Test Bank for Life-Span Human Development 9E by Carol Sigelman & Elizabeth Rider - Latest Version

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development True / False 1. Maturation refers to the gains that occur across the lifespan as the result of experiences. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. A theory is a specific prediction generated by a hypothesis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. A random sample is always smaller than the population from which it is drawn. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. In a structured observation a researcher creates a special condition designed to elicit some behavior of interest. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The main advantage of the correlational method is that it can be used to establish cause-effect relationships. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Cohort effects concern the impact of being born in one particular historical context rather than another. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Informed consent is typically obtained following a study. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. From a developmental perspective, a person who has just turned 21 is not considered a child and is also not considered an adult. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Developmental science does not attempt to solve challenges to human development. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development b. False ANSWER: False 10. The perception of a researcher causing harm to a study participant can differ across societies. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Development is best defined as a. individual differences in human behavior. b. systematic changes and continuities from conception to death. c. way in which people change in positive ways across time. d. systematic unfolding of genetic potential.

ANSWER: b 12. The fact that development often involves continuities speaks to the fact that over time, humans tend to a. remain the same. b. become more intelligent. c. become less active. d. undergo orderly patterns of change.

ANSWER: a 13. Albert, a developmental psychologist, conducts research on children's emotional reactions to studying math in school.

Albert is concerned with children's _____ development. a. cognitive b. maturational c. physical d. psychosocial ANSWER: d 14. What characteristic belongs most in the cognitive domain of development? a. Physical maturation of the body b. A changing personality c. Poor interpersonal skills d. Language acquisition ANSWER: d 15. Which characteristic does NOT belong on a list of key aspects of physical development? a. Change in motor ability b. Change in body organ efficiency c. Change in short-term memory d. Change in skin tone (e.g., wrinkling) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development ANSWER: c 16. Traditionally, growth has been defined as a. physical changes that occur from conception to maturity. b. the biological unfolding of genetic potential. c. positive changes across the lifespan. d. gains, changes, and losses at each stage of the lifecycle.

ANSWER: a 17. Aging is most accurately defined as involving _____ in the maturing organism. a. only negative changes b. only positive changes c. both negative and positive changes d. neither positive nor negative changes ANSWER: c 18. The term age grade refers to a a. group of individuals who are all the same mental age. b. socially defined age group, with culture-specific assigned roles, privileges, and responsibilities. c. universally defined age group, with universal roles, privileges, and responsibilities. d. group of children assigned at a specific age to a specific grade in school.

ANSWER: b 19. “Senior” discounts on meals available only to individuals over age 55 provide an excellent example of a(n) a. age norm. b. social clock. c. age grade. d. social convoy.

ANSWER: c 20. A company requires employees to retire at the age of 65. This policy is an example of a. age norms. b. age stratification. c. the young-old principle. d. growth norms.

ANSWER: a 21. When 60-year-old Madonna wore a miniskirt to a wedding, one of her friends commented, “I sure wish Madonna would act her age.” This comment best illustrates the concept of a. age norms. b. age grade. c. cohort effects. d. maturation.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development 22. The term _____ concerns an individual’s sense of the age at which he or she should experience certain events. a. age norms b. age stratification c. social clock d. age grade ANSWER: c 23. Manuel hoped to graduate from college by age 22 but finds himself enrolling for the first time at age 52. The anxiety Manuel feels because of this situation may be best explained by the concept of a. biological maturation. b. a social clock. c. plasticity. d. historical change.

ANSWER: b 24. The term emerging adulthood refers to individuals from about age a. 11 to 17. b. 18 to 29. c. 29 to 37. d. 38 to 46.

ANSWER: b 25. Hermes is currently in the “emerging adulthood” stage of development. As such, he would most likely a. be leading a very stable life. b. feel adult-like in all ways. c. be focused on others rather than himself. d. believe in a life of limitless possibilities.

ANSWER: d 26. Which United States-born newborn would currently have the longest life expectancy? a. Donny, who is a white male b. Marie, who is a white female c. Michael, who is an African-American male d. Janet, who is an African-American female ANSWER: b 27. The question of how biological and environmental forces impact development is referred to as the _____ issue. a. continuity-discontinuity b. passive-active c. nature-nurture d. proximal-distal ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development 28. Which best describes the relationship between maturation and genes? a. Maturation is driven by a plan contained in the genes. b. Maturation is the nature side of development, and genes are the nurture side of development. c. Maturation is the process by which genes learn. d. Genes and maturation are unrelated concepts.

ANSWER: a 29. Which of the following represents a maturational process? a. Being taught how to pay attention b. Changing one’s violent ways as the result of spending time in prison c. Learning to tie your shoes d. The development of pubic hair during puberty ANSWER: d 30. Environmental impacts include all _____ that influence our development. a. external physical and social conditions b. external genetic and social conditions c. internal physical and social conditions d. internal genetic and social conditions ANSWER: a 31. Learning is defined as the process through which _____ brings about relatively permanent changes in actions, thoughts, or feelings. a. maturation b. genetics c. instincts d. experience ANSWER: d 32. Nature is to nurture as a. maturation is to learning. b. experience is to genetics. c. psychology is to biology. d. positive is to negative.

ANSWER: a 33. Maturation is to learning as a. genes are to social experience. b. knowing is to doing. c. the environment is to heredity. d. practice is to instinct.

ANSWER: a 34. Living near a noisy airport can interfere with a child's learning how to read. This is an example of the effects of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development a. maturation. b. physical environment. c. gene-environment interaction. d. socioeconomic environment.

ANSWER: b 35. Which of the following is inconsistent with the gain-stability-loss model? a. Physical strength increases until early adulthood and then decreases. b. The ages at which children and adolescents become sexually mature varies across cultures. c. Adults aged 60 and older score higher on vocabulary tests than adults aged 18 to 30. d. There is no universally-recognized indicator of "adulthood."

ANSWER: c 36. Development of the idea of adolescence occurred as a. more industrialization and an educated labor force required laws that restricted child labor and made schooling compulsory. b. recognition of the risks associated with early childbearing led to increases in the age at which females could be married. c. the criminal justice system recognized that teenagers, while different from children, did not possess the reasoning capabilities of adults. d. the westward expansion of the United States created a need for a young, strong, healthy workforce.

ANSWER: a 37. The twentieth century's unique addition to the definition of old age is the idea of a. dementia. b. ageism. c. inevitable decline. d. retirement.

ANSWER: d 38. Dr. Benjamin Spock wrote a popular book for parents, providing information on what behaviors can be expected of typical infants at specific ages. This sort of publication primarily reflects which goal of developmental psychology? a. Prediction b. Optimization c. Explanation d. Description ANSWER: d 39. The title of Dr. Doublemint’s latest bestseller is Why Identical Twins Differ from Each Other. Given this title, it is safe to assume that Dr. Doublemint’s primary interest is in the _____ goal of psychology. a. prediction b. optimization c. explanation d. description Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development ANSWER: c 40. Vue is a developmental psychologist who is concerned with helping adolescents learn to deal constructively with divorce. Her work focuses primarily on which goal of developmental psychology? a. Prediction b. Optimization c. Explanation d. Description ANSWER: b 41. When making a decision on whether or not to follow the latest diet trend, Jillian focuses on what the best scientific research has to say about the topic of nutrition. This indicates that Jillian believes in engaging in _____ practice. a. speculative b. ethnocentric c. evidence-based d. emerging ANSWER: c 42. Dr. Johnson focuses her research on how people adapt to economic, psychological, and physical changes in old age.

Given this emphasis, Dr. Johnson appears to be a(n) a. lifespan developmentalist. b. anthropologist. c. pubescence specialist. d. gerontologist.

ANSWER: d 43. Which statement is NOT an assumption of the lifespan perspective? a. Development is shaped by historical context. b. Development can take multiple directions. c. Development focuses on gains not losses. d. Understanding development requires multiple disciplines.

ANSWER: c 44. Which best exemplifies the concept of neuroplasticity? a. The ability to use your arm to draw after the arm was severely broken b. The development of thicker heart muscles in old age after undertaking an aerobic exercise class c. The production of large amounts of testosterone during puberty d. The formation of new brain cell connections as the result of reading a book ANSWER: d 45. The fact that many adult males who lived through the Great Depression later had erratic careers and unstable marriages exemplifies a. the impact of historical context on development. b. the multidirectional nature of development. c. maturation.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development d. the baby boom generation.

ANSWER: a 46. The key element of the scientific method is the belief that _____ should determine the merits of an idea. a. systematic observation b. logic c. debate d. intuition ANSWER: a 47. A theory is best defined as a a. set of concepts and propositions used to control developmental outcomes. b. set of concepts and propositions intended to describe and explain some aspect of experience. c. factual description of developmental phenomena. d. series of systematic tests of all available hypotheses.

ANSWER: b 48. A specific prediction about what will hold true if we observe a phenomenon is called a a. fact. b. hypothesis. c. theory. d. correlation.

ANSWER: b 49. Based on an observation at a local fast-food restaurant, Dr. Colby predicts that more people will buy a hamburger if it is covered with cheese. This prediction is most accurately thought of as a a. fact. b. hypothesis. c. theory. d. correlation.

ANSWER: b 50. Reba wants to examine the TV-viewing habits of 18- to 25-year-old males in the United States. As it is quite impossible to include all males of this age group in her study, she selects a smaller group of 18- to 25-year-old males to survey. The males included in her study are called a(n) a. population. b. sample. c. control group. d. age grade.

ANSWER: b 51. Tristan interviews a group of 50 teen mothers to determine what sort of knowledge they hold regarding use of contraceptives prior to the time they became pregnant. He then writes an article where he speaks in broad terms about what teen mothers know about the use of contraceptives prior to becoming pregnant. In this study, the group of 50 teen mothers is called the _____, while all teen mothers are collectively called the _____.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development a. control group; population b. population; sample c. sample; control group d. sample; population ANSWER: d 52. The major goal behind random sampling is to ensure that the a. data is falsifiable. b. sample is representative of the population. c. project will not be costly. d. population is large.

ANSWER: b 53. Developmental psychologist Dr. Wiggles is interested in preschool children's helping behavior. He spends hours watching children at the campus preschool, taking great care not to interfere with the children or to influence their behavior in any way. What data collection technique is Dr. Wiggles using? a. Case study b. Naturalistic observation c. Meta-analysis d. Structured observation ANSWER: b 54. The greatest advantage of the naturalistic observation method is that it a. can tell us what people do in everyday life. b. is easily conducted in a laboratory setting. c. readily leads to the discovery of cause-effect relationships. d. untangles age effects from cohort effects.

ANSWER: a 55. Dr. Dré is very interested in infants’ reactions to different music styles. In order to study the phenomena, he built a special lab crib containing audio speakers. He then individually brings six-month-olds into the lab, places them in the crib, plays rap music, and watches each baby’s reactions. Given this description, Dr. Dré appears to be using the _____ technique. a. self-report investigation b. naturalistic observation c. structured observation d. case study analysis ANSWER: c 56. A brain scan is most accurately categorized as a a. naturalistic observation. b. physiological measure. c. structured observation. d. quasi-experiment.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development ANSWER: b 57. The main limitation of physiological measures is that a. responses to such measures are easy to fake. b. they cannot be used to assess emotional reactions. c. it is not always clear what is being assessed. d. they cannot be used to study infants.

ANSWER: c 58. The main limitation of the case study method is that a. results may not generalize to others. b. inferential statistics must be used in its analysis. c. it is “too artificial” as it is typically conducted in the laboratory. d. it does not provide any detail about an individual’s behavior.

ANSWER: a 59. A true experiment involves the _____ of the independent variable. a. manipulation b. measurement c. elimination d. correlation ANSWER: a 60. A psychologist measures the IQs of 20 students who ingested a “smart pill” and 20 students who ingested a “sugar pill” in order to determine if the pill had an effect on intelligence. To ensure peak performance, she tests all of the students on Wednesdays. In this experiment, the independent variable is the a. day of the week. b. pill type. c. IQ score. d. sex of the researcher.

ANSWER: b 61. A psychologist measures the IQs of 20 students who ingested a “smart pill” and 20 students who ingested a “sugar pill” in order to determine if the pill had an effect on intelligence. To ensure peak performance, she tests all of the students on Wednesdays. In this experiment, the dependent variable is the a. day of the week. b. pill type. c. IQ score. d. sex of the researcher.

ANSWER: c 62. A study is done examining whether rewarding children for good behavior increases the amount of time students spend studying. In this study, the amount of time spent studying would be the _____ variable. a. control b. dependent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development c. confounding d. independent ANSWER: b 63. Random assignment helps ensure a. cohort effects. b. differences exist between treatment groups prior to the treatment. c. age effects. d. similarity of participant groups prior to the treatment.

ANSWER: d 64. Faith wants to know whether there is a cause-effect relationship between the amount of time parents spend reading to their children and their children's attitudes toward reading. What type of research design should Faith use? a. Cross-sectional b. Experimental c. Longitudinal d. Naturalistic observation ANSWER: b 65. A key limitation of the experimental method is that it a. cannot be used to identify cause-and-effect. b. is very expensive. c. cannot be used to assess many interesting questions due to ethical reasons. d. does an excellent job of explaining real-world experience, but does not do a good job of explaining what happens in the laboratory.

ANSWER: c 66. What point was Urie Bronfenbrenner attempting to make when he said that developmental psychology had become, “the science of the strange behavior of children in strange situations with strange adults”? a. Modern developmental psychology is too focused on laboratory research. b. Modern developmental psychology pays too much attention to exceptional children and not enough to normal children. c. Modern developmental psychology is too worried about the impact of early childhood abuse by parents. d. Modern developmental psychology conducts far too few experiments.

ANSWER: a 67. The fundamental question addressed by the correlational method is a. “Does variable A cause variable B?” b. “How is a control group influenced by the absence of an independent variable?” c. “What impact does random assignment have on psychological behavior?” d. “Are two or more variables related in some systematic way?”

ANSWER: d 68. In the field of developmental psychology, the main reason that the correlational method is used more often than experimental methods is because Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development a. correlations are more effective at addressing the issue of cause. b. of ethical concerns. c. correlational research is significantly more scientifically rigorous. d. of the availability of computers.

ANSWER: b 69. Dr. Fill wants to study the relationship between drug addiction and being the victim of child abuse. As Dr. Fill is an ethical researcher, he would have to conduct a(n) _____ study. a. experimental b. correlational c. laboratory d. cross-sectional ANSWER: b 70. Tom finds a correlation of +.81 between number of years in school and salary of first job. This would mean that a. the more education one has, the lower his or her starting salary is likely to be. b. the more education one has, the higher his or her starting salary is likely to be. c. education determines whether or not someone will get a job after graduation. d. increases in education cause employers to offer higher salaries.

ANSWER: b 71. Mara finds that the correlation between variables A and B is +.43, while the correlation between variables A and C is .78. These results indicate that a. the correlation between A and C is stronger than the correlation between A and B. b. the correlation between A and B is stronger than the correlation between A and C. c. variable A causes variable B but not variable C. d. variable A causes both variables B and C. ANSWER: a 72. Smoking cigarettes and having lung cancer are highly correlated events, and people often logically conclude that smoking must cause the cancer. It is hypothetically possible, however, that having lung cancer causes one to crave nicotine and thus it leads to smoking. This example illustrates the issue of a. the third variable. b. a reversed cause-effect relationship. c. time of measurement effects. d. plasticity.

ANSWER: b 73. Research has shown a positive correlation between the amount of time children spend watching television and their levels of aggression. It is possible that the actual cause of this relationship involves harsh parents who act aggressively toward children (teaching them to be aggressive) and whose violence leads children to avoid them at all costs (including by watching television). This example illustrates the issue of a. the third variable. b. a reversed cause-effect relationship. c. time of measurement effects.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development d. plasticity.

ANSWER: a 74. In order to study the effects of television on children’s behavior, Dr. Squarepants synthesizes the results from 150 studies looking at the influence of cartoons on children’s moral development. Given this description, Dr. Squarepants appears to be using the _____ research technique. a. naturalistic observation b. meta-analysis c. structured observation d. sequential design ANSWER: b 75. Which statement best describes the basic premise of the cross-sectional research design? a. Assess different age groups (e.g., 5-, 10-, 15-year-olds) at the same time (e.g., during the same week) b. Assess the same age group (e.g., only 5-year-olds) at the same time (e.g., during the same week) c. Assess different age groups (e.g., 5-, 10-, 15-year-olds) at different times (e.g., 5-year-olds in 2003, 10-yearolds in 2004, and 15-year-olds in 2005) d. Assess the same group (e.g., 5-year-olds) at different times (e.g., first test when kids are 5, then when they are 10, and finally when they turn 15) ANSWER: a 76. Who is using a cross-sectional research design? a. Fred, who is assessing study habits in fifth graders in three different countries b. Barney, who is assessing the study habits in a group of fifth graders and who will follow and assess this same group when they get to eighth and then eleventh grade c. Wilma, who is simultaneously testing the study habits of fifth, eighth, and eleventh graders d. Betty, who is assessing the study habits of fifth graders in the year 2003, and plans to assess eighth-graders’ study habits in 2004 and eleventh graders’ habits in 2005 ANSWER: c 77. For her senior project, Shantae wants to study children's moral reasoning. During the fall semester, she interviews 20 individuals in each of the following grades: first, fourth, seventh, tenth, and college sophomores. She asks each participant to solve a practical moral dilemma. What sort of research design is Shantae using? a. Cross-sectional b. Experimental c. Longitudinal d. Sequential ANSWER: a 78. Who is using a longitudinal research design? a. George, who is assessing eating habits of 40-year-olds in three different countries b. Jane, who is assessing the eating habits in a group of 40-year-olds, and who will follow and assess this same group when they get to ages 60 and 80 c. Elroy, who is simultaneously testing the eating habits of 40-, 60-, and 80-year-olds d. Judy, who is assessing the eating habits of 40-year-olds in the year 2014, and plans to assess 60-year-olds’ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development eating habits in 2019 and 80-year-olds’ habits in 2024 ANSWER: b 79. Olga is interested in how people develop strategies for conflict resolution. She selects a group of preschoolers, and uses both interviews and naturalistic observation to explore their approaches to dealing with conflict. Every two years thereafter, Olga again interviews and observes this same group of youngsters, concluding her study when the children reach adolescence. Olga has been using a _____ research design. a. behavioral observation b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. sequential ANSWER: c 80. The impact on research findings produced by historical events occurring at the moment the data were collected are referred to as _____ effects. a. meta-analysis b. placebo c. age d. time of measurement ANSWER: d 81. Sol is investigating the effects of divorce on children's self-esteem. His initial sample consists of a group of 10 fiveyear-olds, which he plans to follow over a period of at least 15 years. When this group of children reaches age 15, Sol adds a second group of five-year-olds to his study, and plans to follow them for another 15 years. Sol’s overall plan is best classified as a _____ research design. a. correlational b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. sequential ANSWER: d 82. Only the _____ design allows a researcher to potentially separate out effects of age, cohort, and time of measurement. a. cross-sectional b. experimental c. longitudinal d. sequential ANSWER: d 83. While considering a new study, Creed is concerned that the stimulus he is using might frighten the infants he is testing. This indicates that Creed is focusing on a. meta-analysis. b. a correlational design. c. a sequential design. d. research ethics.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development 84. The fact that a study participant needs to be aware of what they may experience while in a research study illustrates the concept of a. informed consent. b. debriefing. c. protection from harm. d. confidentiality.

ANSWER: a 85. After Mr. Flay has finished filling out a survey that he thought was on cooking skills, he is told that the actual purpose of the survey was to assess his intelligence. This best represents the concept of a. informed consent. b. debriefing. c. protection from harm. d. confidentiality.

ANSWER: b 86. Due to the ethical standard concerning _____, a researcher could not tell a parent that the parent’s child scored in the “genius” range on an IQ test that the researcher had given. a. informed consent b. debriefing c. protection from harm d. confidentiality ANSWER: d 87. Which of the following is considered an aspect of psychosocial human development? a. language b. learning c. emotion d. perception ANSWER: c 88. Which of the following terms best reflects the relationship of the three aspects of human development? a. sequential b. cumulative c. integrated d. distinct ANSWER: c 89. As a research scientist in the field of human development, Yelena looks at the culmination of biological aging. What is the focus of Yelena’s work? a. disability b. maturity c. illness d. death Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development ANSWER: d 90. Carter is hosting a welcome-to-campus party for the incoming class of freshmen at the university. Who are the guests at Carter’s event? a. late adolescents b. emerging adults c. mature teens d. young adults ANSWER: b 91. There are 100 men and 100 women at a New Year’s Eve party to celebrate the start of the twenty-first century. All of them had turned 30 in the previous year. About how many of them had completed all of Furstenberg’s objectives markers of adulthood? a. 62 of the men and 38 of the women b. 72 of the men and 68 of the women c. 29 of the men and 48 of the women d. 46 of the men and 73 of the women ANSWER: c 92. Some cultural observers have noted that American teenagers exhibit less self-assuredness and independence than their peers in other countries. What might help address this concern for American teens? a. distinct age grades b. standardized age norms c. clear social clocks d. formal rites of passage ANSWER: d 93. Who is likely to attain the milestones of adulthood sooner? a. Randy, who lives in a wealthy suburb and attends private academy b. Javier, who lives in a housing project and dropped out of high school c. Lacy, who lives in a Manhattan penthouse and is home-schooled d. Tanesha, who lives in a middle-class home and goes to a girls' academy ANSWER: b 94. A scientist who is interested in the “nurture” perspective of human development would likely do which of the following with a child subject? a. conduct a functional brain scan on the child b. develop a family health history for the child c. track how many hours the child watches TV d. obtain a saliva sample to map the child’s DNA ANSWER: c 95. Shonda is a high school sophomore who is a perfect example of Hall’s concept of adolescent storm and stress. What is likely occurring in Shonda’s life to make her fit Hall’s description? a. aging Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development b. depression c. rebellion d. change ANSWER: d 96. Jennifer manages a research program that is looking at whether regular use of word game apps can help limit memory declines among the elderly. What is the goal of Jennifer’s research? a. description b. prediction c. explanation d. optimization ANSWER: d 97. Which of the following reflects the principle that human development is a lifelong process? a. A person has the capacity to adapt to any challenging circumstances over the course of their life. b. From birth to death, a person will continue to add new capabilities and processes without loss. c. Changes a person experiences must be considered in relation to other factors in the person’s life. d. Both historical events and cultural factors impact how a person develops throughout their lifetime ANSWER: c 98. After taking time off for 20 years to raise her children, Loretta decided to go back to college to get a degree. She was nervous about being away from an educational environment for so long, and many things had changed, but after a few rough weeks she was able to get comfortable and scored a 96 on her first exam. What enabled Loretta to succeed in this new life experience? a. resilience b. plasticity c. social clock d. maturation ANSWER: b 99. Sandeep recently sent out questionnaires to 75 people who are participating in his research study on the link between diet and academic performance. Which of the following terms best describes this group? a. population b. case c. sample d. cohort ANSWER: c 100. Marcus agreed to have cameras set up in his apartment for a month as part of a research project. What type research is Marcus likely participating in? a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. controlled experiment d. structured observation ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development 101. Gina and Thuy are both research scientists. Gina is interested in the “nature” perspective of human development, and Thuy is interested in the “nurture’ perspective. Which of the following methods would be more helpful to Gina than to Thuy? a. structured observation b. fMRI c. naturalistic observation d. case study ANSWER: b 102. What is the defining characteristic of experimental control? a. choosing a random sample b. modifying the dependent variable c. managing unrelated factors d. eliminating directionality impacts ANSWER: c 103. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between two variables? a. +.53 b. −.64 c. −.38 d. +.29 ANSWER: b 104. Montell had a theory that decreasing teens’ use of social media would increase their level of anxiety. He conducted a correlational study that produced a correlation coefficient of +.73 between the two variables. Based on this study, Montell felt his theory was validated. What error did Montell make in attempting to prove his theory? a. conducting a correlational study b. focusing on a limited age cohort c. ignoring directionality problems d. not factoring in a third variable ANSWER: a 105. A study that compares the verbal comprehension capacity of Baby Boomers to that of Millennials reflects what type of research design? a. time-of-measurement b. cross-sectional c. sequential d. longitudinal ANSWER: b 106. Which of the following best reflects a potential time-of-measurement effect when studying a particular cohort? a. experiencing Kennedy’s assassination b. getting German measles c. having alcoholic parents Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development d. being one of triplets ANSWER: b 107. Zack was recently hired as the fourth project director for a study that for seven years has been tracking the cognitive development of a group of people who began first grade in 2005. What type of research is Zack overseeing? a. sequential b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. experimental ANSWER: c 108. In which type of research might participants be able to “game the system” through repeated application of data collection tools? a. sequential b. structured observation c. cross-sectional d. longitudinal ANSWER: d 109. After auditing the records of participants in the clinic’s human development research, the board felt that many of the subjects fit Henrich’s characterization as being WEIRD. This means that the participants were primarily. a. ethnic. b. educated. c. eastern. d. elite.

ANSWER: b 110. Dr. Hernandez was recently disciplined by her university’s review board for expressing ethnocentric ideas in a journal article. Which of Dr. Hernandez’s statements likely led the board to its decision? a. Elderly Hispanics scored higher on tests of visual acuity than elderly Europeans. b. Hispanic parents are more loving and attentive than parents from other cultures. c. Hispanic children in the age 4 to 6 cohort demonstrated higher physical agility. d. Teenage Hispanic males have a higher drop-out rate than Asian or white peers.

ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 111. Define “development.” Then discuss and give examples of the three broad domains of interest to students of human development.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. What is the relationship between theories, hypotheses, and the scientific method?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. You have been asked to conduct an experiment on whether a pill affects memory development. Please describe your experiment by identifying the independent and dependent variable(s) you would select. Discuss how the variable(s) would Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Understanding Life-Span Human Development be manipulated.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. What are age effects, cohort effects, and time of measurement effects, and how do researchers design studies to control each effect?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Discuss the ethical concerns a researcher must consider before conducting a study using humans.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. What are the concepts of age grade, age norms, and a social clock, and how could they be applied to you and your life?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Using one person as a subject, give examples of experiences that demonstrate plasticity, the gain-loss dynamic, and the influence of historical or cultural context on their development across the life span.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Describe a structured observation session that you would develop to study positive social behavior, such as sharing, in young children.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Describe what researchers can – and cannot – learn about variables based on correlation studies, providing examples with positive and negative coefficients. Also identify and describe two rival interpretations that can occur in correlational research.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Explain the concept of a meta-analysis and how it is useful to human development researchers.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development True / False 1. Discontinuity theorists believe that development involves primarily quantitative changes in human behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The ego is the irrational, impulsive component of personality that serves only to satisfy one’s instincts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Erikson suggested that humans develop over a series of psychosexual stages. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Negative punishment involves the removal of something pleasant that results in behavior decreasing in frequency. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. According to Piaget, children construct their own understanding of the world based on their experiences. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. An important focus of systems theory is in understanding the behavior of individuals in their environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Stage theorists tend to view parents as supporters of development, while learning theorists tend to view parents as supporters of behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. When a five-year-old girl performs every action that her mother does while making dinner – including singing to the radio and dropping a pan on the floor – the child is demonstrating the concept of reciprocity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Amir is a strong proponent of Vygotsky’s perspective, so he views development as being driven by universal formal transactions of cognitive information.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Bronfenbrenner’s PPCT model encourages researchers to emphasize proximity and chronology when studying human development. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. A theory guides all of the following EXCEPT a. what is most important to study. b. what can be hypothesized about. c. how many times an issue should be studied. d. how an issue should be studied.

ANSWER: c 12. With regard to the nature-nurture debate, a strong believer in nature would suggest that a. environmental influences are more important than genetic makeup in determining human behavior. b. maturation forces are more influential than environmental experiences in determining human behavior. c. teaching and enrichment of the environment are often more influential than genetics in determining human behavior. d. humans are basically good.

ANSWER: b 13. Because Dr. Patel falls on the "nurture" side of the nature-nurture controversy, she is most likely to believe that a. if infants are given normal opportunities to move about, their motor skills will naturally unfold in a universal sequence. b. teachers' expectations for their students' success will have little effect on how they actually achieve. c. while a child's experiences in school will have an impact on his or her intellectual development, what the child is "born with" matters more. d. a mother's care can greatly impact the development of a child.

ANSWER: d 14. A parent who falls on the "activity" side of the "activity-passivity" issue is most likely to believe that a. if a child is aggressive, the parents were not active enough in parenting. b. if new skills are not regularly used, they will disappear. c. we are naturally more active when young and become more passive with age. d. children play an important role in shaping their own development.

ANSWER: d 15. Lindsey argues that she is not responsible for any of her bad behavior as she is driven by biological and environmental factors over which she has no control. This belief best exemplifies the _____ position on development.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development a. discontinuity b. continuity c. passivity d. activity ANSWER: c 16. Jerome believes that development proceeds through a series of developmental stages, each of which represents distinct changes. He might best be called a(n) _____ theorist. a. discontinuity b. learning c. activity d. context-specificity ANSWER: a 17. Qualitative changes are best thought of as changes in _____, while quantitative changes are best thought of as changes in _____. a. amount; type b. size; shape c. kind; degree d. continuity; discontinuity ANSWER: c 18. The universality-context-specificity issue is concerned with whether a. we all follow the same or different developmental paths. b. environmental or biological factors are more influential in development. c. we pass through abrupt developmental stages or develop in small, gradual steps. d. we all participate in our developmental outcomes or not.

ANSWER: a 19. The statement, “change is different from person to person because cultures differ from person to person,” best fits with the _____ approach to development. a. discontinuity b. passivity c. context-specificc d. universality ANSWER: c 20. Marcus believes that his daughter Anita acts the way she does because of the unconscious workings of her mind. This belief best matches with the _____ theory of development. a. cognitive-developmental b. contextual c. behavioral d. psychoanalytic ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development 21. According to Freud, the primary mission of the ego is to a. help the child learn right from wrong. b. raise the child's self-esteem. c. help the child find realistic ways to get needs met. d. provide for immediate gratification.

ANSWER: c 22. Lisa and Lyle both want to stay up past their bedtimes to watch a show on TV. When their parents say "No," Lisa throws a fit, while Lyle says, "Please? I'll brush my teeth and get into PJs so that I can just pop into bed the minute the show is over!" From a Freudian perspective, Lisa is responding from her _____, while Lyle is communicating through his _____. a. id; ego b. ego; superego c. id; superego d. ego; id ANSWER: a 23. After her mother says, "No, you may not eat any cookies" Sandra takes some cookies from the cookie jar and eats them when her mother isn't looking. Later, she feels bad because she knows this was not a good thing to do. Sandra's attitude indicates that her a. id is in control. b. ability to delay gratification is strong. c. superego is reasonably well developed. d. logic includes the concept of stagnation.

ANSWER: c 24. The Oedipus complex is successfully resolved through the process of a. regression. b. identification. c. reaction formation. d. projection.

ANSWER: b 25. To control anxiety, the ego is most likely to a. fulfill all of the id’s desires. b. turn over control to the superego. c. progress through different psychosexual stages. d. adopt defense mechanisms.

ANSWER: d 26. Brynn is three years old. She has been out of diapers for over a year. When her mother comes home from the hospital with a new baby brother, Brynn begins to suck her thumb and wet the bed at night. According to Freud, Brynn is experiencing a. reaction formation. b. regression.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development c. repression. d. sublimation.

ANSWER: b 27. Which defense mechanism involves removing unacceptable thoughts from consciousness? a. Reaction formation b. Projection c. Regression d. Repression ANSWER: d 28. A reasonable criticism of Freudian psychoanalytic theory is that it puts too little emphasis on the a. biological instincts or urges that underlie behavior. b. collection of hard data to support his findings. c. emotional side of development. d. effects of early life experiences on development.

ANSWER: b 29. One strength of Freud’s approach to development is his description of how a. early experience can influence later development. b. children learn through observation. c. reinforcement and punishment determine behavior. d. conscious motivations underlie most decision-making.

ANSWER: a 30. In comparison to Freud, Erikson placed greater emphasis on a. infantile sexuality. b. development after adolescence. c. operant conditioning principles. d. biological determinants of behavior.

ANSWER: b 31. Erikson’s theory is different from Freud’s because it a. places greater emphasis on biological influences. b. describes development in terms of stages. c. focuses on possibilities for growth beyond adolescence. d. involves the resolution of crises.

ANSWER: c 32. Maya has recently given birth to a healthy baby boy, Jason. Whenever Jason cries, Maya goes to him, tries to figure out the reason for his crying, and then promptly does all she can to meet his needs. According to Erikson's theory, Jason is well on his way toward mastering the conflict of a. autonomy versus shame and doubt. b. initiative versus guilt.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development c. industry versus inferiority. d. trust versus mistrust.

ANSWER: d 33. The preschool-aged child is typically in which of Erikson’s psychosocial stages? a. Intimacy versus isolation b. Identity versus role confusion c. Initiative versus guilt d. Integrity versus despair ANSWER: c 34. Rather than a sense of inferiority, eight-year-old Zeke has developed a sense of mastery in all his academic endeavors.

Erikson would say that Zeke has a strong sense of a. generativity. b. integrity. c. autonomy d. industry.

ANSWER: d 35. Jiao is 15 years old. She spends countless hours alone and in conversation with her peers trying to figure out what it is she wants to do with her life. Jiao is in which of the following of Erikson's psychosocial stages? a. Identity versus role confusion b. Industry versus inferiority c. Initiative versus guilt d. Intimacy versus isolation ANSWER: a 36. Which question provides the best example of the concept of generativity versus stagnation? a. Will my work benefit the next generation? b. Do I know who I am? c. Should I get married? d. Will my choice of college major lead to a career in which I will make a lot of money?

ANSWER: a 37. Ruth is 80 years old and terminally ill with cancer. As she reflects back on her life, she comes to the conclusion that she has lived a full and productive life, and that it could not have been better lived in any other way. Ruth has successfully mastered the developmental task of a. intimacy versus isolation. b. generativity versus stagnation. c. industry versus inferiority. d. integrity versus despair.

ANSWER: d 38. Miguel is currently questioning himself. Which question would indicate that Miguel is currently in Erikson’s integrity versus despair stage of life?

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development a. Can I raise happy children? b. Should I marry Luisa? c. Has my life been worthwhile? d. Will my job as a comedian help the younger generation?

ANSWER: c 39. Which of the following is a key criticism of Erikson's theory of personality development? a. He is pessimistic regarding one's ability to overcome problems that have their roots in early childhood experiences. b. He portrays adulthood as a period of little growth and change. c. His theory is rather vague and difficult to test. d. His theory focuses too strongly on formal operations in thinking.

ANSWER: c 40. Watson believed that a. most children progress through a predictable series of stages that are programmed by biological maturation. b. children have many inborn tendencies. c. how a person turns out depends entirely on the environment in which he or she grows up. d. elements of the unconscious mind are responsible for moral thought.

ANSWER: c 41. When describing her theory of development, Candice says, “The basic idea is that I take a stimulus that at first has no effect on an individual. Then I pair that stimulus with a second stimulus that does elicit some response. After the two have been paired together a few times, I test to see if the initial stimulus now elicits a response similar to the one elicited by the second stimulus.” Given this description, Candice would be best classified as a(n) _____ conditioning theorist. a. operant b. instrumental c. social d. classical ANSWER: d 42. An unconditioned stimulus is best described as a(n) a. learned behavior acquired through conditioning. b. event that automatically leads to a response. c. unconscious motivation involving the id and ego. d. experience that leads to a relatively permanent change in behavior.

ANSWER: b 43. Watson and Raynor's experiment is important because it demonstrated that a. infants are unable to learn. b. humans cannot be classically conditioned. c. fear can be learned. d. operant conditioning is more important than classical conditioning.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development 44. The basic premise of operant conditioning is that a. most learning occurs when a person mimics an observed model. b. learning takes place over a series of qualitatively different stages. c. the consequences that follow a behavior impact the likelihood of the behavior being repeated. d. pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus will lead to a conditioned stimulus.

ANSWER: c 45. In operant conditioning terms, a positive consequence is to a negative consequence as a. good is to bad. b. adding is to removing. c. reinforcement is to punishment. d. operant is to classical.

ANSWER: b 46. Joy comes home from work exhausted and is surprised to find that her daughter, Michelle, has set the table and started dinner. Joy is thrilled. She praises Michelle and spends an extra half-hour reading with her before bed (something that Michelle likes). The same thing happens the next day, and soon this has become a daily event. This is an example of a. classical conditioning. b. observational learning. c. operant conditioning. d. modeling.

ANSWER: c 47. After Davio brings home a report card with all As, his parents (who want to make sure this behavior continues in the future) give him a new car (something that he really wanted). It appears that Davio’s parents are attempting to use _____ to keep his grades up. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: a 48. Chenelle wants her daughter Lisa to improve her study skills. How could Chenelle use positive reinforcement to achieve this goal? a. She could give Lisa candy (something Lisa likes) every time she studies. b. She could take candy from Lisa (something Lisa likes) every time Lisa does not study. c. She could give Lisa spinach for dinner (something Lisa hates) every time she studies. d. She could take spinach (something Lisa hates) from Lisa’s dinner every time she studies.

ANSWER: a 49. In operant conditioning terms, _____ occurs when something unpleasant is removed and the result is an increased response rate. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development d. negative punishment ANSWER: b 50. Inez tells her daughter Rosa, “I will stop this nagging, which you find unpleasant, as soon as you clean your room today and continue to clean it in the future.” This description indicates that Inez is trying to use a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

ANSWER: b 51. In operant conditioning terms, a negative consequence a. reinforces an action. b. punishes an action. c. occurs when something is removed. d. occurs when something is added.

ANSWER: c 52. In operant conditioning terms, _____ occurs when something unpleasant is added and the result is a decreased response rate. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: c 53. Rhondella really likes jewelry. Her parents want Rhondella to stop talking on the phone every night after school. In order to accomplish this task, they take away her new watch and tell her that she will lose more jewelry if she does not decrease her phone use. In this situation, Rhondella’s parents are attempting to use _____ to alter her behavior. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 54. In operant conditioning, which statement best exemplifies the process of extinction? a. Just do it. b. Just keep the rewards coming. c. Just ignore it. d. Just keep the punishments coming.

ANSWER: c 55. How did Bandura demonstrate the existence of “observational learning” in the famous “Bobo” doll study? a. He showed that children would model an adult they saw in a film. b. He showed that children scared by a loud noise would cry when they heard a bell.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development c. He showed that boys liked dolls as much as girls. d. He showed that children regress when they know a new sibling is about to be born.

ANSWER: a 56. Olga goes along with her brother Gustav to his gymnastics class and watches closely while he works on the balance beam. One day, Olga’s mom finds her out in the back yard, with a board spread across two big boxes, doing some of the same maneuvers that she has seen Gustav do in class. This is an example of a. observational learning. b. operant conditioning. c. passivity. d. formal operations.

ANSWER: a 57. Hector is watching his first soccer match on television. Despite the fact that he has learned to kick the ball like the players while watching the event, he does not demonstrate this skill in his backyard later that afternoon. Bandura would refer to this situation as demonstrating a. repression. b. classical conditioning. c. identification. d. latent learning.

ANSWER: d 58. What is vicarious reinforcement? a. When a person’s behavior changes based on consequences received directly b. When a person’s behavior changes based on consequences that happen to an observed model c. When a person’s behavior changes based on the influence of a collective unconscious d. When a person’s behavior changes based on the effect of inborn, unfolding genetic factors ANSWER: b 59. Self-efficacy is best defined as a. feeling great about who you are. b. the belief that you can effectively accomplish a specific outcome. c. the ability to make fun of one’s self. d. your self-concept concerning gender, intellect, and sexual orientation.

ANSWER: b 60. Reciprocal determinism refers to a continuous back and forth interaction between a. a want and a desire. b. genes and environmental experience. c. a person, his or her behavior, and the environment. d. a reinforcement and a consequence.

ANSWER: c 61. What is a common criticism of learning approaches to human development? a. Placing too little emphasis on genetic factors Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development b. Failing to account for the fact that experiences appear to affect behavior c. Placing too much emphasis on unconscious factors d. Failing to describe any types of consequences that influence development ANSWER: a 62. Constructivism proposes that children learn best a. by doing. b. when an adult completes a task for them. c. when genetics determine a behavior. d. through vicarious reinforcement.

ANSWER: a 63. During the _____ stage of development, individuals lack the ability to use symbols. a. concrete operations b. formal operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: d 64. Lakesha watches as her mom puts a couple of drops of red food coloring into her glass of water. Although Lakesha tasted the water just before her mom put in the drops, she now believes that her water will taste like fruit punch. Piaget would most likely argue that Lakesha is in the _____ stage of development. a. concrete operations b. formal operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: c 65. Who would be most likely to believe that the horrible-sounding music his band is playing actually sounds good, just because he wants the band to sound good? a. John, a preoperational thinker b. Paul, a concrete operational thinker c. George, a formal operations thinker d. Ringo, a postformal operations thinker ANSWER: a 66. What best describes the problem-solving approach of the concrete operational thinker? a. Systematic b. Scientific c. Trial and error d. One-step analysis ANSWER: c 67. Molly has just entered the stage of formal operational thought. Something she can do now that she could not do before is to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development a. engage in trial-and-error problem-solving. b. mentally classify objects in her head. c. think symbolically. d. deal effectively with purely hypothetical situations.

ANSWER: d 68. A major criticism of Piaget's theory is that it a. has few practical applications. b. focuses too heavily on the importance of social relationships in determining the course of development. c. portrays children as passive learners. d. underestimates the cognitive abilities of young children.

ANSWER: d 69. Which type of theorist would be most likely to describe the human mind in terms of “mental hardware and software”? a. Psychoanalytic b. Constructivist c. Information-processing d. Operant conditioning ANSWER: c 70. A theorist with a(n) _____ perspective would be most likely to focus on the interaction between a changing environmental context and a person who is producing changes in the environment. a. psychoanalytic b. systems c. discontinuity d. operant conditioning ANSWER: b 71. The greatest weakness of the systems theory of development is that it a. places too great an emphasis on genes. b. shows no appreciation for development during adulthood. c. fails to provide a coherent picture of development. d. views conscious factors as being as influential as unconscious factors.

ANSWER: c 72. In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the interrelationships between microsystems form the a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. mesosystem.

ANSWER: d 73. In Bronfenbrenner's theory, linkages involving social settings that individuals do not experience directly but that can still influence their development are called the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. mesosystem.

ANSWER: b 74. Chou’s mother had a terrible day at work and when she got home, snapped at him because he had not finished his homework. This illustrates the impact of the a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. mesosystem.

ANSWER: b 75. People and their environments and the relations between the two change over time and unfold in particular patterns or sequences over a person’s lifetime. This illustrates the a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. mesosystem.

ANSWER: a 76. Terrell has been refusing to go to school. Bronfenbrenner suggests that the problem has been aggravated by poor communication between the school and Terrell’s parents. This illustrates the operation of the a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. mesosystem.

ANSWER: d 77. Anthony has been refusing to go to school. Anthony's culture places great emphasis on academic achievement and expects that young people will get no grade lower than an A, and his teacher wonders whether that may be influencing Anthony's school refusal. This illustrates operation of the a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. mesosystem.

ANSWER: c 78. As a strong believer in learning theory, Dr. Sanchez would be most likely to describe parents as _____ of their children. a. trainers b. supporters c. partners d. genetic-precursors Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development ANSWER: a 79. Which statement best exemplifies the perspective held by most 21st century developmentalists? a. Extreme black-and-white positions are in vogue. b. Freudian ideas (especially those concerning the issues of child sexual fantasy) are more accepted than ever. c. Learning approaches are effective at describing the development of thoughts but not effective at explaining the acquisition of behaviors. d. Humans and their environments mutually interact to influence development.

ANSWER: d 80. Dr. Leung believes that no one theory can explain human development and has developed an approach that incorporates elements from many of the major theories. Given this description, Dr. Leung is best classified as a(n) _____ theorist. a. psychodynamic b. ethological c. eclectic d. sociocultural ANSWER: c 81. Donna sometimes gets overwhelmed even thinking about research on human development, because there is so much data out there to consider. She is grateful that others have developed theories, because it helps her to determine which data is a. logical. b. relevant. c. proven. d. ethical.

ANSWER: b 82. The ability of a theory to provide researchers with a sense of the “big picture” reflects which benefit of scientific theories? a. validity b. continuity c. prediction d. organization ANSWER: d 83. DeShaun prefers to focus his developmental research on things he can observe in a laboratory setting. He avoids conducting research into Freud’s developmental theories because they are too ________ a. sexual. b. contextual. c. unconscious. d. universal ANSWER: c 84. Sheldon proudly proclaims himself to be a man of science, who is guided by facts. Would Sheldon support Freud’s Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development theories on human development? a. Yes, they are easily observed. b. No, they are not sequential. c. Yes, they are highly rational. d. No, they are too ambiguous.

ANSWER: d 85. Erikson’s theory offers value to scientists because it ________ a key aspect of human development. a. explains b. delineates c. validates d. justifies ANSWER: b 86. Erikson’s psychosocial theory is more useful than Freud’s psychosexual theory because a. it is easily testable. b. it emphasizes cognition. c. it is more comprehensive. d. it is more contextual.

ANSWER: c 87. Some theorists believe that humans are more passive in development, while others believe they are more active.

Which of the following correctly lists the theorists from a highly passive perspective to a highly active perspective?. a. Erikson, Bandura, Skinner, Freud b. Bandura, Skinner, Erikson, Freud c. Freud, Erikson, Skinner, Bandura d. Freud, Skinner, Bandura, Erikson ANSWER: c 88. Marisol is a strong supporter of the learning theories, so she believes that human development is a. individualistic. b. systemic. c. sequential. d. conflicted.

ANSWER: a 89. As a human development researcher, Thuy prefers working with learning theories because she believes they are more ________ than other theories. a. testable b. realistic c. ordered d. emotional ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development 90. Clayton’s friends have been known to call him a bit of a control freak. He has no problem with that label; he prefers to be the master of his own universe – even when it comes to his developmental journey through life. Which theorist would Clayton consider as his champion?. a. Skinner b. Erikson c. Bandura d. Watson ANSWER: c 91. Priya is participating in a research project intended to alter her behavior through learning theory, which in her case is successful. Watson would say that Priya’s behavior was guided by ________, whereas Bandura would say that her behavior was guided by ________. a. perceptions; consequences b. stimuli; consequences c. consequences; stimuli d. stimuli; perceptions ANSWER: d 92. Compared to earlier learning theorists, Bandura would say that human development is more a. concentric. b. participatory. c. emotional. d. formalized.

ANSWER: b 93. Some public figures in America seem to believe that the world revolves around them and cannot comprehend any ideas or perspectives other than their own. Piaget would say that these adults are acting more like ________ a. 2-year-olds b. 4-year-olds c. 7-year-olds d. 11-year-olds ANSWER: b 94. Although not as popular among scientists as it once was, Piaget’s cognitive theory of development still has influence in the field of a. human resources. b. gerontology. c. neurology. d. education.

ANSWER: d 95. A developmental scientist who wanted to point out weaknesses in Piaget’s theory of development would have the most success focusing on which of the following? a. a child’s age b. a child’s culture Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development c. a child’s models d. a child’s behaviors ANSWER: b 96. After reading about various developmental theorists, Quentin became fascinated with Vygotsky’s perspective. Now that he is formally a researcher, which of the following is the likely focus of Quentin’s work? a. environment as systems b. media as models c. language as culture d. time as reinforcement ANSWER: c 97. The cognitive deficits that occur in someone who has Alzheimer’s disease demonstrates a component of which theory on human development? a. sociocultural b. bioecological c. information-processing d. psychosocial ANSWER: c 98. Damon is preparing to deliver a speech on the interdependent developmental dynamic between humans and their environment. Who will Damon likely reference in his speech? a. Piaget b. Bronfenbrenner c. Watson d. Skinner ANSWER: b 99. Why did Bronfenbrenner call his framework for human development “bioecological”? a. because he believed that development reflects people and their environment b. because he believed that humans tend to conserve their developmental energy c. because he believed that genetics play the primary role in development d. because he believed that environmental damage is affecting human development ANSWER: a 100. Compared to Bronfenbrenner’s model, the earlier theorists all generally believed that human development ________ a. derives from conflict b. takes place in a vacuum c. engages many factors d. varies per individual ANSWER: b 101. Erikson’s perspective on development focused on conflicts, whereas Vygotsky focused on ________ and Bronfenbrenner focused on ________. a. systems; cultures Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development b. cultures; tools c. tools; transactions d. transactions; behaviors ANSWER: c 102. Which term best reflects the scope of Bronfenbrenner’s chronosystem? a. micro b. multilevel c. exo d. macro ANSWER: b 103. Lynette has always been afraid of public speaking, but she needs to add this skill if she wants to advance in her company. Recently she joined a group that meets weekly to deliver short speeches and offer each other feedback. Which of the following best describes what Lynette is engaged in? a. information processing b. reciprocal determinism c. latent learning d. proximal processing ANSWER: d 104. Bronfenbrenner would say that summer camp provides adolescent children with opportunities for proximal processes that can help in developing their ________. a. sexual maturity b. social competence c. concrete operations d. self-efficacy ANSWER: b 105. In his research on adolescent boys’ development of methods to deal with conflict, Victor made sure to identify and explore the ethnic backgrounds of his subjects. What element of the PPCT model is Victor focusing on in this aspect of his research? a. time b. context c. person d. process ANSWER: b 106. Which of the following developmental theorists most emphasized the “C” component of Bronfenbrenner’s PPCT model? a. Vygotsky b. Freud c. Bandura d. Watson Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development ANSWER: a 107. Which of the following developmental theorists most emphasized the “process” component of the PPCT model? a. Erikson b. Freud c. Skinner d. Bronfenbrenner ANSWER: c 108. Systems theories of development are popular with contemporary scientists because they reflect the ________nature of human life. a. transactional b. universal c. biological d. complex ANSWER: d 109. A key criticism of Bronfenbrenner’s theory of development is that it ________ a. can be easily generalized. b. is too individualistic. c. limits social influences. d. is lacking in structure.

ANSWER: b 110. On Saturdays, Halima’s grandmother shows her how to make some of the family’s favorite recipes from their home country. Bronfenbrenner would view these experiences as ________. a. overimitation. b. transactions. c. latent learning. d. use of tools.

ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 111. Compare and contrast the developmental assumptions of nature versus nurture, activity versus passivity, continuity versus discontinuity, and universality versus context-specificity.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Describe Piaget’s preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations stages of development using examples from children or adults you have met (including yourself).

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Explain and provide examples of the concepts of negative reinforcement, positive punishment, and extinction.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 02: Theories of Human Development 114. Describe how children’s development of early language skills would be viewed by the eight perspectives that comprise the issues of nature-nurture, activity-passivity, continuity-discontinuity, and universality-context specificity.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Identify the psychosexual and psychosocial stage that a 14-year-old experiences, and compare the conflicts faced in the two stages.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Explain the relationship between Bandura’s concepts of self-efficacy and reciprocal determinism, and provide an example of these concepts at work in a person’s life.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Describe the sociocultural perspective and the information-processing approach to development, and explain how they address limitations in Piaget’s perspective on development.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Explain how Bronfenbrenner’s perspective may require each person to have his or her own developmental theory, and why this could be problematic for scientific research.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Explain how a researcher would apply Bronfenbrenner’s PPCT model to a study of adolescent development of responsible sexual behavior.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Which theory of human development do you feel is most valid: stage theory, learning theory, systems theory, or eclecticism? Explain your reasoning and provide examples to support it.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development True / False 1. Species heredity is very important to our understanding of individual differences in human growth and development. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The process of mitosis results in daughter cells that have half the number of cells as the original one. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Fraternal twins are no more alike genetically than brothers and sisters born at different times. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Concordance rates show the likelihood that if one member of a pair has a particular trait, the other member of the pair also has it. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The heritability of IQ scores appears to increase between infancy and adulthood. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Concerning mental illness, people appear to inherit a predisposition for a disorder, not the actual disorder a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. In an active gene-environment interaction, children’s genetically based traits provoke a certain kind of reaction from their environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Genetic mutations invariably cause harm to people who inherit them. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. One girl attends a public school for fifth grade and her twin attends a private school for fifth grade, so their educational environmental influence is considered shared because they both attended fifth grade.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. According to the diathesis-stress model, a person with a genetic profile of overall resilience would be less likely to develop PTSD after witnessing a traumatic event. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Most dogs bark but don’t speak, and most humans speak but don’t bark. This is best explained by a. species heredity. b. meiosis. c. individual heredity. d. mitosis.

ANSWER: a 12. All human babies, regardless of which culture they live in or which language is spoken around them, begin to babble at about the same age. This is an example of a. species heredity. b. natural selection. c. mutation. d. recessive genetics.

ANSWER: a 13. Which of the following is NOT a major claim of Darwin's theory of evolution? a. There is genetic variation in a species. b. Some genes aid in adaptation to the environment more than other genes do. c. New species emerge on their own and are not related to earlier species. d. Genes that aid in adaptation to the environment are more likely to be passed on to future generations.

ANSWER: c 14. The idea that some genes aid in adaptation more than others is known as a. genetic counseling. b. natural selection. c. shared environmental influences. d. crossing over.

ANSWER: b 15. The belief that we inherit tried and true ways of adjusting to the environment from past generations is referred to as a. crossing over. b. incomplete dominance.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development c. concordance. d. cultural evolution.

ANSWER: d 16. Which best exemplifies the process of cultural evolution? a. The fact that different eye shapes are found within individuals in the same ethnic group b. Inheriting a stronger left arm than a right arm because in the past, this allowed for the faster cutting of grains and more food for families c. The dramatic shift from Communism to Democracy seen in the Soviet Union in the 1980s d. Greater height in current generations than in past generations because in past generations, food that needed to be gathered was closer to the ground ANSWER: b 17. Which is the most genetically complex structure? a. A gene b. A chromosome c. A zygote d. A sperm ANSWER: c 18. Which statement concerning the genetic code is FALSE? a. Zygotes consist of many genes. b. Genes consist of many DNA strands. c. DNA strands consist of many zygotes. d. Chromosomes consist of many genes.

ANSWER: c 19. A sperm cell and an ovum each contribute 23, rather than 46, chromosomes to a zygote because they a. were produced through the process of meiosis. b. were produced through the process of mitosis. c. have undergone the process of crossing over. d. have undergone the process of canalization.

ANSWER: a 20. The typical outcome of a female reproductive cell that has undergone meiosis is a. one egg and three nonfunctional cells. b. two eggs and two nonfunctional cells. c. three eggs and one nonfunctional cell. d. four eggs.

ANSWER: a 21. Following mitosis, each daughter cell has _____ number of chromosomes as that of the mother cell. a. half of the b. twice the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development c. four times the d. the same ANSWER: d 22. A gene a. is made of hormones and neurotransmitters. b. can also be referred to as an ovum. c. when combined with a second gene will produce a chromosome. d. provides instructions for the production of proteins.

ANSWER: d 23. It is estimated that about _____ percent of the human genome consists of what are traditionally defined as genes. a. 3 b. 16 c. 7 d. 1 ANSWER: a 24. As the genetic material in two cells pair up just prior to meiosis, parts of the chromosome are exchanged with a second chromosome. This is called a. karyotyping. b. concordance. c. crossing over. d. cloning.

ANSWER: c 25. Last year the maternity wing of Cedar Glen Hospital celebrated 1,000 births. How many of these events celebrated identical twins? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 ANSWER: c 26. We know that two people have precisely 50 percent of their genes in common if they are a. fraternal twins. b. identical twins. c. parent and child. d. grandchild and grandparent ANSWER: c 27. Joseph and Kenneth are twins resulting from two ova. What proportion of their genes do the boys have in common? a. precisely 50 percent b. about 50 percent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development c. about 25 percent d. 100 percent ANSWER: b 28. While Selena and Marisol are sisters and look somewhat alike, they have only about 50 percent of their genes in common. This would mean that the girls are most likely a. monozygotic twins. b. conjoined twins. c. dizygotic twins. d. autosomal twins.

ANSWER: c 29. With regard to twins, monozygotic is to dizygotic as a. common is to uncommon. b. one egg is to two eggs. c. recessive is to dominant. d. fraternal is to identical.

ANSWER: b 30. When Tayvon was born last month, genetic tests cleared him of any genetic abnormalities. How many autosomal chromosomes does Tayvon have? a. 46 b. 44 c. 23 d. 22 ANSWER: d 31. Genotype is most accurately described as a. your inherited genes. b. a visual representation of chromosomes. c. the manner in which genes are expressed. d. environmental marks on your genes.

ANSWER: a 32. Jeannine needs to give a short presentation to the class discussing an aspect of her genotype. What will Jeannine likely focus on in her speech? a. her curly blonde hair b. scoring 128 on her IQ test c. being shy with new people d. the codes on her X chromosome ANSWER: d 33. Which of the following is true of a genotype? a. The phenotype controls the expression of the genotype.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development b. The expression of the genotype may be affected by environmental factors. c. The genotype and phenotype are largely unrelated. d. The genotype can be altered by experience.

ANSWER: b 34. The activation of particular genes in particular cells of the body at particular times is called a. genotyping. b. gene expression. c. phenotypical expression. d. phenotyping.

ANSWER: b 35. The Fraga and colleagues (2005) study on aging and RNA in identical twins found that the pattern of genetic expression a. was nearly identical in both very young and older twins. b. was quite different in both very young and older twins. c. was nearly identical in very young twins but differed in older twins. d. differed in very young twins but was nearly identical in older twins.

ANSWER: c 36. The fact that Orson is extremely obese appears to be completely due to one pair of genes that he received (one from mom and one from dad). In this case, Orson’s obesity is best explained by a. single gene-pair inheritance. b. polygenetic effects. c. dominant genes. d. sex-linked traits.

ANSWER: a 37. If a person needs one matching pair of genes in order to express a characteristic carried by a pair of genes, the characteristic is considered a. recessive. b. dominant. c. a mutation. d. polygenic.

ANSWER: a 38. When a dominant gene is paired with a recessive gene, the characteristic associated with the dominant gene will be a. repressed. b. absent. c. expressed. d. mutated.

ANSWER: c 39. Incomplete dominance occurs when Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development a. a recessive gene overpowers a dominant gene. b. there is a compromise between the effect of two genes. c. a dominant gene overpowers a recessive gene. d. genetic effects are overpowered by environmental factors.

ANSWER: b 40. Kya has brown eyes, while her husband Rashid has green eyes. Their son Roscoe’s eyes are best described as hazel, a brownish green. Roscoe’s eye color best exemplifies the concept of a. incomplete dominance. b. mutation. c. polygenic inheritance. d. codominance.

ANSWER: a 41. Children who have one dark-skinned parent and one light-skinned parent can have a skin tone that is somewhere between their mother’s skin color and their father’s skin color. This is an example of a. incomplete dominance. b. mutation. c. polygenic inheritance. d. codominance.

ANSWER: a 42. The fact that type AB blood appears to be the result of a compromise between genes for type A and type B blood provides a good example of a. incomplete dominance. b. mutation. c. polygenic inheritance. d. codominance.

ANSWER: d 43. Michael is color blind. What caused this to occur? a. his father’s genes b. his mother’s genes c. either parent’s genes d. environmental factors ANSWER: b 44. Violet is known for having an outgoing and engaging personality. From a biological perspective, how did Violet attain this characteristic? a. a single gene pair b. sex-linked inheritance c. polygenic inheritance d. mutation of one or more genes ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development 45. When looking at the unusual protrusion sticking out of a newborn’s head, Dr. Chung says, “The growth is due to some sudden change in the structure of the genes that was not passed on by the parents.” Dr. Chung suspects that the growth is due to a. mutation b. epigenetics c. a recessive gene d. codominance ANSWER: a 46. Who is LEAST likely to have a chromosomal abnormality? a. Thom, who has a total of 22 pairs of chromosomes b. Rodrigo, who has a total of 23 pairs of chromosomes c. Priya, who has a total of 24 pairs of chromosomes d. Ellie, who has a total of 25 pairs of chromosomes ANSWER: b 47. After meeting with their doctor, the Mansour family learned that the symptoms their son’s disorder is caused by a chromosomal abnormality. What was the doctor’s diagnosis for the boy? a. hemophilia b. cystic fibrosis c. sickle-cell disease d. Down syndrome ANSWER: d 48. Maria gives birth to a child with trisomy 21. Which of the following is true? a. Maria must have given her child an extra 21st chromosome. b. The child's father must have given the child an extra 21st chromosome. c. The child received an extra 21st chromosome from either her mother or her father. d. Both parents contributed an extra 21st chromosome.

ANSWER: c 49. Meg was born with only one X chromosome. She is short, of average verbal intelligence, and lacking in spatial reasoning skills. Meg has a. Down syndrome. b. Tay-Sachs. c. Klinefelter syndrome. d. Turner syndrome.

ANSWER: d 50. Yao has an extra X chromosome. He is tall, sterile, and has enlarged breasts. Yao would be most accurately diagnosed as having a. Tay-Sachs. b. PKU. c. Klinefelter syndrome.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development d. Turner syndrome.

ANSWER: c 51. Which of the following is an accurate comparison of people with Down syndrome and people with Klinefelter syndrome? a. They both have cells with 47 chromosomes, but the extra chromosome in Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome and in Down syndrome, it is one of the other chromosomes. b. They both have cells with 47 chromosomes, and in both cases, it is an extra sex chromosome. c. There is an extra chromosome in Down syndrome, while there are fewer than the normal number of chromosomes in Klinefelter syndrome. d. There is an extra X chromosome in Klinefelter syndrome and a missing X chromosome in Down syndrome.

ANSWER: a 52. An individual who is a carrier of a trait has a. two dominant genes, both calling for the presence of the trait. b. two recessive genes, both calling for the presence of the trait. c. one dominant gene calling for the absence of the trait and one recessive gene calling for the presence of the trait. d. one dominant gene calling for the presence of the trait and one recessive gene calling for the absence of the trait.

ANSWER: c 53. Tony and Ling are both carriers of the same defective gene for a genetic disorder. As knowledgeable individuals, they know that each time they have a child there is a _____ risk that child will be a carrier for the disorder. a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent ANSWER: a 54. Despite the fact that it is the result of recessive genes, some carriers of sickle-cell disease possess both normal and sickle-shaped blood cells. This phenomenon is best explained by a. polygenetic effects. b. meiosis. c. incomplete dominance. d. concordance rate.

ANSWER: c 55. If a physician wanted to get a visual image of a developing fetus’ limbs, her best option would be to use a(n) a. preimplantation genetic diagnosis. b. ultrasound. c. chorionic villus sampling. d. amniocentesis.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development 56. _____ involves conducting DNA tests on the first cells after the mitosis of a fertilized egg. a. Maternal blood sampling b. Chorionic villus sampling c. Amniocentesis d. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis ANSWER: d 57. Forty-year-old Chester has just begun to show symptoms indicating a deterioration of his nervous system. Chester most likely has a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Cystic fibrosis. c. Turner syndrome. d. Huntington’s disease.

ANSWER: d 58. Jeff's mother died from Huntington's disease and he inherited the Huntington's gene. What is the likelihood he will also develop symptoms of Huntington's disease? a. Jeff will almost certainly develop Huntington's. b. Jeff's odds of developing Huntington's are 1 in 2. c. Jeff's odds of developing Huntington's are 1 in 4. d. Jeff's odds of developing Huntington's depends on the gene he inherited from his father.

ANSWER: a 59. Heritability refers to a. how much of a trait is influenced by genetic factors for a specific individual. b. the proportion of the differences in a trait among a group of people that is due to genetic differences. c. the percentage of pairs of people where, if one person in the pair has a trait, the other person in the pair also has the trait. d. the degree to which one trait increases with increases in another trait.

ANSWER: b 60. When studying heritability in humans, an ethical behavior geneticist would be LEAST likely to a. study identical twins reared apart. b. compare the behavior of adopted children to their biological parents. c. conduct a selective breeding experiment. d. investigate the relationship between behaviors of unrelated siblings (step family members).

ANSWER: c 61. Which one of the following sets of data would show a strong genetic influence on the development of a trait? a. Identical twins raised together score more similarly to one another than identical twins raised apart. b. Fraternal twins raised apart score as similarly to one another as do biological siblings who are raised together. c. Identical twins raised apart score more similarly to one another than fraternal twins raised together. d. Fraternal twins raised together score more similarly to one another than fraternal twins raised apart.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development 62. Which is a common criticism of twin studies? a. Twin studies are better suited to identify environmental influences than genetic influences. b. Fraternal twins tend to be treated more similarly than identical twins. c. Twin studies overestimate the role of prenatal experiences on development. d. The environment may be the more dominant influence on the similarity being studied in twins.

ANSWER: d 63. The logic behind adoption studies is that a. only personality factors can be inherited. b. if adopted children are similar to their adoptive parents on a given characteristic, then the expression of that characteristic is likely to be influenced by genetic factors. c. only physical factors can be inherited. d. if adopted children are similar to their adoptive parents on a given characteristic, then the expression of that characteristic is likely to be influenced by environmental factors.

ANSWER: d 64. Which type of study would be most likely to compare unrelated siblings living in the same household? a. Selective breeding studies b. Family studies c. Adoption studies d. Twin studies ANSWER: c 65. Your text reveals that if one identical twin is gay, there is almost a 50 percent chance that the other identical twin will also be gay. On the other hand, if a fraternal twin is schizophrenic, there is only about a 20 percent chance the other fraternal twin will be schizophrenic. The measure of likelihood that twins will share this mental illness in common is called a(n) a. concordance rate. b. correlation coefficient. c. dominant trait. d. heritability factor.

ANSWER: a 66. A high concordance rate between identical twins for schizophrenia would suggest that the disorder a. has a genetic basis. b. is inherited from the mother. c. results from childhood experiences. d. will always occur in both twins..

ANSWER: a 67. Research by Plomin and colleagues indicated that the highest heritability correlation concerning the emotion of anger was found between a. identical twins raised together. b. identical twins reared apart.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development c. fraternal twins raised together. d. fraternal twins reared apart.

ANSWER: a 68. If genes alone contribute to a trait, which of the following patterns of correlations would be observed? a. 1.00 for identical twins raised together but a lower correlation for those raised apart b. 1.00 for both identical and fraternal twin pairs raised together but a lower correlation for those pairs raised apart c. 1.00 for identical twins and .50 for fraternal twins raised together or raised apart d. No significant correlation between identical twins or fraternal twins, regardless of whether they are raised together or apart ANSWER: c 69. If shared environmental influences alone contribute to the expression of a trait, which of the following patterns of correlations would be observed? a. 1.00 for identical twins raised together but a somewhat lower correlation for those raised apart b. 1.00 for both identical and fraternal twin pairs raised together but no correlation for those pairs raised apart c. 1.00 for identical twins and .50 for fraternal twins raised together and raised apart d. No significant correlation between identical twins or fraternal twins, regardless of whether they were raised together or apart ANSWER: b 70. The consistent parenting style exhibited by parents toward all their children would represent a _____ for the children. a. shared environmental experience b. genetic effect c. nonshared environmental experience d. crossing over effect ANSWER: a 71. Suppose identical twins raised apart have a correlation of .40 on a measure of some aspect of personality, and identical twins raised together have a correlation of .60 on this same measure. From these data, what can we logically conclude about this trait? a. Nonshared environment has an impact because, even raised together, the identical twins do not show a perfect 1.00 correlation. b. Nonshared environment has no impact because the identical twins raised apart have a lower correlation than the identical twins raised together. c. Shared environment has no impact because identical twins raised apart have a correlation lower than 1.00. d. Shared environment has an impact because identical twins raised apart have a correlation of .40.

ANSWER: a 72. Research from behavioral geneticists has found that as we get older, genetic influences on intelligence are _____ in importance, shared influences are ______ in importance, and nonshared environmental influences are _____ in importance. a. decreasing; decreasing; increasing b. decreasing; increasing; decreasing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development c. increasing; increasing; decreasing d. increasing; decreasing; increasing ANSWER: d 73. Which statement is true regarding the effects of genes and environment on temperament and personality? a. Genes contribute little to no individual differences in temperament. b. Genes account for nearly all of the individual differences in temperament. c. Nonshared environmental influences contribute nothing to individual differences in temperament. d. The shared environment of the home does not appear to make siblings more similar in temperament or personality.

ANSWER: d 74. If one or both biological parents have schizophrenia, we can conclude that their child will a. not develop the disorder as long as he or she is raised in a separate environment. b. definitely develop the disorder regardless of the environment. c. have a greater than average risk of developing the disorder in response to an environmental trigger. d. develop the disorder at a much younger age than another child who develops the disorder but has no family history of schizophrenia.

ANSWER: c 75. Some traits are more influenced by genetic factors than other traits, as reflected in the correlations between the traits of identical twins raised apart. Which one of the following series of traits is arranged from most to least heritable? a. Height, brain activity, IQ scores, creativity b. Brain activity, height, creativity, IQ scores c. Brain activity, IQ scores, height, creativity d. Height, creativity, IQ scores, brain activity ANSWER: a 76. Which statement concerning heritability is true? a. Heritability explains more of the variation in IQ among children from poor families. b. Heritability is a fixed quality. c. Heritability differs by socioeconomic status but not by age. d. Heritability estimates differ by environment.

ANSWER: d 77. Which statement best describes the genetic influence on depression? a. Some genes predispose a person to depression, but no genes protect from depression. b. Some genes protect a person from depression, but no genes predispose a person to depression. c. Some genes protect a person from depression, and others predispose a person to depression. d. No genes protect a person from depression, and no genes predispose a person to depression.

ANSWER: c 78. The belief that genotype expression depends on environmental experience and how we respond to the environment depends on the genes we possess defines the concept of a. single gene-pair inheritance.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development b. shared environmental influence. c. gene-environment interaction. d. polygenetic inheritance.

ANSWER: c 79. Laurie is a shy child who avoids social gatherings and seeks out solitary activities such as stamp collecting and reading a good book. Laurie’s development will be influenced by this pattern of behavior. In terms of geneticenvironmental, this example best illustrates a(n) a. active genotype-environment. b. evocative genotype-environment. c. passive genotype-environment. d. negative genotype-environment.

ANSWER: a 80. Baby Paolo smiles and coos so often and is so delightful that his parents feel compelled to smile and chatter right back at him. Which sort of genetic environmental does this best illustrate? a. Active genotype-environment b. Evocative genotype-environment c. Passive genotype-environment d. Negative genotype-environment ANSWER: b 81. The fact that parents provide their children with both their genes and an environment that is impacted by their own genetic make-up defines the gene-environment correlation of a. active genotype-environment. b. evocative genotype-environment. c. passive genotype-environment. d. crossed genotype-environment.

ANSWER: c 82. Epigenetic effects alter the a. expression of genes b. occurrence of genes c. structure of genes d. makeup of genes ANSWER: a 83. Which of the following is true of gene therapy? a. Gene therapy has proven to be successful with a wide range of diseases and is often the only hope for a cure. b. Gene therapy is widely viewed as unethical and is illegal in the United States. c. Because many diseases are the result of multiple genes and their interactions with other genes and the environment, gene therapy is unlikely to produce quick cures. d. Gene therapy has failed virtually every time it has been tried and has fallen out of favor with clinical researchers.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development 84. Imagine that at the beginning of time on Earth, frogs were all different colors of the rainbow. Over generations almost all frogs became green because the color camouflaged them in their leafy environments. This is an example of a. systemic adaptation. b. species heredity. c. natural selection. d. cultural evolution.

ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following would NOT trigger the process of cultural evolution? a. the invention of the telegraph b. a mandate for communal housing c. the emergence of a new virus d. the elimination of grocery stores ANSWER: c 86. Biological evolution is grounded in genetic adaptation, whereas cultural evolution is grounded in ________ adaptation. a. political b. physical c. social d. emotional ANSWER: c 87. Why would men’s reproductive cells be more vulnerable to environmental influences than women’s reproductive cells? a. Men use all available cells for meiosis. b. Men have both X and Y chromosomes. c. Men create sperm throughout their life. d. Men have more repressed gene expression.

ANSWER: c 88. A medical research firm developed a new test for bipolar disorder that tries to identify if specific series of genome codes are missing in a person’s DNA. What is the focus of the firm’s test? a. chorionic villus samples b. copy number variations c. diathesis-stress markers d. autosomal mutations ANSWER: b 89. If the standard code for a particular segment of DNA is TCA-GAG-GTG-AAA, what is evidenced by the code TCAGAG-TCA-AAA in that segment of someone’s DNA? a. copy number variation b. genetic crossing over c. genetic mutation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development d. gene-pair inheritance ANSWER: a 90. Which of the following can cause intellectual deficits that progress as it is passed down through generations? a. Huntington’s disease b. Fragile X syndrome c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Down syndrome ANSWER: b 91. Although she is in fine health, Dorothy’s son has been diagnosed with a metabolic disorder that results in intellectual disability and is caused by a missing enzyme. Which of the following best describes Dorothy? a. recessive for CNV b. carrier for PKU c. dominant for CVS d. polygenic for ADHD ANSWER: b 92. Which of the following is critical for a heritability study on intelligence? a. the subject’s genotype b. the subject’s IQ score c. a large sample size d. a control with average IQ ANSWER: c 93. Which of the following research methods would require the most resources and produce the widest range of data? a. adoption study b. twin study c. family study d. surrogate study ANSWER: c 94. In a study of 100 fraternal twin pairs, 27 pairs both disliked the flavor of coffee. The findings of this research are an example of. a. concordance b. crossing over c. causality d. correlation ANSWER: a 95. Which of the following indicates strong concordance for a particular social trait among identical twins? a. +.82 b. 38% c. −.68 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development d. 79% ANSWER: d 96. Which of the following would most likely be considered a nonshared environmental influence for a fifth grader? a. having a smart phone b. being bullied at lunch c. doing a geography project d. taking gym class ANSWER: b 97. What is one of the main areas of focus for molecular genetics? a. meiosis b. epigenesis c. concordance d. mutation ANSWER: b 98. Which of the following is the best analogy for molecular genetics’ view of human development? a. an energy bar b. a buffet table c. a take-out box d. a food truck ANSWER: b 99. Justine recently opened her second bakery and is enjoying her dream career of working with flour, butter, and sugar to bring a little joy to people. What is the likelihood that Justine’s identical twin Marya is also employed in the culinary field? a. 25% b. 40% c. 60% d. 75% ANSWER: b 100. Based on research outlined in the text, which of the following would be most impacted by one’s environment? a. resting heart rate b. academic performance c. opinion on gay rights d. talkativeness at parties ANSWER: c 101. Which of the following would likely NOT increase the 10% variation in IQ for children in low SES families? a. universal free pre-school programs b. prenatal genetic testing c. broadband Internet services Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development d. parent-child reading activities ANSWER: b 102. Which of the following statements best reflects research findings on environment and temperament? a. Identical twins will share the same disposition even after leaving the family. b. Non-twins have widely diverse dispositions when raised in happy families. c. Twins raised in nurturing families will likely have a friendly disposition. d. Adoptive families tend to produce more emotional reactivity in non-twins.

ANSWER: b 103. Which of the following is most likely to be an inherited trait? a. scoring low on academic proficiency tests b. having a weight problem at middle age c. working with animals as a career path d. voting for Democratic party candidates ANSWER: b 104. According to the diathesis-stress model, what largely determines whether a person will have a negative emotional response to a particular event? a. general susceptibility to negative reactions b. degree of emotional intensity of the event c. frequency of exposure to negative experiences d. environmental influences during childhood ANSWER: a 105. The differential susceptibility hypothesis focuses on how individuals respond to a. stress. b. epigenetics. c. counseling. d. environment..

ANSWER: d 106. Siblings who are more alike genetically will ________ their home environment in similar ways. a. select b. accommodate c. perceive d. manage ANSWER: c 107. Which of the following statements best reflects the perspective of genetically informed research studies? a. Biology and environment are unrelated. b. Our environment dominates our biology. c. Biology loses influence after childhood.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development d. Our biology can alter our environment.

ANSWER: d 108. Which of the following will likely have the greatest epigenetic impact on a child’s development? a. attending recreational summer camp b. mother drinking while pregnant c. being bullied in grade school d. living in a low-income community ANSWER: b 109. The epigenome for a particular gene determines whether it will a. switch on. b. mutate. c. cross over. d. have CNVs. ANSWER: a 110. Some developmentalists doubt the scientific value of behavioral genetics research because a. it relies heavily on data from twin and family studies. b. it could lead to a society of genetically “perfect” humans. c. it attempts to distinguish influences that are indivisible. d. it proposes that human genes can influence their experiences.

ANSWER: c Subjective Short Answer 111. Differentiate genotype from phenotype using yourself as an example.

ANSWER: 112. Compare and contrast Down syndrome, Turner syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.

ANSWER: 113. Compare and contrast passive gene-environment correlations, evocative gene-environmental correlations, and active gene-environmental correlations.

ANSWER: 114. Describe and give an example of a recessive gene and a dominant gene. Then differentiate between incomplete dominance and codominance.

ANSWER: 115. Give an example of something from 50 or 100 years ago that we have culturally evolved into our experience today.

Then, give an example of something that has recently become part of our experience and describe how it will be culturally evolved for people 50 or 100 years from now.

ANSWER: 116. Describe the processes of chorionic villus sampling and preimplantation diagnosis. Discuss the potential ethical Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Genes, Environment, and Development concerns over prenatal diagnosis and why one of these two methods may present less cause for debate regarding ethics.

ANSWER: 117. For two twin siblings, give three examples of shared environmental influences and three examples of nonshared environmental influences that they may experience over the course of a week.

ANSWER: 118. Describe the perspective on human development provided by molecular genetics, and explain why it adds value to the established field of behavioral genetics.

ANSWER: 119. Identical twins share the same genes and are born with the potential for perfect correlation (+1.0) in shared attributes and traits. Using examples, explain what could cause a set of identical twins at age 40 to have +.56 correlation for blood pressure and +.34 correlation for views on social issues.

ANSWER: 120. Explain what an epigenome is, how it is created, and the impact it has on genes.

ANSWER:

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth True / False 1. The fetus is surrounded by a protective structure called the placenta. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The same teratogen may have different effects on different fetuses. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Maternal smoking appears to increase the risk of an infant experiencing sudden infant death syndrome. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Physically, the safest age for a woman to have a baby is somewhere between 30 and 40 years. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Perinatal damage occurs during the time of birth. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. In some cultures, childbirth is seen as a shameful event. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Maternal responsiveness is positively correlated with the resilience of at-risk infants. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The region of the brain that governs critical thinking processes is one of the first to develop during the prenatal period. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. A fetal programming researcher would look at how a low SES environment might influence the genetic profile of a human before birth. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth b. False ANSWER: True 10. By the time infants in the United States are six months old, nearly two-thirds of their mothers have switched from breastfeeding to formula. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. Ovulation tends to occur _____ of the menstrual cycle. a. on the first day b. within the first week c. near the midpoint d. at the end ANSWER: c 12. The most common first medical step in assisted reproductive technology is to have a women take a drug that a. increases the size of her cervix. b. straightens the lining of her fallopian tubes. c. decreases her testosterone levels. d. stimulates the ovaries to ripen and release eggs.

ANSWER: d 13. The germinal period ends when the a. blastocyst burrows into the lining of the chorion. b. blastocyst is implanted in the wall of the uterus. c. zygote divides into two cells through mitosis. d. zygote travels through the fallopian tube into the uterus.

ANSWER: b 14. About _____ of all fertilized ova are successfully implanted in the uterus. a. one-fifth b. one-fourth c. one-third d. one-half ANSWER: d 15. Natalie is six weeks pregnant. At this point, the organism growing inside of her is most properly referred to as a(n) a. blastula. b. embryo. c. fetus. d. zygote.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth ANSWER: b 16. All major organs begin to develop in some fashion during the _____ period. a. germinal b. zygotic c. fetal d. embryonic ANSWER: d 17. While observing developing cells, Dr. Hernandez shouts, “I am seeing actual organogenesis taking place!” In simple terms, Dr. Hernandez is viewing a. meiosis. b. the formation of a blastula. c. the initial formation of major body organs. d. a breech presentation.

ANSWER: c 18. The outer layer of the embryo forms the a. amnion and chorion. b. placenta and umbilical cord. c. brain and spinal cord of the fetus. d. heart and internal organs.

ANSWER: a 19. The function of the amnion is to a. connect the placenta to the developing fetus. b. provide a cushion of protection for the developing embryo. c. provide nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo. d. remove waste products from the developing fetus.

ANSWER: b 20. The lining of the _____ originates as tissue called the chorion. a. amnion b. placenta c. blastula d. zygote ANSWER: b 21. The umbilical cord connects the a. amnion and chorion b. blastula and zygote. c. heart and lungs. d. embryo and placenta.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth 22. In her human development class, Dr. Ayers shows students several photographs of prenatal development. She points out the placenta and explains that its main purpose is to a. provide the fetus with carbon dioxide and oxygen. b. enable the maternal and fetal blood to mix so they will become compatible. c. provide the fetus with oxygen and nutrients and remove carbon dioxide and wastes from the fetus. d. protect and cushion the fetus from shock.

ANSWER: c 23. What is the most important factor in determining what crosses the “placental barrier”? a. The size of a molecule b. The age of the fetus c. The duration of the pregnancy d. The age of the mother ANSWER: a 24. The initial formation of a primitive heart would take place during the _____ period of development. a. zygotic b. germinal c. fetal d. embryonic ANSWER: d 25. Due to her accurate knowledge of prenatal physiology, Amber knows that because her unborn child suffers from anencephaly, the child will be born with a. a conjoined twin. b. abnormal limb development. c. ambiguous genitals. d. no developed brain above the brain stem.

ANSWER: d 26. After completing an exam and discussing her diet, Dr. Jamison noted that Wanda’s unborn baby could be at risk for neural tube disorders. What type of supplement did Dr. Jamison recommend to Wanda? a. vitamin A b. calcium c. folic acid d. iron ANSWER: c 27. By secreting the hormone _____, the male embryo stimulates the development of the internal male reproductive system. a. estrogen b. teratogen c. surfactant d. testosterone Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth ANSWER: d 28. In order for an embryo to construct testes, that embryo must have at least _____ at conception. a. one X chromosome b. two X chromosomes c. one Y chromosome d. two Y chromosomes ANSWER: c 29. Which statement about development in the embryonic stage of development is true? a. The embryo is viable by the end of the stage. b. The eyes develop between days 21 and 28. c. The primitive portions of the brain form last. d. At this end of this period, the organism is about 10 inches long.

ANSWER: b 30. The fetal period is best defined as a. the middle three months of pregnancy. b. all of the pregnancy that follows the implantation of the blastula in the uterine wall. c. the part of the pregnancy that extends from the age of viability to birth. d. the period from the ninth week of pregnancy to birth.

ANSWER: d 31. Salima is now 25 weeks pregnant. At this point, the organism growing inside of her would best be classified as a(n) a. blastula. b. embryo. c. fetus. d. zygote.

ANSWER: c 32. One of the main roles of glial cells is to a. provide support for neurons. b. produce the spinal cord. c. create a functioning respiratory system. d. determine the sex of a fetus.

ANSWER: a 33. Neurons that will become part of the cerebral cortex migrate by a. being passively pushed to their location. b. traveling along the surface of glial cells. c. following dendrites. d. diffusion.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth 34. Early in development, every neuron has the potential to a. become any type of cell. b. become a stem cell. c. become any type of neuron. d. become a glial cell.

ANSWER: c 35. The process of brain development characterized by intense cell growth originating in stem cells is called a. migration. b. proliferation. c. differentiation. d. mutation.

ANSWER: b 36. Maria, who just found out she is pregnant, wonders at what point her baby will be able to hear. A competent doctor would tell her that her baby's sensory organs a. begin to function during the embryonic phase. b. will be functioning by the end of the second trimester. c. do not function prior to the eighth or ninth month of pregnancy. d. will not function prior to birth.

ANSWER: b 37. The term "age of viability" refers to the point at which a. a child will definitely survive if born. b. survival outside the uterus might be possible. c. the embryo no longer requires oxygen from its mother. d. the heart starts beating.

ANSWER: b 38. Who has just reached the current “age of viability” for a human? a. Ben, who has survived 18 weeks past conception b. Montell, who has survived 21 weeks past conception c. Hae, who has survived 23 weeks past conception d. Dora, who has survived 27 weeks past conception ANSWER: c 39. Sunny is a 20-week-old fetus. Robert is a 32-week-old fetus. If they were both developing normally, one would expect that Robert would _____ than Sunny. a. have a significantly less surfactant b. spend less time in distinct states of activity c. have significantly less myelin d. spend significantly more time in the awake state ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth 40. Your psychology professor asks you to write a paper on the prenatal environment. Which search topic should you use for your Web search? a. The mother’s womb b. The hospital birthing room c. The process of birth d. The newborn’s crib ANSWER: a 41. Which of the following is true? a. The quality of a postnatal environment has little impact on the effect of a teratogen. b. The genetic makeup of a fetus can influence the impact of a teratogen. c. The effects of a teratogen do not appear to be related to the "dose" received. d. An organ system is least vulnerable to the effects of a teratogen when it is developing rapidly.

ANSWER: b 42. The time of rapid growth of an organ system is called its _____ period. a. critical b. germinal c. resilience d. prenatal ANSWER: a 43. Which organism is most vulnerable to organ systems damage? a. The blastula b. The embryo c. The fetus d. The zygote ANSWER: b 44. Back in 1962, Celeste started taking the drug thalidomide in her sixth month of pregnancy. What were the likely impacts of Celeste’s behavior on her baby? a. cognitive impairment b. heart problems c. deformed or missing limbs d. no harmful effects ANSWER: d 45. On an average day, Jenna smokes about 24 cigarettes and has done so throughout her pregnancy. Consequently, she has put her baby at increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT a. hyperacute hearing. b. slowed growth. c. central nervous system impairment. d. susceptibility to respiratory infection.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth 46. Rice, Thapar, and colleagues (2007, 2009) attempted to uncouple the effects of genetics and the effects of smoking while pregnant on birth weight and elevated antisocial behavior. They found that a. birth weight was unrelated to smoking. b. antisocial behaviors elevated the risk for smoking. c. antisocial behavior could be linked to genes but not to smoking. d. genetic factors appear to cause smoking.

ANSWER: c 47. Rihanna has just given birth to a baby girl and notices that the child has a small head, widely spaced eyes, and a flattened nose. What are the doctors most likely to suspect? a. Rihanna consumed considerable quantities of alcohol during the pregnancy. b. Rihanna had rubella during the second month of her pregnancy. c. Rihanna had syphilis and did not seek treatment for it. d. Rihanna did not eat properly throughout the pregnancy.

ANSWER: a 48. Mayako did not know she was pregnant until she was about three months along. During that time, she drank alcoholic beverages quite frequently. While prenatal alcohol consumption can influence the developing embryo and fetus in a number of ways, Mayako should be LEAST concerned about having a newborn who a. has hyperactivity. b. has lowered intelligence. c. has seizures. d. has a deformed heart.

ANSWER: d 49. Whose behavior would have the greatest NEGATIVE impact on a baby’s brain development? a. A mother who consumes one bottle of beer a day most days during the infant’s embryonic period b. A mother who consumes five bottles of beer a day, several days a week during the infant’s embryonic period c. A mother who consumes one bottle of beer a day most days during her seventh month of pregnancy d. A mother who consumes five bottles of beer a day, several days a week during her seventh month of pregnancy ANSWER: d 50. Maria frequently used cocaine while she was pregnant. The most likely effect on her baby would be a. fetal strokes. b. extreme cognitive impairments. c. blindness. d. a hearing impairment.

ANSWER: a 51. Holly’s newborn appears malnourished, has a low birth weight, and is showing withdrawal-like symptoms. Given this description, Holly most likely _____ while she was pregnant. a. contracted syphilis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth b. abused alcohol c. contracted HIV d. abused cocaine ANSWER: d 52. Sarah and Nadiya are best friends who both contract rubella. At the time they have the disease, Sarah is seven weeks pregnant and Nadiya is seven months pregnant. What is the most likely outcome? a. Sarah’s child will be born unharmed, but Nadiya’s child will have some sort of birth defect resulting from rubella. b. Nadiya’s child will be born unharmed, but Sarah’s child will have some sort of birth defect resulting from rubella. c. Sarah and Nadiya will both give birth to children with birth defects resulting from rubella. d. There is no need for Sarah or Nadiya to worry about birth defects as a result of having rubella.

ANSWER: b 53. Who is most at risk for being deaf due to the effects of rubella? a. Erik, whose mother contracted rubella 8 weeks after he was conceived b. Thuc, whose mother contracted rubella 18 weeks after he was conceived c. Hector, whose mother contracted rubella 28 weeks after he was conceived d. Wade, whose mother contracted rubella 38 weeks after he was conceived ANSWER: a 54. Rubella and syphilis both a. can be successfully treated with penicillin. b. have the greatest impact late in the pregnancy. c. cause heart problems and blindness. d. are commonly classified as sexually transmitted diseases.

ANSWER: c 55. When Paula’s son Alex is born is born in the United States, he tests positive for HIV. Paula wonders what this means for her son’s life expectancy. The doctor is most likely to tell her that, Alex will a. die within a few weeks. b. live one to two years. c. have a 50 to 75 percent chance of living to age five. d. be unlikely to ever die of the complications of AIDS. ANSWER: c 56. Fatima is pregnant and tests positive for HIV. When her daughter Kaya is born, she does not have the HIV virus.

Fatima’s doctor is most likely to tell her a. she should breast feed her daughter so she can benefit from natural immunities to infection that breast milk often provides. b. she should not breast feed her daughter, as she might transmit the HIV virus through her breast milk. c. she and her daughter are very fortunate, and she need no longer worry about transmitting the virus to her.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth d. since she did not transmit the HIV virus to this child, it is unlikely that she would transmit the virus to another child, should she become pregnant again.

ANSWER: b 57. The AIDS virus CANNOT be contracted a. at conception through a chromosomal abnormality. b. during the prenatal period, when the HIV virus crosses the placental barrier. c. during the birth process, when maternal and fetal blood may mix. d. following birth, through breast feeding.

ANSWER: a 58. Hoshi is an X-ray technician. She takes special care to avoid exposure to radiation in her work environment, because she is trying to get pregnant and she knows that there can be negative effects from exposure to radiation on her baby.

Which impact should she be LEAST concerned about? a. Spontaneous abortion b. Mutations c. Cognitive impairment d. Anoxia ANSWER: d 59. The most dangerous time for a baby to be exposed to most chemical teratogens is a. at conception. b. during birth. c. at the age of viability. d. when organs are growing rapidly.

ANSWER: d 60. Who is within the optimal age for childbearing? a. Chantal, who is 18 b. Holly, who is 26 c. Rosa, who is 35 d. Erica, who is 45 ANSWER: b 61. Trisha, age 25, is wondering what the best age would be for her to begin a family. If the only consideration is physical (in other words, factors such as emotional readiness are not an issue), her doctor is most likely to respond by saying, a. "Now would be a perfect time." b. "You better get working on it, because you only have a few good years left." c. "It would have been best to start your family sooner." d. "You would do well to wait until you are in your 30s."

ANSWER: a 62. Moesha has been extremely stressed throughout her pregnancy. Her husband left her, she was laid off from work, and her mother died. Her doctor informs her that the extreme stress she has been under may have caused hormonal secretions of adrenaline that could affect her child. What would be the most likely impact on Moesha’s baby?

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth a. Deafness b. Impaired vision c. Mild intellectual disability d. Increased irritability and crying ANSWER: d 63. Carmen weighs 120 pounds and just learned that she is pregnant. What would be her optimal weight when she gives birth? a. 130 pounds b. 140 pounds c. 150 pounds d. 160 pounds ANSWER: c 64. Severe maternal malnourishment during later pregnancy puts a newborn most at risk for a. cerebral palsy. b. sensory deficits (e.g., blindness). c. stunted growth. d. respiratory failure.

ANSWER: c 65. Which event tends to occur the earliest in the labor process? a. Dilation of the cervix b. Mother told to “push” c. Delivery of placenta d. Fetus head at vaginal opening ANSWER: a 66. Who has experienced anoxia? a. Alan, whose umbilical cord wrapped around his neck during birth and cut off the oxygen supply to his body b. Maritza, who was exposed to high levels of radiation while she was an embryo c. Cedric, whose mother drank five glasses of vodka a day while he was a zygote d. Yuri, who ate lead paint chips as an infant ANSWER: a 67. Severe perinatal anoxia places a newborn at great risk for a. Tay Sachs. b. organogenesis. c. cerebral palsy. d. muscular dystrophy.

ANSWER: c 68. Which of the following statements regarding C-section deliveries is true?

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth a. Most mothers prefer this method because it leads to a quicker recovery than a vaginal delivery. b. Doctors conduct C-sections only when the mother or child’s life is at risk. c. The number of C-sections has steadily and significantly decreased over the past 30 years. d. C-sections are popular because many parents prefer having a scheduled birth.

ANSWER: d 69. Which statement about infant mortality rates is FALSE? a. The current rate is less than 1% in Western, industrialized nations. b. Medicalization of birth has not impacted the infant mortality rate. c. The rate is twice as high for black infants than for white infants. d. In some areas of sub-Saharan Africa, the infant mortality rate is about 15%.

ANSWER: b 70. Maternal postpartum depression a. is common (i.e., found in about 50 percent of first-time moms). b. has few long-term effects on a child. c. tends to be found in individuals with a history of depression. d. strengthens the infant-maternal attachment.

ANSWER: c 71. Helio, whose girlfriend is currently pregnant, is currently experiencing symptoms of couvade. As such, you would expect him to complain about a. feeling bloated. b. hair loss. c. feeling very energetic. d. weight loss.

ANSWER: a 72. Which of the following describes the impact of postpartum depression? a. Mothers with postpartum depression are less responsive to their infants. b. The children of mothers with postpartum depression will grow up to be sensitive. c. The children of mothers with postpartum depression are at lower risk of depression. d. Even if the depression is untreated, there is little long-term impact of postpartum depression.

ANSWER: a 73. One of the most striking differences between the treatment of babies by Central African cultures and treatment of infants in Western cultures is the a. significant amount of time babies are touched in this culture. b. fact that this culture does not believe in breast feeding. c. notion that until babies are able to speak, they are considered spirits. d. this culture heavily stresses the importance of “training schedules.”

ANSWER: a 74. Frieda receives an Apgar rating of 8. This means that she Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth a. is having difficulty breathing. b. is doing just fine. c. will likely die without extraordinary intervention. d. has visual and auditory deficits.

ANSWER: b 75. Baker was born 34 weeks after conception and weighed eight pounds at birth. If born in the United States, Baker would best be classified as a. both low birth weight and premature. b. low birth weight, but not premature. c. premature, but not low birth weight. d. neither low birth weight nor premature.

ANSWER: c 76. Which assisted reproduction technique is associated with having low-birth-weight infants? a. Ovulation-stimulating drugs b. In vitro fertilization c. Artificial insemination d. Sperm donorship ANSWER: a 77. Extremely low-birth-weight infants are a. defined as having a birth weight of less than three pounds. b. unlikely to have medical issues that last beyond childhood. c. at risk for blindness, deafness, and autism. d. becoming significantly less common.

ANSWER: c 78. Respiratory problems in premature infants may be the result of their inability to produce enough a. amnion. b. stem cells. c. chorion. d. surfactant.

ANSWER: d 79. Werner and Smith’s longitudinal study of Hawaiian children indicated that the two most important protective factors that help at-risk children overcome their disadvantage are a. a supportive postnatal environment and continued stress. b. continued stress and a two-parent household. c. a two-parent household and high levels of personal resources. d. high levels of personal resources and a supportive postnatal environment.

ANSWER: d 80. Despite being abused by her mother when she was an infant, Dana has become a mentally healthy adolescent. This Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth successful outcome was to a large extent due to the positive social support provided by Dana’s foster family. This story provides an excellent example of the impact of _____ factors. a. prenatal b. protective c. teratogenic d. genetic ANSWER: b 81. Maureen is frustrated because she seems to be losing her keys and forgetting things more often. “What is with my brain?” she often says. “There must have been a problem with my ________ way back before I was born.” a. mesoderm b. ectoderm c. periderm d. endoderm ANSWER: b 82. Which of the following human activities will NOT be operational during the embryonic period? a. reflexes b. digestion c. reasoning d. waste removal ANSWER: c 83. Whose fetus is currently experiencing the strongest expansion in number of neurons? a. Maura, who is 3 weeks pregnant b. Yelena, who is 11 weeks pregnant c. Trenelle, who is 18 weeks pregnant d. Vuoung, who is 24 weeks pregnant ANSWER: a 84. Like the Friday night before a long holiday weekend, the massive migration of neurons in the embryo has just begun.

At what exit ramp does the first group of neurons turn off to finish their journey? a. basal ganglia b. caudate nucleus c. cerebral cortex d. corpus callosum ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following describes the three processes of brain development in correct order? a. multiply, change, and move b. move, change, and multiply c. change, move, and multiply d. multiply, move, and change ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth 86. Traffic has been very heavy the past several weeks for the massive migration of neurons. When will traffic finally lighten up? a. 7 weeks after conception b. 10 weeks after conception c. 16 weeks after conception d. 22 weeks after conception ANSWER: c 87. In the final months of pregnancy, the neurons a. follow programmed routes to a functional location b. split from clusters to perform distinct functions c. grow larger and develop a protective jacket d. eject from a thin coating and begin sending signals ANSWER: c 88. Which of the following would NOT be considered an aspect of the physical environment that can play a role in fetal programming? a. pot smoke in the mother’s apartment building b. frequent gun violence on the mother’s street c. cold and flu medicine ingested by the mother d. raw sushi the mother eats regularly for lunch ANSWER: b 89. Which of the following best reflects the dynamic of fetal programming? a. linear progression b. one-time sequence c. stage-driven process d. recurring cycle ANSWER: d 90. Dawn has been feeling very stressed about being pregnant, so she started having a glass of wine and a cigarette to help her calm down. But the baby seems to get agitated and move around when she drinks. This makes Dawn more stressed, so she ends up having another glass of wine and a couple cigarettes to ease her nerves. What is occurring through this process? a. teratogen cycling b. epigenetic differentiation c. fetal programming d. reciprocal anoxia ANSWER: c 91. Under the principle of fetal programming, if a woman is regularly exposed to a teratogen while pregnant, one of her child’s genes ________. a. will not migrate to its proper location b. will not turn on to perform a key function c. will be too thin to adequately protect neurons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth d. will mutate and spur serious physical defects ANSWER: b 92. Which of the following statements about fetal programming is true? a. With ideal maternal behavior, it is possible to prevent all fetal programming. b. The impacts of fetal programming can extend across multiple generations. c. Fetal programming impacts are commonly resolved in the neonatal period. d. The influence of fetal programming occurs primarily among low SES families.

ANSWER: b 93. When Mary was pregnant with her first child James, she was young and had a poor diet and partied a lot. Mary was older and more responsible when she had her daughter Zoe, taking care of herself through the pregnancy. Who faces likely health risks as a result of fetal programming? a. Mary and James b. James and his children c. James and Zoe d. James and Zoe and their children ANSWER: b 94. When she learned that she was pregnant, Salwa immediately stopped eating her favorite tuna salad sandwiches at lunchtime. Which teratogen is Salwa trying to avoid? a. mercury b. bisphenol-A c. lead d. sulphur dioxide ANSWER: a 95. A doctor who is concerned about teratogenic impacts after learning of a patient’s exposure to a recreational drug will likely ask which of the following questions? a. Where did you take it? b. Why did you take it? c. Who gave it to you? d. How much did you take?

ANSWER: d 96. In some cultures, girls are married and have children while they are still teenagers. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a potential outcome for these young mothers’ pregnancies? a. miscarriage b. fraternal twins c. low birth weight d. stillbirth ANSWER: b 97. Which ethnic group has infant mortality rates that are nearly identical to the rates for non-Hispanic white mothers? a. American Indian or Alaska Native Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth b. non-Hispanic black c. Hispanic d. Asian or Pacific Islander ANSWER: d 98. Why would children born to women living in a refugee camp be at high-risk for long-term negative impacts? a. The camps are likely filled with toxins. b. The fathers are likely uninvolved. c. The days are consistently stressful. d. The women drink alcohol to cope.

ANSWER: c 99. An infant whose mother lived with an abusive partner while she was pregnant will likely be impacted by prolonged exposure to ________. a. myelin b. cytosine c. oxytocin d. adrenaline ANSWER: d 100. At age 54, Miguel is excited to become a father again, this time with his second wife. His 23-year-old son Julio and his wife are also expecting a new baby. Not considering maternal factors, what are the relative risks that the men’s wives will miscarry? a. Miguel’s wife is half as likely to miscarry. b. Miguel’s wife is slightly more likely to miscarry. c. Julio’s wife is three times more likely to miscarry. d. Julio’s wife is half as likely to miscarry.

ANSWER: d 101. What has led to the recent increase in homebirths among women in the United States? a. more births among high SES women b. changing perspectives on childbirth c. professional licensing of doulas d. higher costs for in-hospital delivery ANSWER: b 102. At a 1990 baby expo attended by 100 women, ________ were planning to deliver their baby with a midwife. At the same expo in 2016, out of 100 attendees ________ were set to use the services of a midwife. a. 2; 10 b. 5; 12 c. 7; 3 d. 4; 8 ANSWER: d 103. Eileen told Dr. Chao that she wants to have her second child by C-section because the first C-section was so stressCopyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth free and convenient. Dr. Chao tried to convince Eileen to have a natural delivery this time because it is a profound experience for both parents – and because ________ of second-time C-sections have no medical justification. a. just over a third b. almost half c. more than three-fourths d. nearly two-thirds ANSWER: d 104. Fifty years ago, pregnant women’s use of epidurals a. was less than the use of more broad-spectrum sedatives. b. was substantially lower than it is for women today. c. was as common as pregnant women smoking at the time d. was viewed as a step backwards from modern medicine.

ANSWER: b 105. One defining cultural factor that guides the development of an infant is a. availability of genetic testing b. average income of the parents c. societal perspectives on children d. level of pollutants in the community ANSWER: c 106. Childbirth in the !Kung San culture is grounded in which of the following? a. community b. caution c. spirituality d. independence ANSWER: d 107. The approach to feeding infants in the United States would seem to prepare them for which of the following? a. cycles of feast and famine b. an easy, breezy lifestyle c. unpredictable uncertainty d. tightly booked calendars ANSWER: b 108. Marshawn and Debbie are excited to bring their new daughter Violet home from the hospital. During the first month, how often should they expect to feed Violet each day? a. 2 to 4 times b. 5 to 7 times c. 8 to 10 times d. 12 to 14 times ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth 109. The “medicinal” benefits of breast milk for premature babies addresses which of the following issues? a. weight b. motor skills c. reflexes d. cognition ANSWER: a 110. When he was first born, Rajesh was crying, so the nurse gave him an Apgar score of 2 for his ________ factor. a. muscle tone b. temperament c. reflex irritability d. respiratory effort ANSWER: d Subjective Short Answer 111. Describe any five prenatal teratogens and their impact of the developing embryo and fetus.

ANSWER: 112. What advice regarding prenatal care would you give to a woman who has just found out that she is pregnant?

ANSWER: 113. Describe the three-stage process of childbirth. Be sure to discuss the C-sections and other interventions.

ANSWER: 114. List the five terms used for a developing human from the moment of conception, in correct order. Provide a brief description of each and indicate the time of pregnancy at which it first appears.

ANSWER: 115. Describe the processes of proliferation, migration, and differentiation that occur during the fetal period. Then describe the two theories related to differentiation.

ANSWER: 116. Explain how fetal programming can impact the development of a child. Provide two examples each for the mother and the father, and be sure to include examples of both positive and negative programming.

ANSWER: 117. Explain the concept of critical periods in human development and their relationship to teratogens. Provide two examples of critical periods for specific areas of human development.

ANSWER: 118. What are some of the positive and negative aspects of common practices and perspectives that Americans have with infants? What are positive and negative aspects of practices and perspectives common in other cultures? Give examples and explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: 119. Some people in the United States believe that women should not breastfeed their babies in public – and some feel Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Prenatal Development and Birth that women should not breastfeed at all. What would you say to help someone with this perspective to be more accepting of breastfeeding?

ANSWER: 120. You are developing a workshop for expectant parents to help decrease the incidence of low-birth weight infants.

Describe your target audience for the workshop. List some of the topics and strategies you will cover in the workshop.

ANSWER:

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health True / False 1. The “plasticity” of the brain means that it is impervious to harm. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Newborns spend half of their sleep in REM sleep. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Accidents are the leading cause of death in childhood a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Sexual maturation occurs at different rates in different racial and ethnic groups. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Boys who mature early are at a distinct social advantage as compared to those who mature late. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Young children often get their heads stuck in the neck opening of small shirts because of the proximodistal principle. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The life-span developmental model means that in terms of an individual's health, nothing is set in stone. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Because men can father a child well into old age, they experience no real changes as their testosterone levels gradually decline. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. An older Asian woman who smoked regularly has a significant risk for developing osteoporosis. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health b. False ANSWER: True 10. According to the Hayflick perspective on aging, eating foods such as spinach and blueberries can help lengthen the telomeres on our DNA. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. During his second year of life, Titus suffered a long and severe illness that left him well below his expected weight and height. After recovering from the illness, Titus suddenly experienced rapid gains in both height and weight. This event is best explained by a. plasticity. b. the proximodistal principle. c. catch-up growth. d. the secular trend.

ANSWER: c 12. Catch-up growth is most likely to occur a. in males. b. following hormone replacement therapy. c. during late puberty. d. following a period of malnutrition or illness.

ANSWER: d 13. The endocrine glands a. secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. b. secrete neurotransmitters into the brain. c. are instrumental in producing myelin, which protects the neurons. d. transmit information from the sensory organs to the brain.

ANSWER: a 14. Maggie was born with a pituitary gland that did not produce enough growth hormone, and her parents opted not to have the condition treated. Now that Maggie is an adult, what is her likely height? a. 4 feet b. 4 feet 6 inches c. 5 feet d. 5 feet 6 inches ANSWER: a 15. Maya was born with a thyroid deficiency that was not diagnosed as such until she was three years old. What is the likely outcome for Maya? a. Maya will have some level of intellectual disability.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health b. There will be no long-lasting effects with treatment. c. Maya will grow to be over 6 feet tall. d. Maya will become blind and deaf.

ANSWER: a 16. Androgens do all of the following EXCEPT a. trigger the adolescent growth spurt. b. contribute to sexual motivation in adulthood. c. cause ovulation in women. d. trigger the development of male sex organs.

ANSWER: c 17. Melissa is 15 years old. All of her friends have become notably "adolescent" in appearance. They have pubic hair and underarm hair and have experienced the "adolescent growth spurt." Melissa has no pubic or underarm hair, and still looks much more like a young girl than an adolescent. The most likely culprit for Melissa's plight is a malfunction of the a. central nervous system. b. ovaries. c. hypothalamus. d. thyroid.

ANSWER: b 18. Neurons communicate with one another a. by releasing neurotransmitters into the synapse. b. by releasing hormones from the hypothalamus. c. through the pituitary gland. d. using androgens.

ANSWER: a 19. Myelin is important to the nervous system because it a. transmits neural impulses from the brain to the body. b. directs the release of hormones from the endocrine glands. c. increases the transmission speed of neural impulses. d. is where memories are stored.

ANSWER: c 20. Dimitri loves to climb to the top of very high locations with no safety equipment, where he takes selfies to share with his high school friends. Dimitri's dangerous daredevil antics are likely due to a lack of development in the a. somatosensory cortex. b. occipital lobe. c. prefrontal cortex. d. temporal lobe.

ANSWER: c 21. The greater ability of adults to integrate thoughts and emotions may be attributable to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health a. increased production of androgens b. progressive myelination c. decreased production of growth hormone d. alterations in brain stem structures ANSWER: b 22. Which best exemplifies the concept of brain plasticity? a. The fact that the brain changes in response to experience b. The fact that a rat brain has the same basic components as a human brain c. The fact that, due to hormonal differences, the male brain is smaller than the female brain d. The fact that the brain is built on a plan that is genetically determined ANSWER: a 23. Lateralization refers to the a. specialization of the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex. b. organizational structure of the peripheral nervous system. c. plasticity of the spinal cord. d. number of neurons produced during prenatal development.

ANSWER: a 24. The right brain hemisphere a. controls the right side of the body and is skilled at sequential processing. b. controls the left side of the body and is skilled at sequential processing. c. controls the right side of the body and is skilled at simultaneous processing. d. controls the left side of the body and is skilled at simultaneous processing.

ANSWER: d 25. As a result of an earlier brain injury, the right hemisphere of Glenn's brain will sometimes "pitch in" and provide assistance when his left hemisphere cannot process language. Where does this information cross between the hemispheres? a. pons b. hippocampus c. brain stem d. corpus callosum ANSWER: d 26. Jill came tumbling down the hill and sustained a serious head injury. As a result, her language skills have been seriously impaired. Which part of Jill's brain was most likely damaged? a. Left hemisphere b. Right hemisphere c. Hypothalamus d. Brain stem ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health 27. Hector's parents are both left-handed, so the probability that Hector will be left-handed is closest to a. 25%. b. 50%. c. 75%. d. 100%.

ANSWER: b 28. When has the brain's developmental process generally concluded? a. around age 12 b. around age 27 c. around age 19 d. never ANSWER: d 29. A researcher says, “The video you are about to watch contains scenes of neurogenesis.” As such, you should expect to see a. the creation of new neurons. b. the migration of neurons. c. the pruning of neurons. d. the differentiation of neurons.

ANSWER: a 30. Which of the following characterizes the typical aging brain? a. Degeneration only b. Plasticity only c. Both degeneration and plasticity d. Neither degeneration nor plasticity ANSWER: c 31. The aging brain may compensate for losses by increased activity in the a. limbic system b. prefrontal cortex c. cerebellum d. corpus callosum ANSWER: b 32. Cephalocaudal development proceeds from a. head toward tail. b. body to limbs. c. brain to behavior. d. legs to arms.

ANSWER: a 33. Which is the best example of cephalocaudal development?

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health a. Infant gains control over the arms before the hands. b. Infant can sit up before it can walk. c. Infant can roll over before it can grasp a small object. d. Infant can hear before it can see.

ANSWER: b 34. When lying flat, babies can hold their heads up before they can lift their hips or legs. This illustrates the _____ direction of growth. a. cephalocaudal b. cephalodistal c. proximodistal d. proximocaudal ANSWER: a 35. Proximodistal development proceeds from the a. head toward the tail. b. body to the limbs. c. brain to behavior. d. legs to the arms.

ANSWER: b 36. Infants can flail their arms around before they can move their hands and fingers with any precision. This illustrates the _____ direction of growth. a. cephalocaudal b. cephalodistal c. proximodistal d. proximocaudal ANSWER: c 37. According to the orthogenetic principle, growth a. occurs from the inside to the outside. b. occurs in a head-to-toe direction. c. is increasingly distinct and organized. d. consists of gains and losses.

ANSWER: c 38. The human developmental journey from zygote to a collection of specialized organs demonstrates the _____ principle. a. orthogenetic b. proximodistal c. cephalocaudal d. reality ANSWER: a 39. Colleen is playing a guessing game at a friend’s baby shower. If Colleen correctly guesses the birth weight and length Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health of her friend’s newborn, she will win a great prize. Based on typical full-term newborn size in the United States, Colleen’s best guess would be a. 5 pounds and 15 inches. b. 5 pounds and 17 inches. c. 7 pounds and 17 inches. d. 7 pounds and 20 inches.

ANSWER: d 40. If Ahmad is an average child, he will have achieved half his adult height around his _____ birthday. a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth ANSWER: a 41. Which of the following is the best definition of a reflex? a. A behavior that has been repeated over and over b. An automatic response to stimulus c. A voluntary muscle movement d. The first type of sense developed after birth ANSWER: b 42. A reflex is best described as a. unlearned and voluntary. b. learned and voluntary. c. unlearned and involuntary. d. learned and involuntary.

ANSWER: c 43. Which of the following is NOT a survival reflex? a. The breathing reflex b. The sucking reflex c. The toe-fanning reflex d. The eye-blink reflex ANSWER: c 44. The defining feature of a survival reflex is that it a. has clear adaptive value. b. is linked to eating. c. is learned in the first three months after birth. d. does not fade with age.

ANSWER: a 45. Molly strokes the bottom of her baby Martin's foot and watches his toes fan out and then curl. Martin is exhibiting the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health _____ reflex. a. Babinski b. Moro c. Palmer d. stepping ANSWER: a 46. When he was born, Tran demonstrated a wide range of reflexes. Which will disappear first as Tran matures? a. Grasping reflex b. Swallowing reflex c. Pupillary reflex d. Breathing reflex ANSWER: a 47. Montell is an average newborn. If he sleeps for 12 hours a day, how much of this time will be REM sleep? a. 9 hours b. 6 hours c. 4 hours d. 10 hours ANSWER: b 48. Infants may spend so much time in REM sleep because REM sleep is a. needed for the formation of a strong id. b. important for learning and memory processes. c. critical for normal muscle and reflex development. d. necessary to ensure the infant continues to breathe during sleep.

ANSWER: b 49. The leading cause of death during the first year of life is a. congenital malformations. b. cancer. c. accidental injury. d. infection.

ANSWER: a 50. Which reflex evolves into the startle reflex? a. Moro b. Babinski c. rooting d. grasping ANSWER: a 51. The ability to coordinate separate body movements into a functional whole best describes the concept of a. a differentiated response.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health b. global responding. c. an integrated response. d. reserve capacity.

ANSWER: c 52. Much of brain development in infancy and childhood consists of forming more a. connections b. neurotransmitters c. neurons d. ventricles ANSWER: a 53. Elimination of unnecessary and unused connections between neurons is particularly important between ages a. 2 and 3 years. b. 5 to 7 years. c. 3 to 5 years. d. 7 to 15 years.

ANSWER: d 54. At two months after conception, your head makes up half of your total body length, but at adulthood, it is only 12% to 13% of your height. Which principle does this illustrate? a. proximodistal b. biogenetic c. cephalocaudal d. orthogenetic ANSWER: c 55. The arms of infants and toddlers often appear stubby in relationship to the size of their trunks. Which principle does this illustrate? a. cephalocaudal b. proximodistal c. orthogenetic d. biogenetic ANSWER: b 56. Which reflex adapts the visual system to low illumination? a. pupillary b. rooting c. blinking d. Moro ANSWER: a 57. Which behavior is most difficult for a child to perform? a. Walking in a straight line Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health b. Hopping on one foot c. Hitting a ball with a bat d. Tapping a pen ANSWER: c 58. Differences between throwing and kicking abilities of male and female children are best explained as being the result of differences in a. size. b. hormones. c. practice. d. genetics.

ANSWER: c 59. Children whose parents are less educated are more likely to a. get needed immunizations. b. experience poor health. c. exercise outside. d. have healthy weights.

ANSWER: b 60. If you wanted to prevent the most common cause of death of a child, you should always a. avoid fast-food restaurants. b. fasten the child’s car seat/seat belt. c. hide common household cleaners that could be consumed. d. have your child inoculated.

ANSWER: b 61. Rajon is a typical American fourth grader. How much of his waking hours are spent sedentary? a. 43% b. 53% c. 63% d. 73% ANSWER: c 62. As a typical adolescent growing up in the United States, Miguel would most likely achieve his peak RATE of growth for height around _____ years of age. a. 10.5 b. 12 c. 13.5 d. 15 ANSWER: c 63. Which of the following typical adolescent females growing up in the United States would have most recently achieved her adult height?

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health a. 14-year-old Meg b. 16-year-old Inez c. 18-year-old Sasha d. 20-year-old Halima ANSWER: b 64. Nick has just experienced semenarche. Tamika has just experienced menarche. Which statement is most likely true? a. Nick and Tamika are now fully capable of producing a child. b. Nick is currently capable of producing a child, but Tamika is not. c. Tamika is currently capable of producing a child, but Nick is not. d. Neither Nick nor Tamika is fully capable of producing a child.

ANSWER: d 65. The mark of sexual maturation for a boy that is most comparable to menarche for a girl is a. a deepening of the voice. b. the first ejaculation of seminal fluid. c. the appearance of pubic hair. d. the release of androgens from the testes.

ANSWER: b 66. Over the past 100 years or so, people in industrialized societies have been maturing earlier, as well as growing heavier and taller than in the past. This phenomenon is referred to as the a. dynamic systems approach. b. rhythmic stereotype. c. cephalocaudal principle. d. secular trend.

ANSWER: d 67. How is family stress, like conflict with a stepfather, most likely to impact the timing of puberty-related issues for a girl? a. It will result in excessive menstruation. b. It will lead to earlier sexual maturity. c. It will delay puberty. d. It will have no effect on any puberty-related behaviors.

ANSWER: b 68. Overall, what can we conclude about boys’ and girls’ body images during adolescence? a. Girls’ body images are influenced by other people’s reactions to them but not to actual physical changes, while boys show the opposite pattern. b. Both boys and girls experience puberty as an equally positive event. c. Girls show benefits from going through puberty but not from the changes associated with their growth spurt, while boys show the opposite pattern. d. Boys hold more positive personal body images than girls.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health 69. Which groups of adolescents would likely have the greatest difficulties adjusting to the changes of puberty? a. Late-maturing boys and early-maturing girls b. Late-maturing boys and late-maturing girls c. Early-maturing boys and late-maturing girls d. Early-maturing boys and early-maturing girls ANSWER: a 70. The greatest long-term negative impact of being an early-maturing female involves an increased risk of a. poorer academic performance. b. engaging in risky behaviors c. athletic injury. d. being unpopular with peers.

ANSWER: b 71. During adolescence, the physical activity levels of males continue to increase, while those of females tend to level off, or even decline. This is most likely due to the a. degeneration of muscle tissue in females. b. traditional gender-role socialization. c. hormonal changes across the period of adolescence. d. secular trend.

ANSWER: b 72. Most physical systems peak sometime between a. infancy and childhood. b. childhood and early adulthood. c. early adulthood and middle adulthood. d. middle adulthood and older adulthood.

ANSWER: b 73. Reserve capacity tends to be most important in _____ situations. a. resting b. cognitively demanding c. social d. emergency ANSWER: d 74. Despite being in top condition, 65-year-old Lane notices that his maximum heart rate during an aerobic exercise has declined significantly from when he was in his 20s. This change is best explained in terms of diminished a. reserve capacity. b. dopamine level. c. neural plasticity. d. estrogen level.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health 75. Which best describes recent research on PMS? a. Most PMS is caused by a defect on the 21st chromosome. b. Males experience PMS about half as often as females. c. Severe PMS appears to be primarily an emotional response.. d. Expectations, not hormones, play a bigger role in many cases of PMS. ANSWER: d 76. Martha has been having difficulty dealing with the effects of menopause, so Dr. Dhillon prescribed ________ as HRT. a. progesterone and testosterone b. testosterone and androgen c. androgen and estrogen d. estrogen and progesterone ANSWER: d 77. Although HRT using estrogen and progesterone appears to help relieve the physical symptoms of menopause, it a. is not well accepted because it increases emotional symptoms of menopause. b. is prohibitively expensive for most women. c. increases risk of breast cancer, heart attacks, and strokes d. causes restored fertility and thus risk of pregnancy if birth control is not used.

ANSWER: c 78. Now that Kurt is in his 40s, he isn't able to lift the same heavy weights at the gym that he could in college. How much has Kurt's strength declined since his college workouts? a. 30% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% ANSWER: d 79. Osteoporosis occurs when a. the cushioning between joints wears out and the joints become stiff. b. maximal heart rates decrease so that any sort of workout requires more effort. c. lost minerals result in less bone mass. d. vitamin deficiencies lower the efficiency of the major organs.

ANSWER: c 80. One of the more interesting findings from the “Nun Study” was that _____ levels affected both longevity and health. a. sex b. religiosity c. education d. wine consumption ANSWER: c 81. Most people would agree that the most positive aspect of the life-span developmental model is that Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health a. social factors do not influence our health. b. we have some control over our own health. c. genetics set the path for our development. d. developmental health is measured in gains.

ANSWER: b 82. During Jorge’s recent period of depression over the loss of his job, he seemed to have less capacity to fight off infections and catches a cold every week. This is an example of the ________ aspect of health. a. gain and loss b. sociohistorical c. multidimensional d. lifelong ANSWER: c 83. States that have banned smoking in the workplace and in restaurants and bars have seen a decrease in the incidence of heart disease and other illnesses caused by second-hand smoke. This is an example of the ________ aspect of health. a. sociohistorical b. gain and loss c. lifelong d. multidimensional ANSWER: a 84. Which statement accurately reflects the multidimensional nature of health under the life-span developmental model? a. A person’s health capacity can improve or decrease based on their lifestyle choices in many areas. b. A person’s health reflects conditions in their personal environment, the broader culture, and the times. c. A person’s physical health can affect their social activities, which then impacts their mental health. d. A person’s health state is determined by a complex interaction of genetic and environmental factors.

ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following terms best reflects the perspective of the life-span developmental model on human health? a. static b. universal c. temporal d. integrated ANSWER: d 86. Chou was born to an unemployed teenage mother and raised in a housing project in a decaying urban neighborhood.

When Chou enters school he will have difficulty due to a decreased amount of ________. a. pruning b. REM sleep c. androgens d. gray matter ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health 87. The earliest evidence of lateralization in the brain is ________. a. the ability to coordinate eye-hand movements b. the preference for using a particular hand c. the elimination of the Babinski reflex d. the decline in risk-taking behaviors ANSWER: b 88. Morgan just got home from school and is famished! What will he likely have for a snack while doing his homework? a. carrot sticks b. applesauce c. potato chips d. granola ANSWER: c 89. Rhonda is in fifth grade and eats on average 2,000 calories a day. About how many of these calories come from snacks that she eats? a. 200 b. 500 c. 400 d. 1,000 ANSWER: b 90. Who is likely to have the highest BMI? a. Maya, who lives with middle-class parents who are getting a divorce b. Lionel, who lives in low-income housing with attentive parents c. Jose, who lives in a comfortable suburb with college-educated parents d. Leslie, who lives in trailer with an inactive dad and unemployed mother ANSWER: d 91. What would be the most effective strategy for a school system that wants to improve students’ health and academic performance? a. provide free breakfast to all students b. offer regular periods of physical activity c. reduce the calories in school lunches d. conduct classes in health and nutrition ANSWER: b 92. Sanjay has just started middle school. What will happen to his axons as he progresses toward high school graduation? a. They will increase production of myelin until reaching the Hayflick limit. b. They will gradually release more androgens to promote sexual maturity. c. They will steadily increase in number as they become covered with insulation. d. They will sharply expand in number before being pruned back to adult density.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health 93. From a neurological perspective, the main reason that adolescents engage in potentially harmful behavior is ________. a. lack of lateralization b. heightened emotional states c. exposure to teratogens d. delayed decision capacity ANSWER: d 94. Now that he’s preparing to graduate from college, Jason looks back at some of the knucklehead things he did in high school and is shocked that he made it out of those days in one piece. The end of his daredevil antics can be attributed to maturation of the ________. a. corpus callosum b. caudate nucleus c. prefrontal cortex d. basal ganglia ANSWER: c 95. Even though her parents insist that a high school sophomore should be in bed by 9:30 on weeknights, Nadine finds it hard to get to sleep until at least 11:00. This is likely due to an increase in her levels of ________. a. telomeres b. estrogen c. free radicals d. melatonin ANSWER: d 96. At age 70, Althea still goes to an aerobics class two times a week. She believes it keeps her memory sharp due to the influence on her ________. a. corpus callosum b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. parietal lobe ANSWER: c 97. Which of the following does NOT occur in the brains of older adults? a. increase in insulation b. decrease in volume c. loss of brain cells d. reduction in blood flow ANSWER: a 98. Which of the following plays a key role in scaffolding in older adults? a. pituitary gland b. androgens c. prefrontal cortex d. telomeres Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health ANSWER: c 99. Gayle has been struggling with some symptoms of PMS. What will her doctor likely recommend to help alleviate her symptoms? a. folic acid b. acetaminophen c. estrogen d. vitamin D ANSWER: d 100. Caldecott Girls Academy is holding its 35th high school reunion. Of the 100 women attending the event, about how many have experienced major depression about reaching menopause? a. 3 b. 11 c. 27 d. 34 ANSWER: b 101. The products for low-T that are advertised on TV are primarily intended to ________. a. decrease the rate of erectile dysfunction in men b. solve a problem that afflicts many older men c. earn profits for the companies that sell them d. provide an alternative to HRT for women ANSWER: c 102. Howard recently celebrated his 60th wedding anniversary with his wife Gloria. Compared to when they first met in college, what is Howard’s testosterone level? a. 30 percent lower b. 55 percent lower c. 15 percent lower d. 20 percent lower ANSWER: b 103. Which of the following accurately reflects men’s and women’s experiences of sexual maturity as they age? a. Men have more emotional distress, while women are more resilient. b. Women have varied emotional responses, but overall men’s are lower. c. Women’s changes are more subtle, while men’s are more pronounced. d. Men’s changes decrease libido, while women’s changes increase libido.

ANSWER: b 104. Which of the following would likely be the most effective approach for a 72-year-old man to protect and enhance his cognitive performance? a. read news about current events b. get a good amount of REM sleep c. join a weekly mall walkers group Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health d. eat more berries and vegetables ANSWER: c 105. Although doctors have told her to quit smoking and to improve her diet, 62-year-old Dolores doesn’t pay attention.

She says, “When it’s your time to go, it’s your time. So I’m just gonna live my life.” Dolores likely believes in the ________ theory of aging. a. caloric b. error c. programmed d. secular ANSWER: c 106. When Rosa talks about her biological clock ticking down, she’s referring to her need to have a baby before menopause occurs. When her grandmother Teresita talks about her biological clock winding down, she’s referring to ________. a. androgens diminishing b. free radicals oxidizing c. neurogenesis slowing d. telomeres shortening ANSWER: d 107. A human cell that has reached its Hayflick limit has divided how many times? a. 30 b. 55 c. 80 d. 105 ANSWER: b 108. By eating less, Hamid believes he can live longer because his body will metabolize less food and decrease production of ________. a. telomerase b. antioxidants c. free radicals d. enzymes ANSWER: c 109. Henry is hosting a life-extending dinner party for his friends. Which of the following should Henry NOT serve at the meal? a. steak b. red wine c. spinach d. blueberries ANSWER: a Subjective Short Answer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Body, Brain, and Health 110. Describe the developing human brain from infancy through older age. Be sure to discuss issues such as neurogenesis, neuron migration, organization plasticity, and lateralization.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 111. Discuss the three principles of growth, providing examples of each.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Explain how human health is multidimensional and marked by both gains and losses. Provide examples to illustrate the principles and your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Describe one of the major theories of aging. Do you find this particular theory to be credible? Explain your reasoning, drawing upon your knowledge of human development to date.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. How does the phrase "use it or lose it" apply to the brain's development? Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. What sociohistorical trends have contributed to the significant rise in childhood obesity over the past 20 years?

Justify your thinking with examples.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Explain why teenagers do dangerous things such as texting while driving or attempting daredevil stunts. Do you think societal measures should be taken that limit adolescents' potential to engage in such behaviors? If so, what measures would you suggest? If not, provide a rationale for your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. How do differences in the timing of sexual maturation affect boys and girls? What role does media imagery and messaging play in adolescent's feelings about their sexual maturation? Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Describe the gains and losses that occur in the brain as adults age. Provide examples for how these changes can affect older adults.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Describe how free radicals are created and the effect they can have on the body. Describe a method to combat free radicals and how it works.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action True / False 1. Constructivists believe that we need experience in order to learn how to interpret our sensory experiences. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. As a newborn, Priya can easily recognize the voices of both her mother and father. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Five-year-old Mason’s attention span is more systematic than that of his baby sister Tracey. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Writing letters of the alphabet is a gross motor skill. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Age-related macular degeneration results in the destruction of the cells responsible for peripheral vision. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Grace can maintain her attention for longer periods in high school than she could in elementary school due to increased myelination. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. According to dynamic systems theory, children use innate knowledge of rhythmic sounds to refine their sense of hearing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. If a one-month-old girl was able to speak, she could read the first three rows of the standard eye chart in an optometrist’s office. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Babies put everything in their mouth to figure out their world – an example of the proximodistal development of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action somaesthetic senses. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. As she’s gotten older, Margaret notices that she needs to fill her salt and pepper shakers much more frequently. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Sensation refers to a. interpretation of incoming sensory messages. b. stimulation of nerve cells in the sense organs. c. perceiving the surrounding environment. d. innate processes of understanding the world.

ANSWER: b 12. A wave of light proceeds through to the back of the eye where it encounters and stimulates a receptor neuron. What process has taken place? a. Perception b. Thinking c. Cognition d. Sensation ANSWER: d 13. Which of the following is the best example of a perceptual process? a. Hearing a sound in the room b. Detecting that a light has been turned on in a dark room c. Sensing that someone has touched your arm d. Realizing that the odor you smell is vanilla ANSWER: d 14. A wave of sound proceeds through the auditory canal to the inner ear where receptor neurons on the basilar membrane are stimulated. The neurons send a message to the brain. When the brain receives the message, the result is a person thinking, “That sounds like my mom calling me for dinner.” What has taken place? a. Sensation and perception b. Sensation but not perception c. Perception but not sensation d. Neither sensation nor perception ANSWER: a 15. Gibson's theory proposes that the features of an object reveal its a. affordances.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action b. assimilations. c. accommodations. d. affectations.

ANSWER: a 16. What type of theorist is most likely to argue that all of the information needed to interpret the current perceptual situation is available in the current perceptual situation? a. constructivist b. ecological c. biological d. neurological ANSWER: b 17. Habituation is best defined as the process of “learning to be _____” with a stimulus. a. smart b. you c. bored d. free ANSWER: c 18. Anita jingles her keys in front of baby Leslie’s face, and she watches and smiles. Anita continues the game because Leslie appears to enjoy it. After a while, though, Leslie seems to lose interest and no longer focuses on the keys when Anita jingles them. This illustrates the process of a. cross-modal perception. b. constancy. c. preferential looking. d. habituation.

ANSWER: d 19. Dr. Violet is interested in how young children perceive color. In her study, Dr. Violet simultaneously shows young children two blobs of different color and measures the amount of time they focus on each blob. Dr. Violet’s technique is known as a(n) _____ task. a. habituation b. preferential looking c. evoked potentials d. operant conditioning ANSWER: b 20. Within a minute after birth, a typical infant a. sees colors and can track slow-moving objects. b. sees colors but cannot track any moving objects. c. can visually track slow-moving objects but sees only in black/white. d. cannot track any moving objects and sees only in black/white.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 21. Visual accommodation involves the ability of the _____ of the eye to change shape and bring objects into focus. a. retina b. lens c. iris d. fovea ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following is true regarding newborn infants' vision? a. Infants do not have color vision until around six months of age. b. Much of what young infants see is blurry. c. Pattern complexity has no impact on infants' visual preferences. d. Initial visual accommodation skills allow infants to focus clearly on far objects but not near objects.

ANSWER: b 23. Marisol has been developing normally since the moment of conception. When will she have mature color vision? a. near the end of the fetal stage b. within a day after birth c. about three to four months after birth d. around her first birthday ANSWER: c 24. Visual contour is specifically defined as the amount of _____ of a visual object. a. curvature b. light/dark transition c. size d. movement ANSWER: b 25. Which object would have the greatest amount of visual contour? a. A series of black circles on a white background b. A gray ship on the ocean c. A pillow with pastel blobs of blue and yellow d. A clear baby-bottle filled with breast milk ANSWER: a 26. Which of the following is LEAST likely to draw the visual attention of a young infant? a. A moving object b. A high contour object c. A highly complex object d. A face ANSWER: c 27. Martin Banks and colleagues suggest that _____ is the most important overall factor in determining what an infant will stare at the longest.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action a. the degree of contours that the object has b. whether the object is moving or not c. how complex the object is in terms of colors and patterns d. whether or not the infant can see it well ANSWER: d 28. When looking at faces, infants between age one and two months shift from a. looking at the top of the face to looking at the bottom of the face. b. looking at the bottom of the face to looking at the top of the face. c. looking at the outer contour of the face to looking at the interiors of the face. d. looking at the interiors of the face to looking at the outer contour of the face.

ANSWER: c 29. Which child has acquired perceptual size constancy? a. Raven, who looks out a window on a plane and realizes that people in the terminal look like ants but that they are actually much bigger. b. Yasmin, who knows that she will get bigger when she is older c. Robbie, who can perceive the difference in size between a one-story building and a 10-story building d. Carlos, who uses Lego building blocks to create a tower that is taller than he is ANSWER: a 30. Three-month-old Jordan reacts as if he believes that the basketball he is playing with actually shrinks as it rolls away from him. This reaction would indicate that Jordan lacks a. object permanence. b. cross-modal perception. c. attention. d. size constancy.

ANSWER: d 31. Four month-old infants can best organize the world into distinct objects when the objects they are trying to make sense of are a. stationary. b. moving. c. identical. d. multicolored.

ANSWER: b 32. Six-month-old Kara watches as two dolls are placed behind a screen. When the screen is removed, Kara sees either two dolls (possible) or one doll (impossible). Which of the following reactions is the infant likely to show? a. Kara will not notice any difference between the possible and impossible outcomes, as evidenced by no difference in looking times at the two outcomes. b. Kara will look longer at the impossible outcome than the possible outcome. c. Kara will look longer at the possible outcome because it is familiar to her. d. Kara will not look at either outcome because they will have habituated to the original stimulus.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action ANSWER: b 33. According to the intuitive theorist perspective, infants a. have innate knowledge of the world and can reason about the world like adults do. b. must construct their knowledge of the world from a blank slate. c. learn what they need to know about the world by observing people around them. d. may have some innate knowledge of the world, but do not yet have the capabilities to reason about the world.

ANSWER: a 34. Which of the following is the best example of the infant as an intuitive theorist? a. Infants look away when an object disappears from view. b. Infants get bored and look away when an object is repeatedly presented. c. Infants show surprise when a ball that is dropped behind a screen is later shown to be suspended in the air. d. Infants show surprise when a ball rolling down a hill is shown reaching the bottom of the hill.

ANSWER: c 35. Typically, newborns can a. see and hear equally well. b. see better than they hear. c. hear better than they see. d. neither see nor hear well.

ANSWER: c 36. How should you react to a policy that supports the initial testing of hearing at age three and a half years? a. Great idea, because this is the beginning of a sensitive period for development of potential auditory problems. b. Great idea, but since few hearing problems occur before this age, you are unlikely to identify any children with hearing problems. c. Bad idea, because by the time those with significant hearing loss reach this age, they are at significant risk for life-long speech and language difficulties. d. Bad idea, as accurate assessment of hearing is not possible until age five.

ANSWER: c 37. The fact that two-month-olds can detect the difference between the sound “pa” and the sound “ba” indicates that they a. can differentiate phonemes. b. have cross-modal perception. c. have semantic awareness. d. possess visual accommodation.

ANSWER: a 38. Three-month-old infants can discriminate between phonemes. This means that they can discriminate between a. basic speech sounds. b. a doorbell and the bell on a telephone. c. various familiar odors. d. familiar and novel tastes.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action ANSWER: a 39. What can we conclude regarding developmental changes in speech perception? a. With age, we become more sensitive to sound discriminations that are relevant in our own language and less sensitive to sound discriminations that are irrelevant. b. With age, we become more sensitive to all sound discriminations. c. There are no detectable differences in sound discriminations with age. d. With age, we become more sensitive to differences in consonant sounds and less sensitive to differences in vowel sounds.

ANSWER: a 40. Within days of their baby's birth, Ben and Jen are having an argument about their son. Jen claims that he recognizes her voice, but Ben says that this is impossible. Knowing the research in this area, you are able to tell them that a. Ben is correct (voice recognition does not occur until around six months of age). b. both could be correct, as babies can recognize only the first voice that they heard immediately following delivery (if this was Jen's voice, then she is correct; if it was not Jen's voice, then Ben is correct). c. Jen is correct (maternal voice recognition is evident a few days after birth). d. we can not know who is correct because infants this young cannot be accurately tested.

ANSWER: c 41. Laura and Stan are discussing the abilities of their two-month-old son Jack. Laura claims that Jack can recognize both of his parent’s voices. Stan says that Jack cannot recognize either voice. If Jack is a typical two-month-old, then who is correct? a. Laura b. Stan c. Neither, as Jack can likely recognize Laura’s voice but not Stan’s voice d. Neither, as Jack can likely recognize Stan’s voice but not Laura’s voice ANSWER: c 42. What is the best explanation for young infants’ ability to recognize their mother’s voices shortly after birth? a. An instinctive mother-baby bond b. Postnatal linguistic experiences c. Innate phonetic receptors d. Prenatal exposure to mom’s voice ANSWER: d 43. Newborns will produce certain facial expressions depending on the taste of the liquid that they are offered. They smile when offered sugar water and frown when offered quinine. This demonstrates that newborns a. prefer salty tastes to sour ones. b. inherit their mother's taste preferences. c. can discriminate between various tastes. d. learn to avoid substances that might contain poison.

ANSWER: c 44. Aaliyah was born five weeks premature. What would help her to gain weight faster?

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action a. being fed formula with sugar b. being kept in a warm environment c. being stroked over her entire body d. being lulled with soothing music ANSWER: c 45. Breast feeding an infant who is receiving a vaccination a. leads the infant to produce more antibodies. b. is ill advised as it promotes connecting pleasure with pain. c. reduces the behavior signs that they are in pain. d. has been banned by the American Academy of Pediatrics.

ANSWER: c 46. Newborns look in the direction of a sound that they hear. They also try to grasp objects that they can see. This suggests that newborns a. use the senses of sight, hearing, and touch, more than taste and smell. b. use vision to coordinate all the senses. c. cannot distinguish between their senses. d. can integrate two or more senses.

ANSWER: d 47. Cross-modal perception is the ability to a. perceive three-dimensionality from a two-dimensional display. b. perceive an object through two senses at the same time. c. stop responding to a stimulus that is repeatedly presented. d. recognize with one sense an object that was learned through another sense.

ANSWER: d 48. One-month-old infants were given either a smooth pacifier or one with hard nubs on which to suck. Although they had not seen the pacifier while sucking on it, when given the opportunity to look, the infants stared longer at the type of pacifier that they had sucked on. This shows that they have a. cross-modal perception. b. evoked potential. c. inter-sensory sensation. d. dynamic systems.

ANSWER: a 49. Which of the following is NOT an example of cross-modal perception? a. Recognizing a person’s face in a photograph that you have only seen in person one time b. Picking out by sight a toy that you had previously only touched c. Identifying which of your two pet cats has jumped onto the bed in the dark by running your hands over it d. Correctly identifying a Tootsie Roll pop because of the way it feels in your mouth, after a friend tells you to closer your eyes and open your mouth for a treat ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 50. All of the major sensory systems begin to function a. before birth. b. shortly after birth. c. about one month after birth. d. by a child’s first birthday.

ANSWER: a 51. Research has shown that children who undergo surgery for congenital cataracts, but who missed out on early visual experience, a. see the details of faces but with dark spots in the center of the image. b. are able to see details of faces, but have difficulty identifying different orientation of the same face. c. are able to see details of faces, but have difficulty telling two different people apart. d. have face discrimination abilities identical to children born without cataracts.

ANSWER: b 52. Which of the following best describes the “sleeper effect of early visual deficits?” a. If an infant does not experience normal visual experience, even after corrective surgery, it may never develop a normal perception of vision b. Naps are critical to the development of the depth receptors found on the retina c. The brain is so plastic, that even with complete absence of visual stimulation for up to a year, human infants will not show any detrimental effects d. Children tend to inherit visual problems that show up suddenly around age six ANSWER: a 53. Whose exploratory behavior would most likely involve mouthing an object to learn more about it? a. 2-month-old Drishti b. 6-month-old Miguel c. 12-month-old Phoebe d. 18-month-old Cedric ANSWER: a 54. Whose exploratory behavior would most likely just begin to involve exploring an item with both their eyes and hands? a. 2-month-old Tom b. 6-month-old Heather c. 12-month-old Montell d. 18-month-old Tameeka ANSWER: b 55. As a typical four-month-old, Dakota’s attention process is best described as a. being focused on the most relevant items. b. adult-like. c. being caught by objects in the environment. d. non-existent.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 56. The fact that infants’ attention seems to involve reacting to environmental stimulation rather than being deliberately focused, illustrates the concept of a(n) _____ system. a. dynamic b. orienting c. fail-safe d. intentional ANSWER: b 57. Which of the following is NOT a typical change in attention during childhood? a. Attention becomes more selective b. Attention span becomes longer c. Attention becomes more focused on irrelevant objects d. Attention becomes systematic ANSWER: c 58. Which indicates that Maria has well-developed selective attention skills? a. She can pay attention to two people talking at the same time. b. She can pay attention to her teacher’s voice while ignoring the voices of classmates. c. It takes a great deal of noise to get Maria to notice that someone is talking to her. d. It takes her a long time to complete a task that requires vigilance.

ANSWER: b 59. The most effective way to increase the performance of a young child on a task requiring attention skills would be to a. increase the complexity of the task. b. increase the number of senses involved. c. decrease distractions. d. decrease time spent on the task.

ANSWER: c 60. Who is demonstrating a fine motor skill? a. Tina, who is kicking b. Akbar, who is jumping c. Nancy, who is grasping a pencil d. Max, who is throwing a ball ANSWER: c 61. Attention skills of adolescents are advanced relative to those of children. This advantage appears to be due, in part, to _____ commonly found in adolescents. a. improvements in visual acuity b. increased distractibility c. myelination of brain cells d. androgens released by the ovaries/testes ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 62. Ozzie is planning on attending a very loud rock concert. As such, he should be prepared to experience _____ unless he takes precautions to protect his hearing. a. presbyopia b. macular degeneration c. presbycusis d. tinnitus ANSWER: d 63. Mr. Perkins is developing a program to help high school students protect their hearing. What is an important aspect that the program should do to be effective? a. avoid noting the potential long-term consequences of noise exposure. b. clarify that hearing loss is not a health problem but a social issue. c. reduce the stigma associated with wearing hearing protection. d. note that one-time exposure to loud noise cannot cause damage.

ANSWER: c 64. Adolescents are more likely to enjoy strong or strange tasting food because a. they have had more opportunities to learn to like them. b. they have a less sensitive sense of taste than do children. c. they are rebelling against family customs. d. they are influenced by their peers to do so.

ANSWER: a 65. What type of food would be most likely to produce “chemosensory irritation?” a. A cold scoop of ice cream b. A hamburger hot off the grill c. A pickled pig’s foot d. A spicy hot jalapeño pepper ANSWER: d 66. Sensory threshold is defined as the a. minimum amount of stimulation that can be detected. b. maximum amount of sensory stimulation that can be tolerated before pain is experienced. c. maximum number of senses that can be stimulated before the person is confused. d. minimum amount of energy produced by a neuron.

ANSWER: a 67. As a researcher focused on the issue of sensations, how would you most likely explain why older people tend to raise the volume on their television sets and use more seasoning on their food? a. Their sensory thresholds have increased with age. b. They cannot concentrate on simple things. c. Visual accommodation abilities have declined. d. They forget seasoning their food or raising the TV volume.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 68. A study finds that 100 percent of 20-year-olds, 70 percent of 40-year-olds, and only 40 percent of 60-year-olds are able to detect the scent of a single rotten egg in a 10- by 10-foot room. A developmental psychologist would most likely explain this change in terms of a(n) a. Decrease in olfactory sensory threshold b. Increase in olfactory sensory threshold c. Decrease in cross-modality perception d. Increase in cross-modality perception ANSWER: b 69. Seventy-year-old Vinita has been having difficulty seeing while driving at night. When she is seen by an optometrist, she is told that the problem is the fact that both of her lenses have clouded. The correct specific diagnosis would by that Vinetta has a. presbycusis. b. myopia. c. presbyopia. d. cataracts.

ANSWER: d 70. Swen’s doctor just informed him that in order to correct his visual problem, Swen must have his clouded lens replaced. This means that Swen’s visual problem involves a. retinitis pigmentosa. b. cataracts. c. glaucoma. d. macular degeneration.

ANSWER: b 71. A slow-reacting pupil is most likely to be responsible for a. glaucoma. b. difficulty with dark adaptation. c. cataracts. d. difficulty with far vision.

ANSWER: b 72. When grandpa has difficulty reading a newspaper 20 inches from his face, but can clearly see the television that is 20 feet away, he most likely has a. presbyopia. b. age-related macular degeneration. c. glaucoma. d. retinitis pigmentosa.

ANSWER: a 73. Webster has just been informed that he is suffering from a visual problem that is destroying retinal cells responsible for central vision and that he will soon find reading nearly impossible. This diagnosis indicates that Webster has a. age-related macular degeneration. b. glaucoma.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action c. retinitis pigmentosa. d. cataracts.

ANSWER: a 74. While they both significantly affect vision, retinitis pigmentosa and age-related macular degeneration differ in that retinitis pigmentosa _____ and age-related macular degeneration _____. a. is due to genetics; is due to illness b. impacts peripheral vision; impacts central vision c. is more likely to be found in males; is more likely to be found in females d. impacts close vision; impacts far vision ANSWER: b 75. Woody has just been diagnosed with presbycusis. What is he most likely experiencing? a. He is hearing voices of people who are not there. b. He is hearing a continuous ringing sound in his ear. c. He is having difficulty hearing low-frequency sounds. d. He is having difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

ANSWER: d 76. Which best describes the hearing of most older adults? a. Minor hearing loss especially for high-frequency sounds b. Significant hearing loss especially for high-frequency sounds c. Minor hearing loss especially for low-frequency sounds d. Significant hearing loss especially for low-frequency sounds ANSWER: a 77. Which statement concerning speech perception in adulthood is true? a. Loud background noise is more distracting to young adults than to older adults. b. Older adults are more likely to recall fewer details from a conversation that took place in a noisy restaurant. c. Older adults tend to be better at attending to multiple conversations than young adults. d. In familiar setting, older adults tend to not use contextual cues to help them interpret what they are hearing.

ANSWER: b 78. Research findings from Murphy (1985) suggests that the ability of older individuals to identify food is most negatively impacted by a. losses in the ability to taste and smell. b. losses in the ability to taste and cognitive declines impacting memory. c. losses in the ability to smell and cognitive declines impacting memory. d. losses in the ability to see and cognitive declines impacting memory.

ANSWER: c 79. Old people are most likely to keep their homes too hot or too cold because a. they tend to be less sensitive to changes in temperature. b. changes in temperature tend to induce a loss of balance.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action c. their constant pain will make them seek environments of different temperatures. d. as myelin in their brains decreases their bodies crave heat.

ANSWER: a 80. In terms of their ability to sense pain, old people typically experience a. less sensitivity to mild pain. b. more sensitivity to mild pain. c. decreased sensitivity for all types and levels of pain. d. increased sensitivity for all types and levels of pain.

ANSWER: a 81. From a nativist perspective, what process is skipped for a person to arrive at a particular perception? a. verification b. interpretation c. localization d. sensation ANSWER: b 82. Sitting out in the garden, a small, fluttering object approaches three-year-old Annie. When she notices it, a proponent of the ecological perspective would say that Annie’s next step would be to ________. a. build meaning b. learn more c. translate it d. take action ANSWER: d 83. Which of the following responses reflects an affordance resulting from the image of a small rock next to a pond? a. “This is a round, dark object.” b. “I can throw this in the water.” c. “Have I seen these things before?” d. “What color and shape is this?”

ANSWER: b 84. Which of the following reflects the relationship of affordances to humans’ experience of them? a. compound b. individual c. cultural d. universal ANSWER: b 85. Which perspective on perception could use a box of mementos as a brand logo? a. cultural b. ecological c. constructivist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action d. nativist ANSWER: c 86. Who will likely be dealing with a picky eater when her child reaches kindergarten? a. Dora, who ate a vegetarian diet with dairy while pregnant b. Serita, who ate her mom’s rich, spicy curries while pregnant c. Olivia, who had many cravings for junk food while pregnant d. Barbara, who ate a bland diet while pregnant due to indigestion ANSWER: d 87. Who is most likely to have oculatory development problems? a. Aidan, who lived in the dark during the sixth month of life b. Rasha, who lived in the dark during the second month of life c. Terry, who lived in the dark during the ninth month of life d. Chantal, who lived in the dark during the fourteenth month of life ANSWER: b 88. Which of the following best describes the process of motor skills development in children? a. continuous b. staged c. intermittent d. innate ANSWER: c 89. The ecological perspective views the process of developing motor skills as a child’s ________ the environment. a. interaction with b. habituation to c. interpretation of d. mastery of ANSWER: a 90. Which of the following best reflects a child’s refinement of motor skills?. a. the transition from walking across a room to running across a room b. the transition from banging an orange with a fist to peeling an orange c. the transition from nodding the head at someone to waving a hand d. the transition from writing letters on a paper to making large scribbles ANSWER: b 91. A child who walks for a few days, falls a few times, and then goes back to crawling ________. a. is experiencing a normal period of regression b. has reached the limit of their sensory threshold c. is demonstrating the proximodistal principle d. has an underdeveloped orienting system ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 92. A child can nod its head before it can snap its fingers due to the influence of ________. a. genetics b. cortisol c. androgens d. myelin ANSWER: d 93. Which term best describes rhythmic stereotypies? a. regression b. preparation c. practice d. accommodation ANSWER: b 94. According to dynamic systems theory, a young girl makes the shift from crawling to walking because ________. a. she has reached a critical period b. it satisfies her current needs c. her genetic program supports it d. her perceptive skills have matured ANSWER: b 95. An adult who has a leg amputated must relearn how to walk with a different distribution of body weight and an attached prosthetic. This process mirrors which of the following? a. locomotor accommodation theory b. bioecological perception theory c. dynamic systems theory d. evoked potential theory ANSWER: c 96. Which of the following best reflects the perspective of a dynamic systems theorist? a. Nature precedes nurture in motor development. b. Nature and nurture coordinate motor development. c. Nurture supersedes nature in motor development. d. Nature limits nurture in motor development.

ANSWER: b 97. Wanda, a developmental psychologist working in dynamic systems theory, surprised her husband when she explained that their child’s new-found ability to walk across a room is a(n) ________ process. a. innate b. emotional c. cognitive d. programmed ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action 98. Todd didn’t want to go with his mother to visit their neighbor Estella; he’d prefer to stay home and play with his kitchen set. But when they walked into Estella’s house, Todd immediately saw a box of toy race cars and track. He ran to them and was happy while Estella and his mom talked for an hour. What does Todd’s behavior demonstrate? a. orienting system b. dynamic system c. focusing system d. perceptive system ANSWER: c 99. Due to problems at birth, two-year-old Tenisha has developmental delays. Unlike her twin brother Joshua, who enters any situation ready to see what he can discover, Tenisha tends to sit quietly, only responding to familiar voices or loud sounds. What does Tenisha’s behavior demonstrate? a. orienting system b. evoking system c. focusing system d. attending system ANSWER: a 100. Compared to younger children, teenagers are ________ in their attention. a. less distracted b. more random c. less focused d. more fragmented ANSWER: a 101. Each of the following people has been given an age-appropriate task to work on. Who will be engaged in the task the longest before becoming bored and moving on to something else? a. Rogerio, who is five years old b. Ahmed, who is nine years old c. Lula, who is twelve years old d. Rachel, who is sixteen years old ANSWER: d 102. Sasha went to her school’s computer lab to work on a coding project due for a class. She was at the lab for two hours.

How much time did Sasha spend working only on the coding project? a. about 10 minutes b. about 30 minutes c. about 50 minutes d. about 75 minutes ANSWER: a 103. Dontell has a three-hour economics class every Wednesday night. When not diligently taking notes and participating in discussion (as he should) what occupies most of Dontell’s time while in class? a. reading books for other courses b. listening to songs on his iPod Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action c. sharing updates on Facebook d. sending texts to his friends ANSWER: d 104. Which of the following best describes the dynamic between multitasking and academic performance? a. There is no correlation between academic performance and multitasking. b. Multitasking and academic performance have an inverse relationship. c. Academic performance has a strong positive correlation to multitasking. d. Multitasking and academic performance have a synergistic relationship.

ANSWER: b 105. Chemosensory irritation could be considered a form of ________. a. evoked stimulation b. acquired taste c. dual affordance d. cross-modal perception ANSWER: d 106. A native of Cambodia would likely respond to the scent of fermented fish sauce with a smile and a feeling of hunger, whereas a native of Ireland would likely have a feeling of revulsion toward the same aroma. The difference in their responses is due to which of the following? a. biology b. genetics c. interpretation d. affordance ANSWER: c 107. Viola loves when her grandson Jake comes to visit the family farm in Kansas, but she hates to say goodbye.

Whenever Jake leaves, Viola stands on the porch and watches the red tail lights of his car go straight down the road across the wide open prairie, until she can’t see them anymore. What does this demonstrate? a. visual accommodation b. object constancy c. sensory threshold d. focusing system ANSWER: c 108. Hiroshi is 82 years old and lives alone. Which of the following scents will least likely get his attention? a. garbage b. roast chicken c. natural gas d. wet dog ANSWER: b 109. Eveline is 76 years old and has problems with her eye sight and hearing. Which of the following likely is the most challenging activity for Eveline?

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action a. making dinner b. taking medicine c. grocery shopping d. rising from a chair ANSWER: c 110. As adults reach old age, at the high end of the sensory loss spectrum is_______, with ________ at the low end of the loss spectrum. a. touch; hearing b. taste; vision c. vision; touch d. hearing; vision ANSWER: c Subjective Short Answer 111. Define, compare, and contrast the basic beliefs of nativists, constructivists, and intuitive and ecological theorists concerning sensation and perception.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Describe how visual acuity, pattern perception, and depth perception change during the first year of a child’s life.

Provide examples to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Describe the quality of the senses of taste, smell, touch, temperature, and pain of the typical one-year-old.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Describe three types of changes in attention skills that take place between infancy and adolescence providing examples for each.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. How does the sense of hearing change in older adulthood? What is the impact of these changes?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Explain how the dynamic systems theory of motor skills development operates. Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Compare and contrast the effects of cataracts, glaucoma, and age-related macular degeneration. Which do you think would be most problematic for an older adult? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Explain the concept of affordances in Gibson’s ecological approach. Provide an example of an affordance for each of the five senses in a developing child.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. How would you conduct a habituation study for olfactory development in an infant? Provide specific examples of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Sensation, Perception, and Action inputs and include detail on the study process, the infants’ responses, and what the results mean.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Describe three visual, auditory, or somaesthetic situations that present no problems for young adults but would be difficult for older adults. Describe why each situation is challenging for them, and suggest possible accommodations that could limit the situations’ impacts on older adults.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 07: Cognition True / False 1. When a child modifies her existing schema about all animals in water being fish to understand that seals are not fish, she is engaging in assimilation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. A tertiary circular reaction involves repetition of interesting acts on objects in an infant’s external environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Megan has an imaginary friend that she chatters to all the time while in her playroom or outside in the yard, but her father isn’t concerned because it means she is socially advanced. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. An individual engaging in static thought is focused on the end state of the problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. When using hypothetical-deductive reasoning, you begin by generating all possible hypotheses. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Vygotsky saw private speech in toddlers as a sign of cognitive maturity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. According to Piaget, cognitive structures develop, whereas Fischer proposes that skill levels change and develop. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. One contemporary criticism of Piaget’s theory is that he believed children rely too much on adults to develop their cognitive stages. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. According to Vygotsky, a child that grows up in a rural village will develop a different thinking style than a child who Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition grows up in a crowded urban area. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The recognition that not every question in life has a clear answer is considered a hallmark of mature thinking in adults. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Which of the following is the best description of a schema? a. An organized way of thinking or acting that allows us to interpret our experiences b. A standard way of solving a problem in the fewest possible steps c. Changing our experiences in order to adapt to our environment d. Interpreting new experiences by using previously stored information ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral schema? a. Using a block to represent a car b. Asking about grandma even when she’s not present c. Grasping a block or a bottle of milk d. Calling the dog by the cat’s name ANSWER: c 13. Which of the following is an example of a symbolic schema? a. Counting the number of holes on a belt b. Pointing a finger and saying "Bang!" c. Sucking on the nipple of a bottle of milk d. Grasping an adult’s finger ANSWER: b 14. Piaget refers to the process of combining existing schemas into new and more complex ones as a. centration. b. transitivity. c. guided participation. d. organization.

ANSWER: d 15. Adam has a schema for saying, “Hi.” He has a second schema for holding out his hand. He has another schema for making eye contact. With time, Adam is able to combine the simple schemas into a complex structure of a greeting (i.e., simultaneously making eye contact, saying “Hi,” and holding out his hand to be shaken). According to Piaget, Adam is demonstrating a. organization.

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Chapter 07: Cognition b. hypothetical-deductive reasoning. c. reversibility. d. class inclusion.

ANSWER: a 16. Assimilation is best defined as the process in which a. a conditioned stimulus becomes an unconditioned stimulus. b. multiple schemas are combined into single schemata. c. we interpret new experiences in terms of existing schemas. d. the unconscious mind impacts the conscious mind.

ANSWER: c 17. Eighteen-month-old Miguel is visiting a theme park for the first time. At the park, he sees some zebras, an animal with which he is unfamiliar. Despite this, he looks at the animals and shouts, “Look at the horses!” He had previously formed a mental schema for horses. Piaget would say that Miguel’s reaction best demonstrates the concept of a. accommodation. b. reversibility. c. assimilation. d. formal thought.

ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following is the best example of assimilation? a. Naming your dog Barney after the famous purple Barney on TV, even though you know that's not your dog's name. b. Changing the name of your dog after finding out that a classmate has a dog with the same name c. Pretending that your dog is a horse d. Naming the first dog you meet, “Spot,” and then calling all other dogs that you meet “Spot” ANSWER: d 19. Jerry likes to play with his stuffed animals, dragging them around the house by their arms, ears, or tails. Jerry tries to do this with Tiger the cat one day, but he hisses and runs off, leaving Jerry perplexed and crying. Jerry’s original attempt to play with the cat best illustrates the concept of a. accommodation. b. assimilation. c. disequilibrium. d. fixation ANSWER: b 20. Accommodation is best defined as a. the process of modifying existing schema to better fit a new schema. b. knowing an object continues to exist even after it has left your sensory range. c. thinking that everyone else possesses the same experiences as you. d. using scientific logic to solve all problems.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition 21. Mabel always thought of herself as being incapable when it came to fixing things. She easily developed the habit of asking her husband to do even the simplest "fix-it" tasks, such as changing a light bulb. Then one day Mabel got a flat tire on a country road, and managed to change the tire on her own. From then on she felt much more capable, and started to fix more things around the house. This best illustrates a. accommodation. b. assimilation. c. disequilibrium. d. fixation.

ANSWER: a 22. According to Piaget, when our internal thoughts are consistent with the evidence we are receiving from the world, we are experiencing a. plasticity. b. equilibrium. c. cognitive dissonance. d. fixation.

ANSWER: b 23. Which statement best describes Piaget’s theory on intelligence? a. Intelligence develops as the result of the interactions of classical and operant conditioning. b. Intelligence develops as the result of interactions between biologically based individuals and an environment. c. Intelligence is solely the product of the interaction of genetic predispositions with biological maturation. d. Intelligence is solely the product of sociocultural experiences.

ANSWER: b 24. The key characteristic of a primary circular reaction is that they are a. repeated actions related to one’s own body that originally happened by chance. b. a one-time event related to one’s own body that originally happened by chance. c. repeated actions related to one’s own body that originally happened by choice. d. a one-time event related to one’s own body that originally happened by choice.

ANSWER: a 25. A _____ circular reaction is a repetitive action that involves something in an infant’s external environment. a. transitory b. primary c. secondary d. tertiary ANSWER: c 26. Once while she was about to take a nap, baby Carolyn accidentally sucked on her blanket. Now she repeatedly sucks on the blanket when she’s going to sleep. This new behavior is an example of a. coordination of secondary schemes. b. a primary circular reaction. c. a secondary circular reaction. d. a tertiary circular reaction.

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Chapter 07: Cognition ANSWER: c 27. Kevin is enjoying a fine lunch in his high chair. He picks up a handful of spaghetti and stuffs it in his mouth. Next, he picks up two handfuls and shoves them in his ears. The next handful goes in his hair, and the one after that is casually thrown on the floor. As his motivation appears to be simply the novelty of each of these acts, Kevin’s behavior would best be categorized as a a. secondary circular reaction. b. primary circular reaction. c. tertiary circular reaction. d. beginning of thought.

ANSWER: c 28. Which infant behavior best demonstrates object permanence? a. Reaching for a toy you were enjoying after it has been put in a toy box b. Repeatedly swiping at a mobile hanging over your crib c. Crying when someone grabs a toy out of your hand d. Trying to grab a toy that you can see, but is just out of reach ANSWER: a 29. Which of the following is an example of the A not B error? a. inability to realize that a bowl of ice cream has the same amount when the ice cream has melted b. tendency to search for an object in a place where it was last found rather than in a new hiding place c. failing to convert a formal operations schema into an dialectical hypothesis d. engaging in private dialogue on a task rather than getting help from a more skilled person ANSWER: b 30. Five-year-old Rajon is playing with his baby sister, Andrea. He takes Andrea’s teddy bear and hides it behind a pillow while she watches. Andrea quickly finds the bear. Then Rajon puts teddy in a bag, dumps teddy behind a chair, and then brings out the empty bag. Andrea looks inside the bag, is surprised when it’s not there but doesn't look for teddy behind the chair. According to Piaget, Andrea a. lacks object permanence. b. is playing to an imaginary audience. c. is committing the A not B error. d. is a formal operational thinker.

ANSWER: c 31. Piaget contended that in infancy, a. reaching was a developmental precursor of looking. b. reaching and looking represented the same activity. c. looking was a developmental precursor of reaching. d. reaching and looking were unrelated behaviors.

ANSWER: c 32. The “crowning achievement” of the sensorimotor stage is the ability to a. display secondary circular reactions.

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Chapter 07: Cognition b. deal with a purely abstract task. c. conserve. d. construct mental symbols to guide behavior.

ANSWER: d 33. Which of the following demonstrates that a child has developed symbolic capacity? a. a child who uses a cooking pan as a hat b. a child who has names for favorite stuffed animals c. a child who is comforted by thumb-sucking d. a child who waves hello and goodbye ANSWER: a 34. Imaginary companions are most likely to first develop during the _____ stage of development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. sensorimotor d. preoperational ANSWER: d 35. Four-year-old Sanjay has invented an imaginary companion, an invisible octopus named Squiggles. How would a proponent of Piaget’s theories most likely react to Sanjay’s behavior? a. He might suspect that Sanjay is cognitively and socially advanced. b. He would see it as a sign of possible mental illness. c. He would suggest that Sanjay cannot decenter from an object. d. He would state that it is impossible for a pre-school child to create imaginary companions.

ANSWER: a 36. Focusing on the most obvious features of an object or situation is referred to as a. perceptual salience. b. symbolic capacity. c. schema coordination. d. class inclusion.

ANSWER: a 37. Jenny watches her mom pull two cookies out of the pantry. Her mom places one whole cookie on a plate and then breaks up the other into three pieces and places it on another plate. Asked to choose between the two cookies of equal size, one whole, and one broken, Jenny takes the broken cookie, saying that three cookies are better than one. Piaget would say that Jenny lacks a. centration. b. object permanence. c. seriation. d. conservation.

ANSWER: d 38. Piaget’s concept of "decentration" refers to the inability to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition a. focus on more than one dimension of a problem at one time. b. mentally reverse simple operations. c. understand that the amount of something remains the same regardless of a change in shape or position. d. take another person’s point of view.

ANSWER: a 39. While watching a pizza being cut into 10 pieces, eight-year-old Rogerio suddenly realizes that the 10 pieces of pizza are actually the same amount as the original one pizza. This realization best reflects the process of a. reversibility. b. A not B error. c. seriation. d. static thought.

ANSWER: a 40. Billy always walks to kindergarten. His mom always picks him up at school after kindergarten on her way home from work. One day, mom asks Billy to walk home from kindergarten by himself. Billy insists he does not know how to walk home from kindergarten—he only knows how to walk to kindergarten. Which cognitive operation does Billy apparently lack? a. Centration b. Equilibration c. Reversibility d. Transformation ANSWER: c 41. Oscar, a college student, is checking seven-year-old Gracie to see what cognitive skills she has. He asks her to do some basic conservation tasks. Gracie has correctly responded that there is still the same amount of clay, whether it is in a round ball or rolled out into a tube shape. When Oscar asks why, Gracie demonstrates how the tube-shaped piece of clay can be rolled back into a ball. This shows that she has a good grasp of a. assimilation. b. transformational thought. c. equilibrium. d. primary circular reactions.

ANSWER: b 42. While observing her mother bake cookies, Juanita ignores the process by which eggs, flour, and sugar are combined and baked, but focuses on the end product of a cookie. Juanita’s thought best exemplifies a. conservation. b. class inclusion. c. reversibility. d. static thought.

ANSWER: d 43. When her mommy is sick in bed, Jenna brings her a pacifier and a rattle, thinking these will help mommy feel better since they always make Jenna feel better. Jenna’s behavior best demonstrates a. centration Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition b. egocentrism. c. animism. d. formal thought.

ANSWER: b 44. Oksana is excited when she receives a telephone call from her granny on her birthday. When granny asks how old she is, Oksana holds up three fingers in front of the phone. Oksana’s belief that because she can see her fingers, so can granny, reflects Piaget’s concept of a. centration. b. egocentrism. c. animism. d. formal thought.

ANSWER: b 45. A preoperational thinker is most likely to exhibit _____ thought. a. decentration b. reversible c. static d. transformational ANSWER: c 46. Jack is taking a class on Piaget, and as part of an assignment, he is "testing" some youngsters on various tasks. He gives four-year-old Meg a bag of white and striped marbles. They discuss the fact that marbles are made of glass. Meg counts the marbles—7 whites and 18 stripes. Jack asks, "Are there more striped marbles or more glass marbles?" Meg answers, "There are more striped marbles." This demonstrates Meg’s difficulty with a. class inclusion. b. conservation. c. identity. d. transformations.

ANSWER: a 47. Four-year-old Kaya is given a puppet and told to teach it all of the names that she can think of for certain animals and food items. At one point, she is asked the following questions about a lion: “Is it an animal?” and “Is it a type of cat?” Her correct response of “yes” to both questions indicates that Kaya understands a. object permanence. b. seriation. c. hypothetical-deductive reasoning. d. classification hierarchies.

ANSWER: d 48. For the first time in his young life, Glenn is able to look at photos of aquatic animals and classify them as mammals or fish. He is also able to order them from smallest to largest. These skills indicate that Glenn has likely just entered the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operations b. sensorimotor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition c. preoperational d. concrete operations ANSWER: d 49. Seriation involves a. the realization that properties of objects do not change even though appearance might be altered. b. understanding that subclasses are included in the whole class. c. understanding the difference between big and small. d. mentally arranging elements along a quantifiable scale.

ANSWER: d 50. Amber can quickly and accurately arrange crayons from lightest to darkest. This demonstrates a capacity for a. animism. b. centration. c. seriation. d. transitional thinking.

ANSWER: c 51. "Pete is older than Jill, and Jill is older than Pat. Who is older, Pete or Pat?" The ability to solve problems such as this demonstrates competence in a. decentration. b. identity. c. centration. d. transitivity.

ANSWER: d 52. During which stage of development would a person first be able to understand that her dad is a parent, an uncle, and someone’s son (i.e., understand class inclusion)? a. Formal operations b. Sensorimotor c. Concrete operations d. Preoperational ANSWER: c 53. One key difference between formal operational thought and concrete operational thought is that formal operational thinkers a. show more centration. b. can apply thoughts to real objects. c. can solve conservation tasks. d. can think about hypotheticals.

ANSWER: d 54. Concerning mental actions, concrete operations are to formal operations as a. objects are to ideas.

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Chapter 07: Cognition b. knowing is to doing. c. imagined is to real. d. centration is to decentration.

ANSWER: a 55. A researcher asked students of different ages, "What would the world be like if there was no gravity?" According to Piaget's theory, which one of the following answers would most likely be heard from an adolescent in the formal operational stage? a. There is gravity, so this is a useless exercise. b. Things would fall. c. We would have to redesign classrooms with desks on the ceiling. d. I wouldn't like it if there was no gravity.

ANSWER: c 56. Which of Gibson’s statements indicates that he is engaging in hypothetical-deductive reasoning? a. “I can still hear the sound of that guitar after the string has been strummed.” b. “A guitar is just a larger version of a mandolin.” c. “I bet that my guitar looks exactly like the one you have.” d. “If string length matters, then a short string should make a different sound than a long string.”

ANSWER: d 57. Which cognitive skill would a formal operations thinker possess that a concrete operational thinker would lack? a. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning b. Seriation c. Transformational thought d. Class inclusion ANSWER: a 58. Formal operational thinking differs from Piaget’s other stages in that a formal thinker gains the ability to a. think systematically about abstract concepts. b. mentally manipulate objects that they can see. c. understand the symbols used in language. d. form mental schemas.

ANSWER: a 59. By late adolescence, most individuals a. replace intuitive reasoning with scientific reasoning. b. replace scientific reasoning with intuitive reasoning. c. abandon both scientific reasoning and intuitive reasoning strategies. d. utilize both scientific reasoning and intuitive reasoning strategies.

ANSWER: d 60. Patrick was born and raised in the midwestern United States. He’s always been told that seafood tastes terrible so he has avoided it. One day while visiting the East Coast, he goes into a restaurant that features lobster. Patrick tells himself, “That lobster smells good and many people eat seafood, so they can’t be terrible to eat. I think I’ll order one.” Patrick’s Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition decision to eat the seafood would best be explained by Piaget’s concept of a. reversibility b. decontextualization c. animism d. personal fable ANSWER: b 61. Paris spends the last week of summer vacation at the mall, looking for just the right outfit for the first day of 10th grade. Finally, she finds something she likes, and feels sure that everyone will notice her smashing outfit! This is an example of adolescent a. class inclusion. b. reversibility. c. egocentrism. d. transitivity.

ANSWER: c 62. Kameko has just gotten her hair trimmed, and even though it doesn't look very different than before, she is sure everyone in homeroom will notice a big change and be focusing on her hair all day. This is an example of a. imaginary audience. b. personal fable. c. hypothetical-deductive reasoning. d. relativistic thinking.

ANSWER: a 63. Which statement best exemplifies the premise of an imaginary audience? a. Live hard and die young. b. Why ask why. c. Why is everyone looking at me? d. You don’t know me, no one knows me.

ANSWER: c 64. The key to a personal fable is the belief that you a. are being watched by an imaginary audience. b. have an “invisible” friend. c. cannot deal with abstract concepts like philosophy or theology. d. are different from everyone else.

ANSWER: d 65. Elkind suggested that adolescent egocentrism is due to increased a. self-consciousness. b. self-esteem. c. self-efficacy. d. self-confidence.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition 66. People are most likely to regularly use formal operational thinking a. in making relationship decisions. b. in areas where they have some expertise. c. in high school and college courses but not on nonacademic tasks. d. on novel and complex tasks.

ANSWER: b 67. Jorge doesn’t understand why his psychology instructor doesn’t just tell the class the correct answer. When asked, his instructor says that there is no single correct answer; it depends on each individual's interpretation. Jorge’s difficulty in accepting his professor’s answer would indicate that Jorge lacks _____ thinking. a. class inclusion b. systematic c. relativistic d. concrete ANSWER: c 68. Which famous statement best illustrates the concept of relativistic thinking? a. Beauty is in the eye of the beholder. b. Truth is absolute. c. What goes up must come down. d. All men are created equal.

ANSWER: a 69. _____ thinking is best defined as detecting paradoxes and inconsistencies among ideas and attempting to reconcile them. a. Absolutist b. Static c. Preoperational d. Dialectical ANSWER: d 70. Whose statement indicates that they are engaging in dialectic thinking? a. Earl, who says, “I love the fact that ice is cold.” b. Soraya, who says, “I don’t yet understand how light can be both a wave and an individual element, but I will!” c. Paolo, who says, “Drop a bowling ball and it will fall; can the world get any more consistent?” d. Fatima, who says, “The moon looks massive tonight.”

ANSWER: b 71. Which item would NOT typically be on a list of the characteristics of postformal thought? a. Understanding that knowledge is relative b. Accepting that the world is full of contradictions c. Rejecting input from others as it will taint the truth d. Integrating contradictions in some larger understanding ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition 72. Which of the following statements is true regarding cognitive capacities during later adulthood? a. Older adults do not perform as well as younger adults on formal operational tasks. b. Older adults perform better than younger adults on novel tasks. c. Older adults perform better on laboratory tasks than on applied, everyday tasks. d. Older adults perform just as well as younger adults on concrete-operational and formal operational tasks.

ANSWER: a 73. What is the likely reason the group of nursing home residents performed so poorly on a set of Piaget’s cognitive tasks? a. lack of motivation to solve tasks that are rarely encountered in real life b. over emphasis on IQ testing common to cognitive testing tasks c. slower reaction times commonly found in older study participants d. the fact that normal hearing is required to solve Piaget’s tasks ANSWER: a 74. Which is a common challenge to Piaget’s theory? a. It failed to distinguish between competence and performance. b. It overestimated young minds. c. It placed too much emphasis on explaining development rather than describing development. d. It overemphasized the role of social influence on cognitive development.

ANSWER: a 75. Gustav was born and raised in a small fishing village in Sweden. Vygotsky would argue that this experience will a. impact both how he thinks and what he thinks about. b. impact how he thinks but not what he thinks about. c. impact what he thinks about but not how he thinks. d. have no impact on this cognitive development.

ANSWER: a 76. Which of the following is an example of Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development? a. Figuring out the answer to your math homework after your sister gives you a hint b. Getting a better grade on the math test than you usually get c. Using trial and error to eliminate incorrect answers to a problem d. Thinking about a purely abstract problem like how many digits there are in infinity ANSWER: a 77. Learning through active involvement in culturally relevant activities with the aid of knowledgeable individuals is referred to as a. the personal fable. b. guided participation. c. transformational thought. d. class inclusion.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition 78. Josif never had any formal training in breeding animals, but had always actively helped his father in the family’s business of breeding sheep. Consequently, Josif is now quite skilled at this practice. Vygotsky would refer to this skill acquisition as being the result of a. a personal fable. b. imaginary companions. c. guided participation. d. transformational thought.

ANSWER: c 79. When Vygotsky referred to the concept of scaffolding, he was speaking about a. guided assistance that a skilled individual provides to a less skilled individual. b. the “intellectual ladder of success” that children are innately driven to climb. c. the importance of allowing children to “learn on their own” without adult interference. d. the structures of the mind that hold together lower levels of thought and higher levels of thought.

ANSWER: a 80. Four-year-old Jackie often mutters to herself as she builds things with her blocks. Her utterances (e.g., “the blue one goes first”) seem to be a running dialogue of her actions that are guiding her behavior. Vygotsky referred to this activity as _____ speech. a. private b. social c. egocentric d. telegraphic ANSWER: a 81. While observing a Russian kindergarten class, Lev Vygotsky points out how one of the students is teaching herself during free playtime. What is this student engaging in? a. private speech b. circular reactions c. scaffolding d. egocentrism ANSWER: a 82. Which is a legitimate criticism of Vygotsky’s theory? a. There is no evidence that private speech helps children solve problems. b. He placed too much emphasis on the influence of social interactions. c. His stages of psychosocial development have received little empirical support. d. A model that focuses only on postformal thinking in adulthood is too limited to be considered a major developmental theory.

ANSWER: b 83. According to Fischer, _____ change and develop. a. cognitions b. thought processes c. representations Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition d. skills ANSWER: d 84. Fischer adopted Vygotsky's idea of _____ to explain how cognitive development progresses. a. private speech b. zone of proximal development c. egocentrism d. postformal thought ANSWER: b 85. Which of the following can be considered the best contribution of Piaget? a. highlighting the way culture impacts child thinking b. opening the door to exploration of child development c. discrediting the biological view of cognitive functions d. explaining how cognition develops in young children ANSWER: b 86. It is the 1920s and you are attending a conference in which Jean Piaget is presenting his early theories on cognitive development to the scientific community. The attendees are stunned when he postulates that ________. a. infant reaction time indicates a biological element to learning b. infants are empty vessels waiting to be filled with knowledge c. children have markedly different thought processes than adults d. cognition is partly dependent on the culture a child is raised in ANSWER: c 87. When adults travel to a foreign country, which of Piaget’s processes do they employ to make sense of their new experiences? a. dialectics b. scaffolding c. assimilation d. decentration ANSWER: c 88. Ellen is giving a presentation to her psychology class on the contributions and limitations of Jean Piaget’s work in the field of human development. She says that although his theories are inaccurate on the ________ of cognitive development, his ideas about the ________ of cognitive development still hold true today. a. sequence; interactivity b. self-motivation; genetics c. direction; self-motivation d. process; direction ANSWER: d 89. Piaget believed that babies and children are less cognitively competent than we understand them to be today. What caused this error in Piaget’s perspective? a. small sample size Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition b. lack of variable control c. inadequate testing d. cultural biases ANSWER: c 90. Observing a class of kindergarten students, Piaget would say that ________. a. students from communal cultures will use more collaborative approaches b. students will approach tasks and problems differently based on domains c. all of the students will approach all tasks and problems the same way d. students with greater competence will guide students who are less capable ANSWER: c 91. How would Piaget describe the role of adults in the cognitive development of young children? a. integrated but ineffectual b. separate but integral c. separate and ineffectual d. integrated and influential ANSWER: c 92. If you were working on research with Denis Mareschal’s team, what would be your most valuable tool? a. pendulum experiment b. DNA sequencing c. Stanford-Binet test d. functional MRI ANSWER: d 93. Callie has just entered a stage of development marked by a profound shift in her thinking processes. Vygotsky would note that this has occurred because Callie now ________. a. is preoperational b. builds scaffolds c. utilizes words d. understands seriation ANSWER: c 94. When reviewing the results of a child’s performance on cognitive tasks, Kurt Fischer would likely ask for more details on which of the following? a. the child’s ethnicity b. the situation c. the cognitive stage d. the child’s age ANSWER: b 95. Which of the following terms best reflects Fischer’s perspective on a person’s cognitive performance in a specific domain?

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Chapter 07: Cognition a. irrelevant b. inconsistent c. quantitative d. universal ANSWER: b 96. Which of the following describes a significant difference between Fischer’s and Piaget’s perspectives on cognitive development? a. the shift from variable to universal competence in Fischer’s higher tiers b. the lack of clear boundaries between stages in Fischer’s model c. the emphasis on actions in Fischer’s first tier of development d. the lack of emphasis on reflexes across all of Fischer’s tiers ANSWER: b 97. Dr. Leung is trying to help his students understand the core principle underlying Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development and Fischer’s developmental range. What word should the professor use to reflect both concepts? a. skill b. context c. language d. support ANSWER: d 98. You are the lead in the school play. You’ve studied your lines and rehearsed many times, but are a bundle of nerves on opening night. Your knees are shaking, but once the curtain goes up you feel energized and confident and give a bravura performance. Fischer would say that your behavior on stage was________. a. learned b. inherent c. transformative d. responsive ANSWER: d 99. According to Piaget’s model, Latifa has entered the preoperational stage. Which tier would Fischer use to describe Latifa’s development? a. abstractions b. reflexive c. sensorimotor action d. representations ANSWER: d 100. When trying to solve conservation tasks, you could say that young children have a one-track mind. The scientific way to describe this would be that the children demonstrate ________. a. equilibration b. assimilation c. centration d. seriation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition ANSWER: c 101. Jason was trying to build a large media center unit from a kit, but it looks nothing like the picture on the box. So he retraces his actions to figure out where he went wrong so he can fix his mistake and get the unit ready to watch the big basketball game tonight. This is an example of an adult demonstrating the concept of ________. a. abstract thinking b. decentration c. accommodation d. reversibility ANSWER: d 102. Which of the following best reflects the nature of cognition in adults? a. more complex than adolescents in some areas b. similar to the last cognitive stage of adolescence c. universal across various cultures and domains d. highly sophisticated relative to younger people ANSWER: a 103. The type of thinking that most adults use to solve complex problems best reflects the perspective of which theorist? a. Vygotsky b. Mareschal c. Piaget d. Fischer ANSWER: d 104. Tamara often suffers from “analysis paralysis,” in which she becomes overwhelmed by numerous options in a situation and can’t arrive at a decision. This is likely a consequence of Tamara’s ________. a. perceptual salience b. static thinking c. relativistic thinking d. A-not-B error ANSWER: c 105. The fact that some adults demonstrate limited thinking processes relative to other adults speaks to the important role of ________ in cognitive development. a. language b. education c. health d. skill ANSWER: b 106. Based on their overall performance, which of the following terms best describes adults in the area of cognition? a. generalists b. students c. specialists Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition d. facilitators ANSWER: c 107. Thanh has firmly established her capacity for postformal thought. When faced with a difficult problem, what will she rely on to make a decision? a. judgment b. experimentation c. intuition d. precedent ANSWER: a 108. Unlike his teenage son, as he gets older Luis has come to realize that life ________. a. is a study in black and white b. is marked by contradictions c. is full of unsolvable dilemmas d. is governed by cold logic ANSWER: b 109. Based on an analysis of recent cohort effects, in 20 years older adults should perform better at formal and concreteoperational tasks than today’s older adults due to ________. a. better nutrition b. genetic treatments c. increased education d. longer life spans ANSWER: c 110. Applying Fischer’s perspective to cognitive performance in older adults, what would be considered the primary context impacting this situation? a. domain b. logic c. memory d. motivation ANSWER: a Subjective Short Answer 111. Define cognitive conflict and the methods children use to resolve it. Give examples to explain your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Use Piaget’s terminology and concepts to describe cognitive development from birth to age two years.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Describe how egocentrism, irreversible thinking, and static thought impact a child’s ability to solve conservation problems.

ANSWER: Answer not provided Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Cognition 114. Provide examples of egocentrism, the imaginary audience, and the personal fable that would occur during a day in the life of a typical teenager.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. In light of current research, what are some of the main concerns about Piaget’s theory?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. What are the main cognitive advances made during the concrete operational stage of development?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Give examples of the zone of proximal development, guided participation, and scaffolding, and describe how they impact cognitive development.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Which would be more beneficial to a jury deliberating a verdict for a criminal trial: formal-operational thinking or postformal thinking? Explain your reasoning, noting aspects of both types of thought.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Some college students are requesting that administrators provide “safe spaces” for students who might be bothered by opinions of campus speakers, or demanding that invitations to controversial speakers be rescinded. How might these practices affect development of postformal thinking in students?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Provide an example from your own experience that demonstrates how Fischer’s perspective on context influenced your performance.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing True / False 1. Working memory is an active form of short-term memory. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The final stage in the three basic steps of the memory process involves storage. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Executive control processes are responsible for monitoring our information-processing behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. A child making perseveration errors will continue to use the same strategy even though it is never successful. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Elaboration involves the creation of meaningful links between items that you are attempting to remember. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The overlapping waves theory argues for conceptualizing of cognitive development in terms of an invariant sequence of stages. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Older adults tend to perform best on explicit memory tasks that focus on unpracticed skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Our sense of smell plays a role in memory formation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. When Olivia came home from day care and did a dance that she saw the teacher do, she was merely modeling a behavior and not drawing upon memory.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. One strategy that adolescents use to improve memory is to reject certain types of information. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. An information-processing theorist would most likely refer to _____ as being part of the mind’s “software.” a. the brain b. sensory receptors c. neural connections d. mental problem-solving strategies ANSWER: d 12. The information-processing approach stresses all of the following basic mental processes EXCEPT a. decision-making. b. habituation. c. perception. d. attention.

ANSWER: b 13. In the information-processing model, the purpose of the sensory register is to a. briefly hold a piece of information for possible processing. b. control the activities of long-term memory. c. retrieve data from short-term memory. d. develop strategies for storing encoded data.

ANSWER: a 14. Shirley is introduced to her friend's mother. While Shirley heard the woman’s name, she had no idea what the woman's name was immediately after it was spoken. It is most accurate to say that the woman's name a. never made it past Shirley's sensory register. b. is trapped in Shirley's short-term memory. c. is lost in Shirley's long-term memory. d. could be cued for recall later on if Shirley would relax a bit.

ANSWER: a 15. Ethel looks up the phone number of a gas station and remembers it just long enough to walk over to the telephone and dial. When she is dialing, the information is contained in her a. sensory register. b. short-term memory.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing c. long-term memory. d. metamemory.

ANSWER: b 16. The main distinction between short-term memory and working memory is that working memory is a. larger. b. unconscious. c. actively processed. d. sensory based.

ANSWER: c 17. As you read this exam question, what would best represent information in your long-term memory? a. The light waves as they excite the cells in your visual system b. The words from the question as you read them c. The words from the possible answers as you repeat them in your head d. The information you access from last night’s study session ANSWER: d 18. At one time in his life, Edward could name every province in Canada. Somehow this information has disappeared from where it was being held. Information-processing theorists would most likely argue that this is a failure of the _____ system. a. elaboration b. storage c. metamemory d. encoding ANSWER: b 19. Which statement would best represent a failure of retrieval? a. I never actually learned that information. b. I don’t know the answer because I never read the textbook. c. I know the answer, but I just cannot find it in my mind. d. I would know the answer, but the teacher spoke and I couldn't keep up.

ANSWER: c 20. On a recognition task, a person a. is presented with a list of alternatives that includes the correct answer. b. is not presented with the correct answer but is given a hint. c. is neither presented with the correct answer nor given a hint. d. must generate the answer completely on his or her own.

ANSWER: a 21. Professor Valdez gives the students in her class a multiple-choice test on constitutional law. This method of assessment requires students to use _____ memory. a. recall Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing b. cued-recall c. repressed d. recognition ANSWER: d 22. A game show host asks a contestant, “In miles, how far is the Earth from the sun?” The clock begins to tick down as the audience awaits an answer. This task is best classified as an assessment of _____ memory. a. recognition b. metamemory c. recall d. cued-recall ANSWER: c 23. Most people find that test questions requiring _____ memory are easier to answer than those requiring _____ memory. a. recall; recognition b. cued-recall; recognition c. recognition; recall d. recall; cued-recall ANSWER: c 24. Who would perform better on a recall task than a recognition task? a. Heather, who is 17 b. Aaron, who is 36 c. Beatriz, who is 68 d. None of the above ANSWER: d 25. A memory that occurs without any conscious effort is best referred to as a. explicit b. implicit. c. scripted. d. autobiographical.

ANSWER: b 26. An explicit memory a. always has an emotional component. b. is deliberately recalled. c. occurs only after a hint has been given. d. involves recalling behaviors but not ideas.

ANSWER: b 27. Colette is participating in a research study. In the first phase of the study, she is shown a list of 20 French words. She is then asked to count backwards from 50 to 1 by threes. Colette is then asked to write down all of the French words she can remember. She has taken part in a study of _____ memory.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing a. explicit b. implicit c. cued-recall d. recognition ANSWER: a 28. Which is the best example of a semantic memory? a. Knowing that Ringo Starr’s real name is Richard Starkey b. Remembering the time you saw the Beatles perform on the Ed Sullivan show c. Recalling how to play the song “A Hard Day’s Night” on the guitar d. Knowing that the Beatles were a band ANSWER: d 29. _____ memories always involve personal experiences. a. Procedural b. Episodic c. Implicit d. Cued-recall ANSWER: b 30. Which is the best example of an episodic memory? a. Remembering how to light a candle b. Recalling the words to the song “Happy Birthday” c. Recalling your 21st birthday party d. Naming four kinds of ice cream ANSWER: c 31. The fact that some forms of amnesia destroy explicit memory but not implicit memory indicates that a. these forms of memory operate independently. b. implicit memory is learned and explicit is innate. c. explicit memory develops earlier than implicit memory. d. long-term memory lacks organization.

ANSWER: a 32. Carlos has experienced significant damage to his hippocampus. How would this most likely impact his memory? a. He would not be able to recall events from his childhood. b. He would have trouble creating new episodic memories. c. He would not be able to recall who he is. d. He could recall past events but not past factual information.

ANSWER: b 33. Which statement concerning memory is true? a. Explicit memory increases in capacity from infancy through adulthood then declines, while implicit memory capacity peaks in childhood then declines.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing b. Explicit memory increases in capacity from infancy through adulthood then declines, while implicit memory capacity is constant across the lifespan. c. Implicit memory increases in capacity from infancy through adulthood then declines, while explicit memory capacity peaks in childhood then declines. d. Implicit memory increases in capacity from infancy through adulthood then declines, while explicit memory capacity is constant across the lifespan.

ANSWER: b 34. The main purpose of the executive control processor is to a. store information in long-term memory. b. collect sensory input from the environment. c. suppress memories that are too painful. d. plan and monitor problem-solving.

ANSWER: d 35. Allison is attempting to recall the code number that she uses to unlock her high school locker. As she tries different combinations, a part of her consciously keeps track of the combinations of numbers she has already tried. Informationprocessing theorists would refer to this aspect of Allison’s cognitive system as her a. fuzzy-trace. b. sensory register. c. executive control process. d. implicit memory.

ANSWER: c 36. Cognitive psychologists believe that humans are capable of engaging in “parallel processing.” This means that humans can a. carry out several mental activities at the same time. b. think about complex issues, like religion. c. pay selective attention to an event. d. encode information into long-term memory.

ANSWER: a 37. Six-month-old Trent saw his dad blink three times when he held a baby bottle. An hour after this occurred, Trent sees a baby bottle and blinks three times. This action would best be described as _____ imitation. a. deferred b. implicit c. serial d. decentered ANSWER: a 38. Six-month-old Lacey has been happily listening to her mother Wanda singing for the past 20 minutes. How would Lacey demonstrate habituation? a. She would eventually become disinterested in her mom's singing. b. She would attempt to imitate the noise her mother is making. c. She would become more excited by her mom’s singing.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing d. She would store the scene in her autobiographic memory.

ANSWER: a 39. Which pair best describes the memory abilities of a human infant? a. Cue-dependent and context-independent b. Cue-dependent and context-specific c. Cue-independent and context-independent d. Cue-independent and context-specific ANSWER: b 40. While attempting to find his lost toy bear, 10-month-old Teddy pulls away a couch cushion and finds the bear he watched his mother hide there 10 minutes earlier. This best demonstrates the use of _____ memory. a. recognition b. recall c. implicit d. sensory register ANSWER: b 41. Infants appear to remember best when they experience an event a. once and are provided with no recall cues. b. once and are provided with recall cues. c. repeatedly and are provided with no recall cues. d. repeatedly and are provided with recall cues.

ANSWER: d 42. Your text discusses four major reasons to explain the improved memory and learning abilities in the developing child.

Which item below is NOT one of these reasons? a. Increased knowledge about how memory works b. An increase in general knowledge about the world c. A doubling in the size of the brain's working memory d. Better “software” for effective information retrieval ANSWER: c 43. Older children can learn faster and remember more than younger children because older children typically show a significant increase in a. the size of their sensory register. b. selective compensatory strategies. c. capacity of long-term memory. d. short term memory capacity.

ANSWER: d 44. What seems to underlie the significant increase in processing speed seen during childhood? a. Enhanced use of preservation b. Vastly improved sensory systems Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing c. A greater reliance on implicit memory d. Brain maturation ANSWER: d 45. Case suggested more advanced stages of cognitive development are made possible because children make better use of the available space in their _____ memory. a. sensory b. working c. long-term d. implicit ANSWER: b 46. The tendency to keep making the same mistake over and over is referred to as making a(n) _____ error. a. perseveration b. mediation c. utilization d. organization ANSWER: a 47. Which statement best exemplifies a “perseveration error”? a. I have never tried this before, so what the heck. b. Trial and error is the way to go. c. It worked in the past so I will keep doing it. d. I saw someone do this before and I want to try it.

ANSWER: c 48. Tomas and Val are shopping for groceries. Tomas looks at the list and tells Val, "I'll get the cat food, soap, toilet paper, and flour, and meet you by the lettuce." Tomas takes off, muttering to himself over and over: "Cat food, soap, toilet paper, flour." This best illustrates the use of which memory strategy? a. Chunking b. Elaboration c. Organization d. Rehearsal ANSWER: d 49. Which memory strategy is being used when a long number is memorized by breaking it into manageable subunits each containing three digits? a. Chunking b. Mediation c. Implicit memory d. Rehearsal ANSWER: a 50. Sarah is presented with the following list of items to memorize: bagel, carrot, ham, corn, hot dog, donut, bread, chicken, peas. Her immediate reaction is to think of the items in the following way: (bagel, donut, bread); (carrot, corn, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing peas); (ham, hotdog, chicken). This reaction would indicate that Sarah is using the strategy of a. rehearsal. b. elaboration. c. organization. d. compensation.

ANSWER: c 51. The best example of elaboration is a. repeating “red, chair, dog” several times. b. noting “red” and “green” as colors and “chair” and “table” as furniture . c. noting that the red chair and the green piano remind you of Christmas. d. seeing the color red but perceiving the color green.

ANSWER: c 52. Wayne has trouble remembering the last four digits of his new phone number (4422) until he makes the connection that the last two digits are exactly half of the first two digits. Once he makes this connection, he has no trouble remembering the number! This best demonstrates the memory concept of a. chunking b. elaboration c. organization d. rehearsal ANSWER: b 53. Samuel teaches his son to serve a tennis ball so the opponent cannot return it. However, his son Jacob appears to not benefit from the advice or understand what is going on. Jacob is best classified as exhibiting a(n) a. mediation deficiency. b. utilization deficiency. c. production deficiency. d. A-B error.

ANSWER: a 54. While trying to solve a math problem, Victor is able to come up with a strategy that might work. Unfortunately, Victor's math performance does not improve by using the strategy. This situation best exemplifies a. autobiographical memory. b. cued recall. c. the method of loci. d. utilization deficiency.

ANSWER: d 55. Lamont has just returned from a trip to Australia. His friend asks, “What was the best food you ate on your trip?”

Lamont responds, “Nothing immediately comes to mind. Perhaps if I think back about where I stayed each night I’ll be able to remember a great meal.” Lamont appears to be attempting to use _____ to improve recall. a. a retrieval strategy b. sensory register c. metamemory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing d. implicit memory ANSWER: a 56. Which is NOT an example of metamemory? a. Knowing the difference between metaphysics and meta-analysis b. Knowing which memory strategies are most effective for you c. Knowing which memorization tasks are most difficult for you d. Being able to plan and control your memory processes as you learn ANSWER: a 57. Jack knows that he can more easily memorize and recall a list of 10 familiar words than he can 10 unfamiliar words.

This knowledge provides an excellent example of a. short-term memory. b. chunking. c. recall memory. d. metamemory.

ANSWER: d 58. Which is the best example of an autobiographical memory? a. Recalling that the War of 1812 was fought between the United States and the United Kingdom b. Recalling the heated argument between you and your mom that broke out at your wedding c. Thinking about the hot ham sandwich that you are going to have for lunch d. Understanding that numbers are easier to recall when they are chunked into groups ANSWER: b 59. Childhood amnesia is defined as the inability to access _____ memories. a. all traumatic b. insignificant c. autobiographical d. metaANSWER: c 60. The key to the “fuzzy trace” theory of childhood amnesia is the belief that _____ is/are stored separately in memory. a. visual and auditory information b. emotional and behavioral memories c. verbatim and general accounts of events d. tactile and spatial events ANSWER: c 61. Ben is trying to explain why his four-year-old son, Henry, cannot recall what happened at a concert they attended two years ago. Ben says, “Henry kind of recalls being at some event with a lot of people and singing, but he has no recollection for any details of the concert.” Ben's description best matches the _____ theory of childhood amnesia. a. fuzzy-trace b. working memory capacity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing c. surfactant d. constraint-seeking ANSWER: a 62. Four-year-old Javier goes to the circus and sees animals that he has never seen before. When asked about the event a year later, Javier is most likely to recall a. a verbatim account of the event. b. the overall experience of the event. c. only the emotional parts of the event. d. nothing about having gone to a circus.

ANSWER: b 63. Eight-year-old Haley has a script for a visit to the doctor’s office. Which is the most likely example of her doctor’s office script? a. Enter clinic, tell mom she feels better, sit in waiting room, see doctor, cry b. Realizing that doctors earn money so that they can buy things c. Envisioning herself performing brain surgery on a patient d. Remembering that her favorite television show is also about doctors ANSWER: a 64. Robert Siegler investigated the type of information that a child takes in during a problem-solving task and also what strategies he or she formulates when attempting to solve the problem. Siegler called his model the _____ approach. a. rule assessment b. fuzzy-trace c. autobiographical d. constraint-seeking ANSWER: a 65. According to Siegler’s “overlapping waves theory,” cognitive development is best conceptualized as a. random in nature. b. a set of stages. c. controlled by unconscious factors. d. a process of variability, choice, and changes.

ANSWER: d 66. Because she believes in overlapping waves theory, Flavia would most likely argue that her six-year-old daughter, Estella, a. is in the formal stage of thinking. b. has multiple problem strategies available to her. c. cannot recall any event prior to her third birthday. d. has no recognition memory.

ANSWER: b 67. Randy is a typical six-year-old and his brother Mark is a typical 16-year-old. How do their information processing skills most likely differ on a memory task?

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing a. Randy will be able to learn more than Mark if both are given extra time to study for the task. b. Randy will be more likely to utilize deliberate strategies while Mark will rely on unconscious strategies. c. Mark will recall both more relevant information and task-irrelevant information. d. Mark will recall more relevant information and is less likely to recall task-irrelevant information.

ANSWER: d 68. As a typical college student, research indicates that Hanna would be most likely to shift her focus to _____ if she suddenly found herself pressed for time when studying for an exam. a. difficult material b. easy material c. semantic material d. visual material ANSWER: b 69. Which high school student is most likely to utilize metacognitive strategies? a. Ronnie, a boy from a high-income household b. Dawn, a girl from a low-income household c. Sid, a boy from a low-income household d. Cassie, a girl from a high-income household ANSWER: d 70. Rajan has practiced until he is able to remember the population of every country in the world. This ability will most likely a. increase Rajan’s ability to learn foreign words. b. have little impact on cognitive abilities unrelated to populations. c. disrupt his autobiographical memories. d. enhance the size of his sensory register.

ANSWER: b 71. Research on autobiographical memory in adulthood has shown that the more _____ an event, the better it will later be recalled. a. distant b. emotional c. negative d. unique ANSWER: d 72. As a typical 80-year-old, Irving would have the greatest number of autobiographical memories from his a. early childhood. b. teens and 20s. c. 30s and 40s. d. 50s and 60s.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing 73. With which of the following tasks would older adults have the LEAST problems? a. A memory task where the material is unfamiliar b. A task where they are asked to recall rather than recognize names c. A memory task where they can use well-practiced memory strategies d. A timed memory task ANSWER: c 74. Which statement is true regarding recall memory and recognition memory in elderly adults? a. They are likely to be more deficient in recall than in recognition memory. b. They are likely to be more deficient in recognition than in recall memory. c. They are likely to be equally deficient in both types of memory. d. Neither type of memory diminishes with age (except in extreme cases).

ANSWER: a 75. Which combinations of memory tasks would prove most difficult to the average older individual? a. Exercised and implicit b. Unexercised and implicit c. Exercised and explicit d. Unexercised and explicit ANSWER: d 76. Which statement is accurate about memory strategies and basic processing capacities as one ages? a. Verbal knowledge begins to show a steep decline beginning around age 50. b. Holding negative stereotypes concerning memory ability actually leads to improved memory abilities in older adulthood. c. Memory problems in adulthood are more likely the result of original encoding and not retrieval. d. Limitations in working memory in older adulthood may be due to the slowing of the nervous system.

ANSWER: d 77. Farouk is playing a game of “20 Questions” in which he has to try and guess what his friend Matthew is thinking about. Which of Farouk's inquiries would best exemplify a constraint-seeking question? a. “Is it an animal?” b. “Is it green?” c. “Is it a frog?” d. “Is it a green frog?”

ANSWER: a 78. On an everyday problem such as what to do if you cannot pay your electric bill, _____ tend to out-perform other groups. a. teenagers b. young adults c. middle-aged adults d. elderly adults ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing 79. Seventy-year-old Qing decides that he cannot remain effective at all types of gambling so he decides to focus only on blackjack, with the hopes that this narrow focus will allow him to perform better in this one area. According to the SOC approach, Qing's decision to abandon other forms of gambling represents a. selection. b. optimization. c. compensation. d. plasticity.

ANSWER: a 80. What characteristic distinguishes the three components of the information-processing model of memory? a. content b. duration c. sensory input d. neural region ANSWER: b 81. While walking downtown, Cherie turns a corner and sees a man juggling on stilts. What determines whether this sensory input will be moved to Cherie's short-term memory? a. its visual interest b. its perceived value c. its emotional content d. its rehearsal stage ANSWER: b 82. Fred is making his famous French pastries for a friend's upcoming party. Because the pastries must be perfect, Fred needs to do remember to do each step of the complicated recipe in order. What part of Fred's memory will work on this aspect of baking? a. phonological loop b. rehearsal module c. visual-spatial sketchpad d. episodic buffer ANSWER: d 83. Thuy hears a song on the car radio and immediately knows that it will be perfect for her wedding. Once she finds a boyfriend, she will remember the song and play it for him. What part of Thuy's working memory is processing the song before it goes into her long-term memory? a. phonological loop b. rehearsal module c. visual-spatial sketchpad d. episodic buffer ANSWER: a 84. Prior to entering short-term memory, the information gathered by our senses is ________. a. categorized b. enhanced Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing c. filtered d. traced ANSWER: c 85. On Wednesdays, when he has three long classes, Delroy always takes a long nap after he gets home. What happens during Delroy's nap to help him retain all the knowledge from the days' classes? a. metacognition b. mediation c. consolidation d. compensation ANSWER: c 86. After every class, Nina takes a few minutes to go over her notes and highlight key points from the lecture. By doing this, Nina is helping to facilitate which memory process? a. medial buffering b. systemic consolidation c. executive buffering d. synaptic consolidation ANSWER: d 87. Which of the following terms best reflects the process by which humans store memories? a. universal b. subjective c. standardized d. random ANSWER: b 88. Which of the following processes would the episodic buffer perform? a. create links between the sights and sounds of experiences b. record the sound of experiences into manageable chunks c. determine the emotional intensity of sensory experiences d. assign experiences as implicit or explicit memory content ANSWER: a 89. Since her car accident, Rachel forgets things immediately after they happen. She can watch a movie and right afterwards forget that she saw it. A psychologist would diagnose Rachel as having ________. a. retrograde amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. episodic amnesia d. attenuated amnesia ANSWER: b 90. To solve problems, people must be able to both ________ information. a. encode and buffer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing b. consolidate and trace c. retrieve and manipulate d. select and recall ANSWER: c 91. An electrician trying to figure out the wiring in an old house will use a different cognitive approach than a rock climber trying to figure out how to scale a difficult cliff. This demonstrates the influence of ________ on problem solving processes. a. education b. domain c. risk d. scripts ANSWER: b 92. If a six-month old infant could speak, what would it say to confirm the presence of memory in a habituation experiment? a. "I know this thing should be over here." b. "Whoa, what is this amazing sight?" c. "Who cares? I've seen this thing before." d. "No matter how often I see this, it grabs me."

ANSWER: c 93. Rovee-Collier's ribbon experiment demonstrated the value of which memory strategy that is valid for adults? a. deferred imitation b. distributed practice c. fuzzy tracing d. parallel processing ANSWER: b 94. Which of the following becomes less important to memory retrieval when children reach age 2? a. sensory encoding b. exposure cues c. language awareness d. logical ordering ANSWER: b 95. From a biological perspective, children's ability to ________ information improves due to maturation of the ________. a. consolidate, prefrontal cortex b. retrieve; hippocampus c. manipulate; hippocampus d. encode; prefrontal cortex ANSWER: d 96. In terms of biological factors, children's ability to ________ information improves due to maturation of the ________.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing a. consolidate, hippocampus b. encode; medulla c. manipulate; amygdala d. retrieve; hypothalamus ANSWER: a 97. When he was young, Ivan was able to juggle only a couple things in his working memory. But now that he's older he can manage many more bits of information at one time. What has enabled Ivan's working memory to become more productive and efficient? a. tighter synapses b. more myelin c. larger capacity d. expanded rehearsal ANSWER: b 98. Nine-year-old Rory is digging deep into his bag of strategies to remember something. For him to make this effort, the information must be ________. a. difficult b. emotional c. actionable d. relevant ANSWER: d 99. Deliberating a verdict for a defendant accused of pedophilia, the jury is discussing whether the attorneys' questioning of the potential child victims was ________ in order to accept their eyewitness testimony as trustworthy. a. guided b. open-ended c. biased d. scripted ANSWER: b 100. The responses obtained by researchers who repeated the use of directed questions demonstrates that the eyewitness memories of young children can be ________. a. entrusted b. validated c. manipulated d. sourced ANSWER: c 101. Which of the following best reflects Siegler's overlapping waves theory of problem-solving? a. discovering and mastering strategies b. creating strategies to fit new contexts c. learning, testing and dropping strategies d. mastering strategies which decline with age Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing ANSWER: c 102. Now that Roscoe is in high school, he has many more memory strategies to draw upon. Which of the following strategies has Roscoe recently refined? a. rehearsal b. chunking c. elaboration d. perseveration ANSWER: c 103. In a school department focus group of 10 high school seniors, how many said that they are actively aware of memory strategies they use to aid their academic performance? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: d 104. Which of the following terms best describes the advanced memory capabilities of an expert? a. cross-functional b. domain-specific c. context-neutral d. time-dependent ANSWER: b 105. Dr. Boschetto teaches chemistry at an elite prep school. Compared to his students, Dr. Boschetto's knowledge base and memory strategies would be considered more ________. a. structured and rigid b. freeform and volatile c. optimized and overlapped d. organized and specialized ANSWER: d 106. Julia is reminiscing with her daughter in the garden of the nursing home where she has lived since age 72. Which of the following events will Julia have the most detailed memory of? a. being in the fifth grade spring concert b. graduating with honors from college c. buying a home with her second husband d. celebrating her 30th anniversary at work ANSWER: b 107. Who will first begin to notice declines in their memory capabilities? a. Ramzi, who is 59 years old b. Lynette, who is 66 years old c. Malcolm, who is 73 years old Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing d. Xiulan, who is 82 years old ANSWER: c 108. Who will first begin to have difficulty playing the word game Scrabble? a. Roberta, who is 57 years old b. Jaime, who is 68 years old c. Rosa, who is 79 years old d. Stephen, who is 88 years old ANSWER: d 109. Although her friend Bella is taking college classes at age 70, Joan regularly tells herself that she is too old for such activity and that her memory is like a bucket full of holes. How does Joan's memory function compare to Bella's? a. 5 percent more b. 20 percent less c. 30 percent less d. 45 percent less ANSWER: c 110. Pablo is 75 and participating in a research project that requires him to perform complex tests of memory and recall.

Compared to the cohort of college students also participating in the study, Pablo's performance is more easily ________. a. fragmented b. manipulated c. stabilized d. optimized ANSWER: a 111. Executive control processes are responsible for monitoring our information-processing behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: a Subjective Short Answer 112. Discuss the process of human memory by differentiating between sensory register, working memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. Give examples to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Describe activities you would conduct to confirm the existence of memory in an infant and in a child who has clear language capability. Be sure to indicate which type of method each study employs, and describe the subjects' ages, the activities, and the expected results.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Justine is a typically developing human. What information-processing advances would you expect her to experience between the start of her middle school years and the end of her senior year of high school?

ANSWER: Answer not provided Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Memory and Information Processing 115. What factors contribute to declines in cognitive abilities in old age?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. In what ways are the autobiographical memory of young children and older adults similar? How do they differ?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Describe examples of rehearsal, chunking, and elaboration strategies used by a child and the same strategies used by an adult.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Describe three reasons why autobiographical memories from the earliest years of our lives cannot be retrieved.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Explain how personal, subjective factors influence a person's memory. Give examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. How do American cultural attitudes and media have an impact on the memory capabilities of older adults? What might be done to change this dynamic? Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 121. The actress Cicely Tyson performed on stage in major roles at the age of 90. What could account for her ability to remember extensive dialogue? What common factors would hinder other actors of her age group from performing?

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity True / False 1. Crystallized intelligence is the ability to use one's mind actively to solve novel problems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Gardner’s list of multiple intelligences included both musical intelligence and artistic intelligence. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Sternberg’s practical component defines intelligence differently depending on the sociocultural context in which it is displayed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. According to Sternberg, an individual high in successful intelligence is strong in practical, creative, and analytical areas. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Convergent thinking involves finding the one “best answer” to a problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Children whose IQ scores fluctuate tend to come from unstable home environments. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. The Flynn effect states that racial differences in IQ scores are likely due to genetic differences. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. A common test used to assess infant intelligence measures their physical capabilities. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. As a general rule, high IQ and high income are negatively correlated in adults.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Considering the full scope of theories on cognitive development, Piaget's perspective is most compatible with Sternberg's. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. When discussing intelligence, David says, “I subscribe to a psychometric approach on that topic.” This means that David would most likely a. be against the idea of measuring intelligence. b. believe that he is smarter than most other people. c. describe a person in terms of measurable traits he or she possesses. d. believe that intelligence is inherited.

ANSWER: c 12. The intelligence concept of “g” was based on the observation that a. IQ scores predict career success. b. skill levels are consistent across tasks. c. children who take math do better at math. d. there are few racial differences in IQ scores.

ANSWER: b 13. _____ intelligence is defined as the ability to use your active mind to solve novel problems. a. Fluid b. Crystallized c. Primary d. Tertiary ANSWER: a 14. Dominique is shown a series of triangles of different sizes and colors and is asked to guess what the next triangle in the series might look like. The use of this novel task indicates that the person testing Dominique is most likely assessing _____ intelligence. a. fluid b. crystallized c. naturalistic d. linguistic ANSWER: a 15. Crystallized intelligence is the dimension of intellect that includes all of the following abilities EXCEPT a. word comprehension.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity b. numerical abilities. c. recognizing relationships. d. ability to recall general information.

ANSWER: c 16. Kao is involved with a project studying intelligence. During the study, she is first asked to name the state capitals of Wisconsin and Hawaii. Then she is asked to explain the difference between the words “destiny” and “density.” Given these tasks, Kao appears to be taking a test of _____ intelligence. a. interpersonal b. crystallized c. spatial d. fluid ANSWER: b 17. The formula for calculating an intelligence quotient is a. IQ = (CA+MA)/100. b. IQ = (CA+MA)*100. c. IQ = (MA/CA)*100. d. IQ = (MA+CA)/100.

ANSWER: c 18. Ten-year-old James is found to have a mental age of 12. According to the traditional Stanford-Binet Scale, James has an IQ of a. 80. b. 100. c. 110. d. 120.

ANSWER: d 19. Who would have the highest IQ? a. Tom, who is 10 years old and has a mental age of 15 b. Hae, who is 15 years old and has a mental age of 10 c. Farzad, who is 15 years old and has a mental age of 20 d. Aracely, who is 20 years old and has a mental age of 15 ANSWER: a 20. Pradeep is about to assess the intelligence of his four-year-old son, Kumar. Which test would be most appropriate him to select? a. WPPSI b. WISC-V c. WAIS-IV d. MMPI ANSWER: a 21. Jacque is told that he will be taking the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children. What type of task should Jacque Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity expect to complete as part of the assessment of his performance IQ? a. Arithmetic reasoning b. A test of general knowledge c. Puzzle assembly d. Vocabulary ANSWER: c 22. If the scores from an intelligence test are normally distributed, then you would predict that the FEWEST number of people would receive an IQ score at or below _____ on that test. a. 70 b. 85 c. 100 d. 115 ANSWER: a 23. If the scores from an intelligence test are normally distributed, then you would predict that the largest number of people would receive an IQ score of _____ on that test. a. 70 b. 85 c. 100 d. 115 ANSWER: c 24. One of the unique features of Gardner’s theory of intelligence is that it a. rejects the notion that a single IQ score can meaningfully assess intelligence. b. promotes the notion of genetic testing as a form of intelligence testing. c. focuses on what someone does not know as opposed to what he or she does know. d. completely ignores the impact of experience on intellectual functioning.

ANSWER: a 25. One of Carolyn's most endearing traits is an exceptional sensitivity to other people’s motivations and moods.

According to Gardner, Carolyn would best be classified as having high _____ intelligence. a. bodily-kinesthetic b. intrapersonal c. linguistic d. interpersonal ANSWER: d 26. His steady hands make Dr. Greene a top-notch surgeon. Given this information, Dr. Greene would appear to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. bodily-kinesthetic b. naturalistic c. linguistic d. interpersonal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity ANSWER: a 27. As an architect, Mr. Gutierrez has an amazing ability to visual and mentally transform a building in his mind. This suggests that he has superb _____ intelligence. a. bodily-kinesthetic b. spatial c. linguistic d. interpersonal ANSWER: b 28. Gardner’s theory of intelligence a. links distinct types of intelligence to specific areas of the brain. b. suggests that all types of intelligence have the same developmental course. c. argues that the concept of “g” can be used to explain savant behavior. d. is heavily reliant on the use of traditional IQ tests to assess intelligence.

ANSWER: a 29. When describing the practical component, Sternberg argues that an intelligent person will a. be successful in all situations. b. score high on an IQ test. c. show outstanding abilities in the areas of music and interpersonal skills. d. shape an environment to better suit his or her skills.

ANSWER: d 30. With regard to experience, Sternberg believes that a. the level of intelligence of a response can be accurately assessed only after extensive experience. b. experience with a task has no impact on ability to intelligently respond to the task. c. there is no way to assess a person's level of familiarity with a task. d. the creative component of intelligence is best measured in the response to novel tasks.

ANSWER: d 31. After years as store manager, Lori is able to go through the nightly closing checklist almost without thinking. Lori is demonstrating which of the following? a. terminal drop b. automatization c. factor analysis d. the Flynn effect ANSWER: b 32. What would indicate that Kenneth's free-throw-shooting has undergone automatization? a. He has practiced so many times that he does not even have to pay that much attention to make the shot. b. He has never seen the behavior before, but he is busy committing it to memory. c. He can show someone else how to shoot free-throws. d. He now becomes distracted if fans wave banners while he is shooting.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity ANSWER: a 33. Sternberg would argue that an individual who is outstanding at filtering out irrelevant from relevant information excels on the _____ component of intelligence. a. practical b. experiential c. creative d. analytic ANSWER: d 34. As a proponent of Sternberg's triarchic theory, which of the following will Anita focus on in her research? a. how people produce intelligent answers b. questions that assess traits of intelligence c. the role of genetics in determining intelligence d. cultural differences in intelligence scores ANSWER: a 35. Ms. Andrews asks her class to name the person who invented the cotton gin. This question best represents a measure of a. convergent thinking. b. divergent thinking. c. creativity. d. ideational fluency.

ANSWER: a 36. Which item is NOT one of the three dimensions on which divergent thinking is analyzed? a. Originality b. Flexibility c. Ideation fluency d. Crystallization ANSWER: d 37. Which question would be the best method of assessing divergent thinking? a. Who is the president of Mexico? b. What are some effective ways of studying for a psychology exam? c. Where does the equator pass through the continent of Africa? d. How much is (212*34)/.948?

ANSWER: b 38. Ideational fluency refers to one's ability to a. pick the most appropriate idea to solve a problem. b. quickly recall synonyms when given a word. c. solve a problem quickly and accurately. d. generate many interesting, novel options.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity ANSWER: d 39. Who is demonstrating a high level of ideational fluency? a. Hugh, who knows four different languages b. Rajesh, who has an IQ of 150 c. Nina, who quickly generated a list of 20 novel uses for marshmallows d. Thuy, who can name the day of the week for any date in the 1900s ANSWER: c 40. How did Sternberg include the notion of confluence into his theory? a. He believed that several factors combined to create intelligence. b. He saw intelligence as based on cultural differences. c. He suggested that the cultural stereotypes influence test performance. d. He saw intelligence as a “use it or lose it” proposition.

ANSWER: a 41. Luther is developing a test of intelligence. He believes that in order to accurately generate an intelligence test score, he must assess a multitude of factors that will be added together to form the “product” called intellect. This belief indicates that Luther is a strong proponent of a. confluence. b. creativity. c. convergent thinking. d. neuroplasticity.

ANSWER: a 42. Research on intelligence and creativity has shown that a. highly creative individuals rarely have below-average IQs. b. a high IQ is required for creativity. c. the more reliance on convergent thinking, the greater the creativity. d. motivation cannot compensate for the lack of environmental support for intellectual advancement.

ANSWER: a 43. Octavio has just been told that his son Hector is going to be assessed using the Bayley Scales of Infant Development.

As a knowledgeable psychologist, Octavio would know that this test will assess Hector's a. savant skills (e.g., ability to calculate future days of the week). b. motor skills (e.g., ability to grasp and throw a ball). c. physiological skills (e.g., average heart rate, respiration). d. sociometric skills (e.g., the number of friends the child has).

ANSWER: b 44. Why do scores on infant developmental scales appear to be such poor predictors of later IQs? a. They do not account for the negative environmental impacts. b. They are actually very good predictors of adult intelligence. c. They are over-reliant on verbal skills.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity d. They may tap qualitatively different abilities.

ANSWER: d 45. If you want to predict later intelligence using some infant measure, which of the following measures would be best to use with the infants? a. Bayley DQ scores b. Stanford-Binet IQ scores c. Wechsler performance scores d. Habituation response scores ANSWER: d 46. The stability of IQ scores a. is highest in infancy. b. becomes fairly high starting at around age four. c. is highest with longer times between testing sessions. d. is high for individual children but low for large groups of children.

ANSWER: b 47. Whose current IQ score would most likely be highly correlated with their IQ score at age 10? a. Dana, who is two years old b. Brett, who is four years old c. Akbar, who is six years old d. Tran, who is eight years old ANSWER: d 48. Which statement best summarizes the pattern of IQ-score change in childhood? a. Overall age group stability but large individual variation b. Significant rise in average group IQ score from early to late childhood c. Significant drop in average group IQ score from early to late childhood d. Overall individual stability but large age-group variation ANSWER: a 49. Some children show gains in IQ during their school years. Which factor appears to be the primary cause of such gains? a. Strict child rearing practices b. Relaxed child rearing practices c. Parents who foster achievement d. Effective schools ANSWER: c 50. Some children show a lowering of their IQ during their school years. Which factor seems to be the most common cause of this decline? a. Accidental injury to the brain b. Living in impoverished environments Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity c. Chronic illness d. Ineffective schools ANSWER: b 51. The cumulative-deficit hypothesis is often used to explain a. how deficits in school funding create ineffective schools. b. how people with lower IQs have more children, thus lowering the average IQ in a society. c. how the cumulative effects of a superior education create a feeling of never being satisfied. d. how the negative effects of an impoverished environment "snowball" over time to create lowered IQ scores.

ANSWER: d 52. Children from impoverished environments may show progressively lower IQ scores over time, a phenomenon called a. terminal drop. b. savant syndrome. c. cumulative-deficit. d. the factor analysis.

ANSWER: c 53. Which of the following is true of creative children? a. They engage in more fantasy or pretend play than other children. b. They tend to be less open to new experiences. c. They do not have unhappy or lonely childhood experiences. d. Their creativity can be predicted by high IQ scores.

ANSWER: a 54. IQ scores obtained during adolescence are best at predicting a. whether a person will graduate from college. b. a person's high school grades. c. a person's choice of occupation. d. how well a person performs in his or her chosen occupation.

ANSWER: b 55. Which statement is true? a. During adolescence, IQ scores become more predictable but creativity varies. b. During adolescence, creativity becomes more predictable but IQ scores vary. c. During adolescence, both IQ scores and creativity become more predictable. d. During adolescence, both IQ scores and creativity tend to be variable.

ANSWER: a 56. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that a. IQ scores are no longer related to socioeconomic status. b. average IQ scores have been increasing. c. IQ scores are predictive of occupational achievement. d. IQ is largely heritable.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity ANSWER: b 57. Who will likely have the highest IQ? a. Jose, a telephone lineman b. Sandy, a machine operator c. Reena, a microbiologist d. Parker, a stockbroker ANSWER: c 58. Who will likely have the lowest IQ? a. Brent, a pipe fitter b. Tamika, a teacher c. Stuart, an oceanographer d. Vuong, a sales executive ANSWER: a 59. Research on changes in intellectual abilities during adulthood indicates that a. fluid and crystallized intelligence decline at the same rate. b. fluid intelligence declines earlier and more quickly than crystallized intelligence. c. crystallized intelligence declines earlier and more quickly than fluid intelligence. d. crystallized and fluid intelligence fluctuate up and down throughout the entire lifespan.

ANSWER: b 60. Longitudinal research on IQ change during adulthood indicates that a. crystallized intelligence peaks in young adulthood and then declines steadily. b. both fluid and crystallized and fluid intelligence peak in middle adulthood and then decline steadily. c. crystallized intelligence peaks and then declines, while fluid intelligence remains steady well into adulthood. d. fluid intelligence peaks and then declines, while crystallized intelligence remains steady well into adulthood.

ANSWER: d 61. Which of the following can we conclude about intellectual functioning across the lifespan? a. Preference for familiar items and tasks is associated with higher levels of intellectual performance. b. Intellectual functioning is not affected by practice or familiarity. c. The speed with which someone processes information is related to intellectual performance. d. Age-related declines in intellectual ability are universal in nature.

ANSWER: c 62. Research would predict that _____ would show the largest intellectual declines in the coming years. a. 68-year-old Jay, who is married and leading an active social life, b. 69-year-old Grace, who lives alone and is socially inactive, c. 70-year-old Pedro, who is married but socially inactive, d. 71-year-old Alana, who is lives alone but is socially active, ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity 63. Which is the best definition of wisdom? a. Expert knowledge in the fundamental pragmatics of life b. Exhibiting high levels of intelligence and creativity c. Scoring at least two standard deviations above the norm on an IQ test d. The ability to generate many novel but potentially impractical answers ANSWER: a 64. Research on wisdom suggests that a. most adults are considered to possess wisdom. b. only adults with expertise or experience display wisdom. c. personality and intelligence have little to do with wisdom. d. age predicts wisdom.

ANSWER: b 65. Peak levels of creativity tend to occur EARLIEST in individuals who are in the a. sciences. b. humanities. c. mathematics. d. arts.

ANSWER: d 66. Research on aging and creativity has shown that older individuals are _____ than younger adults. a. less original and less productive with creative ideas b. as original and less productive with creative ideas c. original but more productive with creative ideas d. as productive but less original with creative ideas ANSWER: b 67. The fact that adults born in the 1980s have higher adult IQs than adults born in the 1950s illustrates the _____ effect. a. cumulative-deficit b. Flynn c. intellectual disability d. terminal drop ANSWER: b 68. A researcher is using a measure in which both the emotional and verbal responsiveness of a parent and the provision of appropriate play materials are being assessed. Given this description, the researcher appears to be using the a. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children. b. Stanford-Binet IQ Test. c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development. d. HOME inventory.

ANSWER: d 69. Which "home environment" factor seems to be most important for the intellectual development of a child?

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity a. Having several older siblings b. Having several younger siblings c. A permissive parenting style d. Parental involvement with the child ANSWER: d 70. Which statement best describes the impact of genetics and environment on a child’s IQ? a. At age two, maternal IQ best predicts the IQ of a child; by age four, the impact of the quality of the home environment becomes as good a predictor as maternal IQ. b. At age two, the quality of the home environment best predicts the IQ of a child; by age four, maternal IQ becomes as good a predictor as the quality of the home environment. c. At age two, paternal IQ best predicts the IQ of a child; by age four, the impact of the quality of the home environment becomes as good a predictor as paternal IQ. d. At age two, the quality of the home environment best predicts the IQ of a child; by age four, paternal IQ becomes as good a predictor as the quality of the home environment.

ANSWER: a 71. Scarr and Weinberg’s research on social class and IQ showed that a. children from disadvantaged homes could raise their IQs if adopted into middle-class homes with intelligent adoptive parents. b. children from disadvantaged homes continue to show significant deficits in IQ even after being adopted into middle-class homes with intelligent adoptive parents. c. children from poor economic conditions do not differ significantly in IQ from children from average or above average economic conditions. d. improving the economic conditions of the home has no significant impact on children’s IQs because IQ is so strongly affected by genes.

ANSWER: a 72. Research on genetics and intelligence test scores has shown that a. genetic factors can help partially explain between-group variation but not within-group variation. b. genetic factors can help partially explain within-group variation but not between-group variation. c. genetic factors can help partially explain between-group variation and within-group variation. d. genetic factors cannot help partially explain neither between-group variation or within-group variation.

ANSWER: a 73. Which environmental change is most likely to positively impact an African-American child’s IQ score? a. Raising them in a home environment with little media exposure b. Exposing them to a “culture of tests and the school” c. Telling them to ignore the impact of poverty d. Offering more developmental programs in high school ANSWER: b 74. Reba has been accurately diagnosed as being affected by organic intellectual disability. Which statement about Reba would ALWAYS be true? a. Reba’s disability is due to some identifiable biological cause.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity b. Reba’s level of disability would be either severe or profound. c. Reba was raised in an understimulating environment. d. Reba has three 21st chromosomes.

ANSWER: a 75. Which statement about the classification of intellectual disabilities is true? a. About 10% of school-age children are classified as having an intellectual disability. b. The rate of children diagnosed with mild intellectual disabilities has increased dramatically in the past few decades. c. Parents seldom negatively react to a child’s disability. d. Children with intellectual disabilities often have associated impairments like cerebral palsy or a sensory disorder.

ANSWER: d 76. Results from the Camberwell Cohort study indicated that for adults diagnosed with intellectual disabilities in early life, the a. majority of symptoms disappeared by adolescence. b. original diagnosis had been changed by middle age. c. overall quality of their lives was lower than that of non-impaired peers. d. level of impact on their lives was unrelated to the severity of the disability.

ANSWER: c 77. Using today’s standards, how would Wendy be accurately classified as a “gifted” child? a. She only needs an IQ score of at least 160. b. She must perform in the top 10% on a given task. c. She needs a high IQ score and some special abilities. d. She needs a high IQ score or some special abilities.

ANSWER: c 78. The primary way gifted children can be identified at an early age is by their a. advanced language skills. b. good social interaction skills. c. high level of motor activity. d. lack of motivation to act due to a fear of perfectionism.

ANSWER: a 79. Which of the following accurately summarizes Terman’s famous longitudinal study of findings regarding gifted children (i.e., the “Termites”)? a. Gifted children are often emotionally immature. b. Gifted children are not as well adjusted as their age-mates. c. Gifted children are well adjusted and morally mature. d. Gifted children are well adjusted but physically frail.

ANSWER: c 80. In the past, developmentalists believed that human intelligence is ________, whereas now it is commonly understood Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity that intelligence is ________. a. learned; inborn b. static; malleable c. adaptive; inflexible d. clinical; creative ANSWER: b 81. Efraim is a developmental psychologist who favors the psychometric approach to studying human intelligence. Which of the following would be the focus of his work? a. assessing investments b. analyzing processes c. measuring traits d. determining contexts ANSWER: c 82. Trey is highly skilled at being able to visualize and create three-dimensional forms from schematic drawings.

Spearman's concept of intelligence would identify this as a ________ ability. a. secondary b. sophisticated c. special d. substantial ANSWER: c 83. Which of the following would most likely require you to use fluid intelligence? a. playing a word-spelling game b. completing a driver's license test c. preparing a meal from a recipe d. deliberating a criminal trial verdict ANSWER: d 84. Marya is a participant in a television competition in which she is blindfolded and taken to a remote, unfamiliar location. To win, she must arrive at the designated finish point within 12 hours. What will Marya likely need to draw upon to succeed at this competition? a. terminal intelligence b. g factor intelligence c. fluid intelligence d. crystallized intelligence ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following statements best reflects Gardner's perspective on intelligence? a. Practical intelligence must be mastered before other types can be learned. b. People share three core types of intelligence that develop in strict patterns. c. Each person has unique sets of intelligence that develop at varying rates. d. Intelligence is a function of one's ability to operate in particular situations.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity ANSWER: c 86. Which of the following would be the best visual model for human intelligence? a. a single, large box b. a set of dots in a line c. a set of stacked steps d. a random scatter of dots ANSWER: c 87. Tenisha has an IQ of 137. Within how many standard deviations does Tenisha's score fall from the average? a. −2 b. +1 c. +3 d. +5 ANSWER: c 88. Which perspective on intelligence best reflects individual learning styles and capabilities? a. Spearman's two-factor theory b. Binet's mental age theory c. Sternberg's triarchic theory d. Gardner's multiple intelligence theory ANSWER: d 89. Paolo is studying to be a minister. He hopes one day to lead a congregation and counsel people facing difficult problems related to life and faith. Which of Gardner's intelligences does Paolo likely excel in relative to other people? a. spatial-visual intelligence b. interpersonal intelligence c. existential intelligence d. intrapersonal intelligence ANSWER: c 90. Which of the following concepts best reflects the intelligence of a homeless person living in a major urban city? a. Spearman's g-factor intelligence b. Gardner's spatial-visual intelligence c. Sternberg's practical intelligence d. Cattell and horn's crystallized intelligence ANSWER: c 91. Now that Estella has completed the training period at her new job, she finds that many of her bookkeeping tasks reflect a kind of personal automatization. What aspect of Estella's work role does this address? a. interactions b. efficiency c. accuracy d. compliance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity ANSWER: b 92. By any accounts, Dania is considered a very creative person. What do people see in Dania's work? a. spirit and intellect b. insight and craft c. value and novelty d. passion and humanity ANSWER: c 93. Mikal is currently deeply engaged in the practice of ideational fluency. What is he doing? a. brainstorming b. studying c. designing d. analyzing ANSWER: a 94. Baby Xinyi is participating in an object permanence activity. On which of the Bayley scales will the doctor note his score on this test? a. creativity scale b. motor scale c. language scale d. cognitive scale ANSWER: d 95. Jose and Debbie are thrilled that their daughter Zoe has started babbling. It sounds like nonsense, but Zoe's behavior would be noted as a milestone on which of the Bayley scales of development? a. cognition b. creativity c. language d. interactivity ANSWER: c 96. Which of the following children will be the most insulated from environmental influences that can negatively impact their intellectual development? a. Yolanda, who is 16 months old b. Bryce, who is 28 months old c. Betsy, who is 3 years old d. Terrence, who is 5 years old ANSWER: a 97. As an infant, Keith scored highly on the Bayley scale, however as a high school student, his IQ is slightly below average. What likely accounts for this discontinuity? a. His Bayley scores reflect motor skills and his Stanford-Binet scores reflect sensory skills. b. His Bayley scores reflect abstract skills and his Stanford-Binet scores reflect reasoning skills. c. His Bayley scores reflect sensory skills and his Stanford-Binet scores reflect abstract skills.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity d. His Bayley scores reflect cognitive skills and his Stanford-Binet scores reflect motor skills.

ANSWER: c 98. Baby Joelle is very curious and loves to explore and examine new things. What will be the correlation between this level of information processing and her IQ score in high school? a. −.17 b. +.21 c. +.47 d. +.62 ANSWER: c 99. Mahmoud completed his first IQ test on the WPPSI-IV scale at age 7. This score had a correlation of +.76 with his IQ score at age 9. How will the correlation of Mahmoud's IQ score at age 23 change in relation to his score at age 7? a. It will increase by .15 b. It will decrease by .30 c. It will decrease by .20 d. It will decrease by .35 ANSWER: c 100. In terms of fluency and originality, Cam is experiencing a peak in both measures of creativity. What grade is Cam attending at school? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: b 101. Mark and Sam are both in fourth grade. Mark's parents earn a high income and Sam's parents earn a low income. In which domain do Mark and Sam likely have similar test scores? a. language b. mathematics c. analysis d. creativity ANSWER: d 102. Julia's IQ is 110. Her great grandson Zack's IQ is 125. Which of the following likely accounts for the wide discrepancy in their IQs? a. education b. genetics c. culture d. nutrition ANSWER: a 103. Whether in science or the arts, Carol and Jeannie hope their young son Rex grows up to be a highly creative thinker.

What should they do to help their Rex achieve this goal?

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity a. feed him a healthy diet b. encourage him to explore c. keep him from watching TV d. eliminate household rules ANSWER: b 104. Levar is 63 years old. What is the earliest age at which his past IQ score closely matches his current IQ? a. 5 b. 8 c. 11 d. 13 ANSWER: c 105. Graciela likes to say that she is 70 years young. She is quite active and loves to cook and dance, however she has difficulty doing which of the following tasks? a. reciting historical dates b. solving a logic puzzle c. adding a set of numbers d. defining vocabulary words ANSWER: b 106. Leo recently retired from working as a mail carrier for forty years, and then unfortunately his wife passed away.

What will be most helpful in protecting Leo from experiencing a marked decrease in intelligence over the next few years? a. going for long walks outdoors b. doing word and number puzzles c. reading news articles online d. joining a senior activity group ANSWER: d 107. When Denise met with her son Rajon's counselor to get some perspective on why his SAT scores were so low, the counselor explained that Rajon may have been affected by stereotype threat. In general terms, what may have impacted Rajon's performance? a. heredity b. test bias c. environment d. motivation ANSWER: d 108. Culture has been shown to impact the IQ scores of minority students. In this context, what does "culture" refer to? a. ethnicity b. genetics c. home life d. race ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity 109. Victor has been classified as a gifted child by the school counselor. In what aspect would Victor demonstrate a high degree of social intelligence? a. language b. maturity c. perseverance d. memory ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 110. What is the psychometric approach to intelligence, and how do the Spearman and Cattell & Horn models reflect this approach?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 111. What factors contribute to the development of wisdom and creativity in adulthood? Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Explain the Flynn effect and what it demonstrates about the role of genes and environment on intelligence. Do you see an eventual limit to the Flynn effect? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. What are the strengths and weaknesses of Gardner's and Sternberg's theories? What shortcomings in earlier theories does Sternberg's idea of successful intelligence address?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Provide two examples of teaching convergent thinking and teaching divergent thinking in a school setting. Is one style of teaching more appropriate for today? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Explain how Sternberg's ideas of investment theory and confluence are demonstrated in areas such as Silicon Valley that are known for innovation. Be sure to note examples of at least three of Sternberg's six factors in your discussion.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Identify and describe the concepts of intelligence that reflect the questions "How smart are you?" and "How are you smart?" Then provide several personal examples that answer the second question.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Use a few words each to describe the one core concept underlying Piaget's, Fischer's, Vygotsky's and Gardner's theories of cognitive development. Describe any areas of relevance in these theories to the current understanding of cognitive development, and identify any shortcomings in these theories.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Why do some young popular singers have successful careers into middle age and beyond, while others have one or two hit records and then seem to disappear? About what age do most musical artists tend to fade from view?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Provide three examples from US culture that can lead to stereotype threat for African Americans. What strategies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Intelligence and Creativity would you suggest to help alleviate stereotype threat?

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 10: Language and Education True / False 1. Changing the pitch of a sentence to change the meaning from actual to sarcastic is an example of prosody. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. A holophrase always contains at least two words. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Chomsky proposed that humans are born with a common set of rules and properties for learning any language in the world. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Child-directed speech is characterized by long sentences spoken in a monotone with no repetition of ideas. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. The most effective preschool programs emphasize academic skill-building and de-emphasize play. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Performance goals emphasize proving one’s ability versus improving one’s ability. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Programs designed to raise older-adult levels of literacy are rarely successful. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Five-year-old Oliver, who knows both English and Spanish, has a more efficient working memory than his five-yearold friend Max, who only knows English. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Because his buddies in the neighborhood tease Carlton for "acting white," his grades may potentially drop and he could lose his spot on the honor roll at school.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Students who work at a job while in high school can gain personal benefits but at the expense of academic performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. How many of the following (“d,” “da,” “dada,” “daddy”) are phonemes? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: a 12. _____ are the basic units of meaning in a language. a. Phonemes b. Syntax c. Morphemes d. Intonation ANSWER: c 13. Which word consists of three morphemes? a. Cat b. Volcano c. Previewing d. Breakfast ANSWER: c 14. The semantic rules for forming sentences are referred to as a. phonology. b. prosody. c. syntax. d. pragmatics.

ANSWER: c 15. When Jasmine says, “That song makes me blue.” Her friend Rice says, “You don’t look like a different color to me.”

Rice’s failure to understand that in certain context the word “blue” in English means depressed illustrates a lack of _____ understanding. a. morpheme b. syntactic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education c. prosody d. semantic ANSWER: d 16. Which linguistic concept is best defined as an understanding of the rules concerning the appropriate use of language in different social context? a. Prosody b. Pragmatics c. Holophrasing d. Syntax ANSWER: b 17. Which aspect of speech involves the melody, intonation, or timing of a word production? a. Semantics b. Prosody c. Syntax d. Morphology ANSWER: b 18. Six-week-old Beck is lying in his crib and making a melodic sound that might be described as an “eeeeee.” What is Beck doing? a. babbling. b. telegraphing. c. cooing. d. holophrasing.

ANSWER: c 19. Six-month-old Emir is sitting in his car seat and repeatedly saying “na-na-na-na.” What is Emir doing? a. babbling. b. telegraphing c. cooing. d. holophrasing.

ANSWER: a 20. Which statement is true? a. At five months of age, deaf and hearing children from all cultures make similar sounds. b. At five months of age, deaf and hearing children produce very different sounds. c. At five months of age, children from different cultures produce very different sounds. d. At five months of age, deaf children produce no sounds while hearing children produce many sounds.

ANSWER: a 21. One-year-old Daniel's ability to learn the meaning of words has been greatly enhanced by the fact that his dad, Leo, often points and repeatedly names objects that are around him. Leo's teaching style best reflects the process of a. intonation.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education b. vocabulary spurt. c. joint attention. d. decontextualized language.

ANSWER: c 22. When using syntactic bootstrapping, a child a. uses a word’s placement in a sentence to help determine its meaning. b. generates a one-word utterance that has the meaning of a full sentence. c. uses a grammar rule in an inappropriate manner. d. is able to immediately connect a word in one language to its counterpart in a second language.

ANSWER: a 23. Nadine’s father says, “Look at that ferret with that man.” She has never before heard the term “ferret,” but based on its placement in her dad’s statement, she is sure that it refers to the animal the man has on a leash. Nadine’s ability to ascertain the meaning of the word “ferret” was accomplished using a. overextension. b. syntactic bootstrapping. c. telegraphic speech. d. emergent literacy.

ANSWER: b 24. Which is the typical order of linguistic attainment (from earliest to latest)? a. Coo, then babble, then holophrase, then telegraphic speech b. Babble, then coo, then holophrase, then telegraphic speech c. Coo, then babble, then telegraphic speech, then holophrase d. Babble, then coo, then telegraphic speech, then holophrase ANSWER: a 25. In a holophrase, a. a single word conveys the meaning of an entire sentence. b. the same word is used for many objects in an environment. c. an infant makes vocalizations consisting only of vowel sounds. d. a vocalization is produced, but it has no meaning.

ANSWER: a 26. Joel reaches up to Daddy with waving outstretched arms and says "Up!" meaning "Daddy, pick me up!" This is an example of a. underextension. b. echolalia. c. a holophrase. d. babbling.

ANSWER: c 27. Linguistic overextension occurs when a person Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education a. uses the same word to describe too wide a range of objects. b. initially learns all the letters of the alphabet. c. cannot understand the relationship between the sound for a word and the object it represents. d. uses many words to describe a single object.

ANSWER: a 28. Two-year-old Tracy calls every four-wheeled vehicle she sees “truck.” This is an example of a. overextension. b. overregularization. c. telegraphic speech. d. social speech.

ANSWER: a 29. Though 18-month-old Yolanda knows the word “car,” she only uses it when referring to her mother’s sedan, not any other vehicle. Yolanda's linguistic limitation is best described as involving a. underextension. b. overregularization. c. telegraphic speech. d. overextension.

ANSWER: a 30. Over- and underextension are best associated with _____ errors. a. phonological b. morphological c. syntax d. semantic ANSWER: d 31. When a person speaks using several critical content words but does not actually use full sentences, he or she is said to be engaging in a. underextension. b. telegraphic speech. c. babbling. d. joint attention.

ANSWER: b 32. Functional grammar emphasizes the _____ relations between words. a. semantic b. morphological c. phonological d. intonation ANSWER: a 33. Logan has just realized that the phrase “daddy run” can mean both “daddy is going for a run” and “can I go for a run Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education with daddy.” This realization best illustrates the acquisition of a. overregulation. b. functional grammar. c. metalinguistic awareness. d. child-directed speech.

ANSWER: b 34. Rachel stubs her toe and says "Ouch! I hurted myself!" This is an example of a. animism. b. metacognition. c. overregularization. d. overextension.

ANSWER: c 35. Juan has just developed the ability to convert a declarative sentence (e.g., “I like pizza”) into both a question (e.g., “Do I like eating pizza?”) and an imperative (e.g., “I must eat pizza!”). This would indicate that Juan now is aware of a. overregulation. b. functional grammar. c. overextension. d. transformational grammar.

ANSWER: d 36. Sarah is just starting first grade. How many words will she draw on to communicate with friends and teachers? a. 15,000 b. 1,000 c. 5,000 d. 10,000 ANSWER: d 37. Older adults experience all of the following changes in language EXCEPT that a. they use less complex sentences than younger adults do. b. they show refinements in the pragmatic use of language. c. their knowledge of semantics increases. d. their knowledge of grammar decreases.

ANSWER: d 38. Concerning language, Broca’s area is to Wernicke’s area as a. visual is to auditory. b. production is to comprehension. c. syntax is to semantics. d. left hemisphere is to right hemisphere.

ANSWER: b 39. Researchers have shown that individuals who are better able to learn new words show more connectivity between their Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education left and right a. supramarginal gyrus. b. pons. c. adrenal medulla. d. reticular formation.

ANSWER: a 40. Carter has been diagnosed with aphasia. What symptom is he most likely exhibiting? a. Difficulty in maintaining his balance b. Difficulty in retrieving an autobiographical memory c. Difficulty in repeating a sentence he just heard d. Difficulty in scoring above average on an IQ test ANSWER: c 41. What is the best summary of implications of neurobiological research on language? a. Language acquisition is impacted solely by heredity factors. b. Language acquisition is impacted by both heredity and environmental factors. c. Language acquisition is impacted solely by environmental factors. d. The genetic factors which underlie language acquisition cannot be identified.

ANSWER: b 42. Tyler argues that language is best explained in terms of a baby imitating the speech of her parents and being reinforced by parents for speaking words properly. These arguments best fit with the _____ perspective on language acquisition. a. constructivist b. learning c. humanist d. cognitive ANSWER: b 43. Which best reflects the nurture-based research on language acquisition? a. Children only learn words that are directly spoken to them. b. Reinforcing a word does not increase the odds that a word will be learned. c. Frequent caregiver conversation involving questions encourages language development in children. d. Aphasia may be related to damage of arcuate fasciculus fibers.

ANSWER: c 44. With regard to language learning, nativists believe that a. language is learned as a result of differential parental reinforcement. b. children learn language by listening, observing, and imitating. c. children are biologically programmed for language acquisition. d. the social environment plays the most critical role in language learning.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education 45. Universal grammar is best described as a. a list of the manner in which all words should be pronounced. b. the biological factor that limits the specific language a newborn will acquire. c. the belief that there are an unlimited number of possibilities for forming language. d. a system of common rules and properties for learning any of the world’s languages.

ANSWER: d 46. Which statement about the language acquisition device is FALSE? a. It is activated by exposure to language. b. It determines the language an infant speaks. c. It involves specific areas of the brain. d. It helps a child learn the specific language to which he or she is exposed.

ANSWER: b 47. Which finding would be most difficult to explain from the nativist perspective of language acquisition? a. The human brain contains areas that appear to be specifically designed to process language. b. Children progress through the same sequence in acquiring language skills and at roughly the same ages. c. Children exhibit remarkable cultural differences in early language learning. d. Overregularization and other characteristics of early language appear to be universal phenomena.

ANSWER: c 48. Which of the following is evidence for a critical period for language acquisition? a. Children denied access to language often have difficulty mastering language skills in later life. b. Deaf children who never hear language can learn to speak. c. Adults are more likely to acquire multiple languages than are children. d. Children do not acquire large vocabularies until they learn to read.

ANSWER: a 49. When describing his ideas on language acquisition, Harlan says, “I believe that humans have a natural biological predisposition toward language and that the environment that the child is raised in also impacts the development of language skills.” Given this description, Harlan appears to hold a(n) _____ perspective concerning the acquisition of language. a. nativist b. interactionist c. learning d. psychodynamic ANSWER: b 50. When Samira is talking to her infant son, Sanjay, she tends to use a more high-pitched voice, slow speech, and short simple sentences. Samira's speech would best be described as a. telegraphic. b. holophrastic. c. child-directed. d. underextended.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education ANSWER: c 51. When someone is speaking to three-month-old Donte, which of the following styles will most likely capture his attention? a. low-pitch sounds and nonvaried intonation b. low-pitch sounds and varied intonation c. high-pitch sounds and nonvaried intonation d. high-pitch sounds and varied intonation ANSWER: d 52. When her toddler holds her cup up and says, “Milk,” her mother says, “You're ready for more milk.” The mother's response is best described as an example of a. expansion. b. holophrastic speech. c. child-directed speech. d. babbling.

ANSWER: a 53. The intrinsic drive to be successful in one’s environment defines a. mastery motivation. b. external motivation. c. learned helplessness. d. metalinguistic awareness.

ANSWER: a 54. Which example best illustrates mastery motivation? a. Terrell's innate ability to understand phonemes b. Vuong's innate drive to succeed c. George’s parents’ rewards for his academic success d. Marta's extremely large vocabulary ANSWER: b 55. Research has shown that children in preschools with very strong academic orientations tend to be less _____ by the end of their kindergarten year. a. anxious b. creative c. negative toward schooling d. intelligent ANSWER: b 56. Lakesha believes that her abilities and talents are malleable, and that if she works hard enough she will be able to improve her grades. What type of mindset does Lakesha have? a. fixed b. growth c. internal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education d. external ANSWER: b 57. Belmont has a high degree of mastery motivation. On his first psychology test, he scores 52 out of 100 (an “F”). What is his most likely reaction? a. He blames himself for being stupid. b. He blames himself for not studying. c. He blames the instructor for writing such a hard test. d. He doesn’t care about his level of performance.

ANSWER: c 58. When attempting to learn to play football, Javier has great difficulty in throwing the odd-shaped ball. After several bad passes, he decides that he has no talent for football and will never be any good at it. Javier's behavior provides an example of _____ goals. a. performance b. mastery c. internal d. external ANSWER: a 59. Which statement would indicate that Justin has adopted mastery goals concerning playing the guitar? a. “The key is to play better than my friend Danielle.” b. “If I can’t learn to play, then I am a loser.” c. “If I practice, I will get better.” d. “Music is an innate talent.”

ANSWER: c 60. The key motivation for someone with a strong sense of performance goals is to a. significantly improve his or her performance. b. process information as deeply as possible. c. feel value from the learning process. d. be seen as smart and not dumb.

ANSWER: d 61. If Fadia wants to help her son Khalid develop a mastery motivation orientation, she should a. de-emphasize the importance of self-reliance. b. encourage him to do things well. c. try to not offer guidance. d. praise him lavishly for his accomplishments even if the performance is actually very poor.

ANSWER: b 62. Angie doesn't seem to even want to try to do well in her high school math class. If her mom Karen wants to help change her self-defeating pattern of behavior, Karen should a. provide a cognitively stimulating home environment. b. tell Angie her failures have just been due to bad luck.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education c. offer her a monetary reward if her grades improve. d. continually pressure her about her poor grades.

ANSWER: a 63. An effective method for a school to positively influence motivation is to a. stress competition concerning class grades. b. discourage parental involvement, making children respond on their own. c. emphasize intrinsic motivation techniques. d. avoid adopting learning goals.

ANSWER: c 64. “Low ability” students with a mastery goal a. persist, but only when they succeed. b. persist and show major frustration when they fail. c. persist and show little frustration despite failure. d. do not persist, regardless of success or failure.

ANSWER: c 65. During the _____ phase of reading, a child is first able to “read” something that he or she memorized during a previous reading session. a. prealphabetic b. partial alphabetic c. full alphabetic d. full phonological awareness ANSWER: a 66. Brandy has just begun to learn to read. At this point, she knows that the letter with one line and two bumps is the “B.” She also knows that this letter corresponds to the “b” sound, and it is the first letter of her name. While Brandy has this knowledge, she is not yet able to connect all written words with their sounds. Brandy is best classified as being in the _____ phase of reading development. a. prealphabetic b. partial alphabetic c. full alphabetic d. phonological awareness ANSWER: b 67. Hamid has just acquired the ability to “sound out” a word. This means that when he sees the word “bend” for the first time, he is able to decode it as “b” plus “e” plus “n” plus “d” and say “bend.” Hamid’s newfound ability indicates that he has acquired _____ awareness. a. semantic b. syntactical c. morphological d. phonological ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education 68. When a child is able to realize that some letter combinations (e.g., “br,” “st,” “ed”) need to be perceived as a single unit versus several individual units, he or she is said to be in the _____ phase of reading. a. pre-alphabetic b. consolidated alphabetic c. partial alphabetic d. full alphabetic ANSWER: b 69. Exposure to rhyming stories is most likely to enhance the _____ aspect of emergent literacy. a. phonological awareness b. fast mapping c. telegraphic speech d. decontextualized language ANSWER: a 70. Unskilled readers tend to _____ more than skilled readers. a. rely on phonological cues b. make sure their eyes “hit” all words c. use context to help identify words d. connect letters and sounds ANSWER: c 71. Monica sees the sentence, “I saw a dog,” but reads the sentence as, “I was a god.” This indicates that Monica is best classified as a. ignoring joint attention cues. b. lacking mastery motivation. c. engaging in child-directed speech. d. suffering from dyslexia.

ANSWER: d 72. Individuals with dyslexia a. show deficiencies in every reading area except phonological awareness. b. are best classified as having a speech disorder. c. devote so much effort to decoding words that recall for the words is compromised. d. tend to outgrow the problem in adulthood even without intervention.

ANSWER: c 73. The concept of appropriately matching an environment with a person’s characteristics is called a. overregulation. b. goodness-of-fit. c. mastery orientation. d. joint attention.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education 74. Reasons for declining achievement motivation during adolescence include all of the following EXCEPT a. stronger emphasis on physical development. b. poor person-environment fit. c. increasingly negative feedback from teachers regarding ability. d. increased importance of peer acceptance.

ANSWER: a 75. Which family characteristic is NOT associated with lower achievement? a. Growing up in a single-parent family b. Being a member of a minority group c. Having an uneducated mother d. Having a parent who uses consistent discipline ANSWER: d 76. Lower academic performance in African-American teens has been linked to a. negative peer pressure. b. an attempt to reject cultural identity. c. overinvolved parents. d. too extreme a valuation on academics.

ANSWER: a 77. When compared to American students, Asian students appear to have higher levels of academic achievement. Which of the following is NOT one of the proposed reasons for this advantage? a. Asian students spend more time being educated. b. Asian student are assigned and complete more homework. c. Asian parents tend to have a “hands-off” attitude concerning their children’s education. d. Asian peers value academic achievement.

ANSWER: c 78. Which best describes achievement motivation during adulthood? a. Achievement motivation is steady from middle to old age for both females and males. b. The loss of motivation is an inevitable part of the aging process (especially in those over age 70). c. For both females and males, achievement motivation increases steadily from young adulthood to middle age. d. Achievement motivation is more affected by work and family context than by the process of aging.

ANSWER: d 79. Literacy is defined as the ability to use a. printed information to function in society. b. verbal speech to function in school. c. gestures to communicate ideas to another person. d. written language to demonstrate one’s intelligence.

ANSWER: a 80. Research on adult education has shown that Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education a. literacy programs for adults tend to be highly successful. b. older adult college students are more likely to be motivated by external expectations than traditional students. c. adult men tend to return to the classroom for personal enrichment reasons. d. returning adult students often put more effort into learning material because they want or need to use the information.

ANSWER: d 81. Which of the following is the best advice for parents of young toddlers who want them to succeed later in school and life? a. "Teach and test." b. "Let them play." c. "Keep them thinking." d. "Raise the stakes."

ANSWER: b 82. A program that targets environmental factors to improve toddlers' readiness for school would focus on ________. a. promoting academics b. reducing poverty c. updating classrooms d. training parents ANSWER: d 83. Cedric attended an Abecedarian program for preschool. Compared to his friends who did not attend the program, Cedric ________. a. had a higher cognitive score than his peers until age 12, when they surpassed his score b. had a consistently higher cognitive score into young adulthood c. had a higher cognitive score through first grade but then matched his peers' scores into young adulthood d. had a higher cognitive score that continued to rise into young adulthood ANSWER: b 84. Which of the following statements best reflects a student who has a performance mindset? a. Try your best, forget the rest. b. Failure is not an option. c. Live to learn, love to learn. d. Feed your mind and be happy.

ANSWER: b 85. Which of the following statements best reflects a student who has a growth mindset? a. Classmates are competitors. b. The joy is in the doing. c. Go big or go home. d. Only failures get Cs. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education 86. Who goes to school every day guided by mastery goals? a. Jonah, a second grader b. Lexie, a fourth grader c. Miguel, a seventh grader d. Priya, a ninth grader ANSWER: a 87. Heather has always been a below average student. Her mom tells Heather she still loves her even if she's dumb. How will Heather respond to her third grade class contest that will award a bike to the boy and girl who read the most books this term? a. She will be very motivated. b. She will become frustrated. c. She will not read any books. d. She will commit to winning.

ANSWER: b 88. To help curtail the decrease in achievement motivation that occurs in adolescents, an effective strategy would be to ________. a. manage their social activity b. reduce their emotional stress c. increase parent accountability d. encourage after-school jobs ANSWER: b 89. School districts that want to raise student performance in math should implement community-wide strategies to ________. a. enhance cognitive training b. increase job opportunities c. prevent bullying behavior d. raise student motivation ANSWER: d 90. In a recent test of math proficiency, three students in an American eighth grade classroom scored in the top 10%. How many students in a classroom of the same size in Singapore were in the top 10% on the same test? a. 6 b. 15 c. 21 d. 34 ANSWER: c 91. Based on cross-cultural research, parents who want their children to be high academic achievers should do which of the following? a. reduce focus on goals and emphasize mastery b. emphasize high standards and self-reliance c. set high goals and provide consistent support Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education d. enable teachers to fully guide their activities ANSWER: c 92. Hazuki has always told his children, "If you work hard, you will be rewarded with success." What does Hazuki's parenting philosophy reflect? a. goodness of fit b. overextension c. growth mindset d. stereotype promise ANSWER: c 93. A teenager working a part-time, low-skill job will likely experience a reduction in which of the following over time? a. peer pressure b. self-esteem c. motivation d. income ANSWER: c 94. Hernani, a junior in high school, recently asked his boss at the burger shack if he could pick up two more work shifts.

Which of the following likely describes Hernani? a. He spends much time on homework. b. He has never tried alcohol or pot. c. He is on the honor roll at school. d. He feels bored in the classroom.

ANSWER: d 95. Which of the following eighth grade students is most at risk for not finishing high school? a. Johnetta, who lives in a trailer with blue collar parents and has a high IQ b. Keith, who lives with his divorced mom in a housing project and drinks beer c. Nancy, who lives with her parents in a middle class suburb and smokes pot d. Rob, who lives with his stepdad in an apartment and is captain of the debate team ANSWER: b 96. Elaine decided to quit high school when she was 16. Now that she is 30, how does she compare to her peers who did graduate from high school? a. higher job responsibility b. higher average income c. lower cognitive function d. lower risk of depression ANSWER: c 97. Which of the following is the least flexible factor in "sorting" adolescents into high and low future success routes? a. household economics b. childhood IQ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education c. parent involvement d. peer influence ANSWER: b 98. Sean and Jack want to make sure their daughter 13-year-old Maria is focused on finishing high school and getting a college degree. To achieve their goal what should they discuss with Maria now? a. the negative influence of her peers b. the importance of academic grades c. the value of personal responsibility d. the demands of standardized tests ANSWER: c 99. Which of the following does NOT play a role in the decline in older adults' language capabilities? a. motivational drive b. memory problems c. sensory deficits d. cognitive decay ANSWER: a 100. Because she has traveled all over the world and had many different jobs during her 75 years, Olga has a very rich understanding of ________. a. phonemes b. semantics c. morphemes d. prosody ANSWER: b 101. Which of the following could be considered the most flexible and sophisticated in older adults' use of language? a. semantics b. prosody c. expansion d. pragmatics ANSWER: d 102. Which term best describes the achievement motivation of older adults? a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. social d. pragmatic ANSWER: a 103. Now that her children have finished college and moved out of the house, 40-year-old Dr. Rita Sanchez will likely experience an increase in which of the following? a. social motivation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education b. career motivation c. academic motivation d. intrinsic motivation ANSWER: b 104. At age 54, what will be most likely to motivate Henry in his job? a. colleagues b. salary c. titles d. purpose ANSWER: d 105. A random sampling of 100 American adults are gathered to participate in a focus group discussion. How many of the attendees can read at no higher than a third grade level? a. 5 b. 9 c. 14 d. 21 ANSWER: c 106. Based on statistics, which of the following plays a key role in low adult literacy rates? a. genetics b. education c. citizenship d. culture ANSWER: b 107. The state has just opened a new training facility to assist adults who rank in the bottom tier of literacy scores. Of the 100 participants in the first training session, how many live in poverty? a. 25 b. 35 c. 50 d. 60 ANSWER: c 108. A nonprofit organization welcomed 100 people to participate in a new 10-week adult literacy training program. How many of the attendees did not complete the program? a. 32 b. 47 c. 61 d. 73 ANSWER: d 109. Marcus recently began taking a night class at the community college – thirty years after he graduated from high school. Why is Marcus likely taking the class?

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Chapter 10: Language and Education a. because he wants to better himself b. because he enjoys learning new things c. because his job requires new knowledge d. because his cognitive skills need a boost ANSWER: c 110. Younger college students are more likely than older returning students to ________. a. connect learning to experience b. study just enough to get by c. focus on personal learning d. attend classes for a job ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 111. Describe the linguistic concepts of phonemes, syntax, semantics, pragmatics, prosody, and word segmentation. Be sure to provide examples of each.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. How does level of achievement change during adolescence and adulthood? What factors lead to declines or increases in achievement?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. How does experience impact language? Be sure to address language development in the deaf, the acquisition of a second language, and the idea of a critical period in language acquisition.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Explain the difference between mastery motivation and achievement motivation, noting how they change as people develop over the life span. Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Write a brief proposal that outlines your recommended early education strategies to assist low-income urban children. Provide at least three ideas for both the educational and the environmental components, and support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Some school districts have programs and incentives aimed at encouraging more men from minority groups to become elementary and middle school teachers. Why might this be important from a developmental perspective? Provide examples to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. How does Shernoff's perspective on complexity in high school relate to Vygotsky's zone of proximal development?

Give an example to support your thinking..

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Compare and contrast stereotype promise and stereotype threat. Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education 119. Given what you have learned about motivation and education, what strategies would you suggest to increase the program completion rate in adult literacy programs? Provide examples to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Outline the potential benefits and drawbacks of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation for both adolescents and adults.

Should motivation change over the life span or should one style be favored over another? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality True / False 1. A person in foreclosure status is facing no crisis and exhibits no commitment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The identity moratorium status is characterized by active exploration of identity and possible crises. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Older individuals tend to adjust their ideal selves to be more in line with their real selves. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Big Five personality traits tend to change dramatically following adolescence. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Successful aging in later life requires engagement in society. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. A toddler who can recognize himself in a mirror likely has the ability to recognize and respond to the emotions of other children at the playground. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Being sent to the principal’s office for being bossy to kids in her fourth-grade class put a dent in Sheila’s self-esteem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A 32-year-old who spends time in and out of jail for various offenses likely ranked low in effortful control as a child. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Erikson and Freud both view adult personality as being primarily determined by experiences during infancy and early childhood.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Most adolescents experience a dip in self-esteem that tends to rebound in later adolescence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. The most accurate description of a dispositional trait is that it is a. a unique life event. b. a situation-specific way of acting. c. the cultural in which we live. d. a broad and relatively stable dimension of personality.

ANSWER: d 12. Around the holidays, Holly feels motivated to change her ways and become a more generous individual. This goal is best characterized as a a. narrative identity. b. self-evaluation. c. dispositional trait. d. characteristic adaptation.

ANSWER: d 13. Which of Tela’s statements best exemplifies a narrative identity? a. “I like who I am.” b. “Whenever I go to a party, I have to remember not to drink too much.” c. “I am introverted.” d. “Given my past failures in school, graduating from college will make my life meaningful.”

ANSWER: d 14. At the motocross show, Brian admitted, “Actually, I’m a fairly incompetent motorcycle rider,” giving his buddies a good sense of his a. self-concept. b. self-esteem. c. self-recognition. d. ideal self.

ANSWER: a 15. Which statement best exemplifies the concept of self-esteem? a. “I am white, 52 years old, and live in Wisconsin.” b. “All in all, I am a worthless individual.”

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality c. “Women find me highly physically attractive.” d. “I can recognize my own voice when I hear it on tape.”

ANSWER: b 16. Who would be most likely to argue that the vast majority of personality is formed between birth and age six? a. Leo, a psychodynamic theorist b. Javier, a psychometric theorist c. Alicia, a social learning theorist d. Mina, a behavioral theorist ANSWER: a 17. What are the key characteristics of someone with the personality dimension of high agreeableness? a. open to fantasy and interested in variety b. hostile and anxious c. trustworthy and compliant d. a high achiever and a person with self-discipline ANSWER: c 18. Raven gets invited to all the parties because she seems to love the spotlight and craves excitement. A psychometric theorist would most likely describe Raven as being a. conscientious. b. extraverted. c. agreeable. d. neurotic.

ANSWER: b 19. The social learning perspective assumes that a. there are universal stages in the development of personality. b. personality is best described in terms of trait dimensions. c. personality traits have a strong genetic basis. d. personality development is highly influenced by environmental experience.

ANSWER: d 20. Vicki was reserved as a baby, shy as a child, and shy as an adult. Social learning theorists would say that Vicki a. was genetically predisposed to be shy. b. is a product of environments that consistently fostered the same personality trait. c. was unable to resolve psychosocial crises in positive ways. d. identified with her shy mother, which influenced her id.

ANSWER: b 21. With regard to personality development, what belief is shared by Albert Bandura and Erik Erikson? a. There are universal, age-related changes in personality development. b. Biological factors are critical in the development of personality. c. Humans are best described in terms of five critical core personality traits.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality d. Personality has the potential to change during adulthood.

ANSWER: d 22. When Carmelo is playing basketball, he is very aggressive. When he is playing at his house with his young daughter, he is very passive. These situations best exemplify the concept of a. same context, different personality. b. different context, different personality. c. different context, same personality. d. same context, same personality.

ANSWER: b 23. Nine-month-old Morgan sees a rabbit in the yard. He then looks at his father, Ben, and tries to direct Ben’s focus toward the bunny by pointing at it. Morgan’s behavior illustrates the process of _____ as an indicator of an emerging selfawareness. a. joint attention b. industry c. temperament d. behavioral inhibition ANSWER: a 24. Which of the following utterances clearly demonstrates that an infant has developed a categorical sense of self? a. "My car" b. "I big girl" c. "Pick me up" d. "Daddy’s book" ANSWER: b 25. When talking to his grandmother on the phone, Riley says, “I am four years old, I am a boy, and I have red hair.” This statement best illustrates the concept of a. a looking-glass self. b. self-esteem. c. diffusion status. d. categorical self.

ANSWER: d 26. Which of the following accomplishments is typically the LAST to occur? a. Recognition of self-image in the mirror b. Engaging in joint attention with an adult c. Recognition of self as physically distinct from others d. The influence of social feedback on the sense of self ANSWER: d 27. Three-month-old Dontrell is eating strained peas for the very first time. Despite the fact that this is a new experience, he appears quite happy with his meal. With regard to temperament, Dontrell is best classified as a. easy.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality b. extraverted. c. surgent. d. resistant.

ANSWER: a 28. The slow-to-warm-up temperament is characterized by a. relative inactivity and mild reactions to change in routine. b. relative inactivity and intense reactions to change in routine. c. high levels of activity and mild reactions to change in routine. d. high levels of activity and intense reactions to change in routine.

ANSWER: a 29. While she does not scream when her parents attempt to cuddle with her, Marwa does tend to look away and demonstrate some discomfort with this activity. With regard to temperament, Marwa is best classified as a. diffused. b. difficult. c. slow-to-warm-up. d. foreclosed.

ANSWER: c 30. Children who are behaviorally inhibited are a. high in extraversion and openness to new experience. b. low in emotionality and extraversion. c. high in neuroticism and low in extraversion. d. low in sociability and neuroticism.

ANSWER: c 31. Which statement would indicate that an individual has a high level of surgency? a. “Paying attention to boring people is hard.” b. “I am always excited, in a good way, to meet people.” c. “Meeting people makes me nervous.” d. “I hate people.”

ANSWER: b 32. One-year-old Takumi loves interacting with his peers. A developmental theorist would most likely describe Takumi as being high on the _____ dimension of temperament. a. initiative b. effortful control c. diffusion d. surgency ANSWER: d 33. When asked to describe his sister Maggie, Jake says, “It’s like she is afraid all the time.” If accurate, this statement indicates that Maggie would likely score high on a measure of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality a. foreclosure. b. conscientiousness. c. effortful control. d. negative affectivity.

ANSWER: d 34. Which behavior would indicate that Manny has a high level of effortful control? a. He is very easily frustrated. b. He can quickly shift his attention from one topic to another. c. He makes friends very easily. d. He likes taking on new challenges.

ANSWER: b 35. Research on early temperament and later development suggests that a. temperament and personality are developmentally unrelated concepts. b. there is a meaningful relationship between early childhood temperament and later adult personality. c. behavioral inhibitions in early life are related to extraversion in later life. d. "easy" children may turn out to be maladjusted adults, but "difficult" children are certain to do so.

ANSWER: b 36. Goodness-of-fit is best defined as a. the extent to which the child's temperament is compatible with the social world. b. a child’s ability to distinguish himself from his environment. c. the amount of impact genetic factors has on the development of personality. d. the extent to which a child develops an attachment to a caregiver.

ANSWER: a 37. In most settings, an easy temperament is associated with more positive adaptation. However, in times of famine, infants with “difficult” temperaments in the Masai tribe have been known to outlive babies with “easy” temperaments.

This finding is used to illustrate the important effect that ____ has on developmental outcomes. a. goodness-of-fit b. parenting style c. self-esteem d. life review ANSWER: a 38. As a typical three-year-old, when asked about his self-concept, Rashid’s answer would most likely be, a. “I am smart.” b. “I am funny.” c. “I am small.” d. “I am excitable.”

ANSWER: c 39. A significant change in self-description that appears at about age eight is a shift from descriptions focusing on Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality a. physical characteristics to descriptions focusing on social qualities. b. inner qualities to descriptions focusing on action statements. c. subjective to objective self-evaluations. d. action statements to physical characteristics.

ANSWER: a 40. While Madison has always thought of herself as the best dancer in the world, she has just begun to notice that some of the other kids in her class are better than her. This realization indicates that Madison has begun to engage in a. behavioral inhibition. b. social comparison. c. disengagement. d. joint attention.

ANSWER: b 41. Sitting under a tree after school one day, Justin says to himself, “I should be smarter, less afraid of taking chances, and good at biology.” These thoughts best represent Justin’s a. ideal self. b. temperament. c. self-recognition. d. joint attention.

ANSWER: a 42. Children who are high in self-esteem tend to have parents who a. have few rules and generally let children decide for themselves what is best. b. make decisions for their children so they are not burdened with making choices. c. have a “warm” and democratic parenting style. d. do not discipline their children.

ANSWER: c 43. Which statement between temperament and later personality is FALSE? a. Well-adjusted three-year-olds tend to be well-adjusted adults b. Highly emotional and difficult to control three-year-olds tend to be impulsive teens c. Behavioral inhibition in preschool is predictive of low extraversion in middle childhood d. An infant’s high ability to exhibit effortful control predicts a lack of conscientiousness in later life ANSWER: d 44. Rosa is 16 years old and her sister Yasmin is nine. In terms of their self-perceptions, research would suggest that a. Rosa’s self-description is more likely to be based on physical attributes than Yasmin’s. b. Rosa’s self-portrait would be less abstract than Yasmin’s. c. Rosa would be more self-aware than Yasmin. d. Rosa would have a less differentiated self than Yasmin.

ANSWER: c 45. Who is most likely to experience a decrease in self-esteem in early adolescence?

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality a. Katy, a white female b. Manuela, a Latina female c. Lance, a white male d. Javier, a Latino male ANSWER: a 46. Which question best exemplifies the identity and role confusion conflict? a. What kind of moral values do I have? b. Has my life been worthwhile? c. Am I the fastest runner in my class? d. Have I produced something that will outlive me?

ANSWER: a 47. The period of experimenting with different roles that is so common during adolescence is referred to as the _____ period. a. foreclosure b. joint attention c. moratorium d. temperament ANSWER: c 48. According to James Marcia, adolescent identity can be classified into one of four statuses that are based on the key issues of a. crisis and commitment. b. commitment and conscientiousness. c. conscientiousness and comparison. d. comparison and crisis.

ANSWER: a 49. The _____ identity status would best be described as “no conflict, no crisis, and no clue.” a. foreclosure b. moratorium c. identity achievement d. diffusion ANSWER: d 50. Which best represents "identity diffusion status"? a. Glenn plans to be a teacher because his parents and siblings are all teachers. b. Beatriz doesn't really know what she wants to be when she "grows up" and couldn't care less about even exploring the possibilities. c. Jiang has taken a battery of interest inventories and is exploring different majors at the university, thinking about possibilities for her future career. d. Hafez has talked with career counselors, his parents, peers, and instructors, and has determined that he is best suited for a career in teaching. He is now doing his student teaching.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality ANSWER: b 51. The _____ identity status would best be described as “I haven’t really thought about it, but my parents think…” a. foreclosure b. moratorium c. identity achievement d. diffusion ANSWER: a 52. Rhonda’s mother and father are both professional singers, as are her two older sisters. Rhonda is in college, enrolled in a music curriculum. When asked about her career goals, she states, "I'll be a singer, of course. Everyone in my family is a singer. I've never thought of being anything else." Rhonda's identity status is best described in terms of a. foreclosure b. moratorium. c. identity achievement. d. diffusion.

ANSWER: a 53. Cedric has always considered a career in professional baseball as his best career option. Lately, he’s begun to question this choice. In fact, he’s been trying other sports to see if they may be more of what he wants in life. James Marcia would say that Cedric is currently experiencing _____ status concerning his career goals. a. diffusion b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. identity achievement ANSWER: b 54. The reliable gender difference concerning identity achievement during adolescence is that a. males tend to attach more emphasis on aspects of identity involving interpersonal relationships. b. females tend to attach more emphasis on aspects of identity involving career identity. c. males tend to attach a greater emphasis on aspects of identity involving sexuality. d. females tend to attach a greater emphasis on aspects of identity involving family and career goals.

ANSWER: d 55. If you were to assess the domain identity status of 100 typical high school juniors concerning occupational choice, gender-role attitudes, religious beliefs, and political ideologies, you should expect to find a. the same level of status in all for domains. b. the highest status on gender roles and the lowest on religious beliefs. c. the highest status on political ideologies and the lowest on occupational choice. d. different levels of status in most of the domains.

ANSWER: d 56. A positive sense of ethnic identity a. is seldom found in African-American adolescents. b. can protect an adolescent from damaging effects of racial prejudice.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality c. tends to be completed by elementary school. d. has little to do with parental behavior.

ANSWER: b 57. The main development trend concerning vocational identity in late adolescence is that a. for the first time in life, individuals actively explore vocational possibilities. b. one’s sex comes first into consideration when thinking about career options. c. choices begin to reflect real-life concerns such as education cost and preferred lifestyle. d. the match between personality and occupation is seen more and more as irrelevant.

ANSWER: c 58. Which statement concerning vocational development in adolescence is true? a. The fit between one’s self-concept, personality, and occupation is unimportant. b. Chance events seldom impact career decisions. c. Minority status may lead one to lower or compromise one’s career plans. d. In women, holding traditional gender-role attitudes tends to lead to higher vocational aspirations.

ANSWER: c 59. Who would likely be rated highest for self-esteem? a. 17-year-old Jenna b. 36-year-old Diane c. 63-year-old Bessie d. 91-year-old Lorena ANSWER: c 60. Which statement concerning self-esteem development is true? a. Most older adults suffer from a poor sense of self-image. b. Older individuals may retain a high sense of self-image by reducing the ideal-real self gap. c. The average level of self-esteem at age 60 is half of that at age 16. d. Males show higher levels of self-esteem across all developmental age levels.

ANSWER: b 61. What is the developmental relationship between ideal self, present self, and future self? a. The three aspects of self are most similar in the teenage years. b. The three aspects of self are most similar in the young adult years. c. The three aspects of self are most similar in the middle-aged years. d. The three aspects of self are most similar in the elderly adult years.

ANSWER: d 62. Holding a negative image (stereotype) of aging a. may reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in adulthood. b. can lead to physically slower behavior in older adulthood. c. tends to lead to improvements in memory in old age as people know they need to try harder. d. does not appear to have any measurable impact on adult physical or mental status.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality ANSWER: b 63. Parents living in an individualistic culture tend to socialize children to be a. self-reliant. b. modest. c. interdependent. d. altruistic.

ANSWER: a 64. Which statement indicates that Jade adheres to a collectivist culture philosophy? a. “It is important to be independent and self-reliant.” b. “It’s my way or the highway.” c. “It’s not about me, it’s about my people.” d. “The needs of the one outweigh the needs of the whole.”

ANSWER: c 65. Which is true regarding personality during adulthood? a. There is little stability of personality traits between young and old adulthood. b. Broad personality dimensions, such as extroversion and neuroticism, are fairly stable across adulthood. c. An introverted young adult will most likely become an extraverted older adult. d. Personality traits cannot be measured in older adults.

ANSWER: b 66. Research has indicated that as individuals move from adolescence to middle age, they would be most likely to experience a modest increase in a. neuroticism. b. extraversion. c. openness to new experience. d. conscientiousness.

ANSWER: d 67. With regard to personality development during adulthood, which statement is true? a. There is generally more change in personality between adolescence and middle age than there is between middle age and old age. b. There are virtually no changes in personality beyond adolescence. c. The historical context in which people grow up appears to have little influence on personality development. d. Most people undergo highly significant personality changes as they progress from middle age to old age.

ANSWER: a 68. Which is likely to contribute most to change in personality across the lifespan? a. Consistent environments b. Genetic inheritance c. Long-lasting childhood experiences d. Poor person-environment fit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality ANSWER: d 69. Mia has just become concerned with how she compares to her peers. For example, she wants to know if she can kick a soccer ball farther or read better than her friends. Mia is in which of Erikson's psychosocial stages? a. Autonomy versus shame and doubt b. Initiative versus guilt c. Industry versus inferiority d. Identity versus role confusion ANSWER: c 70. According to Erikson, psychologically healthy middle-aged adults are most likely to a. begin to be concerned about how their abilities compare with their age peers. b. be strongly focused on the reality of death and dying. c. be concerned with making a contribution to society for future generations. d. focus on the establishment of intimate relationships with others.

ANSWER: c 71. Forty-year-old Zelda is proud of the tutoring she is doing at school with kids who have learning problems and feels that she is doing something positive for future generations. It is most likely that Zelda is in Erikson's stage of a. integrity versus despair. b. identity versus role confusion. c. intimacy versus isolation. d. generativity versus stagnation.

ANSWER: d 72. Which event is best associated with Erikson’s integrity versus despair stage of development? a. Committing to a long-term relationship b. Having your first child c. Comparing yourself to your peers d. Life review ANSWER: d 73. Which statement best summarizes the research on the “midlife crisis”? a. Most males experience a significant midlife crisis, but few females have such an experience. b. Most females experience a significant midlife crisis, but few males have such an experience. c. Most people experience a significant midlife crisis. d. Most people experience some self-questioning at midlife but not a significant crisis.

ANSWER: d 74. The idea of remaining effective by developing ways to get around the need for other skills than the ones you already possess best fits with the _____ component of the selective optimization with compensation theory. a. selective b. optimization c. compensation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality d. integrity ANSWER: c 75. Irene has been a secretary for 40 years. Despite her advancing age, her typing skills remain excellent. This is mostly due to the fact that she continues to practice her typing every day. The Baltes’ model would suggest that the process of _____ is most responsible for Irene’s continued high level of performance. a. selective b. optimization c. compensation d. stagnation ANSWER: b 76. About one year after she retired, Verniece suddenly became very unhappy and expressed the opinion that she now had nothing to do in her life. Verniece appears have entered the _____ phase of retirement. a. honeymoon b. reorientation c. midlife d. disenchantment ANSWER: d 77. Yumi has just entered the phase of retirement best described as “realistic and satisfying.” This would indicate that she is in the _____ phase of retirement. a. honeymoon b. reorientation c. midlife d. disenchantment ANSWER: b 78. Jackson is about to retire. In preparation, he has begun to take up golf as a way to fill some of the time he would normally have been at work. Jackson’s response best fits with the _____ theory concerning successful aging. a. temperament b. activity c. disengagement d. stagnation ANSWER: b 79. As she nears her 100th birthday, Ruth, though remaining happy, has begun to become much less involved with her church and other social groups. Ruth’s reaction to aging best fits with the _____ theory concerning successful aging. a. honeymoon b. activity c. disengagement d. generativity ANSWER: c 80. What is the best advice concerning successful aging?

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality a. Older adults need to keep active and engaged. b. Older adults need to be allowed to disengage. c. Older adults should find a good fit for their personality and environment. d. Older adults should strive to follow younger role models.

ANSWER: c 81. Which of the following would be considered a dispositional trait? a. feeling fear at a bloody horror movie b. feeling nervous about a final exam c. feeling anxious starting a new job d. feeling worried about life in general ANSWER: d 82. Frank was nervous about asking his boss for a raise, but he knew he deserved more pay. So he put on his "big boy" hat and walked confidently into the manager's office to make his case. What is Frank demonstrating? a. narrative identity b. characteristic adaptation c. dispositional trait d. identity achievement ANSWER: b 83. Which aspect of personality reflects a past, present, and future perspective? a. characteristic adaptation b. self-esteem c. narrative identity d. categorical self ANSWER: c 84. If you were to assign yourself a grade of B+, from a personality perspective you would be focusing on ________. a. self-recognition b. self-concept c. self-consciousness d. self-esteem ANSWER: d 85. Mallory is writing her profile for an online dating website – and being honest! Which of the following best describes what Mallory described on the site? a. ideal self b. identity c. personality d. self-concept ANSWER: d 86. A major shift occurs in a baby's sense of self at around 8 to 12 weeks of age that is grounded in the concept of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality ________. a. symbols b. control c. categorization d. reflexes ANSWER: b 87. Antonio is a toddler who is able to recognize himself in a mirror. What is he more likely to do now compared to peers who have not reached this milestone? a. babble b. blush c. kick d. laugh ANSWER: b 88. A toddler who can recognize herself in a mirror is more likely to be ________in her daycare class. a. cooperative b. selfish c. passive d. insecure ANSWER: a 89. Which of the following would be a key factor in deciding whether a child is ready to enter the more structured environment of first grade? a. surgency b. extraversion c. self-esteem d. effortful control ANSWER: d 90. Tevin feels insecure and has problems dealing with people in authority – despite being 45 years old. His aunt believes this is because Tevin had a difficult temperament as a child and his parents were quite young, impatient with him, and quick to anger. What has impacted Tevin's adult personality? a. social comparison b. poor goodness of fit c. midlife crisis d. role confusion ANSWER: b 91. Reggie has recently noticed that his daughter Katya no longer merely describes herself as a good girl who has red hair, but as a brave girl who has lots of friends. How old is Katya? a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 11 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality ANSWER: c 92. A boy who laughs at all his classmates because he was the only one to score 100 on the spelling test is probably going a little overboard with ________. a. self-esteem b. ideal self c. social comparison d. effortful control ANSWER: c 93. Which of the following factors that develops in childhood can often be the cause of significant problems in middle and high school? a. categorical self b. social comparison c. self-recognition d. effortful control ANSWER: b 94. Which aspect of a pre-schooler's self-esteem definition becomes more specialized as they progress through childhood? a. appearance b. extraversion c. competence d. control ANSWER: c 95. Which of the following would reflect the correlation between a fifth grader's athletic self-esteem and their physical education teacher's assessment of their athletic ability? a. −.17 b. +.31 c. +.42 d. +.68 ANSWER: d 96. Which of the following best reflects the concept of the ideal self? a. crisis b. goal c. stereotype d. benchmark ANSWER: d 97. The temperament of a baby generally ________ the personality of an adult. a. dictates b. contradicts c. forecasts Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality d. limits ANSWER: c 98. Nathan owns a travel company in which he takes clients on adventure excursions to places like the Amazon Basin and the African savannah. As a child, Nathan likely rated high on which of the Big Five personality dimensions? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. openness to experience ANSWER: d 99. Which of the following is NOT a key factor in adolescents' formation of a self-concept? a. close friends b. familiar adults c. romantic partners d. peer group members ANSWER: b 100. Which of the following best reflects how an adolescent's self-concept compares to the self-concept of a child? a. more emotional b. more sophisticated c. more social d. more positive ANSWER: b 101. On the football field, Keshaun is a brute, always loud and talking smack and getting up in opponents' faces. In class he's calm, quiet, and studious. How would you assess Keshaun's behavior?. a. He is having difficulty resolving his real self and his ideal self. b. He understands that people can be different in different situations. c. He is a phony trying to gain points on the social comparison scale. d. He has a diffused personality status due to lack of crises in his life.

ANSWER: b 102. As a teenager, Luz struggled with low self-esteem. Which of the following characteristics likely fits her now that Luz is an adult? a. good physical health b. high annual income c. poor mental health d. low criminal involvement ANSWER: c 103. Which term best describes an adolescent's focus on their self-concept? a. measured b. casual Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality c. resigned d. intensive ANSWER: d 104. As he enters his final year of high school, Hakeem has a pretty solid sense of who he is and where he wants to go in life. From a cognitive perspective, Hakeem has mastered ________. a. concrete operations b. formal operations c. postformal thought d. effortful control ANSWER: a 105. Robin has successfully completed her moratorium stage and is ready to navigate the world committed to her goals and values. On the Big Five scale, she likely scored low on ________. a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness ANSWER: c 106. Edward grew up in a fairly wealthy neighborhood and attended private schools. In terms of family he feels little connection to his parents, who are mainly focused on making money and gaining prestige. What is Edward's likely identity status? a. moratorium b. achievement c. diffusion d. foreclosure ANSWER: c 107. In the context of forming a healthy sense of identity, what benefit does attending college offer? a. depressed self-esteem b. credentials c. expertise d. exploration ANSWER: d 108. Traditional societies would likely view the practice of adolescents taking time to explore options and form a unique identity as being________. a. heresy b. ritualized c. indulgent d. vital ANSWER: c 109. Identity achievement is a key factor in an adult's ________ in life.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality a. status b. functionality c. integrity d. autonomy ANSWER: b 110. By any standard, Viola would be considered a young adult who has achieved a stable and positive identity. What type of parenting style did Viola's parents likely practice when she was growing up? a. uninvolved b. permissive c. authoritarian d. democratic ANSWER: d Subjective Short Answer 111. How does the development of self proceed from birth through age three?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. What is self-esteem, and how does it change across the lifespan? What factors influence self-esteem in positive or negative directions?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. In what ways might one’s culture and ethnic identity impact self-concept?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Describe the concepts of real self and ideal self in adulthood. Explain how and why the gap between these concepts tends to change between young and older adulthood. Provide an example to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Describe a situation in which an older person demonstrates selective optimization with compensation in the workplace. Be sure to identify each aspect in your example.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. How does infant temperament relate to personality in adults? Provide an example for each type of temperament.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Write a brief self-description that you would have told someone when you were in first grade. Then write a brief selfdescription of you today. Finally, describe any differences between the two self-concepts you wrote and explain them from a developmental perspective.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. In many competitive situations today, all children receive trophies and awards simply for participating – regardless of their performance. What effect can this have on a child's self-esteem? Do you agree with this practice? If so, explain your reasoning from a developmental perspective. If not, suggest more suitable alternative practices.

ANSWER: Answer not provided Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality 119. List and describe Holland's six personality types, and provide a job title or career path that is suitable to each personality type.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. List the three psychosocial conflicts that occur in adulthood. Provide an example of each crisis and describe how a person would successfully resolve it.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality True / False 1. Males are more developmentally vulnerable to prenatal stressors. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Third-graders are likely to be more concerned and troubled by violations of traditional gender-role standards than are first-grade youngsters. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Gender intensification appears to be magnified by hormonal release during puberty. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Parents may perpetuate gender-role stereotypes through differential reinforcement of their children’s behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Gender stability involves understanding that gender is stable across situations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. An androgynous person has neither masculine nor feminine characteristics. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Being raised by a gay parent significantly increases the likelihood of a child becoming gay. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. A young female infant will spend equal amounts of time looking at a toy truck and a doll. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. A child who is ranked highly in agency could be perceived by others as selfish. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality b. False ANSWER: True 10. One drawback to women living longer than men is that they lack sex partners later in life. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Each society generally has a set of expectations regarding the behaviors and traits that are considered appropriate for males as compared to females. These sets of expectations are a. gender roles. b. gender-role stereotypes. c. gender types. d. gender identities.

ANSWER: a 12. While Charlotte is growing up, she is socialized into believing that a woman should stay home and take care of the children while men go off to work and "bring home the bacon." This message best reflects a a. gender-role stereotype. b. gender type. c. gender identity. d. gender-role norm.

ANSWER: d 13. Which is the best example of a communality role in American society? a. Telling off a bad waiter b. Working on a project alone c. Caring for a sick child d. Winning a tennis tournament ANSWER: c 14. The goal of the gender role aspect called “agency” is to prepare a person for a. the acquisition of sexist language. b. individual achievement. c. developing a “nurturing side.” d. the onset of sexual urges in puberty.

ANSWER: b 15. With regard to gender stereotypes in the 1990s vs. today, a. more males now view themselves as having no communality traits. b. more women now view themselves as having more agentic traits. c. more boys who reject communality traits are developing homosexual orientations.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality d. more girls who reject agentic traits are experiencing teen pregnancy.

ANSWER: b 16. If Kirsten believes in the saying, “Boys and girls are more alike than different,” she is clearly a fan of a. psychodynamic theory. b. a double standard. c. the gender similarity hypothesis. d. gender segregation.

ANSWER: c 17. Research on gender differences in math ability has shown that a. males have superior computational skills. b. females obtain slightly higher grades in math classes. c. males score higher on math tests in all countries. d. females express more negative attitudes about math.

ANSWER: b 18. Which is true regarding common gender stereotypes? a. There is solid research evidence that females generally have better visual/spatial skills than males. b. There is consistent research support for the fact that males are more aggressive than females. c. Females are more vulnerable to diseases and disorders than males. d. There are no gender stereotypes that are consistently supported by research.

ANSWER: b 19. Research on gender differences suggests that girls are a. more compliant than boys in all situations. b. more demanding than boys. c. more compliant than boys with authority figures but not with peers. d. more likely than boys to engage in risky behavior.

ANSWER: c 20. If American children Nicholas (a boy) and Alexandra (a girl) are typical of other members of their sex, then you would predict that a. Nicholas would likely be more cooperative. b. Alexandra would show more interest in caring for an infant. c. Nicholas would be more cautious. d. Alexandra would be more likely to be autistic.

ANSWER: b 21. If we identified 100 typical males and 100 typical females and assessed them across a variety of psychological attributes, chances are that about _____ of the observed differences could be attributed to whether the person was male or female. a. 0% b. 5% Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality c. 25% d. 50% ANSWER: b 22. Which statement about sex differences is true? a. Actual psychological gender differences are small, however they make a major difference in a society. b. Actual psychological gender differences are large, however they make little difference in a society. c. Actual gender psychological differences are small, and they make little difference in a society. d. Actual gender psychological differences are large, and they make a major difference in a society.

ANSWER: a 23. Shawn and Denise are a typical U.S. couple. What makes them a little unusual is that Denise works outside the home while Shawn is a stay-at-home dad. Research has indicated that Shawn and Denise most likely a. divide their at-home labor responsibilities along traditional lines. b. divide their at-home labor responsibilities along gender-neutral lines. c. divide their at-home labor responsibilities in direct opposition traditional lines. d. do not divide their at-home labor responsibilities.

ANSWER: a 24. Adults are asked to interact with an unknown infant. Half of the adults are told that the infant is “Steve” and the other half are told that the infant is “Stacy.” What are you likely to observe of these interactions? a. At such a young age, there are not likely to be any differences in how adults treat the infant in the two conditions. b. Adults will treat the infant similarly until it begins to act in stereotypical ways, and then their responses will differ. c. Adults will detect the real biological sex of the infant due to their behavior, and respond based on the infant's sex. d. Adults are likely to rate “Steve” as strong and brave and “Stacy” as soft and cuddly.

ANSWER: d 25. Khalid has begun to demonstrate cross-modal associations of gender information by looking longer at a female face when he hears a female voice than when he hears a male voice. How old is Khalid? a. one hour b. one week c. one month d. one year ANSWER: d 26. Most children clearly demonstrate basic gender identity by a. 1 to 1½ years of age. b. 2½ to 3 years of age. c. 3½ to 4 years of age. d. 5 to 6 years of age.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality 27. The process by which children become aware of the fact that they are either male or female and that there are different cultural expectations concerning the pattern of behavior for the two sexes is called a. androgenizing. b. gender-role stereotyping. c. sexual orienting. d. gender typing.

ANSWER: d 28. Through her mother’s efforts, Olive has just come to realize that she is a girl and has also begun to acquire behaviors expected of girls. This process is best classified as a. gender typing. b. androgenizing. c. sexual orienting. d. the double standard.

ANSWER: a 29. Children appear to learn gender stereotypes a. at about the time they understand that they cannot change their sex. b. during the first few months after birth. c. around the point that they become aware of their basic gender identities. d. around the end of the elementary school years.

ANSWER: c 30. Which statement concerning toddlers’ understanding of gender roles is true? a. Females appear to understand gender-based activities much earlier than males. b. Males appear to understand gender-based activities much earlier than females. c. Females and males appear to understand gender-based activities at the same age. d. Toddlers do not show any understanding of gender-based activities.

ANSWER: c 31. Who would a typical five-year-old in the U.S. believe to be most competent at their job? a. A female construction worker b. A male nurse c. A female teacher d. A male stay-at-home dad ANSWER: c 32. With regard to children's views of gender stereotypes, research has indicated that a. nine-year-olds are more bothered than five-year-olds when kids' activities violate gender-role stereotypes. b. five-year-olds are more upset by violations of gender-role stereotypes than are nine-year-olds. c. concern about violations of gender stereotypes is very high throughout childhood (age four through nine). d. concern about violations of gender stereotypes is nonexistent until the teenage years.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality 33. What effect does the establishment of a firm sense of gender identity tend to have on children? a. They develop more rigid rules concerning appropriate “boy” and “girl” behavior. b. They develop more flexible rules concerning appropriate “boy” and “girl” behavior. c. They abandon all rules concerning appropriate “boy” and “girl” behavior. d. They initially identify rules concerning appropriate “boy” and “girl” behavior.

ANSWER: b 34. Max, Trayvon, and the rest of the boys in the first-grade class have decided that from now on, boys will only play with boys and never with girls. What are these students demonstrating? a. gender stereotyping b. gender typing c. gender segregation d. gender stability ANSWER: c 35. Five-year-old Preetha draws clear lines between what types of games boys and girls should play and makes every effort to avoid playing with boys like her neighbor Kevin. Research has shown that preschoolers with attitudes like Preetha tend to be a. aggressive. b. shy. c. rejected by peers. d. well adjusted.

ANSWER: d 36. Which two groups view violations of gender roles most negatively? a. Young elementary school-aged children and adolescents b. Preschoolers and elementary school-aged children c. Middle-school-aged children and adolescents d. Preschoolers and adults ANSWER: a 37. Based on research by Stoddart and Turiel, which two people would you expect to hold the most negative attitudes concerning the violation of gender roles (e.g., a boy wearing nail polish)? a. A 5-year-old and a 7-year-old b. A 5-year-old and a 13-year-old c. A 7-year-old and a 9-year-old d. A 9-year-old and a 13-year-old ANSWER: b 38. In general, young adolescents a. view gender-role violations as a sign of psychological abnormality. b. are more accepting of peers' cross-sex interests than they are likely to be as adults. c. make less negative judgments of peers who violate traditional gender roles than do those in middle childhood. d. show significantly fewer sex difference on tests of cognitive abilities.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality ANSWER: a 39. Gender intensification involves an increased a. desire to be viewed as androgynous. b. intolerance of any deviation from proscribed gender roles. c. drive to have "hook ups" due to peer pressure. d. experimentation with sexual orientation.

ANSWER: b 40. An example of gender intensification would involve a. boys noticing that some girls like romance. b. a boy asserting his masculinity among his peers. c. a girl acting like a "tomboy." d. a boy acting like a “sissy.”

ANSWER: b 41. Gender intensification appears to be driven by a. maturation of the amygdala and adrenals. b. prenatal hormones and social experiences in infancy. c. the need to experiment with one’s gender role. d. hormonal changes and peer pressure.

ANSWER: d 42. Biosocial theory views the sex chromosome pattern of an infant (e.g., XX) as a. irrelevant to gender-role development. b. a starting point for biological differentiation of the sexes. c. the determinant of one’s gender. d. the after effect of gender-identification.

ANSWER: b 43. Money and Ehrhardt's biosocial theory of gender typing suggests all of the following EXCEPT that a. gender-role development is strongly influenced by socialization. b. there are critical periods for the establishment of gender identity. c. early biological developments influence how parents label and treat a child at birth. d. fetal chromosomal differences determine gender-role behavior.

ANSWER: d 44. What evidence did Money and Ehrhardt use as the basis for concluding that there is a critical period for the establishment of gender identity? a. Hormones must be released prenatally to have any impact on behavior. b. Sex reassignment can be successfully done when a child has achieved gender identity, but not once a child has achieved gender stability. c. Sex reassignment before 18 months of age causes few adjustment problems, while reassignment after 3 years of age is very difficult.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality d. Sex reassignment while still in the preoperational stage of development causes few adjustment problems, while reassignment once concrete operational thought has begun is very difficult.

ANSWER: c 45. From the time they are born, twins Johnny (a boy) and Tracey (a girl) are treated diversely. For example, whenever Johnny plays with a truck, his parents praise his behavior. Whenever Tracey shows an interest in a doll, her parents praise her actions. A social learning theorist would likely argue that this _____ will likely lead to distinct gender roles for Johnny and Tracey. a. observational learning b. parental identification c. systemizing d. differential reinforcement ANSWER: d 46. Research by Morrongiello and Hogg (2004) found that when asked to prevent future risky behavior in a child who had misbehaved in some dangerous way (e.g., bicycling fast down a hill), moms reported that they would a. set more rules for both boys and girls. b. not intervene with the boys but would set more rules with girls. c. not intervene with the girls but would set more rules with boys. d. not intervene with either boys or girls as risky behavior was “in their blood.”

ANSWER: b 47. Research on reinforcement of sex-appropriate behavior indicates that a. fathers are more likely than mothers to discourage youngsters for playing with gender-inappropriate toys. b. peers are more critical of cross-sex behavior in the infant years than in later childhood. c. while impacting gender-role attitudes, parental reinforcement appears not to impact children’s behavior on sex-related tasks (e.g., mathematics). d. differential reinforcement of sex-appropriate behavior typically begins when a child reaches kindergarten.

ANSWER: a 48. Audrey grows up in a family in which her father provides at-home daycare and her mother is a construction worker.

Audrey loves trucks and hates dolls. A social learning theorist would be most likely to explain Audrey's attitudes in terms of a. gender confusion. b. observational learning. c. a double standard. d. gender segregation.

ANSWER: b 49. In which type of media outlet would you expect to find the strongest portrayal of traditional gender stereotypes? a. Television b. Picture books c. Video games d. Elementary textbooks ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality 50. With regard to gender-role development, social learning theorists have been criticized for a. portraying children as passive participants in the developmental process. b. overemphasizing the role of biological factors. c. placing too little emphasis on the role of differential reinforcement. d. denying the role that the media (e.g., television) play in promoting gender typing.

ANSWER: a 51. "I am a boy. Therefore I want to do the things boys do." This statement is reflective of which theoretical perspective regarding gender-role development? a. Biosocial theory b. Cognitive-developmental theory c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Social-learning theory ANSWER: b 52. For Kohlberg, the outcome of the three childhood stages of gender development is the acquisition of gender a. moratorium. b. flexibility. c. androgyny. d. constancy.

ANSWER: d 53. According to cognitive-developmental theory, the initial phase of gender identity is established around age 2 or 3, when a child a. realizes that boys and girls do different things. b. first begins to use the terms “boy” and “girl.” c. first begins to be treated differently by their parents. d. recognizes that they are a male or female.

ANSWER: d 54. Which statement indicates that a child is in Kohlberg’s initial basic gender identity stage of development? a. “Girls do housework.” b. “If you wear a dress, you are a girl.” c. “I am a girl.” d. “Some girls are pretty.”

ANSWER: c 55. Martin has just come to realize that when a boy dresses like a girl, he does not actually become a girl. In cognitivedevelopmental theory, Martin appears to have just acquired a. basic gender identity. b. gender consistency. c. gender stability. d. gender segregation.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality ANSWER: b 56. According to the cognitive-developmental perspective of gender typing, which is the most mature understanding? a. Understanding that some things are "boy things" and others are "girl things" b. Understanding how to correctly label one's self as male or female c. Understanding that gender is stable across situations d. Understanding that gender is stable across time ANSWER: c 57. The most common criticism of Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental explanation of gender typing is that a. children often acquire gender-typed behaviors and preferences before they acquire gender stability and consistency. b. his proposed sex differences in the rate at which boys acquire gender versus girls remains unsupported. c. there is no evidence that the development of cognitive skills is related to the acquisition of gender typing. d. it places too much emphasis on hormonal factors.

ANSWER: a 58. Martin and Halverson's gender schema model suggests that a. children learn gender roles solely as a result of parental reinforcement of sex-appropriate behaviors. b. children are intrinsically interested in learning about objects or activities that fit their own-sex schemas. c. inaccurate gender stereotypes are easily changed. d. children are passive participants in gender-role development.

ANSWER: b 59. A major difference between Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory and Martin and Halverson’s gender-schema theory is that gender typing in the gender-schema theory a. does not begin to develop until after children have developed gender stability and gender consistency. b. begins as soon as children acquire gender identity at around two to three years of age. c. develops via passive exposure to external models of gender-typed behaviors. d. is unrelated to cognitive development.

ANSWER: b 60. Which is the best example of an in-group-out-group gender schema? a. Black children are more athletic than white children. b. Boys who play with dolls don't like girls. c. Boys can fight, but girls should play nice. d. If you are a girl, you will grow up to be a woman.

ANSWER: c 61. Four-year-old Bao believes that only girls can be nurses. At his next check-up, he happens to be seen by a male nurse.

According to gender-schema theory, if a week later you were to ask Bao if boys can be nurses, his answer would most likely be a. “No, they can never be.” b. “Yes, boys can be nurses.” c. “Yes, but only for little kids.”

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality d. “Yes, but only if their wife is a doctor.”

ANSWER: a 62. According to gender-schema theory, if four-year-old Marisol (who classifies herself as a girl) believes that jumping rope is a “girl thing” and playing football is a “boy thing,” then she would most likely a. talk a lot about football, but would not play football. b. think that jumping rope is for her (even if she has never done it in the past). c. argue that boys should be made to jump rope. d. try playing football to make sure that it is not for her.

ANSWER: b 63. On which of the following points do most theories of gender-role development agree? a. Biological forces are the most important determinant of gender-role development. b. Children identify with their same-sex parent in order to resolve painful feelings of family conflict. c. Gender roles that children develop depend on an interaction between biological factors and what their society offers in terms of gender models. d. Gender roles depend on acquiring a certain level of cognitive development.

ANSWER: c 64. In general, gender roles a. are more differentiated during adolescence than they are among newlyweds. b. become more traditional and differentiated in a married couple following the birth of a child. c. tend to remain constant across the adult years. d. are more pronounced for couples when both partners are working.

ANSWER: b 65. Which statement concerning gender roles in adulthood is FALSE? a. In families where both parents work, the division of housework is 50-50. b. Men and women tend to develop more similar gender roles after their children have “left the nest.” c. Marriage often leads to the development of more distinct gender roles. d. Gender role differences between men and women tend to decrease in older age.

ANSWER: a 66. On a personality test, Burt scores very low on both the agentic and communal scales. As such, he is best classified as a. masculine. b. feminine. c. androgynous. d. undifferentiated.

ANSWER: d 67. How would you demonstrate androgyny? a. Be both assertive and compassionate. b. Be both compassionate and understanding. c. Be both understanding and affectionate.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality d. Be both affectionate and compassionate.

ANSWER: a 68. The theory that becoming parents pressures males to be more "masculine" and females to be more "feminine" is referred to as the a. androgyny shift. b. double standard. c. parental imperative. d. gender segregation.

ANSWER: c 69. Prior to the birth of their first child, Darnell and June have very strong gender-role orientation. Darnell, the father, is extremely masculine while June, the mother, is extremely feminine. According to the “parental imperative,” what would you expect to happen to Darnell and June’s gender roles following the birth of their first son, Wally? a. Both June and Darnell will become more feminine. b. June will become more masculine and Ward more feminine. c. Both June and Darnell will become more masculine. d. There will be little change in their gender roles.

ANSWER: d 70. Observations of infants and infant sexuality suggest all of the following EXCEPT that a. they appear to derive pleasure from oral stimulation. b. their genitals are sensitive to stimulation. c. they actively seek sexual contact with other infants. d. they undergo what appear to be orgasms.

ANSWER: c 71. Research supports all of the following EXCEPT that a. adrenal gland activity around age 10 appears to be linked to the first sexual attraction. b. attitudes concerning sexual behavior vary between cultures. c. the first sexual attraction tends to occur prior to the maturation of the sex organs. d. sexual behavior in puberty is best conceptualized as being solely driven by hormones.

ANSWER: d 72. The impact of sexual abuse appears to be most severe when the abuse was a a. one-time event involving a stranger. b. one-time event involving a close relative. c. frequent, long-term event involving a stranger. d. frequent, long-term event involving a close relative.

ANSWER: d 73. Twin studies on sexual orientation show that a. genes are much more influential than environmental factors in determining sexual orientation. b. sexual orientation is determined almost completely by environmental factors.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality c. a genetic link cannot be established because not enough twins will participate in this kind of research. d. genetic and environmental influences appear about equally responsible for sexual orientation.

ANSWER: d 74. Most teens in the U.S. believe that a. sex, both in the context of a committed relationship and in casual relationships, is acceptable. b. sex, in the context of a committed relationship is acceptable, but casual sex is much less acceptable. c. casual sex is acceptable, but sex in the context of a committed relationship is much less acceptable. d. neither casual sex nor sex in the context of a committed relationship are acceptable.

ANSWER: b 75. Which best illustrates the underlying premise of the double standard? a. What’s okay for him is not okay for her. b. I want to only play with girls, not boys. c. Men are smart, women are dumb. d. Male but feminine equals gay.

ANSWER: a 76. When discussing sex with his buddies, Javier says, “The key is to understand that normal guys want and need sex, whereas girls who want sex are immoral and corrupt.” Javier's comments best exemplify the concept of a. the double standard. b. gender segregation. c. the androgyny shift. d. gender intensification.

ANSWER: a 77. Research on 12th-graders indicates that a. significantly more males than females are sexually active (i.e., have had at least one sexual encounter). b. significantly more females than males are sexually active (i.e., have had at least one sexual encounter). c. both males and females tend to be sexually active (i.e., have had at least one sexual encounter) d. neither males nor females are sexually active.

ANSWER: c 78. A 2007 study of college students found that about _____ agreed that they “had sex” when they engaged in oral-genital stimulation. a. 20% b. 40% c. 80% d. 100% ANSWER: a 79. Research on 16-year-old sexual abstainers, low risk-takers, and high risk-takers found that a. abstaining was most common in teens with unwed mothers. b. high-risk teens looked more mature at earlier ages than teens from the other groups.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality c. low-risk teens were most likely to be involved in romantic relationships. d. there was no relationship between behaviors exhibited between ages 9 and 12 and later sexual activity.

ANSWER: c 80. Women a. tend to have a shorter sexual refractory period than men. b. show increases in the speed of sexual arousal in older age. c. lose the physiological capacity to have sex before men. d. who have experienced menopause show a steep decline in interest in sexual activity.

ANSWER: a 81. Which of the following is a component of a man's gender? a. build b. strength c. compassion d. testes ANSWER: b 82. Which of the following is a component of a woman's gender? a. breasts b. uterus c. strength d. attire ANSWER: d 83. Which of the following terms best reflects the concept of gender roles? a. biological dictates b. social expectations c. parental guidelines d. common inaccuracies ANSWER: b 84. Wanda has recently recognized that she has a vagina but her brother has a penis. What caused Wanda to have a vagina and not a penis? a. an X chromosome b. a Y chromosome c. hormones d. neurotransmitters ANSWER: c 85. The guys on the soccer team always kid coach Martinez, saying that he's like an old mother hen the way he watches over them and asks what they ate and if they slept well. What are the team members experiencing from their coach? a. double standard b. agency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality c. role reversal d. communality ANSWER: d 86. Cleo was frustrated with her husband Jesse because he always had some appliance or gadget taken apart on her dining room table. She finally agreed to turn the spare bedroom into a workroom for him so she can have guests for dinner. What is the cause of Jesse's behavior? a. communing b. agency c. dominance d. systemizing ANSWER: d 87. Which of the following indicates how American women identify with masculine and feminine traits now compared to 20 years ago? a. Masculinity and femininity has increased b. Masculinity has remained the same, while femininity has decreased c. Masculinity has increased, while femininity has remained the same d. Masculinity has remained the same, while femininity has increased ANSWER: b 88. DeMarco graduated from college in 2015. How does he likely think about men and women? a. slightly favoring men b. as equals c. slightly favoring women d. strongly favoring men ANSWER: b 89. Which term best reflects the cause of homosexuality? a. genetic b. uncertain c. hormonal d. social ANSWER: b 90. When he was in early elementary grades, most of Zack's friends were girls and they were always flirting at recess. So it surprised his parents when Zack told them at 15 that he is gay. Which term describes Zack's playground behavior? a. inconsistent child gender stability b. early gender desensitization c. childhood gender nonconformity d. androgenized social interaction ANSWER: c 91. The prevalence of homosexuality among identical twins is ________ the prevalence among all fraternal twins. a. three times higher than Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality b. about the same as c. four times higher than d. slightly lower than ANSWER: c 92. Compared to the proportion of adults who identify as homosexual or bisexual, the proportion of teens who participate in homosexual activity is ________. a. much lower b. slightly lower c. about the same d. much higher ANSWER: d 93. Quinn is a member of the demographic group of teens and young adults who have come out to their parents. How old was Quinn when he told his parents that he is gay? a. 17 b. 19 c. 22 d. 24 ANSWER: b 94. Tameka is in the pre-coming out stage of her journey toward a transgender identity. Which of the following terms best reflects her state? a. relieved b. confident c. anticipatory d. confused ANSWER: d 95. According to Bockting and Coleman, the process of adopting a transgender identity culminates with ________. a. integration b. declaration c. self-acceptance d. validation ANSWER: a 96. A group of 100 transgender teens have gathered for a state house rally in support of a comprehensive antidiscrimination law for LGBT youth. How many of the teens in this group have been bullied at some time? a. 39 b. 52 c. 67 d. 74 ANSWER: c 97. Sammy is at an age where he is developing a sexual identity and considering how to act on it. Which of the following Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality will have the most impact on how Sammy navigates this process? a. doctors b. society c. parents d. school ANSWER: b 98. A group of high school seniors are heading up to a cabin at a lake where many of their peers from the county will be celebrating the weekend after graduation. For attendees who decide to hook up, what are they most at risk of contracting? a. HIV b. syphilis c. gonorrhea d. chlamydia ANSWER: d 99. High school students who are thinking about becoming sexually active will usually delay doing so if they ________. a. focus on academics b. talk to their mother c. recognize the stigma d. consider the risks ANSWER: b 100. A group of freshmen football players are talking about how great their sex lives will likely be once they get on the varsity team. They're also talking about getting a vaccine someone heard about that can protect them from an STI. What do they hope to avoid by getting the vaccine? a. chlamydia b. herpes c. gonorrhea d. genital warts ANSWER: d 101. A group of 100 college students who self-identify as virgins have gathered to hear a speaker discuss safe sex practices. How many of the attendees raise their hands when asked if they have had oral sex? a. 17 b. 28 c. 41 d. 53 ANSWER: c 102. Overall, adolescents' self-reports on frequency of sexual behavior are largely dependent on which of the following? a. values b. orientations c. definitions d. comparisons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality ANSWER: c 103. She is sad to see him go, but Carol's last child has moved away to college in another state. Which of the following is Carol most likely to do in the next year? a. interview for jobs b. join a church group c. quit her workout club d. connect with cousins ANSWER: a 104. The last of Abe's five kids has recently gotten married and moved away. Which of the following is Abe most likely to do in the next couple of years? a. change careers b. run for office c. paint the house d. go to church ANSWER: d 105. Which of the following terms best reflects the perspective women adapt after their kids have grown and moved out of the house? a. passive b. agentic c. isolated d. stoic ANSWER: b 106. Which of the following accurately reflects a role in the parental imperative? a. dad takes a business trip to Florida b. mom takes a promotion at work c. dad takes the kids to soccer practice d. mom cleans the house for the holidays ANSWER: a 107. Theresa's husband of 40 years recently left her. As she begins a new chapter of her life, what will likely be the most limiting factor on her sex life? a. lack of social acceptance b. lack of experience c. lack of partners d. lack of physical stamina ANSWER: c 108. Paul is 48 and recently separated from his wife. As he gets back into the dating scene, which STI is Paul most at risk of contracting? a. chlamydia b. gonorrhea Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality c. HIV d. herpes ANSWER: d 109. The Meadow Glen High School class of 1957 is celebrating its 60th high school reunion. Many attendees are sharing stories about their first romantic encounters at drive-in movies. How do the attendees' sex lives compare today? a. the men are three times more sexually active than the women b. the men are two times more sexually active than the women c. the women are four times more sexually active than the men d. the women and men have similar rates of sexual activity ANSWER: b 110. Estella and John are getting ready to celebrate their 35th wedding anniversary. Which of the following reflects their sex life relative to when they celebrated their 10th anniversary? a. drop in quality and rise in quantity b. drop in quality and drop in quantity c. rise in quality and drop in quantity d. rise in quality and rise in quantity ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 111. What is the gender similarity hypothesis and what evidence is used to support this position? Provide several examples that illustrate your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. How does the need to adhere to gender roles change between preschool and late adolescence? How is gender segregation impacted by this change? Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Compare and contrast the cognitive-developmental and gender schema theories in their attempt to describe the acquisition of gender roles. Provide examples of each to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. How would a social-learning theorist describe the acquisition of gender roles? Provide three examples of how the process works.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. What factor(s) appear responsible for determining a person’s sexual orientation? What do you believe is the dominant factor, and why?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Explain whether boys or girls are more accepting of traditional gender stereotypes and why. What role do society and culture play in this dynamic? Give examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Give two examples from your life of people who have demonstrated the social role theory. Then give two examples Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality of people who have contradicted the social role theory.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Explain how the concept of rigidity works with children and gender stereotypes. Provide examples of different levels of rigidity to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Compare and contrast the concepts of gender constancy, gender stability, and gender consistency. Be sure to identify a life period when each occurs, and give examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Describe how teenagers' attitudes toward sexual activity have changed since the middle of the 20th century. What factors do you think influenced these changes? What factors influence teens' attitudes about sex today?

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development True / False 1. Desire psychology has been seen in children as young as six months of age. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Children between 6 and 10 years of age tend to view rules as unalterable. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Individuals at the postconventional level of moral reasoning view right and wrong in terms of existing societal laws. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The majority of adolescents have achieved Kohlberg's conventional level of moral reasoning. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. According to Dodge’s model, antisocial adolescents process information differently than other adolescents. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Aggressive youths tend to evaluate the consequences of aggression far more negatively than their non-violent peers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. By middle age, most adults have progressed to Kohlberg's postconventional level of moral reasoning. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. By preparing supper for a table full of stuffed animals in his make-believe kitchen, George is developing his theory of mind. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Two-year old Ava feels guilty when she does something wrong, however she lacks the cognitive development for her reactions to be considered evidence of a conscience.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Piaget found that children have sophisticated morality because they believe in different, relative tiers of rules. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 11. Zola puts her toys away in the toy chest and goes to eat dinner. Her brother, unbeknownst to her, decides to take all of her toys and put them under his bed. As a child who has a theory of mind, when Zola returns after dinner, she will a. look for her toys in the toy chest. b. look for her toys where her brother has hidden them. c. not remember anything about her toys. d. try to think of where her brother likes to hide things.

ANSWER: a 12. While watching her friend Veronica picking out a dress, Rosa thinks to herself, “I know that Veronica really likes to look nice and impress the boys. I bet she will pick out a very sexy outfit.” Rosa's thoughts indicate that she possesses a. postconventional moral thought. b. a morality of justice. c. joint attention. d. a theory of mind.

ANSWER: d 13. In a study using the false belief task with four-year-olds of average intelligence, four-year-olds with Down syndrome, and slightly older children with autism, Baron-Cohen found that a. only the average intelligence children passed the task. b. both the average intelligence children and the children with Down syndrome passed the task. c. both the average intelligence children and the children with autism passed the task. d. all three groups of children passed the task.

ANSWER: b 14. Why do autistic children have difficulty passing the false belief task? a. They lack the general intelligence. b. They lack the linguistic skills. c. They lack a theory of mind. d. They engage in too many stereotyped movements.

ANSWER: c 15. At or before nine months of age, most children begin to _____. This activity is one of the earliest milestones in developing a theory of mind. a. delay gratification Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development b. show prosocial behavior c. engage in joint attention d. recognize themselves in a mirror ANSWER: c 16. Jaycee, who is two years old, loves cupcakes and hates fruit pie. She has observed that her mother hates cupcakes and loves fruit pies. If Jaycee were handed a plate with a piece of pie and a different plate with a cupcake, and was asked to give one to her mother, she would most likely a. hand mom the pie. b. hand mom the cupcake. c. hand mom both plates. d. keep both plates for herself.

ANSWER: a 17. Someone with a belief-desire psychology understands that a. people do not always hold accurate beliefs, but these beliefs still influence behavior. b. beliefs accurately reflect what we desire. c. desires shape our behavior. d. people develop accurate beliefs based on interactions with others.

ANSWER: a 18. Pedro has just come to realize that while his dad, Carlos, believes that the Mets are the best professional baseball team, his uncle Alex feels just as strongly that the Yankees are the best team. The realization that two people can have different opinions indicates that Pedro possesses a. belief-psychology. b. preconventional morality. c. power assertion. d. joint attention.

ANSWER: a 19. Which neurological component has been implicated in the development of a theory of mind? a. Mirror neurons b. Glial cells c. amygdala d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 20. Mirror neurons are activated when a person a. sees someone doing an action they have previously performed . b. says what someone else is thinking. c. engages in an activity witnessed the previous day. d. sees and speaks a word at the same time.

ANSWER: a 21. Davis was born deaf to deaf parents who signed to him at an early age. How would this be most likely to affect his Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development acquisition of a theory of mind? a. He would show slightly slower development than that of a sensory-normal child. b. He would show a similar development as that of a Down syndrome child. c. He would show a similar development as that of an autistic child. d. He would show similar development to that of a sensory-normal child.

ANSWER: d 22. What is the most effective way a parent can help instill theory of mind skills in his or her child? a. Utilize coercive discipline. b. Encourage the child to consider others' feelings. c. Discourage empathy. d. Avoid engaging in joint attention.

ANSWER: b 23. How would a typical four-year-old most likely describe his sister? a. “She is kind of is moody.” b. “She eats corn flakes.” c. “She is a good friend.” d. “Everyone says she’s smart.”

ANSWER: b 24. Which is the most developmentally advanced description of a friend? a. “He is a really good dancer.” b. “He has a cool car and rides around a lot.” c. “He buys me ice cream because he’s generous.” d. “He is tall, hairy, and smells like smoke.”

ANSWER: c 25. Which is the LEAST developmentally advanced description of a friend? a. “He has a big head and blue eyes.” b. “He is pretty good at math.” c. “He is so smart that everyone likes him.” d. “He sometimes is nice and other times is mean.”

ANSWER: a 26. What important advance in social cognition generally occurs at age 11 or 12? a. Children begin to describe others in terms of the activities they engage in. b. Children begin to describe others in terms of inner psychological traits and characteristics. c. Children begin to attempt to explain why people do what they do. d. Children begin to focus heavily on others' physical appearance in their descriptions of them.

ANSWER: c 27. Which provides the best example of a perspective-taking skill? a. Understanding that the person across the table has beliefs in direct opposition to yours.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development b. Believing that your position on an issue is the most accurate. c. Realizing that an object hidden in one place may have been moved to another place. d. Deciding that the most moral decisions are ones in which you personally benefit.

ANSWER: a 28. Georgia sees her friend Bill running down the street. Without warning, Bill falls flat on his face. While Georgia finds this funny, she does not laugh because she knows that Bill does not find this funny. In not laughing, Georgia is demonstrating a. egocentrism. b. role-taking skills. c. morality of justice. d. prosocial behavior.

ANSWER: b 29. Which of the following is true regarding the development of role-taking skills? a. It is not until at least age 20 that people are able to include a mental perspective of some “generalized other.” b. By age four, most children understand that parents may not think the way they do. c. Concrete-operational thinkers are capable of simultaneously considering several different points of view. d. Considering a situation from different points of view increases the quality of social relationships.

ANSWER: d 30. The best description of the development of social cognitive skills during adulthood is, a. “if you use it, you will lose it.” b. “a time of steady decline.” c. “more gains than losses.” d. “a dramatic shift from postconventional to conventional.”

ANSWER: c 31. Which of the following is an example of the emotional component of morality? a. Knowing that you made the right decision in a difficult situation b. Feeling good about giving money to charity c. Taking some food from the cafeteria without paying for it d. Jumping up and down in joy after you win the lottery ANSWER: b 32. Dawn wanted a doll but didn't have money to buy one. At the mall, when she thought no one was looking, Dawn slipped one into her bag and left without paying for it. Later, when she was playing with it, Dawn found she wasn't enjoying herself and felt bad that she had stolen the toy. Taking the doll from the store represents the _____ component of morality, while the fact that Dawn felt badly represents the _____ component of morality. a. emotional; cognitive b. behavioral; emotional c. cognitive; emotional d. behavioral; cognitive ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development 33. Empathy refers to a. vicariously experiencing another's feelings. b. reading minds. c. being able to resist temptation. d. knowing that someone holds a false belief.

ANSWER: a 34. Who is experiencing an empathic response? a. Lily, who is depressed because she lost her job b. Hector, who feels bad that he did not give money to a street person c. Priya, who cries watching a mother talk about losing her son to gang violence d. Bao, who is excited about going on his first date ANSWER: c 35. Which of the following best exemplifies prosocial behavior? a. Doing chores to earn allowance b. Driving no faster than the speed limit c. Getting homework done on time d. Stopping to help a stranger change a flat tire ANSWER: d 36. Which theoretical perspective tends to focus the most attention on the development of moral reasoning? a. Psychoanalytic b. Social learning c. Classical conditioning d. Cognitive developmental ANSWER: d 37. Cognitive developmental theorists tend to view moral reasoning as involving a. the progression through an invariant sequence of ways of thinking. b. a set of behaviors acquired through observation. c. a battle between id, ego, and superego. d. a genetic predisposition toward helping that is based on the evolutionary need to survive.

ANSWER: a 38. According to Piaget, the moral reasoning of children ages 6 to 10 emphasizes a. religious teachings. b. intentions. c. parental beliefs. d. outcomes.

ANSWER: b 39. According to Piaget, around age 10 or 11, children begin to view rules as a. moral absolutes.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development b. universal. c. agreements among individuals. d. more important than intent.

ANSWER: c 40. Kohlberg's theory of moral development claims that a. regression from a higher to a lower stage of moral reasoning is quite common. b. through an exploration of moral dilemmas, it is possible to teach someone to skip over the lower stages of moral development. c. the sequence of stages one goes through may vary from one culture to another. d. a person's stage of moral development is determined by the person's thoughts, rather than his or her actions.

ANSWER: d 41. Macy really wants the cool new jacket she has just seen in the store, but doesn't have enough money to buy it. She thinks about stealing the jacket but decides that while stealing is not wrong, she might get punished if she is caught.

Macy’s moral reasoning appears to be at Kohlberg’s _____ level. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. unconventional ANSWER: a 42. Which statement provides the best example of the morality of instrumental hedonism? a. Doing evil is fun. b. Wrong is always wrong. c. I steal for you, you steal for me. d. The law determines right from wrong.

ANSWER: c 43. Which of the following would Kohlberg consider the LEAST sophisticated stage of moral thinking? a. Authority and social order-maintaining morality b. Morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically accepted law c. Morality of individual principles of conscience d. Instrumental hedonism ANSWER: d 44. An individual who is at Kohlberg's conventional level of moral development is most likely to a. do anything to avoid being punished. b. do something nice for someone so that the individual will be rewarded in return. c. ignore the intent of an act and focus on its impact. d. behave in ways that earn the approval and avoid the disapproval of others.

ANSWER: d 45. Which statement reflects Kohlberg's conventional morality?

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development a. Do your own thing. b. It’s me against the world. c. Rules are made to be broken. d. Buckle up, it's the law.

ANSWER: d 46. Which statement is the best example of postconventional moral reasoning? a. While it may be legally wrong, it is morally right. b. Depending on what I get out of the deal, it may be right. c. My intent is to be nice. d. Rules are not meant to be broken.

ANSWER: a 47. Sanjay refuses to pay income tax because he believes that the government uses tax revenue to support war efforts, and he doesn't believe that violence is an acceptable way to solve problems. He is willing to go to jail for his belief. Sanjay is best classified as being in Kohlberg's _____ level of moral development. a. premoral b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: d 48. Kohlberg’s highest stage of moral reasoning involves a. authority and social order-maintaining morality. b. individual rights and democratically accepted law. c. individual principles of conscience. d. instrumental hedonism.

ANSWER: c 49. Regarding Kohlberg's theory of moral development, which of the following is particularly instrumental in promoting movement from one level of moral development to the next? a. perspective-taking b. object permanence c. theory of mind d. disengagement ANSWER: a 50. Mr. Acosta's son Jose is a menace. He is cruel to animals and often shoplifts. In attempting to explain Jose's morals, Mr. Acosta says, “I think that his moral habits were learned by watching bad television shows.” Mr. Acosta's comments are best associated with the _____ view concerning moral behavior. a. psychodynamic b. evolutionary c. social learning theory d. cognitive developmental Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development ANSWER: c 51. Winston sees his brother steal a pack of gum from the drug store and get away with it. The next time Winston goes to the drug store, he steals a pack of gum. According to the _____ perspective on moral development, Winston’s behavior is the result of _____. a. psychoanalytic; observational learning b. cognitive developmental; an underdeveloped superego c. social learning; observational learning d. psychoanalytic; a weak ego ANSWER: c 52. Moral disengagement a. tends to only be found in individuals with conduct disorders. b. allows a person to justify his or her own immoral behavior. c. is a basic component of the theory of mind. d. is found exclusively in premoral thinkers.

ANSWER: b 53. Ira has just stolen a purse from a woman on the subway. He then says to himself, “If that woman really wanted her purse, she would have held it closer to her body.” This statement provides a good example of a. morality of justice. b. moral disengagement. c. autonomous morality. d. power assertion.

ANSWER: b 54. Evolutionary theorists have argued that it is in our genetic self-interest to be altruistic because a. it perfectly matches the premise of survival of the fittest. b. helping our kin may allow our genes to be passed along. c. the more we help, the better spouse we will attain. d. chromosome 13 has been found to have a specific “helping gene.”

ANSWER: b 55. Children as young as _____ have been shown to display visible signs of distress when they violate some standard of behavior. a. newborns b. two years old c. four years old d. six years old ANSWER: b 56. Which piece of advice would be LEAST effective for a parent trying to foster moral development in a toddler? a. Discuss the toddler’s behavior openly with them. b. Express your feelings. c. Minimize the results of a child’s actions.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development d. Establish a positive and cooperative relationship with the child.

ANSWER: c 57. How do newborns demonstrate a sense of empathy? a. They become distressed when other infants cry. b. They look at objects that their parents are looking at. c. They prefer to be held by other children versus an adult. d. They pass the false belief task.

ANSWER: a 58. When two-year-old Simoné sees her friend start to cry when his ice cream cone falls to the ground, she walks over and hands him her cone. In performing this act, Simoné is demonstrating a. amoral behavior. b. postconventional morality. c. spirituality. d. empathy.

ANSWER: d 59. Turiel made a distinction between "moral" rules and "social-conventional” rules. Which statement best exemplifies the concept of a moral rule? a. Don't run in the halls. b. Don't take things that don't belong to you. c. Don't chew gum in school. d. Don't sneak snacks into the movie theater.

ANSWER: b 60. Sitting in your assigned seat in school is best classified as a a. moral rule. b. prosocial behavior. c. social-conventional rule. d. mutually responsive orientation.

ANSWER: c 61. Carlos believes that rules such as "don't hit" are more important than "don't eat food in the living room." If Carlos is a normally developing child, what is the earliest age at which he would have come to such a conclusion? a. 2 years b. 6 years c. 10 years d. 14 years ANSWER: a 62. Every time his daughter Morgan swears (something he does not like), Lou walks away from her (pays her no attention). This strategy provides a good example of the _____ parental approach. a. power assertion b. induction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development c. love withdrawal d. empathy ANSWER: c 63. Ned tells his son Jacob, “For hitting your brother, you need to be disciplined, so get ready for a spanking.” Ned’s parenting approach to moral development best matches with the parenting style referred to as a. power assertion. b. induction. c. love withdrawal. d. empathy.

ANSWER: a 64. Which action is the best example of a power assertion form of discipline? a. Telling a child that you hate him b. Taking away a child’s television privileges c. Telling a child that a child who gets hit feels bad d. Taking away parental love from a child ANSWER: b 65. Harvey practically killed his pet hamster when he popped him in the tub for a bubble bath. His parents take an inductive approach in responding to this situation by a. giving the hamster away so Harvey can't do any more damage. b. spanking Harvey for doing the wrong thing. c. explaining to Harvey that hamsters don't like baths and can get sick or die from getting too wet. d. telling Harvey he's a very mean little boy and they are very disappointed in him.

ANSWER: c 66. The fact that a fearful child may become more anxious when disciplined than a fearless child best demonstrates how the factor of _____ can impact moral development. a. vicarious consequences b. temperament c. observational learning d. unconscious desires ANSWER: b 67. Throughout adolescence, there is a decrease in _____ moral reasoning and an increase in _____ moral reasoning. a. conventional; postconventional b. preconventional; conventional c. conventional; preconventional d. rule-based; social-conventional ANSWER: b 68. Research on antisocial behavior has shown that a. most antisocial teens grow up to be antisocial adults.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development b. juvenile delinquents are more likely to be conventional thinkers. c. aggressive children tend not to display antisocial behavior until early adulthood. d. aggressive youth tend to show less empathy.

ANSWER: d 69. Highly aggressive youth tend to a. belong to groups in which bullying is seen as a punishable offense. b. consider a variety of reactions before acting aggressively. c. be highly accepted by most of their age peers. d. believe that their aggressive acts will produce positive consequences.

ANSWER: d 70. Which decision is a highly aggressive youth most likely to make when a classmate runs into her in the hallway? a. Concluding that violent actions lead to bad consequences b. Deciding to set a goal of becomes friends with the classmate c. Assuming that the classmate’s intent was to hurt her d. Assuming that the incident was an accident ANSWER: c 71. When considering social cognitive causes of aggression, concern over a person’s levels of impulsivity best reflect the extent to which the problem is due to _____ one thinks. a. how b. what c. whether d. where ANSWER: c 72. Which statement concerning the role of genetics in determining aggression is true? a. Behavioral geneticists suggest that 90 percent of aggression can be accounted for by genetics. b. The fact that males can only have a limited number of children contributes significantly to their evolutionarybased levels of aggression. c. Children who inherit a predisposition toward aggression may evoke aggressive reactions from their parents. d. Having parents and children who are both genetically predisposed toward aggression tends to result in a paradox effect, which results in little aggression by either child or parent.

ANSWER: c 73. Regarding moral development in adulthood, which is true? a. Moral development in older males progresses at a faster rate than in older females. b. Moral reasoning deteriorates significantly in old age. c. The majority of older adults are preconventional thinkers. d. Postconventional thinking emerges only during adulthood.

ANSWER: d 74. Persons in collectivist cultures may look like they are at Kohlberg’s _____ of moral reasoning despite having sophisticated ideas about justice.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development a. stage 2 b. stage 3 c. stage 4 d. stage 5 ANSWER: b 75. Cross-cultural findings support the ______ perspective on moral development. a. cognitive-developmental b. psychodynamic c. social learning d. interactionist ANSWER: c 76. According to Greene, there is a(n) _____ process that allows us to automatically focus on the harm that would be caused were we to violate a moral principle. a. intuitive b. deliberative c. cognitive d. controlled ANSWER: a 77. Kohlberg’s model of moral development has been characterized as placing too great an emphasis on a. genes. b. moral reasoning. c. peers. d. unconscious motivation.

ANSWER: b 78. According to Haidt’s evolutionary theory, humans have evolved as a species in which a. quick moral intuitions are common and critical. b. females are better at suppressing amoral tendencies than males. c. moral decision-making is based solely on situational context. d. most moral decision-making involves long, deliberative reasoning.

ANSWER: a 79. Concerning the developmental pattern of religiosity and spirituality, a. religiosity is strongest in middle age. b. levels of spirituality are lower than religiosity throughout adulthood. c. spirituality declines significantly in old age (particularly among women). d. adolescents tend to be neither spiritual nor show religiosity.

ANSWER: b 80. Which of the following best reflects the concept of social cognition? a. acting appropriately with others Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development b. thinking about how people function c. sharing emotions with groups d. avoiding unlawful behaviors ANSWER: b 81. Which of the following situations reflects a theory of mind? a. April touches the hot stove and pulls her hand away. b. Donna drinks water to quench her thirst in the hot sun. c. Jorge wants a cookie so he gets one from the cabinet. d. Tuan cries because he has a fever and a headache.

ANSWER: c 82. Miyako watches her son Daichi run out of the house on a chilly spring day in a light t-shirt. "He'll be back for a jacket in a few minutes," she thinks to herself. Sure enough, Daichi suddenly bursts in, grabs his jacket, and runs out again. What led Miyako to accurately predict her son's behavior? a. empathy b. desire psychology c. social convention d. theory of mind ANSWER: d 83. Matthew works regularly with an autism counselor at his school. Today the focus is practicing emotional response, because Matthew generally has no reaction if a classmate displays sadness or anger or joy. Matthew's behavior is a symptom of his ________. a. love withdrawal b. moral disengagement c. mind blindness d. conduct disorder ANSWER: c 84. What is the underlying concept of the false belief task? a. discerning between right and wrong b. setting aside moral considerations c. understanding what others think d. pretending to feel sympathy for people ANSWER: c 85. Why is pretend play important for the development of social cognition? a. It demands joint attention. b. It takes place in the mind. c. It requires cooperation. d. It follows common rules.

ANSWER: b 86. After picking him up from the principal's office, Joel talked with his son Taye about the incident at school. "I bet you Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development were upset that Donte's painting was picked to be in the lobby, but it's not appropriate to hit him. How do you think he feels, with his best friend giving him a black eye?" What is Joel demonstrating with Taye? a. power assertion b. prosocial behavior c. mind-mindedness d. positive youth development ANSWER: c 87. When Lamont saw Debbie looking at her neighbor's paper during the spelling test, he immediately raised his hand and told the teacher that Debbie was cheating. Which component of morality is Lamont demonstrating? a. cognitive b. reciprocal c. behavioral d. emotional ANSWER: c 88. After sitting on the bench for 15 minutes with the wallet she found, Bonnie decided that a person walking around with $1500 in their pocket clearly didn't have money problems, so she decided to keep the cash and pay off her bills. Which component of morality is Bonnie demonstrating as she sits on the bench? a. cognitive b. withdrawal c. behavioral d. emotional ANSWER: a 89. At the vaccination clinic, as soon as the first baby received the injection and started crying, all the other babies in the nurse practitioner's office burst into tears. These infants are demonstrating ________. a. reciprocity b. prosocial behavior c. induction d. empathy ANSWER: d 90. Which of the following demonstrates that infants have a conceptual understanding of morality? a. offering to help someone perform a task b. giving a hug to someone who is upset c. expressing surprise at an unfair situation d. playing together nicely with others ANSWER: c 91. The fact that babies exhibit physical aggression is evidence that such behavior is ________. a. learned b. natural c. reflexive d. coercive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development ANSWER: b 92. Which of the following children is likely to exhibit the most aggressive behavior? a. Rico, who is 1 year old b. Elaine, who is 2 years old c. Hakim, who is 3 years old d. Reba, who is 4 years old ANSWER: c 93. Helena wants to make sure her baby grows into a respectful person who cares for others and is guided by strong moral principles. To achieve this goal, Helena and her husband should practice a ________ orientation in their home. a. dynamically empathic b. morally reciprocal c. prosocially engaged d. mutually responsive ANSWER: d 94. Contrary to what Piaget would think, Ben not only knew that Tracey broke the dollhouse, he knew why she did it.

How old is Ben? a. 18 months old b. 24 months old c. 3 years old d. 4 years old ANSWER: d 95. Once young children develop a theory of mind, their sense of morality and justice becomes more ________. a. stark b. assertive c. punitive d. relative ANSWER: d 96. Ms. Chao assigned Leon to be room monitor while she went to the office to take a phone call. Within a minute, the first grade class devolved into chaos. When Ms. Chao returned, what did Leon say warranted the most serious punishment? a. Tam and Ella passing secret notes b. Susie sneaking up to take a drink c. Miguel biting Brad on his elbow d. Asha scribbling on Paul's desk ANSWER: c 97. A child who insists on giving every student in the class four cookies – even the ones who misbehaved for the substitute teacher – is practicing which of the following? a. equity rule b. reciprocity rule Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development c. equality rule d. parity rule ANSWER: c 98. D'Andre goes around his room and gives each of his classmates a cookie, but he gives two cookies to April and Mykal, who were the best behaved boy and girl this week. What rule is D'Andre following? a. dual-process rule b. equity rule c. parity rule d. mutuality rule ANSWER: b 99. Which of the following lists the concepts in the proper causal order? a. moral reasoning → moral action → moral identity b. moral reasoning → moral identity → moral action c. moral identity → moral reasoning → moral action d. moral action → moral identity → moral reasoning ANSWER: c 100. Which of the following will be the most effective indicator that a person will behave ethically at work? a. having weak power assertion b. having a strong moral identity c. being at Kohlberg's Stage 3 d. being at Kohlberg's Stage 4 ANSWER: b 101. Considering the bias that problem teenagers have in processing environmental cues, their aggressive behavior is actually ________. a. prosocial b. reciprocal c. defensive d. empathic ANSWER: c 102. A proponent of Patterson's theory who is studying aggressive behavior would be LEAST likely to explore which of the following aspects of research subjects? a. stressors b. culture c. heredity d. parenting ANSWER: c 103. Which of the following best reflects the concept of gene-environment correlation in aggressive youth? a. The roles of genes and environment have a negative correlation in relation to youth aggression.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development b. Genetic predisposition to violence promotes aggressive behavior regardless of environment. c. Aggressive children incite power-based parenting, encouraging further aggression in children. d. Parents with low genetic tendency for aggression can counteract such behavior in their children.

ANSWER: c 104. Who is most likely to demonstrate aggressive behavior in high school? a. a Hispanic American teenager b. a Japanese teenager c. a European American teenager d. a Scandinavian teenager ANSWER: c 105. As director of a positive youth development program working with teens who have been expelled from school for violent behavior, what would be the main focus of your staff's activities? a. teaching teens the legal consequences of further violent behavior b. exploring personal assets of each teen and ways to strengthen them c. coaching the teens' parents in more mutually responsive strategies d. providing academic tutoring to ensure teens get a GED certificate ANSWER: b 106. Sasha is a group leader at a positive youth development program working with problem teens. Her primary focus is the impact of the environment on teens' behavior. Which of the program's "Five Cs" does Sasha focus on? a. Citizenship b. Competence c. Character d. Connection ANSWER: d 107. A group of ten middle-aged adults are discussing a complex moral issue that is impacting the nation. How many of these people will likely base their opinion on postconventional reasoning? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 ANSWER: a 108. Which of the following people best reflects a spiritual perspective? a. Ahmad, who faces Mecca and prays five times a day b. Rosa, who goes to Catholic mass every morning c. Samuel, who works with young people at his local temple d. Martha, who attends monthly yoga and meditation retreats ANSWER: d 109. Kathleen is 75 years old and has been a Catholic all her life. Which of the following practices does she likely engage in most frequently?

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development a. attending mass b. going to confession c. praying the rosary d. taking communion ANSWER: c 110. Walter has never seen any value to being religious or spiritual, and he doesn't see the need to start now that he's in a senior housing facility. According to Erikson, Walter is at risk for which of the following? a. stagnation b. despair c. isolation d. inferiority ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 111. Dr. Cairns must decide whether to administer a lethal dose of narcotics to a dying patient who is in a great deal of pain. What sorts of things would Dr. Cairns consider in making his decision at each of Kohlberg’s six stages of moral development?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. How might Dodge’s social information-processing model be used to explain the behavior of teenagers who are actively involved in gang violence?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. What is the nature of the debate between the moral reasoning perspective of Kohlberg and the dual-process perspective? Which theory do you support? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. What are the fundamental differences between the preconventional, conventional, and postconventional levels of moral reasoning? Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Describe desire psychology and belief-desire psychology. Provide an example of each to explain your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Why are children and adolescents who have advanced perspective-taking skills more popular? Provide situational examples of a person with undeveloped perspective-taking and a person with developed perspective-taking to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Describe the three main components of morality. Provide an example of each to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. How would living in a country run by a dictator who exercises absolute authority over society influence a person's moral growth? Provide an example – actual or hypothetical – to support your thinking.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development 119. Describe how goodness-of-fit in the home can impact a child's social behavior and moral development. Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Write short profiles of people who fall into each of the two subgroups of antisocial youths, including age of onset, possible behaviors, causes, and prognosis for later in life.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships True / False 1. Embarrassment is a good example of a self-conscious emotion. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Separation anxiety generally appears before stranger anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. A resistant attachment is characterized by a great deal of infant anxiety and ambivalence to the attached caregiver. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Infants who are socially deprived over a long time period can easily recover from any negative effects of this deprivation once they are given attention. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. The bonding phase of adolescent romantic relationships is characterized by a focus on one’s self. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. According to the socioemotional selectivity theory, social networks tend to expand between young and older adulthood. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The commitment component of love is characterized by warmth, caring, and respect. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. All humans form attachments automatically because we have evolved to do so. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Young children can engage in the same play activity in close proximity yet not have a social experience. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships b. False ANSWER: True 10. A child who is sociometrically ranked as neglected usually has good social skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. Which of the following is true of emotions? a. The character of emotions changes as we develop cognitively. b. Basic emotions are culturally- and developmentally-based. c. A neurologically-intact baby can show at least six distinct emotions at birth. d. In general, adults cannot interpret infant emotions until the infants are 10 to 12 months old.

ANSWER: a 12. Which statement best reflects the ethological perspective regarding parent/child attachments? a. Attachments form automatically as a result of biological programming. b. Human infants and caregivers have biological tendencies to form attachments. c. The key to forming close attachments lies in the principles of conditioning and reinforcement. d. Learning plays no significant role in the process of developing parent/child attachments.

ANSWER: b 13. According to Bowlby, the sensitive period for human attachment relationships typically lasts for the first three _____ after birth. a. hours b. days c. months d. years ANSWER: d 14. Why are internal working models important in the attachment process? a. They are one of the few known genetic components of attachments. b. They are the only anti-conformity element of an attachment. c. They are the key behavioral component of attachments. d. They are a key mechanism that allows early experience to impact later behavior.

ANSWER: d 15. Which scenario best illustrates chumship? a. Seventy-year-olds Kate and Ron, who have been happily married for 40 years b. Forty-somethings Tasha and Steve, who are really enjoying their first date c. Five-year-old Sorboni, who is on a great camping trip with her dad Pradeep d. Third-graders Terrell and Chung, who are best friends.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships ANSWER: d 16. Which emotion would be considered the most advanced for an infant to exhibit? a. Fear b. Interest c. Guilt d. Sadness ANSWER: c 17. Assuming that these children are all developing normally, who would be most likely to have just begun to display selfconscious emotions? a. Bob, who is 2 months old b. Antonio, who is 18 months old c. Celia, who is 24 months old d. Rania, who is 4 years old ANSWER: c 18. Two-year-old Ellie is asked by her mother to sing a song in front of her relatives. For the first time in her life, Ellie experiences the emotion of embarrassment. Developmentalists refer to this type of emotion as a(n) _____ emotion. a. amoral b. primary c. adaptive d. self-conscious ANSWER: d 19. When a child has begun to monitor the reaction of someone else in order to decide how to react to an ambiguous situation, he or she is demonstrating a. self-awareness. b. goal correcting. c. imprinting. d. social referencing.

ANSWER: d 20. Two-year-old Henry has learned that whenever he is around his aunt, Katie, it is best not to show any fear because she does not react well when confronted by a fearful child. Henry's behavior best illustrates the concept of a. avoidant attachment. b. emotion regulation. c. goal correction. d. separation anxiety.

ANSWER: b 21. A game of peek-a-boo between a mother and her infant daughter best exemplifies the concept of a. pretend play. b. synchronized routine. c. false belief.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships d. induction.

ANSWER: b 22. The most likely outcome of an infant and parent who are in synchrony is a(n) _____ infant attachment. a. secure b. insecure avoidant c. insecure resistant d. undifferentiated ANSWER: a 23. It is most accurate to say that a parent's attachment relationship with his or her child a. becomes firmly established before the child is born. b. is formed during the few hours immediately following the child's birth. c. will be seriously impaired without opportunities for prolonged contact after birth. d. builds gradually over a period of many months.

ANSWER: d 24. Baby Lonnie has begun to express delight when seeing the faces of his mom, dad, and older sister. How old is Lonnie? a. 2-6 weeks old b. 2-3 months old c. 7-8 months old d. 11-12 months or older ANSWER: b 25. Displaying _____ would indicate the LEAST advanced level of social-cognitive ability. a. goal-corrected partnership b. undiscriminating social responsiveness c. active proximity-seeking/true attachment d. discriminating social responsiveness ANSWER: b 26. Amanda shows a clear interest in listening to voices of humans but shows no particular preference for one person over another. Amanda is best classified as being in the _____ phase. a. goal-corrected partnership b. undiscriminating social responsiveness c. active proximity-seeking/true attachment d. discriminating social responsiveness ANSWER: b 27. Abdi has just realized that before his daddy goes to work in the morning, he eats breakfast in the kitchen. As a result of this realization, Abdi now goes to the kitchen as soon as he hears dad get up so that he can be near him. This behavior best exemplifies a. goal-corrected partnership. b. undiscriminating social responsiveness.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships c. active proximity-seeking/true attachment. d. discriminating social responsiveness.

ANSWER: a 28. Separation anxiety generally appears a. at the time when infants begin to prefer human to nonhuman stimuli. b. at the time when infants begin to express a preference for familiar people. c. when the child forms his or her first genuine attachment. d. toward the end of the preoperational period.

ANSWER: c 29. A college student becomes homesick during her first semester on campus. This response is most related to a. stranger anxiety. b. resistant attachment. c. separation anxiety. d. avoidant attachment.

ANSWER: c 30. Two-year-old Yasmin is going to the dentist for the first time. When she first sees the dentist dressed in a long white coat, Yasmin reacts by sobbing and hugging her dad. Yasmin's reaction is best explained as involving _____ anxiety. a. stranger b. separation c. contact d. relationship ANSWER: a 31. Regarding stranger anxiety, which statement is FALSE? a. Stranger anxiety is less likely to occur when mom is close by. b. Children are most wary of strangers when they are encountered in familiar surroundings. c. Stranger anxiety is lessened when the caregiver responds positively to the stranger. d. Stranger anxiety is affected by the appearance of the stranger.

ANSWER: b 32. David is an 18-month old who lives with his mom Rachel and dad Carl. What attachment style does David likely have with Rachel? a. secure b. disorganized-disoriented c. resistant d. avoidant ANSWER: a 33. Pam loves to play with other children. At the park, she frequently runs from the sandbox to her mommy, gives her a hug, and then runs back. When mom walks a short distance away to get some water, Pam begins to cry and runs after her.

After they both get a drink, they head back toward the sandbox, with Pam running ahead to join the other children in play.

Pam's attachment relationship with her mother is best described as Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships a. secure. b. resistant. c. avoidant. d. disorganized-disoriented.

ANSWER: a 34. Which behavior best exemplifies the concept of proximity maintenance with a secure attachment? a. Becoming distressed when not near mommy b. Attempting to keep track of mommy’s location c. Exploring away from mommy when she is present d. Moving toward mommy if comfort is needed ANSWER: b 35. Kono takes her one-year-old son, Chin Ho, to visit an infant-toddler program that he will soon join. Chin Ho appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play, even though Kono is close by. When Kono leaves the room, Chin Ho becomes extremely upset and remains that way all the time his mother is gone. When Kono returns, Chin Ho stays close to his mother, but makes it clear he does not want her to touch him or pick him up. He appears angry with Kono. This best demonstrates which sort of attachment relationship? a. Disorganized b. Resistant c. Avoidant d. Secure ANSWER: b 36. A(n) _____ attachment is characterized by a lack of interest in exploring, little distress when separated from the attached caregiver, and lack of contact when the caregiver returns from separation. a. secure b. disorganized-disoriented c. resistant d. avoidant ANSWER: d 37. Frieda (18 months) and her mother Callie are visiting at a friend's house. Although there are lots of toys to play with, Frieda seems disinterested. When Callie and her friend go to the kitchen for tea, Frieda appears undisturbed. Twenty minutes later, Callie returns and tries to pick Frieda up. Frieda is unresponsive and wants to get down. When put down, Frieda ignores her mother and wanders around. This best demonstrates a(n) _____ attachment relationship between Frieda and her mom. a. disorganized-disoriented b. resistant c. avoidant d. secure ANSWER: c 38. Which of the following infants is most likely to experience emotional problems later in life? a. Robbie, who has resistant attachment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships b. Maya, who has avoidant attachment c. Montell, who has reliant attachment d. Hae, who has disorganized-disoriented attachment ANSWER: d 39. Lisa is a very high-strung, active mom. Her baby, Marie, is very laid back and calm. When Lisa bounces Marie on her knee, tickles her, and talks to her in an excited voice, Marie turns away. Lisa turns Marie back toward her, bounces her more rigorously, and continues to talk and sing loudly. Based on this pattern of behavior, it is most likely that Marie will develop ________. a. avoidant attachment b. stranger anxiety c. resistant attachment d. relational aggression ANSWER: a 40. Which type of infant attachment is best associated with having a parent who is abusing drugs? a. Disorganized-disoriented b. Resistant c. Avoidant d. Secure ANSWER: a 41. Which of the following has been shown in cross-cultural studies of attachment? a. Parental sensitivity and responsiveness are the critical factors across cultures. b. Although supported in individualistic cultures, attachment theory does not appear useful in collectivist cultures. c. Infant factors are critical in individualistic cultures and parental factors are critical in collectivist cultures. d. There is no evidence that individualistic and collectivistic cultures differ in parenting styles.

ANSWER: a 42. Which statement concerning the role of culture on infant attachment is true? a. Attachment styles are universal and unaffected by culture. b. In collectivist cultures, infants are more likely to develop autonomous behaviors. c. Most infants raised in individualistic cultures are insecurely attached to their primary caregiver. d. A secure attachment is best defined by cultural standards that can vary from country to country.

ANSWER: d 43. What is the best way to prevent the negative impacts typically found in infants raised in institutions? a. Better physical care b. Improved sensory stimulation c. A stable team of caregivers d. Designated “mother figures” ANSWER: c 44. As an infant, Molly was securely attached to her mother and her father, and this attachment has not changed. When Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships she enters preschool, she is most likely to a. strenuously resist separating from her parents. b. cling to her teacher in her parents' absence. c. be curious and willing to explore her environment. d. be socially immature.

ANSWER: c 45. Longitudinal research on the long-term effects of having been securely attached as an infant indicates that a(n) a. secure attachment in infancy predicted the quality of peer relationships in elementary school. b. insecure attachment in infancy predicted the quality of one’s marriage. c. secure attachment in adolescence predicted the quality of life review near death. d. insecure attachment in adolescence predicted college grades.

ANSWER: a 46. Regarding attachment, which is true? a. A secure attachment to one's father can compensate for poor attachment with one's mother. b. The quality of attachments in childhood does not predict later social competence. c. Insecurely attached infants will have emotional problems all their lives. d. Life events do not impact an attachment style once it has been formed.

ANSWER: a 47. Which statement best summarizes the effects of parent-child attachments on later development? a. Insecurely attached infants have life-long emotional problems, even if the attachment style improves after infancy. b. A secure relationship with one's father cannot compensate for an insecure mother-child attachment relationship. c. A secure attachment may become insecure as a result of major stresses in the family, such as divorce or a mother returning to work. d. An infant who is securely attached to its mother at age one appears to make that child “invulnerable to later socioemotional” difficulties.

ANSWER: c 48. Thomas is on the floor and highly engaged with the toy train engine that he is pushing around the track by himself.

Thomas is most accurately said to be engaged in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. solitary c. onlooker d. associative ANSWER: b 49. Addy and Kit are both playing with dolls in the doll corner. They are dressing and undressing the dolls, and pretending to feed them dinner. However, Addy and Kit do not talk to one another or involve each other in their play. This best demonstrates which type of play? a. Associative b. Cooperative Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships c. Solitary d. Parallel ANSWER: d 50. Which is the primary distinction between associative and cooperative play? a. Cooperative play involves activities directed toward a common goal and associative play does not. b. Cooperative play involves sharing the same materials while associative play does not. c. Cooperative play involves interaction between playmates while associative play does not. d. Cooperative play emerges during the concrete-operational period while associative play emerges during preoperational thought.

ANSWER: a 51. Which behavior best illustrates social pretend play? a. using a pail to represent a hat b. acting out a tea party with dolls c. playing soccer with a group of friends d. smiling when eating a make-believe cookie ANSWER: b 52. Which is true with regard to the effects of play on development? a. Preschoolers who engage in considerable amounts of social pretend play tend to be more popular and more socially mature than those who do not. b. Play contributes significantly to physical and social development, but has little impact on the development of cognitive skills. c. While engagement in pretend play tends to stimulate creative thought processes, it tends to interfere with the development of logical thought. d. Play contributes to the emotional development of preschoolers by helping children work through unresolved conflicts, but it detracts from children's intellectual development by keeping them from engaging in more productive academic tasks.

ANSWER: a 53. Which question would you be most likely to find on a sociometric assessment? a. What makes you feel sad? b. Does mommy make you feel safe? c. Do you feel good about yourself? d. Which classmate do you really like?

ANSWER: d 54. Molly’s classmates rarely choose her as a playmate, yet she is not disliked by most of her peers. She tends to be shy and quiet, and on rare occasions when someone does ask her to play, Molly often says no and walks away. According to categories of sociometric status, Molly is best classified as a. neglected. b. rejected. c. antisocial. d. controversial.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships ANSWER: a 55. When commenting on a rejected child, peers would be most likely to say, a. “She's quiet but fun.” b. “He’s okay most of the time.” c. “I don't like that kid.” d. “I don’t know who that is.”

ANSWER: c 56. Which of the following is NOT associated with “popularity” in childhood? a. Being physically attractive b. Being intelligent c. Being socially competent d. Being unassertive ANSWER: d 57. Reggie has both leadership qualities and is an aggressive bully. Given this mix of characteristics, he is most likely to be rated as _____ by his peers. a. controversial b. rejected c. neglected d. average ANSWER: a 58. Which statement concerning childhood friendships is FALSE? a. Many unpopular children have at least one reciprocal friend. b. Having a friend increases the odds of being happy. c. Having a chum is not as good as having a friend. d. True friends are not considered attachment figures.

ANSWER: c 59. Adolescents who have secure attachments with their parents have a. higher levels of self-esteem. b. lower levels of compassion. c. lower levels of social competence. d. higher levels of stranger anxiety ANSWER: a 60. According to Dumpy (1963), the typical developmental sequence of events in the adolescent peer group is a. isolated unisex cliques, interaction between unisex cliques, heterosexual cliques, fully developed crowds. b. heterosexual crowds, isolated unisex cliques, interaction between unisex cliques, groups of couples. c. isolated heterosexual cliques, interaction between heterosexual crowds, unisex cliques, groups of couples. d. isolated unisex groups, heterosexual crowds, interaction between heterosexual groups, groups of cliques.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships 61. Heather hangs with a group of four other girls who, just like her, all wear the trendiest fashions. According to Dunphy (1963), this group is best classified as a a. population. b. crowd. c. confidant. d. clique.

ANSWER: d 62. During adolescence, a. peer influences are typically negative. b. those with friends are more likely to engage in delinquent behavior. c. crowd affiliation has implications for social identity. d. crowd membership is best predicted by personality factors.

ANSWER: c 63. When Latrell is on his date, his main focus is on coming to see himself as a person who is capable of relating to the opposite sex in a romantic way. Given this description, Latrell appears to be in Brown’s _____ dating phase. a. initiation b. status c. affection d. bonding ANSWER: a 64. To Van, the most important aspect of his current romantic relationship is the fact that he is dating the head cheerleader, which means that the group he hangs out with now seems to be much “cooler” than it used to be. This description indicates that Van is best classified as being in Brown’s _____ phase of dating. a. initiation b. status c. affection d. bonding ANSWER: b 65. During the _____ phase of dating, the relationship becomes the focus and romantic relationships become more personal. a. initiation b. status c. affection d. bonding ANSWER: c 66. In what ways do the social networks of younger and older adults differ? a. Middle-aged adults have more close friends than younger adults do. b. Old people feel more need to receive social stimulation. c. Younger adults have broader social networks than middle-aged adults.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships d. Older adults interact more frequently with acquaintances.

ANSWER: c 67. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, a. teenagers are biologically programmed to be more conforming. b. most older adults will conduct a life review. c. the older we get, the more important it becomes to acquire knowledge. d. shrinking social networks in adulthood are by choice.

ANSWER: d 68. As an individual who subscribes to socioemotional selectivity theory, Darlene is most likely to believe that a. social networks in adulthood serve no useful purpose. b. older adults seek interactions that are emotionally meaningful. c. older adults experience significantly more negative emotions than young adults. d. having fewer friends in older adulthood is a sign of potential psychosis.

ANSWER: b 69. When discussing her life, 60-year-old Erica says, “I am quite happy the way I am and I see no need to go out and make new friends.” This statement best fits with the basic premise of _____ theory. a. socioemotional selectivity b. social learning c. resistant attachment d. gender typing ANSWER: a 70. Which statement concerning emotional lives is true? a. Older adults have more depressed emotional lives than young adults. b. Negative emotions are less common in older adults than in younger adults. c. Younger adults experience longer-lasting periods of positive emotions. d. Older adults require large social networks to feel happy and fulfilled.

ANSWER: b 71. With her divorce finalized, Madalena is ready to start dating again. What will be her priority in seeking a new mate? a. physical attractiveness b. finances c. education d. similarity ANSWER: d 72. The notion that potential romantic partnerships begin with both individuals looking for external similarities in their partner (e.g., race, education, socioeconomic status), then eventually looking for similarity of inner qualities (e.g., values, beliefs) and if both comparative phases are successful, the relationship may continue best fits with the _____ theory of mate selection. a. psychoanalytic b. triangular Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships c. social-learning d. filter ANSWER: d 73. Which of the following sayings best reflects the concept of homogamy in mate selection? a. You can’t teach an old dog new tricks. b. Opposites attract. c. Beauty is only skin deep. d. Birds of a feather flock together ANSWER: d 74. When Carlos is describing his relationship with Gisele, he says, “It’s got everything: sexual attraction, trust and respect, and we know that we are both in it for the long haul.” This description indicates that their relationship is most accurately described as involving _____ love. a. consummate b. fatuous c. infatuation d. companionate ANSWER: a 75. Companionate love is best characterized by a. high levels of intimacy, commitment, and passion. b. high levels of intimacy and commitment, but low levels of passion. c. high levels of commitment and passion, but low levels of intimacy. d. high levels of passion, but low levels of intimacy and passion.

ANSWER: b 76. When asked to describe himself, Dewayne says, “I don’t need people, I don’t need relationships, I am fine on my own.” This attitude best fits with the _____ model of self. a. secure b. dismissing c. preoccupied d. fearful ANSWER: b 77. When asked to describe himself, Nathan says, “I really don’t like myself. I really don’t like other people. On the other hand, it would be nice to meet someone but I don’t really know how to do that.” This attitude best fits with the _____ model of self. a. secure b. dismissing c. preoccupied d. fearful ANSWER: d 78. Which statement best describes results from research on adults’ internal working models of self?

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships a. Early attachment styles have little bearing on love relationships. b. Internal working models predict the capacity for exploration in adulthood. c. There appears to be little intergenerational transmission of attachment styles. d. Internal working models are not subject to revision.

ANSWER: b 79. Which statement is FALSE? a. For older individuals, “old friends are the best friends.” b. The quality of an adult’s social relationships is closely related to a sense of well-being. c. Older people are relatively unconcerned with equity issues in friendships. d. For most married people, spouses are the most important confidant.

ANSWER: c 80. Latoya thinks she should wait a while before taking her son Randy to church again. Last week an elderly woman tripped on her way to the altar and Randy pointed and laughed at her! She was mortified at his lack of self-control. What rule did Randy break in church? a. hedonic expression b. strange situation c. emotional display d. relational aggression ANSWER: c 81. For some reason, 16-year-old Hernani doesn't like to push away or resolve negative feelings – especially if they occur simultaneously with positive feelings. Why does Hernani likely act this way? a. He is in a strange situation. b. He is emotionally conflicted. c. He has an insecure attachment. d. He likes taking on the challenge.

ANSWER: d 82. In terms of regulating moods and emotions, Sarah would be considered contrahedonic. How old is Sarah? a. 17 b. 29 c. 42 d. 61 ANSWER: a 83. According to Bowlby, the underlying drive for infants and parents to form attachments is ________. a. affection b. security c. survival d. contact ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships 84. Which of the following terms best describes the process of forming attachments in humans? a. automatic b. unitary c. biological d. interactive ANSWER: d 85. Paul was never really a fan of infants or kids. While he was happy that his wife Lucia was pregnant, he worried that he wouldn't feel thrilled to be a parent. But when he first saw their son Donte in the delivery room, he was overcome with a rush of emotion and felt love like he never had before. What likely played a role in Paul's response? a. prostaglandin b. oxytocin c. testosterone d. cortisol ANSWER: b 86. Attachment is a critical element of our social functioning throughout our lives, and begins with the parents who welcomed us into the world. How old is an infant when this attachment forms? a. a few minutes b. a couple weeks c. several months d. nearly a year ANSWER: c 87. Piaget believed that peers serve an important role in teaching children how to function effectively with others because these relationships are ________. a. gender-based b. age-based c. optional d. passionate ANSWER: c 88. According to Sullivan, which of the following critical benefits does a chumship provide for a child? a. validation b. referencing c. status d. mentoring ANSWER: a 89. Xenia is a famous punk performance artist who is known for only wearing clothes made out of metal or vinyl. After her baby is born, she might need to change her wardrobe to avoid creating an insecure attachment due to a lack of ________. a. imprint media b. tactile bonding c. bodily warmth Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships d. contact comfort ANSWER: d 90. What is the highest level of peer interaction that infants can attain by age 2? a. reciprocal exchange b. friendship c. turn-taking d. chumship ANSWER: b 91. Between the ages of 6 to 18 months, infants' peer reactions can be considered ________. a. reciprocal b. controlling c. disjointed d. nonexistent ANSWER: c 92. When a child reaches age 3, their attachment with parents starts to become more ________. a. physical b. mutual c. strained d. avoidant ANSWER: b 93. Which of the following is the best advice for parents regarding play and their children's development? a. "Show them the way." b. "Everyone should win." c. "Let them figure it out." d. "Use new technologies."

ANSWER: c 94. What aspect of child development likely benefits the most from the initiation of rules-based play? a. cognitive skills b. social skills c. analytic skills d. locomotor skills ANSWER: b 95. What is at the core of children's cooperative play? a. rules b. objectives c. affection d. proximity ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships 96. Wanda is 58 and suffers from inflammatory arthritis in her knees and hips. What was Wanda's likely sociometric status in fifth grade? a. average b. neglected c. controversial d. rejected ANSWER: d 97. Which of the following fourth grade students is likely to retain a rejected sociometric status throughout their school years? a. Rajesh, who is snobby b. Danielle, who is a bully c. Jaden, who is insecure d. Tomiko, who is quiet ANSWER: b 98. Behind Garfield Grammar School, 100 fifth graders are participating in the annual field day. About how many of these students are rejected by their peers? a. 7 b. 12 c. 19 d. 23 ANSWER: b 99. Which of the following functions as a bike with training wheels for later romantic relationships in adolescence? a. cliques b. crowds c. chumships d. attachments ANSWER: c 100. Mindy used to like playing tag and climbing trees with the other neighborhood kids when they were in elementary school. But now that they're in junior high, Mindy just walks by the kids like they don't even exist. She won't even talk to them at the bus stop. What has Mindy developed? a. avoidant attachment b. relational aggression c. social pretend play d. emotional control ANSWER: b 101. If a boy has high perceived popularity in eighth grade, then his classmates believe that he ________. a. has high grades b. has status c. is attractive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships d. is relatable ANSWER: b 102. A 9-year-old boy will likely call on a friend to ________, while a 16-year-old teen will call on a friend to ________. a. just hang out in the park; go on a joyride b. share a dark secret; talk about his parents c. play a game of kickball; discuss a breakup d. talk about girls; just spend time together ANSWER: c 103. Teenagers who have secure attachments to their parents will experience which of the following in their adult friendships and romantic relationships? a. heightened conflict b. higher quality c. greater dependence d. more volatility ANSWER: b 104. Which of the following is a key factor in the decrease of social relationships for older adults? a. homogamy b. culture c. selectivity d. career ANSWER: c 105. Which of the following is a key factor in the decrease of social relationships for middle-aged adults? a. stigma b. infirmity c. selectivity d. parenting ANSWER: d 106. Which of the following best characterizes the social connections of older adults in general? a. numerous and superficial b. limited and reminiscent c. limited and meaningful d. numerous and stimulating ANSWER: c 107. Who does Kenneth likely lean on when he is facing a rough patch in his life? a. his sister Eileen b. his wife Vanessa c. his son Domenic d. his golf buddy Jose Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships ANSWER: b 108. Curtis often stays late at the office after everyone else has left, and rarely joins his colleagues for happy hour to decompress. A developmentalist would likely identify Curtis as having what type of attachment style? a. dismissing b. avoidant c. disoriented d. preoccupied ANSWER: d 109. Compared to other clients' family members, the staff at the Sunnyside Retirement Home notices that Shanelle comes to visit her mother more frequently and is more engaged in her care plan and progress. How would Shanelle's attachment style in her own marriage be characterized? a. preoccupied b. fearful c. secure d. codependent ANSWER: c 110. Loretta has a secure attachment style with her husband Joaquin. Which of the following is exhibited in their relationship? a. codependence b. independence c. balance d. neediness ANSWER: c Subjective Short Answer 111. List all of the primary emotions, and give examples of secondary emotions. Explain how secondary emotions differ from primary emotions.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Describe key characteristics of the four phases involved in attachment formation in infancy. Explain goal-corrected partnership, and give an example to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. List the basic categories of peer acceptance among children. Describe the characteristics for each of the three "negative" categories.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Describe and compare the concepts of emotion regulation, emotional competence, and emotional display rules.

Provide examples of each to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. What type of attachment style might be formed between an infant and a young, drug-addicted mother? Describe the attachment style, the characteristics of the mother and infant, and the dynamics of their relationship.

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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. You have been tasked with setting up an orphanage in a country that has lost many adults due to war and famine.

What strategies will you implement to ensure that the children do not form insecure attachments?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Describe children's social networks and how they change over time. Give examples of each type of network to support your thinking. Finally, explain the concept of "selection versus socialization" for adolescents.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Describe Sternberg's three main components of love and how they combine to form the seven types of love. Then, think of a couple you know, list their age, gender, and time together, and (based on what you see) identify the type of love they demonstrate.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Explain the two key concepts that underlie the emotional life of older adults. Give examples to support your thinking.

Finally, explain how learning about these concepts supports or contradicts the ideas you have held about older adults.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Describe how the different attachment styles formed as children can affect adults' romantic relationships. Give examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 15: The Family True / False 1. When it comes to childcare, men and women are more similar than different. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. An authoritative parenting style involves many rules and few explanations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The launching of the last child tends to result in an increase in marital satisfaction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The most common grandparenting style is the “involved” style. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Couples who marry after engaging in cohabitation prior to marriage tend to be less likely to divorce. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Good parenting by the noncustodial parent can positively influence a child’s adjustment to divorce. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Most children who are maltreated are victims of neglect, not physical or sexual abuse. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. In family systems theory, the mother-child relationship takes precedence over all others. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Parents whose young children frequently bicker and battle are likely employing a faulty parenting style. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family ANSWER: False 10. A key theme of achieving autonomy for adolescents is separation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. The family systems approach to understanding families suggests that a. the larger the family network, the lower the quality of interaction between parent and child. b. the mother is the central influence on a child's development. c. every relationship within the system has an impact on every other individual in the system. d. families function in a similar manner from one culture to the next.

ANSWER: c 12. Because families may consist of configurations other than mother-father-child(ren), some have suggested that the term _____ be used. a. alternative b. immediate c. nontraditional d. nuclear ANSWER: b 13. Madison lives with her dad, mother, grandmother, aunt, and brother, Austin. Madison’s family is best termed a(n) ___ family household. a. transactional b. nuclear c. reconstituted d. extended ANSWER: d 14. The conceptualization of a “family as a system” best matches the _____ approach to psychology. a. bioecological b. classical conditioning c. psychodynamic d. Gestalt ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following changes in the nature of the American family is true? a. Family size (number of offspring) is on the rise. b. The number of working moms is declining. c. The age of marriage has been delayed. d. The number of children living in poverty has decreased.

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Chapter 15: The Family ANSWER: c 16. Madalena and Roberto are getting married. It is a first marriage for both of them. Based on recent research, which is true? a. Madalena and Roberto are younger than their parents were when they got married. b. There is a 60% probability that Madalena and Roberto will get divorced. c. Madalena is more likely than her mother was to work outside of the home. d. Madalena and Roberto are likely to have more children than their parents did.

ANSWER: c 17. Concerning modern trends in family life, a. today’s two wage-earner families are financially worse off than families with one wage earner. b. most adults now view marriage as an unimportant institution. c. more children today have relationships with their grandparents than in generations past. d. the nuclear family continues to be the dominant family type in the United States.

ANSWER: c 18. Which statement is true with regard to the nature of early parent-child interactions? a. As the result of genetic factors, fathers have been shown to be incapable of sensitive parenting. b. Mothers are far more sensitive to infants’ cues during feeding. c. Fathers are more likely to engage in “playful interactions” (e.g., tickling, bouncing) with their children. d. Fathers are significantly less effective at feeding infants.

ANSWER: c 19. Fathers are most likely to adopt a “motherlike” caregiver role if they a. are the primary caregiver. b. work outside the home. c. hold traditional gender values. d. are in a blended family.

ANSWER: a 20. The fact that through their interactions with each other, spouses may influence the behavior of a child, even when the child does not experience these interactions, underlies the concept of a. caregiver burden. b. indirect effects. c. autonomy. d. spillover effects.

ANSWER: b 21. While Gao never shouts at his wife, Fumi, when their young daughter Kim is present, the shouting does make Kim upset as it sometimes results in Fumi being verbally aggressive with her daughter. This description demonstrates the a. impact of indirect effects within a family system. b. power of hereditary factors in determining behavior. c. main flaw in the family systems approach.

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Chapter 15: The Family d. role of classical conditioning in social cognitive development.

ANSWER: a 22. Seika’s attitude towards parenting is best described as “a lot of praise, a lot of affection, and feedback for negative behavior that is designed to teach but not belittle.” This description indicates that Seika is best classified as being high on the _____ dimension of childrearing. a. acceptance-responsiveness b. responsiveness-demandingness c. demandingness-control d. control-acceptance ANSWER: a 23. Michal's parenting style is summarized with the statement, “It’s my way or the highway.” This description indicates that Michael is best classified as being high on the _____ dimension of childrearing. a. acceptance-responsiveness b. responsiveness-demandingness c. demandingness-control d. control-acceptance ANSWER: c 24. The authoritarian parenting approach is characterized by _____ acceptance-responsiveness and _____ demandingnesscontrol. a. high; high b. high; low c. low; high d. low; low ANSWER: c 25. Julie wants special permission to stay out on a date past her normal curfew. Her parents, who are authoritarian parents, are most likely to respond a. "Why should we let you do this?" b. "No, you are not allowed to extend curfew." c. "You can make that choice and suffer the consequences." d. "It doesn't matter to us what you do."

ANSWER: b 26. Ralph's parents have very clear rules about what is okay to do and what is not. They are very careful to enforce the rules. However, they are willing to listen to Ralph's side of the story and explain why rules are important. They even consider changing rules that don't seem to be working well. Ralph's parents are best described as having which sort of childrearing pattern? a. Neglectful b. Authoritative c. Authoritarian d. Permissive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family ANSWER: b 27. Sixteen-year-old Tanisha wants to go on a weekend camping trip with a group of her friends (some of whom are male). She brings up the idea with her parents. As they tend to be authoritative parents, their most likely response is to say, a. “Absolutely not. Case closed.” b. “Do as you please. It’s your life!” c. “Let’s see if we can figure out a solution together.” d. "We don’t approve, but if you insist...”

ANSWER: c 28. When asked to describe her parenting style, Mercedes says, “I can sum it up in a single word: indulgent!” This description indicates that Mercedes is best classified as being a(n) _____ parent. a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. moderate d. permissive ANSWER: d 29. The neglectful parenting approach is characterized by _____ acceptance-responsiveness and _____ demandingnesscontrol. a. high; high b. high; low c. low; low d. low; high ANSWER: c 30. Jacob is a member of a teenage gang. He's doing drugs and is into petty crime. On the rare days he shows up at school, he invariably ends up in a fight and leaves early. Jacob's behavior is most typical of children raised by parents who are a. authoritative. b. authoritarian. c. permissive. d. neglectful.

ANSWER: d 31. Kathy and Laura want their children to grow up to be self-reliant, cooperative, and achievement-oriented. Based on research by Baumrind, the couple should a. tell their children that school is really not that important. b. set firm limits and enforce them consistently. c. place few restrictions on their children's behavior. d. severely punish the children if they receive a bad grade.

ANSWER: b 32. Which parenting style is best associated with children who are unhappy, relatively aimless, and unpleasant to be around?

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Chapter 15: The Family a. Permissive b. Neglectful c. Authoritarian d. Authoritative ANSWER: c 33. Which statement concerning parenting styles and culture is true? a. Parents in collectivist cultures stress the importance of childhood autonomy. b. Native-American parents feel that it is a parent's place to force children to do what they feel is right. c. African-American children view coercive parenting as a sign of care and not hostility. d. Children in individualistic cultures tend to have more authoritarian parents.

ANSWER: c 34. Explanations on socioeconomic differences in parenting have focused on all of the following EXCEPT a. genetic differences. b. poverty-related stressors. c. limited educational resources. d. authoritative parenting methods.

ANSWER: a 35. Mahmoud is a highly-paid executive of a major technology firm. How is Mahmoud's position most likely to impact how he raises his son Ahmad? a. He will emphasize the importance of obedience to authority. b. He will become significantly more authoritarian. c. He will downplay the importance of education. d. He will attempt to foster initiative and creativity skills.

ANSWER: d 36. The _____ family systems model would be most accepting of the notion, “It’s always mommy’s fault!” a. social learning model b. indirect effects model c. transactional model d. parents effects model ANSWER: d 37. The fact that infants elicit more sensitive care from adults than teens is best explained by a. the parent effects model. b. caregiver burden. c. the child effects model. d. permissive parenting.

ANSWER: c 38. Rudy just turned 17 and has begun to hang with a bad crowd who take drugs and cause mayhem. His parents react by Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family taking away his cell phone and treating him in a less supportive manner. Which family systems model is best exemplified

by Rudy’s parent’s reaction? a. Social learning b. Parent effects c. Indirect effect d. Child effects ANSWER: d 39. When attempting to explain why his son is so violent, Cedrick says, “He seems to have a natural tendency toward violence, and my spanking him has just made the situation worse.” Cedrick’s explanation best exemplifies the _____ model of family influence. a. parent effects b. child effects c. transactional d. indirect ANSWER: c 40. The arrival of a new baby in the family is most likely to a. increase feelings of marital satisfaction for the parents. b. promote feelings of resentment and dependency behaviors in existing firstborn children. c. result in parents overcompensating by paying more attention to older siblings than the newborn. d. enhance an older sibling's feelings of competence and self-reliance.

ANSWER: b 41. Cross-cultural research has shown that older siblings serve as principal caregivers for infants and toddlers in _____ of the cultures studied. a. 27% b. 37% c. 47% d. 57% ANSWER: d 42. Which is true regarding parent-adolescent relationships? a. Interactions in childhood have no impact on an adolescent’s relationship with his or her parents. b. The conflict level between teens and parents has grown dramatically during the past few decades. c. Parent-child relationships from the teen years through middle age is marked by dramatic highs and lows. d. Most adolescents respect their parents.

ANSWER: a 43. Results from cross-cultural studies have shown that a. Mexican-Americans teens are more likely than European-Americans teens to disagree with their parents. b. Japanese teens are socialized to be highly autonomous. c. Chinese-American teens expect more freedom to date than do European-American teens. d. In collectivist Asian cultures, parents tend to impose a great number of rules.

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Chapter 15: The Family ANSWER: d 44. If Margo and Ray want their adolescent daughter Tina to "make it" as an independent adult, they should a. exert strong control over Tina's behavior during the adolescent years. b. distance themselves from Tina, to weaken their attachment relationship. c. let Tina make her own choices and withhold their own opinions, because they won't be around to help their child forever. d. gradually relinquish power and control so that Tina gains experience in making wise choices.

ANSWER: d 45. Which parenting style is most likely to promote psychological autonomy in adolescents? a. Authoritative b. Authoritarian c. Permissive d. Neglecting ANSWER: a 46. In general, marital satisfaction tends to a. increase steadily over the first two to three years of marriage. b. decrease somewhat over the first year of marriage. c. remain stable for most couples until the "seven-year itch." d. decrease drastically within six months of the wedding.

ANSWER: b 47. Research on marital satisfaction has shown that a. marriages tend to crumble due to the buildup of negative feelings that accumulate over the years. b. an early negative reaction concerning a marriage will likely continue to be seen at about the same level throughout the marriage. c. most divorces are due to a midlife crisis occurring about 14 years into a marriage. d. divorce is less likely in couples who hold an overly romantic view of their marriage at its start.

ANSWER: b 48. As children are added to the family, marital satisfaction tends to a. increase for mothers and fathers, but more steeply for fathers. b. increase for mothers and fathers, but more steeply for mothers. c. decrease for mothers and fathers, but more steeply for fathers. d. decrease for mothers and fathers, but more steeply for mothers ANSWER: d 49. Alana and Jesse are a typical American couple expecting their second child. Once the baby arrives, it is most likely that a. Alana and Jesse will become more satisfied with their marriage. b. Jesse will become more involved in caring for the children. c. The stress level in the family will lessen, as the two children will keep each other company.

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Chapter 15: The Family d. Alana and Jesse will experience a sharp decline in marital satisfaction.

ANSWER: b 50. Which statement concerning the childrearing family is true? a. Conflicts between parents and children tend to decrease between childhood and adolescence. b. The stress of caring for a toddler tends to be greater than caring for an infant. c. Parents with teens tend to be less likely to question their own life path. d. Parents of teens tend to be unaffected when the teenager is having personal problems.

ANSWER: b 51. How is marital satisfaction typically associated with the entry of the first child into a family and the exit of the last child from the family? a. Both events are characterized by a slight increase in marital satisfaction. b. The entry is characterized by a slight increase and the launching with a slight decrease in marital satisfaction. c. The entry is characterized by a slight decrease and the launching with a slight increase in marital satisfaction. d. Both events are characterized by a slight decrease in marital satisfaction.

ANSWER: c 52. Erikson would argue that the positive feeling of self associated with the empty nest in middle age indicates a successful attainment of a sense of a. generativity. b. integrity. c. independence. d. initiative.

ANSWER: a 53. Kitty and Dennis are about to experience a “boomerang effect” with their children. How should they prepare? a. Get ready for a major fight about autonomy and about how teens are adults and should be treated like adults and given their freedom. b. Pack the car because their last child is heading off to college. c. Smile because their adult children are in the process of repaying them for past financial support they received as kids. d. Make up the spare room because one of their children is about to move back home.

ANSWER: d 54. Recent research has shown that the _____ grandparenting style is the most common in the United States. a. remote b. companionate c. involved d. permissive ANSWER: b 55. The most common form of grandparenting in the United States appears to be one where there is a. little contact between grandparent and grandchild, largely due to geographical distance. b. frequent contact between grandparent and grandchild, with the grandparent often Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family assuming a parental role. c. frequent contact between grandparent and grandchild, with the primary goal being enjoyment of one another. d. infrequent contact between grandparent and grandchild, but when together the grandparents tend to meddle in the way the child is being reared.

ANSWER: c 56. Grandpa Sylvester loves spending time going to professional wrestling events with his grandson Marshawn. He comments that the best part is that he can have fun without worrying about parenting responsibilities. Sylvester is best described as having a _____ style. a. remote b. companionate c. involved d. permissive ANSWER: b 57. Due to his level of interaction, Samuel might best be considered a substitute parent for his grandson Patrick. This indicates that Samuel has a(n) _____ grandparenting style. a. remote b. companionate c. involved d. watch dog ANSWER: c 58. The most likely negative outcome of being an involved grandparent is a. guilt over lack of interaction with grandkids. b. lack of money due to overspending. c. depression over taking on significant responsibility. d. remorse over not having had more children and more grandkids.

ANSWER: c 59. All else being equal, who is likely to feel most satisfied with their marriage? a. Julie and Jorge, who just got married b. Helen and Gary, who just had their first child c. Hae and Tuan, who have two young children d. Rico and Carmen, whose children are in high school ANSWER: c 60. Which event ends the traditional family life cycle? a. Death of the last child b. Retirement c. Widowhood d. Death of the only remaining member of a family ANSWER: c 61. In the United States, at age 65, the largest group consists of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family a. married men living with their wives. b. married women living with their husbands. c. unmarried men living alone. d. unmarried women living alone.

ANSWER: a 62. Which statement best describes sibling relationships over the adulthood years? a. Sibling rivalry disappears once the children are on their own. b. Most siblings share intimate problems frequently across the years. c. Siblings often grow emotionally closer from middle age to old age. d. Significant life events like the death of a parent can bring close siblings together and push rival siblings apart.

ANSWER: d 63. Research on adult sibling relationships has shown that they a. spend a great deal of time discussing intimate issues. b. are negatively impacted if parents “played favorites”. c. are generally not there to support each other. d. display virtually no competition as they build their lives.

ANSWER: b 64. Which statement concerning child-parent relationships in older age is true? a. Aging fathers tend to be closer to their sons than aging mothers are to their daughters. b. Most older parents would prefer to live with their children not near their children. c. Older African-American elders enjoy more supportive relationships with their children than older EuropeanAmerican. d. Relationships between the generations are seldom affectionate.

ANSWER: c 65. Though Rania is Priya's mother, due to a chronic illness, Priya now has to take almost total care for her aging mother.

Priya's situation is an example of a. the sandwich generation. b. authoritarian parenting. c. role reversal. d. the empty nest.

ANSWER: c 66. The "middle generation squeeze" refers to a. young grandparents who must simultaneously care for their own and their children's children. b. middle-aged adults who find themselves simultaneously caring for both younger and older generations. c. children of divorce who must split their time between living with both mother and father. d. children who are the middle-born in a large family.

ANSWER: b 67. Which of the following people will likely be the first to take responsibility for taking care of Albert now that he is old Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family and in declining health? a. his wife Louise b. his son Peter c. his daughter-in-law Rosa d. his neighbor Sandra ANSWER: a 68. Whose care is most likely to lead to caregiver burden if they are taken in by an adult child? a. Victor, who has cancer but can get around pretty well b. Tomiko, whose dementia makes her disruptive c. Pedro, who had his feet amputated due to diabetes d. Olga, who is wealthier than the daughter who will be taking her in ANSWER: b 69. Married couples who voluntarily remain "childfree" a. generally experience greater marital satisfaction than couples with children during the childrearing years. b. tend to be less satisfied with their lives as they age than couples whose children have grown. c. tend to have higher levels of depression than couples with children. d. typically feel like failures for never having children.

ANSWER: a 70. The “spillover effect” occurs when a. a person’s sexual orientation impacts his or her job status. b. an adult child has to care for an elderly parent or grandparent. c. work life affects home life and vice versa. d. two divorced families remarry to form one large family.

ANSWER: c 71. Debbie is always happy when her mom has a good day at work, because she brings home something yummy for dessert. This indicates that Debbie’s family is a. experiencing spillover effects. b. high in permissiveness. c. experiencing a transactional effect. d. low in demandingness.

ANSWER: a 72. In general, gay and lesbian couples a. have less satisfying relationships than married heterosexuals. b. assign traditional roles of "wife" to one partner and the role of "husband" to the other. c. tend to have more egalitarian relationships than married heterosexuals. d. follow a very different pattern of stages of relationship development than heterosexual couples.

ANSWER: c 73. Research on lesbian mothers has shown that, when compared to heterosexual parents, they are Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family a. less likely to use physical punishment. b. more likely to engage in imaginative play. c. less likely to raise well-adjusted children. d. more likely to raise gay or bisexual children.

ANSWER: a 74. Paul and Sarah just got divorced, with Sarah getting full custody of their two children as the mom. It is most likely that, early on, Sarah will be more _____ and Paul will be more _____ with the children. a. warm and loving; cold and distant b. permissive; highly controlling c. impatient; indulgent d. cold and distant; inconsistent ANSWER: c 75. Which statement about the impact of divorce on child development is true? a. In response to divorce, most custodial mothers become more sensitive and responsive to their children’s needs. b. Children who display negative behaviors as the result of the divorce tend to exhibit such behaviors only in the home and show few negative effects in the school setting. c. Adolescents whose parents divorce are less likely to perceive relationships with their noncustodial fathers as close and caring. d. Adults from divorced families are less likely than those from intact families to divorce.

ANSWER: c 76. Which statement concerning reconstituted families is true? a. Difficulties are more likely if both parents bring children into the family. b. The first few years in the new family tend to be the time of least conflict. c. Boys tend to resent step-fathers more than girls resent step-mothers. d. Children in blended reconstituted families are less likely to show antisocial behaviors than children from intact two-parent families.

ANSWER: a 77. In the United States, the most common form of mistreatment involves a. physical abuse. b. sexual abuse. c. psychological abuse. d. neglect.

ANSWER: d 78. Right now across the world, who is most likely being abused? a. a spouse (or partner) b. a sibling c. a child d. an elderly person ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 79. Statistically speaking, who is at greatest risk for abusing their child? a. Javon, a young, employed male with two children b. Rene, a young, unemployed single woman with four children c. Doug, a middle-aged, poor, single father of one d. Maritza, a middle-aged, married, working mother of five ANSWER: b 80. As a child, Anthony was physically abused by his mother. He has now begun to physically abuse his daughter.

Anthony's behavior best exemplifies a. spillover effects. b. intergenerational transmission of parenting. c. caregiver burden. d. middle generation squeeze.

ANSWER: b 81. Which statement is the best example of a macroenvironmental contributor to child abuse? a. Many abusers are former abuse victims. b. Abuse is higher in transient and poor neighborhoods. c. Children are at higher risk for abuse than adults. d. Abuse is higher in societies that condone physical punishment.

ANSWER: d 82. If a family is a system, then the mother and child functioning together are a(n) ________. a. dyad b. transaction c. subsystem d. complement ANSWER: c 83. When a couple with one child welcomes another child, how many subsystems are added to the family system? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANSWER: d 84. After her father passed away, Violet asked her mother Sally to move in with her husband Ramzi and their kids. The kids love having grammy around and Violet and Ramzi appreciate the extra help. Which of the following best describes the change that occurred here? a. A traditional family became a blended family. b. An immediate family became a nuclear family. c. An extended family became a transactional family. d. A nuclear family became an extended family.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 85. Duvall's family life cycle perspective could be described as all of the following EXCEPT: a. traditional b. adaptive c. outdated d. narrow ANSWER: b 86. From a systems perspective, the change that occurs in a family can best be described as ________. a. predictable b. problematic c. staged d. multidimensional ANSWER: d 87. Dr. Patterson regularly lectures about the decline of family values in America. He believes that adults with children who divorce are ________. a. sinning in the eyes of god. b. acting out of selfish motives c. fighting emotional illness d. striving for a better option ANSWER: b 88. While in the mid 20th century the family of mom, dad, and a couple of kids was seen as a(n) ________, today it is considered a(n) ________.. a. fantasy; ideal b. ideal; stereotype c. goal; failure d. stereotype; system ANSWER: b 89. Which of the following has suffered as a result of the changes in mothers' activities over the past 50 years? a. child responsiveness b. woman's income c. household order d. life satisfaction ANSWER: c 90. Which of the following is the best advice to optimize an infant's development? a. Two parents are better than one. b. A father is better than none. c. Mother always knows best. d. A good parent does the work of two.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 91. In general, the effectiveness of various parenting styles is ________. a. negligible b. universal c. debatable d. cultural ANSWER: d 92. Roberto grew up in a public housing project in a rough neighborhood, raised along with three siblings by a single working mother. What did he likely experience as a child at home? a. more hugs b. more rules c. more freedom d. more negotiating ANSWER: b 93. Which of the following describes the foundation of the family stress model on parenting and childhood outcomes? a. resource deficits lead to health declines b. attachment problems lead to abuse c. financial problems lead to conflict d. social pressure leads to resiliency ANSWER: c 94. Dennis has worked on the assembly line at the local auto plant since he graduated from high school. What will he likely focus on teaching his children? a. communication b. networking c. negotiation d. obedience ANSWER: d 95. Which of the following is rated similarly as a parental concern regardless of family income level? a. child getting kidnapped b. child being bullied c. child getting shot d. child having legal trouble ANSWER: b 96. Which model of family influence best reflects the systems perspective? a. interactional b. parent effects c. transactional d. child effects ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 97. Ten mothers are going home today with their second baby. How many of their toddler first-borns will feel that the new baby is a threat? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8 ANSWER: b 98. Which pair of siblings is likely to be past the peak period of sibling rivalry? a. Adam, who is 8, and Glenn who is 6 b. Beatriz, who is 13, and Alma, who is 15 c. Akbar, who is 4, and Khalid, who is 5 d. Donte, who is 9, and Traylor, who is 11 ANSWER: b 99. Which of the following terms best reflects the role of an older sibling in relation to younger siblings? a. minimal b. influential c. adversarial d. noncommittal ANSWER: b 100. Ever since she started middle school, Jordan has been contradicting everything her parents say, slamming her door, and being difficult. Her parents are at their wit's end. How should they address the situation? a. Engage in full-scale battles until her disrespectful demeanor is broken. b. Apply a more authoritarian parenting style to confirm who holds the power. c. Ride it out, because conflict from adolescents is normal and beneficial. d. Give her what she requests to keep the bad attitude from escalating.

ANSWER: c 101. Who is most likely to practice supportive coparenting with their children? a. Trent and Yoshi, a gay married couple b. Dan and Paula, a remarried straight couple c. Stella and Marco, a married straight couple d. Bette and LaToya, a lesbian married couple ANSWER: d 102. Two men who marry and raise kids will likely provide a solid example of ________. a. family stress b. partnership c. role reversal d. indirect effects ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 103. Which of the following couples likely ranks lowest in marital satisfaction? a. Binh and Thuy, who have decided not to have children b. Arlene and Ted, whose last child moved out a year ago c. Khalid and Sasha, whose daughter just turned one d. Tina and Jorge, who have two kids in elementary school ANSWER: d 104. Which of the following categories has witnessed the largest increase in percentage over the past 50 years in the United States? a. adults who never married b. adults who are widowed c. adults who are married d. adults who are divorced/separated ANSWER: d 105. Who will have the most difficulty adjusting to their parents' divorce? a. Min, who splits his time at his mom's and dad's houses b. Reza, whose favorite aunt takes her on weekend outings c. Ellie, whose mother gets large support checks from her ex. d. Sam, whose father moved to start a job in another state ANSWER: d 106. Which of the following teenagers will likely be the least well-adjusted? a. Robin, a girl living with her divorced mom b. Celia, a girl in a blended family with stepbrothers c. Dewayne, a boy raised by his birth parents d. Parker, a boy with stepsisters in a reconstituted family ANSWER: b 107. In the classic 1970s TV sitcom "The Brady Bunch," Mike had three sons and remarried Carol, who had three daughters. What is the formal developmental term for the main characters of this show? a. kinkeeper family b. transactional family c. reconstituted family d. spillover family ANSWER: c 108. Children who attended schools where corporal punishment was practiced, and then inflict physical abuse on their own children as adults, demonstrate the role of ________ in child abuse. a. role reversal b. spillover effects c. intergenerational transmission d. environmental influence ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 109. A group of 100 parents who were abused as children have gathered at a conference to discuss challenges of raising a family. About how many of the group have abused their own children? a. 18 b. 27 c. 41 d. 66 ANSWER: b 110. Which of the following people is most likely to abuse their child? a. Yuri, an unemployed father raising a son b. Kathy, a single mother who is out of work c. Ling, a married blue collar mother of two d. Rogerio, a middle class divorced father ANSWER: b Subjective Short Answer 111. With the large gap in income inequality that has occurred in American families since the Great Recession of 2008, what impacts would you expect to see on children and teens now and in the future?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. What is the best approach for parents to deal with their adolescent's push for autonomy? Explain the overall goal of the parents and give some examples to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. What is your opinion on the "helicopter" style of parenting that is common today? Does it help or hinder adolescent development? Why do you think parents do this? Do they only have their child's best interests in mind?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. How does marital satisfaction change over the course of a marriage? What factors influence marital satisfaction?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. What parenting style was employed in your family when you were growing up? If you had two active parents, did they both use the same style, or different styles? How were you affected by this parenting?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. What are the issues associated with the middle generation squeeze? How can the associated problem of caregiver burden be reduced?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. You are assigned to create a program at an inner city community organization to lower the incidence of child abuse in families. List three strategies you will employ in your program, and provide rationales for your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Describe the three major grandparenting styles and provide advantages and disadvantages for each, using examples.

ANSWER: Answer not provided Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: The Family 119. How do you think changes in American society have impacted the family in the context of systems theory? Give at least three examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. What are potential advantages and disadvantages for children and parents who experience divorce? Give examples to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology True / False 1. Statistical deviance from the norm, maladaptive, and personal distress are three critical elements for determining if a behavior is abnormal. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. In general, children with ASD are very intelligent but they simply cannot interact socially in a normal fashion. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Hitting is a good example of an internalizing problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Children who do well despite having difficult life experiences are said to be sentient. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. A defining feature of anorexia nervosa is a binge-purge syndrome pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Adult females are more likely to be diagnosed with depression than adult males. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Delirium is an often reversible condition involving a disturbance of consciousness. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Due to improved treatment methods, the rate of autism in the United States is declining. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. The cause of ADHD has been linked to three genes that influence the production of dopamine in the brain. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology b. False ANSWER: False 10. Greater restrictions on guns would likely decrease the rate of completed suicide for adolescent males. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. All of the following are criteria that have been used for identifying psychologically abnormal behavior EXCEPT that a. behavior must be statistically outside of the normal range. b. behavior must be present prior to young adulthood. c. behavior must interfere with personal and social adaptation. d. behavior must cause personal distress.

ANSWER: b 12. When describing his problem, John says, “I know that my fear of spiders is not that unusual and that I still have my job as an exterminator, but this fear is mentally killing me!” John’s comments illustrate the criteria of _____ in defining abnormal behavior. a. maladaptiveness b. personal distress c. statistical deviance d. joint attention ANSWER: b 13. To be accurately diagnosed with major depressive disorder, you would have to display at least five symptoms from a nine-symptom list. That nine-item list includes all of the following EXCEPT a. significant weight loss or weight gain. b. insomnia or too much sleeping. c. feelings of worthlessness or extreme guilt. d. auditory or visual hallucinations.

ANSWER: d 14. How are cultural considerations handled in the DSM-5 section on depression? a. It has separate diagnostic criteria to be used in each of the industrialized nations. b. It indicates that individuals from certain cultures report somatic ailments more than psychological ailments. c. It notes that in many cultures the preferred treatment of depression is “spiritual cleansing.” d. It emphasizes that cultural and developmental variations are irrelevant to diagnosis and treatment.

ANSWER: b 15. As developmental psychologists, Sroufe and Rutter (2000) argue that psychological disorders are best a. described in terms of a disease. b. viewed as adaptation that occurs over time. c. thought to be defects lying within the person.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology d. attributed to individual predispositions.

ANSWER: b 16. Which statement best describes an element of the developmental pathways model? a. Different developmental pathways can lead to the same outcome. b. Change is only possible during one specific point of development. c. A particular pathway can lead only in one direction. d. The line between normal and abnormal behavior is clear and absolute.

ANSWER: a 17. According to the developmental pathways model, a. psychological disorders are best characterized as diseases. b. once a person’s behavior deviates from the normal path, it will not return to normal. c. normal genes and normal environments tend to push development along a normal course. d. with age, individuals whose early development is maladaptive will almost always show deviation back to the norm.

ANSWER: c 18. The fact that depressed children in Thailand are less likely to engage in “acting out” behavior due to a cultural emphasis on internalizing problems illustrates the concept of _____ norms. a. test b. social c. gender d. age ANSWER: b 19. The question, “Is it appropriate for a toddler to suck his thumb, but inappropriate for a woman to engage in the same behavior?” underlies the issue of a. gender roles. b. comorbidity. c. generativity. d. age norms.

ANSWER: d 20. In the diathesis-stress model, the term diathesis refers to a(n) a. predisposition toward vulnerability. b. state of calm. c. environmental event. d. social norm.

ANSWER: a 21. If research indicated that having a faulty ABOC2 gene made an individual at risk for developing schizophrenia, then for this disorder the damaged gene would be a a. somatic symptom. b. recessive trait.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology c. diathesis. d. comorbid factor.

ANSWER: c 22. According to the diathesis-stress model, who would be the most likely to show the most extreme levels of a psychological disorder?

Farzad, who is highly vulnerable and in an extremely stressful environment a. Bert, who is highly resilient and in an extremely stressful environment b. Lorena, who is highly resilient and in a very low-stress environment c. Farzad, who is highly vulnerable and in an extremely stressful environment d. Gretchen, who is highly vulnerable and in a very low-stress environment ANSWER: c 23. As a proponent of the diathesis-stress theory, Dr. Leung would predict that if stress is the sole contributor to depression, then in a group of 100 individuals all carrying the same “at-risk gene” for depression who live in a stress-free world, _____ individuals would develop depression. a. no b. 25 c. 50 d. 100 ANSWER: a 24. Suppose two people experience the same stressful events, and as a result of the experience, one person develops an affective disorder while the second person shows no ill effects. The diathesis-stress model would most likely explain this by saying that the a. person who developed the disorder was older than the other person. b. disordered person must be female and the other person must be male. c. two people had different predispositions for the disorder. d. person who developed the disorder was at risk for comorbidity.

ANSWER: c 25. Diathesis is to stress as a. gene is to the environment. b. externalized is to internalized. c. cultural is to individual. d. cause is to effect.

ANSWER: a 26. _____ is not a defining feature of autism. a. Abnormal social development b. Impaired language and communication c. Repetitive, stereotyped behavior d. Moderate to severe intellectual disability ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 27. Augie has been correctly diagnosed with autism. As such, you should expect that Augie will be most likely to a. be an empathetic individual. b. be adept at reading others' emotions. c. insist on eye contact with peers. d. find social contact to be difficult.

ANSWER: d 28. A group of 10 children with autism spectrum disorder are touring a new treatment center with their parents. How many of these children are securely attached with their parents? a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 ANSWER: d 29. Because individuals with autism spectrum disorder vary greatly in the degree and nature of their deficits, some researchers have proposed that ASD a. represents several different disorders. b. is culturally determined. c. is caused by teratogen exposure. d. cannot be appropriately researched.

ANSWER: a 30. Why is autism referred to as a “spectrum” of disorders? a. It can occur at any time of the lifespan. b. It includes a wide variety of conditions. c. It impacts speech, behavior, and social skills. d. It is related to other anxiety and mood disorders.

ANSWER: b 31. Which statement concerning the incidence of autism is true? a. The rates of autism have declined in recent years. b. Autism affects about 1 out of every 10 children. c. The incidence of autism is higher in males. d. Most individuals with autism are highly intelligent.

ANSWER: c 32. What behavior would an infant display that would lead a competent doctor to accurately suspect the child has an autism spectrum disorder? a. Failure to respond to human voices b. Excessive levels of joint attention c. Preferring human over nonhuman stimuli d. Demonstrating highly advanced cognitive function ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 33. Which statement concerning the intellectual abilities of individuals with ASDs is most accurate? a. Most individuals with ASDs are mildly to severely intellectually disabled. b. Individuals with ASDs tend to score lower on nonverbal than verbal measures of intelligence. c. Half or more of children with ASDs have intellectual disabilities. d. The description of some individuals with autism as “savants” is a myth.

ANSWER: c 34. Which statement concerning the long-term prognosis for autistic children is true? a. Most can be improved significantly through drug treatment. b. Most autistics achieve a normal level of functioning when they reach adulthood. c. Highly structured behavioral and educational programs can improve functioning of autistic children. d. Behavior modification programs have been shown to eliminate autism when applied early.

ANSWER: c 35. Lovaas conducted pioneering research on children with autism in which he was able to use _____ to significantly improve their language and social skills. a. psychoactive medications b. psychoanalysis c. reinforcement principles d. mirror therapy ANSWER: c 36. Depression-like symptoms are most likely to be seen in infants who a. show no somatic reactions. b. have experienced perinatal complications. c. are intellectually disabled. d. lack a secure attachment relationship.

ANSWER: d 37. Which of the following is true of depression in infants? a. Infants are capable of the negative cognitions associated with depression. b. Infants who display disorganized attachment are at risk for depression. c. DSM-5 allows the diagnosis of depression in infants. d. The "evidence" of depression in infants is a function of anxious parents.

ANSWER: b 38. Internalizing is to externalizing as a. being inhibited is to acting out. b. aggression is to depression. c. undercontrolled is to overcontrolled. d. hyperactive is to inactive.

ANSWER: a 39. Who is displaying an externalizing problem?

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology a. Damon, who is worrying about his psychology exam b. Shaolin, who is sulking in her backyard c. Trent, who hits other children on the playground d. Maggie, who is extremely shy around adults ANSWER: c 40. Which of the following best describes an internalizing problem? a. More disruptive to self than others b. Almost always illegal c. Difficult to control one’s actions d. Violation of social expectations ANSWER: a 41. Which of the following is an example of an internalizing disorder? a. Constantly interrupting the activities of others b. Constantly worrying about whether you are performing adequately c. Loudly refusing to follow the rules established for the classroom d. Hitting other children ANSWER: b 42. Children who function well despite exposure to risk factors for disorder or overcoming even severe early problems to become well adjusted are said to be a. compliant. b. resilient. c. indifferent. d. externalizers.

ANSWER: b 43. The fact that children with behavioral disorders are unlikely to exhibit these disorders as adults best illustrates the concept of developmental a. continuity. b. discontinuity. c. comorbidity. d. rigidity.

ANSWER: b 44. The fact that children with anxiety problems are likely to exhibit similar disorders as adults best illustrates the concept of developmental a. continuity. b. discontinuity. c. comorbidity. d. rigidity.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 45. What is most influential in determining whether a childhood disorder will persist into adulthood? a. The child’s sex b. The severity of the disorder c. The child’s temperament d. The extent of internalization ANSWER: b 46. Conrad's psychologist has told him that he is both depressed and has an anxiety disorder. This indicates that Conrad would accurately be described as a. being highly externalizing. b. having ADHD. c. demonstrating comorbidity. d. showing somatic symptoms.

ANSWER: c 47. Depressed preschool-aged children a. display the same behavioral and cognitive symptoms as do depressed adults. b. are most often extremely aggressive. c. usually mask their depression such that it is nearly impossible to detect that they are feeling sad. d. are less likely than adults to display cognitive symptoms of depression such as hopelessness.

ANSWER: d 48. Children who have a depressive disorder a. differ from adolescents and adults with depression, because children never attempt suicide. b. are easy to identify because they frequently talk about their negative feelings. c. often have problems with depression as adolescents and adults. d. seldom respond well to any form of psychotherapy.

ANSWER: c 49. As a cognitive behavioral therapist, Dr. Mansour's main goal in treating a child with depression would be to a. explore all repressed memories. b. model appropriate social skills. c. change the child’s distorted thinking. d. teach parents to punish sadness and reward happiness.

ANSWER: c 50. Which is true with regard to psychological "health" during adolescence? a. Most adolescents suffer at some point from some sort of significant psychological disturbance. b. Few adolescents who are psychologically disturbed were maladjusted before they reached puberty. c. Adolescence is a time of heightened vulnerability for some forms of psychological disorders. d. Adolescents are far more likely than adults to experience some sort of psychological disturbance.

ANSWER: c 51. Which statement concerning adolescence is true?

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology a. Most adolescents cope remarkably well with the challenges of this period of life. b. Most adolescents experience serious psychopathology during this period of life. c. Few adolescents engage in delinquent or risky behavior during this period of life. d. Adolescents have little difficulty with self-regulatory behaviors.

ANSWER: a 52. A group of 100 students at a women's college have gathered to mark the start of their senior year. How many of these students have experienced at least one eating disorder? a. 5 b. 9 c. 12 d. 18 ANSWER: a 53. Denise is about average in height and weight, and is often dieting. From time to time, however, she sits down and eats huge quantities of food all at once, after which, she makes herself vomit. Denise suffers from Turner syndrome. a. anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa. c. Turner syndrome. d. Asperger syndrome.

ANSWER: b 54. Why does adolescence appear to be a prime time for the development of eating disorders in females? a. It is the first time that girls receive media images promoting thinness. b. The formal operational stage of thinking is required to develop the obsessive behaviors. c. The gene that controls eating does not “turn-on” until adolescence. d. The normal weight gain in puberty is viewed as problematic.

ANSWER: d 55. Which is the best example of a diathesis for anorexia nervosa? a. The media’s portrayal of women b. A gene that controls appetite c. Peer pressure to be thin d. Parental statements like, “Boys don’t date fat girls” ANSWER: b 56. Raulena is a strong supporter of the Maudsley approach to treating anorexia nervosa, so she would be most likely to suggest that the parents a. need to accept blame for the problem before therapy can be effective. b. stay out of the way and let the psychotherapists do their job unimpeded. c. must be a critical part of their child's treatment team. d. should go on diets in support of their child.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 57. A key reason for the difficulty in treating people with anorexia nervosa is problems in properly diagnosing the disorder. a. patients' strong resistance to admitting they have a problem. b. families who are resistant to changing the behavior of their children. c. problems in properly diagnosing the disorder. d. a common metabolic reaction in which the body craves excessive calories.

ANSWER: a 58. Substance use disorders are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT___________. a. experiencing withdrawal when not using the substance b. using any illegal substance c. continuing the use of the substance despite adverse consequences d. developing tolerance ANSWER: c 59. What would qualify 17-year-old Daniel as engaging in binge drinking? a. Consuming at least three different types of alcohol in one sitting b. Consuming alcohol for five days in a row c. Consuming alcohol with at least three peers present d. Consuming more than five drinks in a row in a single drinking session ANSWER: d 60. The initial step in the cascade model of substance abuse involves a. exposure to harsh parenting. b. development of conduct problems. c. having a difficult temperament. d. living in a low SES household.

ANSWER: c 61. The final step in the cascade model of substance abuse involves a. having a parent who abuses drugs. b. being in a peer group that reinforces drug use. c. peer rejection at school. d. frustrated parents giving up on a deviant child.

ANSWER: b 62. The biggest complaint against the cascade model of substance abuse is that it a. has limited focus on environmental influences. b. explains abuse in adults but not in teens. c. needs to place greater emphasis diatheses. d. does not consider contextual factors.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 63. Who provides the best example of ruminative coping? a. Pam, who just cannot stop thinking about how depressed she feels b. Javier, who has become addicted to the antidepressants he is taking c. Aaliyah, who is relying on coworkers' advice to address anger issues d. Tuan, who refuses to acknowledge the fact that he has ADHD ANSWER: a 64. Unproductively dwelling on one’s problems is referred to as a. role reversal. b. echolalia. c. ruminative coping. d. comorbidity.

ANSWER: c 65. In the United States, suicide is the _____ leading cause of death in adolescence. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANSWER: c 66. According to statistics, who is most likely to commit suicide? a. George, an 18-year-old black male b. Leonard, a 65-year-old white male c. Paul, a 42-year-old white male d. Jackson, a 29-year-old black male ANSWER: b 67. Which of the following is true with regard to adolescent suicide? a. More males than females attempt and are successful at committing suicide. b. More females than males attempt and are successful at committing suicide. c. More males attempt suicide, but more females are successful at committing suicide. d. More females attempt suicide, but more males are successful at committing suicide.

ANSWER: d 68. Which is not one of the four key risk factors in teenage suicide? a. Family pathology b. Access to firearms c. Stressful life events d. Late maturation ANSWER: d 69. Who is most likely to be diagnosed with depression? a. Mark, a 25-year-old male Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology b. Rochelle, a 30-year-old female c. Viktor, a 75-year-old male d. Ethel, a 90-year-old female ANSWER: b 70. Which statement concerning depression in adulthood is true? a. Treatments for depression in adulthood are highly ineffective. b. Older adults are highly likely to be overdiagnosed with depression. c. Depression symptoms in older adulthood require sophisticated DSM diagnostic criteria. d. A major challenge in treating older individuals with depression is getting them to seek treatment.

ANSWER: d 71. Dementia is best defined as a. a sudden loss of memory and intelligence. b. an inevitable, normal change in the brain with age. c. a progressive loss of neural functioning. d. a one-time period of significant disorientation.

ANSWER: c 72. Dr. Quincy is about to conduct an autopsy on an individual he suspects has died due to complications of Alzheimer’s disease. Which findings would verify his suspicion? a. Neurofibrillary tangles b. Occipital lobe degeneration c. Excess myelin d. Advanced pruning ANSWER: a 73. What brain change is best associated with Alzheimer’s disease? a. Senile plaque b. Excessive serotonin production c. Expanded synaptic gaps d. Reduced levels of dopamine ANSWER: a 74. The first signs of Alzheimer's disease typically includes a. getting lost in familiar surroundings. b. a loss of language skills. c. personality changes. d. forgetting self-care such as eating.

ANSWER: a 75. The extra “brain power” that individuals can sometimes rely on when disease begins to take a toll on their brain functioning is referred to as a. cognitive reserve.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology b. mirroring neurons. c. ruminative coping. d. reversed roles.

ANSWER: a 76. Vascular dementia a. cannot occur in combination with Alzheimer’s disease. b. results from a series of small strokes. c. has a very powerful genetic basis. d. results from incorrectly prescribed medications.

ANSWER: b 77. A key difference between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia is that vascular dementia is more strongly a. influenced by genetic factors. b. influenced by lifestyle choices. c. associated with dementia. d. associated with delirium.

ANSWER: b 78. Delirium is best defined as a. another term for dementia. b. incurable. c. a reversible state of confusion and disorientation. d. a normal part of the aging process.

ANSWER: c 79. Which of the following is the most likely to be a reversible condition? a. Dementia b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Delirium d. Vascular dementia ANSWER: c 80. According to the diathesis-stress model, which of the following aspects of stress plays a key role in development of depression? a. norms for exposure b. source of exposure c. frequency of exposure d. capital improvements.

ANSWER: c 81. Kendrick is thrilled to be giving a speech to open the sixth grade field day. He talks on and on and seems to be unaware that the children are fidgeting and not paying attention because they want to start the festivities. What likely is causing Kendrick's behavior?

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology a. conduct disorder b. Asperger's syndrome c. autism d. ADHD ANSWER: b 82. First grader Jenna has been diagnosed with autism. Which of the following may have occurred in Jenna's brain during her first months of life? a. tangling of synaptic stems b. heavy pruning of neurons c. overgrowth of neurons d. thickening of myelin ANSWER: c 83. One of the reasons for the increase in rates of autism is ________. a. maternal teratogens b. enhanced awareness c. combination vaccines d. electronic fields ANSWER: b 84. Which of the following is critical to achieving optimal treatment outcomes for someone with autism spectrum disorder? a. peer socialization b. limited medication c. early intervention d. brain scanning ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following infants faces the lowest risk of depression? a. Sammy, who has resistant attachment b. Trina, whose mother is short-tempered c. Akbar, whose mother is an opioid addict d. Estella, whose father died in an accident ANSWER: a 86. Which of the following will likely experience more internalizing problems? a. Malik, a 7-year-old boy b. Nina, a 9-year-old girl c. Avi, a 14-year-old boy d. Tracey, a 16-year-old girl ANSWER: d 87. Carol and Zack have a son, Ian. Tenisha and Bill have a son, Martin. As a child, Zack had ADHD. What is the relative Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology risk of developing ADHD for Ian and Martin? a. Martin has one-half the risk that Ian has. b. Ian and Martin have roughly the same risk. c. Ian has a five times higher risk than Martin. d. Ian's risk is three times higher than Martin's.

ANSWER: c 88. Which of the following is a key neural factor in ADHD? a. synaptic pruning b. impulse control c. sensory adaptation d. serotonin uptake ANSWER: b 89. Jonathan was treated for ADHD throughout his childhood, but he managed to finish school. Recently, however, he lost his job at a downtown office. What was the likely cause? a. disruptiveness b. sexual harassment c. recklessness d. procrastination ANSWER: d 90. Third grader Rajon has been diagnosed with ADHD. Which of the following is he most likely to display? a. impatience b. interrupting c. disorganization d. fidgeting ANSWER: c 91. Seven girls in the fourth grade at Lyons Elementary School have ADHD. How many of the fourth grade boys likely have the disorder? a. 4 b. 9 c. 15 d. 21 ANSWER: c 92. Prab thinks she should take her preschool-aged son Jay to be assessed for depression. Which of the following likely raised a flag of concern for Prab? a. Jay expresses strong dislike for his baby sister. b. Jay no longer seems to enjoy the playground. c. Jay has told his mother that he feels worthless d. Jay engages in binge eating when he is upset.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 93. Carlos seems intent on testing his parents' limit to the breaking point in his last year of high school. First he cracked up the car on a late-night joy ride to the beach, then he broke his wrist jumping off the roof, and then he got arrested for being rowdy at a political demonstration. What is likely creating such stormy behavior in Carlos's life? a. diathesis-stress b. serotonin deficit c. sensation-seeking d. peer socialization ANSWER: c 94. Which adolescent girl is most likely to develop anorexia nervosa? a. Xue, who lives in a Beijing apartment b. Megan, who lives in a London townhouse c. Thuy, who lives on a Vietnamese farm d. Rose, who lives on a Vermont ranch ANSWER: b 95. Jennifer doesn't allow her middle-school aged daughter Sasha to read fashion magazines or watch reality shows with teams of aspiring models. Jennifer is afraid that the ________ can trigger anorexic behaviors in Sasha that she herself struggled with in college. a. sexual imagery b. thin ideal c. peer socialization d. fitness focus ANSWER: b 96. Which of the following best reflects the philosophy behind Eric Stice's Body Project? a. Your mirror is telling lies. b. Beat back cultural messages. c. Just be who you are inside. d. I know what's best for me.

ANSWER: b 97. The cascade model of substance use proposes that influences on a child's drinking alcohol or taking drugs are ________. a. inevitable b. societal c. cumulative d. biological ANSWER: c 98. Once she was picked for the cheerleading squad, Cherelle wanted to maintain her status with this popular crowd. So despite her parents' warnings, she began drinking beer with the other girls and some of the boys from the team. This is an example of peer ________. a. domination b. selection Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology c. socialization d. internalization ANSWER: c 99. From a developmental psychopathology perspective, severe and persistent bullying that causes a teenager to attempt suicide would be considered a form of ________. a. comorbidity b. diathesis c. internalizing d. stress ANSWER: d 100. The proportion of adolescents who seriously considered suicide is ________ the proportion of adolescents who attempted suicide. a. one-half b. four times c. twice d. a fraction of ANSWER: c 101. According to the text, what is NOT a key risk factor of suicidal behavior in adolescents? a. A youth psychological disorder b. Access to firearms c. Stressful life events d. A strong social network ANSWER: d 102. How does the experience of symptoms of depression in older adults compare to actual diagnoses of depression? a. The prevalence of symptoms is similar to the rate of diagnoses. b. The rate of diagnoses is much higher than the prevalence of symptoms. c. The rate of diagnoses is slightly lower than the prevalence of symptoms. d. The prevalence of symptoms is much higher than the rate of diagnoses.

ANSWER: d 103. Who is most likely to be diagnosed with depression during their lifetime? a. Roberta, a black woman b. David, a black man c. Ping, an Asian man d. Carmen, a Latino woman ANSWER: d 104. During what age does the percentage of adults with dementia more than double? a. the 60s b. the 70s Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology c. the 80s d. the 90s ANSWER: b 105. The new term used in the DSM-5 to refer to dementia reflects the fact that the disorder is ________. a. influenced by diathesis-stress dynamics b. a function of lifestyle issues in older adults c. brain-based and affects thinking processes d. a culmination of the autism spectrum ANSWER: c 106. Randall, who has the APOE e4 gene, took many hits in his days as a pro football player, sustaining several concussions. Randall is now in the late stages of Alzheimer's disease. This is an example of the role of ________ in psychopathology. a. comorbid risks b. epigenetics c. diathesis-stress d. somatic factors ANSWER: c 107. Which of the following will help Verniece build her cognitive reserve and decrease the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease? a. eating foods high in antioxidants b. taking classes at the adult ed center c. practicing regular low-impact yoga d. avoiding emotionally stressful stimuli ANSWER: b 108. The nurse practitioner at the retirement home told Diana to cut all salt from her diet in order to lower her blood pressure and decrease the risk of stroke. The nurse's recommendation will also help to lower Diana's risk of developing ________. a. Lewy body dementia b. Alzheimer's disease c. vascular dementia d. depressive disorder ANSWER: c 109. Jiang's mental confusion and disorientation seemed to come out of nowhere, catching her husband completely off guard. What will Jiang likely be diagnosed with? a. vascular dementia b. delirium c. Lewy body dementia d. Alzheimer's disease ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology 110. Lloyd's father suffered complications from Parkinson's disease in the latter part of his life. Now that Lloyd is past retirement age, what does he likely have a higher risk for? a. Alzheimer's disease b. vascular dementia c. delirium d. Lewy body dementia ANSWER: d Subjective Short Answer 111. Explain why developmentalists have a problem with the DSM-5 characterization of psychopathology. Do you support the developmentalists' perspective or the DSM perspective? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Your neighbor has just learned that her little boy has autism. Describe the symptoms, cause, and treatment of this disorder. Also provide a prognosis for the child as an adult.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Explain the thinking behind the idea of "autisms." Be sure to address the various aspects of this perspective in your discussion.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

114. How does the cascade model of substance abuse envision the development of drug problems? What are the implications of adopting this approach to intervening with an individual with a developing drug problem?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Describe the chicken-and-egg argument as it relates to the parent effects model of influence on childhood externalizing and internalizing behaviors (i.e., "Which came first?"). Give examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. Compare and contrast dementia and delirium and explain why it is important to understand the distinction.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Discuss the idea that we all shift between "normal" and "abnormal" behavior as we develop, and how it relates to a very high incidence of at least one psychological disorder for children and adolescents. Is this perspective accurate? Does "normal" need a better definition? Is development in our younger years really so volatile?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 118. Compare and contrast anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, including symptoms, causes, and treatment. What role does our culture play in these disorders, and what could be done to address this issue? Give three examples to illustrate your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. Describe the peer socialization/peer selection dynamic for adolescent behavior. Give examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Genetic factors play a role in whether a person develops Alzheimer's disease. Genetic testing can identify these Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology factors in individuals today. Would you like to know now if you have a genetic diathesis for this disease? Would you rather have the test later in life? Or would you prefer to not know at all? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying True / False 1. One aspect of the definition for total brain death is the total unresponsiveness to stimuli. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. In the United States, cancer is the leading cause of death of adults over age 65. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The culturally prescribed way of responding to death is called grieving a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Parkes and Bowlby claimed that yearning while bereaved is a sign of separation anxiety a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The most common adjustment reaction to death of a spouse involves a resilient pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Recent research has generated little support for the grief-work perspective. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A terminally ill individual is more likely to receive painkilling drugs in a hospice setting than in a hospital setting. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. By playing "peek a boo" with her infant son, Sheila is helping to prepare him for the loss of his terminally ill father. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. By explaining to his young daughter Zoe that grandpa's death is just like when her pet hamster died, Josh is helping her to grasp the concept of universality in death. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying b. False ANSWER: True 10. Teenagers who experience the death of a friend develop a higher risk for substance abuse. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 11. It is most accurate to say that biological death a. is a single event with a clear-cut end point. b. occurs when a person stops breathing. c. is a process consisting of multiple events. d. officially occurs when the heart stops beating.

ANSWER: c 12. Owen and colleagues (2006) conducted research on a young woman who had been in a vegetative state for five months. When she was asked to imagine visiting rooms of her house, a. she awakened from the vegetative state. b. she described which rooms she was visiting. c. her brain responded in the same manner as a healthy brain. d. her brain showed no measurable reaction to the stimuli.

ANSWER: c 13. Active euthanasia is also called a. mercy killing. b. assisted suicide. c. physician-assisted suicide. d. passive euthanasia.

ANSWER: a 14. Who is engaging in active euthanasia? a. Adam, who is withholding pain-killing drugs from a patient b. Shakita, who is removing a feed-tube from a patient c. Alonzo, who is injecting a terminally ill patient with a lethal dose of drugs d. Rhonda, who is removing a respirator from a patient who is totally brain dead ANSWER: c 15. Which of the following is an example of passive euthanasia? a. Giving a terminally ill patient a lethal dose of drugs b. Permitting a terminally ill patient to give him/herself a lethal dose of drugs c. Removing a patient who is brain dead and in an irreversible coma from a respirator d. Smothering a terminally ill patient to death at his request Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying ANSWER: c 16. Deanna is dying of cancer and her feeding tube was just removed by a nurse. If the goal of this action would be to have her eventually die, it is best considered a. passive euthanasia b. active euthanasia c. physician-assisted suicide d. self-inflicted suicide ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following is an example of assisted suicide? a. Instructing a terminal patient on how to mix bleach and ammonia to create a deadly gas b. Injecting someone with a lethal dose of a drug that he or she is already taking c. Withholding medical treatment for a chronic disorder d. Removing someone from a respirator when brain activity is nonexistent ANSWER: a 18. Some doctors will prescribe painkillers or sleeping pills for terminally ill patients, knowing that the patient may very well deliberately take a lethal overdose. This is an example of a. active euthanasia b. passive euthanasia c. fratricide d. assisted suicide ANSWER: d 19. In the United States, there is overwhelming support among members of the general public for a. passive euthanasia b. assisted suicide c. active euthanasia d. banning euthanasia and assisted suicide.

ANSWER: a 20. The main purpose of a living will is to a. make provisions for the division of property among loved ones after one's own death. b. specify how much medical care you wish to receive if you become hopelessly ill. c. appoint guardians to care for all living minor offspring upon one's death. d. make active euthanasia legal for one's self.

ANSWER: b 21. Immediately after a loved one's death. _____ families may engage in Shivah, in which they withdraw from normal activities and mourn for a week. a. Irish b. Jewish c. Japanese Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying d. Puerto Rican ANSWER: b 22. In the United States, the average life expectancy is currently about _____ years. a. 72 b. 79 c. 84 d. 86 ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following is true regarding life expectancies in the United States today? a. Life expectancy for all people, regardless of race and gender, is very similar. b. Males are generally expected to outlive females by about three years. c. Hormonal difference may account for sex differences in life expectancy. d. Life expectancy is not influenced socioeconomic level.

ANSWER: c 24. Based on statistics, which United States resident would you expect to have the longest lifespan? a. Lenny, an African-American male b. Rochelle, an African-American female c. Gerard, a European-American male d. Kathy, a European-American female ANSWER: d 25. Based on statistics, which United States resident would you expect to have the shortest lifespan? a. Tyler, an African-American male b. Tonya, an African-American female c. Patrick, an European-American male d. Ellie, an European-American female ANSWER: a 26. Statistically, an individual born in _____ would have the shortest life expectancy. a. Sweden b. Japan c. China d. Chad ANSWER: d 27. In the United States, the death of an eight-year-old child would be most likely be due to a. cancer b. some congenital abnormalities c. car accident d. child abuse ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 28. Rosa's 70-year-old uncle Hector, who lives in the United States, just died. As a knowledgeable individual, Rosa would realize that statistically, the most likely cause of his death was a. heart disease b. suicide c. cancer d. cerebrovascular disease ANSWER: a 29. Kübler-Ross suggested that upon initially being told that they are going to die, most people respond with a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. depression ANSWER: a 30. Despite the fact that Rajesh knows his friend Sorboni is dying of cancer, the next time they meet, Rajesh says, “Don’t worry about it, we all know that you are going to be fine.” According to Kübler-Ross, Rajesh's statement exemplifies the dying-related coping device of a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. depression ANSWER: a 31. In Kübler-Ross’s original model, the reaction of denial and isolation is followed by the reaction of a. acceptance b. anger c. bargaining d. depression ANSWER: b 32. Frieda has been told she is going to die due to an inoperable brain tumor. Her children are young, and she cannot stand the thought of leaving them behind. All day long, she thinks over and over again, "I hate those doctors for not finding this sooner.” Frieda appears to be in the _____ stage of dying. a. denial b. bargaining c. anger d. depression ANSWER: c 33. Sylvia has terminal cancer. After years of very irregular church attendance, Sylvia begins to go to church every Sunday. She asks of God, "Please let me live to see my daughter graduate from college. I'll be a good Christian. I'll mend my ways. Just let me live..." This description indicates that Sylvia is in the _____ stage of dying. a. anger Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying b. bargaining c. denial d. depression ANSWER: b 34. A hope for less pain, more time, or provisions for children are most common during the _____ stage of dying. a. isolation b. denial c. bargaining d. acceptance ANSWER: c 35. In her original model, Kübler-Ross’s last stage of dying involved a. anguish over unfinished business that must be left behind. b. depression and feelings of hopelessness. c. anger and resentment directed toward those who will go on living. d. peaceful acceptance of the inevitable.

ANSWER: d 36. Kübler-Ross viewed the _____ stage of development as characterized by a feeling that, “the pain is gone,” “the struggle is over,” and “a time of rest before the journey.” a. bargaining b. isolation c. acceptance d. depression ANSWER: c 37. According to Kübler-Ross, a sense of _____ permeates through all five stages of the dying process. a. resentment b. uncertainty c. hope d. fear ANSWER: c 38. With regard to Kübler-Ross's theory, subsequent research on death and dying has a. provided substantial support for her theory. b. found that anger is not a typical reaction to death. c. found that the dying process does not progress sequentially. d. found that her theory holds in the United States, but not in other cultures.

ANSWER: c 39. Shneidman's work in the area of death and dying suggests that a. it is more normal to remain depressed than to reach acceptance toward the end of the dying process. b. there is a distinct sequence of stages that people pass through with regard to the acceptance of death.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying c. dying people experience myriad emotional responses, with many unpredictable ups and downs. d. the cause of death has little impact on one's reaction to the dying process.

ANSWER: c 40. Grief is best defined as a. the emotional response to loss. b. culturally accepted ways of reacting to loss. c. the process of dealing with the deceased's remains. d. a status of being without.

ANSWER: a 41. Nine-year-old Sarah died from cancer. Her teacher and her classmates made black armbands to wear for a month following her death. Due to the fact that in Sarah’s culture, the wearing of black is common following a death, wearing the armbands best illustrates the concept of a. bargaining b. depression c. grief d. mourning ANSWER: d 42. Khalid has just found out that his friend Jason is terminally ill. This has made him feel sad and lonely at the thought of living life without his pal. Khalid's feelings best represent the concept of a. bargaining b. anticipatory grief c. denial and isolation d. maturational grief.

ANSWER: b 43. The Parkes/Bowlby model of bereavement suggests that a. a grieving adult is much like an infant who is experiencing separation anxiety. b. there is a series of clear-cut stages one passes through in mourning one's loss c. grief that lasts much longer than six months is maladaptive. d. longing to have the loved one return becomes most intense about one year following death.

ANSWER: a 44. Lawrence just found out that his best friend was killed in a car accident. Lawrence’s emotional state would best be described as one of shock, and he feels like his emotions will burst out of him at any moment. Parkes/Bowlby would most likely describe his grief state in terms of a. reorganization b. numbness c. yearning d. disorganization/despair ANSWER: b 45. The sense of separation anxiety described in the Parkes/Bowlby attachment model of bereavement is most closely Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying associated with the _____ reaction. a. reorganization b. numbness c. yearning d. disorganization/despair ANSWER: c 46. After her husband dies, Carmen finds herself unable to sleep and very preoccupied with thoughts of her husband and the events surrounding his death. Carmen is best described as experiencing what Parkes/Bowlby referred to as a. yearning b. numbness c. reorganization d. disorganization and despair ANSWER: a 47. According to the Parkes/Bowlby model of bereavement, the feelings of apathy and defeat felt in response to knowing that you will never be reunited with the deceased are most likely to initially occur during the _____ stage of bereavement. a. yearning b. numbness c. reorganization d. disorganization and despair ANSWER: d 48. Allen’s wife died almost one year ago. For a long period, he experienced overwhelming emotional turmoil. In the past few weeks, however, he seems to have pulled himself together and started to make the transition into being a widower.

According to the Parkes/Bowlby model, Allen is best classified as now being in a state of a. yearning b. numbness c. reorganization d. disorganization and despair ANSWER: c 49. Research on the Parkes/Bowlby model demonstrated that _____ was the strongest reaction 24 months after a time of loss. a. depression b. disbelief c. anger d. acceptance ANSWER: d 50. According to the dual-process model, the bereaved a. are typically both happy and sad. b. oscillate between coping and taking a break from coping. c. experience physical stress but not emotional stress. d. can be in a state of acceptance and denial at the same time.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying ANSWER: b 51. After her husband died, Talat focused a great deal of her attention on learning how to take care of the garden, a task formerly performed by her deceased husband. Her actions represent _____ coping. a. anticipatory b. restoration-oriented c. complicated d. loss-oriented ANSWER: b 52. Diane's friend recently lost her mother and has been acting depressed or irritable. If Diane follows the typical response pattern with her friend, she will a. sympathize, and later grow weary. b. sympathize, and later become more attached to her friend. c. be unsympathetic, but later become more attached to her friend. d. be unsympathetic, but later become sympathetic.

ANSWER: a 53. What can we conclude regarding an infant’s experience of death? a. Infants who have developed an understanding of here vs. all gone may show some of the same reactions that adults do in response to loss of an attachment figure. b. Most infants understand that death means that life processes stop, but they believe that it can be undone or reversed. c. Infants are biologically programmed to show grief responses to the loss of a caretaker, regardless of the age of the infant. d. Infants who show separation protest and depression-like symptoms have clearly demonstrated that they have an accurate cognitive understanding of death.

ANSWER: a 54. Bowlby suggested that the order of infant bereavement is a. protest to despair to detachment. b. protest to detachment to despair. c. despair to protest to detachment. d. despair to detachment to protest.

ANSWER: a 55. Three months after her mother died, 13-month-old Jessica, who initially searched everywhere for her mom and then appeared very sad, has now taken a renewed interest in playing with her toys and interaction with new people. Bowlby would suggest that Jessica is in the _____ phase of bereavement. a. protest b. detachment c. despair d. complicated ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 56. Tenisha was not that upset at her grandfather’s funeral because, as she puts it, “It’s okay. We can see him when he gets better tomorrow.” Tenisha's statement indicates that she lacks an understanding of both the _____ aspects of death. a. finality and irreversibility b. irreversibility and universality c. universality and biological causality d. biological and psychological causality ANSWER: a 57. Who is best demonstrating an understanding of the universality of death? a. James, who says, “My grandpa died and never came back.” b. Chung, who says, “You can die from cancer that is inside of you.” c. Lisa, who says, “Everything that lives dies.” d. Marisol, who says, “Machines cannot die.”

ANSWER: c 58. Which statement represents an understanding of the most cognitively challenging aspect of death? a. “The dead cannot see you from beyond.” b. “Once dead, always dead.” c. “Everyone eventually dies.” d. “You can die from something invisible inside of you.”

ANSWER: d 59. As a typical seven-year-old, Tommy likely understands the basics of every death concept EXCEPT a. finality. b. irreversibility. c. continuing bonds. d. biological causality.

ANSWER: d 60. Telling a young child that death is like "going to sleep" is a. a good way to protect him or her from the brutality of death. b. a good way to help him or her understand that death happens to everyone. c. likely to contribute to his or her misconception that death is a temporary state. d. likely to lead to a more mature conception of why people die.

ANSWER: c 61. Preschool-aged children who are dying are most likely to a. stop engaging in normal activities with their peers. b. engage in violent pretend play out of frustration. c. talk a great deal about their feelings regarding death. d. give away their belongings.

ANSWER: b 62. Twelve-year-old Marcus and his four-year-old brother Taye recently experienced the death of their mother. How are Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying their reactions to this loss most likely to differ? a. Taye is less likely to throw temper tantrums. b. Taye is less likely to manifest toileting difficulties. c. Marcus is more likely to show disturbances in his eating behavior. d. Marcus is more likely to find comfort by imagining his mother.

ANSWER: d 63. Which of the following is true regarding the difference between a young child’s and an adolescent’s understanding of death? a. Adolescents are more likely than younger children to think about the possibility of an afterlife. b. Adolescents are less likely than younger children to think about the abstract meaning of death. c. Adolescents are less likely than younger children to say that death was the result of cessation of biological processes. d. Adolescents are more likely than younger children to view death as just a biological ending of life.

ANSWER: a 64. Research on widowers and widows has indicated that a common cognitive grief reaction is a. overindulgence in alcohol b. loss of appetite c. impaired memory d. sleep disturbances ANSWER: c 65. Following the death of her husband, Latisha shows a consistent pattern of low levels of distress. Latisha’s reactions best fit the _____ pattern of adjustment. a. common b. chronic c. resilient d. depressed ANSWER: c 66. The best predictor for depression four years after the death of a spouse is having a. cohabitated prior to the death of the spouse b. lived with a spouse who had a long, chronic ailment c. been depressed prior to the death of the spouse d. failed to actively engage in grief work ANSWER: c 67. _____ grief is not fully recognized by others and is generally harder to cope with than other forms of grief. a. Anticipatory b. Disenfranchised c. Chronic d. Finality ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 68. Despite the fact that her son died 10 years ago, Helena has such an intense yearning to have him back alive that she is unable to keep a job. This description indicates that Helena is best classified as experiencing _____ grief. a. complicated b. disenfranchised c. palliative d. anticipatory ANSWER: a 69. Which of the following is true regarding the loss of a child? a. Parents tend to become overly concerned about the surviving siblings and offer them too much support. b. The younger the child is at the time of death, the more difficult it is for parents to cope with the loss. c. The inability to make sense of the loss increases the intensity of the grief. d. Couples with strained marriages before the death tend to form stronger partnerships.

ANSWER: c 70. Why is death of a grandchild considered a “double whammy” for grandparents? a. They feel guilt about the loss of a grandchild and helpless to protect their adult child from pain. b. They tend to bear the major financial responsibility for the burial and for assisting their adult children with their bills. c. The death of the grandchild and age of their adult children remind them of the short time they have left on earth. d. It represents both a social and personal loss.

ANSWER: a 71. Research suggests that for an adult, the loss of a parent is a. more difficult to deal with for women than for men b. upsetting, but in some ways expected and therefore tends to be easier to deal with than the death of a child or of a spouse. c. typically the most difficult type of loss with which to cope. d. characterized by anger but not guilt.

ANSWER: b 72. According to the grief-work perspective, in order to cope with death, a bereaved individual must a. move toward a detachment from the deceased. b. avoid directly confronting loss. c. take some responsibility for the death of the loved one. d. avoid experiencing painful emotions.

ANSWER: a 73. An individual taking a strong _____ perspective would be most likely to suggest that in order to cope with the death of a husband, a wife must confront their loss and detach from her husband. a. grief-work b. disenfranchised grief c. anticipatory grief d. damage theory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying ANSWER: a 74. What research finding on the grief-work perspective has the most support? a. That grief is very similar across cultures b. That individuals must experience painful emotions in order to cope successfully c. That grief tends to be delayed d. That too much ruminating may prolong psychological distress ANSWER: d 75. Even though Carly’s husband Freddie died four years ago, she continues to feel his presence and works hard at her job to “make him proud.” Carly’s behavior best exemplifies the concept of a. disenfranchised grief b. palliative care c. anticipatory grief d. continuing bonds ANSWER: d 76. The basic philosophy of a hospice is best summarized as one of a. “active euthanasia.” b. “curing.” c. “caring.” d. “institutionalization of death.”

ANSWER: c 77. Hospice programs are based on the idea that a. drugs for controlling pain are given freely. b. doctors are the “experts” when it comes to dying. c. families have no place in death counseling. d. never stop attempting to cure a terminally ill person.

ANSWER: a 78. Palliative care is best summarized as involving a. direct attempts by medical professionals to cure disease. b. meeting physical, psychological, and social needs of patients with incurable illness. c. being provided in traditional hospitals but not in hospice facilities. d. recognizing that the dying and their family members are experts.

ANSWER: b 79. A major difference between hospice care and hospital care for dying individuals is that a. pain control is emphasized more in the hospital setting. b. prolonging life is emphasized more in the hospice care setting. c. the presence of family members is more strongly encouraged in the hospital setting. d. a more homelike setting of care is emphasized in the hospice care setting.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 80. Which statement concerning bereavement programs is true? a. Most bereaved individuals need psychological interventions to help them cope. b. A past history of depression does not increase the risk of depression in a bereaved individual. c. Family therapy can help bereaved parents and children communicate more openly. d. Support groups are effective for those dealing with the death of a spouse, but ineffective for those dealing with the death of a child.

ANSWER: c 81. What does the Midwest Medical Center likely use to determine whether a patient is dead? a. palpation tests, to measure reflex response b. an EKG machine, to measure heart function c. blood tests, to measure key protein levels d. an EEG machine, to measure brain function ANSWER: d 82. A hospital patient who has been diagnosed with brain death only in the cerebral cortex is more likely to have the capacity to do which of the following? a. think b. speak c. swallow d. signal ANSWER: c 83. Which of the following concepts causes the most uncertainty and controversy regarding coma and brain death? a. reflex b. dreaming c. respiration d. awareness ANSWER: d 84. Owen's research using an fMRI with a woman in a vegetative state raises an intriguing new concept of being a. lucidly dead b. mentally alive c. passively lucid d. spiritually aware ANSWER: b 85. A conservative politician would likely support laws that require ________ as the final determinant of human death. a. heart cessation b. total brain death c. brain stem death d. brain cortex death ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 86. What lies at the foundation of the "right to die" perspective? a. legal issues b. self-control c. pain avoidance d. spiritual needs ANSWER: b 87. Compared to historical precedent and the practices of other cultures, Americans tend to ________ death. a. revere b. ignore c. deny d. accept ANSWER: c 88. Across time and humanity, feeling sad over the death of someone has been ________. a. common b. private c. universal d. shunned ANSWER: a 89. Ronald and Jayne are trying to figure out how to help their young son Ian understand the death of Jayne's parents in a plane crash, as they were very close with their grandchild. Which of the following strategies would be LEAST effective in helping Ian understand what happened? a. comparing it to the death of his pet hamster b. telling him about the peacefulness of death c. waiting for him to ask specific questions d. telling him that Gram and Grampy are sleeping ANSWER: d 90. Graciela is in third grade and has terminal cancer. She is a bright girl and knows that she will not live to see the fourth grade. What does Graciela most want? a. new experiences b. a sense of security c. fun with friends d. to look healthy ANSWER: b 91. When he was in second grade, Rashid's father was killed in a construction accident. What is the likelihood that Rashid will be having considerable adjustment problems when he is in fourth grade? a. 5 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 65 percent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying ANSWER: b 92. Which of the following will a young child likely do as part of the grieving process for losing a parent? a. helping at home b. talking with pals c. breaking toys d. writing stories ANSWER: c 93. At a small prep school where the student body of 100 lives and hangs out together, one of the most popular seniors killed himself with a handgun. How many of the students will later be diagnosed with clinical depression? a. 9 b. 21 c. 33 d. 48 ANSWER: c 94. While her younger siblings have spent the last two weeks crying over the death of their mother, Cynthia has rarely cried and just keeps going to high school as if everything is still the same. Cynthia's response taps into an adolescent's desire for ________. a. control b. socialization c. acceptance d. validation ANSWER: a 95. Yussef is undergoing a grueling course of chemotherapy for a rare form of cancer. As a high school junior, Yussef is likely to feel _______ in response to the treatment's effects. a. optimism b. competitiveness c. spirituality d. self-consciousness ANSWER: d 96. Kenny, age 7, and his brother Levar, age 16, recently lost their dad to a long illness. Compared to Kenny's ideas, Levar's perspective on their father's death will likely be more ________. a. clinical b. behavioral c. spiritual d. biological ANSWER: c 97. Dr. Miles is a psychotherapist who supports the practice of bereaved people doing grief work. He believes that a person who displays little outward grief shortly after a loss will ________. a. be rejected by much of society Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying b. experience elevated cortisol levels c. suffer from intense grief later in time d. quickly get on the road to normalcy ANSWER: c 98. Shonda has been seeing a psychotherapist regularly to do grief work following the death of her mother. What is Shonda's ultimate goal of this process? a. denial b. growth c. detachment d. meaning ANSWER: c 99. One of the main criticisms of the grief work perspective is that it considers certain types of bereavement to be ________. a. cultural b. pathological c. superficial d. personal ANSWER: b 100. Who will likely have the least difficulty six months after losing a spouse? a. Alan, who silently describes his days to his wife b. Rosa, who visits her husband's grave every day c. Hamid, who carries his wife's photo everywhere d. Paula, who wears her wife's clothes all the time ANSWER: a 101. Which of the following people will likely have the most difficult bereavement experience? a. Carter, who lost a loved one due to a heart attack b. Thuy, who lost a loved one due to a plane crash c. Norman, who lost a loved one due to old age d. Vivian, who lost a loved one due to leukemia ANSWER: b 102. Since her husband was killed in a car accident, Imelda thinks constantly about why she told him to go buy milk that afternoon, and she listens to his last voicemail message several times a day. What is Imelda's likely attachment style? a. resistant b. dismissing c. disorganized d. avoidant ANSWER: a 103. A week after his teenage son died of leukemia, Stephen attempted suicide to escape his overwhelming grief. What is Stephen's likely attachment style?

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying a. resistant b. dismissing c. disorganized d. fearful ANSWER: d 104. Following the death of their mother six months ago, Rashawn and Danita are coping fairly well with the loss. But their brother Terrence still seems lost in a sea of sadness and grief. On the Big Five personality dimensions, Terrence likely scores high in ________. a. conscientiousness b. openness c. extraversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: d 105. What experience will most likely lead a person to have posttraumatic growth? a. yearning b. challenge c. denial d. pain ANSWER: b 106. Who is most likely to experience posttraumatic growth as the result of a death? a. Rashad, who was overcome by the murder of his new wife b. Leo, who learned of the death of a long-estranged relative c. Monica, who experienced complicated grief from her son's death d. Ling, who mourned the loss of her elder dad for a brief period ANSWER: d 107. Robin recently entered a hospice care facility as she enters the last phase of her battle with cancer. Which of the following will NOT be part of the activities provided by the facility? a. normalizing Robin's life b. counseling Robin's family c. hastening Robin's death d. minimizing Robin's pain ANSWER: c 108. Which of the following is a likely reason that many people die of terminal illness in hospitals rather than in hospice care? a. limited insurance for hospice care b. poor quality of service in hospitals c. lack of accreditation for hospice homes d. denial of situation by family and doctors ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 109. Gina's daughter recently died from kidney failure. Which of the following is Gina LEAST likely to seek out for support during her bereavement? a. therapist b. husband c. friend d. sister ANSWER: a 110. What is likely the most valuable aspect of self-help groups for bereaved people? a. restoration strategies b. formal grief work c. shared understanding d. resource referrals ANSWER: c Subjective Short Answer 111. List and describe Kübler-Ross’s stages of dying in the order of occurrence. How has research supported this model?

Provide at least two examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 112. Modern medical technology is able to keep alive people who would have died under similar circumstances years ago.

How has this impacted definitions of death and related decision-making? Would you favor aggressive use of technology to keep a person in an "in between" state? Does your opinion change if the person in that state is you? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 113. Do people have a "right" to die? If they don't, explain your reasoning. If they do, describe that right – and should there be a cutoff point where it is not acceptable (e.g., passive euthanasia, assisted suicide, active euthanasia)?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 114. Describe the grief work perspective and how a person would follow it. Why does this perspective have limited support? Provide at least two examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 115. Compare and contrast passive euthanasia, active euthanasia, and assisted suicide. Provide examples of each to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 116. What did Parkes mean by saying "love and loss are two sides of the same coin"? How did this perspective influence a key model of bereavement? Give examples from the model to support your ideas.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 117. Describe the concepts that comprise a "mature" Western understanding of death. Provide examples to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying 118. Compare and contrast how a 5-year-old, 10-year-old, and 16-year old would cope with the death of a parent. Give at least two examples for each child to support your thinking.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 119. List and describe the different patterns of adjustment that can occur in widows and widowers. Then give two examples of things that can help surviving spouses to navigate bereavement with an optimal outcome.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 120. Rituals and behaviors for marking the death of someone vary widely across cultures and ethnic groups. How would you like your passing to be marked? With a solemn ceremony? A big party with music? A campfire on the beach? Explain the reasoning for your idea – is it cultural, religious, personal?

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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