Test Bank For Lifespan Development, 9th Edition by Denise Boyd

Test Bank For by Christina Verigan

Lifespan Development Ninth Edition Denise Boyd, Houston Community College Helen Bee

Test Bank for Lifespan Development, 9e Table of Contents

Chapter 1

Basic Concepts and Methods

1

Chapter 2

Theories of Development

27

Chapter 3

Prenatal Development and Birth

52

Chapter 4

Physical, Sensory, and Perceptual Development in Infancy

74

Chapter 5

Cognitive Development in Infancy

98

Chapter 6

Social and Personality Development in Infancy

121

Chapter 7

Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood

146

Chapter 8

Social and Personality Development in Early Childhood

171

Chapter 9

Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood

196

Chapter 10

Social and Personality Development in Middle Childhood

220

Chapter 11

Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence

244

Chapter 12

Social and Personality Development in Adolescence

267

Chapter 13

Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Adulthood

291

Chapter 14

Social and Personality Development in Early Adulthood

314

Chapter 15

Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Adulthood

339

Chapter 16

Social and Personality Development in Middle Adulthood

363

Chapter 17

Physical and Cognitive Development in Late Adulthood

388

Chapter 18

Social and Personality Development in Late Adulthood

411

Chapter 19

Death, Dying, and Bereavement

436

TEST BANK CHAPTER 1: BASIC CONCEPTS AND METHODS Multiple-Choice Questions TB_01_01_An Introduction to Human Development The field of __________ is the scientific study of age-related changes in behavior, thinking, emotion, and personality.

A) neuroscience B) psychology C) human development D) social psychology Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: An Introduction to Human Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_02_Philosophical and Scientific Roots The Christian doctrine of ________ argues that human development occurs as a result of how well or how poorly someone does at overcoming the inborn tendency to act immorally.

A) original sin B) empiricism C) behaviorism D) innate goodness Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_03_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Which thinker argued that children are born with a mind that is a blank slate?

A) Augustine of Hippo B) Charles Darwin C) Jean-Jacques Rousseau D) John Locke Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_04_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Jean-Jacques Rousseau proposed that all human beings are naturally good and seek out experiences that help them grow, a concept that came to be known as A) maturation.

B) innate goodness.

C) the blank slate.

D) original sin.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_05_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Dr. Sardonicus believes that humans possess no inborn abilities and that parents can mold their children into whatever they want them to be. Which doctrine would best describe Dr. Sardonicus‘ views?

A) Empiricism B) Innate goodness C) Original sin D) Darwinism Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_06_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Charles Darwin and other early evolutionary thinkers compiled __________, which were detailed observations of the behaviors of an individual infant, in the hope that they might better understand the overall evolution of the human species.

A) domains of development B) baby biographies C) Gesell scales D) norm-referenced tests Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_07_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Which assertion regarding lifespan development can be attributed to both G. Stanley Hall and Charles Darwin?

A) Human evolution represents a unique occurrence in natural history.

B) Biology dictates how human personality develops.

C) Environment determines the course of healthy individual development.

D) The milestones of childhood are similar to those in the development of the human species.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_08_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Which term did Arnold Gesell use to describe genetically programmed sequential patterns of change, such as puberty or menopause?

A) Maturation B) Growth C) Social clock D) Age norms Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_09_The Lifespan Perspective Which summary best describes the current perspective on human development?

A) Human development begins at conception and continues throughout the lifespan.

B) Human development begins at birth and becomes relatively stable by adolescence.

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C) Human development begins slowly at birth and accelerates as we age.

D) Human development begins with the onset of puberty.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Lifespan Perspective Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.2: Describe how the lifespan perspective tries to fully explain human development

TB_01_10_The Lifespan Perspective __________ summarizes the idea that individuals of all ages possess the capacity for positive change in response to environmental demands.

A) Plasticity B) Multicontextuality C) Empiricism D) Maturation Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: The Lifespan Perspective Skill: Analyze It LO 1.1.2: Describe how the lifespan perspective tries to fully explain human development

TB_01_11_The Lifespan Perspective Researchers have to explore many types of information to address their questions of interest. Which concept emphasizes this approach to studying lifespan development?

A) The unidimensional nature of development B) Interdisciplinary research C) Extra-generational implications D) Rigidity Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Lifespan Perspective Skill: Analyze It LO 1.1.2: Describe how the lifespan perspective tries to fully explain human development

TB_01_12_The Domains and Periods of Development The physical domain refers to that aspect of human development that describes A) changes in thinking, memory, problem solving, and other intellectual skills.

B) changes in size, shape, and characteristics of the body.

C) how young children exceed or lag behind their peers.

D) the relationship of an individual person to other people.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_13_The Domains and Periods of Development Which aspect of human development describes changes in thinking, memory, problem solving, and other intellectual skills?

A) Psychological domain B) Physical domain C) Cognitive domain D) Social domain Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development

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Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_14_The Domains and Periods of Development Which aspect of human development describes changes in variables that are associated with the relationship of an individual to others?

A) Psychological domain B) Physical domain C) Cognitive domain D) Social domain Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_15_The Domains and Periods of Development Jorge, age 16, has recently gained a considerable amount of weight but has not grown any taller. Developmental psychologists would investigate whether there is a problem with Jorge in which domain of development?

A) Physical B) Cultural C) Cognitive D) Social Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_16_The Domains and Periods of Development Estelle, age 12, is in the 6th grade but reads at a 3rd grade level. Developmentalists would investigate whether there is a problem in which domain of Estelle‘s development?

A) Physical B) Cultural C) Cognitive D) Social Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_17_The Domains and Periods of Development The three broad categories that are used to classify changes over the lifespan are called A) domains of development.

B) domains of change models.

C) evolutionary stages.

D) psychosocial domains.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

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TB_01_18_The Domains and Periods of Development Periods of development describe which aspect of developmental theories?

A) Age-related changes B) Domain-related changes C) Biological changes D) Prenatal changes Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_19_The Domains and Periods of Development Not all cultures define the boundaries of adolescence in the same way. For example, Eustace grew up in the United Kingdom, which means that Eustace could A) buy alcohol at any age.

B) be unable to drive until the age of 21.

C) join the military at the age of 16.

D) be able to vote at age 15.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_20_The Domains and Periods of Development When does the period of middle childhood occur?

A) After a child begins walking B) After a child begins talking C) After a child enters school D) After a child begins puberty Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_21_Nature Versus Nurture Which term generally refers to environmental influences that shape behavior?

A) Social evolution B) Nature C) Maturation D) Nurture Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Nature Versus Nurture Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.1: Explain the nature–nurture debate

TB_01_22_Nature Versus Nurture Juanita‘s father died when she was an infant, but her family insists that she not only looks like him, she acts like him as well.

This might indicate that _________ had a large impact on Juanita‘s development.

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A) nature B) environment C) nurture D) innate goodness Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Nature Versus Nurture Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.1: Explain the nature–nurture debate

TB_01_23_Nature Versus Nurture Developmental psychologists have observed that babies seem to be born predisposed to respond to people in certain ways, such as by crying or smiling, in order to elicit attention from a caregiver. Psychologists call these inherent tendencies A) cultural biases.

B) maturational patterns.

C) nature and nurture tensions.

D) inborn biases.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Nature Versus Nurture Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.1: Explain the nature–nurture debate

TB_01_24_Nature Versus Nurture Which observation provides an example of an inborn bias?

A) Some male infants show a propensity toward aggression, whereas some female infants are passive.

B) There are more blue-eyed children in the United States than brown-eyed children.

C) Universally, children‘s speech begins with single words before proceeding to two-word sentences.

D) Universally, children learn to walk before they learn to crawl.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Nature Versus Nurture Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.1: Explain the nature–nurture debate

TB_01_25_Continuity Versus Discontinuity Qualitative is to quantitative as A) production is to comprehension.

B) specific is to individual.

C) continuous is to discontinuous.

D) discontinuous is to continuous.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Continuity Versus Discontinuity Skill: Analyze It LO 1.2.2: Describe the continuity–discontinuity debate

TB_01_26_Continuity Versus Discontinuity Magdalena believes her daughter is going through very distinct stages of development and is suddenly, upon turning 2 years old, able to do far more than she could at 1 year. Magdalena‘s intuitions are consistent with which approach to development?

A) Nurture B) Discontinuous change C) Continuous change D) Sensitive periods Answer: B

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Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity Versus Discontinuity Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.2: Describe the continuity–discontinuity debate

TB_01_27_Continuity Versus Discontinuity Which terms best describes a change in amount?

A) Qualitative change B) Quantitative change C) Significant change D) Metric change Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Continuity Versus Discontinuity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.2: Describe the continuity–discontinuity debate

TB_01_28_Continuity Versus Discontinuity If puberty begins for girls with the onset of menstruation, puberty could be considered a matter of A) discontinuity.

B) continuity.

C) quantitative development.

D) ecological development.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Continuity Versus Discontinuity Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.2: Describe the continuity–discontinuity debate

TB_01_29_Three Kinds of Change Which observation is an example of a normative age-graded change?

A) You have blue eyes even though both of your parents have brown eyes.

B) You are taller now than when you were two years old.

C) You moved to the United States when you were a teenager and learned to speak English.

D) You learned to walk before you learned to crawl.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_30_Three Kinds of Change Our sense of ―the right time‖ to go to college, marry, have children, or retire is determined by our A) biological clock.

B) intuition.

C) social clock.

D) cultural and cohort continuity.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

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TB_01_31_Three Kinds of Change Roberta married for the first time at age 39, and at age 40 she became pregnant for the first time. She is now considering starting college to become a computer systems engineer. When Roberta laughingly tells her friends, ―I have never done anything when I was supposed to!‖ what is she referring to?

A) Her social clock B) Her biological clock C) Her psychological clock D) A critical period Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_32_Three Kinds of Change What is the term used for a general negative attitude about aging, typified by the belief that older persons are incompetent?

A) Sexism B) Relativism C) Ageism D) Racism Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_33_Three Kinds of Change Variations in life experiences that are associated with a certain historical event, such as the Israel–Palestine War of 2023, can be considered A) nonnormative changes.

B) general normative changes.

C) normative age-graded changes.

D) normative history-graded changes.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_34_Three Kinds of Change Which term refers to changes that result from unique, unshared events?

A) Nonnormative change B) General normative change C) Normative age-graded change D) Normative history-graded change Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_35_Three Kinds of Change The idea that there may be significant periods in development when an organism is especially sensitive to the presence (or

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absence) of some particular kind of experience is referred to as a A) cohort influence.

B) critical period.

C) collectivist cultural influence.

D) timing influence.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_36_Three Kinds of Change Sara contracted rubella (German measles) in the 11th week of her pregnancy. Emily contracted rubella during the 30th week of her pregnancy. The difference in the way rubella would affect an unborn child at these two times (i.e., very early in prenatal development versus much later in prenatal development) is an example of __________ A) a critical period.

B) normative age-graded changes.

C) individual differences.

D) cultural specificity.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_37_Three Kinds of Change Which summary best defines a sensitive period of development?

A) A time of psychological fragility, usually due to some type of loss such as the death of a spouse, termination of employment, or physical decline due to aging B) The period of time during which developmental norms for physical development are reached or achieved C) A specific period in development when an organism is particularly responsive to specific forms of experience or particularly influenced by their absence D) The time when the tension between nature and nurture is resolved during an organism‘s development Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_38_Three Kinds of Change Which example represents an ―off-time‖ event that could have negative effects upon an individual‘s development?

A) The deaths of one‘s parents when they are in their 90s B) Being divorced at the age of 25 C) The death of one‘s spouse at the age of 30 D) Experiencing a life-threatening illness at the age of 60 Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_39_Three Kinds of Change Adults in Iraq, who were teenagers living there during the Gulf War of 1990, report that their lives were changed by those events. This example illustrates A) normative age-graded changes.

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B) normative critical periods.

C) normative history-graded changes.

D) non-normative life events.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_40_Research Report—An Example of a Cohort Effect: Children and Adolescents in the Great Depression Which outcome was a primary finding of the large-scale study of different cohorts who grew up during the Great Depression?

A) The cohort born in 1920 suffered more than the cohort born in 1928.

B) Teenage girls were more likely than teenage boys to be forced into the workplace prematurely because of economic hardship.

C) Teenagers whose families experienced severe economic difficulty assumed adult responsibility prematurely.

D) The adolescents who were forced prematurely into the workforce were better adjusted as adults.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—An Example of a Cohort Effect: Children and Adolescents in the Great Depression Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_41_Contexts of Development Compared to the others, which developmental outcome would best illustrate the concept of vulnerability?

A) Very low IQ scores are more common among children who were born with a low birth weight and who are reared in highly stressed, uninvolved families.

B) Normal birth weight infants born into upper socioeconomic status families invariably have superior levels of intelligence.

C) Children born into caring, facilitative families rarely have sufficient protective factors to overcome or offset all vulnerabilities that might potentially affect their development.

D) Positive developmental outcomes are possible only for children with few vulnerabilities and many protective factors.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Contexts of Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_42_Contexts of Development Which concept defines a system of meanings and customs shared by an identifiable group and transmitted across generations?

A) Age strata B) Cohort C) Collective identity D) Culture Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Contexts of Development Skill: Analyze It LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_43_The Goals of Developmental Science Which summary describes the goals of developmental science?

A) To describe, explain, predict, and influence development B) To understand and explain social norms C) To study cohort effects across cultures D) To explain, record, and produce human differences Answer: A

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Level: Easy Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_44_The Goals of Developmental Science Sets of statements that propose general principles to explain development are known as A) cross-sectional designs.

B) hypotheses.

C) theories.

D) constructs.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_45_The Goals of Developmental Science Which type of prediction is stated in a way that permits it to be tested?

A) Theories B) Hypotheses C) Experiments D) Constructs Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_46_The Goals of Developmental Science Compared to the others, which statement represents a hypothesis about human development?

A) Cross-cultural studies have determined that human breast milk provides the ideal nutrition for infant brain development.

B) Human breast milk contains nutrients that are essential for the formation of neurons and synapses in an infant‘s developing brain.

C) Because human breast milk is a superior form of nutrition for infants, all new parents should be encouraged to breastfeed their infants.

D) If breast milk is a superior supplement for infant brain development, children who were breastfed as infants should perform better on psychological tests than children who were not breastfed.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_47_Descriptive Methods Which is an example of naturalistic observation?

A) A school psychologist administers mathematical aptitude tests to the sophomore class of Sululagi M. Palega, Jr. High School.

B) A researcher provides high-caffeine drinks to an experimental group who are being taught a complicated game and provides caffeine-free drinks to a control group who are being taught the same game.

C) A serial killer is subjected to a battery of physical tests and intensive interviews in an effort to determine the factors that influenced his developmental pathway toward homicidal behavior.

D) Researchers interested in children‘s gender-related interactions videotape children while they are playing during recess and while they are engaged in cooperative learning assignments in their classrooms.

Answer: D

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Level: Difficult Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_48_Descriptive Methods Corrado is part of a research group of adolescents trying to lose weight. One of his assignments is to keep a daily diary of his food intake and the times that he eats. This approach can be considered an example of __________ research.

A) an ethnographic B) naturalistic observation C) a correlational study D) a case study Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_49_Descriptive Methods In order to learn about toy preferences, Professor Rabinowitz interviews children at a local preschool and uses their responses to guide conclusions about children's toy preferences in general. This is an example of __________ research.

A) experimental B) correlational C) survey D) ethnographic Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_50_Descriptive Methods Reggie is taking part in a survey that asks about attitudes toward the physical punishment of children. Even though Reggie believes that spanking is sometimes necessary, he answers that he is opposed to any sort of physical punishment. Which term best describes why Reggie answered the way he did?

A) Social desirability B) Experimenter bias C) Randomness D) Sample representation Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_51_Descriptive Methods Which statement about correlations is correct?

A) A correlation of zero indicates a strong relationship between two variables.

B) A correlation of –1.00 indicates a weak relationship between two variables.

C) A correlation of +1.00 provides clear evidence that one variable has a causative effect upon the other.

D) Correlations can range from –1.00 to +1.00 and describe the strength of a relationship between two variables.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Descriptive Methods

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Skill: Analyze It LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_52_Descriptive Methods You notice an association between how many tattoos a person has and how loud of a motorcycle that person rides. What can you accurately conclude about this association?

A) Having a lot of tattoos causes a person to want to ride a loud motorcycle.

B) Riding a loud motorcycle causes a person to want to get a lot of tattoos.

C) Recklessness causes a person to both ride a loud motorcycle and get a lot of tattoos.

D) There is a positive correlation between tattoo density and motorcycle loudness.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_53_The Experimental Method Which key feature is found in an experiment?

A) Controls for cohort effects B) Nonrandom assignment C) Absence of a control group D) An independent variable Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Analyze It LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_54_The Experimental Method An experiment is designed to study the effects of long lectures on the sleeping behavior of college students. In such a study, the dependent variable is A) the sleeping behavior of college students.

B) long lectures.

C) the length of time a lecture runs.

D) college students.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Analyze It LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_55_The Experimental Method Researchers designed an experiment to study the effects of a professor‘s rate of joke-telling during lectures on course enrollments. What is the independent variable in this study?

A) The professor B) The professor‘s rate of joke-telling C) Students considering attending college D) The number of students who enroll in a given course Answer: B

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Level: Difficult Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_56_The Experimental Method Rölf conducts an experiment in which group A is exposed to a particular treatment and group B is given no treatment. If group A is designated as the treatment group, then what is group B designated as?

A) The placebo group B) The control group C) The experimental group D) The independent group Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_57_The Experimental Method A researcher wants to compare developing human fetuses that have already been exposed naturally to radiation, to fetuses that have not been exposed. Which type of research would be best suited for this?

A) Experimentation B) Quasi-experimentation C) Survey D) Naturalistic observation Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_58_Research Designs In which research design are participants of different ages studied at the same time, and the results compared across age groups?

A) Longitudinal B) Cross-sectional C) Sequential D) Cross-cultural Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Research Designs Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.4.1: Compare cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs

TB_01_59_Research Designs Which example illustrates a cross-sectional research design?

A) Dr. Huang assessed the eye–hand coordination of the second, fourth, and sixth graders at Ronnie Dawson Elementary School in September 2020.

B) Dr. Sanchez assessed the eye–hand coordination of the second, fourth, and sixth graders of Ronnie Dawson Elementary School in December 2016, and the same children were tested again in 2018, 2020, and 2022.

C) At the beginning of each school year, the five children of the McGillicuddy family visit their family doctor to have physical exams.

D) Each year the five-year-olds of Washington, D.C., are given number and letter proficiency exams before they begin kindergarten.

Answer: A

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Level: Difficult Topic: Research Designs Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.4.1: Compare cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs

TB_01_60_Research Designs Cohort effects are a potential problem most commonly associated with which type of research design?

A) Cross-sectional designs B) Longitudinal designs C) Sequential designs D) Quasi-experimental designs Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Research Designs Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.4.1: Compare cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs

TB_01_61_Research Designs Which example illustrates a longitudinal research design?

A) Dr. Gomez simultaneously studied four groups of children aged 4, 6, 9, and 11 to determine how the presence of a pet helps children cope with their parents‘ divorce.

B) To determine how alcohol affects the retention of information, researchers monitored young adults‘ ingestion of alcohol while they were learning to play a complicated videogame.

C) Dr. Mijatovich initially studied a group of recently divorced 35-year-olds to evaluate their interpersonal skills, and continued to measure their relationship satisfaction for a subsequent 20 years.

D) In October 2023, researchers surveyed shoppers at local malls to assess their attitudes about retirement and their plans for post-retirement activities.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Research Designs Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.4.1: Compare cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs

TB_01_62_Research Designs Which type of research study is a ―compromise‖ design that examines a number of different age groups over several points in time?

A) Sequential design B) Cross-longitudinal design C) Longitudinal case study D) Correlational study Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Research Designs Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.4.1: Compare cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs

TB_01_63_Research Designs A cohort of Baby Boomer women were compared to a cohort of Preboomer women using a sequential research design that took measurements in 1983, 1986, 1993, and 2003. What was a finding of that study?

A) The relationship between age and reported frequency of marital conflict was the same across cohorts.

B) The different cohorts‘ self-perceptions of femininity declined in parallel fashion.

C) Because this was a sequential study, no reliable findings could be reported.

D) The relationship between age and reported frequency of marital conflict was different in each cohort.

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Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Research Designs Skill: Analyze It LO 1.4.1: Compare cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs

TB_01_64_Cross-Cultural Research Koko is investigating factors related to alcohol use among college students, so she lives in a college dormitory for a month to observe students and conduct in-depth interviews with them. This is an example of which type of research?

A) Ethnography B) Sociology C) Sociobiology D) Ethnopsychology Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Cross-Cultural Research Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.4.2: Explain the importance of cross-cultural research to the study of human development

TB_01_65_Cross-Cultural Research The two primary goals of cross-cultural research are to identify universal changes that cross cultures and to A) demonstrate cultural diversity in the social sciences.

B) nurture more culturally sensitive attitudes.

C) gain information that will help improve people‘s lives.

D) determine the effects that one culture has upon another.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Cross-Cultural Research Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.4.2: Explain the importance of cross-cultural research to the study of human development

TB_01_66_Research Ethics Which statement is true about research ethics?

A) Research ethics apply to human research but not animal research.

B) Research ethics apply to animal research but not human research.

C) Research ethics apply to both human and animal research.

D) Research ethics are the same thing as federal laws.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Research Ethics Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.4.2: Outline the ethical standards that developmental researchers must follow

TB_01_67_Research Ethics Researchers must report their data in such a way that no particular piece of information can be associated with any specific participant. This is a central part of which aspect of research ethics?

A) Informed consent B) Protection from harm C) Confidentiality D) Deception Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Research Ethics Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 1.4.3: Outline the ethical standards that developmental researchers must follow

TB_01_68_Research Ethics Which common ethical guideline is stipulated by the American Psychological Association, the Society for Research in Child Development, and other governing bodies?

A) Participants may not withdraw after they begin a research study.

B) Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision regarding their participation in a research study.

C) Participants cannot be subjected to potential harm of any kind.

D) Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Research Ethics Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.4.3: Outline the ethical standards that developmental researchers must follow

TB_01_69_Research Ethics Darius participated in a study examining the effects of alcohol on long-term memory. Six months after his participation ended, he received a newsletter telling him all about the results of the study. The researchers were following the ethical guideline that mandates A) knowledge of results.

B) informed consent.

C) full disclosure.

D) protection against harm.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Research Ethics Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.4.3: Outline the ethical standards that developmental researchers must follow

TB_01_70_Research Ethics Which summary best explains the protection from harm aspect of research ethics?

A) Absolutely no harm, neither permanent nor temporary, can come to the participants during the research.

B) As long as the harm is temporary and only lasts for the duration of the research, it is acceptable.

C) If temporary harm may be caused by the research, the researchers must provide a way to relieve that harm.

D) As long as the participants are informed of the possibility of harm before the research begins, no ethical violations can occur.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Research Ethics Skill: Analyze It LO 1.4.3: Outline the ethical standards that developmental researchers must follow

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_01_71_Philosophical and Scientific Roots ____________ published the first scientific study of children and introduced the concept of norms.

Answer: G. Stanley Hall Level: Moderate Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_72_Philosophical and Scientific Roots The English philosopher John Locke proposed that at birth human beings are ________ waiting to receive information.

Answer: blank slates Level: Easy Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_73_The Domains and Periods of Development LaRhonda has an outgoing, friendly personality, whereas her best friend Annabella is shy and reserved. LaRhonda and Annabella are being described using the ________ domain of development.

Answer: social Level: Moderate Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_74_Nature Versus Nurture The internal model of experience assumes that events themselves are not as important in influencing development as are the individual‘s ________ of those events.

Answer: perception or interpretation Level: Moderate Topic: Nature Versus Nurture Skill: Analyze It LO 1.2.1: Explain the nature–nurture debate

TB_01_75_Three Kinds of Change Normative ________ changes are universal, in that they apply to everyone at the same period of maturation.

Answer: age-graded Level: Moderate Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Analyze It LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_76_Contexts of Development Both of Montserrat‘s parents, and all four of her grandparents, have high blood pressure. We might assume that Montserrat will be more ________ to blood pressure problems compared to her cohorts.

Answer: vulnerable Level: Difficult Topic: Contexts of Development

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Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_77_The Goals of Developmental Science A major difference between a theory and a hypothesis is that hypotheses are ________ predictions about future events.

Answer: testable Level: Difficult Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_78_The Goals of Developmental Science The four goals of applying the scientific method to developmental psychology are to ________, ________, ________, and ________ human behavior.

Answer: describe; explain; predict; influence Level: Easy Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_79_Descriptive Methods One major weakness of naturalistic observation is ________, which occurs when the person collecting data influences what‘s being collected.

Answer: observer bias Level: Easy Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_80_Descriptive Methods Correlational research does not allow an investigator to reach ________ conclusions.

Answer: causal Level: Easy Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_81_The Experimental Method To test causal hypotheses, it is necessary to use experimental designs in which participants are assigned _________ to experimental or control groups, meaning that participants have equal chances of being assigned to the different groups.

Answer: randomly Level: Easy Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_82_The Experimental Method

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A(n) _________ is a study that tests a causal hypothesis.

Answer: experiment Level: Easy Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

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Short Answer Questions TB_01_83_Philosophical and Scientific Roots What contributions did Arnold Gesell make to the study of human development?

Answer: maturation; genetically programmed patterns of change; developed norms for children‘s development; observational techniques Level: Moderate Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_84_The Domains and Periods of Development List the three domains of development and give an example of each.

Answer: cognitive; social; physical Level: Easy Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_85_The Domains and Periods of Development Which of these periods of development—prenatal, adolescence, late adulthood—show the greatest amount of developmental growth in your opinion, and why?

Answer: Responses will vary, but should include some description of the hallmarks of each stage. For example, there is relatively little physical development in late adulthood compared to the prenatal stage; adolescence seems like a more dynamic period than late adulthood in some ways, but less so in others; prenatal development is rapid within a short period of time, and so on.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Domains and Periods of Development Skill: Analyze It LO 1.1.3: Identify the categories used by developmental scientists to organize the study of human development

TB_01_86_Nature Versus Nurture All children begin to smile and coo at approximately the same age. Identify at least two key concepts that might explain these behaviors.

Answer: nature–nurture; inborn biases; predispositions; domains; periods of development Level: Difficult Topic: Nature Versus Nurture Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.2.1: Explain the nature–nurture debate

TB_01_87_Continuity Versus Discontinuity Briefly explain how quantitative change and qualitative change relate to continuity and discontinuity in development.

Answer: The concept of continuity is related to quantitative change, whereas the concept of discontinuity is related to qualitative change.

Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity Versus Discontinuity Skill: Analyze It LO 1.2.2: Describe the continuity–discontinuity debate

TB_01_88_Three Kinds of Change Give three examples of normative history-graded influences.

Answer: anything that applies to historical events common to cohorts; for example, changes that resulted from experiencing the

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attacks of 9/11/2001; people who lived during the Vietnam War; survivors of Hurricane Katrina, people living in Ukraine in 2022, etc.

Level: Difficult Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_89_Contexts of Development Briefly define the terms vulnerability and resilience.

Answer: Vulnerability refers to inborn characteristics which predispose a person to abnormal events or processes; resilience refers to inborn characteristics which predispose a person to overcome abnormal or adverse events.

Level: Moderate Topic: Contexts of Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_90_Contexts of Development Briefly define the term culture.

Answer: no commonly agreed-on definition; typically includes common meanings, customs, values, attitudes, goals.

Level: Easy Topic: Contexts of Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_91_The Goals of Developmental Science What are the goals of applying the scientific method to developmental science?

Answer: describe; explain, predict; influence; also the terms theories and hypotheses may be used here Level: Easy Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_92_Descriptive Methods When conducting research, what is the difference between a population and a sample?

Answer: A population is the entire group of interest; a sample is a representative subset of the entire group.

Level: Moderate Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_93_The Experimental Method An experimenter is investigating the effectiveness of cognitive therapy in treating anxiety. There are two groups: one group receives cognitive therapy; the other group meets weekly with a therapist who does not use cognitive therapy, but merely chats during the session. Using the terminology of research, identify each of these two groups.

Answer: experimental group; control group Level: Easy Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TB_01_94_Research Ethics

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Describe a situation in which confidentiality is not maintained during the research process, and outline what could be done to correct that.

Answer: Responses will vary, but could include oversights such as leaving a respondent‘s data lying in plain view for anyone to see (the correction is to keep data secured); asking for a participant‘s name or other identifying information on a survey (don‘t do that!); when working with children, not reporting when a child has revealed that they have been abused would be an error related to confidentiality, but in a different sense.

Level: Moderate Topic: Research Ethics Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.4.3: Outline the ethical standards that developmental researchers must follow

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Essay Questions TB_01_95_Philosophical and Scientific Roots Compare and contrast the philosophies of John Locke and Charles Darwin as they apply to developmental theory.

Answer: Locke endorsed the concepts of a ―blank slate‖ and empiricism, leading to the implication that children can be molded through their experiences. Darwin initiated the scientific study of childhood, and argued that the development of children mirrored the development of the human species. The answer should include some expansion on these concepts.

Level: Difficult Topic: Philosophical and Scientific Roots Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_96_An Introduction to Human Development Compare and contrast the views of three early thinkers in developmental psychology. Explain how you would reconcile their differing and sometimes conflicting views.

Answer: The answer will vary depending on which researchers and philosophers the respondent chooses. The response should demonstrate some understanding of taking an eclectic approach to explaining development and recognize that differing opinions are not always mutually exclusive of each other.

Level: Difficult Topic: An Introduction to Human Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.1.1: Recall the ideas about human development proposed by early philosophers and scientists

TB_01_97_Three Kinds of Change What is a critical period? What is a sensitive period? Give examples to illustrate your answers.

Answer: A critical period is a time during development when an organism is particularly susceptible to influences on specific developmental processes. A sensitive period is a span of months or years during which a child may be

particularly responsive to specific forms of experience or particularly influenced by their absence.

Level: Difficult Topic: Three Kinds of Change Skill: Evaluate It LO 1.2.3: Differentiate among the three kinds of age-related changes

TB_01_98_Contexts of Development Give an example of how context, vulnerability, and resilience may influence development.

Answer: The answer needs to demonstrate that vulnerability and resilience are generally inborn factors that may modify context effects and vice-versa.

Level: Moderate Topic: Contexts of Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.2.4: Explain the influence of context on human development

TB_01_99_The Goals of Developmental Science Explain the difference between a theory and a hypothesis. Give an example of each concept relevant to a question in lifespan development.

Answer: Theories are statements that propose general principles for understanding an area of interest. Hypotheses are testable statements. The example needs to reflect an understanding of the differences between these concepts, and also be applicable to a developmental topic.

Level: Easy Topic: The Goals of Developmental Science Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 1.3.1: Identify the goals that researchers of human development try to achieve

TB_01_100_Descriptive Methods You are reading a magazine article summarizing research investigating the intake of prenatal vitamin supplements and subsequent birth weight of an infant. The author reports a correlation coefficient of +1.67 between vitamins consumed and infant weight. What do you immediately know is true regarding this report?

Answer: It‘s immediately clear that either the magazine author didn‘t know what they were talking about, the research team didn‘t know what it was talking about, or neither set of reporters knew what they were talking about! Correlation coefficients cannot be greater than ±1.00, representing a perfect correlation between two variables. There might be some association between vitamin intake and subsequent weight, but it would not be represented by that reported statistic.

Level: Easy Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_101_Descriptive Methods Explain the benefits and limitations of the case study method.

Answer: Case studies can be useful for generating detailed information about a single individual, and may be especially useful when studying rare people (e.g., someone with an unusual developmental disorder; a child raised in social isolation). A case study might also provide the basis for generating hypotheses for later study. However, the information gained from a case study may have little to no generalizability to the behavior of people in general.

Level: Moderate Topic: Descriptive Methods Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 1.3.2: Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of each descriptive method

TB_01_102_The Experimental Method Construct a hypothesis that will allow you to experimentally investigate whether early childhood attendance in a preschool program affects later verbal skills. Identify the independent and dependent variables, and outline the design of the experiment.

Answer: Young children should be randomly assigned to various preschool programs (i.e., Montessori, homeschooling, public school) or a control group that receives no special academic instruction. This is the independent variable: type of preschool. ―Verbal skills‖ needs to be operationally defined as a dependent variable. It might be performance on a spelling test in first grade, standardized test scores in third grade, ability to carry on a conversation with the preschool teacher at the end of the term, majoring in communications when in college, and so on. In any event, the hypothesis that ―Attendance in a preschool program leads to greater verbal fluency later in life‖ can be investigated.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Experimental Method Skill: Apply What You Know LO 1.3.3: Explain the primary advantage of the experimental method over descriptive methods

TEST BANK CHAPTER 2: THEORIES OF DEVELOPMENT Multiple-Choice Questions TB_02_01_Psychoanalytic Theories Psychoanalytic theorists argue that human development depends on A) our ability to accommodate external stimuli.

B) our ability to modify our behavior based on the prospect of rewards or punishment.

C) the influence of internal drives and emotions upon behavior.

D) social relationships.

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Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Theories Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_02_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Sigmund Freud arrived at his developmental theories through his work with which group?

A) His own children B) Children who were orphaned C) Male adult patients who had experienced traumatic events D) Adults who were exhibiting serious mental disorders Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_03_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory According to Sigmund Freud, which part of everyone‘s personality operates to satisfy raw, primitive drives?

A) Unconscious B) Ego C) Superego D) Id Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_04_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory According to the psychoanalytic perspective, which aspect of personality demands to be satisfied in physically pleasurable ways?

A) Executive control of the ego B) Moral guardian of the superego C) Libido of the id D) Reality principle of the superego Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_05_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Jada saw some money lying unattended on a store counter. She really wanted to take it, but her conscience kept her from doing so. From a psychoanalytic perspective, which part of Jada‘s personality is telling her that it would be socially unacceptable to take the money?

A) Superego B) Ego C) Unconscious D) Id Answer: A Level: Moderate

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Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_06_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory An angel, a demon, and a human walk into a bar. The angel says, ―I‘d like to buy a round for the house; it‘s the right thing to do.‖ The human says, ―I‘d like that too, but realistically, we can‘t afford it.‖ The demon, meanwhile, has already chugged down a fifth of bourbon and sabotaged the jukebox. Although there‘s no punchline to this joke, there are parallels to Sigmund Freud‘s view of the organization of personality. Can you correctly identify those parallels?

A) The demon operates like the superego, the human operates like the ego, the angel operates like the id.

B) The demon operates like the id, the human operates like the ego, the angel operates like the superego.

C) The demon operates like the ego, the human operates like the superego, the angel operates like the id.

D) The demon operates like the superego, the human operates like the id, the angel operates like the ego.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

TB_02_07_No Easy Answers—The Repressed Memory Controversy Adults demonstrating excessive activities such as eating, talking, or chewing gum may be experiencing which type of fixation, according to the psychoanalytic perspective?

A) Anal B) Oral C) Phallic D) Psychosexual Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—The Repressed Memory Controversy Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

TB_02_08_Freud’s Psychosexual Theory What is the correct sequence of Sigmund Freud‘s psychosexual stages of personality development?

A) Latency, anal, oral, genital, phallic B) Oral, genital, latency, phallic, anal C) Anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital D) Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

TB_02_09_Freud’s Psychosexual Theory Freud believed that if children are either unable to gratify themselves during a particular stage of development, or if they are overgratified during a particular stage of development, __________ may occur.

A) fixation B) conflict C) stages D) generativity Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_10_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Erik Erikson‘s developmental theory is called ―psychosocial‖ because it involves the interaction of __________ and __________.

A) internal drives; environmental consequences B) internal drives; unregulated emotions C) internal drives; cultural demands D) internal drives; social instincts Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_11_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Sherri was frequently neglected as a child. As an infant, she would be left in wet diapers, and she was not fed on a regular schedule. According to Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory, which crisis was not properly resolved?

A) Industry versus inferiority B) Autonomy versus shame and doubt C) Trust versus mistrust D) Initiative versus guilt Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_12_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Which factor is generally considered to be an essential aspect of an infant‘s first psychosocial task?

A) Learning to control bodily sensations or developing shame if unsuccessful B) Becoming aware of pleasurable genital sensations and sharing these sensations with others C) Becoming purposeful, goal-oriented, and assertive, which leads to conflicts with parents D) Learning to trust a primary caregiver and one‘s own ability to make things happen Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Analyze It

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LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_13_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory According to Erik Erikson, what is the central task of adolescence?

A) To develop a sense of autonomy, or become ashamed of one‘s inability to be independent of parents B) To develop initiative and become purposeful and goal-oriented, or to feel guilty about the inability to focus and achieve C) To form intimate relationships, or to risk isolation and rejection D) To examine one‘s identity and possible roles, or risk confusion about the future Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_14_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Erik Erikson‘s notion of intimacy versus isolation is associated with which developmental age?

A) Birth to 1 year B) 2 to 3 years C) 18 to 30 years D) 30 years to late adulthood Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_15_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory According to Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory of development, which behavior defines generativity?

A) A sense of wanting to give back to society and future generations B) A sense of needing to make up for one‘s shortcomings C) The need to resolve a midlife crisis D) The need to establish intimate relationships Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_16_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Wu Ling is a young woman who has a fear of establishing relationships with others. According to Erik Erikson‘s theory of psychosocial development, Wu Ling has not resolved the challenges associated with which stage?

A) Identity versus role confusion B) Integrity versus despair C) Intimacy versus isolation D) Generativity versus stagnation Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_17_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory differs from Sigmund Freud‘s psychosexual theory, because Erikson believed that development A) is completed in infancy.

B) is completed in early childhood.

C) is completed by adolescence.

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D) continues throughout the lifespan.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development

TB_02_18_Evaluation of Psychoanalytic Theories Which major weakness applies to psychoanalytic theories?

A) They contribute more to our understanding of how learning occurs than to our knowledge of human development.

B) Such theories do not explain social, emotional, or personality development.

C) They have had little impact on laypeople‘s understanding of psychology.

D) It has been very difficult to test their key concepts.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Evaluation of Psychoanalytic Theories Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.3: Assess the strengths and weakness of psychoanalytic theory

TB_02_19_Learning Theories John B. Watson believed that children could be trained to be or do anything through A) manipulation of the environment.

B) sensory deprivation.

C) a focus on meeting early basic needs.

D) biological conditioning.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Learning Theories Skill: Analyze It LO 2.2.1: Explain how classical conditioning relates to human development

TB_02_20_Classical Conditioning Richetta was bitten by a small spotted dog when she was a little girl, and now whenever she sees a small dog approaching, she feels afraid. John B. Watson would say that Richetta‘s fearful reaction is a result of A) observational learning.

B) classical conditioning.

C) response-reward learning.

D) operant conditioning.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Classical Conditioning Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.2.1: Explain how classical conditioning relates to human development

TB_02_21_Classical Conditioning Classical conditioning plays an important role in A) intrinsic and extrinsic reinforcements for learning.

B) the development of social skills such as courtesy and patience.

C) the development of emotional responses such as anxiety or embarrassment.

D) differentiated and effective strategies for problem solving and negotiating a complex environment.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Classical Conditioning Skill: Analyze It LO 2.2.1: Explain how classical conditioning relates to human development

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TB_02_22_Classical Conditioning Which psychologist studied ―Little Albert?‖ A) Ivan Pavlov B) John Watson C) B. F. Skinner D) Wilson Riles Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Classical Conditioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.1: Explain how classical conditioning relates to human development TB_02_23_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Who introduced the term ―operant conditioning‖ to the literature of psychology?

A) Albert Bandura B) B. F. Skinner C) Sigmund Freud D) Erik Erikson Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_24_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Behavior is more likely to reoccur if A) there is intrinsic reinforcement.

B) it has been reinforced.

C) it is extinct.

D) it has been punished.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_25_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning The difference between a reinforcer and a punisher is that A) reinforcers are physical and punishers are mental.

B) punishers are behavioral and reinforcers are cognitive.

C) reinforcers strengthen behavior and punishers weaken behavior.

D) reinforcers are positive and punishers are negative.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_26_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Miguel is expected to clean his room and to empty all the trash in the house. When Miguel forgets his chores, he is grounded.

Which principle has been appropriately applied if Miguel remembers to do his chores?

A) Punishment B) Negative reinforcement

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C) Positive reinforcement D) Extinction Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_27_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning The week after she earns her driver’s license, 16-year-old Brooke arrives home an hour after curfew. As a consequence, Brooke must wash the car on Saturday and is not allowed to drive it for a week. Washing the car is a __________ and losing driving privileges is a __________.

A) positive punisher; positive punisher B) negative punisher; positive punisher C) negative punisher; negative punisher D) positive punisher; negative punisher Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_28_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Which strategy results in behaviors that are difficult to extinguish?

A) Negative reinforcement B) The application of conditioned stimuli C) Continuous reinforcement schedules D) Partial reinforcement schedules Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_29_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Which common mistake do parents make when trying to stop unwanted behaviors?

A) They forget to use continuous schedules of reinforcement.

B) They create schedules of partial reinforcement when they think they are punishing.

C) They use reinforcement of desired behaviors, when they should be using punishment of undesired behaviors.

D) They don‘t use punishment often enough.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_30_Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Which theorist is primarily responsible for developing social-cognitive learning theory?

A) Albert Bandura B) J. C. French C) B. F. Skinner D) Louis Morehouse Answer: A

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Level: Easy Topic: Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.3: Explain the cognitive elements of human development in the social-cognitive theory TB_02_31_Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Three-year-old Valdo watches as his older brother Solomon reaches up to put his hand on the hot burner of a stove. Valdo sees Solomon recoil in terror and hears his frightened screams as he plunges his injured hand into cold water. For the rest of his life, Valdo never put his hand on a stovetop burner, never got reinforced for not doing so, and in fact never had any direct experience with singed flesh or dangerous kitchen equipment, yet clearly some learning had taken place. What kind of learning did Valdo experience?

A) Observational learning B) Classical conditioning C) Operant conditioning D) Operational learning Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.3: Explain the cognitive elements of human development in the social-cognitive theory TB_02_32_Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory According to social-cognitive theory, which term describes the expectancies we acquire about what we can and cannot do?

A) Self-monitoring B) Self-evaluation C) Self-efficacy D) Self-evidence Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.2.3: Explain the cognitive elements of human development in the social-cognitive theory

TB_02_33_Evaluation of Learning Theories Which scenario illustrates the principles of social-cognitive theory?

A) Zhenya misses her curfew by 1 hour and is grounded by her parents for 1 week, yet she continues to miss curfew.

B) When Marla responds angrily to a request from her daughter Sandi, Sandi‘s sister Amber, who observed this response, decides she will wait a day or two before asking for a new pair of leggings.

C) Sienna seeks advice from a chat forum on the internet about her recurring headaches.

D) As a result of the role conflict between her parental responsibilities and her need for personal development, Alina decides to drop out of college for a semester.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Evaluation of Learning Theories Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.4: Contrast how the learning theories explain human development

TB_02_34_Evaluation of Learning Theories Which attribute would be considered a strength of social-cognitive theory?

A) It seems to give an accurate picture of the way in which many behaviors are learned.

B) It works well when trying to modify undesirable behaviors.

C) It explains unconscious, involuntary emotional responses.

D) It defines specific stages most humans pass through as they grow and develop.

Answer: A

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Level: Moderate Topic: Evaluation of Learning Theories Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.2.4: Contrast how the learning theories explain human development

TB_02_35_Cognitive Theories Which family of theories is concerned with the developmental aspects of thinking, memory, and logic?

A) Cognitive B) Social C) Psychodynamic D) Behavioral Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Cognitive Theories Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget

TB_02_36_Cognitive Theories Babies frequently engage in repetitive actions using their hands and their eyes. Which statement explains this behavior?

A) Children are born with a mind that is a blank slate waiting to be written upon by their experiences in the world.

B) Infants‘ brains are underdeveloped at birth, so there is no purpose or meaning to their actions.

C) Infants rely on their motor skills and senses to explore and learn about the world.

D) Infants want to avoid punishment from caregivers.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Cognitive Theories Skill: Analyze It LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_37_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Which summary defines the term ―scheme‖ according to Jean Piaget?

A) A child‘s mischievous plan to outwit their parents B) The process of taking in new information and revising existing categories in order to effectively deal with similar information in the future C) The meaning a child ascribes to an experience D) A cognitive structure that guides behaviors and actions Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_38_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Two-year-old Marjoe and his mother visited the zoo. While they were there, Marjoe‘s mother took him to see the otter exhibit.

When he saw an otter swimming rapidly, he pointed and said, ―A fish.‖ In the context of Jean Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development, what is Marjoe demonstrating?

A) Memorization B) Assimilation C) Preoperational thought D) Accommodation Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget

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TB_02_39_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Three-year-old Marjoe and his mother visited the zoo. While they were there, Marjoe‘s mother took him to see the otter exhibit.

When he saw an otter swimming, he pointed and said, ―A furry fish.‖ In the context of Jean Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development, what is Marjoe demonstrating?

A) Memorization B) Assimilation C) Preoperational thought D) Accommodation Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_40_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory In Jean Piaget‘s theory, the process of absorbing new information into existing cognitive structures is called A) assimilation.

B) concrete operations.

C) accommodation.

D) proximal development.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_41_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Which summary describes the process of accommodation?

A) The use of multiple strategies to address new problems B) Changing an existing scheme as a result of new information or experiences C) Using symbols to represent events from the real world D) Understanding the world in terms of one‘s senses and motor actions Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_42_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Jean Piaget believed that children use both assimilation and accommodation to create schemes that fit the reality of their environments. Which term did he use to describe this process?

A) Accommodation B) Scaffolding C) Calibration D) Equilibration Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_43_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory What is the correct sequence of Jean Piaget‘s stages of cognitive development?

A) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational B) Preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational C) Sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational D) Concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational Answer: A

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Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Remember the Facts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_44_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory According to Jean Piaget, during which stage of cognitive development does a child first acquire symbols to think and communicate?

A) Sensorimotor B) Preoperational C) Formal operations D) Concrete operations Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_45_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Which example illustrates the term ―conservation‖ according to Jean Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development?

A) The child learns the importance of recycling.

B) The child learns to use the minimal number of words necessary to communicate an idea.

C) The child learns the importance of treating the environment with respect by keeping it clean and uncluttered.

D) The child learns that when an object changes shape, its quantity remains the same.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_46_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory According to Jean Piaget, the preoperational stage of cognitive development occurs between the ages of A) birth to 18 months.

B) 18 to 24 months.

C) 24 months to 4 years.

D) 4 to 9 years.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_47_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory During which of Jean Piaget‘s stages does the child learn to manipulate ideas, concrete objects, or events, as well as to use abstract ideas and hypothetical situations in solving problems?

A) Zone of proximal development B) Concrete operational C) Information processing D) Formal operational Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_48_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory

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Which theorist is known for the development of sociocultural theory?

A) Jean Piaget B) Lev Vygotsky C) Albert Bandura D) Ivan Pavlov Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky

TB_02_49_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Four-year-old Elena can untie her shoes, but she needs her mother‘s help to tie them. She also needs her mother‘s help to button her sweater. According to Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural theory, this situation illustrates Elena‘s A) scaffold.

B) zone of proximal development.

C) adaptive processes of assimilation, accommodation, and equilibration.

D) sensorimotor development.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky TB_02_50_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Ida Claire likes to fix her own breakfast, but the milk carton is too heavy for her to manage on her own. Her father pours milk into a smaller container just for Ida Claire. Which form of assistance has Ida Claire‘s father provided, according to Lev Vygotsky?

A) Concrete operations B) Scaffolding C) A zone of proximal development D) Assimilation Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky TB_02_51_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Which situation illustrates Lev Vygotsky‘s concept of scaffolding?

A) Several children work together to overcome an obstacle they could not conquer individually.

B) A teacher works one-on-one with a student and then begins to withdraw help as the student becomes more skilled.

C) Learning in one area, such as language, tends to reinforce learning that occurs in other areas, such as mathematics.

D) Physical interaction with the environment is a key to learning, so teachers require students to run and play a great deal.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky TB_02_52_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory According to Lev Vygotsky, what is the level at which a child cannot fully perform a task independently, but can do so with the

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assistance of someone more competent?

A) Post-formal reasoning B) Script enactment C) Zone of proximal development D) Scaffold construction Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky

TB_02_53_Information-Processing Theory Information-processing theorists liken the human mind to A) a well-oiled machine.

B) a computer.

C) a thermostat.

D) a complex puzzle.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Information-Processing Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.3: Describe how information-processing theorists explain the findings of cognitive-developmental psychologists

TB_02_54_Information-Processing Theory Before information can be stored in long-term memory, in which memory system is the information processed?

A) Sensory memory B) Short-term memory C) Adaptive memory D) Random access memory Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Information-Processing Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.3.3: Describe how information-processing theorists explain the findings of cognitive-developmental psychologists

TB_02_55_Information-Processing Theory Neo-Piagetian theorists combine which concept to explain cognitive development in children?

A) Erikson‘s developmental stages and Piaget‘s cognitive theory B) Piaget‘s cognitive theory and information-processing theory C) Bandura‘s observational theory and Piaget‘s cognitive theory D) Social-learning theory and Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural theory Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Information-Processing Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.3.3: Describe how information-processing theorists explain the findings of cognitive-developmental psychologists

TB_02_56_Evaluation of Cognitive Theories Researchers who study children‘s cognitive development from a Piagetian perspective and from an information-processing perspective would agree upon which observation about children‘s cognitive development?

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A) The development of memory is not an important aspect of cognitive development.

B) Cognitive development occurs as a result of diversified experiences in an enriched environment.

C) The development of logical thinking is based upon processes that are less complex than conditioned responses.

D) Age is not a determining factor in how children manage and process information to think about and act upon the world.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Evaluation of Cognitive Theories Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.4: Summarize the contributions of the cognitive theories to the study of human development

TB_02_57_Evaluation of Cognitive Theories In terms of usefulness and reliability, which observation is true of Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural theory?

A) It is far more useful than information-processing theory because it has a greater amount of empirical support.

B) It relies too much on empiricism to support its application.

C) There is insufficient evidence at present to either support or contradict most of Vygotsky‘s ideas.

D) It has more empirical and research support than Piaget‘s theory.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Evaluation of Cognitive Theories Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.3.4: Summarize the contributions of the cognitive theories to the study of human development

TB_02_58_Evaluation of Cognitive Theories Which observation is true of Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural theory?

A) Researchers have found that children of parents who provided scaffolding during preschool perform better in elementary school than children whose parents did not provide scaffolding.

B) Most current research supports Vygotsky‘s ideas.

C) Children who work collaboratively perform worse on sophisticated tasks than children who work alone.

D) Most current research contradicts Vygotsky‘s ideas.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Evaluation of Cognitive Theories Skill: Analyze It LO 2.3.4: Summarize the contributions of the cognitive theories to the study of human development

TB_02_59_Behavior Genetics Behavior genetics researchers have a particular interest in studying A) special learning environments.

B) differentiated cells.

C) multiple births from independent zygotes.

D) identical twins.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Behavior Genetics Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.1: Explain how behavior geneticists try to understand individual differences

TB_02_60_Behavior Genetics In examining the relationship between heredity and intelligence (measured by IQ), which conclusion is correct?

A) Fraternal twins are more likely than identical twins to have similar IQs. B) Heredity appears to have the largest influence on childhood IQ scores, but its influence decreases with age.

C) Contradicting earlier research findings, a negative correlation in IQ scores exists between identical twins.

D) IQ scores of identical twins are more strongly correlated than those of fraternal twins from early childhood until middle age.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Behavior Genetics Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 2.4.1: Explain how behavior geneticists try to understand individual differences

TB_02_61_Behavior Genetics Compared to the others, which factor is LEAST likely to influence IQ? A) The type of television shows a child watches B) A stimulating environment C) Genetics D) The IQ of one‘s parents Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Behavior Genetics Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.4.1: Explain how behavior geneticists try to understand individual differences

TB_02_62_Ecological Theories The field of ethology examines the ways in which an organism’s biological makeup can influence behavior. Which theorist was a primary proponent of ethology?

A) Conny Plank B) Ralf Hütter C) Ingo Larsen D) Konrad Lorenz Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Ecological Theories Skill: Remember the Facts LO 2.4.2: Distinguish between the explanations of human development proposed by ethologists and sociobiologists

TB_02_63_Ecological Theories Which concept is an aspect of the sociobiological approach to human development?

A) Stimulus and response B) Cognitive deficits C) Social rules and behaviors that ensure survival D) Defense mechanisms Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Ecological Theories Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.2: Distinguish between the explanations of human development proposed by ethologists and sociobiologists TB_02_64_Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Which theoretical approach to development argues that there are five levels of the environment that simultaneously influence individuals?

A) Jean Piaget’s cognitive approach B) Urie Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological approach C) B. F. Skinner’s behavioral approach D) Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic approach Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory

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Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.3: Identify the main idea of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory TB_02_65_Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory According to bioecological theory, which context of development includes the values and beliefs of the culture in which a child is growing up?

A) Microsystem B) Mesosystem C) Exosystem D) Macrosystem Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.3: Identify the main idea of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory TB_02_66_Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory According to bioecological theory, which context of development includes the institutions of the culture that affect children‘s development indirectly?

A) Microsystem B) Mesosystem C) Exosystem D) Macrosystem Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.3: Identify the main idea of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory TB_02_67_Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory According to bioecological theory, which context of development includes those variables to which people are exposed directly, such as families, schools, religious institutions, and neighborhoods?

A) Microsystem B) Mesosystem C) Exosystem D) Macrosystem Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.3: Identify the main idea of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory

TB_02_68_Assumptions About Development Which feature do psychoanalytic theories of development and most learning theories have in common?

A) They both assume that nurture has the largest impact on development.

B) They are both stability theories.

C) They both assume that we are passive recipients of environmental influences.

D) They both assume that we are active in shaping our own development.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Assumptions About Development Skill: Analyze It LO 2.5.1: Identify the assumptions about development made by the various theories

TB_02_69_Usefulness In terms of the usefulness of theories, Jean Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development is more useful than Sigmund Freud‘s

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theory of psychosexual development because Piaget‘s ideas offered A) less heuristic value.

B) a greater number of testable predictions.

C) fewer quantifiable variables.

D) more room for interpretation of terms.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Usefulness Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.5.2: Identify the criteria used by developmentalists to judge the usefulness of theories

TB_02_70_Eclecticism Three developmentalists were discussing theories in their field. ―I endorse the psychoanalytic perspective,‖ said Anna, ―because it gets at the core of human nature.‖ ―Behaviorism and social-cognitive learning are correct,‖ replied Fred. ―We are what we do.‖ ―It‘s all about culture, man!‖ shouted Rudolf. ―That‘s where it‘s at!‖ ―There are many perspectives in our field,‖ Castor said quietly, ―and each of them has a piece of the truth.‖ Which approach is Castor advocating?

A) Eclectic B) Evolutionary C) Cognitive D) Behavioral Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Eclecticism Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.5.3: Explain the usefulness of eclecticism in relation to more traditional approaches

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_02_71_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory According to Sigmund Freud, the ________ stage of psychosexual development occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years.

Answer: anal Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

TB_02_72_Psychoanalytic Theories Psychosocial is to _________ as psychoanalytic is to ________.

Answer: Erikson; Freud Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Theories Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_73_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Eight-year-old Fito is in the third grade. He is very good at spelling and frequently receives praise from his parents and teachers for his verbal skills. According to Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory, Fito will develop a sense of ________.

Answer: industry Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development

TB_02_74_Classical Conditioning According to the principles of classical conditioning, when a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US), the result is a(n) ________.

Answer: unconditioned response (or UR) Level: Difficult Topic: Classical Conditioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.1: Explain how classical conditioning relates to human development TB_02_75_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning _________ coined the term ―operant conditioning.‖ Answer: B. F. Skinner Level: Easy Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_76_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning In operant conditioning, ________ always strengthens behavior; ________ always weakens behavior.

Answer: reinforcement; punishment Level: Moderate Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_77_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory In Jean Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development, ________ is the process of balancing assimilation with accommodation.

Answer: equilibration

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Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_78_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Kara is in the first grade. At lunch, she sits next to her best friend Sheila, and today they are having hot dogs. An older child helps Kara and Sheila by cutting their hot dogs into pieces. Kara complains because her hot dog was cut into five pieces and Sheila‘s was cut into six. Kara believes that Sheila has more food. According to Jean Piaget, Kara has not yet mastered the principle of ________.

Answer: conservation Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_79_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory According to Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural theory, training wheels on a bicycle would be an example of _________.

Answer: scaffolding Level: Moderate Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky

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TB_02_80_Ecological Theories The field of ________ focuses on studying animals in their natural environment.

Answer: ethology Level: Easy Topic: Ecological Theories Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.4.2: Distinguish between the explanations of human development proposed by ethologists and sociobiologists

TB_02_81_Usefulness The degree to which a theory stimulates thinking and research is known as the theory‘s ________.

Answer: heuristic value Level: Easy Topic: Usefulness Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.5.2: Identify the criteria used by developmentalists to judge the usefulness of theories

TB_02_82_Eclecticism ________ refers to the use of multiple theoretical perspectives to explain and study human development.

Answer: Eclecticism Level: Easy Topic: Eclecticism Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.5.3: Explain the usefulness of eclecticism in relation to more traditional approaches

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Short Answer Questions TB_02_83_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory What is the purpose of defense mechanisms, according to psychoanalytic theory?

Answer: to ease the anxiety that results from conflicts between the id and superego Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_84_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory According to Sigmund Freud‘s psychoanalytic theory, during which stage of psychosexual development does the Oedipus or Electra complex occur?

Answer: The Oedipus complex or Electra complex occurs during the phallic stage of development, between the ages of 3 and 6 years.

Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory TB_02_85_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory List the psychosocial crises that a child between the ages of 1 and 12 years will need to resolve in order to develop successfully, according to Erik Erikson.

Answer: autonomy versus shame and doubt; initiative versus guilt; industry versus inferiority Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development TB_02_86_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning In operant conditioning terms, all behavior stems from reactions to what?

Answer: external reinforcers and/or punishers Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach

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TB_02_87_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Why do people sometimes persist in behaviors even though they have been punished for performing those behaviors?

Answer: either the punishment was inadequate or the reward received from performing the behavior outweighs the punishment Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_88_Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory According to social-cognitive theory, in order to learn from a model, which factors must be present?

Answer: motivation; physical ability; ability to remember Level: Difficult Topic: Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.2.3: Explain the cognitive elements of human development in the social-cognitive theory TB_02_89_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory According to Jean Piaget, how does accommodation take place?

Answer: Accommodation involves changing a scheme as a result of some new information acquired through assimilation.

Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_90_Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory What would Lev Vygotsky call a developmental level in a child‘s life when they are primed biologically and are socially ready to learn a new behavior?

Answer: the zone of proximal development Level: Moderate Topic: Vygotsky‘s Sociocultural Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 2.3.2: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Vygotsky

TB_02_91_Evaluation of Cognitive Theories If someone asked you whether you find Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural theory to be useful in understanding development, what would be your well-informed response?

Answer: Presently there is insufficient evidence to either support or discredit most of Vygotsky‘s notions.

Level: Moderate Topic: Evaluation of Cognitive Theories Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.3.4: Summarize the contributions of the cognitive theories to the study of human development

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TB_02_92_Ecological Theories Pepito believes that we need to understand an individual‘s ability to adapt to their environment in order to explain development.

From which theory is Pepito working?

Answer: ecological and/or ethology Level: Moderate Topic: Ecological Theories Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.4.2: Distinguish between the explanations of human development proposed by ethologists and sociobiologists TB_02_93_Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Using Urie Bronfenbrenner‘s bioecological theory, give a brief example of entities that might exist in a person‘s exosystem.

Answer: Examples would be a family‘s socioeconomic level, funding for after-school programs, or the quality or availability of day care.

Level: Difficult Topic: Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.4.3: Identify the main idea of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory

TB_02_94_Comparing Theories Name two developmental theories that propose that people are active in shaping their own development.

Answer: Possibilities are social-learning, cognitive, or information-processing theories.

Level: Easy Topic: Comparing Theories Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 2.5.1: Identify the assumptions about development made by the various theories

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Essay Questions TB_02_95_Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Briefly describe the function of the id, ego, and superego in human behavior, according to Sigmund Freud‘s psychosexual theory of development.

Answer: The id operates at an unconscious level and comprises a person’s basic sexual and aggressive impulses; it contains the libido and motivates a person to seek pleasure and avoid pain. The id is present at birth. The ego, the conscious, thinking part of personality, develops in the first 2 to 3 years of life. One of the ego’s jobs is to keep the needs of the id satisfied. The superego, the part of the personality that acts as a moral judge, contains the rules of society and develops near the end of early childhood, at about age 6. Once the superego develops, the ego’s task becomes more complex. It must satisfy the id without violating the superego’s rules.

Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychosexual Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.1: Identify the main ideas of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

TB_02_96_No Easy Answers—The Repressed Memory Controversy Summarize the repressed memory controversy.

Answer: The answer needs to include that opinion in the psychological community is split. Important points: that therapists do not inadvertently ―plant‖ false memories; that memories are indeed sometimes repressed; and that therapists need to exercise caution when working with the concepts of the unconscious mind.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—The Repressed Memory Controversy Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development

TB_02_97_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Explain three basic principles of Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory of development.

Answer: The answer should include the following: Erikson focused on the importance of social interactions; the resolution of crises at each stage of development was a crucial and necessary task; Erikson thought that healthy resolution of crises depended on some integration of the negative side of the dichotomy.

Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development

TB_02_98_Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Which stages of development would an 18-year-old be transitioning from and to in Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory? Name the crises to be resolved during these stages.

Answer: An 18-year-old would be transitioning from the identity-versus-role-confusion stage (which Erikson thought took place between the ages of 12 and 18) and into the intimacy-versus-isolation stage (from ages 18 to 30). Erikson thought that in the earlier stage, in order to arrive at a mature sexual and occupational identity, all adolescents must examine their identity and the roles they must occupy. During intimacy-versus-isolation Erikson hypothesized that an individual‘s capacity for intimacy is dependent on a positive resolution of the identity-versus-role-confusion crisis. Erikson thought that only those people who have already formed a clear identity can successfully achieve the fusion of identities with a long-term partner required to resolve the intimacy versus isolation crisis.

Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Psychosocial Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.1.2: Explain the significance of psychosocial conflicts in Erikson’s stages of development

TB_02_99_Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning

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Many people do not understand the difference between negative reinforcement and punishment. Explain the difference between these two concepts. Give an example of each.

Answer: The answer must explain the basic difference between reinforcement (strengthening of a response) and punishment (weakening of a response) and the difference between positive (application) and negative (removal). Examples will vary, but they must be clear that negative reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior occurring again in the future, whereas punishment weakens that likelihood.

Level: Difficult Topic: Skinner‘s Operant Conditioning Skill: Analyze It LO 2.2.2: Identify the principles of human development according to the operant conditioning approach TB_02_100_Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Give an example of Albert Bandura‘s social-cognitive learning at work. Your example must show that you understand the concepts of modeling, and how individuals choose whom and what behaviors to model.

Answer: We tend to model the behaviors of those people with whom we can identify. Other factors that come into play are motivation, physical abilities, memory, and age.

Level: Difficult Topic: Bandura‘s Social-Cognitive Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.2.3: Explain the cognitive elements of human development in the social-cognitive theory

TB_02_101_Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Three of Jean Piaget‘s basic concepts are schemes, accommodation, and assimilation. Give an example to illustrate each of these concepts.

Answer: A pivotal idea in Piaget‘s model is that of a scheme, an internal cognitive structure that provides an individual with a procedure to follow in a specific circumstance. Assimilation is the process of using schemes to make sense of experiences.

Piaget would say that a baby who grasps a toy is assimilating it to a grasping scheme. The complementary process is accommodation, which involves changing the scheme as a result of some new information acquired through assimilation. When the babies grasp a square object for the first time, they will accommodate the grasping scheme; the next time they reach for a square object, their hands will be more appropriately positioned to grasp it.

Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Cognitive-Developmental Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.3.1: Summarize the principles of cognitive development proposed by Piaget TB_02_102_Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Urie Bronfenbrenner‘s bioecological theory proposed the existence of a macrosystem, an exosystem, and a microsystem, corresponding roughly to influences related to a person‘s cultural context, socioeconomic context, and immediate context, respectively. Select one of these systems and discuss how it has affected the course of your development.

Answer: Responses will vary depending on the systems and examples chosen, but they should clearly illustrate the operation of the system at work. For example, a respondent whose cultural background played an important role in development (e.g., immigrating to a different country at a young age) should correctly identify the influence of the macrosystem, but also discuss an example of this system at work (e.g., having to adapt to new customs, a new school system, a new language, and so on).

Level: Difficult Topic: Bronfenbrenner‘s Bioecological Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 2.4.3: Identify the main idea of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory

TEST BANK CHAPTER 3: PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT AND BIRTH Multiple-Choice Questions TB_03_01_The Process of Conception

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Where does the fertilization of the ovum take place in a typical pregnancy?

A) Ovary B) Uterus C) Fallopian tubes D) Vagina Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception

TB_03_02_The Process of Conception The nucleus of the majority of typical human cells contains ________ pairs of chromosomes.

A) 46 B) 23 C) 48 D) 22 Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception

TB_03_03_The Process of Conception All genes are composed of specific sequences of which kind of molecules?

A) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) B) Calcium C) Mitochondria D) Ribonucleic acid (RNA) Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception

TB_03_04_The Process of Conception After a sperm enters the ovum, these two cells suddenly fuse, becoming one cell. What is this cell called?

A) Chromosomes B) Gametes C) Zygotes D) Genes Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception

TB_03_05_The Process of Conception What is the difference between gametes and all other body cells?

A) Gametes contain only 23 chromosomes; other body cells contain 46.

B) The majority of body cells have 46 pairs of chromosomes; sex cells have 23 pairs of autosomes.

C) Sex cells are called gametes, whereas other body cells are called autosomes.

D) Gametes contain 46 chromosomes; other body cells contain 23 pairs.

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Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Analyze It LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception

TB_03_06_Research Report—Twins in Genetic Research Which is true of identical twin studies?

A) Fraternal twins reared together are more likely than identical twins to exhibit similar behaviors.

B) The study of monozygotic twins is important because it helps us, to some extent, identify genetic versus environmental contributions to behavior.

C) Biologically based characteristics such as hair and eye color are nonetheless influenced by environment.

D) The study of dizygotic twins is important because it helps us rule out environmental contributions to behavior.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Twins in Genetic Research Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception

TB_03_07_How Genes Influence Development Marissa and Melissa are twins and are genetically identical. Which term would a geneticist use to describe them?

A) Gamete-deprived twins B) Dizygotic twins C) Monozygotic twins D) Replicated twins Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_08_How Genes Influence Development Minoru has dark hair and dark eyes, even though his biological mother is fair-skinned. Minoru‘s hair and eye color are part of his A) genotype.

B) embryonic cell map.

C) polygenic factoring.

D) phenotype.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_09_How Genes Influence Development Which observation is true of a trait controlled by a dominant gene?

A) The trait will be expressed even if the instructions of the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair are different.

B) The trait may or may not be expressed, depending upon whether environmental conditions facilitate or prevent the expression of the trait.

C) The trait will always be a positive, beneficial trait.

D) The trait will be expressed only if the instructions of the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair are the same.

Answer: A

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Level: Moderate Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_10_How Genes Influence Development When a child receives different forms of a certain gene from parents, how would a geneticist describe that child?

A) Monozygous B) Phenozygous C) Homozygous D) Heterozygous Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_11_How Genes Influence Development Under what circumstances will a recessive gene be expressed?

A) When the gene is carried on the Y chromosome B) When the gene is from the mother C) When it is paired with another recessive gene for the same trait D) When it is carried on the X chromosome Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_12_How Genes Influence Development Gordie‘s father has type A blood and his mother has type O blood. What will Gordie‘s blood type be?

A) A-prime B) B+ C) A or O D) B− Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_13_How Genes Influence Development Which example illustrates the differential expressivity of genes?

A) Yancy and Clancy are twins, and they exhibit similar behaviors.

B) Manuel‘s tendency to be emotional is determined by recessive genes he received from both his parents.

C) Clara‘s blood type is AB, because her mother was heterozygous for type B and her father was heterozygous for type A. D) Linda received a dominant gene for freckles from her father, but Linda‘s freckles are smaller, lighter, and more widely scattered than those of her father.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know

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LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_14_How Genes Influence Development What is the term for the pattern of inheritance in which many genes influence a trait?

A) Polymorphic inheritance B) Polygenic inheritance C) Monomorphic inheritance D) Monogenic inheritance Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_15_How Genes Influence Development Which statement is true of a trait that is passed through mitochondrial inheritance?

A) It is inherited as a multifactorial trait.

B) It is passed from a mother to her children.

C) It is found only on the Y chromosome.

D) It is a co-dominant trait.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_16_How Genes Influence Development Which term describes physical traits that are influenced by both genes and the environment?

A) Polygenetic B) Dominant-recessive C) Epifactorial D) Multifactorial Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_17_How Genes Influence Development Lucrezia and Rodrigo are siblings who come from a family with a history of anxiety. Lucrezia is somewhat anxious but generally takes things in stride. Rodrigo, however, is always worried about his health, his job, and his family even when there is no cause for concern. Which concept explains these differences between Lucrezia and Rodrigo?

A) Epilogical genetics B) Dominant and recessive traits C) Multifactorial inheritance D) Mitochondrial inheritance Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_18_Genetic Disorders The genes that cause sex-linked disorders are found on the A) genomes.

B) X chromosome.

C) autosomes.

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D) Y chromosome.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders

TB_03_19_Genetic Disorders Phenylketonuria is an example of a(n) A) sex-linked recessive disorder.

B) disorder of immune function.

C) autosomal disorder.

D) gamete disorder.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders

TB_03_20_Genetic Disorders Which affliction is an autosomal dominant-gene disorder?

A) Huntington‘s disease B) Phenylketonuria C) Sickle-cell disease D) Tay-Sachs disease Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders

TB_03_21_Genetic Disorders Emily has a recessive disorder that produces blindness and severe intellectual disability prior to an early death. Which disorder does Emily have?

A) Tay-Sachs disease B) Huntington‘s disease C) Phenylketonuria (PKU) D) Sickle-cell disease Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders

TB_03_22_Genetic Disorders Most sex-linked disorders are caused by which factor?

A) Maternal alcoholism B) Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder C) Recessive genes D) Dominant genes Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders

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TB_03_23_Genetic Disorders Which of these genetic disorders usually does not express symptoms until adulthood?

A) Tay-Sachs disease B) Sickle-cell disease C) Phenylketonuria (PKU) D) Huntington‘s disease Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders

TB_03_24_Chromosomal Errors What is a trisomy?

A) Three copies of a specific autosome B) The behavioral manifestation of fragile-X syndrome C) A sex-linked syndrome D) A third pair of chromosomes Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Chromosomal Errors Skill: Analyze It LO 3.2.2: Identify the disorders that result from chromosomal errors

TB_03_25_Chromosomal Errors Sara has an extra chromosome on her 21st pair of chromosomes. Which disorder does Sara have?

A) Trisomy 12A B) Sickle-cell disease C) Down syndrome D) Huntington‘s disease Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Chromosomal Errors Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.2.2: Identify the disorders that result from chromosomal errors

TB_03_26_Chromosomal Errors Compared to the others, which person statistically has the greatest risk for bearing a child with trisomy 21?

A) Alice, who is 18 and is addicted to drugs B) Bernice, age 45 C) Carol, age 27, who had in vitro fertilization D) Dodie, age 30, who is having her seventh child Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Chromosomal Errors Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.2.2: Identify the disorders that result from chromosomal errors

TB_03_27_Chromosomal Errors What is the prognosis for children born with trisomy 13 or trisomy 18?

A) They rarely live past infancy.

B) They develop facial tics and usually show signs of autism.

C) They typically die during adolescence.

D) They are predisposed to respiratory disorders such as cystic fibrosis.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Chromosomal Errors Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 3.2.2: Identify the disorders that result from chromosomal errors

TB_03_28_Chromosomal Errors Tony has the disorder that results from the presence of an extra X chromosome that produces underdeveloped testes, learning disabilities, and enlarged breasts. Which disorder does Tony have?

A) Klinefelter syndrome B) Down syndrome C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Fragile-X syndrome Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Chromosomal Errors Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.2.2: Identify the disorders that result from chromosomal errors

TB_03_29_Chromosomal Errors Reese is anatomically female, but did not develop breasts or menstruate at puberty and needed hormone therapy. Reese was most likely born with A) Klinefelter syndrome.

B) an extra Y chromosome.

C) Turner syndrome.

D) Down syndrome.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Chromosomal Errors Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.2.2: Identify the disorders that result from chromosomal errors

TB_03_30_The Experience of Pregnancy Which event happens during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A) Chemical messages are sent to the brain to start menstruation.

B) Increased menstrual flow is evident.

C) The cervix thins and begins to stretch.

D) The zygote implants itself in the lining of the uterus.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Experience of Pregnancy Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.1: Outline the events that occur during each trimester of pregnancy

TB_03_31_The Experience of Pregnancy Not long after Ranjan found out she was pregnant, she began having pain. When she went to her physician, she was told that the zygote had implanted in her fallopian tube rather than in her uterus. What type of pregnancy is this?

A) A fallopian pregnancy B) A zygotic pregnancy C) An ectopic pregnancy D) An interstitial pregnancy Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Experience of Pregnancy Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.1: Outline the events that occur during each trimester of pregnancy

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TB_03_32_The Experience of Pregnancy Which condition can cause a fetus to grow too rapidly, and result in premature labor or an infant that is too large for a vaginal birth?

A) Ectopic pregnancy B) Gestational diabetes C) Hypothyroidism D) High blood pressure Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Experience of Pregnancy Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.1: Outline the events that occur during each trimester of pregnancy

TB_03_33_Prenatal Development Which developmental principle predicts that we would likely develop visual abilities (located in the head) well before we master the ability to walk (closer to the end of the body)?

A) Spinal cord dysplasia B) Prenatal gender differentiation C) Cephalocaudal pattern D) Proximodistal pattern Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_34_Prenatal Development Which is an example of the proximodistal pattern of development during the prenatal period?

A) The spinal cord develops before the arms.

B) The digestive organs are formed before the heart.

C) Male growth patterns proceed more quickly than female growth patterns.

D) Hair color is established before differentiation of the gonads.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_35_Prenatal Development What is the first and shortest stage of the prenatal period called?

A) Fertilization stage B) Germinal stage C) Conception stage D) Embryonic stage Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

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TB_03_36_Prenatal Development A normally developing fetus has reached a length of 12 inches and weighs about one pound. Using ultrasound, it is possible to tell if the fetus is male or female. In which stage of development is this fetus?

A) Germinal B) Fetal C) Embryonic D) Implantation Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_37_Prenatal Development Which sequence correctly lists the stages of prenatal development in order of progression?

A) Fetal, embryonic, germinal B) Zygotic, germinal, embryonic C) Germinal, embryonic, fetal D) Embryonic, fetal, germinal Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_38_Prenatal Development A blastocyst is floating inside of Daria‘s uterus. In what stage is Daria‘s pregnancy?

A) Fetal B) Embryonic C) Zygotic D) Germinal Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_39_Prenatal Development Which structure is formed from cells from the outer layer of the blastocyst and the uterine wall?

A) Gamete B) Amniotic sac C) Placenta D) Blastocyst Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_40_Prenatal Development Organogenesis is A) the process by which an embryo‘s sex organs (uterus, ovaries, penis, and testes) are sufficiently formed to allow sex determination.

B) the way the placenta, amnion, and umbilical cord begin to function.

C) when the germinal stage ends and the next stage of prenatal development begins.

D) the process by which the basic structures of the embryo‘s organs, organ systems, and body parts are completed.

Answer: D

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Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_41_Prenatal Development At what point does the fetal period begin?

A) When the process of organogenesis is complete B) At the moment of conception C) After the dendritic arbor forms around the umbilical cord D) When implantation is complete Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_42_Prenatal Development When does a developing infant begin to respond to sound?

A) 6–10 weeks B) 13–16 weeks C) 22–26 weeks D) 36–40 weeks Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_43_Prenatal Development Fingerprints, facial expressions, and urination are first present at __________ of prenatal development.

A) 9–12 weeks B) 13–16 weeks C) 17–20 weeks D) 32–36 weeks Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_44_Prenatal Development __________ refers to the ability of a fetus to survive outside of the uterus.

A) Resistance B) Viability C) Vulnerability D) Organogenesis Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_45_Prenatal Development Synapses are formed following the development of which neural structures?

A) Cell bodies and axons

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B) Dendrites and neurons C) Axons and dendrites D) Cell bodies and dendrites Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development

TB_03_46_Prenatal Development Which entities are ―glue‖ that holds neurons together to give shape to the brain‘s major structures?

A) Axonal cells B) Glial cells C) Myelin fibers D) Dendritic cells Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_47_Sex Differences Which statement correctly summarizes sex differences in physical maturation?

A) Male infants are about 2 weeks ahead of female infants in bone development at birth.

B) Male fetuses are larger and grow more rapidly than female fetuses do.

C) Female fetuses are more active than male fetuses in the womb.

D) Male fetuses are more active than female fetuses in the womb.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Sex Differences Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.3.3: Describe the differences in male and female prenatal development TB_03_48_Sex Differences Which observation accounts for sex differences in susceptibility to problems in prenatal development?

A) The placentas of male fetuses are larger and better developed than those of female fetuses, which provides greater protection to males from negative external influences.

B) More female fetuses than male fetuses are spontaneously aborted; therefore, there are a greater number of male fetuses to be affected by negative influences during pregnancy.

C) Many more female fetuses than male fetuses are conceived, which means there‘s a greater likelihood that female fetuses will be susceptible to negative influences during pregnancy.

D) The placentas of female fetuses are larger and better developed than those of male fetuses, which provides greater protection to females from negative external influences.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Sex Differences Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.3.3: Describe the differences in male and female prenatal development

TB_03_49_Prenatal Behavior A fetus can distinguish between familiar and novel stimuli by the ___________ of prenatal development.

A) 32nd or 33rd week B) 28th or 29th week C) 13th week D) 9th or 10th week Answer: A Level: Moderate

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Topic: Prenatal Behavior Skill: Remember the Facts LO 3.3.4: Identify prenatal behaviors that have been linked to fetal brain development

TB_03_50_How Teratogens Influence Development Nadia is exposed to high levels of radiation during the 6th, 7th, and 8th weeks of gestation. Which organ structures in the fetus are most likely to show abnormalities?

A) Only the brain and spinal cord B) The heart and liver C) The palate of the mouth and the ears D) Virtually all organ systems are vulnerable during this time Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: How Teratogens Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.4.1: Explain the effects of teratogens on prenatal development

TB_03_51_ How Teratogens Influence Development Amber has been taking diet pills, but she thinks she is pregnant. What advice should she follow?

A) She shouldn‘t worry, as regular consumption of diet pills has been shown to be safe both for pregnant people and their developing fetuses.

B) Diet pills are likely to cause heart deformities in the fetus, so Amber should stop taking them.

C) Diet pills can contribute to low birth weight in a fetus, which in turn can lead to other complications.

D) As long as she is getting adequate nutrition, Amber shouldn‘t worry about any drug effects on the fetus.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: How Teratogens Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.4.1: Explain the effects of teratogens on prenatal development

TB_03_52_Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Which is a correct statement about the influence of heroin and methadone upon prenatal and infant developments?

A) Heroin or methadone use can cause miscarriage, premature labor, and death of the infant.

B) Few babies born to heroin- or methadone-addicted pregnant people are themselves born addicted to the drugs.

C) Infants born to heroin-addicted pregnant people are genetically predisposed to be adult addicts.

D) The quality of the home environment is irrelevant in the development of infants who were prenatally exposed to heroin or methadone.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Skill: Analyze It LO 3.4.2: Outline the potential teratogenic effects drugs can have on prenatal development

TB_03_53_Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Which statement summarizes the current understanding of the effects of maternal cocaine use on fetuses and infants?

A) The defects in the infant are usually cognitive, such as intellectual impairment.

B) The effects are very similar to fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, such as physical defects and intellectual impairment.

C) The effects are similar to those of heroin, such as high-pitched crying, tremors, and convulsions in the newborn.

D) The effects are not clearly understood because it is difficult to separate the effects of cocaine from those of poverty and other drugs.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.4.2: Outline the potential teratogenic effects drugs can have on prenatal development

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TB_03_54_Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol LaKeesha has smoked an average of one pack of cigarettes per day throughout her pregnancy. How is this likely to affect her fetus?

A) The infant will have an elevated risk of intellectual impairment and deafness.

B) The infant is likely to be born with physical deformities.

C) The infant may weigh less than normal at birth.

D) The research is unclear as to the effects of smoking on fetuses.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.4.2: Outline the potential teratogenic effects drugs can have on prenatal development

TB_03_55_Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Which characteristic is evident in a child born with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder?

A) The child may be born larger than other infants of comparable maturity and may continue to be larger than peers throughout life.

B) The child may have a very high physical activity level or may even be hyperactive.

C) The child may have mild intellectual disabilities.

D) The child may have a large, broad nose.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.4.2: Outline the potential teratogenic effects drugs can have on prenatal development

TB_03_56_Maternal Diseases Which observation is true regarding prenatal infection with HIV? A) Transmission of HIV and AIDS occurs 100% of the time in infants of people who are HIV positive.

B) Transmission is equally likely when the pregnant person is HIV positive or has AIDS. C) Transmission is more likely when the pregnant person has AIDS rather than merely being HIV positive.

D) Transmission is more likely when the pregnant person is HIV positive rather than having developed AIDS. Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Maternal Diseases Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.5.1: Identify risks associated with teratogenic maternal diseases

TB_03_57_Maternal Diseases Which sexually transmitted disease can be passed to the fetus during vaginal birth?

A) Smallpox B) Genital herpes C) Rubella D) Measles Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Maternal Diseases Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.5.1: Identify risks associated with teratogenic maternal diseases

TB_03_58_Maternal Diseases As many as 60–80% of all women carry _________, but most have no recognizable symptoms.

A) HIV B) cytomegalovirus (CMV) C) syphilis D) rubella

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Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Maternal Diseases Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.5.1: Identify risks associated with teratogenic maternal diseases

TB_03_59_Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Pregnant people should eat foods high in folic acid, such as beans or spinach, during pregnancy, in order to A) help moderate the effects of teratogens to which the fetus might be exposed.

B) reduce the effects of stress on the fetus.

C) ensure sufficient weight gain for a healthy baby.

D) reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.5.2: Summarize other maternal factors that influence prenatal development

TB_03_60_Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Which risk to an infant is associated with maternal malnutrition?

A) A decreased risk of delivering a low birth weight infant B) The delayed expression of adaptive reflexes C) The development of intellectual disabilities in childhood D) Brain abnormalities in which both the weight and volume of the brain are enlarged Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.5.2: Summarize other maternal factors that influence prenatal development

TB_03_61_Fetal Assessment and Treatment What is the process in which high-frequency sound waves scan a pregnant person‘s uterus to produce an image of an unborn baby?

A) Amniocentesis B) Ultrasonography C) Fetoscopy D) Electroencephalography Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Fetal Assessment and Treatment Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.5.3: Describe the tests that physicians use to monitor fetal development

TB_03_62_Fetal Assessment and Treatment Which process identifies genetic defects by examining a small sample of fetal cells drawn by a needle inserted into the amniotic fluid?

A) Amniocentesis B) Fetoscopy C) Ultrasound sonography D) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Fetal Assessment and Treatment Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 3.5.3: Describe the tests that physicians use to monitor fetal development

TB_03_63_Birth Choices How are newborn infants affected by medications administered to the pregnant person during the birthing process?

A) Infants are not affected by birth medications because the placenta effectively filters such medications.

B) Birth medications typically have no observable short- or long-term effects upon an infant.

C) Birth medications significantly depress infant respiration and heart rate and pose a considerable risk of infant mortality.

D) These infants are usually more sluggish, spend more time sleeping, and gain a little less weight during the first weeks after birth.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Birth Choices Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.6.1: Assess the risks and benefits of the available choices for childbirth

TB_03_64_The Physical Process of Birth Which event defines the final stage of labor?

A) Delivery of the baby B) Dilation and effacement of the cervix C) Latent, moderate contractions D) Delivery of the placenta Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Physical Process of Birth Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.6.2: Describe the potential complications during each of the three stages of labor

TB_03_65_The Physical Process of Birth Sandi has begun the labor process. Her physician concludes that the baby is in a breech position, with its feet poised to be delivered first. Which course of action is the physician likely to recommend for Sandi?

A) Performing a cesarean section to deliver the baby B) Stimulating the cervix manually to hasten dilation C) Continuing with a vaginal delivery D) Waiting a day or two to see if the baby naturally reorients itself Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Physical Process of Birth Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.6.2: Describe the potential complications during each of the three stages of labor

TB_03_66_The Physical Process of Birth When collapsed blood vessels can no longer carry blood to and from the baby via the umbilical cord during delivery, what condition has occurred?

A) Effacement B) Anoxia C) Ligation D) Dilation Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Physical Process of Birth Skill: Analyze It LO 3.6.2: Describe the potential complications during each of the three stages of labor

TB_03_67_Assessing the Neonate Which aspect of neonatal functioning is assessed by the Apgar scale?

A) Weight B) Height

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C) Hair color D) Skin color Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Assessing the Neonate Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.6.3: Explain what the Apgar scale is used for

TB_03_68_Assessing the Neonate A neonate scores below 4 on the Apgar scale. What does this mean?

A) The baby is normal and healthy.

B) The baby requires help to start breathing.

C) The baby needs immediate, life-saving intervention.

D) The baby is premature.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Assessing the Neonate Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.6.3: Explain what the Apgar scale is used for

TB_03_69_Assessing the Neonate Low birth weight infants (LBW) are those that weigh less than A) 5.5 pounds at birth.

B) 7.0 pounds at birth.

C) 7.5 pounds at birth.

D) 9.0 pounds at birth.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Assessing the Neonate Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.6.3: Explain what the Apgar scale is used for

TB_03_70_Assessing the Neonate Compared to other infants, low birth weight infants (LBW) display A) hyperactivity and increased agitation at birth.

B) Apgar scores of 8.3 to 9.6.

C) markedly lower levels of responsiveness at birth and in the early months of life.

D) greater appetite immediately after birth, followed by loss of appetite during the following week.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Assessing the Neonate Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.6.3: Explain what the Apgar scale is used for

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_03_71_The Process of Conception Conception takes place in the ________.

Answer: fallopian tube Level: Moderate Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Analyze It LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception TB_03_72_ The Process of Conception The generic term for both ovaries and testes is ________.

Answer: gonads Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception TB_03_73_Genetic Disorders ________ disease is an autosomal disorder most often seen in Jewish people of East European ancestry.

Answer: Tay-Sachs Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders TB_03_74_Genetic Disorders Most sex-linked disorders are far more common in _______ than in _________.

Answer: males; females Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders TB_03_75_Prenatal Development Prenatal care is especially critical during the first 8 weeks of gestation because ________ is taking place.

Answer: organogenesis Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_76_Prenatal Development ________ receive information into the body of a neuron, whereas ________ carry that information along the length of the neuron.

Answer: Dendrites; axons Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_77_Prenatal Development ________ cells hold neurons together and give shape to neural structures.

Answer: Glial Level: Easy Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_78_Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol An infant who is born with low birth weight, flattened nose, hearing loss, and heart defects is likely to be diagnosed with ________.

Answer: fetal alcohol spectrum disorder Level: Difficult

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Topic: Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.4.2: Outline the potential teratogenic effects drugs can have on prenatal development TB_03_79_Maternal Diseases Infants who acquire HIV from their mothers typically become ill within the first ________ of life.

Answer: two years Level: Moderate Topic: Maternal Diseases Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.5.1: Identify risks associated with teratogenic maternal diseases TB_03_80_Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Lead, solvents, or pesticides are examples of potential ________ that can be harmful to prenatal development.

Answer: teratogens Level: Moderate Topic: Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.5.2: Summarize other maternal factors that influence prenatal development TB_03_81_Fetal Assessment and Treatment ________ involves the insertion of a tiny camera into the uterus.

Answer: Fetoscopy Level: Easy Topic: Fetal Assessment and Treatment Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.5.3: Describe the tests that physicians use to monitor fetal development TB_03_82_Low Birth Weight and Preterm Birth All neonates below ________ are classified as having low birth weights.

Answer: 5.5 pounds (2,500 grams) Level: Moderate Topic: Low Birth Weight and Preterm Birth Skill: Analyze It LO 3.6.4: Describe the risks associated with low birth weight

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Short Answer Questions TB_03_83_The Process of Conception In the absence of sperm, what happens to an ovum after ovulation?

Answer: It travels from the ovary through the fallopian tube, into the uterus, and is expelled with menstruation.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Process of Conception Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.1.1: Describe the characteristics of the zygote created at conception TB_03_84_How Genes Influence Development List any three traits that are associated with dominant genes.

Answer: Nine traits listed in the text are freckles, coarse hair, dimples, curly hair, nearsightedness, broad lips, Rh-positive blood, types A and B blood, dark hair.

Level: Moderate Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development TB_03_85_How Genes Influence Development Give an example of physical traits that could result from multifactorial inheritance.

Answer: The example must clearly demonstrate an understanding of how environment can influence genetics; possibilities include height, weight, intelligence, physical abilities, and so on.

Level: Difficult Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development TB_03_86_Genetic Disorders Give three examples of autosomal dominant disorders.

Answer: Listed in the text are: 1. Huntington‘s disease 2. High blood pressure 3. Extra fingers 4. Migraine headaches 5. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders TB_03_87_The Experience of Pregnancy Identify three things that a pregnant person is likely to experience during the second trimester of pregnancy.

Answer: The three most common are disappearance of morning sickness, weight gain, and beginning to ―show‖ that a pregnancy has occurred.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Experience of Pregnancy Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.1: Outline the events that occur during each trimester of pregnancy TB_03_88_Prenatal Development What is meant by the cephalocaudal pattern of development? Give an example.

Answer: ―Cephalocaudal” means that development proceeds from the head down; an example would be that the facial features will begin to develop before the distinction of fingers and toes, or that the brain is formed before the abdominal organs.

Level: Moderate Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_89_Prenatal Development Briefly summarize what happens during each phase of pregnancy.

Answer: During the germinal phase, from conception to the end of week 2, the zygote travels down the fallopian tube to the uterus and implants itself in the uterine wall. During the embryonic phase, from week 3 through week 8, organogenesis occurs.

From week 9 through the end of pregnancy, the fetal stage, the fetus grows larger, and the structure and functioning of the

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various organs are refined.

Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_90_Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol If a person smokes during their pregnancy, what are some of the deficits that the child may experience as it ages?

Answer: Make sure that low birth weight is NOT listed here. Possibilities include learning problems and antisocial behaviors.

Level: Moderate Topic: Drugs, Tobacco, and Alcohol Skill: Evaluate It LO 3.4.2: Outline the potential teratogenic effects that drugs can have on prenatal development TB_03_91_Maternal Diseases Briefly explain the implications for the delivery of a baby when the pregnant person has genital herpes.

Answer: The child should be delivered by cesarean section, as the infant may suffer brain damage or blindness.

Level: Difficult Topic: Maternal Diseases Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.5.1: Identify risks associated with teratogenic maternal diseases TB_03_92_Fetal Assessment and Treatment What are the three types of body fluids that can be used to assess fetal development?

Answer: maternal blood or urine; amniotic fluid from the fetus Level: Difficult Topic: Fetal Assessment and Treatment Skill: Analyze It LO 3.5.3: Describe the tests that physicians use to monitor fetal development TB_03_93_Assessing the Neonate A newborn infant is exhibiting a weak cry, no response to stimulation of the feet, flaccid muscle tone, blue extremities, and a heart rate of 60. What is the likely range of this infant‘s Apgar score?

Answer: 3, although anything in the 1, 2, or 3 range is acceptable Level: Difficult Topic: Assessing the Neonate Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.6.3: Explain what the Apgar scale is used for TB_03_94_Low Birth Weight and Preterm Birth What classification does an infant receive if born with a weight below 2,500 grams?

Answer: All neonates below 2,500 grams (about 5.5 pounds) are classified as having low birth weight (LBW).

Level: Moderate Topic: Low Birth Weight and Preterm Birth Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 3.6.4: Describe the risks associated with low birth weight Essay Questions TB_03_95_How Genes Influence Development Define the terms heterozygous and homozygous and give an example of each.

Answer: Homozygous means that an individual‘s pairs of autosomal chromosomes carry the same type of genes in terms of dominance or recession. Heterozygous means that the pairs are not matched.

Level: Moderate Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development

TB_03_96_How Genes Influence Development Give an example of some traits that result from polygenic inheritance, and briefly explain what that concept refers to.

Answer: Polygenic inheritance refers to the fact that many genes influence a person‘s phenotype. For example, geneticists believe that children get several genes for skin color from each parent, so if one parent is dark-skinned and the other is lightskinned, the child will have a skin color that is somewhere between the two. Other traits that result from polygenic inheritance

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include height, body type, or eye color.

Level: Difficult Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development TB_03_97_How Genes Influence Development Define the concept of genomic imprinting.

Answer: The key points are: presence of a chemical label that identifies each gene as having come from each biological parent; possibility of harmfulness of genes depending on which parent they came from; imprints may evoke responses in other genes or tissues.

Level: Difficult Topic: How Genes Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.1.2: Explain how genes influence development TB_03_98_Genetic Disorders Explain what autosomal disorders are, and give some examples of them.

Answer: Key points: Autosomal disorders are caused by genes located on the autosomes (chromosomes other than sex chromosomes). The genes that cause sex-linked disorders are found on the X chromosome. They are more likely to affect males than females, because males have only one X chromosome. Therefore, a harmful recessive gene is likely to cause a defect or disorder of some kind. Most autosomal disorders caused by recessive genes are diagnosed in infancy or early childhood, such as phenylketonuria (PKU), sickle-cell disease, Tay-Sachs disease, or Huntington‘s disease.

Level: Moderate Topic: Genetic Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 3.2.1: Contrast dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genetic disorders TB_03_99_Prenatal Development Explain the process of natural conception from ovulation to the formation of the placenta.

Answer: Beginning with ovulation, sperm must fertilize an egg in the fallopian tube; the fertilized egg is called a zygote. The zygote forms into a blastocyst, which floats in the uterus until it attaches to the uterine wall, at which point the placenta develops out of both fetal and maternal cells.

Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_100_Prenatal Development Describe the characteristics of an embryo.

Answer: An embryo only exists during the embryonic stage of gestation. Other main points include: begins 2 weeks after conception; beginning of cell differentiation and specialization; formation of neural tube that further develops into the CNS; limbs and skeleton are visible at the end of this stage and organogenesis begins.

Level: Difficult Topic: Prenatal Development Skill: Analyze It LO 3.3.2: Summarize the developmental milestones of prenatal development TB_03_101_How Teratogens Influence Development Explain what teratogens are, and discuss why their effects are typically linked to critical periods of prenatal development.

Answer: Deviations in prenatal development can result from exposure to teratogens—substances that cause damage to an embryo or fetus. Because most organ systems develop most rapidly during the first 8 weeks of gestation, this is the period when exposure to teratogens carries the greatest risk. There are critical periods, specific periods in development when an organism is especially sensitive to the presence (or absence) of some particular kinds of experiences, in both the embryonic and fetal stages when certain body systems are especially sensitive to teratogens. If drugs or infections interfere with development during a critical period, a particular body structure will not form properly. Researchers have hypothesized that fetuses vary widely in their susceptibility to teratogens. These differences are thought to arise from genes that moderate or block the effects of some kinds of harmful substances.

Level: Difficult Topic: How Teratogens Influence Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.4.1: Explain the effects of teratogens on prenatal development TB_03_102_Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development

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Summarize the stages of childbirth and note the hallmarks of each stage.

Answer: When labor begins, it follows a predictable pattern, although the length of the process varies a great deal. Stage 1 of labor covers the period during which the cervix opens and changes shape. Two important processes occur during this stage: dilation, the gradual opening of the cervix, and effacement, the gradual flattening out of the cervix. During stage 2, the baby‘s head moves past the stretched cervix, into the birth canal, and finally out of the pregnant person‘s body. Stage 2 typically lasts less than an hour and rarely takes longer than 2 hours. Stage 3, also typically quite brief, is the delivery of the placenta and other materials from the uterus.

Level: Moderate Topic: Other Maternal Influences on Prenatal Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 3.6.2: Describe the potential complications during each of the three stages of labor

TEST BANK CHAPTER 4: PHYSICAL, SENSORY, AND PERCEPTUAL DEVELOPMENT IN INFANCY Multiple-Choice Questions TB_04_01_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Which statement is true regarding synaptogenesis?

A) It refers to the separation of connections between neurons.

B) After it begins (shortly after birth), it continues at a steady and constant pace.

C) It results in a four-fold decrease in brain size by age 4.

D) Each period of synaptogenesis is followed by a period of pruning.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_02_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Which term describes the process of creating new synapses, that happens very quickly in the first couple of years after birth?

A) Synaptic pruning B) Synaptomiosis C) Myelinization D) Synaptogenesis Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_03_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Which process is a primary function of brain development in the first year of life?

A) Development of neurons and glial cells B) Ossification C) Formation of synapses D) Proximodistal development Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_04_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System

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What does synaptic pruning refer to?

A) The deterioration of myelin in the cerebral cortex B) The generation of new neurons as a child develops over time C) The ―clipping‖ of axons that don’t receive strong enough signals from other axons D) The elimination of neurons as a result of nonuse or lack of stimulation Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_05_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Which term describes the degree to which a developing structure or behavior is modifiable due to experience?

A) Synaptic pruning B) Proximodistal development C) Myelination D) Plasticity Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_06_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Brain development in the first year of life emphasizes A) development of neurons and glial cells.

B) formation of synapses.

C) synapto-atrophy.

D) a proximodistal pattern.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_07_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Johann lives in a family with five siblings. There is always a lot of activity and interaction between the children and parents, and there are many brightly colored toys to play with. Suzanne‘s family can‘t afford many toys, and she only has thrift store toys to play with, most of which are broken. Which summary best describes a likely difference in brain development between Johann and Suzanne?

A) The ―use it or lose it‖ principle would indicate that because Johann is in a more stimulating environment than Suzanne, his brain will have a denser network of neurons and synapses.

B) Johann‘s neurons will myelinate more quickly and completely than Suzanne‘s.

C) Because Johann and Suzanne are both under 2 years of age, the differences in environment will have little impact on their continuing development.

D) The principle of synaptic pruning indicates that because Johann is in a more stimulating environment than Suzanne, his brain will have a smaller number of synapses.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System

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Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_08_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Compared to the others, which factor contributes the most to the pruning of redundant neural pathways and the selective retention of the most efficient neural pathways in an infant‘s brain?

A) Diet and nutrition B) Experiences C) Phenotype D) Inborn predispositions Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_09_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Which brain development process takes place rapidly during the first 2 years of life?

A) Development of the spinal cord B) Muscle control in the extremities C) Myelinization of axons D) Proximodistal development Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_10_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System What is the name of the sheath that develops around axons that serves as insulation and speeds neural transmissions?

A) Fontanel B) Glial fiber C) Myelin D) Dendrite Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_11_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Myelinization in the reticular formation makes which outcome possible?

A) Dexterity in the manipulation of small objects, such as a needle and thread B) Judgment in decision making, such as evaluating various options C) Speed and agility in motor skills, such as running to catch a ball D) Concentration in thinking, such as focusing attention on a task Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy

TB_04_12_Reflexes and Behavioral States What might persistence of the Moro reflex or the Babinski reflex beyond 6 months of age indicate?

A) Typical development; these reflexes are used as a sign of neurological maturation.

B) These responses aid in the infants developing social skills and emotional relationships.

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C) It may signal the existence of some type of neurological problem.

D) It is due to positive or negative reinforcement.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health

TB_04_13_Reflexes and Behavioral States Which primitive reflex is demonstrated when an infant’s arms are thrust outward and the back is arched?

A) Babinski reflex B) Rooting reflex C) Moro reflex D) Grasping reflex Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_14_Reflexes and Behavioral States As Boris is giving his infant daughter a bath in the sink, he runs his finger up the bottom of the girl’s foot, causing the child to splay her toes and then curl them in. Which reflex is the infant demonstrating?

A) Moro reflex B) Babinski reflex C) Reticular reflex D) Swimming reflex Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_15_Reflexes and Behavioral States

On average, neonates are awake and alert for a total of ___________ each day.

A) 30–45 minutes B) 4–6 hours C) 2–3 hours D) 8–12 hours Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_16_Reflexes and Behavioral States

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By 8 weeks of age, infants show signs of day/night sleep rhythms. What are these rhythms called?

A) Biorhythms B) REM C) Sleep cycling D) Circadian rhythms Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_17_Reflexes and Behavioral States Typically, infants move into a predictable sleep pattern by what age?

A) 2 weeks B) 1 month C) 6 weeks D) 6 months Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_18_Reflexes and Behavioral States The human sleep/wake cycle follows a(n) ________rhythm, mimicking the light/dark cycle of the world.

A) infradian B) ultradian C) circadian D) nocturnal Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_19_Reflexes and Behavioral States Connie and Stephanie are new parents. They hear their infant daughter Ruta cry from the other room, with a pattern of cry, silence, breath, cry, silence, breath, followed by a kind of weird whistling sound. Which state is Ruta trying to communicate?

A) ―Hey, my diaper needs changing.‖ B) ―I’m angry and frustrated!‖ C) ―Moms, I want some company.‖ D) ―Yo! I’m hungry here!‖ Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_20_Reflexes and Behavioral States

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An infant begins whimpering and moaning and then begins to cry very loudly and intensely. Which state is the infant most likely expressing?

A) Anger B) Hunger C) Fear D) Pain Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_21_Reflexes and Behavioral States To be diagnosed with colic, an infant must have been consistently crying for A) 3 hours a day, 3 days a week, for at least 3 weeks.

B) 2 hours a day, 5 days a week, for at least 2 weeks.

C) 5 hours a day, 3 days a week, for at least 1 week.

D) 3 hours a day, 2 days a week, for at least 5 weeks.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Remember the Facts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_22_Reflexes and Behavioral States According to physicians, which treatment should be administered to an infant who is showing signs of colic?

A) Small doses of chamomile tea once an hour for 24 hours B) Quick dunks in a cold water tub over a 2-hour period C) Very bright lights in the infant‘s room at bedtime and nap time D) Nothing Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_23_Reflexes and Behavioral States If 2-month-old Giuseppe has colic, which characteristics will be most noticeable to his parents?

A) His diarrhea and vomiting B) His intense crying C) His lack of appetite D) His high fever and listlessness Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_24_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems What does an average infant’s birth weight look like by their first birthday?

A) Weight has quadrupled since birth.

B) Weight has doubled since birth.

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C) Weight has tripled since birth.

D) Weight has increased only slightly in comparison to age 6 months.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years

TB_04_25_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Ksenya has just learned to walk backward. How old would you expect Ksenya to be?

A) Between 10 and 12 months B) Between 13 and 18 months C) Between 19 and 24 months D) At least 2 years old Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years

TB_04_26_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Which statement is correct regarding motor skill development?

A) All children are virtually identical in the rate at which they develop motor skills.

B) Children with intellectual impairment will go through a different sequence of motor skill development than normal children.

C) Even though children may differ in the rate at which they develop motor skills, they nonetheless develop these skills in the same sequence.

D) The development of motor skills is most likely controlled by environmental circumstances.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years

TB_04_27_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems A child‘s ability to place round pegs in round holes requires which type of motor skills?

A) Combination of gross and fine B) Locomotive C) Nonlocomotive D) Specific Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years

TB_04_28_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Which outcome is an application of dynamic systems theory?

A) Infants lose the stepping reflex if they lose an abnormal amount of weight.

B) The stepping reflex disappears as a result of environmental factors.

C) True walking is likely to happen regardless of environmental influences.

D) True walking is as much dependent on environmental influences as genetic ones.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years

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TB_04_29_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Developmentalist Esther Thelen proposed __________ to explain how motor skills develop and are coordinated through the interplay of multiple factors.

A) the theory or planned behavior B) constructivist theory C) objectivism D) dynamic systems theory Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years

TB_04_30_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems African infant precocity refers to A) the lag between the faster motor development of European infants and the slower motor development of African infants.

B) genetic differences that give African infants an advantage in more rapid motor development.

C) African infants reaching some motor milestones earlier than babies in other parts of the world.

D) average bone density differences between infants living in Saharan and sub-Saharan regions.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 4.2.2: Identify the factors that influence motor skill development TB_04_31_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Which observation is true regarding the process of ossification?

A) After it begins, it progresses sporadically.

B) It is the process of bone softening.

C) It follows typical proximodistal and cephalocaudal patterns.

D) It begins during the 10th and 11th weeks of gestation.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 4.2.3: Summarize the changes in body systems that take place during infancy TB_04_32_Nutrition Child-care authorities currently agree that for the first 12 months of life, there is no better food an infant should receive than A) bottle formula.

B) cow’s milk.

C) goat’s milk.

D) breast milk.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Nutrition Skill: Analyze It LO 4.3.1: Outline the nutritional needs of infants TB_04_33_Nutrition

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Felina and Winston are preparing for the birth of their baby, and are trying to decide whether to breastfeed or bottlefeed using formula. Which reason should persuade them to decide to breastfeed?

A) Breast milk contains fewer nutrients and prevents childhood obesity.

B) Breast milk offers some immunity to childhood ailments.

C) Breast milk is cheaper than store-bought formula.

D) Breastfeeding promotes bonding with the father.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Nutrition Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.3.1: Outline the nutritional needs of infants TB_04_34_Nutrition By what age can babies can start eating solid food, according to most pediatricians?

A) 6 months B) 8 months C) 10 months D) 12 months Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Nutrition Skill: Remember the Facts LO 4.3.1: Outline the nutritional needs of infants TB_04_35_Malnutrition Which disease is produced by severe malnutrition during the first year of life, and causes an infant to also have parasitic infections and diarrhea?

A) Kwashiorkor B) Scurvy C) Marasmus D) Rickets Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Malnutrition Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy TB_04_36_Malnutrition The disease kwashiorkor results from which cause?

A) Restricted caloric intake B) Excess dietary vitamin B12 C) Insufficient dietary protein D) Impaired immune system functioning Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Malnutrition Skill: Analyze It LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy TB_04_37_Malnutrition

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Compared to the others, which is the most common nutritional problem in industrialized societies?

A) Kwashiorkor B) Micronutrient malnutrition C) Macronutrient malnutrition D) Marasmus Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Malnutrition Skill: Analyze It LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy TB_04_38_Malnutrition What is micronutrient malnutrition?

A) Protein insufficiency B) Lack of sufficient vitamins and minerals C) Insufficient intake of carbohydrates D) Insufficiency of total calories Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Malnutrition Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy TB_04_39_Health Care and Immunizations Immunizations are most effective if begun at what time in a child‘s life?

A) The first month B) Six months C) One year D) Adolescence Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Health Care and Immunizations Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.3.3: Describe the health-care needs of infants TB_04_40_Health Care and Immunizations Why is there special, often unexpected urgency in treating infants‘ respiratory illnesses promptly?

A) Respiratory illnesses are easily spread to other members of the family and more difficult to treat in older children.

B) Respiratory illnesses may affect the ears, and ear infections may impair hearing and interfere with the development of brain areas that are essential for language learning.

C) Early respiratory illnesses are likely to result in asthma later in life.

D) Infant immunizations cannot be given while a child is ill.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Health Care and Immunizations Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.3.3: Describe the health-care needs of infants TB_04_41_Health Care and Immunizations Between 1992 and 1999, what happened to the rate of infant vaccinations in the United States?

A) It increased dramatically.

B) The number of required vaccines dropped.

C) The rate increased by 5%.

D) It declined sharply.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Health Care and Immunizations Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.3.3: Describe the health-care needs of infants TB_04_42_Sudden Infant Death Syndrome What is the leading cause of death in the United States among infants between the ages of 1 month and 1 year?

A) Accidents B) Respiratory infections

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C) Micronutrient deficiency D) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Analyze It LO 4.4.1: Explain the risk factors for SIDS TB_04_43_Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Kris and Sara put their infant son Gabe to bed for his regular afternoon nap. When they went to check on him several hours later Gabe was unresponsive and never woke again. Which term is used for this outcome?

A) REM B) HAART C) AZT D) SIDS Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.4.1: Explain the risk factors for SIDS

TB_04_44_Sudden Infant Death Syndrome What does the American Academy of Pediatrics and most physicians in general recommend to limit the chances of SIDS? A) Back-to-sleep guidelines B) Nightly warm oat milk C) Heavy blankets in the crib D) Frequent infant naps throughout the day Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Analyze It LO 4.4.1: Explain the risk factors for SIDS TB_04_45_Group Differences in Infant Mortality Compared to the others, which child is statistically the least likely to have received early prenatal care?

A) Lorenzo, a Black American boy B) Madison, an Asian American girl C) Bobbie, a White girl D) Bettina, a Native Hawaiian girl Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Group Differences in Infant Mortality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.4.2: Evaluate differences in infant mortality across groups TB_04_46_Group Differences in Infant Mortality In the United States, which group has the highest infant mortality rate?

A) Puerto Rican American babies

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B) Mexican American babies C) Black American babies D) Asian American babies Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Group Differences in Infant Mortality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.4.2: Evaluate differences in infant mortality across groups TB_04_47_Vision Amy is 3 years old and has 20/40 vision. What does this mean?

A) Amy‘s visual acuity is average for a 3-year-old.

B) In order for Amy to see an object, she has to be 20 feet away from it, whereas most people can see the object from 40 feet away.

C) Amy is considered legally blind.

D) In order for Amy to see an object, she has to be 40 feet away from it, whereas most people can see the object from 20 feet away.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Vision Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.5.1: Describe the changes in visual abilities that occur during infancy TB_04_48_Vision Bruno is 8 weeks old. His cousin is holding three balloons in her hand: one red, one blue, and one green. Which observation is most likely true?

A) Bruno has already developed the required cones in his eyes to differentiate between the three different colored balloons.

B) Because Bruno is only 8 weeks old, he can only distinguish between red and green.

C) Bruno probably only has the rods for blue vision in his eyes, so he won‘t be able to distinguish between red and green.

D) At this age, Bruno‘s cones remain too underdeveloped for him to distinguish any colors at all.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Vision Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.5.1: Describe the changes in visual abilities that occur during infancy TB_04_49_Vision Which term represents the smooth movement that allows the eyes to follow a moving object?

A) Tracking B) Acuity C) Tracing D) Visualization Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Vision Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.5.1: Describe the changes in visual abilities that occur during infancy TB_04_50_Hearing and Other Senses Infants‘ auditory skills are equal to those of an adult, except that A) infants can hear low-pitched sounds better than adults can.

B) infants cannot hear low-pitched sounds at all.

C) infants cannot hear high-pitched sounds as well as adults can.

D) infants can hear high-pitched sounds better than adults can.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Hearing and Other Senses Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.5.2: Compare infants‘ sensory abilities to those of adults TB_04_51_Hearing and Other Senses Which statement is most likely true regarding the auditory acuity and skills of an average 20-month-old child?

A) Although the child‘s auditory acuity is as good as an adult‘s, the child does not yet have the ability to locate sounds.

B) The child has the ability to locate sounds but is not yet able to distinguish between pitch and loudness.

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C) Both the child‘s auditory acuity and ability to locate sound are not likely to fully develop for another 4 months.

D) The child‘s auditory acuity and ability to distinguish location of sound is nearly as good as that of an adult.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Hearing and Other Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.5.2: Compare infants‘ sensory abilities to those of adults TB_04_52_Hearing and Other Senses Which conclusion is true of the research conducted by Jacob Steiner and his associates regarding the taste abilities of newborn infants?

A) Most infants cannot distinguish between the five basic flavors: sweet, sour, bitter, salty, umami.

B) Steiner conducted his research by feeding infants various unfamiliar flavors of water.

C) Steiner drew pictures of the facial expressions of infants as they reacted to different tastes or flavors.

D) Infants respond differently to sweet, sour, and bitter flavors.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Hearing and Other Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.5.2: Compare infants‘ sensory abilities to those of adults TB_04_53_Hearing and Other Senses The five basic flavors that humans register are A) bitter, sweet, salty, spicy, umami.

B) sweet, sour, bitter, umami, salty.

C) salty, sweet, spicy, piquant, bittersweet.

D) bittersweet, sour, sweet, umami, spicy.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Hearing and Other Senses Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.5.2: Compare infants‘ sensory abilities to those of adults TB_04_54_Hearing and Other Senses Which of the five senses is most fully developed at birth?

A) Taste B) Touch C) Smell D) Hearing Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Hearing and Other Senses Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.5.2: Compare infants‘ sensory abilities to those of adults TB_04_55_Studying Perceptual Development A developmental psychologist is showing a 4-month-old infant a series of drawings. Each drawing shows a series of heavy black dots arranged in the shape of a square. After seeing a series of such pictures, the infant looks for shorter and shorter periods of time until she is barely glancing at each new version of the black dots in a square. Suddenly the researcher presents a new drawing of heavy black dots in the shape of a circle, and the baby shows renewed interest by gazing for a longer period of time. What is illustrated by this research project?

A) The baby‘s response was an example of discriminatory social referencing.

B) The baby became habituated to the pattern of the dots in the shape of a square.

C) The baby demonstrated dislike of the square pattern of black dots.

D) The baby was illustrating intersensory integration.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_56_Studying Perceptual Development An infant has lost interest in a familiar stimulus. After the stimulus has been removed for a time, and then re-appears, the infant shows renewed interest. What does this define?

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A) Dishabituation B) Perception C) Habituation D) Disperception Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_57_Studying Perceptual Development The decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same stimulus is called A) modeling.

B) habituation.

C) acculturation.

D) marasmus.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_58_Studying Perceptual Development Dishabituation is best described by which process?

A) Responding to a familiar stimulus as if it were new B) Focusing on a stimulus that has not been successfully reinforced C) Focusing on a stimulus that has not been completely conditioned D) The transition to preoperational thought Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_59_Studying Perceptual Development Researchers determine an infant‘s interest in an object by measuring A) whether they look directly at the object.

B) how long they look at the object.

C) whether they show signs of boredom, such as yawning.

D) whether they smile at the object.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_60_Vision Depth perception is possible because of which type of cues?

A) Transient B) Nocturnal C) Binocular D) Habitual Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Vision Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.2: Describe the development of visual perception in infants TB_04_61_Vision

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__________ occurs when one object appears to be blocking another object and the viewer assumes that the blocked object is farther away.

A) Texture gradient B) Convergence C) Linear perspective D) Interposition Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Vision Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.2: Describe the development of visual perception in infants TB_04_62_Vision As Eero stands between the railroad tracks, the rails appear to converge in the distance. This cue to inferring depth and distance is called A) linear perspective.

B) retinal disparity.

C) relative clarity.

D) relative size.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Vision Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.6.2: Describe the development of visual perception in infants TB_04_63_Vision Which statement is true regarding the well-known research conducted by Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk using the visual cliff apparatus?

A) It provided little information regarding depth perception in children under the age of 6 months.

B) Children who had developed depth perception would continue to crawl beyond the boundaries of the cliff.

C) Children use aesthetic cues to determine the depth of a cliff.

D) Flinching is observed in children as young as 3 months of age.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Vision Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.6.2: Describe the development of visual perception in infants TB_04_64_Vision Which statement is an accurate description of an infant‘s perceptual abilities?

A) When newborns gaze, they can see the edges of objects.

B) Infants as young as 1 week of age seem to prefer attractive faces to less attractive faces.

C) Infants will display habituation to an unfamiliar pattern of objects or features of objects.

D) Infants develop depth perception only after a prolonged experience of walking toward and away from objects.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Vision Skill: Analyze It LO 4.6.2: Describe the development of visual perception in infants TB_04_65_Listening Zhenya is growing up in a home where both Russian and English are spoken. Which statement is most likely true of 7-monthold Zhenya?

A) She will be confused by the mixture of languages and will be delayed in her ability to distinguish contrasting sounds.

B) She can accurately discriminate all sound contrasts that appear in both languages.

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C) She will respond to all sounds in the same way.

D) She will be able to respond to distinctions in sounds when her mother speaks, but not when her father or male siblings speak.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Listening Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.6.3: Explain the auditory perception abilities of infants TB_04_66_Listening Which factor is most likely responsible for infants‘ preference for their mothers‘ voices?

A) Biological predisposition B) In vitro hearing C) The survival instinct D) In utero learning Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Listening Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.3: Explain the auditory perception abilities of infants TB_04_67_Combining Information from Several Senses When a child combines information from several senses into one perception, this is called A) inhabituation.

B) synesthesia.

C) intermodal perception.

D) sensory integration.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Combining Information from Several Senses Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.4: Outline the intermodal perception abilities of infants TB_04_68_Combining Information from Several Senses Which situation illustrates intermodal perception?

A) A baby who has been sucking a nubby pacifier will look longer at a photograph of a nubby pacifier.

B) An infant will drink more sweetened water than unsweetened water.

C) An infant who had habituated to a singing, rotating toy will look longer when the toy produces a new song as it rotates.

D) An infant who saw his father shave imitates the action by moving a crayon over his own face.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Combining Information from Several Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.6.4: Outline the intermodal perception abilities of infants TB_04_69_Explaining Perceptual Development Newborns have good auditory acuity, poor but adequate visual acuity, and excellent tactual and taste perception. Which theory of perceptual development do these facts support?

A) Nativist view B) Classical conditioning view C) Operant conditioning view D) Empiricist view Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Explaining Perceptual Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.5: Distinguish between the nativist and empiricist theories of perceptual development TB_04_70_ Explaining Perceptual Development Animals deprived of visual or auditory stimulation show no, little, or delayed development of those perceptual systems. Which theory of perceptual development do these facts support?

A) Nativist view B) Classical conditioning view C) Operant conditioning view D) Empiricist view

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Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Explaining Perceptual Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.5: Distinguish between the nativist and empiricist theories of perceptual development

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_04_71_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System _________ refers to the process of unnecessary synaptic pathways and connections being eliminated.

Answer: Pruning Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_72_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System The sequence of myelinization follows both a ________ and ________ pattern.

Answer: cephalocaudal; proximodistal Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_73_Reflexes and Behavioral States _________ rhythms affect sleep cycles as well as other bodily processes.

Answer: Circadian Level: Easy Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_74_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Children will begin to show some signs of hand preference by age ________.

Answer: 10–12 months Level: Moderate Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.2.1: Outline the typical pattern of motor skill development in the first 2 years TB_04_75_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems _________ refers to the process of bone hardening.

Answer: Ossification Level: Easy Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.2.3: Summarize the changes in body systems that take place during infancy

TB_04_76_Nutrition Pediatricians usually recommend withholding solid foods until a baby is at least __________.

Answer: 6 months old Level: Easy Topic: Nutrition Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.3.1: Outline the nutritional needs of infants TB_04_77_Malnutrition Diets that contain enough calories but do not contain enough protein contribute to the development of a disorder called __________.

Answer: kwashiorkor Level: Difficult Topic: Nutrition Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy TB_04_78_Infant Mortality Infant mortality is defined as death within the first ________ after birth.

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Answer: year Level: Easy Topic: Infant Mortality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.4.1: Explain the risk factors for SIDS TB_04_79_Sudden Infant Death Syndrome SIDS stands for ___________.

Answer: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Level: Easy Topic: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.4.1: Explain the risk factors for SIDS TB_04_80_Vision Infants as young as 2 months show some ________ ability as an object is moved slowly toward them.

Answer: tracking Level: Difficult Topic: Vision Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.5.1: Describe the changes in visual abilities that occur during infancy TB_04_81_Studying Perceptual Development The ___________ for studying perceptual development is determined by measuring how long a baby looks at an object.

Answer: preference technique Level: Moderate Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Analyze It LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_82_Combining Information from Several Senses _________ refers to the idea that different sensory stimuli combine to form a single perception.

Answer: Intermodal perception Level: Moderate Topic: Combining Information from Several Senses Skill: Analyze It LO 4.6.4: Outline the intermodal perception abilities of infants

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Short Answer Questions TB_04_83_Physical Changes What causes infants and toddlers to be ―top-heavy?‖ What are the consequences of this phenomenon?

Answer: Infants and toddlers are top heavy because their brain size is disproportionately large in comparison to their bodies.

This means that they are able to learn very quickly, but it also impedes their physical coordination and movement.

Level: Difficult Topic: Physical Changes Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_84_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Briefly explain the synaptogenesis-pruning cycle.

Answer: Synaptogenesis, the development of synapses, occurs rapidly in the cortex during the first few years after birth.

Typically, each synaptic growth spurt generates many more connections between neurons than the individual actually needs.

Thus, each burst of synaptogenesis is followed by a period of pruning in which unnecessary pathways and connections are eliminated.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_85_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Why is the process of myelinization necessary?

Answer: Fine motor skills will not develop until myelinization improves the conductivity and isolation of neurons.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_86_Reflexes and Behavioral States Name two primitive reflexes. At what age do these reflexes disappear? What are the implications of the persistence of these reflexes?

Answer: Babinski and Moro; these reflexes disappear by 6 to 8 months; persistence of these reflexes may indicate neurological deficits Level: Moderate Topic: Reflexes and Behavioral States Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.1.2: Describe how predictable changes in reflexes and sleep–wakefulness states serve as indicators of nervous system health TB_04_87_Malnutrition What is the difference between macronutrients and micronutrients?

Answer: Macronutrients refer to overall caloric intake; micronutrients refer to vitamins and minerals.

Level: Easy Topic: Malnutrition Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy TB_04_88_Health Care and Immunizations Which program was put into place in 1995 that greatly increased the percentage of children receiving vaccinations in the United States?

Answer: An extensive media campaign launched by the federal government and the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP).

Level: Moderate Topic: Health Care and Immunizations Skill: Analyze It LO 4.3.3: Describe the health-care needs of infants TB_04_89_Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Define apnea and explain its relationship to Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

Answer: Apnea refers to brief periods when a baby‘s breathing stops. Babies with a history of apnea are at increased risk of dying from SIDS. Level: Moderate Topic: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

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Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.4.1: Explain the risk factors for SIDS TB_04_90_Group Differences in Infant Mortality How likely is infant mortality among Black Americans, American Indians, and Native Hawaiians, compared to other groups in the United States?

Answer: Babies in these groups are more likely to die from congenital abnormalities and SIDS, compared to White infants or non-Hispanic Asian infants.

Level: Moderate Topic: Group Differences in Infant Mortality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.4.2: Evaluate differences in infant mortality across groups TB_04_91_Vision Describe the difference in visual acuity between a newborn and a 2-year-old.

Answer: A newborn will have 20/200 to 20/400 vision, which meets the legal definition of blindness. By the age of 2 years, a typically developing child will have 20/20 vision.

Level: Moderate Topic: Vision Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.5.1: Describe the changes in visual abilities that occur during infancy TB_04_92_Hearing and Other Senses Explain the progression of sound localization from infancy to 18 months of age.

Answer: At 2 months, it takes a 27-degree shift from midline for a child to notice a difference in location; this is reduced to 12 degrees at 6 months, and 4 degrees by 18 months.

Level: Difficult Topic: Hearing and Other Senses Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.5.2: Compare infants‘ sensory abilities to those of adults TB_04_93_Studying Perceptual Development What is the difference between habituation and dishabituation?

Answer: Habituation is a decline in attention to a familiar stimulus. Dishabituation occurs when a familiar stimulus gains attention following a period of non-exposure.

Level: Moderate Topic: Studying Perceptual Development Skill: Analyze It LO 4.6.1: Summarize the methods used to study perceptual development in infants TB_04_94_Listening What is perceptual narrowing?

Answer: Perceptual narrowing refers to the brain’s use of experience to shape perception, which in turn affects infants’ ability to discriminate between previously and newly presented stimuli.

Level: Easy Topic: Listening Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.3: Explain the auditory perception abilities of infants

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Essay Questions TB_04_95_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Explain how and why the size of an infant‘s brain increases so rapidly after birth. How much does the brain grow from infancy to 4 years of age?

Answer: The rapid brain growth is due to rapid learning. Rapid learning is made possible by the growth of axons and the formation of new synapses, a process known as synaptogenesis. This leads to a quadrupling of the weight of the brain over the first 4 years of life.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_96_The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Infants possess greater brain plasticity than older children. What problems are associated with this greater amount of plasticity?

Answer: More plasticity also leads to more vulnerability in terms of teratogens, trauma, and deficits in development. Inadequate diet and nutrition are extremely important during infancy, and nutritional deficits can lead to greater synaptic pruning rather than synaptogenesis.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Infant‘s Brain and Nervous System Skill: Evaluate It LO 4.1.1: Describe the changes that take place in the brain during infancy TB_04_97_Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Many theorists believe that walking is simply a matter of biological programming. What would Esther Thelen say in response to this idea, given her research on dynamic systems theory?

Answer: Thelen argued that ―true walking‖ results from a genetic plan for motor skill development and a shift in the ratio of muscle strength to body weight in infants. Because body weight and muscle strength are highly dependent on nutrition, Thelen would argue that the environment plays an important role in a child‘s ability to walk.

Level: Difficult Topic: Growth, Motor Skills, and Developing Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.2.2: Identify the factors that influence motor skill development TB_04_98_Infant Health and Wellness Summarize the health benefits that are associated with breastfeeding.

Answer: The many benefits associated with breastfeeding include more rapid weight and size gain for an infant, improved health (in the form of lowered susceptibility to diarrhea, ear infections, or colic), and the stimulation of better immune-system functioning.

Level: Moderate Topic: Infant Health and Wellness Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.3.1: Outline the nutritional needs of infants TB_04_99_Malnutrition Describe the various forms of malnutrition that can pose risks for infant development. What are possible long-term effects of malnutrition?

Answer: Malnutrition can result from deprivation of macro- or micronutrients. Macronutrient nutrition refers to overall caloric intake; micronutrient to vitamins and minerals. Resulting deficits can include marasmus (low body weight), kwashiorkor, organic mental deficits, or long-term learning disabilities.

Level: Moderate Topic: Malnutrition Skill: Apply What You Know LO 4.3.2: Contrast the types of malnutrition that can occur during infancy

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TB_04_100_Looking Explain how Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk‘s research using the visual cliff shed light on infant depth perception. What limitation applies to that original research?

Answer: Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk devised an apparatus called a visual cliff that consists of a large glass table with a runway in the middle. On one side of the runway is a checkerboard pattern immediately below the glass; on the other side—the ―cliff‖ side— the checkerboard is several feet below the glass. If a baby has no depth perception, the child should be equally willing to crawl on either side of the runway, but if the infant can judge depth, they should be reluctant to crawl out on the cliff side. Most of these infants did not crawl out on the cliff side but were quite willing to crawl out on the shallow side. In other words, 6-month-old babies have depth perception. However, the traditional visual cliff procedure can’t reveal whether babies who don’t yet crawl also exhibit depth perception.

With younger babies, researchers have studied kinetic cues by watching babies react to apparently looming objects.

Most often, the baby flinches, moves to one side, or blinks as an object appears to come very close. Such flinching has been observed in 1-month-olds, which most experts agree is about the lower age limit of depth perception.

Level: Difficult Topic: Looking Skill: Analyze It LO 4.6.2: Describe the development of visual perceptions in infants TB_04_101_Research Report—How Do Infants Perceive Faces?

Summarize the findings of Judy Langlois‘s studies of babies‘ preferences for attractive faces.

Answer: Babies as young as 2 and 3 months old looked longer at attractive faces compared to unattractive faces. These findings have been replicated and indicate that there might be an inborn ―template‖ for desirable facial shape and features.

Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—How Do Infants Perceive Faces?

Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.5.1: Describe the development of visual changes in infants TB_04_102_Explaining Perceptual Development Summarize the main differences between nativist theories of perceptual development and empiricist theories of perceptual development.

Answer: Nativist theories of perceptual development argue that most perceptual abilities are inborn, and cite an infant‘s visual, auditory, tactual, and taste acuity as examples. Empiricist theories of perceptual development argue that perceptual skills are learned, and cite evidence from deprivation studies using animal models.

Level: Easy Topic: Explaining Perceptual Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 4.6.5: Distinguish between the nativist and empiricist theories of perceptual development

TEST BANK CHAPTER 5: COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN INFANCY Multiple-Choice Questions TB_05_01_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Jean Piaget‘s ―primary circular reactions stage‖ occurs during which age range?

A) 1 to 6 months of age B) 1 to 8 months of age C) 1 to 4 months of age D) 4 to 8 months of age Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_02_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage

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According to Jean Piaget, __________ describe repetitive actions oriented around external objects.

A) primary circular reactions B) secondary circular reactions C) tertiary circular reactions D) principle circular reactions Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_03_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage According to Jean Piaget, __________ describe deliberate experimentation with variations of previous actions that occur in the sensorimotor period.

A) primary circular reactions B) secondary circular reactions C) tertiary circular reactions D) principle circular reactions Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_04_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage A baby who shakes her rattle in different ways to see how the sound changes is demonstrating which kind of Piagetian behavior?

A) Secondary circular reactions B) Goal-directed behavior C) Object permanence D) Primary circular reactions Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_05_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Rollie is a 6-month-old baby boy. He is learning about his environment through touching things, putting things in his mouth, and scooting around on the floor. According to Jean Piaget, Rollie is in which stage of cognitive development?

A) Preambulatory B) Preoperations C) Concrete operations D) Sensorimotor Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_06_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Chun Lee sticks anything in her mouth that she can get her hands on. She has also started looking in the general direction of sounds that she hears. Chun Lee is exhibiting which behavior, according to Jean Piaget?

A) Primary circular reactions B) Secondary circular reactions C) Coordination of secondary schemes D) Tertiary circular reactions Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage

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Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_07_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Glynnis is 14 months old. She is trying out new things, playing with her toys, and manipulating objects in new ways— experimenting with her environment. Glynnis is in which substage of Jean Piaget‘s first cognitive stage?

A) Primary reflexes B) Primary circular reactions C) Tertiary circular reactions D) Mental representation Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_08_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Dorie normally breastfeeds her baby Amber; however, during the workday Dorie‘s mother watches Amber, and the baby must be fed with a bottle. Dorie has noticed that Amber‘s approach to being bottle fed is somewhat different than when she is being breastfed. What would Jean Piaget say this is an example of?

A) Coordination of secondary circular reactions of the sensorimotor stage B) Simple reflexes of the sensorimotor stage C) Mental representations of the beginning of thought D) Primary circular reactions of the sensorimotor stage Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_09_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Claudius is 8 months old. He sees a toy that he wants to play with, but it is out of reach. He uses the toy in his hand to drag the out-of-reach toy closer. What is Claudius demonstrating?

A) Reflexive behavior B) Coordination of secondary schemes C) Mental representation D) Means-end behavior Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_10_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage In which substage of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage of cognitive development will babies look for partially hidden objects?

A) Substage 1 (0–1 month) B) Substage 2 (1–4 months) C) Substage 3 (4–8 months) D) Substage 4 (8–12 months) Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_11_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage What is the major difference between primary circular reactions and secondary circular reactions in Jean Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage?

A) An infant must first demonstrate the primary circular reactions before demonstrating the secondary circular reactions.

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B) Primary circular reactions are based upon enjoyment activities, whereas secondary circular reactions are not.

C) Primary circular reactions bring about a desirable consequence, whereas secondary circular reactions do not.

D) Primary circular reactions involve activities where the infant is focused on its own body, whereas secondary circular reactions involve activities where the infant‘s actions relate to the outside world.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_12_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage By which age do most infants develop the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are out of their sight?

A) 3 months B) 4 months C) 9 months D) 12 months Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_13_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Judas watches as his mother leaves the room, but he does not cry because he understands that his mother still exists even though he cannot see her. This is an example of which Piagetian concept?

A) Sensorimotor substage 2: Primary circular reactions B) Sensorimotor substage 1: Simple reflexes C) Sensorimotor substage 3: Secondary circular reactions D Sensorimotor substage 4: Object permanence Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_14_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage When a child looks for an object in the place where it was last seen and gives up if it is not there, which aspect of logic is being demonstrated?

A) The A-not-B error B) Representational logic C) The fallacy of object permanence D) Trial-and-error logic Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_15_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Vulnavia is 7 months old and has begun to engage in the concepts of object permanence. Her mother feels she should have totally grasped the concept of object permanence and is concerned her daughter may have developmental delays. What should a developmental specialist correctly tell Vulnavia‘s mother regarding this concept?

A) It takes several months for the concept to be fully comprehended, and Vulnavia will make certain kinds of errors along the way.

B) In a child’s mind, unanticipated events are treated as interesting, and also as something to be explained and understood.

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C) Vulnavia has jumped ahead of this developmental marker.

D) Imitation is a huge factor related to this concept, so Vulnavia‘s mother needs to enact more vivid examples of object permanence.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_16_Challenges to Piaget‘s Explanation of Infant Cognitive Development Recent research examining object permanence shows that infants as young as __________ show clear signs of object permanence if a visual response rather than a reaching response is used to test it.

A) 2 weeks B) 1 month C) 2 months D) 4 months Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Challenges to Piaget‘s Explanation of Infant Cognitive Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.2: Identify challenges to Piaget‘s explanation of infant cognitive development TB_05_17_Challenges to Piaget‘s Explanation of Infant Cognitive Development Some recent research investigating deferred imitation has reached which conclusion regarding infants‘ capabilities?

A) The longest that a child under 14 months of age can defer imitation is 3 to 4 hours.

B) A 14-month-old can defer imitation for up to a week.

C) Deferred imitation doesn‘t happen until at least 18 months of age.

D) Nine-month-olds can defer their imitation for as long as 24 hours.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Challenges to Piaget‘s Explanation of Infant Cognitive Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.2: Identify challenges to Piaget‘s explanation of infant cognitive development TB_05_18_Alternative Approaches A child‘s understanding of the nature of objects, their properties, and how they work defines which concept?

A) Object relations B) Object concept C) Object permanence D) Objectification Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_19_Alternative Approaches Which term is used to describe a strategy in which researchers move an object in a way that the infant does not expect?

A) Violation-of-object-permanence method B) Violation-of-expectations method C) Violation-of-object-concept method D) Violation-of-experience method Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_20_Alternative Approaches Which researcher argued that infants initially develop basic hypotheses about the way objects function, then rapidly modify those hypotheses, based on both the babies‘ observations of the characteristics of objects and their developmental capacity for reasoning about their interactions?

A) Renee Baillargeon

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B) Karl Bartos C) Noam Chomsky D) Elizabeth Spelke Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Remember the Facts LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_21_Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Which summary best defines intelligence?

A) The ability to rapidly solve problems B) The ability to use information and solve problems across a variety of cultures C) The ability to take in information and use it to adapt to the environment D) The ability to function well within one‘s family structure Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.4: Describe how intelligence is measured in infancy TB_05_22_Measuring Intelligence in Infancy What is the most widely used test that attempts to measure the intelligence of infants?

A) Bayley Scales of Infant Development B) Stanford–Binet Intelligence Scales – Sixth Edition C) WISC-V D) WAIS-5 Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.4: Describe how intelligence is measured in infancy TB_05_23_Measuring Intelligence in Infancy What do the Bayley Scales of Infant Development measure?

A) Sensory and motor skills B) Cognitive and language skills C) Sensory and language skills D) Expressive and receptive language skills Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.4: Describe how intelligence is measured in infancy TB_05_24_Measuring Intelligence in Infancy What is the primary drawback of tests that measure cognitive development in the first 2 years?

A) They tend to overestimate later rates of impairment in children who have been diagnosed with serious developmental delays.

B) They tend to underestimate later rates of impairment in children who have been diagnosed with serious developmental delays.

C) They do not assess fine motor skills in children, and do a poor job of assessing gross motor skills.

D) They use language that children under the age of 2 are not capable of understanding.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.4: Describe how intelligence is measured in infancy TB_05_25_Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Compared to the others, which item would test an infant‘s cognitive skills?

A) Putting cubes into a cup B) Building a tower of cubes C) Uncovering a toy hidden by a cloth D) Reaching for a dangling ring

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Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.4: Describe how intelligence is measured in infancy TB_05_26_Conditioning and Modeling Permanent changes in behavior that result from experience denote A) procession.

B) learning.

C) molding.

D) conservation.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Conditioning and Modeling Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.2.1: Summarize the ways in which infants learn TB_05_27_Conditioning and Modeling Some nursing mothers inadvertently smother their infants by holding them improperly during breastfeeding. The babies‘ responses are usually to resist nursing. This outcome illustrates which concept at work in infant learning?

A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Deferred imitation D) Limited reinforcement Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Conditioning and Modeling Skill: Analyze It LO 5.2.1: Summarize the ways in which infants learn TB_05_28_Conditioning and Modeling When an infant cries, the caregiver responds by picking up the child, changing a diaper, or feeding. These actions by the caregiver serve as reinforcements, increasing the likelihood that the child will again communicate certain needs by crying. This demonstrates that even an infant learns through which type of conditioning?

A) Operant B) Classical C) Observational D) Modeling Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Conditioning and Modeling Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.2.1: Summarize the ways in which infants learn TB_05_29_Schematic Learning Which term describes the organization of experiences into expectancies?

A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Modeling D) Schematic learning Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Schematic Learning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.2.2: Describe the process of schematic learning in the first 2 years TB_05_30_Schematic Learning Ranjan was given several different brightly colored balls to play with, one after the other. After the ninth ball, Ranjan seemed to lose interest in playing. When she was then given a stuffed animal, she showed renewed interest. This renewed interest is due, in part, to which process?

A) Categorizing B) Schematogram formation C) Reinforcement

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D) Superordination Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Schematic Learning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.2.2: Describe the process of schematic learning in the first 2 years TB_05_31_Schematic Learning Repeated exposure to particular experiences results in the development of ―known‖ combinations of activities, or expectancies.

This describes A) observational processing.

B) schematic learning.

C) operant conditioning.

D) classical conditioning.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Schematic Learning Skill: Analyze It LO 5.2.2: Describe the process of schematic learning in the first 2 years TB_05_32_Schematic Learning

The development of superordinate categorization A) is generally complete by the age of 2 months.

B) begins around 6 weeks and continues until the age of 6 months.

C) has concluded about the time of a child‘s first birthday.

D) probably begins in infants but continues to develop well into the childhood years.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Schematic Learning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.2.2: Describe the process of schematic learning in the first 2 years TB_05_33_Memory Carolyn Rovee-Collier demonstrated that forgotten infant memories can be retrieved by using which technique?

A) Word association B) Cues C) Modeling D) Interpretation of schemes Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Memory Skill: Analyze It LO 5.2.3: Explain how memory functions in the first 2 years TB_05_34_Theoretical Perspectives Almost every time Priya articulates the word ―da,‖ her father picks her up with joy, smiles, and praises his daughter for trying to say ―dad.‖ The father‘s behavior reinforces Priya‘s behavior. Which theory of language acquisition is this an example of?

A) Naturalist B) Behaviorist C) Interactionist D) Generative Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_35_Theoretical Perspectives Which theorist is credited with formulating the behaviorist explanation of language development?

A) Jerry Roslie B) B. F. Skinner

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C) Christina Verigan D) Noam Chomsky Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_36_Theoretical Perspectives Penelope babbles and her mother responds to her by imitating the babbling sounds Penelope makes. This behavior would appear to refute the belief that A) early language is the result of reinforcement of correct sounds.

B) early language is an example of stimulus–response theory.

C) language acquisition results from imitation.

D) language is based on fundamental operating principles.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_37_Theoretical Perspectives The notion that all of the world‘s languages share a similar underlying structure is summarized in which concept?

A) Universal grammar B) Reactionist approach C) Language division approach D) Cultural-learning theory Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_38_Theoretical Perspectives Children learn rules of grammar before they learn the exceptions to those rules. In other words, the errors they make in language are associated with rules rather than random patterns, which contradicts the behaviorist explanation of language development.

Which theorist formulated this criticism?

A) Noam Chomsky B) Jim O‘Hare C) Helen Slayton-Hughes D) Benjamin Schwartz Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_39_Theoretical Perspectives The abbreviation LAD refers to which aspect of the generative approach to language development?

A) An acquired process of language development B) A learned language processor C) An innate language processor D) A language directional device Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_40_Theoretical Perspectives

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__________ refers to a neural system of the brain hypothesized to permit the understanding of language.

A) Nativist understanding device (NUD) B) Language-acquisition device (LAD) C) Speech generator unit (SGU) D) Universal grammar detector (UGD) Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Remember the Facts LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_41_Theoretical Perspectives The __________ perspective on language acquisition combines several schools of thought to propose that language development is produced through a combination of genetically predetermined predispositions and environmental circumstances.

A) cognitive B) constructivist C) naturalist D) generative Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_42_Theoretical Perspectives What is the basis of the constructivist view of language development?

A) Infants are born with innate restraints with regard to language development, and the infant brain has a set of general tools that help to develop language.

B) Infants are born with a set of general tools that help them to develop language, and these tools must be nurtured.

C) Infants are born with a biological preparedness with regard to language development, and the infant brain has a set of general tools that help develop language.

D) Infants have no inherent language abilities; all of their language skills must be learned.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_43_Theoretical Perspectives There is almost universal agreement among developmental scientists that infants come into the world with some sort of __________, an organizational structure that is hard-wired into the brain and guides development.

A) empirical processor B) sonic reducer C) a generative analog D) computational unit Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_44_Theoretical Perspectives The ____________ proposes that mental tracking of the frequency of units of linguistic information (such as words), and calculation of the probabilities associated with units that occur repetitively, guide language development.

A) normative elements perspective B) statistical learning approach C) deconstructivist view D) observational modeling approach

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Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_45_Theoretical Perspectives Children combine several gestures in their pretend play at around the same time that they first show two- or three-word sentences in their speech. This observation supports which view of language development?

A) LAD B) Constructivist C) Generative D) Naturalist Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_46_Influences on Language Development Which type of speech typically is directed toward infants and is characterized by short, simple sentences?

A) Infant-directed speech B) Piecemeal contingencies C) Pitch-resonant inflection D) Language encouragement Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Influences on Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.3.2: Identify the environmental influences on language development TB_05_47_Influences on Language Development Rupert is reading a book with his 3-year-old daughter Persephone. At regular intervals Rupert stops, points to the images in the book, and asks, ―There‘s Angelo the Snail. What‘s happening to him?‖ which prompts a response from Persephone. Rupert is engaged in the process of A) infant-directed speech.

B) telegraphic speech.

C) dialogic reading.

D) generative narration.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Influences on Language Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.3.2: Identify the environmental influences on language development TB_05_48_Early Milestones of Language Development When a baby makes repetitive vowel sounds, such as the UUU sound, the baby is exhibiting A) cooing.

B) babbling.

C) muttering.

D) mumbling.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_49_Early Milestones of Language Development Konstantine is entertaining himself and his mother with his repetitious ―dadadada, babababa‖ as if he just likes the sound of his own voice. What is Konstantine doing?

A) Babbling B) Cooing C) Muttering D) Recasting

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Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_50_Early Milestones of Language Development Babbling with a rising intonation seems to signal A) the onset of language reception.

B) a desire for a response.

C) anger.

D) boredom.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_51_Early Milestones of Language Development By the age of 9 or 10 months, most babies can understand the meanings of __________ words.

A) 20–30 B) 50–75 C) 100–200 D) 1,000–1,500 Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_52_Early Milestones of Language Development A child‘s understanding of words is known as A) expressive language.

B) receptive language.

C) biased language.

D) Productive language.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_53_Early Milestones of Language Development At what age do infants tend to develop a kind of gestural language, using gestures or a combination of gestures and sounds?

A) 13–14 months B) 6–7 months C) 18–19 months D) 9–12 months Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_54_The First Words Which term describes a child‘s ability to produce language accurately?

A) Expressive language B) Receptive language C) Repetitive language D) Holophrasing Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The First Words Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_55_The First Words The average 24-month-old has a speaking vocabulary of more than ________ words.

A) 300 B) 620 C) 850 D) 1,200 Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The First Words Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_56_The First Words __________ speech omits non-critical words in a sentence, focusing instead on a noun and a verb.

A) Telegraphic B) Holophrased C) Dualistic D) Compound Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The First Words Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_57_The First Words Atticus has an expressive language vocabulary of about 190 words, and communicates using telegraphic speech. Assuming he has shown typical development, what age is Atticus most likely to be?

A) 6 months B) 8 months C) 1 month D) 19 months Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The First Words Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_58_The First Words Vocabulary spurts occur around the time that a child has acquired about how many words?

A) 30 B) 25 C) 50 D) 100 Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The First Words Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_59_The First Words The ability to accurately predict what other people know is called ________ by developmental scientists.

A) constructive modeling B) theory of mind C) telepathic speech D) receptive cognition Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The First Words Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_60_The First Sentences

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What is the term used by linguists for grammatical markers?

A) Inflections B) Holophrases C) Reductions D) Monophrases Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The First Sentences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.3: Characterize the kinds of sentences children produce between 18 and 24 months of age TB_05_61_The First Sentences ―Mommy sick!‖ is an example of which type of language?

A) Exclamatory meaning B) A compound sentence C) A hologram D) Telegraphic speech Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The First Sentences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.3: Characterize the kinds of sentences children produce between 18 and 24 months of age TB_05_62_Individual Differences in Language Development Compared to the others, which factor influences the rate at which a child acquires language skills?

A) The child‘s gross motor skill abilities B) The number of people who talk to the child daily C) The number of languages to which the child has daily exposure D) The growth rate of the child Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_63_Individual Differences in Language Development Wyatt is focusing on the individual sounds, rhythm, and intonation of the language his family speaks. How old is Wyatt likely to be?

A) 20 weeks B) 8–9 months C) 12 months D) 18 months Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_64_Individual Differences in Language Development Which statement is true regarding children who talk late?

A) Fewer than half the children who talk late ever catch up with the mainstream.

B) Among late talkers, delays in language development are unrelated to matters of general cognitive development.

C) Late talkers usually are diagnosed with organic brain deficits.

D) Children who do not catch up with their peers usually have poor receptive language.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_65_Individual Differences in Language Development April does not seem to understand what is said to her or around her nearly as well as her playmates. What else might we assume about April‘s development?

A) April has poorly developed gross motor skills.

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B) April is probably a late talker.

C) April has poorly developed fine motor skills.

D) April will probably not be particularly creative later in life.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_66_Individual Differences in Language Development

A part of speech that tells something about the feeling or the context of a communication is called a(n) A) telegraphic indicator.

B) linguistic milestone.

C) symbolic sign.

D) pragmatic marker.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Remember the Facts LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_67_Individual Differences in Language Development Donna coos when she is talked to and has just begun to make various consonant and vowel sounds when cooing. About how old is Donna likely to be?

A) 2 months B) 5 months C) 9 months D) 12 months Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_68_Individual Differences in Language Development At approximately what age do children begin to respond with laughing and cooing when talked to?

A) 1–2 months B) 6–7 months C) 8–9 months D) 12 months Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_69_No Easy Answers—One Language or Two? Which statement is true regarding bilingual children?

A) Bilingual children who are fluent in both languages have only moderate learning difficulties in school.

B) Bilingualism is associated with deficits in metalinguistic ability.

C) For adults, the advantages of being bilingual outweigh any problems experienced in childhood.

D) Compared to monolingual children, bilingual children show no differences in acquiring reading skills.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—One Language or Two? Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_70_Language Development Across Cultures Which statement is correct with regard to language development?

A) Telegraphic speech begins around 18 months.

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B) Babbling appears after telegraphic speech.

C) Babies in Asian cultures babble before they coo.

D) Babies cannot understand language before they can speak it.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Language Development Across Cultures Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.5: Characterize language development across cultures

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_05_71_Piaget‘s View of the First 2 Years The primary technique of interacting with the world in the first substage of Jean Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage is ________.

Answer: reflexes Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s View of the First 2 Years Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_72_Piaget‘s View of the First 2 Years Beginning in the ________ substage of Jean Piaget‘s sensorimotor period of cognitive development, babies will look for partially hidden objects.

Answer: third Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_73_Alternative Approaches A child‘s understanding of the nature of objects, their properties, and how they work is called ________.

Answer: object concept Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_74_Alternative Approaches The violation of ________ method is a research strategy in which a child is habituated to a display of objects and then is shown another display in which the objects move in a way that is different to what the infant is anticipating.

Answer: expectations Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_75_Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Tests that measure intelligence in infancy measure primarily ________ and ________ skills.

Answer: sensory; motor Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence in Infancy Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.4: Describe how intelligence is measured in infancy TB_05_76_Conditioning and Modeling Infants can learn behaviors by watching them being performed by someone else. This type of learning is known as __________.

Answer: modeling Level: Easy Topic: Conditioning and Modeling Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.2.1: Summarize the ways in which infants learn

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TB_05_77_Schematic Learning Infants develop ____________, which are higher-level categories that are used to organize information, with the classification of living things preceding the classification of non-living things.

Answer: superordinate categories Level: Difficult Topic: Schematic Learning Skill: Analyze It LO 5.2.2: Describe the process of schematic learning in the first 2 years TB_05_78_Theoretical Perspectives The innate language processor that some theorists believe children are born with is called the ________.

Answer: language acquisition device (or LAD) Level: Easy Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_79_Theoretical Perspectives Children combine several gestures in their pretend play at around the same time that they first show two- or three-word sentences in their speech. This supports the ________ view of language development.

Answer: interactionist Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_80_Early Milestones of Language Development Dee Dee makes repetitive vowel sounds by producing ―Oo Oo Oo‖ over and over. Dee Dee is exhibiting __________.

Answer: cooing Level: Easy Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_81_The First Sentences All grammatical markers are missing from ________, the short simple sentences children generally begin to use between 18 and 24 months.

Answer: telegraphic speech Level: Moderate Topic: The First Sentences Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.4.3: Characterize the kinds of sentences children produce between 18 and 24 months of age TB_05_82_Language Development Across Cultures Japanese children use ________ markers that tell something about the feeling or context of a sentence.

Answer: pragmatic Level: Difficult Topic: Language Development Across Cultures Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.5: Characterize language development across cultures

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Short Answer Questions TB_05_83_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage List, in order, the techniques involved in the substages of sensorimotor development between the ages of 1 and 12 months.

Answer: primary circular reactions; secondary circular reactions; coordination of secondary schemes Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_84_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage At what age do children develop object permanence? Give an example of how a child might demonstrate this ability.

Answer: Object permanence typically is developed by 6 to 8 months of age. Any example that shows that a child will look for an object which was removed from sight, dropped, or otherwise hidden, demonstrates this principle.

Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_85_Alternative Approaches How do the theoretical perspectives of Elizabeth Spelke differ from those of Jean Piaget in terms of object permanence?

Answer: Spelke argues that infants are born with built-in assumptions that guide their interactions with objects, whereas Piaget did not subscribe to this view.

Level: Difficult Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_86_Memory What is the youngest age at which infants can remember specific objects?

Answer: 3 months Level: Difficult Topic: Memory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.2.3: Explain how memory functions in the first 2 years TB_05_87_Theoretical Perspectives According to B. F. Skinner, how does babbling develop into language?

Answer: Babbling results in accidentally making sounds that are similar to real words. Parents then reinforce these sounds, making them more likely to occur again in the future.

Level: Difficult Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_88_Theoretical Perspectives Who coined the term ―language acquisition device?‖ Which theory of language development did this person endorse?

Answer: Noam Chomsky proposed the notion of a language acquisition device, or LAD. Chomsky endorsed a generative perspective of language development.

Level: Moderate Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development

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TB_05_89_Early Milestones of Language Development Define babbling.

Answer: Babbling refers to the repetition of the same consonant/vowel combination over and over. It is prominent during the early stages of language development.

Level: Moderate Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_90_Early Milestones of Language Development Which other activity will typically accompany babbling when a child wants something?

Answer: Gesturing tends to accompany babbling.

Level: Easy Topic: Early Milestones of Language Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 5.4.1: Describe how infants‘ understanding of words changes in the early months of life TB_05_91_The First Words Describe two intonational patterns associated with babbling.

Answer: Babbling with a rising intonation at the end of a string of sounds seems to signal a desire for a response; a falling intonation requires no response. When babies first start babbling, they typically babble all kinds of sounds, but at about 9 or 10 months, their sound repertoire gradually begins to narrow to the set of sounds they are listening to, with nonheard sounds dropping out.

Level: Difficult Topic: The First Words Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words TB_05_92_The First Sentences What are the characteristics of first sentences?

Answer: First sentences are short (employing two or three words) and simple, as in the case of telegraphic speech.

Level: Moderate Topic: The First Sentences Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.3: Characterize the kinds of sentences children produce between 18 and 24 months of age TB_05_93_The First Sentences Identify a language milestone typical of a 19-month-old child.

Answer: By the age of 19 months, a child typically will use two-word sentences and have an expressive vocabulary of 100 to 200 words.

Level: Moderate Topic: The First Sentences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.3: Characterize the kinds of sentences children produce between 18 and 24 months of age TB_05_94_Language Development Across Cultures What is the relationship among babbling, telegraphic speech, and word order in different languages?

Answer: Babbling precedes telegraphic speech; however, the specific word order is not consistent across languages.

Level: Difficult Topic: Language Development Across Cultures Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.5: Characterize language development across cultures

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Essay Questions TB_05_95_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Explain Jean Piaget‘s notion of primary circular reactions and give an example.

Answer: Jean Piaget thought that primary circular reactions occurred during the sensorimotor stage of development, specifically during substage 2, between the ages of 1 and 4 months. Primary circular reactions refer to the many simple repetitive actions seen at this time, each organized around the infant‘s own body. One characteristic of these reactions is further accommodation of basic schemes, as the baby practices them endlessly—grasping, listening, looking, sucking. There is also initial coordination of schemes from different senses, so that the baby now looks toward a sound and sucks on anything within reach. But the baby does not yet link body actions to results outside the body. An example would be reaching for a toy while turning the head toward the sound of a dog barking.

Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_96_Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage What is meant by the A-not-B error? When is this error typically resolved?

Answer: The A-not-B error is a flaw in logic that leads infants to look for an object in the place where it was last seen (position A) rather than in the place to which they have seen a researcher move it (Position B). This error is usually present during substage 4 of the sensorimotor period, between the ages of 8 and 12 months. The error tends to be resolved during substage 6.

Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Sensorimotor Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 5.1.1: Outline the milestones of Piaget‘s sensorimotor stage TB_05_97_Challenges to Piaget’s Explanation of Infant Cognitive Development What basic flaw of Jean Piaget‘s ideas persists in his explanation of deferred imitation? Give three specific examples that contradict Piaget‘s assumptions.

Answer: The basic flaw is Piaget’s underestimation of children’s abilities. Although most studies of deferred imitation support Piaget’s model, some research indicates that children as young as 6 weeks can defer imitation for a few minutes, 9-month-olds can defer for as long as 24 hours, and 14-month-olds can defer for up to 48 hours.

Level: Difficult Topic: Challenges to Piaget‘s Explanation of Infant Cognitive Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.2: Identify challenges to Piaget‘s explanation of infant cognitive development TB_05_98_Alternative Approaches Briefly describe Elizabeth Spelke‘s research regarding object concept. What does her research show?

Answer: Elizabeth Spelke has proposed that babies are born with certain built-in assumptions that guide their interactions with objects. One of these is the assumption that when two surfaces are connected to each other, they belong to the same object; Spelke calls this the connected-surface principle. In her early studies of this phenomenon, Spelke and her colleagues first habituated some 3-month-old babies to a series of displays of two objects; they habituated other babies to the sight of one-object displays. Then the babies were shown two objects touching each other, such as two square blocks placed next to each other so that they created a rectangle. Under these conditions, the babies who had been habituated to two-object displays showed renewed interest, clearly indicating that they ―saw‖ this display as different, presumably as a single object. Babies who had seen the one-object displays during habituation showed no renewed interest. In later experiments, Spelke used the violation-ofexpectations method, a research strategy in which researchers move an object in one way after having taught an infant to expect it to move in another way. These studies demonstrated that babies as young as 2 and 3 months old are remarkably aware of what kinds of movements objects are capable of.

Level: Difficult Topic: Alternative Approaches Skill: Evaluate It LO 5.1.3: Explain what research tells us about infants‘ understanding of objects TB_05_99_Theoretical Perspectives Compare and contrast the interactionist view and the generative views of infant language development.

Answer: Generatives assume language acquisition devices (LADs), which contain the basic grammatical structures of all human

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languages; infants are able to divide speech into two categories: consonants and vowels. Interactionists argue that experience combines with already-formulated meanings that the child has developed on their own.

Level: Difficult Topic: Theoretical Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 5.3.1: Contrast the three views of language development TB_05_100_Language Development Milestones Describe what takes place during the vocabulary spurt of language development.

Answer: Between 16 and 24 months, after an early period of very slow word learning, most children experience a vocabulary spurt during which they experience rapid vocabulary growth. During this period, children seem to learn new words with very few repetitions, and they generalize these words to many more situations. The average 16-month-old has a speaking vocabulary of about 50 words; for a 24-month-old, the total exceeds 300 words. For most children, the vocabulary spurt is not a steady, gradual process; instead, longitudinal studies suggest that vocabulary ―spurts‖ begin at about the time the child has acquired 50 words. Most observers agree that the bulk of new words learned during this early period of rapid vocabulary growth are names for things or people: ball, car, milk, doggie. Action words tend to appear later.

Level: Difficult Topic: Language Development Milestones Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.2: Identify the characteristics of toddlers‘ first words.

TB_05_101_Individual Differences in Language Development Explain how language changes for children between 12 and 20 months of age.

Answer: By 12 months, expressive language has emerged and children can say single words. By 18 months, children use word– gesture combinations with variations in intonation. By 20 months, children can use two-word sentences (telegraphic speech) and have an expressive vocabulary of up to 200 words.

Level: Difficult Topic: Individual Differences in Language Development Skill: Analyze It LO 5.4.4: Describe individual differences in language development TB_05_102_No Easy Answers—One Language or Two? Clarify some of the advantages and disadvantages of growing up in a bilingual household.

Answer: One advantage of early exposure to two languages may be the link between bilingualism and theory of mind (TOM), the ability to accurately predict what other people know. Research suggests that bilingual children‘s social experiences with monolingual children enhance theory of mind development as it prompts them to reflect on the lack of shared linguistic knowledge. Importantly, too, bilingualism seems to contribute to TOM developing in children with disabilities that are associated with poor TOM skills. However, children growing up in bilingual homes in which the two languages vary greatly in how they are written (e.g., English and Chinese) may acquire reading skills in both languages more slowly than peers in monolingual homes. Clearly, the advantages in adulthood of being bilingual are substantial and may outweigh other considerations. Thus, bilingual parents need to balance the advantages and disadvantages of bilingualism, as well as their longterm parenting goals, to reach an informed decision about the kind of linguistic environment to provide for their babies.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—One Language or Two? Skill: Apply What You Know LO 5.4.5: Characterize language development across cultures

TEST BANK CHAPTER 6: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN INFANCY Multiple-Choice Questions TB_06_01_Psychoanalytic Perspectives During the first of Sigmund Freud‘s psychosexual stages of development, a child derives satisfaction from stimulation of which body part?

A) The mouth B) The genitals C) The eyes D) The ears Answer: A

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Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_02_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which term would Sigmund Freud use when referring to the interdependence between a mother and child?

A) One-way B) Symbiotic C) Dual D) Monotonous Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_03_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Hattie gains comfort through eating and drinking. She also cries to gain attention from her parents or to express discomfort.

Sigmund Freud‘s psychoanalytic perspective would argue that Hattie is in which stage of development?

A) Symbiotic B) Dependent C) Anal D) Oral Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_04_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which crisis takes place during Erik Erikson‘s first stage of psychosocial development?

A) Oral versus anal B) Independence versus reliance C) Interdependence versus symbiosis D) Trust versus mistrust Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_05_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Abdallah depends on his mother for everything he needs. When he cries, she responds with food or a clean diaper or a cuddle.

Erik Erikson would have said that Abdallah‘s mother is helping him resolve the conflict known as A) trust versus mistrust.

B) the oral stage.

C) fear versus comfort.

D) the dependent stage.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_06_Psychoanalytic Perspectives According to Erik Erikson, when do people pass through the trust-versus-mistrust stage?

A) During the first 18 months of life B) During the first 2 months of life C) During the first 2 years of life

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D) During the first 5 years of life Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_07_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Harry Harlow and Robert Zimmerman documented that infant monkeys spend the most time with the ―mother‖ A) without a bottle or made of terrycloth.

B) with the bottle.

C) covered in terrycloth.

D) with a bottle and covered in terrycloth.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_08_Ethological Perspectives Which conclusion did Harry Harlow reach based on his research with infant monkeys?

A) Monkeys will seek food at any cost, illustrating an innate tendency for survival.

B) When deprived of a caregiver, monkeys will die within an average of 6 weeks.

C) Contact comfort was more important than food for these monkeys during this developmental stage.

D) Availability of food is the basis for forming attachment with a caregiver.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_09_Ethological Perspectives According to John Bowlby‘s attachment theory, which type of model will a child have developed by 5 years of age?

A) An internal model that includes self, a primary caregiver, and relationships in general B) An external model that includes self, a primary caregiver, and relationships in general C) An internal model that includes only self and the primary caregiver D) An internal model that includes self, and a primary caregiver, but excludes a model of the father Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Ethological Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 6.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of attachment theory TB_06_10_Ethological Perspectives According to the ethological perspective, which period of life constitutes a sensitive period for the formation of a close relationship between an infant and a caregiver?

A) The first month of life B) The first 6 months of life C) The first 2 years of life D) The first 5 years of life Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Ethological Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of attachment theory TB_06_11_No Easy Answers—Adoption and Development Which statement about adopted children is true?

A) Adopted children have fewer adjustment problems after they are old enough to understand that their adoption means that

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they were ―chosen.‖ B) Children who are adopted before the age of 6 months, with no history of institutionalization or abuse, are generally indistinguishable from nonadopted children.

C) Children who are adopted by age 10 are indistinguishable from nonadopted children, provided that they are adopted into loving homes.

D) Only 10% of adoptive children who come from abusive backgrounds have behavioral problems later on.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—Adoption and Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of attachment theory TB_06_12_The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Archie cries and his mother responds immediately. When he coos at his mother, she smiles and cuddles him. Developmentalists would say that this is an example of which concept?

A) Maternity B) Synchrony C) Multiplicity D) Duplicity Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.2.1: Explain how synchrony affects parent–infant relations in the first 2 years TB_06_13_The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Which hormones seem to be implicated in the complex array of factors related to effective parenting and attachment?

A) Melatonin and oxycontin B) Thyroxine and dopamine C) Vasopressin and oxytocin D) Prostacyclin and ghrelin Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Skill: Analyze It LO 6.2.1: Explain how synchrony affects parent–infant relations in the first 2 years TB_06_14_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Marjoe is 2 months old. He smiles and coos at almost everyone he meets. Marjoe is in which of John Bowlby‘s proposed phases of attachment?

A) Phase 1: Nonfocused orienting and signaling B) Phase 2: Focus on one or more figures C) Phase 3: Secure base behavior D) Phase 4: Internal model Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_15_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Lucretia‘s mother is dropping her off at preschool for the first time, and Lucretia‘s behavior changes from that of a calm, happy baby, to a crying, cranky youngster who will not let go of her mother. Lucretia is demonstrating A) social referencing.

B) bonding anxiety.

C) attachment disorder.

D) separation anxiety.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_16_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents

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Which term is applied to an infant‘s cry and protest at being left with someone other than their primary caregivers?

A) Separation anxiety B) Stranger anxiety C) Bonding anxiety D) Social referencing Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_17_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Some infants between 6 and 16 months experience a fear of people they do not know. Which term best identifies this fearful phase of infancy?

A) Stranger anxiety B) Separation anxiety C) Social referencing D) Affect dysregulation Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_18_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Callie, age 11 months, went to the circus with her mother. When a clown came bouncing up to Callie‘s stroller, Callie was anxious and looked at her mother. When Callie‘s mother began to laugh at the clown, Callie joined in the laughter. Callie‘s behavior shows evidence of A) affective regulation.

B) social referencing.

C) stranger anxiety.

D) bonding dependence.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_19_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Hester is watching her siblings as she plays in her playpen. Her siblings begin to squabble and shove each other. Hester looks toward her mother and notices that her mother is smiling as she watches the other children, so Hester begins to smile, too.

Hester is engaged in A) affective regulation.

B) social referencing.

C) stranger anxiety.

D) bonding dependence.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_20_Variations in Attachment Quality If a child is exposed to the strange situation, then they A) should receive immediate medical attention.

B) will view novel and obscure stimuli.

C) will be in a room with other children that they don’t know.

D) will be left with a stranger or alone in an unfamiliar situation.

Answer: D

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Level: Moderate Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth TB_06_21_Variations in Attachment Quality Romeo seems indifferent to the presence or absence of his mother as he plays. When she leaves the room to answer the telephone, Romeo barely notices and doesn‘t seem particularly distressed. Which attachment style has Romeo developed with his mother?

A) Securely attached B) Insecure/avoidant C) Secure/resistant D) Insecure/disorganized Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth TB_06_22_Variations in Attachment Quality Ivanhoe is playing in a room with his mother nearby. Ivanhoe becomes distressed when a stranger enters the room and he rushes to his mother‘s side. When his mother and the stranger leave the room for a moment, Ivanhoe wails and cries. However, when his mother returns, he runs to her, and instead of giving her a hug, he bites her on the arm. Which type of attachment pattern is Ivanhoe demonstrating?

A) Secure attachment B) Insecure/ambivalent attachment C) Secure/resistant attachment D) Insecure/disorganized attachment Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth TB_06_23_Variations in Attachment Quality Which term is associated with expressions of discomfort, such as crying, when an infant is removed from an attachment figure?

A) Stranger anxiety B) Separation anxiety C) Insecure attachment D) Avoidant attachment Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth TB_06_24_Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment Laurel is a 5-year-old with no language skills. She spends most of her day sitting on the floor in the corner of the kitchen, flapping her hands repeatedly and rocking back and forth. At what level of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) would Laurel be diagnosed?

A) Level 1 ASD B) Level 2 ASD C) Level 3 ASD D) Level 4 ASD Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.3.2: Identify the variables that contribute to a parent‘s ability to establish an attachment relationship with an infant TB_06_25_Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment When Mason cries, his mother responds by picking him up. When he coos, his mother talks to him. She smiles when he smiles.

These are examples of which concept?

A) Reinforcement schedules

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B) Classical conditioning C) Maternal behavior shaping D) Contingent responsiveness Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.3.2: Identify the variables that contribute to a parent‘s ability to establish an attachment relationship with an infant TB_06_26_Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment Which factor is a predictor of attachment quality?

A) Relationship satisfaction B) Child‘s gender C) Ethnicity D) Number of other children in the home Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.2: Identify the variables that contribute to a parent‘s ability to establish an attachment relationship with an infant TB_06_27_Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment If a mother is chronically and severely depressed, which outcome would you likely see in her child?

A) Synchrony B) Secure attachment C) Decreased likelihood of mental illness in the future D) Insecure attachment Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Caregiver Characteristics and Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.2: Identify the variables that contribute to a parent‘s ability to establish an attachment relationship with an infant TB_06_28_Long-Term Consequences of Attachment Quality Children who are rated as securely attached to their mothers in infancy are later A) hampered in their ability to develop friendships.

B) more aggressive toward peers and disruptive in school.

C) likely to develop depression and anxiety disorders.

D) more sociable, positive, and empathetic.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Long-Term Consequences of Attachment Quality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.3.3: Explain the long-term consequences of attachment quality TB_06_29_Long-Term Consequences of Attachment Quality Which statement is true about attachment?

A) Securely attached infants have no greater social skills after they reach adolescence than insecurely attached infants.

B) Insecure/avoidant infants are less likely as adolescents to act out sexually.

C) Attachment relationships are more critical to adult intimate relationships than other types of relationships.

D) Parents with a history of insecure attachment are more likely to view their infants negatively.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Long-Term Consequences of Attachment Quality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.3.3: Explain the long-term consequences of attachment quality TB_06_30_Cross-Cultural Research on Attachment Compared to the others, which country has the greatest percentage of securely attached children?

A) Great Britain B) Japan C) United States D) Germany Answer: A

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Level: Difficult Topic: Cross-Cultural Research on Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.4: Describe how patterns of attachment vary across cultures TB_06_31_Cross-Cultural Research on Attachment What do cross-cultural studies of attachment reveal?

A) Insecure attachment is common in North America.

B) European countries value independence, in turn fostering insecure attachment.

C) Avoidant children are more common in Israel and Japan.

D) Secure attachment is the most common pattern in all societies.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Cross-Cultural Research on Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.4: Describe how patterns of attachment vary across cultures TB_06_32_Personality, Temperament, and Self-Concept The sum total of patterns in the way children and adults relate to the people and objects in the world around them is more popularly known as A) personal motivation.

B) racial identity.

C) personality.

D) a family of origin.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Personality, Temperament, and Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_33_Personality, Temperament, and Self-Concept Emotional and behavioral predispositions present at birth are thought to be the foundation of personality. These predispositions are collectively referred to as A) foundations.

B) temperament.

C) moods.

D) motivations.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Personality, Temperament, and Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_34_Dimensions of Temperament According to Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, who conducted a large-scale study of infants in the New York Longitudinal Study, what percentage of children were found to be ―easy babies‖?

A) 40% B) 50% C) 25% D) 35% Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Remember the Facts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament

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TB_06_35_Dimensions of Temperament Ingrid describes her son as fussy and rarely sleeping through the night, whereas her daughter is calm and adapts very easily to any situation. Ingrid is describing which aspect of her children‘s differing characteristics?

A) Attachment pattern B) Patterns of sociability C) Temperament D) Mood Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_36_Dimensions of Temperament Which term is used to describe the temperament of children who are less regular with their body functions and slower to develop stable eating and sleeping patterns?

A) Difficult B) Slow-to-warm-up C) Easy D) Secure Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_37_Dimensions of Temperament Which summary provides the best definition of temperament?

A) The typical pattern of responses that a child shows when angry or frustrated B) One of three personality patterns displayed by children C) Inborn behavioral and emotional predispositions that form the basis of personality D) The degree to which a child can be influenced by others Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_38_Dimensions of Temperament Which concept is partially described in terms of activity level, distractibility, and persistence?

A) Types of infant personalities B) Personality dimensions C) Dimensions of temperament D) Characteristics of self-concept Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_39_Dimensions of Temperament Which characteristic is a dimension of temperament in babies?

A) How well-attached the baby is to its mother B) The baby’s appetite C) The quality of the baby’s mood D) The presence of both parents in the household Answer: C Level: Difficult

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Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_40_Dimensions of Temperament According to Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, who conducted a large-scale study of infants in the New York Longitudinal Study, what percentage of children were found to be ―slow-to-warm babies‖?

A) 10% B) 25% C) 15% D) 5% Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Remember the Facts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_41_Dimensions of Temperament What is the opposite of approach/positive emotionality/sociability as a dimension of temperament?

A) Inhibition and anxiety B) Irrationality C) Irregularity D) Introspection Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_42_Dimensions of Temperament Which concept refers to an infant‘s relative tendency to move often and vigorously?

A) Hyperactivity B) Activity level C) Effortful control D) Motor sociability Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_43_Origins and Stability of Temperament Which observation is true regarding the long-term stability of temperament?

A) There is great variability across research findings, so we can‘t draw any reliable conclusions about the longevity of temperament.

B) Temperament remains stable through the age of 2 years, but then it becomes unpredictable.

C) Difficult children tend to demonstrate the greatest level of instability in temperament.

D) Most studies have found that the basic temperament of a child stays relatively stable into children‘s later years.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_44_Origins and Stability of Temperament Which neurotransmitters regulate the brain‘s response to new information and unusual situations?

A) Adrenaline and noradrenaline B) Adrenaline and dopamine

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C) Dopamine and noradrenaline D) Dopamine and serotonin Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_45_Origins and Stability of Temperament Which aspect of brain functioning is associated with shyness?

A) Temporal lobe deficiency B) Frontal lobe asymmetry C) Occipital lobe favoring D) Cortical stimulation Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_46_Origins and Stability of Temperament ________ is the process of selecting experiences based on temperament.

A) Self-fulfilling prophecy B) Self-regulation C) Hypothetical placement D) Niche picking Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_47_Origins and Stability of Temperament Research evidence correlates neurological differences with differences in temperament. What is a basic argument against the conclusions drawn from such results?

A) The relationship between brain structure and shyness is illusory.

B) Environmental influences can alter brain structure just as brain structure can alter behavior.

C) Because it is correlational data, no conclusions can be drawn.

D) Environmental influences have a greater influence on behavior than do differences in brain structure.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_48_Origins and Stability of Temperament Which conclusion best summarizes the findings of research on parental influences and temperament among Chinese parents and children?

A) Parental behavior at age 1 predicted temperament at age 7.

B) Parental behavior had little influence on changes in temperament.

C) Parental behavior at age 4 predicted behavioral inhibition at age 7.

D) Parental behavior positively impacted temperamental changes.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_49_Origins and Stability of Temperament Which term refers to the notion that a child‘s development is dependent on the degree of match between the child‘s temperament and the nature and demands of the environment in which they are being raised?

A) Stages of psychosocial development

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B) Theory of mind C) Operant conditioning D) Goodness-of-fit Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_50_Self-Concept in Infancy Four-month-old Jermaine is playing and smiling at his father as his father watches him with love, pride, and joy in his eyes.

Jermaine is demonstrating A) social smiling.

B) stranger anxiety.

C) nonverbal decoding.

D) random neural activity.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_51_Self-Concept Another term for the objective self is the __________ self.

A) categorical B) subjective C) irrational D) regulated Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_52_Self-Concept Which term best describes a toddler‘s understanding that they are defined by membership in various categories, such as gender or personality characteristics?

A) Subjective self B) Superficial self C) Objective self D) Inhibited self Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_53_Self-Concept Understanding the objective self requires which attribute?

A) Self-recognition B) Self-subjection C) Self-attachment D) The existential self Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept

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Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_54_Self-Concept Eight-month-old Richetta’s crib is located near a large mirror on her dresser, yet Richetta rarely stops to look at herself in the mirror. On the other hand, her 19-month-old sister, Leontyne, stops regularly to gaze at herself as she crawls and walks near the full-length bathroom mirror. What is the likely reason that Leontyne looks at the mirror but Richetta does not?

A) Leontyne has developed self-awareness but Richetta has not.

B) Leontyne’s self-awareness has begun to develop into narcissism.

C) Richetta has developed self-awareness, but is too interested in other things to look at herself.

D) Leontyne’s mother has given her more attention than she’s given Richetta.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_55_Self-Concept Infants can identify changes in the emotions expressed in others‘ faces by what age?

A) 2–3 months B) 4 months C) 5 months D) 6–9 months Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_56_Self-Concept When an infant demonstrates an understanding of the emotions of others and how those emotions affect behavior, and also understands their own emotions and their expression, they are demonstrating the _________ self.

A) conscious B) social C) personal D) emotional Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_57_Self-Concept Compared to younger infants, by 5 to 7 months, infants can A) distinguish among happy, surprised, angry, or sad faces.

B) discern emotions in a familiar face than in an unfamiliar face.

C) produce complex emotional ―blends‖ with their facial expressions.

D) express sadness more easily.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_58_Self-Concept Facial expressions of fear appear by about __________ of age.

A) 1 or 2 months

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B) 6 or 7 months C) 9 or 10 months D) 1 or 2 years Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_59_Self-Concept At what age do self-conscious emotions typically arise?

A) Near the end of the second year B) 14 months C) At 6 months D) After 4 years Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_60_Self-Concept Which of these emotions is a self-conscious emotion?

A) Fear B) Surprise C) Happiness D) Pride Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_61_Difficulties in Studying Nonparental Care In approximately _________% of married and cohabiting families with children under 6, both parents are employed outside the home at least part time.

A) 37 B) 53 C) 62 D) 81 Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Difficulties in Studying Nonparental Care Skill: Remember the Facts LO 6.5.1: Explain the difficulties in studying the effects of nonparental care on development

TB_06_62_Effects of Nonparental Care Which observation applies when interpreting research findings related to day care and its influence on cognitive development?

A) Studies involving day care fail to account for the size of the facility and number of children enrolled.

B) Studies that relate to impoverished children are more accurate if the studies are small.

C) Too many studies focus on the problems of middle class children but not those of impoverished children.

D) An enormous range of different care arrangements are all lumped under the general title of ―nonparental care.‖ Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Effects of Nonparental Care Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.5.2: Outline the possible effects of nonparental care on development TB_06_63_ Effects of Nonparental Care

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Compared to the others, which group is likely to benefit the most from high-quality non-familial day care?

A) Children who are physically active B) Children from homes that are highly enriched C) Children from affluent homes D) Children from poor families Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Nonparental Care Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.5.2: Outline the possible effects of nonparental care on development TB_06_64_Effects of Nonparental Care

The most consistent finding regarding the effects of nonparental care is that A) the quality of a nonparental day care setting has little to no effect on a child‘s physical or cognitive development.

B) parents’ interactions with infants and young children more strongly influence all aspects of their development.

C) children who spend more than 10 hours a day in nonparental care are at higher risk for developing behavioral problems during adolescence.

D) state-funded agencies provide better care than do private centers.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Nonparental Care Skill: Analyze It LO 6.5.2: Outline the possible effects of nonparental care on development TB_06_65_Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Which statement about social development and day care is true?

A) Children in nonparental care seem to have a higher risk of insecure attachment than children with exclusively parental care.

B) Children in nonparental care show no substantive differences in attachment from children cared for exclusively by their parents.

C) There is a heightened risk of insecure attachment in children placed in day care after the age of 1 year.

D) Parental behaviors are more important for social development if the day care arrangements are unstable.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care TB_06_66_Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development A child‘s _________ can interact in complex ways with nonparental care, as in the case of a child who is more sensitive to the stresses associated with center-based care, or a child whose exuberance or distractibility characterizes interactions with nonparental caregivers.

A) temperament B) self-awareness C) socioeconomic status D) cognitive skills Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care TB_06_67_Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Which stress hormone has been linked to differences in behavior of children in day care versus children reared exclusively at home?

A) Thyroxine B) Cortisol C) Testosterone D) Estrogen Answer: B Level: Moderate

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Topic: Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Skill: Analyze It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care TB_06_68_Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care When infants are cared for in high-quality day care centers, the amount of time they spend in such care A) is unrelated to their social behavior.

B) predicts increased negative and antisocial behaviors.

C) produces greater instances of empathetic and prosocial behaviors.

D) directly contributes to the closeness of their sibling attachments.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care TB_06_69_Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Both positive and negative differences between the behavior of children in nonparental care versus home care tend to be A) moderate.

B) nonexistent.

C) small.

D) large.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Skill: Analyze It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care TB_06_70_Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Day-care effects on children‘s social and cognitive behavior are likely to be A) symbolic rather than real, as societal values determine what is ―right‖ and ―good‖ in any given social setting.

B) substantial, given the wealth of research evidence showing that day care is inferior to home care on most dimensions studied.

C) peer effects in reality, as infants spend more time with, and learn more from, their agemates than from adult day care professionals.

D) parenting effects in disguise, as parents tend to choose day care that emphasizes their own parenting styles and values.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_06_71_Ethological Perspectives An emotional bond formed with a caregiver is called ________.

Answer: attachment Level: Easy Topic: Ethological Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of attachment theory TB_06_72_The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Interlocking patterns of attachment behaviors between a child and a caregiver are called ________.

Answer: synchrony Level: Difficult Topic: The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Skill: Analyze It LO 6.2.1: Explain how synchrony affects parent–infant relations in the first 2 years TB_06_73_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents The type of attachment seen in phase 3 of Bowlby‘s attachment theory is called ________.

Answer: secure base behavior Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Analyze It LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_74_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents When infants cry and protest at being left with someone other than their primary caregivers, developmentalists label the behavior ________.

Answer: separation anxiety Level: Easy Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_75_The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents ________ refers to an infant‘s use of cues from a primary caregiver as a guide for their own emotions.

Answer: Social referencing Level: Moderate Topic: The Infant‘s Attachment to the Parents Skill: Analyze It LO 6.2.2: Outline the four phases of attachment TB_06_76_Variations in Attachment Quality ________ children show no interest in contact with their caregivers following a separation. These children do not specifically resist the caregiver‘s efforts, but they do not seek much contact. They show no preference for their caregivers over a stranger.

Answer: Insecure/avoidant Level: Difficult Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth

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TB_06_77_Variations in Attachment Quality ________ attachment is characterized by dazed or confused behavior by the infant, with a contradictory pattern of responding to the primary caregiver.

Answer: Insecure/disorganized Level: Moderate Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth TB_06_78_Dimensions of Temperament Activity level, emotionality, and persistence are all dimensions of ________.

Answer: temperament Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_79_Dimensions of Temperament ________ is a characteristic pattern of responding to people and objects in the environment.

Answer: Personality Level: Easy Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_80_Dimensions of Temperament Keisha is typically happy, but does not care for changes in her routine. She spits out new foods rather than swallow them; she ignores new toys for a while before she accepts them to play. Eventually, she is back to her usual happy self. Keisha‘s temperament is ________.

Answer: slow-to-warm-up Level: Difficult Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_81_Self-Concept in Infancy Another name for the objective self is ________.

Answer: categorical self Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept in Infancy Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_82_Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Infants who enter day care before their first birthday have a heighted risk for __________ attachment.

Answer: insecure Level: Easy Topic: Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care

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Short Answer Questions TB_06_83_Psychoanalytic Perspectives What was Sigmund Freud‘s view of the relationship between a mother and a young infant?

Answer: Freud emphasized the symbiotic relationship between the mother and young infant, in which the two behave as if they were one. He believed that the infant did not understand herself to be separate from her mother. Thus, a result of a gratifying nursing period followed by a balanced weaning process, Freud thought, was the infant‘s development of a sense of both attachment to and separation from the mother.

Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.1.1: Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years TB_06_84_Ethological Perspectives At what age do children begin to create internal models of their parental relationships? By what age do children have a clear model of their parents and themselves?

Answer: Children begin creating these models late in the first year of life, and the models are well-established by 5 years of age.

Level: Moderate Topic: Ethological Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of attachment theory TB_06_85_The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant What determines a father and mother‘s bond with infants? Are there differences between the ways fathers and mothers interact with very young infants?

Answer: Synchrony is the primary contributor to bonding for both parents. There is no difference in the way fathers and mothers interact with very young infants.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.2.1: Explain how synchrony affects parent–infant relations in the first 2 years TB_06_86_Variations in Attachment Quality List some of the behaviors you would expect to see in a child with an insecure/ambivalent attachment.

Answer: A child who has developed an insecure/ambivalent attachment style would likely demonstrate these behaviors: little exploration; wariness of strangers; upset when separated from mother; not being reassured by mother‘s return; may show anger at reunion with mother Level: Difficult Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth

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TB_06_87_Cross-Cultural Research on Attachment List three countries in which children are likely to be less securely attached than children in the United States.

Answer: China; Netherlands; Germany Level: Difficult Topic: Cross-Cultural Research on Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.4: Describe how patterns of attachment vary across cultures TB_06_88_Dimensions of Temperament Identify the characteristics of a slow-to-warm-up child.

Answer: displays few intense reactions; appears non-responsive to unfamiliar people Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_89_Origins and Stability of Temperament What does neurological research show to be an effect of asymmetry of the frontal lobes of the brain?

Answer: shyness, due to higher levels of arousal in the right hemisphere than in the left Level: Moderate Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_90_Origins and Stability of Temperament What does the term goodness-of-fit mean?

Answer: It refers to the match between a child‘s temperament and environmental influences. The better the fit, the more likely secure attachment will develop.

Level: Moderate Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_91_Origins and Stability of Temperament Which two factors are likely to contribute to gender differences in temperament?

Answer: the child‘s inborn temperament and the interactions of the primary caregivers with this temperament Level: Easy Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament

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TB_06_92_Self-Concept Define the objective self. What is another term for objective self?

Answer: Also called categorical self; the toddler‘s understanding that they are defined by various categories, such as good, bad, boy, girl, and so on.

Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_93_Self-Concept What happens to an infant‘s emotional expression as the child begins to comprehend others‘ emotional expressions?

Answer: The child‘s own repertoire of emotional expression will increase.

Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_94_Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care On average, what are the differences between children in nonparental care and their home-reared peers?

Answer: Both negative and positive differences are very small.

Level: Difficult Topic: Interpreting Research on Nonparental Care Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care

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Essay Questions TB_06_95_Theories of Social and Personality Development Summarize psychoanalytic explanations for parent–infant relations, noting the primary basis for this type of theorizing.

Answer: Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson each developed psychoanalytic explanations for how parents and infants form a bond between themselves. Freud thought that a symbiotic relationship developed between an infant and its mother (note that almost all theorists during this historical time period focused on mothers as the primary, if not sole, caregivers) over the course of several psychosexual stages of development, mainly through the processes of breastfeeding and weaning from the breast. Erikson emphasized the importance of the social environment during development and the resolution of various conflicts over time. Harry Harlow’s research with infant monkeys seemed to provide empirical evidence for both of these views, contrasting the importance of food with the importance of environmental care. In general, psychoanalytic approaches posit complex interactions between spooky internal forces or conflicts and the ability to get along in the larger external environment.

Level: Difficult Topic: Theories of Social and Personality Development Skill: Analyze It LO 6.1.1 Distinguish between Freud‘s and Erikson‘s views of personality development in the first 2 years.

TB_06_96_The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Explain how synchrony affects parent–infant relations in the first 2 years.

Answer: Synchrony is like a conversation. Participants take turns initiating interaction and responding to one another. The attachment relationship is formed through these synchronous interactions. Babies signal their needs by crying or smiling; they respond to being held by quieting or snuggling; they make eye contact with caregivers. The caregivers, in turn, enter into these interactions with their own repertoires of caregiving behaviors.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Parents‘ Attachment to the Infant Skill: Analyze It LO 6.2.1 Explain how synchrony affects parent–infant relations in the first 2 years TB_06_97_Variations in Attachment Quality Summarize the four phases of attachment.

Answer: John Bowlby suggested four phases in the development of the infant‘s attachment. Bowlby and other ethologists claimed that these phases appear over the first 24 to 36 months of life in a fixed sequence that is strongly influenced by genes present in all healthy human infants. The infant exhibits a distinctive set of attachment-related behaviors and interaction patterns in each phase: Phase 1: Nonfocused orienting and signaling (birth to 3 months)—Babies exhibit behaviors, such as crying, smiling, and making eye contact, that draw the attention of others and signal their needs. Phase 2: Focus on one or more figures (3 to 6 months)— Babies direct their ―come here‖ signals to fewer people, typically those with whom they spend the most time, and are less responsive to unfamiliar people. Phase 3: Secure base behavior (6 to 24 months)—True attachment emerges.

Babies show ―proximity- seeking‖ behaviors such as following and clinging to caregivers, whom they regard as ―safe bases,‖ especially when they are anxious, injured, or have physical needs such as hunger. Phase 4: Internal model (24 months and beyond)—The internal model plays a role in later relationships with early caregivers (i.e., adult children and their parents) and in other significant relationships (i.e., romantic partnerships) throughout life.

Level: Difficult Topic: Variations in Attachment Quality Skill: Analyze It LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth TB_06_98_Factors Influencing Attachment Summarize the three-category system clinicians use to describe the severity of an individual‘s diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). How does attachment relate to ASD? Answer: Clinicians use a three-category system to describe the severity of an individual‘s ASD. Children with Level 3 ASD have very limited or nonexistent language skills, display stereotypic behaviors such as hand-flapping and rocking, and have a severely limited range of interests. Most individuals with Level 3 ASD also have intellectual disabilities. In addition, stereotypic behaviors, particularly head-banging, can cause serious injuries. Children diagnosed with Level 2 ASD are capable of some degree of verbal communication and have mild degrees of cognitive impairment. However, most have difficulty looking at situations from other people‘s perspectives and often utter repetitive words or phrases that are inappropriate for the situations in which they occur. As a result, children with Level 2 ASD have a limited capacity for normal conversations and social interactions. Children with Level 1 ASD have age-appropriate language and cognitive skills. As a result, most are not diagnosed with the disorder until later in childhood. Influenced by John Bowlby‘s theory of attachment, developmentalists at one time believed that ASDs resulted from a disturbance in the attachment process caused by insensitive parenting. However, despite their difficulties with synchrony, most infants with ASDs are securely attached to their caregivers. Moreover, contemporary research suggests that ASDs have neurological origins. Consequently, today‘s developmental scientists believe that ASDs are

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caused by a variety of interactive biological and environmental factors rather than a flawed attachment process.

Level: Difficult Topic: Factors Influencing Attachment Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.3.1: Describe the four attachment patterns discovered by Ainsworth.

TB_06_99_Dimensions of Temperament List the three types of temperament that apply to about 75% of children. Give an example of each.

Answer: Easy children: predictable eating and sleeping cycles, positive approach to new situations and people, generally happy.

Difficult children: irregular sleeping and eating patterns, irritable, emotionally negative, resistant to change. Slow-to-warm-up children: few intense reactions, either positive or negative, unresponsive to unfamiliar people. Note that the question asks for examples which fit within these parameters.

Level: Moderate Topic: Dimensions of Temperament Skill: Apply What You Know LO 6.4.1: Identify the most agreed-on dimensions of temperament TB_06_100_Origins and Stability of Temperament Identify two neurological processes or structures that influence temperament, especially shyness. Explain how these processes affect temperament.

Answer: Many temperament and personality theorists trace basic differences in behavior to variations in underlying physiological patterns. For example, dopamine and serotonin regulate the brain‘s responses to new information and unusual situations—precisely the kinds of stimuli that appear to overstimulate shy children. Another important neurological variable that has been found to be associated with shyness is frontal lobe maturity. Longitudinal research suggests that the frontal lobes of shy children are less mature than those of non-shy peers at several points in childhood and adolescence. Frontal lobe asymmetry, the tendency of the left and right hemispheres of the frontal lobes to respond differently to new stimuli, also appears to be an important correlate of shyness. In most people, the left and right hemispheres of the frontal lobes respond similarly to new stimuli. In shy infants, however, the two hemispheres respond differently to such stimuli. Specifically, these children exhibit higher levels of arousal in the right hemisphere than in the left. Such findings make it tempting to conclude that shyness is caused by frontal lobe asymmetry. However, the research is correlational, meaning that it is difficult to say whether neurological differences such as frontal lobe asymmetry are a cause or an effect of temperament.

Level: Moderate Topic: Origins and Stability of Temperament Skill: Analyze It LO 6.4.2: Identify the factors that influence the formation of temperament TB_06_101_Self-Concept Describe research that has been conducted to determine when children develop a sense of self. At what age do children show a sharp increase in self-awareness?

Answer: The mirror self-recognition test is activated when a child is held up to a mirror and the child‘s reaction to the reflection is noted. The child is then isolated from the mirror and a mark of some kind is placed on the child‘s face, and the child is again held up to the mirror. Children without self-awareness will touch the baby in the mirror but not their own face. After children realize that the baby in the mirror is them, they will touch their own face to wipe off the mark that was applied.

Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.4.3: Explain how the three concepts of self develop during the first 2 years TB_06_102_Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Summarize the variables involved in interpreting any differences between children living in nonparental care and home-reared children.

Answer: On average, the differences between children in nonparental care and their home-reared peers, both positive and negative, are very small. Moreover, studies in several cultures that have attempted to examine all of the complex variables associated with parental and nonparental care, such as parents‘ level of education, have shown that family variables are more important than the type of day-care arrangements a family chooses. The late developmental psychologist Sandra Scarr suggested that the kind of day care parents choose is an extension of their own characteristics and parenting styles. For example, poorly educated parents may choose day-care arrangements that do not emphasize infant learning. Similarly, parents whose focus is on intellectual development may not place a high priority on the emotional aspects of a particular day-care arrangement. Thus, Scarr claimed, day-care effects are likely to be parenting effects in disguise.

Level: Moderate Topic: Effects on Physical, Cognitive, and Social Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 6.5.3: Identify the variables that should be considered when interpreting research on nonparental care

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TEST BANK CHAPTER 7: PHYSICAL AND COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN EARLY CHILDHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_07_01_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Holding a pencil to write or draw requires which type of skill?

A) Gross motor skills B) Locomotion C) Grappling skills D) Fine motor skills Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_02_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Dr. Rabinowitz is giving 5-year-old Teesa a pre-kindergarten physical examination. When Dr. Rabinowitz asks Teesa to jump up and down and hop on one leg, what is she testing?

A) Fine motor skills B) Gross motor skills C) Habituation response D) Intersensory integration Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_03_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood During the preschool years, parents can expect their children to gain about how many inches in height each year?

A) 2–3 inches B) About an inch C) 1/2–1 inch D) 1–2 inches Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_04_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Preschoolers gain an average of how many pounds per year?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_05_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Which activity would a 2-year-old be LEAST able to do?

A) Hold a pencil between thumb and forefinger in the proper position for writing B) Run across the room with arms outstretched to a parent C) Pull a wagon up and down the sidewalk D) Turn the pages of a book Answer: A

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Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_06_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Which game would a typical 4-year-old child be likely to have enough fine motor skills to play?

A) Throwing and catching a ball B) Playing hopscotch C) Skipping using alternating feet D) Sewing large stitches for a craft project Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_07_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood By what age would a typical child be expected to have first mastered climbing on furniture unaided, skipping, and running?

A) 5 years B) 2 years C) 3 years D) 1½ years Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_08_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood At what age can the average child begin to draw multi-unit compositions?

A) 2 to 3 years B) 3 to 4 years C) 4 to 5 years D) 5 to 7 years Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_09_The Brain and Nervous System By the end of the early childhood period, the brain‘s __________ has grown and matured significantly because it has become considerably thicker in connecting the hemispheres.

A) parasympathetic nervous system B) corpus callosum C) occipital lobe D) sympathetic nervous system Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_10_The Brain and Nervous System Which term describes what occurs when the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex undergo functional specialization?

A) Lateralization B) Myelinization C) Functionalization

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D) Domination Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_11_The Brain and Nervous System Infantile amnesia is most likely due to which occurrence?

A) Growth of the corpus callosum B) Maturation of the connections between the hippocampus and the cerebral cortex C) Massive pruning of the synapses in the hippocampus D) Lateralization of the right hemisphere Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_12_The Brain and Nervous System Bruno told Solly that he has very vivid memories of an event that happened when he was 2 years old. Which observation is most likely to be true regarding this recollection?

A) It may actually be a result of verbal recollections and storytelling from adults in Bruno‘s life.

B) Memories of events that were laid down in the brain prior to age 3 are usually accurate and complete.

C) Theories of infantile amnesia would likely support Bruno‘s recollections.

D) Research has shown that approximately 50% of adults can accurately and completely recall memories prior to age 3.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_13_The Brain and Nervous System Approximately what percentage of people worldwide is left-handed?

A) 14% B) 26% C) 45% D) 50% Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_14_The Brain and Nervous System The fact that handedness appears very early in life—in fact, often before birth—is compelling evidence for which conclusion?

A) Social experiences and reinforcement shape hand preferences B) Physical experiences are necessary for handedness to develop C) Cultural norms play a substantial role D) Genetic inheritance is the cause of handedness Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_15_Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs Which observation is true regarding nutrition during the early childhood years?

A) Food aversions often develop during the preschool years.

B) If a child seems to have no appetite, it is important to tempt the child to eat by providing sweets or other preferred food.

C) Young children eat more nutritiously than babies do.

D) Most children consume the majority of their daily calories by eating regular meals.

Answer: A Level: Moderate

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Topic: Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.1: Outline the health-care needs of young children TB_07_16_Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs What percentage of preschoolers in the United States is considered overweight?

A) 8% B) 12% C) 19% D) 26% Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs Skill: Remember the Facts LO 7.2.1: Outline the health-care needs of young children TB_07_17_Developmental Science at Home—A Good Night‘s Sleep for All Which suggestion is often offered by pediatricians to help children develop effective bedtime practices?

A) Allow the child to sleep with the parents on occasion, with no predictable schedule.

B) Eliminate transitional objects that have been reserved for bedtime.

C) All children under age 13 should be in bed by 6 P.M. D) Provide the child with a structured, predictable daytime schedule.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science at Home—A Good Night‘s Sleep for All Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.1: Outline the health-care needs of young children TB_07_18_Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs Parents can expect their preschoolers to get a cold A) 1–2 times a year.

B) 3–4 times a year.

C) 4–5 times a year.

D) 7–8 times a year.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs Skill: Analyze It LO 7.2.1: Outline the health-care needs of young children TB_07_19_Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs What is the major cause of death among preschool and school-age children in the United States?

A) Child abuse B) Congenital diseases C) Macronutrient malnutrition D) Accidents Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Young Children‘s Health-Care Needs Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.1: Outline the health-care needs of young children TB_07_20_Abuse and Neglect Which statement is correct with regard to child abuse in the United States?

A) There are clearly defined criteria for what constitutes parental neglect or abuse.

B) There are laws requiring that child abuse be reported to the authorities if suspected by a medical professional.

C) There is a general consensus across cultures on what constitutes maltreatment of children.

D) There is often a tendency to assume parents are the abusers.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development

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TB_07_21_Abuse and Neglect What are the two primary categories of child maltreatment?

A) Physical abuse and mental abuse B) Neglect and emotional trauma C) Sexual abuse and physical abuse D) Child abuse and neglect Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_22_Abuse and Neglect Which sociocultural influence could make physical abuse of children more likely?

A) The belief that children have rights B) Social norms for humane treatment of children C) The belief that children are property D) Stressful employment conditions Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_23_Abuse and Neglect Sylvia was abused before being placed in foster care. She frequently has nightmares about the abuse and even has flashbacks of the abuse during the day. She has difficulty concentrating at school and is falling behind academically. Which outcome is Sylvia likely experiencing?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) B) Child neglect and abuse syndrome (CNAAS) C) Depressive adjustment mentality (DAM) D) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_24_Abuse and Neglect Which characteristic increases the risk that a child might be abused?

A) Being taller and heavier than age peers B) Having higher intelligence C) Having a high activity level D) Having a difficult temperament Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Analyze It LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_25_Abuse and Neglect Which factor is associated with a higher risk of child abuse?

A) Parental depression B) Full-time employment C) Higher intelligence in the child D) Families with only one child Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Analyze It LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_26_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage

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According to Jean Piaget, at about age 2, children begin to use which attribute in their thinking?

A) Abstractions B) Symbols C) Operations D) Comparisons Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_27_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage The understanding that one object or behavior can represent another defines which function?

A) Symbiotic B) Semiotic C) Abstract D) Objective Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_28_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage At his birthday party, Lars, age 3, opens one of the gifts from his mother and finds a new sweater. Disappointed that it is not a toy, Lars frowns and throws the sweater aside in front of his mother with no regard for her feelings. Lars is demonstrating __________.

A) egocentric thought B) centration C) conservation D) intuitive thought Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_29_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage

Jean Piaget believed that children from age__________ fall into the __________ stage of cognitive development.A) 5 to 7; preoperational B) 2 to 7; concrete operational C) 5 to 7; concrete operational D) 2 to 7; preoperational Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_30_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Ingo holds his hairbrush to his mouth and sings as if the hairbrush were a microphone. This is an example of what type of play?

A) Associative B) First pretend C) Substitute pretend D) Abstract Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Apply What You Know

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LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_31_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development All of the children on Spurflower Drive have spent the morning building a tree house from scraps of wood and other building materials cast off from a nearby construction site. This is an example of A) sensorimotor play.

B) substitute pretend play.

C) sociodramatic play.

D) constructive play.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_32_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development t Juanita loves to play with her toy telephone. When she holds the receiver to her face and says ―Hi!‖ she is engaging in which type of play?

A) Sensorimotor B) First pretend play C) Substitute pretend play D) Rule-governed play Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_33_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Which type of play demonstrates cognitive development consistent with the stages identified by Jean Piaget?

A) Isolatory play B) Substitute pretend play C) Enigmatic play D) Creative exploratory play Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_34_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development At about what age do children begin to prefer rule-governed or formal games?

A) By age 2 B) By age 3 or 4 C) By age 5 or 6 D) From 9 to 12 years of age Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Analyze It LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_35_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage

Monty, age 4, is having lunch with his mother and sister. When his mother pours the milk that is left in the carton into the children’s glasses, she finds that there is not enough to fill both glasses, so she carefully pours half of the milk in the shorter, fatter glass in front of Monty and half into a slender, taller glass in front of Monty’s sister. Immediately, Monty complains that his sister got more milk than he did, and even when his mother tries to explain that they both got the same amount, Monty insists he is right. In this example, Monty is demonstrating a lack of development in the area of __________.

A) egocentrism

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B) conservation C) concrete operational thought D) post-abstract thought Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_36_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage

Zuzanna is working to teach her 4-year-old daughter Frannie how to count. She places ten pennies in one row with very little space between the pennies, and eight pennies in another row with more space between the pennies. Then Zuzanna asks Frannie which row has more pennies. Frannie chooses the second row, even though she knows that ten is more than eight.

What is Frannie’s response an example of?

A) Symbolic functioning B) Concrete operations C) Formal operational functioning D) Centration Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_37_Challenges to Piaget‘s View Which line of evidence presents a challenge to Jean Piaget‘s original notion of egocentrism?

A) Children as young as 2 or 3 adapt their speech to the demands of a companion, demonstrating their ability to adopt the perspective of another person.

B) Ten-year-olds appreciate that their parents and teachers see the world differently than they do.

C) Infants master egocentrism tasks before they acquire object permanence.

D) Children can only understand the world from their own point of view.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Challenges to Piaget‘s View Skill: Analyze It LO 7.3.2: Explain how recent research has challenged Piaget‘s view of early childhood TB_07_38_Challenges to Piaget‘s View John Flavell proposed two levels of perspective-taking ability. Level 1, which occurs around the ages of 2 or 3, involves which ability?

A) Children recognize that an object placed out of sight continues to exist, even without direct perception of the object.

B) Children know that other people experience things differently, but they lack rules for determining precisely what another person experiences.

C) Children at Level 1 understand that a person feels happy if they succeed and sad if they fail.

D) Children acquire complex rules in order to deduce what another person sees or experiences from that person‘s perspective.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Challenges to Piaget‘s View Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.3.2: Explain how recent research has challenged Piaget‘s view of early childhood TB_07_39_Challenges to Piaget‘s View Contemporary research investigating egocentrism indicates that

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A) egocentric thought does not develop until about age 9 or 10.

B) Jean Piaget was correct in his assertions regarding the age ranges and limits of egocentric thought.

C) 5-year-olds are unable to distinguish between appearance and reality.

D) preschoolers are less limited by egocentric thought than Jean Piaget originally concluded.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Challenges to Piaget‘s View Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.3.2: Explain how recent research has challenged Piaget‘s view of early childhood TB_07_40_Theories of Mind Lucas, age 3, has begun to play make-believe and can understand when his friend is feeling sad. Psychologists would say that Lucas has developed __________.

A) centration B) a theory of mind C) metacognition D) meta-awareness Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Mind Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.4.1: Explain how a theory of mind develops TB_07_41_Theories of Mind Roy watches Ginger put a piece of candy in a drawer and leave the room. Ginger‘s friend comes in and moves the candy into a cabinet. When asked, Roy says that Ginger will first look for her candy in the cabinet. Roy‘s response illustrates __________.

A) the false-belief principle B) conservation C) centration D) egocentrism Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Theories of Mind Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.4.1: Explain how a theory of mind develops TB_07_42_Theories of Mind In studies conducted by John Flavell, children were presented with a box on which there were pictures of candy. Three- and four-year-old children believed that the box contained candy. The children saw that the box contained crayons after it was opened. The 3-year-old believed that other children would believe that the box contained crayons instead of candy. This demonstrates which principle?

A) The theory of mind B) The false-belief principle C) Underdevelopment of short-term memory D) Conservation Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Mind Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.4.1: Explain how a theory of mind develops TB_07_43_Theories of Mind Knowledge of words, such as want, need, and think, is associated with the development of A) the theory of mind.

B) conservation.

C) sensorimotor skills.

D) centration.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Mind Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.4.1: Explain how a theory of mind develops TB_07_44_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking

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According to Robbie Case‘s neo-Piagetian explanation of children‘s cognitive development, the key limitation in the cognitive ability of a younger child, compared to an older child, is the younger child‘s A) less operationally efficient short-term storage space for handling cognitive schemes.

B) fewer and less diverse educational and social experiences.

C) greater egocentrism.

D) undeveloped theory of mind.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_45_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Which term refers to a child‘s ability to think about or evaluate the quality of their thinking?

A) Critical thinking B) Intelligence C) Metacognition D) Operational efficiency Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Analyze It LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_46_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking What is the term that describes the ability to control and reflect on one‘s own memory functions?

A) Metamemory B) Abstract thinking C) Metacognition D) Semantic memory construction Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_47_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Evan is getting ready for bed. He knows that he must brush his teeth before putting on his pajamas, then say goodnight to his parents, before they tuck him under the covers. What is Evan demonstrating?

A) A script B) Episodic memory C) Short-term memory D) Working memory Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_48_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking

Which developmental psychologist argued that cognitive development is a result of social interactions in which children learn through guided participation and working with mentors to solve problems?

A) Carmine Appice B) Jean Piaget C) Frank Baum D) Lev Vygotsky Answer: D

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Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Remember the Facts LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_49_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking A 3-year-old child who uses language as a guide to solving problems, such as saying ―Put it there‖ out loud while building a tower of blocks, is demonstrating which of Lev Vygotsky‘s concepts?

A) Egocentric scaffolding B) Naive psychology C) Social speech D) Private speech Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_50_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking According to Lev Vygotsky‘s sociocultural notions about development, in which stage do infants learn through conditioning, until language begins to develop during the second year?

A) Private speech stage B) Primitive stage C) Sociocultural stage D) Naïve psychology stage Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Analyze It LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_51_Fast-Mapping Which term defines the ability to categorically link new words to real world objects or events?

A) Constructive thinking B) Concrete linguistics C) Referential abstracting D) Fast-mapping Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Fast-Mapping Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.5.1: Describe how fast-mapping helps children learn new words TB_07_52_The Grammar Explosion The grammar explosion in the 2- to 6-year period usually lacks which language feature initially?

A) Nouns B) Verbs C) Inflections D) Intention Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_53_The Grammar Explosion Inflections appearing in the form of adding ―-ing‖ to words are common among A) 2½ to 3 year olds.

B) 3 to 4 year olds.

C) 3½ to 5 year olds.

D) 2 year olds.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Grammar Explosion

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Skill: Analyze It LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_54_The Grammar Explosion The use of verb forms or verb tenses (such as eating or ate from the verb eat) defines which feature of language use?

A) Holophrases B) Inflections C) Generalization D) Appropriate extension Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_55_The Grammar Explosion Which utterance best represents the earliest inflection used among children learning English, according to Roger Brown‘s classic early research?

A) ―Come in.‖ B) ―I ran.‖ C) ―Doggie running.‖ D) ―A cat.‖ Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_56_The Grammar Explosion When Maurice says, ―My hamster runned away,‖ he is demonstrating A) extended word meaning.

B) overregularization.

C) overextension of class.

D) dialogic meaning.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_57_The Grammar Explosion When children have learned a basic rule of language, such as how to form a plural or a past tense, and then begin to apply the rule when it seems correct, even though it is incorrect, what are they doing?

A) Overextending grammar B) Overregularizing C) Inflecting D) Generalizing Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Analyze It LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_58_Phonological Awareness Which term describes a child‘s sensitivity to the sound patterns that are specific to their native language?

A) Dialogic sensitivity B) Operational efficiency C) Phonological awareness D) Semantic acuity Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Phonological Awareness Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.5.3: Evaluate the importance of phonological awareness

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TB_07_59_Phonological Awareness Compared to the others, which activity would help a child develop phonological awareness?

A) Memorization B) Listening to an adult speak a foreign language C) Dialogic reading D) Word play Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Phonological Awareness Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.5.3: Evaluate the importance of phonological awareness TB_07_60_Phonological Awareness Which statement is true regarding invented spelling?

A) Children who use it before beginning formal schooling are more likely to become good spellers and readers later in childhood.

B) Children should be discouraged from using it before they begin formal schooling.

C) Children who use it are likely to develop learning disabilities.

D) Children who use it too early are likely to be poor spellers throughout their lives.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Phonological Awareness Skill: Analyze It LO 7.5.3: Evaluate the importance of phonological awareness TB_07_61_Measuring Intelligence

Which psychologist linked intelligence with school success by constructing a test that provides reasonable indicators of a student’s ability to be successful in school?

A) Giorgio Moroder B) Alfred Binet C) Edgar Froese D) Hugo Munsterberg Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Remember the Facts LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_62_Measuring Intelligence Approximately what percentage of children will score within the average range of IQ testing?

A) 20% B) 37% C) 68% D) 85% Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_63_Measuring Intelligence Juano took a standardized intelligence test administered by a trained professional, and the results revealed an IQ score of 136.

What does this indicate about Juano‘s cognitive abilities?

A) He has average intelligence, with the possibility of raising it to an above-average level.

B) He is well above average, and scored in the upper 2% of the population.

C) He is slightly below average in intellectual ability.

D) He is in need of intensive one-on-one training to raise his intellect to a level of normal functioning.

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Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_64_Measuring Intelligence Which intelligence test is used by current psychologists most frequently?

A) The Stanford-Binet scale B) The Wechsler scales C) The Ontario Scales of Intellectual Achievement D) The Verigan ability scales Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_65_Measuring Intelligence Which conclusion is correct regarding the correlation between children‘s intelligence test scores and their future grades in school?

A) There is a weak correlation; about .10 to .20.

B) There is a negative and moderate correlation; about −.30 to −.40.

C) There is a positive correlation; about .50 to .60.

D) There is a nearly perfect correlation; about .95 to 1.00.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_66_Measuring Intelligence Which statement about the stability of children‘s IQ scores is correct?

A) Many children show little or no fluctuation in their IQ scores over their life spans.

B) Younger children often seem more intelligent than they are, and IQ scores on later tests typically fluctuate downward to a more accurate, stable level.

C) IQ scores do not fluctuate as a result of stresses, such as parental divorce, change in schools, or birth of a sibling.

D) IQ scores are quite stable, with correlations between year-to-year IQ scores in middle childhood typically in the range of .80.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_67_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Researchers who have analyzed the IQ scores of adopted twins have found that identical twins are more like one another in intelligence than fraternal twins are. They also have found that the IQs of adopted children are more strongly correlated with the IQs of their biological parents than with the IQs of their adoptive parents. These research results suggest A) that environment has no impact upon IQ. B) that intelligence has a clear genetic component.

C) that a child‘s intellectual capacity is fixed at birth.

D) that a child‘s biological heritage predicts her lifetime patterns of achievement and accomplishment.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence TB_07_68_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Which behavior is commonly seen in the parents of children with high IQs? A) Talking to their children often B) Aiming their conversation at a level just below what the children could handle on their own C) Not reacting to cues from their children D) Providing play materials that are above the level of their children

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Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence TB_07_69_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Children who are enrolled in Head Start or a similar enriched preschool program tend to exhibit which outcome?

A) They show no gains or positive effects beyond first grade as a result of their experiences.

B) They are more likely to form secure attachment with teachers and other school officials.

C) They are more likely to achieve in school and to graduate from high school.

D) They show lasting gains in IQ through adulthood.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence TB_07_70_Group Differences in Intelligence Test Scores The Flynn effect would predict that A) increased nutrition has led to enhanced genetics over the past several decades, which in turn has led to higher IQ scores.

B) grandchildren in Nebraska are likely to score higher on an IQ test than their grandparents would have at the same age.

C) a 5-year-old in Decatur, Georgia, is likely to spend more hours in school each day than a 5-year-old in Kamakura, Japan.

D) IQ test scores will peak in 2045 then decline until 2060.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Group Differences in Intelligence Test Scores Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.3: Summarize theories used to explain group differences in IQ scores differences in IQ scores.

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_07_71_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Dr. Merkle is giving 5-year-old Dixie a pre-kindergarten physical examination. When Dr. Merkle asks Dixie to draw a picture of her house using crayons and colored pencils, Dixie‘s ________ are being assessed.

Answer: fine motor skills Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_72_The Brain and Nervous System When the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex undergo functional specialization, it is called ________.

Answer: lateralization Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_73_Health and Wellness In the United States, the major cause of death among preschool and school-age children is ________.

Answer: accidents Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.1: Outline the health-care needs of young children TB_07_74_Abuse and Neglect The failure of caregivers to provide emotional and physical support for a child is called __________.Answer: neglect Level: Easy Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_75_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage According to Jean Piaget, at about age 2, children begin to use ________ in their thinking.

Answer: symbols Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage

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TB_07_76_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Jean Piaget used the three mountains task to study children‘s ________.

Answer: egocentrism Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_77_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Penelope and Dolly and their cousins Ralph and Porter are playing ―wedding.‖ They are using old lace curtains for the bride‘s dress, and each person has a role to play. This is an example of ________ play.

Answer: sociodramatic Level: Moderate Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_78_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Marty knows that he is good at solving logic puzzles. Marty‘s knowledge of his own cognitive abilities is called __________.

Answer: metacognition Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Analyze It LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_79_The Grammar Explosion When Gaetano says, ―I had two tooths fall out,‖ he is using ________.

Answer: overregularization Level: Difficult Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_80_Measuring Intelligence The IQ score considered average is ________.

Answer: 100 Level: Easy Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_81_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Despite strong genetic influences, an individual‘s IQ score can vary within its ________, depending on environmental influences.

Answer: reaction range Level: Difficult Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence TB_07_82_Group Differences in Intelligence Test Scores James Flynn argues that many theorists neglect to include ________ beliefs when they claim a genetic predisposition for intelligence.

Answer: cultural Level: Difficult Topic: Group Differences in Intelligence Test Scores Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.3: Summarize theories used to explain group differences in IQ scores

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Short Answer Questions TB_07_83_Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Give five examples of gross motor skills that should be developed by the age of 5 years.

Answer: possibilities are many but may include: running, jumping, hopping, galloping, climbing, skipping Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Early Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.1: Identify the major milestones of physical development in early childhood TB_07_84_The Brain and Nervous System What is the basic function of the corpus callosum?

Answer: The corpus callosum is a thick band of transverse fibers that allow communication between the two hemispheres of the brain Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_85_Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage What is the major hallmark of thinking that occurs during Jean Piaget‘s preoperational stage?

Answer: Symbol use is the hallmark of preoperational thinking. The goal of the child‘s actions on the world during this period seems to be the development of the ability to use symbols for both communication (i.e., language development) and thinking.

Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Preoperational Stage Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_86_Theories of Mind You give a 3-year-old child a large plastic canister with pictures of blocks on it. The child shakes the canister and it rattles, but when she opens it, she finds that it contains large beads. What will the child assume about the expectations of the next person who receives the canister? What is this phenomenon called?

Answer: The child will think that the next person will believe that the canister contains beads, even though there are pictures of blocks on it. This is an example of shortcomings regarding the false-belief principle, an understanding that enables a child to look at a situation from another person‘s point of view and determine what kind of information will cause that person to have a false belief Level: Difficult Topic: Theories of Mind Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.4.1: Explain how a theory of mind develops TB_07_87_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Define the terms short-term storage space and operational efficiency.

Answer: According to the late developmentalist Robbie Case, short-term storage space is a child‘s working memory; operational efficiency is the maximum number of schemes that can be put into short-term storage space.

Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_88_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Explain what is meant by the terms metamemory and metacognition.

Answer: Metamemory is knowledge about and control of memory processes. For example, young children know that it takes effort to intentionally remember something, but they aren‘t very good at coming up with strategies to apply to more difficult memory tasks. Metacognition is knowledge about and control of thought processes. For example, a child listening to a story may realize they have forgotten the main character‘s name and ask the reader what it is.

Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_89_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Who coined the term zone of proximal development and what does it mean?

Answer: Lev Vygotsky used these terms when discussing the social and cultural aspects of cognitive development. The zone of

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proximal development is a time period during which a child is primed to learn a certain activity Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_90_The Grammar Explosion Define the concept of inflections. What is the most common inflection that English-speaking children will use first?

Answer: Inflections are added at the end of words to change their meaning; ―-ing‖ is the most common.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Grammar Explosion Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.5.2: Explain what happens during the grammar explosion TB_07_91_Measuring Intelligence How do the IQ test scores of young children differ from those of older children or adults?

Answer: The IQ test scores of young children tend to be less stable than those of adults, and understandably so. Children will show rapid and significant advances in cognitive skills over a relatively short period of time, whereas adults‘ level of intelligence tends to stay relatively uniform.

Level: Difficult Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_92_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence What are some of the residual effects of enriched preschool experiences?

Answer: Children with these experiences are less likely to be placed in special education classes, less likely to repeat a grade, and more likely to graduate from high school. They also have better health, better immunization rates, and better school adjustment than their peers.

Level: Difficult Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence TB_07_93_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence What types of studies are of the greatest value in understanding the extent to which a behavior is genetically influenced?

Answer: Twin studies are especially suited to this task, especially studies enlisting the help of identical twins who were separated at birth and reared in different households.

Level: Moderate Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence TB_07_94_Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Define the concept of reaction range.

Answer: Reaction range refers to the genetic range that establishes upper and lower boundaries for traits or behaviors Level: Moderate Topic: Origins of Individual Differences in Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.2: Outline the evidence for the nature and nurture explanations of individual differences in intelligence

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Essay Questions TB_07_95_The Brain and Nervous System Explain infantile amnesia, and its likely causes and defining characteristics.

Answer: Infantile amnesia refers to the inability of most people to remember events that happened prior to the age of 3 years.

Maturation of the connections between the hippocampus and the cerebral cortex is probably responsible for our inability to remember these personal and social experiences that happened during that time period. Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_96_Developmental Science at Home List and explain five bedtime practices that parents can use to condition a child to sleep in their own bed.

Answer: Provide the child with a structured, predictable daytime schedule and stick to it; set a regular bedtime which allows for 8–10 hours of sleep; discontinue daytime naps if the child has difficulty falling asleep or awakens too early; establish a routine of ―settling activities‖ such as a bath, reading a book, goodnight kiss, and so on; provide the child with a transitional object, such as a doll or stuffed animal, which is reserved for bedtime.

Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science at Home Skill: Apply What You Know LO 7.1.2: Summarize the important changes that happen in the brain during early childhood TB_07_97_Abuse and Neglect Identify the sociocultural factors that may contribute to child abuse.

Answer: Sociocultural factors include personal or cultural values that regard physical abuse of children as morally acceptable as well as socioeconomic conditions. Parents are more likely to be abusive if they believe that there are few, if any, moral limits on what they can do to their children physically. Sociologists suggest that such beliefs stem from cultural traditions that regard children as property rather than human beings with individual rights. Moreover, parents who live in communities where other people share and act on these beliefs are more likely to be abusive. Poverty and parental unemployment are risk factors for abuse. Stressful disruptions of family life such as family dissolution and bereavement may also contribute to abuse.

Level: Difficult Topic: Abuse and Neglect Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.2.2: Describe how abuse affects children‘s development TB_07_98_Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Summarize key features of the developmental sequences of children‘s play from ages 1 to 6.

Answer: Constructive play: building or constructing things from objects First pretend play: use of symbols or pretending to use objects that aren‘t really there Substitute pretend play: the use of objects to represent other objects Sociodramatic play: imitating other people in imaginary play Rule-governed play: formal game playing with rules Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Children‘s Play and Cognitive Development Skill: Analyze It LO 7.3.1: Characterize children‘s thought during Piaget‘s preoperational stage TB_07_99_Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Identify and describe Lev Vygotsky‘s stages of cognitive development from birth to age 7.

Answer: Primitive stage: mental processes similar to those of lower animals; child learns primarily through conditioning until language develops in the second year Naive psychology stage: use of language but lacking understanding of its symbolic characteristics Private speech stage: language used as a guide to solve problems Ingrowth stage: internalization of speech routines acquired from older children and adults in the world around them and interaction with the physical world.

Level: Difficult Topic: Alternative Theories of Early Childhood Thinking Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.4.2: Summarize how theorists, other than Piaget, explain changes in young children‘s thinking TB_07_100_Phonological Awareness Why should parents be aware of their child‘s phonological awareness? How can parents help their child develop phonological

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awareness?

Answer: Phonological awareness is the child’s sensitivity to the sound patterns that are specific to their acquired language(s). Phonological awareness appears to develop primarily through word play, something parents can do with their children. For example, classic research demonstrated that, among English-speaking children, learning and reciting nursery rhymes contributes to phonological awareness. Numerous studies have shown that the greater a child’s phonological awareness before beginning school, the faster the child learns to read. In addition, phonological awareness in the early childhood years is related to rate of literacy learning in languages as varied as Bosnian, Korean, Hebrew, English, Punjabi, and Chinese.

Level: Moderate Topic: Phonological Awareness Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.5.3: Evaluate the importance of phonological awareness TB_07_101_Measuring Intelligence Explain the normal curve as it relates to IQ scores. What is the range of normal and abnormal IQ scores?

Answer: The normal curve uses standard deviations to illustrate the distribution of IQ scores. Approximately 68% of people fall in the majority (the ―normal‖) range of IQ, which is between 85 and 115, or one standard deviation around a mean of 100.

Those individuals who score substantially lower than 70 or above 130 represent about 2% of the population, and would be considered ―abnormal‖ (i.e., ―outside of the norm‖) given that their scores fall more than two standard deviations away from the mean.

Level: Moderate Topic: Measuring Intelligence Skill: Analyze It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests TB_07_102_No Easy Answers—To Test or Not to Test?

Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of IQ testing.

Answer: Research indicates that IQ testing is useful for children who are showing signs of learning problems or disabilities.

However, the use of routine IQ testing of all children is not helpful because of the instability of the scores in young children and the labeling phenomenon that happens when parents and teachers are aware of their children‘s IQ scores. The danger is that children will be treated differently based on their IQ scores.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—To Test or Not to Test?

Skill: Evaluate It LO 7.6.1: Identify the strengths and weaknesses of IQ tests

TEST BANK CHAPTER 8: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN EARLY CHILDHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_08_01_Psychoanalytic Perspectives The period of early childhood can be described in terms of __________ from the safety of strong emotional bonds with caregivers into the world of expanded relationships.

A) ―drilling down‖ B) ―stepping out‖ C) ―foraging aimlessly‖ D) ―sailing the seas‖ Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.1.1: Describe the psychoanalytic view of early childhood social-emotional development TB_08_02_Psychoanalytic Perspectives According to Sigmund Freud, the anal stage of psychosexual development occurs between what ages?

A) 1 to 3 years B) 3 to 5 years C) 5 to 7 years D) 7 to 9 years

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Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 8.1.1: Describe the psychoanalytic view of early childhood social-emotional development TB_08_03_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Sigmund Freud‘s psychoanalytic view of children‘s development during the preschool years focuses on which two stages of his psychosexual theory?

A) Autonomy and initiative B) Oral and anal C) Anal and phallic D) Genital and anal Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.1.1: Describe the psychoanalytic view of early childhood social-emotional development TB_08_04_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Marjoe‘s teacher is showing him how to use a pair of children‘s scissors, because he is only 5 years old. Marjoe wants to show his independence and ability to use the scissors without assistance, and says to his teacher, ―Let me.‖ Erik Erikson might have said that Marjoe is demonstrating which stage of psychosocial development?

A) An individualistic orientation B) Psychosocial perception C) Initiative-versus-guilt D) Self-control Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.1.1: Describe the psychoanalytic view of early childhood social-emotional development TB_08_05_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which theorist suggested that during the preschool years, children face conflict relating to initiative?

A) Simon LeBon B) Erik Erikson C) Lev Vygotsky D) Karen Horney Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Remember the Facts LO 8.1.1: Describe the psychoanalytic view of early childhood social-emotional development TB_08_06_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which central theme emerges from Erik Erikson‘s view of development during the preschool period?

A) Language, cognition, and motor skills are developmentally intertwined, and one aspect of development supports other aspects of development.

B) Families must balance their children‘s emerging skills and desire for autonomy with their parental need to protect and control their children.

C) The basis for children‘s social and personality development is their cognitive development.

D) Children‘s sexual development is triggered by social and emotional interactions with peers.

Answer: B Level: Difficult

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Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.1.1: Describe the psychoanalytic view of early childhood social-emotional development TB_08_07_Social-Cognitive Perspectives Children who are able to classify other people into groups such as ―people who are nice‖ and ―people who are mean‖ are demonstrating which ability?

A) Reciprocity of relationships B) Person perception C) Egocentrism D) Perception-bound thought Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_08_Social-Cognitive Perspectives On which two factors do young children rely as they categorize or classify other people?

A) Their own internal models of attachment and their metacognitions about the other person B) The other person‘s moral rules and social graces C) Their most recent interactions with the person and the other person‘s observable characteristics D) Their own powers of observation and previous social experiences with similar people Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_09_Social-Cognitive Perspectives Which situation provides an example of a social convention?

A) Holding a door open for a stranger B) Pulling over when an ambulance with its sirens on is behind you C) Not returning your neighbor‘s chainsaw after you borrowed it D) A child not stealing the neighbor‘s child‘s bicycle Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_10_Social-Cognitive Perspectives Which statement best summarizes young children‘s understanding of intentions?

A) Young children understand that a person who does something intentionally wrong should be punished more severely than someone who caused harm by accident.

B) Jean Piaget was correct in his view that young children are not capable of understanding intention.

C) Young children are more able to understand intentions than Jean Piaget thought, but they are limited in their ability to base judgment on intentions.

D) Young children can accurately decide how a wrongdoer should be punished, but they have no understanding of intentionality.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_11_From Temperament to Personality How do children learn impulse control?

A) Impulse control is primarily a function of temperament, and impulsive children rarely grow out of their behavior.

B) Children learn impulse control through parental punishment.

C) Impulsivity simply diminishes over time.

D) Children learn through social interactions that encourage them to keep their impulses in check.

Answer: D Level: Difficult

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Topic: From Temperament to Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 8.2.1: Identify the influences on temperament in early childhood TB_08_12_From Temperament to Personality Gerard was playing musical chairs with a group of children. However, instead of waiting until the music stopped before rushing to be seated, Gerard would intentionally stand in front of a vacant chair and sit down whenever he felt like it. What would a developmentalist most likely conclude about Gerard‘s temperament?

A) He lacks the moral conscience that other children his age have already developed.

B) He ranks low on the dimension of effortful control.

C) He ranks high on the temperament dimension of creativity.

D) He would be classified as an ―easy‖ child.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: From Temperament to Personality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.1: Identify the influences on temperament in early childhood TB_08_13_Self-Concept Geoff, age 5, is new to his kindergarten classroom. His teacher asks him what he is good at and what he likes. Geoff responds, ―I can run fast‖ and ―I like to eat pizza.‖ Geoff‘s responses illustrate his __________.

A) level of empathy B) emotional self C) categorical self-concept D) social self Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_14_Self-Concept Which term describes children‘s ability to cheer themselves up when they are sad or calm themselves when they are angry?

A) Emotional regulation B) Impulse control C) Self-categorization D) Social inhibition Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_15_Self-Concept As the categorical self and the emotional self mature, which new component of self-concept is likely to develop?

A) Autonomous self B) Self-esteem C) Social self D) Self-regard Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_16_Self-Concept What is Martin Hoffman‘s first stage of empathy development, which is characterized by an infant matching the strong emotion of another?

A) Personal empathy

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B) Egocentric empathy C) Global empathy D) Empathy for another‘s feelings Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_17_Self-Concept Kirk saw that his mother was upset. He toddled over to her and tried to hand her his bottle, as if to comfort her. According to Martin Hoffman‘s stages in the development of empathy, Kirk is demonstrating _______.

A) personal empathy B) global empathy C) egocentric empathy D) private empathy Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_18_Self-Concept Georgia feels sad whenever she sees homeless people. She worries that they are cold at night and may not have enough to eat.

According to Martin Hoffman‘s stages in the development of empathy, Georgia is exhibiting _____.

A) empathy for another‘s life condition B) global empathy C) personal empathy D) empathy for another‘s feelings Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_19_Self-Concept Which situation best illustrates egocentric empathy?

A) When a child understands that another person‘s discomfort may be chronic rather than acute B) When a baby cries at the sound of another child crying C) When the child recognizes a wide range of emotions and responds accordingly D) When a child attempts to ease another‘s discomfort by offering something that they themselves would find comforting Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_20_Self-Concept Guilt, shame, and pride are all examples of __________ emotions.

A) empathetic B) moral C) social D) external Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_21_Self-Concept Jeanne and Ada are playing school. Jeanne is pretending to be the teacher and Ada is pretending to be the student. Ada is wellbehaved as a ―student‖ and answers questions appropriately when Jeanne asks them. Ada‘s behavior is an example of which behavior?

A) Role modeling

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B) Gender modeling C) Role rehearsal D) Role scripts Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_22_Explaining Gender Development ―The psychological and social associates and implications of biological sex‖ defines which concept?

A) Sexual self B) Gender C) Social sexuality D) Sexuality Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_23_Explaining Gender Development

Glendora and Maurice consulted a psychologist regarding how they could best help their 3-yearold son, Pietro, to develop a gender identity. ―In a few years, Pietro will begin to feel a sexual attraction to you, Glendora, but don’t be alarmed; he’ll soon grow out of it, hopefully. Maurice, you must therefore make sure Pietro identifies with you as a dominant male figure in the household,‖ the psychologist pontificated. This professional MOST likely adopts a ______.A) biologically based view of gender identity B) social learning approach C) psychoanalytic perspective D) cognitive schema orientation Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_24_Explaining Gender Development

The __________ perspective proposes that children acquire gender-related behaviors and expectations by observing others and how they are rewarded for acting in gender-appropriate ways.

A) psychoanalytic B) social learning C) conflict resolution D) individualistic Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_25_Explaining Gender Development

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When a preschool-age child is developing a gender schema, they are __________.

A) developing their own sexual identity based on inborn expectations B) increasing their own cognitive abilities to process information about themselves and others C) developing their own ideas about how people are biologically different D) developing their behaviors solely around what they see from parents’ behaviors Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_26_Explaining Gender Development Crystal labels boys and girls according to their hairstyle and the types of clothes they wear. Crystal has not yet developed which concept?

A) Gender schema B) Gender role C) Gender script D) Gender stereotyping Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_27_Explaining Gender Development Konstantin tells his mother that he will always be a boy and can never be a girl. This is an illustration of Konstantin‘s grasp of which principle?

A) Gender identity B) Gender role C) Gender schema D) Gender constancy Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_28_Explaining Gender Development

Amy, age 5, is getting dressed to go to preschool, and her mother has bought her new jeans to wear. However, Amy refuses and insists that girls wear only dresses. This may be an application of Amy’s __________.

A) gender constancy B) sexual identity C) gender schema D) gender identity Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_29_Explaining Gender Development

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In order to develop a(n) __________, a child must develop a(n) __________.

A) gender schema; gender identity B) gender identity; gender schema C) self-concept; gender identity D) sense of empathy; gender schema Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_30_Explaining Gender Development Which term describes a person‘s perception of the self as female, male, some combination of the two, or neither?

A) Gender identity B) Gender stability C) Gender constancy D) Gender complexity Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_31_Explaining Gender Development According to the opinions of Lawrence Kohlberg, what is the correct order of the stages of gender development?

A) Identity – constancy – stability B) identity – stability – constancy C) constancy – stability – identity D) stability – constancy – identity Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_32_Explaining Gender Development

What is a sex-related biological characteristic that affects gender-based behaviors?

A) Height B) Hormones C) Brain size D) Birth weight Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_33_Sex-Role Knowledge Cross-cultural studies have found similar gender stereotypes across cultures. Which attribute applies to a common gender stereotype for males?

A) Trustworthiness B) Sensitivity C) Kindness

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D) Competence Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Sex-Role Knowledge Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.3.2: Characterize children‘s understanding of gender roles and gender-typed behavior TB_08_34_Sex-Role Knowledge Cross-cultural studies have found similar gender stereotypes across cultures. Which attribute applies to a common gender stereotype for females?

A) Intelligence B) Competence C) Skillfulness D) Soft-heartedness Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Sex-Role Knowledge Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.3.2: Characterize children‘s understanding of gender roles and gender-typed behavior TB_08_35_Sex-Typed Behavior Which style of communicating usually involves girls using suggestions, support, and agreement between themselves?

A) Constricting B) Enabling C) Facilitating D) Sex-typed Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Sex-Typed Behavior Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.3.3: Identify sex-typed behaviors exhibited by young children TB_08_36_Sex-Typed Behavior The constricting, or restrictive, pattern of interacting with playmates A) is confined to close friends who exhibit loyalty to each other.

B) usually involves contradicting, boasting, or other types of self-display.

C) includes behaviors such as expressing agreement and making suggestions.

D) is most commonly used by girls playing together in small groups.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Sex-Typed Behavior Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.3: Identify sex-typed behaviors exhibited by young children TB_08_37_Sex-Typed Behavior Which statement is accurate regarding cross-gender behavior in childhood?

A) Little girls who are tomboys will become adults who have masculinized personalities.

B) Cross-gender behavior by girls typically elicits disapproval from adults and peers.

C) Both girls and boys are encouraged to engage in cross-gender behavior so they will develop well-rounded patterns of gender behavior.

D) Peers more often disapprove of cross-gender behavior in boys than girls.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Sex-Typed Behavior Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.4: Describe the relationship between gender diversity and early childhood gender development TB_08_38_Sex-Role Knowledge __________ children are those whose gender identity, gender expression, or behavior is not consistent with the sex to which they were assigned at birth.

A) Cisgender B) Androgynous

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C) Transgender D) Gender schematic Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Sex-Role Knowledge Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.4: Describe the relationship between gender diversity and early childhood gender development TB_08_39_Attachment Which is an accurate statement about the attachment relationships of children in early childhood?

A) Four- and five-year-olds who are securely attached to their parents are more likely than insecurely attached children to have positive relationships with their preschool teachers.

B) A preschooler does not yet understand that relationships continue to exist in the absence of the attachment figure.

C) The nature of the attachment relationship does not change until about puberty.

D) The child‘s internal model of attachment appears to generalize and become a property of all the child‘s social relationships at around age 18 months.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.1: Explain how attachment relationships change in early childhood TB_08_40_Attachment At about age 4, a child‘s internal model of attachment appears to ___________.

A) generalize to other relationships and other people B) narrow, to become focused on a single caregiver, usually a preschool teacher or frequent babysitter C) enter a stage of ―dormancy‖ until about the age of 6 D) become increasingly less secure Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Attachment Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.1: Explain how attachment relationships change in early childhood TB_08_41_Parenting Styles Which situation provides an example of the typical pattern of parents‘ wishes for clarity of rules, maturity demands, and communication with a 2-year-old child?

A) When his mother said, ―Be careful! Don‘t spill your juice!‖ Massimo angrily threw the glass on the floor.

B) When her father said, ―No, you can‘t talk to Grandma now,‖ Renata alternately whined and threw tantrums for 30 minutes.

C) When his father said, ―Let‘s go, it is beginning to rain,‖ Duke said, ―No! Won‘t go!‖ and continued to play.

D) When Muhammed‘s mother said, ―Don‘t touch that! It‘s hot!‖ Muhammed pulled away from the stove.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_42_Parenting Styles Which feature is one of the dimensions of family functioning conceptualized by Diana Baumrind in her study of parenting styles?

A) Parental power sharing B) Disobedience C) Clear and consistent rules D) Discipline Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_43_Parenting Styles Which statement best defines parenting styles?

A) The strategies that parents employ to reward their children B) The characteristic strategies that parents use to manage children‘s behaviors C) The temperamental tendencies that children show toward their parents

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D) The behavior that parents demonstrate when their children misbehave Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_44_Parenting Styles Which parental characteristic is most consistently related to children‘s secure attachments, altruistic and empathetic behaviors, and school achievements?

A) Warmth and nurturance B) Firm discipline C) Egalitarian authority D) Freedom and flexibility Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_45_Parenting Styles Children whose parents have high maturity demands tend to exhibit which personality trait?

A) Higher self-esteem B) More noncompliance C) Less generosity toward peers D) More demanding of their parents Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_46_Parenting Styles The parenting style that is high in nurturance and low in maturity demands, control, and communication is A) authoritarian.

B) permissive.

C) authoritative.

D) uninvolved.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_47_Parenting Styles Authoritarian and authoritative parents would vary most widely on which dimension of parenting?

A) Warmth and nurturance B) Maturity demands C) Control D) Expectations Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_48_Parenting Styles Atticus, age 5, does not have a regular bedtime, is permitted to neglect personal hygiene, and doesn‘t usually participate in any simple chores, such as picking up the toys in his room. It would appear that Atticus parents‘ style of parenting is __________.

A) permissive B) authoritative C) submissive D) authoritarian Answer: A

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Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_49_Parenting Styles Clarissa‘s 5-year-old friends at the playground run from the rides to the slides, but Clarissa‘s mother told her she had to stay on the swings and not move to another place. When Clarissa complained that the other children were allowed to play where they wanted, Clarissa‘s mother told her to stay on the swings ―because I said so!‖ This is an example of the __________ parenting style.

A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) neglectful D) permissive Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_50_Parenting Styles Gustavo, age 5, and his younger sister Alejandra were playing in the living room when Alejandra took the toy that Gustavo had.

He lashed out and punched Alejandra in the arm, making her cry. Their mother immediately took Gustavo aside and, rather than punishing him, explained how his behavior made his sister cry, and that he needed to share his toys. This is an example of which type of parenting style?A) Authoritarian B) Uninvolved C) Authoritative D) Permissive Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_51_Parenting Styles Which parenting style is associated with the most socially competent children?

A) Authoritarian B) Authoritative C) Permissive D) Submissive Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_52_Parenting Styles Amber lives in a household where her parents are gone most of the time. Even when they are home, Amber goes to school wearing dirty clothes and having had no breakfast. Which parenting style do Amber‘s caregivers likely have?

A) Uninvolved B) Permissive C) Authoritative D) Authoritarian Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_53_Parenting Styles In its most extreme form, __________ parenting can possibly result in neglect.

A) uninvolved B) permissive C) authoritative

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D) authoritarian Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_54_Parenting Styles Which situation provides an example of inductive discipline?

A) As punishment for their careless mental mistakes during practice, the team had to run five extra laps.

B) Nunzio was punished for fighting, even though the other child started the fight.

C) Beverly‘s parents explained that she was being punished because it was wrong to take money from her mother‘s purse without permission.

D) Mr. McGillicuddy snapped, ―Because I said so!‖ when his daughters asked why they were forbidden to go to the mall.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_55_Parenting Styles Children who have difficult temperaments and enjoy risk-taking will likely respond best to which type of discipline?

A) Inductive B) Authoritative C) Corporal D) Firm Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_56_Developmental Science at Home Which outcome for children is a negative consequence of spanking as a form of discipline?

A) Lower levels of aggression B) Withdrawal from both parents C) Modeling inflicting of pain to get what one wants D) Emotional flattening Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science at Home Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_57_Developmental Science at Home Under which circumstances might spanking be used as effective punishment?

A) To stop a behavior that might be harmful to the child B) When there is no time to talk about the punishment before it is applied C) When following the Premack principle D) For children under the age of 2 Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Developmental Science at Home Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_58_ Family Relationships and Parenting What is the function of egalitarian messages as a parenting goal?

A) They provide racial socialization information that parents believe will help their children exhibit resilience when confronted with prejudice and discrimination.

B) Egalitarian messages minimize differences between racial groups and focus on the contribution of individual effort to educational and occupational success.

C) Egalitarian messages emphasize cultural heritage and ethnic identity.

D) They allow children who have initially formed an insecure attachment to a caregiver to become more securely attached.

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Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Parenting Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.4.3: Describe the factors that affect parenting styles TB_08_59_ Family Relationships and Parenting Why do Black American and Asian American parents often use an authoritarian parenting style with their children?

A) Children are less valued than in other ethnic families.

B) They believe the parenting styles of the majority culture are ineffective.

C) Authoritarian parenting is consistent with cultural beliefs about children‘s needs and lack of self-control.

D) Authoritarian parenting is believed to help children succeed and attain important goals.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Family Relationships and Parenting Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.4.3: Describe the factors that affect parenting styles TB_08_60_Family Structure As of the year 2019, which country had the lowest percentage of children who were living in two-parent homes?

A) Denmark B) the United States C) Israel D) Turkey Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Family Structure Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.5.1: Identify the effects of family structure on early child development TB_08_61_Family Structure As of the year 2020, what percentage of children in the United States were living in two-parent homes?

A) 25% B) 40% C) 55% D) 70% Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Family Structure Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.5.1: Identify the effects of family structure on early child development TB_08_62_Family Structure Which term do sociologists use for the Native American tradition of viewing parenting as the responsibility of the child‘s entire family, including grandparents, aunts, and uncles?

A) Community family B) Structured family C) Kin orientation D) Family responsibility Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Family Structure Skill: Analyze It LO 8.5.1: Identify the effects of family structure on early child development TB_08_63_Family Structure Which statement regarding family structure, race, and ethnicity is true?

A) Teen pregnancy contributes dramatically to the overall incidence of single motherhood.

B) Single parent families are more common among Black Americans and Native Americans than other groups.

C) Single parent Black Americans are more likely than other groups to marry.

D) Births to single women in the Black American community have dropped in recent years.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Family Structure

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Skill: Analyze It LO 8.5.1: Identify the effects of family structure on early child development TB_08_64_Family Structure Children in families headed by gay or lesbian parents A) are more likely than their peers to develop a same-sex sexual orientation.

B) are more intelligent than their peers.

C) develop gender identities in the same way as children of heterosexual parents.

D) experience early and persistent gender identity confusion.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Family Structure Skill: Analyze It LO 8.5.1: Identify the effects of family structure on early child development TB_08_65_Divorce Which changes in children would one expect to see in the first few years after divorce?

A) They typically become more passive and compliant.

B) School performance usually improves.

C) They may show sleep disruptions and reduced immune system functioning.

D) If they are adolescent, they are less likely to experiment with drugs and alcohol.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Divorce Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.5.2: Explain the effects of divorce on child behavior TB_08_66_Understanding the Effects of Family Structure and Divorce Single parenthood, divorce, and stepparenthood all increase the likelihood that the family climate will shift away from A) a permissive parenting style.

B) poverty to affluence.

C) a laissez-faire parenting style.

D) an authoritative parenting style.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Understanding the Effects of Family Structure and Divorce Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.5.3: Identify the variables that contribute to the relationship between family structure and child development TB_08_67_Relating to Peers through Play Mick borrowed a crayon from Keith. Both boys are coloring in separate coloring books. In which type of play are the boys engaging?

A) Psychosocial B) Associative C) Parallel D) Solitary Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Relating to Peers through Play Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.6.1: Describe the various types of play TB_08_68_Relating to Peers through Play Which reason explains why a child might experience peer rejection?

A) Imitative play B) Passive behavior C) Poor play connection skills D) Solitary play Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Relating to Peers through Play Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.6.1: Describe the various types of play

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TB_08_69_Aggression When 4-year-old Marietta wants an item or wants to engage in an activity, she will attack her parents with her fists until they laughingly and protestingly give her what she wants. Her parents‘ decision to give into Marietta‘s demands in this fashion A) will eventually help her moderate and regulate her emotions by protecting her from frustration and unhappiness.

B) will be effective in teaching her prosocial behavior because their behavior will be a model for her.

C) is appropriate and understandable because unresolved conflict would not be an effective parenting strategy.

D) will reinforce her behavior and possibly create a long-lasting pattern of aggression and defiance.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Aggression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.6.2: Summarize the types of aggression children display in early childhood TB_08_70_Prosocial Behavior and Friendships Which parental behavior is linked to higher rates of altruistic or prosocial behavior in children?

A) Creating a loving and warm family environment B) Not insisting that children do chores C) Allowing children to set their own curfew D) Attributing children‘s altruistic behaviors to parental control Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Prosocial Behavior and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 8.6.3: Describe changes in prosocial behavior and friendships that occur in early childhood

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_08_71_Social-Cognitive Perspectives Children demonstrate __________ when they classify people into groups such as ―people who are tall‖ and ―people who are nice.‖ Answer: person perception Level: Moderate Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_72_Social-Cognitive Perspectives Children can make judgments about others‘ intentions when they are personally motivated by a desire to avoid ________.

Answer: punishment Level: Difficult Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_73_Self-Concept Although empathy develops fairly early, the more sophisticated emotion of ________ occurs later in childhood and adolescence.

Answer: sympathy Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_74_Self-Concept Veronica feels sad when she sees starving children on television commercials for various charities. She worries that they are hungry, frightened, and feeling alone. Based on Martin Hoffman‘s stages in the development of empathy, Veronica is exhibiting ________.

Answer: empathy for another‘s life condition Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_75_Explaining Gender Development Sigmund Freud thought that ________ with the same-sex parent played a key role in children‘s development of a gender role concept.

Answer: identification Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_76_Sex-Typed Behavior A style of communicating that involves females using support and agreement among themselves is called ________.

Answer: enabling Level: Moderate Topic: Sex-Typed Behavior Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.3: Identify sex-typed behaviors exhibited by young children TB_08_77_Parenting Styles The parenting style that is high in nurturance and low in maturity demands, control, and communication is ________.

Answer: permissive Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_78_Parenting Styles The parenting style that is high in nurturance, maturity demands, control, and communication is called ________.

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Answer: authoritative Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_79_Understanding the Effects of Family Structure and Divorce Children‘s ____________, such as being easy, difficult, or slow-to-warm, and emotional regulation skills are contributing factors to post-divorce adjustment percent.

Answer: temperaments Level: Difficult Topic: Understanding the Effects of Family Structure and Divorce Skill: Analyze It LO 8.5.3: Identify the variables that contribute to the relationship between family structure and child development TB_08_80_Relating to Peers through Play When Sherri plays by herself, she has a special way of arranging her doll collection. Sherri is involved in ________ play.

Answer: solitary Level: Moderate Topic: Relating to Peers through Play Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.6.1: Describe the various types of play TB_08_81_Aggression Instrumental aggression is generally directed toward a(n) ________; hostile aggression is generally directed toward a(n) ________.

Answer: object; person Level: Difficult Topic: Aggression Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.6.2: Summarize the types of aggression children display in early childhood TB_08_82_Prosocial Behavior and Friendships Some children show preferences for particular playmates as early as ________.

Answer: 18 months Level: Moderate Topic: Prosocial Behavior and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 8.6.3: Describe changes in prosocial behavior and friendships that occur in early childhood

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Short Answer Questions TB_08_83_Social-Cognitive Perspectives What did Jean Piaget conclude about young children‘s ability to understand others‘ intentions?

Answer: Piaget thought that, because of egocentrism, young children do not understand the intentions of other people‘s behaviors.

Level: Moderate Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_84_Self-Concept What are the risk factors associated with a diagnosis of disruptive mood regulation disorder (DMDD)?

Answer: Difficult temperament, developmental delays, and poor emotional self-regulation are three important risk factors for disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD)—a disorder in which preschoolers frequently exhibit tantrums characterized by intense rage and, often, aggressive and destructive behavior. Parents and teachers of children with DMDD typically require the assistance of a mental health professional to implement behavior management strategies that can help these children develop the capacity to regulate their emotions.

Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_85_Self-Concept List all four stages of Martin Hoffman‘s theory of empathy development, and provide an example of each.

Answer: 1: global empathy; 2: egocentric empathy; 3: empathy for another‘s feelings; 4: empathy for another‘s life condition.

Examples will vary.

Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_86_Explaining Gender Development According to Sigmund Freud‘s psychoanalytic perspective, how do children acquire gender?

Answer: Freud mused that 3- to 6-year-olds overcome the anxiety they feel about their desires for the opposite-sex parent (the Oedipus or Electra conflict) through identification with the same-sex parent. To identify with the parent, the child must learn and conform to his or her sex-role concepts. Thus, according to Freud, children acquire gender through the process of identification. Level: Moderate Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development TB_08_87_Sex-Role Knowledge Give an example of how a 3- or 4-year-old might apply a gender stereotype.

Answer: Children at this age will typically assign stereotypes based on toys, occupations, and activities; for example, girls play with dolls, daddies go to work, and so on.

Level: Difficult Topic: Sex-Role Knowledge Skill: Apply What You Know LO 8.3.2: Characterize children‘s understanding of gender roles and gender-typed behavior TB_08_88_Sex-Typed Behavior Which develops first, gender-typed behavior or ideas about gender roles?

Answer: The final element in the development of gender stereotypes involves the actual behavior children show with those of the same and other genders. An unexpected finding is that gender-typed behavior, or patterns of behavior that are typical for an individual‘s assigned sex within a particular culture, develops earlier than ideas about gender. Level: Easy Topic: Sex-Typed Behavior Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 8.3.3: Identify sex-typed behaviors exhibited by young children TB_08_89_Parenting Styles What are the four aspects of family functioning, according to Diana Baumrind?

Answer: Warmth or nurturance; clarity and consistency of rules; level of expectations (maturity demands); communication between parent and child

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Level: Difficult Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_90_Parenting Styles List the four parenting styles and provide an example of each.

Answer: The four parenting styles are authoritarian; authoritative; permissive; uninvolved. Examples will vary.

Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_91_Parenting Styles What is the purpose of using inductive discipline?

Answer: Authoritative parents often use inductive discipline, a discipline strategy in which parents explain to children why a punished behavior is wrong and typically refrain from physical punishment. Inductive discipline helps most preschoolers gain control of their behavior and learn to look at situations from perspectives other than their own.

Level: Moderate Topic: Parenting Styles Skill: Analyze It LO 8.4.2: Evaluate the effects of parenting styles on child development TB_08_92_Aggression What are the five types of play that Mildred Parten identified almost 100 years ago?

Answer: Mildred Parten observed that children engage in solitary, onlooker, parallel, associative, and cooperative stages of play, with each successive stage appearing through the third year.

Level: Difficult Topic: Aggression Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.6.1: Describe the various types of play TB_08_93_Aggression What are the characteristics and causes of trait aggression?

Answer: There are some preschoolers whose aggressive behavior pattern in early childhood becomes quite literally a way of life, a finding that has been supported by cross- cultural research. Researchers have searched for causes of this kind of aggression, which some psychologists refer to as trait aggression, to distinguish it from developmentally typical forms of aggression. Psychologists looking for a genetic basis for trait aggression have produced some supportive data. Others suggest that trait aggression is associated with being raised in an aggressive environment, such as an abusive family. Family factors other than abuse, such as lack of affection and the use of coercive discipline techniques, also appear to be related to trait aggression, especially in boys.

Level: Difficult Topic: Aggression Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.6.2: Summarize the types of aggression children display in early childhood TB_08_94_Prosocial Behavior and Friendships How do attributions help the development of empathy in children?

Answer: Providing prosocial attributions—positive statements about the underlying cause of helpful behavior—can help a child develop empathy. For example, a parent might praise a child by saying, ―You‘re such a helpful child!‖ or ―You certainly do a lot of nice things for other people.‖ Having heard such attributions often during early childhood helps children incorporate them into their self-concepts later in childhood. In this way, parents may help create a generalized, internalized pattern of altruistic behavior in the child. Level: Difficult Topic: Prosocial Behavior and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 8.6.3: Describe changes in prosocial behavior and friendships that occur in early childhood

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Essay Questions TB_08_95_Social-Cognitive Perspectives Describe the stability of a young child‘s person perceptions. Apply your explanation to an example.

Answer: Young children‘s person perception tends to be unstable; they may like a person one day and not the next, and this is generally determined by their last interaction with that person; for example, they don‘t like their best friend anymore because in their last play session their friend shared a toy with another child.

Level: Moderate Topic: Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.1.2: Explain the social-cognitive theory of social-personality development in early childhood TB_08_96_Self-Concept Describe empathy and its development in children.

Answer: Empathy is the ability to comprehend another’s emotional state and to match that emotional state oneself.

Empathy has two aspects: apprehending another person’s emotional state or condition and then matching that emotional state oneself. Several factors contribute to the development of empathy, such as the child’s own temperament or the modeling of empathy in parents and other adults. Aggression is negatively correlated with empathy.

Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Analyze It LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_97_Self-Concept What are moral emotions? What is the importance of moral emotions and how do parent–child relationships influence the development of these emotions?

Answer: Moral emotions are shame, guilt, and pride. The development of these emotions lays the foundation for later moral development. Children who do not have warm, trusting relationships with their parents are at risk of failing to develop moral emotions or of developing moral emotions that are too weak to modify their behavior.

Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Concept Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.2.2: Describe changes in self-concept in early childhood TB_08_98_Explaining Gender Development Explain gender schema theory in terms of how it contributes to a child‘s sense of gender.

Answer: Gender schema theory is an information-processing approach to gender development, asserting that people use a schema for each gender to process information about themselves and others. Gender schema theory argues that the gender schema begins to develop as soon as children notice the differences between people, apply gender labels to themselves, and can label groups with some consistency—all of which happens by age 2 or 3.

Level: Difficult Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.1: Outline the major theories of gender development

TB_08_99_Explaining Gender Development Explain cross-gender behavior, how it relates to gender expression, and what it reveals about gender development.

Answer: Many young children exhibit cross-gender behavior, behavior that is unusual for an individual‘s assigned sex. Crossgender behavior is a form of gender expression, a broad term that refers to behavior that varies from what is typically expected for children based on their assigned sex. Cross-gender behavior in early childhood falls within the broad definition of gender diversity, but it does not necessarily indicate that children are experiencing a deep psychological sense of mismatch between their gender identity and assigned sex. Although such behavior is less frequent than gender-typical play among young children, developmentalists consider cross- gender behavior to be within the normal range of childhood behavior.

Level: Difficult Topic: Explaining Gender Development Skill: Analyze It LO 8.3.4: Describe the relationship between gender diversity and early childhood gender development TB_08_100_ Family Relationships and Parenting What are the differences in parenting styles and outcomes between families of differing ethnicity and socioeconomic status?

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Answer: In a large-scale, cross-sectional study involving roughly 10,000 9th- through 12th-grade students representing four ethnic groups (White, African American, Hispanic, and Asian), students answered questions about the acceptance, control, and autonomy they received from their parents. The researchers found that the authoritative pattern was most common among White families and least common among Asian Americans, but in each group, authoritative parenting was more common among middle-class and two-parent families than among single-parent or stepparent families. Furthermore, these researchers found relationships between authoritative parenting and positive outcomes in all ethnic groups. In all four groups, for example, teenagers from authoritative families showed more self-reliance and less delinquency than did those from nonauthoritative families. However, this study also found links between authoritarian style and variables such as school performance and social competence.

Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Parenting Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.4.3: Describe the factors that affect parenting styles TB_08_101_Divorce What do longitudinal research studies indicate about the effects of divorce on children?

Answer: Researchers have identified several effects of divorce on children‘s development. These effects may persist into adulthood and are consistent across ethnic groups. Divorce can have a profound impact on children because it affects the entire family system. It‘s important to note, however, that some of the negative effects of divorce are due to factors that were present before the divorce, such as difficult temperament in the child or excessive marital conflict between the parents. All the factors at play in the context of divorce interact to raise children‘s stress levels and produce several immediate effects on children‘s wellbeing. For example, children often have trouble sleeping when their parents are in the midst of a relationship dissolution. Lack of sleep, or poor-quality sleep, may contribute to other effects. One such effect is reduced immunity to cold viruses and other infectious agents. When the frequency of such illnesses increases, children miss more school. This may be one reason that children often exhibit declines in academic performance.

Level: Difficult Topic: Divorce Skill: Evaluate It LO 8.5.2: Explain the effects of divorce on child behavior TB_08_102_Prosocial Behavior and Friendships At what age does prosocial behavior first become apparent in children? Are these behaviors consistent as children grow older?

Answer: Altruistic behaviors first become evident in children of about 2 or 3—at about the same time as real interest in playing with other children arises. They will offer to help another child who is hurt, share a toy, or try to comfort another person.

Children this young are only beginning to understand that others feel differently than they do— but they obviously understand enough about the emotions of others to respond in supportive and sympathetic ways when they see other children or adults hurt or sad. Beyond these early years, changes in prosocial behavior show a mixed pattern. Some kinds of prosocial behavior, such as taking turns, seem to increase with age. If you give children an opportunity to donate some treat to another child who is described as needy, older children donate more than younger children do. Helpfulness, too, seems to increase with age, through adolescence. But not all prosocial behaviors show this pattern. Comforting another child, for example, seems to be more common among preschoolers and children in early elementary grades than among older children and adolescents Level: Moderate Topic: Prosocial Behavior and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 8.6.3: Describe changes in prosocial behavior and friendships that occur in early childhood

TEST BANK CHAPTER 9: PHYSICAL AND COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN MIDDLE CHILDHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_09_01_Growth and Motor Development in Middle Childhood What is the most significant physical development of middle childhood, in terms of setting the stage for the development of new skills and the pursuit of new activities?

A) Boys overtake girls in height, weight, and motor skills.

B) Children experience an increased incidence of illnesses and a decreased risk of accidents.

C) There is improvement in fine motor coordination that makes it possible to write, play a musical instrument, paint, and draw.

D) There is development of gross motor skills that make possible activities such as running, kicking with alternating feet, balancing, and throwing.

Answer: C Level: Moderate

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Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.1: List the physical changes that occur during middle childhood TB_09_02_Growth and Motor Development in Middle Childhood Which statement is correct regarding girls‘ and boys‘ physical development during middle childhood?

A) Boys are more advanced than girls in the development of fine motor coordination.

B) Boys are more advanced than girls in their rate of growth in height.

C) Boys perform worse than girls in activities that require strength and speed.

D) Girls are more advanced than boys in skeletal and muscular maturation, which makes girls more coordinated.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.1: List the physical changes that occur during middle childhood TB_09_03_The Brain and Nervous System

What is one significant reason for the advances in fine motor skills shown by children in middle childhood?A) Children have lived long enough to acquire practice with fine motor skills.

B) Children’s cognitive development is increasing.

C) Children have greater opportunities to model fine motor skill behaviors from others.

D) The amount of myelin in the brain increases to protect, insulate, and surround neurons.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_04_The Brain and Nervous System Which improvement in cognitive function results from brain growth and development in middle childhood?

A) Selective attention B) Person perception C) Horizontal decalage D) Systematic searching Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_05_The Brain and Nervous System In which part(s) of the brain are the sensory, motor, and intellectual functions linked together?

A) Association areas B) Parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex C) Cerebellum D) Corpus callosum Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_06_The Brain and Nervous System Candi is a nurse who is asked to place an IV in a patient‘s nondominant arm. Which ability allows Candi to tell where the IV should be placed?

A) Association perception B) Spatial perception C) Selective attention D) Relative right–left orientation

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Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_07_The Brain and Nervous System Which ability would be especially important to a jet fighter pilot?

A) Relative right–left orientation B) Spatial cognition C) Spatial orientation D) Left-to-right symmetry Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_08_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Which factor poses the most significant health risks among school-aged children?

A) Infectious diseases, such as colds and influenza B) Accidents and obesity C) Stress D) Environmental toxins and pollutants Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_09_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Bicycle accidents account for about ____ of all cases of traumatic brain injury.

A) 15% B) 25% C) 35% D) 45% Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_10_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Pollux‘s parents took him to the emergency room after he experienced an activity-related injury. Compared to the others, which location statistically was most likely the scene of 7-year-old Pollux‘s accident?

A) Running in the back yard B) Gymnastics practice C) A playground D) Bicycling around the neighborhood Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_11_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Children whose BMIs are between the 85th and 95th percentiles are classified as ___________.

A) overweight B) obese C) severely obese D) morbidly obese Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood

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Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_12_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood

Lourdes has been diagnosed with asthma. Her parents are concerned, and ask the pediatrician to help them discover what would trigger their daughter’s asthma attacks. What would the physician tell them regarding asthma triggers?A) Proximity to metal objects can trigger asthma attacks.

B) Allergens, environmental irritants, and animal hair are the main culprits.

C) Riding in a car with the windows rolled up is troublesome.

D) Certain toothpastes have been shown to induce asthmatic symptoms.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_13_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Public health officials believe that the current levels of obesity among children and adults in the United States can be attributed to _______.

A) increased genetic propensity to obesity B) cultural norms that value hearty appetites and plentiful food C) rejection of thin, angular body images D) decreased physical activity and increased consumption of high-calorie convenience food Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_14_Language Development in Middle Childhood Between the ages of 6 and 12, children add roughly how many words per year to their vocabulary?

A) 100 to 500 B) 1,000 to 2,000 C) 5,000 to 10,000 D) 20,000 to 30,000 Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Language Development in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.1: Describe the changes in language development that occur in middle childhood TB_09_15_ Language Development in Middle Childhood Around what age are most children fully capable of engaging in fluent conversation with speakers of any age?

A) 6 years B) 9 years C) 11 years D) 7 years Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Language Development in Middle Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.1: Describe the changes in language development that occur in middle childhood TB_09_16_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Which Piagetian term refers to the period of cognitive development that occurs between ages 6 and 12, and is characterized by the active and appropriate use of logic?

A) Concrete operational

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B) Decentering C) Abstract operational D) Preoperational Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_17_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Concrete operations permit children to understand A) their own metacognitions.

B) language.

C) person perception.

D) relations among objects.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_18_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Marty, age 7, and Angie, age 4, are sitting at the table as their mother pours milk into their glasses. Both glasses are the same size and shape. However, Marty‘s mother notices a chip on the lip of his glass, and decides that it is safer if she pours that milk into another glass. The new glass is shorter and much wider, and when she pours the milk into the new glass Angie laughs and says that now she has more milk than Marty. However, Marty is not upset because he knows that he still got the same amount of milk. Marty is demonstrating __________.A) reversibility B) decentration C) centration D) conservation Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_19_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Prytita, age 7, is working with clay in art class, and she rolls a round ball of clay between her hands until it becomes a long rope.

However, she decides that she would prefer that the clay be in the shape of a ball again. Prytita knows that this is possible. Jean Piaget would say that Prytita is demonstrating knowledge of __________.A) reversibility B) abstract thinking C) automaticity D) centration Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_20_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage A child who understands conservation of mass or volume would, by necessity, also understand which other concept?

A) Animism B) Object permanence C) Metaphors and analogies D) Reversibility Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage

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TB_09_21_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Which characteristic defines inductive logic?

A) The ability to move from personal experience to create a general principle B) The ability to use a general principle to predict a specific outcome C) An abstract concept related to conservation principles D) The understanding that superficial changes to the appearance of an object do not change the essence or the reality of the object Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_22_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Which situation provides an example of a child‘s use of inductive logic?

A) Sean‘s mother showed him an apple cut into two pieces and an apple cut into four pieces, and asked him which pile had more apple. Sean was able to reply correctly, ―They are the same.‖ B) Ranjan‘s assignment in language arts class was to write a paper about what her life would be like if she were a squirrel.

C) Imani‘s teacher was kind to him on the first day of class. Based on that, Imani assumed that she is likely a nice person.

D) Fabrizio has learned that he is better at language arts than math, so he has to spend more time and work harder on his math lessons.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_23_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Which characteristic defines deductive logic?

A) Reasoning that requires the ability to use a general principle to predict a specific outcome B) The enhanced ability to see another‘s perspective or point of view C) The ability to analyze one‘s memory skills and develop a strategy to remember more facts D) Understanding that both physical actions and mental operations can be reversed Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_24_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Jerzy knows that not everyone goes to college, and that even those people who do are not guaranteed to graduate. From this, he decided that college is probably difficult as well as time consuming. Which type of logic did Jerzy use to draw these conclusions?

A) Productive logic B) Deductive logic C) Abstract logic D) Inductive logic Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_25_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Which situation provides an example of a child‘s use of deductive logic?

A) Ranier‘s mother showed him an apple cut into two pieces and an apple cut into four pieces, and asked him which pile had more apple. Ranier was able to reply correctly, ―They are the same.‖ B) For her assignment in language arts class, Nelda wrote a paper about what her life would be like if she were a squirrel.

C) Yousef has learned that when he is kind and cooperative with his peers, they will be nice to him.

D) Renaldo has learned that he is better at language arts than math, so he has to spend more time and work harder on his math lessons.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage

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Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_26_Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View If Doreen understands class inclusion, then she understands A) what grade she will be in at school next year.

B) that dogs are mammals and that mammals are animals.

C) that the task of cleaning her room also includes the chore of taking her dirty clothes to the laundry.

D) that abstract principles apply to everyday life.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_27_Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Compared to the others, which form of conservation develops last?

A) Conservation of liquid B) Conservation of timeC) Conservation of mass D) Conservation of area Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_28_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Which question would be the focus of psychologists who use the information-processing perspective to understand children‘s cognitive development?

A) How does the efficient use of short-term memory capacity change with age?

B) How does one child‘s cognitive ability compare to, or differ from, the average cognitive abilities of other children of the same age?

C) Which brain structures are common to all mammals?

D) How do children‘s developing physical abilities support their cognitive development?

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_29_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Which is considered to be the basis of children‘s cognitive development, according to most theorists?

A) The age at which executive processes are developed B) The emotional maturity that enables children to better discern the subtle aspects of their world C) Increases in processing efficiency with age D) The ability to develop and employ rules and strategies for problem-solving Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_30_Advances in Information-Processing Skills When a 4th-grade student is able to demonstrate that they can hear a sequence of digits and then repeat the sequence in reverse order, the child is demonstrating that they are utilizing __________.A) symbolic logic B) deductive reasoning C) working memory D) inductive reasoning Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_31_Advances in Information-Processing Skills

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In support of the hypothesis that improved processing efficiency accounts for cognitive development, researchers have found that children‘s thinking and response time A) are slower with maturation and increased experience.

B) get faster with age.

C) are determined by abilities to accommodate and assimilate new schemes.

D) are more determined by genetic factors than by environmental factors.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_32_Advances in Information-Processing Skills When the teacher asked, ―How many inches are there in a yard?‖ Carmen answered without having to pause to first compute the number of inches in a foot. Carmen‘s skill is an example of which cognitive ability?

A) Metacognition B) Elaboration C) Automaticity D) Conservation Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_33_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Which term applies to thinking about how to think?

A) Knowledge B) Metacognition C) Abstract reasoning D) Cognition Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_34_Advances in Information-Processing Skills If a 9-year-old child employs conscious, intentional tactics to improve cognitive processing, the child is using __________.A) automaticity B) expertise C) deductive logic D) strategic metacognition Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_35_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Dee Dee is trying to learn a list of terms for his upcoming anatomy exam. ―Small intestine‖ he reads. ―My Uncle Jerry has had trouble with his small intestine; ‗Jerry‘s small intestine.‘ ‗Transverse colon‘…hmm, our neighbors are from the town of Colon, Panama, and they traversed their way here. ‗Rectum‘; I remember when we were kids, my little brother took my Hot Wheels cars and wrecked ‗em.‖ Which memory strategy is Dee Dee utilizing to encode the information for his exam?A) Mnemonics B) Inductive reasoning C) Elaboration D) Rehearsal Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_36_Advances in Information-Processing Skills

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To help herself remember the items she needed to get from the supermarket, Clara repeated the five-item list over and over under her breath. This is an example of which information-processing strategy?

A) Mnemonics B) Systematic searching C) Rehearsal D) Organization Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_37_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Twelve-year-old Gabriella is a big fan of comic books, so much so that her collection has reached sizable proportions. ―How do you keep track of them all?‖ asked her friend Sophia. ―Easy,‖ Gabe replied. ―Marvel comics with Jack Kirby covers are placed before DC comics with Jack Kirby covers, because Kirby drew for Marvel before he moved to DC. Archie comics aren‘t arranged by title or number, but rather by cover artist: Dan DeCarlo, Dan Parent, Al Hartley, Bill Vigoda, and so on.‖ As idiosyncratic as it sounds, what is Gabriella demonstrating through her collection?

A) Haphazard arrangement of unrelated information B) The effectiveness of rehearsal in acquiring new information C) Automaticity of executive functioning D) An organizational strategy that makes sense to her Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_38_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Taken together, what does the bulk of the research on expertise, memory, and reasoning skills indicate? A) Expertise is acquired after sophisticated reasoning skills are in place.

B) Memory skills have little to do with the quality of information processing.

C) Expertise makes anyone look very smart.

D) Information-processing skills seem to be unrelated to either the quality or quantity of relevant information stored in longterm memory.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_39_Advances in Information-Processing Skills A child‘s capacity for creativity depends on A) the amount of knowledge they have about a topic.

B) their metacognitive skills.

C) their executive processing strategies.

D) their short-term memory abilities.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_40_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Memory skills, metacognitive abilities, and problem-solving strategies are all part of which larger concept?

A) Supercognition B) Mnemonics C) Processing efficiency D) Executive processes Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood

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TB_09_41_Literacy A skill that is especially related to learning to read well in middle childhood is A) spatial perception.

B) inductive logic.

C) elaboration.

D) phonological awareness.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Literacy Skill: Analyze It LO 9.3.1: Identify the components of an effective literacy curriculum TB_09_42_Literacy During the middle childhood years, what is the main focus of education ?

A) Problem-solving B) Developing strategies to improve processing efficiency C) Socialization D) The ability to read and write Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Literacy Skill: Analyze It LO 9.3.1: Identify the components of an effective literacy curriculum TB_09_43_Literacy Mr. Purkheiser likes to challenge his third-graders in their reading skills. Each day, right after lunch, he has ―read-aloud-time,‖ where students can read from one of their favorite books to their classmates. The children just think it‘s a fun activity, but what does Mr. Purkheiser understand that they do not?

A) Reading aloud is a form of peer instruction, a type of learning that third-graders need in order to acquire language skills.

B) ―Read-aloud-time‖ is increasing his students‘ oral reading fluency skills.

C) The anticipation of reading after lunch makes the children more ruly and quieter in the cafeteria.

D) Hearing other children‘s pronunciation mistakes allows students to correct their own errors.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Literacy Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.3.1: Identify the components of an effective literacy curriculum TB_09_44_Literacy Reading researchers have found that poor readers tend to have the most difficulty with which ability?

A) Sound-letter combinations B) Spelling C) Processing speed D) Grammar rules Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Literacy Skill: Analyze It LO 9.3.1: Identify the components of an effective literacy curriculum TB_09_45_Second-Language Learners In 2019, there were just over _____________ school-age children in the United States who speak a language other than English in the home.

A) 100,000 B) 1,000,000 C) 5,000,000 D) 100,000,000 Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes

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TB_09_46_Second-Language Learners Gricelda came to the United States from Puerto Rico. She speaks very little English but is in a special class that teaches her in both English and Spanish. Gricelda is in which type of educational program?

A) Bilingual education B) Multi-lingual education C) LED D) ESL Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes TB_09_47_Second-Language Learners Which term applies to school children who are non-English-speaking, whether immigrant or native-born?

A) Linguistically challenged B) English learner (EL) C) English-as-a-second-language (ESL) D) Second language proficient Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes TB_09_48_Second-Language Learners Which type of educational program is characterized by teaching and student communication restricted to English part of the day, and to learning a partner language during the remaining instructional time?A) Two-way immersion B) Language inversion C) Bilingual education D) English-as-a-second-language Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes TB_09_49_Second-Language Learners Which is an important component in helping EL students perform well on achievement tests?

A) The achievement tests need to be given only in English.

B) Achievement tests should not be administered until after the third grade.

C) Teachers need to provide a transition to English-only curriculum.

D) Interpreters should be used to help the children with the achievement tests.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes TB_09_50_Achievement and Intelligence According to Howard Gardner‘s theory of multiple intelligences, which type of intelligence represents the ability to understand oneself?

A) Bodily kinesthetic B) Naturalist C) Interpersonal D) Intrapersonal Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Achievement and Intelligence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

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TB_09_51_Theories of Multiple Intelligences According to Howard Gardner‘s theory of multiple intelligences, which intelligence involves sensitivity to the behavior, moods, and needs of others?

A) Spatial B) Intrapersonal C) Naturalist D) Interpersonal Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_52_Theories of Multiple Intelligences Vernon knows the difference between cedar and juniper trees. According to Howard Gardner, which type of intelligence is Vernon displaying?

A) Naturalist B) Spatial C) Logical D) Inductive Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_53_Theories of Multiple Intelligences Which type of intelligence refers to the ability to use language effectively?

A) Linguistic intelligence B) Logical intelligence C) Interpersonal intelligence D) Intrapersonal intelligence Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_54_Theories of Multiple Intelligences Jennifer is very good at drawing and copying pictures. Which type of intelligence is Jennifer using?

A) Musical B) Logical C) Linguistic D) Spatial Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_55_Theories of Multiple Intelligences Robert Sternberg‘s triarchic theory of intelligence involves contextual, experiential, and __________ intelligence.

A) existential B) componential C) referential D) elemental Answer: B Level: Easy

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Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_56_ Theories of Multiple Intelligences Robert Sternberg would say that a child who knows he is expected to shake hands with adults, but not necessarily his peers, has which type of intelligence?

A) Componential B) Experiential C) Contextual D) Perceptual Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_57_Theories of Multiple Intelligences Eloise is able to generate effective strategies for addressing a variety of problems that come her way. Robert Sternberg‘s triarchic theory of intelligence would indicate that Eloise is high on which dimension of intelligence?

A) Contextual B) Inferential C) Componential D) Inductive Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_58_ Theories of Multiple Intelligences Emotional intelligence has three components: awareness of personal emotions, appropriate emotional expression, and A) awareness of others‘ emotions.

B) a broad range of emotional descriptors.

C) the ability to reflect others‘ emotions back to them.

D) the ability to channel emotions into the pursuit of worthwhile goals.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_59_Theories of Multiple Intelligences Koko has had a string of failed romantic relationships over the past 5 years. Her partners tend to tell the same story: Koko often can‘t tell when they are mad at her, and doesn‘t seem able to express her own feelings. If her exes‘ complaints are accurate, Koko would likely score low on tests of __________ intelligence.A) emotional B) contextual C) bodily kinesthetic D) intrapersonal Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Multiple Intelligences Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence

TB_09_60_Achievement Tests

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Which type of test is designed to assess specific information that is learned in school?

A) Aptitude tests B) Intelligence tests C) Achievement tests D) Cognitive tests Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Achievement Tests Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_61_Achievement Tests In middle childhood, IQ tests may be used to A) predict who will be academically successful in the future.

B) assess the quality of a school‘s educational program.

C) determine the relative contributions of heredity and environment to children‘s intellectual skills.

D) group elementary school children for instruction.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Achievement Tests Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_62_No Easy Answers—IQ Testing in Schools Which theorist thought that intelligence reflected a core underlying factor that contributed to a wide range of cognitive abilities?

A) Howard Gardner B) P. A. Vagadori C) Charles Spearman D) Martin Milner Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: No Easy Answers—IQ Testing in Schools Skill: Remember the Facts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_63_Achievement Tests Which theorist primarily is associated with the study of intelligence?

A) Sigmund Freud B) Irving Maltzman C) Paul Ekman D) Howard Gardner Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Achievement Tests Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_64_Group Differences in Achievement Wally routinely acts up during class, making rude noises, taunting the teacher, and disrupting the learning of other students. His teacher and the school principal have agreed that Wally should receive out-of-school suspension as a punishment. This outcome is an example of which disciplinary strategy?

A) Corporal punishment B) Exclusionary discipline C) Time-in/time-out alternation D) Modulated reinforcement Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_65_Group Differences in Achievement What is the gender similarities hypothesis?

A) Within any given racial or ethnic group, males will be more similar to one another in their componential intelligence than females will.

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B) Any similarities between females and males in their general intellectual abilities can be attributed to years of formal education.

C) Males and females are highly similar in most cognitive abilities but show small differences in some specific skills.

D) Females generally have strong quantitative skills; similarly, males tend to have strong verbal skills.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_66_Group Differences in Achievement Celia knows there is a common perception that ―girls aren‘t good at math,‖ and having that knowledge affects her performance on an algebra exam. Which concept can be applied to Celia‘s fate?

A) Computational fluency B) The gender similarities hypothesis C) Exclusionary discipline D) Stereotype threat Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_67_Group Differences in Achievement Compared to the others, students in which country perform the worst on measures of mathematics and science?

A) Finland B) England C) The United States D) Norway Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Remember the Facts LO 9.4.3: Describe cross-national differences in achievement TB_09_68_Learning Disabilities A child who has difficulty mastering specific academic skills such as reading, but who has typical intelligence and no physical or sensory handicaps, might be categorized as having which condition?

A) A form of intellectual impairment B) A communication disorder in quantitative skills C) Cognitive deficiencies D) A learning disability Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Learning Disabilities Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.5.1: Summarize controversies surrounding the term ―learning disability‖ TB_09_69_Developmental Science at Home—Homeschooling Which is the most frequent reason parents cite when they choose to homeschool their children?

A) Their children have physical disabilities.

B) Their children have special learning needs.

C) Homeschooling provides an environment safe from teasing.

D) They have concerns about the safety of the school environment.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science at Home—Homeschooling Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.5.1: Summarize controversies surrounding the term ―learning disability‖ TB_09_70_Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder A child who has academic and behavioral problems in school because they are more physically active and/or less attentive than

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peers may be classified as having which disorder?

A) Emotional disturbances B) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder C) A mild learning disability D) Autism Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder Skill: Analyze It LO 9.5.2: Outline the developmental difficulties associated with attention disorders Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_09_71_The Brain and Nervous System Logic and planning are abilities affected in middle childhood by further maturation of the ________.

Answer: cerebral cortex Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_72_Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood The most significant health risks among school-aged children are associated with accidents and ________.

Answer: obesity or excessive weight gain Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.3: Identify the three most important health hazards during middle childhood TB_09_73_Language Development in Middle Childhood Between the ages of 6 and 12, children add roughly ________ words per year to their vocabulary.

Answer: 5,000 to 10,000 Level: Difficult Topic: Language Development in Middle Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.2.1: Describe the changes in language development that occur in middle childhood TB_09_74_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage According to Jean Piaget, __________ enable children to think logically about objects and events in the real world Answer: concrete operations Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_75_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage According to Jean Piaget, __________ is a type of thinking that takes multiple variables into account simultaneously.

Answer: decentration Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_76_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Winston learned in school that a Granny Smith is a type of apple. He also knows that all apples are fruits. Winston therefore concluded that a Granny Smith is a kind of fruit. Winston used ________ to draw those conclusions.

Answer: deductive logic Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_77_Advances in Information-Processing Skills Developmentalists use the term ________ to refer to the ability to make efficient use of short-term memory capacity.

Answer: processing efficiency

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Level: Moderate Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_78_Advances in Information-Processing Skills ________ is the ability to recall information from long-term memory without using short-term memory space.

Answer: Automaticity Level: Easy Topic: Advances in Information-Processing Skills Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.2.3: Explain the improvements in information-processing skills in middle childhood TB_09_79_Second-Language Learners Miguel came to the United States from Puerto Rico. He speaks very little English, but he is in a special class that teaches him in both English and Spanish. Miguel is in an ________ education program.

Answer: bilingual Level: Moderate Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes TB_09_80_Achievement Tests ________ tests are designed to assess specific information that is taught, and hopefully learned, at school.

Answer: Achievement Level: Easy Topic: Achievement Tests Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_81_Group Differences in Achievement The tendency to focus on the details of a task is called a(n) ________ learning style.

Answer: analytical Level: Easy Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_82_Learning Disabilities ________ refers to problems reading or a complete inability to read.

Answer: Dyslexia Level: Easy Topic: Learning Disabilities Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 9.5.1: Summarize controversies surrounding the term ―learning disability‖ Short Answer Questions TB_09_83_Growth and Motor Development in Middle Childhood Describe general patterns of growth and motor development between the ages of 6 and 12.

Answer: Each year between 6 and 12, children grow between 2 and 3 inches and add about 6 pounds. Large-muscle coordination continues to improve, and children become increasingly adept at skills such as bike riding.

Level: Difficult Topic: Growth and Motor Development in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.1: List the physical changes that occur during middle childhood TB_09_84_The Brain and Nervous System Which feature do neurons in the association areas of the brain have, and how does that feature contribute to informationprocessing speed?

Answer: Neurons in association areas are myelinated. These myelinated fibers increase processing speed among sensory, motor, and intellectual centers of the brain.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It

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LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_85_Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Give an example of a superordinate class and a subordinate class.

Answer: There are hundreds of possibilities here: the superordinate class contains the subordinate; for example, rooms are a subordinate of houses, which would be the superordinate class.

Level: Difficult Topic: Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage 9.2.2: TB_09_86_Literacy Identify four characteristics of an ―authoritative‖ teaching style.

Answer: combine clear goals, good control, good communication, high nurturance Level: Difficult Topic: Literacy Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.3.1: Identify the components of an effective literacy curriculum TB_09_87_Second-Language Learners What is the approach adopted by two-way immersion programs?Answer: Two-way immersion programs admit both EL children and English-dominant children. Children in these programs learn two languages, English and a partner language, through full immersion. Teaching and student communication is restricted to English part of the day, and to the partner language during the remaining instructional time. Level: Moderate Topic: Second-Language Learners Skill: Analyze It LO 9.3.2: Differentiate between instructional approaches used in ESL and bilingual classes TB_09_88_Achievement Tests Distinguish among Robert Sternberg‘s three components of intelligence.

Answer: Contextual intelligence: Knowing the right behavior for a specific situation; practical intelligence in an everyday context Experiential intelligence: Learning to give specific responses without thinking about them; generating novel solutions for problems Componential intelligence: Deploying effective strategies Level: Difficult Topic: Achievement Tests Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_89_Group Differences in Achievement What is an achievement test designed to measure?

Answer: Achievement tests are designed to assess specific information learned in school. Scores are based on comparison of an individual child‘s performance to those of other children in the same grade.

Level: Difficult Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_90_ Group Differences in Achievement Define stereotype threat.

Answer: Stereotype threat refers to the sense of pressure members of a particular group feel when they are asked to perform competently within a group which views them negatively.

Level: Moderate Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_91_Learning Disabilities What are some of the benefits of inclusive education for students with disabilities?

Answer: Proponents have argued that inclusive education aids children with disabilities by integrating them into social environments that include people with and without disabilities. In this way, inclusive education facilitates the development of

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important social skills as well as provides more appropriate academic challenges than are often found in separate classrooms or special programs for students with disabilities. Advocates of inclusion are convinced that children with mild intellectual disabilities and those with learning differences will show greater academic achievement if they are in classrooms with children who do not have disabilities.

Level: Difficult Topic: Learning Disabilities Skill: Analyze It LO 9.5.1: Summarize controversies surrounding the term ―learning disability‖ TB_09_92_Learning Disabilities List four disabilities for which children in the United States would receive special education services.

Answer: learning; communication disorder; intellectual impairment; serious emotional disturbance; other health impairments; autistic disorders; multiple disabilities; hearing impairment; orthopedic impairment; visual impairment Level: Difficult Topic: Learning Disabilities Skill: Analyze It LO 9.5.1: Summarize controversies surrounding the term ―learning disability‖ TB_09_93_Developmental Science at Home: Homeschooling What are the three most common reasons why parents decide to homeschool their children?

Answer: concern about the safety of the school environment; desire to include religious training; dissatisfaction with academic standards Level: Difficult Topic: Developmental Science at Home: Homeschooling Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.5.1: Summarize controversies surrounding the term ―learning disability‖ TB_09_94_Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder Summarize the characteristics of ADHD. Answer: Characteristics include inability to sustain attention, inability to control impulses, and hyperactivity.

Level: Difficult Topic: Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.5.2: Outline the developmental difficulties associated with attention disorders

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Essay Questions TB_09_95_The Brain and Nervous System Describe the development of relative right–left orientation, including some beneficial consequences of this ability Answer: A behavioral test of the lateralization of spatial perception often used by neuroscientists involves relative right–left orientation, the ability to identify right and left from multiple perspectives. Such a test usually shows that most children younger than 8 know the difference between their own right and left. Typically, though, only children older than 8 who are tested for relative right–left orientation understand the difference between statements like ―It‘s on your right‖ and ―It‘s on my right.‖ Lateralization of spatial perception may also be related to the increased efficiency with which older children learn math concepts and problem-solving strategies. In addition, lateralization of spatial perception is somewhat correlated with progression through Jean Piaget‘s concrete operational stage.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System Skill: Analyze It LO 9.1.2: Outline the changes that occur in the brain during middle childhood TB_09_96_Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Define and differentiate between deductive and inductive logic. Give an example of each. At what age are children capable of each type of reasoning?

Answer: Deductive logic is based on hypothetical premises, deducing from the large to the small—this skill develops after inductive logic, usually after age 12. Inductive logic reaches general principles from specific experience. Examples are varied and many, but need to demonstrate the definitions.

Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Concrete Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 9.2.2: Summarize the cognitive changes that occur during the concrete operational stage TB_09_97_Literacy Explain what systematic and explicit phonics means, and discuss how it relates to both learning to read and learning to write.

Answer: Effective reading programs include daily lessons in systematic and explicit phonics, an instructional approach in which letter–sound relationships are taught intentionally, beginning with simple, one-letter/one-sound correspondences (e.g., the letter b for the sound /b/) and moving to those that involve two or more letters. Effective systematic and explicit phonics teaching promotes automaticity by providing beginning readers with opportunities for daily practice in applying their knowledge of letter–sound correspondences to both reading and writing tasks. Phonics researchers point out that children cannot comprehend written language until they can decode it automatically. Some strategies used to teach reading also help children learn to write.

For example, phonics instruction helps children learn to spell as well as to read.

Level: Difficult Topic: Literacy Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.3.1: Identify the components of an effective literacy curriculum TB_09_98_Achievement Tests Explain the use of IQ testing in the school systems in the United States. Give your informed, academically sound opinion as to whether you think IQ testing is useful.

Answer: Although acknowledging that intelligence tests are not without flaws, most U.S. schools require students to take them at various points in their educational careers. These tests are usually paper-and-pencil, multiple-choice tests that can be given to large numbers of children at the same time. Some critics of routine IQ testing say that such tests aren‘t as accurate as individual tests. Others object to the use of IQ tests because they often result in misclassification of children in historically disadvantaged groups. Nevertheless, IQ tests are often used to group children for instruction because they are strongly correlated with achievement-test scores and other measures of academic performance.

Level: Difficult Topic: Achievement Tests Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_99_Theories of Intelligence Describe any four of Howard Gardner‘s proposed types of intelligence, and provide an example of each type.

Answer: Answers will vary, but should draw on this information: Linguistic—the ability to use language effectively Logical/mathematical—facility with numbers and logical problem solving

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Musical—the ability to appreciate and produce music Spatial—the ability to appreciate spatial relationships Bodily kinesthetic—the ability to move in a coordinated way, combined with a sense of one’s body in space Naturalist—the ability to make fine discriminations among the plants and animals of the natural world or the patterns and designs of human artifacts Interpersonal—sensitivity to the behavior, moods, and needs of others Intrapersonal—the ability to understand oneself Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Intelligence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_100_Theories of Intelligence How does Robert Sternberg‘s triarchic theory of intelligence expand traditional notions of what intelligence it and how it should be measured?

Answer: Robert Sternberg‘s triarchic theory of successful intelligence proposes three components of human intelligence. In general, Sternberg argues, IQ tests measure how familiar a child is with ―school‖ culture. Thus, children whose cultural background does not include formal schooling perform poorly because they are unfamiliar with the context of the test.

Unfortunately, their poor performance is often mistakenly interpreted to mean that they lack intelligence). Following from his triarchic theory of successful intelligence, Sternberg believes that intelligence tests should measure all three components of intelligence—contextual, componential, and experiential—and he has produced some research evidence suggesting that testing procedures based on his theory yield better performance predictions than conventional IQ tests.

Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Intelligence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 9.4.1: Explain the various theories of intelligence TB_09_101_ Group Differences in Achievement Explain the concept of stereotype threat, and discuss how it can affect achievement outcomes.

Answer: Research conducted by social psychologists Claude Steele and Joshua Aronson demonstrates that stereotype threat, a subtle sense of pressure that members of a particular group feel when they are attempting to perform well in an area in which their group is characterized by a negative stereotype, affects the test scores of minority children. According to Steele and Aronson, students of color experience stereotype threat whenever they are faced with an important cognitive test, such as a college entrance exam or an IQ test, because of the general cultural stereotype that they are less intellectually able than members of other groups. To avoid confirming the stereotype, says the theory, students of color avoid putting forth their best effort because to fail after having put forth one‘s best effort would mean that the stereotype is true. Research has confirmed the existence of stereotype threat among both children and adults. However, it appears to have a smaller effect on children‘s test performance than on that of adults. In fact, some studies show that stereotype threat has little or no impact on children‘s test performance. Consequently, the jury is still out with regard to the role of stereotype threat in explaining racial and ethnic group differences among children.

Level: Moderate Topic: Group Differences in Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 9.4.2: Describe gender, racial, and ethnic group differences in achievement TB_09_102_Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder Describe the types of parenting programs that are used to help parents respond to the needs of their children who have been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).Answer: One important aspect of ADHD treatment is helping children learn how to regulate their own behavior. However, while children are learning these skills, teachers and parents need effective strategies for managing their disruptive behavior. By the time their children are diagnosed with ADHD, usually during preschool or the early elementary years, many parents have lost confidence in their ability to control them. Some cope with their difficult child by being extremely permissive. Others respond by becoming excessively harsh and, out of frustration, sometimes treat the child abusively. Thus, parent training can be useful in helping parents cope with children who have ADHD. The goal of such parenting programs is to help parents regain a sense of control. For example, experts recommend that teachers provide parents with daily reports of their children‘s work in the various school subjects—language, math, social studies, and so on.

Parents can then use the information to enforce a standing rule that the child must have completed all schoolwork before watching television or doing other desired activities. Such approaches, when applied consistently, can help parents of children with ADHD manage their children‘s difficulties, as well as their own emotional reactions, more effectively.

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Level: Moderate Topic: Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder Skill: Evaluate It LO 9.5.2: Outline the developmental difficulties associated with attention disorders

TEST BANK CHAPTER 10: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN MIDDLE CHILDHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_10_01_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which summary accurately reflects Sigmund Freud‘s view of the primary tasks of development during middle childhood?

A) To develop friendships with members of the opposite sex B) To form emotional bonds with peers and to move beyond those bonds developed with parents C) To develop a sense of competence by achieving culturally defined learning goals D) To expand the process of identification to include a child‘s opposite sex parent Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.1: Explain the psychoanalytic perspective on personality development in middle childhood TB_10_02_Psychoanalytic Perspectives According to Erik Erikson, between roughly ages 6 to 12 years, children go through a period characterized by a focus on efforts to meet the challenges presented by parents, peers, school. Erikson called this challenge __________.

A) competency versus risk-taking B) basic trust versus mistrust C) industry versus inferiority D) latency versus sexual development Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.1.1: Explain the psychoanalytic perspective on personality development in middle childhood TB_10_03_Psychoanalytic Perspectives According to Erik Erikson, children resolve the psychosocial task of middle childhood through their A) friendships with others.

B) relationships with parents and siblings.

C) school relationships.

D) the neighborhood or community.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.1: Explain the psychoanalytic perspective on personality development in middle childhood TB_10_04_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Rudolf is struggling with his math and reading skills, but excels at soccer. What would Erik Erikson have said about Rudolf‘s sense of competence?

A) Rudolf will successfully resolve the conflict of this stage through his competence in soccer.

B) Rudolf will not successfully resolve this stage because his peers are likely to make fun of him.

C) Because his teachers are likely to treat Rudolf badly, he will disregard the sense of competence that he feels at soccer.

D) Because soccer is not a popular sport in the United States, Rudolf will not develop a sense of confidence.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.1.1: Explain the psychoanalytic perspective on personality development in middle childhood

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TB_10_05_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives What is the primary goal of trait theories?

A) To counteract the negative effects of psychoanalytic theories B) To identify individual differences in emotional responses to childhood experiences C) To explain the origins of differences in personality D) To explain the effects of reciprocal determinism on a child‘s development Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_06_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives According to trait theorists, what is the nature of temperament in middle childhood?

A) It is still developing.

B) The inborn characteristics of temperament will have disappeared.

C) The effects of a child‘s temperament are negligible at this point.

D) It is relatively stable in terms of personality traits.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_07_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Which factor is a component of Albert Bandura‘s model of personality development?

A) Id B) Conflicts C) Archetypes D) Behavior Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_08_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives

Dr. Sardonicus argues that personality results from the dynamic interplay of social norms, environmental cues, and individual beliefs, thoughts, and perceptions. Which approach to personality does Dr. Sardonicus endorse?

A) Biological B) Social-cognitive C) Psychoanalytic D) Cognitive Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_09_The Psychological Self During middle childhood, a new component of the self is added to the categorical, social, and emotional selves. This new component includes personality traits. What is the term for this new component?

A) Personhood B) Individualistic self C) Psychological self D) Personal self Answer: C

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Level: Easy Topic: The Psychological Self Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.2.1: Describe the features of the psychological self TB_10_10_The Psychological Self Chloe saw that her friends didn‘t have training wheels on their bicycles and decided that she could ride better without them.

Which two social-cognitive concepts are at work here?

A) Personal effectiveness and behavior B) Social comparisons and self-efficacy C) Social comparisons and self-esteem D) Self-concept and behaviorism Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Psychological Self Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.2.1: Describe the features of the psychological self TB_10_11_The Psychological Self Helle has the conviction that she can do what she sets out to do, whether it is mastering a new skill or reaching her goal of learning 10 new words each day. Psychologists call this feeling of competence __________.

A) global self-esteem B) self-concept C) reciprocal determinism D) self-efficacy Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Psychological Self Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.2.1: Describe the features of the psychological self TB_10_12_The Valued Self Which concept refers to children‘s global self-evaluation, which includes factors such as how well they like themselves or how happy they are?

A) Intrapersonal perception B) Self-construct C) Self-esteem D) Introspection Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Analyze It LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_13_The Valued Self Which statement is correct?

A) Self-esteem tends to be unstable in the short term and can vary somewhat over time.

B) A child with high self-esteem at age 8 or 9 is not likely to have high self-esteem at age 10.

C) Self-esteem tends to be more stable in boys than in girls.

D) Self-esteem tends to be more stable in girls than in boys.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_14_The Valued Self Tomas is facing an important test and expects to do poorly. He is so anxious that he cannot concentrate or study effectively, but he figures that because he‘s going to do badly anyway, he shouldn‘t bother studying. This reasoning is an indication of Tomas‘s __________.

A) self-esteem B) social comparison C) popularity D) social reality

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Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_15_The Valued Self Bobby is a 10-year-old who is uncoordinated and awkward, and as a consequence, he has little athletic ability. How will this circumstance influence Bobby‘s self-esteem?

A) The absence of athletic ability will cause Bobby to have low self-esteem.

B) If Bobby does not value athletic skill, his lack of talent will have less impact on his self-esteem than if he highly values athleticism.

C) The absence of athletic skill will affect his self-esteem only if his parents also value athleticism.

D) As long as his friends tell Bobby that they don‘t mind if he is clumsy, his self-esteem will be unaffected.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_16_The Valued Self Overall, which of these factors is the key to self-esteem?

A) Parental modeling of healthy self-esteem B) External evaluations from teachers and other adults C) The amount of discrepancy between what a child desires and what the child thinks they have achieved D) External evaluations from peers Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_17_The Child as Psychologist Which pattern is typical of children‘s descriptions of others during middle childhood?

A) During middle childhood, children are unobservant and do not attempt to interpret or describe other people.

B) Across the middle childhood period, children become less abstract and more concrete in their descriptions of others.

C) During middle childhood, children use only observable, physical characteristics when they describe other people.

D) During middle childhood, children talk more about internal characteristics or qualities that the individual seems to have.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: The Child as Psychologist Skill: Analyze It LO 10.3.1: Identify the change in children‘s perception of others that occurs in middle childhood TB_10_18_The Child as Psychologist Lenny is asked to describe his classmate, Roxie. ―She‘s tall, and she has brown hair,‖ began Lenny. ―She wears a blue sweater a lot.‖ Given the quality of this description, which age would Lenny most likely be?

A) 2 years old B) 6 years old C) 9 years old D) 12 years old Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Child as Psychologist Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.3.1: Identify the change in children‘s perception of others that occurs in middle childhood TB_10_19_Moral Reasoning According to Jean Piaget‘s ideas about children‘s moral development, a child who insists that the rules of a game cannot be changed because they come from authorities (such as parents or religious figures) is demonstrating moral development at which stage?

A) Moral relativism B) Moral realism C) Ego ideal

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D) Postconventional Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_20_Moral Reasoning According to Jean Piaget‘s ideas about children‘s moral development, a child who knows that the players of a game can change the rules, as long as all the children agree to play by the new rules, is demonstrating moral development at the which stage?

A) Moral relativism B) Moral realism C) Ego ideal D) Preconventional Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_21_Moral Reasoning Children who are older than 8 years of age, compared to children who are younger, know that ________ are important when making moral judgments about the behavior of others.

A) the amount of damages caused B) the reactions of parents C) consequences D) intentions Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_22_Moral Reasoning According to Jean Piaget, which child is most likely to recognize that intentions are important when making moral judgments about others‘ behaviors?

A) Dale, who is 6 B) Marianna, who is 6 C) Dudley, who is 7 D) Kirsten, who is 9 Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_23_Moral Reasoning Although research evidence generally supports Jean Piaget‘s views about intentionality and moral development, the moral reasoning of 6- to 12-year-olds remains highly A) unstable, and applied mainly to their own actions.

B) prescriptive, and applied indiscriminately.

C) reactive, and activated only out of necessity.

D) egocentric, and less than fully mature.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_24_Developmental Science at Home: Encouraging Moral Reasoning According to research conducted by Thomas Lickona, which strategy is effective for encouraging moral reasoning in 6- to 12year-olds?

A) Discourage playing games and encourage reading important literary works B) Help and encourage children to base obedience on fear rather than development

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C) Include children in charitable projects D) Punish children immediately after they have done something wrong Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science at Home: Encouraging Moral Reasoning Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_25_Relationships with Parents During the middle childhood years, disciplinary interactions with parents typically decrease because a child is more capable of which ability?

A) Person perception B) Metamemory C) Self-regulation D) The use of psychological constructs Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.1: Outline the parental variables that contribute to self-regulation TB_10_26_Relationships with Parents Which term refers to a child‘s ability to conform to parental standards of behavior without direct supervision?

A) Independence B) Interdependence C) Self-evaluation D) Self-regulation Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.4.1: Outline the parental variables that contribute to self-regulation TB_10_27_Relationships with Parents Which factor is a parenting variable that is related to children‘s development of the capacity for self-regulation?

A) The parents‘ age B) The parents‘ own ability to self-regulate C) The parents‘ socioeconomic status D) Authoritarian parenting Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.1: Outline the parental variables that contribute to self-regulation TB_10_28_Relationships with Parents Longitudinal research has demonstrated that school-age children whose parents have been consistently _________ since they were toddlers are the most socially competent.

A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) permissive D) uninvolved Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.4.1: Outline the parental variables that contribute to self-regulation TB_10_29_Friendships in Middle Childhood During the later years of middle childhood, the key element of children‘s friendships becomes A) having a good time together.

B) similar social and cultural backgrounds.

C) reciprocal trust.

D) enjoying complementary abilities.

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Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_30_Friendships in Middle Childhood If a preschooler is asked how people make friends, which answer is the child likely to give?

A) ―They have similar interests.‖ B) ―They like each other.‖ C) ―They play together.‖ D) ―They trust each other.‖ Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_31_Friendships in Middle Childhood Which factor is most important in the selection of friends among 6- to 12-year-olds?

A) Age B) Socioeconomic similarity C) Race D) Gender Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_32_Friendships in Middle Childhood When Gloria, age 10, is asked, ―How do you know that someone is your best friend?‖ it is highly likely that she will respond, __________ A) ―Because a friend is someone you can count on to help you when you need it.‖ B) ―Because a friend is someone who is fun to be with.‖ C) ―Because I can play a lot with my best friend.‖ D) ―Because a friend is somebody who puts my feelings first.‖ Answer: D Moderate Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_33_Friendships in Middle Childhood Best friendships are an important indicator of which other attributes of a child?

A) Dominance B) Overall social development and competence C) Self-efficacy D) Intelligence Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_34_Friendships in Middle Childhood Which summary is an accurate description of female–male differences in middle childhood friendships?

A) Boys‘ friendship groups are smaller than girls‘ friendship groups.

B) Boys spend more time playing indoors or near home or school.

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C) Girls‘ friendship groups are more accepting of newcomers than are boys‘ friendship groups.

D) Girls‘ friendships include more reciprocity, agreement, and self-disclosure compared to boys‘ friendships Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_35_Friendships in Middle Childhood Which summary is an accurate description of female–male differences in friendships in middle childhood?

A) Friendships between boys include more agreement and compliance than girls‘ friendships.

B) Girls‘ friendships have higher levels of competition and rejection than boys‘ friendships.

C) School-age boys are more competitive with strangers than with friends.

D) Boys are more likely to engage in competition with their friends.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_36_Friendships in Middle Childhood Which statement is an example of speech used by middle childhood boys in their friendships?

A) ―Can we find a way that we can both win at Stratego?‖ B) ―Let‘s talk about our feelings.‖ C) ―If you‘ll share your sandwich with me I‘d really appreciate it.‖ D) ―Why can‘t you climb up this rope? You‘re a loser!‖ Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_37_Friendships in Middle Childhood Which middle childhood friendship pattern is seen universally across virtually every culture?

A) The absence of a single best friend B) Gender-segregation in friendship groups C) Aggressive play styles D) Competition and bullying Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_38_Patterns of Aggression

During recess, Tori calls Chastity names, refuses to include her in a game of hopscotch, and makes fun of her. Tori’s behavior is an example of __________ aggression.

A) relational B) emotional C) regulated D) instrumental Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_39_Patterns of Aggression

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Chad and Jeremy are playing with cars, and both boys want to play with the big red car. As Chad reaches for the red car, Jeremy strikes him, knocking it out of his hand and taking the red car for himself. Chad responds by taking Jeremy’s lunchbox and hurling it against the wall, shattering the thermos. Chad’s behavior is an example of __________ aggression.

A) retaliatory B) fraternal C) relational D) verbal Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_40_Patterns of Aggression Which situation provides an example of relational aggression?

A) Dawn yelled at her older sister, ―Get up! I‘m supposed to sit next to Daddy!‖ B) Sylvia lobbed a rotten apple at the boys in the tree house, and they immediately began to chase her down the street.

C) Gloria announced to her friends, ―We‘re not going to be friends with Sharinda anymore. She‘s gross!‖ D) Jonathon reached across the aisle and gave Iman‘s pigtail a hard tug.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_41_Patterns of Aggression Cecelia rolled her eyes in disgust when Carrie walked up to the group and began to speak. Cecelia was displaying which behavior?

A) Instrumental aggression B) Relational aggression C) Person imperception D) Inductive persuasion Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_42_Patterns of Aggression Penny broke her brother‘s baseball trophy after he used her favorite doll to play tug-of-war with their dog. Which type of aggression is Penny demonstrating?

A) Relational aggression B) Retaliatory aggression C) Instrumental aggression D) Hostile aggression Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_43_No Easy Answers—Bullies and Victims Which characteristic is common among victims of bullying?

A) High self-esteem B) A good sense of humor C) Sensitivity D) Low intelligence

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Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: No Easy Answers—Bullies and Victims Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_44_Social Status Which attribute is linked to rejection and unpopularity among children?

A) Decompensating behaviors B) Higher achievement scores C) Aggression and disruptive behavior D) Petulance Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_45_Social Status Compared to the others, which child would be least likely to be rejected or neglected by peers in middle childhood?

A) Juan, who loves to write and perform various types of music B) Elizabeth, who throws temper tantrums and cries easily C) Larry, who is taller than his peers and considered handsome D) Harvey, who is very shy Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Social Status Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_46_Social Status Which characteristic would be typical of a school-age child who is popular with their peers?

A) Notable talent and creativity B) Negative behavior toward other children C) Ability to assess the feelings of others D) Difficulty regulating the expression of strong emotions Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_47_Social Status Which attribute seems to be the most important element in a child‘s acceptance by their peers?

A) Intelligence B) Physical appearance C) Socioeconomic status D) Social behavior Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_48_Social Status Although aggressive children tend to be disliked by their peers, they are usually considered to be A) more intelligent.

B) of stronger character.

C) more competent.

D) of higher social status.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It

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LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_49_Social Status Which term is used by psychologists to describe children who are disliked and avoided by their peers?

A) Repudiated B) Rejected C) Neglected D) Shunned Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Social Status Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_50_Social Status Which characteristic is more likely to be found in neglected children than in popular or rejected children?

A) Higher intelligence B) Depression and loneliness C) Aggression D) Creativity Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_51_Social Status Which type of children show no differences in sociability compared to their popular peers?

A) Rejected B) Neglected C) Aggressive D) Withdrawn Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Social Status Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_52_Social Status Which terms describe the two types of rejected children?

A) Neglected and withdrawn B) Withdrawn and aggressive C) Aggressive and delinquent D) Assertive and withdrawn Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Social Status Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_53_Social Status Around what age do children begin to regard relational aggression as a more mature form of social manipulation than physical aggression?

A) 7 years old B) 9 or 10 years old C) 11 or 12 years old D) 14 years old Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_54_Social Status

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Wilson is considerate to his friends and takes their wishes into account when they decide on games to play. He is also quite attuned to his playmates‘ feelings, and uses that information to help regulate his own emotions. Which social status is Wilson likely to have?

A) Withdrawn/rejected B) Popular C) Aggressive/rejected D) Neglected Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Social Status Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_55_Poverty As of 2020, what was the approximate child poverty rate in the United States?

A) 3% B) 10% C) 19% D) 40% Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Analyze It LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_56_Poverty How has the number of children under the age of 18 living in poverty in the United States changed from 1980 to the present?

A) It has declined significantly.

B) It has remained approximately the same.

C) It is impossible to know because of the number of homeless families in the United States.

D) It has increased significantly.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_57_Poverty The United States government defines poverty as being less than which income levels for a family with two children?

A) $10,448 B) $24,496 C) $38,440 D) $41,840 Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Remember the Facts LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_58_Poverty Which descriptive characteristic applies to American children who are most likely to be living in poverty?

A) Younger than 6 years of age B) Parents over the age of 60 C) Reared in two-parent households D) Non-Hispanic White background Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Analyze It LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes

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TB_10_59_Poverty Reggie is a 6-year-old living in a family that has a poverty-level income, and Reggie has really, really bad green teeth. What is the most likely explanation for Reggie‘s ragged smile?

A) Haphazard formal education means that Reggie likely never learned that brushing one‘s teeth is a good idea.

B) Food insecurity means that Reggie probably eats nothing but sugary, high-calorie snack foods throughout the day.

C) Low-income families tend to distrust medical care, preferring to use faith healing or traditional remedies for their ailments.

D) Families living in poverty often lack access to a primary care provider and/or dental care.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_60_Poverty Which statement explains a typical way in which poverty impacts children?

A) Children living in poverty have greater prenatal care but nonetheless have worse long-term outcomes.

B) Children living in poverty have adequate housing but inadequate nutrition.

C) Families in poverty tend to have less frequent changes of residence and schools.

D) Children raised in poverty are less likely than children in better-off families to have nearby health care providers.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_61_Poverty Compared to the others, which child would most likely be resilient?

A) A child who lives in an impoverished neighborhood and is unable to go to school.

B) A child who lives in a neglectful environment but shows few adverse effects because she has the support of her teachers and extended family.

C) A child who has a good home environment but is bullied at school.

D) A child who grows up in an urban environment with a lot of gang activity and whose parents are alcoholic.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Poverty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_62_Poverty Which developmentalist term describes children who develop problems as a result of living in poverty?

A) Authoritarian children B) Posttraumatic children C) Vulnerable children D) Resilient children Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Poverty Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_63_Poverty Which community factor can help protect a child from the effects of a stressful environment?

A) Extraversion B) Multiple siblings C) Religious institutions D) Personal emotional regulation skills Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Poverty

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Skill: Understand the Concepts 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among poor children TB_10_64_Media Influences Which statement is accurate regarding the effects of television on children?

A) The best advice is to not allow children to watch television at all until they are preteens.

B) Television advertisements are ineffective and cannot influence outcomes such as a child‘s food preferences.

C) Programs that depict violence and aggression do not correlate with increased aggressive behavior in children.

D) Some language-oriented programs can effectively increase children’s vocabularies.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Media Influences Skill: Evaluate It 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_65_Media Influences Which researcher conducted the ―Bobo doll‖ studies to evaluate the effects of observing aggressive models on children‘s behavior?

A) Howard Gardner B) Albert Bandura C) Walter Koppleman D) Cheryl Livingstone Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Media Influences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_66_Media Influences

In Albert Bandura’s classic research investigating observational learning, the term Bobo refers to ________.

A) Bandura’s name for the dog used in the study B) Bandura’s loyal but strange assistant who conducted the experiment C) Bandura’s nickname that his graduate students had given him D) the inflatable clown doll that was used in the study Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Media Influences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_67_Media Influences Which health-related outcome is associated with video game playing?

A) Acne B) Obesity C) Poor eyesight D) Joint pain Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Media Influences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_68_Media Influences Compared to the others, which child statistically has the greatest likelihood of developing compulsive gaming behaviors?

A) Jolene, an 8-year-old who plays Vernon‘s Vocabulary Vault for half an hour while her parents supervise her

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B) Desmond, a 14-year-old who has been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and loves playing fast-paced racing games C) Marcus, a 10-year-old who uses the computers in the library or at school, because he lacks one at home D) Alvin, a 17-year-old who plays the New York Times Connections game once daily Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Media Influences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_69_Media Influences Regina is an 8-year-old who spends about 7 hours each day engaged in screen time of one sort or another. Based on this habit, a developmentalist might predict that Regina‘s household income is in which range?

A) Less than $35,000 B) Between $25,000 and $50,000 C) Between $50,000 and $99,000 D) Greater than $100,000 Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Media Influences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_70_Media Influences Children in the 13- to 18-year-old age group who live in families with a household income greater than $100,000 spend about _________ hours daily engaged in screen time.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 7 D) 11 Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Media Influences Skill: Remember the Facts LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_10_71_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Middle childhood is the time to resolve the crisis of ________ versus ________ according to Erik Erikson.

Answer: industry; inferiority Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.1.1: Explain the psychoanalytic perspective on personality development in middle childhood TB_10_72_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives A ________ is a stable pattern of responding to situations.

Answer: trait Level: Moderate Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_73_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives In Albert Bandura‘s social-cognitive theory, each component is influenced by the other two. The term for this is ________.

Answer: reciprocal determinism Level: Moderate Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_74_The Psychological Self During middle childhood, a new component of the self is added to the categorical, social, and emotional selves. This new component is called the ________.

Answer: psychological self Level: Difficult Topic: The Psychological Self Skill: Analyze It LO 10.2.1: Describe the features of the psychological self TB_10_75_The Psychological Self Julianna draws conclusions about herself based on her observations of other girls in her class. According to Albert Bandura‘s social-cognitive theory, Julianna is engaging in ________.

Answer: social comparison Level: Moderate Topic: The Psychological Self Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.2.1: Describe the features of the psychological self TB_10_76_The Valued Self Children‘s global self-evaluation, which includes factors such as how well they like themselves or how happy they are, is termed ________.

Answer: self-esteem Level: Moderate Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Analyze It LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_77_The Valued Self In a(n) ________ culture, parents help children develop a sense of self-esteem based on the child‘s own interests.

Answer: individualistic Level: Moderate Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Analyze It LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_78_The Child as Psychologist At the beginning of middle childhood, children‘s descriptions of others focus on ___________ characteristics.Answer: external Level: Moderate

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Topic: The Child as Psychologist Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.3.1: Identify the change in children‘s perception of others that occur in middle childhood TB_10_79_Moral Reasoning According to Jean Piaget‘s ideas about children‘s moral development, a child who knows that the players of a game can change the rules as long as all the children agree to play by the new rules is demonstrating moral ________.

Answer: relativism Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_80_Relationships with Parents During the middle-childhood years, disciplinary interactions with parents typically decrease because a child is more capable of ________.

Answer: self-regulation Level: Difficult Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.1: Outline the parental variables that contribute to self-regulation TB_10_81_Friendships in Middle Childhood During the later years of middle childhood, the key element of children‘s friendships becomes ________.

Answer: reciprocal trust Level: Difficult Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Analyze It LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_82_Social Status ―Aggressive‖ and ―withdrawn‖ are two types of ________ social statuses among children.

Answer: rejected Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories

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Short Answer Questions TB_10_83_Psychoanalytic Perspectives According to Erik Erikson, how does a child achieve a sense of industry?

Answer: According to Erik Eirkson‘s opinions, the psychosocial task of a 6- to 12-year-old is development of industry, or the willingness to work to accomplish goals. To develop industry, the child must be able to achieve the goals the culture sets for all children their age. For example, in most countries, 6- to 12-year-olds must learn to read and write.

Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 10.1.1: Explain the psychoanalytic perspective on personality development in middle childhood TB_10_84_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives If you ask a child to answer the question ―Who am I?‖ what differences would you tend to see between the responses of a 9year-old and an 11-year-old?

Answer: The 9-year-old will use surface qualities as descriptors, whereas the 11-year-old would be likely to describe her external qualities, but she also emphasizes psychological factors such as personality traits. Level: Difficult Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_85_The Child as Psychologist What is meant by the term ―behavioral comparison‖ and where is its usage prevalent?

Answer: At the beginning of middle childhood, children‘s descriptions of others focus on external characteristics. Next, children‘s descriptions of others begin to include internal traits. From there, children move on to behavioral comparisons. For example, they may say that one child in their class is a better soccer player than another.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Child as Psychologist Skill: Analyze It LO 10.3.1: Identify the change in children‘s perception of others that occurs in middle childhood TB_10_86_Moral Reasoning What is the difference between moral realism and moral relativism in Jean Piaget‘s theory or moral development?

Answer: In the moral realism stage, children believe that rules are inflexible. In the moral relativism stage children understand that rules may change through social agreement.

Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_87_Relationships with Parents What are some parenting variables that influence the development of a child‘s self-regulation abilities?

Answer: The parents‘ own ability to self-regulate, the degree of self-regulation expected by parents, and parenting style are all factors that contribute.

Level: Difficult Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.4.1: Outline the parental variables that contribute to self-regulation

TB_10_88_Friendships in Middle Childhood If you ask a preschooler how people make friends, what are they likely to say? What will a 10-year-old say?

Answer: The preschooler will likely refer to shared play time; the older child will refer to reciprocal trust.

Level: Difficult Topic: Friendships in Middle Childhood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_89_Gender Self-Segregation What are the basic differences that characterize the interaction between pairs of boys who are friends and pairs of girls who are friends?

Answer: Boys tend to focus more on competition and dominance; girls focus more on agreement and compliance.

Level: Easy

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Topic: Gender Self-Segregation Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.4.2: Describe the development of friendships in middle childhood TB_10_90_Patterns of Aggression Summarize the different types of aggression that are often seen during the middle childhood years.

Answer: Relational aggression is aimed at damaging the other person‘s self-esteem or peer relationships, such as by ostracism or threats of ostracism, cruel gossip, or facial expressions of disdain. Retaliatory aggression, aggression to get back at someone who has hurt you, increases during the 6- to 12-year-old period. Bullying is a complex form of aggression in which one child, the bully, routinely aggresses against one or more victims, children who are habitually targeted by one or more bullies. Bullies exhibit physical, verbal, and/or relational aggression toward their victims. Level: Moderate Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_91_Patterns of Aggression Which considerations are involved in making a diagnosis of conduct disorder?

Answer: When bullying is particularly severe and is accompanied by other antisocial behaviors such as destruction of property, theft, deceitfulness, and repetitive violations of family and school rules, a child may be diagnosed with conduct disorder, a psychological disorder in which children‘s social and/or academic functioning is impaired by patterns of antisocial behavior that include bullying, destruction of property, theft, deceitfulness, and/or violations of social rules. The behavioral patterns associated with conduct disorder often persist into adulthood.

Level: Moderate Topic: Patterns of Aggression Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_92_Social Status What are some of the factors external to a child that determine popularity? Are these factors necessary and/or sufficient to be considered ―popular?‖ Answer: Some of the characteristics that differentiate popular children from other children are things outside a child‘s control.

In particular, attractive children and physically larger children are more likely to be popular. However, children‘s social behavior and communication skills seem to be more important than looks or temperament in determining popularity.

Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories TB_10_93_Media Influences Discuss some of the factors that influence the association between media and obesity, especially the role of advertising.

Answer: Researchers who study correlations between media and childhood obesity have raised concerns about the sedentary nature of video watching. They also point out that television programs and many online videos expose children to advertising and other types of messages that positively portray food choices that promote obesity. The effect of such messages on children‘s food preferences has been documented in research in which children view a video that includes such a message about a particular food item. Next, children are offered the opportunity to choose the food item in the video from an array of choices. A majority of children choose the food item that was targeted in the video.

Level: Moderate Topic: Media Influences Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development TB_10_94_Media Influences What is the digital divide, and what consequences does it hold for children?

Answer: Despite the growing prevalence of media devices in children‘s lives, a digital divide, variations in access to computers and other devices across income groups, remains. Interestingly, the percentages of children who own their own smartphones vary little across income groups, and the daily screen time trend across income levels is the opposite of that associated with device access. This may be because children in lower-income homes are just as likely as those in higher-income homes to have their own smartphones, but children in lower-income homes are less likely to be enrolled in sports programs, music lessons, and other extracurricular activities. Likewise, most children do at least some studying and homework online these days. Children who have smartphones but, due to the digital divide, lack an internet-capable computer or tablet in the home may be using their phones to complete assignments, an activity that is likely to require more time on a mobile device than it does on a computer.

Level: Difficult Topic: Media Influences

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Skill: Analyze It LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development

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Essay Questions TB_10_95_The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives What were Albert Bandura‘s criticisms of psychoanalytic and trait theories? In his social-cognitive theory, how does he ―compensate‖ for these shortcomings?

Answer: Albert Bandura argued that both psychoanalytic and trait theories concentrated on only one set of factors that shape the development of self-perceived competence in middle childhood. He introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, in which the personal, behavioral, and environmental components that shape self-perception interact with each other and influence each other.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Trait and Social-Cognitive Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.1.2: Summarize the main ideas of the trait and social-cognitive theories of personality TB_10_96_The Valued Self Define self-esteem. Identify and describe two primary influences on self-esteem in middle childhood.

Answer: Self-esteem is defined as the assessment and perception of one‘s own social skills. Key factors include the amount of discrepancy between what the child desires and what they think should have been achieved, as well as overall support that the child feels they are receiving from the important people around them. Of primary importance here is the child‘s perception and whether it reflects reality.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Valued Self Skill: Analyze It LO 10.2.2: Explain the development of self-esteem TB_10_97_The Child as Psychologist What happens to the way in which children describe others at around the age of 7 or 8 years?

Answer: There is a dramatic shift in their description of others. They focus more on inner traits and qualities. They describe others‘ physical features, but they use these descriptors to refer to more general points about internal qualities.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Child as Psychologist Skill: Analyze It LO 10.3.1: Identify the change in children‘s perception of others that occurs in middle childhood TB_10_98_Moral Reasoning Give at least four examples of how adults can foster healthy moral reasoning in children.

Answer: There are many possibilities here. Some examples might include behaviors such as being sure to praise a child for exhibiting good manners, such as saying ―please‖ and ―thank you.‖ Another example might be to challenge a child‘s egocentric thinking if the child has harmed another child or adult by asking the child to reflect on their own feelings in a similar situation.

Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.3.2: Summarize Piaget‘s stages of moral development TB_10_99_No Easy Answers—Bullies and Victims Explain some of the current trends in research regarding how to address bullying in schools. Using critical thinking, express your opinion of these proposals.

Answer: The most recent and profound change in thinking is that the behavior of bullying targets needs to be addressed as well as the behavior of the bullies. Targets tend to have personality characteristics that may make them easier prey for bullies. If the targets of bullies are able to increase their self-esteem and increase their numbers of friends, for example, they will less likely be fodder for bullies. Critics of this thinking say that it may actually send the message that the bullying is the fault of the target.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—Bullies and Victims Skill: Evaluate It LO 10.5.1: Identify the types of aggression that are most common among school-age children TB_10_100_Social Status Summarize the behavioral differences between withdrawn/rejected children and aggressive/rejected children.

Answer: Withdrawn/rejected children realize that they are disliked by their peers and tend to give up and become isolated.

Aggressive/rejected children tend to believe that their peers like them and they will be disruptive and uncooperative.

Level: Moderate Topic: Social Status Skill: Analyze It LO 10.5.2: Compare the behaviors associated with social status categories

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TB_10_101_Poverty Summarize some of the factors that lead to both resilience and vulnerability among children who are living in families with poverty-level incomes.

Answer: Despite the risks, most children living in poverty develop along the same lines as their more economically secure peers.

For developmentalists, resilient children are those whose development is comparable to that of children who do not live in poverty. Vulnerable children are those who develop problems as a result of living in poverty. Developmentalists think of poverty in terms of accumulated stresses. Thus, vulnerable children are those who are exposed to multiple stressors. However, protective factors can be effective moderators of the stresses associated with poverty. Certain characteristics of children themselves provide some degree of protection from poverty stressors. For example, children who are easygoing and sociable, possess age-appropriate emotion regulation skills, and are motivated to achieve in school are more likely than peers with less favorable profiles to be classified as resilient children. Community protective factors include religious institutions and other organizations that have engaging children‘s programs. High-poverty schools provide additional protective factors such as afterschool and summer programs. Family variables such as parenting style, parenting goals, and involvement of extended family are probably the most effective protective factors.

Level: Difficult Topic: Poverty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.6.1: Explain the factors that contribute to resilience and vulnerability among children living in families with povertylevel incomes TB_10_102_Media Influences Assume that you are the parent of a child between the ages of 8 and 11. Based on research findings, what kinds of rules, if any, would you set around television watching and Internet usage for your child?

Answer: Educational programming could be allowed, but parents need to realize that children may not take an interest in it.

Aggressive television and video games need to be monitored or avoided altogether as there is substantial correlational evidence that viewing aggression increases aggressive behavior in children who take interest in this kind of programming. Children tend to use the Internet for play rather than homework or education, so use of the Internet needs to be monitored.

Level: Difficult Topic: Media Influences Skill: Apply What You Know LO 10.6.2: Summarize the influence of media on children‘s development

TEST BANK CHAPTER 11: PHYSICAL AND COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN ADOLESCENCE Multiple-Choice Questions TB_11_01_Physical Changes in Adolescence Which developmental stage immediately follows childhood and precedes adulthood?

A) The period between the ages of 10 and 14 B) The transition to puberty C) The transitional period between childhood and adulthood D) The transitional period from childhood to teenagehood Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Physical Changes in Adolescence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.1: Outline changes in the brain and other body systems during adolescence TB_11_02_Brain Development and Physical Growth One notable aspect of the transformation from childhood to adolescence involves a period of very rapid growth in height and weight called A) menarche.

B) menopause.

C) the growth spurt.

D) maturation.

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Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Brain Development and Physical Growth Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.1: Outline changes in the brain and other body systems during adolescence TB_11_03_Brain Development and Physical Growth During a growth spurt, which body area likely grows first?

A) The torso B) Arms and legs C) Hands and feet D) The brain Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Brain Development and Physical Growth Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.1: Outline changes in the brain and other body systems during adolescence TB_11_04_Brain Development and Physical Growth During adolescence, male teens are more advanced than female teens in which aspect of physical development?

A) Attainment of adult height B) Joints of the skeletal system C) Acquisition of fat tissue D) Size of heart and lungs Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Brain Development and Physical Growth Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.1: Outline changes in the brain and other body systems during adolescence TB_11_05_Milestones of Puberty Which group of hormones is responsible for the development of the sex organs?

A) Testosterone in females and estradiol in males B) General growth hormones C) Estradiol in females and testosterone in males D) Thyroid gland hormones Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_06_Milestones of Puberty The sequence of hormonal changes that lead to puberty begins around which age?

A) 7 or 8 B) 9 or 10 C) 11 or 12 D) 13 or 14 Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_07_Milestones of Puberty The __________ gland signals the body to increase production of growth hormones that interact with sex hormones to cause the growth spurt and onset of puberty.

A) pituitary B) thyroid C) adrenal D) hypothalamus Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Milestones of Puberty

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Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_08_Milestones of Puberty Zhenya and Alfred are both going through puberty. Zhenya‘s breasts and nipples appear as small mounds, and Alfred‘s penis is enlarged, mainly in length. Based on these physical features, which Tanner stages are Zhenya and Alfred currently in?

A) Zhenya is in stage 1; Alfred is in stage 3 B) Zhenya is in stage 2; Alfred is in stage 3 C) Zhenya is in stage 3; Alfred is in stage 2 D) Zhenya is in stage 3; Alfred is in stage 1 Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_09_Milestones of Puberty Which occurrence defines menarche?

A) The beginning of puberty marked by the development of breast buds B) Growth of the uterus during puberty C) The onset of menstruation at puberty D) Increase in body fat at puberty Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_10_Milestones of Puberty Which change in primary sex characteristics takes place during puberty?

A) Growth of the breasts B) Changing voice pitch C) Growth of pubic hair D) Growth of the uterus Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_11_Milestones of Puberty Which development is an example of changes in secondary sex characteristics during puberty?

A) Growth of the testes B) Growth of the breasts C) Growth of the penis D) Growth of the ovaries Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_12_Milestones of Puberty Which term refers to the onset of the first menstrual cycle?

A) Menstruation B) Ovarianation C) Secularization D) Menarche Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty

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TB_11_13_Milestones of Puberty Which event is the earliest visible sign of puberty for a female?

A) Menstruation B) Changes in breast development and the presence of pubic hair C) Growth spurt D) Development of a mesomorphic body type Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_14_Milestones of Puberty Changes in the patterns of physical growth and development, known as a secular trend, are most likely caused by which factor?

A) An increasingly sexualized society B) Increased levels of demand and stress placed upon children and adolescents C) Improvements in lifestyle and diet D) Cultural values that favor a thin, angular body image Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_15_Milestones of Puberty When physical characteristics, such as early onset of menstruation or increased height and weight due to better nutrition, change over the course of several generations, it is called a A) generational cycle.

B) primary characteristic.

C) secular trend.

D) secondary characteristic.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Remember the Facts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_16_Milestones of Puberty Which statement about menarche is correct?

A) Among females in industrialized countries, menarche occurs, on average, between the ages of 8 and 10.

B) Menarche typically occurs 2 years after the beginning of indicators such as changes in breasts and pubic hair.

C) Only 50% of females experience menarche between the ages of 11 and 15.

D) In industrialized countries, the average age of menarche has remained fairly stable for more than 100 years.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_17_Milestones of Puberty Stephanie has entered precocious puberty at age 6, showing growth in her breasts and the presence of pubic hair. Her pediatrician is meeting with Stephanie‘s parents and correctly explains to them A) ―This is clearly unusual. The first thing I‘d like to investigate is a medical cause, such as a tumor or a dysfunction of the endocrine system.‖ B) ―Well, these things happen. Some females just develop earlier than others, so have the proper discussions and make the necessary adjustments.‖ C) ―Huh. Never seen this before. I‘m not sure what could be causing this. Let‘s just see what happens over the next year or so.‖ D) ―The most immediate cause of these rapid, early changes is diet. Tell me, has Stephanie been consuming a lot of protein and calcium in particular?‖

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Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_18_Milestones of Puberty Connie has just turned 13 years old, and she recently experienced menarche. If Connie becomes sexually active, will she be at risk for pregnancy?

A) Possibly. Although irregular menstrual cycles are the norm for some time, pregnancy is possible.

B) Not likely, as irregular menstrual cycles signal the absence of ovulation.

C) No. The irregularity of menstrual cycles after menarche means that it would be impossible to have intercourse during an ovulatory cycle.

D) Probably not. She would be too young to get pregnant.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_19_Milestones of Puberty Which event in males‘ puberty typically occurs earliest?

A) Growth of the genitals B) Peak of the growth spurt C) Growth of a beard D) Lowering of the voice Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_20_Milestones of Puberty Which observation is true of spermarche?

A) Its onset varies considerably across different racial and ethnic groups.

B) It typically occurs between 13 and 14 years of age, but the production of viable sperm does not happen until a few months later.

C) It typically occurs between 15 and 16 years of age.

D) Viable sperm production usually occurs a few months prior to the first ejaculation.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_21_The Timing of Puberty Early maturation in females may result in A) developing a negative body image.

B) admiration from less mature classmates.

C) intellectual maturity outpacing their peers.

D) lowered popularity and decreased social functioning.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Timing of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.3: Describe how the timing of puberty affects adolescents‘ development TB_11_22_The Timing of Puberty Which group statistically is more likely to occupy leadership roles but also be at increased risk for substance use?

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A) Late-maturing girls B) Early-maturing boys C) Late-maturing boys D) Early-maturing girls Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Timing of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.3: Describe how the timing of puberty affects adolescents‘ development TB_11_23_The Timing of Puberty Compared to the others, which person statistically is most likely to become sexually active at an early age?

A) Franklin, who completed puberty at age 16 and scores low in extraversion B) Quinn, who completed puberty at 13 and scores low in agreeableness C) Lacey, who completed puberty at age 12 and scores high in openness to experience D) Corrado, who completed puberty at age 14 and scores high in neuroticism Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The Timing of Puberty Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.1.3: Describe how the timing of puberty affects adolescents‘ development TB_11_24_Sexual Behavior Which factor is most likely to influence whether teens become sexually active across cultures?

A) Social factors B) Hormones C) Nutritional levels D) Levels of sex education Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Behavior Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.1: Describe the patterns of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States TB_11_25_Sexual Behavior Compared to the others, which group of high school students is the least likely to report ever having had sex?

A) Hispanic students B) Black students C) Asian students D) White students Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Behavior Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.1: Describe the patterns of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States TB_11_26_Sexual Behavior Just over __________ of sexually active high school females in 2019 reported being on the birth control pill.

A) 16% B) 25% C) 58% D) 72% Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Behavior Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.1: Describe the patterns of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States TB_11_27_Sexual Behavior Which statement about sex education programs is correct?

A) All sex education programs are effective.

B) Most sex education programs are effective.

C) Most sex education programs are ineffective.

D) There is no clear consensus on the effectiveness of various sex education programs.

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Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Behavior Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.1: Describe the patterns of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States TB_11_28_Adolescent Pregnancy Compared to the others, which industrialized country reports the lowest rate of births to females under 20 years of age?

A) Germany B) The United States C) Sweden D) China Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Adolescent Pregnancy Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_29_Adolescent Pregnancy What is the annual pregnancy rate in the United States for females younger than 15?

A) Less than 1% B) 5% C) 8% D) 12% Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Adolescent Pregnancy Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_30_Adolescent Pregnancy Which statement about adolescent pregnancy is true?

A) The highest rate of teenage pregnancy is among female adolescents under the age of 15.

B) The teenage pregnancy rate has steadily increased since the 1960s.

C) The rate of births to married teenagers has increased since the 1960s.

D) Pregnancy is most likely to happen after a female adolescent leaves high school.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Adolescent Pregnancy Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_31_Adolescent Pregnancy Which statement about births to females under 20 years of age in the United States is correct?

A) Teen birth rates have steadily risen since 1990 to a current 30-year high.

B) Teen birth rates have remained low and stable since 1990, whereas teen abortion rates have declined slowly.

C) Both teen birth rates and abortion rates have declined since 1990.

D) Teen birth rates have declined over the past 30 years, just as teen abortion rates have risen during that same period.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Adolescent Pregnancy Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_32_Adolescent Pregnancy Which phase is one of the stages of crisis intervention in teen pregnancy?

A) Giving support B) Denial C) Determining causality D) Assigning blame Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Adolescent Pregnancy Skill: Analyze It

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LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_33_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Which term relates to the object of a person‘s sexual attraction and behavior?

A) Assigned sex B) Gender roles C) Sexual orientation D) Gender identity Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_34_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence What is the concordance rate of same-sex attraction in fraternal twins?

A) 20% B) 30% C) 50% D) 60% Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_35_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence What is the concordance rate of same-sex attraction in identical twins?

A) 10–20% B) 30–40% C) 50–60% D) 70–80% Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_36_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Tony was born with genitalia associated with both sexes. Developmentalists would characterize Tony as belonging to which sexual and gender minority group?

A) Asexual B) Transgender C) Intersex D) Bisexual Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_37_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Which term applies to a person whose psychological gender does not fully align with their assigned sex at birth?

A) Bisexual B) Transgender C) Questioning D) Asexual Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_38_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence

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For whom would gender-affirmative care be most appropriate?

A) Bobbie, an 11-year-old male who is beginning to feel a sexual attraction toward boys B) Lonnie, a 4-year-old male who likes to play with both dolls and construction toys C) Cheryl, a 19-year-old female who is attracted to other females D) Raymond, a 15-year-old male who has been experiencing gender dysphoria Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_39_Sensation Seeking What is the relationship between risk-seeking behavior and the media?

A) Teens who watch more than 40 hours of television per week are more likely to engage in sensation seeking.

B) The correlation between media influences and risk taking is negative.

C) Teens who are highest in sensation seeking are most strongly influenced by media portrayals of risky behavior.

D) There is no evidence associating media portrayals of risky behavior and sensation seeking.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Sensation Seeking Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.1: Describe the relationship between sensation seeking and risky behavior TB_11_40_Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Among 8th-graders in the United States, what has the trend been since 1990 in the percentage of teens who report use of illicit drugs?

A) A high percentage, and rising slowly B) A low percentage, and decreasing dramatically C) A high percentage, and rising rapidly D) A low percentage, remaining relatively unchanged recently Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.2: Explain patterns of drug, alcohol, and tobacco use among adolescents in the United States TB_11_41_Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Which illicit substance do teens use most often?

A) Alcohol B) Cocaine C) Marijuana D) Heroin Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.3.2: Explain patterns of drug, alcohol, and tobacco use among adolescents in the United States TB_11_42_Eating Disorders

Lia is a 17-year-old female who weighs 82 pounds and is gaunt and frail. Although she fears food and eating, she focuses on food by talking about it, collecting cookbooks, and cooking huge meals for others. Whenever she looks at herself in the mirror, she thinks she is disgustingly fat.

Lia would most likely be diagnosed with A) anorexia nervosa.

B) binge eating disorder.

C) bipolar disorder.

D) bulimia.

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Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_43_Eating Disorders Josephina is a 16-year-old female who privately eats large quantities of food, but then purges right after by vomiting and taking laxatives. Josephina would most likely be diagnosed with A) anorexia nervosa.

B) obesity.

C) bulimia.

D) rickets.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_44_Eating Disorders The eating disorder bulimia nervosa is characterized by A) obsessive dieting that results in death by starvation.

B) significant weight loss.

C) episodes of binge eating that are followed by purging activities.

D) metabolic dysfunction that triggers compulsive and excessive eating.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_45_Eating Disorders Which feature is associated with bulimia nervosa?

A) Excessive weight loss B) Cessation of menstruation C) Thick, matted hair D) Tooth decay Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_46_Eating Disorders At least _________ of teenage females have at least one symptom of an eating disorder.

A) 12% B) 25% C) 33% D) 51% Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Remember the Facts LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_47_Eating Disorders Which condition has been proposed by theorists as a possible risk factor for the development of eating disorders?

A) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) B) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

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C) Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) D) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_48_Eating Disorders Which term describes an excessive need for control of the environment?

A) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder B) Manic personality disorder C) Histrionic personality disorder D) Borderline personality disorder Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_49_Depression and Suicide Which condition may create a developmental pathway for adolescent depression?

A) Growing up with parent who have been diagnosed with depression B) Growing up in a religion that emphasizes traditional gender roles C) Growing up in a low socioeconomic status family D) Having many siblings Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents TB_11_50_Depression and Suicide Which factor is likely to contribute to the development of depression among adolescents?

A) Genetic factors B) Large family size C) Average self-esteem D) Family responsibilities and chores Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents TB_11_51_Depression and Suicide What percentage of high school students in the United States has seriously considered suicide?

A) 1% B) 7% C) 16% D) 25% Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents TB_11_52_Depression and Suicide Why are female adolescents less likely than male adolescents to complete suicide?

A) They are more prone to suicidal ―faking.‖ B) They lack access to lethal means.

C) They tend to use means that are less successful, such as self-poisoning.

D) Fewer female adolescents attempt suicide, therefore fewer complete the act.

Answer: C Level: Moderate

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Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents TB_11_53_Depression and Suicide Which condition is recognized as a common factor among suicide completers?

A) History of parental divorce B) Altered mental state through alcohol, drugs, or emotional upset C) Poor grades in school D) Abnormal sexual behaviors Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents TB_11_54_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Jean Piaget proposed that children reach the formal operational stage of cognitive development around age A) 8.

B) 12.

C) 16.

D) 20.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_55_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage According to Jean Piaget, adolescents rely on __________ during the formal operational stage of cognitive development, because it helps them reason differently than children in the concrete operations stage.

A) an enlarged prefrontal cortex B) genetic abilities C) systematic problem solving D) trial and error experience from previous years Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_56_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Fourteen-year-old Muhammed won a contest sponsored by the local television station to celebrate a championship basketball game. The object of the contest was to determine how many words could be made from the word ―basketball.‖ (It turns out the answer is 262.) Which newly developed ability of formal operational thought was most helpful to Muhammed?

A) The ability to reason about objects or situations not previously seen or experienced B) The ability to search systematically and methodically for the solutions to a problem C) The ability to use ethical principles for decision-making D) The ability to start with a theory and a prediction and arrive at a conclusion Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_57_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Charlene has achieved formal operational thought and is about to attempt Jean Piaget‘s pendulum task. What can Charlene now do that she was unable to do when she was previously in the concrete operations stage?

A) Formulate an approach to the task

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B) Try out varying combinations of height, weight, force, and length C) Measure the length of the string, the height of the pendulum, and the weight of the object D) Evaluate the effects of multiple factors in a systematic, methodical fashion Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_58_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Rigoberto, age 15, thought he had prepared for his final exams; however, when he got his scores he was disappointed. Rather than reviewing the areas of the test where he did not fare so well, Rigoberto confronted his teacher with a verbal lashing and accused the teacher of being ―out to get him.‖ Rigoberto‘s behavior could be considered an example of A) self-efficacy.

B) self-deceit.

C) adolescent egocentrism.

D) sensorimotor operations.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_59_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Ksenya, age 14, primps in front of every mirror she comes across, and believes that she is the focus of everyone‘s attention, including fictitious observers. Ksenya is assuming the existence of A) adolescent egocentrism.

B) an imaginary audience.

C) sensorimotor failure.

D) a personal fable.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_60_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Sid is asked why he didn‘t invite Nancy to the party on Saturday night. ―I was going to,‖ Sid explained, ―but I thought that she‘d know that I wanted to ask her, and then she‘d know that I like her. But I don‘t really like her that much, so I didn‘t ask her so that she wouldn‘t know that I didn‘t know what she wasn‘t thinking.‖ Sid‘s addled adolescent thinking is an example of A) naive idealism.

B) hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

C) adolescent egocentrism.

D) a personal fable.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage

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TB_11_61_Changes in Thinking and Memory High school students perform better than elementary school students in memory task experiments because they A) can apply previously learned memory strategies to the new task.

B) pay closer attention to the task.

C) are more motivated.

D) are more mature and therefore more goal-oriented.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Thinking and Memory Skill: Analyze It LO 11.4.3: Summarize the advances in information-processing abilities that occur during adolescence TB_11_62_Changes in Thinking and Memory Which statement summarizes the research regarding text processing in adolescence?

A) The ability to summarize a text at age 18 is not much different than it is at age 13.

B) Overall, students in U.S. high schools are unable to summarize and comprehend their reading assignments.

C) The ability to summarize a text improves gradually during the second half of adolescence.

D) Sixteen-year-olds are likely to use only the first and third of four possible rules when writing summaries.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Changes in Thinking and Memory Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.4.3: Summarize the advances in information-processing abilities that occur during adolescence TB_11_63_Transition to Secondary School Which statement describes the transition from elementary school to high school?

A) Students experience losses in academic achievement and self-esteem.

B) Students generally have a smooth transition and easy adaptation to the different demands of a new educational environment.

C) Students establish higher personal standards and goals for success.

D) Students have increased competence and self-efficacy.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Analyze It LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_64_Transition to Secondary School Marla wants to be the best euphonium player in the school band, better than everyone else. Marla is motivated by which type of goal?

A) Ability B) Extrinsic C) Inductive D) Task Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_65_Transition to Secondary School DeShaun wants to learn calculus so he can become an engineer. He is motivated by which type of goal?

A) Ability B) Metacognitive C) Hypothetical D) Task Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school

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TB_11_66_Transition to Secondary School Which example illustrates a child who has ability goals for academic achievement?

A) Julia loves to cook and wants to open her own restaurant someday.

B) Darren wants to conduct another biology project on fruit flies because he learned so much from his first project.

C) Cindy hopes to score higher on her college entrance exam than any of her brothers and sisters.

D) Eduardo hopes his computer teacher will let him learn the Perl computer programming language for his final project.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_67_Transition to Secondary School Which factor influences adolescent adjustment to secondary school?

A) Middle schools‘ de-emphasis on ability grouping B) The emphasis in middle schools on self-efficacy C) A lack of goal orientation in the individual adolescent D) The perception that the teachers and the school are impersonal and unsupportive Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_68_Sex, Race, Ethnicity, and Achievement in Science and Math Which strategy can prove effective in influencing the science achievement of female adolescents?

A) Requiring advanced courses starting in elementary school B) Participation in learning communities C) Removing choices in course schedules D) Fostering competition with male adolescents Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Sex, Race, Ethnicity, and Achievement in Science and Math Skill: Analyze It LO 11.5.2: Describe the research findings on gender and ethnic differences in achievement among adolescents TB_11_69_Dropping Out of High School What percentage of U.S. high school students graduates at the end of 4 years?

A) 50% B) 65% C) 75% D) 86% Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Dropping Out of High School Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.5.3: Explain the variables that predict the likelihood of dropping out of high school TB_11_70_Dropping Out of High School Which factor is correlated with dropping out of high school?

A) Student‘s height and weight B) Risk-taking behavior C) Being an only child D) Gender Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Dropping Out of High School Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.5.3: Explain the variables that predict the likelihood of dropping out of high school

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_11_71_Milestones of Puberty Outwardly visible changes in sexual maturity that occur during puberty are referred to as ________ sex characteristics.

Answer: secondary Level: Easy Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_72_Milestones of Puberty The first ejaculation in males is called ________.

Answer: spermarche Level: Easy Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_73_Sexual Behavior Females who have experienced __________ menarche are also more likely to be sexually active.

Answer: early Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Behavior Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.1: Describe the patterns of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States TB_11_74_Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Mary‘s gender identity does not fully align with her assigned sex at birth. Mary‘s identity in this regard is ____________.

Answer: transgender Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual and Gender Diversity in Adolescence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.2.3: Explain the emergence of sexual orientation and gender identity in adolescence TB_11_75_Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco The incidence of illicit drug use among teens was ________ in recent years than in the 1970s.

Answer: lower Level: Moderate Topic: Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.2: Explain patterns of drug, alcohol, and tobacco use among adolescents in the United States TB_11_76_Eating Disorders LaRhonda, although extremely thin, looks in the mirror and sees excessive body fat. She exercises obsessively and eats very little. LaRhonda might be diagnosed as having ________.

Answer: anorexia nervosa Level: Moderate Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_77_Eating Disorders Recent research indicates that eating disorders may be more attributable to ________ factors than ________ factors.

Answer: psychological; cultural Level: Difficult Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_78_Depression and Suicide

Teens’ temperamental traits, such as emotional regulation, predict _____________ in longitudinal studies.

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Answer: depression Level: Difficult Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents TB_11_79_Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Jean Piaget‘s concept of ________ enables teens to understand metaphors and symbols.

Answer: formal operational thinking Level: Difficult Topic: Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Skill: Analyze It LO 11.4.2: Evaluate the results of research examining formal operational thinking TB_11_80_Transition to Secondary School Goals based on a desire for self-improvement are referred to as ________ goals.

Answer: task Level: Easy Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_81_Transition to Secondary School Giuseppe works out regularly at the gym. He is one of the best players on his soccer team. Giuseppe‘s goal to be the best on his team is an example of a (n) ________ goal.

Answer: ability Level: Moderate Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_82_Sex, Race, Ethnicity, and Achievement in Science and Math

The male–female gap in SAT math scores has existed for decades, although it has ________ in recent years.

Answer: narrowed Level: Moderate Topic: Sex, Race, Ethnicity, and Achievement in Science and Math Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.5.2: Describe the research findings on gender and ethnic differences in achievement among adolescents

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Short Answer Questions TB_11_83_Milestones of Puberty List three glands that contribute to physical growth and development. Identify the hormone that each gland secretes.

Answer: Thyroid secretes thyroxine; adrenal gland secretes adrenal androgen; testes secrete testosterone; ovaries secrete estradiol; pituitary secretes growth hormone.

Level: Difficult Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_84_Milestones of Puberty Using James M. Tanner‘s stages of pubertal development, identify a change that takes place during stage 4 for females and one that takes place for males during stage 3.

Answer: For females in stage 4, areolas and nipples form a secondary mound projecting above the contour of the breasts; for males in stage 3, the penis enlarges slightly in length; testes and scrotum continue to enlarge and first ejaculation takes place.

Level: Difficult Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_85_Adolescent Pregnancy Identify factors that increase the likelihood that a female adolescent will become pregnant.

Answer: a mother who birthed them before age 20; a history of child maltreatment and bullying; family incomes near or below poverty level Level: Moderate Topic: Adolescent Pregnancy Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_86_Sensation Seeking Why are risky behaviors more common in adolescence than during other developmental periods?

Answer: Adolescents engage in risky behavior to gain peer acceptance and to establish autonomy.

Level: Difficult Topic: Sensation Seeking Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.1: Describe the relationship between sensation seeking and risky behavior TB_11_87_Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Why is illicit drug use less common among recent cohorts than in past cohorts of teenagers?

Answer: Researchers attribute this trend to declining approval of drug use among adolescents and to contemporary teens’ better understanding of the negative consequences of taking drugs.

Level: Easy Topic: Drugs, Alcohol, and Tobacco Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.3.2: Explain patterns of drug, alcohol, and tobacco use among adolescents in the United States TB_11_88_Eating Disorders Describe the diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa.

Answer: binge eating, purging through vomiting, laxatives or excessive exercise, normal or high body weight Level: Moderate Topic: Eating Disorders Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.3: Describe the characteristics of eating disorders TB_11_89_Depression and Suicide List three factors that contribute to completed suicide.

Answer: a triggering stressful event; an altered mental state; an opportunity Level: Difficult Topic: Depression and Suicide Skill: Analyze It LO 11.3.4: Identify risk factors for depression and suicide in adolescents

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TB_11_90_Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Eight-year-old Janice and 13-year-old Ben are sitting with their parents at the dinner table. The family is having a discussion about relationships and their mother says, ―Birds of a feather flock together.‖ Explain the differences in how Janice and Ben will interpret this statement in terms of their levels of cognitive development.

Answer: Janice is likely to think of real birds in flocks; Ben is likely to understand that it‘s a metaphor referring to people.

Level: Difficult Topic: Direct Tests of Piaget‘s View Skill: Apply What You Know LO 11.4.2: Evaluate the results of research examining formal operational thinking TB_11_91_Changes in Thinking and Memory What are the components of the dual process model of adolescent thinking?

Answer: The model includes two distinct processes. The cognitive control system—so-called ―cool‖ cognition—is the process of using executive processes, formal reasoning, and other abilities to devise goal-oriented strategies, solve problems, and make decisions. The reward system—so-called ―hot‖ cognition— is the part of the brain that induces positive emotions when you engage in pleasurable activities.

Level: Easy Topic: Changes in Thinking and Memory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.4.3: Summarize the advances in information-processing abilities that occur during adolescence TB_11_92_Transition to Secondary School What are two types of goals that might affect a child‘s transition from primary school to middle school?

Answer: Task goals are based on personal standards and a desire to become more competent at something. An ability goal defines success in competitive terms—being better than another person at something. Longitudinal research shows that most fifth-graders have task goals, but by the time they have been in sixth grade for a few months, most children have shifted to ability goals.

Level: Moderate Topic: Transition to Secondary School Skill: Analyze It LO 11.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to variations in the ways that adolescents respond to the transition to secondary school TB_11_93_Sex, Race, Ethnicity, and Achievement in Science and Math What are learning communities, and how do they relate to science achievement for some adolescents?

Answer: Offering females the opportunity to participate in learning communities—small groups of students who take courses together—may be an effective means of increasing their science achievement.

Level: Easy Topic: Sex, Race, Ethnicity, and Achievement in Science and Math Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 11.5.2: Describe the research findings on gender and ethnic differences in achievement among adolescents TB_11_94_Dropping Out of High School Identify three factors that contribute to dropping out of high school.

Answer: history of academic failure; pattern of aggressive behavior; poor decision-making abilities Level: Difficult Topic: Dropping Out of High School Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.5.3: Explain the variables that predict the likelihood of dropping out of high school

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Essay Questions TB_11_95_Brain Development and Physical Growth Summarize the physical changes that correlate with motor skill development in adolescence. Explain some of the differences between females and males that occur.

Answer: The shape and proportions of an adolescent‘s body go through a series of changes. During the growth spurt, the normal cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns are reversed. Thus, a teenager‘s hands and feet are the first body parts to grow to full adult size, followed by the arms and legs; the trunk is usually the slowest-growing part. As they do at younger ages, male adolescents continue to lag behind female adolescents. In early adolescence, this difference is very large; females achieve complete development of the wrist by their mid-teens. A similar pattern of differences is evident in other joints as well, enabling early adolescent females to outperform males of the same age on a variety of athletic skills that require coordination, such as pitching a softball. However, by age 17 or 18, males finally catch up with females in joint development and, on average, gain superiority over females in coordinated movement. Muscle fibers become thicker and denser, and adolescents become quite a lot stronger in just a few years. Both male and female adolescents show this increase in strength, but it is much greater in males.

Level: Difficult Topic: Brain Development and Physical Growth Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.1.1: Outline changes in the brain and other body systems during adolescence TB_11_96_Milestones of Puberty Explain the concept of the secular trend and apply it to adolescent sexual development.

Answer: The timing of menarche changed rather dramatically between the mid-19th and the mid-20th centuries. In 1840, the average age of menarche in Western industrialized countries was roughly 17; the average age dropped steadily from that time until the 1950s, at a rate of about 4 months per decade among European populations, an example of what psychologists call a secular trend. The change was most likely caused by significant changes in lifestyle and diet, particularly increases in protein and fat intake, that resulted in an increase in the proportion of body fat in females. Data collected over much shorter periods of time in developing countries support the nutritional explanation of the secular trend.

Level: Moderate Topic: Milestones of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.2: List the major milestones of puberty TB_11_97_The Timing of Puberty How does an adolescent‘s personality and their caregivers‘ parenting style interact with the timing of puberty to influence sexual behavior?

Answer: Personality traits contribute to the effects of pubertal timing. It appears that females who experience early puberty and who are high in the Big Five trait of openness to experience are more likely to be sexually active at an early age than are females who are early but who do not possess this trait. Parenting also moderates the effects of pubertal timing such that both early maturing males and females are more likely to become involved in sexual activity and substance abuse if their parents are permissive.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Timing of Puberty Skill: Analyze It LO 11.1.3: Describe how the timing of puberty affects adolescents‘ development TB_11_98_Sexual Behavior Summarize the frequency of contraceptive use among U.S. teens, with comparisons to previous cohorts of teenagers.

Answer: Nearly 90% of sexually active high school students report having used some form of contraception the last time they had intercourse. Moreover, rates of condom use have increased among teens. In 1988, only 31% of sexually experienced females and 53% sexually experienced males reported having used a condom. By 2019, rates of condom use rose to 50% of female teens and 60% of male teens. However, teens today are less likely to use birth control pills than their counterparts in earlier decades. Just over 25% of sexually active high school females in 2019 reported being on the pill, compared to 42% of this age group in 1988. Thus, many developmentalists and public health advocates say that more effective sex education programs are needed.

Level: Difficult Topic: Sexual Behavior Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.2.1: Describe the patterns of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States TB_11_99_Adolescent Sexuality List the steps involved in crisis intervention for a pregnant adolescent.

Answer: Step 1: Define the problem Step 2: Ensure safety Step 3: Give support

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Step 4: Examine alternatives Step 5: Develop a plan Step 6: Make a commitment Level: Difficult Topic: Adolescent Sexuality Skill: Analyze It LO 11.2.2: Identify the factors that contribute to teen pregnancies TB_11_100_Sensation Seeking In terms of adolescent behavior, what is meant by sensation seeking? How is sensation seeking a risk factor in adolescent development? What types of behaviors are linked to sensation seeking in adolescents?

Answer: Sensation seeking is a desire to experience increased levels of arousal and ―highs‖ associated with risky behavior. This behavior has the potential to lead to accidental injury or death. Most common behaviors include drug or alcohol abuse, reckless driving, unprotected sex, and so on.

Level: Difficult Topic: Sensation Seeking Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.3.1: Describe the relationship between sensation seeking and risky behavior TB_11_101_Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Explain the differences in formal operational thought between younger and older teens. How did Jean Piaget account for these differences?

Answer: Younger teens are likely to only focus on the short-term consequences of a behavior or decision. This is explained by some developmentalists as a failure to use formal operational thinking at all, and as evidence of the persistence of concrete thinking. Piaget thought that it was simply due to lack of sufficient experience to fully develop formal operations.

Level: Difficult Topic: Piaget‘s Formal Operational Stage Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.4.1: Outline the changes in reasoning that occur during the formal operational stage TB_11_102_Dropping Out of High School Discuss the risk factors associated with dropping out of high school.

Answer: It is important to remember that the majority of students across all ethnic and income groups stay in school. Those who don‘t—again, regardless of group—share several risk factors. Longitudinal studies show that students who have a history of academic failure in eighth and ninth grade are more likely to drop out than peers. Additional risk factors include patterns of tardiness, absenteeism, aggressive behavior, violations of school rules such as dress code and prohibited electronic devices, and poor decisions about risky behavior. With respect to risky behavior, decisions about sexual intercourse seem to be especially critical. For females, giving birth and getting married are strongly linked to dropping out. Another risky behavior, adolescent tobacco use, is a strong predictor of dropping out.

Level: Moderate Topic: Dropping Out of High School Skill: Evaluate It LO 11.5.3: Explain the variables that predict the likelihood of dropping out of high school

TEST BANK CHAPTER 12: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN ADOLESCENCE Multiple-Choice Questions TB_12_01_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which theorist thought the issues of identity and role confusion were central to adolescent development?

A) Sigmund Freud B) Erik Erikson C) Albert Bandura D) Jean Piaget Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage

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TB_12_02_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which of Sigmund Freud‘s psychosexual stage is reached in the postpubertal years?

A) Latency B) Genital C) Anal D) Phallic Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_03_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Which represents Erik Erikson‘s central crisis of adolescence?

A) Latency versus psychosexual development B) Industry versus inferiority C) Intimacy versus isolation D) Identity versus role confusion Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_04_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Barry has been struggling to get through Erik Erikson‘s identity-versus-role-confusion stage. Which consequence is likely to result for Barry?

A) He will conclude he is a unique individual, because he can’t integrate well socially with others.

B) He will revert to the trust-versus-mistrust stage of psychosocial development.

C) He will feel regret over missed opportunities in life.

D) He will be uncertain about the roles he should fulfill in life.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_05_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Erik Erikson used which term to refer to the period when an adolescent is troubled by the lack of identity?

A) Role confusion B) Identity crisis C) Identity search D) Identity dispersion Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_06_Psychoanalytic Perspectives According to Erik Erikson, why do teenagers identify with peer groups?

A) To have opportunities to develop intimate relationships and find mates B) To foster creativity and variety in appearance, activities, and interests C) To have a secure base as they begin the identity development process D) To consolidate efforts and resources as they begin to move into adult roles Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It

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LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_07_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Psychologist James Marcia proposed that adolescent identity can be seen in terms of two characteristics, which are A) industry and withdrawal.

B) inferiority and assertiveness.

C) identity acceptance and identity refusal.

D) crisis or commitment.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_08_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Which example is consistent with the concept of a crisis, as defined by James Marcia?

A) When Cyndi failed her calculus test, her parents grounded her for 2 weeks and imposed a requirement of 2 hours of supervised study every school night until the next exam.

B) Since she was a child, Alina had planned to become a physician when she grew up. Recently, however, she has become very interested in physics, and now she is evaluating related career options such as engineering.

C) Torrential rains in the Midwest caused major flooding, and thousands of people were displaced from their homes and lost their possessions and livelihoods.

D) For the past 2 years, Juan has had thoughts of suicide, and recently he was diagnosed with depressive disorder.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_09_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement According to James Marcia‘s view of adolescent development, commitment is A) a time when an adolescent consciously chooses between various alternatives and makes decisions.

B) a psychological investment in a course of action or an ideology.

C) a period when an adolescent is mature enough to begin a committed romantic relationship.

D) a period of identity development when the adolescent decides whether to concentrate on self-development versus relationship development.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_10_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement According to James Marcia, the status of adolescents who commit to a particular identity following a period of crisis is called A) achievement.

B) diffusion.

C) foreclosure.

D) moratorium.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_11_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement

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Pimchan is planning to go to nursing school because her parents work at the local clinic. She has never even considered other options. Pimchan is in which stage of identity development, according to James Marcia?

A) Achievement B) Foreclosure C) Moratorium D) Diffusion Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_12_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Bartholomew thinks he wants to be a firefighter, but he is not sure. He is working with his high school career counselor to get information about careers and college majors before he makes a decision. According to James Marcia, Bartholomew is in which stage of identity development?

A) Achievement B) Foreclosure C) Moratorium D) Diffusion Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_13_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Ahmed does not know what he wants to do when he graduates from high school, and he is not worried about it. He says, ―That decision will take care of itself.‖ James Marcia would say that Ahmed is in which stage of identity status?

A) Achievement B) Foreclosure C) Moratorium D) Diffusion Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_14_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement According to James Marcia, the status of adolescents who commit to an identity without adequately exploring alternatives is called A) identity achievement.

B) identity diffusion.

C) identity foreclosure.

D) moratorium.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_15_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement According to James Marcia, the status of adolescents who have explored various identity alternatives to some degree, but have not yet committed themselves, is called A) diffusion.

B) achievement.

C) foreclosure.

D) moratorium.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development

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TB_12_16_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Which might be an advantage in cultures that have clearly identified rites of passage into adulthood?

A) Teenagers are able to establish a clear transition from childhood to adulthood.

B) Teenagers are able to take on careers earlier.

C) Teenagers are encouraged to make career decisions for themselves.

D) Teenagers can more easily resolve the crisis of identity confusion.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_17_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Which statement about teenage employment is true?

A) Working in high school is positively correlated with college success.

B) The risks and potential benefits of working during high school vary by contexts.

C) Adults who worked in high school were more likely to go to college.

D) Employed high school students are less apt to argue with their parents.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_18_Self-Understanding Which statement is true regarding teenagers as they progress through adolescence?

A) Their self-concepts become more concrete.

B) Their self-concepts are increasingly tied to their physical characteristics.

C) They increasingly define themselves in terms of enduring traits, beliefs, moral standards, or personal philosophies.

D) They are increasingly dependent on their parents for their identity.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Understanding Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.1: Identify changes in self-concept and self-esteem during adolescence TB_12_19_Self-Understanding Fourteen-year-old Whitney is searching for her identity. Which strategy would most likely characterize the search for her selfconcept?

A) She would describe herself using only a list of traits.

B) She would have a broad view of herself, and be able to see various aspects of herself simultaneously.

C) She would look at herself from a purely physical perspective.

D) She would be able to consider only her views.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Understanding Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.2.1: Identify changes in self-concept and self-esteem during adolescence TB_12_20_Self-Understanding If an adolescent was exploring their self-concept, the focus would likely be on A) awareness of personal traits as abstractions.

B) looking at various components of the self in isolation.

C) considering only desirable traits.

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D) being unaware of the views of others.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Understanding Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.2.1: Identify changes in self-concept and self-esteem during adolescence TB_12_21_Self-Esteem Compared to the others, which person statistically is most likely to hold a positive sense of their global self-worth?

A) Doug, an 8-year-old male B) Casey, a 20-year-old female C) Marcello, an 11-year-old male D) Jessie, a 10-year-old female Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Esteem Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.2.1: Identify changes in self-concept and self-esteem during adolescence TB_12_22_Gender Role Identity What is the term used by developmentalists to refer to socially defined aspects of personality that are believed to differentiate males from females?

A) Gender role identity B) Gender role assumptions C) Sexual identity D) Gender identity Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_23_Gender Role Identity Which term describes one of the gender role categories identified by researchers?

A) Incomplete B) Defined C) Masculine D) Confused Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_24_Gender Role Identity Arnie is noted for baking the best cheesecake in town and is also the person everyone calls when their car won‘t start. Arnie can comfort a crying child and fix a flat tire with equal competence. Arnie‘s gender role identity is most likely A) feminine.

B) undifferentiated.

C) indeterminate.

D) androgynous.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_25_Gender Role Identity Which term would be applied to someone who exhibits minimal identification with descriptors associated with either masculinity or femininity?

A) Androgynous

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B) Undifferentiated C) Transgendered D) Animistic Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_26_Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) The first stage of Jean Phinney‘s theory of ethnic identity is A) a role-oriented ethnic identity.

B) an unexamined ethnic identity.

C) ethnic identity search.

D) the exploration stage.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.3: Describe the factors that influence ethnic identity development TB_12_27_Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) The ethnic identity search identified by Jean Phinney is analogous to which other concept?

A) The transition to formal operational thought identified by Jean Piaget B) The crisis process described in James Marcia‘s theory of identity development C) Sigmund Freud‘s oral stage of psychosexual development D) The identity-versus-role-confusion stage identified by Erik Erikson Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.2.3: Describe the factors that influence ethnic identity development TB_12_28_Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) The point at which an adolescent becomes aware of how their racial or ethnic group is perceived by the larger culture is part of which stage of Phinney‘s theory of ethnic identity?

A) Ethnic identity search B) Unexamined ethnic identity C) Ethnic identity clarification D) Ethnic identity achievement Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.3: Describe the factors that influence ethnic identity development TB_12_29_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning According to psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg, which stage of moral reasoning views morality in terms of rigid rules and rewards and punishments?

A) Conventional morality B) Postconventional morality C) Unconventional morality D) Preconventional morality Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning

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TB_12_30_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning A second-grade student is tempted to take candy from her friend‘s lunchbox, but decides not to because she is afraid she will get caught. This student is demonstrating A) normative reasoning.

B) preconventional morality.

C) conventional morality.

D) a lack of morality.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_31_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning How many stages are there in Lawrence Kohlberg‘s theory of moral development?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_32_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning The fourth stage of Lawrence Kohlberg‘s levels of moral reasoning is A) law-and-order morality.

B) the adoption of universal moral principles.

C) obedience and punishment orientation.

D) morality of democratically accepted law.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_33_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Ben‘s friend Arlo broke a window and consequently was punished. Ben said that Arlo was bad because he had been punished.

This would indicate that Ben was at which level and stage of moral reasoning?

A) Preconventional morality/punishment and obedience orientation B) Preconventional morality/conscience C) Principled morality/social contract D) Conventional morality/interpersonal conformity Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_34_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Miles believes an action is morally right if it conforms to the rules of society. Most likely, Miles is at the __________ level of moral development.

A) preconventional B) principled C) naive hedonism D) conventional Answer: D Level: Moderate

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Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_35_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning The rules or norms of a group to which the individual belongs, such as the family, peer group, or religion, become the basis of moral judgments during which level of Lawrence Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning?

A) Conventional morality B) Punishment and obedience orientation C) Naive hedonism D) Social contract orientation Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_36_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Mr. Polanski pays his income taxes and obeys the posted speed limits because ―that is the law,‖ he says. Mr. Polanski is most likely reasoning at which stage of moral development?

A) Punishment and obedience orientation B) Preconventional morality C) Postconventional morality D) Social system and conscience Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_37_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning According to Lawrence Kohlberg, the highest stage of moral reasoning is A) individual rights.

B) social contract.

C) universal ethical principles.

D) mutual interpersonal expectations.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_38_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Mr. Vargas provides his history class with a syllabus that outlines the rules and procedures the class will follow to ensure a comfortable environment for all. Mr. Vargas emphasizes that if the rules seem unfair or cause a hardship, he is willing to negotiate new rules. This philosophy of class management is most consistent with which stage of Lawrence Kohlberg‘s moral reasoning?

A) Universal ethical principles B) Social contract C) Law-and-order orientation D) Naive hedonism Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_39_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Which of Lawrence Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning is highly individualized?

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 3 C) Stage 4 D) Stage 6 Answer: D

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Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_40_ Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Lawrence Kohlberg proposed that moral development occurs in a fixed order, and that people are unable to reach the highest stage of moral reasoning until __________ due to __________.

A) middle childhood; lack of cognitive development B) adolescence; lack of experience and peer pressure C) young adulthood; lack of experience D) adolescence; underdevelopment of cognitive skills Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_41_Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Which occurrence was believed by Lawrence Kohlberg to be the most important contributor to moral reasoning?

A) The decline in egocentrism B) The concrete thinking found in Jean Piaget‘s formal operational stage C) The increase in abstract thinking ability D) The movement from abstract to hypothetical thinking Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_42_Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Which term refers to the ability to look at a situation from another person‘s perspective?

A) Role-taking B) Perspective assumptions C) Role reversal D) Egocentrism Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_43_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Which moral principle typically overrides all other concerns of moral judgment in Western societies?

A) Justice B) Wisdom C) Fairness D) Equality Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_44_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Which characteristic is both a cause and a consequence of moral development according to Nancy Eisenberg?

A) Justice B) Wisdom C) Equality

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D) Empathy Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_45_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory What are the two distinct moral orientations proposed by Carol Gilligan?

A) Fairness and ethics B) Intimacy and legality C) Judgment and nurture D) Justice and care Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_46_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory If you believe that there are distinct emphases in the way that females and males tend to perceive moral dilemmas, which theorist‘s orientation would you most likely support?

A) Lawrence Kohlberg B) Carol Gilligan C) Alan Hale, Jr. D) Nancy Eisenberg Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_47_Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Which situation provides an example of antisocial adolescent behavior?

A) The star of the basketball team bullies the other team members into giving him the best opportunities to score.

B) Charles switches the materials and chemicals for the chemistry laboratory exam so that none of the experiments work as they should.

C) Luisa angrily threatens to run away from home if her parents won‘t give her more privileges and be more flexible in their rules.

D) Manny, Moe, and Jack vandalized the park by uprooting newly planted trees, spray painting graffiti, and damaging the park benches.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_48_Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Peter forwards aggressive, hurtful, and taunting social media posts against Gordon, and spreads lies about Gordon electronically.

Which behavior is Peter demonstrating?

A) Cyberbullying B) Naïve idealism C) Postconventional morality D) Unconventional morality Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_49_Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior School-age children and teens who display a consistent pattern of antisocial behavior may be diagnosed with

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A) oppositional defiant disorder.

B) conduct disorder.

C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

D) delinquency.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_50_Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Which trait, evidenced at low levels, is part of the cluster of callous-unemotional traits?

A) Extraversion B)Openness to experience C) Self-efficacy D) Guilt Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_51_Relationships with Parents Like most teens, Annika has two apparently contradictory tasks in her relationship with her parents: to establish autonomy from them and A) to keep her peer relationships separate from them.

B) to question their authority.

C) to maintain a sense of relatedness with them.

D) to maintain a sense of inferiority.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.4.1: Describe adolescents‘ relationships with their parents TB_12_52_Relationships with Parents When parents and their teenagers experience conflict over an issue, which outcome typically results?

A) Teens generally viewing conflicts as more intense than parents do B) Parents give in to the demands of their teenage children C) Children willingly give in to the demands made by their parents D) Parents generally viewing conflicts as more intense than teens do Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.4.1: Describe adolescents‘ relationships with their parents TB_12_53_Relationships with Parents What is true about teens who are close to their parents?

A) They are more likely to participate in sexual intercourse at an early age.

B) They are less likely to use drugs.

C) They suffer more from peer pressure.

D) They tend to be victims of bullying.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.1: Describe adolescents‘ relationships with their parents TB_12_54_Relationships with Parents Which statement summarizes the importance of parent–teen relationships across cultures?

A) The consistency and quality of peer attachments seem to be more important to most teens than the strength of parental

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attachments.

B) Teens who are too attached to their parents tend to have poor peer relationships.

C) The consistency and quality of the parental attachment seem to be more important to most teens than the strength of peer attachments.

D) Peer relationships always take precedence over parental relationships during adolescence.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.4.1: Describe adolescents‘ relationships with their parents TB_12_55_Friendships in Adolescence Compared to the others, which attribute would be the least important characteristic of teenagers‘ friendships?

A) Shared activities B) Sexual attractiveness C) Loyalty and faithfulness D) Stability Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.2: List the characteristics of adolescents‘ friendships TB_12_56_Friendships in Adolescence Compared to the others, which group is most likely to dissolve their friendship?

A) Roxanne, Maryanne, and Suzanne, adolescent females who share a love of quilting B) Holger, Horst, and Heino, adolescent males who played together on the bocce ball team last year C) Jenny, Lenny, and Penny, 40-year-old females who went to high school together in the village of Eustis, Nebraska D) Wanda, Rhonda, and Irving, who live on the same floor of a nursing home facility Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Adolescence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.4.2: List the characteristics of adolescents‘ friendships TB_12_57_Peer Groups Don‘s parents are politically conservative and consider themselves religious. Don‘s values are very much the same as his parents, but he has several friends who are active in politically liberal causes. Don‘s friends ask him to join them for a rally to protest the local library‘s plan to limit teenagers‘ access to the internet. What is Don most likely to do?

A) Join his friends at the rally B) Change his values C) Find a new group of friends D) Put pressure upon his friends to change their course of action Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_58_Peer Groups How do peer group pressures affect adolescents?

A) The typical pattern of peer pressure is to encourage misconduct or negative activities.

B) Adolescents are most likely to choose a peer group that shares their values, attitudes, behavior, and identity status.

C) Until their identity is developed, adolescents will be unable to withstand peer pressure to explore attitudes or behaviors that are inconsistent with their basic values and beliefs.

D) The need to conform to the group increases during adolescence and peaks by age 18 or 19.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_59_Peer Groups According to the earliest research in this area, at what age does peer group conformity peak?

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A) 11–12 years B) 13–15 years C) 15–16 years D) 16–17 years Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_60_Peer Groups A clique is made up of _________ to _________ young people who appear to be strongly attached to one another.

A) 2; 3 B) 4; 6 C) 5; 10 D) 10; 15 Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_61_Peer Groups Which term describes a combination of cliques that includes both male and female members?

A) Crowd B) Cohort C) Peer structure D) Peer group Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_62_Peer Groups Which aggregate is an example of a clique, as originally described by Dexter C. Dunphy?

A) Kwame and Mahmoud have been best friends since they played on the same soccer team in fifth grade.

B) Helena and Raoul have been dating since they were 13, and now they are thinking of marrying.

C) The Delaware Destroyers baseball team won the state championship by setting team goals, playing unselfishly, and practicing every day.

D) Bobby, Mike, Peter, and Greg have shared good and bad times in each other‘s lives since they were 12 years old.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_63_Peer Groups Which statement accurately describes the progression of peer group structures through adolescence?

A) Same-sex cliques combine into crowds that evolve into mixed-gender cliques and loose associations of couples.

B) Crowds dissolve into cliques that reorganize into romantic pairs.

C) Reputation-based groups become identity prototypes that will become either cliques or crowds.

D) Peers separate from cliques to form broader groups based on interests.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_64_Peer Groups Loners, druggies, nerds, geeks, and preppies are all terms that might be used to describe which?

A) Cliques B) Peer groups C) Crowds

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D) Clubs Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_65_Peer Groups Ida Claire‘s adolescent classmates call her and the other members of Scholastic Honor Society ―nerds,‖ meaning she is part of a A) peer group.

B) crowd.

C) clique.

D) cohort.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_66_Romantic Relationships Which observation is true of social interactions in later adolescence?

A) Belonging to a clique of high status becomes more important.

B) Adolescents who don‘t belong to a clique or a crowd tend to date more frequently.

C) Mutual friendships and dating pairs become more important than cliques or crowds.

D) Dating pairs replace mutual friendships.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens TB_12_67_Romantic Relationships Which activity typically helps to prepare adolescents for romantic relationships?

A) Comparing notes with their same-gender friends B) Sex education courses C) Discussions with parents D) Participation in mixed-gender groups of friends Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens TB_12_68_Romantic Relationships Some parents wonder whether teens who do not date are missing out on an essential developmental experience; are they?

A) Yes; without dating experiences these teens are likely to grow up to be adults with a string of failed relationships. B) Difficult to say; dating is not essential to healthy development in adolescence, although other studies have found that romantic relationships serve as a source of social support for some teens.

C) No; there is no empirical evidence that dating or not dating helps the development of outcomes such as depression or wellbeing.

D) Yes; dating is normative behavior, and parents insist that their adolescent children conform to the behavior of others.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens TB_12_69_Romantic Relationships Researchers studied the dating patterns of Chinese and Canadian 16- and 17-year-olds, finding that

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A) far fewer Canadian than Chinese teens were involved in or desired to be involved in romantic relationships.

B) far fewer Chinese than Canadian teens were involved in or desired to be involved in romantic relationships.

C) The 17-year-olds in both groups were less likely than the 16-year-olds to be in a romantic relationship.

D) Both groups desired to be involved in romantic relationships, but small numbers of teens in each group actually were involved in such a relationship.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens TB_12_70_Romantic Relationships Which observation is true of gender diversity in teenagers?

A) A same-sex sexual orientation is less prevalent in teenagers than any other age group.

B) Many gay and lesbian teens go through a period of sexual discovery that begins with experimentation with heterosexual relationships.

C) Gender-diverse teens are likely to ―discover‖ their sexual attractions much later than their heterosexual peers.

D) Transgender and gender diverse adolescents face few challenges with respect to romantic relationships.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_12_71_Theories of Social and Personality Development in Adolescence Jewish teens take part in bet mitzvah (sometimes called a B‘nai mitzvah or B mitvah), which is an example of a ________.

Answer: rite of passage Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Social and Personality Development in Adolescence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_72_Psychoanalytic Perspectives The last of Sigmund Freud‘s stages of psychosexual development is the ________ stage.

Answer: genital Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_73_Psychoanalytic Perspectives Erik Erikson used the term ________ to refer to the period when an adolescent is troubled by a lack of identity.

Answer: identity crisis Level: Easy Topic: Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_74_Gender Role Identity People whose gender role identity is ________ would have similar rates of identification with descriptors associated with masculinity and femininity.

Answer: androgynous Level: Easy Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_75_Gender Role Identity According to Sandra Bem, someone who has minimal identification with descriptors associated with either masculinity or femininity would be considered to be ________ in their gender role identity.

Answer: undifferentiated Level: Easy Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_76_Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) The second stage in Jean Phinney‘s ethnic identity theory is ethnic ________.

Answer: identity search Level: Moderate Topic: Ethnic-Racial Identity (ERI) Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.3: Describe the factors that influence ethnic identity development TB_12_77_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning People who have thought carefully about their moral values and considers what is best for society as well as for themselves, even if it goes against conventional morals, would be in Kohlberg‘s stage of ________.

Answer: universal ethical principles Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning

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TB_12_78_Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning The rules or norms of a group to which the individual belongs, such as the family, peer group, or religion, become the basis of moral judgments during the ________ level of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning.

Answer: conventional morality Level: Moderate Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_79_Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development

The cluster of characteristics that appear to predispose children and adolescents to develop aggressive and antisocial patterns of behavior is called __________.

Answer: callous-unemotional traits Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_80_Friendships in Adolescence In one longitudinal study, approximately ________% of friendships formed by 10th-graders were long-lasting.

Answer: 40 Level: Difficult Topic: Friendships in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.2: List the characteristics of adolescents‘ friendships TB_12_81_Peer Groups A combination of cliques forms a ________.

Answer: crowd Level: Easy Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_82_Romantic Relationships Lesbian, gay, and bisexual teenagers become aware of their sexual attractions at about the age of ________; heterosexual teens become aware of their sexual attractions at about the age of ________.

Answer: 11 or 12; 11 or 12 Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens

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Short Answer Questions TB_12_83_Theories of Social and Personality Development in Adolescence How are rites of passage related to Lev Vygotsky‘s notion of scaffolding?

Answer: Adolescents are conscious of the need to transition to adulthood, and they take many steps toward this goal on their own. But they need adults to lead the way and to support them when their steps toward maturity turn out to be missteps, whether that support occurs in the context of formal rites of passage or in more informal ways.

Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Social and Personality Development in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_84_Psychoanalytic Theories Why did Erik Erikson think that a child‘s early sense of identity comes partly ―unglued‖ during adolescence?

Answer: According to Erikson, the development of a sense of identity is the central developmental task of the stage of identity versus role confusion. He argued that the child‘s early sense of identity comes partly ―unglued‖ in early adolescence because of the combination of rapid body growth and the sexual changes of puberty. Erikson claimed that during this period, the adolescent‘s mind is in a kind of moratorium between childhood and adulthood. The old identity will no longer suffice; a new identity must be forged, one that will equip the young person for the myriad roles of adult life—occupational roles, sexual roles, religious roles, and others.

Level: Moderate Topic: Psychoanalytic Theories Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.1.1: Summarize the identity-versus-role-confusion stage TB_12_85_Self-Understanding As children move into adolescence, their self-concept becomes more differentiated. What does this mean?

Answer: They view themselves differently in different situations; for example, at home with parents, among friends, in school with teachers, and so on.

Level: Difficult Topic: Self-Understanding Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.1: Identify changes in self-concept and self-esteem during adolescence TB_12_86_Gender Role Identity What are the four categories of gender role identity proposed by Sandra Bem? Answer: androgynous; feminine; masculine; undifferentiated Level: Moderate Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_87_Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development What are the names of the two stages in Lawrence Kohlberg‘s first level of moral development?

Answer: Stage 1: punishment and obedience orientation; stage 2: individualism, instrumental purpose, and exchange Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Theory of Moral Reasoning Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_88_Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development How can the correlation between stages of moral development and chronological age be explained?

Answer: The most obvious explanation for the general correlations between Lawrence Kohlberg‘s stages and chronological age is cognitive development. Kohlberg and many other theorists suggest that the decline of egocentrism that occurs as an individual moves through Jean Piaget‘s concrete and formal operational stages is the cognitive-developmental variable that matters most in moral reasoning.

Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.1: Outline Kohlberg‘s stages of moral reasoning TB_12_89_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory What, specifically, do critics of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning say about its applicability to non-Western cultures?

Answer: It underestimates the true moral reasoning of individuals in these cultures.

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Level: Moderate Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_90_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Summarize the criticism of Lawrence Kohlberg‘s stage theory of moral development advanced by Nancy Eisenberg and Carol Gilligan.

Answer: Nancy Eisenberg argued that empathy, the ability to identify with others‘ emotions, is both a cause and a consequence of moral development. Advocates of the approach to moral development proposed by Carol Gilligan claim that an ethic based on caring for others and on maintaining social relationships may be as important to moral reasoning as are ideas about justice.

Level: Easy Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_91_Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Which emotions form the cluster of callous-unemotional traits?

Answer: Developmentalists have identified a cluster of characteristics that appear to predispose children and adolescents to develop aggressive and antisocial patterns of behavior. The cluster includes lower levels of remorse, guilt, and empathy, collectively referred to as callous-unemotional traits. The common thread running through these traits seems to be the inability to perceive distress in other people.

Level: Easy Topic: Moral Development and Antisocial Behavior Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_92_Relationships with Parents What is the relative importance of parental support and peer support to most adolescents?

Answer: Among all ethnicities studied, even though the importance of peer relationships and support increases, the need for parental support does not decrease.

Level: Difficult Topic: Relationships with Parents Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.4.1: Describe adolescents‘ relationships with their parents TB_12_93_Friendships in Adolescence Summarize the variables that adolescents attend to when selecting friends.

Answer: Adolescents tend to choose friends who share their internal characteristics such as personality and identity status.

Prospective friends‘ social status matters as well. For example, popular teens are most likely to be friends with others who are popular, and rejected teens are likely to associate with others who have been rejected. In addition, teens often choose friends who are committed to the same activities they are.

Level: Moderate Topic: Friendships in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.2: List the characteristics of adolescents‘ friendships TB_12_94_Romantic Relationships By what age do most teens commit to a sexual orientation identity?

Answer: By age 15 or so, most teenagers have classified themselves as primarily heterosexual or committed to a lesbian, gay, or bisexual orientation.

Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens

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Essay Questions TB_12_95_Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Identify James Marcia‘s four identity statuses. Explain how crisis and commitment work together to achieve identity achievement status.

Answer: The four statuses are: identity achievement, foreclosure, moratorium, and identity diffusion. Each of these statuses is defined by a combination of commitment and crisis. Teens‘ identity statuses affect how they think about their future selves.

However, each category should be viewed as a phase in a dynamic process. Even teens and adults whose status is identity achievement may move to a different category if they acquire new information or are experiencing some kind of situational change.

Level: Difficult Topic: Marcia‘s Theory of Identity Achievement Skill: Analyze It LO 12.1.2: Outline Marcia‘s views on adolescent identity development TB_12_96_Gender Role Identity List four different gender role identities identified by the late Sandra Bem. Give an example of a traditional gender role identity and an example of a nontraditional gender role identity. Explain how these roles affect self-esteem.

Answer: The four identities are masculine, feminine, androgynous, and undifferentiated. The masculine and feminine types are the traditional categories; people in either of these categories sees themselves as high in one and low in the other. ―Masculine‖ teenagers or adults, according to this view, perceive themselves as having many traditional masculine qualities and few traditional feminine qualities. A ―feminine teenager‖ or adult shows the reverse pattern. In contrast, androgynous individuals see themselves as having both masculine and feminine traits; undifferentiated individuals describe themselves as lacking both.

Level: Difficult Topic: Gender Role Identity Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.2: Explain changes in gender role identity during adolescence TB_12_97_Self-Concept in Adolescence Clarify the terminology used by developmentalists who investigate ethnic-racial identity (ERI).

Answer: Some students of human development find the terminology used by theorists and researchers who study ethnic-racial identity (ERI) to be confusing, so a bit of clarification is in order. Racial refers to a group‘s shared external characteristics such as skin tone. Ethnic refers to a group‘s shared cultural heritage. As you probably know, racial and ethnic categories are correlated. For example, the U.S. government‘s census and health statistics use the term ―Black‖ to refer to individuals who selfidentify with African heritage. By contrast, the term ―African American‖ refers to the culture developed by generations of Americans of African descent over several centuries. In the early days of identity research, the term ethnic identity was often used to refer to both racial and ethnic identity. Contemporary researchers use ―ERI‖ because it incorporates the correlation between race and ethnicity.

Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept in Adolescence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 12.2.3: Describe the factors that influence ethnic identity development TB_12_98_Self-Concept in Adolescence Summarize Jean Phinney‘s stages of ethnic identity development.

Answer: Psychologist Jean Phinney, one of the early theorists and researchers in the field of ethnic-racial identity development, proposed that, in adolescence, the development of ethnic identity moves through three stages. The first stage is an unexamined ethnic identity. Phinney‘s second stage is the ethnic identity search. This search is typically triggered by some experience that makes ethnicity relevant. This exploration stage is eventually followed by the ethnic identity achievement stage, in which adolescents develop strategies for solving conflicts between the competing demands of the dominant culture and those of the ethnic group with which they identify.

Level: Moderate Topic: Self-Concept in Adolescence Skill: Analyze It LO 12.2.3: Describe the factors that influence ethnic identity development TB_12_99_Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Summarize the criticisms of Lawrence Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning put forth by Carol Gilligan. Does research support or contradict these criticisms?

Answer: Gilligan thought that there are emotional aspects to moral reasoning that go beyond the justice aspects that make up Kohlberg‘s theory. She maintains that females are more likely to incorporate emotion, caring, and empathy into their moral decisions, whereas males are more likely to rely on the concept of justice. Some research findings are consistent with Gilligan‘s explanation of gender differences in moral orientation.

Level: Difficult

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Topic: Criticisms of Kohlberg‘s Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 12.3.2: Identify criticisms of Kohlberg‘s theory of moral reasoning TB_12_100_Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Describe the implementation of formal programs geared toward decreasing youth violence. Are such programs generally successful in their aims?

Answer: School officials have turned to psychologists for help in designing programs to change the behavior of violent teens. A number of psychologists contributed to the development and evaluation of a 10-year program called the Fast Track Project, which involved several hundred aggressive elementary school children in four different U.S. cities. Aggressive kindergartners born between 1991 and 1993 were divided into experimental and control groups. In special class sessions, children in the experimental group learned how to recognize others‘ emotions. They also learned strategies for controlling their own feelings, managing aggressive impulses, and resolving conflicts with peers. In the initial phases of the program, these strategies decreased the frequency of aggressive behavior among participants and enabled them to manage their emotions more effectively and to get along better with their peers. Subsequent studies found that the program‘s positive effects were still evident in the lives of participants at age 25 and, among females, age 34.

Level: Difficult Topic: Kohlberg‘s Approach to Moral Development Skill: Analyze It LO 12.3.3: Describe the moral reasoning of adolescents who exhibit antisocial behavior TB_12_101_Peer Groups How do peer groups change their structure across the years of adolescence? How do cliques and crowds differ?

Answer: Peer groups become relatively stable in adolescence. Teens typically associate with groups of people who share their values, attitudes, and beliefs. Cliques are defined as small groups of individuals who are strongly attached to one another.

Crowds are defined as reputation-based groups.

Level: Moderate Topic: Peer Groups Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.3: Identify changes in peer groups in the teen years TB_12_102_Romantic Relationships Summarize how race and ethnicity are related to sexually diverse teens who make their sexual orientation known to others.

Answer: Researchers have found that teenagers who identify as lesbian or gay are more comfortable about revealing their sexual orientation to their parents and to their peers than was true in past cohorts. By contrast, teens who identify as bisexual express more anxiety about coming out. Moreover, a comprehensive review of research on the coming-out process found that it varies across ethnic groups. White teens appear to be most comfortable with and most likely to reveal their sexual orientations to parents and peers, whereas Asian Americans are least comfortable and least likely to disclose. Hispanic and Black adolescents fall between these two groups. Fear of disclosure is associated with concerns about parents‘ and peers‘ negative responses and, especially among Asian teens, a desire to respect traditional cultural values.

Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 12.4.4: Describe the emergence of romantic relationships in teens

TEST BANK CHAPTER 13: PHYSICAL AND COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN EARLY ADULTHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_13_01_Primary and Secondary Aging Researchers have identified two different types of aging, called A) aerobic and anaerobic.

B) primary and secondary.

C) individual and cohort comparative.

D) decline and compensation.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging

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TB_13_02_Primary and Secondary Aging The inevitable aging process called senescence is also known as A) basic aging.

B) primary aging.

C) secondary aging.

D) tertiary aging.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_03_Primary and Secondary Aging What term do researchers use to describe the basic, underlying, and inevitable processes of physical change that affect all human beings?

A) Life dissatisfaction B) Primary aging C) Secondary aging D) Core aging Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_04_Primary and Secondary Aging Which term refers to physical declines brought about by environmental factors stemming from an individual‘s behavioral choices?

A) Senescence B) Compensatory decline C) Intellectual aging D) Secondary aging Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_05_Primary and Secondary Aging Changes in visual or auditory acuity, gray hair, and the presence of wrinkles are all signs of A) tertiary accumulation.

B) wisdom.

C) senescence.

D) secondary aging.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_06_Primary and Secondary Aging What is the most powerful factor that interacts with age to influence patterns of secondary aging?

A) Gender B) Personal happiness C) Social class D) Life satisfaction Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_07_Primary and Secondary Aging

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Emily is 39 years old, but she looks 10 years older than her actual age. She lives a high-risk lifestyle that includes regular use of alcohol, tobacco, and illegal drugs, and she has never exercised regularly. What have Emily’s behavioral choices brought about?

A) Postsecondary illness B) Secondary aging C) Senescence D) Mental decline Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_08_Primary and Secondary Aging Compared to the others, which lifestyle or behavioral change is most likely to moderate the effects of primary aging on the body?

A) Decreasing intense exercise B) Stopping smoking C) Attending religious services D) Reducing supplemental calcium in the diet Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_09_Research Report—Sex Differences in the Brain Which statement summarizes the differences between females‘ and males‘ brains during young adulthood?

A) Sex differences that were seen in childhood and adolescence become less pronounced in young adulthood.

B) The corpus callosum develops faster in young males than in young females.

C) The amount, distribution, and ratio of gray matter to white matter differs considerably between males and females in young adulthood.

D) The distribution of glial cells is markedly different between young males and young females.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Sex Differences in the Brain Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.1.2: Identify changes in the brain that take place in early adulthood TB_13_10_Other Body Systems Which two specific changes occur in the immune system beginning in adolescence?

A) Decrease in red blood cell production and white cell production B) Shrinking of the thyroid gland and decrease in thyroxine C) Shrinking of the thymus gland and reduction in the number of mature T cells D) Gradual loss of gray matter and an increase in white blood cells Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_11_Other Body Systems Osteoporosis, or loss of calcium in the bones, is typically first seen in females in their A) 20s.

B) 30s.

C) 40s.

D) 50s.

Answer: B Level: Moderate

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Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_12_Other Body Systems Compared to older adults, adults in their 20s and 30s have A) less muscle tissue.

B) less bone calcium.

C) more intelligence.

D) greater aerobic capacity.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_13_Other Body Systems Which is the most common measure of overall aerobic fitness of the heart and lungs?

A) VCS3 B) Systolic blood pressure C) Maximum oxygen uptake D) Carbon dioxide production Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_14_Other Body Systems When maximum oxygen uptake is measured in adulthood, what is the typical age-based pattern?

A) There are equal declines when measured at rest and during exercise.

B) There are greater declines when measured at rest versus during exercise.

C) There are greater declines when measured during exercise versus at rest.

D) There are no declines when measured at rest or during exercise.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_15_Other Body Systems What is the collective effect of changes in muscles and cardiovascular fitness that takes place during adulthood?

A) Immune system functioning is less efficient.

B) There is a loss of bone mineral and an increase in the wear and tear of the joints.

C) Tissues in all parts of the body become more elastic and flexible.

D) There is a general loss of strength and speed.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_16_Other Body Systems When does a female‘s fertility typically begin to decline?

A) In her early 20s B) In her mid-20s C) In her early 30s D) In her early 40s Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood

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TB_13_17_Other Body Systems Which statement describes changes in reproductive functioning as females and males age?

A) Reproductive ability declines equally in males and females as they age.

B) A female produces fewer eggs as she ages, whereas males produce more sperm as they age.

C) A female will produce fewer eggs as she ages, but males typically show no decline in sperm count as they age.

D) Reproductive loss in males is almost always related to a disease state, whereas in females the inability to reproduce is almost always age-related.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_18_Other Body Systems Which entities are key components of the human immune system?

A) The liver and kidneys B) The thymus gland and the bone marrow C) Neurotransmitters and hormones D) The pancreas and the liver Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_19_Other Body Systems Why do adults become more susceptible to disease as they age?

A) Fewer antibodies are produced and T cells become less efficient.

B) More B cells and T cells are produced than can be absorbed by the bone marrow and the thymus gland.

C) The thymus gland and the bone marrow produce antibodies that attack normal body cells.

D) The thymus gland becomes excessively large and interferes with the production of B cells.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_20_Other Body Systems Trixie was exposed to a virus when she held a telephone recently touched by someone who had a cold. Which feature of Trixie‘s immune system will protect her?

A) Thymus cells B) Red blood cells C) T cells D) B cells Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_21_Other Body Systems Sara has a rare form of cancer. This may be, in part, due to which consideration?

A) Insufficient numbers of T cells B) Insufficient numbers of B cells C) Loss of bone marrow D) Loss of antibodies Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_22_No Easy Answers—Assisted Reproductive Technology In the context of fertility, what does ART stands for?

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A) Assisted retrovirus technologies B) Assisted reproductive techniques C) Acquired replication tendency D) Available reproductive technology Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: No Easy Answers—Assisted Reproductive Technology Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_23_No Easy Answers—Assisted Reproductive Technology Which event occurs in approximately 29% of IVF pregnancies?

A) The birth of triplets B) The birth of twins C) Children born with birth defects D) A failure to carry the pregnancy to delivery Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—Assisted Reproductive Technology Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_24_Health Habits and Personal Factors Compared to the others, which factor is unlikely to affect longevity?

A) Drinking alcohol B) Sedentary lifestyle C) Sleeping D) Exercising Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_25_Health Habits and Personal Factors Which statement provides an accurate summary about the impact of social support on the health of adults?

A) In a study of adults ranging in age from 30 to 69, people with the fewest social connections in their social networks had lower death rates than those with more social connections.

B) Maintaining a large social network can increase the risk of disease.

C) The positive association between social contact and physical health is limited to industrialized societies and does not exist in pre-industrial societies.

D) A study of depression among females found that social support buffered the negative effects of stress.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_26_Health Habits and Personal Factors Bernice is the clinical director of a community counseling center. She wants to develop a program to help students deal with the stress in their lives, thereby improving their overall health. Which innovation would be an important component of the program to buffer the effects of stress?

A) Furnishing information about health and fitness B) Access to a support group for the students C) Providing academic advisors for the students D) Teaching the students problem-solving skills Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_27_Health Habits and Personal Factors What do longitudinal studies, such as the Alameda County Study or the Nurses‘ Health Study, indicate about health and aging?

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A) Genetics controls health outcomes; lifestyle modifications have comparatively little impact.

B) Physical health tends to improve with age, whereas mental health tends to decline.

C) Social factors, such as friendship networks, have a greater impact on health than do individual behaviors, such as diet and exercise.

D) Lifestyle choices of early adulthood have cumulative effects.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_28_Health Habits and Personal Factors Which term is used to describe an individual‘s belief in their capacity to cause an intended event to occur, or to perform a task successfully?

A) Self-expression B) Self-efficacy C) Self-esteem D) Self-worth Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_29_Health Habits and Personal Factors Locus of control is defined by an individual‘s A) beliefs about the causes of events.

B) levels of optimism and pessimism.

C) self-concept.

D) ability to make something happen.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_30_Health Habits and Personal Factors As the four winners of the grade-school spelling bee posed for a picture, each was recollecting over the day‘s success.

Compared to the others, which child exhibits an external locus of control?

A) Christina, who thinks, ―Wow! I‘m really smart when it comes to spelling.‖ B) Leroy, who thinks, ―I really worked hard learning all those words and it paid off.‖ C) Teresa, who thinks, ―This is my lucky day! I was really lucky to get such easy words!‖ D) Nathan, who thinks, ―I’ll succeed by setting my sights on what I want and I’ll keep trying!‖ Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_31_Health Habits and Personal Factors Which statement would be most closely associated with holding an external locus of control?

A) ―I am the master of my fate.‖ B) ―The hour is at hand.‖ C) ―Might makes right.‖ D) ―Whatever‘s gonna happen is gonna happen.‖ Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Apply What You Know

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LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_32_Health Habits and Personal Factors When looking at a glass of bourbon that is neither completely full nor completely empty, a(n) __________ might say, ―That glass is half full,‖ whereas a(n) ____________ might say, ―No, that glass is half empty!‖ A) pessimist; optimist B) realist; pessimist C) optimist; realist D) optimist; pessimist Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_33_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Among which age group in the United States are sexually transmitted infections (STIs) most common?

A) 12–14-year olds B) 14–16-year olds C) 15–29-year olds D) 20–25-year olds Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_34_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Which condition is the result of a sexually transmitted infection and can prevent conception in people who can become pregnant?

A) HIV B) Human papilloma virus C) Mononucleosis D) Pelvic inflammatory disease Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_35_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Which statement regarding gonorrhea is correct?

A) Males are more likely to become infertile from it than are females.

B) It is becoming easier to treat.

C) It is caused by bacteria.

D) Males are most likely to contract the disease.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_36_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) can lead to serious brain damage and death if not treated?

A) Chlamydia B) HPV C) Gonorrhea D) Syphilis Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health

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TB_13_37_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood What is the most common bacterial STI in the United States?

A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Chlamydia D) HPV Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_38_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Which disease is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

A) Chlamydia B) Herpes C) HPV D) HIV Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_39_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood For which of these viral STIs has an effective vaccine been developed?

A) HIV B) Herpes C) Chlamydia D) HPV Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_40_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) causes genital warts?

A) Human papilloma virus B) Human immunodeficiency virus C) Human papistule virus D) Herpes virus Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_41_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Which factor increases susceptibility to infection from sexually transmitted diseases?

A) Discussing one‘s sexual boundaries with one‘s partner B) Having multiple sex partners C) Discussion of sexually transmitted diseases in high school D) Abstinence from use of drugs or alcohol Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_42_Intimate Partner Violence Verbal ridicule, humiliation, and intimidation are aspects of the __________ component of intimate partner violence.

A) physical B) sexual

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C) stalking D) psychological Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_43_Intimate Partner Violence According to the World Health Organization, which country has the highest rate of intimate partner abuse among women?

A) Mexico B) Brazil C) Bangladesh D) Austria Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_44_Intimate Partner Violence According to the World Health Organization, which country has the lowest rate of intimate partner abuse among women?

A) Austria B) United States C) Denmark D) Cameroon Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_45_Intimate Partner Violence Physical, mental, or sexual abuse, divorce or separation of one‘s parents, substance abuse in the household, and mental illness in the household are all components of which index?

A) Traumatic Experiences Affect Longevity (TEAL) B) Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACES) C) Fear and Unintended Loathing Tabulation (FAULT) D) Negative Indicators of Life Quality (NILQ) Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Remember the Facts LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_46_Intimate Partner Violence Which factor contributes to partner abuse?

A) Gender-role beliefs that males are equivalent to females B) Laws that define females as property C) Partner differences, such as differences in ethnicity or differences in IQ D) Receiving education on similarities and differences between the sexes Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_47_Intimate Partner Violence Compared to the others, which group is most likely to include victims of intimate partner abuse?

A) Females 16–24 years of age B) Females 25–35 years of age C) Females 35–40 years of age D) Females 40–50 years of age Answer: A

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Level: Difficult Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_48_Intimate Partner Violence Across the lifetime of women who have experienced intimate partner violence, which form has been most prevalent?

A) Sexual coercion B) Coercive control C) Slapping and shoving D) Stalking Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_49_Intimate Partner Violence Which approach is unlikely to help prevent intimate partner abuse?

A) Vigorous law enforcement B) Teaching hospital emergency room personnel to recognize the signs of abuse C) Providing victims with the means to protect themselves, such as weapons D) Providing victims with problem-solving skills and temporary shelters Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_50_Intimate Partner Violence Some males have experienced intimate partner violence over their lifetimes, typically in the form of A) stalking.

B) verbal abuse.

C) coercive control.

D) severe violence.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_51_Intimate Partner Violence Which risk factor for intimate partner violence tends to be associated more often with perpetrators than with victims?

A) A history of victimization B) Alcohol or drug use C) Mood swings D) A lack of skills for independent living Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_52_Mental Health in Early Adulthood What is the most common mental disorder affecting young adults?

A) Schizophrenia B) Dementia C) Anxiety disorders D) Personality disorders Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood

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TB_13_53_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Marmaduke experiences irrational fear when he is in high places, such as riding upwards in an elevator or standing on a bridge.

Most likely, Marmaduke would be diagnosed with A) bipolar disorder.

B) a phobia.

C) a mood disorder.

D) depression.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_54_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Which mental disorder is characterized by an inflexible pattern of behavior that eventually leads to difficulty in several areas of functioning?

A) Mood disorder with mixed emotional features B) Anxiety disorder C) Mood disorder D) Personality disorders Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_55_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Marta behaves dramatically, always attracting attention with her sexualized manner and provocative style of dress. If she were diagnosed with a personality disorder, which would that be?

A) Narcissistic personality disorder B) Histrionic personality disorder C) Borderline personality disorder D) Antisocial personality disorder Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_56_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Which personality disorder is characterized by difficulty forming emotional attachments, lack of empathy, and little regard for the rights of others?

A) Antisocial personality disorder B) Borderline personality disorder C) Histrionic personality disorder D) Narcissistic personality disorder Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_57_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Larry thinks he is the center of the universe. He hates waiting in lines, insisting that his time is much too important for such trivial matters. He easily exploits other people for his own personal gain, but he also wants everyone to think he is as great as he thinks he is. Recently, when his wife‘s sickly mother died, he was secretly a little annoyed at the timing, as it interfered with his vacation plans. Which personality disorder does Larry show signs of?

A) Narcissistic personality disorder B) Histrionic personality disorder C) Antisocial personality disorder D) Paranoid personality disorder Answer: A Level: Moderate

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Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_58_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Which mental disorder is characterized by disturbances of thought, such as delusions and hallucinations?

A) Anxiety disorder B) Mood disorder C) Paranoid personality disorder D) Schizophrenia Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_59_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Mingo has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He reports hearing voices that command him to apprehend Betty Crocker.

Furthermore, he believes that Betty Crocker has been systematically introducing cyanide into the baking products that only he buys, in an effort to slowly poison Mingo and keep him from attaining his rightful position as leader of Xhgrdax. The voices Mingo hears are __________ and the plots Mingo believes are __________.

A) hallucinations; delusions B) delusions; delusions C) delusions; hallucinations D) hallucinations; hallucinations Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_60_Substance Use Disorder Susan uses cocaine on a regular basis. She‘s finding that she has to use more and more cocaine to achieve the high that she wants. Which term describes this phenomenon?

A) Tolerance B) Withdrawal C) Psychological addiction D) Drug dependence Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Substance Use Disorder Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.4: Distinguish between physical and psychological substance dependence TB_13_61_Substance Use Disorder Which substance is the most commonly used legal depressant, and has a propensity to addiction?

A) Alcohol B) Diet pills C) Nicotine D) Caffeine Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Substance Use Disorder Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.4: Distinguish between physical and psychological substance dependence TB_13_62_Substance Use Disorder Which drug is categorized as a stimulant?

A) Alcohol

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B) Barbiturates C) Cocaine D) Tranquilizers Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Substance Use Disorder Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.4: Distinguish between physical and psychological substance dependence TB_13_63_Postformal Thought How does postformal thought fundamentally differ from Jean Piaget’s notion of formal operations?

A) Postformal thought is a developmental period that precedes formal operations.

B) Postformal thought is based on culturally shared definitions of ―truth‖ and ―wisdom.‖ C) Postformal thought acknowledges that sometimes there are no clearly right or wrong solutions to a problem.

D) Postformal reasoning leads to a single identifiable solution.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Postformal Thought Skill: Analyze It LO 13.3.1: Explain the types of postformal thought TB_13_64_Postformal Thought Which type of thinking would a young adult use to make decisions about ambiguous problems that may have multiple solutions?

A) Contextual validity B) Crystallized intelligence C) Dialectical thought D) Fluid intelligence Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Postformal Thought Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.3.1: Explain the types of postformal thought TB_13_65_Postformal Thought Marcy is known for her strong critical thinking skills. She is able to look at a problem from many sides and identify the underlying assumptions of the different perspectives. Marcy‘s thinking represents which type of functioning?

A) Reflective judgment B) Dialectical thought C) Formal operational thought D) Relativism Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Postformal Thought Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.3.1: Explain the types of postformal thought TB_13_66_Intelligence Which ability would be utilized when working quickly and accurately through a crossword puzzle?

A) Crystallized intelligence B) Dialectical thought C) Encoding skills D) Fluid intelligence Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Intelligence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.3.2: Contrast age-related changes in intelligence

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TB_13_67_Intelligence Which aspect of intelligence depends more on efficient functioning of the central nervous system and less on specific experiences?

A) Crystallized intelligence B) Dialectical thought C) Post-relativism D) Fluid intelligence Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Intelligence Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.3.2: Contrast age-related changes in intelligence TB_13_68_Intelligence Which statement summarizes the current research findings regarding intellectual maintenance and decline in early adulthood?

A) Intellectual abilities show a gradual but steady decline beginning in early adulthood and peaking in middle adulthood.

B) Intellectual abilities show essentially no decline in early adulthood, except at the very top levels of intellectual demand.

C) Intellectual abilities increase during the second half of early adulthood, then decline during the first half of middle adulthood.

D) Fluid intelligence increases from early to middle adulthood, but crystallized intelligence decreases during that same period.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Intelligence Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.3.2: Contrast age-related changes in intelligence TB_13_69_Developmental Impact The term used to describe any kind of formal educational experience that follows high school is A) baccalaureate advancement.

B) formalized instruction.

C) postsecondary education.

D) college learning.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Developmental Impact Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.4.1: Explain the relationship between college attendance and individual development TB_13_70_Developmental Impact Which outcome typically distinguishes individuals who attend college from their peers who forgo postsecondary education?

A) College graduates have relatively poorer social connections compared to nongraduates.

B) College graduates earn more than nongraduates.

C) Nongraduates are exposed to a wider diversity of ideas, customs, and peoples compared to college graduates.

D) College attendance tends to lower people‘s aspirations for the future.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Developmental Impact Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.4.1: Explain the relationship between college attendance and individual development

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_13_71_Primary and Secondary Aging Loss and graying of hair, decreased hearing acuity, and changes in memory are all part of ________ aging.

Answer: primary Level: Moderate Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_72_Other Body Systems Age-related decrements in the heart and lungs that take place in young adulthood are likely not to be noticeable except during ________.

Answer: exercise Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_73_Other Body Systems In the context of immune function, immature T cells are made in the ________ and they mature in the ________.

Answer: bone marrow; thymus gland Level: Difficult Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_74_Health Habits and Personal Factors In the Alameda County Study of health and aging, researchers identified several habits critical to maintaining good health; collectively, these are known as __________.

Answer: the Alameda 7 Level: Difficult Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_75_Health Habits and Personal Factors People with an ________ locus of control tend to be healthier than those with an ________ locus of control.

Answer: internal; external Level: Moderate Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_76_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood HIV stands for ________.

Answer: human immunodeficiency virus Level: Easy Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_77_ Mental Health in Early Adulthood

A ___________ is an irrational fear of an object, a person, a place, or a situation.

Answer: phobia Level: Easy Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Remember the Facts LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_78_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Laurel is in her late 30s. She has been unable to hold a job for more than 3 months at a time and she quickly gets bored with her

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relationships. Her mood tends to be unstable and she is short-tempered. Laurel may be diagnosed with ________.

Answer: borderline personality disorder Level: Difficult Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_79_Postformal Thought ________ thought is often identified as a fifth stage of cognitive development.

Answer: Postformal Level: Easy Topic: Postformal Thought Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.3.1: Explain the types of postformal thought TB_13_80_Diversity and the College Experience The most common modification in academic settings for students with disabilities is ________ time for taking tests.

Answer: extended Level: Easy Topic: Diversity and the College Experience Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.4.2: Evaluate the factors that contribute to group differences in the college experience TB_13_81_Diversity and the College Experience In terms of ethnicity, college bachelor degree completion rates are highest among ________.

Answer: Asian Americans Level: Moderate Topic: Diversity and the College Experience Skill: Analyze It LO 13.4.2: Evaluate the factors that contribute to group differences in the college experience TB_13_82_Diversity and the College Experience Black students who attend historically Black institutions show more gains in both ________ and ________ competence than those who attend predominantly White colleges.

Answer: cognitive; social Level: Difficult Topic: Diversity and the College Experience Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.4.2: Evaluate the factors that contribute to group differences in the college experience

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Short Answer Questions TB_13_83_Primary and Secondary Aging Name the two types of aging, define them, and give an example of each.

Answer: Primary aging is aging which is a result of biological maturation, such as wrinkled skin. Secondary aging is aging which is a result of environmental factors, such as declining health due to smoking.

Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_84_Primary and Secondary Aging Discuss how social class and health are associated.

Answer: Health differences among young adults across social class groups are fairly small. However, with increasing age, the differences become much larger. Such social class differences in adult health have been found in all of the developed nations of the world.

Level: Easy Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_85_Other Body Systems List the three senses that are likely to change during young and middle adulthood.

Answer: vision, hearing, smell Level: Easy Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_86_Other Body Systems What is the earliest age at which people who menstruate begin menopause? What happens to ovulation during this time?

Answer: Menopause can begin in person‘s early 30s; ovulation becomes sporadic and unpredictable.

Level: Moderate Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_87_Health Habits and Personal Factors Identify three social factors that are important in maintaining good physical and mental health in adulthood.

Answer: regular contact with friends and relatives; being in a couple; church and/or group membership Level: Moderate Topic: Health Habits and Personal Factors Skill: Analyze It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_88_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Melissa has been diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease. What is it and how did she likely contract it?

Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the female reproductive tract which can lead to infertility; it usually results from untreated bacterial STIs; chlamydia primarily, but it can result from any bacterial STI. Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_89_Intimate Partner Violence When an intimate couple gets into a physical altercation, what are the gender differences in the use of violence?

Answer: Men and women are equally likely to push, slap, or kick their partners; women, however, are more likely than men to be injured.

Level: Difficult Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse

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TB_13_90_Mental Health in Early Adulthood List and describe any three personality disorders.

Answer: Responses can select from: Antisocial: difficulty forming emotional attachments; lack of empathy; little regard for the rights of others; selfcentered; willing to violate the law or social rules to achieve a desired objective Paranoid: suspicious of others’ behavior and motives; emotionally guarded and highly sensitive to minor violations of personal space or perceived rights Histrionic: irrational, attention-seeking behavior; inappropriate emotional responses; sexually seductive behavior and clothing Narcissistic: exaggerated sense of self-importance; craves attention and approval; exploits others; lack of empathy Borderline: unstable moods, relationships; fear of abandonment; tendency to self-injury; highly dependent on others; impulsive and reckless behavior Level: Moderate Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_91_Substance Use Disorder Name three hallucinogens and the symptoms of withdrawal that occur from these drugs.

Answer: marijuana = anxiety, sleep problems, decreased appetite, hyperactivity; LSD = none; MDMA (ecstasy) = depression, fatigue, a ―crash‖ Level: Difficult Topic: Substance Use Disorder Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.4: Distinguish between physical and psychological substance dependence TB_13_92_Developmental Impact How does college provide students with new socialization opportunities?

Answer: Many students encounter people from racial and ethnic groups other than their own. As a result, beliefs about individual-level explanations of group inequality are moderated by consideration and acceptance of structuralist explanations.

Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Impact Skill: Analyze It LO 13.4.1: Explain the relationship between college attendance and individual development TB_13_93_Diversity and the College Experience How do students with disabilities fare in a college setting?

Answer: Students with disabilities now make up about 19% of the college population in the United States. Peer mentoring programs help such students become familiar with college resources and everyday issues such as communicating with faculty (Hillier et al., 2019). Such programs are especially helpful to students with autistic disorders, who may have limited social skills.

Level: Moderate Topic: Diversity and the College Experience Skill: Analyze It LO 13.4.2: Evaluate the factors that contribute to group differences in the college experience TB_13_94_Diversity and the College Experience Identify some of the ethnic-racial groups in the United States that are most and least likely to obtain a college bachelor‘s degree within 6 years of enrollment.

Answer: Most likely are Asian Americans and White Americans; least likely are Black and American Indian/Alaska Natives.

Level: Difficult Topic: Diversity and the College Experience Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 13.4.2: Evaluate the factors that contribute to group differences in the college experience

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Essay Questions TB_13_95_Primary and Secondary Aging Discuss primary and secondary aging and how age interacts with social class.

Answer: Primary aging refers to the underlying, inevitable aging process, whereas secondary aging is the product of environmental influences, health habits, or disease; secondary aging is neither inevitable nor experienced by all adults. With increasing age, health differences across social classes become much larger—social class differences in adult health have been found in all of the developed world, and they occur within ethnic groups in the United States as well as in the overall population.

Level: Moderate Topic: Primary and Secondary Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.1: Distinguish between primary and secondary aging TB_13_96_Research Report—Sex Differences in the Brain Summarize current research findings on gender differences in the brain.

Answer: The brains of males and females differ to some extent at every age. However, sex differences are even more striking in the adult brain. For example, men have a higher proportion of white matter than women do. In addition, the distributions of gray and white matter differ in the brains of men and women. Men have a lower proportion of white matter in the left brain than in the right brain. In contrast, the proportions of gray matter and white matter in the two hemispheres are equal in women‘s brains.

Such findings have led some neuropsychologists to speculate that men‘s overall superior spatial perception is associated with sex differences in the distribution of gray and white matter.

Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Sex Differences in the Brain Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.1.2: Identify changes in the brain that take place in early adulthood TB_13_97_Other Body Systems How does stress affect immune system function? Be detailed and specific in your answer.

Answer: Collectively, research points to the possibility that life experiences that demand high levels of change or adaptation will affect immune system functioning. Over a period of years and many stresses, the immune system may become less and less efficient. It may well be that the immune system changes with age in basic ways regardless of the level of stress. But it is also possible that what is thought of as normal aging of the immune system is a response to cumulative stress.

Level: Moderate Topic: Other Body Systems Skill: Analyze It LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_98_Developmental Science in the Clinic Summarize the difficulties that make it difficult for a person to stop smoking. If you know someone who smokes and that person wants to quit, what advice would you share?

Answer: Nicotine is physically addictive, and therefore, the person who stops will go through physical withdrawal symptoms.

The best advice would be for the person to choose a ―quit date‖ during a time that is likely to be relatively low in stress. Also, seeking counseling or psychotherapy and exercising are helpful. You can tell your friend that the withdrawal symptoms are temporary and usually subside within 2 weeks.

Level: Difficult Topic: Developmental Science in the Clinic Skill: Apply What You Know LO 13.1.3: Outline changes in other body systems during early adulthood TB_13_99_Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood The highest rates of STIs are found in teens and young adults. Why is this? Identify several factors that contribute to this phenomenon.

Answer: The risk-taking attitudes of teens may persist into young adulthood, contributing one factor that leads to high rates of STIs. Other factors include having multiple sex partners, failure to discuss STI prevention with potential sex partners, delay in seeking treatment, and failure to insist on the use of condoms during sexual activity.

Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Wellness in Early Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.1: Evaluate the factors associated with good health TB_13_100_Intimate Partner Violence Summarize some of the characteristics of both the perpetrators and the victims of partner abuse that may contribute to such violence.

Answer: Perpetrators of abuse tend to have irrational feelings of jealousy, a need to control, sudden mood swings, and short

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tempers. Males who are generally aggressive are more likely to abuse. Males who are high school dropouts or who are frequently unemployed abuse more than other males. Victims of abuse are more likely than nonvictims to have been abused as children. Young females between the ages of 16 and 24 are at highest risk. Younger females lacking in education or the means to support themselves outside of an abusive relationship are at high risk.

Level: Difficult Topic: Intimate Partner Violence Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.2: Assess the factors associated with intimate partner abuse TB_13_101_Mental Health in Early Adulthood Explain the nature of personality disorders.

Answer: Personality disorders are inflexible patterns of behavior that lead to difficulties in social, educational, and occupational functioning. In order to diagnose a personality disorder, evidence of the disorder has to have been present during adolescence.

The behaviors are demonstrated across all situations and contexts; therefore, the disorder is part of the individual‘s personality.

Level: Difficult Topic: Mental Health in Early Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 13.2.3: Describe the mental disorders that commonly occur during early adulthood TB_13_102_Diversity and the College Experience What are some of the characteristics associated with young adults who complete college?

Answer: Young adults who complete college are more likely to: Be female Be Asian or White Be enrolled full-time Have decided to attend college at an early age Have a specific career goal when they enrolled in college for the first time Have selected a STEM major View college as an investment in the future Have taken steps to prepare for the academic demands of college Level: Moderate Topic: Diversity and the College Experience Skill: Analyze It LO 13.4.2: Evaluate the factors that contribute to group differences in the college experience

TEST BANK CHAPTER 14: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN EARLY ADULTHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_14_01_Stage Theories of Early Adulthood According to Erik Erikson‘s psychosocial theory, what is the central crisis of early adulthood?

A) Autonomy versus dependence B) Identity versus role confusion C) Intimacy versus isolation D) Generativity versus stagnation Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Stage Theories of Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_02_Stage Theories of Early Adulthood

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Which term describes the capacity to engage in a supportive, affectionate relationship without losing one‘s own sense of self?

A) Attachment B) Identity infusion C) Intimacy D) Generativity Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Stage Theories of Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_03_Levinson‘s Life Structures Which term was used by Daniel Levinson to refer to the underlying pattern of an individual‘s life at a given time, including balances and conflicts among roles, relationships, and behavior patterns?

A) Cognitive structure B) Life era C) Evolutionary plan D) Life structure Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Levinson‘s Life Structures Skill: Analyze It LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_04_Levinson‘s Life Structures Compared to the others, which event would be most likely to prompt the creation of a new life structure, according to Daniel Levinson‘s view of adult development?

A) Marrying B) Buying a new house C) Selling a new house D) Working at a part-time job Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Levinson‘s Life Structures Skill: Analyze It LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_05_Emerging Adulthood Which term does Jeffrey Arnett use to refer to the developmental period between 18 and 25 years of age?

A) Emerging adulthood B) Transition-to-adulthood C) Post-adolescence D) Postformal adulthood Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Emerging Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.1.2: List the characteristics of emerging adulthood TB_14_06_Emerging Adulthood Enrico, age 23, is a college graduate whose career plans, relationship status, and even living arrangements seem to change every 6 months. Which aspect of emerging adulthood is Enrico demonstrating?

A) Self-focus B) Instability C) Identity exploration D) Optimism Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Emerging Adulthood

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Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.1.2: List the characteristics of emerging adulthood TB_14_07_Interpersonal Attraction Why do people become attracted to one another?

A) Because of proximity; people are attracted to those who are nearby and accessible.

B) Because of diversity; there’s an innate desire to expand one’s romantic social circle.

C) Because of social standing and financial security; dating partners help out when times are tough.

D) Because finding someone with opinions and attitudes that are different from your own is part of developing a personal value system.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Interpersonal Attraction Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.1: Define the factors that contribute to interpersonal attraction TB_14_08_Mate Selection Which aspect of evolutionary theory suggests that heterosexual females and males have different mate selection priorities because they have unequal roles and responsibilities in producing and caring for children?

A) Assortative mating B) Filter theory C) Heterogeneity D) Parental investment theory Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_09_Mate Selection Which observation is an element of evolutionary theories of heterosexual mate selection?

A) Males prefer mates who are older and physically attractive.

B) Minimum parental investment is higher for females than it is for males.

C) Both females and males are likely to select mates who are opposite to themselves in key characteristics, such as ethnicity, religion, and age.

D) Females and males both choose mates slowly.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_10_Mate Selection Which theory of mate selection promotes the view that sex differences in relationships are adaptations to gender roles that result from external realities such as interactions with others?

A) Evolutionary role theory B) Homogamy theory C) Gender selection theory D) Social role theory Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_11_Mate Selection Which conclusion should be reached regarding theories of mate selection?

A) Evolutionary theory offers a comprehensive and airtight account of how people choose potential mates.

B) Social role theory has largely replaced the evolutionary perspective in explaining mate selection.

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C) A full explanation of mate preferences probably requires both the evolutionary and the social role approaches.

D) No one theoretical approach has gathered enough empirical evidence in its support to warrant any strong conclusions.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_12_Romantic Love Feelings of closeness, affection, and connectedness are elements of __________ in Robert Sternberg’s triangular theory of love.

A) fatuous love B) intimacy C) passionate love D) infatuated love Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_13_Romantic Love Lani and Paul have been married for 8 years. They describe their relationship as intimate, passionate, and committed. How would Robert Sternberg describe this love relationship?

A) Companionate B) Consummate C) Fatuous D) Stable Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_14_Romantic Love Jennifer and Aldo say they feel close, connected, and committed to each other, but their relationship is no longer exactly what either would call passionate. How would Robert Sternberg describe their relationship?

A) Permissive B) Companionate C) Fatuous D) Validating Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_15_Romantic Love According to Robert Sternberg, in romantic love relationships, which component is missing?

A) Intimacy B) Infatuation C) Commitment D) Passion Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Love

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Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_16_Romantic Love According to the triangular theory, infatuated love develops when only __________ is present.

A) passion B) intimacy C) loyalty D) similarity Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_17_Romantic Love Raven and Karen have been a couple for 15 years, and their relationship is strained with bickering and unhappiness. They are not considering separating because they have a son, age 8, whom they both love deeply. The triangular theory of love would categorize their relationship as A) companionate love.

B) empty love.

C) fatuous love.

D) nonlove.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_18_Romantic Love Nino and April have been happily dating for months; however, they do not feel compelled to make a long-term commitment.

Their relationship represents A) consummate love.

B) companionate love.

C) romantic love.

D) liking.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_19_Romantic Love Which person demonstrates a secure attachment style?

A) Arnie is uncomfortable being close to others.

B) Estella finds that others are reluctant to get as close to her as she would like to be to them.

C) Hugo finds it easy to get close to others and is comfortable depending on them.

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D) Emily has difficulty staying in beneficial relationships.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_20_Romantic Love Which person demonstrates a fearful attachment style?

A) Grace finds it easy to get close to others.

B) Laurel is uncomfortable being close to others.

C) Yvette is reluctant to get close to others.

D) Frannie does not want to compromise.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_21_Romantic Love Alphonso feels a strong sexual attraction to, deep passion for, and a weird need to possess his girlfriend Annie. If an ancient Greek citizen were somehow resurrected and told of this situation, what might that person say?

A) ―I see philia at work here.‖ B) ―Pragma; it‘s always pragma.‖ C) ―Ah…eros in action!‖ D) ―Ludus, ludus, ludus!‖ Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_22_Romantic Love ___________ is an intervention that encourages couples to work toward strengthening partners‘ emotional bonds.

A) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) B) Primal scream therapy (PST) C) Situational warmth/attachment therapy (SWAT) D) Emotionally focused couple therapy (EFT) Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_23_Cohabitation Which statement is true regarding couples that ambiguously cohabitate before marrying?

A) They are less likely to be satisfied with their marriage but less likely to get divorced than couples who do not cohabitate before marriage.

B) They are less likely to be satisfied with their marriage and more likely to get divorced than couples who do not cohabitate before marriage.

C) They are more likely to be satisfied with their marriage and less likely to get divorced than couples who do not cohabitate before marriage.

D) They are more likely to be satisfied with their marriage and also more likely to get divorced than couples who do not cohabitate before marriage.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Cohabitation Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 14.3.1: Outline the differences between cohabiting and married couples TB_14_24_Cohabitation Which is a reason why cohabiting couples without a firm intention to marry are more likely to get divorced if they marry?

A) Cohabiting couples tend to dislike one another when polled privately.

B) They mingle their finances too quickly in their relationship.

C) They convince themselves that the relationship already constitutes a legal union.

D) Such couples often prioritize family-of-origin relationships over their romantic relationship.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Cohabitation Skill: Analyze It LO 14.3.1: Outline the differences between cohabiting and married couples TB_14_25_Cohabitation Which statement about same-sex partnerships is correct?

A) Same-sex relationships seem to be less egalitarian in power than different-sex relationships.

B) Very few same-sex couples are in long-term committed relationships.

C) People in same-sex relationships struggle with issues that are very different from those of people in different-sex relationships.

D) For both same- and different-sex couples, marriage is associated with greater stability than cohabitation.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Cohabitation Skill: Analyze It LO 14.3.1: Outline the differences between cohabiting and married couples TB_14_26_Marriage The median age of first marriage in the United States is currently approximately __________ for men and __________ for women.

A) 25; 27 B) 32; 30 C) 30; 28 D) 22; 19 Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Marriage Skill: Remember the Facts LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_27_Marriage Which factor is related to higher levels of marriage satisfaction and stability?

A) Insecure attachment to one‘s family of origin B) High degrees of neuroticism C) How a couple manages conflict D) Different religious beliefs Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Marriage Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_28_Marriage Which component of marital success is generally ranked highest among adults in the United States?

A) Shared interests B) Agreement on politics C) Adequate income D) Having children

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Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Marriage Skill: Analyze It LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_29_Marriage Martin and Lewis are committed to each other and treat each other with respect even when they argue. They listen to one another and keep working until they find a solution. Which term would describe their conflict management style?

A) Volatile B) Avoidant C) Agreeing D) Validating Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Marriage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_30_Marriage Which situation provides an example of a validating couple, as identified by psychologists?

A) When Muhammed and Shaniqua disagree, one will immediately yield their point of view and agree with the other person in order to avoid a conflict.

B) Deion and Kwame agree that their marriage is a battleground and that they often argue over issues that have been unresolved for years.

C) Laura and Lars squabble all the time, probably because they don‘t listen to each other‘s arguments, but they maintain an affectionate and loving relationship.

D) When Bert and Ivy argue, they respect and listen to each other‘s point of view, and consequently their disagreements rarely escalate.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Marriage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_31_Marriage Quang and Nguyen are a married couple. They argue frequently and neither of them listens very well. Nonetheless, most of the time they get along well and neither has any thoughts of getting divorced. Which term would describe Quang and Nguyen conflict management style?

A) Volatile couple B) Disengaged couple C) Validating couple D) Fatuous couple Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Marriage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_32_Marriage Chuck and Yoha argue quite a bit. They don‘t seem to like each other, as they rarely even look at one another. They seem to lack any sort of affectionate, supportive relationship. How would researchers classify this couple?

A) Hostile/detached B) Hostile/engaged C) Volatile D) Hostile/avoidant Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Marriage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.3.2: Describe the effects of marriage on adults‘ lives TB_14_33_Divorce When are the negative emotional effects of a divorce felt most keenly?

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A) About a year after the divorce becomes finalized B) Curiously, not until 3 to 5 years after the separation C) During the court proceedings making the divorce final D) During the first month after the separation or divorce Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Divorce Skill: Analyze It LO 14.3.3: Describe the effects of divorce on adults‘ lives TB_14_34_Singlehood What percentage of U.S. adults between the ages of 20 and 34 have never been married?

A) 26% B) 34% C) 45% D) 72% Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Singlehood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.3.4: Explain the influence of singlehood on self-development TB_14_35_Singlehood How do individuals who view themselves as single by choice differ from individuals who have been single for a long time but eventually want to marry?

A) They are even more likely to experience the negative effects of being single on physical and psychological health.

B) They are more likely to experience psychological problems, but not physical problems.

C) They are less likely to experience the negative effects of being single on physical and psychological health.

D) There are no differences between the two groups in terms of negative health effects.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Singlehood Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.3.4: Explain the influence of singlehood on self-development TB_14_36_Parenthood Which statement is true regarding parenthood?

A) In the United States, 75% of females aged 18–34 have had or expect to have children.

B) In the United States, females value parenthood more than males do.

C) In the United States, the number of males who view parenthood as a life-enriching experience is greater than the number of females who feel this way.

D) Females are more likely than males to be emotionally attached to their unborn children during the third trimester of pregnancy.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Parenthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_37_Parenthood How does the social clock in American culture affect the age at which females have children in the 21st century?

A) Females are more likely to remain single, but nonetheless bear children.

B) Many females believe that people should be socially and economically established before bringing children into the world.

C) Many heterosexual females believe that it is even more important to find a husband who is financially stable now than in the 20th century.

D) The average age at which a female delivers her first child is now almost 30.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_38_Parenthood What happens during the la cuarenta period in Hispanic cultures?

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A) The mother of a newborn child is expected to live with her parents for 40 days following the birth of the child.

B) The father of the newborn is expected to celebrate and party for 40 days following the birth of the child.

C) The parents of the newborn rely on the extended family to care for the child during the 40 days following the birth of the child.

D) The father of a newborn is expected to take on typically feminine tasks such as housework for 40 days following the birth of the child.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_39_Parenthood In the weeks after giving birth, some females experience feelings of sadness that characterize the mood disturbance known as A) major depressive disorder.

B) postpartum depression.

C) bipolar disorder.

D) personality disorder.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Parenthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_40_Parenthood Approximately what percentage of new mothers experience postpartum depression?

A) 8% B) 17% C) 22% D) 41% Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_41_Parenthood Conchita is 7 months pregnant and has recently been diagnosed with depression. Conchita is at risk for which outcome?

A) Having a premature delivery B) Developing gestational diabetes C) Developing postpartum depression D) Developing an attachment disorder toward the infant Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_42_Parenthood What is the most reliable predictor of postpartum depression?

A) Depression during pregnancy B) Medical difficulties during the pregnancy C) Prenatal hormone deficiencies D) An unplanned pregnancy Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_43_Parenthood Which statement regarding the impact of childlessness in adulthood is correct?

A) Without the presence of children, marital satisfaction fluctuates more across time.

B) Couples who do not have children do not experience the drop in marital satisfaction that typically occurs during the first year

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of marriage.

C) Young adult childless couples report higher marital cohesion than do couples with children.

D) Childless married women are less likely to have full-time continuous careers.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_44_Social Networks

A family pattern in which one individual makes demands to which the other responds by withdrawing is called, rather sensibly, A) a demand/withdrawal interaction pattern.

B) a hostile retreat scheme.

C) the negativity/positivity quotient.

D) the stop-go gradient.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Social Networks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.4.2: Evaluate the importance of social relationships to young adults TB_14_45_Social Networks Which person is demonstrating an atypical relationship style of young adults in the United States?

A) Tim, who sought advice and emotional support from the men with whom he worked B) Sarah, who is troubled by problems in her marriage, and confides in her friend, Nikki C) Lilith and her sisters, who talk and spend time together once a week D) Olivia and her former college roommates, who rarely see each other, but whose friendships are maintained by telephone and e-mail Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Social Networks Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.4.2: Evaluate the importance of social relationships to young adults TB_14_46_Social Networks Judith is responsible for sending holiday cards, arranging social gatherings, and caring for her and her husband‘s aging parents.

Which term describes Judith‘s role?

A) Role manager B) Spouse C) Kin keeper D) Event planner Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Social Networks Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.4.2: Evaluate the importance of social relationships to young adults TB_14_47_No Easy Answers—Workplace Violence and Career Choice How do experts define workplace violence?

A) any act or threat of physical violence, harassment, intimidation, or other threatening disruptive behaviors that occur at the work site B) any workplace behavior that makes at least one or more coworkers feel uncomfortable C) the premeditated assault of a supervisor, manager, or other authority figures D) an altercation that results either in bloodshed or in the need to alert authorities, such as the police department or the sheriff‘s office Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—Workplace Violence and Career Choice Skill: Analyze It

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LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_48_No Easy Answers—Workplace Violence and Career Choice The dark triad cluster of personality traits is a predictor of which form of workplace violence?

A) Ideological violence B) Domestic violence C) Criminal intent D) Worker-to-worker Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—Workplace Violence and Career Choice Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_49_No Easy Answers—Workplace Violence and Career Choice In which form of workplace violence is a perpetrator likely to choose a site or victims for their symbolic value?

A) Worker-to-worker violence B) Ideological violence C) Customer/client violence D) Criminal intent Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—Workplace Violence and Career Choice Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_50_Choosing a Career How does personality play a role in occupations?

A) Personality predicts job satisfaction, but not other elements of a person‘s occupation.

B) Personality strongly influences job choice as well as job satisfaction.

C) Personality is weakly related to job choice, but few other aspects of the occupational world.

D) Personality factors tend to be unrelated to a person‘s choice of occupation.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_51_Choosing a Career Compared to the others, which factor is least likely to influence a young adult‘s choice of a job or career?

A) Family B) Intelligence C) Hobbies D) Gender Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_52_Choosing a Career Which conclusion can be reached when considering John Holland‘s personality type theory of career exploration?

A) A person should choose a career based on monetary considerations.

B) Certain personality types match well with certain careers.

C) Career success will depend on the particular training a person acquires.

D) Happiness in a career is dependent on completing a college education.

Answer: B Level: Easy

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Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_53_Choosing a Career How many personality types are there in John Holland‘s theory of personality and work preferences?

A) 4 B) 8 C) 7 D) 6 Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_54_Choosing a Career Greg is the ―strong silent type‖ who prefers work that does not require him to interact with other people. He is very skilled with hand and power tools and enjoys his job as a furniture crafter. According to John Holland‘s theory, what is Greg‘s personality type?

A) Artistic B) Conventional C) Realistic D) Investigative Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_55_Choosing a Career Darius rarely makes mistakes as an accountant for the Omega Corporation. He always follows the correct guidelines when he calculates production costs and profit margins. According to John Holland‘s theory, what is Darius‘ personality type?

A) Conventional B) Enterprising C) Investigative D) Social Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_56_Choosing a Career Owen is a biochemist. He is working on a project to map the human genome. In addition, he can calculate massive columns of numbers in his head but cannot remember to say hello to colleagues in the hallway. John Holland would classify Owen as A) artistic.

B) social.

C) investigative.

D) conventional.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_57_Choosing a Career Which personality type tends to be extraverted, people-oriented, and sociable?

A) Social B) Enterprising C) Conventional D) Realistic Answer: A Level: Easy

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Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_58_Choosing a Career Trevor is very creative. If he goes a week without seeing another person, he doesn‘t even notice. He likes to garden and is currently redesigning the entire landscape around his property. According to John Holland‘s theory, what type of person is Trevor?

A) Enterprising B) Investigative C) Realistic D) Artistic Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_59_Choosing a Career Which type of people considers themselves accurate and precise, and prefers professional activities that are structured and have clear guidelines?

A) Realistic B) Investigative C) Conventional D) Artistic Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_60_Choosing a Career Shlomo was asked to describe himself. ―Well, let‘s see,‖ he began. ―I‘m physically strong – really strong! I don‘t really do too well when I have to talk to people….or, really, even be with people. I‘m happy when I‘m in my garage, fixing something or cleaning my tools. I also like long walks on the beach at sunset and people with soft hands; but that‘s not really what you‘re asking about.‖ Given Shlomo‘s insights, which of John Holland‘s personality types would he fit?

A) Enterprising B) Conventional C) Realistic D) Artistic Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_61_Choosing a Career According to John Holland‘s personality type theory, people who possess good verbal and interpersonal skills are described as A) conventional.

B) enterprising.

C) social.

D) realistic.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_62_Career Development

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The process of adapting to the workplace, managing career transitions, and pursuing goals through employment defines which?

A) Occupational progression B) Career development C) Professional development D) Work place transition Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Career Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_63_Career Development During which developmental period does Donald Super argue that the roots of our career development process are found?

A) Infancy B) Early childhood C) Middle childhood D) Adolescence Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Career Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_64_Career Development During which of Donald Super‘s stages of career development does a young person search for a job or career that fits with their interests and personality?

A) Growth B) Exploratory C) Establishment D) Maintenance Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Career Development Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_65_Career Development According to Donald Super, an adult who is in the early stages of her career and is striving to acquire requisite skills and achieve a measure of success is in which phase of work experience?

A) Establishment B) Novice C) Trial D) Realistic Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Career Development Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_66_Career Development Giorgio is 50 years old. He has a good retirement portfolio in place and feels that he has made good career choices. He plans to stay in his current profession until he retires. According to Donald Super, in which stage of career development is Giorgio operating?

A) Growth B) Exploratory C) Establishment D) Maintenance Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Career Development Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_67_Career Development

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Which aspect of today‘s economy alters the way that Donald Super‘s model of career development is applied?

A) Adolescents are entering the work force earlier and are contributing more to the economy than during the 20th century.

B) Most young adults will have established a lifetime career by the age of 30.

C) Society no longer expects people to work until retirement age.

D) Job security is less reliable and people change careers more frequently than in the past.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Career Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_68_Gender Differences in Work Patterns Which statement is true about women in the workplace?

A) Women divide the family work equally with their husbands.

B) Women have little conflict or difficulty establishing priorities between work and family responsibilities.

C) The work–family conflict influences women‘s career decisions more strongly than it does men‘s.

D) Women experience sequential family and work roles.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Gender Differences in Work Patterns Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.5.3: Distinguish between the work patterns of men and women TB_14_69_Work–Life Balance Workers‘ job performance, mental health, and physical health are all affected by which factors?

A) Attachment style B) Quantity of life goals C) Work–life balance D) Off-work balance Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Work–Life Balance Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.4: Summarize the themes of the quality of work–life movement TB_14_70_Work–Life Balance Felix‘s company offers flextime. Employees are allowed to create their own work schedules, but there are certain times when all employees must be present. Which term is used to describe these common work times?

A) Come-and-go hours B) Work hours C) Telecommuting hours D) Core hours Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Work–Life Balance Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.4: Outline the themes of the quality of work–life movement

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_14_71_Stage Theories of Early Adulthood __________ argued that the central crisis of early adulthood dealt with issues of isolation and intimacy.

Answer: Erik Erikson Level: Easy Topic: Stage Theories of Early Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_72_Stage Theories of Early Adulthood __________ is the capacity to engage in a supportive, affectionate relationship without losing one‘s own sense of self.

Answer: Intimacy Level: Moderate Topic: Stage Theories of Early Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_73_Mate Selection Evolutionary explanations of mate selection are supported by cross-cultural studies that find heterosexual males prefer ________ and females prefer ________.

Answer: females who are younger and physically attractive; males who offer earning potential and stability Level: Difficult Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_74_Mate Selection The three components of love according to Robert Sternberg‘s triangular theory are intimacy, passion, and ________.

Answer: commitment Level: Easy Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_75_Parenthood

___________ refers to a severe mood disturbance that sometimes occurs in new mothers.

Answer: Postpartum depression Level: Difficult Topic: Parenthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_76_Social Networks A family role, usually occupied by a woman, which includes responsibility for maintaining family and friendship relationships is called being a ___________.

Answer: kin keeper Level: Difficult Topic: Social Networks Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.4.2: Evaluate the importance of social relationships to young adults TB_14_77_Choosing a Career According to John Holland‘s theory or work preferences and personality, the ________ personality type is asocial and prefers unstructured, highly individual activities.

Answer: artistic Level: Moderate Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_78_Career Development

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In Donald Super‘s stages of career development, the establishment stage is also called the ________ stage.

Answer: stabilization Level: Easy Topic: Career Development Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_79_Career Development A person high in the Big Five personality trait of ________ is likely to experience low relationship satisfaction and low job satisfaction.

Answer: neuroticism Level: Difficult Topic: Career Development Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development TB_14_80_Work–Life Balance QWL stands for the ________ movement.

Answer: quality of work–life Level: Easy Topic: Work–Life Balance Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.4: Outline the themes of the quality of work–life movement TB_14_81_Gender Differences in Work Patterns Work–family conflict more strongly influences ________ career decisions than those of ________.

Answer: females‘; males Level: Moderate Topic: Gender Differences in Work Patterns Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.3: Distinguish between the work patterns of men and women TB_14_82_Work–Life Balance Organizations that allow their employees to structure their own working hours, as long as certain minimums and job duties are fulfilled, are using _________ to enhance worker autonomy.

Answer: flextime Level: Easy Topic: Work–Life Balance Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.5.4: Summarize the themes of the quality of work–life movement

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Short Answer Questions TB_14_83_Emerging Adulthood Why do some theorists consider emerging adulthood to be a unique developmental period?

Answer: A growing number of developmentalists view the period between 18 and 25 as a transitional one. They argue that the neurological changes of the late teens and early 20s combine with cultural demands to shape the unique psychosocial features of this period of development. Psychologist Jeffrey Arnett has proposed that the educational, social, and economic demands that modern cultures make on individuals in this age range have given rise to a new developmental period he calls emerging adulthood, the period from the late teens to the early 20s when individuals explore options prior to committing to adult roles.

Level: Moderate Topic: Emerging Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.1.2: List the characteristics of emerging adulthood TB_14_84_Mate Selection Why does parental investment theory propose that heterosexual males are less selective in choosing a mate compared to heterosexual females?

Answer: Parental investment theory proposes that males value health and availability in their mates and are less selective than females because their minimum investment in parenting offspring—a single act of sexual intercourse—requires only a few minutes. In contrast, females‘ minimum investment in childbearing involves nurturing an unborn child in their own body for 9 months as well as enduring the potentially physically traumatic experience of giving birth.

Level: Moderate Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_85_Mate Selection Briefly explain social role theory in terms of gender differences in relationships.

Answer: Proponents of social role theory argue that the traditional male–female division of labor found in the majority of cultures drive socialization processes that are responsible for gender differences in behavior and self-perception. In support of this view, researchers have found that both males‘ and females‘ mate preferences changed as women gained economic power.

Women‘s emphasis on potential mates‘ earning power declined, and men‘s focus on potential mates‘ domestic skills decreased.

Level: Difficult Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_86_Mate Selection List and define the three components of love according to Robert Sternberg‘s theory.

Answer: intimacy—feelings that promote closeness and connectedness; passion—intense longing for union with another; commitment to a particular other over a long period of time Level: Difficult Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_87_Cohabiting Heterosexual Couples What are some of the factors that suggest cohabitation relationships are more likely to dissolve compared to marriages?

Answer: Cross-cultural studies indicate that cohabitation relationships are more likely than marriage to be dissolved. Moreover, couples who cohabit before marriage are more likely to divorce. These variations across couple types may be due to selection; that is, people who enter into cohabitation relationships may be different from people who marry. For example, cohabiting households tend to have lower incomes than those headed by married couples. In addition, cohabitating couples are more dissimilar in religious beliefs, ethnicity, race, educational attainment, and socioeconomic status than married couples are.

Level: Moderate Topic: Cohabiting Heterosexual Couples Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg‘s triangular theory of love TB_14_88_Couple Relationships in Early Adulthood What are some of the factors that receive the greatest and the least support from surveyed adults regarding the critical components of a successful marriage?

Answer: When polled, adults often respond that shared interests, having a satisfying sexual relationship, and sharing household chores are important components of a successful marriage, whereas having children, having an adequate income, or agreeing about politics are less important.

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Level: Difficult Topic: Couple Relationships in Early Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.3.1: Outline the differences between cohabiting and married couples TB_14_89_Parenthood What do sociologists mean when they discuss a social clock, and how is that concept related to trends in marriage or childbirth?

Answer: The social clock—the ages at which adults are expected to achieve specific milestones— underlies trends such as when people decide to marry or when they decide to have children. Although it doesn‘t include specific ages for the milestones of adulthood, the social clock in the United States today does include the idea that people ought to become socially and economically established before they bring children into the world.

Level: Difficult Topic: Parenthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_90_Parenthood Which considerations affect relationship satisfaction in childless couples compared to relationship satisfaction in couples with children?

Answer: Among couples without children, relationship satisfaction is linked to the reason for childlessness. Couples who are childless by choice do not differ in satisfaction from couples who have children or intend to do so. In contrast, research suggests that couples who are childless because of infertility express lower levels of satisfaction if they allow those problems to become part of their identities.

Level: Moderate Topic: Parenthood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.4.1: Summarize the effect of parenthood on self-development TB_14_91_Social Networks Define the term kin keeper.

Answer: A kin keeper is the person in a family who is responsible for coordinating the social and familial relationships through letter-writing, planning gatherings, and so on.

Level: Easy Topic: Social Networks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.4.2: Evaluate the importance of social relationships to young adults TB_14_92_Choosing a Career Describe a ―stereotypical‖ male job. Give two examples.

Answer: Stereotypical male jobs tend to be more technical and higher in status and income; examples include engineer, carpenter, or business executive Level: Moderate Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_93_Choosing a Career What are the characteristics of John Holland‘s realistic personality type?

Answer: aggressive, masculine, physically strong, often with low verbal or interpersonal skills, prefer mechanical activities and tool use Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Analyze It LO 14.5.1: Identify the factors that influence an individual‘s occupational choices TB_14_94_Work–Life Balance What are the goals of the QWL movement?

Answer: to reduce work-related stress by basing job and work place design on analyses of the quality of employee experiences in an organization Level: Difficult Topic: Work–Life Balance Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.5.4: Outline the themes of the quality of work–life movement

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Essay Questions TB_14_95_Stage Theories of Early Adulthood Explain the goal of successfully resolving Erik Erikson‘s crisis of intimacy versus isolation in young adulthood.

Answer: For Erik Erikson, the central crisis of early adulthood is intimacy versus isolation. The young adult must find a life partner, someone outside their own family with whom they can share their life, or face the prospect of being isolated from society. More specifically, intimacy is the capacity to engage in a supportive, affectionate relationship without losing one‘s own sense of self. Intimate partners can share their views and feelings with each other without fearing that the relationship will end.

They can also allow each other some degree of independence without feeling threatened.

Level: Difficult Topic: Stage Theories of Early Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.1.1: Contrast Erikson‘s and Levinson‘s stage theories of early adult development TB_14_96_Levinson‘s Life Structures Describe each of the five features that are associated with the developmental period of emerging adulthood. In your own life, have you experienced any or all of these factors, or do you anticipate that you will at some point?

Answer: Answers will vary, but should draw from this information: Identity explorations: Trying out of worldviews, romantic roles, occupational roles, and so on, in pursuit of an integrated sense of self Instability: More frequent changes in residence, jobs, career goals, financial status than occur at later ages Self-focus: Trial and error in independent decision-making motivated by the desire to achieve solutions that enhance personal development instead of serving others‘ goals In-between feeling: A sense that one has not yet attained full adult status but is no longer an adolescent Possibilities/optimism: Contemplation of many possible futures and belief that successes will exceed failures Level: Difficult Topic: Emerging Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.1.2: List the characteristics of emerging adulthood.

TB_14_97_Mate Selection Briefly describe how evolutionary psychologists conceptualize the mating strategies of heterosexual females and males.

Answer: Evolutionary explanations of behavior emphasize the survival value of behavior patterns. As such, they focus on the differing reproductive priorities of males and females. Cross-cultural studies conducted over a period of several decades suggest that males prefer physically attractive, younger females, while females look for males whose socioeconomic status is higher than their own, who offer earning potential and stability. According to evolutionary psychologists, the reasons behind males‘ and females‘ divergent mating goals are explained by parental investment theory, the theory that sex differences in mate preferences and mating behaviors are based on the different amounts of time and effort males and females must invest in child rearing. Males value health and availability in their mates and are less selective than females because their minimum investment in parenting offspring—a single act of sexual intercourse—requires only a few minutes. In contrast, females‘ minimum investment in childbearing involves nurturing an unborn child in their own body for 9 months as well as enduring the potentially physically traumatic experience of giving birth. Given their minimum investments, males seek to maximize the likelihood of survival of the species by maximizing the number of their offspring; females seek to minimize the number of their offspring because their investment is so much greater.

Level: Difficult Topic: Mate Selection Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection TB_14_98_Research Report—Sex Differences in the Impact of Marriage Explain why social role theory challenges some of the fundamental principles regarding mate selection that have been proposed by evolutionary psychologists.

Answer: Consistent sex differences in mate preferences and mating behavior have been found across many cultures, and evolutionary theorists suggest that this cross-cultural consistency is strong evidence for a genetic basis for the behavior. In contrast to evolutionary theory, social role theory emphasizes the influence of culturally defined gender roles on mate selection.

Proponents of social role theory argue that the traditional male–female division of labor found in the majority of cultures drives socialization processes that are responsible for gender differences in behavior and self-perception. A reanalysis of a very large set of cross-cultural data produced and interpreted by evolutionary psychologists in support of parental investment theory demonstrated that both males‘ and females‘ mate preferences changed as women gained economic power. Women‘s emphasis on potential mates‘ earning power declined, and men‘s focus on potential mates‘ domestic skills decreased.

Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Sex Differences in the Impact of Marriage Skill: Evaluate It LO 14.2.2: Describe the theories of mate selection

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TB_14_99_Romantic Love List the three components of love according to Robert Sternberg‘s triangular theory, then describe the seven types of love that result from the combination of these components.

Answer: Sternberg proposed three components of love: intimacy, passion, and commitment. Combinations of these components produce seven types of love, according to Sternberg: 1) Empty love—only commitment 2) Companionate love—commitment and intimacy 3) Liking—intimacy only 4) Fatuous love—commitment and passion 5) Infatuation—passion only 6) Romantic love—intimacy and passion 7) Consummate love—all three components Level: Difficult Topic: Romantic Love Skill: Analyze It LO 14.2.3: Describe attachment theory and Sternberg’s triangular theory of love

TB_14_100_Cohabitation Describe the distinction often made between different types of cohabitation. Do these different forms predict different outcomes for the different-sex cohabiting couple?

Answer: Among different-sex couples, there are two distinct types of cohabitation. One type involves couples who are fully committed to a future marriage. In most cases, these couples have firm wedding plans and choose to live together for convenience or for economic reasons. Most share their financial resources. They are also more likely to jointly own a home than couples who do not have firm marital intentions. In addition, women in intend-to-marry cohabiting relationships have more favorable attitudes toward pregnancy. Thus, it may not be surprising that there is very little difference between married couples who cohabited with a firm intention to marry and those who did not cohabit. In the second type of cohabitation, the relationship between the two partners is more ambiguous. Many such couples regard future marriage as a possibility but also believe that the relationship may be temporary. Such ambiguity is evident in survey data showing that cohabiting couples without marital intentions are likely to say that they prefer cohabitation to marriage because the former is easier to get out of. This may be why most such couples do not mingle their financial resources even though such an arrangement tends to increase conflicts over money. In addition, intent-to-marry is correlated with relationship priorities. Cohabiting partners without a firm intention to marry more often prioritize family-of-origin relationships over their romantic relationship. Another key finding is that males are more likely than females to say that cohabitation fulfills all of their social affiliation needs.

Level: Easy Topic: Cohabitation Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 14.3.1: Outline the differences between cohabiting and married couples TB_14_101_Singlehood What percentage of adults between the ages of 20 and 34 in the United States have never been married? Are there differences in the motivations of people who remain single? Does singlehood affect their lives in any way, such as their health outcomes?

Answer: In the United States, about 72% of adults between the ages of 20 and 34 have never been married. Large-scale surveys suggest that single adults are at greater risk of being diagnosed with cardiovascular disease and cancer than their peers who are married. Before inferring that singlehood somehow causes health risks, it is important to understand that single and partnered adults differ in socioeconomic status, a cluster of variables that predicts health outcomes. As a group, single adults have lower levels of educational attainment and are more likely to be unemployed than their married peers. Thus, they have lower incomes and are less likely to have health insurance. At the individual level, the impact of singlehood on adults‘ health depends on the reason for their relationship status. So-called ―voluntary‖ singles consider singlehood a personal choice and have no desire to change their status. Others, known as ―involuntary‖ singles, would prefer to be partnered but have not yet established an intimate relationship. These two groups differ in loneliness, with involuntary singles more likely to describe themselves as lonely. Voluntary singles are more likely than involuntary singles to be outgoing and open to new experiences, a profile that is associated with being socially active and having many acquaintances and friends. As a result, voluntary singles probably receive more social support than do involuntary singles, whose personality profiles predispose them to forming more limited social networks.

Level: Difficult Topic: Singlehood Skill: Analyze It LO 14.3.4: Explain the influence of singlehood on self-development TB_14_102_Choosing a Career Summarize John Holland‘s typology of personality and work preferences, noting some of the occupations that might be

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associated with each type. Which personality type are you, and how does this type match with the college major or career you have chosen (or are considering)?

Answer: Answers will vary, but should draw from this information: Realistic: aggressive, masculine, physically strong, often with low verbal or interpersonal skills; prefer mechanical activities and tool use, choosing jobs such as mechanic, electrician, or surveyor Investigative: oriented toward thinking (particularly abstract thinking), organizing, and planning; prefer ambiguous, challenging tasks, but are low in social skills; are often scientists or engineers Artistic: asocial; prefer unstructured, highly individual activity; are often artists Social: extraverts; people-oriented and sociable and need attention; avoid intellectual activity and dislike highly ordered activity; prefer to work with people and choose service jobs like nursing and education Enterprising: highly verbal and dominating; enjoy organizing and directing others; are persuasive and strong leaders, often choosing careers in sales Conventional: prefer structured activities and subordinate roles; like clear guidelines and see themselves as accurate and precise; may choose occupations such as bookkeeping or filing Level: Difficult Topic: Choosing a Career Skill: Apply What You Know LO 14.5.2: Describe the process of career development

TEST BANK CHAPTER 15: PHYSICAL AND COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN MIDDLE ADULTHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_15_01_Male Climacteric Fifty-year-old Anthony has begun to experience difficulty in achieving and maintaining an erection. These changes might indicate that Anthony is experiencing which process?

A) Menopause B) The climacteric C) Osteoporosis D) Heart disease Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Male Climacteric Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.1.1: Describe the changes in reproductive function that middle-aged men experience TB_15_02_Male Climacteric Which is associated with the male climacteric?

A) Enlargement of the testes B) Increased volume of seminal fluid C) Increased difficulty attaining and maintaining an erection D) Increased production of testosterone Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Male Climacteric Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.1.1: Describe the changes in reproductive function that middle-aged men experience TB_15_03_Male Climacteric At what age do men typically begin to experience the climacteric?

A) 30s B) 40s

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C) 50s D) 60s Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Male Climacteric Skill: Remember the Facts LO 15.1.1: Describe the changes in reproductive function that middle-aged men experience TB_15_04_Menopause Which hormone rises during the second half of the menstrual cycle and stimulates the sloughing off of accumulated material in the uterus each month if conception has not occurred?

A) Progesterone B) Estrogen C) Testosterone D) Serotonin Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Menopause Skill: Analyze It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_05_Menopause __________ refers to the cessation of menstrual cycles.

A) Menopause B) Puberty C) Menarche D) Adrenarche Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Menopause Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_06_Menopause Gilda is 45 years old. Her estrogen levels have decreased, her menstrual periods have become very irregular, and she experiences periods of extreme sweating. What‘s happening with Gilda?

A) She is in the premenopausal phase of menopause.

B) She is in the postmenopausal phase of menopause.

C) She is in the perimenopausal phase of menopause.

D) Gilda is too young to be experiencing menopause so she should see her physician.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Menopause Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_07_Menopause During which phase of menopause do both types of estrogen drop, progesterone levels drop, and ovulation cease?

A) Postmenopausal phase B) Perimenopausal phase C) Premenopausal phase D) Postovulatory phase Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Menopause Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age

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TB_15_08_Menopause Jucinda is 45 years old and feels hot while sitting at her desk. Her face turns red, she begins to sweat, and then she feels chills.

Jucinda is experiencing A) hot flashes.

B) a stroke.

C) perimenopause.

D) dyspepsia.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Menopause Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_09_Menopause Which statement is true of menopause?

A) The female body remains fertile for even 5 years after the conclusion of menopause.

B) A female may experience irregular menstrual periods.

C) The older a person is at the onset of menopause, the higher the risk of depression.

D) Menopause usually occurs between age 55 and 65.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Menopause Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_10_No Easy Answers—The Pros and Cons of Hormone Therapy for Menopause Symptoms Which statement summarizes current research findings on the use of hormone therapy (HT) during menopause?

A) The use of HT causes more risks than benefits, so most physicians are recommending it not be used at all.

B) HT has been in use since the early 19th century and has proven to be safe and reliable.

C) Natural supplements should be used whenever possible in place of synthetic forms of HT. D) The use of HT should be approached cautiously and should be symptom-specific.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—The Pros and Cons of Hormone Therapy for Menopause Symptoms Skill: Analyze It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_11_No Easy Answers—The Pros and Cons of Hormone Therapy What are the only consistent documented benefits of hormone replacement therapy?

A) Fewer hot flashes and protection against osteoporosis B) Increased sex drive and feelings of youthful vitality C) Increased lung capacity and greater stamina D) Reduced risk of coronary heart disease and stroke Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—The Pros and Cons of Hormone Therapy Skill: Analyze It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_12_Menopause How do experts and researchers view menopause?

A) It is responsible for producing the majority of mood disorders in middle adulthood.

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B) It is regarded as a normal part of the aging cycle.

C) It is responsible for increased diagnosis of anxiety attacks among middle-aged females.

D) It produces severe irritability.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Menopause Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_13_Reproductive Changes in Middle Adulthood Dr. Sardonicus is teaching a group of medical students. Her lecture focuses on the period beginning around 10 years prior to menopause, when hormone production begins to change. She is discussing A) premenopause.

B) hormone inception.

C) the climacteric.

D) perimenopause.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Reproductive Changes in Middle Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_14_Sexual Activity in Middle Adulthood What is the most likely explanation for the decline in sexual activity associated with midlife?

A) The demands and pressures of everyday living B) The drop in testosterone levels in both females and males C) The psychological effects of the climacteric D) Fluctuating hormone levels associated with menopause Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Activity in Middle Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.1.3: Explain how reproductive changes in middle adulthood affect sexual activity TB_15_15_The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Why do we know so little about normal middle-aged brains?

A) Research has mostly focused on children‘s brain functions.

B) Most research has focused on changes associated with trauma and disease.

C) Research has generally been focused on the brain functions of much older adults or very young children.

D) Research has always been limited by the availability of research subjects who, in this case, are in their peak working years.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.1: Describe the research findings on brain function in middle age TB_15_16_The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Which brain change trajectories have been projected for people in their 40s and 50s?

A) Rapid declines in white matter B) Gradual declines in total brain volume and gray matter volume C) A long period of stability, then a dramatic dip in brain volume toward the end of that period, usually around age 48 D) Greater myelination and regeneration of neurons Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 15.2.1: Describe the research findings on brain function in middle age TB_15_17_The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Why are middle-aged adults involved in fewer automobile accidents compared to younger people?

A) Middle-aged people are more likely to have their driver license revoked for traffic infractions.

B) Younger drivers have more lapses in judgment and miss a greater number of speed cues.

C) The slowing of reaction time helps middle-aged adults avoid an accident.

D) Middle-aged people have better insurance coverage, so they take more risks.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.1: Describe the research findings on brain function in middle age TB_15_18_The Skeletal System Sue Ellen‘s bones have become brittle, fragile, and thin. Her physician tells her she has developed A) osteoporosis.

B) presbyopia.

C) hypothyroidism.

D) rickets.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_19_The Skeletal System Which statement regarding osteoporosis is correct?

A) Osteoporosis in females is accelerated by menopause.

B) Males are unaffected by osteoporosis.

C) Females cannot reduce risk of osteoporosis by getting sufficient calcium during early adulthood.

D) Osteoporosis is not associated with a significantly increased risk of fractures.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_20_The Skeletal System Which factor is linked most directly to osteoporosis in females?

A) Diet in young adulthood B) Estrogen and progesterone levels C) Age at menopause D) Occupational history Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_21_The Skeletal System People can reduce the risk of osteoporosis by maintaining a diet high in calcium and A) eating no processed foods.

B) eating fresh fruit.

C) getting enough sleep.

D) getting regular exercise.

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Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_22_The Skeletal System Which risk factor is associated with osteoporosis?

A) Being male B) Obesity C) Early menopause D) Being an athlete Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_23_The Skeletal System Chi Chi was worried about developing osteoporosis, so in addition to exercising and watching her diet, she consulted her doctor during her 30s to gain more information. ―Well,‖ her physician replied, ―there is a test we can do that can help identify osteoporosis before severe damage to the bones occurs.‖ Which test is that?

A) Electrocardiogram (EKG) B) Galvanic skin response (GSR) C) Ocular osteoporosis presence (OOP) D) Bone mineral density (BMD) Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_24_Vision and Hearing Marcella has never had anything but perfect vision, but shortly after her 40th birthday she noticed it was getting more and more difficult to read her romance novels at night—as if her arms were not long enough to hold the book far enough away to get it in focus. If Marcella visits her ophthalmologist, she will likely be diagnosed with which condition?

A) Glaucoma B) Stereopsis C) Presbyopia D) Presbycusis Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Vision and Hearing Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.2.3: Outline changes in the senses that occur in middle age TB_15_25_Vision and Hearing Which condition occurs when the lens of the eye thickens and becomes less elastic?

A) Glaucoma B) Osteoma C) Myopia D) Presbyopia Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Vision and Hearing Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.3: Outline changes in the senses that occur in middle age TB_15_26_Vision and Hearing Which condition results from degeneration of the auditory nerves and inner ear structures, so that an individual loses the ability to hear sounds of high and very low frequencies?

A) Tinnitus B) Auricularis C) Presbycusis

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D) Auditory neuropathy Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Vision and Hearing Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.3: Outline changes in the senses that occur in middle age TB_15_27_Vision and Hearing Ivanhoe has difficulty hearing, especially high-frequency tones, such as when his granddaughter speaks to him. Ivanhoe is experiencing difficulty with A) auricularis.

B) neuropathy.

C) presbyopia.

D) presbycusis.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Vision and Hearing Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.2.3: Outline changes in the senses that occur in middle age TB_15_28_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Statistically, which group has the shortest life expectancy in the United States?

A) Non-Hispanic Asian males B) Non-Hispanic American Indian/Alaska Native males C) Non-Hispanic White females D) Non-Hispanic Black females Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_29_Cardiovascular Disease Risks The group of disease processes in the heart and circulatory system is collectively known as A) cardiovascular disease.

B) lymphoma.

C) pulmonary sclerosis.

D) diverticulitis.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_30_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which term is used for deposits of plaque in the arteries that cause them to narrow or become blocked?

A) Venosclerosis B) Osteoarthritis C) Atherosclerosis D) Diabetes Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_31_Cardiovascular Disease Risks What is the leading cause of death among adults in the United States?

A) Accidents B) Stroke C) Cardiovascular disease D) Diabetes-related complications Answer: C Level: Easy

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Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_32_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which attribute is a significant risk factor for heart disease?

A) Below-normal weight B) Low levels of low-density lipoproteins C) Smoking D) Low consumption of malt liquor Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_33_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which statement is accurate concerning the risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A) The primary risk factors are not well known.

B) Factors such as high cholesterol or smoking do not constitute an increased risk when both are present.

C) The more high-risk behaviors or characteristics a person has, the higher the person‘s risk of heart disease.

D) Widespread publicity about the dangers of smoking and high cholesterol has had little effect on the rate of cardiovascular disease for most Americans.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_34_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Lorne is visiting the bank to deposit some money. As he completes the deposit slip, the ink in the pen suddenly runs dry. ―You’ve gotta *#!@&#! be kidding me with this!!‖ he screams, to no one in particular. ―Don’t waste my *#@&!$ time!! Somebody get me a pen that works!!!‖ Which personality type is Lorne exhibiting?

A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_35_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which case represents the Type A personality characteristic that is most strongly linked to cardiovascular disease?

A) Beth is motivated by her desire to be the team leader in her division, but her coworkers dislike her assertive demeanor.

B) Barry‘s responsibilities dictate his urgent, fast-paced life, and he constantly checks his watch to make sure that he is on time and on schedule.

C) When Jocko loses a business deal, he takes his anger and hostility out by screaming at other drivers during his evening commute.

D) Mildred is unable to retain a secretary because she is constantly instructing them on how to use their time and energy more efficiently.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_36_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which personality constellation includes traits such as a competitive drive, a sense of time urgency, and sometimes aggressiveness or hostility?

A) Borderline personality

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B) Type B personality C) Type A personality D) Melancholy personality Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_37_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which characteristic of Type A personality is most closely linked to cardiovascular disease?

A) Time urgency B) Competitiveness C) Ambitiousness D) Hostility Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_38_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Which condition is a risk factor for both heart disease and cancer?

A) High blood pressure B) High cholesterol C) Moderate alcohol use D) Smoking Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_39_Cancer How does being overweight affect a person‘s risk of cancer?

A) It substantially increases the risk for lung cancer, but not other types of cancer.

B) It is a significant risk factor in many types of cancer.

C) It is only a risk factor for cancer if it is associated with genetic risk.

D) It is not a risk factor for cancer.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Cancer Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_40_Cancer _______ is a factor commonly associated with an increased risk of several types of cancer.

A) Blood pressure B) Cholesterol C) Exercise D) Weight Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Cancer Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_41_Cancer Which event is the second leading cause of death of adults over age 45 in the United States?

A) Heart disease B) Cancer C) Diabetes-related complications D) Obesity Answer: B

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Level: Easy Topic: Cancer Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_42_Cancer Hepatitis B virus is closely linked to which health disorder?

A) Colon cancer B) Kidney cancer C) Stomach ulcers D) Liver cancer Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Cancer Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_43_Cancer Which bacterial infection has been linked to some cancers?

A) Streptococcus B) Staphylococcus C) Helicobacter pylori D) MRSA Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Cancer Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_44_Cancer Which virus is associated with cancers of the nose and throat?

A) Epstein-Barr B) Heliobacter C) DMSO D) HIV Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Cancer Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_45_Alcohol Use Disorder What is the most frequently abused substance in the United States?

A) Nicotine B) Alcohol C) Tobacco D) Cocaine Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Alcohol Use Disorder Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.3: Explain the possible consequences of alcoholism for middle-aged adults TB_15_46_Alcohol Use Disorder Which drug that can help recovering alcoholics deal with withdrawal symptoms?

A) Antabuse B) Methyltrexate C) Acamprosate D) Acetaminophen Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Alcohol Use Disorder Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.3: Explain the possible consequences of alcoholism for middle-aged adults

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TB_15_47_Alcohol Use Disorder How do the death rates of males in their 50s and early 60s with alcoholism compare to nonalcoholics?

A) Alcoholics are 2–3 times more likely to die in midlife.

B) Alcoholics are 5–6 times more likely to die in midlife.

C) Alcoholics are 10 times more likely to die in midlife.

D) Alcoholics are more likely to die in later adulthood.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Alcohol Use Disorder Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.3: Explain the possible consequences of alcoholism for middle-aged adults TB_15_48_Gender and Health Which statement is correct regarding the relationship between gender and health?

A) In general, males complain about their health more than females do.

B) Females tend to live longer but they also have more diseases and disabilities compared to males.

C) Males die younger and tend to have more diseases and disabilities than females do.

D) Males are more likely than females to describe their health as ―poor.‖ Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Gender and Health Skill: Analyze It LO 15.4.1: Contrast the health of middle-aged men and women TB_15_49_Gender and Health Compared to the others, which person statistically is most likely to be diagnosed with arthritis?

A) Harry, a man in his mid-50s B) Dolly, a woman in her late 20s C) Art, a man in his early 30s D) Norma, a woman in her early 80s Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Gender and Health Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.4.1: Contrast the health of middle-aged men and women TB_15_50_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health In middle adulthood, which factors correlate with socioeconomic status and are predictive of health?

A) Overall health and income level B) Educational level and ethnicity C) Occupational level and education D) Ethnicity and availability of social networks Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Analyze It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_51_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Compared to the others, which person statistically has the greatest likelihood of developing lung cancer?

A) Lonnie, a Native American man in his 30s B) Freddie, a Black man in his 50s C) Julie, a Hispanic woman in her 20s D) Susie, a Black woman in her 80s Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_52_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Among females, __________ women have the highest prevalence of breast cancer, whereas ___________ women have the highest mortality from breast cancer.

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A) Hispanic; Native American B) Black; Hispanic C) Asian; White D) White; Black Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_53_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Which outcome is a common complication of diabetes?

A) Brain tumors B) HIV C) High blood pressure D) Blindness Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Analyze It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_54_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Which hypothesis has been offered to explain why diabetes has a more devastating effect on Black and Hispanic people than on non-Hispanic White people?

A) Black and Hispanic people are likely to contract the disease earlier in life so it has a longer time to adversely affect the body.

B) Black and Hispanic people are likely to be in poorer health overall.

C) Black and Hispanic people are more likely to contract juvenile diabetes and then develop adult onset diabetes later.

D) Black and Hispanic people are less likely to adequately manage their diabetes.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_55_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Which statement regarding health and ethnicity is accurate?

A) Black Americans have the highest rates of prostate, colorectal, and lung cancer.

B) Native Americans have lower rates of kidney cancer than other groups.

C) Asian Americans have the lowest rates of liver cancer.

D) Hispanic Americans have the highest rates of breast cancer.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_56_Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Which statement is consistent with Nancy Denney‘s view of age-related changes in physical and cognitive functioning?

A) Physical exercise will facilitate maintenance of physical abilities through adulthood, but no equivalent improvement can be made in cognitive functioning.

B) There is an underlying decay curve, so that with increased age there will eventually be a point at which even maximum exercise will not help an individual maintain their lifetime‘s peak functioning in either physical or cognitive abilities.

C) If a skill is unexercised for any length of time, or becomes ―rusty,‖ exercise will not cause any improvement.

D) Early adulthood is the time of peak function in physical and cognitive abilities.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.5.1: Explain Denney‘s and the Baltes‘s models of physical and cognitive aging TB_15_57_Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging According to Nancy Denney‘s model of aging, the maximum level of cognitive and physical function an individual can achieve with exercise

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A) steadily decreases after middle adulthood.

B) steadily increases as the individual ages.

C) is determined by social class, gender, and ethnicity.

D) stabilizes at about age 40.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.1: Explain Denney‘s and the Baltes‘s models of physical and cognitive aging TB_15_58_Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging What is the term used by Margaret Baltes and Paul Baltes to refer to the process of balancing the gains and losses associated with aging?

A) Senescence B) Selective remembering with mnemonic compensation C) Selective optimization with compensation D) Judicial optimization of resources Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.1: Explain Denney‘s and the Baltes‘s models of physical and cognitive aging TB_15_59_Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Mimiko, age 52, is an administrative assistant working in the same law firm as Paige, age 25. Both are excellent at their jobs, even though Mimiko is older and has some slowing in her reaction time. What allows Mimiko to perform her job as well as Paige?

A) Mimiko is given less difficult work to complete, whereas Paige receives more challenging assignments.

B) Paige lacks experience and understanding of the complex material.

C) Mimiko has developed selective optimization, whereby she can look further into the material to compensate for her slower reactions.

D) Mimiko has greater verbal skills development than Paige.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.5.1: Explain Denney‘s and the Baltes‘s models of physical and cognitive aging TB_15_60_Health and Cognitive Functioning Compared to the others, which person might be expected to experience earlier or larger intellectual declines?

A) Mr. Morganfield, age 70, who has taken medication for high blood pressure for 20 years B) Mrs. Collins, age 65, who has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer C) Ms. Burnett, age 50, who is in the postmenopausal phase D) Mr. Dixon, age 50, who has been advised by his physician to lose 25 pounds Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_61_Health and Cognitive Functioning Overall physical health and cognitive performance in middle adulthood are most closely linked to A) a family history and genetic predisposition.

B) a low-fat, high-fiber diet.

C) an optimistic attitude.

D) physical exercise.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning

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Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_62_Health and Cognitive Functioning How does physical exercise help maintain cognitive abilities in middle age?

A) Because the brain is a muscle; use it or lose it B) By decreasing low-density lipoproteins (―bad‖ cholesterol) C) By maintaining cardiovascular fitness D) By increasing optimism and life satisfaction Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_63_Health and Cognitive Functioning A researcher who is studying the cognitive functioning of middle-aged adults would find which outcome to be true of the participants regarding well-rehearsed, familiar tasks?

A) They would have difficulty performing them.

B) They will show gradual decrements.

C) They would perceive impaired performance.

D) They would maintain or gain in skill.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_64_Changes in Memory and Cognition Which statement represents a semantic memory?

A) ―I visited Paris in 2019.‖ B) ―I like blueberry yogurt.‖ C) ―Texans seem boastful to me.‖ D) ―Tuscaloosa is west of Sylacauga.‖ Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Memory and Cognition Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.5.3: Contrast the performance of young and middle-aged adults on memory tests TB_15_65_Changes in Memory and Cognition Penelope told her mother everything she did and everything that happened at her school dance last night. Penelope was relying on which type of memory?

A) Procedural B) Episodic C) Implicit D) Semantic Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Changes in Memory and Cognition Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.5.3: Contrast the performance of young and middle-aged adults on memory tests TB_15_66_Changes in Memory and Cognition How does aging affect memory?

A) Memory ability declines with age, and by middle adulthood significant decline has occurred.

B) By age 45, an individual would have more difficulty retrieving a semantic memory than an episodic memory.

C) With advancing age, individuals tend to remember fewer specific details of a story and more of the theme or meaning of the story.

D) With advancing age, auditory memory declines rapidly, but visual memory is stable or improves.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Changes in Memory and Cognition Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 15.5.3: Contrast the performance of young and middle-aged adults on memory tests TB_15_67_Creativity Which definition applies to creativity?

A) The ability to produce original, appropriate, and valuable ideas and/or solutions to problems B) The ability to draw, sing, dance, or paint C) The ability to compensate for one‘s shortcomings D) The ability to build and produce new forms of learning Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Creativity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.5.4: Analyze research about age-related changes in creativity TB_15_68_Creativity Alan has collected many scrips and scraps of material in his garage over the years. Looking at an oddly shaped wastepaper basket one day, it occurred to him that it would make a really cool planter. He drilled some holes in the bottom, installed some screws for risers, and planted a lovely batch of peonies. What kind of thinking was Alan demonstrating when repurposing these materials?

A) Symbolic B) Postformal C) Dialectic D) Divergent Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Creativity Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.5.4: Analyze research about age-related changes in creativity TB_15_69_Creativity Rollie, Ollie, Mollie, and Fritz are each asked, individually, ―How many uses can you think of for a brick?‖ Rollie generated 8 uses; Ollie could think of 17 different things to do with a brick. Mollie proposed 3 ideas, and Fritz thought of 6. Which person showed the greatest amount of divergent thinking?

A) Rollie B) Ollie C) Mollie D) Fritz Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Creativity Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.5.4: Analyze research about age-related changes in creativity TB_15_70_Developmental Science in the Workplace—The Creative Edge According to data collected from interviews of successful and creative older adults, which consistent theme was reported to enhance creativity?

A) Recognizing one‘s own limitations and compensating for them B) Recognizing the value of accumulated knowledge and experience C) Realizing that the creative process must start early in life if it is to be successful D) Recognizing that creativity is a gift of youth Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science in the Workplace—The Creative Edge Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.4: Analyze research about age-related changes in creativity

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_15_71_Male Climacteric Difficulty in achieving and maintaining an erection during midlife are indications of ________.

Answer: the male climacteric Level: Moderate Topic: Male Climacteric Skill: Analyze It

LO 15.1.1: Describe the changes in reproductive function that middle-aged men experience TB_15_72_Menopause The last phase of menopause is called the ________ phase.

Answer: postmenopausal Level: Easy Topic: Menopause Skill: Understand the Concepts

LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age TB_15_73_The Skeletal System The loss of bone mass is called ________ and begins at around age ________.

Answer: osteoporosis; 30 Level: Difficult Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_74_Vision and Hearing Tino‘s family is getting tired of having to repeat everything they say to him because he has difficulty hearing. He goes to an audiologist and finds that he has ________, so the audiologist recommends a hearing aid.

Answer: presbycusis Level: Difficult Topic: Vision and Hearing Skill: Apply What You Know LO 15.2.3: Outline changes in the senses that occur in middle age TB_15_75_Cardiovascular Disease Risks ________ is the most common cause of death for adults in the United States.

Answer: Cardiovascular disease Level: Easy Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_76_Cardiovascular Disease Risks The Type A personality characteristic that seems to be the biggest contributor to cardiovascular disease is ________.

Answer: hostility Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_77_Cancer High-________ diets seem to increase the risk of some forms of cancer, whereas high-________ diets seem to decrease the risk of other forms of cancer.

Answer: fat; fiber Level: Moderate Topic: Cancer Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_78_Cancer

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There is a link between the human papillomavirus (HPV) and ___________ cancer.

Answer: cervical Level: Easy Topic: Cancer Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.3.2: Identify the factors that contribute to cancer TB_15_79_Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging According to Nancy Denney‘s model of aging, the maximum level of cognitive and physical function an individual can achieve with exercise steadily ________ as the individual ages.

Answer: declines (decreases) Level: Easy Topic: Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.5.1: Explain Denney‘s and the Baltes‘s models of physical and cognitive aging TB_15_80_Health and Cognitive Functioning Overall physical health and enhanced cognitive performance in middle adulthood are most closely linked to ________.

Answer: physical exercise Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_81_Changes in Memory and Cognition ________ memory involves recollection of specific events; ________ memory involves the recollection of general knowledge and facts.

Answer: Episodic; semantic Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Memory and Cognition Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.3: Contrast the performance of young and middle-aged adults on memory tests TB_15_82_Creativity Creativity can be conceptualized as a type of thought process called ________ thinking.

Answer: divergent Level: Difficult Topic: Creativity Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.4: Analyze research about age-related changes in creativity

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Short Answer Questions TB_15_83_Male Climacteric Which lifestyle changes can a man make to maintain sexual functioning during middle age?

Answer: Lifestyle changes can sometimes restore sexual function in middle-aged males. Such changes include weight loss, reduction of alcohol consumption, quitting smoking, and increasing physical activity levels. Regular aerobic exercise has also been found to improve erectile function among men who have been diagnosed with hypertension.

Level: Difficult Topic: Male Climacteric Skill: Analyze It LO 15.1.1: Describe the changes in reproductive function that middle-aged men experience

TB_15_84_Menopause List the three phases of menopause in order. Identify what happens to hormone levels in each phase.

Answer: Premenopausal: estrogen levels begin to fluctuate and decline; perimenopausal: estrogen levels decrease; postmenopausal: estradiol and estrogen both decrease, as does progesterone.

Level: Difficult Topic: Menopause Skill: Analyze It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age

TB_15_85_Menopause What is the likelihood that a person who menstruates will develop clinically diagnosable depression after menopause, or experience some similar major emotional upheaval?

Answer: It has been part of folklore for a very long time that menopause involves major emotional upheaval as well as clear physical changes. Some observers point to statistics showing that women‘s suicide risk is highest during middle age in support of this claim. Furthermore, longitudinal studies show that depressive symptoms increase during menopause. However, menopause typically occurs coincidentally with other life events, such as retirement planning, declining health of older parents, diminishing parenting responsibilities, and grandparenthood. Consequently, it is difficult to separate the emotional impact of menopause from that of co-occurring life changes. Level: Moderate Topic: Menopause Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age

TB_15_86_Sexual Activity in Middle Adulthood How can the decline in the frequency of sexual activity during middle age be explained?

Answer: Despite changes in the reproductive system, national surveys in the United States indicate that the great majority of middle-aged adults remain sexually active, although the frequency of sex declines somewhat during these years. The best explanation for the decline is that the demands of other roles are simply so pressing that middle-aged adults find it hard to find time for sex. Increasing rates of chronic diseases, such as diabetes and arthritis, may also explain the declines in the frequency of sexual activity among people in their 50s.

Level: Moderate Topic: Sexual Activity in Middle Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 15.1.3: Explain how reproductive changes in middle adulthood affect sexual activity TB_15_87_The Skeletal System Identify the risk factors associated with osteoporosis.

Answer: Risk factors for osteoporosis include race, gender, weight, the timing of the climacteric, family history, diet, and exercise.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Skeletal System Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.2: Identify the factors associated with osteoporosis TB_15_88_Vision and Hearing What is the most common cause of vision changes in middle adulthood? What is the name of this condition?

Answer: Presbyopia refers to the thickening and hardening of the lens of the eye so that it becomes less malleable and more difficult for the muscles of the eye to focus it.

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Level: Moderate Topic: Vision and Hearing Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.3: Outline changes in the senses that occur in middle age TB_15_89_Cardiovascular Disease Risks Describe the elements of the Type D personality.

Answer: The finding that negative emotions such as anger and hostility are correlated with cardiovascular disease led some researchers to propose a new classification, Type D personality (D for distress). People with this profile exhibit a chronic pattern of emotional distress combined with a tendency to suppress negative emotions. In addition, individuals with Type D personalities are more likely than others to exhibit social inhibition (shyness) and emotional instability.

Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_90_Alcohol Use Disorder What are the diseases most commonly associated with alcohol abuse?

Answer: Liver and heart damage; damage to the valves and walls of blood vessels; cancers of the digestive and urinary tracts Level: Difficult Topic: Alcohol Use Disorder Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.3.3: Explain the possible consequences of alcoholism for middle-aged adults TB_15_91_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Which racial and ethnic groups are more likely to develop certain types of cancers, and how does this prevalence differ across females and males?

Answer: There are both racial and gender differences in the prevalence of different types of cancers. Black males have the highest prevalence of lung, prostate, and colorectal cancer, with Native American/Alaska Native males also having a high prevalence of colorectal cancer. Among females, breast and lung cancer disproportionately affect White people, whereas Native American/Alaska Native females have a high prevalence of colorectal cancer.

Level: Difficult Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Analyze It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_92_Health and Cognitive Functioning What did the Seattle Longitudinal Study on cognitive function document with regard to cardiovascular disease and cognitive skills?

Answer: Middle-aged adults with cardiovascular disease and/or high blood pressure showed earlier and larger cognitive declines; however, these changes were minimal.

Level: Difficult Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_93_Health and Cognitive Functioning Explain the correlation between exercise and mortality rates in middle adulthood.

Answer: There is a negative correlation; as the amount of calories expended in exercise increases, the risk of mortality decreases.

Level: Moderate Topic: Health and Cognitive Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.2: Describe the correlation between health and cognitive functioning TB_15_94_Changes in Memory and Cognition What did Dean Keith Simonton‘s archival research reveal about creativity and aging?

Answer: Simonton looked at the lifetime creativity of thousands of notable scientists from the 19th century and earlier.

Simonton identified the ages at which these individuals (nearly all men) published their first significant work, their best work, and their last work. In every scientific discipline represented, the thinkers produced their best work at about age 40, on average.

But most of them were publishing significant, even outstanding, research through their 40s and into their 50s.

Level: Difficult Topic: Changes in Memory and Cognition Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 15.5.4: Analyze research about age-related changes in creativity

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Essay Questions TB_15_95_Male Climacteric What does climacteric mean, and how is it manifested in females and males?

Answer: The climacteric refers to the years during which reproductive capacity declines or is lost in both males and females. In men, the climacteric is extremely gradual, with a slow loss of reproductive capacity, although the rate of change varies widely from one man to the next. Like puberty and menopause, however, male climacteric is not a single event. Instead, it is a cumulative series of changes in reproductive function that occur over a period of several years. On average, the quantity of viable sperm produced declines slightly, beginning perhaps at about age 40. The testes also shrink very gradually, and the volume of seminal fluid declines after about age 60. The causal factor is most likely a very slow drop in testosterone levels, beginning in early adulthood and continuing well into old age. Declines in key sex hormones are also clearly implicated in the set of reproductive system changes in women called menopause. Like puberty, menopause is not a single event but a series of changes that are strongly influenced by hormones. Premenopausal, perimenopausal, and postmenopausal phases have been documented, each with associated signs, symptoms, and risks.

Level: Difficult Topic: Male Climacteric Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.1.1: Describe the changes in reproductive function that middle-aged men experience

TB_15_96_No Easy Answers—The Pros and Cons of Hormone Therapy for Menopause Symptoms Summarize the pros and cons of hormone therapy (HT) during and after menopause. Include in your answer the effectiveness of HT and how the risks associated with HT can be reduced.

Answer: Hormone therapy (HT) is only effective at reducing the symptoms of menopause; it does not delay menopause or improve reproductive capacity. Even though it was previously thought that HT protected women against heart disease and dementia, current research shows that long-term use of HT significantly increases the risk of ovarian and breast cancer and does little to prevent heart disease. The safest means of delivering HT seems to be to deliver the hormones through the skin by using patches or creams. Also, it is important to use the lowest dose possible to obtain the desired effects.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—The Pros and Cons of Hormone Therapy for Menopause Symptoms Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.1.2: Summarize the effects of menopause that women experience as they age

TB_15_97_The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Regarding physical changes in the brain and cognitive functioning, how do middle-aged adults compare to young adults? What are some factors that contribute to differences and/or similarities?

Answer: Midlife changes in the brain are associated with changes in brain function. Declining cognitive processing speed is among the most significant of these changes. As is true for so many aspects of getting older, processing speed is influenced by both primary and secondary aging. For example, age-related processing speed gaps are smallest when researchers compare middle-aged and younger adults who are equally healthy. The same holds true for age differences in working memory, the amount of information an individual can keep in mind at one time. Age differences in working memory are also strongly influenced by education levels. The more education middle-aged adults have, the greater their working memory performance resembles that of younger adults. Interestingly, however, researchers seldom find differences in everyday memory function that distinguish young from middle-aged adults. In fact, some studies show that middle-aged adults outperform those who are younger.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Middle Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 15.2.1: Describe the research findings on brain function in middle age TB_15_98_Cardiovascular Disease Risks What are the risk factors for cardiovascular disease? What are the risk factors for cancer?

Answer: The risk factors for heart disease include smoking, blood pressure, cholesterol, diet, weight, inactivity, and diabetes.

Not surprisingly, many of these same factors are predictive of cancer. As a group they are: smoking, blood pressure, weight, cholesterol, inactivity, diet, alcohol, and heredity.

Level: Moderate Topic: Cardiovascular Disease Risks Skill: Remember the Facts LO 15.3.1: Describe the factors related to cardiovascular disease TB_15_99_Alcohol Use Disorder Define the term alcohol use disorder, and note some of the consequences associated with this condition.

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Answer: Alcohol use disorder, defined as psychological and physical dependence on alcohol, can develop at any age. During the middle adulthood years, as the toxic effects of heavy drinking combine with those of primary aging and other sources of secondary aging, alcoholism begins to take a heavy toll on the body. Long-term heavy drinking damages every organ in the body. It is especially harmful to the liver, and it weakens the heart muscle and the valves and walls of the blood vessels.

Individuals with alcoholism are also more likely to smoke than those without the disorder. Thus, rates of liver disease, cardiovascular disease, and cancers of the digestive and urinary systems are higher among alcoholics than they are among adults without alcohol use disorder. Moreover, heavy alcohol use over several years damages the brain, causing impairments in memory and language functions.

Level: Moderate Topic: Alcohol Use Disorder Skill: Analyze It LO 15.3.3: Explain the possible consequences of alcohol use disorder for middle-aged adults TB_15_100_Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health In terms of socioeconomic class and ethnicity, what are the greatest predictors of health in middle age?

Answer: Cross-national studies suggest that two important socioeconomic status variables, education and employment, are related to general health among middle-aged adults. The more years of education adults in their 40s, 50s, and 60s have, the less likely they are to describe their health as fair or poor. Like socioeconomic status, ethnicity and race are linked to overall health.

For example, Native Americans/Alaska Natives and Black people have shorter life expectancies than other groups.

Level: Moderate Topic: Socioeconomic Status, Ethnicity, Race, and Health Skill: Analyze It LO 15.4.2: Evaluate the associations among socioeconomic status, ethnicity, race, and health TB_15_101_Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Briefly describe the concept of selective optimization with compensation. Give an example of this process.

Answer: Selective optimization with compensation refers to the process of balancing the gains and losses associated with aging.

The idea is that, as the body ages, resources such as physical agility and working memory capacity decrease. To manage the demands of competing tasks, aging adults select one to which they devote most or all of these resources. Moreover, adults optimize the skills that they believe can be improved by exercising them as much as possible. At the same time, they use compensatory strategies to offset the effects of aging. As the name implies, selective optimization with compensation has three components: selection, optimization, and compensation. Selection occurs when a middle-aged adult reduces distractions to more efficiently carry out a cognitive task. For example, middle-aged college students might be more likely than younger students to turn off the television when they study. Optimization is involved when middle-aged adults work to improve their physical fitness or to expand their knowledge. Compensation takes many forms, including the use of reading glasses to correct for presbyopia and the development of organizational strategies, such as being diligent about recording important events on a calendar, to offset declines in memory.

Level: Moderate Topic: Models of Physical and Cognitive Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 15.5.1: Explain Denney‘s and the Baltes‘s models of physical and cognitive aging TB_15_102_Changes in Memory and Cognition How does the concept of ―use it or lose it‖ apply to cognitive function?

Answer: In any age group, this concept applies to cognitive functioning. Those skills which are regularly practiced and applied are likely to remain strong, and those that aren‘t used are likely to decline. This principle can be applied broadly to forgetfulness, semantic and episodic memories, expertise, health, and many other areas. Like any other machine, the human brain and body need regular upkeep (―use it‖) to avoid premature failure (―lose it‖).

Level: Difficult Topic: Changes in Memory and Cognition Skill: Evaluate It LO 15.5.3: Contrast the performance of young and middle-aged adults on memory tests

TEST BANK CHAPTER 16: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN MIDDLE ADULTHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_16_01_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Which theorist viewed the issues of generativity and stagnation as critical tasks that most middle-aged adults must deal with?

A) Sigmund Freud B) Erik Erikson

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C) Jean Piaget D) Albert Bandura Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson‘s and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_02_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Which term did Erik Erikson use to describe a desire to establish and guide the next generations?

A) Propagation B) Reproduction C) Generativity D) Intimacy Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_03_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage According to Erik Erikson, which occurrence would cause a person to experience a midlife crisis?

A) A sense of generativity B) An external locus of control C) A loss of self-efficacy D) A sense of stagnation Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_04_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Erik Erikson thought that middle adulthood encompasses a period marked by __________, where a person reflects on whether they are making a contribution to family and community.

A) dialectical thought versus problem resolution B) ego integrity versus despair C) generativity versus stagnation D) intimacy versus isolation Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_05_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Manute is a teacher who volunteers his free time working in a soup kitchen. According to Erik Erikson, what is Manute experiencing?

A) A midlife crisis B) A sense of generativity C) Volunteerism D) A sense of stagnation Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_06_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage What is the name of the developmental stage between intimacy and generativity, proposed by George Vaillant?

A) Career generativity B) Job satisfaction C) Midlife transition D) Career consolidation

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Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_07_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Which outcome is associated with the creation of a social network during career consolidation, according to George Vaillant‘s ideas?

A) Consternation B) Competence C) Contemplation D) Complacency Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_08_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Jukka is a middle-aged man who volunteers as a docent at the local art museum and at the Museum of Asian Culture. He does this because he believes that the arts are an important part of culture and must be preserved and passed on to future generations.

Which term would George Vaillant apply to Jukka?

A) Keeper of the meaning B) Career committed C) Generatively enabled D) Caregiver of future generations Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_09_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Which thinker proposed that the period of middle adulthood is important regarding ―keeping the meaning‖?

A) Ingrid Samuelson B) Roger Gould C) George Vaillant D) Daniel Levinson Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Remember the Facts LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_10_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Which statement best expresses Daniel Levinson‘s idea about development during midlife?

A) There is little variation in the personality characteristics of an individual at the age of 25, 50, 75, or 100.

B) A primary task of adulthood is to assist the next generation in developing into mature and competent individuals.

C) The developmental tasks of midlife are likely to cause a crisis when an individual‘s ability to cope is overwhelmed.

D) Individuals whose life transitions are congruent with the social clock are able to more effectively adapt to the challenges of midlife.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_11_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Mrs. Jiménez has recently been promoted to an administrative position at the local nursing home, which means that she must be at work by 7:00 A.M. Mrs. Jiménez also believes that she should provide her children with breakfast and supervision before they get on the school bus at 7:30 each morning. What is Mrs. Jiménez experiencing?

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A) Role conflict B) Role strain C) Stasis D) Social life stress Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_12_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Doralynn just gave birth to her first child. When she first held the baby, Doralynn wanted to whimper in panic because she had no idea how to be a mother. Developmentalists would suggest that Doralynn is experiencing A) role ambiguity.

B) role overload.

C) role conflict.

D) role strain.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_13_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

When people are confronted with a task that they are compelled to perform, but for which they are ill-prepared, which outcome are they likely to experience?

A) Role strain B) Stagnation C) Role conflict D) Role disparity Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_14_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

A person who is forced to take on responsibilities that are in constant competition with each other is experiencing what?

A) Role disparity B) Role diffusion C) Role conflict D) Role strain Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_15_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Carlotta, age 22, is a new mother, and Mimiko, age 38, is also a new mother. According to the __________, both Carlotta and Mimiko may experience similar psychological forces based on their common experience of being a new mother.

A) psychosocial engagement perspective B) life events model C) normative-crisis model D) use-it-or-lose-it model Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Analyze It

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LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_16_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction? __________ propose that it is the particular events in an adult‘s life, rather than age per se, that determine the course of development.

A) Normative-crisis models B) Psychosocial models C) Midlife evaluation approaches D) Life events models Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_17_Socioemotional Selectivity Theory Ralphie, age 50, tells people that he is a ―middle-aged man.‖ Why is this a bit of a misstatement?

A) Mentally, Ralphie feels more like a 20-year-old, meaning that he is still in the first quarter of his lifespan.

B) Developmental researchers have demonstrated that time perspective has little bearing on how a person describes themselves.

C) Most people, Ralphie included, lack insight into how they feel or how ―old‖ they may perceive themselves to be.

D) If Ralphie were truly in the middle of his life course, that would predict that he would live to be 100, which is unlikely.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Socioemotional Selectivity Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.1.3: Describe the influence of time perspective and subjective age on middle-aged adults TB_16_18_Socioemotional Selectivity Theory Sofia is 80 years old, but she ―feels like I‘m 60!‖ by her own report. This perception represents Sofia‘s __________ age.

A) chronological B) subjective C) imagined D) midlife Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Socioemotional Selectivity Theory Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.1.3: Describe the influence of time perspective and subjective age on middle-aged adults TB_16_19_Intimate Partnerships Which fancy term refers to ―having shared positive emotional states‖ between intimate partners?

A) The happiness quotient B) Positivity resonance C) Contagious glee D) Desirable projection Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Intimate Partnerships Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to intimate relationship stability in middle adulthood TB_16_20_Changes in Social Roles Which statement illustrates an aspect of family life that has changed because of an increase in life expectancy?

A) Adults are likely to spend more years caring for both younger and older generations in their family.

B) Adults spend fewer years in occupational roles and therefore have more time to spend with their family.

C) Parents have more children, and the average family size is larger than ever before in history.

D) Multigeneration families are much more rare than they were a generation ago.

Answer: A Level: Moderate

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Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_21_Changes in Social Roles What does the term ―sandwich generation‖ refer to?

A) Two-income families where the family members‘ busy schedules mean that meals are seldom eaten together as a family B) Middle-aged adults who provide assistance to both their children and their aging parents C) Middle-aged workers who find themselves trapped between dissatisfaction with their job and financial obligations to their family D) Midlife childless couples whose career demands conflict with their desire to spend time with their extended family Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_22_Changes in Social Roles Which situation best exemplifies the ―revolving door‖ of living arrangements?

A) Jane, who is 21 and is living at home with her parents while she attends college B) Richard, who is a father of three who returned home to live with his parents after his wife died, so that his parents could help raise his children C) Joey, who is 35, never married, and returns home after losing a job, which occurs for him about every 8 months D) Malesia, whose culture encourages extended family living together, even after they are married Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_23_Grandparenting Which term defines a type of grandparent relationship?

A) Resolved relationships B) Coregulatory relationships C) Companionate relationships D) Insulated relationships Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_24_Grandparenting The Nuuk family lives in a duplex: Grandma Nuuk lives in one half and Mr. and Mrs. Nuuk and their children live in the other half. Every day when the children get off the school bus, grandma meets them and prepares their afternoon snack. She helps them with their homework until their parents get home from work. What kind of relationship does Grandma Nuuk have with her grandchildren?

A) Companionate B) Parental C) Remote D) Involved Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_25_Grandparenting When grandparents seldom see their grandchildren, the relationship is called a A) revolving door relationship.

B) familial relationship.

C) generational betrayal.

D) remote relationship.

Answer: D

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Level: Easy Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_26_Grandparenting Giulio and Gigi live hundreds of miles from their children. They are retired and have busy lives of leisure. They seldom visit their children and have never developed a close relationship with their grandchildren. Which type of grandparenting relationship do Giulio and Gigi have with their grandchildren?

A) Intimate B) Remote C) Estranged D) Strained Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_27_Grandparenting Pauline and Leo call their grandchildren every week and drive 300 miles to visit several times a year. They even text message their grandchildren on their cell phones occasionally, just for fun. Which type of grandparenting relationship do Pauline and Leo have with their grandchildren?

A) Companionate relationship B) Remote relationship C) Distant relationship D) Cross-generational feed Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_28_Grandparenting Which statement is true about companionate grandparents?

A) They provide discipline, frequent contact, and warm interactions with their grandchildren.

B) They have frequent contact and warm interactions with their grandchildren, but typically do not discipline them.

C) They have infrequent contact with their grandchildren and typically do not discipline them.

D) They have infrequent contact with their grandchildren but they provide discipline regularly when they see them.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_29_Grandparenting Involved grandparents usually A) actively engage in grandparenting and influence their grandchildren’s lives.

B) act as supporters and buddies to their grandchildren.

C) complain about their grandchildren’s childish behavior.

D) rarely visit their grandchildren.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_30_Grandparenting Compared to the others, which role is normally taken on during middle adulthood?

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A) Employer B) Grandparent C) Parent D) Spouse Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_31_Grandparenting When polled, ____________ grandparents agree that cultivating relationships with their grandchildren is good for their mental health.

A) very few B) about 50% of C) almost no D) the vast majority of Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Remember the Facts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_32_Developmental Science at Home—Me, a Mother-in Law? Compared to the others, which type of relationship is stereotypically one of the most maligned in U.S. culture?

A) The relationship between two mothers-in-law B) The relationship between a woman and her own mother C) The relationship between a son and his father-in-law D) The relationship between a woman and her mother-in-law Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Developmental Science at Home—Me, a Mother-in Law? Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_33_Developmental Science at Home—Me, a Mother-in Law? Which technique is a recommended way to avoid conflict in the role of in-law?

A) Correct your son-in-law or daughter-in-law when they make a mistake.

B) Tell your adult children how they should raise your grandchildren.

C) Don‘t give unsolicited advice or make announced visits.

D) When asked for your advice, do not share your experience.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Developmental Science at Home—Me, a Mother-in Law? Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_34_Continuity and Change in Personality Which statement describes the nature of friendship in middle adulthood?

A) Adults have more friends in midlife than at any other point in adulthood.

B) The social network is smaller, but the friendships are as intimate and close as at earlier ages.

C) The need for a social network increases across midlife.

D) The increased role strain and role conflict of middle adulthood require additional emotional support from friends outside the family.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_35_Continuity and Change in Personality Which statement describes best-friend relationships in midlife?

A) The level of intimacy increases as the frequency of interaction declines.

B) The frequency of interaction decreases but the level of intimacy remains stable.

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C) The number of friendships stays the same but the level of intimacy declines.

D) Both the frequency and level of intimacy decline over time.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_36_Continuity and Change in Personality Which statement about friendships in middle adulthood is true?

A) Midlife friendships are just as intimate and close as those in the earlier years.

B) The frequency of interaction among best friends tends to increase.

C) Middle-aged people maintain a relatively large social network.

D) Middle-aged mothers maintain more friendships than their young adult daughters.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_37_Continuity and Change in Personality Which traits comprise the ―Big Five‖ dimensions of personality?

A) Selfishness, shyness, aggressiveness, neuroticism, and self-confidence B) Neuroticism, extroversion, openness, agreeableness, and conscientiousness C) Likeability, extroversion, aggressiveness, self-confidence, and trustworthiness D) Loyalty, self-confidence, openness, deceptiveness, and aggression Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_38_Continuity and Change in Personality Which Big Five personality dimension tends to decline somewhat from early adulthood to middle adulthood?

A) Neuroticism B) Conscientiousness C) Agreeableness D) Argumentativeness Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_39_Continuity and Change in Personality Which statement summarizes the stability of personality over time?

A) For most people, personality changes greatly over time, especially during midlife.

B) Personality is stable across all people in all cultures.

C) For most people, personality traits tend to be stable over time, but within some individuals or groups there may be more substantial changes.

D) Personality characteristics are subject to a great deal of change depending on environmental stressors.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It

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LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_40_Continuity and Change in Personality Which of the Big Five personality traits pertains to the degree to which a person demonstrates curiosity and interest in new experiences?

A) Openness B) Conscientiousness C) Extraversion D) Agreeableness Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_41_Continuity and Change in Personality Which Big Five term refers to a trait characterized by a need for order in the environment?

A) Extraversion B) Openness C) Agreeableness D) Conscientiousness Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_42_Continuity and Change in Personality Tran went on vacation for a week with her family. Prior to leaving, she asked her neighbor to house sit for her to make sure her home and belongings stayed safe. While she was away, the neighbor had a party at Tran‘s house. By the end of the night, some of Tran‘s belongings were ruined and the police eventually came to break up the get-together. The behavior of Tran‘s neighbor could be best described by the _________ factor of the Big Five model.

A) conscientiousness B) openness C) extraversion D) neuroticism Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_43_Continuity and Change in Personality D‘Ja-Quan is friendly, talkative, loves to tell jokes at parties, and is perceived by others as trusting and helpful. On which two of the Big Five traits would you expect D‘Ja-Quan to obtain high scores?

A) Agreeableness and extraversion B) Extraversion and conscientiousness C) Neuroticism and openness D) Openness and conscientiousness Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_44_Continuity and Change in Personality Bogdan is constantly worrying about things, even though he really doesn‘t have anything to worry about. He constantly complains about his coursework and gives up on difficult projects easily. Bogdan is best described as highly A) neurotic.

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B) extraverted.

C) antagonistic.

D) impulsive.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_45_Continuity and Change in Personality When a highly trained professional experiences dissatisfaction, disillusionment, frustration, and weariness from their job, it is called A) midlife crisis.

B) burnout.

C) critical mass.

D) extinction.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_46_Work Satisfaction Compared to the others, which characteristic is the best predictor of burnout in the workplace?

A) Working lots of overtime B) Feeling as if one‘s work is not appreciated C) Having a poor relationship with one‘s boss D) Poor familial support Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Work Satisfaction Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.1: Outline the factors that influence work satisfaction in middle adulthood TB_16_47_Work Satisfaction Which outcome would be a typical response for a middle-aged man who is dissatisfied with his job?

A) Quit and find a new job B) Complain to his friends about it and do nothing C) Negotiate with his boss to try to change the working situation to better fit his needs D) Resign himself to the fact that he has to change and adjust to the dissatisfaction Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Work Satisfaction Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.3.1: Outline the factors that influence work satisfaction in middle adulthood TB_16_48_Work Satisfaction The statement ―I don‘t like my boss but the hours fit with the children‘s school schedule‖ is more likely to be made by whom?

A) A middle-aged woman B) A middle-aged man C) A young adult woman D) A young adult man Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Work Satisfaction Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.3.1: Outline the factors that influence work satisfaction in middle adulthood TB_16_49_Job Performance

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What is selective optimization with compensation?

A) The job interview process B) The process of downsizing in a corporation and its effects on middle-aged workers C) Focusing on central tasks, maintaining abilities, and overcoming obstacles D) Choosing a new job based on whether or not it allows for advancement and increased future income potential Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Job Performance Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_50_Job Performance Which term did Margaret Baltes and Paul Baltes use to designate the ways workers narrow their job tasks to only the most important ones and delegate the rest to others?

A) Management B) Selection C) Oversight D) Compensation Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Job Performance Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_51_Job Performance Which term did Margaret Baltes and Paul Baltes give to the idea that workers deliberately try to keep crucial abilities sharp by taking additional training or periodically ―brushing up?‖ A) Optimization B) Selection C) Oversight D) Compensation Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Job Performance Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_52_Job Performance Quentin has been a competitive swimmer all his life, and recently has cut back on some of his other activities to increase the time he has for aquatic training. Quentin‘s behavior is an example of A) burnout.

B) a midlife crisis.

C) selective optimization.

D) abridge job.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Job Performance Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_53_Job Performance Marcella, age 53, has always been the top seller in her real estate company. In spite of this, she never rests on her glories. Three times a year, she attends workshops on salesmanship, closing, and real estate law. Margaret Baltes and Paul Baltes would have pointed out that Marcella is using which strategy?

A) Management B) Selection C) Optimization D) Compensation Answer: C

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Level: Difficult Topic: Job Performance Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_54_Unemployment and Career Transitions Many potential employers believe that middle-aged workers are less able to learn new computer skills than their young adult counterparts. This perception is an example of which principle?

A) Reality B) Compensation C) Selective optimization D) Ageism Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_55_Unemployment and Career Transitions According to the classification system of voluntary and involuntary career changers, an involuntary career changer is in transition for what type of reasons?

A) Ambiguous B) External C) Internal D) Normative Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_56_Unemployment and Career Transitions Based on the classification system of voluntary and involuntary career changers, which reason might be given for an involuntary career change?

A) Leaving a job that does not pay enough B) Having a job that is more meaningful or fulfilling C) Leaving a job because of a planned retirement D) Facing organizational restructuring that results in elimination of the job Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_57_Unemployment and Career Transitions Lorenzo used to work as a telephone operator. Recently, the phone company for which he worked decided to adopt an automated system. Lorenzo was laid off, making him A) an employment liability.

B) an involuntary career changer.

C) a volunteer career shifter.

D) a career transitioner.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_58_Unemployment and Career Transitions For individuals who are involuntary career changers, which attribute is most closely linked to improve health, emotional stability, and sense of well-being?

A) Transferrable job skills B) Going to work at a new job C) Job training D) Unemployment benefits

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Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_59_Unemployment and Career Transitions Phyllis has worked as an interior decorator for 20 years. Lately, she finds little satisfaction in her work and wants to do something she believes is more meaningful, like counsel troubled youth. If Phyllis walks away from her interior design business, she would be A) a job-hopper.

B) a voluntary career changer.

C) a self-seeker.

D) an altruistic employee.

Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_60_Unemployment and Career Transitions

Rudolph had high levels of satisfaction immediately after changing jobs, but soon experienced feelings of regret over having left behind the parts of his former job that he had enjoyed.

Psychologists refer to this outcome as A) the honeymoon-hangover effect.

B) separation anxiety.

C) trait dissatisfaction.

D) a sour grapes reaction.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_61_Unemployment and Career Transitions Alvin retired from his 35-year career as a university professor, but found that he enjoyed working semi-full-time as a textbook contributor for major academic publishers. As such, he was sort of retired but sort of not retired at the same time. Which term would best characterize Alvin‘s current employment position?

A) Retire-ette B) Involuntary transition C) Post-life review D) Bridge job Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_62_Unemployment and Career Transitions Which effect is commonly observed among adults who experience involuntary unemployment?

A) Heightened levels of anxiety and depression B) Evolution of personality traits from conscientiousness and extraversion toward neuroticism C) Lower risk of physical illness D) Increases in an internal locus of control Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_63_Unemployment and Career Transitions Which of the Big Five personality traits contribute to the mental health of an involuntary career changer?

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A) Conscientiousness and ambition B) Agreeableness and openness C) Neuroticism and openness D) Neuroticism and compensation Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_64_Unemployment and Career Transitions Which attribute is characteristic of a voluntary career changer?

A) Concrete coping skills B) Lower tolerance for risk taking C) Low self-efficacy D) Genetic predisposition Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_65_Preparing for Retirement Which statement is true regarding the retirement of the cohort known as Baby Boomers?

A) Baby Boomers view retirement planning as obsolete.

B) Baby Boomers expect that their standard of living during retirement will be greatly reduced in comparison to their preretirement standard of living.

C) Baby Boomers are likely to be in retirement for 20 years—far longer than earlier generations.

D) Baby Boomers expect that retirement will mean a permanent end to their roles as workers or employees.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_66_Preparing for Retirement Which outcome reflects the retirement strategy of many Baby Boomers?

A) Most plan to retire in their 40s or 50s.

B) Most are financially prepared for retirement.

C) Baby Boomers have more anxiety about retirement than previous generations.

D) Most plan to work during retirement, but to combine paid work with other pursuits.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_67_Preparing for Retirement Which approach is unlikely to characterize the nonwork pursuits of Baby Boomers in retirement?

A) Spending most of their time sitting around with minimal activity B) Finding new ways to make money in their spare time C) Doing volunteer work and contributing to charities D) Spending time traveling and taking classes Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_68_Preparing for Retirement The Baby Boom generation was born between __________ and __________.

A) 1927; 1945 B) 1935;1955 C) 1946; 1964

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D) 1960; 1980 Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_69_Preparing for Retirement How have gender roles changed among Baby Boomers with regard to retirement planning?

A) Baby Boomer women are actively engaged in retirement planning.

B) Baby Boomer men tend to cede retirement decisions to the women in their lives, be them intimate partners, siblings, or parents.

C) Baby Boomer women are more disinterested in retirement planning, compared to women in previous generations.

D) Baby Boomer men have retained the primary and full responsibility for retirement planning for a given family unit.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife TB_16_70_Preparing for Retirement How would Erik Erikson have viewed the notion of having a ―bridge job‖?

A) They allow for the rapid accumulation of wealth, which in turn can be used to help people in younger generations.

B) They enable retirees to maintain a sense of generativity as they gradually step back from full-time engagement in a career.

C) They are a waste of time, as they postpone the necessary transition to generativity.

D) They are a necessary component of warding off a midlife crisis.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_16_71_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage ______________ wrote about generativity and stagnation concerns that he thought were common to many middle-aged adults.

Answer: Erik Erikson Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson‘s and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_72_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage The developmental task of middle adulthood, according to Erik Erikson, is ________.

Answer: generativity versus stagnation Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson‘s and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_73_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Some developmentalists propose that a ________ approach to explaining the unique stresses of middle adulthood is preferable to the idea of a midlife crisis.

Answer: life events Level: Difficult Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_74_Changes in Social Roles Another term for ―sandwich generation‖ is midlife ________.

Answer: squeeze Level: Difficult Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_75_Grandparenting According to the categories developed by behavioral scientists, grandparents in the ________ category create warm, pleasurable relationships with their grandchildren, although they do not wish to have day-to-day responsibility of caring for the children.

Answer: companionate Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_76_Continuity and Change in Personality __________ and ________ are the Big Five personality traits that tend to increase with age.

Answer: Agreeableness; conscientiousness Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_77_Continuity and Change in Personality __________ is a Big Five personality trait that represents willingness to try new things.

Answer: Openness Level: Easy Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_78_Continuity and Change in Personality In the Big Five traits, ________.is synonymous with sociability.

Answer: extraversion Level: Easy

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Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_79_Work Satisfaction

Workers who experience _________ lack energy, feel emotionally drained, and be pessimistic about the possibility of changing their situations.

Answer: burnout Level: Moderate Topic: Work Satisfaction Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.1: Outline the factors that influence work satisfaction in middle adulthood TB_16_80_Job Performance When a middle-aged worker deliberately exercises crucial abilities, she is engaging in ________.

Answer: optimization Level: Moderate Topic: Job Performance Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_81_Job Performance ________ is the term Margaret Baltes and Paul Baltes used for workers‘ adoption of certain strategies to overcome obstacles, such as getting stronger lenses in their glasses when their vision weakens.

Answer: Compensation Level: Moderate Topic: Job Performance Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance TB_16_82_Preparing for Retirement Gary‘s job was made obsolete, after he had held it for close to 25 years. As such, Gary hit the bricks and went looking for another occupation to support himself and his family. This kind of transition is known as a(n) ___________ career change.

Answer: involuntary Level: Moderate Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife

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Short Answer Questions TB_16_83_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage What does actual research evidence indicate about the notion of generativity?

Answer: Research has produced hints of a developmental stage that involves generativity, but the findings are much less clear than data on changes in earlier years. One cross-sectional study of young, midlife, and older women found that generativity increased in middle age, as Erik Erikson‘s idea suggested. Contrary to what his musings would predict, however, the oldest group of participants, whose average age was 66, cited generative concerns as being important to them just as frequently as the middle-aged group did. These findings support Erikson‘s claim that generativity is more common in middle adulthood than in early adulthood, but they also indicate that generativity continues to be important for much older adults. Other research suggests that generativity is a more prominent theme in the lives of middle-aged women than in the lives of middle-aged men.

Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson‘s and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_84_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Briefly explain how a person develops a sense of generativity and how that sense might be expressed behaviorally.

Answer: According to Erik Erikson‘s ideas, generativity involves an interest in establishing and guiding the next generation.

Generativity is expressed not only in bearing or rearing one‘s own children but also through teaching, serving as a mentor, or taking on leadership roles in various civic, religious, or charitable organizations. The optimum expression of generativity requires turning outward from a preoccupation with self, a kind of psychological expansion toward caring for others.

Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson‘s and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_85_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage What contributions did George Vaillant make to middle-adulthood developmental theory?

Answer: Vaillant argued that there is a stage between intimacy and generativity called career consolidation. Following generativity versus stagnation, Vaillant argued, is another stage called keeper of the meaning. His contributions, then, were in fine-tuning some ideas that Erik Erikson had proposed.

Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson‘s and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_86_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

What is meant by the terms role conflict and role strain?

Answer: Role conflict refers to a situation in which a person must fulfill two or more roles that are at least partially incompatible; role strain occurs when having to take on a role for which one does not have the skills.

Level: Moderate Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Analyze It LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_87_Changes in Social Roles Why is middle age sometimes referred to as the ―sandwich generation?‖ Answer: When looking at family relationships from the perspective of middle age, we have to look in both directions: down the generational chain to relationships with grown children and up the chain to relationships with aging parents. Each position in a family‘s generational chain has certain role prescriptions. In middle adulthood, the family role involves not only giving assistance in both directions in the generational chain but also shouldering the primary responsibility for maintaining attachment relationships. These responsibilities produce what is sometimes called the midlife ―squeeze,‖ and those being squeezed are called multigenerational caregivers, sometimes referred to as the ―sandwich generation.‖ Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_88_Changes in Social Roles Define the term caregiver burden.

Answer: Even when middle-aged adults render assistance exclusively up the generational chain—that is, to their parents— caregiving can be a stressful experience. The cumulative evidence indicates that middle-aged adults who serve as caregivers for their aging parents experience more sleep problems, depression, and declines in satisfaction than adults in comparison groups of

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similar age and social class. Some research also suggests that people who care for frail older adults are more often ill themselves. Collectively, these effects are often termed caregiver burden, the cumulative negative effects of caring for a person who is ill or has a disability.

Level: Easy Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_89_Grandparenting What are the types of relationships that grandparents may have with their grandchildren?

Answer: remote relationships, companionate relationships, involved relationships, and custodial relationships Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_90_Continuity and Change in Personality What distinguishes friendships in middle age from friendships in adolescence and young adulthood?

Answer: The scant research on friendships in middle adulthood suggests that the total number of friendships is lower in these years than in young adulthood. At the same time, other bits of research suggest that midlife friendships are as intimate and close as those at earlier ages. Some analyses reveal that the frequency of interaction with best friends drops between age 17 and age 50 but that the best-friend relationship remains very close. Such findings suggest that the social network of middle-aged adults is relatively small, although relationships are just as intimate as they were at earlier ages.

Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_91_Continuity and Change in Personality In terms of continuity versus stability, what is the nature of personality in the average middle-aged adult?

Answer: Personality tends to show some general patterns during middle age: openness to experience, extraversion, and neuroticism tend to decline, whereas agreeableness and conscientiousness tend to increase, across a large group of samples that have been studied. In general, though, personality tends to remain fairly stable, with increases and decreases being a matter of mild degree.

Level: Moderate Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_92_Work Satisfaction What are the most common factors that contribute to job dissatisfaction in both females and males, and which coping strategies do they employ to deal with dissatisfaction?

Answer: Females and males cite the same sources of work dissatisfaction in middle age: poor work–life balance, time pressure, lack of autonomy, and conflicts with coworkers. However, some studies suggest that they cope with these challenges differently.

For example, some research has shown that males are more likely to negotiate with supervisors and coworkers directly to effect change. Other studies indicate that females are more likely to use emotion management strategies than to directly address sources of job stress. When such differences arise, males are likely to be advantaged.

Level: Difficult Topic: Work Satisfaction Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.3.1: Outline the factors that influence work satisfaction in middle adulthood TB_16_93_Unemployment and Career Transitions Why might a voluntary career change create as much stress as an involuntary career change?

Answer: Although voluntary career changers have a better sense of control over their situation than do people whose job changes are forced on them, the transition may nonetheless be stressful. Spouses and family members may not understand why the person wants to change careers. Moreover, changing careers can involve periods of unemployment and, often, a reduction in income. Thus, voluntary career changers may manifest many of the same symptoms of anxiety and depression seen in involuntary career changers. Nevertheless, voluntary career changers who succeed in changing occupations in midlife report that they felt less stressed after they actually began the transition than they had in their previous jobs.

Level: Difficult Topic: Unemployment and Career Transitions Skill: Analyze It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife

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TB_16_94_Preparing for Retirement How do Baby Boomers differ from their parents in terms of retirement age and planning?

Answer: Baby Boomers‘ retirement-planning strategies are quite different from those of their parents. Among Baby Boomers‘ parents, retirement planning was primarily a male responsibility. In contrast, Baby Boomer women are actively engaged in retirement planning, sometimes together with their partners and sometimes independently. Further, instead of transitioning directly from a full-time career to full-time retirement, most Baby Boomers seek bridge jobs, typically jobs that are related to retirees‘ careers but are less demanding than the jobs from which they are retiring. This pattern is consistent with research showing that, among Baby Boomers, ―retirement‖ often takes the form of a gradual decline in work engagement rather than an abrupt transition from working to non-working status.

Level: Difficult Topic: Preparing for Retirement Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.3.3: Explain the factors that contribute to career transitions in midlife

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Essay Questions TB_16_95_Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Summarize George Vaillant‘s revisions and contributions to Erik Erikson‘s theory. Give examples of his two additional developmental stages.

Answer: Vaillant argued that there is a stage between intimacy and generativity called career consolidation. Like Erikson, Vaillant tended to define the domains of life fairly broadly, so ―career‖ may mean a paid vocation, or it could involve a decision to be a stay-at-home parent. The outcome of this phase is the creation of a new social network for which the middle-aged adult‘s primary work serves as a hub. Involvement with this social network helps the individual meet the psychosocial needs of the career consolidation substage, such as contentment, compensation, competence, and commitment. Following generativity versus stagnation, Vaillant argued, is another stage called keeper of the meaning. In this phase, middle-aged adults focus on preserving the institutions and values of their culture that they believe will benefit future generations. In other words, a well-adjusted adult in the keeper of the meaning stage wants to give something to the institution rather than to get something from it.

Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Generativity-Versus-Stagnation Stage Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.1.1: Compare Erikson's and Vaillant‘s views of generativity TB_16_96_Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Is there any evidence to support the contention that adults go through a midlife crisis during middle age? Is there a different theoretical approach that offers insights in this regard?

Answer: Research provides some support for the notion of a midlife crisis. Nevertheless, some developmentalists point out that just over a quarter of middle-aged and older adults report having had a crisis such as the one that Daniel Levinson‘s theory predicts. Moreover, these crises appear to have been triggered by specific events such as the loss of a job or the death of a close friend or relative. Some developmentalists argue that a life events approach to explaining the unique stresses of the middle adulthood period is preferable to a theoretical perspective that proposes a universal crisis. The life events approach focuses on normative and nonnormative events and middle-aged adults‘ responses to them, such as physical changes, the loss of an aging parent, role strain, or role conflict. Neither the midlife crisis perspective nor the life events approach fully explains the themes and challenges of middle adulthood. A full understanding of this period must also take individual and cultural differences into account.

Level: Difficult Topic: Midlife Crisis—Fact or Fiction?

Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.1.2: Compare the midlife crisis and life events approaches to middle age TB_16_97_Socioemotional Selectivity Theory Explain the basic principles of socioemotional selectivity theory, and discuss how time perspective plays a role in these ideas.

Answer: Growing older brings with it the realization that a person has less time left to be alive compared to more time already having lived. This realization, in turn, raises many existential questions for an individual. Socioemotional selectivity theory attempts to explain the impact of such self-questioning on the development of middle-aged and older adults. The theory‘s primary assertion is that individuals‘ perception of time influences their selection of social goals. The idea is that adults view their lives as a timeline and the current realities of their lives as a point on that line. This time perspective, as researchers call it, moves individuals to evaluate the current state of their lives and, sometimes, to make changes. At midlife and beyond, with ―now‖ moving ever closer to the end of the line, adults become more interested in pursuing goals that involve emotionally meaningful experiences and activities.

Level: Difficult Topic: Socioemotional Selectivity Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 16.1.3: Describe the influence of time perspective and subjective age on middle-aged adults TB_16_98_Intimate Partnerships What does the term ―gray divorce‖ mean, and what are some of the consequences for the people it affects?

Answer: Despite trends favoring increased relationship stability in middle adulthood, divorce rates among middle-aged and older adults, so-called ―gray divorce,‖ have been trending upward for many years. One reason for this trend is that rising divorce rates among young adults eventually lead to increases in the number of middle-aged adults with multiple marriage histories.

Thus, many midlife divorces are second or third marriages, which are typically less stable than first marriages. As is true at earlier ages, a midlife divorce usually leads to financial setbacks for both partners. Along with financial woes, midlife divorce brings with it the same kinds of emotional consequences that younger adults experience—grief, loss, regret, and, for some, loneliness.

Level: Moderate Topic: Intimate Partnerships Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to intimate relationship stability in middle adulthood

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TB_16_99_Changes in Social Roles Explain what developmentalists mean by the terms ―empty nest‖ and ―revolving door,‖ and the economic and psychosocial factors related to these concepts.

Answer: Folklore in Western cultures argues that the role of mother is so central to women‘s lives that they suffer from ―empty nest‖ syndrome—a pattern of symptoms characterized by anxiety and depression—when their grown children leave home.

However, research suggests that most women are happy when they reach this milestone. But what happens when the children don‘t leave home or leave and return again and again? Far more young adults live with their parents these days than was true when their own parents were young adults. This phenomenon is often referred to as the revolving door, a pattern in which young adults leave home and return one or more times before becoming fully independent. One reason for the revolving door is that many young adults simply cannot afford to establish their own homes. A psychosocial explanation of the revolving door would hypothesize that single young adults, like all human beings, enjoy and are nurtured by family life.

Level: Moderate Topic: Changes in Social Roles Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_100_Grandparenting List and give an example of each of the four types of grandparent relationships.

Answer: Developmentalists have identified four grandparenting styles: Remote: Grandparents see grandchildren relatively infrequently and have little direct influence over their lives. The most common reason for this remoteness is physical distance.

Companionate: Grandparents see grandchildren regularly and have warm relationships with grandchildren but no day-to-day responsibility for them.

Involved: Grandparents participate in day-to-day responsibilities of raising grandchildren.

Custodial: Grandchildren live with grandparents, who are their primary caregivers.

Level: Moderate Topic: Grandparenting Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 16.2.2: Describe the features of family and social roles in middle adulthood TB_16_101_Continuity and Change in Personality Does personality show stability across the lifespan, change across the lifespan, or are the conclusions more nuanced than that simple dichotomy?

Answer: Many studies show that the Big Five traits are relatively stable across the adult years. Such findings are consistent with the proposition that the five factors are determined very early in life and are stable throughout the lifespan. However, longitudinal studies in which most participants were White middle-class residents of North American or European nations have shown that openness, extraversion, and neuroticism decline as adults age. Agreeableness increases, as does conscientiousness, up until around age 70, when it began to show declines. In contrast, one study of Mexican immigrants living in the United States suggested that all five traits are stable, with none showing changes across testing points. Thus, the best statement that we can make about the stability of the Big Five is that these traits follow a general pattern of stability in most people but that they are also subject to some degree of modification in some cultures. In general, findings regarding the stability of neuroticism and agreeableness, the ease with which a person gets along with others, are less consistent than those for other traits. Some studies show that agreeableness increases with age, whereas others show it declines. The inconsistency of research results for neuroticism leads most developmentalists to assume that it is generally less stable than the other Big Five traits.

Level: Difficult Topic: Continuity and Change in Personality Skill: Analyze It LO 16.2.3: Assess evidence of personality change throughout adulthood TB_16_102_Job Performance Explain the three subprocesses of selective optimization with compensation, and provide an example of how a middle-aged adult might invoke these processes.

Answer: Examples will vary, but should draw from these concepts: Selection: Workers narrow their range of activities.

Optimization: Workers deliberately ―exercise‖ crucial abilities.

Compensation: Workers adopt pragmatic strategies for overcoming specific obstacles.

Level: Moderate Topic: Job Performance Skill: Apply What You Know LO 16.3.2: Summarize the strategies that middle-aged workers use to maintain satisfactory job performance

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IN LATE ADULTHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_17_01_Variability in Late Adulthood The scientific study of aging is known as A) gerontology.

B) oncology.

C) agnotology.

D) ontology.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Variability in Late Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_02_Life Expectancy and Longevity At what point in the human life cycle does the greatest number of deaths occur?

A) After age 60 B) In infancy and early childhood C) Between the ages of 75 and 80 D) In young adulthood Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Remember the Facts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_03_Life Expectancy and Longevity The average male born in the United States this year can expect to live to be how old?

A) 70 B) 72 C) 76 D) 85 Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_04_Life Expectancy and Longevity The average female born in the United States this year can expect to live to be how old?

A) 70 B) 75 C) 81 D) 87 Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_05_Life Expectancy and Longevity A person who is a centenarian is A) a member of the old old subgroup.

B) an octogenarian.

C) automatically a member of the ―unstable oldsters.‖ D) at least 100 years old.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy

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TB_17_06_Life Expectancy and Longevity According to the terminology that demographers use, which category encompasses the age range of 75 to 85 years old?

A) Old old B) Young old C) Geriatric D) Oldest old Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Remember the Facts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_07_Life Expectancy and Longevity What is the fastest growing segment of the population?

A) Middle-aged adults B) Young old C) Adolescents D) Oldest old Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_08_No Easy Answers—The Global Demographic Crisis Why will every industrialized nation in the world face a demographic crisis in the near future?

A) The social security systems in these countries will be bankrupt.

B) The number of young adults will far outnumber the number of older adults.

C) There will be fewer young and middle-aged workers to provide for the financial well-being of older adults.

D) The current generation is not adequately planning for retirement.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—The Global Demographic Crisis Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_09_Health What is a major factor in determining the overall well-being of older adults, even if they have a chronic disease?

A) Optimism B) Marital status C) Social networks D) Retirement income Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Health Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_10_Health Ninety-year-old Mrs. Gonzalez is no longer able to manage tasks such as bathing or using the toilet by herself. A gerontologist most likely would determine that Mrs. Gonzalez needs help with which functions?

A) Only her activities of daily living B) Only her instrumental activities of daily living C) Both her activities of daily living and her instrumental activities of daily living D) Her independence skills Answer: A

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Level: Moderate Topic: Health Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_11_Health Which term applies to intellectually demanding tasks such as managing finances and paying bills?

A) Instrumental activities of daily living B) Activities of daily living C) Daily tasks D) Instrumental personal tasks Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Health Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_12_Health Which statement is correct regarding the relationship between disability and activity among older adults in the United States?

A) Nearly 100% of people over age 75 report some level of difficulty performing some basic daily life activities.

B) The majority of older adults have little difficulty performing activities of daily living or instrumental activities of daily living.

C) The majority of people over age 85 report having some problems performing basic daily activities.

D) Disability rates do not increase beyond age 65.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Health Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_13_Health Older individuals with which of the following conditions are two to three times more likely to experience functional disability than older individuals who do not?

A) Arthritis and hypertension B) Cancer C) Impairments in vision D) No spouse or children Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Health Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_14_Health Which chronic condition has a higher prevalence among Black people over the age of 65 compared to comparable White people?

A) Hypertension B) Deafness C) Asthma D) Dementia Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Health Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_15_Health Which statement is true regarding heredity, longevity, and health?

A) Twin studies show that illness rates in siblings do not have a genetic component.

B) Among people whose parents died before 78, 40% had a chronic illness at age 65.

C) Among people whose oldest grandparent had lived past 90, only about 2% had a chronic illness at age 65.

D) Identical twins are more similar in longevity than are fraternal twins.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Health

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Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_16_Health Which attribute becomes even more important in older age as a contributor to longevity and good health?

A) Relationship status B) Exercise C) Recreational activities D) Social networks Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Health Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_17_Health Which activity seems to be the most important health habit in old age?

A) Physical exercise B) Familial support C) Dietary consumption D) Socialization Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Health Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_18_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Which change occurs in the brain during the adult years?

A) Slower synaptic speed B) An increase in gray matter C) An increase in brain weight D) A pruning of the synapses to eliminate redundant neural connections Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_19_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Which attribute has been linked to minimized atrophy of the cerebral cortex of the brain?

A) Higher levels of education B) A flexible personality C) A social support system D) Socioeconomic status Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_20_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood What is the most likely cause of slower reaction time for everyday tasks and activities for an older individual?

A) The initial effects of Alzheimer‘s disease B) Geriatric dysthymia C) The pruning of unused neural connections D) Dendritic loss and the slowing of synaptic speed Answer: D Level: Moderates Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_21_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood

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Which term refers to the redundancy in the nervous system that enables neural pathways to move from one set of neurons to another?

A) Synaptic pruning B) Synaptic plasticity C) Neural transporting D) Neural redundancy Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_22_The Senses Which statement is correct regarding vision in late adulthood?

A) Blood flow to the eye increases, which results in an enlarged blind spot on the retina.

B) The pupil does not widen or narrow as much or as quickly, which causes problems in adapting to variations in light and glare.

C) Older adults seem to adapt more flexibly and positively than middle-aged adults to the difficulties of living with serious vision impairments.

D) The incidence of cataracts decreases greatly among adults who are older than 75.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_23_The Senses Mr. McGillicuddy has great difficulty seeing because the lenses inside his eyes have become clouded over. What is the name of this condition?

A) Glaucoma B) Cataracts C) Presbyopia D) Presbycusis Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_24_The Senses Macular degeneration is most likely to occur during A) childhood.

B) adolescence.

C) early adulthood.

D) late adulthood.

Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Senses Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_25_The Senses Erick, age 60, was experiencing some degree of hearing loss, especially at high frequencies. When he played his jazz LPs, the top end seemed to roll off the tweeter‘s response cycle. In any event, with which condition would an audiologist be most likely to diagnose Erick?

A) Senescence B) Presbycusis C) Presbyopia D) Glaucoma Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood

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TB_17_26_The Senses Which outcome is a typical hearing difficulty experienced by older adults?

A) Loss of ability to hear low-frequency sounds B) Difficulties in discriminating words in the stream of speech C) Problems hearing when conditions are quiet D) Inconsistent amplification of deep or bass-like sounds Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_27_The Senses Grandpa Ezra complains that he frequently hears ringing or buzzing sounds in his ears. What is Ezra experiencing?

A) Presbycusis B) Auditory hallucinations C) Tinnitus D) Auditory neuropathy Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_28_The Senses Which condition is an obstacle to good hearing among people in late adulthood?

A) Excessive amplification of higher frequencies B) Increased production of ear wax, blocking the ear canals C) The bones of the middle ear become less calcified and more elastic D) The cochlear membranes become too flexible and are less responsive Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Senses Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_29_The Senses How does aging affect the senses of taste, smell, or touch?

A) Reduced secretion of saliva causes a sensation of dry mouth.

B) The ability to taste the four basic tastes of salty, bitter, sweet, and sour declines across adulthood.

C) The loss of the sense of taste can lead to inadequate nutrition or dietary imbalances.

D) Older adults lose their sensitivity to heat and cold in a proximodistal pattern, which causes sensation to be lost first in the center of the body.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_30_The Senses When Nunzio serves a loaf of freshly baked cinnamon bread to a group of older customers, which comment would he be most likely to hear?

A) ―It smells so good. It‘s making my mouth water!‖ B) ―This bread smells and tastes delicious!‖ C) ―I can‘t smell a thing, dear.‖ D) ―The flavors of food seem to be so strong, so I really don‘t care for anything sweet.‖ Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_31_Theories of Biological Aging

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About how long is the maximum human lifespan?

A) 105–110 years B) 125 years C) 122 years D) 110–120 years Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_32_Theories of Biological Aging What is the Hayflick limit for human embryo cells?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 50 Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_33_Theories of Biological Aging The genetically programmed time limit for cell replication to which each species is theoretically bound is called A) life expectancy.

B) maximum reproductive capacity.

C) the Hayflick limit.

D) the telomere constant.

Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_34_Theories of Biological Aging A cell stops replicating when _________ disappear.

A) the reticular formation B) teledynes C) synapses D) telomeres Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_35_Theories of Biological Aging Which theory holds that aging is a result of species-specific genes?

A) Programmed senescence theory B) Telomeric theory C) The Hayflick limit D) Race-specific DNA theory Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_36_Theories of Biological Aging Research on the cellular processes involving free radicals suggests that it may be beneficial to eat less of which foodstuff?

A) Protein B) Fat and food additives such as preservatives C) Red meat such as beef

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D) Carbohydrates Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_37_Theories of Biological Aging What effect do oxygen free radicals have on the body?

A) They cause the steroid oxidase to build up in the body over time.

B) They destroy the telomeres at the end of DNA chains.

C) They enter into potentially harmful chemical reactions that cause irreparable cell damage.

D) They cause the buildup of atoms that possess an unpaired electron.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_38_Theories of Biological Aging Which outcome is a benefit of foods that are high in antioxidants?

A) Significantly increased longevity B) Lower rates of heart disease C) Decreased terminal drop period D) Return to normal vision for patients with retinal degeneration Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_39_Theories of Biological Aging Which perspective proposes that all adults retain very good physical and mental functioning until it plummets in the few years before death?

A) The spiral hypothesis B) The downward trajectory hypothesis C) The sundowning factor D) The terminal decline hypothesis Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_40_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging What is the largest single behavioral effect of age-related physical change in late adulthood?

A) Increased irritability B) Loss of energy C) Lack of sexual desire D) A general slowing down Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_41_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Which activity would be least affected by the general slowing down that older adults experience?

A) Driving a car B) Writing a grocery list C) Translating thoughts into action D) Being a generally optimistic person Answer: D Level: Moderate

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Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_42_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging How are sleep patterns typically affected by age?

A) Older adults typically sleep very soundly for longer periods through the night than they did when they were younger.

B) Older adults commonly have longer periods of REM sleep, or dreaming sleep.

C) Older adults nap more during the day in order to accumulate the sleep they need.

D) Older adults tend to become ―night people‖ by going to bed later at night and getting up later in the morning.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_43_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Mr. Watanabe often overeats, complaining that he feels hungry all the time. His doctor has suggested that this problem is due to a malfunction in the sensation associated with blood sugar levels known as A) deprivation.

B) satiety.

C) insulin.

D) diabetes.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_44_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging After eating, blood sugar rises, resulting in a chemical message being sent to the brain that causes the individual to feel ―full.‖ Which term do experts use for this sensation of fullness?

A) Glucose satisfaction B) Insulin resistance C) Satiety D) Sugar-response effect Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_45_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging What is the most serious consequence stemming from the loss of balance among older adults?

A) A reduction in dexterity when attempting to perform household tasks B) An increase in depressed mood as a result of impaired mobility C) Reduced stamina D) An increase in falls Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_46_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Compared to the others, which activity would most likely help an older person sustain their sense of balance?

A) Playing chess B) Taking a psychology class C) Doing tai chi D) Playing cards Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts

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LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_47_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Which statement is true regarding older adults?

A) Older persons have an easier time learning a new activity that requires fine motor skills.

B) Older adults‘ sense of balance appears to improve with age.

C) Fine motor skills within older adults‘ area of expertise decline little and improve with age.

D) Loss of fine motor skills dramatically declines in old age.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_48_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Which medication may have the unfortunate side effect of producing impotence, and in turn affecting the sexual activity of older adults?

A) Laxatives B) Arthritis creams C) Blood pressure medication D) Asthma inhalers Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_49_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Which factor is likely to affect sexual activity in older age?

A) Negative stereotypes B) Increasing testosterone levels C) Cultural taboos D) Lack of interest Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_50_Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Approximately what percentage of elders in the young old subgroup continues to be sexually active?

A) 40% B) 20% C) 50% D) 90% Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Behavioral Effects of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.2: Describe the behavioral effects associated with physical changes in older adults TB_17_51_Mental Health in Late Adulthood Which group of neurological disorders involving memory and thinking affects social, emotional, and physical functioning?

A) The deliriums B) The dementias C) The senescences D) The mood disorders Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Mental Health in Late Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_52_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias

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Which summary provides the best definition of Alzheimer‘s disease?

A) The late stage of alcohol-induced neural degeneration B) A severe form of major neurocognitive disorder for which the cause is unknown C) A more severe variation of Wernicke‘s syndrome D) The mental deterioration that strikes the old old and oldest old groups randomly Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_53_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias In the early stages of Alzheimer‘s disease, an individual is likely to show a A) failure to recognize family members.

B) loss of memory for recent events.

C) loss of memory for long-ago events.

D) propensity toward repetitive conversation.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_54_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias What effect does Alzheimer‘s disease have on the eating habits of people suspected to have that diagnosis?

A) Total loss of appetite B) Disruption of normal satiety mechanisms C) Forgetting to eat D) The belief that they don‘t need to eat Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_55_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Which condition is definitively diagnostic of Alzheimer‘s disease?

A) The presence of plaque in the arteries of the brain B) The presence of chronic mild cognitive impairment C) Changes seen on an MRI scan as the person is showing cognitive declines D) The presence of neurofibrillary tangles in the brain identified at autopsy Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_56_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Which condition is one likely cause of dementia?

A) Anxiety B) Obesity C) Multiple blows to the head D) Schizophrenia Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_57_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Which statement is true regarding the incidence of Alzheimer‘s disease among people of African descent?

A) The disease is more prominent in Africa than in African Americans in the United States.

B) The disease is less prevalent in Africa, but in the United States African Americans exhibit higher rates than White Americans.

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C) The disease is more common among White people in Africa than Black people in Africa.

D) Black Americans whose African ancestors showed no signs of dementia are more prone to show dementia in current generations.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_58_Depression Which statement is true regarding the risk factors for depression among older adults?

A) The strongest predictor of depression among older persons is marital status.

B) Among older adults, depressed males outnumber depressed females two to one.

C) Older adults living in poverty are at a higher risk for depression than others.

D) Well-educated older adults are more likely to be depressed compared to less-educated peers.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Depression Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_59_Depression Which contributing factor does research indicate to be the strongest predictor of depression among older adults?

A) Loss of a spouse B) Other forms of mental illness C) Poor health D) Loss of income Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Depression Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_60_Depression How are suicide rates related to aging?

A) White males aged 45 to 60 have the highest rate of suicide completion.

B) Suicide rates decline among females in later adulthood.

C) Suicide rates decline drastically for Hispanic males as they age.

D) Suicide rates are highest for females after age 80.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Depression Skill: Remember the Facts LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_61_Depression Compared to the others, which person statistically is at the greatest risk for committing suicide?

A) Felicia, a 60-year-old Black woman who has just gone through a divorce B) Felipe, a 68-year-old Asian man who has begun taking blood pressure medication C) Felix, an 80-year-old White man who has been in chronic pain for 10 years D) Fidelma, a 70-year-old Hispanic woman who has just moved to an active-living retirement community Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Depression Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_62_Depression Which observation provides a likely reason why older male adults have higher rates of completed suicide than older female adults?

A) Males may have low feelings of self-worth or personal meaning, especially after leaving the full-time workforce.

B) Females are more likely than males to have multiple combined risk factors for suicide.

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C) Females are more likely to choose violent methods, such as firearms, when they attempt suicide; males use less violent methods that often go undetected until it is too late.

D) More males than females attempt suicide.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Depression Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_63_Depression What is the most effective treatment for depression in older adults?

A) Antidepressant medications B) A combination of psychotherapy and antidepressant medication C) Increased involvement in a social support network that includes family, friends, or community members D) Dietary and nutritional supplements Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Depression Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_64_Memory in Late Adulthood The largest impairments in memory typically appear after what age?

A) 65 B) 70 C) 75 D) 85 Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Memory in Late Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.5.1: Identify changes in memory in older adults TB_17_65_Memory in Late Adulthood Older adults typically perform more poorly than younger adults on tasks involving A) retrospective memory.

B) recitation.

C) holistic integration.

D) prospective memory.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Memory in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.5.1: Identify changes in memory in older adults TB_17_66_Memory in Late Adulthood In regard to everyday memory tasks, such as recalling a grocery list or remembering whether a behavior was performed, how do older adults compare to younger adults?

A) Older adults generally aren‘t asked to recall everyday tasks; there is no data to evaluate their performance.

B) Older adults perform less well than younger adults on these everyday memory tasks.

C) There is no measurable difference between the memory performance of older adults and younger adults on these kinds of memory tasks.

D) Older adults perform much better than younger adults on these everyday memory tasks.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Memory in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.5.1: Identify changes in memory in older adults TB_17_67_Memory in Late Adulthood Which explanation is currently the most widely accepted for declines in memory among older adults?

A) Lack of motivation to use memory strategies B) Drug interactions that interfere with the physiological basis of memory formation and retrieval C) Loss of speed in central nervous system processes related to information-processing and memory function

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D) Low-level dementia that interferes with memory but not with other aspects of functioning Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Memory in Late Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.5.1: Identify changes in memory in older adults TB_17_68_Wisdom and Creativity Which cognitive characteristic includes knowledge and its application to problem solving?

A) Intelligence B) Wisdom C) Horse sense D) Creativity Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood TB_17_69_Wisdom and Creativity Which is the first stage of Gene Cohen‘s theory of mid- to late-life creativity?

A) The reevaluation stage B) The liberation stage C) The summing-up stage D) The encore stage Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Analyze It LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood TB_17_70_Wisdom and Creativity Seventy-year-old Maybelle enjoys making quilts for her family. Specifically, she likes to make quilts that represent some aspect of the family‘s history. In which of gerontologist Gene Cohen‘s creativity phases is Maybelle?

A) The liberation phase B) The revolution phase C) The summing-up phase D) The reevaluation phase Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_17_71_Life Expectancy and Longevity In the United States today, if an average man lives to be 85, he will likely live to age ________.

Answer: 91 Level: Moderate Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_72_Life Expectancy and Longevity In the United States, the average 65-year-old woman is likely to live to age ________.

Answer: 86 Level: Moderate Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_73_Life Expectancy and Longevity ________ is the scientific study of aging.

Answer: Gerontology Level: Easy Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_74_Health Intellectually demanding daily living tasks are called ________ activities of daily living.

Answer: instrumental Level: Easy Topic: Health Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_75_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood ________ provides the redundancy in the nervous system that enables nerve impulses to move from one neuron to another.

Answer: Synaptic plasticity Level: Moderate Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_76_The Senses A persistent ringing in the ears is called ________.

Answer: tinnitus Level: Easy Topic: The Senses Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_77_The Senses Mrs. Almeida has great difficulty seeing because the lenses inside her eyes have become clouded over, a condition called ________.

Answer: cataracts Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_78_Theories of Biological Aging The genetically programmed time limit for cell replication to which each species is theoretically bound is called the ________.

Answer: Hayflick limit Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging

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Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_79_Theories of Biological Aging The idea that aging occurs when undesirable bonds form between proteins or fats, resulting in molecules that cannot assume the correct shape for their proper function, is associated with the theory of ________.

Answer: cross-linking Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_80_Theories of Biological Aging The ________ hypothesis asserts that all adults retain excellent physical and mental function until just a few years before death.

Answer: terminal decline Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_81_Mental Health in Late Adulthood The ________ are a group of neurological disorders that includes problems with memory and thinking that affect an individual‘s emotional, social, and physical functioning.

Answer: dementias Level: Moderate Topic: Mental Health in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_82_Wisdom and Creativity Critics of Paul Baltes‘s theory of wisdom say that he is measuring general ________ rather than wisdom.

Answer: cognitive ability Level: Difficult Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood

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Short Answer Questions TB_17_83_Life Expectancy and Longevity What are the age ranges and names of the three subgroups of older adults? Which group is likely to surpass the others in terms of population numbers?

Answer: Gerontologists divide older adults into subgroups of the young old (ages 60–75), the old old (ages 75–85), and the oldest old (age 85 and over). The oldest old are the fastest-growing segment of the population in the United States, which means that terms such as centenarian will be used far more often than in the past.

Level: Moderate Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_84_No Easy Answers—The Global Demographic Crisis What is the demographic crisis that is likely to occur later in the 21st century and why is it likely to happen?

Answer: Every industrialized nation in the world is facing a demographic crisis. The reason is that an extraordinarily large number of people were born in the years from 1946 until the early 1960s. (In the United States, this cohort is known as the Baby Boomers.) Birth rates have not kept pace with population growth among people over the age of 65 years. As a result, there are not enough young and middle-aged workers, whose payroll taxes cover the costs of retirement programs, to support the older adults.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—The Global Demographic Crisis Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_85_Health Explain the concept of intrinsic capacity and how it relates to lifespan and healthspan.

Answer: Concerns about the imbalance between lifespans and healthspans have led gerontologists to develop a model of older adult care that focuses on intrinsic capacity, a variable that comprises abilities that are critical to daily functioning—locomotion, cognition, vitality, hearing, and vision. The model emphasizes that routine assessments of older adults‘ performance on measures of these capacities are equally as important as laboratory tests for medical conditions. The goal of the model is to reduce losses in day-to-day functioning among older adults by intervening when assessments indicate that an individual‘s risk for loss of function has increased.

Level: Easy Topic: Health Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_86_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Briefly explain the concept of synaptic plasticity and how it is related to dendritic loss.

Answer: Dendritic loss also results in a gradual slowing of synaptic speed, with a consequent increase in reaction time for many everyday tasks. Neural pathways are redundant enough that it is nearly always possible for a nerve impulse to move from neuron A to neuron B or from neuron A to some muscle cell. Neurologists usually refer to this redundancy as synaptic plasticity.

But with the increasing loss of dendrites, the shortest route may be lost, so synaptic plasticity decreases and reaction time increases.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_87_The Senses Identify four common vision changes associated with late adulthood.

Answer: Four common classes of vision changes, especially prevalent during late adulthood, are reduced blood flow to the eye, reduced pupillary response, age-related diseases of the eye (such as age-related macular degeneration), and cataracts.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Senses Skill: Analyze It LO 17.2.2: Explain the sensory changes that occur in late adulthood TB_17_88_Theories of Biological Aging What is the definition of free radicals, and where do they come from?

Answer: Although it is tempting to think of a free radical as a political protestor who has been released from prison, biologists consider a different definition. Free radicals are molecules or atoms that possess an unpaired electron. Free radicals are a normal

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by-product of body metabolism and also arise as a result of exposure to certain substances in foods, sunlight, x-rays, or air pollution.

Level: Easy Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_89_Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias What is the only definitive way to diagnose Alzheimer‘s disease?

Answer: Alzheimer‘s disease can be definitively diagnosed only after a person has died. At autopsy, the brains of people with Alzheimer‘s disease are far more likely to contain extensive neurofibrillary tangles than are the brains of individuals with other kinds of neurocognitive disorders. Neurofibrillary tangles are stringy masses of tissue that appear to ―clog‖ connections between neurons. They are typically surrounded by deposits of proteins and other substances called plaques.

Level: Moderate Topic: Alzheimer‘s Disease and Other Dementias Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_90_Depression Identify four factors that contribute to depression in old age. Identify which of these is the strongest predictor of depression.

Answer: The risk factors for depression among older adults include inadequate social support, inadequate income, emotional loss (such as following the death of spouse, family, or friends), and nagging health problems. However, the strongest predictor appears to be health status. Across all ethnic and socioeconomic groups, the more disabling conditions older adults have, the more depressive symptoms they have. Moreover, the greater the impact of such conditions on older adults‘ daily lives, the more likely they are to be depressed.

Level: Moderate Topic: Depression Skill: Analyze It LO 17.4.2: Analyze research on depression in older adults TB_17_91_Memory in Late Adulthood On which type of recall tasks are older adults likely to perform noticeably poorly or potentially well? Give an example.

Answer: Patterns of age differences vary across memory tasks. Older adults typically perform more poorly than younger adults on retrospective memory tasks, or recalling something from the past. By contrast, older adults‘ performance on prospective memory tasks (which require individuals to remember to do something in the future) depends on the type of task involved.

Level: Difficult Topic: Memory in Late Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 17.5.1: Identify changes in memory in older adults TB_17_92_Memory in Late Adulthood What does the ―forgetting bias‖ refer to, and why might it be beneficial?

Answer: Adults of all ages exhibit forgetting bias, the belief that forgotten information is unimportant. Forgetting bias helps young and old people alike cope with worries about forgetfulness either as an associate of aging or as an effect of life stresses.

Level: Moderate Topic: Memory in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 17.5.1: Identify changes in memory in older adults TB_17_93_Wisdom and Creativity What are Paul Baltes‘s five criteria for measuring wisdom?

Answer: factual knowledge; procedural knowledge; understanding relevance of context; understanding relevance of values; recognition that it is impossible to know in advance how a decision will ultimately affect one‘s life Level: Difficult Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Analyze It LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood TB_17_94_Wisdom and Creativity What are Gene Cohen‘s four phases of creativity? Please list them in order.

Answer: Reevaluation phase; liberation phase; summing-up phase; encore phase Level: Moderate Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Analyze It

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LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood

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Essay Questions TB_17_95_Life Expectancy and Longevity Summarize the trends in life expectancy in the United States from the early 20th century into the 21st century. Be detailed and specific in your answer.

Answer: In 1930, the average male infant lived to be 58 and female infants lived to be 62. The average male born in the early 21st century is expected to live 76 years and the average female 81. The average male who lives to be 65 is expected to live to be 84, but after he reaches 85 he is likely to live to be 91. The average 65-year-old woman lives to the age of 86 and the average 85-year-old woman can expect to live past 92 years.

Level: Difficult Topic: Life Expectancy and Longevity Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.1.1: Describe global trends in longevity and life expectancy TB_17_96_Health Give examples to illustrate the concepts of activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living. What are the realities of these abilities in older adulthood?

Answer: Activities of daily living (ADLs) are self-help tasks that include all aspects of self-care. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) are tasks that involve intellect and cognitive functioning, such as managing the checkbook or reviewing insurance policies. Disabilities interfere with either or both of these types of activities. Only 39% of people over 75 report some difficulty with ADLs or IADLs, implying that the other half do not have difficulties. The rates of disability have been declining steadily over the past few decades.

Level: Difficult Topic: Health Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_97_Health Explain the difference between lifespan and healthspan. Which factor do you think is more critical to a person‘s overall sense of well-being?

Answer: Increases in life expectancy have dramatically increased the demands on health care systems. As researchers put it, the human lifespan has increased, but the human healthspan, the number of disease-free years a person lives, has declined. A man in otherwise good health who has a heart attack at the age of 62, for example, and receives state-of-the-art medical care is very likely to live into his 80s. However, he will probably need many years of medical intervention to recover from the heart attack and reduce the risk of another one. Moreover, the effects of primary and secondary aging will continue to accumulate. At some point, he may no longer be functional. Thus, thanks to medical intervention, his lifespan may increase to, say, 85, but his healthspan will be limited to the years prior to his heart attack plus the number of post–heart attack years he remained fully functional.

Level: Moderate Topic: Health Skill: Analyze It LO 17.1.2: Describe the variables that contribute to individual differences in health among older adults TB_17_98_The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Which factors correlate with the loss of dendritic density and shrinkage of the cerebral cortex?

Answer: Research suggests that experience as well as aging are involved in the loss of dendritic density. Neurologists have found that, across the years from 60 to 90, adults with higher levels of education show significantly less atrophy of the cerebral cortex than adults who have fewer years of schooling. Moreover, the brains of well-educated and poorly educated older adults do not differ in areas that are less involved in academic learning than the cerebral cortex is. This finding suggests that education itself is the cause of the reduced atrophying of the cerebral cortex rather than some general factor, such as socioeconomic status, that is coincidentally related to education.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Brain and Nervous System in Late Adulthood Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 17.2.1: Outline the changes in the brain that occur in late adulthood TB_17_99_Theories of Biological Aging Explain the Hayflick limit.

Answer: The Hayflick limit refers to the determinants of the maximum lifespan for humans, which seems to be about 110 to 120 years. Human embryo cells double only about 50 times, and because they are not able to duplicate more than this, the limit of aging is set at the end of this duplication cycle.

Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Analyze It

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LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_100_Theories of Biological Aging What is the terminal decline hypothesis? Is this hypothesis supported by longitudinal research? Explain your answer.

Answer: The terminal decline hypothesis says that physical and mental declines are minimal and abilities remain excellent until just a few years before death, at which time there are significant declines in all functions. Longitudinal research provides some support for the terminal decline hypothesis. Researchers have found that declines occur more rapidly during the 7 to 8 years just prior to death than they did earlier in life. However, the degree of change in the terminal period is moderated by gender, with females showing a more rapid rate of change than males. Moreover, the later death occurs in the lifespan, the slower the rate of change during the terminal period. Level: Moderate Topic: Theories of Biological Aging Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.3.1: Summarize the various theories of biological aging TB_17_101_Research Report—Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI), Age-Associated Cognitive Impairment (AACI), and Alzheimer‘s Disease What are the criteria for diagnosing mild cognitive impairment and age-associated cognitive impairment? Summarize the implications (prognosis) of each.

Answer: The criteria for diagnosing mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and age-associated cognitive impairment (AACI) include a gradual decline in cognitive function along with low scores on standardized tests. A specific disorder that might account for the symptoms must be ruled out. The prognoses for the two disorders are very different. MCI is believed to be a precursor to Alzheimer‘s disease, whereas AACI is not.

Level: Difficult Topic: Research Report—Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI), Age-Associated Cognitive Decline (AACD), and Alzheimer‘s Disease Skill: Evaluate It LO 17.4.1: Distinguish between Alzheimer‘s disease and other neurocognitive disorders TB_17_102_Wisdom and Creativity Summarize Gene Cohen‘s four-stage theory of mid- to late-life creativity and give an example to illustrate each stage.

Answer: This theory applies to people who are professional creators or people who are generally more creative than others. The first phase is the reevaluation phase, during which the person reflects on past accomplishments and formulates new goals. The second phase, the liberation phase, is characterized by people in their 60s becoming freer to create because most have retired.

The next phase is the summing-up phase, where people in their 70s have a desire to knit their accomplishments together into a cohesive, meaningful story. The final phase is the encore phase, during the 80s and beyond, where there is a desire to complete unfinished works or to fulfill desires that have been put aside in the past.

Level: Difficult Topic: Wisdom and Creativity Skill: Analyze It LO 17.5.2: Explain the various theories of wisdom and creativity in late adulthood

TEST BANK CHAPTER 18: SOCIAL AND PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT IN LATE ADULTHOOD Multiple-Choice Questions TB_18_01_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair How did Erik Erikson characterize the developmental task of late adulthood?

A) Industry versus inferiority B) Generativity versus stagnation C) Ego integrity versus despair D) Intimacy versus isolation Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_02_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Hugo is in his mid-60s. He is reflecting on his life and is experiencing a sense of satisfaction and accomplishment. How would Erik Erikson describe what Hugo is experiencing?

A) Autonomy

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B) Closure C) Ego integrity D) Life competency Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_03_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Some older adults contemplate their lives and realize they are dissatisfied. They realize missed opportunities have passed them by, and they have not accomplished what they wished they had. What would Erik Erikson say these people are experiencing?

A) Despair B) Destitution C) Resolution D) Self-correction Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_04_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Which statement best describes ego integrity?

A) Serving as a steward for the heritage of the next generation B) Being able to incorporate oneself into the identity of another person without fear of losing oneself C) Being honest about the good and bad aspects of life D) Coming to terms with the life one has lived and accepting the inevitability of death Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_05_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity versus Despair A common theme among most developmental theories that focus on late adulthood is A) being hospitalized due to ill health.

B) engaging in a life review.

C) becoming combative and argumentative.

D) experiencing profound depression.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_06_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Which statement is correct regarding the role of reminiscence in human development?

A) The most important function of reminiscence is preparation for death.

B) Young adults reminisce less often than middle-aged or older adults.

C) Reminiscence confers a variety of mental and physical health benefits.

D) Structured reminiscence decreases life satisfaction.

Answer: C

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Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_07_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Which outcome is a benefit of a life review?

A) Reviving old wounds B) Understanding the certainty of the future C) Resolving lingering problems D) Resisting current life situations with ferocity Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_08_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning According to activity theory, what could older adults do to have the most psychologically and physically healthy response to old age?

A) Eliminate excessively demanding roles and save their energy for truly important roles B) Maintain the greatest possible activity level and the largest possible number of roles C) Increase their physical activity, preferably through aerobic and weight-bearing exercise D) Reduce their activity and involvement in most of their social roles Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_09_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning What is the most common effect of activity upon later life?

A) Fatigue and depression from overwhelming roles and responsibilities B) Increased mortality because the effects of disabling conditions such as diabetes may be magnified C) More rewarding relationships with members of one‘s social support network D) Greater life satisfaction and morale Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_10_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Stanislaus visited a former co-worker, Marty, who recently retired, and was astonished at the list of activities and projects Marty pursued. ―Staying busy keeps me young!‖ Marty loudly proclaimed. This philosophy is most consistent with which perspective on aging?

A) Activity theory B) Adaptation theory C) Ego integrity D) Delimited senescence theory Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_11_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Martina asks her retired neighbor if she is interested in participating in a charity fundraiser. The neighbor says she is no longer interested in activities such as this, and she has been content to do as little as possible since she retired. The neighbor‘s

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perspective is consistent with which view on aging?

A) Adaptation B) Discontinuity theory C) Disengagement theory D) Social reticence Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_12_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Which developmental theory focuses on a gradual withdrawal from the world on physical, social, and psychological levels?

A) Disengagement theory B) Activity theory C) Continuity theory D) Compensational theory Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_13_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Gender roles tend to be least rigid during old age. This is reflective of which aspect of disengagement theory?

A) Acceptance of change B) Continuity C) Increased individuality D) Shrinkage of life space Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_14_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning According to disengagement theory, which term refers to the tendency of people to interact with fewer and fewer people and fill fewer and fewer roles?

A) Acceptance of death B) Shrinkage of life space C) Isolation D) Desocialization Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_15_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Phyllis‘s philosophy drives her children crazy when they go out in public together. She says, ―I‘m old and I can do what I want.‖ Phyllis‘s lack of adherence to conventional rules or expectations is consistent with which aspect of disengagement theory?

A) Asocial thinking B) Discontinuity C) Increased individuality D) Disassociation Answer: C Level: Difficult

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Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_16_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Jennifer is 92. She has become increasingly solitary, preferring her ―quiet time‖ to the company of others. She no longer gets out much, and although she does not seem depressed, her level of involvement with the world has diminished to almost nothing.

Jennifer‘s lifestyle is consistent with the aspect of disengagement theory known as A) acceptance of changes.

B) inactivity and rebellion.

C) discontinuity.

D) antisocial personality.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_17_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Franco worked as a professional cabinet maker most of his adult life. He very much enjoyed this work, but is now somewhat limited in his physical ability to handle large pieces of carpentry. Franco currently builds smaller pieces of furniture such as chairs and coffee tables. Which concept best explains Franco‘s behavior?

A) Disengagement theory B) Acceptance of changes C) Shrinkage of life space D) Continuity theory Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_18_The Successful Aging Approach Which statement summarizes the paradigm of successful aging proposed by John Rowe and Robert Kahn?

A) The healthiest response to old age is to maintain the greatest possible level of activity and involvement in the greatest number of roles.

B) Aging adults are not governed by others‘ expectation that they fulfill certain roles.

C) Religious coping and the use of religious belief and practice are effective means of adapting to aging.

D) Successful aging integrates components of physical, cognitive, and social health that are influenced by earlier behaviors and decisions.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_19_The Successful Aging Approach Which term is used by gerontologists to describe maintaining one‘s physical health, mental abilities, social competence, and general satisfaction with life?

A) Elderpeace B) Aging gracefully C) Nonresistant aging D) Successful aging Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_20_The Successful Aging Approach Which factor might help individuals to recover from a health crisis, such as a stroke or an ankle fracture?

A) A combative, argumentative spirit B) Viewing health care professionals as adversaries to be beaten C) Adopting recovery goals proposed by rehabilitation specialists

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D) Steadfast optimism and a positive attitude Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_21_The Successful Aging Approach Why does continuing to exercise one‘s mental facilities help the process of successful aging?

A) New learning helps to establish new connections between neurons, which in turn helps ward off brain deterioration.

B) Older adults who do not engage in maintaining their cognitive resources tend to die, statistically, 10 years earlier than adults who keep themselves mentally sharp.

C) Cognitive capacity has been demonstrated to have the greatest impact on successful aging, more so than physical exercise, genetics, or social support.

D) Learning something new allows people to make small talk while standing in waiting lines, which in turn increases their sociability.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_22_The Successful Aging Approach Which component of social engagement seems to be most meaningful to older adults?

A) Knowing that others can be depended upon to help when their assistance is needed B) The opportunity to give support as well as receive it C) The frequency of social contacts with friends, family, and community members D) Instrumental support, such as help with chores, rather than emotional support Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_23_The Successful Aging Approach Which outcome is an effect of volunteerism upon older adults?

A) Decreased likelihood of hypertension B) Increased extraversion and decreased introversion in personality C) Improved sexual satisfaction D) Decreased health Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Analyze It LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_24_The Successful Aging Approach Which factor is a documented component of successful aging?

A) Rehabilitation B) Stasis C) Coping with disappointment D) Mental activity Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_25_The Successful Aging Approach Mahmoud‘s grandparents ask him to help them buy a computer and teach them how to use the internet. Which term describes Mahmoud‘s grandparents‘ readiness to learn something new?

A) Social engagement B) Cognitive adventurousness C) Geriatric thymia

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D) Super cognition Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_26_The Successful Aging Approach ___________ refers to a state in which attention shifts from the self to something larger than the self, with respect to both early life trauma and the challenges of old age.

A) Self-awareness B) Ego expansion C) Self-transcendence D) Social comparison Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Remember the Facts LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_27_Religious Coping Which concept refers to the tendency to turn to religious beliefs and institutions for support in times of difficulty?

A) Religiosity B) Religious coping C) Tribulatory spirituality D) Superstitious religiosity Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Religious Coping Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.2.2: Describe the influence of religious coping in late adulthood TB_18_28_Religious Coping Which observation represents a true statement regarding religion and aging?

A) Religious coping mechanisms are only successful if they are instituted during the young adult years.

B) Affiliation with a religious community is linked to high reported levels of well-being among White Americans, but not among other racial or ethnic groups.

C) The tendency to turn to religion for comfort is stronger among Black adults than among other groups.

D) Among different racial groups, Hispanic Americans tend to have the highest rates of religious coping skills.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Religious Coping Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.2.2: Describe the influence of religious coping in late adulthood TB_18_29_Religious Coping Which person statistically is most likely to turn to religion for comfort in times of stress?

A) Ingrid Samuelson, an Asian American woman who is 76 years old B) Della Reed, an Black American grandmother who is 83 years old C) Marcello Rinaldi, a White American CEO who is 63 years old D) Nunzio Perdente, a 72-year-old Italian man who recently emigrated to the United States Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Religious Coping Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.2.2: Describe the influence of religious coping in late adulthood TB_18_30_Religious Coping Which statement provides an accurate definition of spirituality?

A) A general tendency to focus on aspects of life that transcend one‘s physical existence

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B) Belonging to a mainstream religious group C) Adherence to a strictly defined set of beliefs D) A tendency to focus on the philosophical aspects of one‘s physical existence Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Religious Coping Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.2.2: Describe the influence of religious coping in late adulthood TB_18_31_Aging in Place Which term is used for living in a noninstitutional environment to which appropriate modifications have been made for a person in late adulthood?

A) Aging in place B) Modified aging C) Homebound aging D) Home health maintenance Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.3.1: Summarize the considerations associated with aging in place at a private residence TB_18_32_Research Report—Filial Piety Which notion is central to the concept of filial piety?

A) Children have a duty to care for their aging parents.

B) A primary responsibility of religious organizations is caring for people during late adulthood.

C) Living arrangements that involve an extended family network should be discouraged.

D) Older adults should have acquired sufficient resources over time to live by themselves.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Research Report—Filial Piety Skill: Analyze It LO 18.3.1: Summarize the considerations associated with aging in place at a private residence TB_18_33_Aging in Place Which attribute is unlikely to be an important factor to consider when an aging adult must decide whether to live with an adult child?

A) Social network access B) General health, such as need for assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs) C) Income level and requirements D) The characteristics of the adult child with whom the individual will live Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Analyze It LO 18.3.1: Summarize the considerations associated with aging in place at a private residence TB_18_34_Aging in Place Mrs. Sfuzi is a 74-year-old healthy widow who has a good retirement pension and stays active throughout the day. She needs little assistance to accomplish the activities of daily living, and talks to her friends for half an hour by telephone each morning.

She most likely lives A) alone.

B) in a nursing home or other forms of institutional care.

C) with a sibling.

D) with a son, daughter, or other family member.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.3.1: Summarize the considerations associated with aging in place at a private residence TB_18_35_Aging in Place Mr. Malocchio is a healthy 75-year-old widower who lives independently on his comfortable pension. Which factor is most likely to cause a change in his independent living status?

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A) Being encouraged by his son to join his son‘s household and spend more time with his grandchildren B) Development of a mild or moderate disability or health problems such as diabetes C) Development of a significant health problem D) A decrease in his pension income and financial circumstances Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.3.1: Summarize the considerations associated with aging in place at a private residence TB_18_36_Residential Options for Older Adults An independent living community is one in which all residents are A) over a certain age.

B) single, widowed, or divorced.

C) in need of supervision.

D) members of the same social or religious group.

Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Residential Options for Older Adults Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_37_Residential Options for Older Adults Martin and Lewis love to play golf and swim. They recently moved to an apartment complex in Florida where everyone is about their age or perhaps a little older. They live autonomously but share common interests with their many neighbors and enjoy socializing on an almost daily basis. Martin and Lewis are most likely living in which type of residence?

A) A skilled nursing facility B) An assisted living center C) A continuing-care retirement community D) An independent living community Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Residential Options for Older Adults Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_38_Residential Options for Older Adults Bertie is pretty spry and she likes her independence, which is considerable for a 94-year-old. Nonetheless, she is not able to cook for herself anymore and has some difficulty with certain activities of daily living. Bertie might be a good candidate for living in which type of housing?

A) A home-health facility B) A nursing home C) A skilled nursing center D) An assisted living facility Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Residential Options for Older Adults Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_39_Residential Options for Older Adults Soriah‘s care needs have increased since her partner‘s death. She has moved into an independent housing unit that is supported by medical providers as needed. Which type of residence is this?

A) Nursing home care B) Assisted living C) Nursing center care D) Outpatient care Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Residential Options for Older Adults Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_40_Residential Options for Older Adults

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Which term is another name for a nursing home?

A) Assisted living center B) Skilled nursing facility C) ADL assistance living D) Home-health center Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Residential Options for Older Adults Skill: Analyze It LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_41_Residential Options for Older Adults Frederick is living in a specialized living environment where all residents are of retirement age and in need of some level of care. Which kind of residence is this?

A) Continuing-care retirement communities B) Dependent living facilities C) Assisted living centers D) Home-health facilities Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Residential Options for Older Adults Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_42_Partnerships in Late Adulthood Which statement is correct regarding the nature of relationship status and living arrangements in late adulthood in the United States?

A) The normal expectation for an aging female is that she will eventually be without an intimate partner or spouse.

B) Older males are more likely to live alone than older females.

C) In the United States, living alone is the least common and the least preferred living arrangement among unmarried older adults.

D) Most older adults with mild to moderate disability or health problems live with relatives.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood TB_18_43_Partnerships in Late Adulthood Which statement represents a typical expectation for a male during late adulthood?

A) He will live an average of 5 to 10 years as a widower.

B) He will live alone until he experiences health problems that will cause him to enter institutional care.

C) He will live with a spouse or intimate partner until he dies.

D) He will live alone until he has difficulty performing activities of daily living, at which time he will live with family members.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood TB_18_44_Partnerships in Late Adulthood Which statement is an accurate description of partner relationships in later life?

A) Marital satisfaction is lower in the late adult years than when children are still at home.

B) Older adult couples typically stopped being sexually active some time during their 50s.

C) Many spouses care for spouses who are ill or who have dementia for very long periods of time.

D) Married older adults who spend less time with their spouses report high levels of happiness.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood

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TB_18_45_Partnerships in Late Adulthood What is true of single older adults who are single?

A) They have higher mortality rates compared to people who are married.

B) They have higher rates of satisfaction compared to people who are married.

C) They have lower rates of depression and suicide compared to people who are married.

D) They are less likely to be disconnected from their families than people who are married.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood TB_18_46_Partnerships in Late Adulthood Statistically, which person is most likely to be a caregiver for an aging adult?

A) Jethro, the son of Jed, who needs help backing his car out of the garage now and then B) Evangeline, a contract worker who takes care of her client, Leroy C) Chip, the son of Steve and Barbara, who both need a watchful eye as their cognitive facilities start to slip D) Luciana, the daughter of Harriet and Ingo, who has been diagnosed with bladder cancer Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood TB_18_47_Family Relationships and Friendships Most older adults _________ their adult children.

A) are indifferent to the needs of B) are in regular contact with C) visit once a year with D) have little to do with Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_48_Family Relationships and Friendships Which statement accurately describes the relationships of older adults and younger family members?

A) Very few adults over age 65 have regular contact or spend time with their adult children.

B) Older adults who need aid or assistance that cannot be provided by a spouse typically rely on friends, neighbors, and community agencies for the services they need.

C) Most contacts between older adults and younger family members occur in order to fulfill obligations and a sense of duty.

D) Good relationships and regular contact between older adults and younger family members are not essential for life satisfaction in old age, but they‘re not a bad thing, either.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_49_Family Relationships and Friendships Which statement summarizes the research findings regarding older adults‘ relationships with their children?

A) Healthy relationships with their children contribute to happiness and well-being, but are not necessary for it.

B) When relationships with children are warm and caring, the older adult is more likely to be healthy and happy.

C) Relationships with adult children are very important in collectivist cultures, but not in individualistic cultures.

D) Most older adults rely more on their adult children for help and support than anyone else.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_50_Family Relationships and Friendships Why are sibling relationships likely to become more important in late adulthood?

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A) Siblings typically provide practical assistance to each other, such as help with activities of daily living.

B) Most older adults expect to live with siblings when health problems or disabilities occur.

C) Siblings share reminiscences and companionship and provide each other with emotional support.

D) In late adulthood, relationships with siblings are typically less stressful and have less conflict than relationships with adult children or spouses.

Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_51_Family Relationships and Friendships Compared to the relationship between an older adult and adult children, the relationship between an older adult and friends is least likely to A) feature shared activities.

B) provide opportunities for fun and companionship.

C) be reciprocal or equitable.

D) include assistance with daily tasks such as shopping or housework.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_52_Grandchildren and Siblings What tends to happen to contact between grandparents and grandchildren during the unending march of time?

A) Grandparents grow indifferent to the needs of their grandchildren, preferring instead to focus on personal spiritual matters and preparation for death.

B) Contact increases, as all parties realize the ―time is running out.‖ C) Grandchildren tend to move in with their grandparents during very old age, to gather their wisdom as much as possible.

D) Contact declines as the grandchildren become adults themselves.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Grandchildren and Siblings Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_53_Gender, Ethnic, and Racial Differences in Social Networks Which conclusion is true regarding ethnicities and social networks of older adults?

A) Compared to White Americans, older Black Americans tend to have less warm relationships with their siblings and lower rates of co-residence with their children.

B) Fictive kin may be an important source of emotional support for older adults of all ethnic groups.

C) Older White Americans have more extensive social networks than any other racial or ethnic group in the United States.

D) In Black American groups, friends rarely acquire the status of a close sibling or other relatives.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Gender, Ethnic, and Racial Differences in Social Networks Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.3: Describe differences in older adults‘ social networks TB_18_54_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Approximately __________ of workers in the United States are over the age of 65.

A) 60% B) 40% C) 20% D) 5% Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Remember the Facts LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_55_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Professor Mancuso is 70 years old. She is considering retirement, but has decided instead to move to Hawaii and teach one

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online course each semester. This is an example of which strategy?

A) Social retirement B) Practical retirement C) A bridge job D) A transitional job Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_56_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement How are older employees typically evaluated by management in the workplace?

A) As being harder to train than younger employees B) As being more reliable than younger employees C) As being less cognitively skilled than younger employees D) As being more reliable, but less valuable than younger employees Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_57_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Compared to the others, which person statistically is likely to retire earliest?

A) Josef, who has young children living at home B) Annalise, who will rely solely on Social Security for support during retirement C) Otto, who is in good health D) Valentina, who in poor health Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_58_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Compared to the others, which person statistically is likely to retire latest?

A) Ivar, whose work is challenging and interesting B) Claudia, who has experienced poor health for some time C) Anastasia, whose retirement will be supported by an adequate pension and Social Security benefits D) Tomas, a working class laborer who considers Social Security benefits to be adequate for retirement Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_59_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Which attribute is unlikely to be a factor that influences an individual‘s decision to retire?

A) Personality traits B) Financial incentives to retire C) Financial resources during retirement D) Health Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_60_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Which factor is important in determining when a female will retire?

A) Whether or not her intimate partner has retired B) Pressure from her children to retire C) The possibility of accruing higher earnings and promotions that will augment her retirement income

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D) The likelihood that her Social Security income will decrease if she keeps working Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_61_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Compared to the others, which person is most likely to express retirement satisfaction?

A) Al, who has worked on-and-off during his adult years, and generally collects cash from sporadic employers B) Herman, who has worked continuously throughout his adult life, including a brief bridge job during retirement C) Yvonne, who worked part-time after her children were grown, ―more as something to do,‖ she reports D) Lily, who had to work full-time because she was a single mother at the age of 16 Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_62_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Which factor is the greatest obstacle to employment for older adults?

A) Employers‘ perceptions about older workers‘ ability to learn new job skills B) Employers‘ desire to hire older workers for minimum wage C) Older workers‘ inability to work a complete 8-hour shift D) Older workers‘ inflexibility with younger co-workers Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire TB_18_63_Effects of Retirement What is the largest source of income for most older adults in the United States?

A) Income from savings or other assets B) Public assistance C) Pension funds D) Social Security Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_64_Effects of Retirement Statistically, which group is most likely to be living in poverty as an older adult?

A) Asian males B) Hispanic females C) Black females D) Native American males Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_65_Effects of Retirement Which attribute is a contributing factor to declining poverty rates among older adults in the United States?

A) Cost-of-living increases in Social Security B) Fewer older adults having to live in assisted living environments C) Fewer savings and fewer retirement benefits available D) Fewer older people being high school and college graduates Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Effects of Retirement

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Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_66_Effects of Retirement Which effect is retirement likely to have on health?

A) It is likely to have little or no effect.

B) It is likely to affect males but not females.

C) The health of males declines rapidly after retirement.

D) The health of females is more likely to be affected by retirement.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_67_Effects of Retirement Research indicates that people who respond most poorly to retirement are those who A) made an amenity move within a year of retiring.

B) retired from satisfying jobs.

C) retired while a spouse continued working.

D) had the least control over the process.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_68_Effects of Retirement Edith and Woodrow moved to a retirement community on a lake because they like to fish and ski. Their move could be considered to be a(n) __________ move.

A) amenity B) convenience C) activity-related D) compensatory Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_69_Effects of Retirement When Ruth began to lose her eyesight, she could no longer live alone. She was invited to move in with her niece Anne. Which would be considered as Ruth‘s move?

A) Assisted living B) Continuous C) Amenity-oriented D) Compensatory Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_70_Effects of Retirement Which example illustrates a kinship move after retirement?

A) When Mr. and Mrs. Polanski retired, they wanted year-round opportunities to hike and bird-watch, so they moved to a retirement community in Tennessee.

B) After Mr. and Mrs. Garcia retired, they assumed custody of their grandchildren and moved to a larger house.

C) When Mrs. Stockbridge became disabled by arthritis and could no longer live independently in her home, she decided to move into an apartment in the town where her daughter lived.

D) After Mr. Nakahara was released from the hospital, he entered a nursing home where he was cared for until he died.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Retirement

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Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_18_71_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Julian is 94 years old. He happily recalls life when he was younger. He also enjoys spending time with his grandchildren and their children. According to Erik Erikson, Julian has achieved ________.

Answer: ego integrity Level: Moderate Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_72_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning The idea that it is normal for older adults to scale down their social lives is the basis of ________ theory.

Answer: disengagement Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_73_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning According to disengagement theory, ________ is the tendency of people to interact with fewer and fewer people and fill fewer and fewer roles.

Answer: shrinkage of life space Level: Difficult Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_74_Aging in Place ________ is the term used for living in a noninstitutional environment to which appropriate modifications have been made for an adult in late adulthood.

Answer: Aging in place Level: Easy Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_75_Aging in Place Jerzy, age 55, lives in an apartment complex specifically designed for older adults. Among the many amenities, Jerzy especially looks forward to the weekly wine tasting gathering in the day room. This kind of domicile would most likely be classified as a(n) _____________.

Answer: independent living community Level: Difficult Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_76_Aging in Place ________ is a living arrangement for older adults who need more assistance than is available at an independent living community, but who are not in need of constant supervision.

Answer: Assisted living Level: Easy Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_77_Aging in Place ________ retirement communities offer a large range of care, from independent living to skilled nursing.

Answer: Continuing-care Level: Moderate Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Analyze It LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs

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TB_18_78_Partnerships in Late Adulthood Employing Robert Sternberg‘s terminology from the triarchic theory, late adult marriages are more likely to reflect ____________ than romantic love.

Answer: companionate love Level: Moderate Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood TB_18_79_Family Relationships and Friendships Family relationships tend to become more ________ as adults get older.

Answer: harmonious/positive/rewarding/satisfying Level: Moderate Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_80_Family Relationships and Friendships Even though they provide little practical assistance, ________ relationships provide unique emotional support in old age.

Answer: sibling Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_81_Effects of Retirement The largest source of income for most older people in the United States is ________.

Answer: Social Security Level: Easy Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_82_Effects of Retirement Moving to a nursing facility or other care settings because of a disability or illness is called ________.

Answer: institutional migration Level: Difficult Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults

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Short Answer Questions TB_18_83_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Explain Erik Erikson‘s concept of ego integrity.

Answer: Erik Erikson termed the last of his eight life crises the ego-integrity-versus-despair stage. He thought that the task of achieving ego integrity, the sense that one has lived a useful life, began in middle adulthood but was most central in late adulthood. To achieve ego integrity, he proposed, older adults must come to terms with who they are and have been, how their lives have been lived, the choices they have made, and the opportunities gained and lost.

Level: Easy Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_84_Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Why is reminiscence an important part of achieving ego integrity?

Answer: Reminiscence—thinking about the past—is a necessary and healthy part of achieving ego integrity and thus an important aspect of old age and preparation for death. Among older adults, reminiscence is also the foundation for the process of life review, an evaluative process in which older adults make judgments about their past behavior. Consistent with Erik Erikson‘s view of the ego integrity/despair crisis, life review results in both positive and negative emotional outcomes, and the overall balance of positive and negative emotions that results from the life review process is correlated with older adults‘ mental health.

Level: Difficult Topic: Erikson‘s Stage of Ego Integrity Versus Despair Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.1.1: Explain research findings about Erikson‘s stage of ego integrity versus despair TB_18_85_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Identify and explain the three elements of disengagement theory.

Answer: Disengagement theory proposes that aging has three aspects: Shrinkage of life space: As people age, they interact with fewer and fewer others and fill fewer and fewer roles.

Increased individuality: In the roles and relationships that remain, an older individual is much less governed by strict rules or expectations.

Acceptance of these changes: A healthy older adult actively disengages from roles and relationships, turning increasingly inward and away from interactions with others.

Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_86_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Define the core concept of continuity theory.

Answer: Continuity theory argues that the primary means by which older adults adjust to aging is by engaging in the same kinds of activities that interested and challenged them in their earlier years. Research supports continuity theorists‘ assertions that aging adults work to maintain consistency of this kind and that achieving such consistency is essential to older adults‘ maintenance of a positive outlook on the aging process.

Level: Difficult Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Analyze It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_87_The Successful Aging Approach List five components of successful aging.

Answer: health, mental activity, social engagement, productivity, life satisfaction Level: Difficult Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Analyze It LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_88_Religious Coping There is a correlation between religious coping and health in older adulthood, perhaps indicating that religion directly contributes to successful aging. What is an alternative explanation for this correlation?

Answer: Psychologists use the term religious coping to refer to the tendency to turn to religious beliefs and institutions in times of stress or trouble. When examining links between variables such as religious coping and health, researchers must always consider selection effects. There are other possible confounding factors as well. For example, religious and nonreligious older

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adults may differ in personality traits. It seems likely that older adults with higher levels of extraversion would be the most comfortable in religious social environments—and scientists know that extraversion is correlated with successful aging. Thus, the connection between religious coping and health in old age may be a manifestation of personality rather than an independent effect of religion.

Level: Difficult Topic: Religious Coping Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.2.2: Describe the influence of religious coping in late adulthood TB_18_89_Research Report—Filial Piety What is filial piety?

Answer: In Asian societies, standards of filial piety, the Confucian belief that the young are required to fully support the old in appreciation for the fact that they were given life, typically leads to multigenerational living arrangements. However, the core belief that children have the responsibility to care for their aging parents can be found in many cultures.

Level: Moderate Topic: Research Report—Filial Piety Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_90_No Easy Answers—Deciding on Nursing Home Care Identify three criteria for evaluating a long-term care facility.

Answer: adequate staffing; checking with regulatory agencies to see if any complaints have been filed against the facility; access state and local health inspections; visit the facility at different times and during different activities; talk to the family members of other residents; ask about medical emergency policies Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—Deciding on Nursing Home Care Skill: Analyze It LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_91_Family Relationships and Friendships Why do some older adults have strained relationships with their adult children?

Answer: The great majority of older adults describe their relationships with their adult children in positive terms. However, tensions in relationships with adult children are surely possible, and can negatively affect older adults‘ physical and mental health. One possible explanation for the effects of poor parent–child relationships on older adults‘ well-being is that the relationship with one‘s children continues to be governed by role prescriptions, even in old age. This hypothesis may explain why older adults‘ levels of distress increase whenever their adult children experience problems with their careers or intimate relationships. That is, threats to adult children‘s independence such as job loss and divorce may cause older adults to become anxious about being thrust back into an active parenting role.

Level: Difficult Topic: Family Relationships and Friendships Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.4.2: Explain the significance of family relationships and friendships for older adults TB_18_92_Gender, Ethnic, and Racial Differences in Social Networks What does the term fictive kin refer to? Is this concept more prevalent in some groups than in others?

Answer: Compared to White older adults, older Black adults tend to have smaller networks. Their networks often include both family and non-family members with whom they have frequent contact, a type of network that sociologists call fictive kin. In such groups, friends often acquire the status of quasi-family members. Such fictive kin may be important sources of both emotional and instrumental support among older adults of all ethnic and racial groups, but the pattern is particularly prevalent among Black adults.

Level: Moderate Topic: Gender, Ethnic, and Racial Differences in Social Networks Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.3: Describe differences in older adults‘ social networks TB_18_93_Delayed Retirement Which factors contribute to the decision to delay retirement?

Answer: Those in challenging and interesting jobs or who are self-employed are likely to postpone retirement or reject entirely the idea of leaving paid work unless they are pushed into such a decision by ill health or attracted by some extra financial inducement. Family composition is another factor that contributes to the decision to delay retirement. Older adults who continue to support minor or college-aged children retire later than their peers whose children are economically independent.

Level: Moderate Topic: Delayed Retirement Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults TB_18_94_Effects of Retirement What are the types of geographic moves that are often made by older adults after retirement?

Answer: Social scientists have found that four types of moves are common among the minority of older adults who decide to change their residence after retirement: Amenity move: better living conditions, such as a warmer climate; availability of leisure activities Financial move: reduce expenses by moving to a location with a lower cost of living Kinship migration: be nearer family, especially children and grandchildren; be cared for by a family member Institutional migration: independent living is no longer an option due to disability Level: Moderate Topic: Effects of Retirement Skill: Analyze It LO 18.5.2: Evaluate the effect of retirement on the lives of older adults

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Essay Questions TB_18_95_Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Explain activity theory. Apply this theory to older adults in terms of life satisfaction and health.

Answer: One theoretical perspective on old age focuses on whether it is normal, necessary, or healthy for older adults to remain active as long as possible, or whether the more typical and healthy pattern is some kind of gradual turning inward. The perspective typically referred to as activity theory argues that the psychologically and physically healthiest response to old age is to maintain the greatest possible level of activity and involvement in the greatest possible number of roles. Activity theorists often cite research demonstrating that the most active older adults report slightly greater satisfaction with themselves or their lives, are healthiest, and have the highest morale. The effect is not large, but its direction is consistently positive: Social involvement is linked to positive outcomes such as optimism and self-ratings of health.

Level: Moderate Topic: Other Theories of Late-Life Psychosocial Functioning Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.1.2: Summarize the theories of psychosocial functioning in older adults TB_18_96_The Successful Aging Approach Identify and explain the components of successful aging.

Answer: Health: good health must be maintained through middle and late adulthood; mental activity: engaging in cognitively stimulating activities and hobbies; social engagement: remaining socially active is critical and engaging in activities that help others is especially important; productivity: volunteer activities that engage retired adults in productive pursuits; life satisfaction: learning how to adjust expectations such that life satisfaction remains high.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Analyze It LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_97_The Successful Aging Approach Explain three criticisms of the successful aging paradigm. Ultimately, how do attitudes and the realities of aging interact?

Answer: Critics of the successful aging approach suggest that the concept can be misleading. For one thing, they say, the approach has the potential to become a new kind of ageist stereotype, one that portrays older adults who have disabilities as incompetent. Such critics point out that, for many older adults, no amount of optimism, willingness to rehabilitate, social support, or involvement in intellectually demanding activities can moderate their physical limitations. For example, studies comparing the performance of university professors over age 70 and graduate students on reading comprehension tests show that some degree of age-based cognitive decline can be expected, even among very bright, highly experienced, and productive adults. Thus, these critics claim, the danger of the successful aging approach is that it can give the erroneous impression that all the effects of aging are under one‘s control.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Successful Aging Approach Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.2.1: Identify the factors that contribute to successful aging TB_18_98_Religious Coping How does attendance at religious services correlate with health? Explain the possible reasons for this correlation.

Answer: Research suggests that older adults who regularly attend religious services are physically and mentally healthier than peers who do not attend services. They are also at lower risk of mortality, most likely because their rates of smoking and other health risk behaviors are lower than those of non-attenders. Thus, healthy lifestyle choices appear to be an important connection between religious attendance and health. Religious attendance also seems to foster compliance with medical recommendations.

Researchers don‘t know why, but one explanation might be that church attendance provides opportunities for interaction with peers who have the same disorder. Older adults themselves cite a number of reasons for the benefits of religious involvement.

For example, many say that religious institutions provide them with opportunities to help others. Intergenerational involvement is another aspect of religious participation often mentioned by older adults. For many, religious institutions provide a structure within which they can pass on their knowledge and beliefs to younger individuals.

Level: Moderate Topic: Religious Coping Skill: Analyze It LO 18.2.2: Describe the influence of religious coping in late adulthood TB_18_99_Research Report—Filial Piety What effects have Western ideas had on filial piety in some large Asian cities?

Answer: The belief that children have a moral duty to care for their aging parents is found in every culture. Since the mid-20th century, people in Western societies have tended to collectively organize and fund social programs to fulfill this obligation.

Such programs enable most older adults to live independently. By contrast, in Asian societies, standards of filial piety, the Confucian belief that the young are required to fully support the old in appreciation for the fact that they were given life, require

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multigenerational living arrangements. As a result, few older adults in such societies live on their own. Due to demographic changes and Western influence, Asian ideas about filial piety are changing. Researchers have found that multigenerational households are far less common in highly Westernized areas, such as Hong Kong. Furthermore, filial piety is now viewed as a societal as well as an individual responsibility in Japan, a factor that underlies the nation‘s government-sponsored support programs for older adults.

Level: Moderate Topic: Research Report—Filial Piety Skill: Analyze It LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_100_Aging in Place List three residential options for older adults. Identify the characteristics of the aging adult as they apply to making decisions about these options.

Answer: Independent living community: Because these are apartment communities where residents are provided areas for common social interaction, the person needs to be relatively self-sufficient. Assisted living facilities provide some level of assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs), and nurses are available for emergencies. The person who lives in an assisted living facility needs to be able to assist in their own care. Skilled nursing facilities are typically for those who need considerable assistance with ADLs or who need total around-the-clock care. Continuing-care retirement communities offer a continuum of care ranging from independent living to skilled nursing care.

Level: Difficult Topic: Aging in Place Skill: Apply What You Know LO 18.3.2: Outline the various types of residential options available to older adults based on medical needs TB_18_101_Partnerships in Late Adulthood Summarize research findings regarding the protective nature of marriage for older adults.

Answer: The protective nature of marriage for older adults is supported by research showing that single adults over the age of 65 have higher mortality rates, even when factors such as poverty are controlled. Moreover, these rates are consistent across gender and culture. The key advantage of intimate partnerships for older adults is that they provide them with readily available sources of support. For single older adults, more effort is required to identify and connect with sources of support, and physical disabilities are more likely to interfere with maintaining them than is the case for partnered older adults who share the same household.

Level: Moderate Topic: Partnerships in Late Adulthood Skill: Analyze It LO 18.4.1: Characterize intimate partnerships in late adulthood TB_18_102_Timing of and Reasons for Retirement What factors are most relevant to an individual‘s decision to retire?

Answer: There are many factors: the individual‘s health, financial stability and access to sufficient retirement income, and the individual‘s interest in career lives. The single biggest factor is individual health.

Level: Moderate Topic: Timing of and Reasons for Retirement Skill: Evaluate It LO 18.5.1: Identify the factors that contribute to the decision to retire

TEST BANK CHAPTER 19: DEATH, DYING, AND BEREAVEMENT Multiple-Choice Questions TB_19_01_Death Itself Which form of death occurs at the point at which family members and medical personnel treat the deceased person as a corpse?

A) Clinical death B) Brain death C) Social death D) Biological death Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Death Itself Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death

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TB_19_02_Death Itself Which form of death has occurred in circumstances where rescue is still possible, even though there is no evidence of brain function, the heart has stopped, and breathing has stopped?

A) Brain death B) Clinical death C) Cardiovascular death D) Biological death Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Death Itself Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death TB_19_03_Death Itself Which form of death has occurred in circumstances where there is no electrical activity in the brain and the person no longer has reflexes or responds to vigorous external stimuli?

A) Brain death B) Cerebral death C) Cortical death D) Neural death Answer: A Level: Easy Topic: Death Itself Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death TB_19_04_Death Itself When Darius stopped breathing, his eyes remained open. The nurse closed his eyes and pulled the bed sheet over his head.

These activities marked which outcome?

A) Social death B) Clinical death C) Brain death D) Psychological death Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Death Itself Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death TB_19_05_Death Itself Which circumstances permit the determination that a person is legally dead?

A) When there is no electrical activity in the brain and the person no longer has reflexes or responds to vigorous external stimuli B) When resuscitation is possible, even though there is no evidence of brain function or respiration, and the heart has stopped C) When the brain stem is dead and there is no independent body functioning D) When a physician pronounces the person to be dead Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Death Itself Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death TB_19_06_Where Death Occurs Which term describes an approach to caring for the terminally ill that focuses on individual and family control over the process of dying?

A) DNR facilitation B) Hospice care C) Skilled nursing D) Home health care Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill

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TB_19_07_Where Death Occurs Roger has an incurable disease, and he knows his time on the planet is limited. He hates hospitals and the sterile quality of any institution. He wants to die at home with his family around him, making whatever decisions must be made. Which form of care would be a good alternative for Roger to consider?

A) An assisted living facility B) Decedent care C) Hospice care D) Nursing home care Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_08_Where Death Occurs In which country did hospice care originate?

A) The United States B) Germany C) The Netherlands D) England Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_09_Where Death Occurs In the United States, approximately what percentage of deaths takes place in the decedent‘s home?

A) 33% B) 15% C) 82% D) 61% Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_10_Where Death Occurs In the United States, where do most adults die?

A) At home B) In a hospice C) In a hospital D) In a nursing home Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_11_Where Death Occurs What is the main purpose of hospice care?

A) To extend every possible moment of life at any cost B) To provide treatments to prolong life, even though the treatments may be painful or extraordinarily invasive C) To provide a warm, supportive environment for the dying person and help make life as full as possible D) To add to the burden of family members as they care for their dying relatives Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Where Death Occurs

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Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_12_Where Death Occurs Which type of care focuses on relieving a terminally ill patient‘s pain, rather than curing the illness?

A) Merciful B) Palliative C) Decendent D) Homeopathic Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_13_Where Death Occurs In which type of hospice programs are family caregivers supported by specially trained health care workers?

A) Residence based B) Filial oriented C) Hospital based D) Assisted-living facility based Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_14_Where Death Occurs In which setting would you be most likely to find a small number of patients who are cared for by specially trained health care workers in a homelike situation?

A) Hospital-based programs B) Hospice centers C) Home-based programs D) Assisted-living programs Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_15_Where Death Occurs Which attitude was commonly reported by the loved ones of a terminally ill patient who chose a home-based hospice program?

A) They reported relief at having their loved one home.

B) They reported feeling a greater sense of burden.

C) They responded no differently than those whose loved one died in a hospital-based hospice program.

D) They reported greater satisfaction at the quality of care.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_16_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death What would be the most likely age of a child who says, ―My cat died, but if I get her some medicine, she will feel better tomorrow‖?

A) 4 years B) 7 years C) 9 years D) 11 years Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death

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TB_19_17_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Which conclusion accurately characterizes what a child younger than 5 years of age would understand or believe about death?

A) That death is permanent B) That death is reversible C) That death is tragic D) That death is universal Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_18_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Atticus, age 4, is a preschool student whose hamster just died. Which common reaction to his hamster‘s death might Atticus demonstrate?

A) Atticus may say his hamster is ―sleeping.‖ B) Atticus may say that his hamster was evil.

C) Atticus may wish to destroy the body of the hamster to avoid remembering.

D) Atticus would want to bury the hamster because he realizes that it will never come back to life.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_19_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Which circumstances would serve to hasten a child‘s understanding of death?

A) Believing that death is just a temporary experience B) Reading a story in which a character dies and then comes back to life C) Finding a dead animal D) Talking about death in the absence of any direct experience Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_20_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Which factor contributes to adolescent suicidal behavior?

A) The understanding that death is inevitable B) Unrealistic ideas about personal death C) The death of a close relative D) An understanding of the universality of death Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_21_Research Report—Suicide and Social Contagion Reggie was a student at Miltown High School who, quite sadly, committed suicide. The administrators at Miltown High are now worried that ―copycat suicides‖ might take place. Which term do professionals use for this kind of threat?

A) Death regression B) Swarming C) The Omega Concern D) Social contagion Answer: D Level: Moderate

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Topic: Research Report—Suicide and Social Contagion Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_22_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Which outcome is typical of a young adult when asked to estimate their own chances of death?

A) They tend to overestimate their own chances of death, especially if they have had a prior personal experience with death.

B) They tend to underestimate their own chances of death while simultaneously assuming that everyone they know will also die young.

C) They are usually accurate within 1 or 2 years.

D) They are more likely to overestimate their chances of death compared to adults in their 80s.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_23_The Meaning of Death for Adults Alcindor is a 26-year-old professional basketball player. One of his teammates died suddenly during a recent playoff game.

Which outcome exemplifies how Alcindor is likely to react to the unexpected death of his teammate?

A) Alcindor is likely to take it in stride and spend little time thinking about or grieving over the loss of his teammate.

B) Alcindor is likely to look for reasons to explain why his teammate died so as to feel less threatened or vulnerable.

C) Because Alcindor‘s relationship with his teammate was non-familial, he is likely to feel less threatened by it than if it were a family member who had died.

D) Because Alcindor is a young adult, his sense of unique invulnerability will protect him from being overly concerned about the death of his teammate.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_24_The Meaning of Death for Adults For most adults, which aspect is the most pervasive meaning of death?

A) Transition B) Loss C) Punishment D) Renewal Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_25_The Meaning of Death for Adults How does thinking about time change in middle adulthood?

A) Time seems to reverse itself compared to young adulthood.

B) Time seems to move slower than it did in young adulthood.

C) People begin thinking in terms of years rather than decades.

D) People start thinking in terms of time until death rather than time since birth.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_26_The Meaning of Death for Adults When faced with impending death, which group would most likely want to spend time with loved ones, generally speaking?

A) White Americans B) Mexican Americans C) Black Americans D) Japanese Americans Answer: B Level: Moderate

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Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_27_The Meaning of Death for Adults Which response would be likely if a young adult were asked how she would want to spend the final months of her life?

A) ―I would attempt to tie up loose ends, such as making plans for my burial.‖ B) ―I would finish important projects and leave my affairs in order for my family.‖ C) ―I would meditate and pray.‖ D) ―I would spend time traveling and having adventures with my family and friends.‖ Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_28_The Meaning of Death for Adults Compared to the others, which group would be most likely to seek new experiences if they thought they were going to die?

A) Oldest old adults B) Young old adults C) Middle-aged adults D) Young adults Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_29_The Meaning of Death for Adults Which response would be likely if an adult older than 60 years were asked how they would spend the final months of their life?

A) ―I would tie up the loose ends of my business affairs and talk to my lawyer about my will.‖ B) ―I would travel and spend time with my friends and family.‖ C) ―I would meditate and try to find peace and acceptance within myself.‖ D) ―I would do all the wild and crazy things that I have always wanted to do.‖ Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_30_Fear of Death Compared to the others, which person would report being least afraid to die, based on general patterns of research outcomes investigating people‘s anticipation of death?

A) 17-year-old Susan B) 45-year-old Barney C) 60-year-old Dolores D) 75-year-old Winston Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_31_Fear of Death Compared to the others, which person would report being most afraid to die, based on general patterns of research outcomes investigating people‘s anticipation of death?

A) 45-year-old Sharona B) 55-year-old Jarvis C) 65-year-old Quinn D) 75-year-old Farley Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Evaluate It

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LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_32_Fear of Death With regard to death, older adults are most likely to fear which outcome?

A) The uncertainty before death, such as where they will die and who will care for them B) That important issues will be unresolved or projects will not be completed C) Loss of their roles and relationships D) Pain or discomfort often associated with death Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_33_Fear of Death Which statement is accurate regarding the fear of death?

A) Old age is the time when death is most feared.

B) Older adults fear the period of uncertainty before death, such as whether they will be able to cope with the loss of control and independence.

C) Adults who are deeply religious and adults who are totally irreligious may fear death more than those who are ambivalent about a religious or philosophical tradition.

D) Adults who believe their lives have had purpose or meaning appear to be more fearful of death.

Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_34_Preparation for Death Laurel is in the early stages of an inoperable cancer. She has prepared a signed and witnessed written document directing her family not to allow any artificial or heroic steps to be taken in the event that she is unable to make her wishes known at the appropriate time. What is this document called?

A) Power of attorney B) Executive trust C) Living trust D) Advance directive Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Preparation for Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.3.2: Describe the ways in which adults prepare for death TB_19_35_Preparation for Death What does a health care power of attorney do?

A) It gives written instructions for end-of-life care.

B) It takes care of funeral arrangements in advance.

C) It specifies who can make decisions for an individual in the event the person becomes unable to do so.

D) It provides the dying person‘s family the ability to purchase health care for the individual.

Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Preparation for Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.3.2: Describe the ways in which adults prepare for death B_19_36_No Easy Answers—Saying Good-Bye Which common belief about death is held among the Kaliai people in New Guinea?

A) Deaths are caused by a person or spirit whom the dying person has offended in some way.

B) Death is never to be discussed.

C) It is very important to say farewell to friends and family.

D) Death releases the soul from the entrapments of the physical body so that it can continue to grow.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: No Easy Answers—Saying Good-Bye Skill: Analyze It

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LO 19.3.2: Describe the ways in which adults prepare for death TB_19_37_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Which is a stage in Elisabeth Kübler-Ross‘s model of the psychological preparations for death?

A) Agreement B) Objection C) Bargaining D) Preparation Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_38_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Ingo Larsen was told by his physician that his terminal diagnosis had progressed rapidly, and that he only had 6 months to live. ―That‘s so unfair!‖ Ingo shouted. He then begins berating his physician and the other staff members in the office. Which stage of dealing with dying is Ingo in?

A) Preparation B) Anger C) Bargaining D) Acceptance Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_39_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Marcello Rinaldi was told by his physician, 6 months ago, that he‘d have about 18 months to live. ―I‘ve been working out a deal,‖ Marcello told his physician. ―Through daily prayer I‘ve negotiated with God another year on top of your prognosis. It‘s guaranteed.‖ Which stage of dealing with dying in Marcello in?

A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Depression D) Rejection Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_40_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Ingrid Samuelson was told by her physician that her health was beyond medical treatment, and that her chances of dying within the next 12 months were 90%. ―I‘m sorry,‖ Ingrid replied, ―That‘s not right. Please run the tests again while I get a third opinion. I‘m not sure why you‘re telling me this falsehood.‖ What stage of dealing with dying is Ingrid in?

A) Accommodation B) Acceptance C) Bargaining D) Denial Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_41_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, what is the final step of the five-step process of dying?

A) Denial B) Depression C) Acceptance

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D) Bargaining Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Remember the Facts LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_42_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Montague has recently learned that he is terminally ill. He has begun to lash out at his family and at the medical personnel involved in his care. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross would argue that this behavior can be explained by which circumstances?

A) A wish to punish others and make them feel pain, too B) A loss of control and sense of helplessness C) Cognitive changes brought on by the stress of the situation D) Interactions between medications Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_43_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Mai Ling, age 85, has a long history of strokes that have debilitated her and left her bedridden. She recently had another stroke, and she knows her death is imminent. She has no emotional reaction to this realization and just wants to be left alone. According to Kübler-Ross, it is likely that Mai Ling is experiencing which of the five stages of death and dying?

A) Denial B) Acceptance C) Depression D) Terminal Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_44_Criticisms and Alternative Views Which two major criticisms have been applied to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross‘s theory of dying?

A) Her claim that these processes are universal and gender specific B) Her methodology and her claim that people of all ages react the same to dying C) Her claim that religiosity is tied to the five stages and that persons of non-Christian religions will react differently D) Her methodology and her claim that these processes are culturally universal Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Criticisms and Alternative Views Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.4.2: Explain alternative views of the process of dying TB_19_45_Criticisms and Alternative Views What is thanatology?

A) The study of brain function during death B) The belief in life after death C) The religious view that death is a transitional state D) The scientific study of death and dying Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: Criticisms and Alternative Views Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.4.2: Explain alternative views of the process of dying TB_19_46_Criticisms and Alternative Views Which is one of the tasks of dying proposed by Charles Corr?

A) Minimizing autonomy B) Ignoring or avoiding sources of spiritual energy C) Minimizing bodily needs

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D) Sustaining and enhancing significant personal attachments Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Criticisms and Alternative Views Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.2: Explain alternative views of the process of dying TB_19_47_Responses to Impending Death According to theorist Charles Corr, people who are dying face a set of psychological tasks including A) pushing themselves physically as the body fights to live.

B) financially preparing for the security of loved ones.

C) ending relationships with others.

D) fostering hope through spiritual searching.

Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_48_Responses to Impending Death Yolanda has breast cancer. She has kept a positive attitude and has been doing research to learn more about her type of cancer.

She readily tells her doctors that she is going to fight with everything she has to beat her cancer. Steven Greer‘s initial research indicates that Yolanda is demonstrating A) fighting spirit.

B) helplessness/hopelessness.

C) stoic acceptance (fatalism).

D) a realistic attitude.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_49_Responses to Impending Death When Barry was told he had lung cancer, he just resigned himself to the idea that he would die. He didn‘t really seem to be in denial, he just made no attempt to seek a cure, believing that his diagnosis ―is what it is.‖ Steven Greer‘s research indicates that Barry‘s attitude reflects A) stoic acceptance.

B) helplessness/hopelessness.

C) depression.

D) fighting spirit.

Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_50_Responses to Impending Death According to research conducted by Steven Greer, which group had the longest survival rates from a terminal illness?

A) Those whose attitude was stoic acceptance B) Those whose attitude was denial or fighting spirit C) Those whose attitude was quiet resignation D) Those whose attitude was anger Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death

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TB_19_51_Responses to Impending Death What is a psychoeducational support group?

A) A school-based organization that answers questions children and adolescents have regarding death and dying B) The core component of hospice care, as practiced specifically in the Netherlands C) A team of professional thanatologists who can discuss options related to right-to-die policies in the United States D) A small group of medical patients who meet with hospital staff to learn about and discuss various aspects of their treatment plans Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_52_Freud‘s Psychoanalytic Theory Which concept did Sigmund Freud believe to be most useful for coping with death and grief?

A) Defense mechanisms B) Regression C) The unconscious D) Fixation Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Freud‘s Psychoanalytic Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.1: Evaluate Freud‘s psychoanalytic view of grief TB_19_53_Freud‘s Psychoanalytic Theory Which two defense mechanisms have been useful in helping children cope with dying?

A) Denial and regression B) Displacement and repression C) Sublimation and identification D) Regression and reaction formation Answer: C Level: Difficult Topic: Freud‘s Psychoanalytic Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.1: Evaluate Freud‘s psychoanalytic view of grief TB_19_54_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Which concept is included in the stages of grief proposed by John Bowlby?

A) Sublimation B) Denial C) Numbness D) Fatalism Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_55_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Although John Bowlby argued that the first stage of grief is numbness, Catherine Sanders proposed that the first stage is A) denial.

B) anger.

C) anxiety.

D) shock.

Answer: D Level: Difficult Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_56_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Lowell‘s wife died of cancer. He dreams of her often and even thinks that he sees her at the bowling alley or on the street. He cries frequently. Lowell is in which stage of grief, according to Catherine Sanders?

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A) Shock B) Awareness C) Withdrawal D) Yearning Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_57_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Although Catherine Sanders proposed that the final stage of grief is healing and renewal, John Bowlby thought it was A) reorganization.

B) culmination.

C) reverence.

D) acceptance.

Answer: A Level: Difficult Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_58_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Which is one of the stages of grief proposed by Catherine Sanders?

A) Disorganization and despair B) Yearning C) Healing and renewal D) Life review and reminiscence Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_59_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Which term would characterize the first stage of grieving called ―numbness‖ by John Bowlby and ―shock‖ by Catherine Sanders?

A) Disorientation B) Hope C) Anxiety D) Reminiscence Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_60_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Which common feeling occurs during the stage of grief called ―yearning‖ by John Bowlby and ―awareness of loss‖ by Catherine Sanders?

A) Anger B) Denial C) Hope D) Withdrawal Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_61_Alternative Perspectives Which core concepts are part of the dual process model of grief?

A) Sublimation and regression B) Absence and fondness

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C) Confrontation and restoration D) Anger and retribution Answer: C Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief TB_19_62_Alternative Perspectives Which statement is true regarding the absent pattern of grief?

A) This pattern of grief is very unhealthy and typically has severe negative consequences.

B) The person feels little or no notable distress at any time following a death.

C) This pattern is the healthiest form of grief because it indicates rapid and complete psychological adjustment to the loss.

D) This pattern is associated with increased mortality of survivors.

Answer: B Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief TB_19_63_Alternative Perspectives Which term describes a common pattern of grieving observed by researchers in this area?

A) Delayed B) Tolerant C) Acute D) Committed Answer: A Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief TB_19_64_Alternative Perspectives Following the loss of his life partner, Joel has decided to move to Florida and pursue a graduate degree. According to research investigating patterns of grieving, in which emotional state is Joel?

A) Confrontation B) Absent C) Restoration D) Denial Answer: C Level: Moderate Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief TB_19_65_The Process of Grieving Which general term applies to the emotional response to a death?

A) Yearning B) Grieving C) Shock D) Bargaining Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Grieving Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.6.2: Describe the factors that influence the grieving process TB_19_66_The Process of Grieving How do funerals, wakes, and other death rituals help family members and friends manage their grief?

A) By prolonging the grieving process until numbness sets in B) By offering a ―worst-case scenario‖ for mourners C) By providing a forum for airing grievances regarding the deceased D) By giving them a specific set of roles to play Answer: D

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Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Grieving Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.6.2: Describe the factors that influence the grieving process TB_19_67_The Process of Grieving Compared to the others, which person would be more at risk for prolonged grief or the development of long-term grief-related problems?

A) 8-year-old Billy, who knew his dog was ill and in danger of dying B) 16-year-old Lexie, whose mother died suddenly and unexpectedly C) 45-year-old Artemus, whose mother died of breast cancer D) 65-year-old Felicity, whose husband died Answer: B Level: Difficult Topic: The Process of Grieving Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.6.2: Describe the factors that influence the grieving process TB_19_68_The Process of Grieving Under which circumstances would death be likely to elicit the most intense grief responses from survivors?

A) A child dies after being terminally ill for many months B) A 90-year-old parent dies in her sleep C) A 55-year-old man dies following his third heart attack D) A 28-year-old woman is murdered Answer: D Level: Moderate Topic: The Process of Grieving Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.6.2: Describe the factors that influence the grieving process TB_19_69_The Process of Grieving __________ conceptualized grieving as consisting of three components: separation distress, identity distress, and circumstancerelated distress.

A) Psychoanalytic theory B) Elisabeth Kübler-Ross‘s notions C) The Corr-Greer approach D) Multidimensional grief theory Answer: D Level: Easy Topic: The Process of Grieving Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.6.2: Describe the factors that influence the grieving process TB_19_70_Loss of Attachment Relationships

Which approach to grieving proposes that that internal dialogues among the various components of an individual’s identity can be employed for therapeutic purposes?

A) The sadness-anger-denial (SAD) approach B) Dialogical self theory C) Behaviorism D) The social-cognitive approach Answer: B Level: Easy Topic: Loss of Attachment Relationships Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.6.3: Summarize the effects of grief on adults who have lost their spouses

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions TB_19_71_Death Itself ________ describes a state in which the person no longer has reflexes or any response to vigorous external stimuli and no electrical activity in the brain.

Answer: Brain death Level: Easy Topic: Death Itself Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death s TB_19_72_Death Itself When vital signs are absent but resuscitation remains possible, ________ has taken place.

Answer: clinical death Level: Easy Topic: Death Itself Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death TB_19_73_Where Death Occurs ________ care is administered to control pain and maximize comfort.

Answer: Palliative Level: Easy Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_74_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death At the beginning of Jean Piaget‘s ________ operations stage of cognitive development, children begin to understand the permanence and universality of death.

Answer: concrete Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_75_Fear of Death Anxiety about dying tends to be highest among ________ adults.

Answer: middle-aged Level: Difficult Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_76_Preparation for Death The purpose of a(n) ________ is to have written instructions regarding end-of-life care.

Answer: advance directive Level: Easy Topic: Preparation for Death Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.3.2: Describe the ways in which adults prepare for death TB_19_77_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying The third stage of dying proposed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is ________.

Answer: bargaining Level: Moderate Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_78_Responses to Impending Death Emily has just been diagnosed with an inoperable brain tumor. Emily can‘t stop crying, even weeks after the diagnosis. She is devoid of hope and has resigned herself to death. According to Steve Greer, Emily is feeling ________.

Answer: helplessness/hopelessness

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Level: Difficult Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_79_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Catherine Sanders‘ label for John Bowlby‘s reorganization stage of grief is ________.

Answer: healing and renewal Level: Difficult Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_80_Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Catherine Sanders proposed that the final stage of grief is healing and renewal, although John Bowlby thought it was ________.

Answer: reorganization Level: Difficult Topic: Bowlby‘s Attachment Theory Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.2: Compare the theories of Bowlby and Sanders regarding grief TB_19_81_Alternative Perspectives When a person‘s grief reaction continues at a high level over several years, it is considered to be ________ according to research findings investigating patterns of grieving.

Answer: chronic Level: Easy Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief TB_19_82_Grief as a Psychological Disorder In the context of death and bereavement, PCBD stands for ___________.

Answer: persistent complex bereavement disorder Level: Moderate Topic: Grief as a Psychological Disorder Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.6.1: List the characteristics of persistent complex bereavement disorder

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Short Answer Questions TB_19_83_Death Itself Explain the difference between clinical death and brain death.

Answer: During clinical death, vital signs are absent but resuscitation remains possible; brain death is the absence of all vital signs including the absence of brain activity; therefore, resuscitation is no longer possible.

Level: Moderate Topic: Death Itself Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.1: Characterize the types of death TB_19_84_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death What sort of life experiences will increase a young child‘s (between the ages of 6 and 9 years) understanding of death?

Answer: As is true of so many other milestones of this age range, a child‘s specific experience seems to make a good deal of difference. Young children who have had direct experience with the death of a family member are more likely to understand the permanence of death than are those who have had no such personal experience. Experiences in which children discover a dead animal, lose a pet, or are exposed to a story in which a character dies (e.g., Bambi, Finding Nemo) can also speed somewhat the process of developing an understanding of death.

Level: Difficult Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_85_The Meaning of Death for Adults How does the loss of a parent affect middle-aged adults?

Answer: In middle and late adulthood, the understanding of death goes well beyond the simple acceptance of finality, inevitability, and universality. A death changes the roles and relationships of everyone else in a family. For example, when an elder dies, everyone else in that particular lineage ―moves up‖ in the generational system. The death of a parent can be particularly unsettling for middle-aged adults if they do not consider themselves ready to assume the elder role.

Level: Moderate Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_86_Fear of Death How do religious beliefs moderate a fear of death among adults?

Answer: Religious beliefs may moderate fears of death because religious people tend to view death as a transition from one form of life to another, from physical life to some notion of immortality. Research showing that belief in an immortal soul is negatively correlated with fear of death supports this hypothesis. In the United States, roughly 73% of the population believes in heaven. Such a belief is more common among women than among men. An age difference exists as well. Belief in heaven is less common among adults between the ages of 18 and 49 than it is in those who are older. Interestingly, though, those in the younger age group more commonly believe in reincarnation than adults over 50 do. Thus, collectively, the vast majority of Americans believe that a person‘s existence does not end at death.

Level: Moderate Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_87_No Easy Answers—Saying Good-Bye Explain how the Kaliai people of New Guinea approach the impending death of a loved one.

Answer: The Kaliai, a small Melanesian society in Papua New Guinea, believe that all deaths are caused by a person or spirit whom the dying person has offended in some way. Any person who feels that they are near death moves from home into a temporary shelter, where they attempt to appease whichever person or spirit may have been offended. The dying person also attempts to thwart death through the use of various medicines and cures. When death becomes imminent, family members and friends return items borrowed from the dying person and pay debts that are owed. Likewise, the dying person returns borrowed items and repays debts owed to family members and friends. The Kaliai believe that this process of bringing relationships into balance prepares the dying person for an afterlife in which that person will become a powerful, superhuman being.

Level: Difficult Topic: No Easy Answers—Saying Good-Bye Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.3.2: Describe the ways in which adults prepare for death TB_19_88_Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying List, in order, the five stages of dying proposed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross.

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Answer: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance Level: Easy Topic: Kübler-Ross‘s Stages of Dying Skill: Understand the Concepts LO 19.4.1: Outline the stages of dying TB_19_89_Criticisms and Alternative Views Summarize Charles Corr‘s theoretical approach to dying.

Answer: In Charles Corr‘s approach to thanatology, coping with dying is like coping with any other problem or dilemma: You need to take care of certain specific tasks. He suggests four such tasks for the dying person: satisfying bodily needs, maximizing psychological security, sustaining and enhancing interpersonal attachments, and identifying sources of spiritual energy.

Level: Moderate Topic: Criticisms and Alternative Views Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.2: Explain alternative views of the process of dying TB_19_90_Responses to Impending Death According to the research conducted by Steven Greer and his colleagues studying women who had been diagnosed with cancer, which type of attitude toward a terminal diagnosis correlated positively with longevity after the diagnosis?

Answer: Women who had a fighting spirit or who denied the terminal nature of their illness were reported to have had the longest survival rates. However, in a subsequent study with a much larger sample, Greer and his colleagues found no advantage associated with having a fighting spirit.

Level: Moderate Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_91_Alternative Perspectives What are the two emotional states proposed in the dual process model of bereavement? Briefly define each.

Answer: Confrontation: confronting the loss and actually grieving Restoration: moving forward with one‘s life Level: Difficult Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Analyze It LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief TB_19_92_Loss of Attachment Relationships Explain why the death of a child tends to produce such strong grieving and other emotional reactions.

Answer: The death of a child is always an off-time event. Moreover, grieving parents may perceive a child‘s death as a social identity threat, a loss that changes the survivors‘ sense of personal identity. As a result, it involves a more complex interaction of stressors than losing a parent. Many parents feel a mix of failure, shame, and social stigma as they transition from parent to non-parent. The transition may be particularly difficult for people who are unable to have another child. To recover, grieving parents must go through a process of identity reconstruction in which they find meaning in other roles they occupy.

Level: Difficult Topic: Loss of Attachment Relationships Skill: Analyze It LO 19.6.3: Summarize the effects of grief on adults who have lost their spouses TB_19_93_Loss of Attachment Relationships How is immune system functioning affected by the death of a close loved one?

Answer: The loss of a close loved one is linked to the increased risk of illness and death, which is usually attributed to suppression of immune system function. Thus, bereavement may continue at a biochemical level long after obvious signs of grieving have subsided. Researchers attribute this finding to the severing of the attachment relationship that results when a close loved one dies. As a result, losses that involve the two closest human bonds, parent–child relationships and intimate partnerships, more often lead to impaired immune function than other types of losses. Losses of either type increase the risk of serious illness and mortality in the months following a loved one‘s death.

Level: Moderate Topic: Loss of Attachment Relationships Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.6.3: Summarize the effects of grief on adults who have lost their spouses TB_19_94_Loss of Attachment Relationships Summarize the approach to grief advocated by dialogical self theory, especially with regard to the loss of an intimate partner.

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Answer: Some psychologists recommend an approach to grief therapy based on dialogical self theory, the view that internal dialogues among the various components of an individual‘s identity can be employed for therapeutic purposes. Therapy of this kind focuses on reshaping an individual‘s internalized life story in a way that reframes the intimate relationship between the decedent and the existing loved ones and the means by which it ended. Processes such as this that are derived from dialogical self theory are helpful because, typically, a couple has a shared life story that includes anticipated events that are rendered impossible by one partner‘s death. Rewriting the narrative within the context of the surviving partner‘s individual identity, an identity that continues beyond the lost partner‘s death, lessens the impact of the grief that is prompted by the loss of a shared future.

Level: Difficult Topic: Loss of Attachment Relationships Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.6.3: Summarize the effects of grief on adults who have lost their spouses

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Essay Questions TB_19_95_Where Death Occurs Summarize the history and philosophy of hospice care.

Answer: Hospice care emerged in England in the late 1960s and in the United States in the early 1970s. By 1982, the idea had gained so much support in the United States that Congress was persuaded to add hospice care to the list of benefits that Medicare pays for. In the United States, roughly 50% of individuals with terminal illnesses receive some kind of hospice care.

The philosophy that underlies this alternative approach to the dying patient has several aspects: Death should be viewed as normal, not to be avoided but to be faced and accepted.

The patient and family should be encouraged to prepare for the death by examining their feelings, planning for after the death, and talking openly about the death.

The family should be involved in the patient‘s care as much as is physically possible, not only because this gives the patient the emotional support of loved ones but also because it allows each family member to come to some resolution of their relationship with the dying person.

Control over the patient‘s care should be in the hands of the patient and the family: They decide what types of medical treatment they will ask for or accept; they decide whether the patient will remain at home or be hospitalized.

Medical care should be primarily palliative care rather than curative treatment. The emphasis of palliative care is on controlling pain and maximizing comfort, not on invasive or life-prolonging measures.

Level: Difficult Topic: Where Death Occurs Skill: Analyze It LO 19.1.2: Differentiate between hospice and hospital care for the terminally ill TB_19_96_Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death How are adolescents unique in their understanding of death? Cite a specific example that exemplifies this sometimes unrealistic understanding.

Answer: Adolescents understand the finality of death better than children do. Moreover, in an abstract sense, they understand that death is inevitable. They are also more likely than younger children to express philosophical or spiritual ideas about death, suggesting that, like adults, they view death as more than a biological event. Nevertheless, adolescents tend to overestimate their own chances of death. This phenomenon is most pronounced among teens who have personal experiences with death, particularly adolescents who live in high-crime neighborhoods. Unrealistic beliefs about personal death also appear to contribute to adolescent suicide. Like those of children, adolescents‘ attitudes toward death are affected by their personal experiences with the deaths of adults and peers. Experiencing the death of a family member or friend, especially someone who is near an adolescent‘s age, tends to shake a teen‘s confidence about the predictability of the world.

Level: Moderate Topic: Children‘s and Adolescents‘ Understanding of Death Skill: Apply What You Know LO 19.2.1: Contrast children‘s and adolescents‘ ideas about death TB_19_97_The Meaning of Death for Adults How are young adults unique in their beliefs about death? Cite a specific example that exemplifies this unique view of death.

Answer: Young adults tend to view the internal timeline that adults use to compare ―time spent‖ to ―time left‖ as if they have an almost infinite amount of time available to accomplish their goals. Consequently, they tend to view the meaning of death in terms of unfulfilled goals. Moreover, among some younger adults, negative attitudes toward old age arise from an aversion to being reminded that life is finite. Contemplating the finiteness of life reminds young adults that they may not have enough time to do all the things they want to do in life.

Level: Difficult Topic: The Meaning of Death for Adults Skill: Analyze It LO 19.2.2: Explain how adults‘ ideas about death vary with age TB_19_98_Fear of Death Compare the differences in perceptions of death between middle-aged adults and older adults. How do these differing perceptions affect death anxiety?

Answer: Although you might think that those closest to death would fear it the most, research suggests that young and middleaged adults are more fearful of death. For young adults, the sense that death ends what is perceived to be an almost unlimited time horizon makes it especially threatening. In middle age, anxiety is amplified by the understanding that when parents die, their children become the oldest generation in the family. However, in late life, the inevitability of death has been accepted, and anxieties are focused on how death will actually come about. However, older adults do not become less preoccupied with death,

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and most would prefer to extend their lives as long as possible. Nevertheless, to an older person, particularly one who has a strong sense of having lived for some higher purpose, death is highly important, but it is apparently not as frightening as it was at midlife. Older adults are more likely to fear the period of uncertainty before death than they are to fear death itself. They are anxious about where they may die, who will care for them until they do, and whether they will be able to cope with the pain and loss of control and independence that may be part of the last months or years of life.

Level: Difficult Topic: Fear of Death Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.3.1: Identify the factors associated with fear of death in adults TB_19_99_Preparation for Death Identify the practical preparations that people make in preparing for death.

Answer: At a practical level, regardless of age, most adults agree that it is important to make preparations for death. Such preparations typically include purchasing life insurance, making a will, and preparing written instructions regarding end-of-life care, often called advance directives. Individuals can use advance directives to make clear to health care professionals and to their families that they either do or do not wish to have their lives prolonged with feeding tubes and other devices. Similarly, a health care power of attorney specifies who can make decisions for an individual in the event that he or she becomes unable to do so. Most people‘s advance directives include a health care power of attorney. Moreover, most people agree that advance funeral planning can help bereaved family members deal with the many decisions they must make in the hours and days following the death of a loved one. However, researchers have found that older adults are far more likely than younger adults to have actually made such preparations.

Level: Difficult Topic: Preparation for Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.3.2: Describe the ways in which adults prepare for death TB_19_100_Criticisms and Alternative Views Explain each of Charles Corr‘s tasks for the dying person.

Answer: Charles Corr proposed four tasks for the dying person: Satisfying bodily needs and minimizing physical stress Maximizing psychological security, autonomy, and richness of life Sustaining and enhancing significant interpersonal attachments Identifying, developing, or reaffirming sources of spiritual energy, and thereby fostering hope Level: Difficult Topic: Criticisms and Alternative Views Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.2: Explain alternative views of the process of dying TB_19_101_Responses to Impending Death List the five responses to impending death identified by Steven Greer and his associates. Give an example of at least two of these. Which of these responses is most likely to correlate with greater longevity following a terminal diagnosis?

Answer: In a somewhat controversial analysis of reactions to terminal illness, Steve Greer proposed different responses to an unfavorable diagnosis: Denial (positive avoidance)—Person rejects evidence about diagnosis; insists that surgery was just precautionary.

Fighting spirit—Person maintains an optimistic attitude and searches for more information about the disease. These patients often see their disease as a challenge and plan to fight it with every method available.

Stoic acceptance (fatalism)—Person acknowledges the diagnosis but makes no effort to seek any further information, or person ignores the diagnosis and carries on normal life as much as possible.

Helplessness/Hopelessness—Person acts overwhelmed by diagnosis; sees herself as dying or gravely ill and as devoid of hope.

Anxious preoccupation—Women in this category had originally been included in the helplessness group, but they were separated out later. The category includes those whose response to the diagnosis is strong and persistent anxiety. If they seek information, they interpret it pessimistically; they monitor their body sensations carefully, interpreting each ache or pain as a possible recurrence.

According to Greer, only 35% of people whose initial reaction had been either denial or fighting spirit had died of cancer 15 years later, compared with 76% of people whose initial reaction had been stoic acceptance, anxious preoccupation, or helplessness/hopelessness. Because people in the five groups did not differ initially in the stage of their disease or in their treatment, these results support the hypothesis that psychological responses contribute to disease progress. However, in a subsequent study with a much larger sample, Greer and his colleagues found no advantage associated with having a fighting

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spirit.

Level: Difficult Topic: Responses to Impending Death Skill: Analyze It LO 19.4.3: Summarize variations in responses to impending death TB_19_102_Alternative Perspectives Explain the dual process model of grief. How does it differ from other perspectives?

Answer: The dual process model of grief relies on many of the assumptions of psychoanalytic theory, such as the importance of attachment. This perspective proposes that bereaved individuals alternate between an emotional state in which they confront their loss and actively grieve (confrontation) and another in which they focus on moving forward with their lives (restoration).

In a sense, the restoration phase provides the bereaved with a respite from the emotional turmoil that is characteristic of the confrontation phase. Like John Bowlby‘s model, the dual process approach suggests that the attachment relationship between the bereaved and the deceased influences the grieving process. Thus, grief counseling based on the dual process model of grief focuses on regulating emotions and the attachment relationship between the deceased and the bereaved.

Level: Difficult Topic: Alternative Perspectives Skill: Evaluate It LO 19.5.3: Identify alternative theories of grief

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