Information Technology Project Management, 4th Edition by Jack T Marchewka Test Bank

Information Technology Project Management, 4th Edition

By

Jack T. Marchewka

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 1: The Nature of Information Technology Projects True/False 1. Information Technology Projects are organizational investments. a. True b. False True (p. 1) 2. The Data Processing Era that began in the 1960’s focused on automating many of the organizational transactions such as general accounting, inventory management, and production scheduling with the aid of a centralized mainframe or mini computers. a. True b. False True (p. 2) 3. The Micro Era that started in the 1980’s provided a smooth transition from large centralized computers to the personal computer that was widely welcomed by data processing managers who believed the replication of data throughout the organization would provide added backup and security. a. True b. False False (p. 3) 4. The rise of islands of independent that replicated data throughout the organization during the Micro Era in the 1980’s often challenged the centralized control of many data processing managers. a. True b. False True (p. 3) 5. During the Network Era, IT projects have focused primarily on the challenge of creating a scalable IT infrastructure to support many partners, strategic alliances, vendors, and customers. a. True b. False True (p. 3) 1

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

6. According to the CHAOS studies most IT projects are completed on time and on budget. a. True b. False False (p. 5) 7. According to the CHAOS studies, more IT projects are becoming increasing successful, but there is still a need to improve the likelihood of success. a. True b. False True (p. 6) 8. According to the CHAOS studies, user involvement and executive support tend to be important factors for successful projects. a. True b. False True (p. 6) 9. According to the Standish Group, it appears that most project today fail not because of technology, but from a lack of user involvement and incomplete resources. a. True b. False True (p. 8) 10. The Socio-Technical Approach has been adopted by many organizations because successful projects require a pure technical approach that focuses on the tools, techniques, and methodologies of IT development. a. True b. False False (p. 10) 11. IT projects must provide value an organization. a. True b. False True (p. 10)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

12. Only the most successful projects are likely to lead to best practices. a. True b. False False (p. 12) 13. A project can be defined as a temporary endeavor undertaken to accomplish a unique purpose. a. True b. False True (p. 13) 14. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet project requirements. a. True b. False True (p. 13) 15. The triple constraint relationship implies that owners, stakeholders and sponsors must communicate effectively to help ensure project success. a. True b. False False (p. 15) 16. A project sponsor is responsible for ensuring that all of the project management and technical development processes are in place and being carried out within a set of specific requirements, defined processes, and quality standards. a. True b. False False (p. 15) 17. Assumptions are what we use to estimate scope, schedule and budget and to assess the risks of the project. a. True b. False True (p. 16)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

18. Projects are planned organizational change. Therefore, the project manager and team do not need to worry about the political climate within the organization because top management has a firm understanding of the organization’s culture, environment, politics, etc. a. True b. False False (p. 16) 19. The Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge provides a basis for identifying and describing the generally accepted principles of project management. a. True b. False True (p. 25) Multiple Choice 1.

The EDP era a) Began in the early 1980s with the personal computer b) Began in the 1960s when large organizations first purchased a centralized mainframe or minicomputer. c) Began in the 1990s when many organizations sought to regain control of the IT deparment and hired a Chief Data Processing Officer d) Is credited to the U.S. Navy when it used a project management approach to manage the Polaris missile project. e) Began in the late 1960s and early 1970s with a defense project called ARPANET that eventually led to the Internet.

Answer: B (p. 2)

2.

The Micro era a) Began in the early 1980s with the personal computer b) Began in the 1960s when large organizations first purchased a centralized mainframe or minicomputer. c) Began in the 1990s when many organizations sought to regain control of the IT deparment and hired a Chief Data Processing Officer d) Is credited to the U.S. Navy when it used a project management approach to manage the Polaris missile project.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) Began in the late 1960s and early 1970s with a defense project called ARPANET that eventually led to the Internet.

Answer: A (p. 3) 3.

The Network era a) Began in the early 1980s with the personal computer b) Began in the 1960s when large organizations first purchased a centralized mainframe or minicomputer. c) Began in the 1990s when many organizations sought to regain control of the IT deparment and hired a Chief Data Processing Officer d) Is credited to the U.S. Navy when it used a project management approach to manage the Polaris missile project. e) Began in the late 1960s and early 1970s with a defense project called ARPANET that eventually led to the Internet.

Answer: C (p. 3)

4.

The Globalization era a) Began in the early 1980s with the personal computer b) Began in the 1960s when large organizations first purchased a centralized mainframe or minicomputer. c) Began in the 1990s when many organizations sought to regain control of the IT deparment and hired a Chief Data Processing Officer d) Is credited to the U.S. Navy when it used a project management approach to manage the Polaris missile project. e) Began after Y2K with the combination of technology and political barriers flattening the world so that people and organizations can work with almost anyone in any place at any time.

Answer: E (p. 4)

5.

The desire to fund a project should be based upon a) time savings b) resource constraints c) cost savings d) the value the completed project will provide to an organization. e) None of the above Answer: D (p. 5)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

6.

According to the CHAOS studies, IT projects a) Are always over-budget and over schedule b) Are always succesful even though they can be chaotic c) Project success in improving because of better project management tools and processes, smaller projects, and improved communication d) Project failure is increasing because because of a lack of available resources and due to a shortage of highly trained technical people e) None of the above Answer: C (p. 6)

7.

The top factors to project success as reported by the CHAOS studies focus on: a) innovative and cutting edge technology b) clear ownership of the project c) competent staff and new technologies d) user involvement and executive support e) proper planning and changing requirements Answer: D (p. 6)

8.

According to the CHAOS studies, which of the following factors tend to be most prevelant for challenged or failed projects? a) Lack of user input and incomplete requirements b) New technologies c) Lack of interest by the customer d) Shortage of highly trained technical experts e) Lack of subject matter experts (SME) Answer: A (p. 7)

9.

The Value-Driven Approach focuses on a) completing the project on time. b) a bug-free application. c) providing value to the organization. d) completing the project under budget. e) selecting the right team members, skill sets, and resources for the project.

Answer: C (p. 10)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

10.

The Socio-Technical Approach focuses on a) the technology used to implement the project. b) using technology to meet the needs of the business. c) the tools, techniques, and methodologies to develop the application. d) cost considerations. e) selecting the right team members, skill sets, and resources for the project.

Answer: B (p. 10)

11.

The benefits, described in the text, of using a project management approach to developing information systems include all of the following except: a) providing a common set of tools and controls which provides a common language to compare projects throughout the organization b) the ability to better estimate and control costs and schedules which leads to a more effective conservation of company resources c) improved communication and status reports leads giving the developers the ability to manage expectations of stakeholders d) competitive advantage for internal developers whose work might have to be outsourced if the quality and cost of their work can be bettered by outside competition e) the coupling of project success to the selection of team members and the skill sets and resources that they bring to the project.

Answer: E (p. 11)

12.

The following statements about knowledge management (KM) are true except: a) KM is a well defined body of knowledge with an established theoretical base. b) KM is a systematic process for acquiring, creating, synthesizing, sharing, and using information. c) Many organizations have KM initiatives underway and spending on these systems is expected to increase. d) Many organizations believe KM is just a fad or a buzzword e) KM is one of the three approaches the text points to for improving the likelihood of IT project success.

Answer: A (p. 12)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 13.

A value-driven approach to project management means a) Applying project management tools and processes that are part of a methodology b) Taking a purely technical approach to projects that focuses mainly on the technology c) Deriving excellence in project management by documenting lessons learned and developing best practices d) Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements e) Measuring project success in terms of the value the project brings to the organization and not only in terms of meeting the project schedule and budget Answer: E (p. 10)

14.

A project a) is a temporary endeavor undertaken to accomplish a unique product, service, or result. b) is an ongoing activity that provides value to the organization. c) must be completed on time and on budget to be successful. d) does not usually have a deadline. e) has a high likelihood of success.

Answer: A (p. 10)

15.

The triple constraint relationship that the text discusses refers to: a) owners, stakeholders, and sponsors b) time, money, and people c) scope, schedule, and budgets d) subject matter experts (SME), technical experts (TE), and project managers (PM) e) internal risks, external risks, and assumptions Answer: C (p. 15)

16.

The project manager is a) responsible for ensuring that all management and technical processes are in place and carried out.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b) the client, customer, or organizational manager who acts as the project champion and provides organizational resources and direction. c) the user or client who has specific knowledge, expertise, or insight in a specific functional area needed to support the project. d) provides the technical solution to the organizational problem and may include systems analysts, network specialists, or programmers. e) the person responsible for final acceptance of the application.

Answer: A (p. 15) 17.

The project sponsor is a) responsible for ensuring that all management and technical processes are in place and carried out. b) the client, customer, or organizational manager who acts as the project champion and provides organizational resources and direction. c) the user or client who has specific knowledge, expertise, or insight in a specific functional area needed to support the project. d) provides the technical solution to the organizational problem and may include systems analysts, network specialists, or programmers. e) the person responsible for final acceptance of the application.

Answer: B (p. 15)

18.

The subject matter expert is a) responsible for ensuring that all management and technical processes are in place and carried out. b) the client, customer, or organizational manager who acts as the project champion and provides organizational resources and direction. c) the user or client who has specific knowledge, expertise, or insight in a specific functional area needed to support the project. d) provides the technical solution to the organizational problem and may include systems analysts, network specialists, or programmers. e) the person responsible for final acceptance of the application.

Answer: C (p. 15)

19.

The technical expert is a) responsible for ensuring that all management and technical processes are in place and carried out.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b) the client, customer, or organizational manager who acts as the project champion and provides organizational resources and direction. c) the user or client who has specific knowledge, expertise, or insight in a specific functional area needed to support the project. d) provides the technical solution to the organizational problem and may include systems analysts, network specialists, or programmers. e) the person responsible for final acceptance of the application.

Answer: D (p. 15) 20.

____ can arise from the estimation process or the stability of the project team. a) Internal risks b) External risks c) Assumptions d) Cost overruns e) Triple constraint Answer: A (p. 15)

21.

Which of the following organizational variables can influence the selection of IT projects? a) culture b) environment c) politics d) strategy e) all of the above Answer: E (p. 16)

22.

Extreme Project Management (XPM) a) always uses an extreme programming approach for developing systems b) transfers a system to the users in a series of versions called releases c) employs an orderly approach for projects that have become chaotic and unpredictable d) takes a holistic view of planning and managing projects that accepts that requirements often change and that people and innovation are vital to the project’s success. e) All of the above Answer: D (p. 24) 10

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

23.

The following are PMBOK® knowledge areas except: a) Project Integration Management b) Project Scope Management c) Project Cost Management d) Project Risk Management e) Project Research Management Answer: E (p. 25 – 26)

24.

The Project Management Body of Knowledge a) is a method of ensuring project success. b) must be used on all projects. c) is a generally accepted set of principles and practices for project management. d) must be used in its entirety. e) works the same on all projects.

Answer: C (p. 25)

25.

Project Integration Management a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: A (p. 25)

26.

Project Scope Management a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) provides assurance that the project's work is defined accurately and completed as planned. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: C (p. 25) 27.

Project Time Management a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: B (p. 25)

28.

Project Cost Management a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) assures that the project budget is developed and completed as approved. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: D (p. 26)

29.

Project Quality Management

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: C (p. 26) 30.

Project Human Resource Management a) focuses on creating and developing the project team. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: A (p. 26)

31.

Project Communications Management a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) entails providing timely and accurate information about the project to stakeholders. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: D (p. 26)

32.

Project Risk Management 13

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: D (p. 26) 33.

Project Procurement Management a) focuses on coordinating the project plan’s development, execution, and control of changes. b) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources. c) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. d) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project. e) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.

Answer: E (p. 27)

Short Answer Questions 1. Describe the EDP Era in your own words.

The EDP Era began in the early 1960s and is characterized by the purchase of the first centralized mainframe or a mini-computer by large organizations. The IT projects during this era focused generally on automating various organizational transactions such as general accounting tasks, inventory management, and production scheduling. The manager of this technology resource was often called the Data Processing (DP) manager and usually reported to the head accounting or financial manager. The goal of using technology was to improve efficiency and reduce costs by automating many of the manual or clerical tasks performed by people. As Richard Nolan (2001) points out, software programmers applied computer technology similar to the ways that farmers or engineers applied steam engine technology to mechanize agriculture. The process remained relatively unchanged, while the means for doing the process became more efficient. Subsequently, IT projects during this era were generally structured, and

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka therefore a structured approach for managing these projects could be used. Since the requirements or business processes were fairly stable, changing requirements were not a major issue and large, multi-year projects were common. Unfortunately in many cases these legacy systems created information silos as projects supported specific business functions that often employed different technology platforms and programming languages. (p. 2) 2. Describe the Micro Era in your own words.

In the early 1980s, the IBM personal computer (PC) and its subsequent clones signaled the beginning of the Micro Era. However, the transition or integration from a centralized computer to the PC did not happen immediately or without conflict. The often uncontrolled proliferation of the PC in many organizations challenged the centralized control of many MIS managers. For example, the first PCs cost less than $5,000 and many functional department managers had the authority to bypass the MIS manager and purchase these machines directly for their department. This often led to the rise of userdeveloped, independent systems that replicated data throughout the organization.

Security, data integrity, maintenance, training, support, standards, and the sharing of data became a rightful concern. The organization often had an IT resource that was split between a centralized computer and a collection of decentralized user-managed PCs. (p.

3) 3. Describe the Network Era in your own words.

In the late 1960s and early 1970s, a defense project called ARPANET allowed university researchers and scientists to share information with one another even in the event of a nuclear war. By the mid-1980s, this network of computers became known as the Internet and led to the Network Era that began around 1995. In the Network Era, IT projects focused primarily on the challenge of creating an IT infrastructure to support many partners, strategic alliances, vendors, and customers. The network architecture had to be scalable to that potentially thousands of networked computers could function in an efficient and timely manner. Moreover, digital convergence or the integration of data, voice, graphics, and video allowed for new and innovative ways to deliver new products and services to customers. While the Micro Era focused on creating an internal network within the organization, the thrust of the Network Era was to extend this network externally. Network Era projects not only faced the challenge of coordination and control, but also how to support a dynamic business strategy and new organizational structures. IT project members not only needed to understand the technology, but the organization and its competitive environment. As witnessed by the rise and fall of many dot com businesses in the late 1990s, the benefits and risks of managing IT projects were much higher than the two previous eras. (p. 3) 4. Describe the globalization era in your own words.

Some people such as Thomas L. Friedman (2006) suggest that we may be entering into a new era called Globalization. According to Friedman, the combination of technology and lowering of political barriers have flattened the world so that it is possible for people and organizations to work with almost anyone in any place and at any time. Moreover, the real IT revolution is just beginning as the global competitive playing field becomes leveled for everyone. (p. 4) 5. How can a value-driven approach improve the likelihood of IT project success?

The decision to fund or invest in an IT project should be based on the value that the completed project will provide the organization.

Otherwise, what is the point of spending all that time, effort, and money? Although senior management must make the difficult decision as to which IT projects receive funding and which ones do not, others 15

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka must plan and carry out the project work. Which situation is worse: Successfully building and implementing an information system that provides little or no value to the organization, or failing to implement an information system that could have provided value to the organization, but was developed or managed poorly? It’s probably a moot point. In either situation everyone with a direct or indirect interest in the project’s success loses. (p. 10) 6. What is the socio-technical approach to systems development?

It is understanding of the importance of addressing the business and organizational aspects of IT projects as well as the purely technical tools and techniques of IT development and with that understanding in mind, involving end users and stakeholders early and often in the development process to the extent that they become partners with a vested interest in the project’s success. Using this approach holds the promise of technologically successful projects with add value to the organization. (p. 10) 7. What are the benefits to using a project management approach to developing information systems?

Using a project management approach to developing information systems has the potential to uncouple the results of undertaking a project from the selection individual team members. Results are more a function of the processes and infrastructure. Five additional benefits are: • deployment a common set of tools and controls which provides a common language to compare projects throughout the organization • the ability to better estimate and control costs and schedules which leads to a more effective conservation of company resources • improved communication and status reports leads giving the developers the ability to manage expectations of stakeholders • competitive advantage for internal developers whose work might have to be outsourced if the quality and cost of their work can be bettered by outside competition • efficiency and effectiveness can often be achieved resulting in shorter development times, lower costs, and higher quality. (p. 10 – 12) 8. What are the attributes of a project?

The attributes of a project are: time frame, purpose, ownership, resources, roles, risks and assumptions, interdependent tasks, organizational change, and operating in an environment larger than the project itself. (p. 14) 9. Describe the relationship among scope, schedule, and budget.

The relationship among scope, schedule, and budget (also called the triple constraint) is based on the fact that it takes time, resources and technology to complete IT projects.

Given the fact that computer technology today is relatively less expensive than a project’s labor, as the scope (work to be accomplished) increases, the costs (and therefore budgets) increase since more people must be deployed or the same number of people must devote more time to the project, thereby, extending the schedule as well as the cost. If the resources and schedule are fixed, the only way to decrease costs or schedules may be to reduce the project’s scope. Scope, schedule, and budget must remain in a sort of

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka equilibrium to support a particular project goal. (p. 15) 10. Describe the different roles and skill sets needed for a project.

The roles and skill sets required for a typical project may include: • Project Manager with team leadership and oversight skills • Project Sponsor with the ability to marshal resources and direction and champion the project • Subject Matter Expert(s) (SME) who have the specific knowledge, expertise, or insight into the functional areas that support the project • Technical Expert(s) who have the requisite technical skills to accomplish the project. These skills may include such areas as systems analysis, networking, programming, graphic arts, and training. (p. 15)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Essay Questions 1.

Describe the phenomenon known as the software crisis as documented in the CHAOS study.

2.

What are the primary objectives of each of the three approaches for improving the likelihood of project success—Sociotechnical, ProjectManagement, & Knowledge Management.

3.

Define both a project and project management. Describe the attributes of a project.

4.

Discuss the benefits to using a project management approach for developing information systems.

5.

Projects operate in an environment larger than the project itself. Discuss this statement and explain the environment in which projects operate.

6.

Explain the triple constraint relationship.

7.

The text discussed four common roles that IT projects may require, each one with different skill sets. Name and describe three of these roles and their associated skill sets.

8.

The Guide to Project Management Body of Knowledge defines nine knowledge areas for understanding project management. Name and briefly describe five of them.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 2: Initializing and Conceptualizing the IT Project True/False 1.

True 2.

True 3.

False 4.

A methodology provides a strategic-level plan for managing and controlling IT projects. a. True b. False A business case is a deliverable that documents the project’s goal, as well as several alternatives or options. a. True b. False Project Management processes include Scope, Schedule, Budget, and Quality. a. True b. False The SDLC (systems development life cycle) is a deliverable from the project charter. a. True b. False

False 5.

True 6.

The project charter is a key deliverable for the second phase of the IT project methodology. a. True b. False For the sake of efficiency and unity of purpose and direction, it is usually advisable to have the project manager take sole responsibility for developing the business case. a. True b. False

False 7.

The primary focus of “the conceptualize and initialize phase” is to determine the overall goal of the project. a. True 1

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

True 8.

b. False The MOV should be adjusted at each phase of a project to align with the realities of project execution. a. True b. False

False 9.

Feasibility focuses on what can go wrong and what must go right. a. True b. False

False 10. Feasibility focuses on whether a particular alternative is doable and worth doing. a. True b. False True 11. The MOV should explicitly state the technology that will support the IT project. a. True b. False False 12. The total cost of ownership (TCO) includes only the direct or up-front costs and ongoing expenditures. a. True b. False False 13. The total benefits of ownership (TBO) should address the benefits of an alternative over its useful life. a. True b. False True 14. A significant deficiency of the payback method of analyzing alternatives is the failure to account for the time value of money. a. True b. False True 15. All cash flows over the useful life of a project alternative must be included in the payback method of analysis.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

False

a. True b. False

16. The net present value method of project valuation takes into account all relevant cash flows as well as the company’s required rate of return. a. True b. False True 17. In general, riskier project alternatives will have a lower breakeven point than less risky project alternatives. a. True b. False False 18. Scoring models are useful because they allow for the inclusion of qualitative factors. a. True b. False True 19. A scoring model can combine both qualitative items based reflected in the weights and scores that are based on people’s judgments. a. True b. False True 20. The Balance Scorecard approach employs four perspectives for analyzing project benefits: Financial Perspective, Customer Perspective, Competitor Perspective, and Internal Processes Perspective. a. True b. False False

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

An Information Technology Project Methodology ( ITPM ) a) is an alternative metric for deciding between competing projects. b) is a six-phase program described by PMBOK® and offered as a generally accepted industry practice. c) is specified by parameters of the business case. d) is a set of deliverables derived from the various PLC phases. e) is a strategic-level plan for managing and controlling IT projects.

Answer: E (p. 35) 2.

Scope and schedule are examples of: a) Project Management processes. b) Project Management tools. c) PMBOK® areas of knowledge d) Project Management objectives e) Project Management infrastructure.

Answer: D (p. 36) 3.

Planning, executing, and controlling are examples of: a) Project Management process groups. b) Project Management tools. c) PMBOK® areas of knowledge d) Project Management objectives e) Project Management infrastructure.

Answer: A (p. 36) 4.

The first stage of the IT project methodology focuses on: a) choosing the project team members. b) defining the overall goal of the project. c) conceptualizing alternative approaches to project development. d) identifying the project's scope. e) identifying project managers and sponsors.

Answer: B (p. 37)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 5.

The project charter is a key deliverable from ________ and addresses, along with other questions, ________: a) phase 1, How long will this project take b) phase 1, Who is the project sponsor? c) phase 5, What scope controls will be used? d) phase 2, How much will the project cost? e) phase 3, A detailed risk plan.

Answer: D (p. 37) 6.

The _________ gives authority to the project manager to begin carrying out the processes and tasks associated with the systems development life cycle . a) business case b) project sponsor c) initiating process d) implementation plan e) project charter

Answer: E (p. 37) 7.

_____ provides all the tactical details concerning who will carry out the work and when it will be accomplished. a) Business case b) Strategic plan c) Initiating process d) Project plan e) project charter

Answer: D (p. 37) 8.

The IT project management foundation includes all of the following except: a) PM processes b) PM objectives c) PM methodologies d) PM tools e) PMBOK® knowledge areas

Answer: C (p. 40)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 9.

Which of the following statements about the business case is NOT true: a) A business case provides an analysis of feasibility b) A business case provides senior management with sufficient information to fund a project. c) A business case provides details of possible impacts, costs and benefits. d) A business case provides a project budget. e) A business case may be a large, formal document.

Answer: D (p. 37) 10.

The business case is the key deliverable for: a) phase 1. b) phase 2. c) phase 3. d) phase 4. e) phase 5.

Answer: A (p. 37) 11.

Which of the following was NOT given as a reason for recruiting a core team to develop the business case? a) enhanced credibility b) alignment with organizational goals c) access to real costs d) early identification of project team. e) shared sense of ownership

Answer: D (p. 37) 12.

_____ focuses on carrying out the project plan to deliver the IT product and managing the project to achieve the goal. a) Conceptualize and initialize the project (Phase 1) b) Develop the project charter and plan (Phase 2) c) Execute and control (Phase 3) d) Close project (Phase 4) e) Evaluate project success (Phase 5)

Answer: C (p. 38)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 13.

Verification of all project deliverables occurs during ___. a) Conceptualize and initialize the project (Phase 1) b) Develop the project charter and plan (Phase 2) c) Execute and control (Phase 3) d) Close project (Phase 4) e) Evaluate project success (Phase 5)

Answer: D (p. 38) 14.

The overall goal and measure of project success is: a) the project's MOV. b) the project's NPV. c) the project's technical competency. d) the project's adherence to budget and schedule. e) the project's end-user acceptance.

Answer: A 15.

The _____ infrastructure supports and manages the project within the organization. a) organizational b) project c) technical d) process e) control

Answer: A (p. 41) 16.

The _____ infrastructure supports the project in terms of the environment and team itself. a) organizational b) project c) technical d) process e) control

Answer: B (p. 41)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 17.

The _____ infrastructure provides the hardware and software tools to support the project team. a) organizational b) project c) technical d) process e) control

Answer: C (p. 41) 18.

All of the following are steps in developing the project MOV except: a) Identify the available organizational resources. b) Identify the desired value of the IT project. c) Develop an appropriate metric. d) Set a time frame for achieving MOV. e) Verify and get agreement from project stakeholders.

Answer: A (p.44) 19.

Which of the following statements is the best indicator that the new software project was successful. a) The project's product, a software system, was enthusiastically accepted by 100% of the end users who were able to begin using it after completing only a one-day training session. b) The project's product, a software system, was a week late and 2% over budget, but six months later was found to have met the company's goal of reducing service callbacks by 15%. c) The project's product, a software system, was completed two weeks ahead of time freeing up the entire development team to begin work on other projects. d) The project's product, a software system, was completed right on schedule and was delivered $10,000 under the $100,000 budget allocation. e) The project's product, a software system, was completed on time and on budget and was tested and shown to be 100% bug-free.

Answer: B (p.45) 20.

Which of the following is the best MOV statement?

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Our project should make Dayton customers flock to the stores in droves to buy our products. b) Our project should be completed in no more than 180 days and should cost no more than $150,000 and be completed 100% in-house. c) Our project should increase sales in the Dayton market by 15% next year to complete our company's Ohio expansion strategy. d) Our project should utilize the Spiral Development approach to eliminate 95% of the major risks to our Dayton sales program. e) Our project should produce an advertising campaign in Dayton that wins the Ohio Advertising Guild's Award for most creative campaign.

Answer: C (p. 45) 21.

A project that increased market share would impact the _____area of an organization. a) strategic b) customer c) financial d) operational e) social

Answer: A (p. 47) 22.

A project that provided customers better products and services would impact the _____area of an organization. a) strategic b) customer c) financial d) operational e) social

Answer: B (p. 47) 23.

A project that increased profits would impact the _____area of an organization. a) strategic b) customer c) financial d) operational e) social 9

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: C (p. 47) 24.

A project that improved operational effectiveness would impact the _____area of an organization. a) strategic b) customer c) financial d) operational e) social

Answer: D (p. 47) 25.

A project that provided cleaner air would impact the _____area of an organization. a) strategic b) customer c) financial d) operational e) social

Answer: E (p. 47) 26.

A company utilizes the payback method exclusively to select projects. Which of the following mutually exclusive (they can only do one of them) projects will they choose? (Assume cash flows occur in equal monthly installments) a) Initial Investment: $10,000 Net Cash Flows: year 1:$0 year 2:$120,000 year 3:$60,000 each year thereafter:$60,000 b) Initial Investment:$100,000 Net Cash Flows: year 1:$50,000 year 2:$50,000 year 3:$100,000 each year thereafter:$1,000,000 c) Initial Investment:$10,000 Net Cash Flows: year 1:0 year 2:$100,000 year 3:$100,000 each year thereafter:$100,000 d) Initial Investment:$100,000 Net Cash Flows: year 1:$1,000,000 year 2:$2,000,000 year 3:$2,000,000 each year thereafter:0 e) Initial Investment:$10,000 Net Cash Flows: year 1:$8,000 year 2:$12,000 year 3:$120,000 each year thereafter:$120,000

Answer: A (p. 54)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 27.

Evaluating the feasibility of an alternative in terms of the funds and resources available to support a project for the organization is a measure of _____. a) organizational feasibility b) technical feasibility c) economic feasibility d) legal feasibility e) ethical feasibility

Answer: C (p. 51) 28.

Determining whether employees will be able to adapt to the planned change is _____. a) organizational feasibility b) technical feasibility c) economic feasibility d) legal feasibility e) ethical feasibility

Answer: A (p. 51) 29.

Determining whether the proposed solution will work within the software architecture is a measure of _____. a) organizational feasibility b) technical feasibility c) economic feasibility d) legal feasibility e) ethical feasibility

Answer: B (p. 51) 30.

Evaluating the feasibility of an alternative in terms of the funds and resources available to support a project for the organization is a measure of _____. a) organizational feasibility b) technical feasibility 11

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) economic feasibility d) legal feasibility e) ethical feasibility Answer: C (p. 51) 31.

How many widgets would a company have to sell if their initial investment was $60,000 and widgets sold for $25? Materials to produce 100 widgets cost $1000. Direct labor costs $2.50 per widget. Total indirect costs & overhead is 10% of the selling price. a) 4,800 b) 6,000 c) 8,000 d) 8,142 e) Not enough information to calculate.

Answer: B (p.54) 32.

Calculate the ROI for a project with total expected costs of $40,000 and total expected benefits of 35,000. a) -12.5% b) 12.5% c) 1.875% d) 187.5% e) -18.75%

Answer: A (p. 55) 33.

Calculate the Net Present Value for a project with the following cash flows: Year 0: ($5,000) Year 1: $10,000 Year 2: $10,000 Year3: ($2,000). The discount rate is 5%. a) $19,209.75 b) $14,209.75 c) $18,840.25 d) $23,840.25 e) $12,350.00

Answer: B (p. 55)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 34.

Trying to decide between three alternatives, a company employed a scoring model. Three criteria were chosen. Criteria A was believed to be the most important and so was given a weight of 50%. The other two were deemed to be equal to each other in importance. A relative scoring range of 0 to 10 was used. The table below shows each alternative and their scores. Which alternative should the company choose?

Criteria Alternative A Alternative B Alternative C A 5 6 7 B 8 7 7 C 8 8 5 a) Choose alternative A b) Choose alternative B c) Choose alternative C d) Choose either alternative A or B e) Choose either alternative A or C

Answer: B (p. 57) 35.

Which of the following is NOT a perspective from the Balanced Scorecard Approach?: a) Financial Perspective b) Internal Processes Perspective c) Innovation & Learning Perspective d) Customer Perspective e) Organizational Value Perspective

Answer: E (p. 60) 36.

The text cites all of the following as reasons supporting the selection of an IT project except: a) The project is doable and worth doing b) The project maps directly to the organization's strategies and goals c) The project provides measurable organizational value. d) The project represents a cutting edge technology that fits the team skill set. e) The project ranks favorably based on the companies adaptation of the Balanced Scorecard Approach.

Answer: D (p. 60)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer Questions 1. What are the advantages of having and following a project methodology?

• Methodologies provide the project team with a game plan for implementing the project and product life cycles so that the team can focus on the tasks at hand, instead of always worrying about what they are supposed to do next.

• A methodology provides a common language that allows the project team, project sponsor, and others within the organization to communicate more effectively.

• A standardized methodology allows management to compare different projects more objectively which in turn will allow management to make better-informed and more objective decisions with respect to which projects get selected and whether funding should continue to support a particular project.

2. Describe the five phases of the IT project methodology.

• Phase 1: Conceptualize and Initialize: This phase focuses on defining the overall goal of the project. Alternatives that would allow the organization to meet its goal are then identified. Next, the costs and benefits, as well as feasibility and risk, of each alternative are analyzed. Based upon these analyses, a specific alternative is recommended for funding. Finally, the project’s goal and the analysis of alternatives that support the goal are summarized in a deliverable called the business case.

• Phase 2: Develop the Project Charter and Detailed Project Plan: The project charter is a key deliverable for the second phase. The project charter clarifies the project’s goal and defines the project’s objectives in terms of scope, schedule, budget, and quality standards. In addition, the project charter identifies and gives authority to a project manager to begin carrying out the processes and tasks associated with SDLC. The project plan provides all the tactical details concerning who will carry out the project work and when. Additionally, the project’s scope, schedule, budget, and quality objectives are defined in detail.

• Phase 3: Execute and Control the Project: focuses on execution and control— carrying out the project plan in order to deliver the IT product and managing the project’s processes in order to achieve the project’s goal. During this phase the project team uses a particular approach and set of systems analysis and design tools for implementing the systems development life cycle (SDLC). In addition, the project manager must ensure that the environment and infrastructure support the project.

• Phase 4: Close Project: After the information system has been developed, tested, and installed, a formal acceptance should transfer control from the project team to the client or project sponsor. The project team should prepare a final project report and presentation to document and verify that all the project deliverables have been completed as defined in the project’s scope.

• Phase 5: Evaluate Project Success: this phase focuses on evaluating four areas: o First, a “postmortem,” or final project review, should be conducted by the project manager and team. o Second, an evaluation between the project manager and the individual

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka project team members is conducted. o Third, an outside third party should review the project, the project manager, and project team. o Fourth, the project must be evaluated in order to determine whether the project provided value to the organization.

3. What is a project charter?

The project charter is a key deliverable for the second phase of the IT project methodology. It defines how the project will be organized and how the project alternative that was recommended and approved for funding will be implemented. The project charter provides another opportunity to clarify the project’s goal and defines the project’s objectives in terms of scope, schedule, budget, and quality standards. In addition, the project charter identifies and gives authority to a project manager to begin carrying out the processes and tasks associated with the systems development life cycle (SDLC).

4. Describe the five project management processes.

• Initiating processes—to start or initiate a project or phase once commitment is obtained.

• Planning processes—to develop and maintain a workable plan to support the project’s overall goal.

• Executing processes—to coordinate people and other resources to execute the plan.

• Controlling processes—to ensure proper control and reporting mechanisms are in place so that progress can be monitored, problems identified, and appropriate actions taken when necessary.

• Closing processes—to provide closure in terms of a formal acceptance that the project or a project’s phase has been completed satisfactorily.

5. What is a project infrastructure?

The project infrastructure supports the project team in terms of the project environment and the project team itself. It includes: o The project environment—The physical workspace for the team to meet and work. o Roles and responsibilities of the team members —This determines the reporting relationships, as well as the responsibilities and authorities of the individual team members. o Processes and controls—Processes and controls provide support for managing all aspects of the project. They ensure that the project’s goal and objectives are being met.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 6. Discuss how the project management knowledge areas support the IT project methodology.

The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®) encompasses nine areas generally accepted as having merit for effectively managing projects. These nine areas support both the project processes and product by providing a foundation of knowledge for supporting projects within a particular organization. As an organization gains more experience with projects over time, the lessons learned from every project contribute to each of these nine areas. Ideally, these lessons will lead to an IT project management knowledge base that can be used to identify best practices that adapt the IT project methodology to an organization’s needs, culture, and IT project environment. This base of knowledge can then be institutionalized throughout the organization and its projects.

7. What is a business case?

A business case is the first deliverable in the IT project life cycle. It provides an analysis of the organizational value, feasibility, costs, benefits, and risks of several proposed alternatives or options.

8. Describe how a project’s MOV can support an organization’s goals and strategies.

As shown by the IT Value Chain, an organizational goal leads to or defines certain organizational strategies. A project’s MOV should be designed to align with and support those strategies. At the project’s end, the project’s results can be compared to the initial MOV. With a successful project, one should see successful execution of organizational strategies and a measurable realization of some organizational goal.

9. What is Total Cost of Ownership?

(TCO) is a concept that has gained widespread attention in recent years and generally refers to the total cost of acquiring, developing, maintaining, and supporting the application system over its useful life. TCO includes such costs as: • Direct or up-front costs—Initial purchase price of all hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment, all development or installation costs, outside consultant fees, etc.

• Ongoing costs—Salaries, training, upgrades, supplies, maintenance, etc.

• Indirect costs—Initial loss of productivity, time lost by users when the system is down, the cost of auditing equipment (i.e., finding out who has what and where), quality assurance, and post implementation reviews.

10. Describe the criteria that should be used to make a project selection decision.

The decision to approve an IT project requires a number of conditions be met: • The IT project must map directly to the organization’s strategies and goals.

• The IT project must provide measurable organizational value that can be verified at the completion of the project.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka •

The selection of an IT project should be based upon diversity of measures that include: o Tangible costs and benefits o Intangible costs and benefits o Various levels throughout the organization (e.g., individual, process, department, and enterprise)

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Define an IT project methodology and describe its phases.

2. What is the purpose of a project charter?

3. Define, compare, and contrast project management processes and projectoriented processes.

4. Describe at least four reasons that the text gives for undertaking an IT project.

5. What is the purpose of a Business Case and what are the characteristics of a good Business Case?

6. What is Measurable Organizational Value (MOV) and what are the four major characteristics of a good MOV? 7. The text discusses numerous aspects of feasibility; name and define three of them.

8. There are numerous financial models for analyzing the benefits from a project. Among those models discussed in the chapter are: payback, breakeven, return on investment (ROI), net present value (NPV), and scoring models. What are the strengths and weaknesses of each approach to analyzing value?

9. Described the Balanced Scorecard Approach and list at least three significant reasons why it can fail as an analysis tool.

10. What are the three infrastructures that are needed to support the IT project?

Describe the components of each of the infrastructures.

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Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 3: The Project Infrastructure True/False 1.

The project charter and project plan make up the project’s strategic plan. a. True b. False

False 2.

The project management processes are: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Evaluating, and Closing. a. True b. False

False 3.

Contract closure ensures that all of the deliverables and agreed upon terms of the project have been completed and delivered. a. True b. False

True 4.

PMBOK® views project integration management as one of the most important because it coordinates the other eight knowledge areas. a. True b. False

True 5.

Any proposed changes to the project that the user wants should be approved and included. a. True b. False

False 6.

Development of the project charter is the responsibility of the project sponsor. a. True b. False

False 7.

True

The project charter serves as an agreement between the project sponsor and the project team. a. True b. False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

8.

Identifying the project stakeholders is an important component of the project charter. a. True b. False

True 9.

A project’s scope is primarily a list of resources available to the project team. a. True b. False

False 10. The project scope must be defined before the project MOV can be developed. a. True b. False False 11. Breaking a project down into phases increases the complexity and project risk. a. True b. False False 12. The existence of parallel tasks will likely lengthen the project schedule. a. True b. False False 13. A kick-off meeting is often held to develop the project plan. a. True b. False False 14. Once the project plan is complete, it should be reviewed by the project manager, project sponsor, and project team to make sure it is able to achieve the project’s MOV. a. True b. False True 15. The kick-off meeting brings closure to the planning phase of the project. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

16. Project integration concerns making choices about where resources and effort should be concentrated, as well as anticipating and dealing with issues that often involves making tradeoffs between objectives and alternatives. a. True b. False True 17. In general, the project plan and project charter should be developed together. a. True b. False True 18. Constraints can be thought of as things that must go right in order for the project to be completed as planned. a. True b. False False 19. Assumptions can be thought of as things that must go right in order for the project to be completed as planned. a. True b. False True 20. Constraints are factors that can limit the project and usually can have an impact on scope, schedule, budget, or quality. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

The project's charter and project plan represents: a) A review of the business case. b) A strategic plan. c) A tactical plan. d) A budgeting technique. e) none of the above

Answer: C (p. 77) 2.

The project charter and project plan concentrate on which of the following PMBOK® areas?: a) Project Scope Management b) Project Time Management c) Project Communication Management d) Project Schedule Management e) Project Integration Management

Answer: E 3.

_____ help initiate, plan, execute, monitor and control, and close a project. a) Implementation processes b) Project Management tools c) Project Management process groups d) Product-oriented processes e) Project management processes

Answer: E (p. 79) 4.

The project management process groups are: a) Documenting, Defining, Summarizing, Selecting b) Planning, Analyzing, Executing, Testing, Maintaining c) Initiating, Planning, Defining, Verifying, Closing d) Opening, Estimating, Choosing, Executing, and Closing e) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling, and Closing

Answer: E (p. 79)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 5.

All of the following are true concerning change controls except: a) Change controls must: document stakeholders authorized to submit changes. b) Change controls must: ensure that a process is in place to evaluate the value of a proposed change. c) Change controls must: help the project manager manage change so that it does not disrupt the team. d) Change controls must: include emergency procedures e) Change controls must: determine whether an accepted change has been implemented

Answer: A 6.

Initiating processes: a) Signal the beginning of the project or phase. b) Requires an organization to make a commitment of time and resources. c) Are part of the project management processes and ITPM phases. d) all of the above e) none of the above

Answer: A (p. 79) 7.

Planning processes: a) Signal the beginning of the project or phase. b) Requires an organization to make a commitment of time and resources. c) Are part of the project management processes and ITPM phases. d) supports planning of the entire project and each individual phase e) none of the above

Answer: D (p. 79) 8.

Executing processes: a) Signal the beginning of the project or phase. b) Requires an organization to make a commitment of time and resources. c) focus on integrating people and resources to carry out the planned activities. d) supports planning of the entire project and each individual phase e) none of the above

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: C (p. 81) 9.

Monitoring and controlling processes: a) Signal the beginning of the project or phase. b) Requires an organization to make a commitment of time and resources. c) focus on integrating people and resources to carry out the planned activities. d) supports planning of the entire project and each individual phase e) allows for managing and measuring progress toward the project’s MOV and scope, schedule, budget, and quality objectives.

Answer: E (p. 81) 10.

Closing processes: a) Signal the beginning of the project or phase. b) formally accepts the project’s product, service, or end result so the project or phase can be brought to an orderly close. c) focus on integrating people and resources to carry out the planned activities. d) supports planning of the entire project and each individual phase e) allows for managing and measuring progress toward the project’s MOV and scope, schedule, budget, and quality objectives.

Answer: B (p. 81) 11.

Product-oriented processes will define all of the sub-phases and deliverables associated with the_____ project management life cycle phase. a) conceptualize and initialize the project b) develop the project charter and plan c) execute and control d) close project e) evaluate project success

Answer: C 12.

All of the following are iterative systems development methods except: a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall c) Prototyping

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming Answer: B 13.

The _____ model stresses a sequential and logical flow of software development activities. a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall c) Prototyping d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming

Answer: B 14.

The _____ model is commonly used for large government systems and by companies that develop shrink-wrap or commercial software packages. a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall c) Prototyping d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming

Answer: B 15.

The _____ model attempts to compress the analysis, design, build, and test activities of the SDLC into a series of short iterations or development cycles. a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall c) Prototyping d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming

Answer: A 16.

The _____ model is where the user and developer work closely together to develop a partially or fully functional system as soon as possible. a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) Prototyping d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming Answer: C 17.

The _____ model breaks up a software project into a number of miniprojects that address one or more major risks until all the risks have been addressed. a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall c) Prototyping d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming

Answer: D 18.

With _____, the system is transferred to the users in a series of versions called releases. a) Rapid Application Development (RAD) b) Waterfall c) Prototyping d) Spiral e) eXtreme Programming

Answer: E 19.

Things that must go right in order for the project plan to be completed are called: a) Phases b) Constraints c) Assumptions d) Metrics e) Essentials

Answer: C (p. 87) 20.

The documenting and archiving of all project documents and evaluating the project in terms of MOV is the definition of:

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Contract closure b) Administrative closure c) End phase evaluation d) Project history e) Final phase management Answer: B (p. 67) 21.

The project charter a) and the project plan should be developed together. b) and the project plan are the same document. c) and the project plan are developed in the scope document. d) is summarized in the project plan. e) is developed by the project sponsor.

Answer: A 22.

The _____serves as the agreement and contract between the project sponsor and the project team including such items as the project MOV, infrasturcture, and project plan details. a) Project chart b) Statement of work c) Project plan d) Project management processes e) Product-oriented processes

Answer: A (p. 83) 23.

Within the Project Charter, _____defines the work to be completed. a) Project description b) Statement of Work c) MOV d) Project Scope e) Project Administration

Answer: D (p. 84)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 24.

Within the Project Charter, _____ focuses on the knowledge areas, processes, and controls that will support the project and are separate subplans or strategies. a) Project description b) Statement of Work c) MOV d) Project Scope e) Project Administration

Answer: D (p. 88) 25.

A communication plan, a quality management plan, and change management plan are all associated with which part of the project charter? a) Project Resources b) Project Scope c) Project Description d) Project References e) Project Administration

Answer: E (p. 88) 26.

The _____ outlines how the project's status or progress will be reported to stakeholders. a) Communications Plan b) Scope Management Plan c) Quality Management Plan d) Change Management Plan e) Human Resources Plan

Answer: A (p. 88) 27.

The _____ describes how changes to the project's scope will be submitted, logged, and reviewed. a) Communications Plan b) Scope Management Plan c) Quality Management Plan d) Change Management Plan e) Human Resources Plan

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: B (p. 88) 28.

The _____ details how quality planning, assurance, and control will be supported throughout the project life cycle. a) Communications Plan b) Scope Management Plan c) Quality Management Plan d) Change Management Plan e) Human Resources Plan

Answer: C (p. 88) 29.

The _____ will specify how the project's product will be integrated into the organizational environment. a) Communications Plan b) Scope Management Plan c) Quality Management Plan d) Change Management Plan e) Human Resources Plan

Answer: D (p. 88) 30.

The _____ will identify the process for staff acquisition and team development. a) Communications Plan b) Scope Management Plan c) Quality Management Plan d) Change Management Plan e) Human Resources Plan

Answer: E (p. 88) 31.

The significant event at the conclusion of each phase is called _____. a) sequence b) tasks c) action item d) milestone e) deliverable

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: D (p. 91) 32.

The business case, project plan, source code, or product are all examples of _____. a) deliverables b) milestones c) tasks d) project phases e) none of the above

Answer: A (p. 91) 33.

Which of the following statements are true?: a) Milestones are logical units of work. b) Baseline plans are approved project plans. c) All tasks are linear, i.e. have to be completed in a particular sequence. d) The kick-off meeting typically begins the planning phase of a project. e) MOV are readily changed through change control processes.

Answer: B

34.

Many organizations have a kick-off meeting because a) It brings closure to the planning phase of the project b) It signals the initiation of the next phase of the IT project methodology c) It communicates to everyone what the project is about d) It can energize the stakeholders and get everyone excited about working on the project e) All of the above

Answer: E

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer 1. What are project management processes? Give one example.

Project management processes are an integral component of project management and are concerned with defining and coordinating the activities and controls needed to manage the project. They support all of the activities necessary to create and implement the product of the project. Examples include: • • • • •

Initiating Planning Executing Controlling Closing

2. What are product-oriented processes? Give one example.

Product-oriented processes are those which focus on the tangible results of the project.

They require specific domain knowledge, tools, and techniques in order to complete the work. An example would be the creation of a software application package.

3. Describe project integration management and its relationship to the other eight Project Management Body of Knowledge areas.

Project integration management is one of the most important Project Management Body of Knowledge areas. It coordinates and integrates the other knowledge areas and all of the project processes. Project integration management is concerned with three areas: (1) project plan development so that a useable, flexible, and consistent project plan is developed, (2) project plan execution so that the project plan is carried out in order achieve the project’s MOV, and (3) overall change control to help manage change so that change does not disrupt the focus of the project team.

4. Describe overall change control and its importance to the project team.

Status review meetings provide a catalyst or at least an opportunity for change. Whether changes increase or decrease the project’s value to the organization, the project must have controls in place to manage change. Overall change controls must: (1) ensure that a process is in place to evaluate the value of a proposed change, (2) determine whether an accepted change has been implemented (3) include procedures for handling emergencies—that is, automatic approval for defined situations (4) help the project manager manage change so that change does not disrupt the focus or work of the project team.

If an organization does not have an overall change control process in place, the project manager should develop one as part of the project charter.

5. What is the purpose of a project charter? How does it serve as an agreement or a contract?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka The project charter and baseline project plan provide a tactical plan for carrying out or executing the IT project. It serves as an agreement or contract between the project sponsor and project team—documenting the project’s MOV, defining its infrastructure, summarizing the project plan details, defining roles and responsibilities, showing project commitments, and explaining project control mechanisms.

It is the responsibility of the project manager to ensure that the project charter and plan are developed, agreed upon, and approved. Like the business case, the project charter and plan should be developed with both the project team and the project sponsor to ensure that the project will support the organization and that the goal and objective of the project are realistic and achievable. Furthermore, in order to proceed certain elements must be nailed down. The MOV for instance must be agreed upon and then cast in stone.

Team members’ roles and responsibilities must be clarified. If foundational elements are allowed to change on a whim, progress toward the project’s goal is severely jeopardized.

6. Why should the project charter and project plan be developed together?

The project charter and plan should be developed with both the project team and the project sponsor to ensure that the project will support the organization and that the goal and objective of the project are realistic and achievable.

7. Describe the project planning framework.

The project planning framework is part of the IT project methodology and provides the steps and processes necessary to develop the detailed project plan that will support the project’s MOV. The steps in the project planning framework are: • finalize the definition of the project MOV • define the project scope • organize the work of the project into logical stages or phases • identify the tasks that comprise the phases taking into account sequence, resources, and time • the result of the above steps yields the Baseline Plan which details the schedule and budget 8. What is a project's scope?

The Project Management Body of Knowledge defines scope as the product or services to be provided by the project and includes all of the project deliverables. One can think of scope as the work that needs to be completed in order to achieve the project’s MOV. 9. What is a deliverable? What is the relationship between phases and deliverables?

A deliverable is a tangible and verifiable piece of work. Each phase should focus on providing at least one specific deliverable.

10. What is a kick-off meeting? What purpose does it serve?

Once the project charter and project plan are approved, many organizations have a kickoff meeting to officially start work on the project. The kick-off meeting is useful for several reasons. First, it brings closure to the planning phase of the project and signals the

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka initiation of the next phase of the IT project methodology. Second, it is a way of communicating to everyone what the project is all about.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Using an example of each, describe and differentiate between project process and product processes.

2 List the five Project Management Process Groups and describe how they support the phases of the project life cycle.

3. What are constraints and assumptions and what role do they play in project integration management?

4.

What are the goals and purposes of a project charter?

5. How should proposed changes in the project be handled and what are the relevant criteria for change decisions?

6.

What is Project Scope and how should it be managed?

7.

What are the potential benefits of a kickoff meeting?

8. Is the detailed identification of project stakeholders a relevant consideration of the project charter? If so, why; if not, why not?

9. What is the focus of project administration and what plans would be included in this segment of the project planning framework?

10. What are phases and milestones and what do they contribute to the project’s organization?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 4: The Human Side of Project Management True/False 1. The performance of an organization or a project is influenced largely by how well its resources are organized. a. True b. False True 2. A single organizational structure is best for all organizations regardless of strategy. a. True b. False False 3. The Project Organization is based upon organizing resources to perform specialized tasks or activities in order to attain the goals of the organization. a. True b. False False 4. The Functional Organization is based upon organizing resources to perform specialized tasks or activities in order to attain the goals of the organization. a. True b. False True 5. Breadth, depth of knowledge, and experience are advantages for projects sponsored by organizations with functional structures. a. True b. False True 6. The Project Organizational structure supports clear authority and responsibility, improved communication, and high levels of integration. a. True b. False True 7. Disadvantages of the Project Organizational structure include project isolation, duplication of effort, and projectitis. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

8. Projectitis sometimes occurs when the project manager and project team develop a strong attachment to the project and to each other. a. True b. False True 9. Unity of Command is violated when a project team member has only one direct superior. a. True b. False False 10. The main feature of the Matrix Organizational structure is the ability to integrate areas and resources throughout an organization. a. True b. False True 11. High potential for conflict and poor response time are disadvantages of the Matrix Organizational structure. a. True b. False True 12. The informal organizational structure is a published structure that defines the official lines of authority, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. True b. False False 13. Stakeholders are individuals, groups, or even organizations that have a stake or claim in the project’s outcome. a. True b. False True 14. Stakeholders have only a positive interest in the project’s outcome. a. True b. False False 15. An IT project manager’s technical knowledge is much more important that his or her ability to communicate with people. a. True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b. False False 16. Project team members should be chosen based upon their technology skills, business/organization skills, and interpersonal skills. a. True b. False True 17. Real teams are defined as having a large number of people with similar skills and experience. a. True b. False False 18. Real teams tend to have a commitment to a common purpose and performance goals. a. True b. False True 19. The four phases of a learning cycle include: Understand and frame the problem, plan, act, reflect and learn. a. True b. False True 20. The project environment includes not only the physical space where the team will work, but also the project culture as well. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

According to the PMBOK, there are four processes associated with Project Human Resources Management. The process that focuses on creating a staffing management plan that identifies and documents the reporting relationships as well as each team member’s role, responsibility, and required skills is: a) Develop Human Resources Plan b) Acquire Project Team c) Develop Project Team d) Manage Project Team e) Control Project Team

Answer: A 2.

According to the PMBOK, there are four processes associated with Project Human Resources Management. The process that confirms that specific human resources will be available to work on the project is: a) Develop Human Resources Plan b) Acquire Project Team c) Develop Project Team d) Manage Project Team e) Control Project Team

Answer: B 3.

According to the PMBOK, there are four processes associated with Project Human Resources Management. The process that focuses on the processes to improve the competencies of the project team, their interactions, and the overall team environment is: a) Develop Human Resources Plan b) Acquire Project Team c) Develop Project Team d) Manage Project Team e) Control Project Team

Answer: C 4.

According to the PMBOK, there are four processes associated with Project Human Resources Management. The process that ensures the tracking of the

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka project team’s performance, providing feedback, resolving interpersonal issues, and managing organizational change is: a) Develop Human Resources Plan b) Acquire Project Team c) Develop Project Team d) Manage Project Team e) Control Project Team Answer: D 5.

High level of integration, improved communication, increased project focus, higher potential for conflict, and poorer response time are advantages and disadvantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: B 6.

Increased flexibility, breadth and depth of knowledge and experience, and less duplication are advantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: A (p. 104) 7.

Problems determining authority and responsibility, poor response time, and poor integration are disadvantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: A (p. 105) 8.

_____ organizes resources to perform specialized tasks or activities in order to attain the goals of the organization. a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: A (p. 103) 9.

Project isolation, duplication of effort, and projectitis are disadvantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: C (p. 106) 10.

Clear authority and responsibility, improved communication, and a high level of integration are advantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: C (p. 106) 11.

_____ supports projects as the dominant form of business with each treated as a separate and independent unit within the organization. a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: C (p. 106) 12.

_____ integrates areas and resources throughout the organization. a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: B (p. 107) 13.

High level of integration, improved communication, and increased project focus are advantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: B (p. 108) 14.

Higher potential for conflict and poor response time are disadvantages of: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: B (p. 108) 15.

Which structure will tend to work well when an organization cannot dedicate scarce resources to a project? a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: B (p. 109) 16.

Unity of command violations are most often associated with: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: B (p. 107) 17.

The more traditional organizational form best describes: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: A (p. 102) 18.

The structure that reveals most clearly how individuals in an organization relate is the: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Answer: D (p. 110) 19.

The most complex organizational structure is the: a) The Functional Organization b) The Matrix Organization c) The Project-Based Organization d) The Informal Organization e) The Formal Organization

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: D 20.

Which of the following attributes is least important for sucessful project managers: a) ability to communicate with people b) ability to deal with people c) ability to create and sustain relationships d) ability to learn new technical skills e) ability to organize

Answer: D (p. 113) 21.

Radical teams are most likely to: a) Accept background information at face value b) Approach projects in a linear fashion c) Provide run-of-the-mill solutions d) Get to the root of the matter e) Focus on the schedule and budget

Answer: D (p. 117) 22.

The phases of a learning cycle include all of the following except: a) Act b) Assess risk c) Reflect and learn d) Plan e) Understand and frame problem

Answer: B (p. 119) 23.

The attributes commonly used in a stakeholder analysis include: a) Interest b) Influence c) Role d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: D

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer 1. What is the relationship between an organization’s strategy and organizational structure?

The structure of an organization must fit its strategy, and since organizations may follow different strategies, it makes sense that no single structure can work well for every organization. Therefore, there are different organizational structures and ways to efficiently and effectively manage not only the organizational resources but also the work and processes involved. As long as the firm performs well, a particular structure and strategy will exist. On the other hand, when a firm performs poorly, a change in structure and/or strategy may be required.

2. What is meant by the formal organization? Why is it important for a project manager to understand the formal organization?

By formal organization, we mean the formal groupings and specializations of activities which are generally documented in an organizational chart to clarify and portray the lines of authority, communication, reporting relationships, and responsibilities of individuals and groups within the organization.

The formal organizational structure will determine how resources are allocated, who has authority over those resources, and who is really in charge of the project.

3. Describe the functional organizational structure.

This particular structure is based upon organizing resources to perform specialized tasks or activities in order to attain the goals of the organization. Individuals and subunits (i.e., groups of individuals) perform similar functions and have similar areas of expertise.

Subsequently, projects are managed within the existing functional hierarchy. Projects in a functional organization are typically coordinated through customary channels and housed within a particular function.

4. Describe the project organizational structure.

At the other end of the spectrum from the functional organization is the project organization or the pure project organization. This organizational structure supports projects as the dominant form of business. Typically, a project organization will support multiple projects at one time and integrate project management tools and techniques throughout the organization. Each project is treated as a separate and relatively independent unit within the organization. The project manager has sole authority over and responsibility for the project and its resources, while the parent or supporting organization provides financial and administrative controls. Both the project manager and the project team are typically assigned to a particular project on a full-time basis.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 5. Describe the matrix organizational structure.

The matrix organization is a combination of the vertical functional structure and the horizontal project structure. As a result, the matrix organization provides many of the opportunities and challenges associated with the functional and project organizations.

The main feature of the matrix organization is the ability to integrate areas and resources throughout an organization. Moreover, people with specialized skills can be assigned to the project either on a part-time or on a more permanent basis.

6. Describe the balanced matrix, functional matrix, and project matrix organizational structures.

• •

•

Balanced matrix—In the balanced matrix form, the project manager focuses on defining all of the activities of the project, while the functional managers determine how those activities will be carried out.

Functional matrix—The functional matrix organization tends to take on more of the qualities of a functional organization. Here the project manager focuses on coordinating the project activities, while the functional managers are responsible for completing those activities that are related to their particular area.

Project matrix—It follows, then, that a project matrix structure would take on more of the qualities of a project organization. In this case, the project manager has most of the authority and responsibility for defining and completing the project activities, while the functional managers provide guidance and resources, as needed.

7. Describe what is meant by the informal organization. Why should the project manager or project team be concerned with understanding the informal organization?

While the formal structure tells us how individuals or groups within an organization should relate to one another, it does not tell us how they actually relate. In many cases the informal organization bypasses the formal lines of communication and authority because of the inevitable positive and negative relationships that occur over time in any organization. While communication in the formal organization is supposed to flow through published channels, it can flow in any direction and at a much faster pace through the network of informal relationships—the famous grapevine. Power in an organization, therefore, is not only determined by one’s place in the hierarchy, but also how well one is connected in the informal network. A person’s degree of connectedness in the informal organization largely determines what information is received or not received.

8. What is a stakeholder?

Stakeholders are individuals, groups, or even organizations that have a stake, or claim, in the project’s outcome.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 9. In conducting a stakeholder analysis, why is it important not only to identify those who will gain from the project’s success, but also those who may gain from its failure?

It is important to know if a stakeholder stands to gain from the project’s failure. It is even more important to know if that stakeholder either holds the key to needed resources or has to power or ability to terminate the project. If such a stakeholder exists, an appropriate stance should be taken that increases chances for project stance. This may include an appeal to senior management for project support that would insulate the project from negative interference or an attempt to reach an understanding with that stakeholder which attempts to align interest in a mutually agreeable direction.

10. Describe the roles of a project manager. What qualities are required for a good project manager?

The project manager must play a managerial role that focuses on planning, organizing, and controlling. S/he must play an administrative role and finally, the project manager must also play a strong leadership role.

Some attributes of a successful project manager include: • The ability to communicate with people • The ability to deal with people • The ability to create and sustain relationships • The ability to organize 11. What is the difference between a work group and a real team?

The work group is based on the traditional approach where a single leader is in control, makes most of the decisions, delegates to subordinates, and monitors the progress of the assigned tasks. Although the members may be interested in each other’s success, work groups do not necessarily share the same performance goals, do not necessarily provide joint work-products, and are not necessarily held mutually accountable.

Teams, in contrast, are a small number of people with complimentary skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable.

12. What is the difference between a performance-based goal and an activity-based goal? Give an example of each.

Katzenbach and Smith distinguish between activity goals (e.g., install a local area network) and performance goals (e.g., ship all orders within twenty-four hours of when they are received). The concept of a performance goal is similar to the concept of the MOV and sets the tone and aspirations of the team while providing a foundation for creating a common team purpose. The difference is like the difference between doing something (activity goal) and getting somewhere or reaching a milestone (performance

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka goal).

13. Describe the concept of a learning cycle.

Learning cycles provide a way to resolve ambiguous situations through the repeated pattern of thinking through a problem. A learning cycle has four phases: • Understand and frame the problem • Plan • Act • Reflect and learn 14. What purpose does creating a lessons learned at the end of a learning cycle provide?

The completion of a team’s lessons learned marks the ending of one learning cycle and the beginning of another. Based on the learning that has transpired, the team can focus once again on understanding and reframing the problem and then repeat the plan, act, reflect and learn phases again.

15. What is the project environment? Why must a project manager ensure that a proper project environment is in place?

The project environment includes not only the physical space where the team will work, but also the project culture as well. More specifically, the project environment includes: • A place to call home • Technology • Office supplies • Culture A project manager must ensure that a proper project environment is in place in order to ensure that: • • •

The team cohesiveness and effectiveness is enhanced by being able to either gather together in one spot or have the necessary technology to transcend geography and time The team has the necessary resources to do their job The team culture is sufficiently developed and understood so that the team comes to agreement on a set of values and expectations.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1.

How are an organization’s structure and its strategy related?

2 Briefly describe nature of the formal organization and the strengths and weaknesses that it brings to the execution of information technology projects.

3. Briefly describe nature of the project organization and the strengths and weaknesses that it brings to the execution of information technology projects.

4. Briefly describe nature of the matrix organization and the strengths and weaknesses that it brings to the execution of information technology projects.

5. What are stakeholders and how should a good project manager plan to work with them on a project?

6.

Describe the attributes of a good project manager.

7. How should a manager go about assembling a project team and what skills should drive his/her choice?

8. Compare and contrast work groups and Katzenbach & Smith’s notion of real teams.

9. Describe the phases of a learning cycle and discuss the potential impact of its use on organizations.

10. What is a project environment and how does it impact team performance?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 5: Defining and Managing Project and Product Scope True/False 1.

According to the PMBOK® area of scope management, one of the processes is scope planning which means ensuring that authority and resources are committed to developing a scope management plan. a. True b. False

False 2.

Scope definition defines the project boundary. a. True b. False

False 3.

Scope verification confirms that the scope is complete and accurate. a. True b. False

True 4.

Scope change control procedures protect the scope boundary from expanding as a result of increasing featurism. a. True b. False

True 5.

Since adding features to a project will likely have a negative impact on schedules and budgets, once the project’s scope has been defined, no new features should added. a. True b. False

False 6.

The scope statement documents the sponsor’s needs and expectations. a. True b. False

True 7.

False

The scope boundary establishes only those elements that are a part of the project work to be completed by the project team. a. True b. False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

8.

The scope boundary establishes both what is, and what is not part of the project work to be completed by the project team. a. True b. False

True 9.

Project scope is a statement detailing the features and functions that must support the IT solution. a. True b. False

False 10.

Project scope defines the work boundaries and deliverables of the project. a. True b. False

True 11.

One way to communicate the project’s deliverables is to create a deliverable definition table. a. True b. False

True 12.

The development of a deliverable structure chart is an interim step to define detailed work packages used to estimate the project schedule and budget. a. True b. False

True 13.

The development of a work breakdown structure is an interim step to define detailed work packages used to estimate the project schedule and budget. a. True b. False

False 14.

Product scope is a statement detailing the deliverables and activities that support the IT methodology. a. True b. False

False 15.

Actors are people or external systems that are elements of a data flow diagram (DFD). a. True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b. False False 16.

The use case diagram, a feature of the UML, is useful for defining the product scope. a. True b. False

True 17.

Scope grope suggests a fundamental and significant change in the project scope. a. True b. False

False 18.

Joint application development is a group-based method where end users define the system requirements or design the system. a. True b. False

False 19.

Joint application development is a group-based method where users and systems analysts jointly define the system requirements or design the system. a. True b. False

True 20.

True

Scope change control is concerned with ensuring that any changes to the project scope will be beneficial, with determining that an actual scope change has occurred, and with managing the actual changes when and as they occur. a. True b. False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

Which of the following processes of Scope Management Process centers on defining and documenting the stakeholders’ needs to properly manage expectations? a) Collect Requirements b) Define Scope c) Create Work Breakdown Structure d) Verify Scope e) Control Scope

Answer: A 2.

Which of the following processes of Scope Management Process defines what work will and will not be included in the project? a) Collect Requirements b) Define Scope c) Create Work Breakdown Structure d) Verify Scope e) Control Scope

Answer: B 3.

Which of the following processes of Scope Management Process decomposes or divides the major project deliverables into smaller and more manageable components? a) Collect Requirements b) Define Scope c) Create Work Breakdown Structure d) Verify Scope e) Control Scope

Answer: C 4.

Which of the following processes of Scope Management Process provides confirmation and formal acceptance that the project’s scope is accurate, complete, and supports the project’s goal? a) Collect Requirements b) Define Scope c) Create Work Breakdown Structure d) Verify Scope e) Control Scope

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: D 5.

Which of the following processes of Scope Management Process ensuring that controls are in place to manage proposed scope changes once the project’s scope is accepted? a) Collect Requirements b) Define Scope c) Create Work Breakdown Structure d) Verify Scope e) Control Scope

Answer: E 6.

The _____ is a narrative description of the product, service, or Information System. a) Request For Proposal b) Request For Information c) Deliverable Definition Table d) Statement of Work e) Request For Bid

Answer: D 7.

What defines what will be, and will not be, part of the project work completed by the project team? a) Request For Proposal b) Scope Boundary c) Deliverable Definition Table d) Statement of Work e) Request For Bid

Answer: B (p. 136)

8.

Which of the following items is not included in the Deliverable Definition Table ? a) Deliverable b) Resources Required c) Work Performed By d) Approval Needed By e) Structure

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: C (p. 139) 9.

All of the following are included in the Project Scope except: a) business case b) project charter c) project plan d) deliverable structure chart e) all are included

Answer: D (p. 138) 10.

_____defines all project-oriented deliverables to be provided by the project team. a) project scope statement b) project charter c) project plan d) deliverable structure chart e) deliverable definition table

Answer: E (p. 138) 11.

_____helps to define detail work packages that will be used to estimate the project schedule and budget. a) project scope statement b) project charter c) project plan d) deliverable structure chart e) deliverable definition table

Answer: D (p. 139) 12.

A Data Flow Diagram: a) is used to design the database data model. b) shows who is responsible for developing the system. c) is useful for refining the scope boundary and defining what the system must do. d) helps define the features and functionality of the system. e) shows the process used to operate the system.

Answer: C (p. 140)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 13.

The concept of actors is an integral part of: a) Data flow diagram b) Use case diagram c) Joint application development session d) Deliverable structure chart e) Deliverable definition table

Answer: B (p. 141) 14.

The _____ helps to identify the main functions or features of the system and the different users or external systems that interact with the system. a) Data flow diagram b) Use case diagram c) Joint application development session d) Deliverable structure chart e) Deliverable definition table

Answer: B (p. 141) 15.

The term scope creep is best described as: a) a project team's inability to define the project's scope b) a fundamental change in project scope c) the project slowdown caused by changes in the project MOV d) increasing featurism e) a scary mouthwash salesman

Answer: D 16.

Continuously agreeing to project changes is an example of: a) scope leap b) scope creep c) scope grope d) project scope growth e) scope washout

Answer: B

17.

Changes in the scope boundary are handled through a _____. a) Change Control b) hallway discussion

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) JAD session d) project status meeting e) e-mail Answer: A 18.

All change requests are recorded in _____. a) project workbook b) post-it notes c) access database d) project scope log e) change control log

Answer: E (p. 147)

19.

Which of the following is a product-oriented scope definition tool? a) context level data flow diagram b) deliverable structure chart c) deliverable definition table d) work breakdown structure e) none of the above

Answer: A

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer Questions 1. What is meant by project scope?

The term scope is used to define the work boundaries and deliverables of the project so what needs to get done, gets done—and only what needs to get done, gets done.

2. Briefly describe the five scope management processes.

• • • • •

Collect Requirements: Centers on defining and documenting the stakeholders’ needs to properly manage expectations Define Scope: A detailed description of project and the product. It should define what work will and will not be included in the project.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): The decomposition or dividing of the major project deliverables into smaller and more manageable components.

Verify Scope: Confirmation and formal acceptance that project’s scope is accurate, complete, and supports the project’s goal.

Control Scope: Ensuring that controls are in place to manage proposed scope changes one the project’s scope is accepted. These procedures must be communicated and understood by all project stakeholders.

3. Briefly describe the scope planning process.

Scope planning is a process for defining and documenting the project work. More specifically, a project’s scope defines all the work, activities, and deliverables that the project team must provide in order for the project to achieve its MOV. It is an important step in developing the project plan since one must know what work must be done before an estimate can be made on how long it will take and how much it will cost.

4. Briefly describe the scope verification process.

Project scope verification is the scope management process that provides a mechanism for ensuring that the project deliverables are completed according to the standards described in the DDT. Gray and Larson (2000) provide a project scope checklist for ensuring that the deliverables are completed—and completed correctly. The checklist items include: MOV, Deliverables, Quality standards, Milestones, Review and acceptance.

5. Briefly describe the scope change control process.

Scope change control is concerned with ensuring that any changes to the project scope will be beneficial, with determining that an actual scope change has occurred, and with managing the actual changes when and as they occur. Scope control is also concerned with: Scope grope, Scope creep, and Scope leap.

6. Describe the scope management plan.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Together, the processes and techniques for defining and managing scope make up the scope management plan. Depending on the size and nature of the project, this plan can be separate and/or summarized in the project charter. Regardless, Figure 5.1 summarizes the components and processes of a scope management plan. The outer ring is comprised of the scope management processes and the inner ring is comprised of the deliverables and components that support the processes and which when combined with the processes define the illustration center, the scope.

7. Why is it important to define the project’s scope accurately and completely?

The procedures for defining and managing the scope of a project must be communicated and understood by all of the project’s stakeholders to minimize the likelihood of misunderstandings. Moreover, the project’s scope must align and support the project’s MOV. Why spend time and resources to perform work that will not add any value to the organization or help the project achieve its MOV? Again, work that does not add value consumes valuable time and resources needlessly.

8. How does a project’s scope support the MOV concept?

The project’s scope defines and limits the project’s activities to only those things which support the project MOV. It makes sure that time and resources are only expended on things that contribute to the project MOV. 9. What is a scope statement? What purpose does it serve?

A scope statement documents the project sponsor’s needs and expectations. It serves to clarify what work is within the scope boundary as well as what work is outside of the scope boundary and therefore not to be included.

10. How does a use case diagram help to define the project’s scope?

The use case diagram provides a simple yet effective overview of the functions and interactions between the use cases and the actors. The box separating the use cases from the actors also provides a system boundary that defines the scope boundary. Use cases inside the boundary are considered within the scope of the project, while anything outside of the boundary is considered outside the scope of the project.

11. What is a deliverable definition table (DDT)? What purpose does it serve?

All of the project deliverables must have a clear and concise definition. One way to communicate the project’s deliverables is to create a deliverable definition table (DDT).

The purpose of the DDT is to: • define all of the project-oriented deliverables • define the structure of the deliverable.

• define the standards that provide a means to verify whether the deliverable was

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

• •

produced correctly name the person or position responsible for approving deliverables list the resources required for each deliverable

12. What is a deliverable structure chart (DSC)? How does it map to a deliverable definition table (DDT)?

Once the deliverables have been defined in the DDT, a deliverable structure chart (DSC) can be developed as an interim step to define detailed work packages that will be used to estimate the project schedule and budget. A Deliverable Structure Chart maps the project life cycle and systems development life cycle phases to the deliverables defined in the DDT. 13. What is a work breakdown structure (WBS)? How does it map to the DDT and DSC? A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a tool used to help create the project plan. The WBS uses the output of the DDT and DSC to develop the project plan needed to fulfill the requirements defined in the project scope.

14. What is the purpose of scope change control procedures?

The purpose of scope change control procedures is to ensure that any changes to the project scope will be beneficial, to determine that an actual scope change has occurred, and to manage the actual changes when and as they occur.

15. What are the benefits of having scope control procedures?

The most important benefit of scope change control procedures is that they keep the project manager in control of the project. More specifically, they allow the project manager to manage and control the project’s schedule and budget. Scope control procedures also allow the project team to stay focused and on track in terms of meeting its milestones because it does not have to perform unnecessary work.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay 1. Identify and briefly describe, the five processes that support project scope management.

2 Why is important to ensure that the project’s scope has been defined completely and accurately?

3.

What is the relationship between the project’s MOV and the project’s scope?

4.

What is increasing featurism and what are the impacts it has on a project?

5. What is the purpose of a scope statement? Give an example of a scope statement that might address the needs of an organization which is looking to establish their first Internet web site.

6. What is project-oriented scope and what are some of the commonly used tools to support it?

7.

Describe product-oriented scope and the tools that are available to support it.

8.

What is project scope verification and why is it an important part of project scope?

9. The text describes three project problems with metaphorical names that scope change control is concerned with. Name and describe these problems and then illustrate how scope change control can ameliorate or remedy the problem.

10. In developing a scope change control form, what elements should be included and why?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 6: The Work Breakdown Structure and Project Estimation True/False 1. A work breakdown structure (WBS) represents a logical decomposition of the work to be performed and how the product, service, or result is naturally subdivided. a. True b. False True 2. The work breakdown structure (WBS) decomposes, or subdivides, the project into smaller components and more manageable units of work called work packages. a. True b. False True 3. A tangible and verifiable piece of work is called a milestone. a. True b. False False 4. Each phase of the project should provide at least one specific deliverable. a. True b. False True 5. The 100 percent rule is the most important criterion in the developing and evaluating the WBS. The rule states: “The (parent) element must represent 100 percent of the work applicable to next level decomposition of a WBS element (child level).” a. True b. False False 6. In much the same fashion as the claim “you can never be too rich”, when developing a WBS, one can never have too much detail in planning activities. a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

7. One way to ensure that the WBS has the appropriate level of detail is to ensure that the people who do the work are involved in its development. a. True b. False True 8. The most common error in guesstimating is to be pessimistic and to overestimate the time and resources necessary to complete a project. a. True b. False False 9. The Delphi technique is a quick and economical way to estimate the duration and costs of project activities. a. True b. False False 10. Time boxing involves allocating a time segment for a task rather than attempting to estimate how long that task should take. a. True b. False True 11. According to the text, most real-world estimating is made using top-down estimating. a. True b. False False 12. Basing an estimate of activity durations on experience gained from working on similar projects is called analogous estimation. a. True b. False True 13. Software engineering refers to a broad range of measurements for objectively evaluating computer software. a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 14. The three major factors in estimating an IT application are: size, complexity, and constraints & influencers. a. True b. False True 15. Counting lines of code (LOC) is a good way to encourage efficient programming. a. True b. False False 16. Because function points are independent of technology, they provide a way to compare projects that may use different platforms or languages. a. True b. False True 17. COCOMO is an example of a non-parametric model because it is characterized by a usually unlimited set of named parameters. a. True b. False False 18. The use of heuristics is based following immutable principles of project development and lead to highly accurate forecasts. a. True b. False False 19. Research suggests that projects that use a formal estimating tool have a better chance of delivering a system that is on time and within budget. a. True b. False True 20. If the estimates from different estimating techniques are fairly close, then you can average them with a fairly high degree of confidence. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1. The PMBOK® area called project time management includes all of the following except: a) Define Activities b) Assign Activities c) Estimate Activity Durations d) Develop Schedule e) Control Schedule Answer: B (p. 153) 2. Which of the following statements about the work breakdown structure (WBS) is not true? a) The WBS provides a hierarchical structure that outlines the activities or work that needs to be done in order to complete the project scope. b) The WBS should support the project's MOV c) The WBS should be developed by the project manager. d) The WBS provides a framework for developing a tactical plan to structure the project work. e) The WBS provides a bridge or link between the project’s scope and the detailed project plan Answer: C (p. 154) 3. Project success will be determined in large part by _____ a) familiarity with project management software. b) producing nice looking reports for management. c) thinking carefully through activities and estimating their durations. d) determining exact estimates of activity durations. e) the skill sets of the project team.

Answer: C (p. 154) 4. Confidence in project estimates will be highest _____ a) before the project begins. b) early in the project. c) once the team members are assigned. d) later in the project.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) when the business case is complete.

Answer: D (p. 154) 5. The Work Breakdown Structure is subdivided into smaller components called: a) work packages b) milestones c) deliverables d) tasks e) activities Answer: A (p. 155) 6. A significant event or achievement that provides evidence that a deliverable is complete is called a _____ a) work package b) phase c) milestone d) checkpoint e) phase gate Answer: C (p. 155) 7. To be effective, each project phase should provide at least ___ deliverable(s). a) one b) two c) three d) as many as needed e) a project phase does not need to produce a deliverable Answer: A (p. 155) 8. In the WBS context, a crux is best described by which of the following: a) a risk metric b) a phase gate c) evidence of a phase completion d) a deliverable e) a proof of concept

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Answer: E (p. 156) 9. The 100 percent rule relates to___ a) the next level decomposition of a WBS element must represent 100 percent of the work applicable to the parent element. b) clearly defining 100 percent of deliverables before beginning the project. c) ensuring that project requirements remain fully static over the course of the project. d) everyone’s project performance will impact the project. e) resource requirements needed to complete the project.

Answer: A (p. 159) 10. Too much detail in the WBS can lead to _____ a) clearly specified objectives. b) guaranteed project delivery. c) time constraints. d) micromanagement. e) there can never be too much detail.

Answer: D (p. 159) 11. An estimation technique characterized by schedule and cost estimates of how long something should take or should cost. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: D (p. 161) 12. This estimation technique may be driven by an upper management mandate. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: D (p. 161) 13. _____ can be a very effective estimating technique by forcing examination of project risks so that specific budget or schedule targets can be achieved. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: D (p. 161) 14. An estimation technique characterized by the dividing the project into smaller modules and then directly estimating the time and effort in terms of personhours, person-weeks, or person-months for each module best describes a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: E (p. 162) 15. With _____, activity estimates are usually provided by the team members. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: E (p. 162) 16. _____ is the most common, real-world method of estimating projects. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: E (p. 162) 17. An estimation technique characterized by picking numbers out of the air or "ballparking". a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: A (p. 160) 18. An estimation technique characterized by the allocation of a timeframe for a specified activity. e.g. a team has two weeks to complete a task and at the end of two weeks work on that task ceases. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: C (p. 161) 19. _____ may result in long hours and frustration for the project team, which may lead to burnout. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: C (p. 161) 20. An estimation technique characterized by the recruitment of multiple experts who provide rounds of estimates until a consensus estimate emerges.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: B (p. 160) 21. _____ can be very effective and provide reasonable assurance when the stakes are high and and the margin of error is low. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: B (p. 160) 22. The _____ estimation method usually costs more and takes longer than other methods. a) Guesstimating b) Delphi Technique c) Time Boxing d) Top-Down Estimating e) Bottom-Up Estimating Answer: B (p. 160) 23. _____ focuses on the processes, tools, and methods for developing a quality approach to developing software. a) Software engineering b) Metrics c) Estimation d) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) e) Heuristics Answer: A (p. 163)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 24. _____ refers to a broad range of measurements for objectively evaluating computer software. a) Software engineering b) Metrics c) Estimation d) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) e) Heuristics Answer: B (p. 163) 25. The first step in accurately estimating an IT application is to _____. a) determine the size b) determine available resources c) determine project budget d) set the project deadline e) determine project constraints Answer: A (p. 164) 26. An entity in an Entity-Relationship Diagram (ERD) would be considered an: a) Internal Logical File (ILF) b) External Interface File (EIF) c) External Input (EI) d) External Output (EO) e) External Inquiry (EQ) Answer: A (p. 165) 27. A screen that allows the user to input information using a keyboard and a mouse would be called an: a) Internal Logical File (ILF) b) External Interface File (EIF) c) External Input (EI) d) External Output (EO) e) External Inquiry (EQ) Answer: C (p. 166)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 28. An entity or data set that includes customer names and addresses that is maintained by another application system would be called an: a) Internal Logical File (ILF) b) External Interface File (EIF) c) External Input process (EI) d) External Output (EO) e) External Inquiry (EQ) Answer: B (p. 166) 29. A management report and its accompanying graphs would be considered an: a) Internal Logical File (ILF) b) External Interface File (EIF) c) External Input (EI) d) External Output (EO) e) External Inquiry (EQ) Answer: D (p. 166) 30. Something that includes a combination of inputs and outputs for retrieving data from either the internal files or from files external to the application would be called an: a) Internal Logical File (ILF) b) External Interface File (EIF) c) External Input (EI) d) External Output (EO) e) External Inquiry (EQ) Answer: E (p. 166) 31. LOC in a software application program a) can be used to illustrate the fact that experienced programmers tend to write more code than novice programmers would in coding the same project. b) is a superior method of measuring programmer productivity. c) would have a similar value for a program written in Assembler as would the same program written in Visual Basic. d) is easier to count once the program is written than it is to estimate how many lines of code will be actually required to write the program.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) takes into account the complexity, constraints, and influencers of a project.

Answer: D (p. 164) 32. Function points in a software application program a) can be used to illustrate the fact that experienced programmers tend to write more code than novice programmers would in coding the same project. b) is a superior method of measuring programmer productivity. c) is simpler because it does not need to consider user requirements. d) are a high-level analysis of the application requirements. e) focus on the functionality and complexity of an application system or module.

Answer: E (p. 165) 33. _____ is a parametric model using dependent variables based upon one or more independent variables that are measures of performance or physical attributes of the system. a) COCOMO b) LOC c) HEURISTICS. d) CHECKPOINT e) SLIM Answer: A (p. 169) 34. With COCOMO, _____ projects are routine where the technology, processes, and people are expected to work together smoothly. a) organic b) embedded c) detached d) semi-detached e) restrained Answer: A (p. 169)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 35. With COCOMO, _____ projects are challenging in that they may support a new business process or area that is new to the organization. a) organic b) embedded c) detached d) semi-detached e) restrained Answer: B (p. 169) 36. With COCOMO, _____ projects are somewhat challenge and may integrate new processes and technology. a) organic b) embedded c) detached d) semi-detached e) restrained Answer: D (p. 169) 37. _____ are rules of thumb used to estimate the current project based on prior project experience. a) Heuristics b) COCOMO c) LOC d) FPA e) Derivatives Answer: A (p. 170)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer Questions

1. Describe the PMBOK area of project time management.

The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) area called project time management focuses on the processes necessary to develop the project schedule and to ensure that the project is completed on time. As defined in the PMBOK, project time management includes: • Define Activities—identifying what activities must be completed in order to produce the project scope deliverables.

• Sequence Activities—determining whether activities can be completed sequentially or in parallel and any dependencies that may exist among them.

• Estimate ActivityRresources – identifying the type of resources (people, technology, facilities, etc.) and the quantity of resources needed to carry out project activities.

• Estimate Activity Durations—estimating the time to complete each activity.

• Develop Schedule —based upon the availability of resources, the activities, their sequence, and time estimates, a schedule for the entire budget can be developed.

• Control Schedule —ensuring that proper processes and procedures are in.

2. What is a WBS? What purpose does it serve?

A work breakdown structure (WBS) provides a hierarchical structure that outlines the activities or work that needs to be done in order to complete the project scope. The WBS also provides a bridge or link between the project’s scope and the detailed project plan that will be entered into a project management software package.

3. What is a work package?

The WBS decomposes, or subdivides, the project into smaller components and more manageable units of work called work packages. Work packages provide a logical basis for defining the project activities and assigning resources to those activities so that all the project work is identified. (p. 134-135)

4. What is the proper level of detail for a WBS? The level of detail should support not only the development of the project plan but also allow the project manager and project team to monitor and compare the project’s actual progress to the original plan’s schedule and budget. The two most common errors when developing a WBS are too little or too much detail. Too little detail may result in a project plan that overlooks and omits important activities and tasks. This will lead to an overly optimistic schedule and budget. On the other hand, the WBS should not be a to-do list of one-hour tasks. This excessive detail results in micromanagement that can have several adverse effects on the project.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 5. Explain why people who do the work on a project should be involved in developing the project plan?

Developing the WBS may require several versions until everyone is comfortable and confident that all of the work activities have been included. It is also a good idea to involve those who will be doing the work—after all, they probably know what has to be done better than anyone else.

6. What is guesstimating? Why should a project manager not rely on this technique for estimating a project?

Guesstimating is picking numbers out of the air or off the top of one’s head. It should not be relied on for many reasons, but the most common error when guesstimating is to be overly optimistic and to underestimate the requirements to complete a project.

7. What is the Delphi technique? When would it be an appropriate estimating technique for an IT project?

The Delphi technique requires several experts who are recruited to estimate the same item. Based upon information supplied, each expert makes an estimate and then all the results are compared. If the estimates are reasonably close, they can be averaged and used as an estimate. Otherwise, the estimates are distributed back to the experts who discuss the differences and then make another estimate. In general, these rounds are anonymous and several rounds may take place until a consensus is reached. It can be very effective and provide reasonable assurance when the stakes are high and the margin for error is low.

8. What is time boxing? What are some advantages and disadvantages of time boxing project activities?

Time boxing is a technique whereby a box of time is allocated for a specific activity or task. This allocation is based more on a requirement rather than on just guesswork. Used effectively, time boxing can help focus the project team’s effort on an important and critical task. The schedule pressure to meet a particular deadline, however, may result in long hours and pressure to succeed. Used inappropriately or too often, the project team members become burned out and frustrated.

9. Describe top-down estimating. What are some advantages and disadvantages of top-down estimating?

Top-down estimating involves estimating the schedule and/or cost of the entire project in terms of how long it should take or how much it should cost. It may allow one to respond to a requirement from the business environment. Top-down estimating works well when the target objectives are reasonable, realistic, and achievable. Top-down estimating can be a very effective approach to cost and schedule analysis. More specifically, a top-down approach may force the project manager to examine the project’s risks more closely so that a specific budget or schedule target can be achieved. By understanding the risks,

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka trade-offs, and sensitivities objectively, the various project stakeholders can develop a mutual understanding that leads to better estimation. When made by people independent from the project team, however, these targets are often overly optimistic or overly aggressive. These unrealistic targets often lead to what Ed Yourdon (1999) calls a death march project.

10. Describe bottom-up estimating. What are some advantages and disadvantages of bottom-up estimating?

Bottom-up estimating involves dividing the project into smaller modules and then directly estimating the time and effort in terms of person-hours, person-weeks, or personmonths for each module. The project manager, or better yet the project team, can provide reasonable time estimates for each activity. Bottom-up estimated is straightforward; however, confusing effort with progress can be problematic. When doing bottom-up estimating often analogous estimating is employed. If the analogy is not well chosen or unanticipated differences emerge, the estimation error will likely be compounded.

11. Why is counting lines of code (LOC) a popular method for estimating and tracking programmer productivity? What are some problems associated with this method?

Counting lines of code seems intuitively obvious—a 1,000 LOC Java program will be ten times larger than a 100 LOC Java program—counting LOC is not all that straightforward.

First, what counts as LOC? Adding comments or declaring variables may or may not count a LOC. In addition, experienced programmers tend to write less code than novice programmers. After all, an experienced programmer can write more efficient code, code that does the same thing in fewer lines of code than a novice programmer would use. The same can be said for different programming languages. In fact, one could argue that counting LOC could encourage programmers to write inefficient code, especially when LOC are used as a productivity metric. Finally, it is much easier to count the lines of code after a program is written than it is to estimate how many lines of code will be required to write the program.

12. What is a function point? What advantages do function points have over counting lines of code?

Function points are a synthetic metric, similar to ones used every day, such as hours, kilos, tons, nautical miles, degrees Celsius, and so on. However, function points focus on the functionality and complexity of an application system or a particular module. Function points are independent of the technology. We can compare one application written in one language with another application developed in another. Moreover, function point analysis is reliable—i.e., two people who are skilled and experienced in function point analysis will obtain function point counts that are the same, that is, within an acceptable margin of error.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 13. How can function point analysis be used to help manage scope creep?

Early on in the project, a function point analysis can be conducted based on the project’s scope. Then a more detailed analysis of the user’s requirements can be made during the analysis and design phases. Then, function point analysis can and should be conducted at various stages of the project life cycle. For example, a function point analysis conducted based on the project’s scope definition can be used for estimation and developing the project’s plan. During the analysis and design phases, function points can be used to manage and report progress and for monitoring scope creep.

14. Under the COCOMO model, describe the organic, semi-detached, and embedded models.

Project types can be classified as: • Organic—These are routine projects where the technology, processes, and people are expected to all work together smoothly. One may view these types of projects as the easy projects where few problems are expected.

• Embedded—An embedded project is viewed as a challenging project. For example, it may be a system to support a new business process or an area that is new ground for the organization. The people may be less experienced, and the processes and technology may be less mature.

• Semi-Detached—If organic projects are viewed as easy and embedded as difficult or challenging, then semi-detached fall somewhere in the middle. These projects may not be simple and straightforward, but the organization feels confident that its processes, people, and technology in place are adequate to meet the challenge.

15. What are heuristics? Discuss some of the advantages and disadvantages of using heuristics for estimating IT projects.

Heuristics are rules of thumb. Heuristic approaches rely on the fact that the same basic activities will be required for a typical software development project and these activities will require a predictable percentage of the overall effort. The main advantage of heuristics is that they are easy to use. The major disadvantage is that they are not accurate.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of a project team working together to develop the project plan?

2 Describe the estimation technique called Guesstimating. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

3. Describe the estimation technique called the Delphi Technique. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

4. Compare and contrast top-down and bottom-up estimating? Why would you choose one method over the other?

5.

What is software engineering and how does it utilize metrics.

6. What are the pitfalls of using lines of code to measure efficiency and productivity of programmers?

7. What are the underlying assumptions of function point analysis and how do these assumptions support project estimation.

8. What are heuristics and what situations would likely lead one to use them?

What are the risks of using heuristics for project estimation?

9. What is the benefit of using automated estimating tools? What does research have to say about projects that use formal estimating tools?

10. What is the best way to estimate IT projects?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 7: The Project Schedule and Budget True/False 1. The project budget is determined by the project schedule, the cost of the resources assigned to each of the tasks, and by any other direct or indirect costs and reserves. a. True b. False True 2. The PMBOK® area called project cost management includes estimate costs, determine budget, and control costs. a. True b. False True 3. Project network diagrams provide valuable information about the logical sequence and dependencies among the various activities and tasks so that a completion date or deadline can be determined. a. True b. False True 4. Predecessor activities are activities that can be worked on at the same time as another activity. a. True b. False False 5. Predecessor activities are activities that must be completed before another activity can be started. a. True b. False True 6. A parallel activity is a task that can be worked on at the same time as another activity. a. True b. False True 7. Parallel activities can shorten the project schedule, but can have an impact on project resources if a resource is assigned to two tasks at the same time.

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True

a. True b. False

8. The critical path is the shortest path in the project network and also is the longest time in which the project can be completed. a. True b. False False 9. The critical path is the longest path in the project network and also is the shortest time in which the project can be completed. a. True b. False True 10. Identifying the critical path is important because any change in the duration of the activities or tasks on the critical path will affect the project’s schedule. a. True b. False True 11. The critical path has zero slack (or float) a. True b. False True 12. Identifying the critical path is important because a project can only have one critical path and it never changes. a. True b. False False 13. PERT was developed in the 1950s to create a visual representation of scheduled activities, their logical sequence, and interrelationships using a statistical probability distribution. a. True b. False True 14. Installing a server before loading the operating system is an example of a finish-to-start relationship. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 15. Start-to-Start and Finish-to-Finish relationships allow activities to be worked on in parallel. a. True b. False True 16. A start-to-finish activity is the most common relationship between two activities. a. True b. False False 17. The direct costs of using a resource is the only type of cost that should be considered when developing the project budget. a. True b. False False 18. Sunk costs include such things as rent, utilities, insurance, and other administrative costs. a. True b. False False 19. A reserve can provide a cushion when unexpected situations arise. a. True b. False True 20. An over allocated resource would arise when Mary is assigned to work on two tasks scheduled at the same time. a. True b. False True 21. Once the project schedule and budget are accepted by the client or sponsor, the project plan becomes the baseline plan that will be used as a benchmark to track the project’s actual progress. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

The tool most closely associated with activity bars across a horizontal time axis is: a) Project Network Diagrams b) Gantt Charts c) PERT d) Activity on the Node e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: B (p. 182) 2.

_____ is considered the most useful and widely used project management tool. a) Project Network Diagrams b) Gantt Charts c) PERT d) Activity on the Node e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: B (p. 182) 3.

_____ can be useful for tracking and monitoring project progress because because they are simple and straightforward. a) Project Network Diagrams b) Gantt Charts c) PERT d) Activity on the Node e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: B (p. 182) 4.

_____ provide valuable information about the logical sequence and dependencies among the various activities and tasks: a) Work Breakdown Schedule b) Gantt Charts c) PART d) Project Network Diagrams e) Critical Path Analysis

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: D (p. 183) 5.

_____ can help manage the Critical Path by providing information about which activities can be delayed without affecting the deadline target date. a) Work Breakdown Schedule b) Gantt Charts c) PART d) Project Network Diagrams e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: D (p. 183) 6.

The amount of time an activity can be delayed before affecting the project deadline is _____ a) slack b) crash c) fast-track d) diversion e) delay in any activity will delay the project

Answer: A (p. 186) 7.

The technique used to find the sequence of tasks with zero slack (or float) is most closely associated with: a) Project Network Diagrams b) Gantt Charts c) PERT d) Activity on the Node e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: E (p. 185) 8.

The Critical Path is: a) the longest path in the project network. b) the shortest path in the project network. c) the longest time in which the project can be completed. d) the interrelationships of project activities. e) the most important identified tasks within the project.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: A (p. 186) 9.

Adding resources to an activity to shorten the critical path is called_____ a) slacking. b) floating. c) diverting. d) crashing. e) fast tracking

Answer: D (p. 186) 10.

Completing activities in parallel is called_____ a) slacking. b) floating. c) diverting. d) crashing. e) fast tracking

Answer: E (p. 186) 11.

The technique used to help manage the Polaris submarine project and which bases activity estimates on probabilistic estimates of three scenarios is most closely associated with: a) Project Network Diagrams b) Gantt Charts c) PERT d) Activity on the Node e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: C (p. 186) 12.

Starting the next task before the first task is complete is _____ a) lead b) lag c) negative lead d) slack e) float

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: A (p. 187) 13.

An activity being analyzed under PERT was judged to most likely have a duration of 40 days. When considering the time it would take to complete the activity if every relevant factor went well, it was estimated to be able to be doable in 20 days and even under the worst case imaginable, the task would be take 50 days. The estimates PERT duration of that activity is: a) 36.67 days b) 38.33 days c) 37.50 days d) 28.33 days e) 32.67 days

Answer: B (p. 187) 14.

Based upon the following diagram and activity durations, the Critical Path is:

A B C D E F

2 5 4 3 1 4

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka G H I J

3 5 5 1

a) A+B+C+F+H+J b) A+B+D+F+H+J c) A+B+D+G+H+J d) A+B+D+G+I+J e) A+B+E+G+I+J Answer: B (p. 186) 15.

_____ is well suited for developing simulations where the project manager can conduct sensitivity analysis for schedule planning and risk analysis. a) Project Network Diagrams b) Gantt Charts c) PERT d) Activity on the Node e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: C (p. 186) 16.

Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the situation which occurs when a relationship between two tasks that can or must start at the same time is called: a) Finish-To-Start (FS) b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF) d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above

Answer: B (p. 188) 17.

Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the most common relationship between two activities which implies a logical sequence is called: a) Finish-To-Start (FS) b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above Answer: A (p. 188) 18.

Installing the operating system on a computer before loading any application packages is an example of: a) Finish-To-Start (FS) b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF) d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above

Answer: A (p. 188) 19.

Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the situation which occurs when two activities can start at different times, have different durations, but are planned to be competed at the same time is called: a) Finish-To-Start (FS) b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF) d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above

Answer: C (p. 188) 20.

Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the situation which occurs when task A cannot end until task B starts is called: a) Finish-To-Start (FS) b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF) d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above

Answer: D (p. 188) 21.

Waiting to leave your shift until another person shows up is an example of: a) Finish-To-Start (FS)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF) d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above Answer: D (p. 188) 22.

Under the Precedence Diagramming Method, the least common relationship between two activities which occurs when they must complete at the same time is called: a) Finish-To-Start (FS) b) Start-To-Start (SS) c) Finish-To-Finish (FF) d) Start-To-Finish (SF) e) none of the above

Answer: C (p. 188) 23.

Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) is based on the idea that a) people often inflate or add cushioning to their time estimates b) PERT/CPM was developed in the 1950s so it is too old to be of any use c) Precedence Diagramming only considers the critical path of a project d) all of the above e) none of the above

Answer: A (p. 190) 24.

Scheduling other projects so that resources may be shared is_____ a) Critical Chain Project Management b) Precedence Diagramming c) PERT d) Theory of Constraints e) Critical Path Analysis

Answer: A (p. 190) 25.

Rolling wave planning is: a) developing a large plan encompassing all project items. b) including the highest level of detail in project plans c) preparing a summary plan and developing incremental detailed schedules d) all of the above

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) none of the above Answer: C (p. 192) 26.

The final step in determining the cost of an activity is: a) determine necessary resources. b) determining resource quantity c) determining the cost of each resource d) ensuring resources are leveled e) none of the above

Answer: D (p. 194) 27.

To make a decision to attempt to build an application system based on what was left after a previous attempt ended in failure primarily because of the large investment the company made in the failed project most likely was made by a manager who did not fully understand: a) Direct Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs e) Reserves Costs

Answer: C (p. 196) 28.

Rent, utilities, insurance and administrative costs are examples of: a) Direct Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs e) Reserves Costs

Answer: B (p. 196) 29.

Costs incurred prior to the current project are _____ a) Direct Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) Reserves Costs Answer: C (p. 196) 30.

Time and effort needed to gather experience on a technology or process are _____ a) Direct Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs e) Reserves Costs

Answer: D (p. 196) 31.

Funds allocated for unexpected expenses are _____ a) Direct Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs e) Reserves Costs

Answer: E (p. 196) 32.

The cost of labor for using a resource are _____ a) Direct Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs e) Reserves Costs

Answer: A (p. 196) 33.

The idea that there is a cost associated with using a resource is _____ a) Prorated Costs b) Indirect Costs c) Sunk Costs d) Learning Curve Costs e) Reserves Costs

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: A (p. 196) 34.

_____is ensuring that project resources are not overallocated. a) Resource leveling b) Resource constraining c) Resource starving d) Resource management e) Resource addition

Answer: A (p. 198) 35.

Once the project schedule and project budget are approved they become the _____ a) derivative plan b) actual plan c) baseline plan d) project plan e) schedule plan

Answer: C (p. 199)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer 1. Describe the PMBOK® area of project cost management.

According to PMBOK, project cost management includes: • Estimate Costs—Based upon the activities, their time estimates, and resource requirements, an estimate can be developed.

• Determine Budget—Once the time and cost of each activity is estimated, an overall cost estimate for the entire project can be made. Once approved, this estimate becomes the project budget.

• Control Costs—Ensuring that proper processes and procedures are in place to control changes to the project budget.

2. Define predecessor, successor, and parallel activities. Give a real world example of each.

Predecessor activities are those activities that must be completed before another activity can be started—e.g., a computer’s operating system must be installed before loading an application package. On the other hand, successor activities are activities that must follow a particular activity in some type of sequence. For example, a program must be tested and then documented after it is compiled. A parallel activity is an activity or task that can be worked on at the same time as another activity.

3. How can parallel activities help shorten the project schedule? Are there any trade-offs?

Parallel activities may be thought of as an opportunity to shorten the project schedule since separate tasks can be done at the same time instead of sequentially. They also can be a trade-off since doing more than one thing at the same time can have a critical impact on project resources.

4. What is meant by slack (or float)?

Slack, which is sometimes called float, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed, that is, take longer than expected, before it delays the project.

5. What is the difference between crashing and fast tracking a project’s schedule?

Crashing a project’s schedule is the process of adding additional resources to some activity on the critical path (or diverting resources from some activity with some slack) in order to shorten the project. Fast-tracking on the other hand is involved in finding activities that were originally planned to be sequential and making them in parallel – that is doing them simultaneously.

6. Define the following and give a real world example of each (other than the ones described in this book): Finish-to-Start; Start-to-Start; Finish-to-Finish; Start-

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

• •

•

•

to-Finish.

Finish-To-Start (FS)—A finish-to-start relationship is the most common relationship between activities and implies a logical sequence. Here, activity or task B cannot begin until task A is completed.

Start-To-Start (SS)—A start-to-start relationship between tasks or activities occurs when two tasks can or must start at the same time. Although the tasks start at the same time, they do not have to finish together—i.e., the tasks can have different durations. A start-to-start relationship would be one type of parallel activity that can shorten a project schedule.

Finish-To-Finish (FF)—Another type of parallel activity is the finish-to-finish relationship. Here, two activities can start at different times, have different durations, but are planned to be competed at the same time. Once both of the FF activities are completed, the next activity or set of activities can be started, or if no more activities follow, the project is complete.

Start-To-Finish (SF)—The start-to-finish relationship is probably the least common and can be easily confused with the finish-to-start relationship. A SF relationship, as illustrated in Figure 7.5, is exactly the opposite of a FS relationship. In addition, a SF relationship means that task A cannot end until task B starts.

7. Why do many people inflate their estimates?

People often inflate or add cushioning to their time estimates in order to give themselves a form of “safety” to compensate for uncertainty. People may build safety into each task for three basic reasons. First, you may inflate an estimate if your work is also dependent upon the work of someone else. For example, you may add a cushion to your time estimates if you believe there’s a good chance your work will be delayed if the person you are depending upon will not finish their task or work on time. Second, you may increase an estimate of an activity because of pessimism arising from a previous experience where things did not go as planned. Third, the project sponsor or customer may not be happy with a proposed schedule and therefore decides to cut the schedule globally by say 20 percent. If you know this is going to happen, you may inflate your estimates by 25 percent just to guard against the cut.

8. In the context of critical chain project management, what is resource contention?

The critical chain is different from the critical path in that it also takes into account resource contention. Continuing with our example, let’s say that each project task is to be completed by a different resource (i.e., person or team). Task C is on the critical path but is also part of the critical chain because of its potential to become a bottleneck if the resource assigned to this task must multitask by working on different projects. If this is the case, the CCPM approach takes a more project portfolio view and would suggest that other projects begin or start so that the person or team working on task C can be dedicated to work solely on this particular task for this project.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 9. What is the critical chain? How is it different from the concept of a critical path?

The critical chain is different from the critical path in that it also takes into account resource contention.

10. Describe the steps necessary for estimating the cost of a particular activity or task that has an estimated duration.

1. Defining what resources will be needed to perform the work 2. Determining the quantity of resources that are needed 3. Defining the cost of using each resource 4. Calculating the cost of the task or activity 5. Ensuring that the resources are leveled, that is, resources have not been over allocated

11. What does prorating the cost of a resource mean?

Prorating the cost of a resource is allocating portions of the total cost to more than one activity.

12. Why should the project manager ensure that the project resources are leveled?

The project manager should ensure that the project resources are leveled to prevent resources from being over allocated – that is requiring the same resource to be utilized on more than one task at the same time.

13. Why should assumptions used in estimating be documented?

Assumptions used in estimating should be documented to give the cost estimates greater credibility, to help keep things organized, and to support multiple iterations of the schedule or budget as may be needed.

14. What is a baseline plan?

The baseline plan is the project schedule and project budget that has been approved by the project client or upper management.

15. When does the project manager or team have the authority to begin executing the project plan?

Once the project schedule and project budget has been approved by the project client or upper management it becomes the baseline plan and then the project manager and team has the authority to begin executing the plan.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Briefly describe the four cost areas that are included in the PMBOK® area called project cost management?

2 How does the work breakdown structure (WBS) link the project’s scope to the schedule and budget?

3. What are the benefits and disadvantages of using Gantt charts as a project management tool?

4. In what ways are project network diagrams similar to Gantt charts and what additional strengths do they have?

5. Construct an Activity on the Node (AON) network diagram with at least 5 tasks that illustrate predecessors, successors and parallel activities. Label the nodes appropriately and assuming your tasks show estimated durations in days, state the estimated time for completing your project.

6. Assume the following activities for a project along with their estimated durations and predecessors. Describe how critical path analysis would be applied to this project, and calculate the critical path. Define the concepts: slack/float, expedite/crash, and fast tracking and explain what their implications are for this project?

Activity A B C D E F G

Estimated Duration in Days 2 4 3 1 1 3 2

Predecessor None A A C,B C,D D,E F

7. Three team members are given the task of estimating activity durations. Mr. Optimist estimates the activity to take 2 days to complete. Ms. Pessimist estimates the activity to take 5 days. Mrs. Realist claims that the most likely estimate is 4 days.

What should their PERT analysis assign as an expected duration for the activity and what are the benefits and implications of deploying this tool?

8. Describe the Precedence Diagramming Method along with the four fundamental relationships that they are based on.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

9. Describe the five steps that comprise the process of estimating the cost of a particular activity. Illustrate the steps with a hypothetical example.

10. Discuss the nature and relevance of direct, indirect, sunk, and learning curve costs as well as the notion of contingency reserves.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 8: Managing Project Risk True/False 1. Failure to follow a formal risk management plan will often cause organizations to be reactive and find themselves in a state of perpetual crisis, a condition known as crisis management. a. True b. False True 2. The best time to plan for risk is during the project execution phase when risk can be assessed most accurately. a. True b. False False 3. Effective project risk management requires that each risk have an owner. a. True b. False True 4. In general, because of the similarities in IT projects, one can manage all projects and risks in the same manner. a. True b. False False 5. Project risk management focuses solely on the downside of risk that results from unexpected problems or threats. a. True b. False False 6. The PMBOK® definition of project risk suggests that a systematic process is needed to effectively manage the risk of a project. a. True b. False True 7. It never pays to ignore an element of project risk. a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

8. The goal of a sound risk management is to completely avoid all risk. a. True b. False False 9. Triggers or flags in the form of metrics should be identified to draw attention to a particular risk when it occurs. a. True b. False True 10. Unknown-unknown risks are residual risks that we cannot even imagine happening. a. True b. False True 11. Since risk arises from uncertainty, there can be no such category as known risks. a. True b. False False 12. Learning cycles can be used as a tool for identifying threats and opportunities. a. True b. False True 13. Nominal Group Technique is a free form, unstructured process similar to Brainstorming. a. True b. False False 14. The fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is a form of cause and effect analysis diagramming. a. True b. False True 15. Since IT projects are developed in an environment that changes so rapidly and so extensively, there is little value in using past projects to guide our risk assessment of new ones. a. True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b. False

False 16. Qualitative risk analysis has as one of its strengths the ability to include subjective analysis based on experience and judgment. a. True b. False True 17. The concept of expected value rests on the notion of a probability-weighted summation of component parts. a. True b. False True 18. The area under the normal distribution curve that lies within 2 standard deviations of the mean (plus or minus) includes about 68% of all the values. a. True b. False False 19. Sensitivity analysis is used to determine the joint effects of multiple risky tasks, while Monte Carlo Simulation is used to measure which individual tasks pose the greatest project risk. a. True b. False False 20. The deployment of a specific risk management strategy is in part a function of risk tolerance levels of the stakeholders. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

The IT Project Risk Management Processes include all of the following except: a) Plan Risk Management b) Identify Risks c) Risk Elimination d) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis e) Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: C (p. 207) 2.

Successful risk management requires _____ a) misunderstanding the benefits of risk management b) inadequate time for risk identification c) use of a non-standard approach to assess risk d) stakeholder responsibility e) occasional monitoring of risks to ensure compliance

Answer: D (p. 207) 3.

_____ involves development of a risk management plan. a) Plan Risk Management b) Identify Risks c) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis d) Plan Risk Responses e) Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: A (p. 207) 4.

_____ involves deciding which risks can impact the project. a) Plan Risk Management b) Identify Risks c) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis d) Plan Risk Responses e) Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: B (p. 207)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

5.

_____ involves developing a probabilistic model for understanding and responding to identified risks. a) Plan Risk Management b) Identify Risks c) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis d) Plan Risk Responses e) Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: C (p. 207) 6.

_____ involves developing procedures and techniques to reduce the threat of risks and enhance the likelihood of opportunities. a) Plan Risk Management b) Identify Risks c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis d) Plan Risk Responses e) Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: D (p. 207) 7.

_____ provides an early warning system to monitor identified risks and any new risks. a) Plan Risk Management b) Identify Risks c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis d) Plan Risk Responses e) Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: E (p. 207) 8.

_____ is an uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on project objectives. a) Risk management b) Risk response c) Project risk d) Risk plan e) Risk control

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: C (p. 207) 9.

_____ are the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, and monitoring and control on a project. a) Project risk management b) Project risk response c) Project risk planning d) Project risk analysis e) Project risk control

Answer: A (p. 209) 10.

The first step in managing IT project risk is _____. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk monitoring and control e) risk evaluation

Answer: C (p. 209) 11.

_____requires determining the true problem, or cause, of the risk. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk monitoring and control e) risk evaluation

Answer: A (p. 210) 12.

_____involves determining the likelihood and project impact of a risk. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk monitoring and control e) risk evaluation

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: B (p. 210) 13.

_____determines how to deal with the occurrence of a risk. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk monitoring and control e) risk strategies

Answer: E (p. 210) 14.

Risks may be positive or negative. For a positive risk, a project manager would want to _____. a) accept the risk b) share ownership c) avoid the risk d) reduce the impact of the risk e) transfer the risk

Answer: B (p. 210) 15.

Through _____, the project manager will scan the project environment to watch for risks as they may arise. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk monitoring and control e) risk strategies

Answer: D (p. 211) 16.

Once a risk is made known, _____ will execute the planned risk strategy. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk response e) risk strategies

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: D (p. 211) 17.

_____ is an interim lessons learned to determine how the risk was handled. a) risk identification b) risk assessment c) risk planning d) risk response e) risk evaluation

Answer: E (p. 211) 18.

_____ is the core layer in the IT Project Risk Identification Framework. a) Measurable Organizational Value b) Project objectives c) Risk sources d) Internality / Externality e) Known / Unknown

Answer: A (p. 212) 19.

Identifying what you know, what you think you know, and things you need to find out would be activities most closely associated with: a) Learning Cycles b) Brainstorming c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique e) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams

Answer: A (p. 215) 20.

Gaining consensus from a group of experts would be most closely associated with: a) Learning Cycles b) Brainstorming c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique e) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: D (p. 216) 21.

Initial generation of ideas without evaluation would be most closely associated with: a) Learning Cycles b) Brainstorming c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique e) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams

Answer: B (p. 215) 22.

A structured technique for identifying risks which requires participants to rank and prioritize ideas in round-robin fashion is most closely associated with: a) Learning Cycles b) Brainstorming c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique e) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams

Answer: C (p. 216) 23.

A _____ is a structured tool that identifies risks that have occurred in the past. a) learning cycle b) brainstorming session c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique e) checklist

Answer: E (p. 216) 24.

A _____ identifies threats and opportunities in the external environment as well as organizational strengths and weaknesses . a) Learning Cycle b) SWOT Analysis c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) Checklist Answer: B (p. 216) 25.

_____ focuses on root-cause analysis and determining the cause of risks, as well as the effects of risks on the project. a) Learning Cycles b) Brainstorming c) Nominal Group Technique d) Delphi Technique e) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams

Answer: E (p. 217) 26.

_____ determines each identified risk’s probability of occurrence and impact on the project. a) Risk mitigation b) Risk assessment c) Risk avoidance d) Risk analysis e) Risk monitoring and control

Answer: D (p. 217) 27.

_____ prioritizes risks so that an effective risk strategy can be formulated. a) Risk mitigation b) Risk assessment c) Risk avoidance d) Risk analysis e) Risk monitoring and control

Answer: B (p. 217) 28.

The Payoff Table would be used with which risk assessment technique ? a) Qualitative Risk Analysis b) Quantitative Risk Analysis c) Cause-and- Effect Diagram d) Simulations e) Probability Distributions

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: A (p. 218) 29.

In which step of the risk planning process does the text say one might decide to transfer project risk to someone else (i.e.,use insurance)? a) risk planning b) risk identification c) risk assessment d) risk strategies e) risk monitoring and control

Answer: A (p. 210) 30.

Receiving a much larger than usual gas utility bill because of an early spring cold spell is an example of what type of risk? a) known risk b) known-unknown risk c) unknown-unknown risk d) known-known e) none of the above

Answer: B (p. 213) 31.

Which of the following distributions has mean which is equal to (a + 4b +c) / 6 where a, b, and c are denote optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates respectively?: a) Discrete Distribution b) Normal Distribution c) Pert Distribution d) Triangular Distribution e) Binomial Distribution

Answer: C (p. 224) 32.

_____ use only integer or whole numbers, where fractional values are not allowed or would not make sense. a) Discrete Distribution b) Normal Distribution

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) Pert Distribution d) Triangular Distribution e) Binomial Distribution Answer: A (p. 224) 33.

Which of the following distributions has mean which is equal to (a +b +c) / 3 where a, b, and c are denote optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates respectively?: a) Discrete Distribution b) Normal Distribution c) Pert Distribution d) Triangular Distribution e) Binomial Distribution

Answer: D (p. 224) 34.

_____ randomly generates specific values for a variable with a specific probability distribution. a) Discrete Distribution b) Normal Distribution c) Pert Distribution d) Monte Carlo Simulation e) Binomial Distribution

Answer: D (p. 225) 35.

In a normal distribution we would expect to find _______ of all values with in + or - 1 standard deviation. a) 13% b) 34% c) 68% d) 95% e) 99%

Answer: C (p. 223) 36.

In a normal distribution we would expect to find _______ of all values with in + or - 2 standard deviation.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

a) 13% b) 34% c) 68% d) 95% e) 99% Answer: D (p. 223) 37.

Reserves and contingency plans would be used in which risk strategy ? a) accept or ignore b) avoidance c) mitigation d) transfer e) none of the above

Answer: A (p. 229)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer Questions 1. What is meant by crisis management? And why do many organizations find themselves in this mode?

Because of their failure to plan for the unexpected, many organizations find themselves in a state of perpetual crisis characterized by an inability to make effective and timely decisions. Many people call this approach crisis management or fire fighting because the project stakeholders take a reactive approach or only address the project risks after they have become problems.

2. What is project risk?

PMBOK® defines project risk as: An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on the project objectives.

3. What is project risk management?

PMBOK® defines project risk management as: The systematic process of identifying, analyzing, and responding to project risk. It includes maximizing the probability and consequences of positive events and minimizing the probability and consequences of adverse events.

4. What are the seven IT project risk management processes?

• Risk Planning • Risk Identification • Risk Assessment • Risk Strategies • Risk Monitoring and Control • Risk Response • Risk Evaluation 5. Why can identifying IT project risks be difficult?

Risk identification can be difficult because many risks can affect a project in different ways and during different phases of the project life cycle. At times it is not possible to distinguish between internal and external risks. Finally, when attempting to address the future, there exists a category of risks (unknownunknown) that by definition are unknowable a priori.

6. Describe how learning cycles can be used to identify IT project risks.

The project team and stakeholders can use this technique, whereby they identify facts (what they know), assumptions (what they think they know), and research (things to find out), to identify various risks. Using these three categories, the group can create an action plan to test assumptions and conduct research about various risks. Based on the team’s findings, both risks and lessons learned can then be documented.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 7. What is the Delphi Technique? How can this technique be used to identify IT project risks?

A group of experts are asked to identify potential risks or discuss the impact of a particular risk. Initially, in order to reduce the potential for bias, the experts are not known to each other. Their responses are collected and made available anonymously to each other. The experts are then asked to provide another response based upon the previous round of responses. The process continues until a consensus exists. The advantage of using the Delphi technique is the potential for getting an insightful view into a threat or opportunity; but the process takes time and may consume a good portion of the project’s resources.

8. What is SWOT analysis? How can this technique be used to identify IT project risks?

SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. Brainstorming, NGT, or the Delphi technique could be used to identify and understand the nature of IT project risks by categorizing risks using the four-part framework. The usefulness of using SWOT analysis is that it allows the project team to identify threats and opportunities as well as their nature in terms of project or organizational strengths and weaknesses.

9. What is a fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram? How can this tool be used to identify IT project risks?

The fishbone, or Ishikawa, diagram developed by Kaoru Ishikawa was developed to analyze the causes of poor quality in manufacturing systems. The diagram can also be used for understanding the causes or factors of a particular risk, as well as its effects. An example of an Ishikawa diagram is illustrated in Figure 8.4. The diagram shows the possible causes and effects of a key member of the team leaving the project. This technique itself can be used individually or in groups by using the following steps: a. Identify the risk in terms of a threat or opportunity. b. Identify the main factors that can cause the risk to occur. c. Identify detailed factors for each of the main factors. d. Continue refining the diagram until satisfied that the diagram is complete.

10. What is the purpose of a risk impact table?

The purpose of a risk impact table is to analyze and prioritize various IT project risks. It provides a mechanism for determining which risks should be monitored and which risks may require a response.

11. What is a Monte Carlo simulation? Describe a situation (other than the one used in this chapter) that could make good use of a Monte Carlo simulation.

Monte Carlo simulation is a technique that randomly generates specific values for a variable with a specific probability distribution. The simulation goes through a specific number of iterations or trials and records the outcome. We can perform simulations using almost any continuous or discrete probability distribution. If one

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka was attempting to develop a budget in the face of uncertain factor input prices, a Monte Carlo simulation could be conducted that would make random picks from probability distributions that reflect ones estimation of the true underlying population parameters. One then might run a thousand simulated picks generating one thousand budget estimates which could then be averaged to calculate the expected budget costs.

12. Define and discuss the four risk strategies described in this chapter.

• Accept or Ignore—Choosing to accept or ignore a particular risk is a more passive approach to risk response. The project stakeholders can either be hopeful that the risk will not occur or just not worry about it unless it does. This can make sense for risks that have a low probability of occurring or a low impact. However, reserves and contingency plans can be active approaches for risks that may have a low probability of occurring but with a high impact.

• Avoidance—The avoidance strategy focuses on taking steps to avoid the risk altogether. In this case, an active approach is made to eliminate or prevent the possibility of the threat occurring.

• Mitigate—The term mitigate means to lessen. Therefore, a mitigation risk strategy focuses on lessening the probability and/or the impact of threat if it does occur.

• Transfer—A transfer strategy focuses on transferring ownership of the risk to someone else. This transfer could be in the form of purchasing insurance against a particular risk or subcontracting a portion of the project work to someone who may have more knowledge or expertise in the particular area. As a result, this strategy may result in a premium, or added cost, to managing and responding to the risk.

13. What is a contingency plan?

Contingency plans—Sometimes called an alternative plan, or Plan B, this plan can be initiated in the event a particular risk occurs. Although these types of plans are viewed as plans of last resort, they can be useful in a variety of ways.

14. What is a risk response plan? What should be included?

Once the project risks and strategies are identified, they can be documented as part of the risk response plan. This plan should include the following: • The project risk • The trigger which flags that the risk has occurred • The owner of the risk (i.e., the person or group responsible for monitoring the risk and ensuring that the appropriate risk response is carried out) • The risk response based on one of the four basic risk strategies 15. What is risk monitoring and control?

Once the risk response plan is created, the various risk triggers must be continually monitored to keep track of the various IT project risks. In addition, new threats and

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka opportunities may present themselves over the course of the project, so it is important that the project stakeholders be vigilant. Risk monitoring and control should be part of the overall monitoring and control of the project. Monitoring and control focus on metrics to help identify when a risk occurs, and also on communication. (p. 203)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. The text discusses three common mistakes found in managing project risk.

Choose two of them and after stating them, discuss the implications of making that mistake.

2 What should be required of project stakeholders with regard to managing project risk successfully?

3.

Briefly describe the seven IT Project Risk Management processes.

4. Compare the three types of project risk: known, known-unknown, and unknown-unknown. Give an example of each.

5. What are the strengths and weaknesses of using the Delphi Technique for identifying threats and opportunities?

6. What are the potential advantages that qualitative approaches have over quantitative ones when it comes to risk analysis and assessment?

7.

How is a Monte Carlo simulation conducted?

8.

What factors determine the appropriate risk strategy to deploy?

9. The text discusses four main risk response strategies. Briefly describe them and the implications of choosing one over another.

10. Describe some of the tools that are typically employed to monitor and control risk.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 9: Project Communication, Tracking, and Reporting True/False 1.

The project manager must have a clear picture of how the actual progress or work compares to the baseline plan in order to make well-informed decisions, take appropriate actions, or to make adjustments to the project plan. a. True b. False

True 2.

False 3.

True 4.

All of the project stakeholders should receive exactly the same information regarding the project’s progress in order to eliminate any miscommunication. a. True b. False The project communications plan may be informal depending on the needs of the project stakeholders and the size of the project. a. True b. False If a stakeholder has been judged to adversarial and having a vested interest in the failure of your project, it would probably be wise to keep him/her out of the communication loop. a. True b. False

False 5.

True 6.

A project metric should be obtained from observable, quantifiable data that allows the team and other stakeholders to gauge the efficiency and effectiveness of the work being done. a. True b. False One attribute of a good project metric is that it should be subjective so that a stakeholder can understand the project manager’s personal opinion or insight as to how the project is progressing. a. True b. False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka False 7.

True 8.

A good project metric should be understandable, quantifiable, cost effective, proven, and be effective. a. True b. False Generally, the more metrics one adopts, the greater the project control. a. True b. False

False 9.

True 10.

Planned value (PV) is the planned or budgeted cost of work scheduled for an activity or component of the WBS. a. True b. False Earned value provides a performance measurement that tells us how much of the budget we really should have spent for the work completed so far. a. True b. False

True 11.

True 12.

False 13.

True 14.

Budget At Completion (BAC) is the total planned cost of a project. a. True b. False As a project manager, you would be pleased see a Cost Performance Index CPI less than one (1) for your project a. True b. False The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) for our project is greater than one (1) and so we would anticipate that all other things being equal, our project will finish ahead of schedule. a. True b. False The schedule variance (SV) shows the difference between the current progress of the project and its original or planned value.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

True 15.

a. True b. False A cost variance (CV) can be positive or negative, but never zero. a. True b. False

False 16.

True 17.

The Expected Time Complete (ETC) provides an estimate for completing the scheduled work that remains. a. True b. False The Estimate At Completion (EAC) is a project metric that can be used to estimate the most likely total or final cost of the project based on the project’s performance and any risks that should be considered. a. True b. False

True 18.

True 19.

False 20.

True

The purpose of a project review is to not only show evidence that the project work is being completed, but also that the work is being completed according to various standards or agreed upon requirements. a. True b. False Given the advances that have been made in telecommunications and IT technology in general, there is little value or necessity today for Face-toFace (F2F) meetings. a. True b. False Internet and Web-Based technologies have a significant role to play in communication and collaboration efforts of project teams. a. True b. False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice

1.

In Project Communications Management, identifying people or organizations that have a positive or negative interest in the project’s outcome is _____. a) identify stakeholders b) plan communications c) distribute information d) manage stakeholder expectations e) report performance

Answer: A (p. 241)

2.

In Project Communications Management, providing relevant and timely information to each stakeholder _____. a) identify stakeholders b) plan communications c) distribute information d) manage stakeholder expectations e) report performance

Answer: B (p. 241)

3.

In Project Communications Management, getting the right information to the right stakeholders in the right format is _____. a) identify stakeholders b) plan communications c) distribute information d) manage stakeholder expectations e) report performance

Answer: C (p. 241)

4.

In Project Communications Management, ensuring that clear, consistent, and timely communication satisfies the information needs and that project stakeholder issues are resolved is _____. a) identify stakeholders b) plan communications c) distribute information

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d) manage stakeholder expectations e) report performance Answer: D (p. 241)

5.

In Project Communications Management, _____focuses on the collection and dissemination of project ionformation to the various project stakeholders. a) identify stakeholders b) plan communications c) distribute information d) manage stakeholder expectations e) report performance

Answer: E (p. 241)

6.

Earned Value tells us __________ a) how much we actually spent for work completed b) how much we budgeted to spend at the beginning of the project c) how much of the budget we have left to spend on the project d) how much of the budget we really should have spent on the work completed so far e) None of the above

Answer: D (p. 250)

7.

Budget At Completion (BAC) is __________ a) how much we actually spent for work completed b) how much we budgeted to spend at the beginning of the project c) how much of the budget we have left to spend on the project d) how much of the budget we really should have spent on the work completed so far e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 247)

8.

Actual Cost (AC) is __________ a) how much we actually spent for work completed b) how much we budgeted to spend at the beginning of the project

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) how much of the budget we have left to spend on the project d) how much of the budget we really should have spent on the work completed so far e) None of the above Answer: A (p. 248)

9.

Cost Variance (CV) is __________ a) how much we actually spent for work completed b) how much we budgeted to spend at the beginning of the project c) how much of the budget we have left to spend on the project d) how much of the budget we really should have spent on the work completed so far e) the difference between the estimated cost and how much we have actually spent

Answer: E (p. 250)

10.

Schedule Variance (SV) is __________ a) how much time it took to complete the work b) how long we expected the task to take c) how much time we have left to complete the project d) how much time it should have taken to complete the task e) the difference between the current progress and the original schedule

Answer: E (p. 250)

11.

Expected Time to Completion (ETC) is __________ a) how much time it took to complete the work b) how long we expected the task to take c) how much time we have left to complete the project d) how much time it should have taken to complete the task e) how much longer it will take to complete the project

Answer: E (p. 251)

12.

Estimate at Completion (EAC) is __________ a) how much we actually spent for work completed

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b) how much we budgeted to spend at the beginning of the project c) how much of the budget we have left to spend on the project d) how much of the budget we really should have spent on the work completed so far e) how much we spent to complete the project Answer: E (p. 252)

13.

If you hired a consulting firm to develop a system which is estimated to take four months to complete with the tasks evenly divided over the four months and you agree to pay for the project with equal monthly installments, those payments would be called: a) Planned Value (PV) b) Budget At Completion (BAC) c) Actual Cost (AC) d) Earned Value (EV) e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 247)

14.

If we know the Actual Cost of a WBS component, what other value do we need to know in order to calculate the cost performance index (CPI)? a) Budget at Completion (BAC) b) Budget costs of remaining work (BCRW) c) Schedule Variance (SV) d) Expected Time Complete (ETC) e) Earned Value (EV)

Answer: E (p. 251)

15.

Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value - ___________. a) Budget at Completion (BAC) b) Budgeted cost of remaining work (BCRW) c) Schedule Variance (SV) d) Actual Cost (AC) e) None of the above

Answer: D (p. 250)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 16.

EV-AC = a) Cost performance index (CPI) b) Scheduled performance index (SPI) c) Cost Variance (CV) d) Minimum funds needed (MFN) e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 250)

17.

Barring a change in project scope and given a Cost Performance Index (CPI) that is less than 1, the most reasonable inference to draw is that: a) The project will likely finish earlier than planned. b) The project will likely finish later than planned. c) The project will likely cost more than planned. d) The project will likely cost less than planned. e) The project will likely be on time and on budget.

Answer: C (p. 251)

18.

Barring a change in project scope and given a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) that is greater than 1, the most reasonable inference to draw is that: a) The project will likely finish earlier than planned. b) The project will likely finish later than planned. c) The project will likely cost more than planned. d) The project will likely cost less than planned. e) The project will likely be on time and on budget.

Answer: A (p. 251)

19.

A _________ is a formal or informal meeting that shows evidence of project work that has been completed and work and provides a forum for surfacing issues, problems, decision-making. a) Budget report b) Project review c) Progress report d) Forecast report e) News report

Answer: B (p. 254)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

20.

A _________ describes the present state of the project and provides compares the project’s actual progress to the baseline plan. a) Budget report b) Status report c) Progress report d) Forecast report e) News report

Answer: B (p. 254)

21.

A _________ predicts the future status or progress of the project. a) Budget report b) Status report c) Progress report d) Forecast report e) News report

Answer: D (p. 254)

22.

A _________ shows how the scope, features or functionality, or work is being completed over time. a) Budget report b) Status report c) Progress report d) Forecast report e) Burndown Chart

Answer: E (p. 254)

23.

Which of the following is not likely a characteristic of a good project metric?: a) Understandable b) Quantifiable c) Cost Effective d) Subjective e) High Impact

Answer: D (p. 247)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

24.

Information distribution includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Face-To-Face Meetings b) Telephone, e-mail, and other wireless devices c) Web-based technologies d) Threaded discussion areas e) All of the above are examples of information distribution

Answer: E (p. 254)

25.

The budgeted cost of work scheduled for an activity or component of the WBS is the _____. a) Planned Value (PV) b) Budget At Completion (BAC) c) Actual Cost (AC) d) Expected Time Complete (ETC) e) Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Answer: A (p. 247)

26.

The metric that provides an estimate of the most likely total or final cost of the project based on the project’s performance and any risks that should be considered is the: a) Planned Value (PV) b) Budget At Completion (BAC) c) Actual Cost (AC) d) Expected Time Complete (ETC) e) Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Answer: E (p. 252)

27.

The cost incurred for completing a scheduled task or WBS component is the a) Planned Value (PV) b) Budget At Completion (BAC) c) Actual Cost (AC) d) Expected Time Complete (ETC) e) Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: C (p. 249)

28.

The total planned cost of the project is computed before the project work begins.

This metric is called the: a) Planned Value (PV) b) Budget At Completion (BAC) c) Actual Cost (AC) d) Expected Time Complete (ETC) e) Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Answer: B (p. 248)

29.

A metric that provides an estimate for completing the scheduled work that remains once the project is started is called the a) Planned Value (PV) b) Budget At Completion (BAC) c) Actual Cost (AC) d) Expected Time Complete (ETC) e) Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Answer: D (p. 251)

30.

The PMBOK® area called project communications management includes which of the following? a) Communications planning b) Information distribution c) Performance reporting d) Administration closure e) All of the above are part of project communications management

Answer: E

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answers 1. Why should a project manager be concerned with monitoring a project’s progress?

Project sponsors do not like surprises. Regardless of how well a project is planned, unexpected situations will arise. These unexpected events will require adjustments to the project schedule and budget. In fact, many cost overruns and schedule slippages can be attributed to poorly monitored projects.

2. Describe the PMBOK® area called project communications management.

• Identify Stakeholders – Includes the process of identifying people or organizations that have a positive or negative interest in the project’s outcome. A stakeholder analysis was described in Chapter 4 to facilitate the understanding of the informal organization.

• Plan Communications – A stakeholder analysis provides a basis for identifying the various stakeholders as well as their interest, influence, and project role. However, providing relevant and timely information is an important part in carrying out the different strategies defined for each stakeholder.

• Distribute Information – Focuses on getting the right information to the right stakeholders in the right format. This may include documenting minutes from meetings and organizing other project documents.

• Manage Stakeholder Expectations – Ensuring that clear, consistent, and timely communication satisfies the information needs and that any project stakeholder issues are resolved.

3. What is the purpose of a project communications plan? What kinds of things should this plan address?

The purpose of a project communications plan is to ensure that all of the project stakeholders know how their interests stand in relation to the project’s progress. The plan should address the following questions: • Who has specific information needs?

• What are those information needs?

• How will a particular stakeholder’s information needs be met?

• When can a stakeholder expect to receive this information?

• How will this information be received?

4. Why is effective and efficient communication vital to a project?

It is important that everyone associated with the project know what is going on. A project manager can develop an accurate and realistic project plan, but that plan is useless unless it is executed effectively. And, because no project plan is perfect, communication allows timely and intelligent adjustments to be made so it can be executed effectively.

5. What are project metrics?

A project metric may be defined as a qualitative measurement of some attribute of the

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka project. This metric should be obtained from observable, quantifiable data (Edberg 1997).

In addition, these metrics can be useful for developing a measurement program that allows the team and other stakeholders to gauge the efficiency and effectiveness of the work being done.

6. Describe the qualities of a good project metric.

Understandable—A metric should be intuitive and easy to understand; otherwise, the metric will be of little value and will most likely not be used.

Quantifiable—A quantifiable metric is objective. A metric should have very little bias as a result of personal influence or subjectivity.

Cost Effective—Data must be collected in order to produce a metric. Subsequently, a metric should be relatively easy and inexpensive to create and should not be viewed as a major disruption.

Proven—A metric should be meaningful, accurate, and have a high degree of validity in order to be useful. The metric must measure exactly what one wants to measure. “What gets measured gets done!”

High Impact—Although the efficiency of computing a metric is important, the metric must be effective. Why measure something that has little impact on the project?

7. Describe the concept of earned value.

Earned value (EV) provides a performance measurement that tells us how much of the budget for a given task, WBS component, or the project, that we really should have spent for the work completed so far.

8. What is Planned Value (PV)?

Planned Value (PV) is the planned or budgeted cost of work scheduled for an activity or component of the work breakdown structure.

9. What is Actual Cost (AC)?

Actual Cost (AC) is the total cost incurred for completing a scheduled task or work breakdown structure component.

10. What is Budget at Completion (BAC)?

The budgeted at completion (BAC) is total planned cost of a project.

11. Describe how the SPI and CPI can be used to forecast the final cost of a project.

The schedule performance index (SPI) provides a ratio of the work performed to the work scheduled. This metric provides a measure of schedule efficiency. An SPI ratio greater than one indicates that the project is ahead of schedule and an SPI under one indicates the project is behind schedule. The cost performance index (CPI) tells us how much work we are completing for every dollar we spend. It is the ratio the budgeted cost of work performed to the actual cost of work performed. Suppose one were to calculate the SPI and the CPI in the midst of a project and find their values different from one (i.e. the project is ahead or behind schedule and over or under budget). If nothing changes (i.e., the project’s performance does not get any better or any worse) then the minimum cost of completing the project could be estimated by dividing the original total budget by

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka the CPI. However, if the SPI ratio were to persist and things continued to get better or worse (depending on the SPI value), then the final project cost could be estimated by dividing the original budget by the product of the CPI and the SPI. 12. What is a project review and what purpose does it serve?

Project reviews may be formal or informal meetings that include various project stakeholders. These reviews may focus on specific deliverables, milestones, or phases.

The purpose of a review is to not only show evidence that the project work has been completed, but also that the work has been completed according to certain standards or agreed upon requirements.

13. What is a status report?

A status report describes the present state of the project. In general, a status report compares the project’s actual progress to the baseline plan. Analogous to a balance sheet used by accountants, a status report may include, for example, a variance analysis that compares actual schedule and cost information to the baseline schedule and budget.

14. What is a progress report?

A progress report tells us what the project team has accomplished. This report may compare the activities or tasks that were completed to the activities or tasks outlined in the original project network.

15. What is a forecast report?

A forecast report focuses on predicting the future status or progress of the project. For example, it may include a trend analysis that tells us when the project is most likely to finish and how much it will cost.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Briefly describe the four aspects of communication that are included in the PMBOK® area called project communications management.

2.

Why is communications among project stakeholders so important?

3. Why would a project manager be unwilling to share bad news about unexpected problems with senior management or other high profile stakeholders?

4. Sketch out a table with headings that represent the essential elements of a project communications plan. Fill in a hypothetical entry under each heading.

5.

What are the characteristics of a good project metric?

6.

Explain the concept of Earned Value and illustrate it with hypothetical values.

7. How is the Cost Performance Index calculated and what can one learn from computing it?

8. How is the Schedule Performance Index calculated and what can one learn from computing it?

9.

Briefly describe the common categories of project reporting.

10. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the major information distribution channels covered in the text?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Chapter 10: IT Project Quality Management True/False 1.

The PMBOK® definition of project quality management focuses on conformance to specifications. a. True b. False

False 2.

PMBOK® defines the major quality management processes as: conformance to requirements, fitness for use, and having a high degree of excellence. a. True b. False

False 3. Project Quality Management (PQM) focuses on the project product and Project Control Management (PCM) focuses on the project process. a. True b. False False 4. Project quality control is an expense that should be minimized and incurred primarily in the testing phase of a project. a. True b. False False 5. Most quality initiatives translate readily and require little if any corporate culture changes as evidenced by the Japanese adoption of Deming’s quality philosophy. a. True b. False False 6. Taken together, the concepts of quality management, verification and validation, change control and knowledge management support the overall project quality management plan. a. True b. False True 7. Eli Whitney is one of the central figures of the industrial revolution because of his concept of mass-producing interchangeable parts. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

8. Control charts are used to highlight statistically significant variation in processes. a. True b. False True 9. Variations that fall more than three standard deviations from the mean are attributed to assignable cause. a. True b. False True 10. A process that is shown to have eight successive values that are more than two standard deviations away from the mean might be correctly categorized as stable and in statistical control. a. True b. False True 11. The Pareto Diagram is based on the notion that 20 percent of the problems are based on 80 percent of the causes a. True b. False False 12. ISO certification is a multinational effort to certify products, services, or systems that meet specified quality management principles. a. True b. False True 13. The key steps in the Six Sigma framework are the D-M-A-I-C cycle which stands for Define, Measure, Adapt, Innovate, and Control. a. True b. False False 14. Black Belts and Champions are designations of leadership and competence under the Capacity Maturity Model (CMM). a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

15. Software process maturity represents the expected results that can be achieved by following a particular software process. a. True b. False False 16. Defect arrival rates, Defects by phase, and Fix Response time are all process metrics. a. True b. False True 17. Verification activities focus on asking the question of whether we followed the right procedures and processes. a. True b. False True 18. Validation is a process-oriented activity that focuses on the deployment of specific development procedures. a. True b. False False 19. The use of development teams working collaboratively has increased the need for change control and configuration management. a. True b. False True 20. Documenting lessons learned is an important part of continuous quality improvement. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

________ is determining which quality requirements and/or standards are important for the project and the product and then documenting how compliance will be demonstrated. a) Plan Quality b) Perform Quality Assurance c) Perform Quality Control d) Project Quality Management e) Quality Management Plan

Answer: A (p. 264)

2.

________ provides the basis for continuous improvement by auditing and evaluating the results from quality control measurements so that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used. a) Plan Quality b) Perform Quality Assurance c) Perform Quality Control d) Project Quality Management e) Quality Management Plan

Answer: B (p. 264)

3.

________ is monitoring and documenting the results of executing project quality activities to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance and implement new processes and techniques to improve project quality throughout the organization. a) Plan Quality b) Perform Quality Assurance c) Perform Quality Control d) Project Quality Management e) Quality Management Plan

Answer: C (p. 264)

4.

A _____ refers to the activities, methods, materials, and measurements used to produce the product or service. a) metric b) performance indicator

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) quality indicator d) process e) quality chain Answer: D (p. 265)

5.

________ is the person most closely associated with the scientific management approach. a) Eli Whitney b) Frederic Taylor c) Walter Shewhart d) W. Edwards Deming e) Joseph Juran

Answer: B (p. 267)

6.

_________ introduced the control chart to better understand process variations. a) Eli Whitney b) Frederic Taylor c) Walter Shewhart d) W. Edwards Deming e) Joseph Juran

Answer: C (p. 268)

7.

The core values of quality programs proposed by Shewhart, Deming, Juran, Ishikawa, and Crosby include: a) focus on the customer, b) incremental or continuous improvement c) problem detection and correction d) measurement e) all of these are part of the core values proposed.

Answer: A (p. 265)

8.

Verification and validation of project deliverables should be carried out _____ a) at the beginning of the project b) in the middle of the project

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) at the end of the project d) throughout the project e) there is no preferrable time to complete these activities Answer: D (p. 265)

9.

__________ published the Quality Control Handbook which viewed quality as "fitness for use" as perceived by the customer. a) Eli Whitney b) Frederic Taylor c) Walter Shewhart d) W. Edwards Deming e) Joseph Juran

Answer: E (p. 271)

10.

In general control limits are set at + or - ________ standard deviations which provides ________ probability limits. a) 3, .05 b) 3, .001 c) 2, .05 d) 2, .01 e) 1, .34

Answer: B (p. 268)

11.

A _____ provides a picture of how a particular process is behaving over time by providing a chart with a center line and limits on either side of the center line. a) statistical chart b) flow chart c) pareto diagram d) control chart e) fishbone diagram

Answer: D (p. 268)

12.

A _____ is best developed by brainstorming with a learning cycle approach to identify and correct a particular problem.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) statistical chart b) flow chart c) pareto diagram d) control chart e) fishbone diagram Answer: E (p. 273)

13.

A _____ is useful for identifying and investigating the most important problems by ranking them in descending order. a) statistical chart b) flow chart c) pareto diagram d) control chart e) fishbone diagram

Answer: C (p. 273)

14.

Master Black belt is a role in what quality system? a) ISO b) TickIT c) Six Sigma d) Capability Maturity Model (CMM) e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 277)

15.

A list of 14 points for quality is associated with a) Deming b) Juran c) Crosby d) Capability Maturity Model (CMM) e) Ishikawa

Answer: A (p. 271)

16.

The D-M-A-I-C cycle is part of: a) ISO b) TickIT

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) Six Sigma d) Capability Maturity Model (CMM) e) Software Metrics Model (SMM) Answer: C (p. 276)

17.

The quality system that grew out of a 1947 meeting with a mission of facilitating the international coordination and unification of industrial standards is part of the history of which quality system. a) ISO b) TickIT c) Six Sigma d) Capability Maturity Model (CMM) e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 274)

18.

_____was started by Motorola in the mid-1980's as a basis for measuring the quality of a process rather than the products it produces. a) ISO b) TickIT c) Six Sigma d) Capability Maturity Model (CMM) e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 276)

19.

Within Six Sigma, the _____ step is to identify the customer satisfaction goals and subgoals. a) Define b) Measure c) Analyze d) Improve e) Control

Answer: A (p. 276)

20.

Within Six Sigma, the _____ step is used to identify the relevant metrics.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Define b) Measure c) Analyze d) Improve e) Control Answer: B (p. 276)

21.

Within Six Sigma, the _____ step reviews the data for trends, patterns, or relationships. a) Define b) Measure c) Analyze d) Improve e) Control

Answer: C (p. 276)

22.

Within Six Sigma, during the _____ step process enhancements are proposed and implemented. a) Define b) Measure c) Analyze d) Improve e) Control

Answer: D (p. 276)

23.

Within Six Sigma, the _____ step puts in place methods and tools to maintain performance levels once they have been achieved. a) Define b) Measure c) Analyze d) Improve e) Control

Answer: E (p. 276)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 24.

The CMM/CMMI level characterized by an immature software organization using ad hoc process is _______ ? a) Level 1 Initial b) Level 2 Repeatable c) Level 3 Defined d) Level 4 Managed e) Level 5 Optimizing

Answer: A (p. 280)

25.

The CMM/CMMI level which is the first to introduce key process areas is _________ ? a) Level 1 Initial b) Level 2 Repeatable c) Level 3 Defined d) Level 4 Managed e) Level 5 Optimizing

Answer: B (p. 280)

26.

The CMM/CMMI level which documents and standardizes software engineering and management processes throughout the organization is _________ ? a) Level 1 Initial b) Level 2 Repeatable c) Level 3 Defined d) Level 4 Managed e) Level 5 Optimizing

Answer: C (p. 280)

27.

The CMM/CMMI level which is the first to introduce technology change management _________ ? a) Level 1 Initial b) Level 2 Repeatable c) Level 3 Defined d) Level 4 Managed e) Level 5 Optimizing

Answer: E (p. 281)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

28.

The CMM/CMMI level which is characterized by the addition of Software Quality management and Quantitative Process Management is _________ ? a) Level 1 Initial b) Level 2 Repeatable c) Level 3 Defined d) Level 4 Managed e) Level 5 Optimizing

Answer: D (p. 281)

29.

Defect arrival rate is an example of a: a) Process Metric b) Product Metric c) Project Metric d) Project Standard e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 286)

30.

Customer found defects is an example of a: a) Process Metric b) Product Metric c) Project Metric d) Project Standard e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 286)

31.

Earned Value (EV) would be an example of a a) Process Metric b) Product Metric c) Project Metric d) Project Standard e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 286)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

32.

Quality metrics should focus on a) Process b) Product c) Project d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: D

33.

Gray box testing is a type of ____________? a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) Systems testing d) Acceptance testing e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 289)

34.

Testing whether a set of logically related units work together properly would be done in _________ ? a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) Systems testing d) Acceptance testing e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 289)

35.

Verifying that the system satisfies the end customer's scope and detailed requirement specifications is ? a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) Systems testing d) Acceptance testing e) None of the above

Answer: D (p. 289)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

36.

Testing as a whole in an operating environment to verify functionality and fitness for use is _________ ? a) Unit testing b) Integration testing c) Systems testing d) Acceptance testing e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 289)

37.

Which of the following is a product-oriented activity that attempts to determine if the system or project deliverable meets the customer or client’s expectations? a. Verification b. Validation c. Configuration management d. Fact-based management e. Software process maturity

Answer: B (p. 288)

38.

Which of the following focuses on the process-related activities of the project to ensure that the product or deliverable meets its specified requirements before final testing of the system begins? a. Verification b. Validation c. Configuration management d. Fact-based management e. Software process maturity

Answer A (p. 286)

39.

Which of the following comprise software configuration management? a. Component identification b. Version control c. Configuration building d. Change control e. All of the above comprise software configuration management

Answer E (p. 290)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer 1. What is PQM? PQM is an abbreviation for Project Quality Management which is defined as: The processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken. It includes all activities of the overall management function that determine the quality policy, objectives, and responsibility and implements them by means of quality planning, quality assurance, quality control, and quality improvement, within the quality system.

2. Why should quality management include both the products and processes of a project?

By focusing on both the product and chain of project processes, the project organization can use its resources more efficiently and effectively, minimize errors, and meet or exceed project stakeholder expectations.

3. What is scientific management? Why was it so popular? Why was it so controversial?

Using an approach called scientific management, Taylor believed that a task could be broken down into smaller tasks and studied to identify the best and most efficient way of doing each subtask. In turn, a supervisor could then teach the worker and ensure that the worker did only those actions essential for completing the tasks, in order to remove human variability or errors. At that time, most workers in U. S. factories were immigrants, and language barriers created communication problems among the workers, their supervisors, and even with many coworkers. The use of a stopwatch as a basis for time-motion studies provided a more scientific approach. Workers could produce at their full potential, and arbitrary rates set by management would be removed. To be successful, Taylor also believed that the scientific management approach would require a spirit of cooperation between the workers and management. Although the scientific management approach became quite popular, it was not without controversy. Many so-called efficiency experts ignored the human factors and tended to believe that profits could be increased by speeding up the workers. Dehumanizing the workers led to conflict between labor and management that eventually laid the foundation for labor unions. Just three years before Taylor died, he acknowledged that the motivation of a person can affect output more than just engineered improvements.

4. What is a control chart? When is a process said to be in statistical control? How would you know if it was not?

A control chart provides a picture of how a particular process is behaving over time. All control charts have a centerline and control limits on either side of the centerline. The centerline represents the observed average, while the control limits on either side provide a measure of variability. In general, control limits are set at ±3_ (i.e., ±3 sigma) or ±3s, where _ represents the population standard deviation and s represents the sample standard deviation. If a process is normally distributed, control limits based on three standard deviations provides .001 probability limits. Variation attributed to common causes is considered normal variation and exists as a result of normal interactions among the

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka various components of the process—i.e., chance causes. These components include people, machines, material, environment, and methods. As a result, common cause variation will remain stable and exhibit a consistent pattern over time. This type of variation will be random and vary within predictable bounds. If all observations fall within the control limits and the variation pattern is random, the process is said to be in statistical control. When one of the following conditions is observed, the process may be exhibiting nonrandom behavior and be out of statistical control: • A single point falls outside of the 3 control limit • At least two of three successive values fall on the same side of and more than two standard deviations from the centerline.

• At least four out of five successive values fall on the same side of and more than one standard deviation away from the centerline.

• At least eight successive values that fall on the same side of the centerline.

5. Why did the teachings of Deming and Juran have such an important impact on Japan just after World War II? As Japan was attempting to rebuild after WWII, they faced a problem of having a reputation for inferior products. Having few natural resources, they were dependent on exporting manufactured goods. If their export programs were to be successful they needed to change both the fact and perception of producing low quality products. The success they enjoyed as a result of embracing quality improvement methodologies made the work of Deming and Juran central to their industrial culture.

6. What is an Ishikawa diagram? How can it be used as a quality control tool for an IT project?

The fishbone, or Ishikawa, diagram developed by Kaoru Ishikawa was developed to analyze the causes of poor quality in manufacturing systems. The diagram can be used for understanding the causes or factors of a particular quality characteristic or problem. A particular quality characteristic or problem is represented by targeted box and then the major causes are identified and linked to the subject of study. Each major cause then is further subdivided into potential sub-causes. This approach is often deployed by using either brainstorming or learning cycle approaches. Once the diagram is completed, the project team can investigate the posited causes and recommend solutions to address the problem.

7. What is a Pareto diagram? How can it be used as a quality control tool for an IT project?

A Pareto diagram is based on the 80/20 rule that infers that 80% of effects flow from 20% of the causes. The diagram is essentially a chart which rank orders the most important problem causes from left to right in descending order of magnitude. In this way the most import problem areas are highlighted and which, when appropriately addressed, offer the greatest improvement to the product or process.

8. What is a standard? What role do standards play in developing an information system?

Standards are documented agreements, protocols, or rules that outline the technical

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka specifications or criteria to be used to ensure that products, services, processes, and materials meet their intended purpose. Standards also provide a basis for measurement because they provide criterion, or basis, for comparison. In order to provide an information system that has to ability to interface with other systems and in order to coordinate hardware and software and network compatibility, information systems must conform to the relevant protocols that make up industry standards.

9. What is ISO? Why would an organization wish to be ISO certified?

The International Organizations for Standardization (ISO) is one of the most widely known standards organizations whose mission is “to facilitate the international coordination and unification of industrial standards.” Countries that do business with each other need to have an agreed upon set of standards to make the process of trade more logical and because a lack of standardization can create trade barriers.

10. What is software process maturity?

Software Process Maturity—The extent to which a particular software process is explicitly and consistently defined, managed, measured, controlled, and effectively used throughout the organization.

11. What is a process metric? Give an example.

A process metric is a measurement of the defects introduced by the processes required to develop or create the product deliverables. Example would include such metrics as a defect arrival rate, defects by phase, defect backlog, fix response time, and defective fixes.

12. What is a product metric? Give an example.

Metrics that attempt to describe the intrinsic quality and characteristics of the project’s deliverables and final product are called product metrics. Examples would include mean time to failure, defect density, customer found defects, and customer satisfaction.

13. Describe verification. What activities support verification?

Verification focuses on the process-related activities of the project to ensure that the product or deliverable meets its specified requirements before final testing of the system begins. Verification requires that the standards and metrics be defined clearly. Moreover, verification activities focus on asking the question of whether we followed the right procedures and processes. Verification is supported by three types of reviews: Technical, Business, and Management.

14. Describe validation. What activities support validation?

Validation is a product-oriented activity that attempts to determine if the system or project deliverable meets the customer or client’s expectations and ensures that the system performs as specified. Validation is supported primarily by testing using one or more of several approaches: Unit, Integration, Systems, and/or Acceptance Testing.

15. What is the purpose of change control?

The purpose of change control is to ensure that those working on a project know which

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka iteration, version, or state of the project and/or its components is the current and desired form of the project. Formal change control is a procedure in which changes to an accepted work are formally proposed and assessed and decisions to accept or reject proposed changes are documented to provide an element of stability beyond the informal change controls.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1.

What role does quality play in the IT project methodology?

2 The text discusses a number of quality gurus. Choose one of these individuals and describe the cultural environment in which he developed his contribution and then explain the significance of their contribution to IT project quality management.

3. What is the underlying concept of the Six Sigma approach and what are the key steps in the D-M-A-I-C cycle?

4. The Capacity Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)/ posits five levels of organizational maturity that are a function of the nature of their processes. Describe how processes mature from the lowest to the highest level.

5. The IT Project quality plan is built on six foundational ideas. Briefly describe the importance of each of these pillars.

6. Why are change control and configuration management important? What are the risks of ignoring these components of PQM? 7. The text discusses four different testing approaches. Briefly describe the objectives of each of them.

8. Metrics are often specifically developed to target processes, products, or projects.

Describe two examples of a good metric for each of those three entities.

9. Compare and contrast validation and verification. What is the role of each and how do they differ ?

10. Describe the characteristics of both a mature and an immature software organization.

What qualities are possessed by a mature organization that are lacking in an immature organization ?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 11: Managing Organizational Change, Resistance, and Conflict True/False 1.

True 2.

False

Experience shows that it is easier to gain compliance for a new system than acceptance. a. True b. False Stress is usually only associated with negative change (dread). a. True b. False

3. According to Lewin’s Force Field Analysis, driving forces are those forces that act as barriers and drive people away from desired end states. a. True b. False False 4. According to Lewin’s Force Field Analysis, the transition state is marked by a loss of equilibrium which lasts until the individual or organization moves to the desired state. a. True b. False True 5. Applying Kübler-Ross’ model on grieving suggests that individuals have to ultimately like or embrace change in order to reach the acceptance stage. a. True b. False False 6. In order to be an effective sponsor of a project, one must posses not only willingness, but also the power, in terms of authority and making resources available, to support the project. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 7. An initiating sponsor must stay with the project to the end if it is to succeed. a. True b. False False 8. Sponsor credibility is diminished if the project’s envisioned value to the organization is not realized. a. True False True 9. According to Leavitt’s model of organizational change, changes in one organizational component (people, structure, task, or technology) can impact the other three components. a. True b. False True 10. The Rational-Empirical strategy for change rests on the idea that because most people are rational, they will accept change that will benefit the overall organization. a. True b. False False 11. The Normative-reeducation strategy focuses on reeducating the work force, one person at a time until the entire organization is aligned. a. True b. False False 12. The use of threats and rewards in the power-coercive approach to change becomes riskier as individuals become more dependent on the organization. a. True b. False False 13. The premise of the environmental-adaptive approach is that although people avoid disruption and loss, they can still adapt to change. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

14. Resistance should be anticipated from the beginning of the project and in fact there may be valid reasons for the resistance. a. True b. False True 15. People seldom resist change once they understand that the change will benefit them. a. True b. False False 16. The contemporary view of conflict is that conflict is always negative and should be avoided whenever possible. a. True b. False False 17. According to the Interactionist View of conflict, conflict is both necessary and beneficial. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Multiple Choice 1.

Transforming the organization so it is aligned with the execution of the chosen corporate business strategy is _____. a) Change Management b) Business Alignment c) Strategy Alignment d) Transition Management e) Transformation Analysis

Answer: A (p. 301) 2.

___________ is the process of adapting to change and determines our ability to handle current and future change. a) Transition b) Flux c) Adoption d) Assimilation e) Vector shift

Answer: D (p. 302) 3.

Encountering too many changes that push a person past their _____ may cause them to become stressed out or exhibit dysfunctional behaviors. a) Assimilation Tolerance b) Tolerance Threshold c) Change Threshold d) Assimilation Point e) Assimilation Threshold

Answer: C (p. 303) 4.

According to Leavitt’s Model of Organizational Change, implementing a new information system would be an example of a change in _____. a) technology b) people c) task d) structure

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) content Answer: A (p. 304) 5.

According to Leavitt’s Model of Organizational Change, new roles and responsibilities would be an example of a change in _____. a) technology b) people c) task d) structure e) content

Answer: B (p. 304) 6.

According to Leavitt’s Model of Organizational Change, changing the work performed would be an example of a change in _____. a) technology b) people c) task d) structure e) content

Answer: C (p. 304) 7.

According to Leavitt’s Model of Organizational Change, changing from informal authority to a formal chain of command would be an example of a change in _____. a) technology b) people c) task d) structure e) content

Answer: D (p. 304) 8.

According to Lewin's Change Process model _________ is an altering of the current state's habits, perceptions, and stability. a) Driving Forces

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b) Resisting Forces c) Freezing d) Unfreezing e) Refreezing Answer: D (p. 304) 9.

According to Lewin's Change Process model _________ is a transition from the present state to the desired state. a) Driving Forces b) Resisting Forces c) Freezing d) Unfreezing e) Changing

Answer: E (p. 304) 10.

According to Lewin's Change Process model _________ is making the desired state the new status quo. a) Driving Forces b) Resisting Forces c) Freezing d) Unfreezing e) Refreezing

Answer: E (p. 304) 11.

People, Structure, Technology, and Task are elements of: a) Kubler-Ross's Model b) Lewin's Change Process Model c) Leavitt's Model of Organizational Change d) Conner's Role Model e) Davidson's Change Management Model

Answer: C (p. 304) 12.

In Kubler-Ross’s Model, _____ is the first stage characterized by shock and denial.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Denial b) Anger c) Bargaining d) Depression e) Acceptance Answer: A (p. 305) 13.

In Kubler-Ross’s Model, _____ is the second stage where the person blames whoever is responsible for the change. a) Denial b) Anger c) Bargaining d) Depression e) Acceptance

Answer: B (p. 305) 14.

In Kubler-Ross’s Model, _____ is the third stage where the person will try to make deals to avoid the change. a) Denial b) Anger c) Bargaining d) Depression e) Acceptance

Answer: C (p. 305) 15.

In Kubler-Ross’s Model, _____ is when the person experiences an overwhelming sense of loss in the status quo. a) Denial b) Anger c) Bargaining d) Depression e) Acceptance

Answer: D (p. 305)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 16.

In Kubler-Ross’s Model, _____ is when the person will come to grips with the change. a) Denial b) Anger c) Bargaining d) Depression e) Acceptance

Answer: E (p. 305) 17.

Change Agents and Targets are elements of: a) Kubler-Ross's Model b) Lewin's Change Process Model c) Leavitt's Model of Organizational Change d) Conner's Role Model e) Davidson's Change Management Model

Answer: D (p. 307) 18.

The first step in the Change Management Plan is to _____, and entails defining the players and stakeholders involved in the change, their roles, and how they will interact with each other. a) assess willingness, readiness, and ability to change b) develop of adopt a strategy for change c) implement the change management plan and track progress d) evaluate experiences and develop lessons learned e) define, develop and deploy the infrastructure

Answer: A (p. 306) 19.

The second step in the Change Management Plan is to _____, when determination is made of the process to follow in implementing the change. a) assess willingness, readiness, and ability to change b) develop of adopt a strategy for change c) implement the change management plan and track progress d) evaluate experiences and develop lessons learned e) define, develop and deploy the infrastructure

Answer: B (p. 306)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

20.

The third step in the Change Management Plan is to _____, where milestones are identified and monitored using various tools such as the Gantt Chart and PERT Chart. a) assess willingness, readiness, and ability to change b) develop of adopt a strategy for change c) implement the change management plan and track progress d) evaluate experiences and develop lessons learned e) define, develop and deploy the infrastructure

Answer: C (p. 306) 21.

The fourth step in the Change Management Plan is to _____, where experiences are documented and shared to identify best practices for future projects. a) assess willingness, readiness, and ability to change b) develop of adopt a strategy for change c) implement the change management plan and track progress d) evaluate experiences and develop lessons learned e) define, develop and deploy the infrastructure

Answer: D (p. 306) 22.

Denial, Anger, and Bargaining are among the stages of a) Kubler-Ross's Model b) Lewin's Change Process Model c) Leavitt's Model of Organizational Change d) Conner's Role Model e) Davidson's Change Management Model

Answer: A (p. 305) 23.

The Rational-Empirical Approach is found in: a) Kubler-Ross's Model b) Lewin's Change Process Model c) Leavitt's Model of Organizational Change d) Conner's Role Model e) Davidson's Change Management Model

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: E (p. 308) 24.

The _____ is based upon the idea that people will follow predictable patterns of behavior and that people will follow their own self interests. a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Normative-Adaptive Approach

Answer: A (p. 308) 25.

The _____ is based upon the idea that people are social beings and that human behavior can be changed by changing the social norms of the group and can be very difficult and time-consuming. a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Normative-Adaptive Approach

Answer: B (p. 309) 26.

The _____ attempts to gain compliance through the exercise of power, authority, rewards, or threat of punishment. a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Normative-Adaptive Approach

Answer: C (p. 309) 27.

The _____ attempts to abolish old ways and institute the new structure as soon as possible. a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Normative-Adaptive Approach Answer: D (p. 310) 28.

Driving forces, Resisting forces, and states of equilibrium are associated with: a) Kubler-Ross's Model b) Lewin's Change Process Model c) Leavitt's Model of Organizational Change d) Conner's Role Model e) Davidson's Change Management Model

Answer: B (p. 304) 29.

A change management plan based on the _____________ should provide each individual with the purpose, a picture, and a part to play. a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Empirical-Scientific Approach

Answer: A (p. 308) 30.

The approach that takes the basic view that people are social beings and the that behavior can be changed by changing the groups core values, beliefs, and relationships. a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Empirical-Scientific Approach

Answer: B (p. 309) 31.

The approach that is based on the premise that although people avoid disruption and loss, they can still adapt to change is the:

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Rational-Empirical Approach b) Normative-Reeducation Approach c) Power-Coercive Approach d) Environmental-Adaptive Approach e) Empirical-Scientific Approach Answer: D (p. 310) 32.

The view that conflict is negative and should be avoided is a part of: a) Polarity Management View of Conflict b) Contemporary View of Conflict c) Change Resistance View of Conflict d) Traditional View of Conflic e) Interactionist View of Conflict

Answer: D (p. 313) 33.

The _____ manages conflict by suppressing it before it occurs or eliminating it as soon as possible. a) Polarity Management View of Conflict b) Contemporary View of Conflict c) Change Resistance View of Conflict d) Traditional View of Conflic e) Interactionist View of Conflict

Answer: D (p. 313) 34.

The view that positive conflict should be encouraged would be posited by one who adheres to which of the following: a) Polarity Management View of Conflict b) Contemporary View of Conflict c) Change Resistance View of Conflict d) Traditional View of Conflic e) Interactionist View of Conflict

Answer: B (p. 313) 35.

The _____ suggests that conflict is inevitable and natural and can be positive or negative depending on how it is handled.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

a) Polarity Management View of Conflict b) Contemporary View of Conflict c) Change Resistance View of Conflict d) Traditional View of Conflic e) Interactionist View of Conflict Answer: B (p. 313) 36.

The view that conflict is an important and necessary ingredient for performance is the a) Polarity Management View of Conflict b) Contemporary View of Conflict c) Change Resistance View of Conflict d) Traditional View of Conflic e) Interactionist View of Conflict

Answer: E (p. 314) 37.

The view that embraces conflict because teams can become stagnant and complacent if too harmonious or tranquil is the a) Polarity Management View of Conflict b) Contemporary View of Conflict c) Change Resistance View of Conflict d) Traditional View of Conflic e) Interactionist View of Conflict

Answer: E (p. 314) 38.

Sometimes when a cooling off period is a wise choice, a person would use _____. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: A (p. 314)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 39.

_____ focuses on retreating, withdrawing or ignoring the conflict. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: A (p. 314) 40.

A useful approach to managing conflict when trying to reach an overall goal when the goal is more important that the personal interests of the parties involved is: a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: B (p. 314) 41.

When there is no common ground and you are sure you are right and when time is of the essence, one would probably take the _________ approach for managing conflict. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: C (p. 314) 42.

When using the _____ approach, one party gains at the other party's expense. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: C (p. 314)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

43.

When using _____, a person uses his or her dominant authority to resolve the conflict. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: C (p. 314) 44.

_____ is useful when resolving complex issues that must be solved in a short time frame and the risks and rewards are moderately high. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: D (p. 314) 45.

_____ involves one person or group giving something up in exchange for gaining something else. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: D (p. 314) 46.

_____ involves confronting and attempting to resovle the problem by incorporating different ideas, viewpoints, and perspectives. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: E (p. 314) 47.

_____ requires a willingness to engage in good-faith problem-solving that facilitates open and honest communication. a) Avoidance b) Accommodation c) Forcing d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Answer: E (p. 314)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer 1. In your own words, define change management.

Change management is the process of bringing individuals in the organization to the point where they accept and support new processes or systems and understand the linkage between their personal success, the success of those processes or systems and the organization’s success.

2. Describe Force Field Analysis.

Force Field Analysis is a technique for developing a big picture that involves all the forces in favor of or against a particular change. Forces that are viewed as facilitating the change are viewed as driving forces, while the forces that act as barriers or that work against the change are called restraining forces. By understanding all of the forces that act as aids or barriers to the change, one may enact strategies or decisions that take into account all of the various interests.

3. Describe the three stages of Lewin’s model for change.

The first stage is the status quo or present state. It is the product of current habits and perceptions. If it is not the desired state, then it requires driving forces to motivate and initiate a change and it also requires unfreezing of the current habits, perceptions and stability. Once this process begins, the second stage called the transition state exists and becomes the battle ground for resisting forces and driving forces and habits, perceptions and stability undergo changes. It is often a time of confusion and instability. Hopefully the process will lead to the final stage where the desired state is obtained. At this point, refreezing should take place to cement the new habits, perceptions, and stability as the new status quo.

4. Why is having a change management plan important?

A change management plan is important in order to addresses the human side of change.

The mere existence of such a plan can send an important message throughout the organization that management cares about the people in the organization and will listen and take their needs and issues seriously.

5. What is a change sponsor? What is the difference between an initiating sponsor and a sustaining sponsor?

The sponsor can be an individual or group that has the willingness and power, in terms of authority and making resources available, to support the project. Although this person or group is often the project sponsor, an initiating sponsor may hand off the project to a sustaining sponsor. More specifically, after making the decision to fund and support the project, the initiating sponsor may become completely removed from the project. Without the support of a sustaining sponsor, the project will eventually lose steam and direction.

Therefore, the sustaining sponsor must become the primary sponsor for the project.

6. What is a change agent? What role does a change agent play?

An agent may be an individual or group responsible for making the change happen in order to achieve the project’s goal and objectives. Their role is to act as a conduit of

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka communication between the sponsor and the targets of change.

7. What is a target? Why are targets important to a change initiative?

The target is the individual or group that must change. In general, these may be the users of the new system or those who will use or be directly involved with final product of the project. Targets play a critical role in the ultimate success of the project. The willingness, ability, and readiness to change also rest largely with the change targets.

8. Using Leavitt’s model, provide an example of how an electronic commerce application would affect the organization’s people, technology, task, and structure.

Leavitt’s model suggests that changes in people, technology, task, or organizational structure can influence or impact the other areas. These four components are interdependent where a change in one can result in a change in the others For example, a change in the organization’s technology (e.g., implementing an electronic commerce application) can impact the people within the organization (e.g., new roles, responsibilities, etc.) as well as the tasks the individual’s perform (i.e., the work they perform), and the organization’s structure (i.e., formal or informal). As a result of the planned change, people will go through a variety of emotions. On first learning of the impending change, people may feel shock, anger, and even denial. Later on, they may try to bargain or negotiate as a way of maintaining stability. This time is difficult because compromise, or appeasement, may seem to be a good alternative for avoiding conflict and resistance. Unfortunately, this tactic will only undermine the effectiveness of the change initiative. Therefore, it is important that a boundary be defined in a way that allows the change to happen as planned, but also allows individuals to “take something with them” by giving them something familiar to hold on to so as to ease the transition.

This allows the past to be remembered with reverence and can also mark the end and the new beginning.

9. Describe the rational-empirical approach to change. What things would a change management plan address under this approach?

The rational-empirical approach to change management is based on the idea that people follow predictable patterns of behavior and that people will follow their own selfinterests. Therefore, a change agent must be persuasive in convincing, explaining, and demonstrating how a particular change will benefit a particular person or group identified as a target of the change. It is important that the individuals affected by the change be provided with consistent and timely information. The change management plan based on this strategy should provide each individual with the purpose, a picture, and a part to play.

10. Describe the normative-reeducation approach to change. What things would a change management plan address under this approach?

This approach takes the basic view that people are social beings and that human behavior can be changed by changing the social norms of a group. Instead of trying to change an individual, one must focus on the core values, beliefs, and established relationships that make up the culture of the group. The focus for managing change under this strategy becomes helping people redefine their existing social norms into a new set that supports

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka the change effort.

11. Describe the power-coercive approach to change. What things would a change management plan address under this approach?

The power-coercive approach to change management attempts to gain compliance from the change targets through the exercise of power, authority, rewards, or threat of punishment for non-conformance. People’s dependency on an organization largely dictates how effective the power-coercive approach and the use of sanctions can be. If people are highly dependent on the organization; live paycheck to paycheck; have few job alternatives; and are not financially, mentally, or emotionally prepared to walk, you are on relatively safe ground using the power-coercive approach judiciously. The objective is to change the behaviors of the targets so that their new behavior supports the change effort. Sanctions should be imposed on an individual level and should focus on what an individual values and what they dread losing—perhaps a bonus, a paycheck, or a position within the organization. Sanctions can be imposed in ascending order to demonstrate a point in the beginning and to keep any target’s losses at a minimum.

12. Describe the environmental-adaptive approach to change. What things would a change management plan address under this approach?

The premise of the environmental-adaptive approach is that although people avoid disruption and loss, they can still adapt to change. Following this approach, the change agent attempts to make the change permanent by abolishing the old ways and instituting the new structure as soon as possible.

13. Describe the traditional view of conflict.

The traditional view considers conflict in a negative light and feels conflict should be avoided. Conflict, according to this view, leads to poor performance, aggression, and devastation if left to escalate. Therefore, it is important to manage conflict by suppressing it before it occurs or eliminating it as soon as possible. Harmony can be achieved through authoritarian means, but the root causes of the conflict may not be adequately addressed.

14. Describe the contemporary view of conflict The contemporary view, on the other hand, suggests that conflict is inevitable and natural. Depending on how conflict is handled, conflict can be either positive or negative.

Positive conflict among people can stimulate ideas and creativity; however, negative conflict can have damaging effects if left unresolved. Therefore, positive conflict should be encouraged, while keeping negative conflict in check.

15. Describe the interactionist view of conflict.

Today, the interactionist view holds that conflict is an important and necessary ingredient for performance. Although the contemporary view accepts conflict, the interactionist view embraces it because teams can become stagnant and complacent if too harmonious or tranquil. Subsequently, the project manager should occasionally stir the pot in order to encourage conflict to an appropriate level so that people engage in positive conflict.

16. What is the avoidance approach to dealing with conflict? When is it most useful?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka When is it not appropriate?

Avoiding conflict focuses on retreating, withdrawing or ignoring conflict. Sometimes, a cooling-off period may be a wise choice, especially when emotions and tempers are high.

Avoidance may be appropriate when you can’t win, the stakes are low, or gaining time is important. However, it may not be useful when the immediate, successful resolution of an issue is required.

17. What is the accommodation approach to dealing with conflict? When is it most useful? When is it not appropriate?

Accommodation, or smoothing, is an approach for appeasing the various parties in conflict. This approach may be useful when trying to reach an overall goal when the goal is more important than the personal interests of the parties involved. Smoothing may also be effective when dealing with an issue that has low risk and low return or when in a nowin situation. Because accommodation tends to work only in the short run, conflict may reappear in another form later on.

18. What is the forcing approach to dealing with conflict? When is it most useful?

When is it not appropriate?

When using this approach, a person uses his or her dominant authority to resolve the conflict. This approach often results in a one-sided or win-lose situation in which one party gains at the other’s expense. This approach may be effective when no common ground exists, when you are sure you are right, when an emergency situation exists, or when time is of the essence. Forcing resolution may, however, cause the conflict to redevelop later because people dislike having a decision or someone else’s.

19. What is the compromise approach to dealing with conflict? When is it most useful? When is it not appropriate?

Compromise includes aspects of both forcing and accommodation; it gives up more than forcing and less than accommodation. Compromise is essentially bargaining—one person or group gives up something in exchange for gaining something else. In this case, no party actually wins and none actually loses, so that some satisfaction is gained from resolution of the conflict. This approach may be useful when attempting to resolve complex problems that must be settled in a short time and when the risks and rewards are moderately high. Unfortunately, important aspects of a project may be compromised as a means of achieving short-term results—for example, quality standards may be compromised in order to meet the project’s schedule.

20. What is the collaboration approach to dealing with conflict? When is it most useful? When is it not appropriate?

When the risks and benefits are high, collaboration may be the best approach for dealing with conflict. This approach requires confronting and attempting to solve the problem by incorporating different ideas, viewpoints, and perspectives. The focus of collaboration is learning from others and gaining commitment, trust, respect, and confidence from the various parties involved. Collaboration takes time and requires a sincere desire to work out a mutually acceptable solution. In addition, it requires a willingness to engage in a good-faith problem-solving process that facilitates open and honest communication.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Many people accept the notion that it is easier to gain compliance than acceptance. Why is that view prevalent and why might it be faulty?

2

What are assimilation and a change threshold? How are these ideas related?

3. Describe Lewin’s Force Field Analysis in terms of forces, states, and the alteration of state stability.

4. How do Elizabeth Kübler-Ross’ grieving stages relate to the emotional turmoil that can be brought about by change?

5. Briefly describe the four areas that form the framework for developing a change management plan.

6. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the Rational-Empirical strategy for change?

7. What is the Environmental-Adaptive strategy for change and what conditions might make it a good strategy to adopt?

8. The text describes three views of conflict; describe these separate views. Which one do you believe is true about the nature of conflict and why?

9. What are the typical approaches to managing conflict and under what conditions might one choose each of them?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 12: Project Procurement Management and Outsourcing True/False 1. A project team can considered a buyer of products and services but not a seller. a. True b. False False 2. The decision whether to purchase or outsource specific project needs is similar to “make or buy” decision that compares the total direct and indirect costs of “making” a particular product or performing a particular service internally to the total direct and indirect costs of “buying” or contracting internally. a. True b. False True 3. A contract is a document signed by the buyer and seller that serves as a legallybinding agreement that defines the terms, conditions, and remedies of the buyerseller relationship. a. True b. False True 4. A contract must be a complex document so that one party cannot take advantage of the other. a. True b. False False 5. A Web site developer negotiates a contract to develop a Web site for $2,000.

This would be an example of a Fixed-Price/Lump-Sum contract a. True b. False True 6. A Cost-Plus-Fixed- Fee would be one type of a Cost-Reimbursable contract a. True b. False True 7. A Time and Material (T&M) contract is really a hybrid of cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts. a. True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b. False True 8. Outsourcing may be viewed as a more strategic approach, while project procurement management is more tactical. a. True b. False True 9. Business processes or functions like accounting, human resources management, and marketing are too important to organizations so they could never be outsourced. a. True b. False False 10. A Full-Insourcing approach means that all organizational or project activities and deliverables are the responsibility of external sources. a. True b. False False 11. Selective outsourcing provides flexibility to choose which project processes or deliverables should be outsourced and which should be kept internal. a. True b. False True 12. Although some people lose their jobs because of outsourcing, many new, higherpaying jobs are often created. a. True b. False True 13. The trend toward outsourcing can reduce an organization’s ability to gain competitive advantage in a knowledge economy. a. True b. False True 14. A large number of organizations have had negative experiences with outsourced projects and are now starting to bring projects back in-house. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 15. Outsourcing results in an automatic reduction in cost and an increase in performance. a. True b. False False 16. Although price is an important consideration, an outsource vendor may be chosen based upon their ability to provide a product or service better or faster. a. True b. False True 17. A well-written contract should be precise, complete, balanced, and flexible. a. True b. False True 18. Organizations contemplating an outsourcing decision should keep things quiet until the last minute in order to shield its employees from undue stress. a. True b. False False 19. All outsourcing relationships should have an exit strategy. a. True b. False True 20. Organizations should consider functions that perform poorly or that are poorly understood as prime opportunities for outsourcing. a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

According to the PMBOK® Guide, Project Procurement Management entails processes necessary to acquire: a. products b. services c. results d. All of the above e. None of the above

Answer: D (p. 325)

2.

Which of the following is NOT one of the Project Procurement Management processes outlined in the PMBOK® Guide? a. Plan Procurements b. Conduct Procurements c. Administer Procurements d. Plan Exit Strategy e. Close Procurements

Answer: D (p. 326)

3.

Making decisions as to what will be purchased or acquired as well as determining the logistics of when purchases will be made and how refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: A (p. 326)

4.

Documenting the product, services, or results needed as well as identifying potential sellers, vendors, suppliers, contractors, subcontractors, or other service providers refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e. Plan Exit Strategy Answer: A (p. 326)

5.

Obtaining bids, quotes, proposals, literature, and other information from potential sellers or service providers refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: A (p. 326)

6.

Determining which project needs can be fulfilled internally by the project team and which can be met externally refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: A (p. 326)

7.

Negotiating, selecting, and contracting with a seller for a particular product of service refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: B (p. 326)

8.

Negotiating and awarding a contract to a seller for a specific product or service occurs in:

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: B (p. 326)

9.

Completing and settling each contract after any open items or settlements are resolved refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: D (p. 326)

10.

Monitoring contract performance and making changes or taking corrective actions when needed refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: C (p. 326)

11.

Managing the relationship and contract between the buyer and seller is part of _____. a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: C (p. 326)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

12.

Managing scope in terms of its definition and change control refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: C (p. 326)

13.

Risk identification, monitoring, and control refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: C (p. 326)

14.

Monitoring that all payments are made refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Answer: C (p. 326)

15.

Determining whether the contract needs to be amended refers to which of the following Project Procurement Management processes? a. b. c. d. e.

Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Plan Exit Strategy

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: C (p. 326)

16.

A contract… a. b. c. d.

Is a legally-binding agreement signed by the buyer and seller Obligates the seller to provide specific products, services, or results Obligates the buyer to provide specific monetary or other consideration Defines such things as responsibilities, authority, technical and project management approaches, financing, schedule, and payments. e. All of the above are part of a contract Answer: E (p. 328)

17.

A type of contract where the fixed price is negotiated or set as the final price for a specific product or service describes a: a. b. c. d. e.

Cost-Reimbursable contract Time and Materials contract Fixed Price/Lump Sum contract Cost plus fixed fee contract Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract

Answer: C (p. 328)

18.

A _____ is when a consulting firm develops an application for a client at a negotiated price. a. b. c. d. e.

Cost-Reimbursable contract Time and Materials contract Fixed Price/Lump Sum contract Cost plus fixed fee contract Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract

Answer: C (p. 328)

19.

Under this type of contract, the buyer pays the seller for the time and materials required to complete the work and the unit rates are set. a. Cost-Reimbursable contract b. Time and Materials contract c. Fixed Price/Lump Sum contract

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d. Cost plus fixed fee contract e. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract Answer: B (p. 329)

20.

A _____ is when a consulting firm bills the client for developing an application based on the amount of time and cost of materials to complete the work. a. b. c. d. e.

Cost-Reimbursable contract Time and Materials contract Fixed Price/Lump Sum contract Cost plus fixed fee contract Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract

Answer: B (p. 329)

21.

Under this type of contract, a payment or reimbursement is made to seller to cover the sellers direct and indirect costs along with an additional fee added on as a profit to the seller. a. b. c. d. e.

Cost-Reimbursable contract Time and Materials contract Fixed Price/Lump Sum contract Cost-Penalty contract Time-Reimbursable contract

Answer: A (p. 329)

22.

Cost-plus-fee, cost-plus-fixed-fee, and cost-plus-incentive-fee are all types of a _____. a. b. c. d. e.

Cost-Reimbursable contract Time and Materials contract Fixed Price/Lump Sum contract Cost-Penalty contract Time-Reimbursable contract

Answer: A (p. 329)

23.

_____ is the procurement of products or services from an external vendor, supplier, or manufacturer.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing Insourcing Contracting Offshoring None of the Above

Answer: A (p. 331)

24.

Which of the following would an organization employ if all project deliverables and activities were the responsibility of an internal project team? a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: B (p. 332)

25.

_____ is when an organization turns over processes such as Accounting, Human Resources, or Research and Development to an outside organization that specializes in these processes. a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: A (p. 332)

26.

Which of the following would an organization employ if it outsourced a particular business function or department like information technology, accounting, research and development? a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: A (p. 332)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

27.

_____ takes advantage of labor arbitrage by procuring a product or service from a company that operates in another country. a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: D (p. 332)

28.

_____ has caused a lot of controversy because of the perception that jobs within one country are replaced by lower wage jobs in another, leading to higher domestic unemployment. a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: D (p. 332)

29.

Which of the following would an organization employ if an organization employ if all project products and services were from external sources? a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: C (p. 332)

30.

Which of the following approaches provides flexibility to choose which project processes and deliverables should be from external sources and which should be internal to the organization? a. b. c. d.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e. Selective Outsourcing Answer: E (p. 332)

31.

_____ provides greater flexibility by allowing specific processes to be kept internal while allowing other processes to be outsourced. a. b. c. d. e.

Business process outsourcing Full-Insourcing Full-Outsourcing Offshoring Selective Outsourcing

Answer: E (p. 332)

32.

Which of the following is NOT a common outsourcing mistake? a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues All of the above are common outsourcing mistakes

Answer: E (p. 333)

33.

Outsourcing core business functions is an example of the following common outsourcing mistake. a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues All of the above are common outsourcing mistakes

Answer: A (p. 333)

34.

Not verifying the prospective vendor’s qualifications as well as their experience and financial strength is an example of the following common outsourcing mistake. a. Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced b. Selecting the wrong vendor

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c. Writing a poor contract d. Overlooking personnel issues e. All of the above are common outsourcing mistakes Answer: B (p. 333)

35.

Performing due diligence to evaluate the financial strength of the vendor as a going concern helps protect against _____. a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues All of the above are common outsourcing mistakes

Answer: B (p. 333)

36.

Not establishing an appropriate balance of power between the client and vendor is an example of the following common outsourcing mistake. a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues All of the above are common outsourcing mistakes

Answer: C (p. 334)

37.

Not retaining organization-specific knowledge is an example of the following common outsourcing mistake. a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues Losing control over the outsourced activity

Answer: D (p. 335)

38.

Not actively managing the vendor could lead to the following common outsourcing mistake.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues Losing control over the outsourced activity

Answer: E (p. 335)

39.

Failure to include costs of searching for the vendor, writing the contract, or managing the vendor relationship are examples of the following common outsourcing mistake. a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues Overlooking the hidden costs of outsourcing

Answer: E (p. 333)

40.

The inability to switch vendors or reintegrate the outsourced activity is an example of the following common outsourcing mistake. a. b. c. d. e.

Outsourcing activities that should not be outsourced Selecting the wrong vendor Writing a poor contract Overlooking personnel issues Failing to plan an exit strategy

Answer: E (p. 335)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answers 1. Describe the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) area called Project Procurement Management.

According to PMBOK, project procurement management is the contract management and change control processes required to administer contracts or purchase orders issued by authorized team members. It also includes the administration of any contract issued by an outside organization (the buyer) that is acquiring the project from the performing organization (the seller), and administering contractual obligations placed on the project team by the contract.

2. What is the purpose of a contract?

A contract is a document signed by the buyer and seller that defines the terms and conditions of the buyer-seller relationship. It serves as a legally binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide specific products, services, or even results, while obligating the seller to provide specific monetary or other compensation. A contract defines the terms and conditions of such things as responsibilities and authorities, technical and project management approaches, proprietary rights, financing, schedule, payments, quality requirements, and prices, as well as remedies and process for revision to the contract.

3. Describe how a fixed-price or lump-sum contract works. Give an example.

A total or fixed price is negotiated or set as the final price for a specific product or service. They may include incentives for meeting certain objectives or penalties if those objectives are not met. Example: Payment of $1,000 to develop a Web site for an organization.

4. What are the three types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

Payment or reimbursement is made to the seller to cover the seller’s actual (direct and indirect) costs.

Cost-Plus-Fee (CPF) or Cost-Plus-Percentage (CPP) – seller is paid for the costs incurred in performing the work plus either a agreed upon fee or percentage.

Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) – seller is reimbursed for the total direct and indirect costs of performing the work, but receives a fixed amount.

Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF) – seller is reimbursed for the costs incurred in doing the work, receives a predetermined fee, and an incentive or bonus if specified objectives are met.

5. Describe how a time and materials contract works. Give and example.

T & M is a hybrid of cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts. Under a T&M contract, the buyer pays the seller for both the time and materials required to complete the work; however, the unit rates are set. Example: Contractor is hired to build a garage. You will pay for all the building materials (i.e., expenses or costs incurred) plus $30 an hour for the contractor’s time for completing the work.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 6. What is outsourcing? How does it related to Project Procurement Management?

Outsourcing can be defined as the procurement of products and services from an external vendor, supplier, or manufacturer. In this respect, outsourcing is analogous to procurement management. However, outsourcing is more of an organizational or project strategic approach and project procurement management is more of a tactical approach that includes a group of processes.

7. What is business process outsourcing?

A situation when an organization turns over processes other than just IT (i.e., accounting, human resources, research and development) to another organization that specializes in that process.

8. What is offshoring or offshore outsourcing?

The outsourcing of jobs, products, or services overseas in order to take advantage of labor arbitrage (i.e., cheaper labor).

9. What is meant by full in-sourcing?

All products and services are retained internally by the organization or project team.

10. What is meant by selective outsourcing? Why is selective outsourcing a better approach than full in-sourcing or full outsourcing?

Selective outsourcing provides greater flexibility to choose which project or organizational products and services should be outsourced and which should be kept internal.

11. Why is it important than organizations and project managers understand which activities should and should not be outsourced?

Many believe that outsourcing results in an automatic reduction of costs and an increase in performance. Others may try to mimic their competitors or hear about the virtues of outsourcing from the media. For outsourcing to be successful, an organization must understand where it gets its competitive advantage. These activities may be best served by retaining them internally.

12. Why is selecting the right vendor important when considering an outsourcing agreement?

Although this may seem like common sense, vendors can be selected for the wrong reasons. Reducing costs may be one reason, but some organizations outsource because a vendor may be able to deliver a product or service better or faster. Also, financial strength, qualifications, and experience should be included in this decision instead of just price.

13. Why are personnel issues important when an organization or project manager is considering the outsourcing of activities?

Decisions to outsource or even rumors can negatively impact employee morale, loyalty, and their sense of job security. This may lead to reduced productivity,

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka dysfunctional behaviors, or a mass exodus of valued employees even before the outsourcing decision is final. Organizations must retain and motivate key employees so that organization-specific knowledge is retained.

14. What are some hidden costs of outsourcing? Why is it important to consider these costs?

The main types of hidden costs include searching for vendors, negotiation, and writing contracts, and managing the outsource relationship. These costs are an important consideration since they can turn a potentially attractive outsourcing arrangement into one that challenges the rationale for outsourcing.

15. What is the importance of having an exit strategy when entering into an outsourcing agreement?

It may be beneficial for some outsourcing relationships to be short-term, while others more long-term. All outsourcing relationships should include an exit strategy that allows the client a means to switch vendors or reintegrate the outsourced activity later on.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Describe the four Project Procurement Management Processes as defined by the PMBOK® Guide.

2. How are Project Procurement Management and Outsourcing similar? How are they different?

3. Why is the topic of offshoring so controversial? What is your opinion?

4. Do you believe that offshoring is having a positive or negative impact on the economies of countries that outsource to countries that have significantly lower wage rates? Support your answer.

5. Why have a number of organizations started to bring back projects in-house?

6. If you were hired as consultant for a company contemplating offshoring a particular project, what useful advice would you give your client?

7. Discuss selective outsourcing and the importance of choosing which activities to outsource and which to keep in house. Identify criteria that can be used to determine whether an activity should be outsourced or remain in house.

8. Discuss the activities that must occur once the decision is made to outsource an activity or project.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 13: Leadership and Ethics True/False 1. Leadership is the same thing as management. a. True b. False False 2. Management focuses activities related to planning, organizing, controlling staffing, evaluating, and monitoring. a. True b. False True 3. A leader who “Models the Way” attempts to be an effective leader by setting an example so that he or she wins people’s respect based on behavior and not title or position. a. True b. False True 4. One practice of exemplary leadership is to inspire a shared vision so people become committed to a purpose. a. True b. False True 5. A leader who “challenges the process” should also be critical of other people’s ideas in order to challenge them to be more creative. a. True b. False False 6. An exemplary leader who “encourages from the heart” should show appreciation for other’s accomplishments by creating a culture of celebration even if it involves recognitions or celebrations that are insincere. a. True b. False False 7. The coercive style of leadership can be effective in a crisis situation. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 8. One problem with the democratic style of leadership is that it can lead to seemingly endless meetings in order to gain group consensus. a. True b. False True 9. The democratic style of leadership is most effective in a crisis situation. a. True b. False False 10. The pacesetting style of leadership may be appropriate in situations that require quick results from a highly motivated team. a. True b. False True 11. The coaching style of leadership helps people identify their strengths and weakness so that long-term professional goals can be set. a. True b. False True 12. Emotional intelligence is largely genetic just like a person’s intelligence quotient (IQ). a. True b. False False 13. Emotional intelligence includes five styles: coercive, authoritative, affiliative, democratic, and coaching. a. True b. False False 14. A person has only one leadership style that can never be changed. a. True b. False False 15. An action or decision that is legal is always ethical. a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 16. Socialization can take place through formal means such as training or mentoring and through less formal ones such as interaction with peers and supervisors. a. True b. False True 17. An unethical leader is usually someone who is a morally weak individual and manager. a. True b. False True 18. A hypocritical leader extols the virtues of integrity and ethical conduct, but then engages in unethical behavior and may encourage others to do so as well. a. True b. False True 19. An ethically neutral leader is someone who does not provide clear ethical guidance so others do not know what the leader’s ethical beliefs are or whether he or she cares. a. True b. False True 20. A client offers you an expense-paid vacation to Aruba if you reduce the cost of the project by 10%. This would be an example of conflict of interest. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

Which of the following is NOT a traditional management activity? a. b. c. d. e.

Planning Inspiring a vision Controlling Staffing Evaluating

Answer: B (p.342)

2.

Leadership includes _____ . a. b. c. d. e.

Planning Setting a direction Controlling Staffing Evaluating

Answer: B (p.343)

3.

The approach to leadership where a leader leads by example is: a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: A (p. 343)

4.

_____ means that a leader's behavior wins respect, not title or position within the organization. a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: A (p. 343)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

5.

The approach to leadership that entails inventing the future so that people become committed to a purpose is: a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: B (p. 343)

6.

_____ means understanding the needs, interests, and "speaking the language" of constituents. a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: B (p. 343)

7.

The approach to leadership where the leader is viewed as a pioneer who seeks out opportunities to innovate, grow, and improve is: a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: C (p. 343)

8.

_____ means recognizing and supporting good ideas, and making sure these ideas happen. a. b. c. d.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e. Encourage the heart Answer: C (p. 343)

9.

The approach to leadership that requires a leader to support collaboration and build trust among project stakeholders is: a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: D (p. 344)

10.

_____ means empowering people and motivating them to do their best, feel a sense of ownership, and take pride in what they do. a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: D (p. 344)

11.

The project team appears to be tired, disillusioned, frustrated, and willing to give up. The most appropriate leadership approach would be: a. b. c. d. e.

Model the way Inspire a vision Challenge the process Enable others to act Encourage the heart

Answer: E (p. 344)

12.

_____ means using simple gestures to show appreciation for people's contributions and recognition of accomplishments. a. Model the way b. Inspire a vision

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c. Challenge the process d. Enable others to act e. Encourage the heart Answer: E (p. 344)

13.

The coercive leadership style can be summarized as: a. b. c. d. e.

“Come with me” “What do you think?”

“Try this” “Do as I do, now!”

“Do as I say”

Answer: E (p. 344)

14.

The leadership style that is most effective in a crisis situation is the: a. b. c. d. e.

Coercive style Authoritative style Affiliative style Democratic style Coaching style

Answer: A (p. 344)

15.

The authoritative leadership style can be summarized as: a. b. c. d. e.

“Come with me” “What do you think?”

“Try this” “Do as I do, now!”

“Do as I say”

Answer: A (p. 344)

16.

The leadership style where the leader outlines a clearly defined goal but empowers people to choose their own means for achieving it is the: a. Coercive style b. Authoritative style c. Affiliative style

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d. Democratic style e. Coaching style Answer: B (p. 345)

17.

The leadership style that follows the attitude that “people come first” is the: a. b. c. d. e.

Coercive style Authoritative style Affiliative style Democratic style Coaching style

Answer: C (p. 345)

18.

_____centers of the value of the individual rather than goals and tasks and attempts to keep people happy by creating harmony. a. b. c. d. e.

Coercive style Authoritative style Affiliative style Democratic style Coaching style

Answer: C (p. 345)

19.

The democratic leadership style can be summarized as: a. b. c. d. e.

“Come with me” “What do you think?”

“Try this” “Do as I do, now!”

“Do as I say”

Answer: B (p. 345)

20.

The leadership style that would be least effective in a crisis situation would be the: a. Coercive style b. Authoritative style c. Affiliative style

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d. Democratic style e. Coaching style Answer: D (p. 345)

21.

When using _____, the leader spends time getting other people's ideas, while building trust, respect, and commitment. a. b. c. d. e.

Coercive style Authoritative style Affiliative style Democratic style Coaching style

Answer: D (p. 345)

22.

The pacesetting leadership style can be summarized as: a. b. c. d. e.

“Come with me” “What do you think?”

“Try this” “Do as I do, now!”

“Do as I say”

Answer: D (p. 346)

23.

The leadership style where poor performers are quickly identified and replaced if standards are not met is the: a. b. c. d. e.

Coercive style Authoritative style Affiliative style Pacesetting style Coaching style

Answer: D (p. 346)

24.

The coaching leadership style can be summarized as: a. “Come with me” b. “What do you think?” c. “Try this”

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka d. “Do as I do, now!” e. “Do as I say” Answer: C (p. 346)

25.

The leadership style that helps people identify their unique strengths and weaknesses so that they can achieve their personal and career goals is the: a. b. c. d. e.

Coercive style Authoritative style Affiliative style Democratic style Coaching style

Answer: E (p. 346)

26.

Emotional intelligence a. Allows an individual to be flexible in choosing the most appropriate leadership style b. Can be learned at any age c. Is the ability to understand and manage relationships d. Requires an honest assessment of how others view your leadership e. All the above

Answer: E (p. 346)

27.

A capability that outlines a specific set of competencies associated with emotional intelligence is: a. b. c. d. e.

Self-awareness Self-management Social awareness Social skills All the above are capabilities associated with emotional intelligence

Answer: E (p. 346)

28.

Visionary leadership, influence, developing others, and communication are all associated with _____ of Emotional Intelligence. a. Self-awareness

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka b. c. d. e.

Self-management Social awareness Social skills All the above are capabilities associated with emotional intelligence

Answer: D (p. 347)

29.

Many organizations are mandating ethics training for their employees because It’s the law in many countries Is in the best interest for people in the organization and society CEOs are afraid that their stock price will plummet The booming economy has created a surplus of cash for many organizations to increase their training budgets e. None of the above a. b. c. d.

Answer: B (p. 348)

30.

An unethical leader could be described as someone who a. Extols the virtues of integrity and ethical conduct, but then engages in unethical behavior b. Makes it clear that bottom line results are important, but only if they can be achieved in an ethical manner c. Does not provide a clear message of the ethical conduct that is expected, so people interpret this to mean that the leader doesn’t care how business goals are met – just that they are met. d. Is a weak moral individual and a weak moral manager e. None of the above

Answer: D (p. 350)

31.

A hypocritical leader could be described as someone who a. Extols the virtues of integrity and ethical conduct, but then engages in unethical behavior b. Makes it clear that bottom line results are important, but only if they can be achieved in an ethical manner c. Does not provide a clear message of the ethical conduct that is expected, so people interpret this to mean that the leader doesn’t care how business goals are met – just that they are met. d. Is a weak moral individual and a weak moral manager e. None of the above

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Answer: A (p. 350)

32.

An ethically neutral leader could be described as someone who a. Extols the virtues of integrity and ethical conduct, but then engages in unethical behavior b. Makes it clear that bottom line results are important, but only if they can be achieved in an ethical manner c. Does not provide a clear message of the ethical conduct that is expected, so people interpret this to mean that the leader doesn’t care how business goals are met – just that they are met. d. Is a weak moral individual and a weak moral manager e. None of the above

Answer: C (p. 351)

33.

An ethical leader could be described as someone who a. Extols the virtues of integrity and ethical conduct, but then engages in unethical behavior b. Makes it clear that bottom line results are important, but only if they can be achieved in an ethical manner c. Does not provide a clear message of the ethical conduct that is expected, so people interpret this to mean that the leader doesn’t care how business goals are met – just that they are met. d. Is a weak moral individual and a weak moral manager e. None of the above

Answer: B (p. 351)

34.

A project manager who attempts to create a project environment in which people feel safe and appreciated is trying to ensure that which one of the following ethical dilemmas do not occur? a. b. c. d. e.

Confidence Human resource Corporate resource Conflict of interest None of the above

Answer: B (p. 351)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka 35.

Focusing on fairness in terms of equity, reciprocity, and impartiality is hoping to avoid which ethical dilemma? a. b. c. d. e.

Confidence Human resource Corporate resource Conflict of interest None of the above

Answer: B (p. 351)

36.

Which of the following would be an ethical dilemma where impartiality and trust come into question? a. b. c. d. e.

Confidence Human resource Corporate resource Conflict of interest None of the above

Answer: D (p. 351)

37.

A gift from a vendor could cause the following ethical dilemma _____. a. b. c. d. e.

Confidence Human resource Corporate resource Conflict of interest None of the above

Answer: D (p. 351)

38.

While working on an IT project, you learn that a particular department plans to reduce its staff by 50%. The manager of this department has asked the project team to keep this information secret until the plans are finalized. A good friend of yours works in this department and has asked you whether you heard of any news concerning the future of the department. This would be an example of which of the following ethical dilemmas? a. b. c. d.

Confidence Human resource Corporate resource Conflict of interest

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e. None of the above Answer: A (p. 352)

39.

You have been issued a computer by your employer. Using this computer to trade stocks online could be considered which of the following ethical dilemmas? a. b. c. d. e.

Confidence Human resource Corporate resource Conflict of interest None of the above

Answer: C (p. 352)

40.

The first thing to consider when faced with an ethical dilemma would be a. b. c. d. e.

Identify the consequences Check with legal counsel Gather the facts Identify the obligations Report the situation immediately to the company’s CEO

Answer: C (p. 353)

41.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a complexity of international projects? a. b. c. d. e.

Currency exchange Regulations and laws Language Attitude toward work and time All the above are complexities of international projects

Answer: E (p. 356)

42.

Differences in nationality, ethnicity, religion, gender, or generation is: a. b. c. d.

Culture Diversity Internationalism Individualism

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e. None of the above Answer: B (p. 357)

43.

_____ can be defined as the shared beliefs, assumptions, and values that we learn from society or a group that guides or influences our behavior. a. b. c. d. e.

Culture Diversity Internationalism Individualism None of the above

Answer: A (p. 349)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer 1. What is the relationship between leadership and management?

Management focuses on policies and procedures that bring order and predictability to complex organizational situations. It is traditionally defined within such activities as planning, organizing, controlling, staffing, evaluating, and monitoring. Management and leadership tend to overlap; however, leadership centers on change, getting results, and inspiring a shared vision.

2. Describe the 5 Practices for Exemplary Leadership.

Model the Way – A leader’s behavior wins respect. Therefore, leaders set an example of what they expect from others by modeling the way they want others to behave.

Inspire a Shared Vision – An exemplary leader has an exciting vision or dream that acts as a force for inventing the future. This vision should ignite a passion and inspire people so that they become committed to a purpose.

Challenge the Process – Leaders are pioneers who challenge the status quo by seeking new challenges to seek out new opportunities to innovate, grow, and improve. However, good leaders are good listeners who recognize good ideas, support those ideas, and then challenge the process to make these good ideas happen.

Enable Others to Act – The ability of a leader to get others to act is crucial. Leaders enable others to act by encouraging collaboration and building trust among the project stakeholders. People should feel empowered and motivated to do their best, feel a sense of ownership, and take pride in what they do.

Encourage from the Heart – Often people can become tired, disillusioned, frustrated, and willing to give up. Leaders should rally others to carry on by encouraging from the heart.

This may include simple or dramatic gestures to show appreciation or to celebrate recognitions or accomplishments.

3. Describe the coercive leadership style.

Summarized as a “do as I say” approach to leadership. This style may be effective in a crisis or to kick-start a turnaround situation, when dealing with a problem employee, or when attempting to achieve immediate compliance. It can have a negative impact on the climate of the project or organization if used as an extreme top-down approach to decision making whereby communication and new ideas are obstructed. People can lose their initiative, motivation, commitment, and sense of ownership.

4. Describe the authoritative leadership style.

Described as a “come with me” type of approach where the leader outlines a clearly defined goal but empowers people to choose their own means for achieving it. The authoritative leader provides vision and enthusiasm, and motivates people by showing them how their work fits into the larger picture so that they know that what they are doing has meaning and purpose. Works well in most situations, but is best suited for situations when people are adrift. May not work best for inexperienced leaders.

5. Describe the affiliative leadership style.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Follows the attitude that “people come first.” Centers on the value of the individual rather than goals and tasks and attempts to keep people happy by creating harmony among them. The affiliative leader attempts to build strong emotional bonds that translate into strong loyalty. The idea is that people who like each other tend to communicate more, share ideas, and inspiration. Flexibility is high. Works well in situations that require building team harmony, morale, trust, or communication. Does not work well when people need structure or advice to navigate through complex tasks or situations.

6. Describe the democratic leadership style.

Attempts to develop consensus through participation by asking “what do you think?”

The leaders spends most of his or her time getting other people’s ideas, while building trust, respect, and commitment. People have more say in the decisions that affect their goals and work. Subsequently, morale tends to be higher and more realistic expectations.

Works best when the leader needs to build buy-in, consensus, or valuable input from others. Can lead to seemingly endless meetings in a vain attempt to gain group consensus and cause conflicts, confusion, and the perception that the group is leaderless. Not appropriate in crisis situation or when the group does not have the competence or experience to offer sound advice.

7. Describe the pacesetting leadership style.

Follows a “do as I say” attitude. The leader exemplifies an obsession with doing things better and faster. Poor performers are quickly identified and replaced. Although the leader tries to set high standards for performance, morale can deteriorate if people feel overwhelmed by the demands for excellence and performance. Goals may be clear to the leader but poorly communicated to the group. People may lose energy and enthusiasm if the work becomes too task-focused, routine, or boring. The pacesetting leader may try to micromanage and people can lose their direction or sense of how their work fits within the larger picture. If the leader leaves, people may feel adrift since the pacesetter sets all direction. Appropriate in situations that require quick results from a highly motivated, self-directed, and competent team.

8. Describe the coaching leadership style.

Follows the “try this” approach to help people identify their unique strengths and weaknesses so that they can reach their full potential and career goals. This leader encourages people to set long-term goals and then helps them develop a plan for achieving them. Coaching leaders are good at delegating and giving people attainable challenges. Short-term and minor failures are acceptable and viewed as learning experiences. Although this style appears to be the least often used, it can be a good approach when people want to be coached. It is least effective when people are resistant to change or when the leader does not have the knowledge, capability, or desire to be a coach.

9. What is emotional intelligence?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Is the ability to understand and manage our relationships and ourselves better. It is different from a person’s IQ in that improving one’s emotional intelligence requires time, patience, and effort.

10. Describe the emotional intelligence competency called self-awareness.

Emotional Self-Awareness - Reading and understanding your emotions as well as how your emotions impact your job performance and those around you.

Accurate Self-Assessment - Evaluating realistically your strengths and weaknesses.

Self-Confidence - Having a strong and positive sense of self-worth.

11. Describe the emotional intelligence competency called self-management.

Self-Control - Keeping your impulses and negative emotions in check.

Trustworthiness - Maintaining a high level of honesty and integrity.

Conscientiousness - Managing yourself and responsibilities effectively Adaptability - Adjusting to new situations and overcoming challenges.

Achievement Orientation - Meeting high internal standards of excellence.

Initiative - Seizing new opportunities 12. Describe the emotional intelligence competency called social awareness.

Empathy - Sensing and understanding other people’s emotions, perspectives, and being genuinely concerned in their problems and interests.

Organizational Awareness - Being perceptive to the currents of every-day organizational life, building networks, and navigating through organizational politics.

Service Orientation - Recognizing and meeting customer needs.

13. Describe the emotional intelligence competency called social skills.

Visionary Leadership - Taking charge and inspiring others with a compelling vision.

Influence - Having a wide range of persuasive tactics at your disposal.

Developing Others - Bolstering the abilities of others through feedback and guidance.

Communication - Listening and sending clear, convincing, and well-aimed messages.

Change Catalyst - Initiating new ideas and leading people in the right direction.

Conflict Management - Being able to de-escalate disagreements and facilitate resolutions.

Building Bonds - Cultivating and maintaining a web of relationships inside and outside of the organization.

Teamwork and Collaboration - Facilitating cooperation and building teams.

14. What is the difference between ethical and legal? Can something be ethical but illegal? Unethical but legal?

Ethics is defined as a set of moral principles. Legal depends on the laws of society.

Unfortunately, the difference is not always clear-cut because some things can be ethical but illegal or legal but unethical.

15. What is socialization?

People who are brought into an organization learn its culture through a process called socialization. This is the process of “learning the ropes” and occurs through formal means such as training or mentoring. It also occurs through informal means such as how

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka to dress appropriately, as well as what behaviors are acceptable and unacceptable.

Subsequently, socialization can encourage or discourage ethical behaviors.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. What is the relationship between leadership and management?

2. Describe the Five Practices of Exemplary Leadership.

3. Why is leading by example an effective approach for leadership?

4. Describe the six leadership styles and when each style would be most appropriate.

5. What is emotional intelligence? What role does emotional intelligence play in choosing an appropriate leadership style?

6. What is the relationship between ethics and legality?

7. What role does culture play in making ethical decisions?

8. Describe the process for making a sound ethical decision.

9. What challenges might a project manager face on an international project?

10. What is diversity? Why should a project leader understand and be able to manage a diverse project team?

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

Chapter 14: Project Implementation, Closure, and Evaluation True/False 1.

True 2.

True

Project implementation focuses on installing or delivering the project’s major deliverable in organization-the information system that was built or purchased. a. True b. False For a project to be closed successfully, the product of the project must be formally accepted by the project sponsor or customer. a. True b. False

3. Immediately after the implementation, the project’s MOV can be determined. a. True b. False False 4. The direct cutover is the generally the least favored implementation approach. a. True b. False True 5. The parallel implementation approach is generally considered to be the riskiest implementation approach. a. True b. False False 6. The phased approach is generally the least expensive of the three implementation approaches. a. True b. False False 7. Premature project closure is always a characteristic of a failed project. a. True b. False False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

8. Failure to clearly define and agree on the project’s MOV may lead to a runaway or perpetual project. a. True False True 9. Project termination by starvation may result from changed priorities. a. True b. False True 10. Most of the project documentation is completed during the development phase. a. True b. False False 11. Delivery, installation, and implementation of the information system indicate the sponsor’s acceptance of the project. a. True b. False False 12. The final project report may be circulated to key stakeholders prior to the final meeting and presentation. a. True b. False True 13. Once the project is accepted by the sponsor or customer, a number of administrative closure processes remain. a. True b. False True 14. Most team members are less critical of their own performance than the project manager. a. True False False 15. Individual performance reviews should provide a consensus on improving performance. a. True b. False

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka True 16. Conducting the postmortem review is the responsibility of the project sponsor. a. True b. False False 17. The project audit is the generally conducted by the project manager and project team. a. True b. False False 18. The project MOV is usually readily determined at the close of the project. a. True b. False False 19. Before conducting the final project evaluation, one must be sure that information system delivered has not been changed by the users or support staff. a. True b. False True 20. The final test of project success is the evaluation of the project’s MOV. a. True b. False True

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Multiple Choice 1.

Which implemention approach usually entails the greatest level of risk especially if the system is not adequately tested? a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 366) 2.

_____ is the implementation method where the old system is shut down and the new system is turned on at an agreed upon date. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 366) 3.

_____ can be effective when quick delivery of the new system is critical or when the existing system must be replaced as soon as possible. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 366) 4.

_____ may be appropriate for non mission critical applications. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: A (p. 366) 5.

_____ is the least favored implementation approach due to the higher level of risk. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 366) 6.

_____ places more pressure on the project team. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 366) 7.

Which implemention approach involves no risk? a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: E (p. 365) 8.

Which implemention approach is usually the most expensive and least risky? a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 366)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

9.

_____ is most appropriate when problems or the failure of a system can have a major impact on the organization. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 366) 10.

With _____, users may have to enter data into multiple systems to compare the outputs. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 366) 11.

_____ places more pressure on the user of the system. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 366) 12.

Which implementation approach allows for implementation of modules in different departments or locations? a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Answer: C (p. 367) 13.

With the _____, the project team can learn from its experiences during the initial implementation so that later implementations run more smoothly. a) Direct Cutover b) Parallel c) Phased d) All of the above e) None of the above Answer: C (p. 367)

14.

Which termination circumstance is one in which the project is completed as planned? a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority

Answer: A (p. 368) 15.

Which termination circumstance is one in which the project is ended because the cost of completing it are greater than the potential benefits of completing it. a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority

Answer: D (p. 368) 16.

Another name for a runaway project is: a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka e) Changed Priority Answer: C (p. 368) 17.

These projects can result from delays or an unclear scope or MOV. a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority

Answer: C (p. 368) 18.

When the Project Scope grows through the addition of various features or functionality, it may lead to a _____ project. a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority

Answer: C (p. 368) 19.

Clearly defining the Project MOV, Project Scope, and timely project reviews can reduce the risk of a _____ project . a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority

Answer: C (p. 368) 20.

As a result of competitor's actions, a project was pushed to completion without all of the envisioned features. This project termination is termed __________ ? a) Normal b) Premature

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority Answer: B (p. 368) 21.

Project Termination through "starvation" is an example of _____ . a) Normal b) Premature c) Perpetual d) Failed e) Changed Priority

Answer: E (p. 369) 22.

The most important requirement for project closure under normal circumstances is: a) completing the project on time. b) completing the project on or under budget. c) redeploying team members successfully to other projects. d) following the project methodology. e) obtaining the project sponsor's acceptance of the project.

Answer: E (p. 371) 23.

The final project report should include: a) Project Summary b) Comparison of Planned vs. Actual c) Outstanding Issues d) Project Documentation List e) All of the above

Answer: E (p. 372) 24.

Demonstrating that all project deliverables have been completed occurs during _____. a) Project Sponsor Acceptance b) Final Project Report

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka c) Final Meeting and Presentation d) Closing the Project e) Project Evaluation Answer: E (p. 371) 25.

The purpose of the _____ is to provide the project sponsor confidence that the project has been completed as outlined in the business case, project charter, and project plan. a) Project Sponsor Acceptance b) Final Project Report c) Final Meeting and Presentation d) Closing the Project e) Project Evaluation

Answer: B (p. 371) 26.

Acknowledging the contributions of the project team would occur during _____. a) Project Sponsor Acceptance b) Final Project Report c) Final Meeting and Presentation d) Closing the Project e) Project Evaluation

Answer: C (p. 372) 27.

The formal exchange of the project's product from the project team to the organization occurs during _____ . a) Project Sponsor Acceptance b) Final Project Report c) Final Meeting and Presentation d) Closing the Project e) Project Evaluation

Answer: C (p. 372) 28.

Organizing and archiving of all project deliverables and documentation occurs during _____ .

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

a) Project Sponsor Acceptance b) Final Project Report c) Final Meeting and Presentation d) Closing the Project e) Project Evaluation Answer: D (p. 373) 29.

Discussing team members' next assignment is generally a part of: a) Individual Performance Review b) Postmortem Review c) Project Audit d) MOV Evaluation e) None of the above

Answer: A (p. 373) 30.

Having the team review the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality objectives would most likely occur in the: a) Individual Performance Review b) Postmortem Review c) Project Audit d) MOV Evaluation e) None of the above

Answer: B (p. 375) 31.

Assessment of the project manager and project team occurs during the _____ . a) Individual Performance Review b) Postmortem Review c) Project Audit d) MOV Evaluation e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 375) 32.

An outside party would be more likely to be called in for the:

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka a) Individual Performance Review b) Postmortem Review c) Project Audit d) MOV Evaluation e) None of the above Answer: C (p. 375) 33.

In the final analysis, project success is determined in the: a) Individual Performance Review b) Postmortem Review c) Project Audit d) MOV Evaluation e) None of the above

Answer: C (p. 376) 34.

_____ may sometimes occur weeks or months after the project is complete in order to obtain an accurate assessment. a) Individual Performance Review b) Postmortem Review c) Project Audit d) MOV Evaluation e) None of the above

Answer: D (p. 375)

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Short Answer Questions

1. What is implementation?

Project implementation focuses on installing or delivering the project’s major deliverable in the organization—the information system that was built or purchased.

2. Describe the three approaches to implementing an information system.

The direct cutover approach is an approach where the old system is shut down and the new system is turned on. In general, a target, or go live, date is agreed upon, and the new system simply replaces the old.

The parallel approach to implementation allows the old and the new systems to run concurrently for a time. At some point, the organization switches entirely from the old system to the new.

Following the phased approach, the system is introduced in modules or in different parts of the organization incrementally.

3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the direct cutover approach?

Advantages: • Implementation can be quick Disadvantages: • Can be risky if system is not fully tested • Places more pressure on the project team 4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the parallel approach?

Advantages: • Provides a safety net or backup in case problems are encountered with the implementation of the new system • Can increase confidence in the new system when output of old system and new system is compared Disadvantages: • Takes longer and may cost more than direct cutover approach • Places more pressure on the users of the system 5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the phased approach?

Advantages: • Allows for an organized and managed approach for implementing system modules or a system/upgrades in different departments or geographical locations • Experience with early implementation can guide and make later implementations go more smoothly Disadvantages • Takes longer and may cost more than the direct cutover approach • Problems encountered during early phases can impact the overall implementation schedule

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

6. Describe the various scenarios for project termination.

Normal—A project that ends normally is one that is completed as planned. The project scope is achieved within the cost, quality, and schedule objectives, although there probably was some variation and modification along the way. The project is transferred to the project sponsor, and the end of the project is marked with a celebration, awards, and recognition for a good job well done by those involved Premature—Occasionally, a project team may be pushed to complete a project early even though the system may not include all of the envisioned features or functionality Perpetual—Some projects seem to take on a “life of their own” and are known as runaway, or perpetual, projects. These projects never seem to end. Perpetual projects may result from delays or a scope or MOV that was never clearly defined or agreed upon.

Then, the project sponsor (or even the team) may attempt to add on various features or functionality to the system, which results in added time and resources that increase the project schedule and drain the project budget.

Failed—Sometimes projects are just unsuccessful. In general, an IT project fails if insufficient attention is paid to the people, processes, or technology. Even though the project’s MOV may define the project’s value to the organization, cost and schedule overruns may drain the project’s value to a point where the costs of completing the project outweigh the benefits.

Changed Priority—In some circumstances, a project may be terminated as a result of a change in priorities. Financial or economic reasons may dictate that resources are no longer available to the project. Or, management may decide to divert resources to higher priority projects. This change can happen when the original importance or value of the project was misjudged or misrepresented or when organizational needs or technology change over the course of a long-term project.

7. Why might an organization terminate a project prematurely? What are the risks?

For example, an organization may need to have a new system operational—with only a core set of original requirements— to respond to a competitor’s actions, to enter a new market early, or as a result of a legal or governmental requirement. Although there is pressure to finish the project early, the risks of this decision should be carefully thought through by all the project stakeholders. These risks include buggy systems, incomplete feature sets, and general quality degradation as a result of incomplete testing and/or development.

8. What is a perpetual project? Why might an organization be reluctant to terminate a project that many would consider unsuccessful?

Projects seem to take on a “life of their own” and are known as runaway, or perpetual, projects. These projects never seem to end. Perpetual projects may result from delays or a scope or MOV that was never clearly defined or agreed upon. Then, the project sponsor (or even the team) may attempt to add on various features or functionality to the system, which results in added time and resources that increase the project schedule and drain the project budget. Some runaway projects result from an organization not making the appropriate decision to “pull the plug” on an unsuccessful project. This phenomenon may

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka also occur when the project has a high payoff to the organization and when admitting to failure is strongly against the corporate culture.

9. Why is the sponsor’s acceptance of the project important to project closure?

The most important requirement for closure under normal circumstances is obtaining the project sponsor’s acceptance of the project. Delivery, installation, and implementation of the information system do not necessarily mean that the project sponsor or client will accept the project’s product. Since acceptance depends heavily on the fulfillment of the project’s scope, the project manager becomes responsible for demonstrating that all project deliverables have been completed according to specifications. Finally, without the sponsor’s acceptance, the project cannot be termed finished and most likely will not be paid for.

10. How can the project manager and project team facilitate the project sponsor’s acceptance of the project?

The project manager and team can improve the likelihood that the project will be accepted if they (1) clearly define the acceptance criteria for the project at the early stages of the project, and (2) document the completion of all project deliverables and milestones. A clear definition of the project deliverables is an important concern for project scope management (discussed in an earlier chapter). Yet, defining and verifying that the project scope and system requirements are accurate and complete is only one component. Having scope change procedures in place that are understood by all the project stakeholders also ensures that everyone has the same expectations concerning what will and what won’t be delivered at the end of the project.

11. What is the purpose of the final project report?

In general, the project manager and team should develop a final report and presentation for the project sponsor and other key stakeholders. The objective of the report and presentation should be to give the project sponsor confidence that the project has been completed as outlined in the business case, project charter, and project plan. By gaining this confidence, the sponsor or client will be more likely to formally accept the project that will allow for a smooth termination of the project. The report may be circulated to key stakeholders before the presentation in order to get feedback and to identify any open or unfinished items that need to be scheduled for completion.

12. Describe some of the steps for administrative closure.

The requirements for administrative closure include: 1. Verifying that all deliverables and open items are complete.

2. Verifying the project sponsor or customer’s formal acceptance of the project.

3. Organizing and archiving all project deliverables and documentation.

4. Planning for the release of all project resources (i.e., project team members, technology, equipment, facilities, etc.).

5. Planning for the evaluations and reviews of the project team members and the project itself.

6. Closing of all project accounts.

7. Planning a celebration to mark the end of a (successful) project.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka

13. What is the purpose of conducting a postmortem review?

A postmortem review should be conducted so that the project manager and team can identify what they did right and what they could have done better. These lessons learned should be documented so that they can be shared with others in the organization.

Moreover, best practices should be identified and become part of the organization’s IT project methodology. The postmortem reviews provide an important view of the internal workings of the project.

14. What is the purpose of a project audit?

To provide a more objective view of the project, an audit or review by an outside party may be beneficial for uncovering problems, issues, or opportunities for improvement.

Similar to the postmortem review, the auditor or audit team should focus on how well the project was managed and executed. This may include the project plans and Project Management Body of Knowledge areas described in the previous section, as well as the underlying project management and systems development processes outlined in the organization’s IT project methodology. In addition, the auditor or audit team should assess whether the project manager and team acted in a professional and ethical manner.

15. What is the purpose of evaluating the project’s MOV? Different project stakeholders and players may have different views as to whether the project was a success, it is important to assess the value that the project provides the organization. In the beginning it was agreed that achieving the project’s MOV was the ultimate gage of success – this fact requires an evaluation to ultimately determine if the efforts and resources committed to the project were efficacious and whether the project was successful or not.

Information Technology Project Management 4e - Marchewka Essay Questions 1. Describe the direct cutover approach to project implementation. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

2 Describe the parallel approach to project implementation. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

3. Describe the phased approach to project implementation. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

4.

Discuss how a project should be closed.

5. What are some of the realities that the text discusses that occur instead of the normal closure with happy sponsors and customers and a successful achievement of the project MOV? 6.

What are the essential elements of the final project report?

7.

What is the purpose of the final meeting and presentation?

8. Conducting individual performance reviews is an important responsibility of the project manager. What are some of the sensitivities that the project manager should exhibit and what benefits can accrue to the team member?

9. Who should ideally conduct the project audit and what are the characteristics of a good audit team member?

10. How should the project be evaluated in the end to determine its success or failure?