Human Resources Management in the Hospitality Industry by David K Hayes and Jack D Ninemeier Test Ba

Human Resources Management in the Hospitality Industry BY David K. Hayes and Jack D. Ninemeier

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Chapter 1 Test Bank 1.

The hospitality industry is often described as a: A. Hotel and Restaurant Business B. People Business C. Revenue Maximizing Business D. Human Resources Business

2.

All of the following are considered part of the hospitality industry EXCEPT: A. Financial services B. Retail Businesses C. Foodservice D. Transportation

3.

Which of the following is an example of a not-for-profit foodservice segment?

A. Grocery Stores B. Service Stations C. Caterers D. Correctional Facilities

4.

An employee’s attitude about their job is most likely to be affected by: A. Their interactions with co-workers and managers B. The business’ profit margins C. The business’ level of technological advancement D. Their benefit package

5.

The idea of intrepreneurship is intended to: A. Help maximize job-sharing B. Focus efforts on internal job recruitment C. Motivate employees by offering profit-sharing plans to staff D. Increase an organization’s number of operating units

6.

Which of the following management responsibilities does NOT have a human resources component?

A. Staffing B. Controlling C. Appraising D. All have a human resources component

7.

Labor shortages may occur when: A. Unemployment rates are stagnate B. Employee turnover rates are high C. Compensation levels are perceived as excessive D. Downsizing activities are undertaken

8.

The Altoona Inn is a medium sized hotel which employees 58 people. In the last year, and for various reasons, 7 employees left the hotel. To compensate, 5 new employees have been hired. What is the employee turnover rate of the Altoona Inn for the year?

A. 7% B. 12% C. 21% D. More information is needed to calculate employee turnover rate

9.

Which of the following is NOT a primary human resources activity: A. Training and Developing B. Protection and Communications C. Product development D. Compensation and Appraisal

10.

The local economy may affect the way a human resources department executes their recruiting practices. This is an example of a(n): A. External Influence B. Internal Influence C. Work Procedure D. Short-Term Plan

11.

Which of the following is an internal influence on human resources departments?

A. Protection and Communication B. Employee Unions C. Demographics D. Corporate Culture

12.

An external issue that could affect a human resources department would be: A. Training B. Employee development activities C. Employee unions D. Corporate culture

13.

Diversity is desirable in hospitality operations because it: A. Yields the full utilization of the diverse talents of every staff member B. Is legally mandated by local and national law C. Eliminates discrimination D. Minimizes downsizing

14.

A staff member’s response to the implementation of a valuing-diversity effort will most likely to depend on: A. What management requires of them B. The extent to which they tolerate perceived risk C. Their ethnic background D. Their age

15.

If a hospitality organization is too small to have a human resources department: A. It is not necessary to address its human resources activities B. Each employee should take responsibility for their own human resources activities C. Only minor HR-related issues will surface D. The general manager or department heads will likely may assume/share these responsibilities

16.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a lodging organization in the hospitality industry?

A. Inns B. Health Care Institutions C. Camp and Park Grounds D. Destination Resorts

17.

Which is an example of a human resource: A. An entry-level staff member B. The payroll C. Government legislation D. An effective training program

18.

When an expenditure is referred to as “value-added” it is said that: A. The price was higher than originally anticipated B. The price was lower than originally anticipated C. The money spent on the product was low relative to the worth of that product D. The price was not attractive relative to the quality of the product

19.

The implementation of a diversity initiative is most likely to benefit: A. Only the members of under-represented groups B. The program facilitators C. All employees and the organization as a whole D. The HR manager

20.

Which of the following is NOT likely to be considered a Human Resources responsibility: A. Management of benefit programs B. Administration of guest room inspections C. Administration of payroll records D. Planning recruitment strategies

Answers to Chapter 1 Test Bank 1.

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B A D A C D B B C A D C A B D B A C C B

Chapter 2 Test Bank 1.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act makes it illegal to ask for an employee’s date of birth unless: A. That person appears to be 65 or older B. That person appears to be 16 or younger C. That person voluntarily offers their date of birth D. The ADEA does not specifically prohibit an employers for asking for an employee’s date of birth

2.

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC): A. Enforces the anti-discrimination provisions of Title VII B. Is responsible for keeping HR managers up-to-date on new, relevant government legislation C. Helped pass the Civil Rights Act of 1964 D D. Is responsible for enforcement of unemployment compensation programs

3.

Which of the following entities is most likely to require that a hospitality operation provide a safe working environment and submit to periodic inspections?

A. A Government agency B. An employee Union C. The Unit Manager D. An Expatriate Manager

4.

When a Human Resources manger makes an error as a result of misinformation about legal requirements, he/she/the Company: A. CAN be held legally liable, but only in a local court B. CAN be held legally liable, so they must be sure to recognize and follow all relevant laws C. CANNOT be held legally liable, since the HR manager is not a lawyer and cannot be expected to have a complete understanding of legislation D. CANNOT be held legally liable unless the GM denies responsibility

5.

Which of the following is NOT considered a “reasonable accommodation” for an employee with a disability?

A. Extra unpaid leave when it does not present a hardship to the business B. Eliminating a primary job responsibility C. Restructuring a job to shift a minor responsibility for a task from a disabled to a nondisabled employee D. Adjusted arrival or departure times

6.

Which of the following is a permissible question that CAN legally be asked on a job application or in a job interview?

A. Have you ever been treated for drug addiction or alcoholism?

B. Are you pregnant?

C. What is your date of birth?

D. Are you taking any prescription drugs?

7.

Governmental rules regarding employee/employers conduct are: A. Subject to change as society evolves B. Rarely or never change C. Are reviewed and subject to change every 15-20 years D. Laws and thus once established not subject to change

8.

Worker’s compensation is a benefit paid to a worker who has: A. Suffered discrimination as defined by Title VII B. Involuntarily lost his/her job without just cause C. Won a case against the EEOC D. Suffered a work-related injury

9.

The National Labor Relations Act of 1935 was responsible for: A. Legitimizing and protecting workers’ rights to join labor unions B. Prohibiting employers from interfering with union formation and discriminating against union members C. Prohibiting child labor D. Ensuring the payment of minimum wages

10.

Which of the following pieces of legislation served to outlaw discrimination in employment in any business on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?

A. The Wagner Act B. The Fair Labor Standards Act C. The Civil Rights Act D. The Clayton Act

11.

All of the following are techniques for effectively implementing affirmative action plans EXCEPT: A. Active recruiting to expand the pool of candidates for job openings.

B. Hiring only under-represented groups regardless of qualifications.

C. Revising selection tools and criteria to ensure their relevance to job performance.

D. Establishing goals and timetables for hiring under-represented groups.

12.

As a result of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, the mandatory retirement age is currently set at: A. 65 B. 72 C. 75 D. There is no mandatory retirement age

13.

Which of the following is NOT a disability that is covered under The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990?

A. AIDS B. Alcoholism C. Kleptomania D. Cancer

14.

The Family and Medical Leave Act allows unpaid leave for: A. An individual whose mother has a serious illness B. An individual whose fiancée has a serious illness C. An individual who has been the victim of domestic violence D. A parent who must attend parent-teacher conferences at their child’s school

15.

The amount of paid vacation time allotted to workers around the world: A. Is always a mandated 2 weeks B. Is never less than 10 days C. Is never more than 3 weeks D. Is not standard and varies widely

16.

Anti-discrimination laws apply to and protect all of the following workers EXCEPT: A. An American citizen employed in an American business located outside the US B. A foreign citizen employed in an American business located outside the US C. An American citizen employed in an American business in the US D. A foreign citizen legally employed by an American business and operating inside the US

17.

A successful Unit Manager in a hospitality operation must be able to effectively: A. Secure needed raw materials B. Produce a product C. Provide quality customer service D. All of the above

18.

The best way to ensure you are continually aware of changes to HR-related government legislation is by: A. Watching for reports on the nightly news B. Listening to co-workers C. Reading hospitality journals and publications D. Waiting for updates from your GM

19.

Which of the following is an example of a good source for information about local level changes in municipal regulations?

A. Local police B. Franchisor updates C. The NRA or AH&LA D. Federal Agencies

20.

An employee might have their wages garnished as a result of: A. Worker’s compensation claims B. Legally owed debt C. The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Disparate treatment

Answers to Chapter 2 Test Bank 1.

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D A A B B C A D B C B D C A D B D C A B

Chapter 3 Test Bank 1.

Which of the following is an example of a procedure?

A. Dress and uniform codes B. Employee selection criteria C. Requiring written documentation in cases of employee termination D. Constructive discharge

2.

In Frederick Herzberg’s “Motivation/ Hygiene Theory,” which of the following is considered a “hygiene factor”?

A. Advancement B. Learning C. Job Security D. Achievement

3.

If a kitchen were in need of an employee with experience preparing salads and cold appetizers, the chef would need to specify the skill set of a: A. Garde-manger B. Charcuterier C. Patissier D. Saucier

4.

Which of the following might an HR manager do to encourage a desired candidate to accept an offer of employment?

A. Provide the candidate with a good deal of job-related information B. Ensure an adequate pool of qualified applicants C. Conduct a salary survey D. Provide enough job information to discourage unqualified job applicants

5. Employee Assistance Programs are designed to: A. Help hospitality operations avoid expensive litigation for violating governmental regulations B. Encourage employees make claims against employers through the EEOC C. Aid employees in the areas of family concerns, legal issues, financial matters and health maintenance D. Eliminate employee turn-over 6.

Training should be provided to staff members who: A. Are new and inexperienced in their job field B. Are new but have experience in their job field C. Have been with the company for some time D. All of the above

7.

Which of the following is generally agreed to have the largest effect on worker motivation?

A. Intrapreneurship B. Workers’ ability and willingness to do a job C. Legal recruiting practices D. Size of the HR department

8.

Staff meetings, bulletin boards, newsletters and suggestion boxes are good ways to encourage: A. Information Exchange B. Diversity Initiatives C. Adherence to attendance policies D. Productivity increases

9.

Which of the following dress code policies has been successfully enforced without being considered discriminatory?

A. Prohibition of beards B. Prohibition of union insignia C. Prohibition of head coverings D. All have been judged to have the potential for discrimination in some cases

10.

Why is the ability to have multiple levels of security in a record keeping system so important?

A. To ensure that information is not lost B. To ensure that sensitive information is protected C. To ensure that hard copies are easily attained D. To ensure a dedicated server

11.

Consider a situation in which information regarding a new policy is provided to employees via email. An employee who does not have an email account, and has never known or been taught how to use email, is found to be in violation of the new policy. Legally speaking: A. The employee would be at fault for not keeping up-to-date with technological advances B. The employee would be at fault until they created and checked an email account C. The employer would be at fault, because email is never an acceptable form of information dissemination D. The employer would be at fault, because it is the employer who is responsible for ensuring and documenting that the employee received the notification

12.

Which of the following is NOT a piece of employee information that the federal government requires employers keep?

A. Social Security Number B. Dates of transfers C. Marital status D. Reasons for demotions

13.

A “Request for Information” can require that a company: A. Consider, but not necessarily submit employee information to the EEOC B. Allow an employee access to the files of another employee C. Submit personnel files and other relevant information to the EEOC D. A company cannot be required to reveal confidential information to anyone

14.

After an organization locates and hires a new, and highly-skilled and experienced employee, that employee will: A. Require no orientation program is needed as long as their experience is sufficient enough B. Need information regarding organizational rules and regulations, but no skill training C. Be able to immediately train less skilled workers D. Need to be made aware of organizational rules and regulations, and will most likely require facility-specific skill training

15.

A well-designed and implemented employee assistance program should help: A. Train and prepare new employees for the job B. Ensure fair hiring practices C. Encourage quality workers to stay with the organization D. Develop effective HR policies and procedures

16.

Which of the following is NOT an effective way to help avoid employee-related lawsuits?

A. Deal with each employee-related situation on a case by case basis B. Purchase pre-written policies and procedures C. Seek legal counsel prior to implementing HR policies and procedures D. Engage in a periodic legal review of the overall policy and procedures manual

17.

In many court cases, employers have been allowed to enforce a variety of job-related policies and procedures only AFTER: A. Paying minimal fines and fees B. Providing evidence of the value to their businesses of the policies C. Having their cases heard by an appellate (appeals) court D. Conclusively showing that their employees were informed about the policies and procedures

18.

Constructive discharge may be claimed if an employee feels that: A. Orientation procedures were insufficient B. Their work conditions were so intolerable that a reasonable person would feel compelled to quit C. The employee assistance program was inadequate D. The employee has been passed over for promotion

19.

What is the most effective way of documenting that all staff members have read and understood the company’s employee handbook?

A. Have the HR manager read the handbook aloud for each new employee B. Have each employee sign a document stating they have read and understood the handbook, then place a copy in the employee’s personal file C. Supply each employee with a new, updated copy of the handbook each year D. Have one copy of the handbook available in the GM’s office so interested employees can consult it

20.

According to Abraham Maslow’s motivation theory of Needs Hierarchy, which of the following constitute a person’s most basic need?

A. Physiological needs B. Esteem C. Actualization D. Love/Belonging

Answers to Chapter 3 Test Bank 1.

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C C A A C D B A D B D C C D C A D B B A

Chapter 4 Test Bank 1.

When hiring entry-level staff, often a candidate’s _________________ can be much more important than their ________________.

A. Prior experience; Work ethic B. Background; Friendliness C. Attitude; Prior experience D. Internal recruiting; External recruiting

2.

A promotion-from-within approach to hiring will require: A. The input of the Union Steward B. Internal Search C. External Search D. Outsourced Search

3.

A potential job-seeker is dissuaded from looking for employment within a hospitality operation because of her perception that work in the field of hospitality offers little opportunity for personal advancement. Efforts by a Human Resources Manager to change that perception and create a more positive view of hospitality jobs in general would mean working against a(n) __________________.

A. Position Constraint B. Industry Constraint C. Economic Constraint D. Organizational Constraint

4.

When hiring an employee, employers are required by law to obtain valid identification documents from: A. Only those employees who have immigrated to the country in the last 5 years B. Only those employees who still have family members living over-seas C. Only those employees who appear to be foreign-born D. All employees

5.

When recruiting new employees, an employer can no longer seek out preferred individuals based upon non job-related factors such as age, gender, or physical attractiveness. This is an example of a(n) ___________________.

A. Legal Constraint B. Economic Constraint C. Industry Constraint D. Position Constraint

6.

A government statistic that measures the percentage of workers who are not employed, but who are seeking work, is known as: A. Recruitment Rate B. Selection Rate C. Unemployment Rate D. Nepotism

7.

When searching for qualified employees, which kind of search is most likely to build employee morale: A. Internal Search B. Outsourced Search C. External Search D. Blind Ads

8.

Favoritism in employment based upon kinship is known as: A. Nepotism B. Negligent hiring C. Constructive hiring D. Pro-bias hiring

9.

If an organization wishes to replace a current employee with a new one, but does not wish to let the current employee know a replacement search is underway, they would most likely: A. Promote from within B. Outsource the search C. Place a blind ad D. Accept an employee referral

10.

An executive search firm specializes in: A. Identifying candidates for management positions B. Eliminating the unemployment rate C. Facilitating employee agreements D. Promoting from within

11.

Which of the following is NOT considered a major selection activity when an employer is selecting an applicant?

A. Outsourced searching B. Pre-employment testing C. References D. Interviews

12.

When conducting an interview with a potential employee, questions related to _________________ are always inappropriate.

A. Age B. Race C. Educational background D. Former employment

13.

In recent years, previous employers have become much less likely to divulge information about a former employee when that information is solicited in the form of a reference, because they fear being: A. Denied an offer letter B. Subjected to pre-employment screening tests C. Accused of negligent retention D. Accused of defamation

14.

If, in the course of employment, it becomes obvious that an employee is unsuitable for a job, yet they are still retained for employment, it could be deemed a case of: A. Defamation B. Negligent employment C. Negligent retention D. Preemptive damage

15.

An employment agreement will generally state: A. The potential employee’s academic credentials B. The specific skill sets required in the available position C. A detailed description of applicable employee benefit programs available D. A specific wage rate per hour worked and at-will employment for both parties

16.

Under Federal law, when an employee submits their Employment Eligibility Verification Form (I-9), it is the employer’s responsibility to do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Retain copies of the identification documents B. Confirm that the identification documents appear valid and real C. Assure that the documents are submitted within 72 hours of the time of hire D. Legally verify the authenticity of the identification documents

17.

A conditional offer letter means that a position will be offered to a prospective employee only after: A. The employee has satisfactorily completed 10-14 days of work B. The employee satisfactorily fulfills some requirements, such as passing a drug test or background check C. An application is submitted D. The employee’s I-9 has been verified as authentic

18.

At-will employment specifies that: A. The employer (only) can terminate the employment contract at any time B. Either party can terminate the employment at any time with no liability C. The employees (only) can terminate the employment contract at any time D. Both parties must, at the same time, willingly agree to terminate the employment contract

19.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of placing a blind ad: A. They are very expensive B. They rely only on executive search firms to generate interest C. They may generate less than desired interest because potential employees do not know who their employer will be D. It attracts a lower quality employee

20.

Which type of recruitment can sometimes lead to inbreeding and lack of new ideas: A. External recruitment B. Unsolicited applications C. Outsourced search D. Internal recruitment

21.

At times, perceptions of the hospitality industry can lead potential job candidates to believe hospitality jobs offer little hope to promotion or low compensation rates. Efforts to correct this inaccurate image should focus on the fact that jobs in the hospitality industry: A. Offer good job stability B. Allow individuals to utilize personal creativity C. Feature a team environment D. All of the above

Answers to Chapter 4 Test Bank 1.

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C B B D A C A A C A A B D C D D B B C D D

Chapter 5 Test Bank 1.

All of the following factors contribute to the initial perceptions and attitudes a new employee has about an organization EXCEPT: A. Information learned during their interview B. Previous experience as a guest in the operation C. Advertising messages D. The location of their workplace

2.

A new employee at an organization begins with very positive perceptions about the job, but their early on-job experiences do not coincide with those initial perceptions. It is likely that this employee will: A. Want to give feedback about the adaptation process B. Become discontented and may eventually quit C. Have a hard time being accepted by peers D. Successfully complete the steps of the adaptation process

3.

In addition to job skill training, orientation allows new employees to: A. Become comfortable with the work environment and to learn where they fit in B. Compare their work loads to those of other employees C. Change the culture of the organization D. Get to know their property’s General Manager

4.

Who should mainly be in charge of planning an orientation program?

A. The new employee’s mentor B. A senior staff member who the new employee will be shadowing C. The organization’s owner D. The Human Resources manager

5.

Which of the following is NOT considered a goal of an orientation program?

A. Provide an overview of the organization B. Detail employee benefits C. Give department-specific job information D. Motivate new staff members

6.

An organization’s mission statement is most likely to be provided to a new employee during: A. The orientation program B. The job interview C. The recruitment process D. The induction program

7.

To avoid legal problems, it is a good idea to provide which of the following to new employees?

A. Information about sexual harassment complaint procedures B. Information about Americans with Disabilities Act concerns C. Information about responsible alcohol service (if applicable) D. All of the above

8.

In what way are adaptation processes and orientation programs related?

A. They are not related. Adaptation has to do with “fitting in” and orientation has to do teaching specific skills B. They are not related, because if employees adapt easily no orientation program is needed C. Adaptation concerns should be addressed during the orientation program D. They are essentially the same process

9.

Which of the following is NOT commonly included in an orientation kit?

A. Employee handbook B. Employee grievance committee membership eligibility requirements C. Federal, state, and local tax-related materials D. Accident prevention guidelines

10.

Which of the following is most likely to be included in an induction program?

A. A department tour B. Details about employee benefits C. An overview of the organization D. Information about compensation policies

11.

Orientation follow-up procedures are designed to do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Clarify remaining questions B. Let new employees evaluate the effectiveness of the orientation program C. Adjust their work schedules D. Determine how the orientation program could be improved

12.

What can an organization do to encourage consistent adherence to policies and regulations as outlined in the employee handbook: A. Eliminate employees the first time they violate a rule B. Agree to “bend the rules” the first time only C. Discard those regulations which are frequently violated D. Inform staff members about the reasons for the policies and procedures.

13.

All of the following statements about the employee handbook are true EXCEPT: A. It should include information about benefits, policies and practices B. It is a contract C. It should be reviewed by an attorney before being circulated D. It must be provided to employees in hard copy form

14.

In a mentoring relationship, ________________ is the phase in which the mentor and the mentoree get to know each other and understand one other’s positions: A. Introduction B. Cultivation C. Redefinition D. Adaptation

15.

Who is most likely to benefit from a mentoring relationship?

A. The mentor B. The mentoree C. The entire organization D. All of the above

16.

Which of the following is NOT commonly considered to be the role of a mentor?

A. Performance appraisal team leader B. Coach C. Role Model D. Advocate

17.

The _______________ is in an excellent position to assist a new employee in developing a career ladder: A. Mentor B. HR Manager C. Mentoree D. General Manger

18.

A(n) _________________ is meant to identify a foundation of acceptable behaviors and promote standards that guide decision-making: A. Code of ethics B. Mentoree C. Induction program D. Employee orientation

19.

Publicity is defined as: A. Advertisements designed and circulated by an organization B. Promotions for which a fee is paid C. Free-of-charge information in the media that attracts attention to an organization D. Word-of-Mouth exchanges about an organization

20.

An organization that is concerned with corporate responsibility is also likely to be concerned about, and therefore more likely to retain, quality employees. This is an example of: A. Diversity initiatives B. Cultural consistency C. Publicity D. Stakeholders

Answers to Chapter 5 Test Bank 1.

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D B A D C A D C B A C D B B D A A A C B

Chapter 6 Test Bank 1.

For a training program to be “cost effective” it must: A. Have an average cost of less than $25 per new-employee B. Provide time and money benefits that outweigh its costs C. Be offered only on an as-needed basis D. Be taught by trainers already on the organization’s staff

2.

In most cases, performance-based training is best delivered: A. As one-on-one training B. In a group-training session C. Via the internet D. Performance-based training is not necessary for most new employees (phrase better)

3.

Which of the following is NOT generally considered a benefit of a good training program?

A. Improved performance B. More satisfied guests C. Improved staff relationships D. Elimination of all employee turnover

4.

In many states, employers can be legally required to provide new employees with training regarding: A. Serving alcohol responsibly B. Food safety and sanitation C. Avoidance of sexual harassment D. All of the above

5.

The “warm body” syndrome refers to: A Back-of-House hiring techniques B A hiring technique to be avoided C Back-of-House hiring techniques D A and C

6.

Professional development programs consist of training and information for: A. New, inexperienced employees B. New employees with some prior experience C. Those individuals who are currently employed D. Owners and managers

7.

When we hear that “managers will, in one way or another, pay for training,” it means that: A. Training is mandated by state and local governments B. If no money is dedicated to training programs, wasted time and money will occur because of errors and re-work C. A company will pay for a training program even if they don’t use it D. Payment for training programs can be delayed until they are implemented

8.

When an excellent employee is chosen to serve as a trainer for other employees, he/she: A. Must first be trained to train B. Should be given freedom to employ the training method of their choice C. Must be given additional compensation D. Should be a long-term employee

9.

All of the following are characteristics of a good training program EXCEPT: A. Personalized B. Conducted in the work place C. Paced for the employee D. Intermittently implemented

10.

Which of the following is the most effective method for training new staff members?

A. Reading information in a book or manual B. Talking through a task C. Observation followed by hands-on practice D. Watching someone else perform a task

11.

All of the following are examples of effective communication techniques EXCEPT: A. Utilizing industry jargon B. Recognizing the importance of body language C. Speaking to communicate rather than impress D. Using clear, understandable language

12.

When is it appropriate to add training responsibilities to the regular job responsibilities of an employee?

A. When the trainer is provided sufficient additional financial compensation B. When the trainer verbally agrees to it C. When the employee chosen to train is highly experienced D. When the employee is allowed to have special time set aside to engage in training activities

13.

The principal problem with traditional “tag along” training programs is that they: A. Are high cost B. Are time consuming C. Lack an organized and well-thought-out approach to determining training content and delivery D. Cannot be implemented quickly

14.

Which of the following is NOT an effective way to identify training needs?

A. Input from guests B. Wait for staff to inquire about their training needs C. Inspections D. Management observation of employee work performance

15.

A process that identifies each task that is part of a position and explains how it should be done; with a focus on knowledge and skills is known as a: A. Training plan B. Performance standard C. Position analysis D. Task breakdown

16.

Which is an example of an open-ended question that could be used to develop a task list?

A. “Can you please describe what you do in a normal work shift?”

B. “Do you feel overwhelmed by the number of tasks involved in your position?”

C. “Do you stay busy at all times?”

D. “What do you like most about your job?”

17.

The importance of a task breakdown is that it: A. Includes a list of all tasks that comprise a position B. Measures the quality indicators that tell when a staff member is working correctly C. Indicates how each task identified in the task list should be performed D. Determines appropriate pay levels

18.

Which of the following is a performance standard which is MEASURABLE? A. The Front Desk Agent should be able to check in guests as quickly as possible B. Trainees will realize the importance of effective guest service C. Trainees will understand the need to use a first-in first-out (FIFO) inventory rotation system D. Trainees will demonstrate a six-step method to manage guest complaints

19.

Which is NOT a benefit of on-line training?

A. Guaranteed successful completion B. Can be accessed from home, work, or elsewhere C. Programs are self-paced D. Trainees can skip information they already know

20.

Which is the most effective means of motivating trainees for a training program?

A. Allow new employees to decide if/when they would like to participate B. Explain why the training is needed and what employees should expect C. Pay extra for training time D. Only require training of the most inexperienced hires

Answers to Chapter 6 Test Bank 1.

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B A D D B C C A D C A D C B C A C D A B

Chapter 7 Test Bank 1.

Which of the following is an advantage of on-job training?

A. It eliminates the need for a training handbook B. Experienced employees already know the skills necessary to train C. It provides immediate feedback D. Because the employee is “on the clock” there is no additional training expense

2.

What is the FIRST step in the individual on-job training method?

A. Trainee practice and demonstration B. Coaching C. Trainee presentation D. Trainee preparation

3.

As a part of training preparation, it is necessary to: A. State training objectives B. Provide an orientation kit C. Demonstrate only one task or step at a time D. Allow trainee practice time

4.

The “sandwich method” refers to the way in which: A. Identifying the tasks in a kitchen must be broken down B. Good trainers appraise their trainees C. Employee compensation is determined D. More experienced employees teach lesser experienced employees

5.

During which step of the training process is it most appropriate to correct substandard performance?

A. Trainee practice and demonstration B. Coaching C. Trainee presentation D. Trainee preparation

6.

In the role of coach, a trainer should be sure to: A. Step in to assist when performance is substandard B. Check the trainee’s performance frequently but unobtrusively C. Ensure the trainee has sufficient time to learn D. Develop a training schedule

7.

Job enrichment occurs when a trainee: A. Learns tasks in another position B. Completes the training process C. Graduates a training program and assumes trainer responsibilities D. Learns tasks traditionally performed at a higher organizational level

8.

An employee may be temporarily assigned to different tasks for the purpose of providing work variety and experience as a part of __________________.

A. Job enrichment B. Job rotation C. Job enlargement D. Training

9.

An employer most often will choose to cross-train an employee if: A. That employee is having a hard time completing the training process B. The employer wants to promote the employee C. That employee is experiencing under-employment D. The employee is highly paid

10.

When using the demonstration method of group training, which of the following is LEAST likely to be utilized extensively?

A. Discussion B. Role plays C. Lecture D. Case study analysis

11.

How could a trainer encourage trainees to meet one another and generate excitement about the training?

A. Utilize multi-media presentation, such as videos and Power Points B. Use a modified classroom style setup C. Encourage brainstorming D. Engage in an ice breaker

12.

According to the American Society for Training and Development, __________________ is the method that the majority of organizations consider to be the best training choice: A. Classroom training B. On-job training C. Shadowing D. Mentoring

13.

Which of the following trainer activities will NOT contribute to effective training?

A. Asking clear and direct questions B. Keeping the discussion focused C. Inviting participants to make comments D. Ensuring moments of silence are always filled

14.

Repeating and restating a question is a good way to attempt to engage ____________ trainees: A. Passive B. Dominant C. Disruptive D. Verbose

15.

Which of the following activities allows trainees to practice what they have learned in a risk-free situation?

A. Classroom training B. Ice breakers C. Role plays D. Case study analysis

16.

A ________________________ can help assess the extent to which training achieved planned results: A. Training consultant B. Training evaluation program C. Break-out group D. Mystery shopper

17.

If a training evaluation method is said to be “valid,” it means that it: A. Consistently provides the same results B. Measures what it is supposed to measure C. Provides measurable training assessments D. Is easily applied

18.

When obtaining evaluation information from trainees regarding the training program, it is important that the information be ___________: A. Obtained before the training B. Provided as a list of likes and dislikes C. Confidential and anonymous D. Provided in written form

19.

After training is complete, _____________________ is/are a good way to observe and evaluate whether knowledge and skills taught during training are being applied: A. Objective testing B. Subjective testing C. Training self-assessment forms D. Managing by walking around

20.

All of the following are examples of the third-party opinion method of training evaluation EXCEPT: A. Managing by walking around B. Mystery shoppers C. Comment cards D. Follow-up interviews with guests

Answers to Chapter 7 Test Bank 1.

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C D A B A B D B C C D A D A C B B C D A

Chapter 8 Test Bank 1.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a compensation package?

A. Wages B. Benefits C. Promotions D. Meals

2.

When compensation levels are determined it is most important that ___________ view the levels as “fair”: A. Employees B. Employers C. HR Managers D. Compensation levels should be seen as fair by all parties

3.

Which of the following is an extrinsic reward?

A. Voluntary Benefits B. Empowerment C. Job Freedom D. Job Security

4.

Which of the following is an intrinsic reward?

A. Profit Sharing B. Personal Growth C. Tips D. Meal Discounts

5.

When developing a compensation system, which step might include conducting a salary survey?

A. Management of internal pay equity B. Categorizing of jobs C. Comparison of employee pay to the local labor market D. Linkage of pay to job performance

6.

The prevailing pay range for distinct job categories in a specific community or labor market is known as: A. Local wage rate B. Merit pay system C. Living wage D. Tip pool

7.

Minimum wage legislation can be initiated and passed by _________________: A. The Federal Government B. State Governments C. Local Governments D. All of the above

8.

The first living-wage law was passed in ________________ in 1994.

A. New York, New York B. Baltimore, Maryland C. Portland, Oregon D. Los Angeles, California

9.

Which of the following is NOT a form of direct financial compensation?

A. Salaries B. Bonuses C. Payment for training D. Tips

10.

If an employee is termed as being “exempt” this means that he/she: A. Is not subject to the minimum wage or overtime provisions of the FLSA B. Is not required to submit to a background check C. Is not entitled to paid time-off D. Is not eligible for employment benefits

11.

When money is paid or received for completing a certain amount of work it is known as a: A. Salary B. Piece work wage C. Tip D. Total quality management payment system

12.

According to the current guidelines of the FLSA, tips received by employees may be counted as wages for up to ______ of the minimum wage: A. 0% B. 15% C. 50% D. 75%

13.

If the minimum wage at a hospitality operation is $7.00 per hour and the allowable tip credit is 50%, the overtime rate to be paid would be: A. $3.50 B. $7.00 C. $7.75 D. $10.50

14.

The cost of employee benefits typically accounts for _________ of the total amount an operation spends on employee compensation.

A. 5-10% B. 10-15% C. 20-40% D. 80-90%

15.

Which of the following is an example of a mandatory employee benefit?

A. Social Security B. Paid vacation (up to two weeks) C. Prescription Drug Plan D. Dental Plan

16.

All of the following are forms of voluntary employee benefits EXCEPT: A. Paid Time Off B. AD&D Insurance C. 401-K Plan D. All are voluntary employee benefits

17.

Employee assistance plans provide employees with: A. More extensive health care choices B. Counseling for a variety of life issues C. Low-cost housing loans D. Advances on payroll

18.

Which of the following is an example of a hospitality specific employment benefit?

A. Discounted hotel room rates for employees B. Social Security C. 401-K D. Vision Care Plan

19.

Regulations about how frequently employee wages must be paid are most often mandated by: A. The FLSA B. Federal government C. State governments D. None of the above

20.

Intrinsic rewards are essential because they achieve which of the following?

A. Make an employee’s work more meaningful B. Show appreciation of employees C. Create a more cohesive work environment D. All of the above

Answers to Chapter 8 Test Bank 1.

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C D A B C A D B C A B C B C A D B A C D

Chapter 9 Test Bank 1.

______________________________ is a systematic process by which managers help employees to improve their ability to achieve goals.

A. Performance management B. Performance appraisal C. A critical incident D. The halo effect

2.

An effective employee appraisal system should do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Emphasize employee’s negative characteristics B. Identify and correct employee weakness C. Reinforce employee strengths D. Plan work and set expectations

3.

Who should set performance goals?

A. Supervisors B. Investors C. Entry-level employees D. Supervisors and employees

4.

Methods used to address disciplinary problems should: A. Allow employees to choose appropriate actions when possible B. Be detailed and committed to writing C. Contain simplified content information D. Consider and employee’s length of employment before being applied

5.

Which of the following is an example of an internal customer?

A. A customer at a fast food restaurant’s drive-thru window B. A patron of a local coffee shop C. A long-term stay customer at a hotel D. A motel’s night auditor

6.

Which aspect of an employee appraisal system is most likely to increase employee morale and reduce turnover: A. Validating the screening process B. Recognition of outstanding performance C. Identifying the need for job redesign D. Determining professional development activities

7.

Which of the following is NOT a role of HR personnel in the performance appraisal process?

A. To coordinate process planning and implementation B. To advocate for effective appraisal C. To plan work schedules D. To determine legal requirements

8.

Which appraisal system is an example of an absolute standard appraisal method?

A. Critical Incident B. Group Order Ranking C. Management by Objectives D. Individual Order

9.

Which of the following could be considered a critical incident?

A. “Mary is friendly with her managers each morning” B. “Mary was patient with a guest who needed extra assistance” C. “Mary is always on time” D. “Mary put in her time-off request in keeping with company policy”

10.

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales are a form of: A. Targeted Outcome Appraisal B. Individual Order Appraisal C. Checklist Appraisal D. Needs Hierarchy

11. Management by objectives is an example of a(n): A. Absolute standard appraisal method B. Relative standard appraisal method C. Targeted outcomes appraisal method D. 360-degree appraisal method 12.

In an upward assessment, a worker is assessed by his/her: A. Direct supervisor B. General manager only C. Subordinates D. Trainees

13.

If a performance appraisal method delivers consistent and dependable measurements, it is said to be: A. Valid B. Fair C. Absolute Standard D. Reliable

14.

The tendency to let the negative assessment of one individual trait influence the evaluation of other, non-related traits is known as: A. The halo effect B. The pitchfork effect C. Libel effect D. Slander effect

15.

Which step comes first in a progressive disciplinary system?

A. Written warning B. Suspension C. Documented oral warning D. Dismissal

16.

A(n) _______________________________ is an effective tool in helping to reduce the loss of good employees: A. Exit interview B. Written warning C. Targeted outcome D. Upward assessment

17.

At-will employment can be voided by each of the following EXCEPT: A. Breach of good faith B. Contractual relationship C. Implied contractual relationship D. The issuance of an employee manual

18.

The under representation of workers in specific protected classes in highly desired jobs may be an indication that: A. A 360-degree appraisal method should be employed B. An informal discrimination system is in place C. The performance appraisal system is use is reliable D. The performance appraisal system in use is invalid

19.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a protected class as defined by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act? A. Sex B. Age C. Religion D. Sexual Orientation

20.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits organizations from treating workers aged _________ differently from other workers based solely upon their ages: A. 25 and older B. 30 – 60 C. 40 and older D. 65 and older

Answers to Chapter 9 Test Bank 1.

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A A D B D B C A B A C C D B C A D B D C

Chapter 10 Test Bank 1.

The first legislation designed to address work place safety is known as: A. The Occupational Safety and Health Act B. Civil Rights Act C. Title VII D. The Taft Hartley Act

2.

Which of the following is the main objective of OSHA legislation?

A. To provide health care for all citizens B. To provide health care for all workers C. To prevent work-related injuries, illnesses and deaths D. To provide health care for all workers’ dependents

3.

Since the enforcement of OSHA legislation, occupational deaths have: A. Increased by 5% B. Stayed approximately the same C. Decreased by 5% D. Decreased by approximately 60%

4.

Human resources managers are most likely to interact with OSHA in the areas of: A. Benefit package design B. Enforcement and record keeping C. Pay equity D. Promotion criteria

5.

“Right to know” laws and regulations address concerns related to: A. Negligent hiring B. Personnel files C. Potentially hazardous chemicals D. Viewing the contents of an employee’s personal file

6.

Who is most responsible for recording all work-related injuries and illnesses?

A. OSHA compliance officers B. Human resources managers C. Employees affected by the injury/illness D. General managers

7.

A lock out/tag out standard regulates training and procedures as related to: A. Hazardous chemicals B. Fire prevention C. Mechanical irritants D. Unexpected machine movements

8.

According to OSHA, a written emergency action and prevention plan is required in: A. Work facilities with 100+ employees B. Work facilities with 50+ employees C. Work facilities with 10+ employees D. All work facilities

9.

Which of the following is NOT considered a form of harassment by the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

A. Bullying B. Stalking C. Psychological harassment D. All are considered forms of harassment

10.

Which of the following is most likely to be considered sexual harassment?

A. Unwelcome gestures of a sexual nature B. Unauthorized following of an individual C. Humiliating behavior that lowers self-esteem D. Psychological harassing behavior

11.

Why is it important to maintain a healthy work environment?

A. To maintain high levels of worker productivity B. To be in compliance with OSHA regulations C. To reduce employee turn-over rates D. All of the above

12.

What has been the resultant effect on revenue levels of hospitality businesses that have gone 100% smoke-free?

A. Revenue levels have stayed the same or increased B. Revenue levels have decreased C. There has been no positive affect D. No hospitality businesses have gone 100% smoke-free to date

13.

Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of: A. High stress levels B. Repetitive movement injuries C. Air quality problems D. Carbon monoxide leaks

14.

A ____________________________ is an employer-sponsored program designed to promote the good health of employees: A. Employee assistance programs B. Employee benefit program C. Employee wellness programs D. Employee compensation program

15.

Which of the following programs is designed as a preventative measure to deal with employee health issues?

A. Employee assistance programs B. Employee benefit program C. Employee wellness programs D. Employee compensation program

16.

Quid pro quo harassment refers to: A. Any form of psychological harassment B. Unacceptable intrusion of privacy C. Forcing an employee to submit to sexual demands or suffer negative consequences D. Harassment based upon an employee’s race

17.

________________________________ is the way in which a court determines if a workplace setting should be deemed as a “hostile environment”: A. Zero-tolerance B. Reasonable person standard C. Quid pro quo D. Employee assistance program

18.

When a sexual harassment lawsuit is filed, which of the following individuals could NOT be found liable?

A. The employee perpetrating the harassment B. The human resources manager C. The general manager D. All can be held liable

19.

Which of the following is an example of an implicit threat?

A. “I’d watch my back if I were you!”

B. “If I see you in my work area again, I’ll throw you out!”

C. Throwing objects D. Hitting or shoving

20.

Which of the following can be the site of work-place violence?

A. A client’s office B. A professional trade show C. A company’s holiday party D. All can be the site of work-place violence

Answers to Chapter 10 Test Bank 1.

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A C D B C B D C D A D A B C C C B D A D

Chapter 11 Test Bank 1.

All of the following are external factors that can influence the need for hospitality organizations to implement changes EXCEPT: A. Legislation B. Global Issues C. Corporate Culture D. Economy

2.

“W” brand hotels are specifically designed to attract younger, highly affluent business travelers. This is an example of: A. Niche marketing B. Data market mining C. SWOT marketing D. A rolling marketing plan

3.

Which of the following is an example of a demographic issue that can affect a hospitality organization’s need to implement change?

A. Terrorism concerns B. Corporate social responsibility C. Income levels in the organization’s target market area D. Interest rates

4.

A specific action step used to help attain a short term goal is known as a: A. Strategy B. Tactic C. Niche D. Objective

5.

Which type of manager is most likely to be involved in broad and long-term concerns related to organizational changes?

A. Human resources manager B. Mid-level manager C. Upper-level manager in a large organization D. Company stockholder

6.

Which type of manager is most likely to be involved in specific concerns related to organizational change, such as rearranging work tasks and planning the delivery of new services: A. Human resources manager B. Mid-level manager C. Manager in a large organization D. Company stockholder

7.

What is the first step in strategic planning?

A. Scan the environment B. Analyze the situation C. Identify interim objectives D. Consider the organization’s mission

8.

Which of the following is most helpful to planners attempting to determine the long-term goals of a strategic planning process?

A. Data mining results B. Results of the SWOT analysis C. The interim objective D. Total quality management

9.

Benchmarking and data-gathering procedures are activities most likely to be done in which phase of the strategic planning process: A. When identifying interim objectives B. When communicating the plan C. When scanning the environment D. When determining long-term goals

10.

A plan in which the final year in the planning cycle is moved ahead one year as plans for each year are implemented is known as a: A. Interim plan B. Long-term plan C. Rolling plan D. Business plan

11.

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the top ten issues confronting the lodging hospitality industry in 2007 according to the ISHC? A. Keeping up with technology B. Declining ADRs C. Growth of new markets D. Availability of capital

12.

A hospitality organization’s new staff members bring fresh ideas to the work place. This is an example of: A. Gradual change B. Dynamic change C. Intermediate change D. Empowerment

13.

Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic change?

A. Implementation of a new business model B. Reorganization C. Business expansion D. Lodging industry competition

14.

When an employee is delegated the authority needed to make decisions that would otherwise be made by managers, it is known as: A. Strategic planning B. Executive committee C. Cost benefit analysis D. Empowerment

15.

The role of the human resources manager is greatest in: A. Gradual change B. Intermediate change C. Dynamic change D. An organization’s start-up

16.

_________________________ requires more input from staff at lower organizational levels: A. Gradual change B. Intermediate change C. Dynamic change D. Hierarchal change

17.

Human resources managers must utilize which of the following skills when helping their organizations confront and benefit from change?

A. Business skills B. Political skills C. People skills D. All of the above

18. Which of the following is an example of intermediate change?

A. Reorganization B. High-quality decision making C. Food trends D. Faster data collection 19.

The management system that focuses on what guests want and need, and then discovers approaches to deliver them in a cost-effective manner is known as: A. Data mining B. Cost benefit analysis C. Total quality management D. SWOT analysis

20.

As part of the strategic planning process, a human resources manager who was busy “scanning the environment” would most likely be involved in which of the following activities: A. Actively participating in community organizations and events B. Disseminating information about the mission statement to staff C. Benchmarking existing work methods D. Developing data-mining systems

Answers to Chapter 11 Test Bank 1.

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C A C B A B D B A C B A D D C A D B C A

Chapter 12 Test Bank 1.

Historically, what has been the essential purpose of labor legislation?

A. To maintain a balance of power between labor and management B. To mandate wage increases C. To increase the bargaining power of workers D. To mandate benefits increases

2.

Which legislation prompted the growth of employee unions in the United States?

A. Civil Rights Act B. Occupational Safety and Health Act C. Wagner Act D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

3.

The Taft-Hartley Act mandated that unions could no longer: A. Strike B. Organize more than 100 union employees at a time C. Exclude minorities D. Force workers to join the union

4.

All of the following are responsibilities of a union official EXCEPT: A. Negotiating labor contracts B. Determining operating hours C. Filing grievances D. Calling for work actions

5.

For a new union to be recognized, 30% of applicable employees must: A. Sign an authorization card B. Earn under $15,000 per year C. Be of a protected class D. Be prepared to strike

6.

If an employer refuses to voluntarily recognize its employees’ union, a petition will be sent to: A. An OSHA compliance officer B. The property manager C. The National Labor Relations Board D. The union steward

7.

The process of negotiating and administering written agreements between union and management officials is known as: A. Quid pro quo B. Collective bargaining C. Attrition D. Arbitration

8.

Which of the following union security arrangements stipulates that union membership is voluntary and those who do not join are not required to pay dues?

A. Agency shop B. Right-to-work C. Open shop D. Dues check-off

9.

A union attempts to bargain for increased compensation packages at a time when the organization cannot afford it. This is an example of: A. Integrative collective bargaining B. Cost of living adjustment C. Good faith bargaining D. Distributive collective bargaining

10.

Which of the following is an example of a collective bargaining permissible item?

A. Wages B. Union veto power over hours of operation C. Working hours D. Benefits packages

11.

When negotiations reach a standstill and compromise cannot be reached, which of the following actions can occur: A. Strike B. Picketing C. Work slowdown D. All of the above can occur

12.

When a compromise cannot be reached, the union and management may seek advice from a third party to assist in reaching an agreement. This is known as: A. Mediation B. Voluntary arbitration C. Compulsory arbitration D. Request for proposal

13.

Which of the following is a right that management should never negotiate away?

A. Terms and conditions for employee performance reviews B. Minimum hiring qualifications C. Seniority rights D. The right to strike

14.

All of the following are considered unfair labor practices EXCEPT: A. Discouraging employee unionization attempts B. Modifying job description tasks C. Forcing employees to join a union D. All are unfair labor practices

15.

Which generation is considered to be the first “workaholics”?

A. Traditionalists B. Baby Boomers C. Generation X D. Generation Y

16.

Which of the following is NOT a potential alternative to downsizing?

A. Cross-training B. Succession planning C. Attrition D. Outplacement assistance

17.

What is the number of FTEs in an organization that employs 8 part-time employees who each work 10 hours a week; when it is the case that the typical full-time employee in the organization works a 40 hour week?

A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 4

18.

The transfer of jobs from an organization in one country to an organization in another country is known as: A. Strategic planning B. Outsourcing C. Offshoring D. Mediation

19.

A hospitality organization considering outsourcing services should be sure to consider the implications of the: A. Union steward B. Right-to-work law C. Union security arrangement D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

20.

A career development program is likely to do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Reduce absenteeism and turnover B. Increase productivity levels C. Eliminate turnover D. Help address future labor needs

Answers to Chapter 12 Test Bank 1.

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A C D B A C B C D B D A A B B D A C D C

Chapter 13 Test Bank 1.

U.S. hotel companies initially began international expansion in which countries?

A. China and Japan B. Germany and France C. Canada and Mexico D. England and Ireland

2.

McDonald’s Corporation operates restaurants in more than ______ countries: A. 20 B. 100 C. 1,000 D. 500

3.

A company with operations throughout the world and that features highly decentralized decision-making is known as a: A. Subsidiary B. Joint venture C. Multinational organization D. Transnational organization

4.

A foreign company, operated by a domestic hospitality organization and with majority ownership held by another company is known as a: A. Subsidiary B. Joint venture C. Multinational organization D. Transnational organization

5.

Culture is considered to be a collective programming of all of the following EXCEPT: A. Beliefs B. Values C. Behaviors D. Instincts

6.

The “Nordic” country cluster would likely include which of the following?

A. Turkey B. Sweden C. Colombia D. Singapore

7.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five major dimensions of culture according to Geert Hofstede: A. Individualism B. Risk avoidance C. Religion D. Rigid gender roles

8.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a culture or organization that places a high value on power distance?

A. Shared decision making B. Top-down communication C. All staff part of same pay system D. Decentralized control

9.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a culture or organization that places a low value on individualism?

A. Group-based performance is a major reward factor B. Feedback provided to individual employees C. Belief in individual control and responsibility D. Formal systems of control ensure compliance with policies

10.

According to the text, in which of the following countries are you likely to find a culture which places a high value on risk avoidance: A. Denmark B. Sweden C. Italy D. Hong Kong

11.

Which of the following is an established “universal truth” regarding hospitality management: A. Pay for performance is best B. Formal objectives should drive management actions C. Human resources can be managed D. A guest-service focus is required for long-term success

12.

The economic condition that exists when prices charged for products and services increase throughout a country is known as: A. Exchange rate B. Inflation C. Culture shock D. Rising interest rates

13.

Which of the following skills is considered MOST important for an international hospitality manager?

A. Cultural sensitivity B. Technical skills C. Functional skills D. Stress management

14.

Which of the following is NOT a good reason to select a global assignment?

A. An interest in living in another country B. An interest in understanding the perspectives of persons from other cultures C. Because the assignment appears exciting and glamorous D. Interested in long-term organizational advancement

15.

Advantages of using expatriate managers include all of the following except: A. Lower compensation can be offered B. Closer operating control is possible C. The manager’s culture is similar to that of the hospitality organization D. Provides organization’s employees with international perspectives

16.

A mobile expert team who travels to foreign sites on a short-term basis is known as a/an: A. SWOT team B. Virtual alternative team C. SWAT team D. Empowered team

17.

Learning about a culture and how it impacts behavior is part of the definition of: A. Cognitive dissonance B. Cultural intelligence C. An expatriate manager D. Stereotyping

18.

Concerns that can arise when an expatriate returns from a global assignment include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Reverse culture shock B. The employee’s next assignment C. Little or no recognition for global assignment D. Shortage of educational assistance funds

19.

Which of the following is NOT a problem commonly encountered by hospitality human resources managers accepting foreign assignments?

A. United Nations mandated wage and hour laws B. Compliance with local child labor laws C. Working conditions D. Ensuring gender inequity

20.

Details about how business is conducted in foreign countries will likely surface in: A. Simple greetings (hello/ good-by) B. The giving of personal gifts C. The total length and number of needed business meetings D. Both A and B

Answers to Chapter 13 Test Bank 1.

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C B D A D B C B A C D B A C A C B D A D