo biloba B. St. John’s wort C. taurine D. vitamin B-12 Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

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35. PET and MRI scans have been used to accurately forecast the onset of dementia by detecting early signs of degeneration in the: A. basal ganglia B. central gyrus C. hippocampus D. thalamus Ans: C Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

36. John, who has coronary artery disease, experiences a temporary blockage in blood flow to portions of his brain. As a result, some brain tissue dies and he suddenly begins to experience symptoms of dementia. John’s experience sounds most like: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Huntington’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Vascular dementia Ans: D Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Vascular dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

37. Which of the following has NOT been associated with improved cognitive functioning in patients with vascular dementia?

A. taking anti-inflammatory drugs B. lowering cholesterol levels C. controlling high blood pressure D. stopping smoking Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Vascular dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

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38. Parkinson’s disease involves the gradual deterioration of the: A. basal ganglia B. hippocampus C. substantia nigra D. thalamus Ans: C Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

39. In Parkinson’s disease, the muscle tremors, rigidity, and difficulty initiating movements are caused by: A. decrease in acetylcholine B. decrease in dopamine C. increase in serotonin D. increase in norepinephrine Ans: B Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

40. What is known about the genetic contribution to Parkinson’s disease?

A. Genetic factors do not contribute to the development of Parkinson’s disease.

B. When the disease develops after age 50, genetic factors seem to be the cause.

C. Genetic factors play the major role in the development of early-onset Parkinson’s.

D. When Parkinson’s begins before middle age, environmental factors cause it.

Ans: C Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

41. Which of the following has been proven to be a highly effective intervention for Parkinson’s disease?

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B. magnetic resonance imaging C. antipsychotic drugs D. drugs that decrease dopamine Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

42. Compared to people with Alzheimer’s dementia, people with Parkinson’s dementia usually retain what skills?

A. memory B. language C. motor D. attention Ans: B Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

43. What disorder is caused by a single dominant gene on the fourth chromosome?

A. Alzheimer’s dementia B. Huntington’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Pick’s disease Ans: B Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Huntington’s disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

44. In Huntington’s disease, what part of the brain gradually degenerates?

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Ans: A Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Huntington’s disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

45. High rates of dementia have become a crisis in recent decades because: A. dementia did not exist prior to 1980.

B. Americans have only recently begun to care about the elderly.

C. the average life-span has increased, creating more older adults.

D. Congress has passed laws to provide funding for dementia research.

Ans: B Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Family systems interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: Cultural and historical relativism in defining and classifying abnormality Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

46. Amnesia can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT: A. encephalitis B. faulty genes C. Korsakoff’s syndrome D. physical trauma Ans: B Section reference: Amnesia: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 557 of your text.

47. Encephalitis refers to: A. memory loss B. depletion of neurotransmitters C. inflammation of the brain D. physical injury to head Ans: C Section reference: Amnesia: Biological components and interventions Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 15 of 22

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Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 557 of your text.

48. Korsakoff’s syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. degeneration of the caudate nucleus B. deficiencies in thiamine C. damage to the diencephalon D. anterograde amnesia Ans: A Section reference: Amnesia: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 558 of your text.

49. Which of the following is NOT associated with normal aging?

A. loss of 50% of D2 dopamine receptors B. loss of 90% of acetylcholine receptors C. loss of 20-40% of serotonin receptors D. mild forgetfulness Ans: B Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Age Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 558 of your text.

50. Dementia occurs more often in women than men because: A. women age more quickly B. dementia is caused by a sex-linked gene C. women have a lower memory capacity D. women live longer Ans: D Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Gender Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 559 of your text.

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51. Why is lifelong learning associated with less cognitive impairment?

A. Constant learning leads to more dendrite arbors.

B. Dendrite arbors are resistant to degenerative diseases.

C. Dendrite arbors allow neurons to communicate.

D. A & B E. A & C Ans: E Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class and culture Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 559 of your text.

True/False

52. Amnestic disorders only occur among older adults.

Ans: false Section reference: Defining and classifying cognitive disorders Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

53. Delirium and dementia occur primarily among older adults.

Ans: true Section reference: Defining and classifying cognitive disorders Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page X of your text.

54. Delirum is usually temporary when the underlying cause is treated.

Ans: true Section reference: Delirium Difficulty level: moderate Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 17 of 22

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Core concept: none Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

55. If the underlying cause is discovered and treated, dementia will go away.

Ans: false Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

56. Memory impairment usually increases as dementia worsens over time.

Ans: true Section reference: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 546 of your text.

57. Organic amnesia involves memory impairment without other cognitive impairments.

Ans: true Section reference: Amnesia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 547 of your text.

58. Delirium is associated with significantly worse medical outcomes for its sufferers.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating cognitive disorders: Delirium Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 548 of your text.

59. The single most frequent cause of delirium is exposure to toxins.

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Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating cognitive disorders: Delirium Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 548 of your text.

60. Research has shown that hospital clinicians correctly diagnosed delirium in 90% of the cases in which it was present.

Ans: false Section reference: Delirium: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: Advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 548 of your text.

61. Untreated delirium can easily progress to permanent brain damage or even death.

Ans: true Section reference: Delirium: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 549 of your text.

62. Surgery and the anesthesia associated with surgery can be precipitating causes for delirium.

Ans: true Section reference: Delirium: Biological components and interventions Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 549 of your text.

63. Dementia is a serious form of normal aging.

Ans: false Section reference: Explaining and treating the cognitive disorders: Dementia Difficulty level: difficult Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 19 of 22

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Core concept: The continuum between normal and abnormal behavior Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

64. Psychosocial support for the friends and relatives of the patient with dementia is a critical part of a complete intervention for the disorder.

Ans: true Section reference: Explaining and treating cognitive disorders: Dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

65. Rates of Alzheimer’s disease increase dramatically as people age.

Ans: true Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 559 of your text.

66. Alzheimer’s disease cannot be conclusively diagnosed until autopsy.

Ans: true Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The advantages and limitations of diagnosis Page reference: See page 550 of your text.

67. Studies have consistently shown that estrogen therapy can help ward off Alzheimer’s disease in post-menopausal women.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: none Page reference: See page 551 of your text.

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68. New medications seem to be able to cure Alzheimer’s dementia.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Alzheimer’s dementia Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 554 of your text.

69. Parkinson’s disease is always caused by genetic factors.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

70. Symptoms of dementia frequently develop in the later stages of Parkinson’s disease.

Ans: true Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty level: easy Core concept: none Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

71. Huntington’s disease is caused by environmental factors.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological components and interventions: Huntington’s disease Difficulty level: easy Core concept: The principle of multiple causality Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

72. Several years after a person contracts HIV, the virus enters the brain.

Ans: false Section reference: Biological components and interventions: HIV Written by Kristine M. Jacquin, Ph.D. Page 21 of 22

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Difficulty level: difficult Core concept: none Page reference: See page 555 of your text.

73. Compared to other people, people who are engaged in lifelong learning suffer less cognitive impairment when they have Alzheimer’s dementia.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class and culture Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The connection between mind and body Page reference: See page 559 of your text.

74. Alzheimer’s disease occurs at equal rates among people of various ethnic backgrounds.

Ans: true Section reference: Classification in demographic context: Class and culture Difficulty level: moderate Core concept: The importance of context in understanding and defining abnormality Page reference: See page 559 of your text.

Essay

1. Describe the types of brain pathology associated with Alzheimer’s dementia.

2. Explain the challenge in determining the genetic basis for Alzheimer’s dementia.

3. Compare and contrast dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and Huntington’s disease.

4. Explain the differences between dissociative amnesia and organic amnesia.

5. Compare delirium to dementia.

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