TEST BANK for A+ Guide to Software 6th Edition by Jean Adnrews - Complete

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Chapter 1--Introducing Operating Systems Chapter 2--Installing Windows Chapter 3--Maintaining Windows Chapter 4--Optimizing Windows Chapter 5--Troubleshooting Windows and Applications Chapter 6--Troubleshooting Windows Startup Problems Chapter 7--Connecting to and Setting up a Network Chapter 8--Windows Resources on a Network Chapter 9--Security Strategies Chapter 10--Mobile Devices and Client-side Virtualization

Chapter 1--Introducing Operating Systems 1. An operating system manages hardware, runs applications, provides an interface for users, and stores, retrieves, and manipulates files.

True False

2. The Action Center is a tool that was first introduced in Windows XP. True False

3. A hard drive can only have one single root directory.

True False

4. The Windows desktop is itself a folder.

True False

5. In Windows, there are two types of user accounts: an administrator account and a standard account.

True False

6. What type of software is used to control a computer.

A. application B. operating system C. interface routine D. ROM routine

7. Which Windows utility program lists errors and issues that need attention?

A. Action Center B. Control Panel C. System Information Windows D. Network and Sharing Center

8. What is the name of the interface that uses graphics as compared to a command-driven interface?

A. text B. menu-based C. common user D. graphical user

9. Windows 7 and Vista providess a new 3D user interface called the ____ user interface.

A. Glass B. Aero C. Air D. Shield

10. Which part of the Windows display shows information about open programs and provides quick access to others?

A. Aero Snap B. taskbar C. notification area D. properties

11. Which of the following storage devices can be divided into partitions that can have one or more volume?

A. USB B. optical drive C. hard drive D. flash drive

12. Which part of the path to a file indicates how the file is organized or formatted?

A. subdirectory B. filename C. root directory D. file extension

13. What is another name for the notification area in Windows?

A. system tray B. taskbar C. Control Panel D. Start Menu

14. A ____is a convenient way to access several folders in different locations from one central location.

A. directory B. library C. root directory D. setting

15. What is the maximum number of characters allowed in a filename path?

A. 128 B. 256 C. 64 D. 260

16. Which attribute is used to hide a file so that it does not appear in the directory list?

A. Archive B. Hidden C. Read-only D. System

17. Which edition of Windows 7 only offers the 32-bit version?

A. Starter B. Home Premium C. Enterprise D. Ultimate

18. The ____ is usually on the right side of the taskbar and displays open services.

A. status tray B. display area C. system tray D. identification area

19. What is another name for several small utility programs that are found in the Control Panel?

A. downloads B. system processes C. categories D. applets

20. A ____ is one or more characters following the last period in a filename, such as .exe, .txt, or .avi.

A. filename B. file extension C. file version D. file type

21. The ____ dialog box in Windows appears each time a user attempts to perform an action that can be done only with administrative privileges.

A. User Account Confirmation B. User Account Control C. User Access Control D. User Access Confirmation

22. Several applications might be installed on a computer but it really only needs one ____________________ to function. ________________________________________

23. By default, Windows does not display ____________________ in Windows Explorer. ________________________________________

24. A(n) ____________________ folder is often used to compress files to a smaller size so they can more easily be sent by e-mail. ________________________________________

25. The ____________________ is a window containing several small utility programs called applets that are used to manage hardware, software, users, and the system. ________________________________________

26. The ____________________ gives a wealth of information about installed hardware and software, the current system configuration, and currently running programs. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. Can give you a quick look at what hardware and software is installed 2. Small programs stored on the hard drive that tell the computer how to communicate with a specific hardware device 3. Creates a folder with a .zip extension 4. Found on the left side of the Windows Explorer or Computer window 5. The initial screen that is displayed when an OS has a GUI interface loaded 6. A tool that lists errors and issues that need attention 7. A directory that is housed inside another a directory 8. A utility that can be used to solve a failed network connection 9. Creates a folder that can be used to sync up files in this folder with its corresponding folder on another computer 10. Properties assigned to a file 28. Briefly define operating system.

29. List the four functions of an operating system.

Desktop ____

Action Center ____ Device drivers ____ Network and Sharing center ____ System window ____ Child directories ____ Compressed folder ____ Briefcase ____

File attributes ____ Navigation pane ____

30. Describe the Aero user interface including which editions of Windows it is available on and its requirements.

31. What is the Windows taskbar and how is it used?

32. Describe a shortcut icon.

33. What is the purpose of the UAC box?

34. Describe the two types of user account in Windows 7, mentioning how they differ with respect to the UAC.

35. Describe two methods for launching an application.

36. Describe the notification area.

37. Explain why it is important to empty the Recycle Bin.

Chapter 1--Introducing Operating Systems Key

1. TRUE 2. FALSE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. TRUE 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. B 21. B 22. operating system 23. file extensions 24. compressed or .zip or zip 25. Control Panel 26. System Information utility

27. The initial screen that is displayed when an OS has a GUI interface loaded :: Desktop and A tool that lists errors and issues that need attention :: Action Center and Small programs stored on the hard drive that tell the computer how to communicate with a specific hardware device :: Device drivers and A utility that can be used to solve a failed network connection :: Network and Sharing center and Can give you a quick look at what hardware and software is installed :: System window and A directory that is housed inside another a directory :: Child directories and Creates a folder with a .zip extension :: Compressed folder and Creates a folder that can be used to sync up files in this folder with its corresponding folder on another computer :: Briefcase and Properties assigned to a file :: File attributes and Found on the left side of the Windows Explorer or Computer window :: Navigation pane 28. An operating system (OS) is software that controls a computer. In general, you can think of an operating system as the middleman between applications and hardware, between the user and hardware, and between the user and applications.

29. 1. Provide a user interface 2. Manage files 3. Manage hardware 4. Manage applications 30. The Windows 7 and Vista desktop provides a 3-D user interface called the Aero user interface that gives a glassy appearance and is sometimes called Aero glass. Windows 7 comes in several editions and each edition offers a different set of features. The Aero interface is not available for the Windows 7 Starter and Home Basic editions and is available on the Home Premium, Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions. To support the Aero interface, Windows 7 requires 1 GB of RAM and a video card or on-board video that supports the DirectX 9 graphics standard that has at least 128 MB of graphics memory.

31. The taskbar is normally located at the bottom of the Windows desktop, displaying information about open programs and providing quick access to others. Items displayed in the taskbar can be programs running or not running. An open application displays a program icon in the taskbar. If you are using the Aero interface, when you mouse over the icon, a thumbnail of the open application appears.

When you right-click an icon in the taskbar, the Jump List appears, which provides access to some of the major functions of the program. When you mouse over the rectangle to the far right of the taskbar, all windows disappear so you can see the desktop and any gadgets you might have there.

32. A quick way to open an application you use often is to place a shortcut icon to the program on the desktop. A shortcut icon is a clickable item on the desktop that points to a program you can execute, or to a file or folder. One way to create a shortcut for a program is to right-click the program file in the Computer or Windows Explorer window and select Create Shortcut from the menu that appears.

33. The purposes of the UAC box are: (1) to prevent malicious background tasks from gaining administrative privileges when the administrator is logged on, and (2) to make it easier for an administrator to log in using a less powerful user account for normal desktop activities, but still be able to perform administrative tasks while logged in as a regular user.

For example, suppose you’re logged on as an administrator with the UAC box turned off and click a malicious link on a web site. Malware can download and install itself without your knowledge and might get admin privileges on the computer. If you’re logged on as a standard user and the UAC box is turned off, the malware might still install without your knowledge but with lesser privileges. The UAC box stands as a gatekeeper to malware installing behind your back because someone has to click the UAC box before the installation can proceed.

34. In Windows, there are two types of user accounts: An administrator account and a standard account. An administrator account has more privileges than a standard account and is used by those responsible for maintaining and securing the system. When the UAC box appears, if you are logged on as an administrator, all you have to do is click Yes to close the box and move on. If the user account does not have administrative privileges, you’ll have the opportunity to enter a password of an administrative account to continue.

35. The methods for launching an application are: Use the Start menu: Click the Start button, select All Programs, and then select the program from the list of installed software.

Use the Search box: Click the Start button, and then enter the name of the program fi le or command in the Search box. In Windows 7, the empty box is labeled the Search programs and files box. In Vista, the box is labeled the Search box, and in Windows XP, it is labeled the Run box.

Use Windows Explorer or the Computer window. Execute a program or launch an application fi le by double-clicking the icon beside the fi lename in Windows Explorer or the Computer window. (In Windows XP, the Computer window is called My Computer.)

Use a shortcut icon: A quick way to open an application you use often is to place a shortcut icon to the program on the desktop or place a program icon in the taskbar.

36. The notification area, also called the system tray or systray, is usually on the right side of the taskbar and displays open services. A service is a program that runs in the background to support or serve Windows or an application. The services in the notifi cation area include the volume control and network connectivity.

37. Emptying the Recycle Bin will free up your disk space. Files and folders sent to the Recycle Bin are not really deleted until you empty the bin. To do that, right-click the bin and select Empty Recycle Bin from the shortcut menu.

Chapter 2--Installing Windows Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The price for Windows 7 is the same regardless of the edition and type of license you purchase.

True False

2. The OEM version of Windows 7 can only be installed on a new PC for resale.

True False

3. A computer must have a DVD drive in order to install Windows 7.

True False

4. When a partition is formatted with a file system and assigned a drive letter it is called a volume.

True False

5. An upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7 carries applications and user settings forward into the new installation.

True False

6. Which Windows 7 edition is intended for business users and allows you to purchase multiple site licenses?

A. Windows 7 Ultimate B. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows 7 Enterprise D. Windows 7 Starter

7. Which type of OS should you install for best performance when you have enough RAM? A. 8 bit B. 16 bit C. 32 bit D. 64 bit

8. What is it called when software is used to simulate the hardware of a physical computer?

A. dual boot B. Windows XP mode C. virtual machine D. compatibility mode

9. A ____ boot allows you to install the new OS without disturbing the old one so you can boot to either OS. A. dual B. cross C. controlled D. selective

10. What type of installation should you perform if you want to install a 64-bit version of Windows on a computer that already has a 32-bit OS installed?

A. clean install B. dual boot C. in-place upgrade D. standard

11. What is the name of the directory database that controls access to a Windows Server domain?

A. Network ID Directory B. Windows Server Controller C. Active Directory D. User Account Database

12. Where should a user disable virus protection settings that might prevent the boot area of the hard drive from being altered?

A. Control Panel B. BIOS setup C. Device Manager D. Computer

13. Which network location option means that Network Discovery is turned off and you cannot join a homegroup or domain?

A. workgroup B. home network C. work network D. public network

14. For some brand-name computers, the hard drive contains a ____ partition that can be used to reinstall Windows.

A. hidden resolution B. hidden recovery C. visible recovery D. visible rebuild

15. The _____________ is used to change motherboard settings, finds a boot device, and contains instructions for running essential hardware before an OS is started.

A. kernel B. device driver C. BIOS D. system drive

16. In a Windows domain, where is the centralized database kept?

A. domain controller B. DNS server C. DHCP server D. client/server network

17. In a Windows ____ , each computer maintains a list of users and their rights on that particular computer.

A. domain B. workgroup C. task group D. work unit

18. A Windows domain is a type of ____ network, which is a network where resources are managed by a centralized computer.

A. time-sharing B. virtual C. server/server D. client/server

19. Which of the following is used to uniquely identify a computer on a network?

A. network ID B. ARP address C. IP address D. Serial number

20. What important information is needed if you are installing an OEM version of Windows 7?

A. installation code B. Receipt of purchase C. OEM license D. product key

21. After installation, how many days do you have to activate Windows 7?

A. 7 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

22. The simplest way to find out if a system can be upgraded to Windows 7 is to download, install, and run the ____________________ . ________________________________________

23. A(n) ____________________ allows you to install the new OS without disturbing the old one so you can booth to either OS. ________________________________________

24. Once the virtual machine wizard is complete, the new virtual machine is listed in the ____________________ window. ________________________________________

25. _______________________ is your primary Windows tool for managing hardware. ________________________________________

26. The process of copying an entire hard drive to another bootable media device is called __________________. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. The directory database used by Windows Server to control resources on a network 2. A server automatically installs a new image or OS upgrade to a computer when a user is not likely to be sitting at it 3. Used during an unattended installation 4. Overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a volume 5. Contains instructions for running essential hardware devices before an operating system is started 6. Software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer 7. A network that is managed by each computer without centralized control 8. Contains a list of OS commands that are executed as a group 9. A copy of an entire hard drive that includes Windows 7, drivers, and applications that are standard to all the computers that might use that copy 10. A network where resources are managed by centralized computers

system BIOS ____ virtual machine ____ client/server network ____ file system ____ Active Directory ____ peer-to-peer network ____ standard image ____ answer file ____ push automation ____ batch file ____

28. List the six editions of Windows 7.

29. Describe some advantages of a 64-bit versus 32-bit version of Windows.

30. Describe the three main functions of a motherboard BIOS.

31. List and describe the three choices you have if Windows is already installed on the hard drive and you want to install a different Windows operating system.

32. Briefly describe the built-in administrator account.

33. Describe the difference between a Windows workgroup and homegroup.

34. Describe a Windows domain.

35. Describe what you can do to install Windows 7 if your computer does not have a DVD drive.

36. Describe a virtual machine.

37. What is a batch file?

Chapter 2--Installing Windows Key

1. FALSE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. TRUE 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor 23. dual boot 24. Explorer 25. Device Manager 26. drive imaging or disk cloning

27. Contains instructions for running essential hardware devices before an operating system is started :: system BIOS and Software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer :: virtual machine and A network where resources are managed by centralized computers :: client/server network and Overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a volume :: file system and The directory database used by Windows Server to control resources on a network :: Active Directory and A network that is managed by each computer without centralized control :: peer-to-peer network and A copy of an entire hard drive that includes Windows 7, drivers, and applications that are standard to all the computers that might use that copy :: standard image and Used during an unattended installation :: answer file and A server automatically installs a new image or OS upgrade to a computer when a user is not likely to be sitting at it :: push automation and Contains a list of OS commands that are executed as a group :: batch file 28. Starter Home Basic Home Premium Professional Enterprise Ultimate 29. A 64-bit installation of Windows generally performs better than a 32-bit installation if you have enough RAM. Another advantage of 64-bit installations of Windows is they can support 64-bit applications, which run faster than 32-bit applications. Even though you can install 32-bit applications in a 64-bit OS, for best performance, always choose 64-bit applications. Keep in mind that 64-bit installations of Windows require 64-bit device drivers.

30. The system BIOS (basic input/output system) contains instructions for running essential hardware devices before an operating system is started.

After the OS is started, it might continue to use system BIOS or use device drivers to communicate with these devices.

The startup BIOS starts the computer and finds a boot device (hard drive, CD drive, or USB fl ash drive) that contains an operating system. It then turns the startup process over to this OS. The setup BIOS is used to change motherboard settings. You can use it to enable or disable a device on the motherboard (for example, network port, video port, or USB ports), change the date and time that is later passed to the OS, and select the order of boot devices for startup BIOS to search when looking for an operating system to load.

31. Clean install. You can perform a clean install, overwriting the existing operating system and applications.

In-place upgrade. If the upgrade paths allow it, you can perform an in-place upgrade installation. An in-place upgrade is a Windows installation that is launched from the Windows desktop and the installation carries forward user settings and installed applications from the old OS to the new one.

Dual boot. You can install Windows in a second partition on the hard drive and create a dual-boot situation with the other OS. 32. A built-in administrator account is created by default. The built-in administrator account is named Administrator, does not have a password, and is disabled by default.

33. In a Windows workgroup, each computer maintains a list of users and their rights on that particular PC. The computer allows a user on the network to access local resources based on these rights she has been given. In a homegroup, each computer shares files, folders, libraries, and printers with other computers in the homegroup. A homegroup provides less security than a workgroup because any user of any computer in the homegroup can access homegroup resources.

A homegroup is new to Windows 7 and cannot be used with earlier versions of Windows. If you need to share resources with Windows Vista or XP computers or you need better security so you can share resources with specific users, use workgroup sharing rather than a homegroup. You can also use a combination of homegroup and workgroup sharing on the same computer.

34. A Windows domain is a logical group of networked computers that share a centralized directory database of user account information and security for the entire group of computers. A Windows domain is a type of client/server network, which is a network where resources are managed by centralized computers. Using the client/server model, the directory database is controlled by a Network Operating System (NOS).

Windows Server controls a network using the directory database called Active Directory. Each user on the network must have his own domain-level account called a global account, global username or network ID, which is kept in Active Directory and assigned by the network or system administrator.

35. If the computer does not have a DVD drive, consider these options: Download Windows 7 from the Microsoft web site: Purchase Windows 7 on the Microsoft web site (www.microsoftstore.com) and download it to your computer’s hard drive and install it from there. This option assumes the computer already has a working OS installed.

Use an external DVD drive. Use an external DVD drive that will most likely connect to the PC by way of a USB port. If the PC does not already have an OS installed, you must boot from this USB port.

Copy the installation files to a USB fl ash drive. This method is easy to use if you don’t need to boot from the fl ash drive. If you do need to boot from the flash drive, you need to install software that makes the USB fl ash drive bootable and also copy Windows setup files to the drive.

Use a DVD drive on another computer on the network. Share the DVD drive on another computer on the network. Then go to the computer that is to receive the Windows installation and locate the DVD drive on the network. Double-click the setup.exe program to run the installation across the network.

36. A virtual computer or virtual machine (VM) is software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer. Using this software, you can install and run multiple operating systems at the same time on a PC. These multiple instances of operating systems can be used to train users, run legacy software, and support multiple operating systems.

37. A batch file has a .bat file extension and contains a list or batch of OS commands that are executed as a group. These batch files might be automatically executed as part of a zero-touch installation or manually executed in a lite-touch or high-touch installation. To manually execute a batch file, you type the name of the batch file at a command prompt.

Chapter 3--Maintaining Windows Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Windows Disk Cleanup is the utility to use whenever you want to defragment your hard drive.

True False

2. Windows needs free space on the hard drive for normal operation, for defragmenting the drive, for burning CDs and DVDs, and for a variety of other tasks, so it’s important to delete unneeded files occasionally.

True False

3. Defragmenting is not recommended for solid-state hard drives.

True False

4. Using Windows 7 Backup and Restore, you can back up the volume on which Windows is installed.

True False

5. The chkdsk command will not fix anything on the drive unless the drive is unlocked.

True False

6. For optimal performance, how much free space does Windows need on a hard drive?

A. 5 percent B. 50 percent C. 15 percent D. 35 percent

7. Which hard drive type contains spinning platters?

A. optical hard drive B. solid-state drives C. floppy hard drives D. magnetic hard disk drives

8. What is Pagefile.sys used for in Windows?

A. system file storage B. to store E-books C. video RAM D. virtual memory

9. What is another name for a file allocation unit?

A. sector B. cluster C. segment D. fragment

10. How often does Windows 7/Vista automatically defragment a hard drive?

A. once a week B. once a day C. once a month D. once an hour

11. Use the ____ command to rearrange parts of files on the drive so they are contiguous.

A. Optimize B. Analyze C. Defrag D. Chkdsk

12. To make sure the drive is healthy, you need to search for and repair file system errors using the Windows ____ utility.

A. Defrag B. Chkdsk C. Analyze D. Optimize

13. A snapshot of the system settings and configuration is called a ____.

A. rollback point B. restore unit C. rollback unit D. restore point

14. ____ creates restore points at regular intervals and just before you install software or hardware.

A. System Activation B. System Protection C. System Restoration D. System Prevention

15. What is the fourth partition on a hard drive called?

A. extended partition B. master boot record C. volume D. primary partition

16. Besides backing up user data or system files, you can also back up the entire volume on which Windows 7 is installed using __________.

A. Automated System Backup B. Complete PC Recovery C. Automated System Recovery D. Backup and Restore

17. Which partition is the bootable partition that startup BIOS turns to when searching for an operating system to start up?

A. extended partition B. startup partition C. active partition D. volume

18. If you enter a command and want to terminate its execution before it is finished, you can press ____ to do so.

A. Ctrl+Break B. Ctrl+V C. Ctrl+B D. Ctrl+X

19. The ____ command creates a subdirectory under a directory.

A. RD B. MD C. CD D. AD

20. A dynamic disk requires ____ MB of storage for the disk management database.

A. 1 B. 10 C. 5 D. 50

21. You can use ____ to convert two or more basic disks to dynamic disks.

A. Disk Management B. Windows Management C. System Management D. Disk Config

22. ____________________ happens over time as Windows writes files, deletes files, and writes new files to your drive. ________________________________________

23. ____________________ restores the system to its condition at the time a snapshot was taken of the system settings and configuration. ________________________________________

24. As you work at the command prompt, you can use ____________________ characters in a filename to say that the command applies to a group of files or to abbreviate a filename if you do not know the entire name. ________________________________________

25. A ____________________ is a volume that can be accessed by way of a folder on another volume so that the folder has more available space. ________________________________________

26. Space on the disk is marked as ____________________ if it has not yet been partitioned. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. A volume that can be accessed by way of a folder on another volume so that the folder has more available space 2. Used to enhance the amount of RAM in a system 3. Searches for bad sectors on a volume and recovers the data from them if possible 4. Overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a drive 5. Can be partitioned and formatted as a stand-alone hard drive 6. Snapshots of the system and include Windows system files that have changed 7. Rearranges files on the drive into as few segments as possible 8. An extra copy of a data or software file that you can use if the original file becomes damaged or destroyed 9. A hidden file stored in the root directory of drive C 10. Can span more than one hard drive

Defragmenting ____ Chkdsk utility ____ Virtual memory ____ Pagefile.sys ____ Backup ____ restore points ____ Mounted drive ____ Dynamic volumes ____ Basic disk ____ file system ____

28. List the three critical Windows settings that keep the system protected from malware and hackers.

29. What two items does a user profile consist of?

30. Discuss what a cluster is and how files are stored in them.

31. Discuss defragmenting as it applies to solid-state drives used in a Windows 7 system.

32. List three ways to free up space on a Windows hard drive.

33. Describe the purpose of Pagefile.sys.

34. What are the steps for using Disk Management to prepare a drive for first use.

35. Discuss some cautions about software RAID.

36. List and describe the status indicators that apply only to a dynamic disk.

37. Describe a mounted drive and why you would use one.

Chapter 3--Maintaining Windows Key

1. FALSE 2. TRUE 3. TRUE 4. TRUE 5. FALSE 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. Fragmentation 23. System Restore 24. wildcard 25. mounted drive 26. unallocated

27. Rearranges files on the drive into as few segments as possible :: Defragmenting and Searches for bad sectors on a volume and recovers the data from them if possible :: Chkdsk utility and Used to enhance the amount of RAM in a system :: Virtual memory and A hidden file stored in the root directory of drive C :: Pagefile.sys and An extra copy of a data or software file that you can use if the original file becomes damaged or destroyed :: Backup and Snapshots of the system and include Windows system files that have changed :: restore points and A volume that can be accessed by way of a folder on another volume so that the folder has more available space :: Mounted drive and Can span more than one hard drive :: Dynamic volumes and Can be partitioned and formatted as a stand-alone hard drive :: Basic disk and Overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a drive :: file system 28. Windows Updates Antivirus software Network location settings 29. A user folder and its subfolders Ntuser.dat 30. In a file system, a cluster, also called a file allocation unit, is a group of whole sectors. The number of sectors in a cluster is fixed and is determined when the file system is first installed. A file is stored in whole clusters, and the unused space at the end of the last cluster, called slack, is wasted free space. As files are written and deleted from a drive, clusters are used, released, and used again. New files written on the drive can be put in available clusters spread over the drive.

31. Because a solid-state drive has no moving parts, defragmenting does not improve read/write time. In fact, defragmenting a solid-state drive can reduce the life of the drive and is not recommended. Windows 7/Vista disables defragmenting solid-state drives.

32. Uninstall software you no longer use Move data off the drive Move programs off the drive Use drive or folder compression 33. Windows uses a file, Pagefile.sys, in the same way it uses memory. This file is called virtual memory and is used to enhance the amount of RAM in a system. Normally, the file, Pagefile.sys, is a hidden file stored in the root directory of drive C:. To save space on drive C:, you can move Pagefile.sys to another partition on the same hard drive or to a different hard drive, but don’t move it to a different hard drive unless you know the other hard drive is at least as fast as this drive. If the drive is at least as fast as the drive on which Windows is installed, performance should improve. Also, make sure the new volume has plenty of free space to hold the file—at least three times the amount of installed RAM. 34. Initialize the Disk Create a volume and format it with a file system 35. Microsoft warns that when Windows is used for software RAID, the risk of catastrophic failure increases and can lead to data loss. Microsoft suggests you only use Windows spanning or striping when you have no other option. In other words, spanning and striping in Windows aren’t very safe—to expand the size of a volume, use a mounted drive or use hardware RAID. 36. Offline. An offline disk status indicates a dynamic disk has become corrupted or is unavailable. The problem can be caused by a corrupted file system, the drive cables are loose, the hard drive has failed, or another hardware problem. If you believe the problem is corrected, right-click the disk and select Reactivate Disk from the shortcut menu to bring the disk back online.

Foreign drive. If you move a hard drive that has been configured as a dynamic disk on another computer to this computer, this computer will report the disk as a foreign drive. To fix the problem, you need to import the foreign drive. To do that, right-click the disk and select Import Foreign Disks from the shortcut menu. You should then be able to see the volumes on the disk.

Healthy (At Risk). The dynamic disk can be accessed, but I/O errors have occurred. Try returning the disk to online status. If the volume status does not return to healthy, back up all data and replace the drive.

37. A mounted drive is a volume that can be accessed by way of a folder on another volume so that the folder has more available space. A mounted drive is useful when a folder is on a volume that is too small to hold all the data you want in the folder. The folder in which a volume is mounted is called the mount point.

Chapter 4--Optimizing Windows Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The Windows shell is responsible for interacting with hardware.

True False

2. The Home editions of Windows 7 do not include the Local Security Policy or Print Management.

True False

3. You do not have to be logged on as an administrator in order to use tools found in Computer Management.

True False

4. Windows Task Scheduler can be set to launch a task or program at a future time, including at startup.

True False

5. There is no undo feature in the Registry Editor.

True False

6. Which Task Manager tab lists system services and other processes associated with applications, together with how much CPU time and memory the process uses?

A. Applications B. Services C. Processes D. Performance

7. Which of the following is NOT a task you can perform with Task Manager?

A. end a process B. end process tree C. restart a process D. create a process

8. Which Task Manager tab allows you to show processes from all users to verify no applications are running under that user account?

A. Processes tab B. Users tab C. Networking tab D. Performance tab

9. Which Task Manager tab provides details about how a program uses system resources?

A. Application B. Services C. Processes D. Performance

10. Which Windows utility can be used to find out what processes are launched at startup?

A. Task Manager B. Microsoft Management Console C. System Configuration D. Computer Management

11. Where can a user find out more information about a hardware or network failure that occurred on that particular PC? A. Event Viewer B. Performance Information and Tools C. Task Scheduler D. Resource Monitor

12. Which Windows utility can be used to monitor the performance of the processor, memory, and hard drive and save the monitored data in logs for future use?

A. Event Viewer B. Reliability Monitor C. Performance Monitor D. Resource Monitor

13. Which Windows utility can be used to build your own customized console windows?

A. Microsoft Management Console B. Microsoft Manager Console C. Microsoft Management Components D. Microsoft Manager Controls

14. Which tool should you consult to find information about a device or service that failed to start?

A. Microsoft Management Console B. Event Viewer C. Performance Monitor D. Resource Monitor

15. What is the term given to the individual tools in a console?

A. consoles B. add-ins C. snap-ins D. views

16. Which registry key stores information that determines which application is opened when the user double-clicks a file?

A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

17. Which Windows utility gives information about problems and errors that happen over time?

A. Performance Monitor B. Resource Monitor C. Reliability Monitor D. Services Console

18. Which Task Manager tab allows a user to see how much memory an application has allocated to it that is not available to other programs?

A. Applications tab B. Processes tab C. Performance tab D. Services tab

19. Which Windows utility is used to control the Windows and third-party services installed on a system?

A. Microsoft Management Console B. Event Viewer C. System Configuration Utility D. Services console

20. What is responsible for maintaining an index of files and folders on a hard drive to speed up Windows searches?

A. Windows performance monitor B. Windows reliability monitor C. Windows indexer D. Windows database

21. To find out if programs and services are slowing down Windows startup, boot the system in ____ and watch to see if performance improves.

A. Restoration Mode B. Recovery Mode C. Safe Mode D. Stability Mode

22. If an application is listed as ____________________ in the Task Manager Applications tab, you can end it by selecting it and clicking the End Task button at the bottom of the window. ________________________________________

23. Windows 7/Vista ____________ uses a flash drive or secure digital (SD) memory card to boost hard drive performance. ________________________________________

24. A(n) ____________________ is caused when an application does not properly release memory allocated to it that it no longer needs. ________________________________________

25. To find out what changes were made to the system at a specific time use the ________________. ________________________________________

26. The Vista ________________ appears on the Windows desktop to hold apps called gadgets. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. The core of the OS that is responsible for interacting with hardware Task Manager ____ 2. A window that consolidates several Windows administrative tools that you can use to manage the local PC or other computers on the network Service ____ 3. A database designed with a treelike structure that contains configuration information for Windows, users, Computer software applications, and installed hardware devices Management ____ 4. Appears on the Windows desktop to hold apps called gadgets Event Viewer ____ 5. Lets you view the applications and processes running on your computer as well as information about process and memory performance, network activity, and user activity Registry ____ 6. Can be set to launch a task or program at a future Windows time, including at startup Experience Index ____ Windows 7. A program that runs in the background and is called 7/Vista on by other programs to perform a background task ReadyBoost ____ 8. A Windows tool useful for troubleshooting hardware or network failures, OS error messages, failed services and more. kernel ____ 9. Uses a flash drive or secure digital (SD) memory card to boost hard drive performance Task Scheduler ____ 10. Evaluates key system components to give a high-level view of the computer’s performance Vista sidebar ____ 28. Describe the Windows shell.

29. Discuss the purpose of the priority level for CPU resources.

30. Explain how to use Task Manager to change the priority level of an open application.

31. Describe the Windows kernel, including its two main components.

32. List and describe the ways to backup the registry.

33. Explain what you can do if you make a mistake editing the registry and don’t know how to correct a problem you create.

34. Explain how to disable the Aero Interface in Windows 7.

35. Define process and thread.

36. How can you check for unwanted scheduled tasks?

37. When troubleshooting slow performance, how can you check for a history of problems?

Chapter 4--Optimizing Windows Key

1. FALSE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. TRUE 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. Not Responding 23. ReadyBoost 24. memory leak 25. Reliability Monitor 26. sidebar

27. Lets you view the applications and processes running on your computer as well as information about process and memory performance, network activity, and user activity :: Task Manager and A program that runs in the background and is called on by other programs to perform a background task :: Service and A window that consolidates several Windows administrative tools that you can use to manage the local PC or other computers on the network :: Computer Management and A Windows tool useful for troubleshooting hardware or network failures, OS error messages, failed services and more. :: Event Viewer and A database designed with a treelike structure that contains configuration information for Windows, users, software applications, and installed hardware devices :: Registry and Evaluates key system components to give a high-level view of the computer’s performance :: Windows Experience Index and Uses a flash drive or secure digital (SD) memory card to boost hard drive performance :: Windows 7/Vista ReadyBoost and The core of the OS that is responsible for interacting with hardware :: kernel and Can be set to launch a task or program at a future time, including at startup :: Task Scheduler and Appears on the Windows desktop to hold apps called gadgets :: Vista sidebar 28. A shell is the portion of an OS that relates to the user and to applications. The shell provides tools such as Windows Explorer or the Windows desktop as a way for the user to do such things as select music to burn to a CD or launch an application. For applications, the shell provides commands and procedures that applications can call on to do such things as print a document, read from a storage device, or display a photograph on-screen.

The shell is made up of several subsystems that all operate in user mode, which means these subsystems have only limited access to system information and can access hardware only through other OS services. One of these subsystems, the Win32 security subsystem, provides logon to the system and other security functions, including privileges for file access.

29. Each application running on your computer is assigned a priority level, which determines its position in the queue for CPU resources. You can use Task Manager to change the priority level for an application that is already loaded. If an application performs slowly, increase its priority. You should only do this with very important applications, because giving an application higher priority than certain background system processes can sometimes interfere with the operating system.

30. 1. In Task Manager, click the Applications tab. Right-click the application and select Go To Process from the shortcut menu. The Processes tab is selected and the process that runs the application is selected.

2. Right-click the selected process. From the shortcut menu that appears, set the new priority to AboveNormal. If that doesn’t give satisfactory performance, then try High.

31. The kernel, or core, of the OS is responsible for interacting with hardware. Because the kernel operates in kernel mode, it has more power to communicate with hardware devices than the shell has. Applications operating under the OS cannot get to hardware devices without the shell passing those requests to the kernel. This separation of tasks provides for a more stable system and helps to prevent a wayward application from destabilizing the system.

The kernel has two main components: 1) the HAL (hardware abstraction layer), which is the layer closest to the hardware, and 2) the executive services interface, which is a group of services that operate in kernel mode between the user mode subsystems and the HAL. Executive services contained in the ntoskrnl.exe program file manage memory, I/O devices, file systems, some security, and other key components directly or by way of device drivers.

When Windows is first installed, it builds the HAL based on the type of CPU installed. The HAL cannot be moved from one computer to another, which is one reason you cannot copy a Windows installation from one computer to another.

32. Use System Protection to create a restore point. A restore point keeps information about the registry. You can restore the system to a restore point to undo registry changes, as long as the registry is basically intact and not too corrupted.

Back up a single registry key just before you edit the key. This method, called exporting a key, should always be used before you edit the registry.

Make an extra copy of the C:\Windows\System32\config folder. This backup will help if the registry gets totally trashed. You can boot from the Windows setup DVD and use the Windows 7/Vista Recovery Environment or the XP Recovery Console to restore the folder from your extra copy.

For Windows XP, back up the system state. Use Ntbackup in Windows XP to back up the system state, which also makes an extra copy of the registry hives. Windows XP stores the backup of the registry hives in the C:\Windows\repair folder.

33. Changes made to the registry take effect immediately. Therefore, take extra care when editing the registry. If you make a mistake and don’t know how to correct a problem you create, then double-click the exported key to recover. When you double-click an exported key, the registry is updated with the values stored in this key.

34. To disable the Aero interface, do the following: 1. Right-click the desktop and select Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window opens.

2. Scroll down to and click Windows 7 Basic and close the window.

35. A process is a program that is running under the authority of the shell, together with the system resources assigned to it. System resources might include other programs it has started and memory addresses to hold its data. When the process makes a request for resources, this request is made to the Win32 subsystem and is called a thread. A thread is a single task, such as the task of printing a file that the process requests from the kernel.

36. When applications install, they often schedule tasks to check for and download their program updates, and malware sometimes hides as a scheduled task. Scheduled tasks might be unnecessary and can slow a system down. The best way to uninstall a scheduled task is to uninstall the software that is responsible for the task. Open the Task Scheduler window and search through tasks looking for those you think are unnecessary or causing trouble. Research the software the task works with and then you might decide to uninstall the software or disable the task.

37. Try to identify when the slow performance problem began, and then use the Windows 7 or Vista Reliability Monitor to find out what changes were made to the system around that time and what other problems occurred. If you don’t know when the problem started, skim through the line graph at the top of the Reliability Monitor window and look for drops in the graph. Also look for critical events indicated by a red x.

Chapter 5--Troubleshooting Windows and Applications Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Errors with memory are often difficult to diagnose because they can appear intermittently and might be mistaken as other types of errors.

True False

2. Most Microsoft patches and device drivers can be applied to a 32-bit installation and also a 64-bit installation.

True False

3. The six step troubleshooting program can only be applied to software problems.

True False

4. Computers are very complex and have frequent problems so it is very rare that a problem is caused by an error made by the user.

True False

5. If you get an error message about a missing DLL, the easiest way to solve this problem might be to reinstall the application.

True False

6. Which Windows tool allows an administrator to decrypt a file that is not available because the user account that encrypted the file is no longer accessible?

A. Windows Defender B. Windows File Protection C. Cipher D. Backup and Restore

7. What is another name for a blue screen error which occurs when processes running in kernel mode encounter a problem ad Windows must stop the system?

A. stop error B. kill error C. break error D. fault error

8. You can quickly identify a problem with memory or eliminate memory as the source of a problem by using the ____ tool.

A. Last Known Good Configuration B. Event Viewer C. Device Manager D. Memory Diagnostics

9. Which Windows tool can be used to identify a driver that is causing a problem by putting stress on selected drivers, causing the problem driver to crash?

A. File Signature Verification B. Driver Verifier C. Vista Memory Diagnostics D. Problem Reports and Solutions

10. Which Windows tool monitors activity and alerts you if a running program appears to be malicious or damaging the system?

A. Event Viewer B. Windows Defender C. Reliability Monitor D. Task Lister

11. Which Windows utility can be used to view and modify partitions on hard drives and to format drives?

A. Disk Cleanup B. Disk Defragmenter C. Chkdsk D. Disk Management

12. Which of the following is the last step in the six step troubleshooting method covered in this chapter?

A. Plan the fix B. Resolve the problem C. Document D. Verify and prevent

13. What should be done before any changes are made to a system that is experiencing a problem?

A. Examine the system B. Backup data C. Establish a Theory D. Test your Theory

14. Which tool should be the first one to use when a blue screen error has occurred?

A. Memory Diagnostics B. Action Center C. System File Checker D. Microsoft web site

15. Which of the following common blue screen errors means the hard drive is most likely corrupted?

A. NTFS_FILE_SYSTEM B. BAD_POOL_HEADER C. KERNEL_DATA_INPAGE_ERROR D. DIVIDE_BY_ZERO_ERROR

16. What does the term x86 refer to?

A. 64-bit operating systems B. hybrid processors C. 32-bit processors D. 64-bit processors

17. What should be done if a system cannot boot from the hard drive?

A. Reinstall Windows B. Boot from the Windows setup DVD C. Run System File Checker D. Replace the hard drive

18. What should be entered at a command prompt in order to scan all system files?

A. msinfo32 /verify B. systeminfo /sysfiles C. sfc /scannow D. chkdsk /r

19. What is the most likely cause of an improper shutdown or system lockup?

A. hardware problem B. Windows system error C. memory leak D. Application error

20. What should be tried whenever a system is caught in an endless cycle of restarts?

A. Run System File Checker B. Reinstall Windows C. Change the BIOS setup D. Boot into Safe Mode

21. Which of the following can you do if you suspect an application requires more privileges than the currently logged-on account?

A. run the application from the command line using the /highpriority parameter B. use the Run as administrator shortcut menu option C. double-click the application icon while holding down the Home key D. download a 64-bit version of the application and try it again

22. After solving a problem, it is important to take ___________________________ to make sure the problem doesn’t happen again. ________________________________________

23. For Windows 7, the ____________________ tracks problems with applications, hardware, and Windows. ________________________________________

24. If a _____________ that an application relies on has failed to start, make sure it has an Automatic or Manual startup setting. ________________________________________

25. If you can identify the approximate date the error started, you may be able to use _________________ to revert the system to a state before the problem occurred. ________________________________________

26. To solve ____________________ stop errors after Windows startup, use the web to research the error message. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. A tool that installs drivers so that an application System File can open a foreign data source Checker ____ 2. A tool that can be used to allow data files to be connected to applications they normally would not use Tasklist ____ 3. A tool that can be used to register components File association ____ 4. Another name for a stop error, which happens when processes running in kernel mode encounter a Data Sources Open problem and Windows must stop the system Database Connectivity ____ 5. A Windows utility that protects system files and keeps a cache of current system files in case it needs to refresh a damaged file Windows Firewall ____ 6. A command used to find the ID number of each running process Data Sources ____ 7. The relationship between a file type and a Component supporting application Services ____ 8. A service that runs in the background to prevent or filter uninvited communication from another Blue screen of computer death ____ 9. A command that uses the process ID to stop a process Default program ____ 10. A program associated with a file extension Taskkill ____ 28. List the six steps of the troubleshooting process.

29. Briefly explain why you should document after you have solved a problem.

30. Explain what a BSOD is.

31. Describe why memory errors are difficult to diagnose and some of the possible symptoms of a memory error.

32. Describe what you might do if you suspect a problem is caused by a corrupted Windows system file.

33. What are four things you can check if your system is improperly shutting down?

34. When troubleshooting application errors, list the first three things you should do.

35. How can you eliminate the hard drive as the source of an application error?

36. If you suspect Windows is the problem with an application error, list the three things you can do to resolve the problem.

37. Describe the steps you should take if you need to end a hanging application and Task Manager is unable to end it.

Chapter 5--Troubleshooting Windows and Applications Key

1. TRUE 2. FALSE 3. FALSE 4. FALSE 5. TRUE 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. preventive measures 23. Action Center 24. service 25. System Restore or a restore point or restore point 26. blue screen

27. A Windows utility that protects system files and keeps a cache of current system files in case it needs to refresh a damaged file :: System File Checker and A command used to find the ID number of each running process :: Tasklist and The relationship between a file type and a supporting application :: File association and A tool that can be used to allow data files to be connected to applications they normally would not use :: Data Sources Open Database Connectivity and A service that runs in the background to prevent or filter uninvited communication from another computer :: Windows Firewall and A tool that installs drivers so that an application can open a foreign data source :: Data Sources and A tool that can be used to register components :: Component Services and Another name for a stop error, which happens when processes running in kernel mode encounter a problem and Windows must stop the system :: Blue screen of death and A program associated with a file extension :: Default program and A command that uses the process ID to stop a process :: Taskkill 28. 1. Interview the user and back up data before you make any changes to the system.

2. Examine the system, analyze the problem, and make an initial determination of what is the source of the problem.

3. Test your theory. If the theory is not confirmed, form another theory or escalate the problem to someone higher in your organization with more experience or resources.

4. After you know the source of the problem, plan what to do to fix the problem and then fix it.

5. Verify the problem is fixed and that the system works. Take any preventive measures to make sure the problem doesn’t happen again.

6. Document activities, outcomes, and what you learned.

29. Good documentation helps you take what you learned into the next troubleshooting situation, train others, develop effective preventive maintenance plans, and satisfy any audits or customer or employer queries about your work. Be sure to write down the initial symptoms, the source of the problem, and what you did to fix it. Many companies use call-tracking software to record this type of information.

30. A blue screen error, also called a stop error or a blue screen of death (BSOD), happens when processes running in kernel mode encounter a problem and Windows must stop the system.

In such situations, a blue screen appears with a cryptic error message.

31. Errors with memory are often difficult to diagnose because they can appear intermittently and might be mistaken as application errors, user errors, or other hardware component errors. Sometimes these errors cause the system to hang, a blue screen error might occur, or the system continues to function with applications giving errors or data getting corrupted.

32. A Windows application or hardware problem might be caused by a corrupted Windows system file. That’s where System File Checker might help. System File Checker (SFC) protects system files and keeps a cache of current system files in case it needs to refresh a damaged file. To use the utility to scan all system files and verify them, first close all applications and then enter the command sfc /scannow in an elevated command prompt window.

If corrupted system files are found, you might need to provide the Windows setup DVD to restore the files. If you have problems running the utility, try the command sfc/ scanonce, which scans files immediately after the next reboot.

33. 1. Check Event Viewer to see if it has reported a hardware failure.

2. Apply any Windows patches.

3. Use Memory Diagnostics and Chkdsk with the /r parameter to check memory and the hard drive for errors.

4. If you suspect overheating is a problem, immediately after the lockup, go into BIOS setup and check the temperature of the CPU, which should not exceed 38 degrees C. Alternately, you can install a freeware utility, such as SpeedFan by Alfredo Comparetti (www.almico.com) to monitor the temperature of the motherboard or hard drive.

34. 1. Interview the user and back up data.

2. Ask the user to reproduce the problem while you watch.

3. Try a reboot.

35. To eliminate the hard drive as the source of an application error, use the Chkdsk command with the /r parameter to check the drive and recover data in bad sectors.

36. Download Windows updates.

Use System File Checker.

Use System Restore.

37. 1. Open a Command Prompt window and use the Tasklist | more command to get a list of processes currently running. Note the PID of the process you want to end.

2. Enter the command taskkill /f /pid:XXXX, using the PID you noted in Step 1 in place of XXXX. The /f parameter forcefully kills the process. Be careful using this command; it is so powerful that you can end critical system processes that will cause the system to shut down.

Chapter 6--Troubleshooting Windows Startup Problems Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A hard boot takes more time than a soft boot.

True False

2. The Advanced Boot Options menu appears when a user presses F8 as Windows is loading.

True False

3. There is no option for networking access when using Safe Mode.

True False

4. A Windows 7 system repair disc can be created using the Backup and Restore utility.

True False

5. As you work to solve a Windows problem, always choose the method that makes the most changes to the system as possible in order to rejuvenate the machine.

True False

6. Which program is responsible for reading motherboard settings and running the POST? A. Windows Boot Loader B. Startup BIOS C. Setup BIOS D. BootMgr

7. What is the name of the program that reads the settings in the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file and manages the initial startup of the OS? A. MBR program B. Session Manager program C. Windows Boot Loader D. Windows Boot Manager

8. Which program is used to start the part of the Win32 subsystem that displays graphics?

A. Winlogon.exe B. Ntoskrnl.exe C. Smss.exe D. Lsass.exe

9. Which option should be enabled in order to view what did and did not load during the bootup?

A. Event Viewer B. Boot Logging C. Safe Mode with Networking D. Windows Boot Manager

10. It is important to try the ________________________ early in the troubleshooting session before it is overwritten.

A. Last Known Good Configuration B. System Restore C. Debugging Mode D. Safe Recovery

11. Which Windows RE tool is considered to be the least intrusive?

A. Windows Memory Diagnostic B. System Restore C. Startup Repair D. System Image Recovery

12. Which Windows RE tool should be used if you suspect the hard drive is corrupted?

A. System Image Recovery B. Command Prompt C. System Restore D. Startup Repair

13. Name the Windows RE command that can be used to manage hard drives, partitions, and volumes.

A. wpeinit B. bootrec C. bdcedit D. diskpart

14. Which diskpart command is used to remove any partition or volume information from the selected disk?

A. format B. select partition C. clean D. create partition primary

15. Which of the following Windows RE commands can be used to scan for Windows installations not stored in the BCD? A. bootrec /scanOS B. bootrec /fixmbr C. bootrec /fixboot D. bcdedit

16. Which key should be pressed during the boot in order to display the Advanced Boot Options?

A. F4 B. F8 C. F10 D. F12

17. Which of the following keys will cause the Windows Boot Manager to appear as long as it is pressed during the boot process?

A. F8 B. spacebar C. F5 D. Enter

18. What should be the first thing to try if the hard drive is not spinning at startup?

A. switch out hard drives B. check BIOS setup C. check power connections and switches D. switch out monitors

19. Which command is used to check and repair the hard drive?

A. System Restore B. MSconfig C. sfc /scannow D. chkdsk c:/r

20. Which of the following symptoms might indicate that the MBR record is damaged?

A. loud clicking noise B. Invalid partition table error C. RAID not found error message D. Invalid boot disk error

21. The command ____ searches for and replaces corrupted system files.

A. chkdsk /scannow B. sfc /scannow C. sfc /r D. chkdsk /r

22. WinLoad loads into memory the ________________ but does not start it yet. ________________________________________

23. Use the _______________________________ option when you are solving a problem with booting and need access to the network to solve the problem. ________________________________________

24. _______________ is a lean OS that can be used to solve Windows startup problems after other tools available on the Advanced Boot Options menu have failed to solve the problem. ________________________________________

25. When you load Windows in Safe Mode, all files used for the load are recorded in the ______________________ file. ________________________________________

26. ________________________ give you the opportunity to move system boot logs from a failing computer to another computer for evaluation. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. A Windows 7/Vista file structured the same as a registry file and contains configuration information about how Windows is started.

2. Recording all files used during the load process 3. A lean operating system that can be used to troubleshoot problems when Windows refuses to start.

4. A command to manage hard drives, partitions, and volumes.

5. A Windows 7/Vista command that repairs the boot sector of the system partition.

6. Restart the computer by turning off the power or by pressing the Reset button 7. To restart a PC without turning off the power 8. The Windows 7/Vista program that manages the initial startup of Windows.

9. A self-diagnostic program used to perform a simple test of the CPU, RAM, and various I/O devices.

10. Registry settings and device drivers that were in effect when the computer last booted successfully.

boot logging ____ diskpart ____

fixboot ____ Last Known Good Configuration ____ Windows Boot Manager (BootMgr) ____ Windows Recovery Environment (RE) ____ soft boot ____ POST (power-on self test) ____

cold boot ____ Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file ____

28. Describe the difference between a hard boot and a soft boot.

29. What is the first step in the boot process for which Startup BIOS is responsible?

30. What is the last step in the boot process for which Startup BIOS is responsible? Describe this step.

31. In the Windows 7 boot process, what is the first thing that happens when Startup BIOS turns control over to the MBR program?

32. What is the first thing that the kernel does when WinLoad turns over the startup process to it?

33. What is the last thing that occurs in the Windows 7 boot process before the Windows desktop appears?

34. What is Safe Mode and why would you use it?

35. What is the Last Known Good Configuration?

36. What is Windows RE and how can you use it?

37. If the BIOS can find the hard drive but cannot read the drive or find what it is looking for, what steps can you take to try to resolve the problem?

Chapter 6--Troubleshooting Windows Startup Problems Key

1. TRUE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. FALSE 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. B 21. B 22. OS kernel or kernel or Ntoskrnl.exe or Ntoskrnl 23. Safe Mode with Networking 24. Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) or Windows RE or Windows Recovery Environment or Windows RE (Windows Recovery Environment) 25. C:\Windows\Ntbtlog.txt or Ntbtlog.txt 26. Debugging mode

27. Recording all files used during the load process :: boot logging and A command to manage hard drives, partitions, and volumes. :: diskpart and A Windows 7/Vista command that repairs the boot sector of the system partition. :: fixboot and Registry settings and device drivers that were in effect when the computer last booted successfully. :: Last Known Good Configuration and The Windows 7/Vista program that manages the initial startup of Windows. :: Windows Boot Manager (BootMgr) and A lean operating system that can be used to troubleshoot problems when Windows refuses to start. :: Windows Recovery Environment (RE) and To restart a PC without turning off the power :: soft boot and A self-diagnostic program used to perform a simple test of the CPU, RAM, and various I/O devices. :: POST (power-on self test) and Restart the computer by turning off the power or by pressing the Reset button :: cold boot and A Windows 7/Vista file structured the same as a registry file and contains configuration information about how Windows is started. :: Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file 28. A hard boot (also known as cold boot), involves turning on the power with the on/off switch. A soft boot (also known as warm boot), involves using the operating system to reboot. A hard boot takes more time than a soft boot because in a soft boot, the initial steps of a hard boot don’t happen. To save time in most circumstances, you should use the soft boot to restart. A hard boot initializes the processor and clears memory. If a soft boot doesn’t work or you want to make certain you get a fresh start, use a hard boot.

29. Startup BIOS reads motherboard settings and runs the POST. 30. Startup BIOS searches for a bootable device.

The boot sequence stored in CMOS RAM tells startup BIOS which device to use to launch an OS. Most BIOSs support booting from the hard drive, a CD or DVD, a USB device, or another computer on the network. (Older computers could also boot from a floppy disk.) The BIOS turns to the specified device and turns control over to it.

31. The MBR program searches the partition table looking for the active partition, which Windows calls the system partition. It finds and loads the Windows Boot Manager (BootMgr) program in the root directory of this partition. If the MBR program cannot find BootMgr or cannot turn over operation to it, one of these error messages appears: Missing operating system Error loading operating system Windows failed to load Invalid partition table 32. The kernel activates the HAL, reads more information from the registry, and builds into memory the registry key HKEY_LOCAL_ MACHINE\HARDWARE, using information that has been collected about the hardware.

33. Userinit.exe applies Group Policy settings and any programs not trumped by Group Policy that are stored in startup folders and startup registry keys.

34. Safe Mode boots the OS with a minimum configuration and can be used to solve problems with a new hardware installation, a corrupted Windows installation, or problems caused by user settings. Safe Mode boots with the mouse, monitor (with basic video), keyboard, and mass storage drivers loaded. It uses the default system services (it does not load any extra services) and does not provide network access. It uses a plain VGA video driver (Vga.sys) instead of the video drivers specific to your video card.

35. Registry settings collectively called the Last Known Good Configuration are saved in the registry each time the user successfully logs onto the system. If your problem is caused by a bad hardware or software installation and you get an error message the first time you restart the system after the installation, using the Last Known Good can, in effect, undo your installation and solve your problem.

36. Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) is a lean operating system that can be launched to solve Windows startup problems after other tools available on the Advanced Boot Options menu have failed to solve the problem. It provides a graphical and command line interface.

In Windows 7 or Vista, you can launch Windows RE from the Windows setup DVD. In Windows 7, Windows RE is installed on the hard drive and available on the Advanced Boot Options menu. In addition, you can create a Windows 7 system repair disc and use it to launch Windows RE. 37. 1. Try to press F8 at startup and launch the Advanced Boot Options menu. This menu cannot load if the system cannot access the hard drive. But at least give it a try before you move on to the tools on the Windows setup DVD. 2. Check BIOS setup to make sure the boot sequence lists the DVD drive before the hard drive, and then boot from the Windows setup DVD.

Chapter 7--Connecting to and Setting up a Network Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The Telnet protocol encrypts transmitted data, which therefore cannot be read by others on the network.

True False

2. When using static IP addressing, software automatically configures the network connection on each device.

True False

3. Wireless networks are either public, unsecured hotspots or private, secured hotspots.

True False

4. When connecting to a private and secured wireless access point, you must provide the information that proves you have the right to use the network.

True False

5. A problem with virtual networks is that data transmitting through them cannot be encrypted and therefore is not secure.

True False

6. What is the name of a 32-bit or 128-bit number that is used to identify a device?

A. port number B. protocol number C. IP address D. IP version

7. How are IP addresses available to the Internet classified?

A. public B. private C. non-routable D. standard

8. Which type of IP address is configured by a server when a device first initiates a connection to the network?

A. default B. dynamic C. static D. configured

9. Which is used to identify the network portion and the host portion of an IP address?

A. dynamic address B. DHCP address C. default gateway D. subnet mask

10. Which command can be used to display TCP/IP configuration information and refresh the IP address?

A. msconfig B. netstat C. ipconfig D. netcfg32

11. Using a ______________, packets are delivered to a single node on a network.

A. anycast address B. default gateway address C. multicast address D. unicast address

12. Which protocol makes a connection, checks whether the data is received, and resends it if it is not?

A. TCP B. UDP C. IP D. DNS

13. The solution for securing private data traveling over a public network, such as the Internet, is a _________.

A. public encrypted network B. virtual private network C. private encrypted network D. virtual prevention network

14. Which TCP/IP protocol is used by Windows to share files and printers on a network?

A. Server Message Block (SMB) B. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

15. Which utility can be used to automatically diagnose a problem with a network connection?

A. My Network Places B. Device Manger C. Windows Network Diagnostics D. Control Panel

16. If the computer you are using is a laptop that moves from one network to another, you can click the _____tab and configure static IP address settings for a second network.

A. General Configuration B. Alternate Configuration C. Secondary Configuration D. Fallback Configuration

17. What is used to identify a wireless access point?

A. secure key B. MAC address C. Network ID D. SSID

18. What type of device can be used to block unwanted traffic initiated from the Internet and can also restrict Internet access from an internal network?

A. hub B. switch C. firewall D. VPN

19. What type of IP address should be configured on a wireless access point so that it can always be located by the devices that it serves?

A. static IP address B. dynamic IP address C. private IP address D. default IP address

20. What is it called when a router is configured to open or close certain ports so they can or cannot be used.

A. port triggering B. demilitarized zone (DMZ) C. port filtering D. port forwarding

21. Which wireless networking radio frequency yields faster speeds but offers shorter range?

A. 2.4 GHz B. 5 GHz C. 7 GHz D. 11 GHz

22. Before data is transmitted on a network, it is first broken up into ____________________. ________________________________________

23. Communication between two computers happens at three levels (layers) and these levels include the application, operating system, and ____________________. ________________________________________

24. A ____________________ is the name of a computer and can be used in place of its IP address. ________________________________________

25. The first part of an IPv4 address identifies the network, and the last part identifies the ____________________. ________________________________________

26. Using __________________, when a firewall receives a request for communication from the Internet to a specific computer and port, the request will be allowed and forwarded to that computer on the network. ________________________________________

27. Match each term with the correct statement below.

1. When a firewall opens a port because a computer behind the firewall initiates communication on another port 2. A protocol used by various client applications when the application needs to query a database 3. A command that can be used to display the TCP/IP configuration 4. A security technique that uses encrypted data packets between a private network and a computer on the Internet 5. Protocol used to pass login information to a remote computer and control that computer over a network 6. A group of computers on a peer-to-peer network that are sharing resources 7. Assigns an IP address to a computer when it first attempts to initiate a connection to the network 8. A protocol used to convert private IP addresses on a LAN to a public IP address before a data packet is sent over the Internet 9. Used by a computer or other device to determine if an IP address of another computer is on its network or another network 10. Designed to make it easier for users to connect their computers to a wireless network when a hard-to-remember SSID and security key are used

port triggering ____ ipconfig ____ Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) ____

DHCP server ____

workgroup ____ Secure Shell (SSH) ____ Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) ____

subnet mask ____ virtual private network ____ Network Address Translation (NAT) ____

28. Describe communications at the application level - give an example.

29. Describe the contents and purpose of a subnet mask.

30. Describe how a computer with a Private IP address accesses the Internet.

31. Describe a domain name and provide examples of domain names.

32. What is DNS and how does it work?

33. Describe TCP and how it provides reliability of packet delivery.

34. Discuss User Datagram Protocol.

35. Describe the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol.

36. Describe two methods that a wireless access point might use to secure a wireless network.

37. Discuss how a VPN might be used and how it protects data.

Chapter 7--Connecting to and Setting up a Network Key

1. FALSE 2. FALSE 3. TRUE 4. TRUE 5. FALSE 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. segments or packets 23. hardware 24. host name 25. host 26. port forwarding

27. When a firewall opens a port because a computer behind the firewall initiates communication on another port :: port triggering and A command that can be used to display the TCP/IP configuration :: ipconfig and A protocol used by various client applications when the application needs to query a database :: Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) and Assigns an IP address to a computer when it first attempts to initiate a connection to the network :: DHCP server and A group of computers on a peer-to-peer network that are sharing resources :: workgroup and Protocol used to pass login information to a remote computer and control that computer over a network :: Secure Shell (SSH) and Designed to make it easier for users to connect their computers to a wireless network when a hard-to-remember SSID and security key are used :: Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) and Used by a computer or other device to determine if an IP address of another computer is on its network or another network :: subnet mask and A security technique that uses encrypted data packets between a private network and a computer on the Internet :: virtual private network and A protocol used to convert private IP addresses on a LAN to a public IP address before a data packet is sent over the Internet :: Network Address Translation (NAT) 28. Each client and server application installed on a computer listens at a predetermined address that uniquely identifies the application on the computer. This address is a number and is called a port number, port, or port address. For example, you can address a web server by entering into a browser address box an IP address followed by a colon and then the port number. These values are known as a socket. For example, an email server waiting to send email to a client listens at port 25, and a web server listens at port 80. Suppose a computer with an IP address of 136.60.30.5 is running both an email server and a web server application. If a client computer sends a request to 136.60.30.5:25, the email server that is listening at that port responds. On the other hand, if a request is sent to 136.60.30.5:80, the web server listening at port 80 responds.

29. The subnet mask used with IPv4 identifies which part of an IP address is the network portion and which part is the host portion. Using a subnet mask, a computer or other device can know if an IP address of another computer is on its network or another network.

A subnet mask is a string of ones followed by a string of zeros. The ones in a subnet mask say, “On our network, this part of an IP address is the network part,” and the group of zeros says, “On our network, this part of an IP address is the host part.”

30. A computer using a private IP address on a private network can still access the Internet if a router or other device that stands between the network and the Internet is using NAT (Network Address Translation). NAT is a TCP/IP protocol that substitutes the public IP address of the router for the private IP address of the other computer when these computers need to communicate on the Internet.

31. A domain name identifies a network. Examples of domain names are the names that appear before the period in Microsoft.com, course.com, and mycompany.com. The letters after the period are called the top-level domain and tell you something about the domain. Examples are .com (commercial), .org (nonprofit), .gov (government), and .info (general use).

32. This process of associating a character-based name with an IP address is called name resolution. The DNS (Domain Name System or Domain Name Service) protocol is used by a DNS server to find an IP address for a computer when the fully qualified domain name is known. When Windows is trying to resolve a computer name to an IP address, it first looks in the DNS cache it holds in memory. If the computer name is not found in the hosts file, Windows then turns to a DNS server if it has the IP address of the server. When Windows queries the DNS server for a name resolution, it is called the DNS client.

33. In TCP/IP, the protocol that guarantees packet delivery is TCP (Transmission Control Protocol). TCP makes a connection, checks whether the data is received, and resends it if it is not. TCP is, therefore, called a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is used by applications such as web browsers and email. Guaranteed delivery takes longer and is used when it is important to know that the data reached its destination.

For TCP to guarantee delivery, it uses protocols at the IP layer to establish a session between client and server to verify that communication has taken place. When a TCP packet reaches its destination, an acknowledgment is sent back to the source. If the source TCP does not receive the acknowledgment, it resends the data or passes an error message back to the higher-level application protocol.

34. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not guarantee delivery by first connecting and checking whether data is received; thus, UDP is called a connectionless protocol or best-effort protocol. UDP is used for broadcasting, such as streaming video or sound over the web, where guaranteed delivery is not as important as fast transmission. UDP is also used to monitor network traffic.

35. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is used by various client applications when the application needs to query a database. For example, an email client on a corporate network might query a database that contains the email addresses for all employees. Another example is when an application looks for a printer by querying a database of printers supported by an organization on the corporate network or Internet. Data sent and received using the LDAP protocol is not encrypted; therefore, an encryption layer is sometimes added to LDAP transmissions.

36. A security key is required. This is the most common method of securing a wireless network.

A network that uses a security key encrypts data on the network using an encryption standard. You learn about these standards later in the chapter.

The SSID is not broadcast. The wireless device might not be broadcasting its name, which is called the Service Set Identifier (SSID). If the SSID is not broadcasting, the name of the wireless network will appear as Unnamed or Unknown Network. When you select this network, you are given the opportunity to enter the name. If you don’t enter the name correctly, you will not be able to connect.

Only computers with registered MAC addresses are allowed to connect. If MAC address filtering is used, you must give the network administrator the MAC address of your wireless adapter. This address is entered into a table of acceptable MAC addresses kept by the wireless access point.

37. A virtual private network (VPN) is often used by employees when they work away from the corporate network to connect to that network by way of the Internet. A VPN protects data by encrypting it from the time it leaves the remote computer until it reaches a server on the corporate network.

The encryption technique is called a tunnel or tunneling.

Chapter 8--Windows Resources on a Network Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. On the IE General tab you can block cookies.

True False

2. The default value of the security level in IE is Medium-high.

True False

3. To use Remote Desktop, the computer you access remotely can be running Windows 7 Home Premium or Windows 7 Professional.

True False

4. When a user logs on to a Windows 7 computer using Remote Desktop, users that are logged on locally are unaffected.

True False

5. If a Windows computer belongs to a domain, all security is managed by the network administrator for the entire network.

True False

6. Which of the following is a task you CAN’T do from the IE General tab?

A. change the home page B. disable file downloads C. delete browsing history D. manage the IE cache

7. Which of the following is described as a computer that intercepts requests that a browser makes of a server and can cache received content.

A. DNS server B. VPN server C. proxy server D. Web server

8. Which of the following is NOT true about Remote Desktop?

A. the client can be running any version of Windows 7 B. by default all users can access Remote Desktop C. Windows firewall can block Remote Desktop connections D. you can start the remote desktop client using the mstsc command

9. If you want to be able to power up a computer remotely, what feature should you use?

A. QoS B. RDP C. RemoteApp D. WoL

10. Which of the following is NOT true about Group Policy?

A. policies can be applied to a computer B. all policies are applied before the logon screen appears C. Group Policy is available in Windows Professional edition D. you can set the QoS level for an application using Group Policy

11. Which statements is true about controlling access to folders and files?

A. permissions refer to the tasks an account is allowed to do in the system B. account configuration should keep in mind the principle of highest privilege C. rights are assigned to accounts D. in Windows, accounts have no rights assignments until you configure them

12. Which of the following is NOT true about user accounts and groups?

A. a user account can belong to only one group at a time B. by default, standard users accounts belong to the Users group C. Guest group has limited rights on the system D. Backup Operators group can restore any files regardless of the group’s permissions to those files

13. Which built-in group might Windows automatically assign a user account to when determining its permissions?

A. Administrators B. Guests C. Backup Operators D. Anonymous users

14. To which group does Windows give access to folders that you create which are not part of your user profile?

A. Power Users B. Guests C. Authenticated Users D. Anonymous Users

15. When all users on a network require the same access to all resources, what type of network model should you use?

A. Domain B. Homegroup C. Workgroup D. Guestgroup

16. Which of the following is true about which folders to use to hold shared data when working with a workgroup?

A. private data for each user should be kept in their C:\Users folder B. all users have access to the folders in the C:\Users folder C. C:\Users\Public should only be used by the Guest account D. Only Administrators and Guest have access to C:\Users\Public

17. Which type of permission should you set to control access to files and folders by local and network users?

A. Sharing on FAT32 volumes only B. NTFS on NTFS volumes only C. NTFS on exFAT or NTFS volumes D. Sharing on NTFS or exFAT volumes

18. Which is NOT true about using share and NTFS permissions?

A. if both permissions are used, the least restrictive permission between the two applies B. if NTFS permissions conflict between a user and group the least restrictive permission applies C. when you copy a file, the file takes on the permissions of the destination folder D. inherited permissions pass from parent folder to child file or folder

19. Which NTFS permission(s) should you assign if the user should be able to create folders and files and open files to read data, but not delete files.

A. Full control B. Read & execute C. Full control, Modify D. Write, Read

20. When mapping a drive, you can type in the path to the shared folder on the host computer. What is the syntax for the path?

A. \\sharedfolder\server B. \server\sharedfolder C. \\server\sharedfolder D. /sharedfolder/server

21. When troubleshooting a live network cable, what should you use?

A. a cable tester B. a DVM C. a loopback plug D. an LED indicator

22. The ________________ command tests connectivity by sending an echo request to a remote computer. ________________________________________

23. Use the command Ipconfig /________________ to show the DNS resolver cache. ________________________________________

24. To find the host name of a computer when you have its IP address, use a ___________ lookup. ________________________________________

25. A packet is assigned a(n) _______________, which is the number of hop counts it can make before a router drops the packet and sends and ICMP message back to the sender. ________________________________________

26. To map a drive from the command line use the command net ___________ drive: \\server\share. ________________________________________

27.

1. a TCP/IP command that lets you read information from the Internet name space by requesting information about domain name resolutions 2. a tool that canlocate a Wi-Fi hotspot and tell you the strength of the RF signal 3. the folders that are shared by default on a network domain that administrator accounts can access 4. command is used to display statistics about the NetBT (NetBIOS over TCP/IP) protocol 5. a TCP/IP command that enables you to resolve a connectivity problem when attempting to reach a destination host such as a web site 6. permissions assigned by Windows that are attained from a parent object 7. a TCP/IP command that gives statistics about TCP/IP and network activity and includes several parameters 8. a method to control access to a shared folder and can be assigned to NTFS or FAT volumes 9. a method to control access to a folder or file and can apply to local users and network users 10. configuring a computer so that it will respond to network activity when the computer is in a sleep state

netstat ____

nbtstat ____ inherited permissions ____ share permissions ____

tracert ____ wireless locator ____

nslookup ____ Wake on LAN ____ administrative shares ____ NTFS permissions ____

28. Define ActiveX control and explain why they might be unsafe.

29. Briefly describe Remote Desktop and its OS requirements.

30. What is WoL and why would you use it?

31. Describe the difference between rights and permissions on a Windows OS.

32. What is the principle of least privilege?

33. Describe Workgroup sharing and how it compares to Homegroup sharing.

34. What is a local share?

35. Describe what Ping does and why you might use it.

36. What does tracert do and how can it be useful?

37. What does the net view \\computername command do and how can you use to troubleshoot network connectivity?

Chapter 8--Windows Resources on a Network Key

1. FALSE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. FALSE 5. TRUE 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. ping 23. displaydns 24. reverse 25. time to live or TTL or time to live (TTL) or TTL (time to live) or time-to-live 26. use

27. a TCP/IP command that gives statistics about TCP/IP and network activity and includes several parameters :: netstat and command is used to display statistics about the NetBT (NetBIOS over TCP/IP) protocol :: nbtstat and permissions assigned by Windows that are attained from a parent object :: inherited permissions and a method to control access to a shared folder and can be assigned to NTFS or FAT volumes :: share permissions and a TCP/IP command that enables you to resolve a connectivity problem when attempting to reach a destination host such as a web site :: tracert and a tool that can locate a Wi-Fi hotspot and tell you the strength of the RF signal :: wireless locator and a TCP/IP command that lets you read information from the Internet name space by requesting information about domain name resolutions :: nslookup and configuring a computer so that it will respond to network activity when the computer is in a sleep state :: Wake on LAN and the folders that are shared by default on a network domain that administrator accounts can access :: administrative shares and a method to control access to a folder or file and can apply to local users and network users :: NTFS permissions 28. An ActiveX control is a small app or add-on that can be downloaded from a web site along with a web page and is executed by IE to enhance the web page (for example, add animation to the page). A virus can sometimes hide in an ActiveX control, but IE is designed to catch them by authenticating each ActiveX control it downloads.

29. Remote Desktop gives a user access to a Windows desktop from anywhere on the Internet. To use Remote Desktop, the computer you want to remotely access (the server) must be running business or professional editions of Windows 7/Vista/XP, but the computer you’re using to access it (the client) can be running any version of Windows.

30. Wake on LAN (WoL) causes the host computer to turn on even from a powered-off state when a specific type of network activity happens. When a computer is powered off or asleep, the network adapter retains power and listens for network activity. When it receives a specific type of network activity, it wakes up or powers up the computer. Two types of network activity that can trigger Wake on LAN are a wake pattern and a magic packet.

System administrators might use utilities to remotely wake a computer to perform routine maintenance. Some applications, such as media-sharing apps, can be configured to remotely wake a server that has been configured for Wake on LAN. 31. In Windows, the two terms, rights and permissions, have different meanings. Rights (also called privileges) refer to the tasks an account is allowed to do in the system (for example, installing software or changing the system date and time). Permissions refer to which user accounts or user groups are allowed access to data files and folders. Rights are assigned to an account, and permissions are assigned to data files and folders.

32. Computer users should be classified to determine the rights they need to do their jobs. Generally, when a new employee begins work, that employee’s supervisor determines what rights the employee needs to perform his job. The user account assigned to the employee should have these rights and no more.

33. When all users on a network require the same access to all resources, you can use a Windows homegroup.For better security than a homegroup, use workgroup sharing. Using this method, you decide which users on the network have access to which shared folder and the type of access they have. All rights and permissions are set up on each local computer so that each computer manages access to its files, folders, and printers shared on this peer-to-peer network.

34. Folders and files on a computer that are shared with others on the network using local user accounts are called local shares.

35. The Ping (Packet InterNet Groper) command tests connectivity by sending an echo request to a remote computer. If the remote computer is online, detects the signal, and is configured to respond to a ping, it responds. (Responding to a Ping is the default Windows settings.)

Use ping to test for connectivity or to verify name resolution is working.

36. The tracert command sends a series of requests to the destination computer and displays each hop to the destination. (A hop happens when a packet moves from one router to another.) The Tracert (trace route) command can be useful when you’re trying to resolve a problem reaching a destination host such as an FTP site or web site.

37. The net view \\computername command shows a list of shared folders on the remote computer. Two computers on the network might have the same computer name. This command reports the error.

Chapter 9--Security Strategies Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. On a peer-to-peer network, authentication is the responsibility of the domain.

True False

2. Requiring users to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete to get a logon window is more secure than the welcome screen.

True False

3. After initially installing Windows 7, you need to disable the Guest account so nobody can use it.

True False

4. Using Group Policy, you can set security policies to help secure a workstation.

True False

5. It’s usually a good idea to run several anti-malware programs at the same time on your computer.

True False

6. What keystroke should you press to get a logon window if you don’t use the welcome screen?

A. Alt+F1 B. Ctrl+Ins+Home C. Alt+F5+End D. Ctrl+Alt+Delete

7. Which of the following is true about the Guest account in Windows 7?

A. it is disabled by default B. it automatically has a complex password C. you cannot rename it D. it has administrative access

8. Which of the following is true about passwords.

A. it’s best to write your password down so you don’t get locked out of your computer B. passwords cannot be longer than 14 characters C. by default, accounts with a blank password cannot logon remotely D. letters and numbers are allowed, but no symbols such as ‘@’ or ‘!’

9. Which of the following is true about the Windows Encrypted File System?

A. files can be marked for encryption, but not folders B. an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted C. EFS only works on NTFS and FAT32 D. you need to download special software to use EFS

10. Which of the following is NOT true about using Group Policy on business and professional editions of Windows?

A. you can rename default user accounts B. you can require user accounts to have non-blank passwords C. you can use gpedit.msc to see if any policies conflict D. you can disable logon scripts

11. If you want your computer to be protected by BitLocker Encryption using computer authentication, what feature must your computer have?

A. a USB port B. an authentication key on the hard drive C. a TPM chip on the motherboard D. a PIN on the BIOS

12. If you don’t want to use BitLocker to protect your computer, you can still configure a power-on password using which of the following?

A. Windows POP technology B. the BIOS C. a feature available on some DVD drives D. your USB keyboard

13. One way to authenticate users on a computer is to use a small device that contains authentication information. What is this device called?

A. retinal scanner B. LoJack token C. smart card D. TPM

14. An RFID badge is related to which type of authentication method?

A. smart card B. biometric scanner C. digital certificate D. privacy filter

15. A privacy filter is used for what aspect of security?

A. theft of a laptop B. computer authentication C. data encryption D. screen viewing

16. Which of the following provides a strong magnetic field used to completely erase data on a hard drive or tape drive?

A. ATA Secure Erase B. low-level format C. degausser D. magnetic data filter

17. You should beware of a person attempting to use your computer after you step away from it, a term referred to as which of the following?

A. shoulder surfing B. tailgating C. social engineering D. session hijacking

18. Which type of malware hides in the MBR program of a hard drive?

A. boot sector virus B. Trojan horse C. keylogger D. spyware

19. Which type of malware can hijack internal Windows components and often goes undetected because it is already loaded when the antivirus software loads?

A. Trojan horse B. rootkit C. adware D. worm

20. Which command can you perform at the Windows RE command prompt to repair the OS boot record on Windows 7?

A. fixmbr B. bootrec /fixmbr C. fixboot D. bootrec /fixboot

21. If you need to understand the parent-child relationships between running processes and view parent processes as they call other processes, what tool should you use?

A. Task Manager B. SearchIndexer C. Process Explorer D. Windows Defender

22. The best protection against attacks is ________________ protection, for example when multiple firewalls protect the network’s computers. ________________________________________

23. To keep a system secure from tailgating, users need to practice the habit of ___________ their workstation when they step away from their desks. ________________________________________

24. The ______________ account is disabled by default and should be replaced by a standard account for infrequent users of your network. ________________________________________

25. To prevent spread of malware, an infected computer should be ____________ by disconnecting it from the wired or wireless network. ________________________________________

26. Windows _______________ is antispyware included in Windows 7/Vista. ________________________________________

27.

1. type of smart card that contains authentication information 2. software installed on a computer that produces pop-up ads using your browser 3. an infestation designed to copy itself repeatedly to memory, on drive space, or on a network 4. a program that AV software recognizes to be potentially harmful or potentially unwanted 5. a set of distinguishing characteristics of a virus used by antivirus software to identify new viruses as they get into the wild 6. type of spyware that tracks your keystrokes, including passwords 7. the practice of tricking people into giving out private information or allowing unsafe programs into the network or computer 8. when someone who is unauthorized follows the employee through a secured entrance to a room or building 9. a code used to identify and authenticate a person or organization sending data over a network 10. A type of malware that tricks you into opening it by substituting itself for a legitimate program

social engineering ____ worm ____ Trojan ____ grayware ____ digital certificate ____ RSA tokens ____ virus signature ____

tailgating ____

adware ____ keylogger ____

28. Describe how you can control how a user logs on to a Windows system and how doing so can make a system more secure.

29. What are two methods users can use to lock down their computer?

30. There are eight criteria for creating a strong password. List five of them.

31. Under what circumstances can a blank password be more secure than a non-blank password?

32. Describe file and folder encryption in Windows (not how you encrypt a file).

33. Describe Windows Firewall.

34. With respect to the default users and password settings, how can you use Group Policy to make your system more secure?

35. What are the risks in using BitLocker to secure your system and how can you mitigate these risks?

36. List three varieties of smart cards.

37. What is a rootkit and why is it so difficult to detect?

Chapter 9--Security Strategies Key

1. FALSE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. FALSE 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. layered 23. locking or locking down 24. Guest 25. quarantined 26. Defender

27. the practice of tricking people into giving out private information or allowing unsafe programs into the network or computer :: social engineering and an infestation designed to copy itself repeatedly to memory, on drive space, or on a network :: worm and A type of malware that tricks you into opening it by substituting itself for a legitimate program :: Trojan and a program that AV software recognizes to be potentially harmful or potentially unwanted :: grayware and a code used to identify and authenticate a person or organization sending data over a network :: digital certificate and type of smart card that contains authentication information :: RSA tokens and a set of distinguishing characteristics of a virus used by antivirus software to identify new viruses as they get into the wild :: virus signature and when someone who is unauthorized follows the employee through a secured entrance to a room or building :: tailgating and software installed on a computer that produces pop-up ads using your browser :: adware and type of spyware that tracks your keystrokes, including passwords :: keylogger 28. Normally, when a computer is first booted or comes back from a sleep state, Windows provides a welcome screen that shows all active user accounts. Malware can sometimes display a false welcome screen to trick users into providing user account passwords. A more secure method of logon is to require the user to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete to get to a logon window. When a user presses Ctrl+Alt+Delete, the Windows Welcome screen that appears has not been known to be intercepted by malware.

Use the netplwiz command to change the way Windows logon works: Using Windows 7/Vista, enter netplwiz in the search box and press Enter. The User Accounts box appears. On the Users tab, you can add and remove users, change the groups a user is in, and reset a password. Click the Advanced tab. Check Require users to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete. Click Apply and close the box.

29. The quickest way to lock down the computer is to press the Windows key + L. Another method is to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete. If the user is already logged on when she presses these keys, a screen appears that provides several choices. When the user clicks Lock this computer, Windows locks down.

30. Use eight or more characters (14 characters or longer is better).

Combine uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols.

Use at least one symbol in the second through sixth position of your password.

Don’t use consecutive letters or numbers, such as “abcdefg” or “12345.”

Don’t use adjacent keys on your keyboard, such as “qwerty.”

Don’t use your logon name in the password.

Don’t use words in any language. Don’t even use numbers for letters (as in “p@ssw0rd”) because programs can now guess those as well.

Don’t use the same password for more than one system.

31. In some situations, a blank Windows password might be more secure than an easy-to-guess password such as “1234.” That’s because you cannot authenticate to a Windows computer from a remote computer unless the user account has a password.

32. In Windows, files and folders can be encrypted using the Windows Encrypted File System (EFS). This encryption works only with the NTFS file system and business and professional editions of Windows. If a folder is marked for encryption, every file created in the folder or copied to the folder will be encrypted. An encrypted file remains encrypted if you move it from an encrypted folder to an unencrypted folder on the same or another NTFS volume.

33. Windows Firewall is a personal firewall that protects a computer from intrusion and is automatically configured when you set your network location in the Network and Sharing Center. However, you might want to customize these settings.

34. Using Group Policy, you can set security policies to help secure a workstation. For example, you can set policies to require all users to have passwords and to rename default user accounts.

35. BitLocker Encryption provides great security, but security comes with a price. For instance, you risk the chance your TPM will fail or you will lose all copies of the startup key. In these events, recovering the data can be messy. Therefore, use BitLocker only if the risks of BitLocker giving problems outweigh the risks of stolen data. And, if you decide to use BitLocker, be sure to make extra copies of the startup key and/or password and keep them in a safe location.

36. Key fob Wireless token Memory stripe card Cell phone with token

37. A rootkit is a virus that loads itself before the OS boot is complete. Because it is already loaded when the antivirus software loads, it is sometimes overlooked by the software.

A rootkit uses unusually complex methods to hide itself, and many spyware and adware programs are also rootkits. Rootkits can prevent Task Manager from displaying the running rootkit process, or may cause Task Manager to display a different name for this process. The program filename might not be displayed in Windows Explorer, the rootkit’s registry keys might be hidden from the registry editor, or the registry editor might display wrong information. All this hiding is accomplished in one of two ways, depending on whether the rootkit is running in user mode or kernel mode. A rootkit running in user mode intercepts the API calls between the time when the API retrieves the data and when it is displayed in a window. A rootkit running in kernel mode actually interferes with the Windows kernel and substitutes its own information in place of the raw data read by the Windows kernel.

Chapter 10--Mobile Devices and Client-side Virtualization Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. You usually install an OS on a mobile device using a USB device or SD-card.

True False

2. The Android OS is based on Linux.

True False

3. iOS was developed by and continues to be maintained by a consortium of companies.

True False

4. A setting called airplane mode lowers the output power of the Wi-Fi and Bluetooth antennas allowing these networks to function, but at a reduced range.

True False

5. VMs running under a Type 1 hypervisor are isolated from each other.

True False

6. Which of the following is based on open source code?

A. Android B. Blackberry C. Windows Phone D. iOS

7. Which company acquired Android code in 2005 and has a leadership role in its development?

A. Apple B. Symbian C. Google D. Yahoo

8. What must you do before using a new iPad or iPod touch?

A. register it B. activate it C. install iOS on it D. install iTunes on it

9. What does jailbreaking do?

A. Allows you to download games for free from Google Play B. Allows you download music for free from iTunes C. give you administrative privileges to Android D. give you root privileges to iOS

10. Which of the following is a screen that uses electrodes that sense the conductive properties of skin?

A. dual-touch screen B. capacitive touch screen C. pressure-sensing screen D. resistive touch screen

11. If you want to be able to wear gloves while using a smart phone, which screen technology will work?

A. capacitive touch screen B. iPod touch screen C. resistive touch screen D. retina display touch screen

12. A SIM card is used for which of the following?

A. holding data related to your cellular carrier B. holding your iTunes music information C. controlling the sensitivity of your touch screen D. backing up your data and applications

13. Which type of device is most likely to have a slot for an SD card?

A. iPod Touch B. Android smart phone C. iPhone D. iPad

14. What is the accelerometer used for in mobile devices?

A. adjusting the screen orientation B. geotracking C. synchronizing data D. locating the nearest cell tower

15. Which component on a smart phone requires pairing with another device?

A. GPS B. WiFi C. Bluetooth D. SIM card

16. Which of the following is NOT a function provided by iTunes for iOS devices?

A. sync data to your computer B. install iOS updates C. back up data on Apple web sites D. restore from backup

17. What should you configure on an iOS device if you want your data erased after ten failed logon attempts?

A. Lock Screen B. Remote Wipe C. iOS Locator D. Passcode Lock

18. What can you do if you want to obtain administrator privileges to an Android device?

A. delete the normal user account B. logon as Admin C. root the device D. reboot into recovery mode

19. Which type of virtualization should you deploy to provide a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure?

A. server-side B. client-side C. fat-client D. type-2

20. The delegation of server-side virtualization to a third party is referred to as which of the following?

A. zero client infrastructure B. cloud computing C. presentation virtualization D. App-V

21. Which of the following is true of a Type 1 hypervisor?

A. typically used on desktops and laptops B. VirtualBox is an example C. called bare-metal hypervisor D. installs as an application

22. __________ OS by Google is based on Linux. ________________________________________

23. On Android phones, up to four apps can be pinned to the __________ at the bottom of the screen. ________________________________________

24. Apple is the sole distributor of iOS apps at its iTunes ________________. ________________________________________

25. ________________________ is the technology used by smart phones to send text messages. ________________________________________

26. When moving a VM from one computer to another, be sure the files are secured with ______________ that allow access only to specific users. ________________________________________

27.

1. a device that contains a disc that is free to move and can respond to gravity as the device is moved 2. a personal computer that provides multiple virtual environments for applications 3. a cloud-computing service that provides hardware and the operating systems and is responsible for updating and maintaining both 4. software to create and manage virtual machines on a server or on a local computer 5. a device used in mobile devices to sense the physical position of the device 6. the erasure of all contacts, email, photos, and other data from an iOS device which is done at a distance 7. a cloud-computing service that provides only the hardware, which can include servers, Network-attached Storage (NAS) devices, and networks 8. a remote application running on a server is controlled by a local computer 9. the process of connecting with another Bluetooth device 10. a computer that has an operating system, but has little computing power and might only need to support a browser used to communicate with the server

hypervisor ____ gyroscope ____ presentation virtualization ____ client-side virtualization ____ PaaS ____ pairing ____

remote wipe ____ accelerometer ____ thin client ____

IaaS ____

28. List the five mobile device OSs that make up almost all of the smart phone market.

29. Define open source as it pertains to operating systems.

30. Describe how Android apps are distributed.

31. How are apps for iOS distributed?

32. Describe the two primary technologies used for mobile device touch interfaces.

33. Describe how to make a Bluetooth connection from a mobile device to another device.

34. What is tethering?

35. List two advantages and two disadvantages of using server-side virtualization.

36. What is cloud computing an list three types of cloud computing services.

37. Define a Type 1 hypervisor and give two examples of a Type 1 hypervisor.

Chapter 10--Mobile Devices and Client-side Virtualization Key

1. FALSE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. FALSE 5. TRUE 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. Android 23. dock 24. App Store 25. SMS or Short Message Service or Short Message Service (SMS) or SMS (Short Message Service) 26. permissions or file permissions

27. software to create and manage virtual machines on a server or on a local computer :: hypervisor and a device that contains a disc that is free to move and can respond to gravity as the device is moved :: gyroscope and a remote application running on a server is controlled by a local computer :: presentation virtualization and a personal computer that provides multiple virtual environments for applications :: client-side virtualization and a cloud-computing service that provides hardware and the operating systems and is responsible for updating and maintaining both :: PaaS and the process of connecting with another Bluetooth device :: pairing and the erasure of all contacts, email, photos, and other data from an iOS device which is done at a distance :: remote wipe and a device used in mobile devices to sense the physical position of the device :: accelerometer and a computer that has an operating system, but has little computing power and might only need to support a browser used to communicate with the server :: thin client and a cloud-computing service that provides only the hardware, which can include servers, Network-attached Storage (NAS) devices, and networks :: IaaS 28. Android iOS Blackberry Windows Phone Symbian 29. Open source means the source code for the operating system is available for free and anyone can modify and redistribute the source code. Open source software is typically developed as a community effort by many contributors.

30. Android apps are sold or freely distributed from any source or vendor. However, the official source for apps, called the Android marketplace, is Google Play at play.google.com. To download content, you need a Google account, which you can set up using the web site or your device. The account is associated with any valid email address. Associate a credit card with the account to make your purchases at Google Play. Then you can purchase or download free music, books, movies, and Android apps from Google Play to your mobile device.

31. Apple is the sole distributor of iOS apps at its iTunes App Store (itunes.apple.com). Other developers can write apps for the iPhone, iPad, or iPod, but these apps must be sent to Apple for their close scrutiny. If they pass muster, they are distributed by Apple on its web site.

32. A touch screen uses resistive or capacitive technologies. A capacitive touch screen uses electrodes that sense the conductive properties of skin. A resistive touch screen has two sheets of glass covered with a resistive coating. The two sheets are kept from touching by spacers between them. When pressure is placed on the top glass, the glass bends and makes contact with the lower glass.

33. To configure a Bluetooth connection, first turn on the other Bluetooth device you want to connect to. Then on your mobile device, tap Settings, General, Bluetooth. On the Bluetooth screen, turn on Bluetooth. The device searches for Bluetooth devices. If it discovers a Bluetooth device, tap it to connect. The two Bluetooth devices now begin the pairing process. The devices might require a Bluetooth PIN code to complete the Bluetooth connection. To complete the connection, enter the 4-digit PIN on the keyboard.

34. Tethering is the ability to set up your mobile device so that your computer can use the cellular network that your phone is connected to.

35. Advantages: Maximize a company’s investment in hardware.

Centralize support for hardware, software, and users.

Disadvantages: High-end servers are required and network load increases.

User experience might suffer.

36. Cloud computing is when server-side virtualization is delegated to a third-party service, and the Internet is used to connect server and client machines.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).

Platform as a Service (PaaS).

Software as a Service (SaaS).

37. A Type 1 hypervisor installs on a computer before any operating system, and is, therefore, called a bare-metal hypervisor. After it installs, it partitions the hardware computing power into multiple VMs. An OS is installed in each VM. Examples of Type 1 hypervisors are XenServer by Citrix, ESXi by VMware, and Hyper-V by Microsoft.