TEST BANK for Massage Therapy;Principles & Practice 7th Edition by Susan Salvo

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

UNIT ONE FOUNDATIONS FOR PRACTICE, COMPLEMENTARY AND INTEGRATIVE METHODS, AND BUSINESS PRACTICES Chapter 1 History of Massage: Prehistoric Times to the Modern Era and Professional Societies, Organizations, and Associations Chapter 2 The Therapeutic Relationship: Ethics, Cultural Competencies, and Boundaries Chapter 3 Tools of the Trade: Tables, Accessories, Linens, Lubricants, Aromatherapy, Essential Oils, and the Massage Environment Chapter

4 Career Longevity: Wellness, Wellbeing, and Self-Care

Chapter

5 Evidence-Informed Practice and Research Literacy

Chapter

6 Massage Therapy Research

Chapter

7 Body Mechanics, Client Positioning, and Draping

Chapter 8 Massage Techniques, Mobilizations, Stretches, Endangerment Sites, and Contraindications Chapter 9 Concepts of Disease, Standard Precautions, Transmission-Based Precautions, Disinfection Procedures, and Emergency Preparedness Chapter 10 Professional Standards: Scope of Practice, Standards of Care, Assessments, Documentation, Informed Consent, Treatment Planning, and Referrals Chapter 11 Special Populations: Massage for Pregnant and Postpartum Clients, Infants, Children, Adolescents, Aging Adults, and Those With Visual, Hearing, and Mobility Impairments Chapter 12 Hydrotherapy: Clinical Applications, Spa Applications, and Spa Procedures Chapter

13 Foot Reflexology: Principles and Practice

Chapter 14 Clinical Massage: Pain Theories and Pain Management, Clinical Assessments, and Clinical Application Methods Chapter

15 Seated Massage: Principles and Practice

Chapter 16 Asian Bodywork Therapy: Shiatsu, Thai Massage, and Ayurvedic Principles Chapter 17 Business Practices: Getting Started, Marketing, Professional Development, Accounting, and Planning

UNIT TWO ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, KINESIOLOGY, AND PATHOLOGY Chapter 18 Introduction to the Human Body: Medical Terminology, Cells, Tissues, and Body Compass Chapter

19 Skeletal System, Pathologies, Disorders, and Injuries

Chapter

20 Muscular System, Pathologies, Disorders, and Injuries

Chapter

21 Kinesiology

Chapter

22 Integumentary System, Pathologies, Conditions, and Injuries

Chapter

23 Nervous System, Pathologies, Disorders, and Injuries

Chapter

24 Endocrine System and Pathologies

Chapter

25 Reproductive System, Pathologies, Conditions, and Disorders

Chapter

26 Cardiovascular System, Pathologies, and Disorders

Chapter

27 Lymphatic System, Pathologies, and Conditions

Chapter

28 Respiratory System, Pathologies, Conditions, and Disorders

Chapter

29 Digestive System, Pathologies, Dysfunctions, and Disorders

Chapter

30 Urinary System, Pathologies, and Disorders

Chapter 01: History of Massage: Prehistoric Times to the Modern Era and ProfessionalSocieties, Organizations, and Associations.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which method is defined as manipulation of soft tissue using pressure and traction

forclinical, therapeutic, and palliative purposes?

Acupuncture Ayurveda Polarity therapy Massage therapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Massage therapy the manipulation of soft tissue using compression and decompression/traction for clinical, therapeutic, and palliative purposes or for wellness andself-care purposes.

2. Which origin for the word massage is Greek? a. Mashesh b. Masso c. Masser d. Makeh ANS: B

The origin of the word massage is unclear, but can be traced to numerous sources: the Hebrewmashesh, the Greek masso and massin, the Latin massa, the Arabic mass’h, the Sanskrit makeh, and the French masser.

3. When was the earliest the term massage was used by most European-based cultures? a. 1600s b. 1700s c. 1800s d. 1900s ANS: C

By the early 1800s, the term massage was used by most European-based cultures.Historically, massage was referred to by its techniques such as friction or rubbing.

4. The first written records of massage date back to 3000 BCE in which country? a. India b. China c. Egypt d. Greece ANS: B

Written records regarding the practice of massage go back to 3000 BCE in China.Acupuncture was not mentioned in Chinese writings until 90 BCE. 5. Which work is commonly referred to as the classic scripture of traditional Chinese medicine?

a. b. c. d.

Tao Te Ching Nei Ching Ayur-Veda Corpus Hippocraticum

ANS: B

At the time of Hwang Ti, various ideas and beliefs were compiled under the name of the Yellow Emperor (died in 2599 BCE) which became the classic scripture of traditional Chinesemedicine known as the Nei Chang. The Nei Chang was written about 2760 BCE, and this work contains detailed descriptions of massage procedures as well as herbal medicines.

6. What is the original massage technique in China and the precursor to manual and

energetictherapies?

Polarity Shiatsu Acupuncture Amma

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Amma is regarded as the original massage technique and precursor to all other Chinesetherapies, manual and energetic.

7. Which healing method is based on Hindu tradition? a. Ayurveda b. Shiatsu c. Amma d. Polarity ANS: A

Knowledge of amma massage traveled to the subcontinent of India from China, and massage bv ecame part of Hindu tradition. Massage is described in India’s first great medical texts, the Ayurveda books of wisdom (about 1800 BCE) and recommend massage as an indispensable healing procedure.

8. Which method is Japanese but based on Chinese medicine concepts, and uses pressure

appliedfrom the practitioner’s thumbs, elbows, and other parts of the body? a. Ayurveda b. Shiatsu c. Massage d. Amma ANS: B

Shiatsu is a Japanese method based on the same traditional Chinese medicine concepts asacupuncture —energy flows in the body through streams called channels or meridians.

Acupuncturists use needles at specific points to balance the flow of energy; shiatsu practitioners use their fingers, thumbs, forearms, elbows, and even their knees and feet.

9. Who is generally recognized as the father of modern Western medicine? a. Galen b. Celsus c. Rhazes

d. Hippocrates ANS: D

Hippocrates was known to be a fine physician, founder of a medical school, author of numerous books, and advocated the use of massage or “rubbing.” These works are collectively known as the Corpus Hippocraticum, and summarized much of what was knownabout disease and medicine in the ancient world. Hippocrates is generally recognized as the father of modern Western medicine, and he believed that physicians should avoid causing harm to patients.

10. Who wrote the Canon of Medicine, the most famous book in the history of medicine in

boththe East and the West?

Rhazes Celsus Avicenna Hippocrates

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

A text entitled or Canon of Medicine was written by one of the greatest Persian physicians of his era, Avicenna (980-1037). He was also known as Ibn Sina. The Canon of Medicine is the most famous book in the history of medicine in both the East and the West.

11. Which individual discussed the effects of massage and used friction on joints in the 1500s? a. Paré b. Harvey c. Galen d. Mezger ANS: A

Ambroise Paré (1515-1590) was a famous French surgeon who was among the earliest individuals in this era to discuss the effects of massage. He used friction to treat dislocated joints and other orthopedic conditions.

12. Who was the first known scientist to demonstrate that blood circulation due to

muscular contraction of the heart?

Paré Galen Harvey Mezger

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

English scientist William Harvey (1578–1657) discovered the circulation of blood in 1628,and his writings did much to promote the acceptance of massage as a treatment measure.

Harvey observed the hearts of living animals and determined that active phase of the heart muscular contraction (systole) pumped blood through arteries and veins.

13. Who developed the Swedish Movement Cure, which included the use of massage? a. Johann Mezger b. Pehr H. Ling c. George Henry Taylor

d. John Harvey Kellogg ANS: B

Pehr Henrik Ling (1776 to 1839) developed his own system of massage and exercises or gymnastics, the latter of which consisted of four types—educational, military, medical, anesthetic. This system was called the Swedish Remedial Massage and Exercise, the Swedish movement Cure, or simply the Ling system.

14. Which term describes a component of the Ling System? a. Shiatsu b. Ayurveda c. Thai massage d. Swedish massage ANS: D

The term Swedish massage was used to describe the massage component of Ling’s system.For this reason, Ling is regarded as the father of Swedish massage.

15. Which individual is credited with having introduced French terms still in use to

describemassage techniques? a. Johann Mezger b. William Harvey c. Pehr H. Ling d. Charles Taylor ANS: A

French was the international language in the nineteenth century. The Dutch physician JohannMezger (1838 to 909) is credited with having introduced the French terminology still used todescribe massage techniques (e.g., effleurage, pétrissage, tapotement) which is still used in massage legislation, medical insurance billing codes, and massage curricula.

16. Who is the founder of modern nursing, which included massage as part of care? a. Tiffany Field b. Florence Nightingale c. Charles Fayette Taylor d. John Harvey Kellogg ANS: B

Florence Nightingale (1829 to 1910) of England, founder of modern nursing, took care of wounded soldiers during the Crimean War (1853 to 1856). She developed a standard of care for patients, and massage was an integral part of care. When nurse training was developed, massage was included in the curriculum and massage was provided to patients as part of theircomfort measures.

17. French physician Lucas-Championniere used massage and exercise to treat soldiers

injured during which event?

World War I World War II Civil War Viet Nam War

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

World War I provided countless opportunities for the use of massage and exercise to rehabilitate injured soldiers. French physician Just Lucas-Championniere (1843 to 1913)advocated for the use of massage and passive movements to treat soft tissue injuries andfractures.

18. In what year did George Henry Taylor and Charles Fayette Taylor introduce the

SwedishMovement system in the United States?

a. 1796 b. 1856 c. 1911 d. 1958 ANS:

B

Drs. George Henry Taylor (1829 to 1899) and Charles Fayette Taylor (1827 to 1899) sailed toSweden to study the Ling system and returned to the United States to open the Remedial Hygienic Institute of New York City in 1856. The institute was an orthopedic clinic specializing in Ling’s system of massage and exercise. “Water cures” and nutrition were incorporated into their treatment regimen.

19. Who wrote the first American textbook on the Swedish Movement System in 1860? a. Hartvig Nissen b. Andrew Weil c. George Taylor d. Douglas Graham ANS: C

George Taylor wrote the first American textbook on the Swedish Movement System titled An Exposition of the Swedish Movement Cure (1860).

20. Who opened the Swedish Health Institute of Washington, DC, considered the first

massageschool in the United States?

John Harvey Kellogg Douglas Graham Just Lucas-Championniere Hartvig Nissen

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

In 1883, Hartvig Nissen (1857 to 1924) opened the Swedish Health Institute of Washington,DC. This is considered the first massage school in the United States.

21. Who helped popularize massage therapy in the United States during the modern era by

writing numerous books and publishing articles in his magazine, Good Health?

John Harvey Kellogg Douglas Graham Just Lucas-Championniere Hartvig Nissen

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

John Harvey Kellogg (1852 to1943) of Battle Creek, Michigan, promoted massage to the general public. He wrote numerous articles and books on massage and published a magazinecalled Good Health.

22. Which massage organization took the first step toward professionalism by the establishing

amassage curriculum and accreditation of massage schools?

American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses Chartered Society of Physiotherapy Esalen Massage and Bodywork Association Society of Trained Masseuses

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

In 1894 the Commissioners of the British Medical Journal published a report titled “The Scandals of Massage” to expose these practices. This prompted nine British nurses and midwives to form a council of trained masseuses. The following year (1895), the council established the Society of Trained Masseuses. The founders of the Society acted to legitimizemassage, which had become tarnished by its association with prostitution. The Society established a massage practice model, which regulated massage through a published massagecurriculum and accreditation of massage schools, which included regular inspections and use of only qualified massage instructors. Members of the Society were required to pass examinations and were subject to routine surveillance.

23. What was the original name of the American Massage Therapy Association? a. Society of Trained Masseuses b. Esalen Massage and Bodywork Association c. American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses d. Chartered Society of Massage and Medical Gymnastics ANS: C

In 1943, postgraduates from the College of Swedish Massage in Chicago created the American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses, renamed the American Massage and Therapy Association in 1958, then finally the American Massage Therapy Association in1983.

24. When did the American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses become the

AmericanMassage and Therapy Association founded? a. 1943 b. 1958 c. 1965 d. 1987 ANS:

B

In 1943, postgraduates from the College of Swedish Massage in Chicago created the American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses, renamed the American Massage and Therapy Association in 1958, then finally the American Massage Therapy Association in 1983.

25. When was the Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals founded? a. 1926 b. 1943 c. 1965 d. 1987 ANS:

D

Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals was founded in 1987.

26. Which center was a think tank for human potential movement and the first exposure

tomassage for many people?

Remedial Hygienic Institute Esalen Institute Swedish Institute Touch Research Institute

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

In 1962, Michael Murphy and Richard Pierce founded the Esalen Institute, a retreat center and think tank for human potential movement. For many people, Esalen was their first exposure tomassage and where many came to learn massage.

27. What organization was established to advance massage by supporting research? a. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals b. National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork c. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards d. Massage Therapy Foundation ANS: D

In 1990, the American Massage Therapy Foundation was established by the AMTA to advance the massage profession through supporting scientific research and evidenceinformedpv ractice. In 2004, the foundation became an independent organization and changed its name tothe Massage Therapy Foundation (MTF).

28. What organization offered a national certification exam in 1992 that was later adopted

bymost states as a licensure requirement?

Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals American Massage Therapy Association

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

In 1992, the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork (NCBTMB) was founded after significant encouragement from the AMTA and other industryleaders. The objective was to create a national certification to facilitate massage licensing reciprocity throughout the United States. A national certification examination was launched, and many states adopted it as part of their licensing requirements.

29. What type of credential did the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage

andBodywork begin offering in 2013?

Master’s certification Research licensure Board certification National licensure

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

In 2013, NCBTMB began providing board certification, which is currently the highest voluntary credential in the massage profession. Offering the exam as part of state licensurewas retired in 2014.

30. Which center is the first in the world to focus on the effects of massage and its application

inthe treatment of diseases?

Remedial Hygienic Institute Esalen Institute Swedish Institute Touch Research Institute

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The Touch Research Institute (TRI) at the University of Miami’s School of Medicine was established in 1992 under the directorship of Dr. Tiffany Field. The Institute is the first in theworld to focus on effects of massage and touch and its applications in the treatment of diseases. Their research efforts continue today and have shown massage and touch have numerous beneficial effects on health and wellbeing.

31. Which organization developed and released the Massage and Bodywork

LicensingExamination in 2008?

Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork American Massage Therapy Association Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

In 2005, the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards (FSMTB) was formed after the ABMP convened a meeting of massage regulators and educators. One of the initial goals ofthe Federation was to create a valid and reliable licensing examination, and this came to fruition in 2008 with the publication of the Massage and Bodywork Licensing Examination(MBLEx). In 2014 the MBLEx became the only licensing examination in the United States.

32. Which approach does the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health

blendwith mainstream medicine?

Pharmacology Endurance training Yoga Booster vaccinations

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

In 2014, Congress changed the name National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) to National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH),stating the use of “alternative medicine” was rare. The new center within the NIH blends medical and healthcare practices and products with mainstream medicine.

NCCIH has two subgroups—products such as herbal supplements and probiotics; and practices such as massage, acupuncture, chiropractic, and yoga.

33. How is human trafficking best described? a. Immigrant movement b. Modern-day slavery c. Modern-day pioneering d. Rehabilitative coercion ANS: B

Human trafficking is a form of modern-day slavery in which traffickers use force, fraud, orcoercion to obtain some type of labor or commercial sex act). Human trafficking is the third-largest source of revenue for organized crime, just behind drugs and guns/firearms trafficking.

34. Which illegal activity uses massage as a cover for its operations? a. Arms dealing b. Dog fighting c. Drug running d. Sex trafficking ANS: D

While great strides have been made in the massage industry towards professionalism, humantrafficking using massage as a cover is still prevalent today. According to a report published by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards, an estimated 9,000 illicit massage businesses are currently active, and this type of commercial-front massage business is one ofthe top venues for sex trafficking.

35. Which issue may legal massage practitioners have to deal with because of human trafficking? a. Paying higher costs for supplies b. Being threatened c. Needing additional continuing education d. Researching businesses ANS: B

Several issues can arise for legal massage practitioners from human sex trafficking.

Practitioners can be threatened, harassed, intimidated, and even assaulted. This may result inadditional operational costs for practitioners to increase security. Personal and business establishment reputations may be compromised. It also erodes public trust as the integrity ofmassage educational institutions, testing authorities, and state licensing boards is questioned,especially if they have allowed unqualified individuals to enter the massage profession.

36. Which complementary therapy has the highest physician referral rate? a. Craniosacral therapy b. Aromatherapy c. Massage therapy d. Hypnotherapy ANS: C

Massage is one of the complementary therapies with the highest physician referral rates, and massage is rated among physicians as the complementary therapy most likely to be beneficialand least likely to be harmful.

Chapter 02: The Therapeutic Relationship: Ethics, Cultural Competencies, and Boundaries Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A good therapeutic relationship is one of the best predictors of which therapy-related factor? a. Client compliance b. Positive outcomes c. Legal actions d. Arbitration counsel ANS: B

Several themes emerged from an investigation by Smith et al (2009a) into why clients receiveand continue to receive massage. The most commonly reported reason was a positive outcome, such as pain relief, which was often immediate.

2. Which term means adherence to a set of values and obligations; formally agreed-upon

codesof conduct; and reasonable expectations of clients, colleagues, and co-workers?

Therapeutic relationships Professionalism Conflicts of interest Reciprocity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Professionalism is the adherence to a set of values and obligations, formally agreed-upon codes of conduct, and reasonable expectations of clients, colleagues, and co-workers.

Key values of professionalism include acting in the client’s best interest and putting that interestbefore your own, maintaining standards expected of other members of the profession, and staying current with changes and discoveries in the field.

3. Which term means moral principles that govern behavior? a. Autonomy b. Laws c. Empathy d. Ethics ANS: D

Ethics are moral principles governing behavior. Ethics involve judgments about what is rightand wrong.

4. Which aspect of ethics involves respecting the rights of competent individuals to make

theirown decisions? a. Autonomy b. Veracity c. Beneficence d. Fidelity ANS: A

Professionals have an obligation to uphold autonomy, which is respecting the rights ofcompetent individuals to make their own decisions.

5. Which aspect of ethics obligates professionals to act in ways that benefit the wellbeing

ofothers? a. Autonomy b. Non-malfeasance c. Beneficence d. Fidelity ANS: C

Beneficence obligates professionals to act in ways that benefit the wellbeing of others.

6. Which aspect of ethics requires that professionals remain loyal and dedicated to their

clients,and that professionals keep their promises and honor commitments?

Autonomy Justice Beneficence Fidelity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The principle of fidelity requires that professionals remain loyal and dedicated to their clients,and that professionals keep their promises and honor commitments. Fidelity includes promisesand commitments made to individual clients and also to the public by practicing within the standards of care.

7. Which principle involves protecting information from unauthorized access or release,

loss,theft, and from its modification?

Fidelity Authenticity Justice Confidentiality

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Confidentiality refers to the obligation of professionals or professional organizations to safeguard entrusted information. This includes protecting information from unauthorizedaccess, release, loss, theft, or modification.

8. Under which circumstance can massage practitioners legally breach confidentiality? a. Records are requested by a client’s spouse b. Records are subpoenaed by a court order c. Transferring records from one massage practitioner to another d. Complying with verbal request for records by a client’s physician ANS: B

If clients are involved in court proceedings and requests are made for client records, the practitioner may be legally required to release the record as the client/practitioner relationshipmay not be privileged under state law. The ability to disclose the receipt of a subpoena, and the fact that there is an investigation, can vary. Read all of the paperwork attached to the subpoena and contact the issuer or your attorney before disclosing any information to anyone other than the issuer of the subpoena.

9. Which legality requires professionals to report concerns of neglect or abuse to

appropriate state agencies?

Consumer protection Mandatory reporting Malpractice regulation Civil rights act

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

If practitioners suspect abuse or neglect of children, elderly, or incapacitated adults, they may be legally required to file a report and provide information to appropriate agencies. This legalrequirement is called mandatory reporting.

10. What term means failure by a caregiver to provide necessary food, shelter, healthcare,

orsupervision for whom they are caring?

Abuse Neglect Sympathy Misperception

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Neglect is failure by a caregiver to provide necessary food, shelter, healthcare, or supervisionto the person for whom they are caring.

11. What term means an action by a person in a position of trust or power that causes harm

toanother person?

Abuse Neglect Insensitivity Misperception

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Abuse is any action by a person in a position of trust or power that causes harm to anotherpv erson.

12. Which concept allows practitioners to apply their professional knowledge and expertise

tohelp clients achieve their treatment goals? a. Dual relationship b. Healing touch c. Therapeutic relationship d. Subjective rapport ANS: C

The therapeutic relationship is the relationship between a practitioner and a client that allo wspv ractitioners to apply their professional knowledge and expertise to help clients achieve theirtreatment goals. This relationship protects a client’s dignity and provides a framework for ethical principles to be applied.

13. Which concept is the ability to accept another person’s beliefs despite own personal feelings? a. Trust b. Respect

c. Authenticity d. Sympathy ANS: B

Respect is the ability to accept another person’s beliefs despite your own personal feelings, and the choice to treat them with value and consideration. Respect can be given to yourself, toothers, and to situations regardless of conflicting beliefs.

14. Which term does Rogers use to describe the acceptance of another person regardless of

whatthey say or do?

Therapeutic accordance Healing therapeutic space Countertransference reversal Unconditional positive regard

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

When practitioners respect their clients, they accept them unconditionally as unique human beings, validating their humanity with their actions. This validation has the potential to be deeply healing for clients. Psychologist Carl Rogers called this unconditional positive regard, the acceptance of another person regardless of what they say or do. When we accept the whole pv erson unconditionally, we validate and respect their humanity and accept them physically, mentally, spiritually, and emotionally.

15. Which example demonstrates respect on the part of the massage practitioner? a. Self-disclosure of personal information to clients b. Counseling distressed clients c. Giving clients the massage they requested d. Draping clients improperly ANS: C

Massage practitioners who are respectful take into account the client’s preferences, expectations, predispositions, social and cultural values, and religious or spiritual beliefs whendeveloping the plan of care, without inserting their own agenda. For example, when clients request relaxation massage, avoid turning the session it into a clinical massage, as this action would be disrespectful and invalidate the client’s preferences.

16. Which concept is the desire to understand what another person is experiencing

without mistaking it for own experience?

Empathy Tolerance Sympathy Ambivalence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Empathy is the desire to understand what another person is experiencing without mistaking itfor your own experience. Empathy is educated compassion or intellectual understanding of another person’s perspective and emotions.

17. Which nonverbal expression demonstrates empathy? a. Avoiding eye contact b. Avoiding mirroring the look on the client’s face

c. Determining what emotional affect the client has d. Keeping arms crossed ANS: C

Riess and Kraft-Todd identified seven essential nonverbal empathetic behaviors, and created the acronym E-M-P-A-T-H-Y. to help professionals remember them (E – is for meaningful eye contact; M - muscles of facial expression; mimic that of the client’s to some degree; P – posture; use an open posture, which includes facing clients at eye level, head erect or slightly side-tilted, shoulders back, and hands apart; A - affect; try to determine clients’ affect or whatthey are feeling, such as happiness, fear, apprehension, or sadness; T - tone of voice; mimic the clients voice tone initially, and then modulate own to convey warmth, concern, and curiosity; H - hearing the whole person; listen intently and curiously while suspending judgment until you understand the other person’s perspective; and Y - your response; responding calmly when communicating with clients will ultimately improve rapport.

18. Which concept means confidence in and reliance upon others to act in accordance

withaccepted social, ethical, or legal norms?

Trust Respect Validity Congruence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Trust is confidence in and reliance upon others, whether individuals or organizations, to act inaccordance with accepted social, ethical, or legal norms.

19. Which statement describes cultural competency? a. Ability of practitioners to speak languages of more than one culture b. Behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable practitioners to work effectively

incross-cultural situations c. Behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable practitioners to determine

whichculture is best

d. Ability of practitioners to be tolerant of cross-cultural situations ANS: B

Cultural competency is a set of behaviors, attitudes, and policies enabling professionals tointeract effectively with others in cross-cultural situations.

20. Which aspect of cultural competency involves self-exploration and examination of one’s

owncultural and professional background and biases toward other cultures? a. Desire b. Knowledge c. Encounter d. Awareness ANS: D

Cultural awareness is conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s own culturaland professional background and biases toward other cultures, including the existence of xenophobia (prejudice of people from other countries), racism (prejudice of people from different races), and other forms of cultural phobias and “-isms.”

21. Which statement demonstrates cultural competency and intercultural

communicationcompetence? a. Believing that most members of an ethic group tend to behave in the same way b. Thinking that people new to a country are comfortable once they learn

societalnorms

c. Staying silent about disliking working on clients who cannot speak English d. Realizing that every client is unique with personal beliefs and characteristics ANS: D

Cultural competency and intercultural communication competence acknowledge that individuals are unique; this allows clients to hold their own beliefs, characteristics, andcultural practices.

22. Which aspect of cultural competency involves directly interacting and engaging

withindividuals from culturally diverse backgrounds?

Skills Knowledge Encounters Awareness

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Practitioners are encouraged to engage in face-to-face interactions with people from culturallydiverse backgrounds to potentially modify existing beliefs about cultural groups and prevent possible stereotyping. Cultural encounters provide the impetus to continue the journey towardcultural competence.

23. Which factor is a distinguishing cultural trait among LGBTQ+ community members? a. Age b. Gender identity c. Political views d. Intelligence ANS: B

The distinguishing cultural trait among LGBTQ+ community members is sexual orientationand/or gender identity.

24. Which term means people who identify as other than strictly male or female? a. Transgender b. Nonbinary c. Queer d. Bisexual ANS: B

Nonbinary refers to people who do not identify with the binary genders of male or female.

Non-binary people may identify as being both a man and a woman, somewhere in between, oras falling completely outside these categories.

25. Which practice demonstrates LGBTQ+ inclusivity? a. Discussing with clients why so many people are changing their genders b. Talking with clients about legislation involving transgender people c. Asking clients about preferred pronouns

d. Using clients’ first names ANS: C

Creating a LGBTQ+ inclusive practice involves asking clients about their preferred pronouns;having gender-neutral bathrooms; using gender-neutral draping, language, and scents; and learning about gender reassignment procedures.

26. The therapeutic relationship is a professional one that exists to meet the needs of whom? a. Client b. Therapist c. Client’s family d. Massage regulatory board ANS: A

The therapeutic relationship is a professional relationship that exists to meet the needs ofclients while providing them with safe, effective, and competent care.

27. Which term means the spaces between the practitioner’s power and the client’s vulnerability? a. Professional boundaries b. Power differential c. Ethical practice d. Interpersonal skills ANS: A

Professional boundaries are the spaces between the practitioner’s power and the client’svulnerability.

28. What is the term for the imbalance of authority between practitioners and clients in

thetherapeutic relationship?

Emotional boundaries Cultural competency Power differential Boundary distribution

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Power comes from the practitioner’s position, knowledge, and access to client information.

Incontrast, clients know (or should know) little about their practitioners. This imbalance of power is called the power differential, the inherently greater power and influence that helpi ngpv rofessionals (i.e., practitioners) have compared to the people they help (i.e., clients).

29. Which strategy maintains professional boundaries? a. Develop and follow a treatment plan b. Have more than one source of income c. Put client needs ahead of self-care needs d. Meet personal needs within the therapeutic relationship ANS: A

Strategies for maintaining professional boundaries are: (1) have clearly defined roles and responsibilities, including who can participate in the relationship; (2) establish clear boundaries between yourself and others; (3) develop and follow a treatment plan; (4) recognize that different cultures and ethnic groups may have varying rules for interactions andthat these rules must be factored into professional decisions and actions; (5) meet personal needs outside of the practitioner/client relationship; (6) develop self-awareness; and (7) createand follow a self-care plan.

30. What term describes a practitioner revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history

toclients?

Self-disclosure Confidentiality Empathy Cultural competency

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history to clients is called self-disclosure.

31.

Which example demonstrates a physical boundary?

Starting and finishing a massage session on time Sharing personal religious and political views with clients Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Physical boundaries represent circumstances under which practitioners physically touch andmassage their clients; this includes the who, what, when, where, why, and how of physical contact. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region is an example of a physicalbv oundary in the therapeutic relationship.

32. Which type of boundary helps an individual identify own feelings and keep them

separatefrom the feelings of others?

Physical Biological Emotional Financial

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Emotional boundaries involve the capacity to be aware of, to control, and to express one’s emotions. They also involve identifying which emotions are yours, which ones are not yours,and keeping these feelings separate.

33. Which response is appropriate for the massage practitioner if a client has an emotional

releaseduring the session?

End the client’s treatment immediately Charge the client an additional fee Assume the role of psychotherapist for the client Bring the focus back to the client’s body

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

A massage practitioner’s scope of practice does not allow for the intentional eliciting or processing of emotions. When clients share their emotional concerns with their massage pv ractitioner, the practitioner should act to bring the focus back to the client’s body using questions such as, “Where do you feel that in your body?” or “Can you tell me what younotice in your body as you say that?”

34. Which term describes the client projecting feelings and behaviors they have for someone

ontoan entirely different person such as the massage practitioner?

Empathy Transference Countertransference Fidelity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Transference occurs when a client transfers or projects feelings and behaviors they have for someone onto an entirely different person. In the professional relationship, transference occurswhen the practitioner assumes a different role in the client’s life, more than just someone providing massage services.

35. Which term describes the projection of feelings and behaviors the massage practitioner has

forsomeone onto the client?

Sympathy Transference Countertransference Fidelity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Countertransference is similar to transference, except the direction is reversed— transferring from practitioner to client. Countertransference may occur from the practitioner’s unmet personal needs, unresolved emotions, or internal conflicts brought into the relationship unknowingly.

36. Which example is a sign of countertransference? a. Becoming angry when the client cancels an appointment b. Shortening the session time if the client is late c. Giving the client the office email address d. Calling the client as a reminder for a massage session ANS: A

Signs of countertransference can include becoming angry or depressed when a client cancelsan appointment.

37. What type of boundary encompasses beliefs, thoughts, and ideas while also

safeguardingself-esteem?

Physical Intellectual Time Location

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Intellectual boundaries encompass beliefs, thoughts, and ideas, as well as safeguardingself-esteem.

38. Which example demonstrates a time boundary? a. Starting and finishing a massage session promptly b. Sharing religious and political views with clients c. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region d. Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client ANS: A

Time boundaries include: (1) being ready when clients arrive, having clean linens on the table; (2) beginning and ending the session on time; and (3) focusing on the client during the sessionwhile avoiding distracting activities such as talking or texting on mobile devices or conversingwith other people in the waiting room.

39. Which example demonstrates a financial boundary? a. Posting your fee schedule and accepted forms of payment b. Sharing personal religious and political views with clients c. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region d. Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client ANS: A

Financial boundaries involve issues of money and include fee schedules, paymentarrangements and procedures, and policies of non-payment.

40. Which example shows a common scenario involving a financial conflict of interest

formassage practitioners?

Selling products to clients Using more than one therapeutic modality Being an independent contractor Using a cell phone for business calls

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

One of the most common financial conflicts of interest for massage practitioners is selling products to clients. In these situations, practitioners may be faced with choosing between theclient’s best interest and practitioner’s financial interests when profits are received from the sales.

41. Which type of boundary is necessary for emails, texting, and social media? a. Intellectual b. Financial c. Digital d. Emotional ANS: C

Digital media, including social media and electronic communications, introduce a new bv oundary for practitioners, and this may create dual relationships and issues with confidentiality and privacy.

42. Which term is defined as any situation where multiple roles exist between a practitioner

and aclient?

a. b. c. d.

Dual relationships Transference Countertransference Power differentials

ANS: A

Dual relationships are any situation where multiple roles exist between practitioners and clients. Examples of dual relationships are when clients are also friends, family members, o r bv usiness associates.

43. What is the most common social dual relationship between practitioners and their clients? a. Friend b. Family member c. Business associate d. Codependent ANS: A

The most common social dual relationship is friendships.

44. What characteristic differentiates friendships from professional relationships? a. Choice b. Mutuality c. Trust d. Reciprocity ANS: D

Friendships usually involve choice, mutuality (both parties voluntarily enter the relationship),trust, delight or pleasure (both parties enjoy the relationship), and reciprocity.

Professional relationships involve choice, mutuality, trust, and pleasure, but not reciprocity.

45. According to the NCBTMB’s standards of practice, at least how much time should lapse

between discontinuing the client–practitioner relationship and initiating a mutual romantic orsexual relationship with a client? a. 6 weeks b. 6 months c. 18 months d. 24 months ANS: B

The NCBTMB Standards of Practice (Standard VI.A) require discontinuation of the client– practitioner relationship for at least 6 months before initiating a romantic or sexualrelationship with that client.

46. Which action is part of an approach for solving a severe or extreme problem? a. Blaming the person who started the problem b. Imposing a preferred solution to a conflict c. Agreeing to whatever another person wants d. Thinking about consequences of various actions ANS: D

An 8-step approach for solving severe or extreme problems includes identifying the problem;identifying issues around the problem; reviewing ethical guidelines; reviewing laws and regulations; obtaining consultation; considering several actions; thinking about possible consequences of various actions; and deciding on the best course of action.

47. Which step of an approach for solving a severe or extreme problem involves seeking

advicefrom mentors, teachers, peers, or other trusted professionals?

Identify the problem Obtain consultation Identify potential issues involved Consider possible courses of action

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Prejudices, biases, privilege, personal unmet needs or emotions can impair objectivity.Therefore, it is prudent to seek counsel from mentors, teachers, peers, or other trusted professionals.

48. Which term can be defined as sexual interaction between someone in an authoritative role

anda subordinate?

Interest Activity Misconduct Assault

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Sexual misconduct is a range of sexual behaviors, consensual and nonconsensual, between someone in an authoritative role and someone in a subordinate role—these are relationshipswith power differentials.

49. Which term means sexual or sexually suggestive unwanted behaviors perceived as

offensive,threatening or embarrassing? a. Harassment b. Exacerbation c. Activity d. Risk ANS: A

Sexual harassment denies an individual dignity and respect; its behaviors range from unwelcome verbal, written, or physical conduct that denigrates an individual or an individual’s relatives, friends, or associates; derogatory comments, innuendos, insults, slurs, nicknames, negative stereotyping, and other similar conduct; and placement, dissemination, orcirculation of written or graphic material (hard copy or electronic forms).

50. Which example demonstrates a way a massage practitioner can decrease the risk of

sexualmisconduct?

Avoiding terms of endearment, such as “honey” or “sweetie” Dressing for work as though going on a date to increase tips Wearing tight or revealing clothing to perform the session Using the words “release” or “happy ending” in advertisements

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Avoiding terms of endearment, such as “honey” or “sweetie” is one way to reduce the risk ofsexual misconduct.

51. Which procedure is an appropriate way of dealing with a client’s erection that is most

likelydue to a reflex response? a. Ask questions to distract the client b. Apply pressure to the client’s abdomen c. Tell the client that erections are unimpressive d. Turn down the thermostat to lower the client’s body temperature ANS: A

If you believe the erection is a reflex response (which may not be easy to determine), simplyignore it. You can ask questions to distract the client from thoughts or feelings or sensations leading up to the erection. Or you can alter the speed and/or depth of the massage techniques or ask them to roll over into the prone position and continue the massage.

52. Which activity is an indication the client is sexualizing the massage? a. Snoring or drooling during part of the session b. Requesting additional draping, such as a blanket c. Wearing undergarments under the drape d. Moving the pelvis repetitively ANS: D

If the client has an erection followed by inappropriate behavior, the client is likely sexualizingthe massage. Behaviors range from subtle to overt, and may include: noises such as moaning; repetitive movements of the pelvis; touching their pelvis or penis; or removing part of, or the entire drape. The client may also touch you, even in a seemingly casual or accidental way.

53. Which action by the massage practitioner is appropriate when terminating a massage while

insession?

Answering any of the client’s questions while in the room Leaving the massage room without notifying the client Removing hands from the client and stepping toward the door Waiting in the massage room for the client to get dressed

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Removing hands from the client and stepping toward the door is an appropriate way toterminate a massage while in session if the client is behaving inappropriately.

54. Which action is required of massage practitioners who know first hand about

sexualmisconduct by another therapist?

Letting the therapist know the exact nature of the allegations Informing the therapist’s supervisor of the allegation Filing a report with the state licensing board Keeping information confidential until contacted by the authorities

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

In many states, there is a “duty to report” sexual misconduct and harassment by practitioners.If there is firsthand knowledge (i.e., we witnessed it ourselves or it was disclosed by the offending practitioner), practitioners may be required to file a report with the state licensing boards.

Chapter 03: Tools of the Trade: Tables, Accessories, Linens, Lubricants, Aromatherapy, Essential Oils, and the Massage Environment Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which feature is an advantage of portable massage tables? a. Thickness of padding on b. Relative ease of transport c. Strength of frame material d. Available accessories to use ANS: B

An advantage of portable massage tables is that they can be moved with relative ease,increasing the number of locations where massage practitioners can work.

2. Which reason is an advantage of purchasing massage equipment from

reputable,well-established manufacturers?

Customer service is consistent among all massage manufacturers Massage table and massage chair warranties a less than one year Most manufacturers avoid offering a trial period for purchases Their equipment tends to hold its value and bring a higher resale price

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Reputable, well-established companies have quality, well-made products that have withstoodthe test of time. These companies often provide excellent customer service before and after the purchase, and may offer a trial period with all or part of the purchase price refunded oncethe product is returned if the customer is not satisfied. In addition, massage tables and chairs sold by reputable companies often hold their value and bring a higher resale price.

3. What is the national standard for weight ratings for massage tables and chairs? a. 500 pounds b. Depends on whether client is male or female c. The massage practitioner’s best judgment d. None ANS: D

Currently, there is no national standard for determining weight ratings for massage tables and chairs. Consumers must rely on weight ratings supplied by the company. The more reputablethe company, the more trustworthy their published weight ratings are.

4. How wide are most massage tables? a. 25-27 inches b. 28-30 inches c. 30-31 inches d. 33-34 inches ANS: C

Most massage tables have a width between 28 and 33 inches, with most tables being 3031inches wide.

5. Which term means the ability of table foam pads to return to their original height after

beingcompressed?

Loft Density Memory Durability

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

High-grade density pads generally have better memory, or ability of the foam pads to return totheir original height after being compressed.

6. Which fabric is most often used on high-quality massage tables? a. Cordura b. Polyvinyl c. Gore-Tex d. Polyurethane ANS: D

Most good-quality massage tables and products use polyurethane fabrics and do not containpv olyvinyl chlorides (PVCs), which makes them environmentally friendly.

7. Which type of product should be avoided for cleaning the massage table because it

maydegrade the fabric?

Vinegar-based Citrus oil–based Nonabrasive Nonalcohol

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Many massage table manufactures recommend a 4:1 diluted solution of green Windex, 409,Fantastik, or other nonabrasive, nonalcohol cleaning products. Vinegar may also be used.

Avoid citrus oil–based cleaners because they can damage the fabric.

8. When should chlorine bleach be used on the massage table? a. At the beginning of a three-month calendar period b. When table linens are thrown away and replaced with new ones c. When the table needs to be disinfected d. Before the start of each workday and before each massage therapy session ANS: C

Chlorine bleach is used for disinfecting, but not routine cleaning.

9. Which massage table accessory allows a client’s neck to remain relatively straight while

theclient lies prone?

Face rest Arm shelf Cervical pillow Covered bolster

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

A face rest, or face cradle, allows clients to keep their heads and necks aligned while lying prone.

10. Which massage table accessory is used while the client is lying supine? a. Face rest b. Arm shelf c. Knee bolster d. Ankle bolster ANS: C

A bolster placed behind the knees while the client is supine often reduces lower back strain bydecreasing excessive lordosis.

11. A knee bolster increases client comfort by decreasing which condition? a. Lower back strain b. Abdominal distention c. Cervical extension d. Pectoral strain ANS: A

A bolster placed behind the knees while the client is supine often reduces lower back strain bydecreasing excessive lordosis.

12. Which fabric is the most popular for massage therapy linens? a. Rayon b. Cotton c. Jersey d. Polyester ANS: B

Popular sheet fabrics are cotton, cotton blends, and flannel. Avoid thin, clingy, or seethroughfabrics such as jersey knit because these types of fabrics reveal details of the client’s body.

13. What type of material should be avoided as a drape the client is positioned over because it

canleave compression marks on the skin?

Flannel Cotton Polyester Terrycloth

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Towels are made with terrycloth and are designed to absorb water easily, making them idealfor spa treatments. Do not place a towel on the massage table then position the client over it,as the pressure of the client’s body will cause the towel to leave compression marks on the skin.

14. How often are sheets and accessory covers used before needing to be laundered? a. Once b. Twice c. For a week d. Until they smell rancid

ANS: A

Sheets and accessory covers are used once for each client, then need to be laundered.

15. What is the primary purpose of using massage lubricants? a. Reduce friction b. Hydrate the skin c. Test for skin allergies d. Increase client relaxation ANS: A

The primary purpose of a massage lubricant is to reduce friction between the practitioner’s hands and the client’s skin. Types of massage lubricant are crèmes, lotions, butters, oils, andgels.

16. Which type of product should be used if the massage therapist is unsure which is the safest

forthe client? a. Coconut oil b. Shea butter c. Scented d. Hypoallergenic ANS: D

Hypoallergenic products are less likely to cause allergic reactions. They are used when theclient has allergies to ingredients in nonhypoallergenic lubricants, has sensitive or hyper-reactive skin, or skin conditions such as eczema (atopic dermatitis) or psoriasis. If youare unsure what product to use, choose an unscented, hypoallergenic lubricant.

17. From what are oils and gels usually derived? a. Fruits, nuts, and seeds b. Petroleum-based products c. Nuts, seeds, and vegetables d. Extracts of medicinal herbs ANS: C

Oils and gels are derived from nuts, seeds, and vegetables. Sesame, grape, coconut, and hempseed oils tend to be well-tolerated.

18. From what are butters derived? a. Fruit, nuts, or seeds b. Petroleum-based products c. Vegetables, nuts, and seeds d. Extracts of medicinal herbs ANS: A

Butters are derived from fruit, nuts, or seeds. The most common butters used in massagelubricants are cocoa butter and shea butter.

19. Which butters are the most common ones used in massage lubricants? a. Carrot and avocado b. Coconut and almond c. Cocoa and shea d. Shea and peanut

ANS: C

The most common butters used in massage lubricants are cocoa butter and shea butter.

20. Which massage lubricant should be avoided if the client has a latex allergy? a. Olive oil b. Shea butter c. Coconut oil d. Almond butter ANS: B

If the client is allergic to latex, he or she may also have an allergic reaction to shea butter because of cross-reactivity. Avoid shea butter as a massage lubricant or lubricant ingredient inthese cases.

21. Which substance should be avoided because it can clog pores and may be carcinogenic? a. Aloe vera b. Cornstarch c. Mineral oil d. Cocoa butter ANS: C

Mineral oil is thought to clog pores and may be a carcinogen (cancer causing agent).

22. Which type of product is thought to mimic the hormone estrogen, which may play a role

i n bv reast cancer development?

Parabens Eucalyptus Mineral oils Alcohol

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Parabens are thought to mimic the hormone estrogen when they are absorbed into the skin; estrogens may play a role in breast cancer development. In response to these concerns, manymassage lubricant manufacturers are removing mineral oils and parabens from all or part of their product lines.

23. Which term means the transfer of harmful microorganisms from one source to another? a. Infection control b. Cross-contamination c. Universal precautions d. Single-usage ANS: B

Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria are transferred from onesource to another.

24. Which method is the most effective way to prevent cross-contamination of a thin

massagelubricant?

a. An open jar used for multiple clients b. A container with a pump mechanism c. An open jar that sits in a massage holster

d. A container on the floor near the client ANS: B

When dispensing thin lubricants such as lotions, gels, or oils, either use a container with a pv ump mechanism or a squeezable bottle or tube.

25. How long can massage lubricant remain blended and unrancid after being purchased if it

isstored in a cool, dark place out of direct sunlight?

1 month 6 months 18 months 36 months

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Store your massage lubricants in a cool, dark location away from direct sunlight. Under theseconditions, most lubricants remain blended and unrancid for approximately 18 months.

26. Which scent does the National Sleep Foundation recommend to promote calmness

andrelaxation?

Lavender Geranium Eucalyptus Patchouli

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

If scents are used, the National Sleep Foundation recommends lavender, vanilla, valerian,j asmine, or any scent the client enjoys to promote calmness and relaxation.

27. How many drops of essential oil should be added to one ounce of oil-based lubricant

for afull-body massage?

2 to 5 5 to 10 15 to 20 20 to 30

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Add 15 to 20 drops of essential oil to 1 oz of oil-based lubricant for a full-body massage.

This gives a 2.5% to 3% dilution. For massaging a localized area (e.g., muscle spasm in the shoulder), a slightly stronger dilution can be used. Add 12 to 15 drops of essential oil to 1/2 ozof carrier oil or lubricant for this purpose.

28. Which temperature range is the most comfortable range for a massage room? a. 57 to 60 F b. 65 to 70 F c. 68 to 76 F d. 80 to 86 F ANS: C

Ideal room temperatures for massage practitioners are between 68° and 76° F (Occupational Safety and Health Administration [OSHA], 2003). The higher end of this temperature range isrecommended for clients.

29. Which colors are most likely to create a cozy feeling in the massage space? a. Taupe, gray, and beige b. Blue, violet, and green c. Green, taupe, and red d. Red, yellow, and orange ANS: D

Rich shades of red, orange, and yellow can create a warm cozy feeling.

30. Which practice best promotes a safe and accessible treatment facility? a. Using circular-style door handles b. Providing slick and smooth flooring c. Posting a fire escape route inside a closet located near a building exit d. Checking and tightening loose knobs on massage tables before each business day ANS: D

Maintain all equipment in safe working condition. This includes checking and tightening yourmassage table hinges, knobs, and locks before each business day.

Chapter 04: Career Longevity: Wellness, Wellbeing, and Self- Care Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Studies about career longevity in nursing, education, and athletic training can be correlated

tomassage therapy because all these professions have what in common?

Being health related A physical component Comparable pay rates Same amount of schooling

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Although investigations into factors contributing to career longevity in massage have not beenconducted, studies have been carried out in nursing, education, and athletic training.

The information from these studies can be applied to the massage profession because of several commonalities – care of others and physicality in the performance of professional activities.

2. Which approach do professionals use to help prevent burnout? a. Being minimally active b. Keeping concerns to self c. Spending time with family d. Avoiding spiritual interests ANS: C

Many professionals persisted in their careers and prevented burnout by utilizing self-care strategies such as exercising, talking with peers and supervisors, spending time with family,and practicing spirituality.

3. Which concept includes activities, choices, and lifestyles oriented toward optimal health

andwellbeing?

Wellness Perfection Tranquility Independence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Wellness includes activities, choices, and lifestyles oriented toward optimal health andwellbeing to live more fully within a community.

4. Which concept is a foundation for an evidence-informed approach of career

longevity,self-care, and burnout prevention?

Eustress Depersonalization Wellness model Biopsychosocial model

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The wellness model is a foundation for an evidence-informed approach of career longevity, self-care, and burnout prevention and includes exercising (physical wellness), having a balance between personal life and work life, spending time with family, friends, and coworkers (social and occupational wellness), taking educational courses (intellectual wellness), reducing stress (emotional wellness), and practicing spirituality (spiritual wellness).

5. According to Bonnie Prudden, massage is classified as which type of occupation? a. Active b. Walking c. Standing d. Strenuous ANS: D

Prudden classifies massage therapy as a strenuous occupation.

6. According to Bonnie Prudden, someone in a sitting occupation may develop trigger

pointswhere?

Feet Chest Abdomen Forearms

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Sitting occupations often put trigger points in the chest, neck, shoulders, and upper and lo we rbv ack.

7. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, what is the minimum number of

minutes of moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise should adults achieve each week? a. 30 b. 60 c. 100 d. 150 ANS:

D

Cardiorespiratory exercises are activities involving prolonged body movements that increaseheart and respiration rates. Recommendations for cardiorespiratory exercise are 150 minutes(2 hours and 30 minutes) to 300 minutes (5 hours) a week of moderateintensity, or 75 minutes (1 hour and 15 minutes) to 150 minutes (2 hours and 30 minutes) a week of vigorous-intensity physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderateand vigorous-intensity activity.

8. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, how often should adults participate

inresistance exercises?

Every day 2 or 3 days each week 1 day each week Every other week

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Resistance exercises involve contracting muscles against resistance and takes effort.

Recommendations for resistance exercises are 2 or 3 nonconsecutive days a week on all majormuscle groups.

9. Which type of exercise specifically helps reduce fall risk? a. Cardiorespiratory b. Resistance c. Neuromotor d. Flexibility ANS: C

Neuromotor exercises can improve agility, balance, coordination, gait, proprioception (self-awareness of movements and body positions), and reduce fall risk and fear of falling.

10. What term means ingesting food and drink to help the body function properly? a. Health b. Nutrition c. Calories d. Wellness ANS: B

Nutrition is ingesting food and drink to help the body function properly, to support tissue growth and repair, and to supply the energy needed for daily activities.

11. What term encompasses proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water? a. Nutrients b. Calories c. Enzymes d. Hormones ANS: A

Nutrients are substances in food and drink that provide nutrition. Nutrients can be groupedinto two categories—macronutrients and micronutrients, and six subcategories—proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.

12. Which food category provides energy through calories and includes proteins,

carbohydrates,and fats?

Micronutrients Macronutrients Dietary cofactors Organic compounds

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Macronutrients are proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. They are needed in relatively large amounts. Macronutrients are also called the calorie group because they provide nutrientsthrough calories, which are units of energy received from nutrients.

13. Which type of nutrient is composed of chains of amino acids? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals

d. Carbohydrates ANS: B

Proteins are chains of amino acids. The body uses approximately 24 amino acids.

14. Which nutrient aids the body’s growth and energy needs, helps build and repair tissues,

andhelps form antibodies to fight infection?

Fats Proteins Minerals Carbohydrates

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Proteins assist the body’s growth and energy needs, help build and repair tissues, and helpform antibodies which fight infection.

15. Which type of protein contains all eight essential amino acids? a. Complete b. Saturated c. Incomplete d. Unsaturated ANS: A

Foods that contain all 8 essential amino acids are complete proteins, and foods that lack one ormore essential amino acid are incomplete proteins.

16. Which foods are considered good sources of protein? a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts b. Breads, cereals, potatoes, beans, peas, and honey c. Nuts, seeds, oils, butter, cream, and avocados d. Fresh fruits, nuts, sugar, syrup, corn, and honey ANS: A

Good sources of complete proteins are meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, cheese, beans, peas, andnuts.

17. Which type of nutrient provides the body with energy? a. Fibers b. Vitamins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: D

Carbohydrates are sugars that turn into glucose (blood sugar) and are used by the body asenergy.

18. Which foods are sources of carbohydrates? a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts b. Honey, whole grain breads, apples, peas, and beans c. Nuts, seeds, oils, butter, cream, and avocados d. Cheese, beans, peas, butter, cream, and nuts

ANS: B

Sources of simple carbohydrates are fresh fruits, honey, and table sugar. Sources of complexcarbohydrates are whole grains breads, fiber-rich fruits (apples, blueberries, raspberries, oranges), and fiber-rich vegetables (corn, acorn squash, peas, beans).

19. Which type of nutrients are sources of energy and help the body absorb certain vitamins? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: A

Fats and oils are found in animal and plant foods, are sources of energy, and help the bodyabsorb certain vitamins and minerals.

20. Which type of nutrient is classified as either unsaturated or saturated? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: A

Fats can be either unsaturated (liquid at room temperature) or saturated (solid at roomtemperature).

21. Which term refers to a type of fat that is liquid at room temperature? a. Complete b. Saturated c. Incomplete d. Unsaturated ANS: D

Fats can be either unsaturated (liquid at room temperature) or saturated (solid at roomtemperature).

22. Which term refers to fats with no nutritional value and are harmful to health? a. Unsaturated b. Saturated c. Organic d. Trans ANS: D

Transfats are a type of fat with no nutritional value and are harmful to health. They can befound in processed foods such as baked goods, snack foods, fried foods, shortening, margarine, and certain vegetable oils.

23. Which foods are sources of healthy fats? a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts b. Breads, cereals, potatoes, beans, peas, and honey c. Nuts, seeds, olive oil, fatty fish, and avocados d. Fresh fruits, nuts, sugar, syrup, corn, and honey

ANS: C

Good sources of healthy fats are nuts, seeds, olive oil, avocados, eggs, and fatty fish, such assardines, tuna, salmon, trout, mackerel, and herring.

24. Which vitamin is water-soluble? a. A b. C c. D d. E ANS: B

Water-soluble vitamins dissolve in water, are readily absorbed into tissues, are not stored inthe body, and are quickly excreted in urine. Water-soluble vitamins must be consumed regularly. Examples of water-soluble vitamins are B-complex group and vitamin C. 25. Which vitamin is fat-soluble? a. B1 b. B12 c. C d. E ANS: D

Fat-soluble vitamins dissolve in fat, are absorbed slowly, and are stored in the liver and in fatcells for future use. Examples of fat-soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. 26. Which food is the best source of Vitamin A? a. Yogurt b. Spinach c. Strawberries d. Citrus fruits ANS: B

The best sources of vitamin A are liver, spinach, sweet potatoes, pumpkin, collard greens, andmilk.

27. Which food is the best source of Vitamin C? a. Limes b. Cheese c. Seafood d. Potatoes ANS: A

The best sources of vitamin C are citrus fruits (oranges, limes), strawberries, broccoli, andsweet red peppers.

28. Which food is the best source of Vitamin E? a. Yogurt b. Potatoes c. Strawberries d. Almonds ANS: D

The best sources of vitamin E are almonds, peanuts, sunflower seeds, spinach, avocado, oils(wheat germ, safflower), and carrot juice.

29. Which vitamin acts as an antioxidant and helps the body resist infection? a. A b. C c. D d. K ANS: B

Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant, helps the body resist infection, promotes adrenal function,aids in collagen production, and can reduce high blood pressure and cholesterol.

30. Which vitamin promotes bone development as well as calcium absorption and metabolism? a. A b. C c. D d. K ANS: C

Vitamin D promotes bone development, helps absorb and metabolize calcium, and aids immune function.

31. Which vitamin aid in blood clotting? a. A b. C c. D d. K ANS: D

Vitamin K aids in blood clotting and maintains bone health.

32. Which nutrients are chemical elements found in the earth’s crust that are vital in

regulatingmany body functions?

Fats Proteins Minerals Carbohydrates

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Minerals are chemical elements found in the earth’s crust that are vital in regulating many body functions. Minerals act as coenzymes (iron), support organs (potassium), build bone (calcium), relax muscles (magnesium), and aid healthy growth and development (zinc).

33. Which mineral supports the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth? a. Iron b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: C

Calcium supports the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth and promotesheart, nerve, and muscle function. Calcium requires other nutrients to function, such as vitamin D. 34. Which mineral is part of hemoglobin in red blood cells, thereby helping deliver oxygen to

thetissues?

Iron Sodium Calcium Potassium

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Iron attaches to the hemoglobin in red blood cells, thereby supporting the delivery of oxygento the tissues.

35. Which nutrient helps regulate body temperature, flushes out waste products, and

preventsconstipation?

Fats Water Protein Minerals

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Drinking water helps regulate body temperature; lessens the burden on the kidneys and liver by flushing out waste products; helps dissolve minerals and other nutrients, making them more accessible to the body; helps prevent or reduce constipation; and moistens mucosal membranes such as those found in the mouth.

36. Food labels provide nutritional information based on a daily intake of how many calories? a. 1,000 b. 1,500 c. 2,000 d. 2,500 ANS: C

Food labels are panels on packaged foods made in the United States and imported from other countries. They contain nutritional facts such as serving size, calories per serving, macro- andmicronutrients, and a list of ingredients. The label also includes the daily values based on a 2000-calorie diet.

37. How much of the Healthy Eating Plate do fruits and vegetables occupy? a. One eighth b. One fourth c. One third d. One half ANS: D

The Healthy Eating Plate was developed by the Harvard School of Public Health and helps people make food choices and plan portion sizes at mealtimes. It divides a meal plate into portions of fruits and vegetables (half of the plate), whole grains (one-fourth of the plate), andhealthy proteins (one-fourth of the plate).

38. Which factor contributes to learning and memory, weight control, mood, health, and safety? a. Adequate sleep b. Insufficient sleep c. Adequate water intake d. Insufficient mineral intake ANS: A

Adequate sleep is important for learning and memory, weight control, mood, health, and safety. Sleep deprivation contributes to slips/falls and errors in judgments, including medicalmistakes and road accidents. Sufficient sleep is a key to the body’s ability to recuperate fromthe mental, emotional, and physical work of massage (CDC, 2017; Harvard Medical School,Division of Sleep Medicine; n.d.).

39. Which term means the ability to balance work and leisure time, manage workplace stress,

and build good relationships with co-workers and colleagues. a. Occupational wellness b. Compassion c. Balance d. Emotional wellness ANS: A

Occupational wellness is the ability to balance work and leisure time, manage workplacestress, and build good relationships with co-workers and colleagues.

40. Which statement defines burnout? a. Physical exhaustion from overstressing muscles during weight bearing exercise b. Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense of

personalaccomplishment c. Emotional strain from working with those who are suffering from theconsequences of traumatic events d. Mental exhaustion from interactions with people and from educational demands ANS: B

Burnout is a state of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense o f pv ersonal accomplishment. It results from chronic workplace stress that has not been successfully managed.

41. Approximately how many massage therapists have experienced work-related pain

andmusculoskeletal symptoms?

a. 25% b. 35% c. 50% d. 70% ANS:

D

Approximately 70% of massage practitioners experience work-related pain and musculoskeletal symptoms. Common pain locations were fingers and thumbs, wrists, elbows,and shoulders, followed by the neck and lower back (Albert et al., 2008; Greene & Goggins, 2006; Jang et al., 2006).

42. Which strategy is effective in improving occupational wellness for massage practitioners? a. Increasing repetitive movements performed with the wrist and fingers b. Having an area of one foot of open space around all sides of the table c. Using a table height that allows generation of sufficient downward force d. Stowing bolsters in overhead cabinets to eliminate tripping hazards ANS: C

To improve occupational wellness, massage practitioners should evaluate and possibly modifythese factors: Have an area of 3 feet (1 meter) of open space around all sides of the table to allow practitioners to stand or sit comfortably in relaxed, efficient, and aligned posture while administering techniques; stow bolsters in easy-to-access locations between knee and waist height, so they can be lifted without bending or reaching; perform massage on traditional wood, carpet with cushioned backing, or foam-backed vinyl flooring, if possible. Antifatigue mats can be placed around the table. use a correct table height to allow practitioners to generate sufficient downward force.

43. Which approach can help alleviate or prevent burnout in massage therapists? a. Refraining from physical exercise because it is stressful b. Avoiding taking continuing education because it is stressful c. Spending as much time alone as possible d. Being part of a positive work community ANS: D

Positive interactions with co-workers and talking with peers and supervisors promote careerlongevity. Therefore, it is vital massage practitioners build and maintain a positive and supportive work community and participate in team-building activities to reduce feelings ofisolation.

44. Which wellness domain involves acquisition, development, and creative application of

criticalthinking?

Emotional Intellectual Spiritual Social

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Intellectual wellness is the continuous acquisition, development, and creative application of critical thinking in the quest for a more satisfying existence. It involves recognizing one’s owncreative abilities and finding ways to expand knowledge and skills. Intellectual wellness allows you to expand your ability to analyze, critique, understand, evaluate, problem solve, predict, and comprehend.

45. Which term means a response of the body due to an environmental, societal, situational,

orchemical factor?

Stress Nutrition Wellness Psychology

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Stress is the response of the body to demands placed on it by the stressors. A stressor is something that triggers the stress response and include environmental factors (crowding, deadlines, excessive noise, or destructive weather), societal factors (verbal aggression or conflict from family, friends, supervisors, co-workers or customers), situational factors (starting or losing a job, relocating, marriage, or divorce), or chemical factors (stimulants suchas caffeine, irritants such as inflammation, and hormone/neurotransmitter imbalances such as thyroid-stimulating hormones and serotonin).

46. Which term means a positive form of stress? a. Social wellness b. Guided imagery c. Eustress d. Distress ANS: C

Eustress is perceived as positive and within our ability to meet the demands of the situation—it keeps us focused on a goal, improves performance, and gives us personalsatisfaction.

47. Which stress reduction method combines mindfulness meditation with an activity? a. Guided imagery b. Mindfulness-based c. Expressive writing d. Self-affirmations ANS: B

Mindfulness-Based Stress Reduction (MBSR) combines mindfulness mediation with an activity. To practice MBSR, focus your attention to present moments and observe bodilysensations and the emotions felt while participating in the chosen activity.

48. Which stress reduction method involves positive statements spoken or read to

promoteconfidence in oneself?

Guided imagery Expressive writing Self-affirmations Mindfulness-based

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Self-affirmations are positive statements spoken or read to affirm one’s worthiness and valueand can be used to facilitate change in the individual using them. Self-affirmations can be used to promote self-confidence and the belief in your own abilities.

49. Which statement describes the social wellness domain? a. Interacting with others through good communication skills and

maintainingmeaningful relationships b. Choosing a satisfying career and contributing to society through volunteer efforts c. Searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without

religiousaffiliation d. Maintaining health through proper nutrition and regular physical activity ANS: A

Social wellness is the positive interaction with others and involves good use of communication skills, developing and maintaining meaningful relationships, valuing diversityand treating others with respect, and creating a social support system. The social support system includes family, friends, teachers, classmates, and others. Social wellness also involves participating in community events such as celebrations and festivals.

50. Which statement describes the spiritual wellness domain? a. Maintaining health through proper nutrition and regular physical activity b. Searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without

religiousaffiliation

c. Choosing a satisfying career and contributing to society through volunteer efforts d. Interacting with others through good communication skills and

maintainingmeaningful relationships ANS: B

Spiritual wellness is searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or withoutreligious affiliation. Spirituality is the life lived inside oneself, versus the life lived outside through occupations and social networks.

Chapter 05: Evidence-Informed Practice and Research Literacy Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of complementary care is one of the most common used by the general public? a. Massage therapy b. Aromatherapy c. Yoga d. Meditation ANS: A

Massage, chiropractic, and osteopathic care are among the most common complementarypractices utilized by the general public.

2. Which term means making treatment decisions by integrating relevant research, the

client’spreferences and values, and the practitioner’s professional expertise? a. Dynamic functioning b. Behavior modification c. Evidence-informed practice d. Integrative–holistic practice ANS: C

Evidence-informed practice is a problem-solving approach used when making treatmentdecisions that integrates relevant evidence, the client’s preferences and values, and the practitioner’s professional expertise to achieve desired patient/client goals.

3. Which activity involves the ability to locate, read, understand, and evaluate

investigativestudies?

Digital competency Massage competency Research literacy Computer literacy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Research literacy is cognitive and social understanding of the basic purpose, process, and value of research. Research literacy involves a skill set that includes the ability to locate, read,understand, and evaluate research literature.

4. Which factor is a barrier to evidence-informed practice? a. Knowledge of statistical information b. Lack of information literacy skills c. Requirements by administration to incorporate information d. Preference for computerized sources over information from colleagues ANS: B

Barriers to evidence-informed practice include lack of information literacy skills; lack of research skills; limited or poor access to quality information; lack of time (speed of access);negative staff attitudes and resistance; lack of administrative support; preference for colleagues as information sources over printed or computerized sources; reading barrier (health literacy); language barrier (English language learners); lack of statistical knowledge.

5. Which term means information that supports an idea or conclusion? a. Data b. Placebo c. Variable d. Evidence ANS: D

Evidence is information that supports an idea or conclusion. Evidence is used to support or refute arguments, and helps us to make professional decisions by knowing which methods areeffective and what is not and how those methods should be applied to achieve documented results (e.g., length of session, frequency of sessions).

6. Which term means systematic inquiry using prescribed methods to validate or refine

existingknowledge or to develop new knowledge?

Abstract Research Hypothesis Evidence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Research is systematic inquiry using prescribed methods to validate or refine existingknowledge or to develop new knowledge. Research is the backbone of the healthcare profession and can validate, provide efficacy, and innovate treatment protocols.

7. Which type of research emphasizes objective measurements that is analyzed mathematically? a. Systematic b. Predictive c. Qualitative d. Quantitative ANS: D

Quantitative research methods are largely objective and results may be replicated. Data is analyzed mathematically, often using statistical analysis and results are expressed in numbers,graphs, or tables.

8. Which term means recorded factual material that is used to validate research findings? a. Data b. Placebo c. Variable d. Evidence ANS: A

Data refers to recorded factual material that is used to validate research findings.

9. Which type of research is subjective and narrative-based?

a. b. c. d.

Systematic Predictive Qualitative Quantitative

ANS: C

Qualitative methods are largely subjective and narrative-based. Data is often collected by observations or interviews with open-ended questions to gather information about individual or collective experiences, or common themes. Data is analyzed by summarizing, interpreting,and categorizing commonalities to better understand concepts and their context, and to gain insights on topics not well understood.

10. Which process is used to conduct investigations and pursue knowledge within a field? a. Peer review b. Scientific method c. Secondary sourcing d. Therapeutic outcome ANS: B

The research process is used to conduct investigations and pursue knowledge within a field.

The terms research process and scientific method are often used interchangeably. In general, the research process includes (1) formulating a research question, (2) reviewing the literature, (3) selecting the best method to answer the research question, (4) conduction the experimentor investigation, (5) collecting the data, (6) analyzing the data, (7) presenting the research results or findings.

11. Which statement describes the concept of reliability in research? a. Alternative treatment was compared to the treatment of interest b. Test result is close to the actual value of what was measured c. Same test result is likely to occur if the experiment is repeated d. Degree to which a test measured what it was supposed to measure ANS: C

Reliability means consistency and indicates that if the experiment or test was repeated by the same or different investigators, the results would be the same.

12. Which statement describes the concept of validity in research? a. Test result is close to the actual value of what was measured b. Alternative treatment was compared to the treatment of interest c. Same test result is likely to occur if the experiment is repeated d. Degree to which a test measured what it was supposed to measure ANS: D

Validity means accuracy and indicates that the experiment measured what it was supposed tomeasure.

13. Which term means a personal tendency toward a preference or outcome? a. Bias b. Sample c. Variable d. Blinded

ANS: A

Bias is a researcher’s preference for one outcome over other outcomes. In research, bias mayoccur when the investigator(s) select or encourage one outcome or answer over others.

14. During which process are research participants advised of the risks and benefits of

theexperiment?

Data collection Results analysis Health history Informed consent

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Risks and benefits are disclosed to participants during the informed consent process.

15. Which part of research is the presumed outcome of an experiment? a. Results b. Sample c. Hypothesis d. Conclusion ANS: C

A hypothesis is the presumed outcome and what is expected to occur given a certain set ofcircumstances. Hypotheses are largely derived from the literature review.

16. Which part of research is anything that can be changed in an experiment? a. Sample b. Variable c. Result d. Analysis ANS: B

A variable is anything that can vary or change in an experiment and this change can bemeasured. Two main variables are independent and dependent.

17. Which factor is the condition manipulated or controlled during an experiment? a. Dependent variable b. Independent variable c. Qualitative data d. Quantitative data ANS: B

The independent variable is the condition manipulated or controlled and is the presumed “cause” of the effect. The independent variable is stable, unaffected, and independent of othervariables in the experiment. An example of an independent variable is massage.

18. Which factor is the presumed effect from the procedure used in research? a. Dependent variable b. Independent variable c. Qualitative data d. Quantitative data ANS: A

The dependent variable is the variable that is dependent on other variables and is the variablethat is expected to change as a result of the independent variable. The dependent variable is the presumed effect.

19. Which step occurs after the research question has been formulated? a. Participant recruitment b. Variable determination c. Method determination d. Literature review ANS: D

A literature review represents existing scholarly works with the aim of discussing all published information about a specific topic or research question. These are often found in the pv rofessional literature and academic journals.

20. Which term means the steps taken to conduct the research experiment? a. Data b. Conclusions c. Methods d. Hypothesis ANS: C

Methods are the steps taken to conduct the experiment. The researchers may choose to use questionnaires, surveys, polls, interviews, observations, archival records, or other instruments.Methods include details about the participant selection, if a control group was used, if group selection was randomized.

21. Which research term means a group of individuals used to represent the entire population? a. Data b. Sample c. Variable d. Hypothesis ANS: B

Experiments are usually conducted on a small group of individuals called a sample. A sampleis a subset of a population that is used to represent the entire population as whole.

Research makes inferences about the population studied from the sample from which it was drawn.

22. Which term means characteristics disqualifying participants from being in an experiment? a. Qualitative data b. Exclusion criteria c. Independent variables d. Dependent variables ANS: B

Exclusion criteria are characteristics disqualifying participants from inclusion in theexperiment.

23. Which term means a group of people that receives something other than the treatment

studiedduring an experiment?

a. Sham

b. Independent c. Treatment d. Control ANS: D

The control group does not receive the intervention under investigation or receives comparison or alternative treatment. The comparison treatment can be a sham treatment or analternative treatment.

24. Which statement describes delimitations in an investigative study? a. Boundaries the researcher sets b. Potential weaknesses or problems c. Things the researcher accepts as true d. Variables outside of the study ANS: A

Delimitations are boundaries the researcher sets for the study that are under their control.Examples of delimitations include the research question, choice of variables, and the population chosen for the study.

25. Which group evaluates and approves a study before it begins, monitors the study

throughoutthe data collection, investigates any incidents that occur during the study, and evaluates the final report? a. Community Action Board b. Institutional Review Board c. Human Rights Commission d. Commission for Liberty and Justice ANS: B

After the methods are determined and before participant recruitment begins, the study must beapproved by a committee such as an Institutional Review Board (IRB). This process protects participants from undue harm caused by involvement in study, as well as monitors the study throughout data collection, investigates incidents occurring during the study, and evaluates thefinal report.

26. When do research scientists analyze data? a. During the design of the research study b. After it has been collected c. Before it has been collected d. During the determination of the hypothesis ANS: B

Once data are collected, the researcher analyzes the data, aligns it with the research question,and then draws conclusions.

27. Which term means the outcome of an experiment? a. Results b. Criteria c. Variables d. Hypothesis ANS: A

Results are the study’s outcome. Research results are also called findings. Results apply onlyto what was found after data analysis.

28. Which method is in the weakest level of the hierarchy of evidence? a. Longitudinal studies b. Descriptive studies c. Case reports d. Expert opinions ANS: D

Level 5 is the weakest level of evidence and includes expert opinions, the opinions of respected authorities, or reports of expert committees. Expert opinions are from people whohave acquired vast amounts of information and offer experienced views on specified topics,bv ut they may become biased about what works and what does not.

29. What do descriptive studies illustrate? a. Outcomes in relation to a suspected risk b. Phenomenon or characteristics of a population c. A personal experience d. Opinions of respected authorities ANS: B

Descriptive studies describe the phenomenon or characteristics of a population (e.g.,demographics, educational levels, socioeconomic factors).

30. Which term means a description of how dependent variables were measured in a study? a. Abstract b. Hypothesis c. Operational definitions d. Conceptual definitions ANS: C

Operational definitions describe how dependent variables were measured. For example, i f bv lood pressure is a dependent variable, the study must describe how blood pressure was measured, including what device used and where on the participant’s body measurementswere taken.

31. What does the D in the IMRaD format stand for? a. Data format b. Dependent variable c. Distribution d. Discussion ANS: D

In general, research papers have four main sections and follow the “IMRaD” format.

TheIMRaD stands Introduction, Method, Results, and Discussion.

32. Which term describes a system used to rank research based on strength of evidence? a. Research literacy b. Quantitative research c. Hierarchy of evidence

d. Evidence-based practice ANS: C

Although all research evidence is valuable, some studies are given more “weight” when informing a treatment plan. Hence, a ranking system is needed to evaluate their strength.

Theranking system, called a hierarchy of evidence, is often denoted by a pyramid, with the strongest evidence is near the peak and the weakest evidence near the wide base.

33. Which type of research is a critical analysis of many studies? a. Anecdote b. Cohort study c. Case report d. Systematic review ANS: D

A systematic review (SR) is a critical analysis of many studies. It is in level 1 of the hierarchyof evidence.

34. Which type of research follows a group of participants across a period of time? a. Anecdote b. Cohort study c. Case report d. Metanalysis ANS: B

A cohort study is a longitudinal study, which follows a group of participants across a period oftime. A cohort is a group of individuals who share a common characteristic such as birth, occupation, geographic area, or condition such as they consumed tobacco products or receiveda certain vaccine. The comparison cohort does not share the characteristic studied and the study looks for differences between groups.

35. Which approach is a description of personal experience? a. Metanalysis b. Cohort study c. Case report d. Anecdote ANS: D

An anecdote is a description of a personal experience. Without controls and comparisons, we do not know to what extent the intervention contributed to the participants’ outcomes, if at all.

36. Which result occurs from a combination of formal education, knowledge accumulation,

pasttreatment decisions, and past patient care outcomes?

Research methodology Professional expertise Research literacy Clinical preferences

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

A practitioner’s professional expertise is a combination of formal education, knowledge accumulation, previous treatment decisions, and past outcomes. Development of expertiseoccurs when theoretical and practical knowledge are “tested” and “refined” in actual professional situations, which leads to improved judgment and improved quality of client care.

37. Which description fits a massage professional whose behavior is rule-governed

andinflexible?

Novice Competent Proficient Expert

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Novices, or beginners, are new students who have no experience in situations they are expected to perform. Novices usually lack confidence, and their professional behaviors arerule-governed and relatively inflexible.

38. Which description fits a massage professional who perceives situations as wholes rather

thanchopped up parts?

Novice Competent Proficient Expert

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Proficient practitioners perceive situations as wholes rather than chopped up parts. Because ofthis perspective, they can better predict what might happen in given situations and what needsto change to alter outcomes.

39. Which aspect of evidence informed practice impacts client adherence and compliance? a. Including client preferences b. Researching client conditions c. Having professional expertise about the client d. Determining what is best for the client ANS: A

Client preferences are a collection of goals, expectations, predispositions, social and culturalvalues, and religious or spiritual beliefs creating partiality for certain decisions and their outcomes. Inclusion of client preferences in EIP affects client adherence and compliance, client satisfaction, and treatment outcomes.

40. Which type of experiment assigns participants to either an experimental group or a

controlgroup by chance?

Longitudinal study Randomized controlled trial Observational study Cohort

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is a study that randomly assigns participants to either anexperimental or treatment group and a control group. The gold standard of research is randomassignment into several groups.

41. What does the P in the PICO method stand for? a. Physiology b. Preference c. Patient d. Pertinent ANS: C

PICO is a framework used to form a question about a specific client problem. Keywords contained in the question are used to search for relevant studies via the internet or in databases. PICO stands for Patient/client or population; Intervention; Comparison or control(not always used); and Outcome(s) of interest.

Chapter 06: Massage Therapy ResearchSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to the chapter, what is the best way to improve understanding of massage therapy? a. Experience b. Education c. Research d. Reading ANS: C

It is important to separate fact from myth. Much of what was once thought or known about thebenefits and mechanisms of massage has been brought into question. Research is necessary to improve our understanding and is a constant process of discovery—we investigate, learn new things, replace old ideas, and investigate more. It is also important to keep in mind the placeboeffect is an important component in healthcare.

2. What percentage of clients who discussed massage therapy with their physicians received

amassage recommendation?

a. 15% b. 33% c. 50% d. 93% ANS:

C

Fifty percent of clients who discussed massage with their physicians received a massagerecommendation (American Massage Therapy Association [AMTA], 2021).

3. Which complementary therapy has one of the highest physical referral rates? a. Aromatherapy b. Massage therapy c. Chiropractic medicine d. Traditional Chinese medicine ANS:

B

Massage is one of the complementary therapies with the highest physician referral rates.Massage is also rated among physicians as the complementary therapy most likely to be beneficial (65% among rheumatologist and 39% of pediatricians) and least likely to be harmful.

4. Which effect does massage therapy have on the cardiovascular system? a. Increases blood pressure b. Decreases heart rate c. Increases inflammatory markers d. Decreases blood oxidation levels ANS: B

Massage has been reported to decrease blood pressure, reduce heart rate, and cause variationsin heart rate. These effects may promote cardiovascular health.

5. Which effect does massage therapy have on blood platelets? a. Increases the count b. Decreases the count c. Interferes with their clotting ability d. Interferes with their replication ANS: A

Platelet counts are reactive to many factors such as exercise, mental stress, and several pathologies. Very early studies demonstrated increases in blood platelet count after massage.

6. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on blood and blood circulation? a. Decreases white blood cell count b. Increases blood capillary flow rate c. Increases blood viscosity d. Decreases blood flow to the skin ANS: B

Liu et al. (2004) measured the effects of mechanical pressure on capillary flow rate and bloodviscosity after traditional Chinese medical massage (specifically called “swing,” which included finger-pushing, kneading, and rolling). This study revealed massage increased tissue pv ressure, which produced increases in capillary flow rate and decreased blood viscosity.

7. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on lymphatic circulation and immunity? a. Reduces immune response b. Decreases killer T cell levels c. Improves lymphatic drainage d. Increases edema and lymphedema ANS: C

There is evidence that massage promotes lymphatic drainage, increases killer T cell levels, stimulates immune responses in individuals who have HIV infection or cancer, and reducesedema and lymphedema.

8. Which condition did research find that manual lymph drainage alleviated? a. Skin cancer b. Colitis c. Trigger points d. Migraines ANS: D

Work assessing manual lymph drainage (MLD), traditional massage, and a no-massage control group on patients with migraines found a significant decrease in migraine frequencyand decreased intake of analgesics in the MLD group.

9. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on the musculoskeletal system? a. Increases headaches b. Improves range of motion c. Increases electromyography activity d. Intensifies muscle spasms ANS: B

Massage therapy has been found to improve range of motion, reduce muscle spasms, decreaseelectromyography activity, and reduce headaches.

10. Research shows that massage has which effect on the musculoskeletal system? a. Tones weak muscles b. Decreases range of motion c. Increases in muscle tension when trigger points are compressed d. Produces a viscoelastic response and promotes muscle healing ANS: D

Research suggests massage may reduce muscular tension, reduce hypertonicity, improve softtissue function, decrease stiffness and fatigue after exercise, improve exercise performance, decrease delayed-onset muscle soreness, and reduce serum creatine kinase postexercise.

11. Research shows that massage has which effect on connective tissues? a. Reduces scar tissue formation b. Increases pain and itching in burn scars c. Decreases scar tissue strength in tendon injuries d. Slows healing in ligament injuries ANS:

A

Research indicates that massage therapy reduces scar tissue formation, leading to improved healing, reduced pain and itching in burn scars, and improved scar tissue strength in tendoninjuries.

12. Which condition is improved by massage therapy on the skin? a. Eczema b. Melanoma c. Impetigo d. Fungus ANS: A

Several studies assessed the effect of massage on the skin itself, but studies indicate improvements in eczema, including decreases in redness, lichenification (i.e., rough, thickened, dry skin), scaling, excoriation (i.e., crusting skin), and pruritus (i.e., itching).

13. Which type of neurotransmitter regulates mood and sleep? a. Endorphins b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Enkephalins ANS: C

Serotonin regulates mood, appetite, sleep, memory, learning, and muscle contraction.

14. Research suggests that massage therapy has which effect on the nervous system? a. Decreases relaxation b. Increases stress, depression, and anxiety c. Activates the sympathetic response d. Improves cognitive and memory functioning ANS: D

Current research suggests that massage therapy decreases nervous system excitability; decreases stress, depression, and anxiety; increases relaxation; influences brain wave activity;improves cognitive and memory functioning; and activates the parasympathetic response.

15. Most studies indicate that massage therapy decreases the level of which hormone related

tostress?

Adrenaline Cortisol Insulin Oxytocin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Multiple studies show beneficial decreases in cortisol and blood pressure and other measuresassociated with stress and anxiety after massage compared with a control group.

16. Research indicates that massage improves insulin absorption and circulation, which may

behelpful for clients who have which condition?

Crohn disease Renal failure Diabetes mellitus Migraine headaches

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Clinical evidence indicates improvement in diabetic symptoms with regular massage treatments. One animal study indicated improved insulin production after massage-like treatment in rats. Studies also indicate changes in insulin production and absorption aftermassage.

17. Abdominal massage has been found to be helpful for which condition? a. Crohn disease b. Renal failure c. Diarrhea d. Constipation ANS: D

Massage has been shown to decrease the severity of gastrointestinal symptoms, especially constipation and abdominal pain. Massage may also reduce nausea and vomiting under certainconditions and may promote a healthy gut microbiome.

18. Current research suggests that massage therapy has which psychological effect? a. Promotes feelings of wellbeing b. Intensifies anxiety and depression c. Interferes with the mind-body connection d. Worsens symptoms of hyperactivity ANS: A

A heightened sense of connection between the mind and body reported after massage maygenerate an overall feeling of health, wellness, and wellbeing.

19. How does massage therapy influence pain? a. Everyone one responds the same way to pain so massage techniques need to be

uniform b. Perception of pain has little impact on the effects of massage techniques c. Very few causes of pain are alleviated due to massage d. Pain relief can be due to massage causing changes in neurotransmitter levels ANS: D

Massage therapy has long been used for pain resulting from multiple causes. Pain from muscle spasm and injury, tendonitis, bone fracture, skin conditions, trigger points, headaches, cancer treatments, osteoarthritis, orthopedic injury, fibromyalgia, labor and delivery, and othersources. How massage influences pain in each case may vary depending on the type and source of the pain. Increased circulation, decreased spasms, changes in neurotransmitters and hormone levels, or even the simple act of touch and comfort all likely influence how the clientpv erceives pain.

20. How does massage therapy influence fatigue? a. Activates the sympathetic response b. Improves sleep c. Worsens symptoms of anxiety d. Decreases serotonin levels ANS: B

Fatigue is another area that responds to massage. Massage influences numerous factors that cause fatigue and interfere with sleep. Massage has been shown to improve sleep; decrease chronic pain, which often results in overwhelming fatigue; treat fibromyalgia, which often is associated with fatigue; and generally improve overall wellbeing that would reduce symptomsof fatigue.

21. Which benefit has massage been shown to have in clients with Parkinson disease? a. Activation of the sympathetic response b. Faster insulin absorption c. Improved motor skills d. Decreased serotonin levels ANS: C

A 2020 systematic review of the use of massage as a clinical treatment of Parkinson symptoms found relaxation following massage contributed to a reduction in stress hormonesand symptom improvement. Quality of life, motor skills, sleep, and fatigue improved, and decreases were found in anxiety, depression and pain.

22. What does research show about massage therapy on patients with cancer? a. It worsens the effects of cancer on the body b. It causes fatigue and interferes with healing c. There are too many studies currently being conducted d. There is a need for larger, well-designed studies ANS: D

All reviews reported weak evidence and the need for larger, well-designed studies for the useof massage for cancer patients.

23. Studies found massage improved movement in people with which condition? a. Arthritis

b. Diabetes c. Cancer d. Anxiety ANS: A

One review found significant improvements in movement and pain with massage, yoga or taichi. Low to moderate evidence was found showing massage as a superior treatment to non-movement therapies in reducing pain and improving functional outcomes. A small 2015study found increased range of motion, decreased pain and improved sleep after massage; similar results were found in a study of massage for osteoarthritis or the cervical spine.

Chapter 07: Body Mechanics, Client Positioning, and DrapingSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the use of one’s body that is safe, energy-conserving, reduces

physicalstress and strain, and is anatomically and physiologically efficient?

Balance Stamina Body mechanics Client positioning

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Body mechanics encompasses the use of one’s body in a manner that is safe, energy-conserving, and reduces physical stress and strain while in an anatomically andphysiologically efficient position.

2. Which factor is involved in effective body mechanics? a. Managing fatigue b. Warming up after performing a treatment c. Positioning the client for comfort d. Using proper draping ANS: A

This can be accomplished by physical and mental preparation; managing fatigue; a proper workspace; appropriate settings and features of a massage table; wearing suitable attire; andutilizing core stability, gravity, and body weight.

3. Foot stances that provide support, balance, and mobility are all essential to which aspect

ofmassage therapy?

Body mechanics Mental preparation Client positioning Proper draping

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Body mechanics involve the use of foot stances that provide support, balance, and mobility.

Effective body mechanics positively influence the massage, decrease practitioner fatigue, andhelp prevent massage-related injuries.

4. Which condition do effective body mechanics help prevent? a. Fibromyalgia b. Fatigue c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: B

Effective body mechanics positively influence the massage, decrease practitioner fatigue, andhelp prevent massage-related injuries.

5. Research has shown that when massage practitioners work at least 6 hours per day,

paindevelops in which area of their bodies?

Neck Middle back Lower back Feet

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Practitioners who work at least 6 hours a day or who attend to more than 6 clients per day aremore likely to experience lower back pain (Sathya et al., 2016).

6. Which effect does using proper body mechanics have? a. Greater upper body strength for techniques b. Decreased need for stamina c. Increased recovery time after performing techniques d. Pressure that maximizes benefit to the client ANS: D

Effective body mechanics can help practitioners prepare physically and reduce or prevent fatigue and injury while employing strategies that deliver the amount of pressure needed tomaximize benefit to the client.

7. How many days a week does the American College for Sports Medicine

recommendresistance exercise be performed? a. 1 b. 2-3 c. 5 d. 6-7 ANS: B

Recommendations by the American College for Sports Medicine (2011) for resistanceexercise are 2 or 3 nonconsecutive days a week on all major muscle groups.

8. Warmups before performing massage should last how many minutes? a. 2-3 b. 4-5 c. 5-10 d. 10-15 ANS: C

Warmups should start slowly and easily, and include walking or low-intensity activities with the goal of increasing heart and breathing rates. After 5 to 10 minutes, focus on muscles andmovements specific to the activity planned.

9. Which approach would be most effective in reducing risk of fatigue and injury to

massagepv ractitioners?

Perform deep tissue sessions at the end of the day Alternate intensive hands-on treatments with less intensive treatments Use only a few techniques and repeat them many times to perfect them Avoid methods such as hydrotherapy or ashiatsu

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

To reduce the risk of fatigue and injury alternate intensive hands-on techniques (e.g., deep tissue) with less intense techniques (e.g., passive range-of-motion, Trager). Also, supplementtechniques that require little or no hand use (e.g., hydrotherapy, ashiatsu, polarity, reiki).

10. What percentage of massage time should the practitioner spend seated to avoid fatigue? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 80% ANS:

B

Approximately 25% of the massage should be spent seated—this can reduce fatigue.

The client’s face, neck, feet, or hands can be massaged while seated, as these areas require lessdownward force.

11. Which concept helps massage practitioners prepare themselves mentally when

performingpv rofessional activities?

Drive Mindfulness Tranquility Detachment

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Mindfulness and introception are needed so that massage practitioners can make adjustmentsduring the massage when they notice physical discomfort in their body.

Introception includesthe perception of physical sensations such as heartbeat, respiration, and satiety or fullness from eating. Introception related to body position is called proprioception.

12. Which term describes heightened self-awareness and focused attention given to

presentmoments characterized by curiosity, openness, acceptance, and engagement?

Mindfulness Wellness Focus Synergy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Mindfulness is heightened self-awareness and focused attention given to present momentscharacterized by curiosity, openness, acceptance, and engagement.

13. What is the minimal amount of recommended open space around all sides of a massage table? a. 2 feet b. 3 feet c. 4 feet d. 5 feet ANS: B

There should be at least 3 feet (1 meter) of open space around all sides of the table for practitioners to stand or sit comfortably in relaxed, efficient, and aligned posture whileadministering techniques.

14. Which type of flooring is recommended for massage practitioners to work on?

a. b. c. d.

Stone Tile Wood Concrete

ANS: C

If possible, perform massage on traditional wood flooring, on carpet with a cushioned backing, or on foam-backed vinyl flooring. Antifatigue mats can be placed around the table.Prolonged standing on hard nonyielding surfaces (i.e., tile, stone, concrete, thin carpet over concrete) can contribute to fatigue and conditions such as varicose veins.

15. Which factor is taken into account when adjusting massage table height? a. Client height b. Client girth c. Room size d. Ceiling height ANS: B

Most practitioners work with a variety of clients with various widths or girths, and use a variety of techniques during a single session and throughout the workday. These can affecttable height.

16. Which guideline is recommended for effective body mechanics? a. Warming up after giving a massage b. Using a limited number of techniques c. Wearing comfortable clothing d. Keeping wrists and digits hyperflexed ANS: C

Clothing should allow freedom of movement and feel comfortable. However, avoid wearingclothing that is too loose-fitting or baggy, as practitioners may subconsciously lean back to keep clothes from brushing against the client during the massage, creating a less efficient body posture.

17. Which factor provides the massage practitioner’s base of support? a. Foot stances b. Table height c. Client’s body d. Shoulder strength ANS: A

Foot stances are positions of the practitioner’s feet used to provide a base of support while applying massage. Base of support refers to all points of contact on which an object rests.

Each foot makes contact with the ground at three bony points, which include the (1) calcanealtuberosity, (2) head of the first metatarsal, and (3) head of the fifth metatarsal.

18. Which area of the foot makes contact with the ground? a. Third cuneiform b. Navicular tuberosity c. Head of the fifth metatarsal d. Head of the second metatarsal

ANS: C

Each foot makes contact with the ground at three bony points which include the (1) calcanealtuberosity, (2) head of the first metatarsal, and (3) head of the fifth metatarsal.

19. Which shape is the strongest and most stable? a. Triangle b. Line c. Point d. Rhombus ANS: A

The three points of the foot make the shape of a triangle, which is the strongest and moststable geometric shape.

20. Which factor in a shoe provides the best balance, performance, and directional control

while pv erforming massage?

Flat heel rest Lace-up closure Hard insole Arch support

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The best footwear for balance, performance, directional control, and productivity are slip-resistant enclosed shoes (i.e., covers all of the foot, up to the ankle, without toe or heelholes), soft insoles, arch support, and a depression for the heel.

21. Which foot stance is most stable for performing long massage techniques? a. Warrior b. Horse c. Archer d. Squatting ANS: C

The archer stance is used when the target area(s) of the applied technique is toward one sideof the practitioner’s body. This stance provides a stable foundation while the practitioner moves or lunges forward or backward while administering more lengthy techniques.

22. Which position is appropriate for the archer stance? a. Head tilted downward b. Spine aligned c. Trunk flexed d. Knees kept extended ANS: B

In the archer stance, the practitioner’s spine is erect, shoulders comfortably dropped, and hips pv ointing toward the direction of movement.

23. Which position describes the archer stance? a. External hip rotation of the leading leg is 15-90 degrees b. Position of the lead foot is produced by internal rotation of the hip c. Knee of the leading leg is usually extended d. Trailing foot is placed ahead of the lead foot when stepping forward

ANS: A

In the archer stance, the position of the lead foot is produced by external rotation of the hip; the degree of rotation is between 15-90 degrees, depending on the length of the technique the pv ractitioner is using. The associated knee is usually flexed.

24. Which foot stance should be used when performing massage techniques on the area of

theclient that is directly in front of the practitioner’s body?

Lunge Horse Bow Archer

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The horse stance is used when the target area(s) of the applied technique is directly in front ofthe practitioner’s body. This stance allows the practitioner to stand in place while administering techniques directly in front of them.

25. How are the massage practitioner’s feet positioned in the horse stance? a. One foot is pointing in the direction of movement and the other foot is

directlybv ehind it, pointing in the same direction b. One foot is pointing in the direction of movement and the other foot is

pointingbv eneath the table c. Symmetric and pointing in the same direction d. Symmetric and pointing in opposite directions ANS: D

Feet in the horse stance are symmetric and pointing in the same direction, usually beneath themassage table.

26. In the horse stance, as the massage practitioner’s hands move laterally or anteriorly

and pv osteriorly, what does the practitioner’s weight do?

Distributes itself over the right foot Elevates into the shoulders Shifts from one foot to the other and back Shifts forward and stays there

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

In the horse stance, as the practitioner’s hands move laterally (side to side) or anteriorly and posteriorly (front to back), the practitioner’s weight is shifted alternately from one foot to theother foot and back to support hand movements.

27. Which body position helps stabilize the core? a. Extended hips b. Flexed hips c. Anteriorly-tilted pelvis d. Abducted shoulder joints ANS: B

Core stability is the ability to control the position and motion of the trunk, which allows foroptimum production and transfer of force and motion during the massage. Contracted abdominal muscles, flexed hips, and posteriorly-tilted pelvis help stabilize the core.

28. Which factor serves as the “engine” of force development in the application of

massagetechniques? a. Stable core b. Strong shoulders c. Limber forearms d. Flexed trunk ANS: A

The core serves as the generator or “engine”; small changes that occur in the core translate into changes in distal joints, similar to the cracking at the end of a whip. When practitioners rely on core-generated force, distal joints in the wrists and hands are free to deliver skillfullyapplied techniques.

29. Where is the body’s center of gravity located? a. Middle of the sternum b. Midway between the shoulders c. Pubic crest d. Lower abdomen ANS: D

Center of gravity is the point at which the mass or weight of an object is equal and symmetricon all sides. The center of gravity of an average person is in the lower abdomen when standing in anatomic position.

30. Which joint position allows the massage practitioner to apply the most pressure with the

leastamount of stress?

Stacked Hyperextended Flexed Abducted

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Practitioners should position themselves close to and above the application area and arrangethe joints vertically as much as possible when applying downward force. This is called “stacking the joints.” Once joints are stacked, the practitioner transfers their weight into the client’s soft tissues.

31. When applying decompression, where should the massage practitioner’s body weight be

inrelation to the application area?

Distal Proximal Over Lateral

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

When applying traction, direct force away from the client’s body by pulling. This can beaccomplished by using the practitioner’s body weight distal to the application area.

32. Which technique used to move around a client lying on a mat? a. Diving

b. Lunging c. Squatting d. Crawling ANS: D

Crawling is a natural way of moving around a client lying on a mat.

33. Which technique is a posture from which the massage practitioner can move into

ot he rpv ositions easily when working on a client lying on a mat?

Diving Swinging Squatting Draping

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Squatting is a posture from which the practitioner can move into other positions easily.

34. Which position is a primary one for the client to be in while receiving massage therapy? a. Seated b. Standing c. Kneeling d. Squatting ANS: A

The four primary client positions are prone, supine, side-lying, and seated.

35. Recumbent means that a person is in which position? a. Standing up b. Lying down c. Kneeling d. Sitting ANS: B

Recumbent means lying down.

36. Which items are pillows or cushions used for supporting clients in the various positions

formassage therapy?

Bolsters Drapes Stools Dispensers

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Bolsters are pillows or cushions of various sizes and densities used for supporting the client inthe prone, supine, side-lying, and seated positions.

37. Which term means lying face down? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Semi reclining

ANS: A

Prone is lying with the back or posterior surface of the body facing upward and the chest oranterior surface of the body facing downward (i.e., lying face down).

38. Where is a bolster typically placed for a client in prone position? a. Under the neck b. Behind the knees c. Under the ankles d. Over the ankles ANS: C

When clients are in the prone position, bolsters are placed in front of the ankles with theankles about hip distance apart.

39. If a prone client has excess lumbar spine curvature, under which part of the body

should a pv illow be placed for comfort? a. Abdomen b. Knees c. Neck d. Ankles ANS: A

Clients with lower back pain may require a pillow under the abdomen or hips to reduceexcessive lumbar spine curvature.

40. Which term means lying on the back, face up? a. Prone b. Supine c. Seated d. Side-lying ANS: B

Supine is lying with the chest or anterior surface of the body facing upward and the back o r pv osterior surface of the body facing downward (i.e., lying face up).

41. While lying supine, the client’s cervical spine should be in what position? a. Flexed b. Neutral c. Rotated d. Extended ANS: B

The cervical spine should be in a neutral position with a slight anterior curvature. A rolleduptowel slipped into a pillowcase can serve as a neck bolster.

42. Which term means resting with the torso elevated? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Semireclining ANS: D

Semireclining is a modified supine position in which the torso is elevated.

43. High Fowler’s position means the client’s upper body is elevated how many degrees? a. 20 b. 40 c. 70 d. 90 ANS: D

A high (full) Fowler is between 60 and 90 degrees.

44. Which term means resting on the left or right aspect of the body? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Semireclining ANS: C

Side-lying is lying on the side, usually with hips and knees flexed.

45. Which position means sitting down, usually with the torso erect and knees bent with glutes

o r bv uttocks supported?

Prone Supine Seated Side-lying

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Seated means sitting down, usually with the torso erect and knees bent with glutes or buttockssupported.

46. Which term means covering the client’s body and massage equipment with a cloth? a. Draping b. Palpating c. Bolstering d. Positioning ANS: A

Draping is the utilization of linens or similar fabrics to cover the client’s body, the massagetable, and table accessories.

47. Which reason is a purpose for draping a client? a. Ability to charge more for the massage session b. Enhancement of certain techniques c. Client modesty and emotional privacy d. Massage practitioner’s comfort ANS: C

The purposes of draping are to provide (1) a protective barrier between equipment and the client’s skin; (2) client modesty, emotional privacy, and feelings of security, as most clientsare fully or partially undressed while receiving massage; (3) client warmth; and (4)

48. What should the practitioner do before asking the client to turn over on the massage table? a. Remove all bolsters b. Sanitize the hands c. Remove the client drape d. Open the door to the treatment room ANS: A

The practitioner should remove all bolsters from the massage table before asking the client toturn over.

49. Which procedure should the massage practitioner do to manage the draping as the client

turnsover?

Anchor the edge of the sheet furthest away Lift up the nearest edge of the sheet Form a tent by lifting the edge of the sheet furthest away Remove the sheet completely so that it is out of the way

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Anchor the sheet edge nearest you by leaning on it using your thigh. This secures the sheet tothe edge of the massage table. Reach across and grasp the sheet along the opposite table edgewith both hands. Lift the sheet up to form a tent. Instruct the client to turn over.

50. What is the minimum number of towels used to drape clients? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: B

A minimum of two towels are used: One towel covers the client’s torso and one towel coversthe client’s pelvis and lower extremities.

51. To access the client’s abdomen, the towel should be fanfolded from the bottom edge until

itreaches which body part?

Iliac crests Xiphoid process Clavicles Navel

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

To access the abdomen, fanfold the pillowcase or towel from the bottom edge until it reachesthe xiphoid process.

Chapter 08: Massage Techniques, Mobilizations and Stretches, Endangerment Sites, and Contraindications Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which practice is defined as manipulation of soft tissue using compression

anddecompression for therapeutic, palliative, and wellness purposes?

Ayurveda Aromatherapy Reiki Massage therapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Massage therapy is the manipulation of soft tissue using compression and decompression/traction for therapeutic, and palliative purposes and for wellness and selfcarepurposes.

2. How does clinical massage differ from wellness massage? a. It is used to improve function b. Treatments are area-focused c. Treatments are designed to decrease pain d. It can be used to manage issues related to surgery ANS: D

Clinical massage is used as healthcare to help rehabilitate injuries, manage diagnosed medicalconditions, their treatments or complications, and manage issues related to surgery.

Improvingfunction, area-focused treatments, and treatments designed to decrease pain apply to both wellness massage and clinical massage.

3. Which method involves downward pressure on tissues? a. Torqueing b. Stretching c. Compression d. Traction ANS: C

Pushing or downward pressure is called compression and pulling or upward pressure is calleddecompression or traction.

4. Which term means the application of force? a. Depth b. Pressure c. Duration d. Pallor ANS: B

In massage, pressure is the application of gliding or nongliding force.

5. Which area of the body could deep pressure be used on?

a. b. c. d.

Bony prominence Anterior elbow Gluteal region Posterior knee

ANS: C

Deep pressure attempts to move deeper muscles and their fascial layers as well as tendons andligaments.

6. Which term describes sites that contain tissues such as nerves, blood vessels, and glands

thatare vulnerable to harm from applied pressure?

Anatomic Endangerment Muscular Physiologic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Endangerment sites are areas containing structures vulnerable to injury from applied pressurebv ecause they are not well protected by bones and muscles. Examples of structures that can beinjured are nerves, blood vessels, organs, and glands.

7. Which condition is one of the main adverse events from massage? a. Muscle soreness b. Low blood glucose level c. Dizziness d. Disc herniation ANS: D

Adverse events (AE), or adverse effects, are rare (less than 1%) but serious massagerelatedinjuries; they may not be apparent until a few days later or even longer. Disc herniation, neurologic compromise, spinal cord injury, dissection of the carotid arteries, and others are the main adverse events of massage.

8. The anterior neck is an endangerment site because it contains which artery? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Mesentery ANS: B

The anterior neck contains structures vulnerable to damage from pressure such as the thyroidgland, carotid arteries, jugular veins, vagus nerve, spinal accessory nerve, and the brachial plexus.

9. Which area of the body is an endangerment site because it contains the brachial artery? a. Anterior neck b. Popliteal area c. Axilla d. Abdomen ANS: C

The axilla (armpit area) contains structures vulnerable to damage from deep pressure, such asthe brachial artery, axillary artery and vein, cephalic vein, and nerves of the brachial plexus.

10. Which term describes the distance a massage technique travels over the body? a. Rate b. Rhythm c. Duration d. Excursion ANS: D

Excursion is the distance traveled. Excursion ranges from the length of the palpable taut band,muscle, or muscle group (e.g., quadriceps, hamstrings), the length of a bone (e.g., humerus, tibia), the length of a limb (e.g., upper extremity, lower extremity), or area (e.g., back). Some massage techniques travel the length of the entire body.

11. Which term means the number of times or speed at which a massage technique is repeated? a. Rate b. Duration c. Excursion d. Continuity ANS: A

Rate is the number of times or speed that massage techniques are repeated. Rate is oftendescribed as slow, moderate, or rapid/fast.

12. Which term describes the regularity or patterning of massage techniques? a. Rate b. Rhythm c. Duration d. Excursion ANS: B

Rhythm is the pattern or regularity of applied massage techniques.

13. Which session factor is determined by a client seeking wellness massage? a. Rate b. Duration c. Excursion d. Continuity ANS: B

The session length and frequency for wellness massages are determined by the client based onthe list of services posted by the massage establishment (i.e., 30-, 60-, to 90-minute sessions received weekly, monthly, quarterly, or as needed).

14. Who determines the frequency of clinical massage sessions? a. Massage practitioner b. Medical directives c. Massage licensing agency d. Client ANS: B

The session length and frequency for clinical massages are determined by medical directivesor prescriptions and by limits of the procedural codes used. Other factors that may influencesession duration and frequency include third-party payers such as insurance companies, and award or settlement limits related to legal claims.

15. Which term means the order in massage techniques are arranged during the session? a. Rate b. Pressure c. Sequence d. Excursion ANS: C

Sequence is the order in which techniques are arranged during the session. In general, techniques repeat in multiples of three (e.g., 3, 6, 9, 12), until the desired effect is achieved.

16. What does the term tracking mean? a. Making sure that areas of the client’s body are addressed evenly b. Noticing and responding to changes that a client experiences during the session c. Paying attention to medical directives regarding client care d. Asking the client about compliance with self-care recommendations ANS: B

Tracking is the ability to notice and respond to changes that a client experiences during thesession. Notice the client’s facial expressions; watch for changes in breath (i.e., in the bellywhen supine or the lumbar region when prone) or a subtle flinch or wince from a techniqueapplied too forcefully or quickly.

17. Which term means a condition which could be aggravated by the application of massage? a. Indication b. Risk factor c. Contraindication d. Adverse effect ANS: C

A contraindication is a condition which could be aggravated by the application of massage.

Situations that may represent contraindications include the presence of allergies, diseases andtheir complications, surgeries, recent injuries, the use of devices such as pacemakers, and the uv se of certain medications or their administration routes, such as transdermal patches or chemotherapy access ports.

18. Which term means a situation in which massage should be postponed? a. Infection control b. Local contraindication c. Risk factor d. Absolute contraindication ANS: D

Absolute contraindications are conditions which make receiving a massage absolutely inadvisable. When a client has an absolute contraindication, massage is not advised andshould be postponed.

19. Which example is an absolute contraindication for massage? a. Contagious disease such as the flu b. Rash on a client’s foot without other signs or symptoms c. Wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 96 hours ago d. Client who is feeling sedated because of a sinus medication ANS: A

Examples of absolute contraindication include contagious diseases; widespread infection orsystemic inflammation, often indicated by fever; client in a state of medical emergency.

20. Which term used means a condition which makes receiving massage to a particular area of

the bv ody inadvisable?

Adverse effect Local contraindication Risk factor Absolute contraindication

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

A local contraindication is a condition which makes receiving massage to a local area of the body is inadvisable. Massage can be administered to other areas of the body while avoidingthe area locally contraindicated.

21. Which example is a local contraindication for massage? a. Chronic disease in a state of exacerbation b. Widespread infection or inflammation and fever c. Disease that is highly contagious d. Rash that is on the abdomen ANS: D

Potential areas of local contraindication include recently injured areas; acutely inflamed areas;endangerment sites; areas containing medicated transdermal patches, chemotherapy ports, pacemakers, hormonal implants, or other medical devices; a lump, lesion, suspicious mole, localized rash, or enlarged lymph nodes.

22. Which term means the application of gliding movements that follow the contours of the body? a. Effleurage b. Pétrissage c. Vibration d. Tapotement ANS: A

Effleurage is the application of gliding movements that follow the contours of the body.

23. Which massage technique term originated from the French word meaning “to flow” and

“toglide?”

Friction Vibration Effleurage Tapotement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The term effleurage originates from the French verb effleurer, meaning “to flow” and “toglide.” Effleurage is also called stroking or gliding.

24. Which massage technique is also called gliding? a. Friction b. Vibration c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: C

Effleurage is also called stroking or gliding.

25. Which massage technique is commonly used to begin the session and to assess tissues

beforetreatment?

Effleurage Pétrissage Vibration Tapotement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Effleurage is commonly used to begin the massage session, to apply or reapply lubricant, to introduce touch and pressure to the client, to assess tissues before treatment, and to reassesstissues after treatment.

26. In which direction is deep pressure generally applied during effleurage? a. Inferiorly b. Superiorly c. Centrifugally d. Centripetally ANS: D

After skin in lubricated, apply movements with the hands (fingers, thumbs) or forearms withthe deeper or heavier pressure applied centripetally, or inferior from below moving upward, and less pressure applied centrifugally, or from above moving downward.

27. Which action should occur as deeper pressure is applied during effleurage? a. Movement becomes faster b. Movement becomes slower c. Contact becomes narrower d. Rate is increased ANS: B

Generally speaking, deep pressure is applied more slowly and by using a broader base o f pv hysical contact (e.g., use the heel of the hand instead of fingertip).

28. Which term means a type of effleurage that uses light pressure applied with the weight of

thefingers or hands as they glide down the body? a. Skin rolling b. Warming friction c. Nerve stroke d. Pincement tapotement

ANS: C

Nerve stroke or feathering uses light pressure applied with the weight of the fingers or handsas they glide down the body.

29. Which massage technique involves lifting, compressing, and releasing soft tissues such

asskin and muscle?

Vibration Pétrissage Effleurage Tapotement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Petrissage involves compression, lifting or decompression, and then releasing soft tissues suchas skin and muscle.

30. Which massage technique is also called kneading? a. Vibration b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: B

Pétrissage is also called kneading.

31. Which massage technique compresses and lifts the skin, then moves the lifted skin

acrossadjacent areas?

Skin rolling Chucking tapotement Rhythmic rocking Superficial gliding

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Skin rolling is a superficial petrissage technique that compresses and lifts the skin, then movesor rolls the lifted skin across adjacent areas.

32. Which description applies to both effleurage and pétrissage? a. Tapping, cupping, and hacking b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary c. Superficial, intermediate, and deep d. One-handed, two-handed, and alternate hand ANS: D

Types of effleurage and pétrissage are one-handed, two-handed, and alternate hand.

33. Which massage technique rubs one body surface against another while maintaining

constantand equal pressure in all directions?

Friction Vibration Effleurage Tapotement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Friction involves rubbing one body surface against another while maintaining constant andequal pressure in all directions.

34. What do faster frictional movements produce more of? a. Oil b. Heat c. Waste d. Perspiration ANS: B

Unlike effleurage, in which pressure is unequal when applied in two or more directions(centripetal=deeper pressure), friction involves equal pressure in all directions. These movements can produce heat and may stimulate therapeutic inflammation.

35. What are the two main categories of friction? a. Proximal and distal b. Superficial and deep c. Efferent and afferent d. Centrifugal and centripetal ANS: B

Two types of friction are superficial and deep.

36. Which type of friction would most likely be used on tendons and ligaments? a. Superficial b. Deep c. Rolling d. Wringing ANS: B

In deep friction, the practitioner’s hands do not slide across the client’s skin but rather take theskin with it, allowing the force to be transmitted directly to the deep tissues including tendons and ligaments.

37. What other type of friction is transverse friction called? a. Cross warming b. Rolling c. Wringing d. Cross-fiber ANS: D Transverse friction is also called cross-fiber friction. This technique was popularized by Cyriax (1984)and is occasionally referred to as Cyriax friction massage.

38. Which massage technique is a nongliding method of pressure application? a. Friction b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Compression ANS: D

Compression is a nongliding technique of pressure application.

39. How long is pressure typically maintained during sustained compression? a. 5 to 10 seconds b. 10 to 20 seconds c. 20 to 30 seconds d. 30 to 35 seconds ANS: B

During sustained compression, pressure is maintained for 10 to 20 seconds 40. Which massage technique involves repetitive striking? a. Friction b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: D

Tapotement is a repetitive striking motion.

41. Which massage technique is also called percussion? a. Vibration b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: D

Tapotement is also called percussion because it is similar to beating a drum.

42. Which terms are types of tapotement? a. Tapping, cupping, and hacking b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary c. Superficial, intermediate, and deep d. Acute, subacute, and chronic ANS: A

Types of tapotement include tapping, pincement, hacking, cupping, pounding, and clapping.

43. Which type of tapotement grasps, lifts, and releases the skin? a. Tapping b. Hacking c. Cupping d. Pincement ANS: D

During pincement, the tips of several fingers and thumb are used to strike, grasp, lift, andrelease the skin.

44. Which massage techniques is a shaking or trembling motion? a. Compression b. Vibration c. Pétrissage d. Tapotement

ANS: B

Vibration is a shaking or trembling motion.

45. Which type of tapotement uses the ulnar surfaces of one or two hands? a. Hacking b. Cupping c. Pounding d. Clapping ANS: A

Hacking is achieved with the ulnar surfaces of one or two hands.

46. Which massage technique usually requires lubricant? a. Friction b. Vibration c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: C

Effleurage usually requires lubricant. Friction, vibration, and tapotement usually do notrequire lubricant.

47. Which massage technique is usually performed without lubricant? a. Wringing b. Effleurage c. Pétrissage d. Tapotement ANS: D

Tapotement usually does not require lubricant. Wringing, effleurage, and pétrissage usuallyrequire lubricant.

48. Which term means the amount of motion that occurs when one segment of the body moves

inrelationship to another segment of the body?

Range of motion Facilitated action Stretching Mobilization

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Range of motion (ROM) is the amount of motion that occurs when one segment of the bodymoves in relationship to another segment of the body.

49. Which term means movement is produced by external forces without voluntary contraction? a. Active b. Passive c. Resisted d. Functional ANS: B

Passive range of motion (PROM) is movement produced by external forces without voluntarycontraction. Examples of external forces include movements produced by another individual, an object such as a machine or belt, gravity, or by another part of the person’s own body.

50. Which term means movement is produced by voluntary contraction? a. Active b. Passive c. Resisted d. Functional ANS: A

Movement produced by voluntary contraction, wherein the clients themselves move the limbor body part.

51. Which technique involves passively moving a joint without a manual thrust at the end

ofavailable passive range of motion?

Friction Stretching Tapotement Mobilization

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

These occur with passively moving a joint without a manual thrust at the end of availablepv assive range of motion (PROM).

52. Which technique elongates muscles in the direction opposite to that of their actions? a. Stroking b. Vibration c. Percussion d. Stretching ANS: D

Stretching occurs when passively positioning muscle attachments as far apart as possible toelongate the muscle in the direction opposite of its action.

53. Which procedure should be performed on a joint before it is mobilized? a. Deep specific friction b. Slight manual traction c. Jostling d. Compression ANS: B

A slight manual traction should be applied before mobilizing the joint.

54. Stretches on muscles should be maintained for how many seconds? a. 5 b. 10-30 c. 45 d. 50-60 ANS: D

For stretches, stop when you detect a little tension in the targeted muscle. Maintain the stretchfor 10-30 seconds. Repeat the stretch 3 times.

55. Which technique is osteoporosis a contraindication for? a. Passive range of motion b. Stretching c. Deep specific friction d. Pétrissage ANS: A

PROM is contraindicated in the presence of bone or joint inflammation, infection, injury, ormalignancy including bone cancer, osteoporosis or any condition causing bone frailty, and hypermobile joints or joints prone to separation or subluxation.

56. Which joint can passive range of motion techniques involving pulls and circles that

featureflexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction be performed on? a. Knee b. Elbow c. Shoulder d. Hip ANS: C

PROM of the shoulders are arm pulls or shoulder traction and shoulder circles and featureflexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction.

57. Which muscle group is stretched when the massage practitioner places a hand over the

client’sfar anterior superior iliac spine and applies moderate downward pressure while the other hand applies moderate downward pressure on the medial aspect of the near flexed knee? a. Quads b. Hamstrings c. Adductors d. Gluteals ANS: C

While standing tableside, place your bottom hand over the clients’ far anterior superior iliacspine and apply moderate downward pressure to anchor the hip while applying moderate downward pressure on the medial aspect of the near flexed knee to stretch the adductors.

58. Which passive range of motion technique is described as the massage practitioner placing

onehand on the side of the client’s hand and pulling the head toward the near shoulder while the other hand stabilizes the client’s far shoulder? a. Neck rotation b. Neck lateral flexion c. Spinal rotation I d. Spinal rotation II ANS: B

The massage practitioner places one hand on the side of the client’s head and pull the headtoward the near shoulder while the other hand stabilizes the client’s far shoulder.

59. Who is called the father of orthopedic medicine?

a. b. c. d.

Johann Mezger John Harvey Kellogg Pehr Henrik Ling James Cyriax

ANS: D

James Cyriax is called the father of orthopedic medicine.

60. Which approach did James Cyriax incorporate into his medical practice? a. Nerve strokes b. Aromatherapy c. Deep massage techniques d. Jostling ANS: C

Cyriax was a great believer in deep massage techniques, both on their own and in conjunctionwith physical therapy.

Chapter 09: Concepts of Disease, Standard Precautions, TransmissionBasedPrecautions, Disinfection Procedures, and Emergency Preparedness Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of disease? a. Syndrome b. Pathology c. Etiology d. Autoimmunity ANS: B

Pathology is the study of disease and includes causes (etiology), effects, and typical behaviorsresulting from disease.

2. Which term means a prediction of how a disease will progress? a. Etiology b. Syndrome c. Prognosis d. Diagnosis ANS: C

Prognosis is a prediction of how a disease will progress and the chances of recovery based onthe person’s condition and the usual course of the disease.

3. Which term refers to a disease that has an abrupt onset and persists for a short time? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Idiopathic d. Autoimmune ANS: A

Acute diseases occur suddenly, persist for a brief period of time (<3 months), and then resolveor, in some cases, cause death.

4. Which type of disease involves the body mistakenly attacking and destroying healthy tissue? a. Metabolic b. Deficiency c. Degenerative d. Autoimmune ANS: D

Autoimmune diseases are diseases marked by an inappropriate or excessive immune response.The body mistakenly attacks and destroys healthy tissue.

5. Which example is an autoimmune disease? a. Athlete’s foot b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson disease

d. Down syndrome ANS: B

Examples of autoimmune diseases are rheumatoid arthritis (synovial membrane destruction),systemic lupus erythematosus (connective tissue destruction), and multiple sclerosis (brain and spinal cord nerve sheath destruction).

6. Which type of disease is characterized by growth of abnormal cells that can accumulate

intomasses or tumors?

Cancer Infectious Metabolic Deficiency

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Cancer is characterized by growth of abnormal cells possessing uncontrolled cell division,lack programmed cell death, and can accumulate into masses or tumors.

7. Which term means the ability to invade other tissues of the body? a. Metastasize b. Incubate c. Transmit d. Contaminate ANS: A

Cancer can spread or metastasize, which is the ability to invade other tissues of the body.

8. Which type of disease is caused by a lack of an essential nutrient in the diet or the

inability todigest and absorb a particular nutrient properly?

Cancer Infectious Deficiency Autoimmune

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Deficiency diseases are caused by a lack of an essential nutrient in the individual’s diet or by inability to digest and absorb a particular nutrient properly. This deficiency typically interfereswith the body’s growth, development, and metabolism.

9. Which example is a degenerative disease? a. Anemia b. Multiple sclerosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: C

Examples of degenerative diseases are osteoporosis (bone degeneration), osteoarthritis (jointdegeneration), and Alzheimer and Parkinson diseases (neurodegeneration).

10. Which example is a genetic disease? a. Down syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis

c. Osteoarthritis d. Hypertension ANS: A

Examples of genetic diseases are sickle cell anemia (affects the blood’s hemoglobin molecule), Down syndrome (three instead of two chromosomes 21), and cystic fibrosis(produces abnormally thick respiratory and digestive secretions).

11. Which example is a metabolic disease? a. Down syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: D

Examples of metabolic diseases are when the adrenals produce excess amounts of the hormone cortisol, Cushing disease can develop; when the pancreas produces insufficientamounts of the hormone insulin, diabetes can develop.

12. What types of diseases are caused by bacteria, fungi, viruses, or protozoa? a. Cancer b. Infectious c. Deficiency d. Autoimmune ANS: B

Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, prions,and pathogenic animals.

13. Which example is an infectious disease? a. Scurvy b. Impetigo c. Down syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: B

Examples of infectious diseases are impetigo (bacterial infection), ringworm (fungal infection), herpes simplex virus (HSV) (viral infection), malaria (protozoal infection), lice(pathogenic animal infestation).

14. Nosocomial infections are ones that are acquired in which location? a. Work b. Healthcare system c. Public park d. School ANS: B

Healthcare–associated infections (HAIs) are infections acquired while a person is receiving healthcare for another condition. HAIs are associated with healthcare delivery in all settings, including hospitals, surgical centers, infusion or dialysis centers, long-term care facilities, andhome healthcare. The previous term was nosocomial infections; both terms are often used interchangeably.

15. Which term means a biologic agent capable of causing infectious disease? a. Host b. Reserve c. Pathogen d. Carcinogen ANS: C

Pathogens are biologic agents capable of causing infections. Examples of pathogens areviruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, prions, and pathogenic animals.

16. Which type of pathogens are nonliving entities that depend on a host cell for growth

andreplication?

Prions Fungi Viruses Bacteria

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Viruses are nonliving entities that depend on a host cell for growth and replication.

17. Which example is a viral infection? a. Malaria b. Influenza c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis ANS: B

Examples of viral infections are the common cold, influenza, HIV infection, measles, mumps,rabies, herpes simplex, and severe acute respiratory disease caused by coronavirus.

18. Which pathogens are single-cell organisms and can be spiral-shaped or rod-shaped? a. Prions b. Fungi c. Viruses d. Bacteria ANS: D

Bacteria are single-cell organisms; they can be spherical, spiral, or rod-shaped; and appearsingly or in chains.

19. Which example is a bacterial infection? a. Malaria b. Influenza c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis ANS: D

Examples of bacterial infections are boils, impetigo, tuberculosis, gastroenteritis, and strepthroat.

20. Which example is a fungal infection?

a. b. c. d.

Malaria Influenza Ringworm Tuberculosis

ANS: C

Examples of fungal infections are thrush, ringworm, and athlete’s foot.

21. Which example is a pathogenic animal? a. Hives b. Scabies c. Malaria d. Ringworm ANS: B

Examples of pathogenic animals are intestinal worms, lice, and scabies.

22. Which term means the person or environment where pathogens live and reproduce? a. Host b. Portal c. Disease d. Reservoir ANS: D

A reservoir is the person or environment (soil, water) where pathogens live and reproduce, ordepend on for its survival.

23. Which term means the movement of pathogens by contact, through vehicles, or by vectors? a. Susceptibility b. Transmission c. Contamination d. Etiology ANS: B

Mode of transmission is the transfer of pathogens by contact (direct and indirect), through vehicles, such as food or water, or by vectors, such as insects or animals to spread pathogensbv etween two or more hosts.

24. Which terms are methods of pathogen transmission? a. Contact, vehicle, and vector b. Local, intermediate, and widespread c. Stage one, stage two, and stage three d. Acute, subacute, and chronic ANS: A

Mode of transmission is the transfer of pathogens by contact (direct and indirect), through vehicles, such as food or water, or by vectors, such as insects or animals to spread pathogensbv etween two or more hosts.

25. Which term means pathogens have been able to overcome the host’s immune responses? a. Carrier

b. Endemic c. Infection d. Transmission ANS: C

If pathogens overcome the host’s immune response, infection occurs. The host now becomes areservoir for future disease transmissions.

26. Which term means the time interval between initial exposure to pathogens and the

firstappearance of disease signs and symptoms?

Residual effect Incubation period Prevalence outcome Disease complication

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The incubation period is the time interval between initial exposure to pathogens and the firstappearance of disease signs and symptoms.

27. Which method of disease transmission is the most common? a. Vector b. Contact c. Vehicle d. Isolation ANS: B

Contact, the most common method of disease transmission and occurs both directly andindirectly.

28. Which transmission of infectious agents occurs through a common source such as food,

water,or air?

Vector Contact Vehicle Isolation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Vehicle transmission occurs when pathogens are transmitted through a common vehicle or source, such as food, water, air, and in some cases blood distributed by transfusion services.

29. Which type of transmission is transfer of infectious agents between two or more hosts, such

a s bv etween animals or insects and human beings?

Vector Contact Vehicle Isolation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Vector transmission uses a vector to spread pathogens between two or more hosts. Most vector-borne diseases are transmitted by bites of animals, stings of insects, or infestation oftissues.

30. Which term means the minimum infection control practices to prevent

occupationaltransmission of disease?

Health and hygiene Standard precautions Prodromal period Antimicrobial resistance

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Standard precautions are minimum infection control practices to prevent occupationaltransmission of disease. These apply to all clients/patients regardless of suspected or confirmed infection or colonization status.

31. Which vaccine does the CDC recommend health care providers receive? a. Smallpox b. Rabies c. Chickenpox d. Rotavirus ANS: C

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2021) recommends certain vaccines be used to reduce the risk of acquiring or spreading vaccine-preventable diseases in healthcare settings. Recommended vaccines include hepatitis B; influenza (flu); measles, mumps, rubella(MMR); chickenpox (varicella); tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap); meningococcal; andCOVID-19.

32. Which method is the best for infection control? a. Hand hygiene b. Taking supplements c. Receiving vaccinations d. Avoiding massaging clients who are ill ANS: A

Hand hygiene is the best infection control measure because the primary source of diseasetransmission is contact with human hands.

33. During hand washing, briskly rub soapy hands, forearms, and elbows together for at least

howmany seconds? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 60 ANS: B

Apply soap. Rub hands together and over the forearms briskly. Include areas between the fingers and under the nails. Do this for at least 20 seconds. This is about the time it takes tosing or hum the “Happy Birthday” song from beginning to end twice.

34. Which factor is the primary source of disease transmission? a. Using mobile devices b. Contact with human hands c. Drinking at water fountains

d. Dining at public restaurants ANS: B

Hand hygiene is the best infection control measure because the primary source of diseasetransmission is contact with human hands.

35. Which type of glove is the most popular in professional settings? a. Latex b. Vinyl c. Nitrile d. Rubber ANS: C

Nitrile gloves are currently the most popular glove of choice. Most facilities have eliminatedor limited latex products because of latex allergy concerns. Also, nitrile gloves can be used with oil-based or water-based massage products.

36. How much bleach should be added to a washing machine to disinfect contaminated linens? a. 1/4 to 1/2 cup b. 1/2 to 1 1/4 cups c. 1 1/4 to 1 3/4 cups d. 1 3/4 to 2 cups ANS: B

Add the amount of detergent and bleach listed in the washing machine owner’s manual. The bleach amount ranges from 1/2 cup to 1 1/4 cup. Use the bleach dispenser if the machine hasone, and do not exceed the maximum capacity of the bleach dispenser.

37. Disinfection of contaminated tools means immersing them in a 1:10 solution of

householdbv leach and water for at least how many minutes? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 ANS: B

Immerse contaminated reusable objects such as massage tools in 70% isopropyl alcohol for 5minutes, 3% hydrogen peroxide for 30 minutes, or a 1:10 solution of unscented chlorine bleach and water for 5 minutes.

38. Which term describes providing first and immediate responses during health or

medicalemergency situations to minimize loss of life?

Infection control Standard precautions Health and hygiene Emergency preparedness

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Emergency preparedness is the process of providing first and immediate responses duringhealth or medical emergency situations to minimize loss of life.

39. What is the appropriate action to take if encountering an unresponsive individual?

a. Call 911 and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation immediately b. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation immediately; then call 911 after signs

andsymptoms abate

c. Check for responsiveness to determine whether there is an actual emergency d. Search pockets or a purse for emergency meds such as an epinephrine pen

thenadminister if found ANS: C

If you encounter an unresponsive individual, check for responsiveness to determine if there isan actual emergency or if the individual is simply resting.

40. Which information should be given to the 911 emergency dispatcher? a. The caller’s age b. Victim’s location c. Victim’s height d. The time of day ANS: B

When calling 911, give the following information to the emergency dispatcher: what the emergency is or what is happening now; precise location of the emergency; condition of the pv erson(s) if known; pertinent medical history, if known; the age of the person(s), if possible.

41. The Heimlich maneuver should be used if the client is in which condition? a. Choking and is unable to cough or speak b. Diabetic and experiencing hypoglycemia c. Having a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes d. Unable to speak coherently or raise both arms ANS: A

A person who is coughing and can speak is not choking, so encourage the person to cough.

The person is likely choking if they cannot cough or speak, has difficulty breathing or cannotbv reathe, and has a bluish tint of the lips and nails. If the person is choking, use the Heimlich maneuver, or abdominal thrusts, to help open a suddenly obstructed trachea.

42. If a client who is experiencing hypoglycemia is conscious what should the

massage pv ractitioner do?

Perform CPR on the client immediately Gently place the client on the floor if possible Give the client glucose or sugar Press into the client’s upper abdomen with a quick upward thrust

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Glucose is the preferred treatment for conscious individuals experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Follow the 15-15 rule. Consume glucose or sugar equal to 15 grams of carbohydrates (carbs). Rest for 15 minutes. If symptoms have not abated, consume 15 moregrams of carbs.

43. In the acronym F-A-S-T-E-R to learn stroke signs and symptoms, what does “S” stand for? a. Speech b. Supine c. Stability

d. Seizure ANS: C

In the acronym F-A-S-T, “S” stand for stability. Does the person have trouble standinguv pright or walking?

44. Which condition occurs when blood flow to the heart is suddenly disrupted from a blocked

oroccluded vessel?

Stroke Seizure disorder Heart attack Hypoglycemia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

A heart attack, or myocardial infarction (MI), occurs when blood flow to the heart is suddenlydisrupted from a blocked or occluded vessel.

45. Which condition is associated with the acute care principle “time is muscle?” a. Stroke b. Seizure c. Heart attack d. Hypoglycemia ANS: C

The acute care principle for heart attack is “time is muscle”—heart muscle, in this case.

46. What is the rate per minute for chest compressions used to perform CPR? a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 125 ANS:

C

The rate per minute for chest compressions is approximately 100 to 120.

47. Which conditions are characterized by episodes of uncontrolled and excessive

electricalactivity in the brain?

Strokes Seizure Heart attacks Hypoglycemic events

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Seizures are episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical activity in the brain resulting in a sudden change of behavior and level of consciousness. The event is described as a lightnings torm in the brain.

48. If a client is having a seizure, when should 911 be called? a. Seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes or immediately repeats b. Client stops having a seizure within 3 minutes c. Client has had a seizure before, as indicated on the intake form d. Seizure produces patterns of alternating contractions that gradually subside

ANS: A

Call 911 in the following cases: 1. It is the person’s first seizure or if you do not know; 2.

If the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or immediately repeats, or if the person cannot be awakened after the seizure; 3. If the person is injured or vomits during the seizure; 4. If the person has a medical condition such as diabetes, heart disease, or congestive heart failure or is pregnant.

Chapter 10: Professional Standards: Scope of Practice, Standards of Care, Assessments, Documentation, Informed Consent, Treatment Planning, and ReferralsSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means professional activities that can be performed legally by members of

alicensed profession?

Scope of practice Informed consent Client documentation Professional reference

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Scope of practice refers to professional activities that can be performed legally by members ofa licensed profession and the context these activities can be applied. Scope of practice is defined by state law or the practice act.

2. Which method is within the scope of practice for massage practitioners? a. Herbalism b. Acupuncture c. Hot pack application d. Nutritional counseling ANS: C

Within massage therapy scope of practice are often permitted the use of physical agents suchas hot and cold applications (e.g., packs, stones), hydrotherapy, and topical products (e.g., muds, clays, salts, sugars).

3. What are chiropractic adjustments considered in relation to massage therapy? a. Outside scope of practice b. Okay if permission is granted by a chiropractor c. Within scope of practice d. Within standard of care if working in a chiropractor’s office ANS: A

Massage practitioners cannot provide services or apply techniques that require a separate license to practice, such as psychotherapy, chiropractic or osteopathic procedures, physical oroccupational therapy, or any branch of medicine, unless they have the appropriate state license.

4. Which term means the degree and level of care given by similarly trained and

qualifiedindividuals who work under similar circumstances? a. Exclusion b. Delegation c. Scope of practice d. Standard of care ANS: D

Standard of care is the degree and level of care given by similarly trained and qualified individuals who are in the same or similar line of work or in the same or similar work setting.

5. Which term means the act of exchanging information by encoding and decoding verbal

andnonverbal messages?

Literacy Documentation Assessment Communication

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Communication is the act of exchanging information by encoding and decoding verbal andnonverbal messages within a defined cultural, physiological, relational, and perceptual context. Communication is ubiquitous and interactive and helps to express thoughts, ideas,and feelings.

6. Which term means the capacity of an individual to obtain, communicate, and

understandinformation and services when making wellness care decisions?

Health literacy Research literacy Assessment Documentation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Health literacy is the capacity of an individual to obtain, communicate, and understand healthinformation and services when making decisions.

7. What is the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? a. Prevent client personal health information from being shared among professionals b. Protect the storage and transmission of client personal health information c. Determine what personal health care information the client is allowed to release d. Determine how much the client can charge for personal health information ANS: B

HIPAA was created by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) to protectclient rights and targets the storage, transmission, and dissemination of personal health information.

8. Which method is recommended to protect client information? a. Apply the double lock rule b. Keep family members out of the filing room c. Store records offsite from where services are provided d. Record all client information while at home ANS: A

One method used to safeguard client information is the double lock rule. If client information is on paper, secure paper documents behind two locks such as a locked fireproof file cabinet inside a locked office. If client information is digitized, secure electronic files behind two locks such as a passcode-protected computer program or cloudbased storage accessed through a passcode-protected digital device. Additionally, if services are provided onsite suchas in residential settings, client files are secured within a locked mobile transport case and in alocked vehicle.

9. How many years does the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and

Bodyworkers recommend that practitioners maintain client records after the last date of clientservice? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: B

Massage practitioners should let clients know how copies of their files can be obtained (e.g., document release form), how long these files are kept once treatments are complete or services discontinued (e.g., 4 years minimum is recommended by the NCBTMB [2017]), andhow these records will be destroyed at this time (e.g., shredded).

10. Which term means a systematic process of gathering information in order to make

informeddecisions about treatment?

Planning Assessment Documentation Implementation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Assessment is a systematic process of gathering information in order to make informed decisions about treatment. Assessment gives you a deeper understanding of the client’s condition, helps you formulate professional judgments, and serves as the foundation of the treatment plan. Assessment includes self-reporting of health status via an intake form, stressor pain levels through the various use of scales, a client interview, and visual, palpatory, and pv hysical assessments conducted by the practitioner.

11. Which type of pain scale consists of a straight horizontal or vertical line with the

endpointsdefining extreme limits?

Visual analog FACES rating Numeric rating Verbal descriptor

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Visual Analog Scale (VAS). This consists of a straight horizontal or vertical line with theendpoints to measure extreme limits such as no pain and worst pain possible.

12. Which concept is the emotional bond people experience when concerns, feelings, and

ideasare mutually expressed? a. Rapport

b. Memory c. Self-esteem d. Reinforcement ANS: A

Rapport is the emotional bond people experience when concerns, feelings, and ideas are mutually expressed. Good rapport facilitates clear communication and promotes cooperation,which may lead to client satisfaction and continued patronage.

13. Which area is the most appropriate for the massage practitioner to conduct the

clientinterview?

Office lobby Office break room Parking lot Private treatment room

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The interview area should be private, comfortable, at a pleasant room temperature, ventilated,well lit, and free of distractions and interruptions.

14. Which type of question is defined as offering little restriction when answering? a. Open-ended b. Closed-ended c. Exploratory d. Reflective ANS: A

Open-ended questions offer little restriction when answering.

15. Which example is an open-ended question? a. Does it hurt to raise your right arm? b. Does pain radiate down your left leg? c. How does your headache feel? d. Can you take more pressure on this area?

ANS: C

Open-ended questions offer little restriction when answering. Close-ended questions are more pv recise and require affirmative, denial, or specific answers such as “yes,” “no,” or “the right shoulder.”

16. Which type of question is defined as requiring affirmative, denial, or specific answers? a. Open-ended b. Closed-ended c. Exploratory d. Reflective ANS: B

Close-ended questions are precise and require affirmative, denial, or specific answers such as “yes,” “no,” or “the right shoulder.”

17.

Which example is a closed-ended question? a. Can you tell me about your headaches?

b. What brings you to the clinic? c. Does pain radiate down your left leg? d. How can I help you be more comfortable?

ANS: C

Close-ended questions are precise and require affirmative, denial, or specific answers such as “yes,” “no,” or “the right shoulder.”

18. What is an effective interview skill? a. Remain neutral to the client’s responses b. Look down at notes as much as or more than at the client c. Use closed-ended questions only when talking with the client d. Stay focused on the client’s discussion about personal relationships ANS: D

Greet the client by smiling, making eye contact, and stating a greeting which includes the client’s name. Face the client at eye level during the interview. Remain neutral to the client’sresponses and do not imply they said something “right” or “wrong.” Avoid leading questionssuggesting a certain answer.

19. According to James Borg, which type of human communication is expressed 93% of the time? a. Written words b. Spoken words c. Tone of voice d. Body language ANS: D

James Borg, author of Body Language: 7 Easy Lessons to Master the Silent Language, statedhuman communication is 93% body language, and much of it expressed nonverbally.

20. Which acronym stands for a strategy to remember key assessment questions during

theinterview?

APIE PPALM OPPQRST SOAP

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

PPALM is a mnemonic acronym to remember key assessment questions to ask during the interview.

21. In PPALM, what does the L stand for? a. Limitations b. Length c. Lifestyle d. Language ANS: C

PPALM is an acronym for the first letter of five assessment domains: Purpose or focus ofsession; Pain; Allergies and skin condition; Lifestyle including occupation and physical activity; Medical and surgical history.

22. Which acronym stands for pain assessment guidelines? a. APIE b. SOAP c. HIPAA d. OPPQRST ANS:

D

If the client is seeking pain relief, the practitioner can ask questions related to the acronym OPPQRST. OPPQRST stands for: Onset; Provocative; Palliative; Quality; Radiation; Site;Timing.

23. In the OPPQRST pain assessment guideline, what does S stand for? a. Site b. Sharp c. Sensation d. Superficial ANS: A

In the OPPQRST pain assessment guideline, S stands for “site.”

24. Which concept is the documented process of developing a client’s therapy? a. Informed consent b. Practice agreement c. Treatment planning d. Professional reference ANS: C

Treatment planning is the documented process by which the practitioner or healthcare team pv lans an appropriate treatment or course of treatment for a client.

25. What is the purpose of the PICO approach? a. Create a way to document the treatment session b. Form a question about a client problem and gather research c. Obtain permission to proceed with the treatment d. Establish pain level before the treatment ANS: B

Practitioners of evidence-informed practice often use a framework, called PICO, to form aquestion about a specific client problem and facilitate the search for relevant evidence or research via the internet or in databases that will help the client achieve a desired treatmentoutcome.

26. What does the C in PICO stand for? a. Change b. Culture c. Chronic d. Comparison ANS: D

PICO stands for: P: Patient/Client or Population; I: Intervention; C: Comparison or Control;O: Outcome of Interest.

27. What does the I in PICO stand for? a. Idiopathic b. Investment c. Interest d. Intervention ANS: D

PICO stands for: P: Patient/Client or Population; I: Intervention; C: Comparison or Control;O: Outcome of Interest.

28. When documenting client progress, how should goals be expressed? a. Subjectively b. Creatively c. In functional terms d. In abstract terms ANS: C

Goals expressed in functional terms (i.e., massage needed to increase ROM in the right shoulder) are necessary when documenting client progress. Ideally, you hope to see an increase in flexibility and ROM and a decrease in the frequency and severity of symptoms,most notably pain.

29. Which term means permission given by a client after being educated in all the relevant

factsregarding treatment?

Scope of practice Informed consent Client documentation Professional reference

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Informed consent is permission given by a client to receive treatment after they have beeninformed of all the relevant facts regarding treatment.

30. Practitioner qualifications, products and techniques used, cost of services, and protection

ofclient privacy are items typically included in which type of documentation?

SOAP notes Visual analog scale Consent form Scope of practice statement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Items on the consent form include, but are not limited to, the practitioner qualifications, procedural details such as products, techniques, draping, potential benefits and risks or adverse effects of treatment, cost of services, scope of practice, office polices, client rights,and protection of client privacy.

31. Which component is essential for an individual to have to give informed consent? a. Competency b. Technical communication c. Health literacy d. Compliance

ANS: A

Three essential components an individual must have to give informed consent include being given full disclosure of information, a voluntary nature of the decision, and competency of theindividual.

32. Which part of informed consent is covered by discussing techniques, methods, and products? a. Expected benefits b. Procedural details c. Practitioner qualifications d. Office policies ANS: B

Items on the consent form include, but are not limited to, the practitioner qualifications, procedural details such as products, techniques, draping, potential benefits and risks or adverse effects of treatment, cost of services, scope of practice, office polices, client rights,and protection of client privacy.

33. What is the term for withdrawing or modifying permission for treatment? a. Professional conduct b. Informed consent c. Explanation of risks d. Rights of refusal ANS: D

The client has the right to refuse unwanted treatment or if they feel unsafe, even with prior consent. The practitioner can also refuse treatment of an area or postpone treatment if the client has contraindications, expresses sexual comments, or makes sexual advances after beingasked to stop, or makes the practitioner feel unsafe.

34. Which term means the process of collecting, confirming, and recording information? a. Debriefing b. Agreement c. Assessment d. Documentation ANS: D

Documentation is the process of collecting, confirming, and recording information.

Systematic collection and review of previously recorded client information helps practitionersevaluate past treatment decisions, which sharpens the practitioner’s critical thinking skills.

35. What is considered the most credible evidence in legal proceedings? a. Documentation b. Assessment c. Practitioner’s memory d. Client’s memory ANS: A

Documentation is the “gold standard” of admissible evidence in legal proceedings.

Documentation verifies client information disclosed and the type of treatment the clientreceived.

36. Which method is appropriate for documentation?

a. b. c. d.

Correction fluid and tape to correct errors Commonly accepted medical abbreviations Best judgment when diagnosing conditions Black ink when writing treatment notes

ANS: B

A suggestion for documentation is to use commonly accepted medical abbreviations.

37. Which type of information is obtained from the client? a. Objective b. Subjective c. Treatment d. Assessment ANS: B

Subjective information is obtained from the client, written or spoken. It is based on or influenced by opinions, attitudes, feelings, and beliefs the client has about pain and stress andother symptoms.

38. Which type of information is defined as being measurable and verifiable? a. Objective b. Subjective c. Treatment d. Assessment ANS: A

Objective information is information the practitioner observes or measures and can be verified. This can include range of motion, measuring the circumference of a swollen ankle,bv ehaviors made by the client such as holding the right hip while walking or grimacing whileraising the arm overhead, and other signs.

39. In the FDAR system of documentation, what does the D stand for? a. Dominant b. Distal c. Data d. Duration ANS: C

FDAR stands for: F: Focus; D: Data; A: Action; R: Response.

40. In the APIE documentation format, what does the I stand for? a. Informed b. Interview c. Individual d. Implementation ANS: D

APIE stands for assessment, plan, implementation, and evaluation.

41. In both the SOAP and the APIE documentation formats, what does P stand for? a. Plan b. Pattern

c. Palpation d. Participant ANS: A

In both the SOAP and APIE documentation formats, P stands for “plan.”

42. In the SOAPIER documentation format, what does R stand for? a. Review b. Regional c. Range d. Retest ANS: A

SOAPIER stands for subjective, objective, assessment, plan, implementation, evaluation, andreview.

43. In the CARE documentation format, what does the R stand for? a. Referrals b. Restrictions c. Response of the client d. Recommendations for the client ANS: C

In the CARE documentation format, the R stands for “response of client.”

44. Which term means an order from an authorized health care provider for medications,

medicaltreatments, or medical devices?

Referral Prescription Medical release Informed consent

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

A prescription is an authorization and instructions from a medical practitioner for drugs, procedures (e.g., physical or massage therapy), or devices (e.g., hearing aids, eyeglasses).

45. Which entity is most likely to require prescriptions? a. Massage licensing board b. Business license office c. Health insurance company d. Liability insurance company ANS: C

Cost of massage services may be paid or reimbursed by third party payers such as insurancecompanies. These situations often require a prescription.

46. Which documentation can massage practitioner’s elect to provide for the prescriber as

clientsessions are completed?

Progress report Medical prescription Medical release Informed consent

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Insurance companies pay for “medically necessary” procedures and products. Therefore, documentation such as assessments made before and after the massage is needed indicating progress. Progress reports may be sent directly to the prescriber or may be given to the patientto deliver to the prescriber during the next appointment.

47. Which term means the act of recommending services or products to help clients

achievetreatment goals?

Referral Prescription Medical release Informed consent

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

A referral is an act of recommending services or products to help clients achieve treatmentgoals.

48. Which process can involve asking the client to be the communicator, calling the

client’shealthcare provider, or writing a letter to the client’s healthcare provider? a. Making a referral b. Writing a prescription c. Using a medical release d. Explaining informed consent ANS: A

There are three main methods by which a massage practitioner can refer a client to their healthcare provider to discuss observations and to express concerns: ask the client to be thecommunicator; call the practice or clinic and speak to the client’s healthcare provider or a staff member; write a letter to the client’s healthcare provider.

49. Which condition should the massage practitioner encourage the client to see evaluation

fromtheir primary healthcare provider?

Feeling stressed Muscle soreness Limited range of motion Unexplained weight loss

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

If the client exhibits or discloses any of the following conditions, it may be related to an underlying unidentified pathologic process: unexplained weight loss; abnormal bleeding fromany orifice; unexplained inflammation; shortness of breath; unexplained persistent fatigue; changes in body function (sleep, eating, bowel, etc.). Encourage the client to seek evaluation from their primary healthcare provider.

50. When are self-care activities performed by clients? a. During scheduled appointments b. Right after a scheduled appointment c. Between scheduled appointments d. Just before a scheduled appointment ANS: C

Self-care activities are done between scheduled appointments. Suggest an activity that wouldfit easily into the day and would tie into something the client does daily.

Chapter 11: Special Populations: Massage for Pregnant and Postpartum Clients, Infants, Children, Adolescents, Aging Adults, and Those with Visual, Hearing, and Mobility Impairment Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term is defined as groups of individuals who are disadvantaged, vulnerable, or at

riskfor harm?

Legal cohorts Minors Special populations Victims

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Special populations are groups of individuals who are disadvantaged, vulnerable, and/or at risk for harm. Causative or contributory risk factors include physical or cognitive limitations,a life stage, or unique life circumstances that restrict an individual’s rights and privileges.

2. Which type of vulnerability is an individual living in an abusive home considered to have? a. Physical b. Social c. Psychological d. Emotional ANS: B

Special populations with social vulnerabilities are persons living in abusive or neglectful families; the homeless; immigrants; minorities; refugees; subcultures such as LGBTQ+ communities, individuals living in poverty or who are economically disadvantaged; and thosewho are institutionalized.

3. Which type of massage involves modifications of basic techniques and body positions to

meetthe needs of clients as they undergo changes during the prenatal and postpartum periods? a. Infant b. Sports c. Geriatric d. Pregnancy ANS: D

Pregnancy massage is the modification of techniques and body positions to meet the needs ofclients as they undergo changes during pregnancy and the postpartum period.

4. Which effect has research shown massage to have on pregnant clients? a. Decreased sleep b. Improved mental health c. Increased need for pain medication d. Increased back and leg pain ANS: B

Pregnancy-induced lower back pain is the most common reason pregnant clients receivemassage—hip, shoulder, and neck pain and improved mental health are also reasons that pv regnant clients receive massage. Indeed, the American Pregnancy Association (n.d.c.) encourages the use of massage during pregnancy.

5. Pregnant clients can safely sit in hot baths or hot/dry saunas for a maximum of how

manyminutes? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 ANS: B

Pregnant clients can safely engage in sitting in hot baths (104° F [40° C]) or hot/dry saunas (158° F [70° C]; 15% relative humidity) for up to 20 minutes irrespective of pregnancy stage.

6. Which term means noninduced embryonic or fetal death before 20 weeks of gestation? a. Preeclampsia b. Gestation c. Thrombosis d. Miscarriage ANS: D

Miscarriage is noninduced embryonic or fetal death or passage of conception products before20 weeks of gestation. Approximately 20% to 30% of females with confirmed pregnancies experience vaginal bleeding during this timeframe, and half of these pregnancies spontaneously abort.

7. What is the best course of action if a pregnant client is experiencing any signs or symptoms

ofmiscarriage? a. Press on the ankle area that corresponds to the uterus and ovaries in reflexology b. Postpone massage and make a referral to the obstetrician or health care provider c. Conduct a thorough evaluation into the primary cause of the signs or symptoms d. Proceed with the massage in the side-lying position to reduce pain and discomfort ANS: B

Massage should be postponed if the client is experiencing signs or symptoms of miscarriage(abdominopelvic pain or cramping, vaginal bleeding or spotting, discharge of tissue), and a referral should be made to the obstetrician or healthcare provider managing the pregnancy.

8. Because of decreased clot-dissolving properties and increased clot-producing factors,

pregnantclients are at a higher risk for which condition?

Deep vein thrombosis Peripheral arterial disease Gestational diabetes Preeclampsia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a thrombus or blood clot within a deep vein, usually in thelegs (from knee to ankle). Thrombophlebitis occurs when the clot causes inflammation.

Because of decreased clot-dissolving properties during pregnancy and increased clot-producing factors, pregnant clients are at 5 to 6 times higher risk for developing DVT. 9. Which condition affects approximately 75% of pregnant women? a. Miscarriage b. Preeclampsia c. Morning sickness d. Gestational diabetes ANS: C

Morning sickness, also called nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP), affectsapproximately 75% of pregnant clients.

10. Which range indicates the second trimester of pregnancy? a. 10 to 16 weeks b. 15 to 28 weeks c. 22 to 27 weeks d. 28 to 40 weeks ANS: B

The second trimester is week 15 to 28.

11. Which condition occurs as the pregnant uterus compresses major abdominal blood

vessels,causing a sudden drop in blood pressure? a. Spontaneous fetal abortion b. Placental previa and abruption c. Supine hypotensive syndrome d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension ANS: C

Supine hypotensive syndrome is a drop in blood pressure caused by compression of the pregnant uterus against major abdominal blood vessels, such as the inferior vena cava and theabdominal aorta.

12. The side-lying position helps prevent which condition? a. Spontaneous fetal abortion b. Placental previa and abruption c. Supine hypotensive syndrome d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension ANS: C

To prevent supine hypotensive syndrome, use the left lateral tilt or side-lying positionsbv eginning on week 22 of pregnancy, or earlier if the pregnant client is “showing.”

13. Which term means persistent high blood pressure with protein in the urine? a. Miscarriage b. Preeclampsia c. Placenta previa d. Morning sickness

ANS: B

Preeclampsia is persistent high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Preeclampsia usually develops after 20 weeks of gestation in females with previous blood pv ressure readings in the normal range.

14. Which condition is a complication of preeclampsia? a. Morning sickness b. Supine hypotensive syndrome c. DVT d. HELLP syndrome ANS: D

Eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are complications of preeclampsia. Eclampsia is preeclampsia plus seizures. HELLP syndrome, a severe form of preeclampsia, stands for Hemolysis (destruction of red blood cells), Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count.

15. Which condition requires immediate referral of a pregnant client to the client’s obstetrician

orthe healthcare provider who is managing her pregnancy? a. Leg cramps b. Varicose veins c. Frequent urination d. Widespread edema ANS: D

Widespread swelling requires a referral made to the client’s obstetrician or healthcare providermanaging the pregnancy as it could indicate preeclampsia.

16. Which fetal complication is related to gestational diabetes mellitus? a. Excessive growth b. Small birth size c. Cardiovascular issues d. Urinary tract issues ANS: A

If gestational diabetes mellitus is not well controlled, it can lead to complications includingexcessive fetal growth, preeclampsia, maternal hypoglycemia, preterm birth, and infant respiratory distress syndrome.

17. Which week range indicates the third trimester of pregnancy? a. 10 to 16 weeks b. 15 to 28 weeks c. 22 to 27 weeks d. 29 to 40 weeks ANS: D

The third trimester is week 29 to birth, which occurs around week 40.

18. What effect does relaxin have on the pregnant woman’s body? a. Stimulates milk production. b. Stimulates uterine contractions c. Decreases the risk of heartburn d. Increases pelvic girdle flexibility

ANS: D

In pregnant females, relaxin relaxes the uterine wall to promote implantation and reduce the risk of miscarriage or premature birth. Toward the end of pregnancy, relaxin helps the cervixrelax and dilate, and relaxes pelvic ligaments to assist in childbirth.

19. Which modification is appropriate for a pregnant client experiencing swelling or edema in

thefeet and ankles?

Apply heat to the affected areas Massage distal to the affected areas first Elevate the affected areas by placing them on cushions Use deep pressure applied centrifugally over affected areas

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

For localized edema, place the affected area on cushions to raise it above the level of the heart. Use light pressure effleurage applied centripetally and skin stretching. Massage proximal to the affected area first and then proceed distally (e.g., massage the thigh, then theleg, then the ankle, and the foot last) as lymph moves toward the groin in the lower extremities.

20. Which condition involves dilated veins resulting from incompetent valves? a. Varicose veins b. Gestational diabetes c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension d. Supine hypotensive syndrome ANS: A

Varicose veins are enlarged veins caused by incompetent vascular valves. Once enlarged, theytend to remain. Pregnant clients may develop varicose veins or find that varicose veins present bv efore pregnancy worsen.

21. Which condition is due to overstretching of skin? a. Stretch marks b. Varicose veins c. Heartburn pain d. Premature labor ANS: A

Stretch marks are indented lines or bands from overstretched skin. These are caused by rapidexpansion of connective tissue leading to skin thinning and atrophy.

22. How should massage over stretch marks be performed? a. It is a contraindication b. Light pressure should be used c. Deep pressure should be used d. It should occur after applying heat packs ANS: B

Use light pressure over stretch marks, as they are weaknesses in the skin.

23. High-risk pregnancies are so named because they are likely to involve which issue? a. Large birth weight

b. Complications c. Prolonged labor d. Easy gestation ANS: B

High-risk pregnancy is one that is more likely to experience complications, including diseaseand death to the mother, the developing baby, or both.

24. Which term means the period after childbirth that extends for approximately 6 weeks? a. Gestation b. Pregnancy c. Postpartum d. Incubation ANS: C

The postpartum is the time frame after childbirth and extends for approximately 6 weeks.

25. Which type of delivery do most pregnant women have? a. Laparoscopic b. Vaginal c. Multiple baby d. Cesarean section ANS: B

Vaginal childbirth occurs when the baby, placenta, membranes, and umbilical cord are delivered out of the mother’s vagina. Approximately 69% of childbirths in the United Statesare vaginal deliveries.

26. Which type of massage creates a nurturing and bonding experience between the child and

the pv arent or caregiver?

Infant Sports Geriatric Pregnancy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The framework of infant massage is to promote parent-child interaction, which facilitates understanding, builds trust, and promotes attachment, the latter of which helps the child feelsafe, secure, and protected.

27. How should an infant massage instructor demonstrate massage techniques to the parents

orcaregivers?

On a doll With the baby With the caregiver On his or her own baby

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

When instructing parents or caregivers, the massage practitioner uses a doll to demonstratemassage techniques while the parent/caregiver performs the massage on the infant.

28. Which approach is appropriate for infant massage? a. Using mineral oil b. Using scented lotion c. Having natural or low lighting d. Keeping the baby uncovered ANS: C

The room should be warm and without drafts. Natural light or low light is best, as bright lightmay overstimulate the child. Soft background music can be played. However, the child’s favorite music is often the parent’s or caregiver’s voice talking in a high-pitched voice, humming, or singing a lullaby.

29. In most states, consent from a parent or legal guardian is needed for a client at which age

andyounger?

15 years 19 years 20 years 21 years

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

In most states, the age of consent for nontherapeutic/self-care procedures is 16 years of age.

This age is determined by the age a new driver can receive a driver’s license in the state wheremassage services are provided. The parent or legal guardian must grant consent for children/adolescents who cannot grant consent for themselves.

30. Which approach is appropriate for a massage practitioner if abuse of an older client

issuspected?

Investigate the suspected abuse of the client thoroughly Ask the client questions about the suspected abuse Inform the client’s family about the abuse File a report with protection services on behalf of the client

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Mandatory reporting is a legislative mandate that applies to individuals who have regular contact with vulnerable populations (i.e., children, dependent adults, elderly) to file a report with protection services when abuse or neglect (including self-neglect) is observed or suspected. Mandated reporters are not required to, and in no circumstances, serve as investigators. However, information such as photographs may be taken in support of the report, which may be used during an investigation. Avoid asking the client questions to try getto the bottom of the allegation. In addition, avoid informing the client’s family about the report.

31. Which type involves modification of basic massage techniques and body positions to meet

theneeds of older and aging adults?

Thai massage Geriatric massage Craniosacral therapy Neuromuscular therapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Geriatric massage is the modification of basic massage techniques and body positions to meetthe needs of older and aging adults.

32. At which age are people classified as senior citizens according to the World

HealthOrganization? a. 55 b. 60 c. 65 d. 70 ANS: C

Sixty-five years old is the chronologic age considered by most developing countries as the bv eginning of old age and when an individual is considered a senior citizen (World Health Organization [WHO], n.d.a).

33. The least touched people are in which age group? a. Infancy b. Adolescence c. Middle adulthood d. Older adulthood ANS: D

Older adults receive the least amount of touch of all age groups in Western healthcare systems. In a study by Barnett (1972), the age group touched least in medical environmentswas individuals 66 to 100 years of age.

34. What is the period of life from old age to death called? a. Senescence b. Adolescence c. Convalescence d. Prepubescence ANS: A

Senescence is the period of life from old age to death.

35. Which term means an impairment or condition that makes it more difficult for the person

to pv articipate in one or more major life activity?

Geriatric Bereavement Disability Senescence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

A disability is an impairment or condition that makes it more difficult for the person to participate in one or more major life activity. Major life activities include, but are not limitedto, caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, and working.

36. Which description defines quality of life? a. The degree to which a person is able to participate in and enjoy life events

b. Impairments that make it difficult for a person to participate in a major life activity c. Whether or not a person is able to overcome alcohol or substance abuse d. A situation in which a person is disadvantaged, vulnerable, or at risk for harm ANS: A

Quality of Life (QL) is the perception people have regarding their position in life in the context of their culture and their value systems, and the degree to which a person is able to pv articipate in and enjoy life events.

37. Which disease tends to afflict older adults because of a slower and weaker immune system? a. Hypertension b. Cancer c. Emphysema d. Diverticulitis ANS: B

The immune response is slower and weaker in older adults. This increases the risk of manydiseases, including autoimmune diseases, influenza, shingles, and cancer.

38. Which change due to aging can contribute to instability? a. Senile lentigo b. Actinic keratosis c. Sarcopenia d. Purpura ANS: C

Loss of muscle tone, muscle mass, and muscle strength resulting from age-related inactivity iscalled sarcopenia; the condition causes muscles to appear smaller, looser, and flattened.

Manyolder adults experience instability in walking and may depend on a walking stick, a multi-footed cane, or a walker for assistance.

39. Which time is best to schedule a massage for older clients? a. After dark b. During daylight hours c. Within an hour of eating d. A week before the client’s doctor appointment ANS: B

The best time to schedule massage sessions may be during daylight hours. Older clients ma y pv refer not to drive their vehicles after sunset because of impaired night vision and increased sensitivity to glare.

40. Which indicator means that an older client is frail? a. Being overweight b. Getting out of breath walking up a flight of stairs c. Having a moderately strong handgrip d. Having a slow walking speed ANS: D

A frail older client may be physically weak; may be more vulnerable to stressors, such as heat,cold, infection, and injury from falling; and may be more prone to dependency. Fried’s frailty criteria are as follows: 1. Slow walking speed; 2. Muscle weakness evidenced by weak handgrip and sarcopenia; 3. Self-reported exhaustion; 4. Low level of physical activity; and 5.Underweight or unintentional weight loss.

41. Which massage consideration is appropriate for a geriatric client? a. Allow extra time for filling out the intake form b. Prone position will be the most comfortable c. Treatment sessions should be longer than 60 minutes d. Techniques should be applied with increased pressure ANS: A

Allow plenty of time for filling out the intake and consent forms. Assist the client with filling out the forms if needed.

42. Which indicator denotes a robust older person? a. Regular multivitamin use b. Regular physical activity c. Reduced hearing ability d. Sharp vision ANS: B

Low levels of physical activity are an indicator of frailty. Gillick (1996) describes a robustolder person as physically vigorous, mentally acute, a fount of wisdom and experience forfamily and friends, and busy accomplishing all the things they never had the time to undertake.

43. Which body position is uncomfortable for many older clients, especially if wearing

dentalappliances?

Prone Supine Seated Side-lying

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Many older clients are uncomfortable while prone. Dental appliances may make the prone pv osition uncomfortable, even when a soft face rest cushion is used.

44. Which approach is appropriate for massaging frail older clients? a. Lower the light level before leaving the room after the session b. Use less lubricant than with other clients c. Perform gentle passive range of motion techniques d. Allow the clients to get off the table by themselves ANS: C

Gentle passive range of motion (PROM), such as mild rocking, should be applied for frailolder clients.

45. Which approach is appropriate for the massage practitioner with a client who has a

visualimpairment?

a. b. c. d.

Talk to the client in a louder tone of voice Converse with the assistant, if present, instead of the client Begin by addressing the client by name and then stating own name Be silent when entering and exiting the office and treatment room

ANS: C

Announce your presence when you enter the room where the client awaits. Begin byaddressing the client by name, and then state your name.

46. Which approach is appropriate for the massage practitioner with a client who has a

hearingimpairment?

Exaggerate lip movements while talking Converse with the interpreter, if present, instead of the client Be as inexpressive as possible when communicating with the client Avoid moving hands near hearing aids if worn during the massage

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

If the client is wearing hearing aids during the massage, avoid moving your hands close to theears. Objects near the device may produce feedback (an uncomfortable squeaking noise).

47. Which suggestion is appropriate for clients with mobility aids, other special populations,

andall clients generally?

Keep massage facilities barrier-free Exaggerate lip movements while talking Stand during the intake for clients who use wheelchairs Conduct the intake in dimly lit rooms to facilitate relaxation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The first consideration is how the client will enter your office. Most municipalities require bv usinesses to be barrier-free and wheelchair-accessible.

48. Which massage consideration is appropriate for a client who has a mobility impairment? a. Use deep sustained and vigorous pressure on the legs b. Inspect the client’s skin for evidence of decubitus ulcers c. Remain standing while talking with a client who is in a wheelchair d. Avoid working on the shoulders, chest, and arms ANS: B

Local massage is contraindicated over areas at risk for decubitus ulcer formation among individuals who are wheelchair-bound. At-risk areas are over the scapula, sacrum, ischial tuberosities, popliteal areas, and plantar surfaces of the feet. Anything that looks suspiciousneeds to be reported to the client and/or the client’s caretaker.

Chapter 12: Hydrotherapy: Clinical Applications, Spa Applications, and SpaProcedures Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the term used for the external or internal use of water for health promotion? a. Hypnotherapy b. Hydrotherapy c. Aromatherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: B

Hydrotherapy is the external or internal use of water in any of its forms (water, ice, steam) forhealth promotion or treatment of various diseases with various temperatures, pressures, duration, and application sites.

2. What is the term for therapeutic use of heat? a. Thermotherapy b. Hydrotherapy c. Cryotherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: A

Thermotherapy is the therapeutic use of heat.

3. What is the term for therapeutic use of cold? a. Thermotherapy b. Hydrotherapy c. Cryotherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: C

Cryotherapy is the therapeutic use of cold.

4. What is the term for the use of sea water? a. Aromatherapy b. Cryotherapy c. Thermotherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: D

Thalassotherapy is the external use of seawater.

5. Who is regarded as the father of hydrotherapy? a. Pehr Henrik Ling b. Hippocrates of Cos c. John Harvey Kellogg d. Father Sebastian Kneipp ANS: D

Father Sebastian Kneipp (1821–1897), from Worshofen, Bavaria, in western Germany, is regarded as the father of hydrotherapy. Kneipp possessed exceptional knowledge and skill in uv sing water to heal the ailments afflicting members of his community. These treatments, known collectively as Kneipp therapy, are still used today at world-class spas.

6. Which method has as key components herbal and mineral baths as well as cold or

alternatinghot and cold treatments administered by water, stones, or pebbles?

Physical therapy Aromatherapy Kneipp therapy Thalassotherapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Key components of Kneipp therapy are herbal and mineral baths, as well as cold or alternatinghot and cold treatments administered by water, stones, or pebbles.

7. Which type of facility was established in the late nineteenth century for individuals to

regainhealth after a long-term illness?

Rest home Gymnasium Orthopedic center Sanitarium

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Sanitariums were established as a type of health resort where individuals could go to regainhealth after a long-term illness such as tuberculosis and polio.

8. Which type of heat transfer occurs between objects or substances that are in direct

contactwith each other?

Radiation Conduction Evaporation Conversion

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Conduction is the transfer of heat between objects or substances that are in direct contact witheach other. Nonmoving warm/hot water, hot packs, and warm paraffin transfer heat by conduction.

9. Which type of heat transfer occurs by circulating currents of water or air between warmer

andcooler objects or substances?

Radiation Conduction Convection Evaporation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Convection is transfer of heat by circulating currents of water or air between a warmer objector substance and a cooler object or substance. Whirlpools baths transfer heat by convection.

10. Which type of heat transfer occurs through emanating heat rays?

a. b. c. d.

Radiation Conduction Convection Evaporation

ANS: A

Radiation is heat transfer through emanating heat rays. Infrared heat lamps transfer heat byradiation.

11. Which process involves is transfer or loss of heat when water changes into a gas or vapor? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Evaporation ANS: D

Evaporation is transfer or loss of heat when water changes into a gas or a vapor.

Vapocoolantsprays are liquidized gases that induce evaporative-cooling when applied to the skin.

12. Which term means pressure exerted by fluid on an immersed object? a. Isometric b. Barometric c. Hydrostatic d. Therapeutic ANS: C

Hydrostatic pressure is pressure exerted by a fluid on an immersed object. According toPascal’s law, a fluid exerts equal inward pressure at a given depth, and the pressure willincrease as water depth increases.

13. Which condition is a contraindication for cryotherapy? a. Tight muscles b. Edema c. Local pain d. Rash ANS: D

Contraindications to cryotherapy include cold intolerance; cold hypersensitivity; very young or very old clients because of poor thermal regulation; clients who have a diminished capacityto communicate; areas of impaired or compromised circulation; areas of nerve damage or compromised sensation; open wounds, rashes, or previous cold injury.

14. Which term describes initial vasoconstriction and later vasodilation that occurs during

coldapplication?

Barometric pressure Hydrostatic pressure Hunting response Inflammatory response

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Cold-induced vasodilation may occur when application exceeds 20 minutes or when tissue temperature reaches approximately 50° F (10° C). This effect was first noted by Lewis (1930),and called it the hunting response.

15. A general recommendation is that cold be applied for a maximum of how many minutes? a. 5 b. 7 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: D

Cryotherapy can be applied for up to 20 minutes.

16. Which therapeutic effect does cold application have? a. Increases edema b. Increases muscle spasm c. Decreases inflammation d. Decreases joint stiffness ANS: C

Cryotherapy exerts its effects by influencing changes in blood flow; managing edema; reducing the inflammatory process; and decreasing nerve conduction velocity, which reduce spv ain and spasticity.

17. Which reaction to cryotherapy is characterized by smooth, elevated patches that are red

o r pv ale and may be accompanied by severe itching?

Eczema Cold hypersensitivity Dermatitis Cold numbness

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Cold hypersensitivity is characterized by smooth, slightly elevated patches that are redder o r pv aler than surrounding skin and may be accompanied by severe itching called coldinduced urticaria.

18. Which sensation is usually felt last in cryotherapy application? a. Cold b. Aching c. Burning d. Numbness ANS: D

During cold application of any method, the client usually experiences a sequence of sensations including (1) feeling of intense cold, (2) burning, (3) stinging or aching, and then (4) numbness or analgesia. These sensations are thought to correspond to activation ofthermoreceptors and nociceptors followed by blocking sensations by gate control mechanisms.

19. Cold packs can be made by filling a plastic bag with which ratio of water and

rubbingalcohol?

a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 4:1 d. 5:1 ANS:

C

Cold packs can be made by filling a plastic bag with a 4:1 ratio mixture of water and rubbing alcohol cooled in a freezer. The alcohol prevents water from freezing solid, so pack contentsremain pliable.

20. Ice massage combines ice with which massage technique? a. Friction b. Tapotement c. Compression d. Petrissage ANS: A

Ice massage combines ice with friction massage. Oftentimes, the water is frozen in a foam o r pv aper cup.

21. Which type of treatment combines cold application with joint mobilizations? a. Ice pack b. Ice massage c. Cryostretch d. Cryokinetics ANS: D

Cryokinetics combine cold application with joint mobilizations.

22. Passive or active movements used in cryostretch can be performed when the client

hasreached which stage of application?

Cold Aching Burning Numbness

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Cryostretch combines cold applications with stretching. Once analgesia has been achieved,pv assive or active movements can begin.

23. Which type of treatment combines cold and heat? a. Paraffin method b. Thermotherapy c. Contrast method d. Cryotherapy ANS: C

Contrast method combines cold and heat in the same treatment. Cold can be applied at the same time as heat on adjacent areas such as the anterior thigh and posterior thigh.

Cold andheat can also be applied alternately.

24. Which reason is thermotherapy primarily used in clinical settings?

a. b. c. d.

Tonicity Sedation Reduce joint stiffness Reduce edema

ANS: C

Clinical thermotherapy exerts its effects by increasing superficial blood flow, decreasing nerve conduction velocity which reduces pain and spasticity, increasing collagen extensibilitywhich increases range of motion (ROM), and decreasing joint stiffness.

25. How are heat applications thought to decrease pain? a. Through stimulation of thermoreceptors b. Through reducing blood flow c. By slowing nerve conduction d. By stimulating edema ANS: A

Superficial heat applications decrease pain. Analgesic effects may occur by stimulation ofthermoreceptors, which may reduce pain by gate control mechanisms. Pain may also be reduced by psychologic experience of comfort, which may promote relaxation and reducepv ain.

26. Which approach should be combined with thermotherapy to increase blood flow in muscles? a. Passive movement b. Active movement c. Compression d. Vibration ANS: B

If the goal of treatment is increased intramuscular blood flow, thermotherapy can becombined with active movements.

27. Which therapeutic effect does heat application have? a. Decreases edema b. Increases muscle spasm c. Decreases inflammation d. Increases collagen extensibility ANS: D

Heat increases collagen extensibility in tissues when temperatures were maintained at 104° to113° F (40° to 45° C) for 5 to 10 minutes.

28. To increase range of motion, stretching should be applied after temperatures have

beenmaintained at 104° F to 113° F for a minimum of how many minutes?

2 3 4 5

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Heat increases collagen extensibility in tissues when temperatures were maintained at 104° to113° F (40° to 45° C) for 5 to 10 minutes. If applying massage to increase ROM, movementssuch as stretching should be applied during or immediately after heat application, or tissue extensibility effects will be lost.

29. Which condition is a contraindication for heat application? a. Sore muscles b. Joint stiffness c. Blood clot d. Scar tissue ANS: C

A blood clot is a contraindication for clinical thermotherapy.

30. Which condition is a potential adverse effect of thermotherapy application? a. Fainting b. Itching c. Numbness d. Vomiting ANS: A

Adverse effects related to heat application have been reported, including burns and faintingrelated to orthostatic hypotension. Skin can be burned if heat is applied too long, when the heating agent is too hot, or when the client does not have sufficient protective vasodilation.

31. Skin can be burned in 7 1/2 minutes at which temperature? a. 110° F b. 112° F c. 113° F d. 115° F ANS: D

Skin can be burned at temperatures of 113° F (45° C) for 60 minutes and at 115° F (46° C) for7 1/2 minutes, so temperatures of heat application and duration should always be maintained below these levels.

32. Clients with which condition have the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical

usesof thermotherapy?

Diabetes mellitus Skin cancer Shingles Hives

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Mun and colleagues (2012) found hot packs were the most common cause of contact burns inclinical settings, with the leg the most common injury site, followed by the foot and ankle.

Individuals with diabetes mellitus had the highest correlation to contact burns from clinicaluv ses of thermotherapy.

33. What are hydrocollator hot packs filled with? a. River rock

b. Bentonite clay c. Sand d. Marbles ANS: B

Hot packs made for commercial use are pouches filled with bentonite (a type of clay) heatedin a thermostatically controlled stainless steel water cabinet. Most professional use a water cabinet called a hydrocollator.

34. What temperature is the water within the hydrocollator? a. 136° to 145° F b. 147° to 156° F c. 158° to 167° F d. 169° to 178° F ANS: C

Water temperature within the hydrocollator is usually between 158° F to 167° F (70° and 75°C).

35. How long are hydrocollator packs typically left on the client’s body? a. 5 to 8 minutes b. 6 to 9 minutes c. 10 to 14 minutes d. 15 to 20 minutes ANS: D

Once heated, the packs are removed, wrapped in 6 to 8 layers of dry terrycloth or a speciallydesigned cover, then placed on the treatment area. More layers can added if the client is feeling too much warmth or layers can reduced if the client does not feel enough warmth.

Remove the pack after 15–20 minutes.

36. Which method is application of a heated waxy mixture to a treatment area of the body? a. Aromatherapy b. Paraffin bath c. Hot pack d. Cryotherapy ANS: B

Paraffin is a heated mixture of paraffin wax and mineral oil in a 6:1 or 7:1 ratio of paraffin wax to oil. Paraffin is an excellent insulator, so when it is applied, the heat penetrates deeplyinstead of being lost to the air.

37. What happens to the heat from paraffin when it is applied to the body? a. Dissipates rapidly into the air b. Has a cooling action c. Penetrates deeply d. Penetrates superficially ANS: C

Paraffin is an excellent insulator, so when it is applied, the heat penetrates deeply instead o f bv eing lost to the air.

38. Which step occurs after the client’s hand is completely coated in paraffin in the dip method? a. Wrap the hand in a plastic bag or wax paper b. Wrap the hand in a towel or terrycloth mitt c. Elevate the hand and allow the wax to cool d. Remove the wax coating and discard it ANS: A

Repeat the dip-remove sequence 9 more times for a total of 10 times. Advise the client to avoid moving the fingers during treatment, as this action may crack the wax coating. Wrap theclient’s hand in a plastic bag or wax paper, and then in a towel or terrycloth mitt.

Elevate the hand and allow the wax to cool.

39. What does sanus per aqua mean? a. Water is life b. Water is cleanliness c. Take in water daily d. Healing through water ANS: D

Some scholars believe that the word spa comes from the letters S-P-A that were scribbled onthe marble walls of ancient public baths of Rome. This translates from the Latin sanus per aqua, meaning “healing through water” or “cure of water.”

40. Which type of spa has overnight accommodations with length of stay varying from a

longweekend to several weeks or longer?

Day Health Medical Destination

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Destination spas are places where clients come to relax, rejuvenate, or begin or improve theirlifestyle choices. The length of stay varies from a long weekend to several weeks or longer. Education is often a central theme of destination spas.

41. Which spa hydrotherapy is a dry heat bath in a wood-lined room with 10–20% humidity

andtemperatures around 175° F? Sauna bath Steam bath Vichy shower Swiss shower

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Sauna bath is a dry heat bath received in a wood-lined room or cabinet. Radiant heat can be pv rovided by hot stones (Finnish sauna) or by infrared light bulbs (modern sauna). In most saunas, humidity is between 10–20% with temperatures around 175° F at head level.

42. Which spa hydrotherapy is a vapor bath taken in a ceramic-tiled room, cabinet, or canopy

withtemperatures ranging between 105° F and 120° F? a. Sauna bath b. Steam bath

c. Vichy shower d. Swiss shower ANS: B

Steam bathing is a vapor bath taken in a ceramic-tiled room, cabinet, or canopy. The airtemperature of most steam baths is between 105° F and 120° F (40.5° C to 50° C).

43. Which spa hydrotherapy involves a client lying on a shallow table as jets of water come

frommultiple down-facing showerheads situated along the length of a horizontal pipe?

Steam bath Sauna bath Swiss shower Vichy shower

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

During a Vichy shower, warm water is sprayed over a lying client while on a shallow table.Most often, the shower contains multiple down-facing showerheads situated along a horizontal pipe running the length of the table.

44. Which spa hydrotherapy involves warm water spraying over a client from above and from

thesides while he or she stands in a shower stall?

Steam bath Sauna bath Swiss shower Vichy shower

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

During a Swiss shower, warm water is sprayed over a standing or sitting client in a shower stall. The shower stall contains multiple showerheads situated vertically along the walls andceiling.

45. Which spa application uses brushes, loofahs, or textured cloth and superficial friction? a. Aqua stretch b. Shirodhara c. Vichy shower d. Exfoliation ANS: D

Exfoliation procedures use grainy products or items such as brushes, loofahs, or textured clothand superficial friction (light to medium/moderate pressure) to exfoliate the skin.

46. Which exfoliant would be used in a body polish? a. Salt b. Gommage c. Sugar d. Fango ANS: B

A body polish uses a fine, grainy product as the exfoliant, usually blended with a crèmeba se d pv roduct. This gentle exfoliant is also called a gommage.

47. Which supplies are used in a body wrap?

a. b. c. d.

Large wet or dry sheets and blankets Water frozen in foam or paper cups Hydrocollator packs Alternating cold and heat packs

ANS: A

A body wrap is application of products to the client’s body, which is then wrapped in large wet or dry sheets and blankets. Applied products include seaweed, algae, muds, clays, fango(Italian for “mud” but can include peat and clays), paraffin, parafango (fango and paraffin), volcanic ash, charcoal, and honey and can be scented with essential oils.

48. Which approach involves the client floating in water while receiving shiatsu,

compression,and joint mobilizations?

Watsu Cryotherapy Paraffin Thermotherapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

During watsu (a term derived from “water shiatsu”), the practitioner stands in about 3 feet ofwater and helps the client float, sometimes with the aid of flotation devices. Techniques include the shiatsu, compression, joint mobilizations, stretching, and deep breathing.

Chapter 13: Foot Reflexology: Principles and PracticeSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Reflexology involves addressing areas of the body by applying different amounts of

pressureto points located where?

Internal organs Chakras and third eye Skull, spine, and pelvis Feet and hands

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Reflexology, or zone therapy, is the application of pressure to specific points on the feet orhands; these points are believed to correspond with certain areas of the body.

2. Reflexology originated more than 5,000 years ago, tracing back to which country? a. Egypt b. Persia c. Nigeria d. Turkey ANS: A

Various forms of foot massage and reflexology have existed for over 5000 years withreferences found in many countries including India, Egypt, China, and Japan.

3. Reflexology developed out of zone therapy, and the research and writings in the early

1900sby whom?

James Watson and Francis Crick William Harvey and Andrea Borelli James Cyriax and John Harvey Dalton William Fitzgerald and Joe Shelby Riley

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Reflexology developed out of zone therapy and the research and writings of Americanphysicians William Fitzgerald and Joe Shelby Riley in the early 1900s.

4. Who is regarded as the mother of reflexology? a. Ida Rolf b. Janet Travell c. Eunice Ingham d. Bonnie Prudden ANS: C

Reflexology was popularized in America by Eunice D. Ingham, a physiotherapist who is affectionately referred to as the mother of reflexology. Ingham worked for Dr. Riley, and Ingham began using reflexology on her patients. She spent most of her life mapping the location of reflex points on the feet. In 1938, she wrote and published Stories the Feet CanTell, which contained case reports and foot maps she developed.

These foot maps are still used today.

5. Which statement is a treatment guideline for reflexology? a. Massage lubricants are required b. Only deep pressure should be used on points c. Clients need to sit in a special chair d. Relaxation techniques begin the session ANS: C

A treatment guideline for reflexology is begin the reflexology session with several relaxationtechniques.

6. In reflexology, which term means the paths that life force travels in the body? a. Poles b. Zones c. Nadis d. Meridians ANS: B

The zones are 10 vertical channels in the body where life force flows. Five zones are in eachfoot and are used to locate reflex points.

7. What is another term for reflexology? a. Zone therapy b. Craniosacral therapy c. Trigger point therapy d. Neuromuscular therapy ANS: A

Reflexology, or zone therapy, is the application of pressure to specific points on the feet orhands; these points are believed to correspond with certain areas of the body.

8. Which area of the foot corresponds to the heart and lungs? a. Ankle b. Top c. Ball d. Heel ANS: C

The ball of the foot is the chest area, which contains the heart and lungs.

9. How many zones are in the body, according to reflexology? a. Two b. Three c. Seven d. Ten ANS: D

The zones are 10 vertical channels in the body where life force flows. Five zones are in eachfoot and are used to locate reflex points.

10. Through which toe does Zone 1 pass? a. First

b. Second c. Third d. Fifth ANS: A

Zone 1 passes through the great toe or the first toe, zone 2 passes through the second toe, andso on, until you reach the smallest toe, which is zone 5.

11. Which term means the four horizontal lines that traverse the plantar surface of each foot? a. Zones b. Chakras c. Channels d. Landmarks ANS: D

Landmarks are the four horizontal lines that traverse the bottom or plantar surface of each footand delineate areas containing reflex points. They are the neck/shoulder line, the diaphragm line, the waistline, and the pelvic line.

12. In reflexology, which landmark is located below the ball of the foot? a. Waistline b. Pelvic line c. Diaphragm line d. Neck/shoulder line ANS: C

The diaphragm line is located below the ball of the foot.

13. In reflexology, which landmark is at the base of the fifth metatarsal? a. Waistline b. Pelvic line c. Diaphragm line d. Neck/shoulder line ANS: A

The waistline in reflexology is located at the base of the fifth metatarsal.

14. What do reflex points represent? a. Chakras b. Meridians c. Brain and nerve pathways d. Body structures ANS: D

Reflex points are points that correspond to body structures, including organs and glands.Reflex points and their positional relationships closely resemble the body.

15. Which technique is used to stimulate all points within an entire zone during a

reflexologytreatment? a. Cupping b. Walking c. Point work

d. Point tapping ANS: B

The walking technique is used to stimulate reflex points within an entire zone or areas between landmarks. This technique is usually applied with the thumb on the bottom of thefoot or with the fingers on the top of the foot.

16. Which technique is used to stimulate specific points within a zone during a

reflexologytreatment?

Cupping Walking Point work Point tapping

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Point work is used to stimulate specific reflex points. There are two types of point work -direct pressure technique and hook-in and backup technique.

17. What is another term for the relaxation techniques used in reflexology? a. Gems b. Anchors c. Desserts d. Triggers ANS: C

Manual relaxation techniques, sometimes called desserts, are used to relax the client before,during, and after a reflexology session. Techniques include the foot flop, the ankle flop, andmoving the foot and ankle into dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, and eversion or wringing the foot.

18. Which condition is a local contraindication for receiving reflexology? a. Pregnancy b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Client frailty d. Warts ANS: D

Local contraindications include viral skin infections such as warts.

19. The sinus reflexes are located on which area of the foot? a. Heel b. Ankle c. Top of the foot d. Pads of the toes ANS: D

The sinus reflex points are in the pads of each toe.

20. Which area of the foot contains the reproductive reflexes? a. Ankle b. Top c. Ball

d. Heel ANS: D

The reproductive areas are on the heels and ankles. The uterus or prostate reflex points are onthe medial or inside of the ankle, and the ovaries or testes reflex points are on the lateral or outside of the ankle.

Chapter 14: Clinical Massage: Pain Theories & Pain Management, Clinical Assessments, Clinical Application Methods, Sports Massage & Working with Athletics,Soft Tissue Injuries...

Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the use of techniques to rehabilitate injuries, manage medically

diagnosedconditions, and manage issues related to surgery?

Reflexology Shiatsu Lymphatic massage Clinical massage

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Clinical massage is massage used to rehabilitate injuries, manage medically diagnosedconditions, their treatments or complications, and manage issues related to surgery.

2. Which term refers to restoration of an individual to a normal or near normal condition

after adisabling disease or injury?

Orthopedics Remission Physical rehabilitation Maximum medical improvement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Physical rehabilitation is the restoration of an individual to a normal or near-normal conditionafter a disabling disease or injury. Physical rehabilitation often begins soon after the causativeevent (in the case of injuries) and continues until the individual reaches maximum medical improvement.

3.

What does maximum medical improvement mean? a. The client’s treatment has just started working b. The client’s condition is unlikely to improve c. A standard the client wishes to reach d. A standard the physician wishes the client would reach ANS: B

Maximum medical improvement (MMI) is the point in the rehabilitative process when thecondition is unlikely to improve, and no additional recovery is expected. MMI is usually determined by the patient’s healthcare provider.

4. Insurance companies are most likely to cover massage treatments received for

whichsituation?

Soreness from recreational activities Stress from busy lifestyle Cellulite removal Personal injury

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Insurance companies are more likely to cover massage therapy expenses related to personalinjury (PI), automobile, and worker’s compensation claims if these services are “medicallynecessary.”

5. Which term means an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual

o r pv otential tissue damage?

Pain Psychosis Rehabilitation Assessment

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with, or resembling, actualor potential tissue damage.

6. Which term means the encoding of a painful event? a. Modulation b. Nociception c. Contraction d. Rehabilitation ANS: B

Pain and nociception are different. Pain is the experience whereas nociception is the encodingof the painful event (e.g. touching a hot stove, accidentally cutting yourself).

7. Which concept states that the spinal cord controls whether or not pain signals enter the brain? a. Intensity theory b. Cartesian dualistic theory c. Gate control theory d. Neuromatrix theory ANS: C

The gate control theory states that the spinal cord acts like a neurologic gate and controlswhether or not pain signals enter the brain, which results in the experience of pain.

8. Which concept involves pain being a multidimensional experience produced by a

person’spv attern of nerve impulses within a widely distributed network in the brain?

Trigger point theory Intensity theory Neuromatrix theory Gate control theory

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Pain is a multidimensional experience produced by a person’s “neurosignature,” or unique pattern of nerve impulses within a widely distributed network in the brain called the bodyselfneuromatrix. Pain is one possible output or expression of the neuromatrix after synthesizing various inputs.

9. Which term means the brain’s ability to form and reorganize synaptic connections? a. Nociception b. Neuroplasticity

c. Radiculopathy d. Paresthesia ANS: B

The neuromatrix model illustrates the concept of neuroplasticity, the brain’s ability to formand reorganize synaptic connections, especially in response to learning or experience.

10. Which term refers to pain generated by nonnociceptive nerves? a. Neuropathic b. Persistent c. Acute d. Chronic ANS: A

Neuropathic (neurogenic) pain, also called neuropathy, is produced by nonnociceptive nerves.This type of pain is caused by damage to the nervous system itself.

11. Which term is given to pain that lasts past the normal healing times? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Perceptual d. Centralized ANS: B

Chronic pain persists past the normal healing times and reflects the state of the person’s nervous system rather than the condition of the tissues. Whereas acute pain is proportional, appropriate, and often coincides with inflammation, chronic pain is regarded as a problem in itself, and it is often difficult or impossible to determine when the pain started or its cause.

12. Which term refers to the minimum level of intensity perceived as painful? a. Sensitization b. Threshold c. Tolerance d. Paresthesia ANS: B

Pain threshold is the minimum level of intensity perceived as painful.

13. Which term refers to the maximum level of intensity perceived as painful? a. Tolerance b. Sensitization c. Threshold d. Paresthesia ANS: A

Pain tolerance is the maximum level of intensity perceived as painful and any more would be uv nbearable and intolerable.

14. Which condition is a lower pain threshold, which results in pain hypersensitivity? a. Tolerance level b. Acute awareness c. Threshold

d. Sensitization ANS: D

Sensitization is a condition of a lower pain threshold, which results in pain hypersensitivity.

15. Why is massage therapy now part of pain management approaches in hospitals? a. More research is being conducted into the causes of pain b. More pain is experienced by those who are in healthcare settings than those

whoare at home c. Nonpharmacologic pain treatments are required in response to the current

opioidcrisis

d. Nonpharmacologic pain treatments are reimbursed by health insurance companies ANS: C

In 2017, the Joint Commission began requiring hospitals to provide nonpharmacologic paintreatments, or to combine pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic approaches.

Nonpharmacologic treatments include massage, chiropractic/osteopathic care, andacupuncture. This requirement is partially in response to the current opioid crisis.

16. Which term means a hyperirritable tender spot in a taut palpable band within skeletal

muscleor its associated fascia?

Reflex point Trigger point Muscle spasm Muscle soreness

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Trigger points (TrPs) are hyperirritable tender spots in taut palpable bands within skeletalmuscle or its associated fascia.

17. Which term is used to describe a trigger point that causes pain when pressed that the

clientrecognizes as familiar?

Latent Active Limited Antagonist

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Active trigger points may hurt all the time or elicit pain when pressed and the personrecognizes it as familiar.

18. Which term is given to pain felt in a remote location when a trigger point is pressed? a. Referred b. Latent c. Acute d. Chronic ANS: A

Referred pain is pain in a remote location when a TrP is pressed. Referred pain patterns are pv roximal or distal to the TrP in about 73% of cases.

19. Which term is used to describe a trigger point that is nonpainful until pressed, and the client

is unfamiliar with the resulting pain?

Latent Active Limited Antagonistic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Latent trigger points have the same characteristics as active trigger points, but cause no p a i n uv ntil pressed and the person does not recognize it as familiar.

20. Which phenomenon is a transient visible or palpable muscle contraction in response to

appliedpv ressure on a trigger point?

Jump sign Local twitch response Referred pain phenomena Delayed-onset muscle soreness

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

A local twitch response is a transient visible or palpable muscle contraction in response toapplied pressure on a trigger point.

21. Which neurotransmitter is involved in trigger point formation? a. Epinephrine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine ANS: D

Several hypotheses attempt to explain trigger point development. The most widely accepted isthe integrated hypothesis, which states trigger points develop by excessive release of acetylcholine by presynaptic neurons.

22. Which term refers to fascia’s ability to move from a sol to a gel state, and back again? a. Torquing b. Spasming c. Thixotropy d. Conditioning ANS: C

Superficial fascia contains an enzyme called hyaluronidase, which allows it to change temporarily to a watery gelatinous consistency (called sol-gel conversion) when subjected tomechanical pressure or heat. This property is called thixotropy.

23. Which factor is used to gather information in order to make informed decisions

abouttreatment?

Technique Assessment Documentation Implementation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Assessments are used to gather information in order to make informed decisions abouttreatment.

24. Which term means conscious or unconscious movements used to correct imbalances

andreduce discomfort? a. Posture b. Gait c. Compensatory patterns d. Systematic desensitization ANS: C

Compensatory patterns, or compensatory movements, are conscious or unconsciousmovements used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort.

25. Which term refers to the quality of resistance felt by the practitioner at the end of a

client’spv assive range of motion? a. End-feel b. Compensatory pattern c. Gait d. Mobilization ANS: A

End-feel is the quality of resistance felt by the practitioner at the end of passive range ofmotion.

26. Which type of end-feel feels springy and occurs when motion is limited by joint capsules

orligaments?

Soft Hard Pathologic Firm

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Firm end-feel feels springy and occurs when motion is limited by joint capsules or ligaments.

27. The Full and Empty Can Tests may identify lesions in which muscle? a. Teres major b. Deltoid c. Supraspinatus d. Coracobrachialis ANS: C

The Full and Empty Can Tests may identify rotator cuff/supraspinatus lesions.

28. Which test measures shoulder dysfunction? a. Apley Scratch b. Spurling c. Thompson d. Full Can/Empty Can ANS: A

The Apley Scratch Test measures shoulder dysfunction.

29. The FABER test assesses symptomology in which joint? a. Elbow b. Knee c. Shoulder d. Sacroiliac ANS: D

The FABER (Patrick’s) Test assesses hip/sacroiliac symptomology.

30. Which orthopedic test assesses for cervical disc symptomology? a. Empty Can b. Spurling c. Apley Scratch d. Thompson ANS: B

The Cervical Compression Test/Spurling Test assesses for cervical disc symptomology.

31. Which term means abnormal sensations such as burning, itching, or numbness? a. Origin b. Plexus c. Paresthesia d. Innervation ANS: C

Paresthesia is abnormal sensations, such as burning, itching, numbness, tingling or pricking,often called “pins and needles,” which may or may not include the sensation of pain.

32.

What statement describes postural assessment? a. The manner in which a client moves on foot b. Observational evaluation of how a standing client holds themselves c. Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance d. Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort ANS: B

A postural assessment is an observational evaluation of a client’s relaxed, barefoot, standingpv osture and is used to determine postural abnormalities that may cause or contribute to a client’s complaint (also called a static postural assessment).

33. Which factor is used to determine the amount of symmetry on both sides of the client? a. Line of gravity b. Gait c. Compensatory pattern d. Range of motion ANS: A

A plumb line determines the line of gravity, a vertical line through the center of an object to its base of support. The line of gravity is used as the midsagittal plane when assessing posture.

34. Which posterior landmark is used in static postural assessment?

a. b. c. d.

Nasal septum Occipital protuberance Manubrium of the sternum Anterior superior iliac spines

ANS: B

Occipital protuberance is used as a posterior landmark during static postural assessment.

35. Which lateral landmark is used in static postural assessment? a. Nasal septum b. Occipital protuberance c. Greater trochanter of the femur d. Anterior superior iliac spines ANS: C

Occipital protuberance is used as a posterior landmark during static postural assessment.

36. What is the definition of gait? a. A pattern of movement used while walking or running b. How the body positions itself over a base of support c. Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance d. Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort ANS: A

Gait is a pattern of movement used while walking or running.

37. Which term means a repetitive movement pattern which begins when one foot contacts

theground and ends when the same foot contacts the ground again?

Gait cycle Static posture Compensatory pattern Maximum improvement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The gait cycle (or stride) is a repetitive movement pattern which begins when one footcontacts the ground and ends when the same foot contacts the ground again.

38. During the stance period of the gait cycle, what percentage of time is the foot in contact

withthe ground? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% ANS:

C

During the stance phase, the foot is in contact with the ground bearing most of the bv odyweight. The stance phase constitutes approximately 60% of the gait cycle.

39. Which type of gait is associated with Parkinson disease? a. Antalgic b. Scissor c. Propulsive

d. Waddling ANS: C

A propulsive gait is a stooped, rigid posture, with the head and neck bent forward. Steps areshorter and faster. Propulsive gait is associated with Parkinson disease.

40. How is an ataxic gait described? a. Unsteady, uncoordinated, staggered gait with feet thrown out and irregular

foot pv lacement b. Limp adopted to avoid pain on weight-bearing structures c. The person drags and shuffles their feet, and steps are shorter d. Knees and thighs cross in a scissorlike pattern and the person appears

crouchedover ANS: A

An ataxic gait is an unsteady, uncoordinated, staggered gait with feet thrown out and irregularfoot placement—the person often looks at the floor while walking due to a lack of proprioception. Ataxic gait is associated with cerebellar or sensory disturbances.

41. Which method of addressing trigger points involves pressing so that the skin blanches? a. Transverse friction b. Sustained compression c. Dry needling d. Strain counterstrain ANS: B

Sustained compression was once called ischemic compression—Travell and Simons (1998)coined the term because the skin initially blanches pale or becomes ischemic on release of pressure before becoming hyperemic and pinkish red.

42. In the acronym T-A-R-T, what does A stand for? a. Active b. Alignment c. Assessment d. Asymmetry ANS: D

Some practitioners use the T-A-R-T method for locating trigger points, which stands for Tissue changes, Asymmetry, Range of motion (ROM) variations, and Tenderness.

43. How long is compression or transverse friction typically applied to a trigger point? a. 5–10 seconds b. 10–20 seconds c. 20–30 seconds d. 30–40 seconds ANS: B

Press or massage the trigger point for 10–20 seconds. Pressure of 6–7 on a 10-point pressurescale is recommended.

44. Which technique is used to release restricted tissues in myofascial release? a. Gliding

b. Compression c. Friction d. Stretching ANS: D

Myofascial release (MFR) is low-load, long-duration skin stretching.

45. Which method combines isometric contraction and stretching? a. Muscle energy techniques b. Myofascial release c. Positional release therapy d. Manual lymphatic drainage ANS: A

Muscle energy techniques (MET) and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) aremethods that combine isometric contraction and stretching to improve treatment outcomes.

46. Which technique is a type of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation? a. Contract relax b. Strain-counterstrain c. Post-isometric relaxation d. Reciprocal inhibition ANS: A

Contract relax (CR), antagonist contract (AC), and contract relax antagonist contract (CRAC)are all types of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

47. Which method uses the concept of “position of ease?” a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b. Muscle energy techniques c. Strain-counterstrain d. Cupping ANS: C

Positional release therapy (PRT) or strain-counterstrain (SCS) is the placement of a target muscle into a shortened, comfortable position. This location is called the position of ease, or pv lace where pain is relieved.

48. What is the purpose of placing glass or silicone cups on the skin in cupping therapy? a. Perform ischemic compression b. Create suction c. Glide along tissues d. Stretch fascia ANS: B

Cupping therapy uses plastic, silicone, or glass cups placed on the skin to create suction andlift the tissues.

49. Which technique is most effective for alleviating tissue swelling? a. Sustained compression b. Manual lymphatic drainage c. Myofascial stretching

d. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation ANS: B

Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD) is gentle superficial skin stretching applied along lymphatic pathways with diaphragmatic breathing to promote lymph flow and reduce o r pv revent swelling.

50. How much should elastic therapeutic tape be stretched during its application? a. 25% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% ANS:

C

Elastic therapeutic tape (ETT) is thin, stretchy, elastic tape applied to the skin. Apply the tape by removing the backing, stretching it about 50% without pulling the tape ends, and placing it over the treatment area.

51. Which term refers to the application of massage techniques to address the needs of athletes

incompetitive and recreational settings? a. Sports massage b. Clinical massage c. Palliative care d. Postoperative measures ANS: A

Sports massage is the application of massage techniques to address the needs of athletes incompetitive and recreational settings.

52. Which individual would be considered a tactical athlete? a. Teacher b. Firefighter c. Massage practitioner d. Family physician ANS: B

A tactical athlete is someone in a service profession who has physical fitness and performance requirements associated with their job. Examples of tactical athletes are peoplein military service members, law enforcement such as police officers, and first responders such as firefighters and paramedics.

53. Which type of sports massage occurs between training sessions or events and usually

lasts30–60 minutes?

Post-event Inter-event Rehabilitative Maintenance

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Maintenance sports massage occurs between training sessions or events and usually lasts30–60 minutes.

54. What is thought to be the cause of delayed-onset muscle soreness? a. Microtrauma in muscle fibers b. Lactic acid buildup in muscle fibers c. Tendon and ligament strain d. Localized edema ANS: A

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS), or post-exercise muscle soreness, is pain or discomfort in skeletal muscles following unaccustomed or strenuous physical activity.

DOMSis thought to be caused by eccentric (lengthening) contractions, which create microtrauma in muscle fibers. DOMS is sometimes mistakenly believed to be caused by a buildup of lactic acid, but lactic acid is involved in muscle fatigue, not muscle soreness.

55. How soon can massage therapy usually be applied to a recently injured area? a. 1–2 days b. 3–4 days c. 4–6 days d. 6–8 days ANS: C

For massage practitioners in nonclinical settings, such as private practice and spa/wellness facilities, avoid the recently injured area until acute inflammation has subsided and the areahas entered the subacute phase, which is usually day 4 to day 6 after the initial injury.

56. Which acronym stands for the current soft tissue injury protocol? a. MET b. MCE c. PICO d. OPPQRST ANS: B

Recommended protocols used during the acute phase of inflammation are M-C-E and M-E-A-T. M-C-E stands for Move–Compress–Elevate. Instruct clients to move safely when they can (and often), using pain as a boundary. Soft tissues can be compressed with bandagesor cloth and the injured area can be elevated whenever possible. M-E-A-T stands for Movement–Exercise–Analgesics–Treatment.

57. Which factor affects how fast tissues heal? a. Vitamin D helps form new capillary beds b. Cartilage heals quickly because it has a plentiful blood supply c. Injuries heal slower in young people than older people d. Muscle heals quickly but bones take longer to heal ANS: D

Muscle has an extensive blood supply and can heal relatively quickly, whereas bone tissue takes longer to heal, and tendons and ligaments take even longer because they have reduced bv lood supply.

58. Training injuries for military service members are most likely to occur in which area? a. Arms b. Abdomen

c. Hips d. Knees ANS: D

Because they have tasks that are physically challenging, tactical athletes are at high risk for soft tissue injuries. Not surprisingly, training injuries are the number-one noncombatrelated reason for lost duty time or removal from deployment in military service members.

Injuries tothe neck, shoulders, feet, ankles, knees, and lower back are common.

59. Which medical setting do patients usually stay 30 days or less? a. Long-term care b. Acute care c. Home healthcare d. Hospice ANS: B

The duration of acute care is usually 30 days or less, with 4 days being the average length ofstay.

60. Which risk factor requires avoiding vigorous massage techniques on the lower extremities

for12 weeks after major surgery?

Weakened muscle tone Lack of balance Blood clots Hypertension

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

For major surgery, avoid vigorous massage techniques on the lower extremities (thighs andlegs) for 12 weeks after surgery because of increased risk of blood clots or venous thromboembolism.

61. What stage of healing does the body begin to fill and cover the wound site by

depositingcollagen?

Stage 2: Inflammation Stage 4: Remodeling Stage 1: Hemostasis Stage 3: Proliferation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

In Stage 3: Proliferation (Regeneration) the body begins to fill and cover the wound site by depositing collagen. Scars in this stage are characterized by 3 Rs: red, raised, and rigid.

Thisstage lasts up to 8 weeks.

62. What stage of healing is appropriate to perform massage on a scar? a. Stage 2: Inflammation b. Stage 4: Remodeling c. Stage 1: Hemostasis d. Stage 3: Proliferation ANS: B

The wound scar is a local contraindication until the area is dry and in the remodeling(maturation) phase.

63. Which type of care provides medical services to patients who are facing a life-limiting illness? a. Hospice b. Emergency c. Outpatient d. Geriatric ANS: A

Hospice care is a type of medical service that provides palliative care to patients and theirfamilies who are facing a life-limiting illness.

64. Which type of care involves noncurative measures used to improve a patient’s quality of life? a. Respite b. Palliative c. Custodial d. Residential ANS: B

Palliative is noncurative measures used to improve a patient’s quality of life. Examples o f pv alliative goals are reduced pain, fatigue, nausea, insomnia, depression, and anxiety.

65. Patients with which diagnosis typically spend the most time in hospice care? a. Dementia b. Cancer c. Hypertension d. Emphysema ANS: A

Patients with a principal diagnosis of dementia spent the most time in hospice care.

66. Which approach is appropriate for practitioners providing massage in hospice care? a. Use slow massage techniques of light pressure b. Tuck linens under the client instead of folding them back c. Use scented lubricant d. Bring a portable massage table ANS: A

For clients in hospice care, use techniques of light pressure and slow speed. Touchbasedtechniques such Healing Touch, M-technique, and Reiki are also appropriate.

67. Which stage of grief identified by Kübler-Ross often involves heightened spirituality? a. Denial b. Depression c. Anger d. Acceptance ANS: B

Stage 4: Depression. This stage is the beginning of withdrawal in which the person needs space to internalize and self-assess feelings of death and the process of leaving the people and places to whom the patient has bonded. Heightened spirituality is often a part of this phase.

Chapter 15: Seated Massage: Principles and PracticeSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is another term for chair massage? a. Ashiatsu b. Onsite massage c. Location massage d. Polarity ANS: B

Palmer coined the term “onsite massage” and began teaching this method and selling thenewly developed massage chair.

2. Which individual brought chair massage to prominence through his vision to make

massagetherapy convenient and affordable for anyone, anywhere, anytime? a. Harold Dull b. James Cyriax c. David Palmer d. Ken Robinson ANS: C

Seated massage, or chair massage, came to prominence through the efforts of David Palmer,whose vision was to make massage convenient and affordable for anyone, anywhere, and anytime.

3. Palmer introduced seated massage to the corporate world in which timeframe? a. 1900s b. 1950s c. 1980s d. 1990s ANS: C

Palmer introduced seated massage to the corporate world in the early 1980s.

4. Palmer blended techniques from which traditional Japanese massage method? a. Aveda b. Amma c. Polarity d. Reflexology ANS: B

Techniques used during seated massage were derived from a Japanese-style massage calledamma and European-style massage which includes compression, stretching, joint mobilizations, and tapotement or percussion.

5. Which component is unnecessary during seated massage? a. Pressure b. Lubricant

c. Sanitation d. Communication ANS: B

Seated massage does not require massage lubricants and sessions are typically brief (5 to 15minutes) but can last 30 minutes or longer.

6. Which action should the practitioner do before setting up the massage chair? a. Sanitize the chair fabric b. Adjust the chair to fit the client c. Place the face rest and arm rest covers on the chair d. Choose an area that allows movement completely around the chair ANS: D

Ensure the area where the seated massage will take place is wide enough to allow the pv ractitioner to move completely around the chair.

7. For client safety, what should the practitioner do before the client sits in the massage chair? a. Demonstrate and explain how to sit on the chair properly b. Have the client set up the massage chair before sitting in it c. Explain and demonstrate how to take the chair down after sitting d. Have the client explain how the client would like to sit in the chair ANS: A

Instruct the client how to sit in the chair properly by demonstration and verbal explanationuv sing specific directions such as, “Sit on the seat and place your knees and legs on these cushions while resting your forearms on the arm shelf and your face in the crescent-shapedpv illow.” Stand near the chair to assist the client, if needed.

8. Which client body position ensures comfort? a. Hips are rotated b. Shoulders are dropped c. Neck is extended d. Back is slouched ANS: B

The client’s back should be straight with the shoulders relaxed and not elevated.

9. After the client has been positioned comfortably, what should the practitioner do right

beforestarting the actual massage?

Move the carrying bag out of the way Remove the arm rest cover Wash own hands Sanitize the chair

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Once chair adjustments are complete, ask clients if additional adjustments are needed to pv rovide maximum comfort. Wash and dry your hands before the massage begins.

10. If the area where seated massage is performed is noisy, what method can the client use

whenexperiencing pain during the massage?

a. Speak loudly

b. Raise a hand c. Nod the head d. Shrug the shoulders ANS: B

The area where seated massage is performed may be noisy. Establish a nonverbal communication method such as hand gestures before the massage begins. For example, ask clients to raise a hand if they are experiencing discomfort from massage pressure, which w i l l bv e responded to immediately.

11. In one-handed communication about pain levels, what do five fingers raised represent? a. No pain b. Mild pain c. Moderate pain d. Severe pain ANS: D

A 5-point pressure scale can be used and indicated by the number of fingers extended on araised hand. In this situation, one extended finger represents light pressure, three fingers represent moderate pressure, and five fingers represent deep or uncomfortable pressure. Inmost cases, pressure should be maintained between 3 and 4.

12. Which technique should be used to close the chair massage session if the client wants to

feelrelaxed?

Tapotement Superficial friction Effleurage Brisk nerve strokes

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

If the goal is to leave the client relaxed, finish with some general effleurage (gliding) and slowly applied nerve strokes on the back and shoulders. If the client is returning to work andneeds to be more alert, finish with tapotement, superficial friction, and briskly applied nervestrokes. Tapping tapotement on the head and hacking or loose fist beating on the shoulders and back, and over the hips and lateral thighs, are stimulating ways to finish the massage.

13. At what angle should the face rest frame be tilted to work the base of the skull and neck? a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 180 degrees ANS: B

To massage the base of the skull and posterior neck, tilt the face rest frame forward until theneck is flexed approximately 45 degrees.

14. Which technique should be performed on the back first so clients can become familiar

withthe practitioner’s touch? a. Trigger point therapy b. Superficial friction c. Ballistic stretching

d. Compression ANS: D

Begin with massage techniques such as compression so clients will be familiarized with yourtouch and establish their individual pain threshold while receiving massage pressure.

15. Which procedure should be done in between chair massage clients? a. Disinfect the chair fabric b. Lower the chair c. Take the chair down d. Cover the chair with the bag ANS: A

On completion of all interactions with the client, wash and dry your hands, disinfect the chairfabric, write your progress notes, take a few deep breaths, and get ready for the next client.

Chapter 16: Asian Bodywork Therapy: Shiatsu, Thai Massage, Ayurvedic Principles, and Chakras Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which approach uses pressure and manipulation to treat the body, mind, and spirit,

including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surrounding the body?

Ayurveda Hellerwork Asian bodywork therapy Trigger point therapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Asian bodywork therapy is the use of pressure and/or soft tissue manipulation to treat the body, mind, and spirit, including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surroundingthe body.

2. Which concept is part of all types of Asian bodywork therapy? a. Herbs b. Energy c. Exercise d. Acupuncture ANS: B

Asian bodywork therapy is the use of pressure and/or soft tissue manipulation to treat the body, mind, and spirit, including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surroundingthe body.

3. Which type of bodywork has Asian origins? a. Shiatsu b. Hellerwork c. Lymphatic massage d. Trigger point therapy ANS: A

Shiatsu is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy method using applied pressure along energychannels to restore, maintain, or balance the flow of ki.

4. Which term is Chinese for the concept of energy or life force? a. Ki b. Chi c. Prana d. Space ANS: B

Energy, or life force, creates and connects all things and all phenomena existing in the universe. It also called ki (Japanese), chi or qi (Chinese) and sometimes ojas (Sanskrit).

5. Which term is Japanese for the concept of energy or life force?

a. b. c. d.

Ki Chi Prana Space

ANS: A

Energy, or life force, creates and connects all things and all phenomena existing in the universe. It also called ki (Japanese), chi or qi (Chinese) and sometimes ojas (Sanskrit).

6. Which term means the symbol used to represent yin and yang? a. Fu b. Zang c. Tai Ji d. Tsubo ANS: C

The Tai Ji symbol represents yin and yang formed by a complete circle divided into two sidessymbolizing duality, or the dynamic struggle between opposites.

7. Which aspect is considered more yang? a. Light b. Cold c. Earth d. Moist ANS: A

The yang, or sunny side of the hill, has more light, warmth, and activity, and so movementexists.

8. Which aspect is considered more yin? a. Dry b. Light c. Exterior d. Cool ANS: D

The yin, or shadowy side of the hill, is darker, the temperature is cooler, plants grow more slowly, more dampness can be found, and less overall activity exists compared with the sunnyside.

9. Which characteristic is pain manifesting as a yang imbalance? a. Dull b. Deep c. Cold d. Agitation ANS: D

Pain as a manifestation of a yang imbalance is a feeling of heat, agitation, and restlessness; thearea appears red, is warm to touch, and feels hard and inflamed. The pain is often sharp, can move around, and is frequently found in the upper part of the body.

10. Which characteristic is pain manifesting as a yin imbalance?

a. b. c. d.

Heat Inflamed Weakness Restlessness

ANS: C

Pain as a manifestation of a yin imbalance is a feeling of cold, weakness, weight, and lethargy;the pain is dull rather than sharp and feels deep.

11. Which term means the pathways in the body through which energy circulates? a. Dhatus b. Doshas c. Tsubos d. Channels ANS: D

Channels, or meridians, are pathways in the body through which energy circulates.

12. Which channel pair is associated with the metal element? a. Stomach and Spleen b. Lung and Large Intestine c. Heart and Small Intestine d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney ANS: B

Lung and Large Intestine channels are associated with the metal element.

13. Which channel pair is associated with the water element? a. Stomach and Spleen b. Lung and Large Intestine c. Heart and Small Intestine d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney ANS: D

Urinary Bladder and Kidney channels are associated with the water element.

14. Which channel pair is associated with the fire element? a. Stomach and spleen b. Lung and Large intestine c. Heart and Small Intestine d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney ANS: C

Heart and Small Intestine channels are associated with the fire element.

15. Which channel is yin? a. Spleen b. Stomach c. Small Intestine d. Large Intestine ANS: A

Spleen channel is yin.

16. Which channel is yang? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Kidney d. Gallbladder ANS: D

Gallbladder channel is yang.

17. Which channel starts under the eyes and travels in a line down the face? a. Liver b. Heart c. Spleen d. Stomach ANS: D

Stomach channel starts under the eyes and travels in a line down the face.

18. Heart Protector channel ends on which finger? a. Ring b. Little c. Index d. Middle ANS: D

Heart Protector channel ends on the middle finger.

19. Which term means specific points located along channels where energy concentrates

andsurfaces?

Phases Cycles Tsubos Doshas

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Tsubos, or acupoints, are points along channels where energy concentrates and surfaces.Tsubo is Japanese for “container” or “vase.”

20. Which term means a tsubo that feels depleted of ki? a. Kyo b. Jitsu c. Prana d. Dosha ANS: A

Kyo means “empty, yin, depleted, or not enough ki”.

21. Which term means a tsubo that feels too full of ki? a. Kyo b. Jitsu

c. Prana d. Dosha ANS: B

Jitsu means “full, yang, excessive, or too much ki”.

22. Which organ system is zang? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Gallbladder d. Small Intestine ANS: A

Zang are the yin organ systems: Heart, Liver, Lungs, Kidney, Heart Protector, and Spleen.They tend to be solid organs.

23. Which organ system is fu? a. Heart b. Stomach c. Liver d. Kidney ANS: B

Fu are the yang organ systems: Small Intestine, Gallbladder, Large Intestine, Bladder, TripleHeater, and Stomach. They tend to be hollow organs.

24.

Which elements are the five phases? a. Air, fire, water, spirit, and earth b. Fire, water, earth, metal, and air c. Earth, water, fire, space, and metal d. Wood, fire, earth, metal, and water ANS: D

The five phases, or five elements, refer to wood, fire, earth, metal, and water, and are used todescribe nature and individuals.

25. What color is associated with the wood phase? a. Red b. White c. Green d. Yellow ANS: C

Green, the color of foliage at its peak, is the color associated with the wood phase.

26. What emotion is associated with the water element? a. Joy b. Fear c. Grief d. Anger ANS: B

The bones, bone marrow, teeth, central nervous system, ears, hearing, the emotion of fear, winter, black or dark blue color, urine, groaning sounds, and craving for salty foods are allcorrespondences to the water phase.

27. Which cycle describes how a phase feeds, nourishes, or generates the next phase? a. Control b. Creative c. Insulting d. Overacting ANS: B

The creative cycle describes how a phase feeds, nourishes, or generates the next phase in line.The creative cycle is often described as the mother–child relationship. In the example of waternourishing wood, water is the mother and wood is the child.

28. Which method is a main one used to evaluate energetic imbalances? a. Needling b. Listening c. Influencing d. Documenting ANS: B

The main assessment methods used to assess energetic imbalances are looking, listening,smelling, palpating, and asking.

29. Which method is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy that uses pressure along channels

torestore, maintain, or balance the flow of energy? a. Polarity b. Shiatsu c. Acupuncture d. Ayurveda ANS: B

Shiatsu is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy method using applied pressure along energychannels to restore, maintain, or balance the flow of ki.

30. What does the term “shiatsu” literally mean? a. Pray always b. Finger pressure c. Hollow like a flute d. Healing through touch ANS: B

The term shiatsu literally means “finger (shi) pressure (atsu),” but hands, elbows, knees, andfeet are also used and, when appropriate, joint mobilizations and stretches.

31. Which principle is part of Zen shiatsu? a. Move from the hara b. Practice grace always c. Wear comfortable clothes d. Use organic products only

ANS: A

The principles of Zen Shiatsu are be relaxed; use body weight, not force; move from the ha ra ; uv se two-handed connection; use stationary, perpendicular penetration; project ki; and work one channel before moving to another channel.

32. What is the hara? a. The body’s solar plexus b. Center of focused power and energy c. An area with too little ki d. Center of yin and yang ANS: B

The hara is the body’s center of focused power and energy.

33. Where is the tanden located? a. Along the lateral aspect of the tibia b. Inch or two below and behind the navel c. Inch or two above the center of the brow d. Two cun below and behind the heart chakra ANS: B

Within the hara is the tanden, the sea of ki, 1 to 2 inches below and behind the navel.

34. What are the two main techniques used in shiatsu? a. Palming and thumbing b. Tapotement and traction c. Effleurage and pétrissage d. Stretches and joint mobilizations ANS: A

The two main techniques used in Zen shiatsu are palming and thumbing.

35. Zen shiatsu techniques are performed on the prone client from where toward where? a. Head toward the chest b. Arms toward the chest c. Sacrum toward the feet d. Sacrum toward the chest ANS: C

Zen shiatsu techniques are performed on the prone client from the sacrum to the feet.

36. Which term means palpating the client’s abdomen to assess reflex areas of the channels? a. Gua sha b. Tanden c. Hara assessment d. Mother hand positioning ANS: C

Hara assessment is palpating the client’s hara to assess reflex areas of the channels.

37. What finding is the aim of hara evaluation? a. Angle of pressure and apply force until the energy flow is balanced

b. Fundamental source of ki flow and synchronize it with the chakras c. Source of highest ki energy and project it toward the client’s third eye d. Kyo-jitsu pair of channels that will be the focus of the client’s treatment ANS: D

The aim of hara assessment is to find the most kyo channel and the most jitsu channel. The hara assessment areas for these channels will react reflexively to each other, indicating thefocus of the client’s treatment.

38. Which method is a form of Asian bodywork that consists of stretching and compression

on points along energy channels to balance energy and restore health?

Reiki Thai massage Polarity Neuromuscular therapy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Thai massage consists of stretching and compression on points along energy channels to bv alance energy and restore health.

39. What is Thai massage called in Thailand? a. Tui na b. Jin shin do c. Chi nei tsang d. Nuad Bo’Rarn ANS: D

In Thailand, Thai massage is called partner yoga and Nuad Bo’Rarn. Nuad is Thai for “to touch with the intention of imparting healing.” Bo’Rarn is Sanskrit for “something ancientand revered.”

40. Which term means the body’s energy pathways in Thai massage? a. Sen b. Chee c. Nadis d. Dosha ANS: A

Like the healing traditions of China and Japan, the Thai massage system postulates that the bv ody possess energy pathways called Sen. 41. Which concept is one of the Four Divine States of Mind of Buddhist philosophy? a. Active listening b. Respect and reverence c. Vicarious joy and happiness d. The truth and nothing but the truth ANS: C

The Four Divine States of Mind of Buddhist philosophy are (1) loving kindness, (2)compassion, (3) mental equanimity, and (4) vicarious joy and happiness.

42. Which technique sequence often used during Thai massage?

a. 1-2-3-4-5 b. 1-2-3-2-1 c. 1-2-1-2-1 d. 1-2-3-4-5-6 ANS: B

Often during treatment, techniques are performed in the sequence 1-2-3-2-1. This patternsequence is very rhythmic and soothing and is repeated at various locations on the body during a Thai massage session.

43. Which approach is a Hindu system of medicine designed to maintain or improve

healththrough dietary modification, massage, yoga, and herbal preparations?

Shiatsu Ayurveda Thai massage Lymphatic massage

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Ayurveda is the traditional Hindu system of medicine that maintains or improves health through diet, massage, yoga, yogic breathing, and use of herbal preparations. Ayurveda is oneof the world’s oldest healing systems and closely adheres to the principle of a fundamental connection between microcosm and macrocosm.

44. What are the five basic elements in Ayurveda? a. Earth, air, fire, water, and space b. Air, fire, water, spirit, and metal c. Fire, water, earth, metal, and air d. Wood, fire, earth, metal, and water ANS: A

According to Ayurveda, there are five great elements present in everything in the universe.These elements are earth, air, fire, water, and space (or ether).

45. Which definition is related to the Sanskrit word “dosha?” a. Fault or defect b. Container or vase c. Life force or energy d. The sunny side of the hill ANS: A

The Sanskrit word dosha means a “fault” or “defect.”

46.

What are the tri-doshas? a. One, two, and three b. Vata, pitta, and kapha c. Heaven, earth, and hades d. Wood, metal, and earth ANS: B

The three active doshas, or tri-doshas, are vata, pitta, and kapha.

47. Which dosha means wind and is composed of the elements air and space?

a. b. c. d.

Pitta Vata Mala Kapha

ANS: B

Vata means “wind” and is the combined elements air and space. Vata governs movement andnervous system functions.

48. Which dosha means bile and is composed of the elements fire and water or just fire? a. Pitta b. Vata c. Mala d. Kapha ANS: A

Pitta means “bile,” is the combined elements fire and water. Pitta governs digestion,metabolism, hunger, thirst, sight, courage, and mental activity.

49. Which dosha means phlegm and is made up of the elements of earth and water? a. Pitta b. Vata c. Mala d. Kapha ANS:

D

Kapha means “phlegm” and is the combined elements of earth and water. Kapha governs lubrication and structure and maintains the body’s solid nature, tissues, sexual power, andstrength.

50. Which Ayurvedic term means a person’s unique natural constitution, determined at

themoment of conception and remaining until death? a. Vayu b. Prakriti c. Meridian d. Shleshman ANS: B

Prakriti is our body type or basic constitution. Prakriti is determined at conception andremains until death.

51. According to Ayurveda, which aspect is one of the four factors that influences an

individual’sconstitutional type?

Mother City of birth Family birth order Natal astrological sign

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The four factors influencing a person’s constitutional type are (1) the father, (2) the mother(particularly her food intake), (3) the womb, and (4) the season of the year they were born.

52. According to Ayurveda, which term means the channels in the body where prana

energyflows?

Sen Chee Nadis Dosha

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Similar to the traditional channels of traditional Chinese medicine, the nadis are channels inthe body where prana energy flows.

53. Which term means energy centers in the body that located along a central channel

orsushumna?

Rasas Dhatus Chakras Prakriti

a. b. c. d.

ANS:

C

Chakras are the energy centers in the body along the central channel, or sushumna. In theAyurvedic tradition, the word chakra comes from a Sanskrit word meaning “wheel” or “circle.”

54. Which number refers to the root chakra? a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Seventh ANS: A

The first chakra is also called the root chakra.

55. Which element corresponds to the first chakra? a. Air b. Fire c. Earth d. Water ANS: C

The element of the first chakra is earth.

56. Which chakra is the fourth one? a. Root b. Brow c. Heart d. Sacral ANS: C

The fourth chakra is also called the heart chakra.

57. Which chakra is represented by the color orange? a. Root

b. Brow c. Heart d. Sacral ANS: D

The color orange is representative of the sacral chakra.

58. Which element corresponds to the solar plexus chakra? a. Air b. Fire c. Earth d. Water ANS: B

The element of the solar plexus chakra is fire.

59. Which number refers to the throat chakra? a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Seventh ANS: C

The fifth chakra is also called the throat chakra.

60. Where is the seventh chakra located? a. The top of the skull b. The base of the spine c. Between the eyebrows d. Below the sternum and above the navel ANS: A

The seventh chakra, or crown chakra, is located on the top of the skull.

Chapter 17: Business Practices: Getting Started, Marketing, Professional Development, Accounting, and Planning Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement describes most massage practitioners according to the American

MassageTherapy Association?

Most are sole practitioners Few are older than 30 years of age Those working in franchises make the most money per hour They chose massage therapy as their first career

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Seventy-two percent of massage practitioners describe themselves as sole practitioners at leastpart of the time (American Massage Therapy Association [AMTA], 2021).

2. Which reason is a major cause of business failures in general? a. Incompetence b. Acquired disability c. Professional burnout d. Staff conflict ANS: A

A study conducted by the University of Tennessee found that 46% of business failures are due to incompetence, and 30% are due to unbalanced experience or lack of managerial experience(Statistic Brain Research Institute, 2018).

3. Which aspect of business protects the public by enforcing standards that restrict practice

toqualified individuals who have met specific qualifications?

Occupational license Sales tax permit Professional liability insurance Professional license

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

A professional license restricts the practice of an occupation to those who hold a license.

Professional licensure seeks to protect the public by enforcing standards that restrict practice to qualified individuals who have met certain educational requirements and earning a passingscore in a competency examination such as the Massage and Bodywork Licensing Examination, or MBLEx, issued by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards (www.fsmtb.org).

4. Which type of insurance protects service-providing professionals from bearing the full cost

ofdefending against a negligence claim made by a client?

Disability Health care General liability Professional liability

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Professional liability insurance helps protect the service provider from bearing the full cost ofa legal defense and helps pay for damages awarded by the courts if the provider was found negligent.

5. What is another term for professional liability insurance? a. Health insurance b. Disability insurance c. Malpractice insurance d. General liability insurance ANS: C

Professional liability insurance is also called malpractice insurance and errors and omission(E&O) insurance.

6. Which type of insurance provides income when an individual is unable to work because

ofillness or injury?

Disability Health care General liability Professional liability

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Disability insurance provides income protection if a person is unable to work because ofdisease or injury.

7. What is the minimum number of hours per week an employee needs to work to be

consideredfull-time?

20 25 35 40

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Full-time employees usually work 35 hours or more per week and part-time employees workfewer hours.

8. If a massage practitioner works at a business that provides the setting and equipment,

anddetermines what services the practitioner provides, what is the practitioner classified as? a. Employee b. Self-employed c. Sole proprietor d. Independent contractor ANS: A

Employers generally provide the place for massage services to be administered, the tools and materials needed to administer the services, exercise some control over the service such as time of service and length of time spent providing the service, and fees clients pay for servicesrendered. In addition, employers are responsible for collecting all taxes and providing compensation to employees.

9. Which term means a massage practitioner who works without supervision and provides

owntools and equipment?

Sole proprietor Independent contractor Casual employee Contract employee

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Independent contractors are individuals who have specialized skills, training, or licensure thatallows them to work without supervision. Independent contractors often provide their own tools and equipment, work in more than one location, and are not required to sign a noncompeting agreement.

10. Which document is a summary of an individual’s education, experience, and

accomplishmentsrelated to a particular skill set?

License Résumé Contract Proposal

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

A resume is a summary of an individual’s education, experiences, and accomplishments related to a particular skill set. Resumes are typically one page in length and organized inreverse chronologic order, with the most current events listed first.

11. Which document is an in-depth overview of an individual’s education,

experience,accomplishments, and is organized in reverse chronological order?

License Résumé Contract Curriculum vitae

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Curriculum vitae (CVs) are an in-depth overview of a person’s education, experiences, and accomplishments and are also organized in reverse chronological order. CVs are often longerin length compared to resumes.

12. What do most employers look for in potential employees? a. Technique skills b. Superior knowledge base c. Strong work ethic d. Ability to work independently ANS: C

What most employers are looking for is evidence of problem-solving skills, the ability to workin a team, and a strong work ethic. Other abilities and attributes important to employees and recruiters are analytical skills, written and verbal communication skills, leadership skills, tact, a friendly/outgoing personality, and computer skills (National Association of Colleges and Employers, 2020).

13. Which type of interview involves being questioned by different individuals within

acompany?

Sequential Screening Electronic Panel

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Sequential interviews occur when applicants are interviewed by different individuals withinthe company, sometimes within the same day.

14. Which type of business is that of a single owner? a. S-corporation b. Sole proprietorship c. General partnership d. Limited partnership ANS: B

A sole proprietorship is a business of a single owner. Legally, no distinction exists betweenthe business and the owner.

15. Which business entity is between two or more individuals who join together to carry

on a bv usiness venture for profit, and have unlimited personal liability for the business’s debts? a. S-corporation b. General partnership c. Sole proprietorship d. Limited liability ANS: B

General partnerships are an agreement between two or more individuals who conduct the business for profit and each partner contributes money, property, labor, or skill, and they sharethe business’s profits and losses.

16. Which business entity is granted a charter by the state and has its own privileges and

liabilitiesdistinct from those of its board of directors or its shareholders?

Corporation Sole proprietorship General partnership Limited partnership

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Corporations are legal business entities who are granted a charter by the state in which theyoperate. Articles of incorporation must be filed with the state to establish a corporate entity.

17. Which term means dividing geographic areas into regions so a city can restrict the number

andtypes of buildings within the region as well as how these buildings are used?

Zoning Distributing Licensure Certification

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Zoning is dividing of geographic areas into zones so a city or municipality can restrict thenumber of and types of buildings within the zone, as well as how these buildings are used.

18. Which type of insurance protects businesses from bearing the full cost of defending

againstclaims for damages resulting from negligence associated with property and dayto-day business operations? a. Disability b. Health care c. Commercial general liability d. Professional liability ANS: C

Commercial general liability insurance (CGL) insurance is a type of liability insurance that helps protect businesses from bearing the full cost of defending against claims for damages resulting from negligence associated with property and day-to-day business operations.

19. Which expense is a tax deduction? a. Vacation travel b. Leisure clothing c. Continuing education d. Meals eaten during work time ANS: C

Continuing education and professional development costs are tax deductions.

20. Business receipts, past income tax returns, and documents related to tax returns should be

keptfor a minimum of how many years?

Three Five Seven Nine

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Generally, business records that support an item of income, deduction, or credit shown onyour tax return must be kept until the period of limitations for the tax return retire.

The minimum period the IRS says these documents should be kept is 3 years.

21. Which type of tax is levied on small business owners who derive income directly

fromconsumers?

Income Self-employment Sales Corporate

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Self-employment taxes are taxes levied on small business owners who derive income directlyfrom consumers as opposed to individuals who are employees.

22. Which aspect of business involves adding up all costs and profits then dividing this amount

bythe number of billable hours?

a. Insurance cost

b. Hourly expenses c. Social security tax d. Hourly rate ANS: D

To determine an hourly rate, add all costs (labor/salary and overhead) and profits, then dividethis amount by the number of billable hours.

23. Which term means the exchange of goods or services without using money? a. Asset b. Equity c. Barter d. Cash flow ANS: C

Bartering is the nonmonetary exchange of goods or services—there is no exchange of cash.

24. Which term means a small gift, such as money, given to a person who provided a service? a. Gratuity b. Debt c. Capital d. Deduction ANS: A Tips, or gratuities, are discretionary money given to service providers by their consumer.

25. Which term means the amount of money an individual makes after deducting

allowableexpenses and taxes?

Gross income Income tax Self-employment tax Net income

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Net income is the amount an individual/household or a company makes after deductingallowable expenses and taxes. Net income is also called net earnings.

26. Which term means activities used to create, communicate, deliver, and exchange

offeringsthat have value for customers and clients?

Media Vision Marketing Citizenship

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Marketing is activities used to create, communicate, deliver, and exchange products and services that have value for consumers, clients, and the society at large. Marketing promotespv ublic awareness of a business.

27. Which term means using persuasive messages to influence consumer buying habits? a. Vision b. Publicity

c. Finances d. Advertising ANS: D

Advertising is the use of persuasive messages to influence consumer buying habits, usually by paid announcements. Examples of advertising include print advertising (newspaper, magazines, brochures), broadcast advertising (television, radio), outdoor advertising (signs, banners, billboards), and digital advertising (social media, text messages, search engines).

28. What is the primary method clients use to locate massage practitioners? a. Referrals from others b. Website c. Social media d. Events ANS: A

Massage clients stated referrals by other massage clients are their primary method of locatingmassage practitioners (90%) followed by internet websites (85%) and social media (68%).

29. Which term refers to a single sentence of a business’s purpose? a. Balance sheet b. Curriculum vitae c. Mission statement d. Professional profile ANS: C

A mission statement is a single statement of a business’s purpose—what it does, how it does it, and why it does it. It can also describe the business’s culture, core values, ethics, and goals,what is what’s to accomplish on a larger scale.

30. Which type of marketing is usually the first opportunity a massage practitioner has to

make astrong impression?

Business card Facebook Website Blog

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Business cards are often the first item prospective clients receive, so business cards are thefirst opportunity you have to make a good impression.

31. Which type of marketing is the center of a business’s digital or online presence? a. Blog b. Facebook c. Instagram d. Website ANS: D

Websites are places on the internet where one or more pages of information are found.

Websites are vital to businesses, and for good reasons. We live in a digital world; a website isthe center of a business’s digital or online presence. Consumers use the internet to locate products and services and a website increases the likelihood your business will be found.

32. Which term means the responsible and ethical use of technology? a. Limited liability b. Mission statement c. Digital citizenship d. Independent contractor ANS: C

Digital citizenship is the responsible and ethical use of technology by anyone who usescomputers, the Internet, and digital devices.

33. Which type of marketing is considered word-of-mouth? a. Keeping a website up to date b. A client giving a gift certificate to a friend c. A blog that has useful information d. Handing out a business card ANS: B

Most often, people who purchase and give gift cards are clients and, because they enjoy theservice, they want to share it with others. This is a word-of-mouth advertising.

34. Short professional profiles are how many words or less? a. 30 b. 60 c. 100 d. 500 ANS:

C

Short profiles are approximately one paragraph in length using 100 words or less. It covers allessential information; something you might use on LinkedIn. 35. Which process is voluntary and involves peers in a particular field examining and

endorsingthe qualifications of a professional?

State licensure Board licensure State registration Board certification

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Board certification is the examining of a person’s professional qualifications by a group of peers, often in a specialty of practice (e.g., pregnancy massage, oncology massage, manuallymphatic drainage) and granting the person a title if qualifications are met. The process isvoluntary and different from the process of licensure, the latter of which sets the minimumcompetency requirement to practice massage.

36. Which term means an experienced individual within a healthcare facility who is paired

with anewly hired individual during the orientation period? a. Preceptor b. Mentor c. Sole proprietor d. Independent contractor

ANS: A

A preceptor is an experienced individual within a healthcare facility who is paired with anewly hired individual during the orientation period.

37. Which term means a written agreement that outline expectations, duties, and

responsibilitiesin a business relationship?

License Résumé Contract Proposal

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Contracts are written agreements that outline expectations, duties, and responsibilities in bv usiness relationships—these can be legally binding and enforceable by law.

38. Which term means a plan or suggestion put forward for consideration? a. License b. Résumé c. Contract d. Proposal ANS: D

Proposals are simply plans or suggestions put forward for consideration and discussion in bv usiness relationships.

39. Which term means the measuring, processing, and communicating financial and

nonfinancialinformation?

Inventory Marketing Accounting Depreciation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Accounting is the process of measuring, processing, and communicating financial andnonfinancial information.

40. Which term refers to a small amount of money that a business keeps on hand to pay

forinexpensive items?

Cash flow Liabilities Petty cash Accounts receivable

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Petty cash is an accessible small amount of cash a business keeps on hand to pay forinexpensive items such as office supplies and postage.

41. Which term means a presentation of a business’s assets, liabilities, and shareholder’s

equityon a specific date? a. Balance sheet b. Accounts payable c. Accounts receivable

d. Profit and loss statement ANS: A

A balance sheet is an overview of a business’s assets, liabilities, and shareholder’s equity on aspecific date—it is a snapshot in time.

42. Which term means economic resources to which an individual or business has a legal claim? a. Assets b. Taxes c. Loans d. Liabilities ANS: A

Assets are valuable economic resources to which an individual or business has a legal claim.

Examples of assets are property, equipment, inventory, money in the bank, and monies owedto the company (i.e., accounts receivable).

43. Which example is a business asset? a. Taxes owed b. Rent and utilities c. Money borrowed from a bank d. Property and equipment ANS: D

Examples of assets are property, equipment, inventory, money in the bank, and monies owedto the company (i.e., accounts receivable).

44. Which document reports movement of money into and out of a business during a period

oftime?

Balance sheet Accounts receivable Cash flow statement Mission statement

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

A cash flow statement reports the movement of cash provided to the company (moving intothe company) and the movement of cash used by the company (moving out of the company)during a period of time such as a month, quarterly (every 3 months), or annually (every 12 months).

45. Which term means a business’s net worth? a. Equity b. Capital c. Asset d. Income ANS: A

Equity is an individual’s or business’s net worth. Equity is determined by deducting liabilitiesfor the assets (assets – liabilities = equity). Equity is also referred to as capital.

46. Which document is a statement that shows income and expenses and indicates

whether a business made money or not?

a. b. c. d.

Balance sheet Accounts receivable Cash flow statement Profit and loss statement

ANS: D

Profit and loss statements report an individual’s or business’s financial performance (both profits or income and losses or expenses) during a particular period of time. The main purposeof the P&L statement is to convey if an individual or business is making a profit or a loss.

47. Which document describes a company’s or individual’s organization, services and

products,marketing strategy, and financial projections?

Business plan Treatment plan Liability insurance Social networking sites

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

A business plan is a document that describes a business’s organization, services and products,marketing strategy, management style, and financial projections, future plans, and strategies for achieving them.

48. In which part of the business plan is the mission statement? a. Company description b. Executive summary c. Market analysis d. Funding request ANS: B

The executive summary briefly states the background of the company, where it is today, where it is headed and why it will be successful or more successful in the future. It includes amission statement, products/services, basic information about the company’s organization, and location.

49. In which part of the business plan is the company’s legal structure discussed? a. Company description b. Executive summary c. Organization and management d. Appendix ANS: C

The organization and management section discusses the company’s legal structure (business entity) and who will run it. It includes an organizational chart, if applicable. Also provided is a professional profile of key members that includes their qualifications, experience, and education important to their roles in the company.

50. In which part of the business plan are credit histories, resumes, and copies of licenses

andcertifications? a. Company description b. Organization and management c. Marketing and sales

d. Appendix ANS: D

The appendix is used to provide supporting documents or other materials where specificallyrequested. Common items included are personal and business credit histories, resumes and CVs, images of products, references, copies of licenses and certifications, legal documents, insurance policies, and contracts and contact information for consultants.

Chapter 18: Introduction to the Human Body: Medical Terminology, Cells, Tissues, and Body Compass Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of the structures of the human body and their

positionalrelationships to one another?

Anatomy Pathology Physiology Craniotomy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Anatomy is the study of the structures of the human body and their positional relationships toone another.

2. Which term means the study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal

bodyprocesses?

Anatomy Pathology Physiology Craniotomy

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Physiology is the study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal bodyprocesses.

3. Which term means the study of disease? a. Anatomy b. Pathology c. Physiology d. Craniotomy ANS: B

Pathophysiology and pathology are the studies of disease.

4. Which term means the constant and stable internal environment within a narrow range

despitechanges that occur in the external environment?

Anatomy Hemostasis Physiology Homeostasis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Homeostasis is the constant and stable internal environment within a narrow range despitechanges that occur in the external environment.

5. Which prefix means within or inside? a. Dors-

b. Endoc. Epid. HistoANS: B

Endo- means within or inside, as in endometrium or endocardium.

6. Which suffix means cell? a. -blast b. -cele c. -clast d. -cyte ANS: D

-cyte means cell, as in hemocyte or osteocyte.

7. Which suffix means pain? a. -algia b. -emia c. -itis d. -plasia ANS: A

-algia means pain, as in fibromyalgia or neuralgia.

8. Which sequence represents how the body is organized from least complex to most? a. Cell, tissue, membrane, organ, organ system, organism b. Chemical, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism c. Cell, chemical, organ, tissue, organ system d. Chemical, molecule, tissue, cell, organism ANS: B

The human body can be regarded as a universe made up of small components organized as afunctional unit. This organization follows a hierarchy or is ordered from the most simple to the most complex and are chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, and organism.

9. Which term means the inner region of an organ or structure? a. Medulla b. Cortex c. Ipsilateral d. Transverse ANS: A

The medulla is the inner region of an organ or structure.

10. Which term means the space within a hollow tube? a. Cortex b. Lumen c. Ipsilateral d. Transverse ANS: B

The lumen is the space with a hollow tube.

11. The heart, stomach, and brain are examples of which level of organization? a. Cellular b. Tissue c. Organ d. System ANS: C

The organ level is composed of structures containing of two or more tissue types such as thekidneys and the bladder.

12. Which component is the smallest structural and functional unit existing as a self-

sustainingentity?

Cell Atom Particle Molecule

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit existing as a self-sustaining entity.

Cellsare the building blocks of the human body.

13. Which structure separates intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid and functions like

asemipermeable filter?

Golgi apparatus Cytoplasm Mitochondrion Cell membrane

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Each cell is surrounded by a cell membrane or plasma membrane. This membrane separates intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid. The membrane is semipermeable, which functionslike gates in a fence, allowing some materials to pass and limiting or blocking the passage ofothers.

14. Which term means the gel-like intracellular fluid that cells contain? a. Nucleus b. Cytoplasm c. Mitochondrion d. Cytoskeleton ANS: B

Cells contain a gel-like intracellular fluid called cytoplasm or protoplasm.

15. Which organelle is a network of curved sacs arranged in parallel rows that helps

transportmaterials?

Nucleus Golgi body Mitochondrion Endoplasmic reticulum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a network of curved sacs arranged in parallel rows.

Piecesof the ER can break off and become parts of other organelles or even parts of the cell membrane. This allows the ER to transport materials.

16. Which organelle provides adenosine triphosphate? a. Nucleus b. Golgi body c. Mitochondrion d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: C

Mitochondria take in nutrients, break them down, and create adenosine triphosphate (ATP),the cell’s energy molecule. Think of mitochondria as the cell’s “power plant.”

17. Which organelle breaks down unneeded proteins and pathogens with enzymes? a. Nucleus b. Lysosome c. Mitochondrion d. Ribosome ANS: B

Lysosomes break down unneeded proteins and destroy pathogens with enzymes.

Lysosomesalso release enzymes at injury sites to help remove cellular debris.

18. Which organelle is the control center of the cell, directing most metabolic activities? a. Nucleus b. Golgi body c. Mitochondrion d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: A

The nucleus can be thought of as the cell’s “control center” as it directs most metabolicactivities, including growth and reproduction.

19. Which part is the network of microfilaments and microtubules that provides an

internalstructure to many cells?

Cytosol Endoplasmic reticulum Plasma membrane Cytoskeleton

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Many cells contain a network of microfilaments and microtubules called a cytoskeleton.

Thisnetwork serves as scaffolding material to provide an internal structure to the cell.

20. What are fingerlike cellular extensions called? a. Cilia b. Flagella c. Spinoza d. Microvilli

ANS: D

Microvilli are fingerlike projections found in the lining of the lower gastrointestinal tract andin the proximal tubule within the kidneys. Microvilli helps increase the surface area, which improves absorption.

21. Which process is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area

oflow concentration?

Osmosis Filtration Diffusion Phagocytosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. During diffusion, molecules simply spread out, or diffuse, in a given space oracross a cell membrane.

22. Which process is movement of water across a membrane from an area of low concentration

tohigh concentration to equalize the fluid concentration on both sides of the membrane?

Osmosis Filtration Diffusion Phagocytosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Osmosis is the movement of water across a cell membrane from an area of low concentration to high concentration to equalize concentration on both sides of the membrane. Water movesinstead of other molecules to create equilibrium.

23. Which process is the movement of water and molecules across a cell membrane due

to pv ressure? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis ANS: B

Filtration is the movement of water and molecules across a cell membrane due to pressure.

24. Which type of transport involves carrier molecules within the cell membrane? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Cell respiration d. Pump mechanisms ANS: D

Pump mechanisms use carrier molecules within cell membranes. Because of their location,carrier molecules are also called membrane pumps.

25. Which process involves a molecule being drawn inside the cell and fused with lyososome? a. Osmosis b. Filtration

c. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis ANS: D

During phagocytosis or cell eating, the molecule drawn inside the cell fuses with lysosome,which coats it with enzymes and digests it.

26. Which term means groups of similar cells acting together to perform specific functions? a. Organs b. Tissues c. Molecules d. Organelles ANS: B

Tissues are groups of similar cells acting together to perform specific functions.

Tissuesorganize themselves into organs.

27. Which terms represent the four principal types of tissues? a. Alpha, beta, delta, and theta b. Heart, lung, brain, and kidney c. Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital d. Epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous ANS: D

There are four principal types of tissue are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue,and nervous tissue.

28. Which type of fluid is found in extracellular spaces between tissues? a. Amniotic b. Interstitial c. Lymphatic d. Peritoneal ANS: B

Interstitial fluid is found in the extracellular spaces between the tissues. This fluid is primarilywater and contains substances, such as salts, sugars, fatty acids, amino acids, hormones, and neurotransmitters.

29. Which embryologic tissue layer gives rise to structures of the nervous system,

including special senses and the epidermis of the skin?

Ectoderm Endoderm Mesoderm Echinoderm

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Ectoderm is the outermost embryologic tissue layer and gives rise to structures of the nervoussystem including special senses, and the epidermis of the skin.

30. Which type of tissue covers external and internal structures, and lines open and closed

bodycavities?

a. Nervous

b. Muscular c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: C

Epithelial tissue, or epithelium, lines or covers external and internal body structures; lines open body cavities, such as the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts; andclosed body cavities, such as the dorsal and ventral cavities.

31. Which function does epithelium perform? a. Motion of parts of the body b. Insulation for warmth and cushioning c. Integration of sensory information d. Secretion of hormones and enzymes ANS: D

Epithelial tissue provides protection, absorption, secretion, excretion, and sensation. It cansecrete hormones, enzymes, mucus, and other lubricating fluids.

32. Which type of tissue forms the framework for organs and glands, transports nutrients

andwastes, and defends the body?

Nervous Muscular Epithelial Connective

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Connective tissue connects tissues to each other (e.g., muscles to muscles, muscles to bones, bones to bones). It supports organs and glands via a mesh framework, and supports the body as a whole. It transports nutrients and wastes, and defends the body through processes such a s bv lood clotting and immune responses.

33. Which type of tissue is predominately fat and serves as storage for surplus food and

asinsulation to conserve body heat?

Adipose Glandular Epithelial Cartilaginous

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Adipose tissue consists mainly of fat cells called adipocytes and serves as storage for surplusfood. It also insulates the body to conserve heat and cushions structures such as the heart, kidneys, and some joints.

34. Which type of cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of bones and connects ribs to

thesternum?

Elastic Hyaline Reticular Fibrous

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Hyaline is the most prevalent type of cartilage and covers the articulating surfaces of bones,connects ribs to the sternum, and is found in the nose, ears, trachea, and smaller respiratory tubes.

35. Which component is a connective tissue? a. Muscle b. Nerve c. Blood d. Gland ANS: C

Blood is liquid connective tissue and transports respiratory gases, nutrients, and waste pv roducts.

36. Which type of tissue is regarded as the movement specialist of the body? a. Nervous b. Muscular c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: B

Muscle tissue is regarded as the movement specialist of the body. Muscle tissue can respondto a stimulus, contract or shorten, extend or stretch and lengthen, and returns to its original shape after movement.

37. What are the three types of muscle tissue? a. Cilia, microvilli, and flagella b. Smooth, cardiac, and skeletal c. Hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic d. Ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm ANS: B

The three types of muscle tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth or visceral muscle.

38. Which type of muscle tissue is located in the walls of hollow organs and within tubes? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Skeletal d. Parietal ANS: A

Smooth muscle, also called visceral muscle, is found in hollow visceral organs or tubes, suchas the stomach, bladder, and uterus, and within tubes such as the intestines and blood vessels.

39. Which type of muscle tissue is attached to bones? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Skeletal d. Parietal ANS: C

Skeletal muscle is attached to bones and is the most abundant muscle tissue type.

40. Which type of tissue detects sensory input, provides interpretative functions,

coordinatesmotor output, and facilitates higher mental functioning?

Nervous Muscular Epithelial Connective

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Nervous tissue is in the brain, spinal cord, and within nerves. Nerve cells, or neurons, transmitnerve impulses. Nervous tissue detects sensory input, provides interpretative functions, coordinates motor output, and facilitates higher mental functioning and emotional responsiveness.

41. Which type of tissue is found in the heart wall and helps the heart contract repeatedly to

p u m p bv lood? a. Cartilage b. Adipose c. Skeletal muscle d. Cardiac muscle ANS: D

Cardiac muscle is located in the heart wall and helps the heart contract repeatedly to p u m p bv lood.

42. Which type of tissue has osteocytes embedded in collagen and mineral salt crystals? a. Bone b. Cartilage c. Adipose d. Muscle ANS: A

Bone is the hardest connective tissue. Mature bone cells called osteocytes become embeddedin collagen and mineral salt crystals.

43. Which tissue is located under skin, and is continuous with the dermis? a. Tendon b. Cartilage c. Deep fascia d. Superficial fascia ANS: D

Superficial fascia is located under skin, and is continuous with the dermis. It is comprised ofloose areolar connective tissue.

44. Which membrane lines body cavities that open to the outside? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. Cutaneous ANS: A

Mucous membranes line body cavities that open to the outside. Examples of mucous membranes are linings of the digestive, respiratory, and urinary, and reproductive tracts.

45. Which membrane lines closed body cavities? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. Cutaneous ANS: B

Serous membranes line closed body cavities that do not open directly to the outside and coverorgans inside those cavities.

46. What are the two layers found in most serous membranes? a. Cortex and medulla b. Parietal and visceral c. Tissue and organ d. Central and peripheral ANS: B

Serous membranes consist of two layers—a parietal layer and a visceral layer. The parietallayer covers the walls of body cavities like wallpaper and often adheres to it.

The visceral layer covers the visceral organs located within the body cavity.

47. Which membrane lines cavities of freely movable joints? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. Cutaneous ANS: C

Synovial membranes line cavities of freely movable joints such as the shoulder, hip, elbow,and knee. These membranes secrete a thick, clear fluid into the joint cavity called synovial fluid or synovium.

48. Which statement describes anatomic position? a. Lying supine with the palms of the hands flat on the floor b. Standing with the palms facing forward and the toes pointing forward c. Standing with the palms facing each other and the toes pointing to the side d. Lying prone with both feet hip-distance apart, the toes pointing downward ANS: B

In anatomic position the body is standing upright and facing forward, the arms are at the side s,pv alms are facing forward with the thumbs to the side, and feet are hip-distance apart with toes pointing forward.

49. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves? a. Frontal b. Coronal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal

ANS: D

The midsagittal plane, or median plane, is used to describe the sagittal plane that runs throughthe midline marked by the navel, dividing it into equal right and left halves.

50. Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections? a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal ANS: A

The frontal plane, or coronal plane, bisects the body side-to-side and divides it into front(anterior) and back (posterior) sections.

51. Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections? a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal ANS: C

The transverse plane, or horizontal plane, bisects the body horizontally and divides the bodyinto top (superior) and bottom (inferior) sections.

52. Which term means situated below or toward the tail end? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Proximal ANS: A

Inferior means situated below or toward the tail end.

53. Where is the mandible in relation to the forehead? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Superior d. Posterior ANS: A

The mandible is inferior to the forehead.

54. Which term means on the back of a structure? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Proximal ANS: C

Posterior means on the back of a structure.

55. Where is the heart in relation to the vertebral column?

a. b. c. d.

Inferior Anterior Superior Posterior

ANS: B

The heart is anterior to the vertebral column.

56. Which term means oriented toward or near the midline of the body? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Inferior d. Superior ANS: A

Medial means oriented toward or near the midline of the body.

57. Which term means related to opposite sides of the body? a. Medial b. Anterior c. Ipsilateral d. Contralateral ANS: D

Contralateral means related to opposite sides of the body.

58. Where is the wrist in relation to the elbow? a. Distal b. Medial c. Lateral d. Proximal ANS: A

The wrist is distal to the elbow.

59. Which cavities is the dorsal cavity subdivided into? a. Cranial and spinal b. Anterior and posterior c. Abdominal and pelvic d. Thoracic and abdominopelvic ANS: A

The dorsal cavity is located on the backside or posterior aspect of the body, and is furtherdivided into a cranial cavity and a spinal cavity.

60. Which cavities is the ventral cavity subdivided into? a. Cranial and spinal b. Anterior and posterior c. Abdominal and pelvic d. Thoracic and abdominopelvic ANS: D

The larger ventral cavity is located on the front side or anterior aspect of the body, and isfurther divided by the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity.

61. Which cavity contains the reproductive and urinary organs? a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Abdominal d. Thoracic ANS: A

The pelvic cavity contains the reproductive and urinary organs.

62. Which quadrant contains the gallbladder? a. Left upper b. Left lower c. Right upper d. Right lower ANS: C

The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder.

63. Which term is given to the uppermost central portion of the nine regions of the body? a. Epigastric b. Umbilical c. Right iliac d. Left lumbar ANS: A

The uppermost central portion of the nine body regions is the epigastric region.

64. Which term refers to the upper cheek? a. Costal b. Orbital c. Temporal d. Zygomatic ANS: D

Zygomatic refers to the upper cheek.

65. Which term refers to the ribs? a. Costal b. Buccal c. Temporal d. Zygomatic ANS: A

Costal refers to the ribs.

66. Which term refers to the armpit? a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Femoral

d. Antecubital ANS: A

Axillary refers to the armpit.

67. Which term refers to the forearm? a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Antebrachial ANS: D

Antebrachial refers to the forearm; between the wrist and the elbow.

68. Which term refers to the thumb? a. Pollex b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Antecubital ANS: A

Pollex refers to the thumb.

69. Which terms refers to the thigh? a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Antebrachial ANS: C

Femoral refers to the thigh.

70. Which term refers to the fingers or toes? a. Plantar b. Calcaneal c. Dorsum d. Digital ANS: D

Digital refers to the fingers or toes.

Chapter 19: Skeletal System, Pathologies, Disorders, and InjuriesSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Where in bone are blood cells produced? a. Haversian canal b. Hyaline cartilage c. Red bone marrow d. Yellow bone marrow ANS: C

Blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones, especially long bones, through a processcalled hematopoiesis.

2. Which term means blood cell production? a. Hyperemia b. Hematopoiesis c. Remodeling d. Ossification ANS: B

Blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones, especially long bones, through a processcalled hematopoiesis.

3. Which term refers to the hard outer shell of a bone? a. Compact b. Trabecular c. Cancellous d. Osteoporotic ANS: A

Compact bone forms the hard outer shell of bone and constitutes approximately 80% of thetotal adult bone mass.

4. What is the central passageway of an osteon that contains the bone’s blood supply and

nervescalled?

Haversian canal Diaphysis Trebecula Volkmann’s canal

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Each osteon surrounds a central canal and runs lengthwise through the bone. Central canalscalled Haversian canals contain blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves.

5. Which term refers to the lighter and less dense area of a bone? a. Compact b. Spongy c. Irregular

d. Sesamoid ANS: B

Spongy bone, or cancellous bone, is lighter and less dense than compact bone and constitutesapproximately 20% of the total bone mass.

6. Which cells destroy bone? a. Fibroblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteoblasts d. Chondroclasts ANS: B

Osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells.

7. Which cells form bone? a. Fibroblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteoblasts d. Chondroclasts ANS: C

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.

8. Which term means the process of bone development? a. Oscillation b. Ossification c. Mobilization d. Colonization ANS: B

Ossification, or osteogenesis, is the process of bone tissue development by osteoblasts.

9. The bones in the spine are in which category? a. Flat b. Short c. Irregular d. Sesamoid ANS: C

Irregular bones are oddly shaped and do not fit well in other shape/size categories.

Irregularbv ones are found in the skull and the spine (vertebrae).

10. Which bones are small, round, and embedded in tendons and ligaments? a. Flat b. Short c. Irregular d. Sesamoid ANS: D

Sesamoid bones are small bones embedded in tendons and ligaments. Sesamoid bones areround and found in the knee (patella), hands, feet, and throat (hyoid).

11. Which term means the cylindrical shaft of a bone? a. Meniscus b. Epiphysis c. Diaphysis d. Periosteum ANS: C

The diaphysis is the cylindrical shaft of a bone.

12. What term means the dense, fibrous sheath that surrounds the diaphysis? a. Meniscus b. Epiphysis c. Diaphysis d. Periosteum ANS: D

The periosteum surrounds the diaphysis and is a dense, fibrous sheath containing blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves, and osteoblasts for growth and fracture healing.

13. Which term means the hollow space within the center of the diaphysis? a. Meniscus b. Metaphysis c. Medullary cavity d. Epiphyseal cavity ANS: C

The medullary cavity is the hollow space within the diaphysis. It is filled with red and yellow bone marrow.

14. Which term means the two ends of a long bone? a. Bursae b. Epiphyses c. Diaphyses d. Periosteum ANS: B

The two ends of a long bone are the epiphyses (epiphysis, sing).

15. What covers the articulating surfaces of bone? a. Bursae b. Periosteum c. Bone marrow d. Hyaline cartilage ANS: D

Articular cartilage covers the surfaces of the epiphyses. This type of cartilage is hyaline and provides the smooth surfaces for movement within joints. Periosteum does not extend over articular cartilage.

16. Where does bone grow in length? a. Epiphyseal plate b. Medullary cavity

c. Periosteum d. Diaphysis ANS: A

An epiphyseal plate of hyaline cartilage is found near the ends of growing bone, allowing them to increase in length. Cartilage within the epiphyseal plate (also called growth plate)continues to grow throughout childhood until the early part of the second decade of life.

17. The skeletal system is divided into which two regions? a. Acute and chronic b. Central and peripheral c. Systemic and regional d. Axial and appendicular ANS: D

The skeletal system is divided into the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

18. How many bones are in the skull? a. 10 b. 14 c. 29 d. 33 ANS: C

Twenty-nine bones are in the skull.

19. Which bone is located in the axial skeleton? a. Femur b. Radius c. Sternum d. Metatarsal ANS: C

The axial skeleton consists of 80 named bones along the skeleton’s central axis and includesthe skull, vertebral column, sternum, and the ribs.

20. Which bone is located in the appendicular skeleton? a. Skull b. Sacrum c. Scapula d. Sternum ANS: C

The appendicular skeleton consists of bones of the shoulder and pelvic girdles and bones ofthe upper and lower extremities. There are 126 named bones in the appendicular skeleton. There are four bones in the shoulder (pectoral) girdle: two scapulae and two clavicles.

21. Which term means the place where bones come together or join? a. Diaphysis b. Periosteum c. Articulation d. Hematopoiesis

ANS: C

Joints are where two or more bones come together, or join. Other terms for joint arearticulation and arthrosis (arthro- means “joint”).

22. Which type of joint has extremely limited movement capabilities? a. Synovial b. Diarthrotic c. Synarthrotic d. Ball and socket ANS: C

Movement in synarthrotic joints, or synarthroses, is not permitted or extremely limited undernormal conditions.

23. Which type of joint is freely movable? a. Fibrous b. Diarthrotic c. Synarthrotic d. Cartilaginous ANS: B

Diarthrotic joints, or diarthroses, are freely movable joints. Diarthrotic joints are common inthe appendicular skeleton and include joints in the shoulders (glenohumeral joints) and hips (acetabulofemoral joints).

24. Which structure unites articulating bones? a. Labrum b. Bursa c. Tendon d. Ligament ANS: D

Ligaments unite articulating bones, which strengthens the joint.

25. Which type of fluid is found in cavities of freely movable joints? a. Mucus b. Serous c. Lymph d. Synovial ANS: D

The inner region of a joint capsule is the joint cavity. The cavity is lined with synovial membrane that secretes a thick clear fluid, into the cavity called synovial fluid. Synovial fluid,or synovium, provides nutrition and lubrication of the articular cartilage so they can move freely without friction.

26. Which structures are flattened and saclike, and located between ligaments or tendons

and bv ones? a. Bursae b. Synovia c. Periosteum

d. Metaphysis ANS: A

Many synovial joints contain bursae, flattened saclike structures between ligaments or tendonsand bones to reduce friction.

27. Which type of joint provides movement in one axis? a. Biaxial b. Triaxial c. Uniaxial d. Nonaxial ANS: C

Uniaxial joints move around only one axis and in only one plane. Types of uniaxial joints arehinge and pivot.

28. Which type of joint has movements limited to flexion and extension? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Saddle d. Ball and socket ANS: B

Hinge joints possess a convex surface on one bone that fits into a concave surface of anotherbv one. Movements in hinge joints are similar to that of two boards hinged together, allowing the angle of the joint to decrease, causing flexion, or increase, causing extension.

29. Which type of joint has movements limited to rotation? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Saddle d. Ball and socket ANS: A

Pivot joints possess a ringed or notched surface of one bone that fits into a projection ofanother bone. Movement in pivot joints are limited to rotation.

30. Which type of joint, found in the thumb, possesses a concave surface of one bone that fits

intothe convex surface of another?

Pivot Hinge Saddle Ball and socket

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Saddle joints possess a concave surface of one bone that fits into a convex surface of another.This positional relationship resembles a rider in a “saddle.” Saddle joints are found in the thumb and the shape of the bones at the joint makes it possible for the thumb to swing in an arc and touch the tips of the fingers and grip objects.

31. Which type of joint contains an oval-shaped surface of one bone that fits into a depression

orsocket of another bone, allowing the bone to travel back and forth and from side to side?

a. b. c. d.

Pivot Hinge Ellipsoidal Ball and socket

ANS: C

Condyloid joints possess an oval-shaped surface or condyle of one bone that fits into a depression or socket of another bone. This position allows one bone to travel back and forth(flexion and extension) and side to side (abduction and adduction).

32. Which type of joint provides movement in all three cardinal planes? a. Biplanar b. Uniplanar c. Nonplanar d. Multiaxial ANS: D

Multiaxial joints permit movement around three axes and in three planes. Types of multiaxialj oints are ball and socket and gliding.

33. Which type of joint is the most movable? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Ellipsoidal d. Ball and socket ANS: D

Ball and socket joints consist of the ball-shaped end of one bone and a socket-shaped surfaceof another bone. This position allows the first bone to move in many directions around a central joint. Ball and socket joints are our most movable joints.

34. Which movement is bending of a joint so that the angle of the joint decreases? a. Flexion b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction ANS: A

Flexion is bending a joint so the angle between the bones decreases.

35. Which movement is toward the midline of the body? a. Flexion b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction ANS: D

Adduction is movement toward the midline of the body.

36. Which movement is conical in which one end of the body is fixed and the other end moves

ina circle? a. Rotation

b. Retraction c. Protraction d. Circumduction ANS: D

Circumduction is conical movement in which one end of the body is relatively fixed and theother end moves in a circle.

37. Which movement occurs when a bone pivots around its own central axis? a. Rotation b. Pronation c. Supination d. Dorsiflexion ANS: A

Rotation occurs when a bone pivots or rotates around its own central axis.

38. Which movement is lateral rotation in which the bones of the forearm are parallel and

the pv alm faces anteriorly?

Inversion Pronation Supination Dorsiflexion

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Supination is lateral rotation in which the bones of the forearm are in a parallel position andthe palms face anteriorly in the anatomic position.

39. Which movement occurs when the ankle causes the foot to move superiorly in the direction

ofthe top of the foot?

Inversion Pronation Supination Dorsiflexion

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Dorsiflexion is movement of the ankle so the foot moves superiorly toward the dorsal surfaceof the foot—the toes are pointing up.

40. Which movement is in an anterior direction? a. Rotation b. Retraction c. Protraction d. Circumduction ANS: C

Protraction (protrusion) is movement in an anterior or forward direction.

41. Which pathology is a fluid-filled pouch that forms in the popliteal space behind the knee? a. Gout b. Baker cyst c. Osteoporosis

d. Adhesive capsulitis ANS: B

A Baker cyst is fluid-filled pouch that forms in the popliteal space behind the knee.

42. Which pathology is inflammation of a cushioning sac? a. Bursitis b. Baker cyst c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis ANS: A

Bursitis is inflammation of a bursa, flattened saclike structures between ligaments or tendonsand bones that act as cushions to reduce friction.

43. Which condition is a fluid-filled pouch that forms on tendons or joints? a. Gout b. Baker cyst c. Ganglion cyst d. Bursitis ANS: C

A ganglion cyst is a fluid-filled pouch that forms on tendons or joints, usually the wrists orhands (90% of cases).

44. Which pathology results from deposition of uric acid crystals in joints? a. Gout b. Baker cyst c. Osteoporosis d. Ganglion cyst ANS: A

Gout is arthritis caused by accumulation of uric acid crystals, usually the base of the great toe(first metatarsophalangeal joint).

45. Which condition is an exaggeration of the normal posterior curvature in the thoracic spine? a. Osteoporosis b. Hyperlordosis c. Scoliosis d. Hyperkyphosis ANS: D

Hyperkyphosis is an exaggeration of the normal posterior kyphotic curvature in the thoracicspine. A kyphotic curvature is normal (20–40 degrees), but hyperkyphosis refers to an excessive rounding of more than 45 to 50 degrees.

46. Which condition is an exaggeration of the normal anterior curvature in the lumbar spine? a. Osteoporosis b. Hyperlordosis c. Scoliosis d. Hyperkyphosis

ANS: B

Hyperlordosis is an exaggeration of the normal anterior lumbar curvature and increased anterior pelvic tilt. A lordotic curvature is normal, but hyperlordosis refers to an excessivecurvature. Hyperlordosis is also called swayback or saddleback.

47. Which pathology is characterized by inflammation of the joint capsule and progressive

jointdamage, leading to loss of articular cartilage?

Cellulitis Baker cyst Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Osteoarthritis (OA) is age-related arthritis characterized by inflammation of the joint capsule and progressive joint damage, and eventual loss of articular cartilage. OA is the most commonform of arthritis and is seen among older adults.

48. Which pathology is loss of normal bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures? a. Bursitis b. Gout c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis ANS: D

Osteoporosis is loss of normal bone density and increased bone porosity. Bones become brittle and weak, and can be described as compressible like a sponge rather than dense like a bv rick; this increases the risk of fractures.

49. Which pathology is a chronic, inflammatory, systemic disease that destroys

synovialmembranes?

Gout Baker cyst Osteoporosis Rheumatoid arthritis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is arthritis caused by an autoimmune response in which the body attacks, inflames, and destroys synovial joint membranes. Over time, joint inflammation spreads throughout the joint capsule, to articular cartilages and surrounding ligaments, then to uv nderlying bone.

50. Which condition is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the

sp ine,uv sually in the thoracic region?

Osteoporosis Lordosis Scoliosis Kyphosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Scoliosis is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the spine, usually in thethoracic region.

Chapter 20: Muscular System, Pathologies, Disorders, and InjuriesSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means continuous and partial contraction of skeletal muscles? a. Gait b. Posture c. Muscle tone d. Muscle twitch ANS: C

Muscle tone, or tonus, is continuous and partial muscle contraction even while muscles are atrest. For instance, muscles can maintain a stationary position while standing by contracting continuously.

2. Which function does the muscular system perform? a. Filtration of wastes b. Heat production c. Exchange of gases d. Immune responses ANS: B

Muscles provide movement, heat production, and posture maintenance.

3. Which term means heat production? a. Thermogenesis b. Homeostasis c. Glycolysis d. Extensibility ANS: A

Skeletal muscles are the most metabolically active structures in the body and produce a significant amount of heat. This mechanism is called thermogenesis and is important formaintaining body temperature.

4. Which term means the cell membrane surrounding muscle fibers? a. Epimysium b. Sarcoplasm c. Perimysium d. Sarcolemma ANS: D

Sarcolemma is the cell membrane that surrounds muscle fibers.

5. What is the basic unit of contraction in a muscle cell? a. Fascicle b. Retinacula c. Sarcomere d. Perimysium

ANS: C

Myofibrils are the slender fibers which contain repeating compartments called sarcomeres.Sarcomeres are the structural units of muscle contraction.

6. Which term refers to a thin filament protein? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Fascicle d. Sarcolemma ANS: A

Thin filaments are made of three proteins: actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.

7. Which structure do thick filaments contain? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Fascicle d. Sarcolemma ANS: B

Thick filaments contain motor proteins called myosin, which “motors” the contraction ofmuscle fibers. Myosin is in the center of the sarcomere and is not attached to the Z lines.

8. Which ion does the sarcoplasmic reticulum store and release? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Phosphorus ANS: B

The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a system of interconnected hollow tubes surrounding myofibrils. The SR stores and releases calcium (Ca) and plays a role in muscle contraction.

9. Which tissue surrounds the entire muscle? a. Epimysium b. Perimysium c. Endomysium d. Endometrium ANS: A

Epimysium is a thick outer layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle or muscle group (i.e., quadriceps), which allows it to contract while maintaining structural integrity. Epimysium is also called deep fascia and is continuous with superficial fascia found uv nder the dermal layer of skin.

10. Which structure anchors muscles to bone? a. Tendon b. Fascicle c. Ligament d. Retinaculum ANS: A

Tendons are dense bands of connective tissue that attach muscles and muscle groups to bones.The function of tendons is to move the attached bone.

11. Which structure is a broad, flat tendon? a. Retinaculum b. Fascicle c. Ligament d. Aponeurosis ANS: D

Aponeurosis is a broad, flat tendon which attaches muscles to bone, muscles to other muscles,or muscles to superficial fascia beneath the skin.

12. Which structure is a band of connective tissue surrounding tendons to help keep them

in pv lace?

Actin Myosin Fascicle Retinaculum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

A retinaculum is a band of connective tissue surrounding tendons to help keep them in place.It is not part of muscle. The function of retinaculum is to stabilize tendons; they may also function as pulleys. Retinacula are found primarily around the elbows, knees, ankles, and wrists.

13. Which term means the tendinous attachment on bone that remains inactive

duringcontraction?

Belly Origin Insertion Inversion

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Muscle origins are the attachments on the less movable bone or bone that remains inactiveduring contraction.

14. Which term means the tendinous attachment on bone that moves during contraction? a. Belly b. Origin c. Insertion d. Inversion ANS: C

Insertions are the attachments on the bone that moves during contraction.

15. Which phenomenon occurs when a muscle’s origin moves toward the insertion? a. Threshold stimulus b. Functional reversibility c. Isometric contraction d. Power stroke

ANS: B

Functional reversibility occurs when muscles reverse their relationship between attachmentsites—origins move toward their insertions.

16. Which state are muscle cells in when they receive a stimulus by the nervous system

via amotor neuron?

Elastic Excited Contracted Relaxed

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Muscle contraction is the development of tension in muscle fibers through cross bridging.

Cross bridging is the cycle that begins with excitation by a motor neuron, which causes thethick filaments to cross and bridge the gap between them and the thin filaments.

17. What is the model of muscle contraction called? a. Lever system b. Sliding filament c. Proprioceptive sense d. Action potential ANS: B

The mechanism of muscle contraction is called the sliding filament model.

18. Which area contains the terminal end of the motor neuron, the synaptic gap, and the

motorend plate?

Sarcolemma Sarcomere Neuromuscular junction Axon terminal

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The neuromuscular junction has three main parts: the terminal end of the motor neuron, the synaptic gap located between the motor end plate and the motor neuron, and the motor end plate.

19. What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction? a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Epinephrine d. Acetylcholine ANS: D

Folds in the sarcolemma, called motor end plates, contain receptors for acetylcholine (ACH),the neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction.

20. Which term refers to folded sections of the sarcolemma that are part of the

neuromuscularj unction?

a. Endomysium b. Thick filament c. Muscle spindle

d. Motor end plate ANS: D

Folds in the sarcolemma, called motor end plates, contain receptors for acetylcholine (ACH),the neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction.

21. Which term refers to myosin pulling thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere? a. Recruitment b. Power stroke c. Cross-bridge formation d. Functional reversibility ANS: B

Myosin heads are hinged at their base and, once the binding sites are exposed, myosin attached to actin and slides it toward the center of the sarcomere, or H zone. This action iscalled the power stroke.

22. Which term refers to a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates? a. Fascicle b. Motor unit c. Motor end plate d. Retinaculum ANS: B

A motor unit is a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates. A motor neuron ma y bv ranch off and connect to anywhere between 2 and 2000 individual muscle fibers.

23. Which term means motor unit activation based on need? a. Tonus b. Excitability c. Recruitment d. All-or-none response ANS: C

The process of motor unit activation based on need is known as recruitment.

24. Which chemical is the cell’s energy molecule? a. Calcium b. Growth hormone c. Acetylcholine d. Adenosine triphosphate ANS: D

The main sources of energy for muscle contraction are adenosine triphosphate (ATP), glucose, and oxygen. ATP is the cell’s energy molecule and is produced by mitochondria.

25. Which molecule is the red respiratory pigment found in sarcoplasm? a. Glucose b. Myoglobin c. Acetylcholine d. Dopamine

ANS: B

During rest, oxygen is stored in myoglobin within the sarcoplasm. Myoglobin is a redrespiratory pigment similar to hemoglobin in red blood cells—they both store oxygen.

26. Which term refers to the stage of glucose breakdown that uses oxygen? a. Recruitment b. Thermogenesis c. Aerobic glycolysis d. Anaerobic glycolysis ANS: C

The stage of glycolysis called aerobic glycolysis uses oxygen to produce energy. This processcreates the equivalent of 36 ATP molecules.

27. Breathing heavily after strenuous exercise is due to which process? a. Tonus b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Oxygen debt d. Thermogenesis ANS: C

Lactic acid forms as a byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis. Some lactic acid diffuses into the blood, returns to the liver, and is converted back to glycogen. This process is one reason whya person may continue to breathe heavily after physical activity. We must repay the oxygen debt by using oxygen gained by heavy breathing to process the lactic acid.

28. Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as type 1 muscle fibers, or red muscle? a. Fast twitch b. Slow twitch c. Moderate twitch d. Intermediate twitch ANS: B

Type 1, Red, or slow twitch fibers contain large amounts of myoglobin and mitochondria, andmany blood capillaries. Because of these characteristics, they have a deeper red color.

They contract more slowly, for longer periods of time, and take longer to fatigue.

29. Which type of athletes tend to have a high ratio of slow twitch muscles present in their

lowerextremities?

Boxers Sprinters Tennis players Marathon runners

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Marathon runners tend to have slow twitch muscles in their lower extremities compared thanother athletes.

30. Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as type 2 or white muscle? a. Fast twitch b. Slow twitch c. Moderate twitch

d. Intermediate twitch ANS: A

Type 2, white, or fast twitch fibers contain fewer myoglobin, mitochondria, and blood capillaries and are lighter in color. They contract more quickly, for shorter periods of time,and are fatigue more quickly.

31. Which term refers to contractions that cause a muscle to shorten in length while

generatingforce?

Physiologic Eccentric Isometric Concentric

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Muscles shorten during concentric contractions. Examples of concentric contractions are shortening of biceps brachii during elbow flexion or shortening of quadriceps femoris duringknee extension.

32. Which term refers to contractions that generate force while muscle length remains the

same,without movement occurring?

Isotonic Eccentric Isometric Concentric

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

During isometric contractions, muscle length remains the same and movement does not occur.Isometric contractions often occur in fixators or stabilizers because they stabilize joints so primary muscles (called agonists and synergists) can perform the desired action.

Because isometric contractions do not involve movement, they are also called static contractions.

33. Which class of levers involves the fulcrum positioned between the load and the pull? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: A

In class 1 levers, the fulcrum is positioned between the load and the pull or L – F – P. Thisarrangement resembles a seesaw or pair of scissors.

34. Which classification has parallel muscle fiber arrangement? a. Pennate b. Circular c. Fusiform d. Convergent ANS: C

Parallel muscles have fibers arranged parallel to one another and pull in one direction.

Fusiform parallel muscles are more spindle shaped and are tapered at both ends with a largercentral region or belly.

35. Which classification has muscle fibers joining at one end with fibers spreading out like a

fanat the other end?

Pennate Circular Fusiform Convergent

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Convergent muscles have fibers joining at one end and spreading out like a fan at the otherend to cover a large area allowing for more varieties of movement.

36. Which classification has muscles fibers arranged as a central tendon with muscle

fibersemerging diagonally, giving them a featherlike appearance?

Pennate Circular Fusiform Convergent

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Pennate muscles have muscle fibers emerging diagonally from one or more central tendons,giving them a featherlike appearance.

37. Which classification of muscles cause specific or desired movements? a. Fixators b. Synergists c. Antagonists d. Agonists ANS: D

Prime movers or agonists are muscles causing the desired action.

38. Which classification of muscles assist prime movers by performing the same movement at

thesame time?

Fixators Agonists Synergists Antagonists

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Synergists are muscles that assist prime movers by performing the same movement at thesame time.

39. Which classification of muscles lengthen while prime movers and their synergists contract

to pv roduce the desired action?

Fixators Agonists Synergists Antagonists

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Antagonists lengthen while prime movers and their synergists contract and shorten to producemovement. Antagonists usually lie on the opposite side of the moving joint and create the opposing action when they reverse roles with prime movers.

40. Which classification of muscles cross two joints? a. Isotonic b. Postural c. Biarticular d. Uniarticular ANS: C

Biarticular muscles cross two joints.

41. Which condition is inflammation of the synovial sheath on the radial side of the wrist? a. Fibromyalgia syndrome b. Osgood–Schlatter disease c. De Quervain tenosynovitis d. Myofascial pain syndrome ANS: C

De Quervain tenosynovitis is the most common type and involves inflammation of thesynovial sheath on the radial or thumb side of the wrist.

42. Which condition is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and joint

stiffness,restless sleep, and chronic fatigue?

Fibromyalgia syndrome Osgood–Schlatter disease De Quervain tenosynovitis Myofascial pain syndrome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) is chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and joint stiffness, restless sleep, and chronic fatigue. Individuals with FMS also experience headaches, lack of concentration, bowel dysfunction, temporomandibular disorders, and mood problems ranging from anxiety to depression.

43. Which condition is characterized by the presence of trigger points and muscular pain? a. Fibromyalgia syndrome b. Osgood–Schlatter disease c. De Quervain tenosynovitis d. Myofascial pain syndrome ANS: D

Myofascial pain syndrome (MPS) is a chronic pain disorder characterized by the presence ofmyofascial trigger points and muscular pain.

44. Which muscle is most often torn in rotator cuff tears? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Subscapularis d. Teres minor

ANS: B

Rotator cuff tears occur when one or more rotator cuff muscles is partially or completely tornfrom its attachment on the humerus; it is more common in the dominant arm. Rotator cuff muscles include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor. The rotator cuff muscle most often torn is supraspinatus.

45. Which condition is chronic inflammation of the fascia on the bottom of the foot? a. Tendinitis b. Torticollis c. Shin splints d. Plantar fasciitis ANS: D

Plantar fasciitis is chronic inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue on the bv ottom of the foot which connects the calcaneus (heel bone) to the toes.

46. Which condition is characterized pain along the medial tibia? a. Tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Shin splints d. Plantar fasciitis ANS: C

Shin splints are pain along the medial tibia or shin bone. This condition is often bilateral andis more common among people who participate in sports and exercises of running and jumping such as runners, dancers, and military recruits.

47. Which condition occurs when muscles or tendons become overstretched or torn? a. Strain b. Sprain c. Tendinitis d. Tenosynovitis ANS: A

A strain is an injury caused by an overstretched or torn muscle and/or tendon. The most common locations for strains are the hands, thighs (hamstrings), and lower back. Strains arealso called pulled muscles.

48. Which condition is inflammation of a tendon? a. Strain b. Sprain c. Tendinitis d. Torticollis ANS: C

Tendinitis is inflammation of a tendon(s). Tendinitis is also called tendonitis. Tendinosis isoften mislabeled as tendinitis, but inflammation is not present in tendinosis.

49. Which term refers to a group of disorders involving spasms of sternocleidomastoid? a. Strain b. Sprain c. Tendinitis

d. Torticollis ANS: D

Torticollis is a group of disorders involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

This causes the head to turn and tilt to one side. Other muscles, such as the trapezius, and spleniusmuscles, also may be involved.

50. Which condition is a strain of the cervical spine, most commonly at the junction of fourth

andfifth cervical vertebrae?

Whiplash Shin splints Plantar fasciitis De Quervain tenosynovitis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Whiplash-associated disorder (WAD) is collective term describing neck injuries caused by rapid forceful back-and-forth movements of the cervical spine, similar to cracking a whip.

Themost commonly injured neck area is the junction between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae.

Chapter 21: Kinesiology Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is a protuberance on a bone? a. Prominent prolongation b. Elongated projection c. Knoblike protrusion d. Sharp, slender projection ANS: C

A protuberance is a knoblike protrusion from a bone. Example: occipital protuberance.

2. Which bony marking is found only on the femur? a. Trochanter b. Condyle c. Malleolus d. Ramus ANS: A

A trochanter is a large, rounded projection found only on the femur. Examples: greatertrochanter and lesser trochanter.

3. What does fossa mean? a. Hole b. Cavity c. Linear depression d. Shallow depression ANS: D

A fossa is a shallow depression. Examples: subscapular fossa and iliac fossa.

4. While bony marking is a hole? a. Obturator foramen b. Lateral malleolus c. Costal facet d. Sciatic notch ANS: A

A foramen is an opening through a bone and usually serves as a passage for blood vessels,nerves, or ligaments. Examples: obturator foramen and foramen magnum.

5. Which term means a sharp, slender projection from a bone? a. Ridge b. Spine c. Trochanter d. Condyle ANS: B

A spine is a sharp, slender projection from a bone. Examples: scapular spine and iliac spine.

extra per year?

Chapter 21: Kinesiology Salvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of human motion? a. Anatomy b. Oncology c. Physiology d. Kinesiology ANS: D

Kinesiology is the study of human motion.

2. Which bone is in the upper extremity? a. Ilium b. Tibia c. Radius d. Temporal ANS: C

The radius is a bone of the upper extremity.

3. Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the upper extremity? a. Sternoclavicular b. Scapulohumeral c. Acromioclavicular d. Glenohumeral ANS: A

In the sternoclavicular (SC) joints, the medial end of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum near the base of the neck at the SC joint. The SC joints are the onlyjoints connecting the upper extremities to the axial skeleton.

4. Injury to the acromioclavicular joint would involve which end of the clavicle? a. Medial b. Superior c. Lateral d. Anterior ANS: C

An injury to the acromioclavicular joint would be located at the lateral end of the clavicle.

Inthe acromioclavicular (AC) joints, the acromion process of the scapula articulates with the lateral end of the clavicle.

5. Which bone is most commonly fractured in the body? a. Scapula b. Clavicle c. Humerus d. Sternum

extra per year?

ANS: B

The clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone in the body.

6. What are the bones of the shoulder girdle? a. Femur and tibia b. Radius and ulna c. Sacrum and pelvis d. Clavicle and scapula ANS: D

The clavicle and the scapula make up the shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle.

7. Which joint is located at the medial end of the clavicle? a. Sternocostal b. Costochondral c. Sternoclavicular d. Acromioclavicular ANS: C

In the sternoclavicular (SC) joints, the medial end of the clavicle articulates with themanubrium of the sternum near the base of the neck at the SC joint.

8. Which bone contains the acromion process? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Scapula d. Clavicle ANS: C

The scapula contains the acromion process.

9. Which bone articulates with the clavicle and the humerus? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Scapula d. Metacarpal ANS: C

The scapula articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint, or AC joint, and withthe humerus at the glenohumeral joint or shoulder joint.

10. What is the scientific name for the shoulder joint? a. Radiocarpal joint b. Glenohumeral joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Acromioclavicular joint ANS: B

The glenohumeral joint is the shoulder joint. The glenoid cavity of the scapula articulates withthe humeral head at the glenohumeral joint.

11. Which bone contains the deltoid tuberosity?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

Ulna Scapula Clavicle Humerus

ANS: D

The deltoid tuberosity is located on the humerus.

12. Which joint do the humeroradial joint and the humeroulnar joint form? a. Wrist b. Elbow c. Knuckle d. Shoulder ANS: B

The elbow joints are a 3-bone articulation between the humerus of the arm and the radius and ulna of the forearm. The humeroulnar joint is between the distal medial end of the humerus and the proximal end of the ulna. The humeroradial joint is between the distal lateral end of the humerus and the proximal end of the radius.

13. Which bone is in the medial forearm? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Humerus d. Scaphoid ANS: A

The ulna is the medial forearm bone.

14. Which bone contains the olecranon process? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Scapula d. Clavicle ANS: A

The ulna contains the olecranon process.

15. Which bone is in the lateral forearm? a. Ulna b. Humerus c. Radius d. Pisiform ANS: C

The radius is the lateral forearm bone.

16. Which joint allows supination and pronation? a. Radioulnar joint b. Humeroulnar joint c. Humeroradial joint

extra per year?

d. Sternoclavicular joint ANS: A

The proximal radioulnar joint is distal to the elbow and the distal radioulnar joint is proximalto the wrist. Both radioulnar joints are pivot joints, allowing the forearm to pronate (turn down) and supinate (turn up) (i.e., rotation of the radius over the ulna).

17. During supination and pronation, the radius rotates over which bone? a. Ulna b. Scapula c. Clavicle d. Humerus ANS: A

Both radioulnar joints are pivot joints, allowing the forearm to pronate (turn down) andsupinate (turn up) (i.e., rotation of the radius over the ulna).

18. Which term is collective for the wrist bones? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: B

The carpal bones are the wrist bones. Eight carpal bones in each wrist are bound by ligamentsand arranged in two rows, a proximal and a distal row.

19. Each wrist contains how many carpal bones? a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14 ANS: B

The carpal bones are the wrist bones. Eight carpal bones in each wrist are bound by ligamentsand arranged in two rows, a proximal and a distal row.

20. Which bone is a carpal? a. Hyoid b. Xiphoid c. Pisiform d. Cuneiform ANS: C

Eight carpal bones in each wrist are bound by ligaments and arranged in two rows, a proximaland a distal row. Bones in the proximal row are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform(lateral to medial). Bones in the distal row are the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate (lateral to medial).

21. Which bones articulate with the radius and the metacarpals? a. Tarsals b. Carpals

extra per year?

c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: B

The carpals articulate with the radius at the radiocarpal joint or wrist joint and with themetacarpals at the carpometacarpal joints, or CMC joints.

22. What is the scientific name for the wrist joint? a. Radiocarpal joint b. Glenohumeral joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Acromioclavicular joint ANS: A

The distal ends of the radius in the forearm articulate with the proximal carpal bones in thewrist at the radiocarpal joints.

23. Which structure forms one of the sides of the carpal tunnel? a. Nuchal ligament b. Extensor retinaculum c. Sacrotuberous ligament d. Flexor retinaculum ANS: D

The carpal tunnel is a tunnel surrounded on three sides by carpal bones and on one side by the transverse carpal ligament or flexor retinaculum, also called the anterior annular ligament.

24. Which bones are located in each hand and numbered I through V? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: D

The metacarpals are in each hand and are numbered I through V starting with the thumb(metacarpal I) to the little finger (metacarpal V).

25. Each hand contains how many phalanges? a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14 ANS: D

Each hand contains 14 phalanges. Each finger has three phalanges, and the thumb has two.

26. At which joints do the proximal phalanges in the fingers articulate with the middle phalanges? a. Carpometacarpal b. Metatarsophalangeal c. Distal interphalangeal d. Proximal interphalangeal

extra per year?

ANS: D

The distal ends of the proximal phalanges in the fingers articulate with their middle phalangesat the proximal interphalangeal joints, or PIP joints.

27. Which bone is in the lower extremity? a. Ulna b. Tibia c. Radius d. Humerus ANS: B

The tibia is a bone of the lower extremity.

28. Which three bones are fused to form the pelvis? a. Ilium, ischium, and pubis b. Sacrum, pubis, and femur c. Ischium, patella, and calcaneus d. Pubis, patella, and lateral pterygoid ANS: A

Each pelvic bone consists of three paired fused bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.

29. What is the scientific name for the hip socket? a. Ganglion b. Acromion c. Olecranon d. Acetabulum ANS: D

The acetabulum or acetabular cavity is the deep hip socket made from portions of all three pelvic bones. The acetabulum articulates with the femoral head at the acetabulofemoral jointor hip joint.

30. What is the scientific name for the hip joint? a. Sacroiliac joint b. Talocrural joint c. Tibiofemoral joint d. Acetabulofemoral joint ANS: D

The acetabulum articulates with the femoral head at the acetabulofemoral joint or hip joint.

31. Which term describes the position of the pelvis as it rests on the femurs? a. Pelvic tilt b. Plantar flexion c. Planar obliquity d. Pelvic stabilization ANS: A

The pelvis can assume several positions as it rests on the femurs. Most positions are describedbv y their direction of tilt.

extra per year?

32. Which section is the superior pelvic bone? a. Pubis b. Ilium c. Sacrum d. Ischium ANS: B

The ilium bones are the most superior pelvic bones and resemble a broad, expanding blade.

33. Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the lower extremity? a. Sacroiliac b. Talocrural c. Patellofemoral d. Acetabulofemoral ANS: A

The sacrum of the spine articulates with the right and left ilia of the pelvis at the sacroiliac(SI) joints. The SI joints are the only joints connecting the lower extremities to the axial skeleton.

34. Which bone is also called the sitz bone because correct seated posture involves resting

theweight of the upper body on one of its bony markings? a. Pubis b. Ilium c. Sacrum d. Ischium ANS: D

The ischium bones are the most inferior and posterior pelvic bones. These bones are the sitz bones because correct seated posture involves resting the weight of the upper body on this bone (the ischial tuberosities), rather than on the sacrum and coccyx (part of the pelvic spine).

35. What are the attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament? a. Ischial spine to the sacrum b. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity c. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter d. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter ANS: B

The sacrotuberous ligament is a triangular-shaped ligament extending from the ischialtuberosity to the sacrum and provides pelvic stability.

36. What is the longest bone in the body? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Ischium ANS: C

The femur is the thigh bone and the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body.

37. What is the scientific name for the knee joint?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

Sacroiliac joint Talocrural joint Tibiofemoral joint Acetabulofemoral joint

ANS: C

The tibiofemoral joint is the scientific name for the knee joint. The distal end of the femur ofthe thigh articulates with the tibia of the leg at the tibiofemoral joint.

38. Which term refers to a half-ringed fibrocartilage disk inside the knee? a. Labium b. Meniscus c. Cruciate d. Innominate ANS: B

The half-ringed fibrocartilage/articular discs on the proximal ends of the tibia are called themedial and lateral meniscus.

39. Which knee ligament is often torn during knee injuries? a. Tibial collateral b. Anterior cruciate c. Fibular collateral d. Posterior cruciate ANS: B

The anterior cruciate ligament, or ACL, is toward the front of the knee and helps preventanterior or forward motion of the tibia. The ACL is often torn during knee injuries.

40. Which ligament connects the kneecap to the tibial tuberosity? a. Patellar b. Cruciate c. Annular d. Collateral ANS: A

The patellar ligament connects the kneecap to the tibial tuberosity.

41. Which bone is also called the kneecap? a. Talus b. Patella c. Sacrum d. Calcaneus ANS: B

The patella is the kneecap and the largest sesamoid bone in the body.

42. Which bone is the medial leg bone? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Patella

ANS: A

The tibia is the medial leg bone.

43. Which bony markings are located at the distal ends of the tibia and fibula? a. Malleoli b. Foramina c. Epicondyles d. Tuberosities ANS: A

The medial malleolus is located at the distal end of the tibia, and the lateral malleolus islocated at the distal end of the fibula.

44. Which bone articulates with the tibia and the talus? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Patella ANS: B

The fibula articulates with the tibia and with the talus at the talocrural joint or ankle joint.

45. What is the scientific name for the ankle joint? a. Sacroiliac joint b. Talocrural joint c. Tibiofemoral joint d. Acetabulofemoral joint ANS: B

The talus of the foot articulates with the distal ends of the tibia and fibula of the leg at thetalocrural joint.

46. Which bone is a tarsal? a. Hamate b. Pisiform c. Scaphoid d. Navicular ANS: D

The seven tarsal bones are the talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, the medial, intermediate,and lateral cuneiforms.

47. Which bone is the heel? a. Cuboid b. Navicular c. Calcaneus d. Cuneiform ANS: C

The calcaneus is the heel bone.

48. How many tarsal bones does each foot contain?

a. b. c. d.

5 7 12 14

ANS: B

The seven tarsal bones are the talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, the medial, intermediate,and lateral cuneiforms.

49. Which arch is located on the inner edge of the foot? a. Metatarsal b. Transverse c. Lateral longitudinal d. Medial longitudinal ANS: D

The foot has three arches: two longitudinal (medial and lateral) arches and one anterior transverse arch. The medial arch is the higher of the two longitudinal arches and found on theinner edge of the foot.

50. Which bones are located in each foot and numbered I through V? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: C

The metatarsals are in the distal foot and numbered I through V starting with the great toe(metatarsal I) to the little toe (metatarsal V).

51. At which joints do the middle phalanges in the toes articulate with the distal phalanges? a. Carpometacarpal b. Metatarsophalangeal c. Distal interphalangeal d. Proximal interphalangeal ANS: C

The middle phalanges of the foot articulate with the distal phalanges at the distalinterphalangeal joints, or DIP joints.

52. Which bone contains the mastoid process? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Sphenoid d. Temporal ANS: D

The mastoid process is on the temporal bone.

53. Where is the sphenoid bone located? a. Foot b. Skull

extra per year?

c. Hand d. Wrist ANS: B

The sphenoid bone is located in the skull.

54. Which bone contains the sella turcica? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Sphenoid d. Temporal ANS: C

The sella turcica is in the sphenoid bone.

55. Which bone is the forehead? a. Temporal b. Parietal c. Occipital d. Frontal ANS: D

The cranial bones are the frontal bone (or forehead), two parietal bones, two temporal bones,the ethmoid bone, the sphenoid bone, and the occipital bone.

56. Which suture is located between the two parietal bones? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Squamosal d. Lambdoidal ANS: A

The sagittal suture is between the two parietal bones.

57. Which joint is bilateral and contains an articular disk similar to the meniscus of the knee? a. Atlantoaxial b. Zygapophyseal c. Atlantooccipital d. Temporomandibular ANS: D

The temporal bones of the skull articulate with the mandible of the jaw at the temporomandibular (TMJ) joint. This bilateral joint functions as a unit and is a hinge joint anda gliding joint. TMJ is one of the few synovial joints with an articular disc—the other being the knee and sacroiliac joints.

58. Which joint is between the skull and the first cervical vertebra? a. Atlantoaxial b. Zygapophyseal c. Atlantooccipital d. Temporomandibular

extra per year?

ANS: C

The atlas or C1 of the spine articulates with the occipital condyles at the base of the skull andforms the atlantooccipital joint. This gliding joint permits up-and-down or nodding movements of the head (i.e., agreement gestures).

59. Which structure is the zygomatic arch? a. Jaw b. Chin c. Forehead d. Cheekbone ANS: D

The zygomatic arch (cheekbone) is the palpable bony arch on the outer border of the eye sockets formed by the union of two processes; the temporal process of the zygomatic boneand the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.

60. Which structure is formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the

zygomaticpv rocess of the temporal bone?

Temporal fossa Zygomatic arch Anterior fontanel Foramen magnum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The zygomatic arch (cheekbone) is the palpable bony arch on the outer border of the eye sockets formed by the union of two processes; the temporal process of the zygomatic boneand the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.

61. Which bone is suspended from the styloid process of the temporal bone by ligaments and

doesnot articulate directly with any other bone?

Hyoid Xiphoid Pisiform Cuneiform

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The hyoid does not articulate directly with any other bone; it is suspended by ligamentsoriginating from the styloid process of the temporal bone.

62. How are ribs 1 through 7 classified? a. True ribs b. False ribs c. Floating ribs d. Tangent ribs ANS: A

Ribs can be classified as true ribs or false ribs. True ribs (ribs 1-7) connect anteriorly to thesternum.

63. Which joint is located between a rib and a thoracic vertebra? a. Atlantoaxial b. Costovertebral

extra per year?

c. Zygapophyseal d. Atlantooccipital ANS: B

Ribs articulate posteriorly with the thoracic vertebrae at the costovertebral joints.

64. Which bone contains the manubrium and the xiphoid process? a. Atlas b. Hyoid c. Sacrum d. Sternum ANS: D

The sternum contains three regions: manubrium, sternal body, and xiphoid process.

65. Which ligament connects each vertebra and is located on the posterior aspect of the

vertebralcolumn?

Deltoid Annular Supraspinous Sacrotuberous

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The supraspinous ligament is located on the posterior vertebral column and connects eachvertebra via the spinous processes.

66. Which ligament extends from the occipital bone at the external occipital protuberance to

the pv osterior aspect of all cervical vertebrae? a. Nuchal b. Deltoid c. Sacrotuberous d. Transverse carpal ANS: A

The nuchal ligament extends from the external occipital protuberance to C7 and connects allcervical vertebrae via their spinous processes. The nuchal ligament is continuous with the supraspinous ligament and can be palpated when the neck is flexed.

67. Which spinal regions contains only five vertebrae? a. Lumbar region b. Cervical region c. Thoracic region d. Sacrococcygeal region ANS: A

The lumbar region contains 5 vertebrae and is in the lower back.

68. Which structure contains the annulus fibrosus and the nucleus pulposus? a. Lamina b. Vertebral body c. Intervertebral disc d. Superior articular process

extra per year?

ANS: C

Intervertebral discs are fibrocartilage discs between each vertebral body. They contain two regions: the annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus. Annulus fibrosus is the tough outer ring,and nucleus pulposus is the gel-like center.

69. Which structures can be palpated at the midline of the back and neck? a. Laminae b. Vertebral bodies c. Spinous processes d. Transverse processes ANS: C

A spinous process projects posteriorly and generally inferiorly from the posterior region of thearch. The spinous process can be palpated.

70. Which structures project laterally from most vertebral arches? a. Pedicles b. Laminae c. Spinous processes d. Transverse processes ANS: D

Two transverse processes project laterally from most vertebral arches.

71. What structures emerge from the intervertebral foramina? a. Spinal ligaments and tendons b. Spinal nerves and blood vessels c. Meninges and cerebrospinal fluid d. Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus ANS: B

Intervertebral foramina are openings between the pedicles of neighboring vertebrae allowingpv assage of spinal nerves and blood vessels.

72. Which vertebra is also called the atlas? a. C1 b. C2 c. C5 d. T1 ANS: A

The atlas (C1) is ring-shaped and lacks a vertebral body and pedicles.

73. Which vertebra contains the odontoid process? a. C1 b. C2 c. C5 d. T1 ANS: B

The axis (C2) possesses the dens (odontoid process), a bony protrusion projecting superiorly.

extra per year?

74. Which joint is located between the first and second vertebrae? a. Atlantoaxial b. Costovertebral c. Zygapophyseal d. Atlantooccipital ANS: A

The atlas or C1 articulates with the dens (odontoid process) of C2 at the atlantoaxial joint near the top of the spine. This pivot joint permits rotational, side-to-side, or shaking movements of the head (i.e., disagreement gestures).

75. Which spinal region contains demifacets on most of its vertebrae? a. Lumbar b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Sacrococcygeal ANS: C

Thoracic vertebrae have costal facets on the transverse process and costal demifacets on thesides of the vertebral bodies that function as posterior rib attachments.

76. Which bone is triangular-shaped and located between the two pelvic bones? a. Axis b. Atlas c. Hyoid d. Sacrum ANS: D

The sacrum is a triangular-shaped bone between the two pelvic bones. The sacrum representsfive fused vertebrae and contains anterior and posterior sacral foramina for the passage of sacral nerves.

77. Which joints involve the pelvis? a. Pubic symphysis, iliofemoral, sacrotuberal b. Acetabulofemoral, patellofemoral, tibiofemoral c. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, acetabulofemoral d. Sacroiliac, chondrocostal, tibiofibular ANS: C

The joints of the pelvis are the sacroiliac joints, pubic symphysis, and acetabulofemoral joints.

78. Which bone is the tailbone? a. Patella b. Coccyx c. Sacrum d. Xiphoid ANS: B

The coccyx (tailbone) is a small triangular-shaped bone at the base of the vertebral column.The coccyx represents three to five fused bones.

extra per year?

79. Which muscle has one of its origins on the external occipital protuberance? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Serratus anterior ANS: A

The origins of trapezius are the external occipital protuberance, superior nuchal line, nuchalligament, and spinous processes of C7–T12.

80. Which muscle elevates the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: A

Trapezius elevates the scapula, upwardly rotates the scapula, retracts the scapula, anddepresses the scapula.

81. Which muscle is also called the “coat hanger muscle” because clothes hang from it as if

froma coat hanger?

Trapezius Rhomboids Pectoralis minor Serratus anterior

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Trapezius is called the coat hanger muscle because clothes hang from it as if from a coathanger.

82. Which muscle has its origins on most of the cervical transverse processes? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Serratus anterior ANS: C

Levator scapulae originates on the transverse processes of C1–C4.

83. Which muscle retracts the scapula? a. Rhomboid major b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: A

Rhomboid major and minor and middle trapezius retract the scapula.

84. Which term is collective for two muscles that include a major and a minor? a. Rhomboids b. Levator scapulae

extra per year?

c. Deltoids d. Erector spinae ANS: A

Rhomboids is the collective term for rhomboid major and rhomboid minor.

85. Which muscles are also called the “Christmas tree muscle?” a. Deltoids b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Erector spinae ANS: B

The rhomboids are called the Christmas tree muscle because of their oblique fiber directionwhich resemble Christmas tree branches.

86. Which muscle does NOT attach at the medial border of the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Levator scapulae ANS: A

The trapezius does not attach on the medial border of the scapula.

87. Which muscle protracts the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Serratus anterior ANS: D

Serratus anterior protracts the scapula.

88. Which muscle is an antagonist to the rhomboids in scapular retraction? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis major ANS: C

Serratus anterior protracts the scapular and so is an antagonist to the rhomboids in scapularretraction.

89. Which muscle is also called the “boxer’s muscle” because it protracts the scapula to

help a boxer deliver a knockout punch?

Latissimus dorsi Levator scapulae Serratus anterior Pectoralis minor

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

extra per year?

Serratus anterior and triceps brachii (Lesson Six) are the boxer’s muscles because they protract the scapula and extend the elbow; movements that occur to throw a boxer’s punch.

90. Which muscle is deep to the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: C

The serratus anterior is a fan-shaped muscle on the lateral ribcage. Most of this muscle lies beneath the scapula and pectoral muscles.

91. Which muscle inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Pectoralis minor d. Serratus anterior ANS: C

Pectoralis minor inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula.

92. Which muscle is involved in “winged scapula?” a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Pectoralis minor d. Serratus anterior ANS:

D

Winged scapula occurs from serratus anterior paralysis, resulting in medial winging of thescapula.

93. Which muscle is called a “neurovascular entrapper” because it can entrap the brachial

plexusand axillary artery?

Trapezius Rhomboids Serratus anterior Pectoralis minor

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Pectoralis minor is called neurovascular entrapper because it can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery and is accentuated when it is tense; This is accentuated when the arm is hyperabducted. Entrapment may cause thoracic outlet syndromelike symptoms (pain, tingling,and numbness down the arm into the affected hand).

94. Which muscle originates on the spinous processes of T7–L5, ribs 9–12, the posterior

iliaccrest, and the posterior sacrum?

Deltoid Latissimus dorsi Pectoralis major Coracobrachialis

a. b. c. d.

extra per year?

ANS: B

Latissimus dorsi originates on the spinous processes of T7–L5, ribs 9–12, the posterior iliaccrest, and the posterior sacrum.

95. Which muscle extends the humerus? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Pectoralis minor d. Latissimus dorsi ANS: D

Latissimus dorsi extends the humerus, internally/medially rotates the humerus, and adductsthe humerus.

96. Which muscle is called the “swimmer’s muscle?” a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: C

Latissimus dorsi, or lats, is the swimmers muscle because many of its actions are involved inswimming.

97. Which muscle is the widest in the body? a. Trapezius b. Subscapularis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: C

Latissimus dorsi is the widest muscle of the body and forms the posterior axillary fold.

98. Which muscle is called “lat’s twin?” a. Teres major b. Teres minor c. Subscapularis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: A

Teres major is lat’s little helper or lat’s twin because it performs the same action as the latsand is its synergist.

99. Which muscles are the rotator cuff group? a. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, and subclavius b. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis d. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major, and supraspinatus ANS: B

The rotator cuff muscles are the teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus.

extra per year?

100. Which rotator cuff muscle does NOT originate within a fossa? a. Supraspinatus b. Teres minor c. Infraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: B

Teres minor does not originate within a fossa. It originates on the superior two thirds of thelateral border of the scapula.

101. Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the humerus? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: C

Supraspinatus abducts the humerus.

102. Which muscle is directly inferior to the scapular spine? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: B

Infraspinatus is directly inferior to the scapular spine.

103. Which muscle laterally rotates the humerus? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: A

Infraspinatus laterally rotates the humerus.

104. Which muscle is synergistic to teres minor for lateral rotation of the humerus? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: A

Teres minor and infraspinatus are synergists, and their fibers may fuse.

105. Which rotator cuff muscle is on the anterior aspect of the scapula? a. Teres major b. Subscapularis c. Infraspinatus d. Supraspinatus

extra per year?

ANS: B

Subscapularis is on the anterior aspect of the scapula.

106. Which rotator cuff muscle inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: D

Subscapularis inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus.

107. Which muscle medially rotates the humerus? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: D

Subscapularis medially rotates the humerus.

108. Which muscle is called the “frozen shoulder muscle?” a. Deltoid b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: D

Subscapularis lies on the anterior scapula and is the frozen shoulder muscle, as myofascialtriggers points may lead to shoulder immobility.

109. Which muscle is divided into anterior, middle, and posterior regions? a. Deltoid b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: A

The deltoid, or delts, can be divided into three regions performing separate actions.

Anteriordeltoid flexes and internally/medially rotates the humerus. Middle deltoid abducts the humerus. Posterior deltoid extends and externally/laterally rotates the humerus. The deltoid can be an antagonist to itself.

110. Which muscle is divided into clavicular, sternal, and costal regions? a. Deltoid b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: D

Pectoralis major, or pecs, form the anterior axillary folds (the lats form the posterior axillaryfolds). This muscle possesses clavicular, sternal, and costal regions.

extra per year?

111. Which muscles are responsible for shoulder flexion? a. Triceps brachii and serratus anterior b. Supraspinatus and posterior deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi and teres major d. Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid ANS: D

The muscles responsible for shoulder flexion are pectoralis major, anterior deltoid,coracobrachialis, and biceps brachii.

112. Which muscles form the anterior and posterior axillary folds? a. Teres major and teres minor b. Deltoid and coracobrachialis c. Infraspinatus and supraspinatus d. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi ANS: D

Pectoralis major forms the anterior axillary folds, and latissimus dorsi forms the posterioraxillary folds.

113. Excessive muscle tension in which muscle can cause angina-like pain? a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: D

Excessive muscle tension in pectoralis major may cause postural distortions, such as roundedshoulders and angina-like pain.

114. Which muscle originates on the coracoid process of the scapula? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Subscapularis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: D

Coracobrachialis originates on the coracoid process of the scapula.

115. Which landmark is an insertion of biceps brachii? a. Ulnar tuberosity b. Radial tuberosity c. Olecranon process d. Coracoid process ANS: B

Biceps brachii inserts on the radial tuberosity and the bicipital aponeurosis.

116. Which muscle supinates the forearm? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii

extra per year?

c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: A

Biceps brachii supinates the forearm and flexes the elbow.

117. Which muscle is called the corkscrew muscle because its actions are involved in

uncorking awine bottle?

Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachioradialis Coracobrachialis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Biceps brachii is called the corkscrew muscle, because two of its actions are used when opening a bottle with a corkscrew. First forearm supination unscrews the cork, then elbow flexion pulls the cork out from the bottle.

118. Which nerve innervates biceps brachii? a. Median b. Vagus c. Musculocutaneous d. Trigeminal ANS: C

Biceps brachii is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.

119. Which muscle inserts on the ulnar tuberosity and the coronoid process of the ulna? a. Anconeus b. Supinator c. Brachialis d. Brachioradialis ANS: C

Brachialis inserts on the ulnar tuberosity and the coronoid process of the ulna.

120. Which muscle is deep to biceps brachii? a. Anconeus b. Brachialis c. Pronator teres d. Coracobrachialis ANS: B

First forearm supination unscrews the cork, then elbow flexion pulls the cork out from the bv ottle.

121. Which muscle can be palpated as the fleshy prominence on the radial side of the forearm? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis

extra per year?

ANS: C

Brachioradialis can be palpated when the elbow is flexed as the fleshy prominence in the uv pper half of the lateral forearm.

122. Which muscle inserts at the styloid process of the radius? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: C

Brachioradialis inserts at the styloid process of the radius.

123. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: B

Triceps brachii inserts on the olecranon process.

124. Which muscle is also called the “boxer’s muscle” because it helps a boxer deliver a

knockoutpv unch?

Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachioradialis Coracobrachialis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Serratus anterior and triceps brachii (Lesson Six) are the boxer’s muscles because they protract the scapula and extend the elbow; movements that occur to throw a boxer’s punch.

125. Which muscle extends the elbow? a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: A

Triceps brachii extends the elbow.

126. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process? a. Anconeus b. Brachialis c. Pronator teres d. Palmaris longus ANS: A

Anconeus inserts on the olecranon process and the superior eighth of the posterior ulnar shaft.

127. Which region contains anconeus?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

Hip Knee Elbow Shoulder

ANS: C

Anconeus is located in the elbow region.

128. Which muscle pronates the forearm and flexes the elbow? a. Brachialis b. Pronator teres c. Biceps brachii d. Supinator ANS: B

Pronator teres pronates the forearm and flexes the elbow.

129. The common flexor tendon attaches to which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: B

The common flexor tendon attaches to the medial epicondyle of the humerus.

130. Which muscle pronates the forearm? a. Supinator b. Anconeus c. Triceps brachii d. Pronator quadratus ANS: D

Pronator quadratus pronates the forearm.

131. Which muscle supinates the forearm? a. Supinator b. Anconeus c. Triceps brachii d. Pronator quadratus ANS: A

Supinator supinates the forearm.

132. Where do most flexors of the wrist originate? a. Radial tuberosity b. Deltoid tuberosity c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Medial epicondyle of the humerus ANS: D

extra per year?

Most flexors of the wrist originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus via the commonflexor tendon.

133. Which muscle is located on the anterior side of the forearm? a. Extensor digitorum b. Extensor carpi ulnaris c. Abductor pollicus longus d. Flexor digitorum superficialis ANS: D

Flexor digitorum superficialis is located on the anterior side of the forearm.

134. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation associated with which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: B

Medial epicondylitis (or golfer’s elbow) can occur with forceful repetitive flexion of the wrist.

135. Which structure is between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis? a. Radial pulse b. Thenar eminence c. Anatomic snuffbox d. Hypothenar eminence ANS: A

The radial pulse is between the tendons of flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis.

136. Which muscle flexes the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Flexor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: B

Flexor carpi ulnaris flexes the wrist.

137. Which muscle abducts the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Flexor carpi radialis c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: B

Flexor carpi radialis abducts the wrist.

138. The common extensor tendon is on which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus

extra per year?

d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: C

The common extensor tendon is on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

139. Tennis elbow is inflammation associated with which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: C

Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) can occur with forceful repetitive extension of the wrist.

140. Which muscle extends the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Palmaris longus c. Opponens pollicus d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: D

Extensor carpi ulnaris extends and adducts the wrist.

141. Which muscle adducts the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Flexor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: D

Extensor carpi ulnaris extends and adducts the wrist.

142. Which muscle extends the little finger? a. Extensor indicus b. Extensor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor digiti minimi d. Extensor pollicis longus ANS: C

Extensor digiti minimi extends the little finger.

143. Which muscle extends the index finger? a. Palmaris longus b. Extensor indicis c. Opponens pollicis d. Abductor digiti minimi ANS: B

Extensor indicis extends the index finger.

144. Which structure is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor

pollicisbv revis, and abductor pollicis longus?

a. Radial pulse

extra per year?

b. Thenar eminence c. Anatomic snuffbox d. Hypothenar eminence ANS: C

The anatomic snuffbox is a triangular depression on the dorsum of the hand at the base of thethumb. It is formed medially by tendons of extensor pollicis longus, and laterally by tendonsof extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus. The name “anatomic snuffbox” was derived by using it as placement for snuff (powdered tobacco) before it was inhaled through the nose.

145. Which area is the fleshy bulge at the base of the thumb, and is formed by flexor

pollicisbv revis, opponens pollicis, and abductor pollicis brevis?

Radial pulse Thenar eminence Anatomic snuffbox Hypothenar eminence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The thenar eminence (thumb pad) is the fleshy bulge at the base of the thumb formed byflexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and abductor pollicis brevis.

146. Which area is the fleshy bulge at the base of the little finger, and is formed by flexor

digitiminimi, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi?

Radial pulse Thenar eminence Anatomic snuffbox Hypothenar eminence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The hypothenar eminence is the fleshy bulge at the base of the fifth digit (little finger) formedbv y flexor digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi.

147. Which muscle originates on the transverses processes of the lumbar vertebrae? a. Iliacus b. Adductor brevis c. Piriformis d. Psoas major ANS: D

Psoas major originates on the transverse processes of T12–L5 (anterior surface), the vertebralbv odies of T12–L5, and the intervertebral disks of lumbar vertebrae.

148. Which muscle flexes the hip? a. Psoas major b. Semitendinosus c. Gluteus maximus d. Semimembranosus ANS: A

Psoas major flexes the hip.

extra per year?

149. Which muscle merges with iliacus to attach on the lesser trochanter? a. Gracilis b. Piriformis c. Psoas major d. Tensor fascia latae ANS: C

Iliopsoas consists of psoas major and iliacus. These muscles merge in the thigh to attach onthe lesser trochanter.

150. Which muscle originates on the iliac fossa? a. Iliacus b. Pectineus c. Piriformis d. Gracilis ANS: A

Iliacus originates on the iliac fossa.

151. Which muscle inserts on the lesser trochanter? a. Gracilis b. Iliopsoas c. Sartorius d. Pectineus ANS: B

Iliopsoas consists of psoas major and iliacus. These muscles merge in the thigh to attach onthe lesser trochanter.

152. Which muscle is a synergist to iliopsoas? a. Piriformis b. Rectus femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus maximus ANS: B

Rectus femoris is a synergist to iliopsoas for hip flexion.

153. Which muscle is the largest lateral rotator of the hip? a. Piriformis b. Pectineus c. Obturator internus d. Quadratus femoris ANS: A

Piriformis is the largest lateral rotator of the hip.

154. Approximately 15% of the population has part or all of the sciatic nerve running

throughwhich muscle?

a. Gracilis b. Sartorius c. Pectineus

extra per year?

d. Piriformis ANS: D

In approximately 15% of the population, all or part of the sciatic nerve passes through pv iriformis.

155. What is the origin of piriformis? a. Ischial ramus b. Anterior sacrum c. Anterior superior iliac spine d. Posterior superior iliac spine ANS: B

Piriformis originates on the anterior sacrum.

156. Which muscle is synergistic to piriformis? a. Rectus femoris b. Semitendinosus c. Gluteus maximus d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: C

Gluteus maximus is synergistic to piriformis; both externally/laterally rotate and abduct thehip.

157. Which muscle inserts on the greater trochanter? a. Rectus femoris b. Tensor fascia latae c. Obturator externus d. Adductor longus ANS: C

Obturator externus inserts on the greater trochanter.

158. Which muscle is NOT one of the lateral hip rotators? a. Tensor fascia latae b. Gemellus superior c. Quadratus femoris d. Obturator externus ANS: A

The tensor fascia latae is NOT one of the lateral hip rotators; it internally/medially rotates thehip.

159. Which muscle originates on the posterior sacrum, the posterior coccyx, and the posterior

iliaccrest?

Piriformis Rectus femoris Semitendinosus Gluteus maximus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

extra per year?

Gluteus maximus originates on the posterior sacrum, posterior coccyx, posterior iliac crest,and the external ilium to the posterior gluteal line.

160. Which muscle is the strongest extensor of the hip? a. Iliacus b. Psoas major c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus ANS: D

Gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor and is one of the strongest muscles in the body.

161. Which structure does 75% of the fibers of gluteus maximus insert into? a. Iliotibial band b. Achilles tendon c. Nuchal ligament d. Galea aponeurotica ANS: A

Seventy-five percent of gluteus maximus’ fibers insert into the iliotibial band, or ITB. 162. Which muscle does 25% of the fibers of gluteus maximus insert onto? a. Rectus femoris b. Gluteus medius c. Gluteus maximus d. Obturator externus ANS: C

Twenty-five percent of gluteus maximus’ fibers insert on the gluteal tuberosity.

163. Which structure is a thickened fascial strip located on the lateral thigh? a. Linea aspera b. Iliotibial band c. Galea aponeurotica d. Sacrotuberous ligament ANS: B

The iliotibial band (iliotibial tract) is a thickened band of the fascia lata on the lateral thigh.

The fascia lata is a deep fascial structure surrounding the thigh like a tight stocking, and formsthe outer regions of several fascial compartments.

164. Which muscle is synergistic to gluteus medius? a. Gracilis b. Rectus femoris c. Biceps femoris d. Gluteus minimus ANS: D

Gluteus minimus is synergistic to gluteus medius. Both abduct, internally/medially rotate, andexternally/laterally rotate the hip, and anteriorly and posteriorly tilt the pelvis.

165. Which muscle originates on the anterior superior iliac spine?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

Psoas major Rectus femoris Gluteus maximus Tensor fascia latae

ANS: D

Tensor fascia latae originates on the anterior iliac crest and the anterior superior iliac spine(ASIS).

166. Where does tensor fascia latae insert? a. Linea aspera b. Iliotibial band c. Galea aponeurotica d. Sacrotuberous ligament ANS: B

Tensor fascia latae inserts into the ilitibial band (ITB).

167. Which muscle adducts the hip? a. Gracilis b. Iliopsoas c. Piriformis d. Gastrocnemius ANS: A

Gracilis adducts the hip.

168. Which muscle is the most medial adductor of the hip? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus c. Adductor longus d. Adductor magnus ANS: A

Gracilis is the most medial adductor, the only adductor crossing the hip and knee, and is partof the pes anserinus.

169. Which muscle crosses both the hip and the knee? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus c. Vastus lateralis d. Gluteus maximus ANS: A

Gracilis is the most medial adductor, the only adductor crossing the hip and knee, and is partof the pes anserinus.

170. The pes anserinus refers to which area? a. Ligament attaching to the calcaneus b. Conjoined tendons of three muscles c. Thickened fascial band located on the lateral thigh d. Facial layers connecting the abdominal oblique muscles

extra per year?

ANS: B

The pes anserinus is the where conjoined tendons of three muscles attach to the medial pv roximal tibial shaft—gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius.

171. Which muscles make up the pes anserinus? a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris b. Brachialis, trapezius, and rhomboids c. Gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius d. Adductor longus, pectineus, and sartorius ANS: C

The pes anserinus is the where conjoined tendons of three muscles attach to the medial pv roximal tibial shaft—gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius.

172. Which muscle has one of its origins on the ischial tuberosity? a. Gracilis b. Sartorius c. Vastus medialis d. Adductor magnus ANS: D

Adductor magnus originates on the ischial tuberosity, inferior pubic ramus, and the ischialramus.

173. Which muscle contains a gap called the adductor hiatus? a. Gracilis b. Pectinues c. Adductor longus d. Adductor magnus ANS: D

Adductor magnus is a large triangular muscle deep to the hamstrings. It contains two sectionswith a gap between them—one section attaches on the linea aspera, and the other on the adductor tubercle. The gap, or adductor hiatus, allows passage of blood vessels from the anterior thigh to the posterior thigh and toward the popliteal fossa (shallow depression behindthe knee).

174. Which muscle inserts on the adductor tubercle of the femur? a. Gracilis b. Adductor brevis c. Adductor magnus d. Semimembranosus ANS: C

Adductor magnus inserts on the adductor tubercle of the femur and the medial lip of the lineaaspera.

175. Which adductor muscle is sometimes considered part of the hamstrings because of

thecommon origin of ischial tuberosity and its common action of hip extension? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus

extra per year?

c. Adductor brevis d. Adductor magnus ANS: D

Adductor magnus is sometimes considered part of the hamstrings because of the commonorigin of ischial tuberosity and its common action of hip extension.

176. Which muscle inserts on the linea aspera? a. Gracilis b. Rectus femoris c. Iliopsoas d. Adductor longus ANS: D

Adductor longus inserts on the middle third of the linea aspera (medial lip).

177. What is the common insertion of quadriceps femoris? a. Tibial tuberosity b. Ischial tuberosity c. Medial malleolus d. Greater trochanter ANS: A

Quadriceps femoris (quads) insert on the tibial tuberosity via the patella, where the quadricepstendon becomes part of the patellar ligament.

178. Which muscle is part of the quadriceps femoris? a. Biceps femoris b. Vastus medialis c. Adductor magnus d. Semimembranosus ANS: B

Quadriceps femoris (quads) is group of four muscles which include rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis. These muscles are on the anterolateral thigh and largelyextend the knee.

179. Which quadriceps muscle originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: A

Rectus femoris originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and the external ilium justsuperior to the acetabulum.

180. Which muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee? a. Piriformis b. Rectus femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus maximus

extra per year?

ANS: B

Rectus femoris flexes the hip and extends the knee.

181. Which quadriceps muscle crosses both the hip and the knee? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: A

Rectus femoris is in a channel formed by the three vasti muscles and is the only quad musclecrossing two joints—the hip and knee.

182. Which quadriceps muscle is called the teardrop muscle because of its shape on the

anteriorthigh? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: C

Vastus medialis is called the teardrop muscle because of its teardrop shape on the medialanterior thigh.

183. Which quadriceps muscle originates on the gluteal tuberosity? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: B

Vastus lateralis originates on the gluteal tuberosity and the linea aspera (lateral lip).

184. Which muscle group opposes knee flexion? a. Quadriceps b. Rotators c. Hamstrings d. Adductors ANS: A

The hamstrings perform knee flexion, which means that the quadriceps group opposes orresists knee flexion. The quadriceps group performs knee extension.

185. Which muscle originates on the anterior superior iliac spine? a. Pectineus b. Sartorius c. Vastus lateralis d. Rectus femoris ANS: B

Sartorius originates on the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

extra per year?

186. Which muscle is part of the pes anserinus? a. Pectineus b. Sartorius c. Vastus medialis d. Rectus femoris ANS: B

The pes anserinus is the where conjoined tendons of three muscles attach to the medial pv roximal tibial shaft—gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius.

187. Which muscle is called the tailor’s muscle because its actions allow tailors to sit cross-

leggedwhile sewing?

Gracilis Sartorius Rectus femoris Biceps femoris

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Actions of sartorius—hip flexion, abduction, external (lateral) rotation, and knee flexion—allow us to sit cross-legged. Sartorius is the tailor’s muscle because this is the pv osition tailors once sat as they sewed.

188. Which muscle is the longest in the body? a. Sartorius b. Pectineus c. Palmaris longus d. Adductor longus ANS: A

Sartorius is the longest muscle in the body and lies obliquely over the thigh, crossing both thehip and the knee.

189. Which muscle is called the key that unlocks the knee because it unlocks an extended knee

and bv egins the first few degrees of flexion?

Popliteus Pectineus Sartorius Piriformis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Popliteus is called the key that unlocks the knee because it unlocks an extended knee and begins the first few degrees of flexion.

190. Which muscle is NOT in the hamstring group? a. Gracilis b. Biceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus ANS: A

Gracilis is part of the adductor muscle group. Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, andsemitendinosus are all hamstring muscles.

extra per year?

191. What is the common origin of the hamstring muscles? a. Tibial tuberosity b. Ischial tuberosity c. Medial malleolus d. Greater trochanter ANS: B

All the hamstring muscles originate on the ischial tuberosity.

192. Which muscle is the most medial hamstring? a. Gracilis b. Biceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus ANS: D

Semimembranosus is the most medial hamstring muscle.

193. Which muscle is part of the pes anserinus? a. Pectineus b. Piriformis c. Rectus femoris d. Semitendinosus ANS: D

The pes anserinus is the where conjoined tendons of three muscles attach to the medial pv roximal tibial shaft—gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius.

194. Which muscle inserts on the fibula? a. Biceps femoris b. Rectus femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus ANS: A

Biceps femoris inserts on the fibular head.

195. Which actions does biceps femoris perform? a. Hip flexion and knee extension b. Hip extension and knee flexion c. Shoulder extension and elbow flexion d. Shoulder flexion and elbow extension ANS: B

Biceps femoris performs knee flexion, hip extension, and external/lateral rotation of the knee(when the knee is flexed).

196. Which muscle is a synergist to the biceps femoris? a. Rectus femoris b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior

extra per year?

d. Peroneus longus ANS: B

Gastrocnemius is synergistic to biceps femoris. They both perform knee flexion.

197. What is the common insertion of gastrocnemius, plantaris, and soleus? a. Patellar tendon b. Annular tendon c. Achilles tendon d. Extensor tendon ANS: C

Gastrocnemius, plantaris, and soleus insert on the calcaneus via the Achilles tendon.

198. Which muscle inserts on metatarsal I? a. Plantaris b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Extensor hallucis longus ANS: C

Tibialis anterior inserts on metatarsal I and the medial cuneiform.

199. Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle? a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: C

Tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the ankle and inverts the foot.

200. Which muscle inverts the foot? a. Fibularis longus b. Plantaris c. Gastrocnemius d. Tibialis anterior ANS: D

Tibialis anterior inverts the foot and dorsiflexes the ankle.

201. Which muscle extends digits II–V? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor digitorum longus d. Extensor digitorum longus ANS: D

Extensor digitorum longus extends digits II–V. 202. Which muscle extends the great toe? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior

extra per year?

c. Flexor hallucis longus d. Extensor hallucis longus ANS: D

Extensor hallucis longus extends the great toe and dorsiflexes the ankle.

203. Which muscle originates on the fibular head? a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Fibularis brevis d. Fibularis longus ANS: D

Fibularis longus originates on the fibular head and the lateral proximal half of the fibularshaft.

204. Which muscle everts the foot? a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: D

Fibularis longus everts the foot and plantarflexes the ankle.

205. Which muscles are called the stirrup muscles? a. Soleus and plantaris b. Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis c. Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus d. Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus ANS: C

Fibularis longus and tibialis anterior are the stirrup muscles, as both their tendons attach to themedial cuneiform and first metatarsal, forming a stirrup or sling under the foot.

206. Which muscle inserts on metatarsal V? a. Tibialis posterior b. Fibularis brevis c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: B

Fibularis brevis inserts on metatarsal V. 207. Which muscle originates on the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur? a. Soleus b. Tibialis posterior c. Gastrocnemius d. Tibialis anterior ANS: C

Gastrocnemius originates on the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur.

extra per year?

208. Which muscle plantarflexes the ankle? a. Gastrocnemius b. Tibialis anterior c. Extensor hallucis longus d. Extensor digitorum longus ANS: A

Gastrocnemius plantar flexes the ankle and flexes the knee.

209. Which muscle is called the toe dancer’s muscle because it helps ballerinas stand or dance

ontheir toes? a. Gastrocnemius b. Tibialis anterior c. Fibularis longus d. Fibularis brevis ANS: A

Gastrocnemius is the toe dancer’s muscle because it helps ballet dancers stand on pointe.

210. Which action does plantaris perform? a. Plantarflexion of the ankle b. Extension of the knee c. Dorsiflexion of the ankle d. Lateral rotation of the knee ANS: A

Plantaris plantarflexes the ankles and flexes the knee.

211. Which muscle is an antagonist to gastrocnemius? a. Soleus b. Plantaris c. Biceps femoris d. Tibialis anterior ANS: D

Tibialis anterior is an antagonist to gastrocnemius. Tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the ankle andgastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle.

212. Which muscle flexes digits II–V? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor digitorum longus d. Extensor digitorum longus ANS: C

Flexor digitorum longus flexes digits II–V. 213. Which muscle flexes the great toe? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor hallucis longus d. Extensor hallucis longus

extra per year?

ANS: C

Flexor hallucis longus flexes the great toe, plantarflexes the ankle, and inverts the foot.

214. Which term is a synonym for occipitofrontalis? a. Epicranius b. Pes anserinus c. Triceps surae d. Suboccipitals ANS: A

Occipitofrontalis (epicranius), covers the top of the skull and consists of two muscles—occipitalis which lies over the occipital bone and frontalis which lies over thefrontal bone.

215. Which structure is the a fibrous sheet of connective tissue on top of the cranium that

connectsoccipitalis and frontalis?

Linea aspera Rectus sheath Flexor retinaculum Galea aponeurotica

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Occipitalis and frontalis are connected by a tough fibrous sheet of connective tissue on top ofthe cranium called galea aponeurotica (epicranial aponeurosis).

216. Which muscle is called the winking muscle or blinking muscle? a. Platysma b. Orbicularis oris c. Orbicularis oculi d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: C

Orbicularis oculi is called the winking muscle or blinking muscle because it closes one or botheyelids.

217. Which muscle is called the kissing muscle because it protrudes the lips for a kiss? a. Platysma b. Orbicularis oris c. Orbicularis oculi d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: B

Orbicularis oris is called the kissing muscle because it protrudes the lips for a kiss.

218. Which muscle is called the pouting muscle? a. Platysma b. Orbicularis oris c. Orbicularis oculi d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: A

extra per year?

Platysma is called the pouting muscle because it pulls the corners of the mouth downward and backward as in pouting.

219. Which muscle inserts on the coronoid process? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Scalenus posterior d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: B

Temporalis inserts on the coronoid process.

220. Which muscles elevate the mandible? a. Temporalis and masseter b. Orbicularis oris and buccinator c. Platysma and lateral pterygoids d. Masseter and lateral pterygoids ANS: A

Temporalis and masseter, as well as medial pterygoid, elevate the mandible.

221. Which muscle is a mirror image of medial pterygoid? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Scalenus posterior d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: A

Masseter is a mirror image of the medial pterygoid.

222. Which muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibular disorder? a. Scalenes, temporalis, and pterygoids b. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis c. Temporalis, buccinator, and masseter d. Pterygoids, zygomaticus, and temporalis ANS: B

Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibulardisorder because they all move the temporomandibular joint.

223. What is a unilateral action of sternocleidomastoid? a. Neck flexion b. Neck extension c. Rotation of the head to the same side d. Rotation of the head to the opposite side ANS: D

Rotation of the head to the opposite side is a unilateral action of sternocleidomastoid.

224. Which muscle is called the praying muscle because bilateral contraction flexes the neck

to bv ring the head down in a bow often used while praying? a. Platysma

extra per year?

b. Medial pterygoid c. Splenius capitis d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: D

Sternocleidomastoid is the praying muscle because bilateral contraction flexes the neck tolower or bow the head to demonstrate respect or reverence while praying.

225. Which muscle is a mirror image of sternocleidomastoid? a. Masseter b. Platysma c. Medial pterygoid d. Splenius capitis ANS: D

Splenius capitis is a mirror image of sternocleidomastoid.

226. Which condition involves spasms of sternocleidomastoid? a. Tetanus b. Tinnitus c. Tendonitis d. Torticollis ANS: D

Torticollis (wryneck or cervical/spasmodic dystonia) occurs when SCM is in spasm.

227. Which muscles can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery? a. Scalenes and pectoralis major b. Scalenes and pectoralis minor c. Pectoralis major and subscapularis d. Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior ANS: B

Scalenes are the entrappers because tense scalenus anterior and medius can entrap the brachialpv lexus, causing thoracic outlet syndromelike symptoms (pain, tingling, and numbness down the arm into the affected hand). Pectoralis minor is the neurovascular entrapper because it canentrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery when it is tense; this is accentuated when the armis hyperabducted.

228. Which muscle inserts on rib 2? a. Splenius capitis b. Scalenus anterior c. Scalenus posterior d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: C

Scalenus posterior inserts on rib 2 (superior lateral surface).

229. Which muscles are called headache ghosts? a. Rhomboids b. Splenius capitis and cervicis c. Pectoralis minor and levator scapula

extra per year?

d. Suboccipitals ANS: D

Suboccipitals are called headache ghosts because their referred pain patterns are “ghostly” andmay radiate from the base of the skull through the head to behind the eyes.

230. Which term is collective rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor,

obliquecapitis inferior, and oblique capitis superior?

Rotators Quadriceps Rhomboids Suboccipitals

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The suboccipitals include the rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor,oblique capitis inferior, and oblique capitis superior.

231. Which muscle lies within the rectus sheath? a. Rectus femoris b. Rectus abdominis c. Quadratus femoris d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: B

The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal muscles and enclosesthe rectus abdominis.

232. Which structure connects the left and right rectus abdominis muscles? a. Linea alba b. Linea aspera c. Rectus sheath d. Galea aponeurotica ANS: A

The linea alba is a fibrous structure in the central abdomen extending from the xiphoidpv rocess to the pubic symphysis between the left and right rectus abdominis muscles.

233. Which muscle contains tendinous intersections? a. Multifidus b. Semispinalis c. Rectus abdominis d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: C

Rectus abdominis contains tendinous intersections, fibrous horizontal bands of connectivetissue to help keep its length relatively constant because the distance between skeletal attachment sites is wide (e.g., ribcage and pelvic bone).

234. Which muscle is called the six-pack muscle? a. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique c. Rectus abdominis

extra per year?

d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: C

Rectus abdominis is the six-pack muscle because it looks like someone has a six-pack in their abs when left and right sections are tone. However, rectus abdominis actually contains eight toten sections, but usually only six sections can be seen.

235. Which action do the external obliques and internal obliques perform? a. Depressing the ribs b. Lifting the ribs c. Extending the vertebral column d. Rotation of the vertebral column ANS: D

The external obliques and the internal obliques perform rotation of the vertebral column, lateral flexion of the vertebral column, flexion of the vertebral column, compression of the abdominal contents, and posterior pelvic tilt.

236. What is the origin of quadratus lumborum? a. Posterior iliac crest b. Sciatic notch c. Ischial tuberosity d. Lesser trochanter ANS: A

The origin of quadratus lumborum is the posterior iliac crest.

237. Which muscle is called the hip hiker muscle? a. External oblique b. Rectus abdominis c. Quadratus lumborum d. Transverse abdominis ANS: C

Quadratus lumborum (QL) is the hip hiker muscle because unilateral contraction elevates, or “hikes,” the hip.

238. Which muscle groups do the paraspinals include? a. Hamstrings and adductors b. Abdominals and quadriceps c. Rotator cuff and rhomboids d. Transversospinalis and erector spinae ANS: D

Paraspinals is the term for a group of back muscles which consist of deep and superficialsections two different muscle sections: transversospinalis and erector spinae.

239. Which muscles are in the transversospinalis group? a. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis b. Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis c. Semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor

extra per year?

ANS: C

Transversospinalis are the deep paraspinals and consist of semispinalis, rotatores, andmultifidus.

240. Which muscle is the most superficial in the transversospinalis group? a. Rotatores b. Multifidus c. Longissimus d. Semispinalis ANS: D

Semispinalis is the most superficial muscle in the transversospinalis group.

241. Which muscle is located between semispinalis and rotatores in the transversospinalis group? a. Spinalis b. Multifidus c. Iliocostalis d. Longissimus ANS: B

Multifidus lies between semispinalis and rotators.

242. Which muscles are the deepest in the transversospinalis group? a. Rotatores b. Multifidi c. External obliques d. Internal obliques ANS: A

Rotatores are the deepest muscles in the transversospinalis group.

243. Which muscles are included in the erector spinae group? a. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis b. Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis c. Semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor ANS: B

Erector spinae consist of spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis. Erector spinae extends vertically up the length of the back, parallel to the spine.

244. Which muscle is the most medial in the erector spinae group? a. Spinalis b. Multifidus c. Iliocostalis d. Longissimus ANS: A

Spinalis is the smallest and most medial muscle of the erector spinae group and lies in thelaminar groove.

245. Which action do all the muscles of the erector spinae group perform?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

Neck flexion Neck extension Extension of the vertebral column Flexion of the vertebral column

ANS: C

Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis all extend the vertebral column (bilateral contraction).

246. Where does the diaphragm insert? a. Central tendon b. Xiphoid process c. Public crest d. Costal cartilage ANS: A

The diaphragm inserts on the central tendon (cloverleaf-shaped aponeurosis).

247. Which muscle increases the thoracic cavity volume during inhalation and

increasesintraabdominal pressure?

Psoas major Diaphragm Infraspinatus Rectus abdominis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The diaphragm is the main muscle of respiration because when it contracts and moves in an inferior direction, increases the volume of the thoracic cavity, and helps move air into the lungs to fill the void. The diaphragm is also involved in nonrespiratory movements such as inhelping to remove vomit, urine, feces, and even a fetus from the body by increasing intraabdominal pressure.

248. Which muscle area is primary for inhalation? a. Diaphragm b. External intercostals c. Internal intercostals d. Serratus posterior inferior ANS: A

The diaphragm is the main muscle of respiration because when it contracts and moves in aninferior direction, increases the volume of the thoracic cavity, and helps move air into the lungs to fill the void.

249. Which muscle area depresses the ribcage during exhalation? a. Iliocostalis b. Pectoralis major c. Transversospinalis d. Internal intercostals ANS: D

The internal intercostals depress the ribcage during exhalation (forced) and maintain theintercostal spaces.

extra per year?

250. Which muscle originates on the spinous processes of T11–L2, inserts on ribs 9 to 12,

anddepresses the ribs during exhalation?

Platysma Levator scapulae Serratus posterior inferior Rectus capitis posterior minor

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Serratus posterior inferior originates on the spinous processes of T11–L2, inserts on ribs 9 to12, and depresses the ribs during exhalation.

extra per year?

Chapter 22: Integumentary System, Pathologies, Conditions, and InjuriesSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of cell triggers immunologic responses? a. Melanocyte b. Keratinocyte c. Dendritic cell d. Meissner cell ANS: C

Dendritic (Langerhan) cells are epidermal cells that stimulate immunologic responses whenskin is injured or invaded by pathogens.

2. Which mechanism does the skin use to regulate temperature? a. Tanning b. Sweating c. Absorption d. Keratinization ANS: B

Skin plays a role in temperature regulation through changes in blood flow and activity ofsweat glands.

3. Skin helps synthesize which vitamin? a. A b. E c. C d. D ANS: D

Skin helps synthesize vitamin D, a nutrient necessary for the absorption of calcium by the gastrointestinal tract.

4. Which region is relatively avascular? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: B

The epidermis is the thin outer region of skin and is composed of epithelial tissue. The epidermis itself is relatively avascular; therefore, nutrients are provided by tissue fluids fromthe underlying dermis.

5. Which type of cell produces pigment that contributes to skin color? a. Melanocyte b. Keratinocyte c. Dendritic

extra per year?

d. Meissner ANS: A

Approximately one fourth of the cells in the stratum basale are melanocytes, which produce a brown or black pigment called melanin. Melanin production stimulated by sunlight darkens the skin, creating a semiprotective shield against UV radiation in sunlight.

6. Which substance waterproofs the skin? a. Elastin b. Keratin c. Adipose d. Collagen ANS: B

Keratinocytes secrete keratin, which mixes with skin oils and forms an epidermal water barrier, essentially waterproofing and preventing dehydration from the loss of body water.

7. Which region is known as “true skin?” a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: A

The dermis is the thick, deeper region, or “true skin.”

8. Which region contains blood vessels, nerve receptors, hair follicles, and skin glands? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: A

Connective tissue within the dermis is mainly collagen and elastin. Collagen constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis and offers structural support to nerves, blood vessels, hairfollicles, muscles, and glands.

9. Collagen constitutes what percentage of the dermis? a. 20% b. 50% c. 70% d. 100% ANS: C

Collagen constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis and offers structural support to nerves,bv lood vessels, hair follicles, muscles, and glands.

10. What is another term for the subcutaneous layer? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Submuscular

extra per year?

ANS: C

The subcutaneous layer is deeper to the dermis and is not a true layer of skin, but anchors skinto the underlying structures. It is also called the hypodermis or superficial fascia.

11. Which substance gives skin a golden color? a. Melanin b. Carotene c. Collagen d. Hemoglobin ANS: B

The yellow pigment of skin is from carotene, and gives skin a golden color.

12. Which term refers to pale skin? a. Pallor b. Jaundice c. Melasma d. Cyanosis ANS: A

Pale or ashen skin is called pallor.

13. Which structures are pouchlike and have hair arising from them? a. Sebaceous glands b. Sudoriferous glands c. Sinuses d. Follicles ANS: D

Hair is composed of keratinized filaments arising from pouchlike follicles in the dermis.

Thehair shaft protrudes through a pore located in the epidermis.

14. Which structure attaches to hair follicles and pulls hair upright? a. Arrector pili b. Langerhans cells c. Superficial fascia d. Meissner corpuscles ANS: A

Arrector pili are muscles attached to hair follicles. These muscles contract to pull the hair shaft upright. This action may occur when cold or during emotions such as fright or anxiety.

15. Which term refers to the hard plates found on distal surfaces of fingers and toes? a. Hair b. Nails c. Glands d. Corpuscle ANS: B

Nails are compact keratinized cells forming the thin hard plates found on distal surfaces offingers and toes.

extra per year?

16. Which area is the site of nail production? a. Lunula b. Cuticle c. Bed d. Root ANS: D

Nail production takes place in the nail root.

17. Which term refers to the tough ridge of skin that grows out over the nail from its base? a. Lunula b. Cuticle c. Nail bed d. Nail root ANS: B

The cuticle is the tough ridge of skin growing over the nail from its base.

18. Which types of gland produces oil? a. Eccrine b. Endocrine c. Sebaceous d. Sudoriferous ANS: C

Sebaceous glands secrete sebum into a duct connected to a hair follicle. Sebum is an oily, waxy substance that lubricates the hair and the epidermis, and helps protect skin as it hasantibacterial and antifungal properties.

19. Which type of gland regulates body temperature and eliminates wastes? a. Endocrine b. Sebaceous c. Ceruminous d. Sudoriferous ANS: D

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands secrete a watery fluid called sweat or perspiration. Their functions are regulation of body temperature through evaporation and the elimination ofwastes.

20. Which type are the most numerous sweat glands? a. Eccrine b. Apocrine c. Mammary d. Ceruminous ANS: A

Eccrine glands are the most numerous sweat glands and are all over the skin except the lips,ear canal, penis, and nailbeds. Eccrine glands secrete a watery perspiration directly on the skin’s surface and helps regulate body temperature through evaporative cooling.

extra per year?

21. Which term means the constant maintenance of internal body temperature independent of

theexternal environmental temperature?

Thermogenesis Thermoregulation Hyperthermia Hypothermia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Thermoregulation is the constant maintenance of internal body temperature independent of theexternal environmental temperature.

22. Which term means excessive decreases in body temperature? a. Thermogenesis b. Thermoregulation c. Hyperthermia d. Hypothermia ANS: D

Failure of the body to thermoregulate may cause hypothermia or excessive decreases in bodytemperature.

23. Which part of the brain receives sensations from touch receptors and determines where

thesensation is located?

Somatosensory cortex Wernicke area Occipital lobe Prefrontal cortex

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Information gathered by touch receptors travel to the somatosensory cortex, which is the primary sensory area in the brain’s parietal lobe. This area determines the type of sensationfelt (i.e., pressure, temperature, pain), and where the sensation is located.

24. The hands and fingers, face, lips, and tongue make up what percentage of the primary

sensoryarea? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% ANS:

D

Certain parts of the body are more richly innervated compared with others. In fact, 80% of the pv rimary sensory area detects sensations in the hands and fingers, face, lips, and tongue, whichis represented by a homunculus or “little man.”

25. Which receptor is an example of encapsulated nerve endings? a. Meissner corpuscle b. Nociceptor c. Merkel disk d. Hair root plexus ANS: A

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Encapsulated nerve endings are the Meissner, Krause, Ruffini, and Pacini corpuscles.

26. Which type of receptor detects pain? a. Krause corpuscle b. Ruffini corpuscle c. Hair root plexus d. Nociceptor ANS: D

Nociceptors detect actual or potential tissue damage, are sensitive to pain, and serve a protective function by sending signals of a possible threat.

27. Which type of receptor wrap around follicles and resemble a net or web? a. Hair root plexus b. Nociceptors c. Meissner corpuscles d. Pacinian corpuscles ANS: A

A hair root plexus responds to hair movement and resemble netting wrapped around the hairfollicle.

28. Which receptor is also known as a tactile corpuscle and detects light pressure? a. Hair root plexus b. Nociceptor c. Meissner corpuscle d. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: C

Meissner (tactile) corpuscles detect light pressure or light touch, textural sensations, andlow-frequency vibrations.

29. Which receptor detects heavy pressure and continuous touch? a. Hair root plexus b. Ruffini corpuscle c. Nociceptor d. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: B

Ruffini (bulbous) corpuscles are found in the dermis and detect deep pressure, continuous o r pv ersistent pressure, skin stretching, and warmth.

30. Which receptor detects deep pressure, vibrations, and stretch? a. Hair root plexus b. Thermoreceptor c. Meissner corpuscle d. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: D

Pacinian (lamellar) corpuscles are found in the dermis, especially in the hands and feet, aswell joint capsules, viscera, and the periosteum of bone. They respond to deep pressure, vibrations, and stretch, usually detecting only sudden disturbances.

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31. Which condition occurs most often on the soles and between the toes? a. Shingles b. Athlete’s foot c. Herpes simplex d. Decubitus ulcer ANS: B

Athlete’s foot is a fungal infection of the foot or feet, most often the soles and between the toes. It is most prevalent among teenagers and adult males, as well as people with weakenedor impaired immune responses, such as individuals with diabetes.

32. Which condition is an infection of hair follicles? a. Boils b. Warts c. Ringworm d. Herpes simplex ANS: A

Boils are infected hair follicles that manifest as a painful pus-filled mass or abscess. Boils arealso called furuncles.

33. Which condition is a recurrent viral infection? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Cold sores ANS: D

Cold sores are recurrent viral infections affecting the skin and mucous membranes. The lesions can appear anywhere on the body, but most are often found around the mouth.

Cold sores are also called fever blisters and oral herpes simplex.

34. Which condition is localized injury to the skin and underlying tissues usually over a

bony prominence from sustained pressure?

Shingles Athlete’s foot Herpes simplex Decubitus ulcers

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Decubitus ulcers or decubiti, are injuries to the skin and underlying tissues from prolongedpv ressure and are usually found over bony prominences. Decubitus ulcers are also called bedsores, pressure sores, and pressure ulcers.

35. Which skin condition is noncontagious? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Ringworm d. Scabies ANS: A

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Eczema or atopic dermatitis, is the most common inflammatory skin condition. It is notcontagious.

36. Which condition is a bacterial skin infection that occurs mainly around the mouth, nose,

andhands and that is more common in children? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Herpes simplex ANS: B

Impetigo is a common bacterial infection seen primarily in children. Lesions occur mainlyaround the mouth, nose, and skin folds such as the axillae.

37. Which condition causes accelerated proliferation of epidermal cells, leading to a buildup

ofthick skin in patches? a. Eczema b. Shingles c. Impetigo d. Psoriasis ANS: D

Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition in which the proliferation rate of skin cells accelerates, causing them to buildup in thick patches. Instead of skin renewing approximatelyevery 28 days, it occurs every few days.

38. Which condition is a fungal infection that can be transmitted by contact with

domesticanimals?

Eczema Impetigo Ringworm Psoriasis

a. b. c. d.

ANS:

C

Ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin. Ringworm can be transmitted by direct skin-to-skin contact with an infected person or contract with domestic animals or withfomites.

39. Which condition is an acute, localized viral infection caused by reactivation of the

chickenpoxvirus?

Shingles Psoriasis Herpes simplex Decubitus ulcers

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Shingles is an acute, localized viral infection of the skin, caused by the varicella-zoster virus(VZV). It is essentially a reactivation of the chickenpox virus.

40. Which condition is characterized by rough, raised masses of skin tissue and caused by

thehuman papilloma virus?

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a. b. c. d.

Boils Warts Seborrheic dermatitis Herpes simplex

ANS: B

Warts are small, rough, raised, viral-induced skin growths. They may occur anywhere on the bv ody, but most warts are on the hands, feet (called plantar warts), face and legs (called flat warts), and genitals (called genital warts). Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus virus (HPV).

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Chapter 23: Nervous System, Pathologies, Disorders, and InjuriesSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which body system, along with the nervous system, regulates the processes involved

inachieving homeostasis?

Digestive Cardiovascular Respiratory Endocrine

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Allostasis is the process of achieving homeostasis and is regulated primarily by the nervousand endocrine systems.

2. Which functions does the nervous system perform? a. Immune responses against pathogens b. Sensory input and motor output c. Transportation of nutrients and wastes d. Waste and water elimination ANS: B

Sensory input, interpretive functions, motor output, higher mental functioning, and emotionalresponsiveness are all functions of the nervous system.

3. Which division of the nervous system is defined as containing the brain and spinal cord? a. Peripheral b. Autonomic c. Somatic d. Central ANS: D

The central nervous system (CNS) occupies a central or medial position in the body andincludes the brain, spinal cord, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

4. Which term means connective tissues that support, nourish, protect and insulate the

impulseconducting cells?

Neuroglia Neurons Gray matter White matter

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Neuroglia, or glial cells, is connective tissues that support, nourish, protect, and insulateneurons. Neuroglia does not transmit impulses, but they play an active role in many neurologic processes including memory, cognition, emotions, and pain regulation.

5. Which term refers to fatty coverings around neurons that insulates and increases

theconduction rate of the impulse?

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a. b. c. d.

Epineurium Neuroglia Myelin Perineurium

ANS: C

Myelin is a white fatty material that insulates axons and prevents impulse “leakage” toadjacent neurons.

6. Which term means the outer layer of myelin sheaths? a. Neurilemma b. Neuroglia c. Endoneurium d. Epineurium ANS: A

The outer layer of myelin sheaths is called the neurilemma.

7. What are the gaps between Schwann cells and their myelin sheaths called? a. Synaptic gaps b. Neurilemmas c. Synaptic vesicles d. Nodes of Ranvier ANS: D

Unmyelinated spaces between myelinated sheaths are called nodes of Ranvier, which increases the speed of the nerve impulse because it literally jumps from one unmyelinatedspace to the next.

8. What are the impulse-conducting cells of the nervous system called? a. Neuroglia b. Neurons c. Astrocytes d. Oligodendrocytes ANS: B

Neurons are impulse-conducting cells and are the simplest structural unit of the nervoussystem.

9. Which structures receive stimuli and initiate nerve impulse transmission? a. Axons b. Dendrites c. Microglia d. Astrocytes ANS: B

Dendrites are extensions that receive and transmit the impulse toward the cell body.

Dendritesare usually short and narrow.

10. Which structure transmits impulses away from the neuron cell body? a. Dendrite b. Microglia

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c. Axon d. Sarcolemma ANS: C

An axon is an extension that transmits the impulse away from the cell body. Axons usuallyextend from the hillock, the narrow region of the cell body.

11. Which structures contain neurotransmitters? a. Dermatomes b. Ganglia c. Synaptic vesicles d. Nodes of Ranvier ANS: C

The ends of the axon are called telodendria or axon terminals, which contain synaptic bulbs.Each bulb possesses multiple synaptic vesicles, which contains neurotransmitters.

12. Which term refers to a neuron that sends an impulse toward the central nervous system? a. Effector b. Afferent c. Efferent d. Motor ANS: B

Afferent (sensory) neurons or receptors transmit impulses toward the CNS and are found inthe skin, joints, and muscles.

13. Which term refers to a neuron that sends an impulse toward muscles or glands called? a. Arcing b. Sensory c. Afferent d. Efferent ANS: D

Efferent (motor) neurons transmit impulses away from the CNS toward muscles or glands(effectors).

14. Which term refers to the pathway involved in a protective, involuntary response to a stimulus? a. Saltatory conduction b. Actional potential c. Reflex arc d. Nerve plexus ANS: C

A reflex is a rapid, often protective, involuntary response to a stimulus. A reflex arc is the pathway a reflex uses, which is toward and away from the CNS. Reflex arcs are the simplestfunctional unit of the nervous system, and consist of at least 2 neurons—an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron.

15. Which term means bundles of axons in the central nervous system? a. Neuroglia b. Nerve

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c. Gyrus d. Tract ANS: D

Tracts are bundles of axons in the central nervous system.

16. What is the connective tissue layer in a nerve surrounding each fascicle called? a. Sarcolemma b. Perineurium c. Epineurium d. Neurilemma ANS: B

Perineurium is the middle of connective tissue that surrounds bundles of neurons calledfascicles.

17. Which term refers to a neuron that is resting, without conducting an impulse? a. Polarization b. Depolarization c. All-or-none response d. Saltatory conduction ANS: A

A polarized membrane has a positive electrical charge on one side and a negative charge onanother side, which produces the resting state—not conducting an impulse.

18. What is the mechanism that produces and maintains the state of polarization in a neuron’s

cellmembrane? a. Sodium–potassium pump b. Repolarization c. Saltatory conduction d. Blood-brain barrier ANS: A

The cell membrane maintains polarization through a mechanism called the sodium– potassiumpv ump, which actively transports sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell as unequal rates (for every three sodium ions (Na+) that moves out of the cell, two potassium ions (K+) moves into the cell [3 : 2]). The higher concentration of Na+ outside the cell creates a positive(+) charge and the lower concentration of K+ inside the cell membrane, there is a negative (–)charge.

19. Which term refers to a neuron that is conducting an impulse? a. Polarization b. Depolarization c. All-or-none response d. Saltatory conduction ANS: B

The reversal of cell membrane polarity is called depolarization, causing the generated nerveimpulse to travel down the axon in segments, much like a line of dominoes, and this action will continues until it reaches the end of the axon.

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20. Which term means the time during which a neuron is unable to conduct another impulse

untilit repolarizes?

Depolarization Polarization Action potential Refractory period

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The brief span of time the membrane is repolarizing, it cannot respond to another stimulus.This timeframe is referred to as the refractory period.

21. Which principle means that after a nerve impulse begins, it will be conducted at

maximumcapacity?

All-or-none response Adaptation Refractory period Recruitment

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Once the nerve impulse begins, it will be conducted at maximum capacity and is referred to asthe all-or-none response.

22. Which term means the site where signals are transmitted between two neurons or

between aneuron and a muscle or gland?

Gyrus Synapse Plexus Dermatome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The site between two neurons or between a neuron and a muscle or gland where nerveimpulses are transmitted is called a synapse.

23. Which term means chemical messengers that transfer an impulse from a neuron to

anotherneuron, muscle or gland?

Neurotransmitters Neurilemma Telodendria Antibodies

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that are released by synaptic vesicles upon arrivalof a nerve impulse, diffuse across a synapse, and can transfer the impulse to another neuron, muscle, or gland.

24. Which structure is part of a chemical synapse? a. Synaptic bulb b. Microglia c. Myelin sheath d. Perineurium ANS: A

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A chemical synapse is made up of three structures: synaptic bulb of a presynaptic neuron, asynaptic gap (cleft), and the cell membrane of a postsynaptic neuron.

25. What is the absorption of released neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron called? a. Reuptake b. Action potential c. Reflex d. Saltatory conduction ANS: A

The actions of neurotransmitters do not persist because they are continuously removed fromthe synapse by enzymes or reuptake, which is the reabsorption of neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron.

26. Which neurotransmitter is vital for muscle contraction? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Histamine d. Acetylcholine ANS: D

The most common neurotransmitter is acetylcholine, and is vital for muscle contraction.

27. Which chemicals are gamma-aminobutyric acid and acetylcholine examples of? a. Nutrients b. Enzymes c. Neurotransmitters d. Hormones ANS: C

The most common neurotransmitter is acetylcholine, and is vital for muscle contraction.

Otherneurotransmitters include serotonin, dopamine, and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).

28. Which term refers to the connective tissue coverings surrounding the brain and spinal cord? a. Neuroglia b. Myelin sheaths c. Meninges d. Neurilemma ANS: C

Meninges are connective tissue membranes that line the internal surfaces of the skull andvertebral column and surround the brain and spinal cord.

29. What is the correct meningeal order, from deep to superficial? a. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater b. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid c. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater d. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater ANS: D

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The pia mater is the innermost layer and it attaches to the surface of the CNS. This layer isthin and delicate, and contains a rich supply of blood vessels. The arachnoid mater is the middle layer. It is composed of loosely-arranged collagen fibers, which gives is a weblike appearance. The dura mater is the outermost layer and lies against the skull and vertebral column. The dura is thick and dense and creates partitions within the brain.

30. Which function does cerebrospinal fluid perform? a. Supplies the brain and spinal cord with nutrients b. Prevents certain substances from entering the brain c. Conducts nerve impulses d. Detects sensation ANS: A

The cerebrospinal fluid cushions the central nervous system and serves as a shock absorber, supplies the central nervous system with oxygen and nutrients, and helps remove metabolicwastes (i.e., amyloid-beta) during sleep.

31. What is the purpose of the blood-brain barrier? a. Prevents passage of some molecules into the central nervous system b. Provides shock absorption for the brain and spinal cord c. Produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system d. Produces myelin in the central nervous system ANS: A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB) are a tightly-packed group of cells in the lining of blood vessels that supply the central nervous system that allow the passage of some molecules (e.g.,oxygen, glucose), but prevent the passages of some harmful molecules (e.g., viruses, drugs, and even blood itself, as blood contains chemicals harmful to neurons).

32. What are the major regions of the brain? a. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater b. Cerebrum, diencephalon, cerebellum, brainstem c. Cerebellum, corpus callosum, midbrain, hypothalamus d. Cerebrum, midbrain, hypothalamus ANS: B

The brain is a neurologic organ located in the skull, serves as the central control center of the body, and consists of the cerebrum, the diencephalon, the cerebellum, and the brainstem.

33. Which region of the brain is the largest? a. Cerebellum b. Brainstem c. Cerebrum d. Diencephalon ANS: C

The cerebrum is the largest and most superior portion of the brain.

34. What are the depressions in the brain’s surface called? a. Sulci b. Gyri

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c. Cortex d. Lobes ANS: A

The surface of the brain is highly convoluted and consists of sulci (depressions or fissures)and gyri (elevations or ridges).

35. What are the ridges in the brain’s surface called? a. Sulci b. Lobes c. Gyri d. Cortex ANS: C

The surface of the brain is highly convoluted and consists of sulci (depressions or fissures)and gyri (elevations or ridges).

36. What are large fibrous bundles of transverse fibers connecting the cerebral

hemispherescalled?

Gyri Nerve plexus Sulci Corpus callosum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The right and left cerebral hemispheres remain in contact and communication with each other bv y a bundle of transverse fibers called the corpus callosum.

37. Which cerebral lobe regulates judgment, cognition, speech production, and movements in

thecontralateral body?

Frontal Parietal Temporal Occipital

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The frontal lobe regulates executive functions such as judgment, problem-solving, planning, concentration, self-awareness, cognition, intelligence, as well as personality. The frontal lobealso contains Broca’s area, which is critical for speech production. The primary motor area inthe precentral gyrus controls movements in the contralateral body.

38. Which cerebral lobe receives information about taste and touch sensation? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital ANS: B

The parietal lobe controls taste and touch sensation (i.e., pressure, temperate, pain) originatingin the contralateral body. The parietal lobe contains the postcentral gyrus or the somatosensory cortex, which is the primary sensory area.

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39. Which cerebral lobe controls hearing, taste, and smell, and contains the Wernicke’s area? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital ANS: C

The temporal lobe controls hearing, taste, and smell, and contains the Wernicke’s area, whichis critical to speech comprehension. The temporal lobe also helps to form memories and integrates them with sensations of taste, sound, sight, and touch.

40. Which cerebral lobe contains centers for visual reception? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital ANS: D

The occipital lobe contains centers for visual reception including distance, depth, color, andfacial recognition.

41. Which brain wave state is associated with alertness and outwardly-focused concentration? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Theta d. Delta ANS: B

Beta (13+ Hz) is associated with alertness and outwardly-focused concentration.

42. Which brain wave state is related to calmness and relaxation? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Theta d. Delta ANS: A

Alpha (8–13 Hz) is related to calmness and relaxation.

43. Which part of the brain houses the thalamus and hypothalamus? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Diencephalon d. Brainstem ANS: C

The diencephalon, in the center of the brain superior to the brainstem and contains thethalamus, the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the pineal gland.

44. Which region of the brain is the largest portion of the diencephalon and relays most

sensoryinformation to appropriate areas of the cerebrum? a. Thalamus

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b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebellum ANS: A

The thalamus is the largest region of the diencephalon and relays sensory information (except olfaction, the sense of smell) to appropriate areas of the cerebrum. The thalamus also regulatesconsciousness, sleep, and alertness.

45. Which region of the brain regulates the autonomic nervous system? a. Cerebellum b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Hypothalamus ANS: D

The hypothalamus regulates the ANS and controls hunger, thirst, anger, hormones, se xualbv ehavior, body temperature, and sleep patterns.

46. Which part of the brain is concerned with coordinating complex movements and

regulatingpv osture and balance?

Medulla oblongata Cerebrum Pons Cerebellum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The cerebellum is the second largest region of the brain and is responsible for balance,pv osture, coordination, equilibrium, and muscle tone.

47. What is the inferior portion of the brainstem? a. Cerebrum b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Medulla oblongata ANS: D

The medulla oblongata is the inferior portion of the brainstem and transmits sensory and motor impulses between parts of the brain and the spinal cord. The medulla oblongata, oftenconsidered the most vital part of the brain, contains the respiratory, cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers.

48. Which region of the brain contains the respiratory, cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers? a. Cerebellum b. Medulla oblongata c. Cerebrum d. Pons ANS: B

The medulla oblongata, often considered the most vital part of the brain, contains therespiratory, cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers.

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49. Which part of the spinal cord do afferent impulses travel on? a. Gray matter b. Central canal c. Descending tracts d. Ascending tracts ANS: D

Within the spinal cord are collections of nerves running up and down in columns called tracts,and are divided into the ascending and descending tracts. Afferent impulses travel on ascending tracts, and efferent impulses travel on descending tracts.

50. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? a. 12 b. 24 c. 26 d. 31 ANS: A

There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and are named after Roman numerals, for areas theysupply, or for their function.

51. Which nerve is a cranial nerve? a. Sciatic b. Median c. Trigeminal d. Brachial ANS: C

The trigeminal nerve is a cranial nerve. The sciatic nerve, median nerve, and brachial nerveare all spinal nerves.

52. Which nerve is cranial nerve V? a. Vagus b. Facial c. Trigeminal d. Optic ANS: C

The trigeminal nerve is cranial nerve V. It contains three branches and is both sensory andmotor.

53. Which cranial nerve helps regulate digestion and heartrate? a. Trochlear b. Accessory c. Vagus d. Abducens ANS: C

The vagus nerve establishes one of the connections between the brain and the gastrointestinaltract (sometimes called the gut-brain axis) and regulates heartrate, respiration rate, blood pressure, sweating, speech, and helps keep the larynx open for breathing. The vagus nerve is both sensory and motor.

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54. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? a. 12 b. 24 c. 26 d. 31 ANS: D

The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are numbered by their location along the spine.

55. Which term refers to a network of nerves? a. Plexus b. Dermatome c. Synapse d. Tract ANS: A

Some ventral rami join to form a network of nerves, called a nerve plexus.

56. Which plexus supplies the muscles of the chest, shoulders, and upper extremities? a. Sacral b. Cervical c. Brachial d. Lumbosacral ANS: C

The brachial plexus passes from the neck to the axilla and supplies the chest, shoulders, and upper extremities.

57. Which term means an area of skin supplied by a single sensory spinal nerve? a. Myotome b. Plexus c. Dermatome d. Ganglion ANS: C

Dermatomes are areas of skin supplied by a single sensory spinal nerve.

58. Which term means a protective, involuntary response to a stimulus? a. Dermatome b. Synapse c. Myotome d. Reflex ANS: D

A reflex is a rapid, often protective, involuntary response to a stimulus.

59. Which structures does the autonomic nervous system regulate? a. Organs, glands, and smooth muscle b. Skeletal muscles c. Brain and spinal cord d. Bones, muscles, and skin

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ANS: A

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) a component of the PNS that regulates the involuntaryactivity of organs, glands, and smooth muscles of the heart and blood vessels, lungs, and intestines.

60. Which effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have? a. Increases heart rate and strength of contraction b. Inhibition of gastrointestinal motility c. Stimulation of digestion d. Increases respiration rate ANS: C

The parasympathetic division dominates during restful and calm situations to produce responses that conserve and restore energy and is referred to as the “housekeeping” division—this is also called “rest-and-digest” or relaxation response. Typical parasympathetic responses include salivation, digestion, defecation, and urination as well as reduced heart andrespiration rates.

61. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is referred to as rest-and-digest? a. Central b. Somatic c. Parasympathetic d. Sympathetic ANS: C

The parasympathetic division dominates during restful and calm situations to produceresponses that conserve and restore energy and is referred to as the “housekeeping” division—this is also called “rest-and-digest” or relaxation response.

62. What division of the autonomic nervous system is referred to as “fight or flight?” a. Sympathetic b. Central c. Parasympathetic d. Somatic ANS: A

The sympathetic division dominates during dangerous or stressful situations and physical exertion to produce responses that support energy expenditure—this is also called the “fight orflight” or stress response.

63. Which effect does the sympathetic nervous system have? a. Increases heart rate and strength of contraction b. Stimulates gastrointestinal motility c. Stimulates kidney function d. Decreases respiration rate ANS: A

The sympathetic division dominates during dangerous or stressful situations and physical exertion to produce responses that support energy expenditure—this is also called the “fight orflight” or stress response. Sympathetic responses occur quickly. In a typical sympathetic response, the heartrate increases, as does the force of each contraction.

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64. Olfaction is what sense? a. Hearing b. Smell c. Vision d. Taste ANS: B

Olfaction is the sense of smell.

65. Which type of receptors are located in the retina? a. Chemoreceptors b. Nociceptors c. Thermoreceptors d. Photoreceptors ANS: D

Vision involves the passage of visible light rays through the pupils, the activation of photoreceptors (i.e., rods and cones) in the retina, and the transmission of visual informationon the optic nerve (CN 2) to the occipital lobe.

66. Which type of receptors are involved in spatial orientation and balance? a. Thermoreceptors b. Nociceptors c. Mechanoreceptors d. Photoreceptors ANS: C

The semicircular canals in the inner ear are three fluid-filled tubes lined with cilia. The canalsare situated at right angles to each other, and provide information about head position, which helps with spatial orientation and balance.

67. Which term means a decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus? a. All-or-none response b. Adaptation c. Reflex d. Repolarization ANS: B

Sensory adaptation is a gradual decrease in receptor responsiveness to a constant or prolongedstimulus.

68. Which receptors are found in muscles, tendon, and joints, and detect body movements and

the bv ody’s position in space?

Nociceptors Chemoreceptors Photoreceptors Proprioceptors

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Proprioceptors are a type of interoceptors in muscles, tendon, and joints. These detect bodymovements and the body’s position in space.

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69. Which neurologic law states that when a muscle receives a nerve impulse to contract,

itsantagonist is inhibited from contracting?

Law of Reciprocal Innervation Law of Generalization Law of Symmetry Law of Facilitation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Sherrington’s law of Reciprocal Innervation states the contraction of a muscle/agonist is accompanied by the simultaneous motor inhibition of the antagonist. This law is the underlying mechanism used to explain reciprocal inhibition, a proprioceptive neuromuscularfacilitation (PNF) and muscle energy technique.

70. When muscles receive sudden passive stretching, muscle spindles are activated and

causewhat to happen? a. Sympathetic response b. Parasympathetic response c. Reflexive relaxation d. Reflexive contraction ANS: D

A stretch reflex is involuntary muscle contraction induced by sudden passive stretching.

Thisaction helps protect the muscle from being torn. The stretch receptor that monitors how far and how fast the muscle is stretched is a muscle spindle. While the muscle spindle is reflexively contracting the stretched muscle, motor activity is inhibited in its antagonist, or opposing muscle, so contraction can occur.

71. The autogenic inhibition reflex is governed by which receptor? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Thermoreceptor c. Nociceptor d. Muscle spindle ANS: A

The autogenic inhibition reflex is an involuntary reduction of motor activity caused by high levels of tension from either prolonged stretching or excessive contraction. This decreased motor activity inhibits contraction, which prolongs muscle lengthening and helps protect the muscle from being torn. This reflex is also called the inverse stretch reflex, because its actionis the inverse, or opposite, of the stretch reflex. The stretch receptors responsible for the autogenic inhibition reflex are Golgi tendon organs (GTOs), which are at musculotendinous junctions.

72. Which condition is a disease that slowly destroys memory and thinking and

communicatingskills?

Multiple sclerosis Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Trigeminal neuralgia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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Alzheimer disease (AD) is a disease that slowly destroys memory and thinking and communicating skills. This decline typically interferes with work, social activities, and theability to perform activities of daily living.

73. Which condition is characterized by difficulty communicating and forming relationships

and usually manifests in the first three years of life?

Sciatica Autism Alzheimer disease Attention deficit–hyperactivity disorder

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a condition present in early childhood characterized by difficulty communicating and forming relationships. Although ASD can be diagnosed at anyage, autistic-type behaviors usually manifest in the first 3 years of life.

74. Which condition is a sudden unilateral facial paralysis in areas supplied by the facial nerve? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy c. Parkinson disease d. Alzheimer disease ANS: B

Bell palsy is a sudden unilateral facial paralysis in areas supplied by cranial nerve VII or facialnerve.

75. Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of the compression of what nerve within the

carpaltunnel?

Radial Median Ulnar Sciatic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnelcausing numbness, tingling, and other symptoms in the affected hand.

76. Which condition is characterized by progressive degeneration and demyelination of

neuronsof the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves?

Parkinson disease Bell palsy Multiple sclerosis Trigeminal neuralgia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is progressive degeneration and demyelination of neurons of the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves, especially the optic nerve. Loss of myelin ultimately leads to scarring or sclerosis and plaque formation, which interferes with nerve transmission (similar to an electrical wire stripped of its insulation). This process causes sensory and motorabnormalities.

extra per year?

77. Which condition is a neurodegenerative disease causing abnormal movements due

todeterioration of neurons in the basal ganglia?

Sciatica Bell palsy Parkinson disease Alzheimer disease

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Parkinson disease (PD) is a neurodegenerative disease causing abnormal movements such astremors, rigidity, slowness of movements, and postural instability. Neurons deteriorate in a section of the midbrain called the basal ganglia, particularly in the substantia nigra.

These neurons produce dopamine, a neurotransmitter regulating voluntary movements.

78. Which condition involves pain radiating down the leg that can be due to piriformis syndrome? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy c. Parkinson disease d. Shingles ANS: A

Sciatica refers to pain radiating down the path of sciatic nerve. Some cases of sciatica are from piriformis syndrome, compression of the sciatic nerve caused by a hypertonic piriformismuscle.

79. Which condition is characterized by explosive episodes of uncontrolled and

excessiveelectrical activity in the brain? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy c. Parkinson disease d. Seizure disorder ANS: D

Seizure disorders are characterized by the presence of seizures, episodes of uncontrolled andexcessive electrical activity in the brain resulting in a sudden change of behavior and level ofconsciousness. The event is described as a lightning storm in the brain.

80. Which condition is caused by compression of nerves or blood vessels in the space between

theclavicle and first rib?

Sciatica Bell palsy Thoracic outlet syndrome Trigeminal neuralgia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a group of disorders caused by compression of nerves or blood vessels (collectively called the neurovascular bundle) in the space between the clavicleand first rib. This space is also called the thoracic outlet.

81. Which term refers to sensory neurons? a. Telodendria b. Afferent

extra per year?

c. Motor d. Efferent ANS: B

Afferent (sensory) neuron or receptors transmit impulses toward the central nervous systemand are found in the skin, joints, and muscles.

82. Which term refers to motor neurons? a. Telodendria b. Afferent c. Efferent d. Sensory ANS: C

Efferent (motor) neurons transmit impulses away from the central nervous system towardmuscles or glands (effectors).

83. Which neurotransmitter is involved in emotions, mood, and motivation? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Epinephrine ANS: B

Dopamine is involved in emotions, mood, and motivation.

extra per year?

Chapter 24: Endocrine System and PathologiesSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called? a. Hormones b. Antibodies c. Enzymes d. Neurotransmitters ANS: A

The nervous system uses impulses and chemical messengers called neurotransmitters, whereasthe endocrine system uses several regulatory mechanisms and chemical messengers called hormones.

2. Which statement describes endocrine glands? a. Located only in the skin b. Use ducts to transport their products to the site of action c. Ductless glands that secrete hormones d. Types include sudoriferous, sebaceous, and salivary ANS: C

Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Endocrine glands do notpossess ducts or tubes and are called ductless glands.

3. Which glands are endocrine? a. Adrenal b. Salivary c. Ceruminous d. Sudoriferous ANS: A

Adrenal glands, or adrenals, are endocrine glands.

4. Which function does the endocrine system perform? a. Produces heat, maintains posture, and produces movement b. Digests, adsorbs, and eliminates ingested substances c. Combats hemorrhage and blood loss d. Regulates reproductive processes and helps the body adapt during stress ANS: D

The endocrine system produces and secretes hormone, regulates metabolism, helps the bodyadapt during stress, regulates chemical compositions and fluid volume, and regulates reproductive processes.

5. What do hormones do? a. Eliminate cellular waste products b. Regulate physiologic activity of other cells c. Help maintain the oxygen content of blood

extra per year?

d. Provide physical protection from the outside environment ANS: B

Hormones are chemical messengers regulating physiologic activity of other cells.

Hormonesinfluence growth, metabolism, digestion, reproduction, and mood.

6. Which substances are also known as local hormones? a. Glucocorticoids b. Androgens c. Estrogens d. Prostaglandins ANS: D

Prostaglandins, or local hormones, are secreted by many cells and they generally act only on nearby cells. Prostaglandins regulate smooth muscle contractions and inflammatory responses.Prostaglandins may also increase the sensitivity of nociceptors, which may increase pain.

7. Which term refers to the response of an endocrine gland to a stimulus that moves

hormonelevels in the opposite direction?

Neural regulation Positive feedback Negative feedback Hormonal regulation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Negative feedback regulation is the response of an endocrine gland to a stimulus that moveshormone levels in the opposite, or a “negative,” direction. This movement brings hormone levels toward homeostasis.

8. Which mechanism controls most hormone levels? a. Nerve impulse b. Positive feedback systems c. Negative feedback systems d. Neurotransmitter release ANS: C

Negative feedback is also called balancing feedback. Most hormonal regulation in the body isnegative feedback regulation.

9. Which term applies to hormones that stimulate the release of hormones from other glands? a. Releasing b. Positive c. Negative d. Tropic ANS: D

Hormones that stimulate the release of hormones from other glands are called tropichormones. Most anterior pituitary hormones are tropic hormones.

10. Which structure secretes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the release of hormones from

the pv ituitary? a. Pineal

extra per year?

b. Thymus c. Pancreas d. Hypothalamus ANS: D

The hypothalamus is in the diencephalon of the brain and secretes hormones that stimulate orinhibit the release of pituitary hormones.

11. Which gland lies in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Hypothalamus ANS: C

The pituitary gland is located in the diencephalon of the brain and lies in the sella turcica ofthe sphenoid bone.

12. Which gland extends from the hypothalamus by the infundibulum? a. Pineal b. Thyroid c. Thymus d. Pituitary ANS: D

The pituitary extends from the hypothalamus by a stalklike structure called the infundibulum.

13. Which region is also called the adenohypophysis? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary, or the adenohypophysis, constitutes approximately 75% of the totalweight of the gland.

14. Which region is interconnected to the hypothalamus by the hypophyseal portal system? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The secretion of anterior pituitary hormones is regulated by the hypothalamus. The hypophyseal portal system allows hypothalamic hormones to travel to the anterior pituitarywithout going through the entire cardiovascular system.

15. Which region is also called the neurohypophysis? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary

extra per year?

d. Posterior pituitary ANS: D

The posterior lobe, or the neurohypophysis, constitutes approximately 25% of the total weightof the gland.

16. Which hormone causes the adrenal cortex to secrete its hormones? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: D

Adrenocorticotropic hormone is secreted in response to stress, and stimulates the adrenalcortex to secrete its hormones, namely cortisol. This hormone is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.

17. Which region secretes growth hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS:

C

The anterior pituitary secretes growth hormone. Growth hormone is also called somatotropinor STH. 18. Which hormone stimulates protein synthesis for muscle and bone maintenance and repair,

and pv lays a role in metabolism?

Oxytocin Growth hormone Thyroid-stimulating hormone Prolactin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Growth hormone (GH) stimulates protein synthesis for muscle and bone growth, maintenance,and repair, and plays a role in metabolism. Growth hormone is also called somatotrophin or STH. 19. Which region secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone.

20. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of thyroxine? a. Oxytocin b. Growth hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

extra per year?

d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: C

Thyroid-stimulating hormone stimulates the thyroid to secrete its hormones, especiallythyroxine.

21. Which region secretes follicle-stimulating hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes follicle-stimulating hormone.

22. Which hormone stimulates testosterone and sperm production in the testes? a. Oxytocin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Prolactin ANS: B

In males, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the testes to secrete testosterone andto produce sperm.

23. Which region secretes luteinizing hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes luteinizing hormone.

24. Which hormone stimulates the release of estrogens and progesterone? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Prolactin ANS: A

In females, luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the release of estrogens and progesterone,ovulation, and development of the corpus luteum in the ovaries.

25. Which hormones are collectively called gonadotropins? a. Prolactin and oxytocin b. Antidiuretic hormone and growth hormone c. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: C

extra per year?

Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are collectively calledgonadotropins.

26. Which region secretes the hormone prolactin? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes prolactin.

27. Which hormone promotes milk production in the breasts? a. Estrogen b. Prolactin c. Oxytocin d. Progesterone ANS: B

Prolactin (PRL) promotes lactation or milk production in the breasts. This hormone is secretedin larger amounts during pregnancy and lactation.

28. Which hormone decreases urine production? a. Oxytocin b. Antidiuretic hormone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Prolactin ANS: B

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates fluid balance and helps maintain blood pressure bycausing the kidneys to absorb more water, which decreases urine production.

29. Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions? a. Estrogen b. Prolactin c. Oxytocin d. Progesterone ANS: C

Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions in pregnancy, labor, and childbirth, and stimulatesmilk expression from mammary glands during lactation.

30. Which gland secretes melatonin? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Pancreas ANS: A

The pineal gland secretes several hormones, but its chief hormone is melatonin.

31. Which hormone maintains the body’s circadian rhythm?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

Cortisol Glucagon Melatonin Calcitonin

ANS: C

Melatonin helps regulate other hormones and maintains the body’s circadian rhythm, whichare the body’s internal 24-hour sleep-wake cycles.

32. Which gland secretes T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine)? a. Testis b. Thymus c. Thyroid d. Parathyroid ANS: C

The thyroid gland secretes T3, or triiodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine.

33. What is the function of T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine)? a. Regulate metabolism b. Decrease urine production c. Inhibit the secretion of luteinizing hormone d. Stimulate the release of estrogens and progesterone ANS: A

T3, or triiodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine, regulate nearly every process in the body, including metabolism, growth, and development. T 3 and T4 are collectively called thyroidhormones (TH).

34. Which hormones require iodine in order to be produced? a. Thymosin and thymopoietin b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone c. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone d. Triiodothyronine and thyroxine ANS: D

T3, or triiodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine, consist of an amino acid bound to iodine; therefore, they cannot be made without iodine. Good dietary sources of iodine are seafood andiodized salt.

35. Which gland secretes calcitonin? a. Pituitary b. Pineal c. Adrenal d. Thyroid ANS: D

The thyroid secretes calcitonin.

36. Which hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclastic activity? a. Calcitonin b. Thyroxine

extra per year?

c. Thymopoietin d. Parathyroid hormone ANS: D

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases blood calcium levels (called hypercalcemia) bystimulating osteoclastic activity, which decreases calcium storage in bone. PTH also stimulates calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, has a hypercalcemic effect.

37. Which region secretes cortisol and aldosterone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: A

The adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone.

38. Which hormone has an antiinflammatory effect? a. Cortisol b. Glucagon c. Melatonin d. Calcitonin ANS: A

Cortisol is the principle glucocorticoid. It promotes carbohydrate (sugar) metabolism, and hasan antiinflammatory and immunosuppressive effect. Glucocorticoids also promote the metabolism of proteins and fats.

39. Which hormone provides the energy needed for stressful situations? a. Cortisol b. Calcitonin c. Aldosterone d. Epinephrine ANS: D

Epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) enhance and prolong the fight orflight response (sympathetic arousal), and provide the energy needed for stressful situations.

40. Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Pancreas ANS: D

The pancreas is located inferior to the stomach and possesses both endocrine and exocrine functions.

41. Which hormone is secreted by pancreatic beta cells? a. Insulin b. Prolactin c. Glucagon

extra per year?

d. Aldosterone ANS: A

Alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon, and beta cells secrete the hormone insulin.

42. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Prolactin c. Glucagon d. Aldosterone ANS: C

Increases in blood glucose (hyperglycemia) by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose(called glycogen).

43. Which hormone decreases blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Prolactin c. Glucagon d. Aldosterone ANS: A

Decreases in blood glucose (hypoglycemia) by stimulating the liver, skeletal muscle, and fatcells to take in glucose from the blood.

44. Which glands secrete estrogens and progesterone? a. Ovaries b. Testes c. Parathyroids d. Adrenals ANS:

A

The ovaries secrete the hormones progesterone and estrogen, which are responsible for regulating the menstrual cycle and for female secondary sex characteristics that occur during pv uberty.

45. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and gestation? a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin c. Progesterone d. Testosterone ANS: C

Progesterone is the “pregnancy-promoting hormone” as it maintains the endometrium andinhibits uterine contractions.

46. Which hormone is responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics? a. Progesterone b. Erythropoietin c. Thymosin d. Testosterone

extra per year?

ANS: D

Testosterone stimulates sperm production and is responsible for the development of malesecondary sex characteristics.

47. Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells? a. Renin b. Erythropoietin c. Thymosin d. Testosterone ANS: B

Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates the production of red blood cells in bone marrow.

48. Which hormone is referred to as the “hunger hormone?” a. Renin b. Secretin c. Thymosin d. Ghrelin ANS: D

Ghrelin stimulates appetite and is referred to as the “hunger hormone” as high levels of thishormone are found in individuals who are fasting.

49. Which hormone is secreted by adipocytes? a. Leptin b. Secretin c. Renin d. Ghrelin ANS: A

Adipocytes, or fat cells, produce the hormones leptin and resistin. Leptin regulates energy byinhibiting hunger and is sometimes called the “fat controller.”

50. Which effect does atrial natriuretic peptide have? a. Decreases blood calcium levels b. Increases blood glucose levels c. Decreases blood pressure d. Increases blood pressure ANS: C

Atrial natriuretic hormone increases urine production, which decreases blood pressure.

51. Which condition is a group of disorders characterized by abnormally elevated blood

glucoselevels?

Diabetes mellitus Hashimoto disease Goiter Lupus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

extra per year?

Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a group of metabolic diseases characterized by abnormally elevated bv lood glucose levels called hyperglycemia. There are two main types of DM: type 1 (T1DM) and type 2 (T2DM).

52. Which condition is characterized by destruction of pancreatic beta-cells, creating

insulindeficiency?

Type 1 diabetes mellitus Type 2 diabetes mellitus Lupus Goiter

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resultingin insulin deficiency. Without insulin, glucose cannot leave the bloodstream and enter body cells, which create the condition of hyperglycemia.

53. Which condition is characterized by insulin resistance? a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus b. Type 2 diabetes mellitus c. Lupus d. Goiter ANS: B

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) occurs when cells are resistant to insulin (most common) orfrom insufficient levels of insulin production by pancreatic beta cells (least common).

54. Which condition is an enlargement of the thyroid gland? a. Lupus b. Goiter c. Baker cyst d. Ganglion cyst ANS: B

A goiter is the term to describe an enlarged thyroid gland. The most common cause of goitersworldwide is a lack of dietary iodine. In the United States, where use of iodized salt is common, a goiter is usually caused by thyroid diseases.

55. Which condition is caused by an underactive thyroid gland leading to thyroid

hormonedeficiency?

Diabetes mellitus Goiter Lupus Hashimoto disease

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Hashimoto disease is underproduction of thyroid hormones called hypothyroidism causing ageneralized decrease in the body’s metabolism.

extra per year?

Chapter 25: Reproductive System, Pathologies, Conditions, and DisordersSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term refers to the process by which male and female gametes unite? a. Gestation b. Spermatogenesis c. Sexual reproduction d. Asexual reproduction ANS: C

Sexual reproduction is the process by which male sex cells and female sex cells unite. The union of these cells may produce offspring, which essentially passes on hereditary traits fromone generation to the next to continue the species.

2. Which structure is part of the anatomy of the reproductive system? a. Aorta b. Oocyte c. Epiphysis d. Neurilemma ANS: B

Gametes are sex cells; they include the spermatozoa in males and oocytes in females.

3.

Which function does the reproductive system perform? a. Exchange of gases, olfaction, and sound production b. Movement, posture maintenance, and heat production c. Produce offspring and hormone production and secretion d. Elimination and regulation of the chemical composition of blood ANS: C

Important functions of the reproductive system are to produce offspring and to produce andsecrete hormones.

4. Which term refers to the primary reproductive organs? a. Uterus b. Breasts c. Gonads d. Gametes ANS:

C

Gonads are the primary reproductive organs; they include the testes in males and ovaries infemales.

5. Which term means sex cells, such as spermatozoa in males and oocytes in females? a. Testes b. Gonads c. Ovaries d. Gametes

extra per year?

ANS: D

Gametes are sex cells; they include the spermatozoa in males and oocytes in females.

6. Which part of the reproductive system produces sperm? a. Fallopian tube b. Ejaculatory duct c. Seminiferous tubules d. Bulbourethral glands ANS: C

Testicular (seminiferous) tubules within the testes produce sperm.

7. Which part of the reproductive system secretes testosterone? a. Glans penis b. Ovarian follicle c. Bulbourethral glands d. Interstitial cells of Leydig ANS: D

Scattered between testicular (seminiferous) tubules are interstitial cells of Leydig. These cellssecrete androgens. The principle androgen is testosterone.

8. Which part of the reproductive system transports sperm cells and seminal fluid out of the

bodyduring ejaculation?

Scrotal sac Spermatic duct Fallopian tubes Seminal vesicles

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The spermatic duct transports semen (sperm and seminal fluid) out of the body duringejaculation.

9. Which structure stores sperm while they become mature? a. Epididymis b. Umbilical cord c. Follicle d. Seminal vesicles ANS: A

Sperm exits the testicles and enters the epididymis, a tightly coiled comma-shaped tube.

Sperm remain in the epididymis for 2–3 months while they mature and become able to swim.

10. Which structure connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct? a. Urethra b. Vas deferens c. Fallopian tube d. Umbilicus ANS: B

extra per year?

Sperm enter the vas (ductus) deferens, which joins the ejaculatory duct, a short tube whichconnects to the urethra about midway in the prostate gland. The urethra is a tube below the bv ladder which transports both semen and urine in males.

11. Which tube transports both semen and urine in males? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Fallopian tube d. Vas deferens ANS: B

The urethra is a tube below the bladder which transports both semen and urine in males.

12. Which passageway passes through the prostate and the penis? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Fallopian tube d. Vas deferens ANS: B

The urethra is a tube located below the bladder that transports both semen and urine in males.The prostate is a donut-shaped gland lies inferior to the urinary bladder and surrounds the urethra. The penis is composed of erectile tissues and contains the urethra.

13. Which structure is donut-shaped gland and located inferior to the urinary bladder? a. Cowper gland b. Prostate c. Epididymis d. Bulbourethral gland ANS: B

The prostate is a donut-shaped gland lies inferior to the urinary bladder and surrounds the uv rethra.

14. What is the pouch that contains the testes called? a. Cervix b. Prostate c. Scrotum d. Epididymis ANS: C

The scrotum is a divided pouch containing the testes. The scrotal sac is made of thin, loose,and usually wrinkled skin that hangs down behind the penis.

15. Which liquid is thick, milky white and contains sperm cells? a. Seminal fluid b. Plasma c. Lymph d. Interstitial fluid ANS: A

extra per year?

Seminal fluid is the milky white alkaline substance produced by the prostate and other maleaccessory glands. Seminal fluid is the transport medium and source of nutrients for sperm. Semen is a mixture of sperm and seminal fluid.

16. Which muscle draws the testes closer to or away from the body to help regulate

theirtemperature?

Psoas major Adductor brevis Cremaster Pectineus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Special muscles in the wall of the scrotum called cremaster muscles contract and relax andmove the testes closer to or away from the body.

17. Which structures are paired almond-shaped glands located in the female

abdominopelviccavity?

Testes Adrenals Ovaries Follicles

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Ovaries are paired almond-shaped glands producing oocytes and hormones; they are in theabdominopelvic cavity and connected to the lateral surface of the uterus by ligaments.

18. Which structure produces oocytes and hormones? a. Testis b. Prostate c. Ovary d. Uterus ANS: C

Ovaries are paired almond-shaped glands producing oocytes and hormones; they are in theabdominopelvic cavity and connected to the lateral surface of the uterus by ligaments.

19. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy? a. Oxytocin b. Progesterone c. Epinephrine d. Testosterone ANS: B

Progesterone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy.

20. What is the term for the female sex cell? a. Ovary b. Sperm c. Oocyte d. Follicle ANS: C

extra per year?

Oocytes are the sex cells that carry genetic information from the female that produced them.

21. Which structures are paired passageways from the ovaries to the uterus? a. Ureters b. Epididymis c. Fallopian tubes d. Seminal vesicles ANS: C

Fallopian (uterine) tubes are the paired passageways that extend laterally from the uterustoward the ovaries.

22. Which structure is the hollow, pear-shaped organ that receives the fertilized ovum and

allowsthe embryo to grow and develop into a fetus during pregnancy?

Testis Prostate Ovary Uterus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

The uterus is a hollow pear-shaped organ between the urinary bladder and the rectum. The uterus receives the fertilized ovum and allows the embryo to develop into a fetus during pregnancy or discharges its lining and the ovum if fertilization and implantation do not occur.

23. Which layer is shed during menstruation? a. Epimetrium b. Perimetrium c. Myometrium d. Endometrium ANS: D

The uterine wall contains three layers. The endometrium is the inner lining which is shed eachmonth during menstruation.

24. Which structure acts as a sphincter for the uterus and allows passage of semen and

menstrualfluid?

Cervix Vagina Prostate Epididymis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

The cervix acts like a sphincter, allowing for the passage of semen, menstrual fluid, and afetus during childbirth.

25. Which structure extends from the cervix to outside the body? a. Endometrium b. Vagina c. Prostate d. Epididymis ANS: B

extra per year?

The vagina is the canal extending from the cervix to outside the body. The vagina, or birthcanal, contains rugae, transverse folds allowing expansion during sexual intercourse and childbirth.

26. Which structures produce mucus? a. Fallopian tubes b. Seminal vesicles c. Bartholin glands d. Bulbourethral glands ANS: C

Bartholin glands on either side of the vaginal opening secrete mucous; these glands arehomologous to bulbourethral glands in males.

27. Which term means the female external genitalia? a. Vulva b. Ovary c. Cervix d. Vagina ANS: A

Female external genitalia, or vulva, includes the labia majora and minora, the clitoris, and themons pubis.

28. Which term refers to the region located between the vaginal opening and the anus? a. Perineum b. Periosteum c. Peritoneum d. Perimysium ANS: A

Between the vaginal opening and the anus is the perineum, which can be torn or cut duringchildbirth; the latter is called an episiotomy.

29. Which term means milk production? a. Lactation b. Ovulation c. Fertilization d. Menstruation ANS: A

Milk production is called lactation.

30. On what day of the menstrual cycle does menstruation begin? a. 1 b. 10 c. 14 d. 28 ANS: A

extra per year?

The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is occurs from day 1 to day 13. The follicular phase begins with menstruation. Menstruation is the periodic discharge of the endometriumfrom a nonpregnant uterus through the vagina.

31. On what day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation usually occur in a 28-day cycle? a. 1 b. 10 c. 14 d. 28 ANS: C

Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle.

32. What event is marked by the release of an ovum from an ovarian follicle? a. Ovulation b. Fertilization c. Implantation d. Menstruation ANS: A

Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. A surge in luteinizing hormone (LH)stimulates the release of a mature oocyte from its follicle.

33. A surge of which hormone stimulates the release of a mature oocyte from its follicle? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Growth hormone d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: D

Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. A surge in luteinizing hormone (LH)stimulates the release of a mature oocyte from its follicle.

34. After ovulation, what does the collapsed follicle turn into? a. Corpus luteum b. Interstitial cells c. Endometrium d. Lobules ANS: A

After ovulation, the collapsed follicle forms into a hormone-secreting structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secretes estrogens and progesterone, which maintain the uv terine lining for possible implantation of the fertilized ovum.

35. Which term refers to the final stage of the menstrual cycle? a. Ovulation b. Luteal phase c. Menstruation d. Follicular phase ANS: B

extra per year?

The luteal phase is the final phase of the menstrual cycle occurs from day 15 to day 28.

It begins after ovulation and ends when menstruation begins.

36. Which structure secretes estrogens and progesterone? a. Endometrium b. Corpus luteum c. Myometrium d. Corpus albicans ANS: B

The corpus luteum secretes estrogens and progesterone, which maintain the uterine lining for pv ossible implantation of the fertilized ovum.

37. What hormone reduces tension in the uterine wall to facilitate implantation? a. Inhibin b. Relaxin c. Testosterone d. Progesterone ANS: B

Relaxin relaxes the uterus to facilitate implantation.

38. Which term means penetration of the ovum by sperm? a. Ovulation b. Fertilization c. Implantation d. Menstruation ANS: B

Fertilization is the penetration of the ovum by sperm, resulting in a zygote.

39. Approximately how many hours after ovulation does fertilization usually occur? a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48 ANS: B

Fertilization typically occurs approximately 24 hours after ovulation.

40. Which term refers to the fertilized ovum? a. Zygote b. Oocyte c. Follicle d. Chromosome ANS: A

When the sperm fertilizes the ovum or egg, the resulting offspring usually contains the samenumber of chromosomes as the parent cells. Therefore, the zygote contains genetic information from each parent.

41. Approximately how many days after fertilization does a blastocyst enter the uterus?

extra per year?

a. b. c. d.

1 7 12 48

ANS: B

The blastocyst continues to travel through the fallopian tube and enters the uterus about day 7 after fertilization, where it implants in the uterine wall. The result of this process is pregnancy.

42. Which term means a sequence of events that includes implantation, embryonic

development,fetal growth, and ends in childbirth?

Infancy Pregnancy Senescence Adolescence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Pregnancy is a sequence of events beginning with fertilization and implantation, continuingwith embryonic development and fetal growth, and ending in childbirth. The pregnancy period is also called gestation.

43. Which term means the pregnancy period? a. Gestation b. Discussion c. Metabolism d. Prolongation ANS: A

The pregnancy period is also called gestation. Normal gestation is approximately 10 lunarmonths (40 weeks, 9 calendar months, or 266 days) and is divided into trimesters.

44. Approximately how many weeks long is the pregnancy period? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 ANS: C

The pregnancy period is also called gestation. Normal gestation is approximately 10 lunarmonths (40 weeks, 9 calendar months, or 266 days) and is divided into trimesters.

45. Which trimester is considered the time of the embryo? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: A

The first trimester is the first 14 weeks of pregnancy. This is considered the time of the embryo because most embryonic development occurs in the first trimester and the pregnantfemale experiences few structural changes.

extra per year?

46. Which structure is a flattened organ located in the pregnant uterus that nourishes

thedeveloping fetus by exchanging nutrients and wastes with the mother?

Cervix Corpus albicans Placenta Corpus luteum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The placenta is a flattened organ in the pregnant uterus nourishing the developing fetus byexchanging nutrients and wastes between the fetus’s and mother’s blood.

47. Which week does the third trimester start? a. 12 b. 15 c. 29 d. 42 ANS: C

The third trimester is week 29 to birth, which is around week 40.

48. Which term means childbirth? a. Lactation b. Gestation c. Parturition d. Ovulation ANS: C

Childbirth is the process of delivering the baby, placenta, membranes, and umbilical cord tothe outside world. Childbirth is also called parturition or labor and delivery.

49. Which event occurs in second stage of childbirth? a. Dilation of the cervix b. Expulsion of the fetus c. Expulsion of the placenta d. Lactation in the mammary glands ANS: B

The second stage of childbirth is expulsion of the fetus. The timeframe is from complete cervical dilation until birth of the fetus. The uterus contracts to push the fetus down the vaginaand out of the body.

50. Which term means secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands? a. Lactation b. Gestation c. Parturition d. Ovulation ANS: A

Lactation is the production and secretion of milk by the mammary glands after childbirth,which can lead to breastfeeding.

extra per year?

51. Which condition is a cluster of symptoms that occur during the luteal phase of the

menstrualcycle and are relieved by its onset?

Menopause Endometriosis Premenstrual syndrome Polycystic ovarian syndrome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a group of signs and symptoms that occur during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and are relieved by its onset. More than 200 physical, emotional,and behavioral symptoms have been attributed to PMS, some of which may impair interpersonal and social relationships and interfere with normal activities.

52. Which term means menstrual cramps? a. Menopause b. Dysmenorrhea c. Endometriosis d. Menarche ANS: B

Menstrual cramps are severe cramping and pain in the abdominopelvic region occurring j u st bv efore or during menses. Dysmenorrhea is one of the most frequent gynecologic disorders, occurring occasionally in almost all menstruating females.

53. Which condition is the presence of uterine lining tissue outside the uterus? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome ANS: B

Endometriosis is the presence of functional endometrial tissue outside the uterus. The most common sites of endometrial tissue are the fallopian tubes and around the ovaries, but it has bv een found throughout the body.

54. Which condition is characterized by bilaterally enlarged ovaries that become studded

withmultiple cysts?

Menopause Endometriosis Premenstrual syndrome Polycystic ovarian syndrome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition of elevated hormone levels that produce irregular menstrual cycles and cause the ovaries to enlarge bilaterally and become studdedwith multiple cysts. Polycystic ovaries are two to five times larger than normal ovaries.

55. Which condition occurs when menstrual cycles end and ovarian functions cease? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome

extra per year?

d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome ANS: A

Menopause occurs when menstrual cycles end and ovarian functions cease. Menopause isdiagnosed when 12 months have passed since the last menstrual cycle.

extra per year?

Chapter 26: Cardiovascular System, Pathologies, and DisordersSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which function does the cardiovascular system perform? a. Digests, absorbs, and eliminates ingested substances b. Produces heat, maintains posture, and produces movement c. Combats hemorrhage and blood loss d. Regulates reproduction and helps stress responses ANS: C

The cardiovascular system transports substances, protects against pathogens, and combatshemorrhage and blood loss.

2. Which characteristic describes blood? a. Slightly cooler than normal body temperature b. Thinner and less adhesive than water c. Bright scarlet red to dull maroon in color d. Slightly acidic pH ANS: C

The red color of blood varies from bright scarlet to dull maroon, depending on its oxygencontent - the brighter the red, the more oxygen.

3. What determines whether blood is bright red or dull brick red in color? a. Iron content b. Platelet count c. Oxygen content d. Platelet count ANS: C

The red color of blood varies from bright scarlet to dull maroon, depending on its oxygencontent - the brighter the red, the more oxygen.

4. Where are blood cells formed? a. Liver and spleen b. Red bone marrow c. Hepatic portal system d. Aorta and coronary sinus ANS: B

Blood cell production, called hematopoiesis, occurs in red bone marrow and blood itself isliquid connective tissue. Blood cells include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.

5. Which term means blood cell production? a. Hyperemia b. Hematopoiesis c. Remodeling d. Ossification

extra per year?

ANS: B

Blood cell production, called hematopoiesis, occurs in red bone marrow and blood itself isliquid connective tissue. Blood cells include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.

6. Which liquid are blood cells suspended in? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. Interstitial fluid d. Synovial fluid ANS: B

Blood plasma is a straw-colored liquid in which blood cells are suspended. Blood plasma is mostly water (90–95%). The remainder of plasma is solutes, mostly plasma proteins such asalbumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.

7. What percentage of blood is plasma? a. 10% b. 25% c. 55% d. 90% ANS:

C

Blood plasma is a straw-colored liquid in which blood cells are suspended. Blood plasma is mostly water (90–95%). The remainder of plasma is solutes, mostly plasma proteins such asalbumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.

8. Which type of cells transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from body cells? a. Platelets b. Fibroblasts c. Leukocytes d. Erythrocytes ANS: D

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells (RBCs), transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from body cells. RBCs can perform this function because they contain hemoglobin, an ironba se d pv rotein that binds with oxygen and carbon dioxide so they can be transported in blood.

9. Which type of cells contain hemoglobin? a. Platelets b. Fibroblasts c. Leukocytes d. Erythrocytes ANS: D

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells (RBCs), transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from body cells. RBCs can perform this function because they contain hemoglobin, an ironba se d pv rotein that binds with oxygen and carbon dioxide so they can be transported in blood.

10. Proteins that are used to classify blood types are on the surfaces of which type of cells? a. Platelets b. Fibroblasts c. Leukocytes

extra per year?

d. Erythrocytes ANS: D

The surfaces of red blood cells (RBCs) contain surface markers called antigens and are usedto identify blood types.

11. Which type of cells serve as part of the body’s defense mechanisms? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Red blood cells ANS: B

Leukocytes, or white blood cells (WBCs), are the body’s mobile army and serve as part of the bv ody’s defense mechanism by destroying or inactivating pathogens and foreign agents.

12. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes are all which type of cells? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Fibroblasts ANS: B

The granular white blood cells (WBCs) are neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and theagranular WBCs are monocytes, and lymphocytes.

13. What is another term for thrombocytes? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Red blood cells ANS: A

Thrombocytes, or platelets, are irregularly shaped blood cells fragments, have no nucleus, andsmall compared with other blood cells. Thrombocytes are involved in hemostasis, mechanisms that stop blood escaping from broken blood vessels.

14. Which type of cells are involved in hemostasis? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Red blood cells ANS: A

Thrombocytes are involved in hemostasis, mechanisms that stop blood escaping from broke nbv lood vessels.

15. Which term means mechanisms that stop blood escaping from broken blood vessels? a. Hypertension b. Hemorrhage c. Homeostasis d. Hemostasis

ANS: D

Thrombocytes are involved in hemostasis, mechanisms that stop blood escaping from broke nbv lood vessels.

16. Which blood type is without antigen A and antigen B? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O ANS: D

Blood type O does not contain any antigens.

17. Which blood type is called the universal recipient? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O ANS: C

Persons with type AB blood are universal recipients because their plasma does not containreactive antibodies.

18. Which blood type is called the universal donor? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O ANS: D

Persons with type O blood are called universal donors because their plasma contains both A and B antibodies, so is compatible with all blood types. Persons with type O blood can donate their blood to almost anyone.

19. Which layer makes up the bulk of the heart wall? a. Epicardium b. Pericardium c. Myocardium d. Endocardium ANS: C

The myocardium, or middle layer, contains cardia muscle and makes up the bulk of the heartwall.

20. Which structure is a superior heart chamber? a. Atrium b. Ventricle c. Coronary sinus d. Pulmonary trunk ANS: A

The heart is divided into four chambers. The superior chambers are called atria (sing. atrium)and are separated by an interatrial septum.

21. Which structure is an inferior heart chamber? a. Atrium b. Ventricle c. Coronary sinus d. Pulmonary trunk ANS: B

The heart is divided into four chambers. The inferior chambers are called ventricles and areseparated by an interventricular septum.

22. Which structures keep the flow of blood through the heart on a unidirectional course? a. Valves b. Atria c. Carotid sinuses d. Atrioventricular septa ANS: A

Blood passes through a valve before leaving each chamber of the heart. The valves open andclose to help prevent backward flow of blood and to keep it on a unidirectional course.

23. The right atrioventricular valve is also known as which valve? a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: C

The tricuspid valve (right atrioventricular or right AV valve) is between the right atrium andthe right ventricle.

24. The bicuspid valve is also known as which valve? a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: A

The bicuspid/mitral valve (left atrioventricular or left AV valve) is between the left atrium andthe left ventricle. The bicuspid valve is also called the mitral valve because it is shaped like a mitre or bishop’s hat.

25. Which valve is located between the aorta and the left ventricle? a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: B

The aortic valve (left semilunar or left SL valve) is between the left ventricle and the aorta.

26. Which valve is located between the pulmonary trunk and the right ventricle? a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: D

The pulmonary valve (right semilunar or right SL valve) is between the right ventricle and the pv ulmonary trunk.

27. Which factor creates the sounds of a beating heart? a. Closure of the valves b. Closure of the ventricles c. Nerve impulses along the conduction system d. Superior vena cava and pulmonary veins emptying into the atria ANS: A

Closures of the heart valves produce the “lubb-dubb” sounds characteristic of the heartbeat.

28. Which term refers to the sequence of events from the beginning of one heartbeat to

the bv eginning of the next called?

Pulse Cardiac cycle Conduction system Bradycardia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Cardiac cycle is the sequence of events from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginningof the next heartbeat. During the cardiac cycle, blood moves into and out of the heart in threewell-coordinated and timed stages.

29. Which term means the number of beats per minute? a. Heart rate b. Heart murmur c. Blood pressure d. Conduction system ANS: A

Heart rate is the number of heart beats per minute.

30. Tachycardia is a heart rate of how many beats per minute? a. Fewer than 50 b. 72 to 80 c. 60 to 70 d. More than 100 ANS: D

Heartbeats over 100 per minute is called tachycardia.

31. Bradycardia is heart rate of how many beats per minute? a. Fewer than 60

b. 72 to 80 c. 80 to 92 d. More than 100 ANS: A

Heartbeats lower than 60 per minute is called bradycardia.

32. Which part of the heart’s conduction generates the heartbeat and sets the pace? a. SA node b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers ANS: A

The sinoatrial (SA) node generates the nerve impulse and causes muscles in the atria to contract. The SA node is also called the pacemaker because it sets the pace of heart rate andheart rhythm.

33. Which part of the heart’s conduction system is located in the interventricular septum? a. SA node b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers ANS: C

The bundle of His and the left and right bundle branches are in the interventricular septum andthe Purkinje fibers are in the walls of the right and left ventricles.

34. Which term means spaces within blood vessels? a. Fossa b. Cavity c. Lumen d. Sinus ANS: C

Lumen is spaces within blood vessels.

35. Which term means enlarging or widening of the lumen of a blood vessel? a. Pulse b. Vasodilation c. Cardiac cycle d. Vasoconstriction ANS: B

Vasodilation occurs when the lumen enlarges or widens.

36. Which term means narrowing of the lumen of a blood vessel? a. Pulse b. Vasodilation c. Cardiac cycle d. Vasoconstriction

ANS: D

Vasoconstriction occurs when the lumen becomes smaller or narrows.

37. Which term means an increase in local blood flow? a. Pulse b. Ischemia c. Hyperemia d. Vasoconstriction ANS: C

Increased local blood flow is called hyperemia.

38. Which term means a decrease in local blood flow? a. Pulse b. Ischemia c. Hyperemia d. Vasoconstriction ANS: B

Decreased local blood flow is called ischemia.

39. Which blood vessel is the only artery that transports oxygen-depleted blood? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Pulmonary ANS: D

Blood within most arteries is oxygen-rich; the exceptions are the pulmonary arteriestransporting oxygen-depleted blood from the heart to the lungs.

40. Which term refers to the expansion in arteries that occurs as the heart beats? a. Pulse b. Ischemia c. Hyperemia d. Cardiac output ANS: A

As the heart beats and ejects blood, the arterial walls expand and recoil. This arterial expansion is called a pulse and can be felt in the arteries that lie near the surface of the body.

41. Which term means the amount of force exerted by the blood on vessel walls as the

heartcontracts and relaxes?

Cardiac cycle Stroke volume Blood pressure Blood volume

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Blood pressure is the amount of force exerted by blood on vessel walls as the left ventricle ofthe heart contracts and relaxes. There are two ventricular phases: systole and diastole.

42. Which term refers to the increase of pressure within arteries as the left ventricle contracts

andejects blood?

Pulse Systole Diastole Vasoconstriction

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

During systole (systolic pressure), pressure within arteries increases as the left ventriclecontracts and ejects blood.

43. Normal blood pressure reading is how many mm Hg? a. 60/90 b. 120/80 c. 145/110 d. 150/120 ANS: B

A blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg or less is considered within normal range.

44. Which structures are the site of exchange between the blood and tissue cells? a. Ventricles b. Veins c. Arteries d. Capillaries ANS: D

Capillaries are the functional unit of the cardiovascular system because this is where the gasexchange occurs between blood and body cells.

45. Which blood vessel is the only vein that transports oxygen-rich blood? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Pulmonary ANS: D

Blood within most veins is oxygen-depleted—the exceptions are the pulmonary veinstransporting oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.

46. Which term refers to the rate at which blood flows back to the heart? a. Venous stasis b. Venous return c. Cardiac insufficiency d. Cardiac output ANS: B

Venous return is the rate at which blood flows back to the heart. Having a good rate of venousreturn is important because good cardiac output depends on good cardiac input.

47. Which term means the degree of muscle contraction present within venous walls? a. Venous stasis

b. Venomotor tone c. Venous insufficiency d. Venous portal system ANS: B

Changes in muscle tone inside venous walls are called venomotor tone—this activity canaffect blood flow and blood pressure.

48. Which pathway replenishes the oxygen supply of the blood and eliminates carbon dioxide? a. Venous portal b. Hepatic portal c. Systemic circuit d. Pulmonary circuit ANS: D

The pulmonary circuit delivers oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs so it can be replenished with oxygen and eliminates carbon dioxide. Blood moves from the right ventricle through the pv ulmonary arteries to capillaries of the lungs and then returns blood through the pulmonary veins to the left atrium.

49. Which pathway consists of two capillary beds connected through a system of veins? a. Portal system b. Vascular system c. Cardiac circuit d. Pulmonary circuit ANS: A

Venous portal systems are found within the systemic circuit and consist of two capillary beds connected through a system of veins. Examples of venous portal systems are the hepatic portalsystem in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and the hypophyseal portal system between the hypothalamus and the pituitary within the brain.

50. Which artery is the largest in diameter? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Pulmonary ANS: A

All systemic arteries branch from one major artery, the aorta, which is the largest artery indiameter.

51. Which condition is a reduced red blood cell count or reduced capacity of hemoglobin to

carryoxygen to body cells?

Anemia Phlebitis Hypertension Atherosclerosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Anemia is reduced red blood cell (RBC) count or reduced capacity of hemoglobin to carryoxygen to body cells.

52. Which condition is characterized by chest pain from a temporary reduction of blood flow

tothe heart?

Anemia Angina pectoris Raynaud disease Deep vein thrombosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Angina pectoris, or angina, is chest pain or discomfort caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow to the heart; the heart is not receiving enough blood. This pain or discomfort isalso called an angina attack.

53. Which condition is the inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs? a. Anemia b. Aneurysm c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Congestive heart failure ANS: D

Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a chronic progressive heart condition affecting its ability to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. Also known as heart failure, CHF is not a single disease, but rather a syndrome or complication associated with other diseases.

54. Which condition involves the presence of atherosclerotic plaque within arteries of the heart? a. Hypertension b. Raynaud disease c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Coronary artery disease ANS: D

Coronary artery disease (CAD) is the presence of atherosclerotic plaque within coronary arteries; these arteries supply the myocardium of the heart. Narrowed arteries reduce bloodflow and create ischemia, sometimes leading to myocardial infarction (MI).

55. Which condition is a blood clot within a blood vessel, usually in the legs? a. Anemia b. Angina pectoris c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Congestive heart failure ANS: C

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a thrombus or blood clot within a deep vein, usually in thelegs (from knee to ankle).

56. Which condition caused by sustained high blood pressure? a. Anemia b. Hypertensive heart disease c. Raynaud disease d. Peripheral vascular disease ANS: B

Hypertensive heart disease (hypertension) is heart disease caused by sustained high blood pressure or hypertension. Hypertensive heart disease can lead to other heart disorders including coronary artery disease, heart failure, myocardial infarction (heart attack), and otherconditions.

57. Which term means a heart attack, and is characterized by disruption of blood flow to

theheart?

Raynaud disease Deep vein thrombosis Myocardial infarction Congestive heart failure

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

A myocardial infarction (MI), or heart attack, occurs when blood flow to the heart is suddenlydisrupted from a blocked or occluded vessel.

58. Which condition is inflammation of the veins without blood clot formation? a. Anemia b. Phlebitis c. Hypertension d. Angina pectoris ANS: B

Phlebitis is inflammation of the veins without thrombus or blood clot formation.

59. Which condition is characterized by periodic episodes of vasospasm in the fingers and toes? a. Raynaud disease b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Myocardial infarction d. Congestive heart failure ANS: A

Raynaud disease is periodic episodes of vasospasms, usually in the fingers and toes. It also can affect the tip of the nose, parts of the ears, parts of the cheeks, and the tongue.

During anattack, small and medium-sized arteries contract, which cause temporary ischemia.

60. Which condition involves dilated veins caused by incompetent valves? a. Anemia b. Hypertension c. Varicose veins d. Angina pectoris ANS: C

Varicose veins are enlarged veins caused by incompetent valves. Once enlarged, they tend toremain so.

Chapter 27: Lymphatic System, Pathologies, and ConditionsSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which functions does the lymphatic system perform? a. Digestion, absorption, and elimination of ingested substances b. Production of heat, maintenance of posture, and production of movement c. Regulation of reproductive processes and helping the body adapt during stress d. Protection of the body through defense mechanisms and transportation of fats ANS: D

The lymphatic system removes excess interstitial fluid, transports fats and fatsolublevitamins, and protects the body through defense mechanisms.

2. From which fluid is lymph derived? a. Plasma b. Interstitial fluid c. Synovial fluid d. Cytosol ANS: B

Lymph, or lymphatic fluid, is the nearly colorless watery in the lymphatic system. Lymph isderived from interstitial fluid in the extracellular spaces between tissues.

3. What do lymph capillaries merge with? a. Lymph ducts b. Lymph nodes c. Lymphatic vessels d. Lymphatic ducts ANS: C

Lymph capillaries merge with lymphatic vessels. These vessels contain valves that open inonly one direction; this causes lymph to flow toward the center of the body.

4. Which regions does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph from? a. Right lower extremity and foot b. Right arm, left arm, and entire trunk c. Right abdomen, left side of the head, and right arm d. Right arm, right side of the head, and right half of the thorax ANS: D

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the right side of the head and neck, the right upper extremity, and the right half of the upper trunk and delivers it to the right subclavianvein.

5. Where does the thoracic duct deliver lymph? a. Left jugular vein b. Abdominal aorta c. Left subclavian vein

d. Right subclavian vein ANS: C

The thoracic duct drains the rest of the body and delivers the lymph to the left subclavianvein.

6. What is the name of lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2? a. Tonsil b. Appendix c. Peyer patch d. Cisterna chyli ANS: D

The cisterna chyli is a lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2, and anteriorto the vertebral column.

7. Which term is used to describe the movement of lymph through the body? a. Active transport b. Peristalsis c. Lymphokinesis d. Lymph drainage ANS: C

Lymphokinesis is the movement of lymph through the body.

8. Which factor promotes the flow of lymphatic fluid? a. Skeletal muscle movements b. Digestive movements c. Lack of valves in the vessels d. Release from compression by bandages ANS: A

Lymph moves by the milking action of the skeletal muscles; pressure differences between the thoracic and abdominal cavities created by movements of the diaphragm and chest during breathing; contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles within lymphatic walls; presence of valves to help prevent backflow; and compressive forces such as massage, clothing, bandages,and hydrostatic pressure from water.

9. Which structures are the primary lymphatic organs? a. Skin and receptors b. Brain and spinal cord c. Heart and blood vessels d. Red bone marrow and thymus ANS: D

Primary lymphatic organs are involved with the production and maturation of lymphocytes.Primary lymphatic organs include red bone marrow located in spongy bone and the thymuswhich is behind the sternum.

10. What percentage of the total white blood count is represented by lymphocytes? a. 10% b. 25%

c. 50% d. 75% ANS:

B

Twenty-five percent of white blood cells (WBCs) are lymphocytes, cells vital to immuneresponses.

11. Where do B-cells mature? a. Brainstem b. Thymus c. Thyroid d. Bone marrow ANS: D

B-cells remain in red bone marrow to complete their maturation. Once B-cells mature, theyenter the bloodstream where they help the body defend itself against intruders.

12. Where do T-cells mature? a. Brainstem b. Thymus c. Thyroid d. Bone marrow ANS: B

T-cells travel to the thymus to complete their maturation. Once T-cells mature, they enter the bv loodstream and travel to lymphatic organs where they facilitate defense mechanisms.

13. Which structure is bean-shaped and located along the lymphatic chain? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Lymphatic duct ANS: C

Lymph nodes are bean-shaped structures found along the lymphatic chain.

14. Where are the inguinal lymph nodes located? a. Neck b. Groin c. Axilla d. Intestines ANS: B

Several body regions contain clusters of superficial nodes. These include the cervical regionin the neck, the axillary region in the armpit, and the inguinal region in the groin.

15. Where is lymph filtered? a. Thymus b. Lymph node c. Lymphatic duct d. Spleen

ANS: B

Lymph nodes filter lymph before returning it to the blood. In fact, lymph nodes are the onlystructures that filter lymph.

16. Which structure is the largest lymphatic organ? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Appendix ANS: B

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ and is in the left upper quadrant.

17. Which organ stores lymphocytes and serves as a reservoir for blood? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Appendix ANS: B

The spleen releases stored lymphocytes when needed to assist in defense mechanisms.

Thespleen stores blood and can release small amounts into the bloodstream during blood loss.

18. Which term means small groups of lymphatic tissue located along the respiratory

anddigestive tracts?

Lymphatic system Thoracic duct system Lymphatic vessel chain Mucosa-associated lymph tissue

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Mucosa-associated lymph tissue (MALTs) is a collective term to describe small groups of lymphatic tissue along the respiratory and GI tracts. Some MALTs are found in large clusters.MALTs help protect the body from swallowed or inhaled pathogens and invaders.

19. Which type of lymphatic tissue is in the oral cavity and pharynx? a. Tonsil b. Thymus c. Peyer patch d. Lymph node ANS: A

Tonsils are in the oral cavity and pharynx.

20. Which type of lymphatic tissue is in portions of the small intestine? a. Tonsil b. Thymus c. Lymph node d. Peyer patch ANS: D

Peyer patches are in portions of the small intestine and are also called intestinal tonsils.

21. Which structure is attached to the cecum of the large intestine? a. Tonsil b. Thymus c. Peyer patch d. Vermiform appendix ANS: D

The vermiform appendix is attached to the cecum, which is the first region of the largeintestine. Lymphatic tissue is found inside the appendix.

22. Which term refers to defense mechanisms that are directed against all pathogens and

foreignagents and include barriers, cellular responses, and inflammation?

Specific Artificial Adaptive Nonspecific

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Nonspecific defense mechanisms are directed against all pathogens and foreign agents.

Thesedefense mechanisms include barriers, cellular responses, and inflammation.

23. Which term refers to a protective response to tissue damage that eliminates

pathogens,removes damaged tissues, and prepares the area for repair?

Anabolism Inflammation Hypersensitivity T cell maturation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Inflammation is a protective response to tissue damage resulting from a variety of causes, including infection and trauma. The purpose of inflammation is to eliminate pathogens andforeign agents, remove damaged tissue, and prepare the area for repair.

24. Which sign is a part of inflammation? a. Heat b. Pallor c. Cyanosis d. Numbness ANS: A

Heat is a sign of inflammation.

25. What does the S in the acronym SHARP stands for? a. Spleen b. Sensory c. Swelling d. Subjective ANS: C

The S in SHARP stands for swelling.

26. Which term means the body’s ability to recognize and respond to pathogens and

foreignagents?

Filtration Immunity Lymphokinesis Hypersensitivity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Immunity is the body’s ability to recognize and respond to pathogens and foreign agents.Once the body is exposed to a particular pathogen or foreign agent, it “remembers” and launches a quicker attack the next time the pathogen or foreign agent enters the body.

27. Which factor is part of specific immunity? a. Complementary proteins b. Mucous membrane c. Lymphocytes d. Inflammation ANS: C

Specific defense mechanisms are the body’s ability to develop immunity against specificpv athogens and involve B lymphocytes (B-cells) and T lymphocytes (T-cells).

28. Which type of cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity? a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages c. T-cells d. B-cells ANS: C

T-cells attack pathogens or foreign agents directly by attaching themselves to their surfaces, often with the help of cytokines. This is called cell-mediated immunity. There are two maintypes of T-cells: helper T-cells and natural killer T-cells.

29. What do B-cells produce when they encounter a foreign agent? a. Macrophages b. Antibodies c. Lymphocytes d. Neutrophils ANS: B

B-cells provide surveillance and produce Y-shaped proteins called antibodies specific to each pathogen or foreign agent. When antibodies encounter an invader, they mark it for destructionbv y other immune cells. This is called antibody-mediated immunity.

30. Which cells does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) destroy? a. CD8 b. Macrophages c. B-cells d. CD4 ANS: D

Human immunodeficiency viral infection is caused by the HIV, a virus that destroys a type ofT-cell called CD4. CD4 cells fight infection.

31. What is the final and most severe phase of HIV infection? a. Anaphylaxis b. Chronic HIV infection c. AIDS d. Acute HIV infection ANS: C

AIDS is the final and most severe phase of HIV infection. People with HIV are diagnosed with AIDS when they have a CD4 count of less than 200 cells/mm 3 (normal range is between600–1000) or they develop infections not often seen in someone who is just HIVpositive.

32. Which condition occurs when the immune system overreacts to substances that are

harmlessto most people?

Allergies Chronic fatigue syndrome Systemic lupus erythematosus Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Allergies occur when the body’s immune system overacts to substances in the environment that are harmless to most people. Substances that cause allergic reactions are called allergens.

33. Which condition is characterized by extreme tiredness without any identifiable cause? a. Allergy b. Chronic fatigue syndrome c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ANS: B

Myalgic encephalomyelitis or chronic fatigue syndrome (ME/CFS) is a disorder characterizedbv y extreme fatigue without any identifiable cause or underlying condition. The fatigue is not relieved by rest and may worsen with physical or mental activity.

34. Which condition is swelling cause by removed or damaged lymphatic structures? a. Edema b. Lymphedema c. Ascites d. Lymphoma ANS: B

Lymphedema is swelling caused by removed or damaged lymphatic structures.

Lymphedemauv sually affects a single limb, such as an arm or leg, and can be temporary after surgery or develop into a chronic condition.

35. Which condition is characterized by an imbalance in the distribution of body fluids but

vesselsare still intact? a. Edema b. Lymphedema

c. Ascites d. Lymphoma ANS: A

Edema is swelling caused by fluids moving from blood vessels into the interstitial spaces b u t ,uv nlike lymphedema, the lymphatic system is intact and undamaged. Edema can occur anywhere in the body, but most cases are peripheral edema, edema of the upper or lower extremities.

36. Which condition is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body’s

connectivetissues?

Allergies Chronic fatigue syndrome Systemic lupus erythematosus Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or simply lupus) is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatorydisease affecting the body’s connective tissues. SLE commonly affects skin, joints, brain, kidneys, lungs, and other organs.

Chapter 28: Respiratory System, Pathologies, Conditions, and DisordersSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which functions does the respiratory system perform? a. Digestion, adsorption, and elimination of ingested substances b. Heat production, maintenance of posture, and production of movement c. Gas exchange, olfaction, sound production, and maintenance of homeostasis d. Regulation of the reproductive process and helping the body adapt during stress ANS: C

The respiratory system exchanges gases and is involved with olfaction, sound production, andthe maintenance of homeostasis.

2. Which cranial nerve is involved with smell? a. Facial b. Phrenic c. Olfactory d. Trigeminal ANS: C

Scent molecules enter the nose as we inhale. These molecules are forced against the olfactorynerves in the superior nasal cavity. Impulses travel from the olfactory nerves to the temporal lobe in the brain, which interprets the information.

3. Which region contains conchae? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Pharynx d. Nasal cavity ANS: D

The walls of the nasal cavity contain ridged projections called conchae and groovedpassageways called meatuses. A meatus lies beneath each conchae.

4. Which region is referred to as the air-conditioning chambers? a. Sinuses b. Trachea c. Bronchia tree d. Nasal cavity ANS: D

Air is warmed as it passes over superficial blood vessels, is moistened by mucus-producing goblet cells, and cleansed by passing over nasal hairs which trap airborne particles.

Untrappedparticles are embedded in sticky mucus and transported to the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled through coughing or sneezing. The nasal cavity is often referred to as the “air-conditioning chamber” because of these functions.

5. Which function do the sinuses perform?

a. b. c. d.

Trigger exhalation Improve gas exchange Purify the incoming air Resonating chamber for sound

ANS: D

Sinuses lighten the skull, act as resonance chambers for sound, and are named for the bones inwhich they are located.

6. Which bone has a sinus? a. Maxilla b. Temporal c. Zygomatic d. Mandibula ANS: A

The four paranasal sinuses are the frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary sinuses.

7. Which term is synonymous with throat? a. Larynx b. Bronchial tree c. Pharynx d. Nasal cavity ANS: C

The pharynx, or throat, is the muscular tube that extends from the nasal cavity to the larynx.

8. Where are the glottis and vocal cords located? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Bronchial tree d. Nasal cavity ANS: A

The larynx, or voice box, connects the pharynx to the trachea. The glottis is located within thelarynx and contains the vocal cords or vocal folds. Air passes over the vocal cords causing them to vibrate and produce sound.

9. Which structure is referred to as the “guardian of the airways”? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Pharynx d. Epiglottis ANS: D

The epiglottis forms a flap over the glottis during swallowing, which helps food and liquidsenter into the esophagus. The epiglottis is referred to as the “guardian of the airways”.

10. Which structure is the windpipe? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Pharynx

d. Epiglottis ANS:

B

The trachea or windpipe is located anterior to the esophagus and connects the larynx to the bv ronchi.

11. What do the openings in the tracheal rings allow the esophagus to do? a. Compress the trachea during vomiting b. Expand anteriorly into the trachea as food is swallowed c. Conduct food and air, along with the trachea, to the lungs d. Close over the trachea, keeping food from entering the lungs ANS: B

The trachea is approximately 9 inches in length and consists of 16 to 21 C-shaped cartilaginous rings at regular intervals. The rings allow the esophagus to expand into the trachea as food is swallowed and keep the tracheal wall from collapsing as pressure changesduring breathing.

12. Which structures are the passageways leading from the trachea to each lung? a. Bronchi b. Alveoli c. Sinuses d. Meatuses ANS: A

The right and left primary bronchi lead from the trachea to the right and left lung respectively.

13. Which statement describes the lungs? a. Viral infections are more frequent in the left lung b. Foreign bodies more frequently lodge in the left lung c. Gas exchange occurs more efficiently in the right lung d. Foreign objects more frequently lodge in the right lung ANS: D

The right bronchus is wider and has a steeper downward angle compared with the left.Because of this characteristic, inhaled objects lodge on the right side more often.

14. What are the primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract? a. Alveoli b. Sinuses c. Bronchi d. Lobes ANS: A

Alveoli are air sacs and the site of gas exchange in the lungs.

15. Which structure is formed by the alveolar membrane, basement membrane, and capillary

wallform?

Nasal concha Vocal cord Respiratory membrane Bronchial tree

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The alveolar epithelium, the basement membrane, and the capillary wall, are collectivelyreferred to as the respiratory membrane. Gas exchange occurs across the respiratory membrane, between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries .

16. Which substance assists in gas exchange by stabilizing the alveolus and reducing

surface tension?

Mucus Surfactants Serous fluid Interstitial fluid

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Alveoli are coated with a fluid containing surfactants. Surfactants assist gas exchange bystabilizing the alveoli and reducing surface tension.

17. Which structures are the primary organs of respiration? a. Lungs b. Alveoli c. Sinuses d. Bronchi ANS: A

Lungs are the primary organs of respiration. The lungs extend from the clavicles to thediaphragm and lie against the interior ribcage.

18. Which statement describes the lungs? a. The cardiac notch is in the right lung b. Serous fluid reduces friction as the lungs move c. Peritoneal cavity surrounds each lung d. Left lung has two lobes, and the right has three ANS: B

The visceral pleura are attached to the lungs and the parietal pleura are attached to the mediastinum and internal chest wall. Between these two membranes is lubricating serous fluidwhich reduces friction between these layers as the lungs move during breathing.

19. Which term means breathing? a. Biorhythm b. Carbon cycle c. Interval cycle d. Respiratory cycle ANS: D

Breathing, or the respiratory cycle, is the process used to intake air and expel it from thelungs.

20. What is the main muscle of respiration? a. Anterior scalene b. Diaphragm c. Rectus abdominis

d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: B

The diaphragm is a broad muscle extending across the inferior ribcage and separates thethoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity. The diaphragm is the main muscle of respiration because when it contracts, the volume of the thoracic cavity increases duringinhalation, which forces air into the lungs to fill the void.

21. What is the average number of breaths per minute for a resting adult? a. 5–7 b. 9–11 c. 12–16 d. 17–20 ANS: C

At rest, adults breathe approximately 12 to 16 times or cycles a minute; children may breathe uv p to twice as fast as adults.

22. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm to initiate inhalation? a. Facial b. Phrenic c. Olfactory d. Trigeminal ANS: B

Nerve impulses from the medulla oblongata travel down the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm,causing the diaphragm to contract.

23. Which factor determines how long a breath can be held? a. Amount of nitrogen in the blood b. Amount of carbon dioxide in the blood c. Increased nerve impulses to the diaphragm d. Increased compliance of tissue in the lungs ANS: B

How long individuals can hold their breath is largely determined by elevated levels of carbondioxide in the bloodstream.

24. Which term means the process of taking air into the lungs? a. Inhalation b. Exhalation c. Redolence d. Recruitment ANS: A

Inhalation or inspiration is the process of moving air into the lungs.

25. Which term means the ease with which the thorax and lungs stretch during inhalation? a. Olfaction b. Breathing c. Compliance d. Elastic recoil

ANS: C

The ease with which the thorax and lungs are able to stretch during inhalation is calledcompliance.

26. Which term means the process of expelling air from the lungs? a. Inhalation b. Exhalation c. Redolence d. Recruitment ANS: B

Exhalation, or expiration, is the process of expelling air from the lungs.

27. Which process involves the tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to their pre-

inhalation size? a. Olfaction b. Breathing c. Compliance d. Elastic recoil ANS: D

The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to their pre-inhalation size is called elasticrecoil.

28. Which process is gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in capillaries? a. Tissue respiration b. Internal respiration c. Cellular respiration d. External respiration ANS: D

External respiration is gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in capillaries.Oxygen diffuses from the air in the lungs, crosses the respiratory membrane, and moves into the bloodstream. Oxygen attaches to hemoglobin located in of red blood cells. At the same time, carbon dioxide moves in the opposite direction, and is released during exhalation.

29. Which process is gas exchange between blood in the capillaries and body cells within tissues? a. Internal respiration b. Cellular respiration c. External respiration d. Pulmonary respiration ANS: A

Internal respiration is gas exchange between blood in the capillaries and cells within tissues.Oxygen crosses the capillary wall and enters the cells. Carbon dioxide diffuses from cells, crosses the capillary wall, and enters the bloodstream.

30. Which statement describes hiccups? a. A very deep inhalation initiated by opening the mouth wide b. Sudden expulsion of air to clear lower respiratory tracts c. Forceful involuntary expulsion of air through the nose and mouth to clear the

upper respiratory tracts d. Spasmodic closures of the vocal cords after forceful contraction of the

respiratorymuscles ANS: D

Hiccups, or hiccoughs, are spasmodic closures of the vocal cords after forceful contraction ofthe respiratory muscles to possibly remove gas from the stomach.

31. Which condition involves bronchospasms that cause breathing difficulties in

susceptiblepv eople?

Asthma Sinusitis Laryngitis Emphysema

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Asthma is a chronic condition causing respiratory mucosa inflammation and bronchospasmsthat narrow the airway and lead to breathing difficulties called an asthma attack.

32. Which condition is inflammation of the mucosa of air passageways with resultant

swellingand mucus hypersecretion? a. Sinusitis b. Bronchitis c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema ANS: B

Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchial mucosa with resultant swelling and mucushypersecretion. The two types of bronchitis are acute and chronic.

33. Which condition is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually

confinedto the nose and throat?

Asthma Sinusitis Hay fever Common cold

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

A common cold is viral infection of the upper respiratory tract, usually confined to the noseand throat, although the larynx can be involved.

34. Which condition is highly contagious? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Hay fever d. Common cold ANS: D

A common cold is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confinedto the nose and throat, although the larynx can be involved. It is highly contagious during the onset of symptoms and then becomes less contagious.

35. Which condition involves permanent enlargement of lower airways accompanied

bydestruction of alveolar walls?

Asthma Sinusitis Laryngitis Emphysema

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Emphysema is a form of COPD that causes permanent enlargement of lower airways accompanied by destruction of alveolar walls. The damage is irreversible. Enlarged alveoli donot efficiently remove trapped air, which limits the space for fresh, oxygen-rich incoming air.

36. Which general term describes any hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to allergens,

usuallypv lant pollen?

Asthma Hay fever Bronchitis Common cold

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Hay fever is a general term used to describe hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to allergens,uv sually plant pollen. Among adults, there are about 19.9 million new diagnoses of hay fever per year.

37. Which condition an acute, highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Influenza d. Emphysema ANS: C

Influenza is an acute, highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract, but it canextend into the lower respiratory tract.

38. Which condition is an infection of the lungs? a. Asthma b. Laryngitis c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema ANS: C

Pneumonia is infection or inflammation of the lungs. This disease is often preceded bycommon colds or influenza. Severity ranges from mild to life threatening.

39. Which condition is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States? a. Asthma b. Bronchitis c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema ANS: C

Pneumonia is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States, affectingpv rimarily older adults, infants, and immunocompromised individuals.

40. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of mucosa that line spaces in skull bones? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Influenza d. Bronchitis ANS: B

Sinusitis, or sinus infection, is an acute or chronic inflammation of mucosa lining in the pv aranasal sinuses. Most cases of sinusitis are acute and resolve within 4 weeks or less.

Chapter 29: Digestive System, Pathologies, Dysfunctions, and DisordersSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which functions does the digestive system perform? a. Ingestion, absorption, secretion, and defecation b. Production of heat, maintenance of posture, and production of movement c. Gas exchange, olfaction, sound production, and homeostasis d. Regulation of the reproductive process and helping the body adapt during stress ANS: A

The digestive system performs ingestion, digestion, secretion, absorption, and defecation.

2. Which process is mixing and propulsion movements? a. Peristalsis b. Deglutition c. Mastication d. Diaphoresis ANS: A

During swallowing, the bolus and liquids are transported from the oral cavity through the pharynx and toward the esophagus via peristalsis, the mixing and propulsive movements inthe GI tract. Propulsion contractions begin behind the bolus and these contractions occur inthe muscular layer.

3. Which term refers to the large flat folded serous membrane within the abdominal cavity? a. Perineum b. Periosteum c. Peritoneum d. Pericardium ANS: C

The peritoneum is a large, flat, folded serous membrane within the abdominopelvic cavity.

The peritoneum serves as an anchor for digestive organs, blood and lymph vessels, and nervesand helps restrict the spread of infection within the abdominopelvic cavity.

4. Which section of the peritoneum contains significant amounts of fat, and resembles an apron? a. Mesentery b. Mesocolon c. Lesser omentum d. Greater omentum ANS: D

The omentums are similar to mesenteries, but are suspended from the anterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and contain prominent patches of fat. The greater omentum extends fromthe stomach and duodenum to the transverse colon and resembles an apron.

The lesser omentum extends from the stomach and the duodenum to the liver.

5. Which structure is the first portion of the gastrointestinal tract?

a. b. c. d.

Oral cavity Nasal cavity Pharynx Esophagus

ANS: A

The oral cavity, or mouth, is the first portion of the GI tract and contains the teeth, tongue, andopenings for the salivary glands.

6. Which term means a small round mass of food? a. Villus b. Bolus c. Chyme d. Sphincter ANS: B

As food is chewed, the tongue mixes it with saliva to form a bolus, which is a small roundmass of food.

7. Which substance breaks down carbohydrates? a. Pepsin b. Gastrin c. Lingual lipase d. Salivary amylase ANS: D

Salivary amylase, or ptyalin, initiates carbohydrate digestion.

8. Which substance breaks lipids down into glycerol and fatty acids? a. Pepsin b. Gastrin c. Lingual lipase d. Salivary amylase ANS: C

Lingual lipase initiates fat digestion by breaking down lipids into glycerol and fatty acids.

9. Which term means swallowing? a. Peristalsis b. Deglutition c. Mastication d. Diaphoresis ANS: B

The pharynx, or throat, is involved with swallowing or deglutition.

10. Which structure aids in transporting food and liquids from the pharynx to the stomach? a. Trachea b. Pharynx c. Esophagus d. Duodenum

ANS: C

The esophagus aids in transporting food and liquids from the pharynx to the stomach.

Theesophagus is behind the trachea and pierces the diaphragm at the esophageal hiatus.

11. Which term means a ring of muscle that relaxes or tightens to open or close a passage

oropening?

Villus Bolus Chyme Sphincter

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

A sphincter is a ring-shaped muscle that relaxes or tightens to open or close a passage oropening in the body.

12. Which structure is a J-shaped saclike organ between the esophagus and the small intestine? a. Pharynx b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder ANS: B

The stomach is a J-shaped saclike organ between the esophagus and the small intestine. The stomach is essentially an enlargement of the GI tract and serves as an expandable food storagetank.

13. Which term means the semiliquid substance churned by the stomach? a. Bolus b. Saliva c. Chyme d. Sphincter ANS: C

The stomach churns and mixes the food with gastric juice, which is a blend of enzymes and acids, until it becomes a semiliquid substance called chyme. Chyme then passes through the pv yloric sphincter.

14. What is the pyloric sphincter located between? a. Esophagus and stomach b. Stomach and small intestine c. Small intestine and large intestine d. Large intestine and the outside of the body ANS: B

The stomach is bound at both ends by the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) between theesophagus and the stomach, and the pyloric sphincter between the stomach and the smallintestine.

15. What do the chief cells in the stomach’s lining secrete? a. Bile b. Pepsin c. Salivary amylase

d. Hydrochloric acid ANS: B

Pepsin is secreted by chief cells as inactive pepsinogen and, upon mixing with thehydrochloric acid, becomes active pepsin.

16. What do the parietal cells in the stomach’s lining secrete? a. Bile b. Pepsin c. Salivary amylase and lingual lipase d. Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor ANS: D

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by parietal cells. Hydrochloric acid also converts pepsinogeninto its active form of pepsin, which facilitates protein digestion.

17. What is the first section of the small intestine called? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Duodenum ANS: D

The duodenum is the first and shortest portion of the small intestine, and approximately 10 to12 inches in length. It contains ducts from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas.

18. Where do ducts from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas enter the intestines? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Duodenum ANS: D

The duodenum is the first and shortest portion of the small intestine, and approximately 10 to12 inches in length. It contains ducts from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas.

19. Which term means the fingerlike projections in the lining of the small intestine

containingbv lood and lymph capillaries?

Villi Cilia Rugae Flagella

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Walls of the small intestine contain circular folds called plicae circulares housing numerousfingerlike projections called villi. Each villus contains a blood capillary and a lymphatic capillary called a lacteal.

20. What percentage of absorption occurs in the length of the small intestine? a. 10% b. 40% c. 60%

d.

90%

ANS:

D

Approximately 90% of absorption occurs in the length of the small intestine.

21. Maltase, sucrase and lactase digest which type of nutrient? a. Vitamin b. Lipid c. Protein d. Carbohydrate ANS: D

Sugars are carbohydrates. Maltase breaks down maltose (malt sugar) into glucose (simplesugar). Sucrase breaks down sucrose (cane or table sugar) fructose and glucose (simple sugars). Lactase breaks down lactose (sugar found in dairy products), into glucose and galactose (simple sugars).

22. What is the ileocecal sphincter located between? a. Esophagus and stomach b. Stomach and small intestine c. Small intestine and large intestine d. Large intestine and the outside of the body ANS: C

The pyloric sphincter is the beginning of the small intestine and the ileocecal sphincter is theend, between the ileum and the cecum or first section of the large intestine.

23. What substances does the large intestine absorb? a. Fats and lipids b. Proteins and peptides c. Water and electrolytes d. Carbohydrates and starches ANS: C

Functions of the large intestine are absorption of water and electrolytes, production of vitamins such as K and some B vitamins, formation of feces or stools, and elimination ofwastes.

24. Which section of the large intestine is a blind pouch in the right lower quadrant of

theabdomen?

Ileum Cecum Rectum Haustra

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The cecum is a blind pouch in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.

25. The vermiform appendix is suspended from the inferior portion of which structure? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Rectum

d. Haustra ANS: B

The vermiform appendix, which contains lymphatic tissue, is suspended from the inferiorsurface of the cecum.

26. Which part of the colon connects to the rectum? a. Transverse b. Ascending c. Sigmoid d. Descending ANS: C

The sigmoid colon is the S-shaped section from the middle of the abdomen to the rectum.

27. Which term refers to the pouches in the large intestine formed by the taeniae coli appearance? a. Villi b. Haustra c. Microvilli d. Plicae circulares ANS: B

Taeniae coli are thick, longitudinal bands resembling a thread-gathering fabric. Haustra are pv ouches formed by taenia coli, giving the colon a segmented appearance.

28. Which substance does the liver secrete? a. Bile b. Lipase c. Pepsin d. Trypsin ANS: A

The main secretion of the liver serving a digestive function is bile. Bile is a greenish yellowliquid emulsifying fat, which means separating large globules into small droplets.

29. Which structure stores and concentrates bile? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Stomach d. Gallbladder ANS: D

The gallbladder is a hollow, pear-shaped sac on the inferior surface of the liver.

Thegallbladder stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver.

30. Which nutrients do trypsin and chymotrypsin from the pancreas digest? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Lipids d. Minerals ANS: B

The pancreas secretes enzymes breaking down all categories of digestible foods. Trypsin andchymotrypsin facilitate protein digestion.

31. Which condition is a progressive disease in which liver cells degenerate and are replaced

byscar tissue? a. Ulcerative colitis b. Cirrhosis c. Crohn disease d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: B

Cirrhosis is a progressive disease in which liver cells degenerate and are replaced by fibrotic scar tissue, giving it a yellow-orange color and cobbled appearance (called a “hobnail liver”).

32. Which term refers to infrequent or difficult passing of stools? a. Ulcer b. Diarrhea c. Colitis d. Constipation ANS: D

Constipation is infrequent or difficult passing of stools, usually described as having fewerthan 3 bowel movements a week.

33. Which condition is causes long-term inflammation and ulcer formation, most commonly

inthe ileum?

Gallstones Crohn disease Ulcerative colitis Irritable bowel syndrome

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Crohn disease (CD) is an inflammatory bowel disease causing long-term inflammation and ulcer formation. CD most commonly affects the end of the small intestine called the ileum, but any part of the GI tract can be affected including the large intestine, stomach, esophagus,or even the mouth.

34. Which term refers to frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools? a. Ulcer b. Diarrhea c. Colitis d. Constipation ANS: B

Diarrhea is frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools. Diarrhea can be acute and lasta few days or chronic and last a few weeks, depending on the cause.

35. Where can gallstones become lodged? a. Appendix b. Common bile duct c. Pancreatic duct

d. Cecum ANS: B

Gallstones are masses of solid material or stones called calculi which form in the gallbladderor bile duct. Gallstones may remain undetected or become lodged in the common bile duct.

36. Which condition involves periodic regurgitation of gastric contents into the esophagus? a. Cirrhosis b. Crohn disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease ANS: D

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is periodic regurgitation of gastric contents into theesophagus. GERD is most often caused by one of two scenarios: relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter or increased intraabdominal pressure.

37. Which condition is characterized by abnormal muscular contractions of the colon? a. Gallstones b. Hepatitis c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: D

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is characterized by abnormal muscular contractions of thecolon.

38. Which condition involves damaged areas of the GI tract exposed to acidic gastric juice? a. Cirrhosis b. Hepatitis c. Crohn disease d. Peptic ulcer disease ANS: D

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is ulcerations or open sores in parts of the GI tract exposed to acidic gastric juice. The word peptic refers to the enzyme pepsin, which breaks down proteins.Ulcers can be found in the lower esophagus (esophageal ulcers), in the stomach (gastric or stomach ulcers), or in the duodenum (duodenal ulcers).

39. Which condition involves inflammation of the large intestine? a. Cirrhosis b. Hepatitis c. Ulcerative colitis d. Peptic ulcer disease ANS: C

Ulcerative colitis (UC) is an inflammatory bowel disease causing long-term inflammation and ulcer formation in the colon. UC usually begins in the rectum and then spreads proximally.

40. Which term means inflammation of the liver? a. Cystitis b. Hepatitis

c. Sarcoidosis d. Crohn disease ANS: B

Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver. Most cases of hepatitis are caused by viruses and namedfor letters of the alphabet (A, B, C, D, and E).

Chapter 30: Urinary System, Pathologies, and DisordersSalvo: Massage Therapy, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means study of kidney function? a. Neurology b. Enterology c. Nephrology d. Urology ANS: C

Urology is the study of the urinary system, and nephrology is the study of kidney function.

2. Which function does the urinary system perform? a. Exchange of gases b. Movement of the body c. Regulation of the digestive process d. Regulation of blood volume ANS: D

The urinary system regulates eliminates wastes, regulates chemical composition of blood,regulates blood pH, regulates blood volume and fluid balance, regulates blood pressure, regulates red blood cell production, and maintains homeostasis.

3. Which structure is the principal organ of the urinary system? a. Lung b. Bladder c. Kidney d. Prostate ANS: C

The kidneys are the principal organs of the urinary system. They process blood and form urineto be excreted. The kidneys are located bilaterally at the spinal level of T11 and L3.

4. Which term refers to the indentation located on the medial side of the kidney? a. Pelvis b. Hilus c. Bladder d. Nephron ANS: B

The hilus is the medial indentation where the renal arteries, veins, and ureters enter and exit.

5. If one kidney is removed, the other kidney increases its filtering capacity to what

percentageof that of two normal kidneys? a. 50% b. 60% c. 80% d. 100%

ANS: C

If one kidney is removed, the other will increase its filtering capacity up to 80% of thecapacity of two normal kidneys.

6. What is the outer region of the kidney called? a. Renal cortex b. Visceral c. Parietal d. Renal medulla ANS: A

Each kidney has two main regions. The outer region is the renal cortex and the inner region isthe renal medulla.

7. Which structure filters blood and forms urine? a. Pelvis b. Hilum c. Bladder d. Nephron ANS: D

Nephrons are specialized the tube-shaped structures in the kidneys that filter blood, reabsorbnutrients, and form urine.

8. Which structures are the two main regions of the nephron? a. Renal artery and renal vein b. Renal cortex and renal medulla c. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule d. Renal viscera and renal periphery ANS: C

Each nephron has a glomerulus, a Bowman capsule, and a renal tubule. The combinedglomerulus and Bowman capsule are called the renal corpuscle.

9. What are the two main components of the renal corpuscle? a. Cortex and medulla b. Pyramids and columns c. Bowman capsule and glomerulus d. Seminal vesicles and epididymis ANS: C

Each nephron has a glomerulus, a Bowman capsule, and a renal tubule. The combinedglomerulus and Bowman capsule are called the renal corpuscle.

10. What are the clusters of capillaries within the renal corpuscles called? a. Pyramid b. Trigone c. Microvilli d. Glomeruli ANS: D

The combined glomerulus and Bowman capsule are called the renal corpuscle. After enteringthe kidney at the hilus, the renal artery branches into smaller arteries called afferent arterioles. Afferent arterioles branch into glomeruli, which are small clusters of blood capillaries.

11. What is the network of blood vessels surrounding the renal tubules called? a. Glomerulus b. Renal capillaries c. Venus portal system d. Peritubular capillaries ANS: D

Blood exits glomeruli and flows into efferent arterioles. The efferent arterioles begin to branch out and become the peritubular capillaries, a network of blood capillaries surroundingrenal tubules.

12. What is the purpose of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? a. Transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder b. Monitor blood pressure c. Filter wastes out of urine d. Reabsorb substances from filtrate back into the blood ANS: B

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is between the afferent arteriole and the renal tubule. This structure monitors blood pressure and filtrate concentration levels and, when needed, helps toincrease blood pressure to promote glomerular filtration.

13. Which substance is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells when blood pressure drops in

theafferent arteriole?

Renin Growth hormone Aldosterone Antidiuretic hormone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

When blood pressure drops, the filtration rate decreases. The juxtaglomerular cells releaserenin to raise blood pressure.

14. Which structure is a slender, hollow tube that extends from the renal pelvis of the kidneys

tothe urinary bladder?

Ureter Urethra Prostate gland Bulbourethral gland

a. b. c. d.

ANS:

A

The ureters are two slender narrow tubes that extend from the renal pelvis to the urinarybv ladder.

15. Which structure is an expandable sac that stores urine? a. Ureter b. Urethra

c. Kidney d. Bladder ANS: D

The urinary bladder is an expandable sac that temporarily stores urine.

16. Which term refers to the folds in the lining of the urinary bladder that permit expansion? a. Villi b. Calyx c. Rugae d. Cortex ANS: C

The interior lining of the bladder contains transitional epithelium and folds called rugae, bothof which help the bladder expand as it fills with urine. Rugae are typical of expanding structures such as the stomach, gallbladder, and vagina.

17. Which structure is a narrow tube located below the bladder that conducts urine out of

the bv ody?

Ureter Urethra Gallbladder Urinary bladder

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The urethra is a narrow tube below the urinary bladder and conducts urine out of the body.

Inmales, the urethra extends through the prostate and penis; both urine and semen travel down the male urethra. In females, the path of the urethra is between the vaginal opening and the clitoris; it functions only to pass urine.

18. Which process occurs during the first phase of urine formation? a. Blood enters the glomerulus b. Urine leaves the body through the urethra c. Substances are reabsorbed back into the blood d. Substances are secreted that increase blood pressure ANS: A

The first phase of urine formation is glomerular filtration, the transfer of water and wastesfrom the blood into the renal tubule.

19. During tubular reabsorption, approximately what percentage of substances that were

initiallyfiltered are reabsorbed back into the bloodstream?

a. 10% b. 40% c. 75% d. 99% ANS:

D

Tubular reabsorption is the reabsorption of molecules, ions, and water from the filtrate into peritubular blood—these substance are necessary to maintain body homeostasis.

Approximately 99% of the substance initially filtered is reabsorbed.

20. Which phase involves the movement of substances from the peritubular blood back into

therenal tubule?

Filtration Diffusion Tubular secretion Tubular reabsorption

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

The final phase of urine formation is tubular secretion, the transfer of hydrogen ions,creatinine, drugs, and urea from the peritubular blood back into the renal tubule.

21. Which term means urination? a. Voiding b. Ingestion c. Deglutition d. Incontinence ANS: A

Urination is the expelling of urine from the urinary bladder. Urination is also called voiding ormicturition.

22. Which substance stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water? a. Renin b. Calcitriol c. Erythropoietin d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: D

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secreted by the posterior pituitary stimulates the kidneys toreabsorb more water, which decreases urine output and concentrates urine.

23. Which substance stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water, and excrete potassium? a. Renin b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoeitin d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: B

Aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex causes the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and excretepv otassium. Because of these effects, aldosterone is called the salt-retaining hormone.

24. Which term refers to swelling caused by fluids moving from blood vessels into the

interstitialspaces and the lymphatic system is intact and undamaged?

Cystitis Dehydration Edema Incontinence

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Edema is swelling caused by fluids moving from blood vessels into the interstitial spaces andthe lymphatic system is intact and undamaged. Edema can occur anywhere in the body, but most cases are found in the upper or lower extremities.

25. Which condition is loss of kidney function? a. Pyelonephritis b. Renal failure c. Cystitis d. Urinary incontinence ANS: B

Kidney failure, or renal failure, is loss of kidney function. Two types are acute and chronic;most cases are chronic.

26. Which condition is characterized by small, hard masses? a. Kidney stones b. Kidney failure c. Pyelonephritis d. Cystitis ANS: A

Kidney stones are small, hard masses that form inside the kidney. Kidney stones are made ofminerals and salts and come in various shapes and sizes; most are found in the renal pelvis.

27. Which condition is loss of bladder control? a. Cystitis b. Pyelonephritis c. Urinary retention d. Urinary incontinence ANS: D

Urinary incontinence (UI) is a general term for loss of bladder control and involuntary leakageof urine. Approximately 25 million Americans have some form of urinary incontinence, 75% to 80% of these cases are females.

28. What is dialysis? a. Waste filtration from the blood through a semipermeable membrane b. Sudden and usually temporary loss of kidney function c. Formation of small, hard masses from minerals and salts d. Infection and inflammation of one or more structures of the urinary tract ANS: A

Dialysis is a method of filtering wastes from the blood through a semipermeable membrane and dialysis solution when the kidneys are not functioning properly. Dialysis also can be usedto remove drugs or poisons during medical emergencies.

29. Which condition is a kidney infection? a. Pyelonephritis b. Cystitis c. Micturition d. Incontinence ANS: A

Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection.

30. Which condition is a bladder infection? a. Cystitis b. Retention c. Incontinence d. Pyelonephritis ANS: A

Cystitis is infection or inflammation of the urinary bladder.

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

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