TEST BANK for Systems Analysis and Design 8th Edition by Alan Dennis, Barbara Wixom & Roberta Roth

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

Part 1 Planning Phase Chapter 1 The Systems Analyst and Information Systems Chapter 2 Project Selection and Management

Part 2 Analysis Phase Chapter 3 Requirements Determination Chapter 4 Understanding Processes with Use Cases and Process Chapter 5 Data Modeling Chapter 6 Moving into Design

Part 3 Design Phase Chapter 7 Architecture Design Chapter 8 User Interface Design Chapter 9 Program Design Chapter 10 Data Storage Design Chapter 11 Moving into Implementation Chapter 12 Transition to the New System Chapter 13 Agile Development Methods

Chapter 1 – Systems Analysis and Design – Dennis / Wixom / Roth – page 1

Multiple Choice 1. a) b) c) d) e)

The outcome of the analysis phase is the: Feasibility analysis document System proposal document System specification document System request document Business process document

Ans: b Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

2. a) b) c) d) e)

The outcome of the planning phase is the: Test plan System proposal document System specification document System request document Business process document

Ans: d Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy 3. a) b) c) d) e)

The outcome of the design phase is the: Feasibility analysis document System proposal document System specification document System request document Business process document

Ans: c Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy 4. a)

Another outcome of the planning phase is the: Feasibility analysis document

b) c) d) e)

Project plan System specification document System proposal document Business process document

Ans: b Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

5. a) b) c) d) e)

Which is NOT true for systems analysts?

They create value for an organization They enable the organization to perform work better They do things and challenge the current way that an organization works They play a key role in information systems development projects They are the project sponsors for system proposals

Ans: e Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

6. a) b) c) d) e)

Which is NOT an attribute of a systems analyst?

Understanding what to change Knowing how to change it Convincing others of the need to change Serving as a change agent Selecting which projects to approve

Ans: e Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

7.

Which of the following project roles would identify how technology can improve business processes? a) Systems analyst b) Business analyst c) Infrastructure analyst d) Change management analyst e) Requirements analyst Ans: a Reference: The System Analyst Difficulty: easy

8.

Which of the following project roles would insure that the system conforms to information systems standards? a) Systems analyst b) Business analyst c) Infrastructure analyst d) Change management analyst e) Project manager Ans: a Reference: The System Analyst Difficulty: easy

9. a) b) c) d) e)

Which of the following project roles would focus on stakeholder requirements?

Systems analyst Business analyst Infrastructure analyst Change management analyst Requirements analyst

Ans: e Reference: The System Analyst Difficulty: easy

10. Which of the following project roles would serve as a primary point of contact for a project? a) Systems analyst b) Business analyst c) Infrastructure analyst d) Change management analyst e) Project sponsor Ans: e Reference: Project Identification and Initiation Difficulty: easy

11. Which of the following project roles would analyze the key business aspects of the system? a) Systems analyst b) Business analyst c) Infrastructure analyst d) Change management analyst e) Project manager Ans: b Reference: The System Analyst

Difficulty: easy

12. Michaela is a systems analyst who is determining business requirements. What would most likely be the SDLC phase for her? a) Planning b) Analysis c) Design d) Implementation e) Business requirements are not developed by systems analysts, but by business analysts Ans: b Reference: Figure 1-3: The Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy 13. Chang is working on ―How will this system work.‖ What SDLC phase is he in? a) Planning b) Analysis c) Design d) Implementation e) Transition Ans: c Reference: Figure 1-3: The Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: medium 14. Joan‘s project is to take a fairly straight-forward manual process and make it an electronic process. This will make the processing more efficient. Which of the following requirements analysis strategies is she using? a) Business process automation b) Business process improvement c) Business process internalization d) Business process reengineering e) Business process renovation Ans: a Reference: Business Process Automation Difficulty: easy

15. Wayne is a senior director of finance. His company only recently came under SarbanesOxley regulations and is the project sponsor to become compliant. He realizes that examining the as-is system may not be much help as the regulations are so radical that a

major analysis and design project must be completed to make the company compliant. He is leaning towards: ______________ a) Business process automation b) Business process improvement c) Business process internalization d) Business process reengineering e) Business process renovation Ans: d Reference: Business Process Reengineering Difficulty: medium

16. Moderate changes to existing processes falls under the _________ analysis. a) Business process automation (BPA) b) Business process improvement (BPI) c) Business process reengineering (BPR) d) Business process blue-skying (BPB) Business process efficiency (BPE) Ans: b Reference: Business Process Improvement Difficulty: easy

17. Alice is calculating whether a system will lower costs or increase revenues. What SDLC phase is she in? a) Planning b) Analysis c) Design d) Implementation e) Evaluation Ans: a Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: medium

18. Which was NOT given as a method for determining business requirements? a) Benchmarking b) Interviewing c) Observation d) Document analysis e) Questionnaires and surveys

Ans: a Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: medium

19. Which would normally NOT be a reason for a project? a) When a business need has been identified b) A consultant has suggested a new customer relationship management system c) An open source platform has just come on the market d) An existing system just isn‘t working properly and the workaround is tedious e) To support a new business initiative Ans: c Reference: Project Identification and Initiation Difficulty: medium

20. Which phase is generally the longest and most expensive part of the development process? a) Planning b) Analysis c) Design d) Implementation e) Feasibility Ans: d Reference: Implementation Difficulty: easy

21. Because the cost can be immense, _________ is one of the most critical steps in implementation. a) Documentation b) Coding c) Testing d) Developing a conversion strategy e) Training Ans: c Reference: Implementation Difficulty: medium

22. PCM Incorporated will need to purchase new servers for a system. This would be a: a) Development cost b) Operating cost

c) Ongoing cost d) Intangible cost e) Intangible benefit Ans: a Reference: Feasibility Analysis Difficulty: easy

23. Linda is a clerk in the accounting department. She was interviewed by David and is excited about the proposed system that will utilize electronic funds transfer. This would be an example of ______. a) Tangible benefit b) Cash flow c) Break-even analysis d) Intangible benefit e) Return on investment Ans: d Reference: Feasibility Analysis Difficulty: medium

24. Ramya is preparing an economic feasibility study. She has a calculation where she takes total benefits minus total costs and divides that answer by the total costs. She is calculating: a) Cash flow b) Return on investment c) Break-even point d) Net present value e) Internal rate of return Ans: b Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: medium

25. Ramona is preparing an economic feasibility study. She is calculating the payback period.

She is calculating: a) Cash flow b) Return on investment c) Break-even point d) Net present value e) Internal rate of return Ans: c Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: medium

26. Robert is doing an economic analysis using today‘s dollar values. He is doing: a) Cash flow analysis b) Return on investment analysis c) Break-even point analysis d) Net present value analysis e) Internal rate of return analysis Ans: d Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: medium

27. TJ has prepared a spreadsheet where the total benefits are $182,000; the total cumulative costs are $120,000. The ROI would be: a) $62,000 b) About 34% c) About 51.7% d) About 65.3% e) Less than 20% Ans: c Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: hard

28. Which of the following project roles would probably make a presentation about the objectives of a proposed project and its benefits to executives who will benefit directly from the project? a) Requirements analyst b) Systems analyst c) Project manager d) Champion e) Chief Information Officer (CIO) Ans: d Reference: Organizational Feasibility Difficulty: medium

29. Which is an activity the users probably will NOT do on a project? a) Make decisions that influence the project b) Budget funds for the project c) Perform hands-on activities for the project d) Be assigned specific tasks to perform (with clear deadlines) e) Have some official roles on the project team Ans: b Reference: Organizational Feasibility Difficulty: hard

30. The type of skill that is common to systems analysts to deal fairly and honestly with other project team members is: a) Technical b) Business c) Analytical d) Interpersonal e) Ethical Ans: e Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

31. The type of skill that is common to systems analysts to understand how IT can be applied to business situations and to ensure that the IT delivers real business value is: a) Technical b) Business c) Analytical d) Interpersonal e) Ethical Ans: b Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

32. Rocky is dealing one-on-one with users and business managers (including some that have little experience with technology). He is demonstrating what system analyst skill? a) Technical b) Business c) Analytical d) Interpersonal e) Ethical Ans: d Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

33. Becky is a systems analyst for Laswell Consulting. She is attending a three-day intensive workshop on developing applications in php. What systems analyst skill is she working on? a) Technical b) Business c) Analytical d) Interpersonal e) Ethical Ans: a Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

34. Jack is going over financial numbers for a proposed project. Which of the following system analyst skills is he exhibiting currently? a) Technical b) Business c) Analytical d) Interpersonal e) Management Ans: c Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

35. Amy is planning on talking with a clerk and a manager in the accounts payable area, a manager in the procurement department, and two vendors. She is probably doing: a) Observation b) Interviews c) JAD d) Documentation analysis e) Organizational Feasibility Ans: b Reference: Analysis Difficulty: easy

36. Kallie is creating use cases, data flow diagrams, and entity relationship diagrams. In what phase of the SDLC would she do this? a) Planning b) Analysis c) Design d) Construction e) Implementation Ans: c Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: medium

True / False 37. The primary goal of a system is to create value for the organization.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

38. Systems analysis and design projects are highly effective, with less than 3% of all projects cancelled or abandoned.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

39. Systems that are cancelled or abandoned are frequently due to a lack of clarity about how the system should support an organization‘s goals and improve processes..

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

40. The key person in the SDLC is the systems analyst who analyzed the business situation, identifies opportunities for improvements and design an information system to implement the improvements.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

41. Systems analysts are generally experts in business, finance, and application development.

Ans: False Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: medium

42. When compared to a business analyst, the systems analyst will identify how the system will provide business value.

Ans: False Reference: Project Identification and Initiation Difficulty: medium

43. The business analyst role focuses on the business issues surrounding the system.

Ans: False Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

44. When compared to a systems analyst, the business analyst will probably have more responsibility for determining business value.

Ans: True Reference: Project Identification and Initiation Difficulty: easy

45. Because of the need to be focused on providing information about the business value of a system, a systems analyst will probably have much training or experience in programming or application development.

Ans: False Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

46. The requirements analyst role includes complete and accurate determination of what the system requirements consist of for all stakeholders.

Ans: True Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: easy

47. The SDLC generally can be broken into four phases: planning, analysis, design and implementation.

Ans: True Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: easy

48. In SDLC, analysis is generally divided into three steps: understanding the as-is system; developing a cost-benefit analysis; and understanding the technical feasibility.

Ans: False Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: easy

49. Anne has asked users and managers to identify problems with the as-is system and to describe how to solve them in the to-be system. She is probably in the analysis phase of SDLC. Ans. True Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: easy

50. Determining business requirements is generally done in the planning phase of the SDLC. Ans: False Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

51. The primary output of the planning phase is the system request.

Ans: True Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

52. The primary output of the analysis phase is the system proposal.

Ans: True Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

53. The normal sequence of SDLC phase outputs (from beginning to end) would be: system request; system proposal; system specifications; and installed system.

Ans: True Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy 54. The question ‗Can we build it‘ is asked in the design phase.

Ans: False Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: easy

55. Interviewing is generally done in the analysis phase of the SDLC. Ans: True Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

56. Juan is creating use cases. He is working in the design phase of the SDLC. Ans: False Reference: Figure 1-3: Systems Development Life Cycle Phases Difficulty: easy

57. The planning phase of the SDLC will have two steps: project initiation and requirements determination.

Ans: False Reference: Planning Difficulty: easy

58. The three feasibility analyses in the text were: organizational feasibility, technical feasibility, and economic feasibility.

Ans: True Reference: Planning Difficulty: easy

59. Developing navigation methods, database, and file specifications and what architecture to use would occur in the design phase of the SDLC. Ans: True Reference: Design Difficulty: easy

60. A support plan for the system is established in the implementation phase of the SDLC. Ans: True Reference: Implementation Difficulty: easy

61. The project sponsor should have an idea of the business value to be gained from the system.

Ans: True Reference: Project Identification and Initiation Difficulty: easy

62. The document that describes the business reasons for building a system and the value that the system is expected to provide is called the ―System Proposal.‖ Ans: False Reference: System Request Difficulty: easy

63. A system request will generally have these items: project sponsor; business need; business requirements; business value; special issues or constraints.

Ans: True Reference: System Request Difficulty: medium

64. The three factors in the text for a feasibility analysis are: technical feasibility; organizational feasibility and economic feasibility.

Ans: True Reference: Feasibility Analysis Difficulty: easy

65. If the development team of an organization is not familiar with the technologies that may be used, the project should be cancelled.

Ans: False Reference: Technical Feasibility Difficulty: medium

66. User training with a proposed system would fall under intangible costs.

Ans: True Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: medium 67. Using ‗net present value‘ in calculating economic feasibility will allow for variations in the time value of money.

Ans: True Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: easy

68. To be compatible, all costs and benefits should use the current value of money since variations over time will (a) not affect the return on investment and (b) it is difficult (or impossible) to estimate future value of money.

Ans: False Reference: Economic Feasibility Difficulty: medium

69. Numerous studies report that projects involving information technology experience failure rates from 30% - 70%.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

70. The champion supports the project with resources and political support.

Ans: True Reference: Organizational Feasibility Difficulty: medium

Essays 71. Can the project sponsor and the project champion be the same person? Explain.

Ans: Yes. On smaller projects they might be, on larger projects you might have more than one sponsor or more than one champion; or they might just be different people.

Reference: Organizational Feasibility Difficulty: medium

72. What calculations are used in economic feasibility?

Ans: Return on investment; NPV – net present value of money; break-even analysis; cost/benefit analysis Reference: Feasibility Analysis Difficulty: medium

73. What is the difference between a systems analyst and a business analyst?

Ans: A systems analyst interfaces between the business side and the development/technical site; while a business analyst focuses on the business side of a project.

Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: medium

74. One of the skills needed for a systems analyst is to be ethical. Why do you think that is important?

Ans: Analysts must deal fairly, honestly, and ethically with other project team members, managers, and systems users. Analysts frequently have confidential information and must not share that information with others.

Reference: The Systems Analyst Difficulty: medium

75. What are the four phases of the SDLC and what is the major deliverable from each of the phases?

Ans: Planning – deliverable is the system request (also feasibility study and project plan) Analysis – deliverable is the system proposal Design – deliverable is the system specification (also alternative matrix) Implementation – deliverable is the installed system (including documentation, migration plan, and support plan) Reference: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: medium

76. What things might happen in the requirements gathering step in the analysis phase of the SDLC? Ans: Interviews; questionnaires; group workshops; observation; JAD sessions, document analysis; more Reference: Figure 1-3: The Systems Development Life Cycle Difficulty: medium 77. Which types of people (or specific people) are important in ―organizational feasibility‖ and why?

Ans: Champion (or project sponsor) – initiates the project / promotes it / allocates time to the project; provides resources Organizational Management – knows about the project / budgets funds; encourages users Systems Users – make decision about the project / does hands on work for the project (testing, giving input through interviews, JAD sessions, etc.) /ultimately determine if the project is successful by using it!!!

Reference: Organizational Feasibility Difficulty: hard

Multiple Choice 78. A critical success factor in project management is to do which of the following?

a) b) c) d) e)

Say ―no‖ to all requests as they add to ‗scope creep‘ Use throwaway prototyping Use a CASE tool to delineate requirements from work tasks Start with a realistic assessment of the work that needs to be done Hire an outside project management consulting group

Ans: d Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

79. Which is a true statement about IT projects? a) Most IT departments face a demand for IT projects that far exceed the ability to do them. b) Project Managers must be certified as PMP (Project Management Professionals) c) Project estimates tend to have a built-in buffer of time d) Project teams of 12 to 15 are generally considered optimum e) The majority of projects taken on by IT departments are not strategic to the business Ans: a Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard

80. Which is NOT suggested for IT development projects? a) Projects need to be prioritized b) Projects need to be carefully selected c) Projects need to be carefully managed d) Projects need to give a positive return on investment within four years e) Projects need to give value to the business Ans: d Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

81. Which would generally NOT be taken into consideration for project portfolio management in an organization? a) The number of large projects b) The number of tactical projects c) The number of high risk projects d) The number of strategic projects e) The number of financially feasible projects Ans: e Reference: Project Selection Difficulty: medium

82. The V-model pays more explicit attention to ___________: a) Iteration b) Return on investment (ROI) c) Business Value (the ―V‖) d) Testing e) Prototyping Ans: d Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

83. RAD is an acronym for: a) Real Application Development b) Rapid Application Design c) Rapid Authentic Development d) Real Autonomous Development e) Rapid Application Development Ans: e Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

84. Which of the following might result in version 1; version 2 (etc.) of a system? a) System Prototyping b) Waterfall Development c) Iterative Development d) System Prototyping e) Parallel Development Ans: c Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

85. System prototyping is BEST characterized as: a) A ‗Quick and Dirty‘ system b) A series of versions c) A method for exploring design alternatives d) A method for stressing customer satisfaction e) More explicit testing Ans: a Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

86. Throwaway prototyping is BEST characterized as: a) A ‗quick and dirty‘ system b) A series of versions c) A method for exploring design alternatives d) A method for stressing customer satisfaction e) More explicit testing Ans: c Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

87. Parallel methodology is BEST characterized as: a) A ‗Quick and Dirty‘ system b) A series of versions c) A method for exploring design alternatives d) A method for stressing customer satisfaction e) More explicit testing Ans: b Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

88. Extreme Programming (XP) is BEST characterized as: a) A ‗Quick and Dirty‘ system b) A series of versions c) A method for exploring design alternatives d) A method for emphasizing customer satisfaction e) More explicit testing Ans: d Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

89. What the MAIN difference between systems prototyping and throwaway prototyping? a) Systems prototyping involves users while throwaway prototyping does not b) Throwaway prototyping involves users while systems prototyping does not c) Systems prototyping is a rapid application development methodology; while throwaway prototyping is not d) Systems prototyping works with users to quickly develop a simplified working version of the proposed system; while throwaway prototyping focuses more on exploring design alternatives e) Throwaway prototyping develops systems that will be use as ‗stop-gap‘ systems – and generally for less than six months; while systems prototyping results in systems that will be used extensively for several years.

Ans: d Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

90. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: clear requirements; very familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a very long time schedule, and the schedule visibility is not important? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Throwaway prototyping Ans: a Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: hard

91. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear user requirements; unfamiliar technologies; somewhat complex; needs to be reliable; time is not an issue and the schedule visibility is somewhat important? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Throwaway prototyping Ans: e Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: medium

92. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: clear requirements; very familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and the schedule visibility is not important? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Throwaway prototyping Ans: b Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: hard

93. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: clear requirements; very familiar technologies; not all that complex; must be reliable; a somewhat longer schedule and the schedule visibility is not important? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) V-model Ans: e Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: hard

94. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: somewhat unclear requirements; somewhat unfamiliar technologies; that is complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and high schedule visibility? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Throwaway prototyping Ans: c Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: hard

95. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear requirements; very familiar technologies; not all that complex; reasonably reliable; a short time schedule and the schedule visibility is somewhat important? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Agile development Ans: e Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: hard

96. Which of the following methodologies might be most appropriate if you have a system project with: unclear user requirements; unfamiliar technologies; very complex; must be reliable; a short to medium time schedule and the schedule visibility is somewhat important? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Throwaway prototyping Ans: e Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: hard

97.

98. Which of the following methodologies takes the longest to complete all the SDLC steps? a) Waterfall b) Parallel c) Iterative d) System prototyping e) Throwaway prototyping Ans: a Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

99. The main difference between the Parallel Development Methodology and the Iterative Development Methodology is that: a) The Parallel Development Methodology will have various releases (like version 1.0; 2.0, etc.) and the Iterative will not b) The Iterative Methodology will break the system project into sub-projects for analysis, design and implementation and then merge them into a final system and the Parallel will not c) The Parallel Methodology will have subprojects and the Iterative Methodology will have various releases d) The Parallel Methodology will create various models or prototypes with user involvement before setting on design concepts and the Iterative will not e) The Iterative Methodology will create various models or prototypes with user involvement before setting on design concepts and the Parallel Methodology will not Ans: c Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium 100. Which of the following would BEST describe ―system complexity‖? a) The aspect of using technologies that analysts and developers are familiar with b) The aspect of what the business side really wants the system to do c) The aspect of how quickly the system can be developed and implemented d) The aspect of how intricate and difficult the system must be e) The aspect of how accurate the system must be (such as medical equipment or for games) Ans: d Reference: Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: medium

101. Which of the following would BEST describe ―system reliability‖? a) The aspect of using technologies that analysts and developers are familiar with b) The aspect of what the business side really wants the system to do c) The aspect of how quickly the system can be developed and implemented d) The aspect of how complex the system must be e) The aspect of how accurate the system must be (such as medical equipment or for games) Ans: e Reference: Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: medium

102. Bob is selecting a systems analysis and design methodology. What might be the first step? a) Selecting the shortest methodology b) Researching the organizations standards and policies for ‗approved‘ methodologies c) Interviewing senior management as to their suggestions on methodologies d) Do a quick ‗cost/benefit‘ analysis on which methodology will provide the most benefits at the lowest cost e) Do an analysis on which methodology might lessen or eliminate scope creep Ans: b Reference: Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: medium

103. A team of developers and customers are in close communication, with frequent communications, simplicity, feedback and courage. This would best describe: a) The parallel development methodology b) The waterfall development methodology c) The iterative development methodology d) The extreme programming methodology e) The throwaway prototyping methodology Ans: d Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

104. Suggestions for motivation might include all of these EXCEPT: a) Setting realistic deadlines b) Giving all team members the same bonus on a project c) Recognize and reward good efforts d) Reward those with outstanding quality and effort e) Having a good working environment Ans: b Reference: Figure 2-16; Staffing the Project Difficulty: easy

105. TJ is coordinating a project. Which would he probably NOT use to avoid conflicts? a) Encourage a competitive edge between team members b) Clearly defining plans for the project c) Develop a project charter d) Look at other projects and priorities and see how that might impact the project e) Communicate the business value to the team Ans: a Reference: Coordinating Project Activities Difficulty: easy

106. The most common reason for schedule and cost overruns is what? a) Team conflict b) Lack of communication from project manager to project team c) Lack of support by sponsor and champion d) Scope creep e) Adding people to a late project Ans: d Reference: Managing Scope Difficulty: easy

107. Micah is a fairly new project manager. He estimated for a project plan (on the planning phase) that the project would cost $50,000 and take 20 weeks. According to the margin of error guidelines for well-done estimates, that could range from: a) $0 and $100,000 – and between 15 and 25 weeks b) $10,000 and $60,000 – and between 12 and 28 weeks c) $0 and $100,000 – and between 0 and 40 weeks d) $5,000 and $100,000 – and between 10 and 30 weeks e) $25,000 and $75,000 – and between 10 and 30 weeks Ans: a Reference: Refining Estimates Difficulty: hard 108. The science (or art) of project management is in making ___________ of size, time, and cost. a) Benchmark comparisons b) Analytical and educated estimates c) Trade-offs d) Maximum calculations e) Minimum calculations Ans: c Reference: Managing and Controlling the Project Difficulty: easy

109. Garrett has been told by management that his project MUST be completed on time. His best estimates are more than two weeks after the absolute deadline. Which technique could he use to get a functional system on time? a) Risk management b) System prototyping c) Benchmarking d) Timeboxing e) Activity elimination Ans: d Reference: Timeboxing Difficulty: easy

110. Which of the following is NOT a classic planning mistake? a) Overly optimistic schedule b) Failing to monitor the schedule c) Failing to update the schedule d) Adding people to a late project e) Omitting key requirements Ans: e Reference: Practical Tip 2-1: Avoiding Classic Planning Mistakes Difficulty: easy

111. If the skills required by a project cannot be met by the available project team, which would probably NOT be a reasonable solution? a) Use a consultant b) Use a contract employee c) Modify the project to use skills inherent on the project team d) Train the project team (or some of the team) on the skills needed e) Mentor a team member (like sending a person to work on a similar project to acquire the necessary skills) Ans: c Reference: Staffing the Project Difficulty: medium 112. Interpersonal skills for a project manager might be important when: a) Making assignments for a project b) Creating a cost/benefit spreadsheet c) Creating the system proposal d) Working with a highly controversial project that may have political implications e) Using the V-model variation of the Waterfall Methodology.

Ans: d Reference: Staffing the Project Difficulty: medium

113. Which of the following is not a project characteristic that will affect the methodology selection decision? a) Schedule visibility b) Creating a cost/benefit spreadsheet c) User requirements clarity d) Complexity of the system e) System reliability Ans: b Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy 114. Rapid Application Development is a collection of methodologies that include all of the following except: a) Iterative Development b) System Prototyping c) Throwaway Prototyping d) V-model Methodology Ans: d Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy 115. Agile development is a group of programming-centric methodologies that focus on which of the following? a) Making assignments for a project b) Creating a cost/benefit spreadsheet c) Creating the system proposal d) Working with a highly controversial project that may have political implications e) Streamlining the SDLC Ans: e Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

116. Extreme programming emphasizes: a) Customer satisfaction b) Teamwork c) Communication as a core value d) Simplicity as a core value e) All of these Ans: e Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

117. Extreme programming requires a great deal of discipline and it is recommended for: a) Large development teams b) Mission critical applications c) Large systems d) Considerable onsite user involvement e) All of these Ans: d Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

True / False 118. Most IT departments face a demand for IT projects that far exceed the ability to do them.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard

119. Project Managers must be certified as PMP (Project Management Professionals) Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard

120. Project estimates tend to have a built-in buffer of time Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard

121. The majority of projects taken on by IT departments are not strategic to the business Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard

122. Project teams of 12 to 15 are generally considered optimum Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard 123. PMP is People – Management – Project – the three components of successful project management.

Ans: false Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

124. CIO is an acronym for ―Chief Information Officer‖.

Ans: true Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

125. A critical success factor for project management is to start with a realistic assessment of the work that needs to be accomplished.

Ans: true Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

126. In most IT departments, the demand for IT projects is generally about the same as the department‘s ability to supply them.

Ans: false Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

127. The corporate IT department carefully needs to prioritize, select and manage a portfolio of projects.

Ans: true Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

128. The project methodology that takes the longest to complete is the Waterfall Development Methodology.

Ans: true Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

129. The project methodology that takes the longest to complete is Extreme Programming Methodology.

Ans: false Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

130. The Waterfall Methodology breaks the overall project into a series of release versions.

Ans: false Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

131. The Iterative approach of the RAD methodology breaks the overall project into a series of release versions.

Ans: true Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

132. The Throwaway Prototyping methodology is especially good for exploring design alternatives.

Ans: true Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

133. The Throwaway Prototyping methodology is good at creating release version 1.0 for users; and then the methodology shifts to system prototyping to finish the system.

Ans: false Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

134. Throwaway Prototyping balances the benefits of well-thought-out analysis and design phases with the advantages of using prototypes to refine key issues before a system is built.

Ans: true Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

135. Agile Development stresses analysis, modeling and documentation over programming.

Ans: false Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

136. Extreme Programming (XP) stresses customer satisfaction and teamwork.

Ans: true Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

137. If you had a project with very clear requirements; familiar technologies; not super complex; reliable; a very long time schedule and where the need for schedule visibility is low – the best methodology might be Extreme programming.

Ans: false Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: easy

138. Scope creep happens when new requirements are added to the project after the original project scope was defined.

Ans: true Reference: Managing Scope Difficulty: easy

139. The margin of error in cost and time estimates can be as much as 20% in the planning phase for the system proposal deliverable.

Ans: false Reference: Managing and Controlling the Project Difficulty: easy

140. The science (or art) of project management is setting a schedule and sticking to it no matter what – even if that includes working weekends and adding staff to reach the deadline on time.

Ans: false Reference: Managing and Controlling the Project Difficulty: easy

141. Wendy has been informed by the CIO that the project she is managing MUST be done by December 20th and must be fully tested and implemented by December 31st. She realizes that will mean she will have to prioritize the functionality and build the system to meet the core functions, even if that means something gets delayed until the next release of that system. She is practicing the ‗timeboxing‘ approach to scope management.

Ans: true Reference: Timeboxing Difficulty: easy 142. A classic planning mistake mentioned in the textbook is having an ‗overly optimistic schedule‘.

Ans: true Reference: Practical Tip 2-1: Avoiding Classic Planning Mistakes Difficulty: easy

143. A classic planning mistake mentioned in the textbook is motivating employees with financial rewards instead of recognition and genuine thanks.

Ans: false Reference: Practical Tip 2-1: Avoiding Classic Planning Mistakes Difficulty: medium

144. Nate is managing a project that is behind by one month with five months to go. He should add four to six staff persons to the project to get it back up to speed.

Ans: false Reference: Practical Tip 2-1: Avoiding Classic Planning Mistakes Difficulty: easy 145. Scrum, XP and Dynamic systems development method (DSDM) are all classified as ‗agile development‘ concepts.

Ans: true Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

146. Either systems prototyping or throwaway prototyping are generally a good methodology choice when the project has unclear user requirements.

Ans: true Reference: Figure 2-9; Selecting the Appropriate Development Methodology Difficulty: easy

Essays 147. What is the difference between systems prototyping and throwaway prototyping methodologies?

Ans: Systems prototyping generally leads to a functional system; while throwaway prototyping generally leads to understanding the user requirements and design considerations more quickly.

Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

148. What are the main differences between the Waterfall Development and the Rapid Application Development methodologies?

Ans: Waterfall methodologies stress thorough use of the SDLC and can lead to longer project completion times while RAD methods generally result in shorter time to develop and implement.

Reference: Project Methodology Options Difficulty: medium

149. What considerations do you need to make when staffing a project team?

Ans: Size (generally 8 to 10 for a team; if you need more, break into subteams); setting up a reporting structure; have people with the right technical skills; have people with interpersonal skills (especially for controversial projects); possibly hire consultants or contractors or outsource some activities; give appropriate training if needed and help with mentoring if needed.

Reference: Staffing the Project Difficulty: medium

150. What can you do to manage scope creep?

Ans: Make it clear to users and managers that adding requirements is very difficult and make sure that requirements are all specified in advance; work hard to keep the project tight and focused; understand that there are some things that are truly required in the current project – but limit those and put other wants / needs / requirements off to the next project / next release; attempt to keep the schedule accurate – communicate the time line and the business need / business value – and that completing the project on time is also significant to the business.

Reference: Managing Scope Difficulty: medium

151. Why is it generally a problem to add more people to a late project?

Ans: With more people, the communication complexity grows. Also, with adding people to a late project, you will have to bring them up-to-speed on the project (and that may even delay you more as they have no idea of what has (and has not) been accomplished so far). Where you had a project that had a structure, now you are making it unstructured and harder to manage and keep on task and on time!!!

Reference: Staffing the Project Difficulty: medium

Multiple Choice 152. Which of the following will probably NOT be at a system walkthrough? a) User representatives b) Management representatives c) Computer Center director d) Key decision makers e) Analyst who prepared the system proposal Ans: c Reference: The Analysis Phase Difficulty: medium

153. The line between analysis and design is sometimes very blurry. One reason is that _____: a) Object-oriented methods are generally fuzzier as compared to waterfall methods b) there is inadequate funding for the analysis phase to do a complete analysis c) analysts are generally rushed to complete the system proposal d) scope creep has occurred e) the deliverables are really the first step in the design of the new system Ans: e Reference: The Analysis Phase Difficulty: medium

154. Which is NOT a purpose of the requirements definition? a) To give a very high-level explanation of the business requirements b) A more precise list of requirements that can be used as inputs to the rest of analysis c) Create functional requirements d) Create cost/benefit analysis e) Create non-functional requirements Ans: d Reference: Requirements Determination

Difficulty: medium

155. An example of a functional requirement is _________ a) Access to the customer order system b) System should be available in English and Spanish c) System can be accessed through a Blackberry device d) Output can be displayed in Internet Explorer, in Firefox, or in Google Chrome browsers e) System is automatically updated every 5 seconds Ans: a Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: medium

156. An example of a nonfunctional requirement is ____________ a) Supplier table is available b) The system must contain customer order history for three years c) System can be used in any of 100 offices worldwide d) SQL queries from customer table and order table are available e) Customer zipcode is formatted as character data Ans: c Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: medium

157. Which is generally NOT true of non-functional requirements? a) Cultural differences can be considered b) Color interpretations on screens and forms may be different in different geographical places c) Multi-lingual interfaces many be needed d) Systems may need to adapt from global solutions to local realities e) Systems may need to have actual expenses from global operations Ans: e Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: medium

158. Which is NOT a requirements analysis strategy? a) Understanding of the as-is system b) Identifying improvements c) Developing requirements for the to-be system d) Root cause analysis e) Understanding of screen design, layout and navigation Ans: e Reference: Requirements Analysis Strategies Difficulty: medium

159. According to the authors, in moving ―from here to there‖, an analyst needs: a) An understanding of corporate politics b) Knowledge on how to stop scope creep c) Joint Application Development facilitating skills d) Microsoft Project Management software skills e) Strong critical thinking skills Ans: e Reference: The Analysis Phase Difficulty: medium

160. Myles is studying a system to lessen the number of complaints about the Help Desk. He has formally studied the service counter at Wal-Mart, Target and Kohl‘s department stores; as well as listened in to complaint phone calls to a hotel booking site. He is trying to see how other organizations work at lessening complaints and also how they handle complaints. This would be what type of analysis? a) Complaint processing b) Design analysis c) Problem analysis d) Outcome analysis e) Informal benchmarking Ans: e Reference: Informal Benchmarking Difficulty: medium 161. The authors suggest that an analyst is ‗very much like a ____________‘ and business users are like elusive suspects. a) Police professional b) Politician c) Forensic scientist d) Air traffic controller e) Detective Ans: e Reference: Requirements Elicitation Techniques Difficulty: easy

162. When eliciting requirements from processing clerks and lower level managers about ‗how‘ a system works, the best approach might be: _____. a) JAD session b) Document analysis c) Closed-ended interview questions d) Probing interview questions e) Root cause analysis Ans: c Reference: Interviews Difficulty: medium

163. When eliciting requirements, the most commonly used technique is: __________ a) Document Analysis b) Interviews c) Joint Application Development (JAD) sessions d) Questionnaires / surveys e) Observation Ans: b Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

164. A technique where a set of written questions are distributed to people (frequently to a large number of people) is: _____. a) Document Analysis b) Interviews c) Joint Application Development (JAD) sessions d) Questionnaires e) Observation Ans: d Reference: Questionnaires Difficulty: easy

165. A technique where the analyst watches how people perform their activities is _______ a) Document Analysis b) Interviews c) Joint Application Development (JAD) sessions d) Questionnaires / surveys e) Observation Ans: e Reference: Observation Difficulty: easy

166. Which is NOT a good practice in conducting interviews? a) Be happy – happy people radiate confidence b) Explain thoroughly – it is estimated that in a strong interview session, the interviewer (you) should talk and explain about 60% of the time; and the interviewee should answer about 40% of the time c) Watch interviewees‘ facial expressions, how they sit and their body language; do they cross their arms; do they lean forward? d) Pay attention to what the interviewee is saying e) If the interviewee ask you a question, answer it truthfully – and if you don‘t know an answer, say so Ans: b Response: See Interviews (Practical Tip 3-1) Difficulty: Medium

167. In the interview report, what will probably NOT be included? a) Summary of what the interviewee said b) Interview‘s name; interviewee‘s name c) Details from crucial areas of the interview relating to the project at hand d) The actual questions that were asked as a permanent record e) Any materials, documents, etc. that the interviewee gave you relevant to the project at hand Ans: d Response: See Interviews Difficulty: Medium

168. After creating the interview report you should: a) Send a copy to the interviewee with a request to read it and correct or clarify b) Change the document into a unchangeable format (like a pdf file) so that it cannot be changed or edited c) Distribute the interview report to all others that are on the interview schedule so they will not have to go over the same materials d) Edit the report into a bulleted format for easier analysis e) Distribute the interview report to the interviewee‘s manager.

Ans: a Response: See Interviews Difficulty: medium

169. Probably the first thing to do when conducting an interview is: a) Turn on your tape recorder b) Get started by asking the first question on your list c) Build rapport with the interviewee so he or she trusts you d) Ask a close ended question e) Ask a probing question Ans: c Response: See Interviews Difficulty: easy 170. The interview process has gone well. There are a few things that need clarification and what really happens when specific financial analysts use the system. Which of the following might be the best way to verify what does happen? a) Observation of how the analysts do their work b) Document analysis of what the system was to do c) A JAD session with end users, financial analysts and top managers d) Additional interviews with top level managers in the finance area e) Questionnaires / survey of end users of the system Ans: a Response: See Observation Difficulty: medium

171. Danielle has asked some closed-ended questions to start an interview; then some open-ended questions. Now, she wants to really wants to get a greater depth of information about the process. She would probably use _________ questions. a) More closed ended b) More open ended c) Probing d) Structured e) Boxing structure Ans: c Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

172. Michael, a systems analyst, is preparing a closed wiki site for Northstate Bank. He has written permission from eight other companies to view their internal wiki sites, and also has approval from his manager and the project team to use these other sites for ideas and structure. This would be a form of: a) Business Process Automation b) Business Process Improvement c) Informal Benchmarking d) Formal Benchmarking e) Technology Analysis Ans: c Reference: Informal Benchmarking Difficulty: medium

173. Paul is interviewing Ming. He first explains why he is there and what he wants to accomplish in the interview. This would be done in which step of the interview process? a) Selecting interviewees b) Designing interview questions c) Preparing for the interview d) Conducting the interview e) Post-interview follow-up Ans: d Response: See Interviews Difficulty: easy

174. Rafael, Fraud Unit Manager, has just received an interview report from Stefano, a systems analyst. Rafael was interviewed by Stefano, and was asked to make corrections and clarifications to the interview report. In what interview phase would this occur? a) Selecting interviewees b) Designing interview questions c) Preparing for the interview d) Conducting the interview e) Post-interview follow-up Ans: e Response: See Interviews Difficulty: easy

175. One of the major differences between a JAD session and an interview is what? a) Selecting participants b) Figuring out what is to be done c) Preparing for the session d) Writing up results and a report e) All JAD sessions are structured and must be carefully planned Ans: e Response: See Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

176. One difference between the reports from interviews and from a JAD session is that: a) It describes information from the interview or JAD session b) The interview report will give a complete project management timeline; while the JAD session report will not c) The interview report is generally written within 48 hours of the interview; while the JAD session report may take a week or two after the JAD session. d) The JAD report will include results from questionnaires while the interview report will not e) JAD reports will include technology analysis while interviews will only include root cause analysis Ans: c Response: See Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

177. An interview report is prepared in which step of the interview process? a) Conducting the interview b) Designing interview questions c) Post interview following-up d) Preparing for the interview e) Selecting an interviewee Ans: c Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

178. Hamid has selected one middle manager from each department that will be affected by the updated system and one lower-level manager from each department, along with a few senior staff as well as the project sponsor for a JAD session. He is trying to do what? a) Balance the work load for departments so the regular day-to-day functions can still continue while the JAD team is off-site b) Create a new hybrid department that will beta test the final system c) Prevent domination by only a few individuals in the JAD session d) Have a broad mix of organizational levels in the JAD session e) Reduce the time necessary for the length of JAD session meetings Ans: d Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: medium

179. Marta wants to collect facts and opinions from a wide range of geographically dispersed people quickly and with the least expense. She would probably want to use what? a) Document analysis b) Interview c) JAD session d) Observation e) Questionnaires Ans: e Reference: Questionnaires Difficulty: easy

180. Blaine is using a requirements eliciting technique that begins with non-threatening questions, avoids abbreviations, groups items into logically coherent sections, and might best be used with outside users. He probably is using what? a) Document analysis b) Interview c) JAD session d) Observation e) Questionnaires Ans: e Reference: Questionnaires Difficulty: easy

181. What information-eliciting strategy enables the analyst to see the reality of the situation rather than listen to others describe it? a) Document analysis b) Interviewing c) Joint application design (JAD) sessions d) Observation e) Questionnaires Ans: d Reference: Observation Difficulty: easy 182. Typically, interviews include the following type questions: a) Probing b) Open Ended c) Close ended d) Observation Ans: d Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

183. When an analyst is looking for specific, precise information they would probably choose this type of question: a) Probing b) Open Ended c) Close ended d) Observation e) Questionnaires Ans: c Reference: Interview Difficulty: easy 184. When an analyst is seeking a more wide ranging response to questions they would probably use which type of question? a) Open Ended b) Close ended c) Observation d) Probing

Ans: a Reference: Interview Difficulty: easy 185. When an analyst is seeking more information from a response to questions they would probably use which type of question? a) Open Ended questions b) Close ended questions c) Probing questions d) All of these

Ans: c Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

186. Practical tips states that interpersonal skills are important, they include which of the following? a) Paying attention b) Being honest c) Ability to summarize key points d) Be happy e) All of these

Ans: e Reference: Interviews (Practical Tip 3-1) Difficulty: easy

True/False 187. One of the first activities of an analyst is to determine the business requirements for the new system.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy 188. The SDLC moves from the current system (often called the ―past system‖) to the new system (often called the ―future system‖).

Ans: False Reference: The Analysis Phase Difficulty: medium 189. Some people have suggested that the ‗analysis‘ phase could be clearer if it was called the ‗analysis and initial design‘ phase.

Ans: True Reference: The Analysis Phase Difficulty: easy

190. Jorge, Vice President of Operations, has requested that the updated supply chain system keep a record of all ‗stock-outs‘ for six years. This is an example of a functional requirement.

Ans. True Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: medium

191. Maria, a systems analyst, is tweaking the high-level explanation of the business requirements into a more precise list of requirements. This is called ‗requirements determination‘.

Ans: True Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: medium

192. Generally ‗system requirements‘ are developed in the analysis phase and evolve to more technical ‗business requirements‘ in the design phase.

Ans: False Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: easy

193. In interviews, Ross has learned that the new order entry system must be available in at least three formats (mobile, web browser, and local area network based); that it must function in either English or Spanish; and that the system must return order forms and data in less than 2 seconds. He recognizes these as nonfunctional requirements.

Ans: True Reference: Requirements Determination Difficulty: easy

194. The most important purpose of the requirements definition is to define the scope of the system.

Ans: True Reference: The Requirements Definition Statement Difficulty: easy

195. To create the requirements definition, the project team first should consider the kinds of functional and non-functional requirements that they will collect about the system.

Ans: True Reference: The Requirements Definition Statement Difficulty: easy

196. Miski has modified an existing time reporting system for hourly employees to be more efficient as they can text message when they are leaving a job site. This would be an example of Business Process Automation.

Ans: True Reference: The Process of Determining Requirements Difficulty: easy

197. Management of requirements and system scope is one of the hardest parts of managing a project.

Ans: True Reference: The Process of Determining Requirements Difficulty: easy

198. In RAD or agile development methodology (especially with BPR), a significant amount of time and effort is spent in understanding the as-is system.

Ans: False Reference: The Analysis Phase Difficulty: easy 199. Marta wants to focus on ‗why‘ a particular lockout situation occurs on a customer relationship management system, rather than just developing a work-around fix. She is doing activity elimination.

Ans: False Reference: Root Cause Analysis Difficulty: medium 200. Cindi Flores distributed ‗white-papers‘ on RFID, ERP, GPS and SOA to a user-management group. She then asked them to ‗think outside the box‘ on where these technologies could be used in the company. This would be an example of ―technology analysis.‖ Ans: True Reference: Technology Analysis Difficulty: medium

201. The requirements-elicitation process is used for building financial support for the project and establishing common understanding of technologies and rapport between the project team building the system and the users of the system.

Ans: False Response: See Requirements Elicitation Techniques Difficulty: hard

202. The most commonly used requirements elicitation technique is the interview.

Ans. True Response: See Requirement Elicitation Techniques Difficulty: easy

203. In terms of reaching the most number of people in requirements elicitation, interviews are considered better than questionnaires.

Ans: False Reference: Questionnaires Difficulty: easy

204. Yuri wants to interview both managers and staff in the accounting department for the updated credit analysis project. This is an appropriate group for first round interviews.

Ans. True Response: See Interviews Difficulty: medium

205. The three types of interview questions are: multiple choice, fill in the blank and short answer.

Ans: False Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

206. In preparing for an interview, TJ does research as to areas in which the interviewee has knowledge so that he does not ask questions that an interviewee cannot answer.

Ans. True Response: See Interviews Difficulty: easy

207. Generally beginning analysts should avoid unstructured interviews and likewise should avoid ―winging it‖.

Ans: True Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

208. Gary has eight interviews to conduct over the next week. Once he has completed all interviews, he should then write up a summary report. Preparing interview reports prior to completing all interviews will generally be premature until Gary has talked to all interviewees.

Ans: False Reference: Interviews Difficulty: easy

209. Unless ordered by the lead analyst for a project, you should not share your interview report with those that you interviewed. Doing so will almost always result in scope creep and changes in the requirements.

Ans: False Response: See Interviews Difficulty: medium

210. Rebecca, a fairly new employee in the company and Matt, her boss (who has been with the company for 22 years) are in your JAD session. It would probably be expected that Rebecca would not share much in the session.

Ans: True Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: medium

211. Online questionnaires are growing in use, but generally online questionnaires have a lower completion rate.

Ans: True Reference: Questionnaires Difficulty: medium

212. Your company updated its processes for financial reporting when Sarbanes-Oxley became law. Additional changes in Sarbanes-Oxley reporting have been mandated to start in one year. To help you understand the as-is system, you should review the documentation, processes and procedures that were developed with the initial Sarbanes-Oxley project.

Ans: True Reference: Document Analysis Difficulty: medium

213. To get to more depth in understanding the as-is system, document analysis and observation generally are more beneficial as compared to interviews and JAD sessions.

Ans. False Reference: Selecting the Appropriate Techniques Difficulty: medium

214. Interpersonal skills are those that enable a person to develop a rapport and are important for interviewing.

Ans. True Response: See Interviews (Practical Tip 3-1) Difficulty: medium

215. One person dominating the group discussion of a JAD session will normally lead to a positive outcome.

Ans. False Response: See Joint Application Development (JAD) (Practical Tip 3-2) Difficulty: easy

216. Most existing systems are well documented which leads to document analysis being very valuable.

Ans. False Reference: Document Analysis Difficulty: medium

217. A JAD facilitator recognizes that some people know more about the system and proposed system and will dominate the discussion and know that is a positive thing.

Ans: false Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

218. A JAD facilitator allows sidebar discussions and unstructured activities.

Ans: false Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

219. A JAD facilitator keeps track of all discussions by entering information into the computer.

Ans: false Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

220. A JAD facilitator can participate in the discussion to settle a disagreement.

Ans: false Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

221. A JAD facilitator sets the meeting agenda.

Ans: true Reference: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: easy

Essays 222. Ralph is known throughout the company as being an old curmudgeon. But, he is without a doubt the most knowledgeable person in the fraud analysis department. The system project you are working on has to have an interface to various fraud applications. How should you prepare for an interview with Ralph?

Answer Make Ralph understand WHY he needs to be interviewed. Make sure he understands the business value of the proposed system and why his input is vital. Send him questions in advance; talk to somebody who knows him so you can understand him more.

Response: Interviews Difficulty: medium 223. You have interviewed Chang and Bridget about some radical changes to the CRM system.

They both have been with the company for over 10 years. Yet, in their interview, there were discrepancies in what they told you. You also sensed from the interview with Bridget that her body language was ‗tight‘. How should you try to reconcile this?

Answer You can do another interview with somebody other than Bridget to see if you get the same results; you can do observation to see what seems to be the process; you can go back to Chang and Bridget and ask for clarification (in a friendly way of course). Comment: There may be other issues – maybe just before you got there, Bridget got a serious phone call about the health of her mother or some other issue that made her distracted and not pay attention to you.

Response: Interviews Difficulty: hard 224. The proposed TTR system makes some sweeping changes to how business is done. Upper management from the CEO / CIO down have encouraged this project. There is a team of 12 people working on various aspects of the project. You think the best solution is to have a JAD session of significant players on the project, but it is not going well. Several just cannot get away from other projects and responsibilities. How should you approach this?

Answer Get top management, project sponsor and project champion involved. See what the particular issues are – maybe there IS a real problem that certain people just cannot leave behind to be involved (people do have real job functions at the company). See what can be done to reschedule this at a time when you can get the significant players involved. See if there are other underlying issues – such as political issues.

Response: The Process of Determining Requirements Difficulty: medium

225. The JAD session you have been facilitating has generally gone well. But you are noticing (on this the sixth day) that people are getting a bit irritated with each other; there are too many sidebar conversations; people are calling into their office on the breaks; and in general, the ‗can-do‘ attitude that was present in the first few days seems to be deteriorating.

How might you get the group back to focusing on the topics and work at hand?

Answer Take a break, use some humor, help them understand what is left to accomplish and how valuable this is to the company. Get their ‗buy-in‘ back.

Response: Conducting the JAD Session Difficulty: hard 226. You are on an analysis team for a SOA (service oriented architecture) project that may impact how the systems development group develops systems. This is a challenge for some of the development team who are used to more traditional approaches. You are focusing less on the as-is system and more on the to-be system. You really want to understand the fears and reluctance within the development team. Develop an interview plan: who would you interview? Why? What kinds of questions would you use? How might you get to the real depths of concerns?

Answer You would want to understand what the reluctance is – and try to overcome it. Reassure them that their jobs are not in jeopardy (if that is true); make sure that they know that you are not a spy trying to get them fired. Make sure they know the business value of the system and why you are doing this analysis.

Response: Requirements Elicitation Techniques Difficulty: hard 227. Juan has tried observing how clients in the claims department handle requests. He has a chair near the counter and has his laptop open taking notes. He senses that his presence is really a giant interruption to the claims processors. They seem to be taking glances at him to see if he is writing down comments about their processes. He has insisted he just wants to know how their work is accomplished and ultimately the project team will deliver a system that is better and easier to use for them. He has heard from a ‗friend-of-a-friend-of-a-friend‘ of one of the claim workers that they suspect that he is also connected to the HR department and that their jobs are on the line. How might he accomplish his observation activity?

Answer Reassure them that he is NOT connected to HR; reassure them about the value of the system; and he also needs to be a little less obtrusive. It might be possible to have a webcam installed to do the observation remotely.

Response: Requirements Elicitation Techniques Difficulty: hard

228. During an interview, the interviewee expresses a strong opinion on a topic, like ―SOA will not work here‖. What should you do? How would you approach this?

Answer This is an opinion – ask probing questions like ―why not‖? Find out his understand of SOA (he may not fully understand its benefits); Keep the discussion open and non-threatening.

Response: Conducting the Interview Difficulty: medium

229. Your project sponsor has suggested several key people to get involved in a JAD session.

You cannot include all of the people, so you pick and choose those to invite to the session.

You hear from the informal grapevine that one person that was not invited is upset and feels left out. This person has been with the company for 12 years and had a lot of expertise.

What should you do? Why? Answer Try going to the person and defusing the situation. If need be, add him/her to the JAD session.

Do an interview with him. Also check with his/her manager to see if this is a normal behavior (for example, he/she tends to be a ‗hot-head‘).

Response: Joint Application Development (JAD) Difficulty: hard

230. MetaContinental has been mandated to comply with Sarbanes-Oxley criteria. The reporting system will need to be almost completely overhauled to comply. The project team realizes that this will be a business process reengineering project. How should they go about gathering business requirements for the new system? Should they have interviews? Who? Why? How many? Should they have a JAD session? What other techniques should they use for gathering requirements?

Answer This will focus more on BPR – so less looking at the as-is system. The requirements might be significantly from outside – such as attending training sessions on SOX, gathering information, hiring a consultant, etc. The staff will need to be involved as well – such as the accounting manager, CFO, others to understand what they know about SOX and how to gear up for this.

Response: Requirements Analysis Strategies Difficulty: hard

Multiple Choice 1. Which is probably NOT true about building use cases? a) Analysts are involved b) Users are involved c) Major processes are analyzed d) Major costs are analyzed e) External or internal triggers are analyzed Ans: d Reference: What is a Use Case?

Difficulty: easy

2. Which is NOT true of use cases? a) They are formal ways of representing how a business system interacts with its environment b) They illustrates the activities that are performed by the users of the system c) They can be thought of as an external or functional view of a business process d) They illustrate what starts (or triggers) an event, all the people that are involved, and how the system provides value e) They sometimes are called ‗business scenarios‘ (although ‗use case‘ is generally preferred) Ans: d Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

3. What is probably NOT a part of a use case? a) Name b) Number c) Trigger d) Major inputs e) Statement of business value Ans: e Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: medium

4. The actor in a use case is generally: a) An external user of the system b) The Project Sponsor c) The Champion d) The Project manager e) The Systems Analyst

Ans: a Response: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy 5. A ‗temporal‘ trigger might be which of the following: a) A patient calls to make an appointment with a doctor b) The accounting department needs information for a report c) The human resources department needs a tax withholding form to be filled out by a new employee d) The date changes to the first day of the month e) A new shipping of goods arrives and needs to be added to the inventory Ans: d Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

6. Which of the following is probably NOT a step for writing a use case? a) Identify the use case b) Identify the major steps within each use case c) Identify elements within steps d) Identify the analyst e) Confirm the use case Ans: d Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

7. Which of the following is probably NOT a part of most use cases? a) Actor b) Secondary Actor c) Major inputs descriptions d) Major steps performed e) Identification of the trigger Ans: b Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

8. Omar is an analyst building a use case. Which of the following project roles might be the most important in terms of getting information about building the use case? a) Users

b) Programmers c) Other analysts d) Project Sponsor e) Equipment vendors Ans: a Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

9. Use cases are used to more fully delineate what? a) Resources used in the system b) System boundaries c) System proposals d) Requirements definition e) Data flows Ans: d Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: medium

10. Austin is a systems analyst. Which of the follow people might be the most valuable to him in developing a use case for an accounts payable system upgrade? a) Beth, a software vendor for Peachtree Accounting Software b) Amy, a team manager in the accounts payable department c) Lisa, the project manager for the project d) Casey, a fellow analyst who is more experienced in making use cases e) Bill, a Java programmer in the applications development area.

Ans: b Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

11. Barb is an analyst developing a use case. Which of the following will probably NOT be on her use case? a) Importance level b) Short Description c) Information for steps d) Destination for the major inputs e) Type of trigger Ans: d Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

12. Barton is an analyst developing a use case. Which of the following will probably NOT be on his use case? a) Description of data flows b) Use case name c) A use case number d) Source for the major inputs e) Type of trigger Ans: a Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

13. Destination would be described on a use case in which of the following areas? a) Trigger b) Major inputs c) Destination d) Primary actor e) Importance level Ans: c Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

14. A use case helps do which of the following? a) Define interview questions b) Clarify ongoing costs for a system c) Identify risks with the project d) Refine project management milestones e) Understand system activities and requirements Ans: e Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

15. Ralph wants to illustrate how a system interacts with the environment. The best solution for him would be to use a what? a) Requirements flow chart b) Storyboard c) HIPO chart (hierarchy, input, process, output) d) Use case e) Gantt chart Ans: d Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

16. Marta has asked the users of a system to picture themselves performing the processes and to write down those processes in a sequential order. She should get a good idea of what? a) The major steps for each use case b) The use case c) The elements within steps d) The temporal triggers e) The external actors Ans: a

Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

17. You might have to go back and adjust the steps in a use case, if what happens? a) There are more than three major inputs to a step b) The steps are of varying size c) The trigger is an external one d) The importance level is ‗high‘ e) The primary actor is an external customer Ans: b Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

18. Special cases (like customer cancels an appointment or returns an item) are what? a) Frequently overlooked by users b) Described on special ‗exception‘ use cases c) Not of importance at this stage d) Written as exceptions at the bottom of the relevant use case e) Given use case ID‘s of ―SC‖ (for special case) and a number Ans: a Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

19. Role-playing the use case with actual users is a good way to do what? a) Identify the use case b) Identify the major steps within each use case c) Identify elements within steps d) Confirm the use case e) Identify the primary actor Ans: d Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

20. After working with Chris (who is a staff member in the registrar‘s office) on major steps in the registration process, Maureen (a systems analyst) will next do what? a) Discuss these steps with Thomas, the project manager b) Create data-entity maps c) Create use cases d) Create user interface screens e) Create narrative storyboards Ans: c Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

21. As a last step in building a use case for the study-abroad registration system, Brianna will do what? a) Ask Patrick in the study abroad office to confirm the use case b) Ask Wendy in the registrar‘s office to confirm the use case c) Ask Jonathan, a student who just completed a study-abroad experience, to confirm the use case d) Ask Drew in the students affairs office to confirm the use case e) Ask Taylor, another systems analyst to confirm the use case Ans: b Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: medium

22. When developing the major inputs and major outputs for a use case, the analyst and users should consider which of the following? a) Only the common inputs and outputs b) Developing separate use cases for every possible input and every possible output c) All possible inputs and outputs (even with rare occurrences) d) What triggers these inputs and outputs e) Using activity elimination to see if these inputs and outputs are really needed Ans: c Reference: Applying Use Cases Difficulty: medium

23. Some organizations may choose to include additional sections on their use case forms, these may include which of the following? a) Frequency of use b) Alternative paths c) Notes and issues d) Business rules e) All of these Ans: e Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: medium

24. Models that describe processes, without suggesting how they are conducted. a) Design models b) Physical models c) Physical process models d) Logical process models e) None of these Ans: d Reference: Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

25. Models which provide information that is needed to ultimately build the system. a) Design models b) Physical models c) Physical process models d) Logical process models e) None of these Ans: b

Reference: Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

26. A single fact, such as Order ID (sometimes called a data element), or a logical collection of several facts (e.g., new shop work order). a) Data file b) Data store c) Database d) Data flow e) None of these Ans: d Reference: Data Flow Difficulty: easy

27. A collection of data that is stored in some way (which is determined later when creating the physical model). a) Data file b) Data store c) Database d) Data flow e) None of these Ans: b Reference: Data Flow Difficulty: easy

28. The top-level DFD in every business process model, whether a manual system or a computerized system, is the what? a) Level-0 DFD b) Main DFD c) Major DFD d) Context diagram e) Driver Ans: d Reference: Context Diagram Difficulty: easy

29. Below the top-level DFD in the DFD hierarchy is the diagram called the what? a) Level-0 DFD b) Main DFD c) Major DFD d) Balancer e) Level-1 DFD Ans: a Reference: Level 0 Diagram Difficulty: easy

30. The processes in the level 1 diagram are the _____ of the _____ process in the level 0 diagram. a) Parent, Children b) Children, Parent c) Followers, Leaders d) Leaders, Followers e) Balancers, Main Ans: b

Reference: Level 0 Diagram Difficulty: easy

31. This type of English uses short sentences to describe the work that a process performs. a) Simplified b) Structured c) Minimal d) Process e) If-then-else Ans: b Reference: Process Descriptions Difficulty: easy

32. These display decision logic (IF statements) as a set of nodes (questions) and branches (answers). a) Decision diagrams b) Logic diagrams c) If-then-else diagrams d) Decision trees e) Process diagrams Ans: d Reference: Process Descriptions Difficulty: easy

33. These represent complex policy decisions as rules that link various conditions with actions. a) Decision tables b) Decision diagrams c) If-then-else diagrams d) Branching tables e) Process diagrams Ans: a Reference: Process Descriptions Difficulty: easy

True / False 34. Use cases are especially valuable for business system applications and websites.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

35. Use cases are especially valuable for batch processes, computationally intensive applications, and data warehousing.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

36. Process models have just recently become a part of structured systems analysis and design techniques.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

37. Use cases give more detail about requirements.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

38. A use case is a formal way of representing how a business system interacts with its environment.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

39. Use cases are the same as process diagrams.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

40. Use cases sometimes are called ‗business scenarios‘.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

41. Use cases illustrate the activities that are performed by the users of the system.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

42. Use cases are always internal and rarely shared or discussed with business users.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

43. A use case depicts a set of activities performed to produce some output result.

Ans: True Reference: What is a Use Case?

Difficulty: easy

44. Use cases are diagrams with three components: selection, process, iteration.

Ans: False Reference: What is a Use Case?

Difficulty: medium 45. Use cases are a type of ‗event-driven modeling‘.

Ans: True Reference: What is a Use Case?

Difficulty: easy 46. Use cases are a type of ‗data-driven modeling‘.

Ans: False Reference: What is a Use Case?

Difficulty: medium

47. Each use case contains a fairly complete description of all the activities that occur in response to a trigger event.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

48. Each use case has a name and a number.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy 49. Each use case has the same name (like ―Customer Relationship Management System‖) followed by an identifying letter (―A‖, ―B‖, etc.).

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

50. Use cases are always numbered sequentially from start to finish.

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy 51. The ‗actor‘ is the external user that triggers the event to which the system responds.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy 52. The ‗actor‘ is the internal action that occurs based on a SQL query (like: sort, select).

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

53. A trigger is based on cost/benefit analysis, like an employee labor report, a sale of an item, or the purchase of new hardware.

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

54. External triggers might be something like a customer calling a doctor for an appointment or a student registering for a class.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

55. A temporal trigger might be related to time, such as 30 days have passed and a late fee needs to be assessed.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

56. Use cases will have inputs and outputs.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

57. The most common ways to elicit information for use cases is with questionnaires of the affected users.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

58. Use cases generally have up to 20 major steps spelled out in great detail.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

59. Dr. O‘Brien‘s dental office calls a patient three days before an appointment. This could be an example of a temporal trigger.

Ans: True Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

60. Tina is a systems analyst and is describing how a system should react to an event. She is creating a use case.

Ans: True Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

61. Liang has identified the payroll authorization office as the actor in a use case. This would be incorrect as primary actors need to be singular like a customer or a patient or a student.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

62. Project managers, business analysts and systems analysts create all use cases without user input.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

63. The final step in building use cases is to use a CASE analysis tool to verify that the inputs and outputs are discrete items triggered by external events.

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

64. Use cases can vary from one organization to another in terms of the content included.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

65. Use cases can vary from one organization to another in terms of the degree of formality employed.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

66. The actor of a use case refers to only a person that interacts with the system.

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

67. The event that causes the use case to begin is referred to as the name.

Ans: False Response: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

68. Triggers are referred to as external or internal.

Ans: False Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

69. It is common practice to create smaller, more focused use cases breaking the whole process down into parts.

Ans: True Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: easy

70. Use cases contain all the information needed to build one part of a process model.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

71. Each use case has a name, a number, importance level, brief description, primary actor, trigger, major inputs and outputs, and a list of major steps.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

72. Use cases can be identified by reviewing the functional requirements.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

73. Use cases should be confirmed by users.

Ans: False Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

74. Use cases normally contain ten to twelve major steps.

Ans: true Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy 75. We use data flow diagrams (DFDs) to describe the to-be system‘s interactions with its environment, processes, flows of data, and data stores.

Ans: true Reference: Elements of Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

76. A bundle is an activity or a function that is performed for some specific business reason.

Ans: false Reference: Elements of Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

77. Processes must be computerized.

Ans: false Reference: Elements of Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

78. Data flows coming out of a data store indicate that information is retrieved from the data store.

Ans: true Reference: Data Store Difficulty: easy

79. Data flows going into a data store indicate that there is a logical error.

Ans: false

Reference: Data Store Difficulty: easy

80. All data stores must have at least one input data flow.

Ans: true Reference: Data Store Difficulty: easy

81. An external entity is a person, organization, organization unit, or system that is external to the system and never interacts with it.

Ans: false Reference: External Entity Difficulty: easy

82. Every external entity has a name and a description.

Ans: true Reference: External Entity Difficulty: easy

83. Most business processes can be explained in one DFD. Ans: false Reference: Using Data Flow Diagrams to Define Business Processes Difficulty: easy

84. The context diagram shows the entire system in context with its environment.

Ans: true Reference: Context Diagram Difficulty: easy

85. Synchronizing means ensuring that all information presented in a DFD at one level is accurately represented in the next-level 86. DFD. Ans: false Reference: Level 0 Diagram Difficulty: easy

87. Process models rarely have level 1 diagrams.

Ans: false Reference: Level 0 Diagram Difficulty: easy

88. The set of children and the parent are identical; they are simply different ways of looking at the same thing.

Ans: true Reference: Level 1 Diagram Difficulty: easy

89. It is important to ensure that the level 0 and level 1 DFDs are balanced.

Ans: true Reference: Level 1 Diagram Difficulty: easy

90. The next level under level 1 would be labeled as level 2.

Ans: true Reference: Level 2 Diagram Difficulty: easy

91. Process descriptions provide additional information that the DFD does not provide.

Ans: true Reference: Process Descriptions Difficulty: easy

92. Project teams usually draw process models by hand.

Ans: false Reference: Creating Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

93. The context diagram defines how the business process or computer system interacts with its Environment.

Ans: true Reference: Creating the Context Diagram Difficulty: easy

94. There are no formal rules covering the layout of processes, data flows, data stores, and external entities within a DFD. Ans: true Reference: Creating Data Flow Diagram Fragments Difficulty: easy

95. Experienced analysts usually draw a DFD perfectly the first time.

Ans: false Reference: Creating the Level 0 Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: easy

96. Iteration is the cornerstone of good DFD design.

Ans: true Reference: Creating the Level 0 Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: easy

97. There are two fundamentally different types of problems that can occur in DFDs: syntax errors and English errors.

Ans: false Reference: Validating the Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

98. In general, syntax errors are easier to find and fix than are semantics errors.

Ans: true Reference: Validating the Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

99. Semantics errors cause the fewest problems in system development.

Ans: false Reference: Validating the Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

Essays 100.

What are the steps for writing a use case?

Answer Identifying the use cases; identify the major steps within each use case; identify elements within steps; confirm the use cases Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: medium 101.

What are the most common ways to elicit information for use cases?

Answer The requirements determination processes – and generally from interviews, JAD sessions and observation Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

102.

Matt has identified 15 major steps in a use case. What should he do now?

Answer He should go back and redo the use case – to have each step about the same size and to have (generally) no more than 9 major steps.

Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

103. Vanessa is a manager in the department that has requested an updated system. Chad is the systems analyst who has been working with Vanessa on the project. He interviewed her (and others in her department); he developed a set of requirements for the project; he has created use cases for the project. What might be Vanessa‘s duty now that Chad has created the use cases?

Answer Vanessa should confirm the use cases by role-playing the cases – step-by-step – like following a recipe – to make sure that the steps, inputs, outputs and processes are correctly defined and are just like she does the process.

Reference: Use Case Formats and Elements Difficulty: medium

104. Cynthia is an expert in the supply-chain system at B&W Manufacturing. She has worked with Miguel (a systems analyst) on use cases. As she reviews and confirms the use case (by role playing – and like following a recipe), she realizes she has missed special cases (like cancelled orders, out-of-stock orders, over supplied quantities, incorrect quantities, and other special cases). What should she (and Miguel) do now?

Answer They should thoroughly review the use cases, and create all special cases and exceptions. This is a frequent occurrence and both she and Miguel should think about it!!!

Reference: Creating Use Cases Difficulty: easy

105. Shaunti has trouble identifying (a) the actor and (b) the trigger for a use case. What directions would you suggest to her?

Answer The primary actor is generally an external user that triggers the event to which the system responds. Frequently this is a person external to the system (like a customer or a patient), but could also be an organization or another information system. Triggers are the event that causes the use case to begin – like a customer placing an order, a shipping arriving at the loading dock (external triggers) or a temporal trigger (generally something like a specific date / time – like the end-of-the-month report is due).

Reference: Identify the Major Use Cases Difficulty: easy

Multiple Choice: 1. A data model is a what? a) The mathematical model of formulas and logic used in a system b) The abstract creating of an ideal system transformation c) The model that is produced by extreme programming d) The expanded, thoroughly balanced and normalized use case for a system e) A formal way of representing the data that are used and created by a business system Ans: e Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

2. A data model can do what? a) Illustrate return-on-investment, break-even point, and economic feasibility b) Represent actions or processes that occur in the to-be system c) Be used as a logical data model in analysis and as a physical data model in design

d) Only be used in BPR situations e) Only be used with JAD sessions Ans: c Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

3. An entity relationship diagram (ERD): a) Is a use-case diagram enhanced graphically to show data and process modeling b) Is a high-level CASE diagram of data modeling used in business systems c) Is an illustration of external data flows to and from a business systems d) Is a picture that shows the information that is created, stored, and used by a business system e) Is a graphical display of the processes in a business system Ans: d Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

4. Lines on an ERD diagram indicate what? a) Hierarchies between processes b) Relationships among the data c) Plurality of data items d) Uniqueness of data items e) Primary keys Ans: b Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

5. An entity is which of the following? a) Is the association between two related processes b) Has cardinality (1:1, 1:N, or M:N) c) Shows if it can be null or no null d) Is a person, place or thing e) Is described with a verb phrase Ans: d Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

6.

Which would NOT likely be an attribute of an entity called ―Student‖? a) Age b) Student identification number c) Class room number d) Home phone e) Gender

Ans: c Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

7. Which would NOT likely be an entity on a car insurance ERD? a) Customer b) Policy c) Agent d) Zip code e) Car Ans: d Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

8. Which would likely be an entity on a car insurance ERD? a) date b) Gender c) company d) fire district e) Car Ans: e Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

9. An ERD is a picture which shows the information that is ________ by a business system. a) created b) stored c) used d) all of these Ans: d Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

10. You have entities of ITEM, SOLD-ITEM, SALE and PAYMENT. Which most likely is NOT a relationship? a) SALE is paid by PAYMENT b) PAYMENT pays for ITEM c) ITEM is included in SOLD-ITEM d) SALE involves SOLD-ITEM e) PAYMENT pays for SALE Ans: b Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

11. The lines that connect the entities are referred to as a) Data flows b) connectors c) relationships d) crow‘s feet e) foreign key Ans: c Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

12. Modality refers to which of the following? a) Relationships of one-to-one; one-to-many; or many-to-many b) Whether and entity can exist with or without a related instance in the related entity c) The hierarchical structure that was developed in process models applied to data models d) The number of attributes generated by an entity e) Whether the entity has a unique identifier (aka ‗primary key‘) or a concatenated identifier (aka ‗composite key‘) Ans: b Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

13. Jack is developing an ERD for a small dental practice office patient record system. The dental practice has three dentists, six hygienists, and many patients. A patient is always assigned to the same dentist for all appointments. In particular, he is working on the relationship between dentists and patients. Should it be which of the following? a) 1 to 1, with a modality of null b) 1 to many with a modality of not null c) Many to many with a modality of null d) Many to many with a modality of not null e) 1 to many with a modality of null Ans: b Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard – especially due to the assumptions you have to make about dentists and patients

14. Information in the data dictionary is called what? a) Metadata b) Cached information c) Compiled data d) Data repository e) File silo Ans: a Response: The Data Dictionary and Metadata Difficulty: medium

15. Entity Relationship Diagrams show relationships between entities that are what? a) Outputs from JAD sessions b) Consistent with the ACM guidelines c) In line with the business rules and processing d) Defined by the project sponsor e) Extensions of the process models

Ans: c Response: Introduction Difficulty: hard

16. The three major parts of an ERD diagram are what? a) Process, data flow, data store b) Attribute, modularity, cardinality c) Relationship, data flow, entity d) Relationship, attribute, entity e) Process, entity and relationship Ans: d Response: Elements of Entity Relationship Diagrams Difficulty: easy

17. What is true about creating an entity relationship diagram? a) There will be at most seven entities b) There will be at most seven relationships c) If you identify more than seven entities, analyze and combine until you have seven or less d) It is an iterative process e) Entities will have at most seven attributes Ans: d Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy 18. In creating ERD‘s, which would most likely NOT be a source for entities? a) Use cases b) Level 0 DFD diagrams c) External entities d) Data flows e) Cost / benefit reports Ans: e Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

19. In adding attributes to an ERD, which of the following might NOT be a good resource for attributes? a) From the CASE tool b) Data flows from DFDs

c) Requirements documents d) The system proposal document e) Through interviews (what users need for reports and processing) Ans: d Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

20. The last step in creating basic ERD‘s is to: a) Identify relationships b) Define attributes and assign identifiers c) Recognize entities d) Test them with users e) Compile them with Java Ans: a Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

21. What type of process is creating an ERD? a) Well defined process b) Sequential process c) Process defined by five steps d) Iterative process e) User defined process Ans: d Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

22. Anthony is working on the cardinality of doctors and patients in a large urban hospital. With the large number of doctors with varying specialties and patients that may have more than one aliment, he thinks the relationship might be noted as what? a) 1 to 1 b) 1 to 2 c) 1 to many d) Many to many e) Many to 1 Ans: d Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

23. Omar has a model with 85 entities. He can do which of the following? a) Compress these into at most seven entity grouping units b) Group these into related subject areas c) Stop – he has all entities defined d) Sort the entities alphabetically e) Co-validate the entities with the level 2 DFD diagrams Ans: b

Response: Validating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

24. The first step to building an Entity Relationship Diagram is to do what? a) Identify data flows from the level 0 DFD diagram b) draw the relationships between the entities c) identify the attributes for each entity d) identify the entities e) identify the processes, data flows and data stores Ans: d Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

25. When normalizing data models, if you take attributes that have multiple values for a single instance of an entity and create separate entities for those attributes you are moving from: a) O normal form to 1st normal form (1NF) b) 1st normal form (1NF) to 2nd normal form (2NF) c) 2nd normal form (2NF) to 3rd normal form (3NF) d) Generalized normal form (GNF) to fully normalized form (FNF) e) Dependent normal form (DNF) to Independent normal form (INF) Ans: a Response: Appendix 5A: Normalizing the Data Model Difficulty: medium

26. Independent entities are what? a) When a child requires attributes from the parent b) When there is only one entity for a data process model c) When an entity can exist without the help of another entity d) Where the entity identifier is also the primary key e) When an entity comes from an external source (aka ‗external entity‘) Ans: c Response: Advanced Syntax Difficulty: medium

27. A(n) _____ entity is an entity with an identifier that describes only the entity. a) dependent b) incomplete c) independent d) intersection e) non-identifying Ans: c Response: Advanced Syntax

Difficulty: medium

28. A(n) _____ entity cannot exist without the presence of another entity or has an identifier that is based on another entity‘s attribute. a. independent b. incomplete c. dependent d. variable e. non-complying Ans: c Response: Advanced Syntax Difficulty: medium

29. The two methods to validate that an ERD is well formed are what? a) Balancing with process models and following design guidelines created by Chen b) Normalization and balancing with process models c) Renaming theory d) Balancing with process models and renaming theory e) Normalization and following design guidelines created by Chen Ans: b Response: Validating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium 30. Andrew, an analyst for PaxMedia Inc., has just learned that the business rules for a system he has been working on have changed. This means wjat a) Nothing – once the ERD data models have been drawn, they are ‗frozen‘ for the system b) Andrew will be reassigned to a different project that is in its beginning stages c) The ERD components will have to be changed d) The ERD data model will have to be put on hold while new DFD diagrams are created e) The project will have to be scrapped and restarted Ans: c Response: Validating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium 31. A logical data model that does not lead to repeating fields and that the data models leads to tables containing fields that are dependent on the whole identifier is in _____ normal form. a) balanced b) first c) primary d) second e) third Ans: d

Response: Appendix 5A: Normalizing the Data Model Difficulty: medium

32. When the analyst is evaluating a data model to ensure that all fields in a record depend fully on the entire primary key, which step of normalization is being performed? a) base normal form b) first normal form c) second normal form d) third normal form e) cannot tell from this information Ans: c Response: Appendix 5A: Normalizing the Data Model Difficulty: medium

33. If the logical data model does not contain attributes that have repeating values it is in _____. a) base normal form b) first normal form

c) non-normal form d) second normal form e) third normal form Ans: b Response: Appendix 5A: Normalizing the Data Model Difficulty: medium

34. Balance occurs between DFDs and ERDs when the data stores _____ a) Are uniquely named b) Have only one input and one output flow c) Are named the same as the relationships on the ERD d) Can be compared to ERD data flows and attributes on the ERD are included in data stores on the DFD e) Can be equated to entities on the ERD and when entities are referred to by data stores on the DFD Ans: e Response: Balancing Entity Relationship Diagrams with Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: medium

True / False Questions 35. Data models can be either logical or physical.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

36. During the analysis phase logical data models are created.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

37. During the analysis phase, analysts create programming models to represent how the business system will operate.

Ans: False Response: Introduction Difficulty: medium

38. A data model is a formal way of representing the data that are used and created by a business system.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

39. One of the most commonly used techniques for data modeling is ERDs. Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: medium

40. ERDs are drawn in several levels: Context ERD diagrams; Level 0 ERD diagrams; Level 1 ERD diagrams.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

41. On an ERD, processes are listed alphabetically with relationship connections drawn between processes.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

42. On an ERD, data elements are listed alphabetically with a cross listing to the processes that manipulate them.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard 43. With an ERD, the diagrams are drawn in a sequential order – from top to bottom.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

44. With an ERD, special symbols are added to show high-level business rules.

Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

45. With an ERD, similar kinds of information are listed together in entities.

Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium 46. ERD‘s are data modeling techniques.

Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

47. With an ERD, lines are drawn to show relationships among the data.

Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

48. On an ERD, data elements are described as singular (1:1); plurals (1:N); or didactic (M:N).

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

49. On an ERD, data elements are grouped in a hierarchical structure that is uniquely identified by number.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

50. On an ERD, data elements are listed together and place inside boxes called entities.

Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

51. ERDs and DFDs are two techniques for data modeling.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

52. ERDs and DFDs are two techniques for process modeling.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium 53. A textbook-provided example of a ‗full-service CASE‘ tool is Visible Analyst.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

54. An ERD is a picture that shows how data and information is processed and transformed by a business system.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

55. A graphical illustration that shows the information that is created, stored, and used by a business system would be an ERD. Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

56. An illustration of the transformation of data into business value is an ERD. Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

57. An analyst can read an ERD to discover the individual pieces of information in a system and how they are organized and related to each other.

Ans: True Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

58. On an ERD, similar kinds of information are listed together and placed inside boxes called data containers.

Ans: False Response: The Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

59. An entity is the basic building block for a data model.

Ans: True Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

60. An entity is described by an action verb.

Ans: False Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

61. Entities are further designed with attributes.

Ans: True Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

62. Entities are a person, place, or thing.

Ans: True Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

63. In an entity called STUDENT, you might find attributes of Student-ID, Last-Name, FirstName and cell-phone.

Ans: True Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

64. In an entity called STUDENT, you might find attributes of PROFESSOR-ID, Last-Name, First-Name and CLASSROOM. Ans: False Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

65. Relationships are some type of information that is captured about entities.

Ans: False Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

66. Relationships are associations between entities.

Ans: True Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

67. Relationships are drawn with lines showing cardinality and plurality.

Ans: False Response: Elements of an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

68. ERDs can be quite complex and might have hundreds or thousands of entities.

Ans: True Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

69. The three steps in creating an ERD are: (1) identify the entities; (2) identify the processes; (3) identify the relationships Ans: False Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

70. The three steps in creating an ERD are: (1) identify the entities; (2) identify the attributes; (3) identify the relationships Ans: True Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

71. Metadata is data about data.

Ans: True Response: The Data Dictionary and Metadata Difficulty: easy 72. CASE tools have ‗data repositories‘.

Ans: False Response: The Data Dictionary and Metadata Difficulty: easy

73. In defining the data characteristics of Universal Product Codes, we might describe them as twelve characters made up of digits – numeric only.

Ans: True Response: The Data Dictionary and Metadata Difficulty: medium

74. In defining LAST-NAME in the data dictionary, we might describe it as a character field having from 1 to 15 alphabetic characters.

Ans: False Response: The Data Dictionary and Metadata Note: You will also need special characters like D‘Angelo or O‘Brien Difficulty: hard

75. One of the first places to start developing Entity Relationship Diagrams is by looking at the level 0 process models (DFD) and the use cases for data flows and data stores.

Ans: True Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

76. Data modeling is an iterative process.

Ans: True Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: easy

77. When validating ERDs you should balance ERD entities with the data flows and data stores from the DFD process diagrams.

Ans: True Response: Balancing Entity Relationship Diagrams with Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: easy

78. CRUD stands for create, read, update and delete and can be used to verify DFDs and ERDs. Ans: True Response: Balancing Entity Relationship Diagrams with Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: medium

Essays 79. You have a student registration system (simplified) with three entities: Student, Professor, and Class. Assume standard attributes for the three entities. What might be the relationships, cardinality and modality between the three?

Answer Answers will vary; but something like: Professor teach classes (probably 1:M); a class is taught by 1 professor; students take classes (1:M); it might be possible to have a class with no students (so modality might be null) – such as an advanced nuclear physics class taught at 5:00 a.m. ; it might be possible that a professor isn‘t teaching this semester (on sabbatical or doing research projects) – so modality of null; could a student not be taking any classes? If so that could also have a modality of null (might be doing an internship that is not registered with the campus; might be on a study-abroad trip that isn‘t for credit and is not registered for; might have dropped out for the semester, etc.); professors have many students and student have many professors (M:N); and again if a professor is on sabbatical or doing research may not have students and if a student is not enrolled, he/she may not have any professors.

Response: Creating an Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard – mainly due to the number of assumptions which must be made to make a ―correct‖ diagram

80. In the sample data for the STUDENT entity, there are repeating values for class and semester attributes. For example, Adam Murphy took CIS 370 section 2 in fall 2008; Brenda Olson took CIS 370 section 2 in fall 2008; Jing Zhang took CIS 370 section 2 in fall 2008; etc.

What is the process to modify this entity so that there are no attributes with multiple values?

Answer This is to put the entity into First Normal Form (1NF). Generally, you will create a new entity Courses-Taken where each course each semester each section is placed and a relationship will be drawn between the entities. For this example, one entry in the Courses-Taken entity will be: CIS 370-Section2-fall2008 – and a relationship between the courses-Taken and the students will be drawn.

Response: Appendix 5A: Normalizing the Data Model Difficulty: hard

81. How do you validate an ERD? Answer Creating and validating ERDs can be tough. It takes experience to draw ERDs well and there are not all that many guidelines and rules. You will want to verify that entities are complete (i.e. have all the needed attributes, have consistent names (not client at some point and customer at another point), that relationships are identified and drawn; that cardinality (1:1; 1:N or M:N) is drawn – and if possible M:N cardinalities are avoided by creating entities in between the M:N entities; that modality is identified (null or non-null); and that eventually the ERD is normalized to 3NF. It takes time and patience to learn and do this!!!

Response: Validating an Entity Relationship Diagram and Appendix 6A: Normalizing the Data Model Difficulty: hard 82. Discuss what should be done to ensure that the entity relationship diagrams balance with the data flow diagrams. What is the consequence of failing to balance these models?

Answer The key to balancing these diagrams is to remember that both models must refer to exactly the same 'data foundation' of the system. Every entity on the data model should correspond to a data store on a DFD. Also, all the data elements that comprise the data flows in the DFDs should appear as attributes of entities in the data model. Similarly, the attributes of the data model entities should be found in the process models; otherwise, the data is probably not used by the business system and should not be stored. If the analysts do not balance the data and process models, then the system will either omit critical data or will contain unnecessary data.

Response: Balancing Entity Relationship Diagrams with Data Flow Diagrams Difficulty: hard

Multiple Choice 1. In what SDLC stage do we determine the business needs for an information systems project? a. The design phase b. The analysis phase c. The dissection stage d. The installation stage e. The big bang stage Ans: b Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

2. System design is the determination of the overall system architecture-consisting of a set of physical processing components, _______________, and the communication among themthat will satisfy the system‘s essential requirements. a. Workmanship b. Order entry methods, HR feedback c. Hardware, Software, People d. Engineering data plans, fiber optic specifications e. None of these Ans: c Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

3. In the initial stage of design, what are business requirements converted into? a. System Requirements b. Work Order Summary c. Computer Qualifications Checklist d. Vanilla System e. Hardware Blueprint Ans: a Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

4. Where are the decisions stored that are made regarding the hardware and software that will be purchased to support the new system? a. Order Manifest b. Hardware Sales Receipt c. Suppliers‘ Computer System d. President‘s Office e. Hardware and Software Specification Ans: e Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Easy

5. The system inputs and outputs will be designed along with a plan or__________ of the way the system‘s features will be navigated. a. Blueprint b. Compass c. Instructional Guide d. Roadmap e. FAQ Ans: d Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

6. This repository entries are updated to reflect specific technology decisions as they are made. a. DFD b. Sequential c. CASE d. Hardware e. None of these Ans: c Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

7. Which of the following lists indicates the correct ordering of deliverables in a system specification document? a. System Acquisition Weighted Alternative Matrix, Interface Design, Physical Data Model Data Storage Design b. Data Storage Design, Interface Design, Architecture Design, Updated Crud Matrix c. Hardware and Software Specifications, Interface Design, Data Storage Design, Architecture Design d. Program Design Specifications, Physical Data Model, Data Storage Design, Architecture Design e. Update CASE Repository Entries, Update CRUD Matrix, Interface Design, Architecture Design Ans: a Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

8. If on a limited time budget, the best way to be sure you remain efficient and effective in designing a system is to utilize what? a. Porters 5 Forces Model b. Outsourcing Model c. RAD and Timeboxing Techniques d. Hire/Fire Motivational Theory e. Not Attempt the Project Ans: c Reference: Practical Tip 6-1: Avoiding Classic Design Mistakes Difficulty: Medium

9. For efficiency purposes, it is wise to do what when there is a basic software need to be satisfied? a. Implement a company-wide project team to handle a custom software scripting b. Purchase a packaged system c. Design a blueprint and contract an outside vendor to develop a program d. Make do with the current software package e. Utilize a professional consultant to develop a system of servers Ans: b Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Easy

10. Workarounds are what? a. Not supported by a vendor who supplied the packaged software b. Designed by the vendor c. Created to interface two software packages that are compatible with each other d. Enterprise Wide Software Packages that are designed for satellite use e. None of these Ans: a Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Hard

11. Systems Integration refers to what? a. The process of synching all computers to the mainframe b. The delivery of systems to the final destination office c. Combining packaged software, the existing legacy system, and new software d. Adding the original hard drives to a newer system e. Creating a new software to monitor power consumption Ans: c Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Medium

12. What makes systems integration so difficult? a. Finding the original data to install on the new server b. Creating a ghost drive to house the old information c. Installing new software packages on older machines d. Bringing legacy system data and new data together e. None of these Ans: d Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Medium

13. Another name for custom development might be what? a. Offshore outsourcing b. In-house development c. Vendor supplied in-house consulting d. CASE tools e. Package software Ans: b Response: Custom Development Difficulty: easy

14. Outsourcing firms called _____________ supply software applications and/or software related services through the Internet. a. Application Service Providers (ASPs) b. Enterprise Resource Providers (ERPs) c. System Development Life Cycle Companies (SDLCs) d. Information Technology Developers (ITDs) e. None of these Ans: a Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Medium

15. A time and arrangements deal is considered what? a. Very flexible b. Very rigid c. Cheaper than any other option d. Useless when considering a systems design e. Always the best option for any project Ans: a Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Medium

16. Fixed-price contracts are considered which of the following? a. Very flexible b. Very rigid c. Always cheaper than any other option d. Useless when considering a systems design e. Always the best option for any project Ans: b Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Medium

17. Custom development is used when: a. The business need is unique b. The business need is not core to the business c. The project has a project manager who can coordinate vendor efforts d. The time frame is short e. The skills are not strategic Ans: a Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Medium

18. Packaged systems are used when: a. The business need is not core to the business b. There is a desire to build in-house skills c. The time frame is flexible d. The project has a project manager who can coordinate vendor efforts e. The decision to outsource is strategic Ans: d Reference: Influences on the Acquisition Strategy Difficulty: Medium

19. Application service providers might be best associated with: a. In-house development b. Packaged software c. Unique and strategic systems d. Outsourcing e. Internet Service Providers Ans: d Response: Outsourcing Difficulty: easy

20. Outsourcing is used when: a. The project has a project manager who can coordinate vendor efforts b. There is a desire to build in-house skills c. In-house functional and technical skills exist d. The business need is not core to the business e. None of these Ans: d Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: medium

21. Requests for Proposals (RFPs) serve what purpose? a. Integrate systems with one another b. Create synergy amongst staff members c. Solicit information from providers d. Engage mobile computers with mainframe technology e. Develop morale amongst managers Ans: c Reference: Selecting an Acquisition Strategy Difficulty: hard 22. The following document is utilized with possible vendors on projects with smaller budgets, instead of sending a lengthy document to all possible vendors: a. Request for Proposal (RFP) b. Request for Information (RFI) c. Request for Quote (RFQ) d. Request for Efficient Information Distribution (REID) e. More Optimal Desires (MOD) Ans: b Reference: Selecting an Acquisition Strategy Difficulty: medium

23. Which of the following is normally NOT done in the design phase of the SDLC? a. Decisions for hardware and software purchases are made b. User interactions are planned out (inputs, outputs, user interfaces) c. Cost / Benefits of the new system are carefully calculated d. Logical DFDs and ERDs are converted into physical DFDs and ERDs e. The physical data model is created Ans: c Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium

24. If (a) the business need is unique, (b) there is a desire to build in-house skills; (c) the time frame is flexible, it might be best to: a. Do in-house / custom development b. Buy an ERP system c. Outsource to India d. Purchase a software package e. Hire a consultant Ans: a Response: Business Need (Figure 6-5) Difficulty: medium

25. If (a) the business need is common; (b) the skills needed are not strategic; (c) the time frame is short; it might be best to: a. Use in-house / custom development b. Hire a vendor to write the code for you c. Outsource to India d. Purchase a software package e. Hire a consultant Ans: d Response: Business Need (Figure 6-5) Difficulty: medium

26. One problem with using packages software systems is: a. It takes a very long time to get the system and get it installed b. The company has to accept the functionality that is provided with the system c. Many common software packages have been written and tested and are readily available d. There are many good software packages that are reasonable in price e. Most software packages allow for some customization Ans: b Response: Business Need (Figure 6-5) Difficulty: medium

27. An advantage of custom development might be: a. You get a system that is tailored to the current business and meets specific needs b. The rapid development of custom systems c. The low cost (as compared to buying a package) d. The low risk factor e. The ability for in-house developers to work on systems that are in new programming languages and in technologies that are unknown to them prior to the development Ans: a Response: Custom Development Difficulty: medium

28. Which is NOT a factor in choosing a development option? a. Data base normalization b. In-house experience c. Time frame d. Project skills e. Project management Ans: a Response: Business Need Difficulty: easy

29. In terms of project management, which option might require excellent project management skills and a proven methodology? a. Outsourcing to Nebraska b. Outsourcing to India c. Buying a packaged solution d. Doing custom development e. Buying an ERP system Ans: d Response: Project Management Difficulty: hard

True False 30. In regards to packaged software, the project needs a highly skills project manager who has been with the company for many years and has an excellent relationship with both business users and the IT development staff.

Ans: False Response: Packaged Software Difficulty: easy

31. In regards to packaged software, the time frame is to implement is flexible to long.

Ans: False Response: Packaged Software Difficulty: easy

32. In regards to packaged software, it works best where the company has a unique need.

Ans: False Response: Packaged Software Difficulty: easy

33. In regards to packaged software, in most cases, the software is a perfect fit for the companies need.

Ans: False Response: Packaged Software Difficulty: easy

34. In regards to packaged software, the business need is something that is common.

Ans: True Response: Packaged Software Difficulty: easy

35. System requirements are communicated through a collection of design documents and physical processes and data models.

Ans: True Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

36. The decision to make, to buy, or to the design tasks that are performed throughout the rest of the design phase.

Ans: True Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Easy

37. CASE repository entries are updated to reflect specific technology decisions as they are made.

Ans: True Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

38. Prototyping is the interface design step that often uncovers additional information that is needed in the system, leading to a revision of the physical DFDs or ERPs. Ans: False Reference: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

39. Building a system in-house builds technical skills and functional knowledge that one may not want to allow to walk out of the door.

Ans: True Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Easy

40. In a custom software case, all parts of the system need to be completely customized and scripted to the company‘s specifications including ancillary software to the current system.

Ans: False Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Medium

41. A workaround is a custom-built add-on program that interfaces with packaged applications to handle specific needs.

Ans: True Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Medium

42. The key challenge in systems integration is avoiding a system wide crash upon installation of legacy software.

Ans: False Reference: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: Medium

43. Outsourcing requires the least in-house resources.

Ans: True Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Easy

44. Application Software Providers (ASPs) should be utilized when considering non-core programming and/custom needs.

Ans: True Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Medium

45. Time and arrangements deals are potentially more expensive if the service provider requires unforeseen resources to complete the project on time.

Ans: True Response: Outsourcing Difficulty: Easy

46. A common need to the business should be satisfied by contracting with an Application Service Provider (ASP).

Ans: True Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Medium

47. Custom development that can be achieved by the in-house team and core business practices are both examples of times when outsourcing is not an option.

Ans: True Reference: Outsourcing Difficulty: Medium

48. The only skills that are applied during systems projects are technical.

Ans: False Reference: Project Skills Difficulty: easy

49. The only skills that are applied during systems projects are functional.

Ans: False Reference: Project Skills Difficulty: easy

50. The score column in the Alternative Matrix represents how easily specific criteria are met by the alternative.

Ans: True Reference: Alternative Matrix Difficulty: easy

51. An IT department has just received its newest onslaught of system maintenance requests from the finance, marketing, and accounting divisions and has added them to the growing list of fixes needed. Tomorrow, there will be a request placed by the CTO that there is to be a new processing system put into place that will take the place of the current MS Word system.

The best alternative is to utilize a custom program that will replace the original program.

Ans: False Reference: Influences on Acquisition Strategy Difficulty: easy

52. A department head is apprehensive as to what implementation system he should employ. The best method of ensuring a successful and efficient installation of the new systems would be to utilize an alternative matrix.

Ans: True Reference: Alternative Matrix Difficulty: easy

53. The Design phase of the SDLC uses the requirements that were gathered during analysis to actually build (and code if necessary) the final system.

Ans: False Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: Medium

54. The Design phase of the SDLC builds on the logical designs from the analysis phase (like logical ERDs and logical DFDs)

Ans: True Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium

55. The design phase decides how the new system will operate.

Ans: True Response: Introduction Difficulty: easy

56. During the initial part of design, the project team converts the business requirements for the system into system requirements.

Ans: True Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: easy

57. One systems development option is to have a system developed by using an outsourcing strategy.

Ans: True Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium

58. One systems development option is to let users build their own system using tools like Excel and Access, with support from the Microsoft help desk.

Ans: False Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium

59. During the design phase, the project team carefully considers the nonfunctional business requirements (such as performance, cultural and political aspects).

Ans: True Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium 60. In the analysis phase, architecture decisions are made and written up in the ‗hardware and software specifications‘.

Ans: False Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium

61. A reason to use custom development is to get exactly what you want?

Ans: True Response: System Acquisition Strategies (Figure 6-3) Difficulty: easy

62. A reason to use a packaged software solution is when there is no need to ―reinvent the wheel‖

Ans: True Response: System Acquisition Strategies (Figure 6-3) Difficulty: easy

63. If the expertise needed to build a system are not readily available that is a good reason to buy a packaged software solution.

Ans: False Response: System Acquisition Strategies (Figure 6-3) Difficulty: medium

64. Backlogs and backlog creation are a CON when discussing custom development

Ans: True Response: System Acquisition Strategies (Figure 6-3) Difficulty: medium

Essay: 65. At the end of the design phase, there is a document named the system specification that describes the different design documents and their uses. What is the consolidated purpose of this deliverable and why is it important?

Answer At the end of the design phase, the project team creates the final deliverable for the phase called the system specification. This document contains all of the design documents just described: physical process models, physical data model, architecture design, hardware and software specification, interface design, data storage design, and program design. Collectively, the system specification conveys exactly what system the project team will implement during the implementation phase of the SDLC. Response: Transition from Requirements to Design Difficulty: medium

66.

What types of influences are there on determining the type of installation to pursue with relation to resources and the acquisition of a new system?

Answer When considering a new system, there are five different items to consider.

First, one must consider the business need. Is it unique? Is it able to be solved with simple packaged software? Is the need core to our system? This will influence the project strategy as a whole and determine the overall expense of the project.

Second, in-house experience will determine whether or not there is enough skill located within the current set of employees to manufacture the desired outcome.

Third, project skills: do we have the ability to learn this with our programmers or will we need to outsource programmers to assist us?

Fourth, project management, can we complete the task with our current management team or will we need consultants to assist us in completing the task?

Fifth, how much time do we have? Will we be able to complete the project quickly or are we on a tight time budget? Will we need additional manpower to push the project through?

Response: Business Need (Figure 6-5) Difficulty: medium

67. What are the three acquisition strategies? Describe them.

Answer Custom development, packaged software, and outsourcing are the three acquisition strategies.

Custom development utilizes the project team‘s skills in creating a ground-up software solution.

This is often the most time consuming and demanding on in-house resources. This is a great alternative if the nature of the project is conducive to the skills already present in-house and the need is core to the business itself.

Packaged software is by far the fastest of the implementation strategies. This option is when the acquisition team installs a pre-written packaged software solution into its current IT configuration. Often times, workarounds are required to intertwine the systems; however, this takes the bulk of the programming out of the equation and doesn‘t completely remove the programmers from their everyday tasks for as long as a custom development strategy.

Outsourcing utilizes external programmers and engineers. This is often expensive if the terms of the contract are not laid out clearly and accurately in the beginning. In an ideal situation, external programmers can be brought in-house so they may educate the current team for future projects. If this is not an alternative and time is of the essence, exporting the responsibilities to an external vendor can expedite the process of programming. A significant downside to outsourcing is that your system is exposed to the outside vendor‘s staff, which can be a security concern if the system data and/or processes are mission-critical or of a sensitive nature.

Response: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: medium

68. Jeff is an analyst. The human resources department is very unhappy with their payroll package. They want the information systems department to write them a new package as they think they have unique needs that can‘t be meet with a packaged solution. What should Jeff do?

Answer Payroll is a very common application and there are many good payroll programs on the market.

Jeff really needs to understand what the problems with the current package are. Is it old (i.e. only runs on a mainframe system)? What functions does HR want to do that the package does not support? In that payroll information must be reported to state and federal officials for tax reasons, it probably does‘t make sense to write a complete package but to find one that meets HR needs. After a detailed investigation, it may be best to create either an RPI or RPQ to get additional information and bids from potential vendors.

Response: System Acquisition Strategies Difficulty: medium

69. NewTechSystems has contracted with a well-known regional consulting company (RCC). In the original contract, the agreement was for time-and-arrangements, but lately it seems like there are excessive time amounts and excessive arrangements. Sometimes what seems minor to NewTechSystems with an estimated time of under 2 hours takes RCC 20 hours. What discussions need to take place?

Answer It would seem like RCC either has (a) slow, inept people handling this account; (b) found errors that escaped NewTechSystems view; (c) is ‗milking‘ NewTechSystems for more money and being unethical. NewTechSystems needs to fully review the arrangement with RCC and review the work that is billed. Is the work needed and legitimate? A high-level meeting with NewTechSystems and Regional Consulting Company is needed now.

Response: Outsourcing Difficulty: medium

Multiple Choice 1. Designing an architecture can be what? a. Tedious and therefore younger members of the team are usually urged to take the lead. b. Easy and therefore more experienced members of the department take the lead. c. Easy and therefore outside consultants are often sourced to do the task. d. Easy and therefore experienced internal members are sourced to the task. e. Difficult and therefore, many organizations use the skills of experienced, expert system architects (consultants or employees) who specialize in the task.

Ans: e Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Medium

2. The objective of architecture design is to determine what? a. How aesthetically pleasing the server system will be b. What parts of the application software will be assigned to what hardware c. How the computers will be arranged to provide ample storage d. Where the mainframe will be situated e. None of these Ans: b Reference: Elements of an Architecture Design Difficulty: Medium

3. The major architectural components of any system are the what? a. IT Department b. Hardware

c. Software d. IT Department and Hardware e. Hardware and Software Ans: e Reference: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

4. Software systems can be divided into how many basic functions? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 Ans: d Reference: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

5. There are _____ primary hardware components of a system. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 Ans: c Reference: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

6. The primary hardware components of a system consist of: a. Client Computers b. Servers c. Network d. Client Computers and Servers e. Client Computers, Servers, and Network Ans: e Reference: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

7. Form(s) of network connection(s) in a system include: a. ATM b. T2 c. DSL d. ATM and DSL e. T2 and DSL Ans: d Reference: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

8. Server-based architecture is: a. When the clients capture keystrokes b. The very first architecture system c. Outdated and never used d. When the clients capture keystrokes and the very first architecture system e. When the clients capture keystrokes, the very first architecture system and outdated and never used Ans: d Reference: Server Based Architecture Difficulty: Medium

9. Mobile application architectures are where the: a. Client devise is responsible for presentation logic b. Client devise is responsible for business logic c. The server is responsible for data access logic d. The server stores the data e. All of these Ans: e Reference: Mobile Application Architecture Difficulty: Medium

10. Client-server architecture holds the client responsible for_____ and server is only responsible for _____. a. Application Logic; Presentation Logic b. Presentation Logic; Data Access Logic and Data Storage c. Data Access Logic and Presentation Logic; Data Storage d. Application Logic; Data Storage e. Data Storage; Application Logic Ans: b Reference: Client-Server Architecture Difficulty: Hard

11. Thick clients contain what? a. Enormous storage abilities b. Almost all or most of the application logic c. Almost none or less than half of the application logic d. Almost all of the data logic e. None of these Ans: b Reference: Client-Server Architecture Difficulty: Medium

12. Which of the following is an advantage of client-server architectures? a. They are scalable b. They can support different types of systems c. It is easy to separate different logic functions d. Reliability e. All of these Ans: e Reference: Client-Server Architecture Difficulty: Medium

13. How many advantages are client-server based architectures known for? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 7 Ans: c Reference: Client-Server Architecture Difficulty: Medium

14. An n-tiered architecture is distinguished by: a. The number of drives installed b. The number of logics on the local server c. The number of terminals on the network d. The number of specialized server computers e. None of these Ans: d Reference: Client-Server Tiers Difficulty: Medium

15. What is/are the disadvantage(s) associated with n-tiered architecture? a. Great load on the network b. When the clients capture keystrokes and the very first architecture system c. They are always slower d. When the clients capture keystrokes and the very first architecture system and they are always slower e. Great load on the network and it is more difficult to program and test software Ans: e Reference: Client-Server Tiers Difficulty: Medium

16. The cost of development associated with Client-Based systems is: a. Low b. Low-Medium c. High-medium d. High e. Very High Ans: a Reference: Comparing Architecture Options Difficulty: Medium

17. The scalability associated with Client-Server systems is: a. Low b. Low-Medium c. High-medium d. High e. Very High Ans: d Reference: Comparing Architecture Options Difficulty: Medium

18. Project teams often _________ the ________ associated with creating secure, efficient clientserver applications. a. Overestimate; Difficulty b. Overestimate; Simplicity c. Underestimate; Difficulty d. Underestimate; Simplicity e. None of these Ans: c Reference: Comparing Architecture Options Difficulty: Medium

19. An example of a capacity requirement would be: a. Transmissions require 300K of data b. The systems uptime will be 99% c. Response time must be <2.8 seconds for any transactions d. The inventory database will be updated in real time e. None of these Ans: a Reference: Performance Requirements Difficulty: Medium

20. A sample access control requirement would be what? a. Customer service reps can modify customer files but not delete them b. Data will be encrypted for secure ordering c. All uploaded files will be checked for viruses d. The system will cost $38,900 per minute of downtime in lost revenues e. None of these Ans: a Reference: Security Requirements Difficulty: Medium

21. DES is an example of what? a. Asymmetric Encryption Algorithm b. Symmetric Encryption Algorithm c. Bi-Adjusted Encryption Algorithm d. Dynamic Encryption System e. Alternative Systems Security Algorithms Ans: b Reference: Security Requirements Difficulty: hard

22. The term in the computing domain which refers to the creation of devices or storage with the use of software and not hardware is what? a. Encryption b. Virtualization c. Dynamic Creation d. Alternative Devises e. None of these Ans: b Reference: Advances in Architecture Configuration Difficulty: medium

23. Server virtualization involves what? a. Partitioning a physical server into smaller virtual servers b. Stacking blade servers c. Using a laptop as a server d. All of these Ans: a Reference: Advances in Architecture Configuration Difficulty: easy

24. An example of a multilingual requirement is what? a. The system will operate in English, French and Spanish b. Country managers can define custom fields c. All date fields will be presented in a uniform format d. Personal information about English customers cannot be sent to Chinese systems e. Country managers are able to change telephone number formats Ans: a Reference: Cultural and Political Requirements Difficulty: easy

25. Operational requirements of a system include all of the following, except: a. System Integration Requirements b. Technical Environment Requirements c. Portability Requirements d. Scalability Requirements e. Maintainability Requirements Ans: d Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: medium

26. Special hardware, software, and network requirements imposed by business requirements. a. System Integration Requirements b. Technical Environment Requirements c. Portability Requirements d. Scalability Requirements e. Maintainability Requirements Ans: b Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: medium

27. The extent to which the system will operate with other systems. a. System Integration Requirements b. Technical Environment Requirements c. Portability Requirements d. Scalability Requirements e. Maintainability Requirements Ans: a Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: medium

28. The extent to which the system will need to operate in other environments. a. System Integration Requirements b. Technical Environment Requirements c. Portability Requirements d. Scalability Requirements e. Maintainability Requirements Ans: c Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: medium

29. Expected business changes to which the system should be able to adapt. a. System Integration Requirements b. Technical Environment Requirements c. Portability Requirements d. Scalability Requirements e. Maintainability Requirements Ans: e Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: medium

True/False 30. The objective of architecture design is to determine how the software components of the information system will be assigned to the hardware devices of the system.

Ans: True Reference: Elements of an Architecture Design Difficulty: easy

31. The architectural components of any system are the network and the hardware.

Ans: False Reference: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

32. Data storage, Data Access Logic, Application Logic and Presentation Logic are the four basic functions of software systems.

Ans: True Response: Architectural Components Difficulty: easy

33. Client computers, Servers, and Networks are the three primary hardware components of a system.

Ans: True Response: Architectural Components Difficulty: easy

34. An ATM dialing a network provides the IT department with a quick cash withdrawal for emergency purposes.

Ans: False Response: Architectural Components Difficulty: Medium

35. Client-based architecture is complex and there is minimal chance of network circuits being overloaded due to growing network applications.

Ans: False Reference: Client-Server Architectures Difficulty: Medium

36. There are three advantages associated with client-server architecture.

Ans: False Reference: Client-Server Architecture Difficulty: Medium

37. There are four advantages associated with client-server architecture.

Ans: True Response: Client-Server Architecture Difficulty: Medium

38. Server-based architecture is more secure than client-based architecture.

Ans: True Reference: Designing the Architecture Difficulty: hard

39. Server-based architecture is not more secure than client-based architecture.

Ans: False Reference: Designing the Architecture Difficulty: hard

40. Client-server scalability is less than server-based scalability.

Ans: False Reference: Designing the Architecture Difficulty: hard

41. Client-server scalability is greater than server-based scalability.

Ans: True Reference: Designing the Architecture Difficulty: hard

42. An example of an asymmetric encryption algorithm is public key encryption.

Ans: True Reference: Security Requirements Difficulty: Medium

43. An example of a cultural requirement would be offering the system in English and Spanish.

Ans: True Reference: Cultural and Political Requirements Difficulty: easy

44. An example of making an unstated norm explicit would be to make a field modifiable by a manager to represent the local format.

Ans: False Reference: Cultural and Political Requirements Difficulty: Medium

45. An example of making an unstated norm explicit would be to make an input field explicitly defined, such as a date will use month-day-year format.

Ans: True Reference: Cultural and Political Requirements Difficulty: Medium

46. It is not uncommon for the cost of a power disruption to be hundreds or thousands of times the cost of failed components.

Ans: True Reference: Concepts in Action: 8D Power Outage Costs A Million Dollars Difficulty: Medium

47. The design phase is the time to select the specific software that will operate the hardware.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

48. Technical Environment Requirements can be defined as special hardware, software, and network requirements imposed by business requirements Ans: True Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: easy

49. System Integration Requirements can be defined as the extent to which the system will need to operate in other environments.

Ans: False Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: easy

50. Portability Requirements can be defined as the extent to which the system will need to operate in other environments.

Ans: True Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: easy

51. Maintainability Requirements can be defined as the extent to which the system will need to operate in other environments.

Ans: False Reference: Operational Requirements (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: easy

52. Maintainability Requirements can be defined as expected business changes to which the system should be able to adapt.

Ans: True Reference: Operational Requirement (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: easy

53. System Integration Requirements can be defined as the extent to which the system will operate with other systems.

Ans: True Reference: Operational Requirement (Figure 7-5) Difficulty: easy

Short Answer/Essay 54. There are three basic application architectures discussed in the chapter, each one having its distinctive attributes. Identify the four types of architectures that emerge from these three application architectures and provide a short explanation of each, along with key advantages and disadvantages. The four general architectures commonly utilized are server-based, clientbased, client-server, and client-server tier architectures.

Answer The server-based architecture is the original and most basic of the four. It allows a server to handle all four functions of software systems which are data storage, data access logic, application logic and presentation logic. The shortcoming of this architecture design is its lack of scalability and high network demands on the central mainframe.

The client-based architecture is another simple architecture that is quite stable. This system handles the distribution of data access, application, and presentation logic by distributing the responsibilities amongst the client and server computers. The client computer (terminal) handles the presentation logic, application logic and the data access logic. The server is simply a storage unit where data is dumped and accessed. The shortcoming with this system is as the network demands grow, network circuits can become quite overburdened and slowed dramatically as the traffic increases.

The client-server architecture is a step ahead of the previous examples in that it distributes the processing responsibilities amongst the systems to minimize the resources each individual process takes up. The client computer (terminal) is responsible for managing the presentation logic and sometimes the application logic while the server handles data access logic, storage logic and occasionally (when not handled by the terminal) the application logic. While these server systems are advanced, they are also complex and difficult to maintain. Client-server architecture systems require a vast knowledge of both the terminal systems and the server systems, often times requiring outside resources to be utilized in the maintenance of the system.

Client-server tiers represent an extension of the client-server architecture by further separating the responsibility for system functions amongst multiple, specialized servers. For instance, many current generation web-based e-commerce solutions utilize a client to handle the presentation logic (web browser), a web server to handle the web-related business logic, an application server to handle order processing logic, and a database server to handle database-related tasks. The primary advantage of such n-tiered architectures is the promise of better load balancing amongst the various system components. However, the n-tiered architecture places a greater load on the network and is more difficult to program and test.

55. Describe the difference between a thick and a thin client.

Answer Thick and thin clients are found in client-server applications and they are categorized as thick or thin based on the proportion of application logic stored on the client terminal. Thick, or sometimes referred to as fat, clients are those that house a majority of the application logic.

Thin clients are those where the majority of the systems‘ application logic is stored on the server.

56. Anthony is an entrepreneur of the e-commerce sort. He has asked Computers International, Inc. to develop a functional and fundamental system that will enable him to conduct business within the confines of the United States. He has asked CI, Inc. to develop a system where he wishes to: avoid opening a bricks-and-mortar storefront (incidentally that means solely internet based), be able to export files and data to Microsoft Excel spreadsheets where he can create presentations for future investors, access his files from his PDA or Blackberry from the road and have a rather stable maintenance record for minimal downtime and his avid anticipation for growth. What operational requirements are needed and why?

Answer Computers International should reply to Anthony by offering him a system that will operate off of a client-server architecture which will allow the computing needs of his whole firm to be run by both the client and the customer terminals. Additionally, his technical requirements are such that his system can present the data to a multitude of operating systems and web browsers. Anthony also has integration requirements with Microsoft Excel where he will be able to offload data in the form of a comma-separated values (CSV) document or the like to maintain compatibility with a multitude of bundled software packages. His portability requirements specify that he will need to access his data from the road via a portable web browser and his maintainability requirements specify that he wishes to minimize downtime and allow for his anticipated growth not to outpace his initial investment.

57. Joseph is an IT director at a large multinational, multibillion dollar-a-year corporation that is responsible for the distribution of highly specialized and often times custom parts. He has been charged with creating a hardware profile to dictate the performance requirements of the company‘s next mainframe system. Acting as a consultant to Joe, what kinds of performance requirements are important to develop an appropriate hardware profile? What are the key issues for each of these requirements that could be recommended to the corporation‘s CTO. Answer Joe should primarily be concerned with speed, capacity, availability, and reliability requirements.

He should be concerned with the speed of his network due to the international order fulfillment aspect of the firm. Also, due to the nature of the manufacturing system (custom and unique parts), there will be a tremendous number of orders generated which will further add to the bandwidth usage that will need to be handled by the system. Additionally, Joe needs to take into account the number of order transmissions made internally to the machining shop and automated machinery.

In so far as capacity, Joe should also be concerned with server space available to store the individual orders for whatever specific period of time the company sees fit. In addition, he needs to consider the total number of users needing to log in and access the ERP system at any given moment. If he does not consider the number of individuals and terminals logging into the system, he will end up with a bandwidth shortage as well as interrupted usage due to server overuse.

Finally, availability and reliability will be determined by the service hours offered by the sales team to the firm‘s customers. However, there must also be a certain number of hours allowed for maintenance and upgrades each month. Due to the international time zones, most likely downtime will take place at odd hours of the morning on days that do not normally incur tremendous call volume and order processing.

58. BioFoods International is concerned with providing low cost foods to nations that cannot afford the wholesome and nutritional foods that are so common in more developed countries.

BioFoods International is adopting a new computer system that will enable our international managers to place orders with us directly, ensuring accurate and fulfilling orders to each of our constituents. What types of cultural requirements should be considered in acquiring this new system?

Answer BioFoods International should consider having a system that is multilingual, customizable, and meets legal requirements in the countries where they operate. Additionally, they should make unstated norms explicit within their system as to maintain order and to remain within the acquisition ability of the firm to avoid erroneous orders.

Multiple Choice 1. Which is NOT true about the content awareness design principle? a) A date of 8/6/09 will be understood internationally b) Drawing boxes around related items (like name / address / city / state / zip) will help users c) Field labels should be fairly short, yet with long enough so that users can not be confused d) Input fields should follow a logical progression that is familiar to users e) All printed forms should have version numbers for better control Ans: a Response: Content Awareness Difficulty: medium 2. Approximately what percent of men are color blind (and thus improper use of color can impair their ability to read information) a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20% e) More than 20% Ans: b Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

3. Some systems that are used infrequently should probably emphasize: a) Ease of learning b) Higher user flexibility c) Ease of use d) More short-cut keys and built in keyboard functions e) Organizational feasibility Ans: a Response: Usage Level Difficulty: medium

4. Which of the following might be a good choice of an icon for saving on a user interface? a) A piggy bank b) A dollar sign c) A computer diskette d) A hard drive image e) A green ―S‖ Ans: c Response: Consistency Difficulty: medium 5. When implementing the ‗minimize user effort‘ factor, most interface designers follow what rule? a) Two-clicks rule b) Three-clicks rule c) Four-clicks rule d) User Experience rule e) The menu option rule Ans: b Response: Principles for User Interface Design Difficulty: medium

6. Typically, the first step in the user interface design process is what? a) Design interface standards b) Creating an interface design prototype c) Do an interface evaluation d) Examine DFDs and use cases to develop use scenarios e) Develop the interface structure diagram (ISD) Ans: d Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: hard

7. Typically, the second step in the user interface design process is what? a) Design interface standards b) Creating an interface design prototype c) Do an interface evaluation d) Examine DFDs and use cases to develop use scenarios e) Develop the interface structure diagram (ISD) Ans: e Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: hard

8. Typically, the third step in the user interface design process is what? a) Design interface standards b) Creating an interface design prototype c) Do an interface evaluation d) Examine DFDs and use cases to develop use scenarios e) Develop the interface structure diagram (ISD) Ans: a Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: hard

9. Typically, the fourth step in the user interface design process is what? a) Design interface standards b) Creating an interface design prototype c) Do an interface evaluation d) Examine DFDs and use cases to develop use scenarios e) Develop the interface structure diagram (ISD) Ans: b Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: hard

10. Typically, the fifth step in the user interface design process is what? a) Design interface standards b) Creating an interface design prototype c) Do an interface evaluation d) Examine DFDs and use cases to develop use scenarios e) Develop the interface structure diagram (ISD) Ans: c Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: hard

11. Interface evaluations almost always do what? a) Identify improvements b) Are conducted with other analysts in a structured walkthrough c) Find coding errors d) Are part of the training and implementation process e) Cause additional scope creep in the project Ans: a Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: medium

12. Which is generally NOT true for interface evaluations? a) It is iterative b) It almost always identifies improvements c) It generally involves users working with analysts d) It is cyclic e) It is built on ERDs Ans: e Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: medium

13. This is an outline of the steps that the users perform to accomplish some part of their work. a) Step walkthrough b) User design flow c) Use scenario d) Process model e) Layout verification Ans: c Response: Understand the Users Difficulty: medium

14. Use scenarios builds upon what? a) Entity relationship diagrams b) JAD sessions c) PERT charts d) Use cases e) HIPO charts Ans: d Response: Understand the Users Difficulty: medium

15. A use scenario is one commonly used what? a) Path through a use case b) Normalized ERD structure c) Context diagram d) Buy-in flowchart e) Throwaway prototyping tool Ans: a Response: Understand the Users Difficulty: medium

16. This defines the basic components of the interface and how they work together to provide functionality to users. a) User Scenario plan b) Layout schema c) Consistency structure design d) Interface structure design e) Completeness diagrams Ans: d Response: Organize the Interface Difficulty: medium

17. In Use Scenario Development, the goal is: a) To describe all possible use scenarios within a use case b) To describe the most commonly occurring use scenarios c) To accurately model all possible DFDs d) To give complex and complete narrative descriptions of all scenarios e) To effectively model all data flows and data models Ans: b Response: Understand the Users Difficulty: medium

18. This defines the basic components of the interface and how they work together to provide functionality to users. a) Use Scenario Design b) Interface Standards Design c) Interface Metaphor d) Interface Structure Design e) Interface Template Design Ans: d Response: Organize the Interface Difficulty: hard

19. The objective of an interface evaluation is what? a) To measure the processing speed of an interface design b) To determine the database processing requirements for an interface c) To understand how to improve the interface design d) To get users input on colors, menu names and flexibility e) To determine if all use cases and ERDs have been built into the interface Ans: c Response: Interface Evaluation/Testing Difficulty: medium

20. Which of the following is NOT a common Interface Evaluation technique? a) Interactive evaluation b) Walk-through evaluation c) Heuristic evaluation d) Use scenario normalization e) Formal usability testing Ans: d Response: Interface Evaluation/Testing Difficulty: hard

21. When designing navigational controls, which is NOT commonly assumed? a) That users have not read the manual b) That users have not attended training c) That users do not have help readily at hand d) That users have knowledge of the system and the interface e) That users have not read the documentation Ans: d Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium

22. The first principle of designing navigation controls is what? a) It was tough to build, it should be tough to use b) Users have attended training c) To prevent users from making mistakes d) See that all screens can be reached in the four-click rule e) Build appropriate icons (like a blank page for new document or form) Ans: c Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium

23. Which of the following is NOT a suggestion for preventing mistakes? a) Label commands and actions appropriately b) Place menu items in alphabetical order c) Limiting choices d) Gray-out commands that cannot be used e) Create secondary menus when there are many similar choices on a menu Ans: b Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium

24. One strong suggestion for navigation design is what? a) Limit menu items to at most ten items b) Color code common menu items with green (go) and red (stop) c) Simplify recovery from mistakes (like having an undo button) d) Lock the user‘s computer when a mistake has been made e) Log all mistakes, and log the user‘s computer when 1000 mistakes have been made Ans: c Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium

25. It is better to make menus how? a) Broad and shallow b) Narrow and deep c) Broad and deep d) Narrow and shallow e) Wide and tall Ans: a Response: Menu Tips Difficulty: medium

26. This is used when several fields must be entered before the form can be processed. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Check digit check e) Consistency check Ans: a Response: Input Validation Difficulty: medium

27. This is used when fields are numeric or contain coded data. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Check digit check e) Consistency check Ans: b Response: Input Validation Difficulty: medium

28. This is used when you want to verify that data fits within correct minimum and maximum values. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Check digit check e) Consistency check Ans: c Response: Input Validation Difficulty: medium

29. This is used when an extra digit is added to a coded field to make sure it the entered data is correct (like Social Security numbers). a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Check digit check e) Consistency check Ans: d Response: Input Validation Difficulty: medium

30. This is used when all combinations of data are valid (like birth year is prior to marriage year). a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Check digit check e) Consistency check Ans: e Response: Input Validation Difficulty: medium

31. There are many types of reports, they include which of the following? a) Summary reports b) Exception reports c) Turnaround documents d) Graphs e) All of these are outputs Ans: e Response: Types of Output Difficulty: easy

32. This report is used when a user needs brief information on many items. a) Detail Report b) Turnaround document c) Exception report d) Summary report e) Consistency check Ans: d Response: Types of Output (Figure 8-22) Difficulty: medium 33. This output is poor at helping users recognize precise numeric values and should be replaced by tables when precision is important. a) Detail report b) Summary report c) Graphs d) Turnaround document e) None are poor Ans: c Response: Types of Output (Figure 8-22) Difficulty: medium

34. The following is used as a main menu for a system. a) Menu bar b) Drop-down menu c) Hyperlink menu d) Pop-up menu e) Tab menu Ans: a Response: Types of Menus (Figure 8-16) Difficulty: easy

35. The following is used as a second-level menu, often from a menu bar. a) Menu bar b) Drop-down menu c) Hyperlink menu d) Pop-up menu e) Tab menu Ans: b Response: Types of Menus (Figure 8-16) Difficulty: easy

36. The following is used as a main menu for a Web-based system. a) Menu bar b) Drop-down menu c) Hyperlink menu d) Pop-up menu e) Tab menu Ans: c Response: Types of Menus (Figure 8-16) Difficulty: easy

37. The following is used as a shortcut to commands for experienced users. a) Menu bar b) Drop-down menu c) Hyperlink menu d) Pop-up menu e) Tab menu Ans: d Response: Types of Menus (Figure 8-16) Difficulty: easy

38. The following is used when the user needs to change several settings or perform several related commands. a) Menu bar b) Drop-down menu c) Hyperlink menu d) Pop-up menu e) Tab menu Ans: e Response: Types of Menus (Figure 8-16) Difficulty: easy

39. Informs the user that he or she has attempted to do something to which the system cannot respond. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: a Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

40. Asks the user to verify that he or she really wants to perform the action selected. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: b Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

41. Informs the user that the system has accomplished what it was asked to do. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: c Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

42. Informs the user that the computer system is working properly to perform a task that may take several seconds. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: d Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

43. Provides additional information about the system and its components. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: e Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

44. Used when user does something that is not permitted or not possible. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: a Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

45. Used when user selects a potentially dangerous choice, such as deleting a file. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: b Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

46. Seldom or never used. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: c Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

47. Used when an activity takes more than seven seconds. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: d Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

48. Used in all systems. a) Error message b) Confirmation message c) Acknowledgment message d) Delay message e) Help message Ans: e Response: Types of Messages (Figure 8-17) Difficulty: easy

49. Presents a complete list of choices, each with a square box in front. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: a Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

50. Presents a complete list of mutually exclusive choices, each with a circle in front. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: b Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

51. Presents a list of choices in a box. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: c Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

52. Displays selected item in one-line box that opens to reveal list of choices. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: d Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

53. Scroll arrows moves directionally through numeric range. a) Up-down numeric control b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: a Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

54. A special type of drop-down list box that permits user to type as well as scroll the list. a) Up-down numeric control b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: e Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

55. Used when several items can be selected from a list of items. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: a Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

56. Used when only one item can be selected from a set of mutually exclusive items. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: b Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

57. Used seldom or never—only if there is insufficient room for check boxes or radio buttons a) Up-down numeric control b) Half-sized radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: c Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

58. Used when there is insufficient room to display all choices. a) Check box selection list b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: d Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

59. Used as a shortcut for experienced Users. a) Up-down numeric control b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: e Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

60. Used when entering a numeric value. a) Up-down numeric control b) Radio button selection list c) On-screen selection list d) Drop-down selection list e) Combo box selection list Ans: a Response: Types of Selection Controls (Figure 8-19) Difficulty: easy

61. Ensures that all required data have been entered. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Consistency checks e) Database checks Ans: a Response: Types of Input Validation (Figure 8-20) Difficulty: easy

62. Ensures that data are of the right type (e.g., numeric) and in the right format (e.g., month, day, year). a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Consistency checks e) Database checks Ans: b Response: Types of Input Validation (Figure 8-20) Difficulty: easy

63. Ensures that numeric data are within correct minimum and maximum values. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Consistency checks e) Database checks Ans: c Response: Types of Input Validation (Figure 8-20) Difficulty: easy

64. Ensure that combinations of data are valid. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Consistency checks e) Database checks Ans: d Response: Types of Input Validation (Figure 8-20) Difficulty: easy

65. Compare data against a data base (or file) to ensure that they are correct. a) Completeness check b) Format check c) Range check d) Consistency checks e) Database checks Ans: e Response: Types of Input Validation (Figure 8-20) Difficulty: easy

True / False 66. Forms should have version numbers so that users, analysts and programmers can identify outdated materials.

Ans: True Response: Content Awareness Difficulty: medium

67. Aesthetics refers to designing information that can be navigated in three-clicks or less.

Ans: False Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

68. Space is generally at a premium on forms and reports, thus squeezing information onto forms is considered a wise business decision.

Ans: False Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

69. If the density on a single page form is too high, it might not be as effective for some users as creating a two-page form.

Ans: True Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

70. Novice or infrequent users of an interface (both paper and screen) prefer interfaces with low density like under 25%.

Ans: False Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

71. Generally, headings on a paper form should be with Arial size 24 bold; the main text should be Times New Roman size 12. Subheadings should be Tahoma size 14, bold and italic and underlined. This makes a form easier to read and to delineate sections.

Ans: False Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium 72. Omar has designed a paper form using ‗sans serif‘ fonts and for his screen (or web) forms he has used ‗serif‘ fonts. He is exercising good user interface design practices.

Ans: False Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

73. For screen forms and reports, you should use a font of at least size 12.

Ans: True Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

74. Colors and patterns add pizzazz to a screen form and aid in its readability.

Ans: False Response: Aesthetics Difficulty: medium

75. User experience refers to minimizing the number of clicks or commands to go from one field to another.

Ans: False Response: Principles for User Interface Design Difficulty: medium 76. Infrequent users prefer user interfaces with ‗ease of learning‘ features (like more explicit menu choices, clear directions).

Ans: True Response: Usage Level Difficulty: medium

77. Experienced users prefer user interfaces with ‗ease of learning‘ features.

Ans: False Response: Usage Level Difficulty: medium

78. If a particular form or screen is used by a cadre of experienced users very frequently (like an accounting entry system), ‗ease of use‘ should be a high priority on these system interfaces.

Ans: True Response: Usage Level Difficulty: medium

79. Bob is designing input screens for a re-designed system for the shipping and inventory department. For order forms, he puts Zip code first (as the database will take the zip code and look up the city and state); for receiving forms, he puts them in the order of city, then state, then zip code. His design choices will help experienced users be more productive.

Ans: False Response: Consistency Difficulty: medium

80. At least one study suggests that some variation be appropriate in user interface design as the study suggests that when all forms tend to look the same, it can be confusing to some users.

Ans: True Response: Consistency Difficulty: medium

81. User interface design is a three-step process: (1) analyze the DFDs and use cases; (2) develop the interface diagrams; and (3) create the interface design prototype.

Ans: False Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: medium

82. When creating user interfaces, analysts should examine DFDs and use cases to see how users commonly perform various processes.

Ans: True Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: medium

83. Michelle is designing a series of user interfaces for a CRM system. She goes back and forth between various steps of use cases, DFDs, ERDs and JAD session notes.

Ans: False Response: User Interface Design Process Difficulty: hard

84. Mike is the analyst creating a report. It is easy for him to unintentionally create a biased report.

Ans: True Response: Output Design Difficulty: easy

85. Bias can be introduced into a report by the way in which lists of data are sorted.

Ans: True Response: Output Design Difficulty: easy

86. Interface Structure Design defines the application coding structure used (such as developing prototypes in Visual Basic).

Ans: False Response: Organize the Interface Difficulty: medium

87. Interface Structures cannot directly interface with other interface structures on other menus and submenus, only the interface structures on the same menu or submenu.

Ans: False Response: Organize the Interface Difficulty: hard

88. The first principle of designing navigational controls is to prevent users from making mistakes.

Ans: True Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium

89. When creating navigational controls, you should either not display a command that cannot be used or ‗gray‘ it out (where it shows, but cannot be used).

Ans: True Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium 90. Jamal is creating a user interface. He wants what he calls an ‗oops‘ button on every screen and form (or an ‗undo‘ button). This is a good design consideration.

Ans: True Response: Navigation Design Difficulty: medium

91. Research shows that in an ideal world a menu should contain no more than four items and submenus should contain no fewer than six items.

Ans: False Response: Menu Tips Difficulty: medium

92. Range checks will validate if the data is numeric with two decimal places.

Ans: False Response: Output Design (Figure 8-20) Difficulty: medium

Essays 93. United Pharmacy is a major pharmaceutical company in Mobile Alabama. They want to go ‗on-line‘ with an e-commerce pharmacy. Obviously, a lot of time and effort has gone into planning and analysis. They are working on the web user interface currently. They are considering the standard ‗shopping cart‘ icon and metaphor. What others might they consider?

Answer Answers will vary. The advantage of the shopping cart icon / metaphor is that it is more-andmore a standard in the e-commerce area. They might consider a shopping ‗bag‘, a ‗box‘ or some other alternative, but users have come to expect a shopping ‗cart‘.

Response: Define Standards Difficulty: medium

94. United Pharmacy is a major pharmaceutical company in Mobile Alabama. They want to go ‗on-line‘ with an e-commerce pharmacy. For patients ordering medications online, they need to capture the medication name (like Zocor). Why should they NOT use a text box for this?

Answer Text boxes could lead to strange spellings (especially for drug names that might be hard to spell).

The best might be for the patient to indicate what the medicine is for (like cholesterol or high blood pressure) and then take them to a screen with all the various medications for that problem (so all cholesterol medicines would be listed). It might be good to have a combo box as a doctor might prescribe some new medication (that is not on the list-box menu).

Response: Entering Text Difficulty: hard

95. On the United Pharmacy online prescription system, the users want to build in some safeguards (like the user‘s order too large of a quantity). If a user orders (say) 500 pills of a prescription, and the limit is 100, what kinds of processing might occur?

Answer To handle an error like this, an error message should occur (like indicating that the maximum quantity is 100, a code (for potential debugging) is listed and the user needs to check an ―ok‖ button to acknowledge the error. After the message clears, the prompt should be back in the order quantity area.

Response: Message Tips Difficulty: medium

96. Roger has coded an error message for the online prescription ordering system for United Pharmacy. His message has tried to be ‗light‘ and says ―Hey – you can‘t do that – go back and change the quantity ordered‖. Is this a good error message? Why or why not?

Answer No, that is not a good error message; humor should be either avoided or used sparingly. His message should be clearer.

Response: Message Tips Difficulty: medium

97. An accountant likes to check a lot of specific accounts and records. What type of report might work best here – and why?

Ans: Detailed report – all records (or appropriate records) Response: Types of Outputs Difficulty: easy

98. The online prescription order system for United Pharmacy has over twenty different forms and screens. What might be the most important design factor – and why?

Answer Consistency is the main key here. With several forms and screen, users will want common navigation options, status lines, indications of where data is to be entered, common layout, and overall consistency in all items. (Also ease of learning.)

Response: Consistency Difficulty: medium

99. Research has shown that many detailed paper reports are not read thoroughly, not read at all, or only scanned. What should analysts do to verify the use of output reports?

Answer Analysts should work closely with users to understand their information need. If a detailed report is used daily (observation might help), then a detailed report would be good; if a report is only scanned, maybe a summary report would work best.

Response: Types of Outputs Difficulty: medium

100.

The payroll adjustment system is only used by experienced payroll clerks. In terms of the user interface design, what principles might be affected such a system?

Answer The user experience principle would point towards ―ease of use‖, with various short-cuts provided to enable ‗speed use‘ of the forms and systems.

Response: Principles for User Interface Design Difficulty: medium

Multiple Choice

1. The first step in creating a Physical Data Flow Diagram is what? a) Update the metadata in the CASE repository b) Draw a human-machine boundary c) Add implementation references d) Add system-related data stores, data flows and processes e) Update the data elements in the data flows Ans: c Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

2. The second step in creating a Physical Data Flow Diagram is what? a) Update the metadata in the CASE repository b) Draw a human-machine boundary c) Add implementation references d) Add system-related data stores, data flows and processes e) Update the data elements in the data flows Ans: b Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

3. The third step in creating a Physical Data Flow Diagram is what? a) Update the metadata in the CASE repository b) Draw a human-machine boundary c) Add implementation references d) Add system-related data stores, data flows, and processes e) Update the data elements in the data flows Ans: d

Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

4. The fourth step in creating a Physical Data Flow Diagram is what? a) Update the metadata in the CASE repository b) Draw a human-machine boundary c) Add implementation references d) Add system-related data stores, data flows and processes e) Update the data elements in the data flows Ans: e Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

5. The fifth step in creating a Physical Data Flow Diagram is what? a) Update the metadata in the CASE repository b) Draw a human-machine boundary c) Add implementation references d) Add system-related data stores, data flows and processes e) Update the data elements in the data flows Ans: a Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

6. The Human-Machine Boundary is what? a) Is the keyboard and screen b) Builds on research in ergonometric c) Is a line drawn on the physical DFD to separate human action from automated processes d) Is a part of developing the HCI interface e) Separates where manual processes are separated by human completed processes Ans: c Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

7. In most automated cases, data stores from logical DFDs will be converted to what? a) Binary tables b) DVD disks c) A thumb drive d) Into database files / tables e) Encrypted hexadecimal values Ans: d Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

8. By definition, external entities on the DFD are what? a) Are used as the starting point for the physical data flow diagram b) Are outside the scope of the system c) Will be the top of the structure chart d) Will become database table entries e) Are updated with metadata to become part of the physical DFD Ans: b Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

9. Every part of a system that is not automated will what? a) Be ignored in the implementation of the system b) Be drawn as only logical DFDs not physical DFDs c) Be outside the human-machine boundary d) Go back through the analysis phase to become automated e) Will be drawn as diamond shapes on the structure charts Ans: c Reference: the Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

10. In determining if a process is to be automated, the project team will do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Weigh the costs b) Redraw the logical DFD as a combined logical/physical DFD c) Determine benefits d) Evaluate the efficiency e) Consider the integrity of the process to the system Ans: b Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

11. Beth is considering a simple process for immediate orders. When processing an immediate order, a phone clerk writes the order on a paper form. Which of the following might be a reason NOT to automate this process? a) The clerk could make errors when writing the information wrong on the paper form b) The paper form could be lost when sent to the order filling /shipping area c) The writing on the paper form could be hard to decipher d) The costs to automate might be significantly higher than doing it manually e) The time to get the paper form from the clerk‘s desk to the order filling / shipping area is one day or longer Ans: d Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

12. When changing a logical DFD into a physical DFD, it might be necessary to do what? a) Add system-related data stores, data flows and processes b) Normalize the logical DFD into 3NF c) Create the user-interface with smaller fonts d) Change the system architecture to three-tiered architecture e) Delete extraneous data stores and delete extraneous data flows Ans: a Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

13. When you are updating the data elements in the data flows (when creating a physical DFD) you might need to do what? a) Return to users to interview them about the physical data flows b) Update the original cost/benefit analysis to reflect the physical storage c) Do a technology analysis d) Add physical data elements to the metadata descriptions in the CASE repository e) Do formal benchmarking of the data flows Ans: d Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

14. What is pseudocode? a) The same as structured English b) A technique similar to structured English c) A subset of the Java programming language d) A coding environment sponsored by Oracle e) The term for designing language prototyping screens with Visual Basic or HTML Ans: b Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium 15. A general suggestion about using couples in drawing structure charts is what? a) The use of many couples clarify the processing b) It is best to be conservative when applying couples to your diagram c) To use ‗combination‘ couples when both data couples and control couples are needed d) You should have at least twice as many afferent couples as efferent couples e) Use only data couples and no control couples Ans: b Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

16. The three types of basic processes on a process model are which of the following? a) Sequence, selection and iteration processes b) Navigation, status and work processes c) Afferent, central and efferent processes d) Batch, online and real time processes e) Singular, bilateral and library processes Ans: c Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: hard

17. Generally, transaction structures on a structure chart will have what? a) Many afferent processes b) Many efferent processes c) Many data couples d) Many control couples e) Many conditional couples Ans: b Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: hard

18. Generally, transform structures on a structure chart will have what? a) Many afferent processes b) Many efferent processes c) Many data couples d) Many control couples e) Many conditional couples Ans: a Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: hard

19. As a structure chart is constructed, it is generally best to build modules with which of the following? a) High cohesion b) Highly coupled c) High fan-out d) Have the word ―and‖ in the module title e) A high level of coincidental cohesion Ans: a Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

20. What is pseudocode? a) A language popularized by Feinstein and Longenecker in the 1990‘s b) A detailed outline of the lines of code that need to be written c) A ‗pretend‘ syntax inherent in all CASE tools d) The translation of code into ASCII e) A dialect of Visual Basic only used in program design Ans: b Reference: Program Specification Difficulty: medium

21. Reusable modules, which are represented in the structure chart as rectangles with vertical lines on both sides, may often appear several times in a structure chart. These are called _____ modules. a) conditional b) control c) library d) loop e) off-page connector Ans: c Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

22. There are two symbols that describe special types of control in a structure chart. They are a curved arrow and a diamond. These symbols represent _____ and _____. a) connector, conditional line b) control, subordinate c) library module, conditional line d) loop, conditional line e) loop, connector Ans: d Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

23. In a structure chart, the element that communicates that a message or a system flag is being passed from one module to another is known as a(n) _____. a) conditional line b) connector c) control couple d) data couple e) loop

Ans: c Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

24. In a structure chart, the purpose of a control couple is to do what? a) Pass parameters from a subordinate module to the control module b) Pass parameters from the control modules to a subordinate module c) Pass data from a subordinate module to the control module d) Pass data from the control module to a subordinate module e) Chaperone the dance for programmers on the project Ans: a Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

25. _____ refers to how well the lines of code within each module in a structure chart relate to each other. a) Calculation b) Cohesion c) Control d) Coupling e) Fan-in Ans: b Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium 26. In a structure chart, the element that is drawn as an empty circle with an attached arrow is known as a(n) _____. a) conditional line b) connector c) control couple d) data couple e) module

Ans: d Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

27. In a structure chart, a transaction structure _____. a) contains a control module that calls several subordinate modules in sequence, after which something ―happens‖

b) contains a control module that calls subordinate modules, each handling a particular transaction c) contains a transactional loop d) is a subordinate module that handles a particular transaction

e) is subordinate to subordinal modules Ans: b Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

True / False 28. When designing programs, structure charts may have on-page and off-page connectors.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

29. When designing programs, structure charts help analysts create programs that are easy to understand and maintain.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

30. When designing programs, structure charts are arranged in a hierarchical format that implies sequence.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

31. When designing programs, structure charts show all the components of code that must be included in a program at a high level.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

32. When designing programs, structure charts are generally implemented with control flags that pass from the control modules to the subordinate modules.

Ans: False Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

33. Structure charts show the user interface.

Ans: False Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

34. Structure charts emphasize structure and reusability.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

35. Structure charts show selection.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

36. Structure charts show couples.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

37. Structure charts show sequence.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

38. Physical DFDs show additional details, such as what tables in the database replace data stores on the logical DFD Ans: True Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

39. Programmers can take the logical DFDs and directly implement into code by compiling the metadata in the CASE tools.

Ans: False Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

40. Analysts can build in the three structures of sequence, selection and iteration into structure charts.

Ans: True Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

41. Analysts can use structure charts to design programming logic.

Ans: True Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

42. Analysts design programs in the design phase of the SDLC, programmers code programs in the Implementation phase.

Ans: True Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

43. Because project teams rely more on packaged software, program design is no longer needed.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: easy

44. Because (a) preexisting code needs to be understood, organized, and pieced together; and (b) it is still common for the project team to have to write some code and adapt packages to the business environment, it is therefore good for analysts to fully understand program design.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Medium

45. The Human-Machine boundary is part of the Human-Computer Interface into usability systems.

Ans: False Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

46. Micah is adding implementation resources to change a logical DFD into a physical DFD. He should describe databases, files, tables, and processes as they will be implemented on the computer.

Ans: True Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium 47. There are some ‗system-related‘ data stores, data flows and processes that must be added when creating the physical DFD. Ans: True Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: easy

48. Many of the data stores in the logical DFD will be changed into encrypted word processing documents when a physical DFD is developed.

Ans: False Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

49. When drawing the human-machine boundary, all processes in the physical DFD will be automated, so only external entities will be excluded.

Ans: False Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

50. An audit control / audit logfile might be a system related process, data flow and data store that would be added when creating physical DFDs. Ans: True Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: medium

51. When creating the physical DFD, you may want to capture system information like date and time of update and user-id of the person who did the update.

Ans: True Reference: The Physical Data Flow Diagram Difficulty: easy

52. A temptation when moving from analysis to design of a system is to jump right into coding.

Ans: True Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

53. A structure chart shows sequence, selection and data flows.

Ans: False Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: Medium

54. A structure chart is composed of modules that work together to form a program.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

55. A control module can also be called a library module and is a set of reusable code.

Ans: False Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

56. A diamond on a structure chart shows sequence – like a baseball player would go to first base, then second, third and home.

Ans: False Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

57. Couples in structure charts always show two modules that are executed together and are drawn with horizontal lines at the top and bottom.

Ans: False Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

58. Data couples are shown by arrows with empty circles and show how data flows between modules.

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

59. Control couples show the passing of parameters or system related messages between modules (like ‗end-of-file‘).

Ans: True Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

60. A structure chart is often completed in one attempt.

Ans: False Reference: Applying the Concepts at DrōnTeq Difficulty: medium

61. The three basic kinds of processes on a process module are afferent, central, and efferent.

Ans: True Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

62. An afferent process is an input process on a structure chart.

Ans: True Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

63. An effective process is an output process on a structure chart.

Ans: False Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

64. A transaction structure in a structure chart contains a control module that calls subordinate modules and frequently occur with menus.

Ans: True Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

65. Factoring is the process of separating out a function from a module in order to create a module of its own.

Ans: True Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

66. A signal of poor cohesion could be the presence of control flags that are passed down to subordinate modules.

Ans: True Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

67. Functional, coincidental, and temporal are all types of cohesion.

Ans: True Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

68. Fan-In describes the number of subordinates that communicate with the control module.

Ans: False Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

69. Generally, transaction structures occur at lower levels of a structure chart.

Ans: False Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

70. A good indication of needing a transaction structure on a structure chart occurs when a DFD shows a single data flow entering a process that produces multiple data flows as outputs.

Ans: True Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

71. Jim is working from a leveled DFD and creating structure charts. He is finding that the lower levels of the DFD generally correspond to transform structures.

Ans: True Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

Essays 72. Compare and contrast cohesion and coupling.

Answer Cohesion is how well a module does processing – a module should do only one task; coupling is how closely modules are interrelated – the less the better. So, modules should be highly cohesive (only one task) and loosely coupled (little or no interaction).

Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium 73. It seems a lot of work to create structure charts, with high cohesion, loosely coupled, with high fan-in, low-fan-out, with transaction structures and transform structures. Why should an analyst bother developing structure charts and instead just pass on the specifications to the programmer?

Answer Analysts do the assigning of application development to programmers. You want programs that are easily maintained, modular, flexible, and satisfy the users. That is why structure charts and subsequent program design actions are so important.

Reference: Entire chapter Difficulty: medium 74. What is the difference between transaction structures and transform structures on a structure chart?

Answer Transaction structures generally are found in the higher levels of a DFD and are where a module performs one of a group of individual transactions and generally have few inputs and a lot of outputs; transform structures have control modules that call several subordinate modules in sequence.

Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

75. What is a ‗top-down approach‘ and why is it important when designing programs?

Answer Starting with the big picture, refining it to more detail and to a fully described scenario (the example in the text was to drive to a specific location; start with the general directions (Virginia); then the regional directions (south-central Virginia); then local directions (315 N. Elm Street, Charlottesburg, VA). Top-down approaches help the analyst create modules that will get translated into flexible, maintainable, well-designed code.

Reference: Designing Programs Difficulty: medium

76. Structure charts show: sequence, selection and iteration. What are these factors?

Answer  Sequence shows in what order components are invoked  Selection is under what condition a module is invoked Iteration is how oft en a component is repeated Reference: Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

77. What is Fan-in and Fan-out?

Answer Fan-in describes the number of control modules that communicate with a subordinate; a module with high-fan-in has many different control modules that call it (it may be a library module) – and suggests well-written generic code; fan-out is the concept of ‗span of control‘. If too many subordinate modules are associated with a single control, it might be hard to maintain and manage.

Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium

78. Summarize the quality checks that should be performed when reviewing structure charts.

Answer Design the system so that there is a high fan-in structure. Create library modules whenever possible. Limit the span of control of the control modules to no more than seven subordinates.

Make sure that each module performs only one function. The modules should sparingly share information, and make sure that the data couples that are passed are actually used by the accepting module. Control couples should be passed from low to high, not the other way around.

Also, the module should have a reasonable amount of code associated with it.

Reference: Design Guidelines Difficulty: medium 79. When putting individual components together for a structure chart you will need to identify the three basic kinds of processes in a process model. Identify these three kinds of models and describe each.

Answer Three basic kinds of processes on a process model are afferent (input), central (main processing), and efferent (output). Afferent processes are processes that provide inputs into the system.

Central processes perform critical functions in the operation of the system. Efferent processes deal with the system outputs.

Reference: Building the Structure Chart Difficulty: medium

Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is not a general function of any application program? a) Data storage b) Presentation logic c) Data access logic d) Linked-list modules e) Application logic Ans: d Reference: Introduction Difficulty: hard

2. The two basic formats for data storage consist of which of the following? a) Spreadsheets and documents b) Files and databases c) Databases and presentations d) Flash and web forms

e) ERDs and Use cases Ans: b Reference: Data Storage Formats Difficulty: hard

3. Which of the following is an open source DBMS? a) Microsoft Access b) SQL Server c) MySQL d) Excel e) CASE Ans: c Reference: Data Storage Formats Difficulty: medium

4. Juan is using a file that is created by an older, legacy system. It is likely that the data is what? a) Unusable b) In a proprietary format c) In a standard format (like comma separated value) d) Is sorted by customer‘s middle name e) In an object-oriented structure like Ariel Ans: b Reference: Files Difficulty: medium

5. Which of the following is NOT a file type described in the textbook? a) History files b) Audit files c) Look-up files d) Algebra files e) Transaction files Ans: d Response: Ssee Files Difficulty: medium 6. This type of file stores ―core information that is important to the business‖ and for the application (such as customer mailing lists). a) History Files b) Audit files c) Master files d) Transaction files e) Intelligent files Ans: c Reference: Files Difficulty: hard

7. This type of file is used to update a master file. a) Roster Files b) Training files c) Master files d) Transaction files e) Integrated files Ans: d Reference: Files Difficulty: hard 8. This type of file records ―before‖ and ―after‖ images of data as the data gets altered. a) Intelligent files b) Audit files c) Master files d) Raw files e) Prime files Ans: b Reference: Files Difficulty: hard

9. Which is NOT a type of database file? a) Hierarchical databases b) Relational databases c) Object databases d) Multidimensional databases e) Federal database Ans: e Reference: Databases Difficulty: hard

10. Legacy databases might include ________ and ______________ a) Master files and transaction files b) Audit files and look-up files c) Hierarchical databases and network databases d) Tree databases and leaf databases e) Red databases and Green databases Ans: c Reference: Databases Difficulty: hard

11. The most popular type of database today is what? a) Hierarchical database b) Tree database c) Green database d) Relational database e) Piecemeal database Ans: d Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

12. Most relational database systems support which of the following? a) Referential integrity b) Pop-up menus c) Customizable user-interface colors and graphics d) The ‗three-clicks‘ rule e) Broadband connectivity Ans: a Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

13. The acronym for the standard language used to access data in relational databases is: a) ERD b) CRM c) ERP d) BPR e) SQL Ans: e Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

14. New databases collectively referred to as NoSQL databases have appeared in recent years.

Which of the following are categorized as a NoSQL database? a) Document-oriented database b) Wide column stores c) Graph databases d) Extensible record stores e) Relational Database system Ans: e Reference: databases Difficulty: medium

15. Document-oriented databases have the following characteristics, except which one? a) Large bit files b) Audio files c) Video files d) Files with uniform structure e) image files Ans: d Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

16. Which of the following is not a RDBMS? a) Oracle b) NoSQL c) SQL d) MySQL e) None of these Ans: b Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Big Data? a) Huge volume b) Rapid velocity c) Great variety d) All are characteristics e) None are characteristics Ans: d Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

18. Which of the following is a concept not generally associated with decision support systems? a) Data warehouses b) Data marts c) Aggregated data d) Object orientation e) Multidimensional databases Ans: d Reference: Databases Difficulty: hard

19. In most cases, decision support systems are best at which of the following? a) Finding particular records that are stored in legacy databases b) Finding processes that are stored in object databases c) Finding aggregated data d) Analyzing audit (or log) files for possible intrusion and security breaches e) Red and green linked list processing Ans: c Reference: Databases Difficulty: hard

20. Omar is creating an order database for a multiple site car dealership. The data will be fairly simple: names, addresses, city, state, zip code, make of car, model, style, color, etc. Probably the best choice for him would be a _____________ database. a) Multidimensional b) Hierarchical c) Legacy d) Object e) Relational Ans: e Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

21. Marco is working for Apple on iTunes and needs to have a database that can store complex data. His best choice might be which of the following? a) An object database b) A relational database c) A red-green database d) A tree database e) A spanning database Ans: a Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

22. FoodTitan is a large grocery store chain in the Chicago, Milwaukee, and the Upper Midwest.

Generally their stores have from 18 to 36 checkout lanes with scanners. When somebody scans a bar code, the system is probably using a _____ to process the purchased items. a) Executive support system (ESS) b) Barcode processing system (BPS) c) Management information system (MIS) d) Transaction Processing system (TPS) e) A grocery store processing system (GSPS) Ans: d Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

23. The type of processing system that creates reports for supervisors (and other functional users) probably would be which of the following? a) Transaction Processing System (TPS) b) Management Information System (MIS) c) Executive Support System (ESS) d) Decision Support System (DSS) e) Rebate Management System (RMS) Ans: b Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

24. Systems that support decision making will probably be which of the following? a) Do a lot of updating of data b) Be transaction processing systems c) Be audit files d) Use Gantt charts e) Usually just read data – and often in ad hoc ways Ans: e Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

25. The project team is very knowledgeable about relational database management systems. In terms of feasibility, this might be best known as what? a) Technical feasibility (‗can we build it‘) b) Economic feasibility (‗should we build it‘) c) Managerial feasibility (‗why would we build it‘) d) Graphical feasibility (‗does it fit this project‘) e) Organizational feasibility (‗if we build it, will they use it‘) Ans: a Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

26. The purpose of creating physical ERDs is to do what? a) Depict the ―business view‖ of the data, but omit any implementation details b) Normalize the database to third normal form c) Do a new technology analysis d) Drive the users nuts e) Help junior analysts to find the transactions between systems Ans: a Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: hard

27. Which is not a common data type? a) Character b) Text c) Integer d) Date e) Video Ans: e Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: medium

28. A default value is which of the following? a) The first value in a table b) The median value in a table c) The smallest value in a table d) A value that specif es what should be placed in a column e) A mistake made by Dee (aka the name ―Dee‘s fault‖) Ans: d Reference: The Physical Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

29. Primary keys are which of the following? a) The same as default keys (or default values) b) Unique values for each record in a file or table c) Elementary values (like ‗primary‘ school) d) Prime numbers in a Fibonacci sequence e) The same as foreign keys Ans: b Reference: The Physical Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: hard

30. When you join two relational database tables together, frequently the primary key in one table will be a(n) ____________ in the other table. a) Foreign key b) International key c) Primary key d) Linked list e) Entity Ans: a Reference: The Physical Entity Relationship Diagram Difficulty: medium

31. The CRUD matrix shows which of the following? a) The crud that is coming into the system and how to quarantine it b) Exactly how data are used and created by the major processes in the system c) The 1:M relationships on an ERD diagram d) The external entities, process and major data flows from the Context DFD diagram e) Where customer, relationships, users and developers will interact with a system Ans: b Reference: Revisiting the CRUD Matrix Difficulty: hard

32. The most efficient tables (in terms of storage efficiency) in relational database management systems have which of the following? a) Have duplicate data, especially for when more than one table is joined together for queries b) Have no redundant data c) Are denormalized d) Have entire tables duplicated e) Use plasma technologies Ans: b Reference: Optimizing Storage Efficiency Difficulty: medium

33. Barb is working on a database design. For the most efficient storage she should remove: ______ and ______. a) Primary keys and foreign keys b) International keys and redundancy c) Adjectives and adverbs d) Redundancy and null values e) Special characters and primary keys Ans: d Reference: Optimizing Storage Efficiency Difficulty: hard

34. In a registration database, Ross has tables for student, professor, classroom, class, class-hour.

Since his campus has about 12,000 students, when he runs queries about what student is in what class, taught by what professor in what classroom at which hour, the DBMS software will have to perform many _________. a) Axes b) Parallels c) Concretes d) Joins e) Enrolls Ans: d Reference: Optimizing Access Speed Difficulty: medium

35. One common method to increase access speed is to: a) Use legacy databases in a indexed sequential access method b) Encrypt all data with 256 byte encryption c) Denormalize the tables d) Delete all primary keys e) Only use alphabetic data Ans: c Reference: Optimizing Access Speed Difficulty: medium

36. The concept of putting records that are somehow related together on the same server (or storage device) is called what? a) Carmelization b) Clustering c) Joining d) Normalization e) Hybrid technologies Ans: b Reference: Optimizing Access Speed Difficulty: medium

37. The concept for planning good performance of databases is known as what? a) Volumetrics b) Econometrics c) Moving averages d) Correlation e) PERT Ans: a Reference: Estimating Storage Size Difficulty: hard

38. Many ________ tools like ERwin can help you with database size information and the calculation of volumetrics. a) ERD master b) DFD master c) Denormalization d) Pop-up menu e) CASE Ans: e Reference: Estimating Storage Size Difficulty: medium

TRUE/FALSE 39. One activity in the data storage design activity is to update the CRUDE matrix.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

40. One goal is data storage design is to spread the data over all storage devices so that the redundancy will make for more efficient storage.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

41. Microsoft Access is an end-user database.

Ans: True Reference: Data Storage Formats Difficulty: medium 42. Most relational database management systems support ‗sticky‘ quantitative processing.

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

43. Referential integrity is the idea of ensuring that values linking the tables together through the primary and foreign keys are valid and correctly synchronized.

Ans: True Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium 44. The standard method language for accessing the data in relational database tables is: SQL – Standard Query Logic.

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

45. An ‗international key‘ is used to relate two tables together (like customer ID from the customer table is an international key in the order table).

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

46. Oracle is an example of an object-oriented database system.

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

47. A great advantage of object-oriented database management systems is their easy of learning.

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

48. Informix is a pure OODBMS package.

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

49. A relational database that is used extensively in data warehousing is a multidimensional database.

Ans: True Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

50. Data marts are larger, aggregated legacy databases.

Ans: False Reference: databases Difficulty: medium

51. A DSS is a design support structure and does the ‗ETL‘ (extract, transform and load) to create data warehouses.

Ans: False Reference: Databases Difficulty: hard

52. Decision support systems are not designed to find individual records, but to find aggregated information (such as ‗what three products sold the best in Boston in February‘).

Ans: True Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

53. When working on a major project, project teams will always select and stay with only one database format for consistency of development and use.

Ans: False Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

54. Maria is working for the Minneapolis Dance Troop (MDT) and wants a database that can support text, numbers, video, and audio. She will probably select the multidimensional database format.

Ans: False Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium 55. Brian wants an e-commerce system to be able to do a lot of rapid processing – like search for particular keywords in documents; return the price of an item; update quantities in the shopping cart. He is probably building an Expert System.

Ans: False Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

56. Rachel wants aggregated data like find the number of banking customers who have savings accounts over $100,000 and home mortgages with her bank. She probably wants to use a Decision Support System.

Ans: True Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

57. Systems to support decision making generally need to update data frequently with a large volume of data.

Ans: False Reference: Selecting a Storage Format Difficulty: medium

58. One process when considering data storage design is to move from physical data models to logical data models.

Ans: False Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: medium

59. When changing logical data models to physical data models, you will want to change entities to tables or files.

Ans: True Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: medium

60. When changing from logical data models to physical data models, you will want to change the attributes of the logical ERD to fields in the physical ERD. Ans: True Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: medium

61. Sanjay is creating a screen form that interfaces with a relational database. He should use the median (middle) value in the database as his default value – as that will make it easier for the users to move up and down in the table.

Ans: False Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: medium

62. When converting a logical ERD into a physical data model, you will want to specify both primary keys and international keys.

Ans: False Reference: Moving from Logical to Physical Data Models Difficulty: medium

63. When moving from logical data models to physical data models, you should update your CRUD matrix.

Ans: True Reference: Revisiting the CRUD Matrix Difficulty: medium

64. The two primary ways to optimize a relational database are (a) for storage efficiency and (b) for using the smallest amount of space.

Ans: False Reference: Optimizing Data Storage Difficulty: medium

65. The best design for accessing data faster is generally the most efficient storage as well.

Ans: False Reference: Optimizing Data Storage Difficulty: medium

66. Although TJ did a lot of work normalizing the database so that it is in third normal form (3NF), he may want to ‗denormalize‘ it so that access might be faster.

Ans: True Reference: Optimizing Access Speed Difficulty: medium

67. The most efficient tables in a relational database in terms of storage space have no redundant data and very few null values.

Ans: True Reference: Optimizing Storage Efficiency Difficulty: medium

Essays 68. What is the difference between files and relational databases?

Answer Files are electronic lists of data (and frequently in one of these types: master-files; look-up files, transaction files, audit files; history-files) and relational databases are tables (with primary keys and foreign keys) for easier use by developers (although can be more inefficient as far as the actual computer is concerned). Relational database are the most common type of database in use currently.

Reference: Files and Databases Difficulty: medium

69. What is SQL? And what is its usage in relational databases?

Answer SQL is the acronym for Structured Query Language. SQL is the standard language for accessing the data in the tables and it operates on complete tables (as compared to individual records in the tables). SQL is the standard for retrieving information from a relational database.

Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

70. If you were considering a media rich database, what type of database organization might be best and why?

Answer Object Databases would be a wise choice as they have both data and processes and are used to support multimedia applications or systems that involve complex data.

Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

71. What is the difference between end-user databases and enterprise databases (and give at least one end-user database product and at least one enterprise database)?

Answer An end-user database can reside on the end-users computer – and support the processes and activities of that one person or a very small workgroup. Enterprise databases reside on servers and support multiple users (or the entire business or entire enterprise). Microsoft Access might be the most common end-user database; and Oracle, DB2, Sybase, Informix, SQL Server, SAP might be considered as enterprise database systems.

Reference: Databases Difficulty: medium

Multiple Choice 1. During the implementation phase of the SDLC, what happens? a) Analysts will write programs b) Programmers will develop user interfaces c) Project managers will convert logical ERDs into physical DFDs d) Champions will do the data management design e) None of these Ans: e Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

2. During the implementation phase of the SDLC, what happens? a) System is developed b) System is tested c) System is documented d) All of these Ans: d Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

3. The largest single component of any systems development project in terms of both time and cost could be what? a) Conducting JAD sessions b) Gamma testing c) Developing the user interface d) Writing programs

e) Having meetings Ans: d Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

4. Which is generally the best understood component of the SDLC and may offer the fewest problems? a) Developing the database design b) Developing the system‘s software c) Writing onscreen documentation d) Changing the data into third normal form e) Doing interviews Ans: b Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

5. According to the textbook, which of the following is not a cause of project failure? a) Flaws in analysis b) Flaws in aesthetics c) Flaws in user interface design d) Flaws in database design e) Flaws in developing correct system specifications Ans: b Reference: Managing the Programming Process Difficulty: medium

6. Bridget is managing a systems development project. The programmers have gotten farther and farther behind in the schedule. One thing she should NOT do is what? a) Use a code generator that comes with high-end CASE tools b) Add more programmers to the development team c) Keep communication channels open d) Hold weekly meetings e) Keep close tabs on the process so it doesn‘t slip farther Ans: b Reference: Managing the Programming Process Difficulty: medium

7. The process of coordinating a program as it changes through construction (like keeping files and programs in different places) is called _____. a) Change control b) Separation of duties c) Judicial control d) Scope creep e) None of these Ans: a Reference: Coordinating Activities Difficulty: medium

8. If a program module is taking longer to develop than expected, the recommended action is what? a) Put more programmers on the staff b) Force the developers to work weekends to catch up c) Move the expected completion date back d) Incorporate scope creep into the requirements e) Change the development environment into an object-oriented language Ans: c Reference: Managing the Schedule Difficulty: medium 9. The authors describe ―writing programs‖ as which of the following? a) A fun, creative activity b) A tedious process c) A very mathematical and logical process d) An excellent learning process for end-users e) Answers B and C Ans: a Reference: Testing Difficulty: medium

10. The term ‗bug‘ in software came from where? a) An English translation of the word for defect in German b) The story of a moth getting caught inside an early computer c) The acronym BUG – for binary unknown glitch d) No one knows the reason e) None of these Ans: b Reference: Testing (and footnote about Admiral Grace Hopper) Difficulty: medium

11. A program is not considered finished until when? a) It has been used successfully for six months b) The cost of developing the program ‗breaks-even‘ with the benefits of the program c) The ROI is positive d) It has passed its testing e) It ‗dies‘ and is replaced by a newer version Ans: d Reference: Testing Difficulty: medium 12. Test plans… a) Are generally developed by the programmers informally b) Generally only cover main processing and not the various sub-processes c) Often have 20 to 30 pages d) Can be massive with over 200 pages of very explicit plans and directions e) Can generally be written in three pages or less Ans: c Reference: Test Planning

13. On test plans… a) Each individual test has a specific objective and describes a set of very specific test cases to examine b) Each user must contribute to the specific goals of the test plan c) Each member of the project team, plus all developers (programmers) must identify one specific application that they will test d) Only the master project manager tests, and only after all coding has been completed in what is called the ―Omega‖ test e) The use of multiple choice options has been shown to effectively assess to a 99.9% accuracy rate Ans: a Reference: Test Planning Difficulty: medium

14. The test objective is taken directly from where? a) The results of the JAD session b) The program specification c) The use-cases d) The project sponsor e) The questions raised in a focus-group application Ans: b Reference: Test Planning Difficulty: medium

15. The authors suggest which of the following? a) ―All testing must include live production data‖ b) ―All testing must include both alphabetic and numeric data‖ c) ―It is impossible to test every possible combination of input and situation‖ d) ―Testing rarely pays for itself‖ e) ―Testing should only be used for complex programs and situations‖ Ans: c Reference: Test Planning Difficulty: medium

16. Not all program modules are likely to be finished at the same time, so the programmer usually writes _______ for the unfinished modules to enable the modules around them to be tested. a) By-passes b) Temporary Modules c) Placeholder Modules d) Stubs e) End Modules Ans: d Reference: Test Planning Difficulty: medium

17. Which of the following is NOT a general test stage? a) Unit tests b) Module tests c) Integration tests d) System tests e) Acceptance tests Ans: b Reference: Test Planning Difficulty: medium

18. Generally, most errors (defects) are found in which two testing periods? a) Unit testing and integration testing b) Integration testing and system testing c) System testing and acceptance testing d) Unit testing and acceptance testing e) Alpha testing and beta testing Ans: b Reference: Test Planning Difficulty: medium

19. Unit tests focus on which of the following? a) All modules (all units) b) Users and their acceptance of how a specific unit works c) A program or a program module d) Interact screen forms e) How the overall system functions Ans: c Reference: Unit Tests Difficulty: medium

20. Black-box testing is what? a) Is reserved for special circumstances in which the tester wants to review the actual program code b) Is reserved for NASA space missions c) Is reserved for very complex systems d) Is only used by highly skilled testers e) None of these Ans: e Reference: Unit Tests Difficulty: medium

21. Which of the following is NOT an approach to integration testing? a) Use-case testing b) User interface testing c) Use scenario testing d) Data flow testing e) System interface testing Ans: a Reference: Integration Tests Difficulty: medium

22. System tests are usually conducted by who? a) Programmers (developers) b) Project managers c) Users d) Systems analysts e) Project sponsors or project champions Ans: d Reference: System Tests Difficulty: medium 23. As compared to integration testing, system testing: a) Is much broader in scope b) Uses production data (rather than test data) c) Is done by hand-picked end-users (rather than systems analysts) d) Involves both black-box and red-box testing e) Makes more extensive use of stubs Ans: a Reference: System Tests Difficulty: medium

24. Integration testing focuses on ___________; while system tests focus on _______________. a) Modules working together; meeting business requirements b) Black-box tests; white-box tests c) End-users acceptance; project sponsor acceptance d) DFDs; ERDs e) Beta tests; alpha tests Ans: a Reference: System Tests Difficulty: medium

25. Which of the following is probably something that system testing WILL NOT verify? a) Systems documentation b) Ability to perform under heavy load c) Conformance to Sarbanes-Oxley requirements d) How well the system meets business requirements e) The systems usability Ans: c Reference: System Tests Difficulty: medium

26. Acceptance tests are done primarily by who? a) Programmers b) Users c) Developers d) Systems Analysts e) Project Managers Ans: b Reference: Acceptance Tests

27. The goal of acceptance testing is what? a) That modules and units work together with each other b) That the databases are properly organized for both efficiency in storage and access c) To confirm that the system is complete and meets the business needs d) That both black-box and white-box tests have been approved by upper management e) To verify that the use-cases, ERDs and DFD‘s have been properly converted Ans: c Reference: Acceptance Testing Difficulty: medium

28. Acceptance testing is generally done in which of the following two stages? a) Alpha tests and beta tests b) Black-box tests and white-box tests c) Integration tests and systems tests d) Unit tests and module tests e) Inductive tests and deductive tests Ans: a Reference: Acceptance Testing Difficulty: medium

29. The two fundamental documentation types are which of the following? a) System documentation and integration documentation b) Screen documentation and batch documentation c) User documentation and online documentation d) System documentation and user documentation e) Acceptance documentation and integration documentation Ans: d Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium

30. The authors suggest a good time to start the documentation process is when? a) Once the interface design and program specifications are complete b) Once the system test is complete c) Once the alpha acceptance test is complete d) Once the beta acceptance test is complete e) Once the logical ERDs and DFDs have been translated into physical ERDs and DFDs Ans: a Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium

31. This type of documentation is designed to be used when the user needs to learn how to perform a specific function (such as updating a field or adding a new record). a) Reference documentation b) Procedures manuals c) Tutorials d) Systems documentation e) Final documentation Ans: a Reference: Types of Documentation Difficulty: medium

32. Which of the following is NOT a general type of navigation control for help topics? a) Table of contents b) Index c) Inverted pointer d) Text search e) Intelligence agents Ans: c Reference: Designing Documentation Structure Difficulty: medium

33. This particular type of documentation control lists the information in a logical form, as though the users were to read the reference documentation from start to finish. a) Index b) Text search c) Content sensitive help d) Intelligence agents e) Table of contents Ans: e Reference: Designing Documentation Structure Difficulty: medium

34. When creating the index, which of these will probably NOT be a place to find terms to include in the index? a) The set of commands in the user interface (like open file, modify, etc.) b) The set of user interface design standards (like aesthetics, layout, consistency, etc.) c) The set of major concepts in the system (like in the Tune Source example of artist, tune, music genre, etc.) d) The set of business tasks (like ordering replacement units or making an appointment) e) The set of synonyms for other sets (like ‗quit‘, ‗stop‘, ‗end‘ for ‗exit‘ or ‗erase‘ for ‗delete‘) Ans: b Reference: Identifying Navigation Terms Difficulty: medium

TRUE/FALSE 35. During the implementation phase of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC), systems analysts spend their time writing programs and coding applications.

Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium 36. The authors suggest a book on managing programming projects called ―The Mythical Mountain‖ written by Roberta Roth.

Ans: False Reference: Managing the Programming Process Difficulty: medium

37. If the system being analyzed, designed and developed requires programming (as compared to a package or outsourcing), developing the software may be the single largest component of any systems development activity in terms of both time and money.

Ans: True Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

38. Generally when assigning programming development tasks, the project manager will analyze skill levels and capabilities of programming staff and also analyze the modules for complexity and try to match complex modules to more experienced and skilled programming developers.

Ans: True Reference: Managing the Programming Process Difficulty: medium

39. If a mismatch exists between available programming skills and the programming staff, the best method to solve this is to put more programmers on the project so that it comes in on time, and within budget.

Ans: False Reference: Managing the Programming Process Difficulty: medium

40. An ironic fact of systems development is that the more programmers that are involved in the development of the system, the longer the project will take.

Ans: True Reference: Managing the Programming Process Difficulty: medium

41. Change control in application development is a formal process for changing written documentation into online documentation, and frequently uses specialized ‗cyber documentation agents‘ to create menus, screens and online user documentation.

Ans: False Reference: Coordinating Activities Difficulty: hard

42. If a program module is taking longer to develop than expected, generally the most appropriate approach is to move the expected completion date back by the same amount of time that the module will be late.

Ans: True Reference: Managing the Schedule Difficulty: easy

43. Adding new requirements to a project after the system design has been finalized is called ―requirements creep‖.

Ans: False Reference: Managing the Schedule Difficulty: medium 44. Charles has been assigned to developing modules CRM_input_web; CRM_input_validation; CRM_database_retrieval; and CRM_database_update. He is two weeks behind and is only on the second module. This is definitely a serious issue and Charles should be reprimanded or even fired for incompetence.

Ans: False Reference: Managing the Schedule (comment – we don‘t know enough. Maybe Charles had a medical emergency and has been in the hospital for those two weeks; or had a scheduled vacation; or had to do emergency support and maintenance on modules that have failed in production.)

Difficulty: hard

45. When creating a project plan, project analysts normally figure out the ‗critical path‘.

Ans: True Reference: Managing the Schedule Difficulty: medium

46. The critical path is the fine line between the alpha test and the beta test as you change from test data to real production data.

Ans: False Reference: Managing the Schedule Difficulty: medium

47. By the time the design phase is started, all time estimates should be within 5% of the actual completion time.

Ans: False Reference: Managing the Schedule Difficulty: medium

48. Testing is considered as a prized activity on a development project, and developers (programmers), analysts, and project managers frequently request being assigned to develop documentation.

Ans: False Reference: Testing Difficulty: medium

49. Testing and programming are tightly coupled.

Ans: True Reference: Testing Difficulty: medium

50. Alpha and beta tests are part of systems testing.

Ans: False Reference: Acceptance Tests Difficulty: medium

51. The main difference between integration testing and system testing is that integration testing looks to see if modules work together without errors; but system testing is more focused on meeting business requirements.

Ans: True Reference: System Tests Difficulty: medium 52. Analysts should not worry about the users‘ perceptions of the new system during acceptance testing.

Ans: False Reference: Acceptance Tests Difficulty: medium

53. The two basic types of documentation are: portfolio documentation and assessment documentation.

Ans: False Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium

54. System documentation takes all the processes, notes, diagrams from systems analysis and systems design and puts it in a project binder for future reference.

Ans: True Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium

55. User documentation includes such things as logical ERDs, logical DFDs, use-cases, physical ERDs, physical DFDs and screen mockups.

Ans: False Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium

56.

57. User documentation must be developed at the end of the project, after all programming, testing and approvals have occurred. To do it any earlier may risk not including changes in the system.

Ans: False Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: hard

58. When developing navigational controls for online documentation, you should consider tables of contents, indices, text searches, intelligent agents (like context sensitive help), and Weblike links between systems.

Ans: True Reference: Designing Documentation Structure Difficulty: medium

ESSAYS 59. Michael is working on online documentation. He has about ten menu items; twenty items in the index; and wants to have about ten tutorial pages. How much time should he allocate to developing the documentation for these items (menus, index and tutorials)?

Answer From the ―Developing Documentation‖ materials, we have ―for good-quality documentation, this process usually takes about […] 2 hours per screen for online documentation‖. This would translate into about 80 hours of work (10 + 20 + 10 (=40) * 2 for a total of 80 hours).

Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium

60. Myles is a systems analyst on a new project that involves significant programming. What is Myles doing while the programming is going on?

Answer Myles should be working on testing and documentation. The main project manager for this project should be assigning development (programming) tasks and monitoring so that the project doesn‘t slip from its expected completion. As soon as some of the modules are completed, Myles can start testing (possibly with stub modules); then move into integration, system and acceptance testing. Likewise, he can be completing documentation tasks.

Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: medium 61. Bruce is a senior project manager. What activities should he be doing in the programming / development phase?

Answer Bruce should be overseeing and coordinating programming activities. He probably is hosting weekly project meetings, making sure that modules are progressing as planned. He is also working with other systems analysts to make sure that the testing plan has been developed and testing is going on; and that documentation is started. He also wants to make sure that scope creep is not occurring (or dealing with it), and that the project is on time. If the project does start to slip, he needs to be on top of the issue and find solutions to get it back on track – or – to extend the project time schedule if it cannot be placed back on track.

Response: Managing the Programming Process (and the entire chapter) Difficulty: medium

62. Jing is a project manager developing a critical project that MUST be completed by December 31st. Due to some unforeseen issues early on, the project is now two weeks behind and it is mid-November. What can/should Jing do to get the project finished by December 31st?

Answer There are lots of things that Jing can do – some of which are generally not advised. Adding additional programming staff will probably lengthen the time. If the programming is the bottleneck, it might be good to decompose complex programs into smaller modules that can be delegated to different programmers for completion. To watch the time, test plans should be ready as soon as modules are; users should be prepared to do testing as soon as possible.

Documentation can be done concurrently. If the deadline is an absolute, Jing needs to make sure that everybody, and everything is kept updated and on target. It might mean that some of the staff gets only an abbreviated Thanksgiving break – or some people (maybe testing) work during the Christmas to New Year‘s break week. If any slack could occur, Jing should be exploring all avenues (can the deadline be extended to January 15th? How fixed is the end date?) to see how best to manage the project in the time left in the planned schedule.

And … if nothing else, this also needs to be a learning experience for the team so that projects stay on track in the future.

Reference: Entire Chapter Difficulty: hard 63.

64. What is the difference between usability testing and performance testing?

Answer Usability testing is generally more important for the user-interface, while performance testing makes sure the desired response time is met. Some processes that can help might be formal usability testing (see Chapter 9) and ensuring database response time is within expected parameters as detailed in the original requirements specifications (see Chapter 11).

Reference: Testing (also review Chapters 8 and 10) Difficulty: medium

65.

66. Identify three types of user documentation. Contrast when each form of documentation should be used.

Answer There are three types of user documentation: reference documents or help systems, procedure manuals, and tutorials.

Reference documents or help systems are designed to be used when the user needs to learn how to perform a specific function, such as updating a field or adding a new record. Since users may have already attempted to perform the function prior to reading the reference documentation, it must be particularly clear and brief.

Procedure manuals describe how to perform a business task such as printing a monthly report or taking a customer order. Each item in the procedure manual typically guides the user through a task that requires several functions. Procedure manual entries are normally much longer than reference document entries.

Tutorials teach people how to use major components of the system, such as the operating system or the accounts receivable system. Tutorial entries are much longer than procedure manual entries. Tutorials are typically designed to be read in sequence whereas reference documents and procedure manuals are designed to be read individually.

Reference: Developing Documentation Difficulty: hard

Multiple Choice 1. A lot of the ‗unfreeze‘ part of Lewin‘s three step model for managing organization change… a. is part of the user interface design activities b. is generally accomplished by a strongly worded e-mail from the project sponsor to the development / project management team c. has been accomplished to this point in the project by the systems development life cycle (SDLC) processes d. is done by ‗turning up the heat‘ (i.e. unfreeze) on the users to make them want to change e. is accomplished by the organization‘s marketing vice president Ans: c Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

2. Plans to handle potential business disruption due to technical problems during conversion are covered in the what? a. System back-out plan b. Conversion disruption plan

c. Alignment alteration plan d. Business Contingency Plan e. Help Desk plan Ans: d Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

3. Which is NOT a post-implementation activity? a. System support b. System maintenance c. System request d. Project assessment e. Providing help desk and telephone support for users Ans: c Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

4. One of the problems with a parallel conversion is what? a. There is a higher risk b. The old hardware might fail c. There is a lower risk d. The users have to enter data into both systems e. There is an abrupt conversion Ans: d Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium

5. The two types of conversion modules are what? a. Whole-system and waterfall b. Waterfall and phased c. Modular conversion and whole-system d. Pilot and modular e. Parallel and modular Ans: c Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium

6. Considering conversion style, conversion locations, and conversion modules, the most risky approach is probably what? a. Direct, simultaneous, whole-system b. Direct, phased, whole-system c. Direct, pilot, modular d. Parallel, simultaneous, modular e. Parallel, phased, modular Ans: a Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium

7. It has been a busy project experience for Omar. During the analysis phase, he encountered some negative feedback from users. During design, his best user-interface analyst left for a new position and a novice user-interface designer took over. And during the coding, the team had to rely on some off-shore developers who had trouble understand the programming specifications. To get the system running as expected, the testing time was reduced. Which of the following conversion approaches might be the safest approach for Omar and the project team? a. Direct, whole-system, simultaneous conversion b. Parallel, pilot site, simultaneous conversion c. Direct, phased, simultaneous conversion d. Direct, pilot and phased conversion e. Parallel, modular and top-down conversion Ans: b Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium

8. When considering costs of a new system conversion, which is NOT a common cost to consider? a. The cost of running two systems with a parallel conversion b. The costs of more staff at more locations for support in a simultaneous conversion c. The salary costs of users, trainers, administrators, consultants d. The hardware costs for a pilot system e. The extra programming costs for a modular conversion Ans: d Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: hard (there would be hardware costs (if new hardware is needed) anyway – so simultaneous or pilot or phased, the hardware cost would still be there.)

9. The authors suggest that ―with new systems,‖ it may be best to do what? a. To expect success with optimism b. To expect the worst c. To add three additional weeks of alpha and beta testing d. To keep the existing system for two additional years e. To hold daily developer & user troubleshooting meetings during the implementation stage Ans: b Reference: Preparing a Business Contingency Plan Difficulty: medium

10. Which is NOT a step involved in preparing the technology? a. Install the hardware b. Install the telecommunications system c. Convert the logical DFDs into physical DFDs d. Convert the data e. Install the software Ans: c Reference: Preparing the Technology Difficulty: medium

11. When installing hardware, it is best to do what? a. Leave this to the last minute, so to get the latest versions of the hardware from the vendor(s) b. Work closely with the vendors who are supplying the hardware c. Create a RFP two weeks before install date d. Call Home Depot e. Outsource the hardware installation to India Ans: b Reference: Preparing the Technology Difficulty: medium

12. What is probably a common scenario in most organizations when installing a new system? a. Users are excited about the new system b. Resistance to change exists c. Scope creep delays implementation by at least two months d. The change agent is a member of the business unit adopting the change e. The project sponsor is the lead systems analyst Ans: b Reference: Preparing People for the New System Difficulty: medium

13. Which is NOT a change management plan step? a. Revising management policies b. Assessing the costs and benefit models of potential adopters c. Motivating adoption d. Installing ‗user friendly‘ hardware e. Enabling people to adopt through training Ans: d Reference: Preparing People for the New System Difficulty: medium

14. A comment about why people resist change might be what? a. People like change and feeling part of a successful organization b. What is good for the organization is not necessarily good for the people c. Change can be very uplifting and comforting d. Change is the motto of Wal-Mart e. Using new and updated systems makes a person look like a ‖yes-person‖ Ans: b Reference: Understanding Resistance to Change Difficulty: medium

15. Connie is trying to motivate users to adopt the new system. The first step she needs to consider is what? a. How to cajole the users into adopting the system b. That people need to be paid to adopt a new system c. The factors that inhibit change and the perception of costs and benefits d. The standard operating procedures of the organization e. The informal politics and the informal ‗boss‘ of the users (and how to reach this person) Ans: c Reference: Understanding Resistance to Change Difficulty: medium

16. Connie knows this when trying to motivate people to change. a. People act on what they believe to be true, not what actually is true b. People act out of political reasons, such as trying to please the manager c. People will change only when it is best for the organization d. Change is generally related to age; younger employees will embrace change; while older employees will not embrace change e. Change can only occur when negative pressures are in play Ans: a Reference: Understanding Resistance to Change Difficulty: medium

17. Which is NOT a basic tool for structuring work processes in organizations? a. Formal standard operating procedures b. Defining how people assign meaning to events (such as to ‗be successful‘) c. Promoting earlier adopters to management positions d. Allocating funds for training e. Allocating funds for positive infrastructure Ans: c Reference: Revising Management Policies Difficulty: medium

18. The habitual routines for how work is performed are called what? a. Work norms b. Policies, processes and procedures (the ―3Ps‖) c. Resource allocations d. Standard operating procedures e. Assignment infrastructures Ans: d Reference: Revising Management Policies Difficulty: medium

19. Early adopters in the new customer resource management system received faster computers with more memory. In terms of management policy, this is probably an example of what? a. Standard operating procedures b. Checks and balances c. Bonus processes d. Fair play e. Resource allocation Ans: e Reference: Revising Management Policies Difficulty: medium

20. Which of the following is a true statement about successful change? a. The migration plan is not clear b. The likelihood of successful change is increased when the cost of the transition to individuals who must change is low c. There is a need for significantly different new skills d. There is a strong possibility of disruptions in how the company has done business with the new system e. The change agent is a newcomer who has been viewed as ‗pushy‘ by potential adopters Ans: b Reference: Assessing Costs and Benefits Difficulty: medium

21. Research has shown that about __________ of potential adopters will be ready adopters. a. 5% to 10% b. 10% to 20% c. 20% to 30% d. 40% to 50% e. 90 to 100% Ans: c Reference: Motivating Adoption Difficulty: hard

22. With resistant adopters (those that simply refuse to accept the change with the new system), it might be better to do what? a. Bring them together for a meeting and open debate on a unimpassioned, logical approach b. Ignore this small minority of resistant adopters and focus on the larger majority of ready and reluctant adopters c. Find the more vocal resistant adopters and ‗bribe‘ them to accept the new system with such actions as updated computer systems, time off, and ‗trinkets‘ (like banners, buttons, stuffed animals) d. Find the leaders of this resistance and fire one of two of them as a message to the others to get ‗on board‘ e. Use an implementation JAD session with leaders from the ready adopters, reluctant adopters, and resistant adopters to find common ground Ans: b Reference: Motivating Adoption Difficulty: hard

23. Training is probably the most _________ part of any change management initiative. a. self-evident b. expensive c. overused d. wasted e. tedious Ans: a Reference: Enabling Adoption: Training Difficulty: medium

24. Training should focus on what? a. How management views the new system b. The enhanced and beneficial features of the new system c. Helping the users to accomplish their jobs d. The underlying programming of the new system e. How the analysts went from users use-cases to DFDs and ERDs Ans: c Reference: Enabling Adoption: Training Difficulty: medium

25. Generally the cheapest training to deliver would be what? a. Classroom training b. Computer-based training (CBT) c. One-on-one training d. Mentoring e. Sending employees to a nearby college or university Ans: b Reference: Enabling Adoption: Training Difficulty: medium

26. The goal of postimplementation activities is to do what? a. Praise the ready adopters b. Give encouragement to the reluctant adopters who joined in c. Institutionalize the use of the new system d. Quickly modify the system with the changes that were suggested during the project that were deemed as ‗good‘, but identified as ‗scope creep‘ e. Finally be able to relax and bond together (frequently with a post-implementation party) Ans: c Reference: Postimplementation Activities Difficulty: medium

27. Once the project team has installed the system and performed the change management activities, the system is officially turned over to who? a. The users b. The operations group c. Management d. Vendors e. Consultants Ans: b Reference: System Support Difficulty: medium

28. _________________ is the process of refining the system to make sure it continues to meet business needs. a. Business contingency plan b. System maintenance c. Help desk d. SDLC e. All of these Ans: b Reference: System Maintenance Difficulty: medium

29. Which is most likely NOT a part of Project Assessment? a. Project team review (reports on activities and performance with an eye for improvement) b. System review of the costs that were initially used in starting the analysis c. Identifying mistakes in the project and understanding the causes of those mistakes d. A thorough analysis of the software coding as to standards, cohesion and coupling e. System review of the proposed benefits that were used in analysis Ans: d Reference: Project Assessment Difficulty: very hard

TRUE / FALSE 30. Planning for the transition from the old system to the new system begins while programmers are still conducting interviews and drawing logical DFDs. Ans: False Reference: Introduction Difficulty: medium

31. Frequently, as people get used to certain ways of doing things, they view their job in terms of those processes rather than in terms of the business goals of serving customers.

Ans: True Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium 32. Lewin‘s model for managing organizational change has four steps: (a) thaw; (b) enticement; (c) change; and (d) institutionalize.

Ans: False Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium 33. The first step in Lewin‘s model is ―thaw‖.

Ans: False Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

34. Most of the SDLC processes (including JAD sessions and interviews with users) have laid the groundwork for ‗unfreezing‘ the current system so that a new system can replace it.

Ans: True Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: hard

35. Knowing that sometimes things happen due to technical problems when implementing a new system is a great reason to have a business contingency plan.

Ans: True Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

36. Fredrick Brooks suggested a three-step model for managing organizational change: (a) unfreeze; (b) move; and (c) refreeze.

Ans: False Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium 37. A ‗technology restructuring matrix‘ describes how to handle potential business disruptions due to technical problems during conversion.

Ans: False Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: hard

38. One aspect of converting to a new system might be to convert data from one format into data that will be used by the new system.

Ans: True Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

39. TJ is the project manager on the ERP implementation project. He should lead an evaluation of the project to identify what went well and what could be improved for the next system development project.

Ans: True Reference: Making the Transition to the New System Difficulty: medium

40. Arranging for and installing any needed hardware and software and converting data as needed for the new system is called ‗technical readiness‘.

Ans: True Reference: The Migration Plan Difficulty: medium 41. One conversation strategy is ‗conversion style‘ where the change from the old system to the new system can be instantaneous or gradual.

Ans: True Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium 42. Kohl‘s department stores have sub-divided the United States into twelve regions. Nancy has taken the lead on training users in a new accounting system. In order to get Nancy to train accounting users in each region, the implementation will be staggered from one region to the next as the staff receives their training. This is called ‗pilot conversion‘.

Ans: False Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium 43. A ‗pilot‘ program is where the new system is rolled out at one location (or a few locations).

Ans: True Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: easy

44. Generally the most common conversion approach is to install the entire system at one time.

Ans: True Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: easy

45. In terms of risk in conversion, a direct conversion of the entire system at all locations at one time would be the highest risk.

Ans: True Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: easy

46. Probably the most costly conversion strategy is a parallel conversion at all locations with just one module at a time.

Ans: True Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium

47. With new systems, it might be more appropriate to expect that everything will come off perfectly.

Ans: False Reference: Preparing a Business Contingency Plan Difficulty: medium 48. The ‗worst case scenario‘ might be that when implementing a new system that the new system doesn‘t work and the old system has been decommissioned.

Ans: True Reference: Preparing a Business Contingency plan Difficulty: medium

49. Change management is the process of helping people adjust to the new system and its new work processes without undue stress.

Ans: True Reference: Preparing People for the New System Difficulty: medium

50. The three key roles in any major organization change are: (a) sponsor; (b) consultant; (c) champion.

Ans: False Reference: Preparing People for the New System Difficulty: medium

51. One of the first steps in change management is to understand what the new hardware and software can do for the business.

Ans: False Reference: Understanding Resistance to Change Difficulty: hard

52. No computer system will be successfully adopted unless management policies support its adoption.

Ans: True Reference: Revising Management Policies Difficulty: medium 53. SOPs are ―system organizational policies‖ and are the formal ways to perform work processes.

Ans: False Reference: Revising Management Policies Difficulty: hard

54. One challenge of being a change agent is to make the benefits of adopting the system more attractive to reluctant users.

Ans: True Reference: Assessing Costs and Benefits Difficulty: medium

55. Once the project team has installed the system and performed the change management activities, the system is officially turned over to the users.

Ans: False Reference: Postimplementation Activities Difficulty: 56. Most organizations provide a help desk that provides a place for users to ask questions and to talk to a help desk support person.

Ans: True Reference: Support System Difficulty: easy 57. In the ‗project team review‘, each project member generally will prepare twenty to fifty pages of documentation that reports on and analyzes his or her performance.

Ans: False Reference: Project Assessment Difficulty: 58. The project team review is usually conducted two years after the system is installed.

Ans: False Reference: Project Assessment Difficulty: medium

ESSAYS 59. What are the two ‗conversion style‘ options for switching from the old system to the new system – and what are the advantages and disadvantages to each?

Answer Direct (abrupt) and parallel. Direct gets the new system installed with less cost than parallel, but also has a bigger risk; parallel lets the old and new system co-exist for a period of time – but has more costs in running two systems, but much less risk.

Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium 60. There are three conversion locations – what are they and give some advantages of each.

Answer Simultaneous (all at once); pilot; and phased: Simultaneous converts all locations to the new system at the same time – with the advantage of every user has the same screens, same processing, and same activities.

Pilot is when the new system is rolled out to a location (or a few locations) on a trial (pilot) basis – the main advantage is to provide an additional testing level and give more assurance to the new system.

Phased is when the new system is rolled out in ‗phases‘ – such as regions – the advantage might be that trainers can travel from region to region (without having all training taking place at the same time) – and that the burden on help desk personnel might also be lighter.

Reference: Selecting the Conversion Strategy Difficulty: medium 61. What is a ‗business contingency plan‘? What is its purpose?

Answer Business contingency plans are to keep small technology glitches from turning into major disasters. There are many examples of how major financial losses have occurred with major system changes (like Hewlett-Packard and Nike with SAP installation). Business disasters are prevented with good project management and migration planning. Parallel conversion is one approach to contingency planning – as a system that is known will still be available when the new system is turned on. The worst-case scenario is to not have any system at all!!!

Reference: Preparing a Business Contingency Plan Difficulty: medium

62. What is the most technically complicated step in the migration plan? Why? Answer Data conversion is generally considered the most technically complicated step in the migration.

The data might be in an older ‗legacy‘ format and needs to be converted to a database format.

The files in the old system may not match the files and databases in the new systems.

Reference: Preparing the Technology Difficulty: medium 63. In motivating users to adopt a new system, it is suggested that change agents develop two clear and concise lists of costs and benefits provided by the new system as compared to the as-is system. Why is this important?

Answer The costs and benefits from the new system should come from the original system request. This set of organizational costs and benefits should be distributed widely so that everyone expected to adopt the new system clearly understands why the new system is valuable to the organization.

These also need to be looked at from the employee‘s perspective. A change that is good to the organization may not be beneficial to the individual employee. For example, changing from hand-written address labels in the mailing room to computer created address labels might mean that the mail room employee has more work to do. All change is made by individuals, not organizations. Compelling reasons need to be made to key groups to help convince them to adopt the new system.

Reference: Assessing Costs and Benefits Difficulty: medium 64. What are the two basic strategies to motivate adoption? Give information on each.

Answer Informational and political. Information strategies are to convince potential adopters that the changes are for the better by demonstrating more benefits than costs. This will be widely distributed. Political strategy uses organizational power to motivate change – and probably comes from higher up in the organization ―adopt or you are fired‖ – ―adopt or you will be reassigned to a lower paying job‖, etc.

Reference: Motivating Adoption Difficulty: hard

65. How can careful training help adoption of a new system?

Answer From the chapter, ―Training is probably the most self-evident part of any change management initiative. How can an organization expects its staff members to adopt a new system if they are not trained?‖ Every new system requires new skills – sometimes subtle and sometimes major changes. Training should focus on how to help the users accomplish their jobs.

Reference: Enabling Adoption: Training Difficulty: medium

66. What happens after the project team has installed the system and performed the change management activities? What happens to the system from that point on?

Answer The system is officially turned over to the operations group. There will probably be a help desk to support ongoing questions and issues; there may be a ‗frequently asked questions (FAQ)‘ website and continuing support functions.

Reference: Postimplementation Activities Difficulty: medium

Multiple Choice 67. When was Agile first developed? f. 1990 g. 1996 h. 2001 i. 2010 j. 2018 Ans: c Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

68. Which of the following is not part of the Agile Manifesto? a. Individuals and interactions over process tools b. Success over budgets c. Working software over comprehensive documentation d. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation e. Responding to change over following a plan Ans: b Reference: Origins of Agile

Difficulty: Easy

69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Agile? a. Close collaboration between the project team and business experts b. Face-to-face communication c. Frequent delivery of new, deployable business value d. Tight, well-controlled teams e. Reduced impact of changes in requirements Ans: d Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

70. Which of the following is not a benefit from adopting Agile? a. Lower costs b. Ability to manage changing priorities c. Project visibility d. Team morale e. Project predictability Ans: a Reference: Adoption of Specific Agile Methodologies Difficulty: Easy

71. Which of the following is the most commonly used Agile methodology? a. ScrumBan b. Kanban c. Lean Startup d. Extreme Programming e. Scrum Ans: e Reference: Adoption of Specific Agile Methodologies Difficulty: Easy

72. _____ is an Agile approach that is designed to enable delivery of working software providing the highest business value in the shortest amount of time. a. ScrumBan b. Kanban c. Lean Startup d. Extreme Programming e. Scrum Ans: e Reference: Scrum Difficulty: Easy

73. Ideas for features of the new system are provided by end-users, customers, the development team, and other stakeholders. These items are gathered and managed by who? a. ScrumMaster b. SpritMaster c. Product owner d. Any of these Ans: c Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy 74. A prioritized feature list, also called a _____, that serves as the development teams‘ to-do list. a. Desired list b. Product list c. Feature backlog d. Product backlog e. Feature pending list Ans: d Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy

75. The development cycles in the Scrum development process are called what? a. Jogs b. Runs c. Bends d. Stretches e. Sprints Ans: e Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy

76. As a final aspect of the sprint, the team performs a sprint _____ on its performance in the just-completed sprint. a. Review b. Standup c. Retrospective d. Report e. Summary Ans: c Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy 77. In Agile, the system‘s requirements are captured from end-users, customers, and other interested stakeholders in a list called a a. Product backlog b. Feature list c. System needs d. Development list e. Sprint list Ans: a Reference: Scrum Characteristics Difficulty: Easy

78. This person is typically a representative of the business area for which the system is being developed. a. Project manager b. Product owner c. ScrumMaster d. SprintMaster Ans: b Reference: Product Owner Difficulty: Easy

79. This person has overall responsibility for the profitability of the product and monitors the return on investment of the product. a. Project manager b. Product owner c. ScrumMaster d. SprintMaster Ans: b Reference: Product Owner Difficulty: Easy 80. This person has final authority to accept or reject the results of the team‘s work. a. Project manager b. Product owner c. ScrumMaster d. SprintMaster Ans: b Reference: Product Owner Difficulty: Easy 81. This person monitors the team‘s progress and performance with an eye toward removing obstacles and impediments to progress. a. Project manager b. Product owner c. ScrumMaster d. SprintMaster Ans: c Reference: ScrumMaster Difficulty: Easy

82. The development team typically consists of how many people? a. 1-5 b. 5-9 c. 10-12 d. More than 12 Ans: b Reference: Development Team Difficulty: Easy

83. A large story in Agile is termed a(n) what? a. Novel b. Serial c. Epic d. Implementation story e. Tail Ans: c Reference: User Stories Difficulty: Easy

84. These help the team understand the story and set expectations as to when the team can consider something ―done.‖ a. Feature list b. Feature checklist c. ScrumMaster d. Acceptance criteria e. Acceptance check sheet Ans: d Reference: Acceptance Criteria Difficulty: Easy

85. The usual practice is to use a range of story points based on what sequence? a. Linear b. Exponential c. Log-log d. Fibonacci e. Modified Fibonacci Ans: e Reference: Story Points Difficulty: Medium

86. The number of story points that a team can successfully complete during a sprint is termed the what? a. Completion rate b. Acceptance rate c. Fibonacci rate d. Team velocity e. Success velocity Ans: d Reference: Team Velocity Difficulty: Easy

87. Determine what a release should include and when it should be delivered. a. Release planning b. Sprint planning c. Daily standup d. Sprint review e. Sprint retrospective Ans: a Reference: Figure 13-12 Difficulty: Easy

88. Elaborate, estimate, and prioritize highest-value product backlog items for a sprint. a. Release planning b. Sprint planning c. Daily standup d. Sprint review e. Sprint retrospective Ans: b Reference: Figure 13-12 Difficulty: Easy

89. Facilitate rapid coordination between team member and product owner. a. Release planning b. Sprint planning c. Daily standup d. Sprint review e. Sprint retrospective Ans: c Reference: Figure 13-12 Difficulty: Easy

90. Demonstrate completed functionality to interested stakeholders and users to show progress and get feedback. a. Product backlog grooming b. Sprint planning c. Daily standup d. Sprint review e. Sprint retrospective Ans: d Reference: Figure 13-12 Difficulty: Easy

91. Reflect on project and process issues within team and act as appropriate. a. Product backlog grooming b. Sprint planning c. Daily standup d. Sprint review e. Sprint retrospective Ans: e Reference: Figure 13-12 Difficulty: Easy

92. Review upcoming user stories to confirm size and clarify team questions and decompose to execution level. a. Product backlog grooming b. Sprint planning c. Daily standup d. Sprint review e. Sprint retrospective Ans: a Reference: Figure 13-12 Difficulty: Easy

93. This is a lightweight and flexible approach to develop software. a. Crystal Development Methodology b. Dynamic Systems Development Methodology c. Feature Driven Development d. Lean Software Development e. Extreme Programming Ans: a Reference: Crystal Development Methodology Difficulty: Medium

94. This is an iterative, incremental approach based on a four-phrase framework. a. Crystal Development Methodology b. Dynamic Systems Development Methodology c. Feature Driven Development d. Lean Software Development e. Extreme Programming Ans: b Reference: Dynamic Systems Development Methodology Difficulty: Medium

95. This is an Agile framework that organizes software development around completing features. a. Crystal Development Methodology b. Dynamic Systems Development Methodology c. Feature Driven Development d. Lean Software Development e. Extreme Programming Ans: c Reference: Feature Driven Development Difficulty: Medium

96. This focuses on optimizing software development time and resources, eliminating waste, and delivering only what the project needs. a. Crystal Development Methodology b. Dynamic Systems Development Methodology c. Feature Driven Development d. Lean Software Development e. Extreme Programming Ans: d Reference: Lean Software Development Difficulty: Medium

True / False 97. Agile focuses on process and tools more than individuals and interactions.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

98. Agile focuses on working software over comprehensive documentation.

Ans: True Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

99. Agile focuses on contract negotiation more than customer collaboration.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

100.

Following the plan is the most important part of Agile.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

101.

Agile does not value process and tools.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

102.

Agile does not value comprehensive documentation.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

103.

Agile does not value contract negotiation.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

104.

Agile does not value following a plan.

Ans: False Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Easy

105. Most respondents to a recent survey said their companies were at or near a high level of competency with Agile practices.

Ans: False Reference: Adoption of the Agile Approach Difficulty: Easy

106.

A standard feature of Scrum is the daily scrum meeting, called a daily sit-down.

Ans: False Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy

107.

At the end of the sprint, potentially shippable software should be produced.

Ans: True Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy

108.

Only team members attend sprint review meeting.

Ans: False Reference: Overview of Scrum Difficulty: Easy

109.

The ScrumMaster organizes the teams in Agile.

Ans: False Reference: Scrum Characteristics Difficulty: Easy

110. In Agile, the software product development is accomplished in a series of fairly long work cycles, called sprints.

Ans: False Reference: Scrum Characteristics Difficulty: Easy

111.

No specific software engineering practices are prescribed in the Scrum methodology.

Ans: True Reference: Scrum Characteristics Difficulty: Medium

112.

ScrumMaster is another name for Project Manager.

Ans: False Reference: ScrumMaster Difficulty: Medium

113.

In Scrum, the development team is free to organize itself as it sees fit.

Ans: True Reference: Development Team Difficulty: Easy

114.

Team members typically work on multiple teams at once in order to gain more expertise.

Ans: False Reference: Development Team Difficulty: Easy

115.

No one on the development team tells other team members what to do.

Ans: True Reference: Development Team Difficulty: Easy

116.

In Scrum, requirements are expressed through user stories.

Ans: True Reference: User Stories Difficulty: Easy

117.

In Scrum, user stories are very elaborate and precise.

Ans: False Reference: User Stories Difficulty: Easy

118.

An implementation size user story will take days or less to implement.

Ans: True Reference: User Stories Difficulty: Easy

119.

Anyone on the Scrum team can write acceptance criteria.

Ans: True Reference: Acceptance Criteria Difficulty: Medium

Essays 120.

What are the Agile Manifesto principles?

Answer 1. Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.

2. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer‘s competitive advantage.

3. Deliver working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference to the shorter timescale.

4. Businesspeople and developers must work together daily throughout the project.

5. Build projects around motivated individuals. Give them the environment and support they need and trust them to get the job done.

6. The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

7. Working software is the primary measure of progress.

8. Agile processes promote sustainable development. The sponsors, developers, and users should be able to maintain a constant pace indefinitely.

9. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility.

10. Simplicity—the art of maximizing the amount of work not done—is essential.

11. The best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams.

12. At regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its behavior accordingly.

Reference: Origins of Agile Difficulty: Medium

121.

According to a recent survey, what are the predominant reasons for adopting Agile?

Answer The survey found that the predominant reasons for adopting Agile were (1) to accelerate software delivery and (2) to enhance the ability to manage changing priorities.

Reference: Adoption of the Agile Approach Difficulty: Easy

122.

What are the benefits of adopting Agile?

Answer  Ability to manage changing priorities  Business/IT alignment  Project visibility  Delivery speed/time to market  Team morale  Increased team productivity  Project risk reduction  Project predictability Reference: Adoption of the Agile Approach Difficulty: Medium

123.

How is scrum structured?

Answer Scrum is an Agile approach that is designed to enable delivery of working software providing the highest business value in the shortest amount of time. Scrum is structured so that the development team rapidly and repeatedly produces actual working software that is ready for inspection in two-week to four-week cycles.

Reference: Scrum Difficulty: Easy

124.

What is the purpose of the ScrumMaster?

Answer The ScrumMaster monitors the team‘s progress and performance with an eye toward removing obstacles and impediments to progress.

Reference: ScrumMaster Difficulty: Easy

125.

What are the essential properties of the Crystal Development Methodology?

Answer  Teamwork is essential to Crystal and team members are encouraged to work on tasks as a team rather than individually.  Communication is considered the most critical aspect of the project. Communication spans both developer–customer interactions and interactions between team members.  Simplicity is stressed in terms of product design, requirements, and other project elements.  Reflection is incorporated so that team members respond, and report as needed; valid reasoning is provided for every action; and work can be revised and reconstructed when necessary.  Frequent adjustments are expected.  Process improvements are performed continuously.

Reference: Crystal Development Methodology Difficulty: Medium

126. What are the four phases of the Dynamic Systems Development Methodology framework?

Answer • Feasibility and business study • Functional model/prototype iteration • Design and build iteration • Implementation Reference: Dynamic Systems Development Methodology Difficulty: Medium

127.

Describe the Feature Driven Development framework.

Answer 1. Develop an overall model 2. Build a features list 3. Plan by feature 4. Design by feature 5. Build by feature Reference: Feature Driven Development Difficulty: Medium

128.

What are the main features of Lean Software Development?

Answer 1. Eliminate everything that is not necessary for completing the project.

2. Build quality into the product from the outset.

3. Improve team knowledge about the project.

4. Commit to rapid development.

5. Plan for fast product delivery.

6. Treat all team members and stakeholders with respect.

7. Optimize the value of the project as a whole.

Reference: Lean Software Development Difficulty: Medium